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Consider the following statements regarding the wind pressure belts. The Equatorial low pressure belt is a zone of wind convergence often termed as Doldrums. The sub-tropical high pressure belt is a region of descending air currents. The temperate low pressure belts are zone of convergence with the cyclonic activities. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
nan
|
d
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the wind pressure belts. The Equatorial low pressure belt is a zone of wind convergence often termed as Doldrums. The sub-tropical high pressure belt is a region of descending air currents. The temperate low pressure belts are zone of convergence with the cyclonic activities. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 3##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding White label ATMs:
1. These ATMs can be set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities.
2. Net worth of more than Rs. 500 crore is the prerequisite for the applicant i.e. non-bank entity.
3. First white label ATM was opened in Thane District, Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
Net worth of more than Rs. 100 crore is the prerequisite for the applicant , non bank entity and has to be maintained on a continuous basis.
Rest two statements are correct.
|
b
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding White label ATMs:
1. These ATMs can be set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities.
2. Net worth of more than Rs. 500 crore is the prerequisite for the applicant i.e. non-bank entity.
3. First white label ATM was opened in Thane District, Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 1 and 3
##Option_C: 2 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Net worth of more than Rs. 100 crore is the prerequisite for the applicant , non bank entity and has to be maintained on a continuous basis.
Rest two statements are correct.
##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Arrange these countries according to their FDI inflow in India-
1. Mauritius
2. Singapore
3. Japan
4. UK
Codes:
|
1, 2, 4, 3
|
1, 3, 4, 5
|
1, 3, 2, 4
|
1, 2, 4, 3
|
Country-wise distribution of FDI inflows
Top 10 Investing Countries: Top 10 investing countries during December 2012 were: Mauritius (38 per cent), Singapore (10 per cent),U.K (9 per cent), Japan (7 per cent), U.S.A (6 per cent),Netherlands (5 per cent), Cyprus (4 per cent), Germany (3 per cent), France (2 per cent), U.A.E (1 per cent).
|
a
|
Economic Reforms since 1991: End of license Raj, Liberalization, Privatisation and Globalisation, FDI, FII, issues, challenges etc.
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange these countries according to their FDI inflow in India-
1. Mauritius
2. Singapore
3. Japan
4. UK
Codes:##Option_A:1, 2, 4, 3 ###Option_B:1, 3, 4, 5##Option_C:1, 3, 2, 4 ##Option_D:1, 2, 4, 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:Country-wise distribution of FDI inflows
Top 10 Investing Countries: Top 10 investing countries during December 2012 were: Mauritius (38 per cent), Singapore (10 per cent),U.K (9 per cent), Japan (7 per cent), U.S.A (6 per cent),Netherlands (5 per cent), Cyprus (4 per cent), Germany (3 per cent), France (2 per cent), U.A.E (1 per cent).##Topic:Economic Reforms since 1991: End of license Raj, Liberalization, Privatisation and Globalisation, FDI, FII, issues, challenges etc.##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign Direct Investment 2. Foreign Institutional Investment 3. External Commercial Borrowings
Which of the above are the ways to counter the Current Account Deficit?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign Direct Investment 2. Foreign Institutional Investment 3. External Commercial Borrowings
Which of the above are the ways to counter the Current Account Deficit?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:1 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements in the context of Indian National Army (INA): The first INA was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1942. Bose set up a provisional Indian Government with headquarters at Port Blair in 1943, recognized by many Axis Powers. The aim of the army was to secure Indian independence with Japanese assistance. Initially composed of Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan in the Malayan campaign and at Singapore. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
INA was founded by Mohan Singh in 1942. Subhas Chandra Bose reorganised it. Subhash Bose was assisted by Rashbehari Bose and others. The Provisional Government was recognized by axis power.
|
a
|
Subhas Bose and Indian National Army
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in the context of Indian National Army (INA): The first INA was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1942. Bose set up a provisional Indian Government with headquarters at Port Blair in 1943, recognized by many Axis Powers. The aim of the army was to secure Indian independence with Japanese assistance. Initially composed of Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan in the Malayan campaign and at Singapore. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:INA was founded by Mohan Singh in 1942. Subhas Chandra Bose reorganised it. Subhash Bose was assisted by Rashbehari Bose and others. The Provisional Government was recognized by axis power.##Topic:Subhas Bose and Indian National Army##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding drainage pattern: Rivers flowing from amarkantak is an example of radial drainage system. Trellis drainage pattern is not found in India. Northern part of aravali have inland drainage. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Rivers originating from a common source and flowing in all the directions, the pattern thus formed is radial drainage system. Amarkantak range is the source of Narmada, Son and Mahanadi. Inland drainage system is found in the thar desert and northern aravali ranges of India. Trellis drainage system is a river pattern in which sub-tributaries of tributaries join them at right angle. Old mountain ranges of chhota nagpur plateau have this drainage system.
|
c
|
Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding drainage pattern: Rivers flowing from amarkantak is an example of radial drainage system. Trellis drainage pattern is not found in India. Northern part of aravali have inland drainage. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Rivers originating from a common source and flowing in all the directions, the pattern thus formed is radial drainage system. Amarkantak range is the source of Narmada, Son and Mahanadi. Inland drainage system is found in the thar desert and northern aravali ranges of India. Trellis drainage system is a river pattern in which sub-tributaries of tributaries join them at right angle. Old mountain ranges of chhota nagpur plateau have this drainage system. ##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Competition Commission of India: 1. It promotes economic efficiency. 2. Only the central government may make a reference for an inquiry. 3. It is a quasi-judicial regulatory body. 4. Any person can provide information relating to anti-competitive agreements. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1. It promotes economic efficiency. 2. The central government or a state govt. or any authority established under any law may make a reference for an inquiry. 3. It is a quasi-judicial regulatory body. 4. Any person can provide information relating to anti-competitve agreements.
|
d
|
Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Competition Commission of India: 1. It promotes economic efficiency. 2. Only the central government may make a reference for an inquiry. 3. It is a quasi-judicial regulatory body. 4. Any person can provide information relating to anti-competitive agreements. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1. It promotes economic efficiency. 2. The central government or a state govt. or any authority established under any law may make a reference for an inquiry. 3. It is a quasi-judicial regulatory body. 4. Any person can provide information relating to anti-competitve agreements.##Topic:Industrial Policies, Licensing, MSME, Labour Reforms, Companies Act, Make in India, Skill India, Challenges in Industrial development, Organised and unorganised sector, PPP, Investment models, Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding ancient Indian inscriptions: The earliest inscriptions were written in Sanskrit Language in the third century B.C. Prakrit was adopted as an epigraphic medium in the second century A.D. Inscription began to be compared in the regional languages in the ninth and tenth centuries. Most inscriptions bearing on the history of Maurya,Post Maurya and Gupta times have been published in a series of collections called "Corpus Inscriptions Indicarum". Which of the above statement is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Option 1 - it is Prakrit instead of Sanskrit. Option 2 - It is Sanskrit instead of Prakrit. Sanskrit was adopted as an epigraphic medium in the second century A.D. and its use became widespread in the fourth and fifth centuries.
|
c
|
Languag and Literature
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding ancient Indian inscriptions: The earliest inscriptions were written in Sanskrit Language in the third century B.C. Prakrit was adopted as an epigraphic medium in the second century A.D. Inscription began to be compared in the regional languages in the ninth and tenth centuries. Most inscriptions bearing on the history of Maurya,Post Maurya and Gupta times have been published in a series of collections called "Corpus Inscriptions Indicarum". Which of the above statement is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Option 1 - it is Prakrit instead of Sanskrit. Option 2 - It is Sanskrit instead of Prakrit. Sanskrit was adopted as an epigraphic medium in the second century A.D. and its use became widespread in the fourth and fifth centuries.##Topic:Languag and Literature##Subject:Geology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about proposed Real Estate (Regulation & Development) Bill-2011?
1. It makes the mandatory disclosures of floor area etc on the website of the regulatory authority that will be set up in each State.
2. The Bill has also defined what comprises open spaces and but is silent on the definition of a common area space.
3. The defaulters can be punished with a jail term.
4. It proposes that 70 per cent of the money collected for a specific project will have to be maintained in a separate account.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Builders will be required to make voluntary disclosures on the website of the regulatory authority that will be set up in each State, once the Bill is passed. Deviations from the disclosures will not be allowed, for instance the floor area or the time for completion of the project that will be disclosed on the regulator’s website will have to be adhered to.
The Bill has also defined what comprises open spaces and what makes for a common area space. There are ambiguities in what makes for a carpet area of an apartment, and the Bill has tried to remove those. The builders will be required to give an outer limit of the completion date, if on account of extraneous reasons they need more time, they will have to seek extra time from the regulator.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about proposed Real Estate (Regulation & Development) Bill-2011?
1. It makes the mandatory disclosures of floor area etc on the website of the regulatory authority that will be set up in each State.
2. The Bill has also defined what comprises open spaces and but is silent on the definition of a common area space.
3. The defaulters can be punished with a jail term.
4. It proposes that 70 per cent of the money collected for a specific project will have to be maintained in a separate account.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Builders will be required to make voluntary disclosures on the website of the regulatory authority that will be set up in each State, once the Bill is passed. Deviations from the disclosures will not be allowed, for instance the floor area or the time for completion of the project that will be disclosed on the regulator’s website will have to be adhered to.
The Bill has also defined what comprises open spaces and what makes for a common area space. There are ambiguities in what makes for a carpet area of an apartment, and the Bill has tried to remove those. The builders will be required to give an outer limit of the completion date, if on account of extraneous reasons they need more time, they will have to seek extra time from the regulator.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Match the following plateaus with their characteristic features: A. Malwa Plateau B. Bundelkhand Plateau C. Chotanagpur Plateau D. Mysore Plateau 1. Damodar river creates a rift valley in its middle portion and this plateau is highly rich in mineral resources. 2. It"s a lava plateau and at present, is a peneplain of blacksoil. 3. The Baba Budan hills are the part of this plateau and it is rich in iron ore. 4. This region is famous for its "badland topography" because of the "ravines" formed by a prominent river. A B C D
|
1 3 4 2
|
4 3 2 1
|
1 2 4 3
|
1 3 4 2
|
nan
|
d
|
Plateau and Islands of India.
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match the following plateaus with their characteristic features: A. Malwa Plateau B. Bundelkhand Plateau C. Chotanagpur Plateau D. Mysore Plateau 1. Damodar river creates a rift valley in its middle portion and this plateau is highly rich in mineral resources. 2. It"s a lava plateau and at present, is a peneplain of blacksoil. 3. The Baba Budan hills are the part of this plateau and it is rich in iron ore. 4. This region is famous for its "badland topography" because of the "ravines" formed by a prominent river. A B C D ##Option_A: 1 3 4 2###Option_B: 4 3 2 1##Option_C: 1 2 4 3##Option_D: 1 3 4 2##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Plateau and Islands of India.##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to non-banking financial institutions(NBFCs), which of the following statements is/are correct? NBFC can accept demand deposits. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on itself. The deposits with NBFCs are insured. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
NBFC cannot accept demand deposits. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on itself. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system.
|
c
|
Banking Reforms
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to non-banking financial institutions(NBFCs), which of the following statements is/are correct? NBFC can accept demand deposits. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on itself. The deposits with NBFCs are insured. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:NBFC cannot accept demand deposits. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on itself. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system.##Topic:Banking Reforms##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about El Nino:
Its effect is seen most clearly during the winter season in North America.
Its effect is seen as drought not just in parts of Latin America but in southeastern Africa, South Asia, and Indonesia also.
It usually brings a warm winter to the northern USA from the Pacific Northwest across to the Midwest and sometimes the Northeast.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about El Nino:
Its effect is seen most clearly during the winter season in North America.
Its effect is seen as drought not just in parts of Latin America but in southeastern Africa, South Asia, and Indonesia also.
It usually brings a warm winter to the northern USA from the Pacific Northwest across to the Midwest and sometimes the Northeast.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The advance pricing agreement (APA) leads to better assurance on transfer-pricing methods.
2. The advance pricing agreement (APA) is an agreement in advance among different subsidiaries of a company.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In order to
bring about greater certainty and to reduce litigation
in matters related to transfer pricing and international
taxation, the advance pricing agreement (APA)
scheme has been notified. APA is an agreement in
advance between a taxpayer and the revenue
department on an appropriate transfer-pricing
methodology for a set of transactions over a fixed
period of time in the future. APAs therefore offer
better assurance on transfer-pricing methods and
are conducive for providing certainty and unanimity
of approach.
|
a
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The advance pricing agreement (APA) leads to better assurance on transfer-pricing methods.
2. The advance pricing agreement (APA) is an agreement in advance among different subsidiaries of a company.
##Option_A:1 only
###Option_B:2 only
##Option_C:Both 1 and 2
##Option_D:1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
In order to
bring about greater certainty and to reduce litigation
in matters related to transfer pricing and international
taxation, the advance pricing agreement (APA)
scheme has been notified. APA is an agreement in
advance between a taxpayer and the revenue
department on an appropriate transfer-pricing
methodology for a set of transactions over a fixed
period of time in the future. APAs therefore offer
better assurance on transfer-pricing methods and
are conducive for providing certainty and unanimity
of approach.
##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are true? The effective rate of taxation is the ratio of tax revenue collected to the tax base. Recoveries of loans are part of the non-debt capital receipts. The disinvestment is part of the non-debt capital receipts. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
d
|
Budget 2015-16
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true? The effective rate of taxation is the ratio of tax revenue collected to the tax base. Recoveries of loans are part of the non-debt capital receipts. The disinvestment is part of the non-debt capital receipts. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:##Topic:Budget 2015-16##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
|
In which of the following matters, the control over the judges of subordinate courts is exercised by the High courts? The High court, along with the State Public service commission is consulted, by the governor in the matter of appointing, posting and promoting district judges. The High court is to be consulted by the governor in appointing persons to the judicial service other than the District judge. The control over district courts and courts subordinate including posting, promotion, transfers, disciplinary control of persons belonging to the judicial service and holding any post inferior to the post of a district judge is vested in High court. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
|
only 1
|
Only 3
|
1 and 2
|
only 1
|
The control over the Judges of these Subordinate Courts is exercised by the High Courts in the following matters: The High Court is to be consulted by the Governor in the matter of appointing, posting and promoting District Judges (Art. 233). The High Court is consulted, along with the State Public Service Commission, by the Governor in appointing persons (other than District Judges) to the judicial service in the State (Art. 234). The control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting and promotion of, and the grant of leave to, transfers of, disciplinary control over including inquiries, suspension and punishment, and compulsory retirement of, persons belonging to the judicial service and holding any post inferior to the post of a district judge is vested in High Court (Art. 235). Control over the subordinate courts is the collective and individual responsibility of the High Court.
|
c
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following matters, the control over the judges of subordinate courts is exercised by the High courts? The High court, along with the State Public service commission is consulted, by the governor in the matter of appointing, posting and promoting district judges. The High court is to be consulted by the governor in appointing persons to the judicial service other than the District judge. The control over district courts and courts subordinate including posting, promotion, transfers, disciplinary control of persons belonging to the judicial service and holding any post inferior to the post of a district judge is vested in High court. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: only 1 ###Option_B: Only 3##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D: only 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:The control over the Judges of these Subordinate Courts is exercised by the High Courts in the following matters: The High Court is to be consulted by the Governor in the matter of appointing, posting and promoting District Judges (Art. 233). The High Court is consulted, along with the State Public Service Commission, by the Governor in appointing persons (other than District Judges) to the judicial service in the State (Art. 234). The control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting and promotion of, and the grant of leave to, transfers of, disciplinary control over including inquiries, suspension and punishment, and compulsory retirement of, persons belonging to the judicial service and holding any post inferior to the post of a district judge is vested in High Court (Art. 235). Control over the subordinate courts is the collective and individual responsibility of the High Court.##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about this :- The earth"s surface receives energy in short wavelengths more than that in long wavelengths. The energy emitted by the sun is known as insolation. The energy received by the earth is maximum when the earth is at perihelion. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
SOLAR RADIATION
The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation.
As the earth is a geoid resembling a sphere, the sun’s rays fall obliquely at the top of the atmosphere and the earth intercepts a very small portion of the sun’s energy. On an average the earth receives 1.94 calories per sq. cm per minute at the top of its atmosphere.
The solar output received at the top of the atmosphere varies slightly in a year due to the variations in the distance between the earth and the sun. During its revolution around the sun, the earth is farthest from the sun (152 million km on 4th July). This position of the earth is called aphelion. On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This position is called perihelion. Therefore, the annual insolation received by the earth on 3 rd January is slightly more than the amount received on 4th July. However, the effect of this variation in the solar output is masked by other factors like the distribution of land and sea and the atmospheric circulation. Hence, this variation in the solar output does not have great effect on daily weather changes on the surface of the earth.
|
c
|
GS_Geography_unclassified
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about this :- The earth"s surface receives energy in short wavelengths more than that in long wavelengths. The energy emitted by the sun is known as insolation. The energy received by the earth is maximum when the earth is at perihelion. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:SOLAR RADIATION
The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation.
As the earth is a geoid resembling a sphere, the sun’s rays fall obliquely at the top of the atmosphere and the earth intercepts a very small portion of the sun’s energy. On an average the earth receives 1.94 calories per sq. cm per minute at the top of its atmosphere.
The solar output received at the top of the atmosphere varies slightly in a year due to the variations in the distance between the earth and the sun. During its revolution around the sun, the earth is farthest from the sun (152 million km on 4th July). This position of the earth is called aphelion. On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This position is called perihelion. Therefore, the annual insolation received by the earth on 3 rd January is slightly more than the amount received on 4th July. However, the effect of this variation in the solar output is masked by other factors like the distribution of land and sea and the atmospheric circulation. Hence, this variation in the solar output does not have great effect on daily weather changes on the surface of the earth.
##Topic:GS_Geography_unclassified##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
It was in 1967, McKenzie and Parker and also Morgan, independently came out with theory of Plate Tectonics. Which of the following statements is/are true about this? In Divergent Boundaries, the new crust is generated. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid-oceanic ridges. The mobile rock beneath the rigid plates is believed to be moving in a circular manner. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Divergent Boundaries Where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other. The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites. The best-known example of divergent boundaries is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. At this, the American Plate(s) is/are separated from the Eurasian and African Plates. Convergent Boundaries Where the crust is destroyed as one plate dived under another. The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone. There are three ways in which convergence can occur. These are: (i) between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and (iii) between two continental plates. Transform Boundaries Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic ridges. As the eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a differential movement of a portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth. Also, the rotation of the earth has its effect on the separated blocks of the plate portions. Force for the Plate Movement At the time that Wegener proposed his theory of continental drift, most scientists believed that the earth was a solid, motionless body. However, concepts of sea floor spreading and the unified theory of plate tectonics have emphasised that both the surface of the earth and the interior are not static and motionless but are dynamic. The fact that the plates move is now a well-accepted fact. The mobile rock beneath the rigid plates is believed to be moving in a circular manner. The heated material rises to the surface, spreads and begins to cool, and then sinks back into deeper depths. This cycle is repeated over and over to generate what scientists call a convection cell or convective flow. Heat within the earth comes from two main sources: radioactive decay and residual heat.
|
d
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:It was in 1967, McKenzie and Parker and also Morgan, independently came out with theory of Plate Tectonics. Which of the following statements is/are true about this? In Divergent Boundaries, the new crust is generated. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid-oceanic ridges. The mobile rock beneath the rigid plates is believed to be moving in a circular manner. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Divergent Boundaries Where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other. The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites. The best-known example of divergent boundaries is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. At this, the American Plate(s) is/are separated from the Eurasian and African Plates. Convergent Boundaries Where the crust is destroyed as one plate dived under another. The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone. There are three ways in which convergence can occur. These are: (i) between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and (iii) between two continental plates. Transform Boundaries Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic ridges. As the eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a differential movement of a portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth. Also, the rotation of the earth has its effect on the separated blocks of the plate portions. Force for the Plate Movement At the time that Wegener proposed his theory of continental drift, most scientists believed that the earth was a solid, motionless body. However, concepts of sea floor spreading and the unified theory of plate tectonics have emphasised that both the surface of the earth and the interior are not static and motionless but are dynamic. The fact that the plates move is now a well-accepted fact. The mobile rock beneath the rigid plates is believed to be moving in a circular manner. The heated material rises to the surface, spreads and begins to cool, and then sinks back into deeper depths. This cycle is repeated over and over to generate what scientists call a convection cell or convective flow. Heat within the earth comes from two main sources: radioactive decay and residual heat.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Harry Hess proposed the hypothesis of "sea floor spreading". Which of the following statements is/are correct? The constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it. The ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads. The younger age of the oceanic crust as well as the fact that the spreading of one ocean does not cause the shrinking of the other, made Hess think about the consumption of the oceanic crust. He further maintained that the ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed.
|
c
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Harry Hess proposed the hypothesis of "sea floor spreading". Which of the following statements is/are correct? The constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it. The ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads. The younger age of the oceanic crust as well as the fact that the spreading of one ocean does not cause the shrinking of the other, made Hess think about the consumption of the oceanic crust. He further maintained that the ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
The ocean floor may be segmented into three major divisions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief. These divisions are continental margins, deep-sea basins and mid-ocean ridges. Which of the following statements is/are true about this:
Continental Margins include continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches.
Abyssal Plains form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins.
Abyssal Plains is characterised by a central rift system at the crest which is the zone of intense volcanic activity.
Mid-Oceanic Ridges is characterised by a fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Continental Margins These form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins. They include a continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise, and deep-oceanic trenches. Of these, the deep-sea trenches are the areas that are of considerable interest in so far as the distribution of oceans and continents is concerned. Abyssal Plains These are extensive plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. The abyssal plains are the areas where the continental sediments that move beyond the margins get deposited. Mid-Oceanic Ridges This forms an interconnected chain of mountain systems within the ocean. It is the longest mountain chain on the surface of the earth submerged under oceanic waters. It is characterized by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau, and flank zone all along its length. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity. In the previous chapter, you have been introduced to this type of volcano as a midoceanic volcano. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The ocean floor may be segmented into three major divisions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief. These divisions are continental margins, deep-sea basins and mid-ocean ridges. Which of the following statements is/are true about this:
Continental Margins include continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches.
Abyssal Plains form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins.
Abyssal Plains is characterised by a central rift system at the crest which is the zone of intense volcanic activity.
Mid-Oceanic Ridges is characterised by a fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A:
1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B:
2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C:
1 and 4 only
##Option_D:
1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:Continental Margins These form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins. They include a continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise, and deep-oceanic trenches. Of these, the deep-sea trenches are the areas that are of considerable interest in so far as the distribution of oceans and continents is concerned. Abyssal Plains These are extensive plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. The abyssal plains are the areas where the continental sediments that move beyond the margins get deposited. Mid-Oceanic Ridges This forms an interconnected chain of mountain systems within the ocean. It is the longest mountain chain on the surface of the earth submerged under oceanic waters. It is characterized by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau, and flank zone all along its length. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity. In the previous chapter, you have been introduced to this type of volcano as a midoceanic volcano. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Arthur Holmes in 1930s proposed Convectional Current Theory. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing charge differences in the mantle portion.
2. There exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion.
3. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force which supported the continental drift theory.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Convectional Current Theory Arthur Holmes in 1930s discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. Holmes argued that there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory.
|
b
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arthur Holmes in 1930s proposed Convectional Current Theory. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing charge differences in the mantle portion.
2. There exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion.
3. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force which supported the continental drift theory.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Convectional Current Theory Arthur Holmes in 1930s discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. Holmes argued that there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory.
##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Alfred Wegener-a German meteorologist - put forth a comprehensive argument in the form of 'the continental drift theory' in 1912.Which of the following statements is/are true about this: The metamorphic rocks from India is known to have its counter parts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by tidal force. Wegener believed that the forces responsible for the drifting would become effective because these applied over many million years. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift Tillite : It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counter parts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counter parts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents. Force for Drifting Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by pole-fleeing force and tidal force. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. You are aware of the fact that the earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. The second force that was suggested by Wegener-the tidal force-is due to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years. However, most of scholars considered these forces to be totally inadequate.
|
b
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Alfred Wegener-a German meteorologist - put forth a comprehensive argument in the form of 'the continental drift theory' in 1912.Which of the following statements is/are true about this: The metamorphic rocks from India is known to have its counter parts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by tidal force. Wegener believed that the forces responsible for the drifting would become effective because these applied over many million years. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift Tillite : It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counter parts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counter parts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents. Force for Drifting Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by pole-fleeing force and tidal force. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. You are aware of the fact that the earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. The second force that was suggested by Wegener-the tidal force-is due to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years. However, most of scholars considered these forces to be totally inadequate.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
Edwin Hubble, in the 1920s, discovered that the universe is expanding."
The distance between the galaxies is increasing.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920s, provided evidence that the universe is expanding(red shift). As time passes, galaxies move further and further apart.
Similarly, the distance between the galaxies is also found to be increasing and thereby, the universe is considered to be expanding.
Scientists believe that though the space between the galaxies is increasing, observations do not support the expansion of galaxies.
|
c
|
The Universe
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. Which of the following statements is/are true about this?
Edwin Hubble, in the 1920s, discovered that the universe is expanding."
The distance between the galaxies is increasing.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920s, provided evidence that the universe is expanding(red shift). As time passes, galaxies move further and further apart.
Similarly, the distance between the galaxies is also found to be increasing and thereby, the universe is considered to be expanding.
Scientists believe that though the space between the galaxies is increasing, observations do not support the expansion of galaxies.
##Topic:The Universe##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the kingdom of Rohillakhand:
1. Kingdom of Rohilkhand was set up by Ali Mohommad Khan in order to honor the memory of Farrukh Siyar.
2. Kingdom of Rohilkhand supported Abdali in the 3rd Battle of Panipat
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 & 2 are correct
|
Only 1
|
Kingdom of Farrukhabad was set up by Bangash Pathans in order to honor the memory of Farrukh Siyar. It was set up in the western UP covering the present areas of Bareilly.
|
b
|
No_topic
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the kingdom of Rohillakhand:
1. Kingdom of Rohilkhand was set up by Ali Mohommad Khan in order to honor the memory of Farrukh Siyar.
2. Kingdom of Rohilkhand supported Abdali in the 3rd Battle of Panipat
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both 1 & 2 are correct##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:Kingdom of Farrukhabad was set up by Bangash Pathans in order to honor the memory of Farrukh Siyar. It was set up in the western UP covering the present areas of Bareilly.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
THis is a testing question added By IT lab
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
THis is a testing question added By IT lab
|
b
|
Location: Latitude, Longitude
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:THis is a testing question added By IT lab##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:THis is a testing question added By IT lab##Topic:Location: Latitude, Longitude##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following can not trigger coral bleaching? increased water temperatures reduced water temperatures elevated sea levels due to global warming increased solar irradiance Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
2, 4 only
|
2, 3, 4 only
|
2 only
|
Coral bleaching: Coral bleaching results when the symbiotic zooxanthellae (single-celled algae) are released from the original host coral organism due to stress. Bleaching occurs when the conditions necessary to sustain the coral's zooxanthellae cannot be maintained. Coral bleaching is a generalized stress response of corals and can be caused by a number of biotic and abiotic factors, including: increased (most commonly), or reduced water temperatures starvation caused by a decline in zooplankton levels as a result of overfishing. increased solar irradiance (photosynthetically active radiation and ultraviolet band light) changes in water chemistry (in particular acidification) increased sedimentation (due to silt runoff) bacterial infections changes in salinity herbicides low tide and exposure cyanide fishing elevated sea levels due to global warming
|
d
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can not trigger coral bleaching? increased water temperatures reduced water temperatures elevated sea levels due to global warming increased solar irradiance Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 2, 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3, 4 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Coral bleaching: Coral bleaching results when the symbiotic zooxanthellae (single-celled algae) are released from the original host coral organism due to stress. Bleaching occurs when the conditions necessary to sustain the coral's zooxanthellae cannot be maintained. Coral bleaching is a generalized stress response of corals and can be caused by a number of biotic and abiotic factors, including: increased (most commonly), or reduced water temperatures starvation caused by a decline in zooplankton levels as a result of overfishing. increased solar irradiance (photosynthetically active radiation and ultraviolet band light) changes in water chemistry (in particular acidification) increased sedimentation (due to silt runoff) bacterial infections changes in salinity herbicides low tide and exposure cyanide fishing elevated sea levels due to global warming##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
West flowing rivers of peninsular India do not form deltas but form only estuaries. Which of the following reasons can be attributed to this phenomenon? 1. Passage through hard rocks. 2. Non-perennial flow of water. 3. Absence of meanders. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The west flowing rivers of India do not form delta because they passes through hard rocks. This means that these are devoid of sediments which are essential for formation of delta. Absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water are characteristics of Peninsular rivers, including the east flowing rivers which form deltas. Therefore, statement 2 and 3 are not correct.
|
a
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:West flowing rivers of peninsular India do not form deltas but form only estuaries. Which of the following reasons can be attributed to this phenomenon? 1. Passage through hard rocks. 2. Non-perennial flow of water. 3. Absence of meanders. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The west flowing rivers of India do not form delta because they passes through hard rocks. This means that these are devoid of sediments which are essential for formation of delta. Absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water are characteristics of Peninsular rivers, including the east flowing rivers which form deltas. Therefore, statement 2 and 3 are not correct. ##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following hills comes under the Peninsular plateau region?
1.Rajmahal hills
2.Garo
3.Khasi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1only
|
Peninsular plateau is the largest and the oldest peninsular region of India
It consists of :
Cental Plateau
Eastern Plateau
Kathiawar and Kutch Plateau
Deccan Plateau
North Eastern Plateau
Rajmahal Hills are part of Chota Nagpur Plateau (statement 1 correct)
North Eastern Plateau is extension of Peninsular Plateau, it consist of Shillong plateau on
which lies the Garo , Khasi and Jaitia Hills (statement 2 and 3 correct)
|
d
|
Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following hills comes under the Peninsular plateau region?
1.Rajmahal hills
2.Garo
3.Khasi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A: 1only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Peninsular plateau is the largest and the oldest peninsular region of India
It consists of :
Cental Plateau
Eastern Plateau
Kathiawar and Kutch Plateau
Deccan Plateau
North Eastern Plateau
Rajmahal Hills are part of Chota Nagpur Plateau (statement 1 correct)
North Eastern Plateau is extension of Peninsular Plateau, it consist of Shillong plateau on
which lies the Garo , Khasi and Jaitia Hills (statement 2 and 3 correct)
##Topic:Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following physical features can be observed in Deccan plateau?
1.Lava Sheets
2.Flat Hills
3.Steep Hills
4.Shallow Valleys
5.Broad Valleys
6.Ridges
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1,2 and 5 only
|
2,4 and 5 only
|
1,3,4 and 6 only
|
1,2 and 5 only
|
· A Plateau is defined as an elevated flat table top.
· Deccan plateau is the largest plateau of India.
Features of Lava sheets, Flat hills , Steep hills, Ridges, Shallow valleys and broad valleys can be observed in Maharashtra plateau which a part of Deccan plateau .(Hence, all statements are correct )
|
d
|
Plateau and Islands of India.
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following physical features can be observed in Deccan plateau?
1.Lava Sheets
2.Flat Hills
3.Steep Hills
4.Shallow Valleys
5.Broad Valleys
6.Ridges
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A:1,2 and 5 only
###Option_B:2,4 and 5 only
##Option_C:1,3,4 and 6 only
##Option_D:1,2 and 5 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
· A Plateau is defined as an elevated flat table top.
· Deccan plateau is the largest plateau of India.
Features of Lava sheets, Flat hills , Steep hills, Ridges, Shallow valleys and broad valleys can be observed in Maharashtra plateau which a part of Deccan plateau .(Hence, all statements are correct )
##Topic:Plateau and Islands of India.##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Coral bleaching: Coral bleaching is a phenomenon when the symbiotic relationship between algae (zooxanthellae) and their host corals break down. When a coral bleaches, it becomes dead. Bleaching event causes corals to expose their white underlaying calcium carbonate coral skeleton and become pale in colour. Which of the above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. This is called coral bleaching. When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals can survive a bleaching event, but they are under more stress and are subject to mortality .
|
c
|
Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Coral bleaching: Coral bleaching is a phenomenon when the symbiotic relationship between algae (zooxanthellae) and their host corals break down. When a coral bleaches, it becomes dead. Bleaching event causes corals to expose their white underlaying calcium carbonate coral skeleton and become pale in colour. Which of the above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. This is called coral bleaching. When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals can survive a bleaching event, but they are under more stress and are subject to mortality .
##Topic:Oceans of the world Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
निम्नलिखित मे से कौन से कारक चक्रवात को प्रभावित करते है?
|
तापमान
|
कोरयोलिस बल
|
निम्न वायु दाब पट्टी
|
तापमान
|
,
|
d
|
Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:निम्नलिखित मे से कौन से कारक चक्रवात को प्रभावित करते है?##Option_A:तापमान###Option_B:कोरयोलिस बल##Option_C:निम्न वायु दाब पट्टी##Option_D:तापमान##Answer:d##Explaination:,##Topic:Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements in the context of the development of languages during sultanate and Mughal period. Arabic and Persian were introduced in India by the Turks and the Mongols. Urdu as a language was born out of the interaction between Arabic and Persian. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
|
1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2 only
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1 only
|
Urdu emerged as an independent language towards the end of the 4 th century AD. Arabic and Persian were introduced in India with the coming of the Turks and the Mongols. Persian remained the court language for many centuries. Urdu as a language was born out of the interaction between Hindi and Persian.
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a
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Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms
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Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in the context of the development of languages during sultanate and Mughal period. Arabic and Persian were introduced in India by the Turks and the Mongols. Urdu as a language was born out of the interaction between Arabic and Persian. Which of the above statement is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Urdu emerged as an independent language towards the end of the 4 th century AD. Arabic and Persian were introduced in India with the coming of the Turks and the Mongols. Persian remained the court language for many centuries. Urdu as a language was born out of the interaction between Hindi and Persian.##Topic:Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
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As per the Constitution of India, which of the following are directly enforceable in a court of law? Preamble to the Constitution of India. Directive Principles of State Policy. Fundamental Duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 only
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2 and 3 only
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2 only
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1 only
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None of the above are directly enforceable.
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d
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Directive Principles
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the Constitution of India, which of the following are directly enforceable in a court of law? Preamble to the Constitution of India. Directive Principles of State Policy. Fundamental Duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:None of the above are directly enforceable.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
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Consider the following statements: No part of the Constitution of Indian can be changed by ordinary legislation. All parts of the Constitution except basic features can be amended by an Amendment Act passed under Art. 368. Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by even an Amendment Act under Art. 368. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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2 only
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1 and 2 only
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Certain provisions like article 4 can be amended by ordinary legislation and fundamental rights can also be amended subject to the basic structure.
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c
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Amendment of Constitution
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: No part of the Constitution of Indian can be changed by ordinary legislation. All parts of the Constitution except basic features can be amended by an Amendment Act passed under Art. 368. Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by even an Amendment Act under Art. 368. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Certain provisions like article 4 can be amended by ordinary legislation and fundamental rights can also be amended subject to the basic structure.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
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The phrase "to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women" is included in which of the following parts of the Constitution of India?
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Fundamental Duties
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Directive Principles of State Policy
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Preamble
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Fundamental Duties
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Fundamental duty number 5.
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a
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Fundamental Duties
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The phrase "to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women" is included in which of the following parts of the Constitution of India?##Option_A: Fundamental Duties###Option_B: Directive Principles of State Policy##Option_C: Preamble##Option_D: Fundamental Duties##Answer:a##Explaination:Fundamental duty number 5.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
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Which among the following was/were NOT recommendations of state reorganization commission (SRC) constituted in 1950s? State should be form only on linguistic bases Formation of separate Telangana state Formation of separate Vidarbha state Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Only 1
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Only 1 and 3
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Only 2 and 3
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Only 1
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The States Reorganisation Commission ( SRC ) was a body constituted by centre in 1953 to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries. In 1955, after nearly 2 years of study, the Commission recommended that that India's state boundaries should be reorganized to form 16 states and 3 union territories. It came out with four factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of reorganization of states: Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country Linguistic and cultural homogeneity Financial, economic and administrative considerations Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the nation as a whole In context of Telangana, SRC says "After taking all these factors into consideration we have come to the conclusions that it will be in the interests of Andhra as well as Telangana, if for the present, the Telangana area is to constitute into a separate State, which may be known as the Hyderabad State with provision for its unification with Andhra after the general elections likely to be held in or about 1961 if by a two thirds majority the legislature of the residency Hyderabad State expresses itself in favor of such unification" The SRC recommended formation of separate Vidarbha state by splitting majority Marathi speaking areas from Madhya Pradesh state. However, the Indian government did not accept the recommendation.
|
a
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The Union and its Territory
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following was/were NOT recommendations of state reorganization commission (SRC) constituted in 1950s? State should be form only on linguistic bases Formation of separate Telangana state Formation of separate Vidarbha state Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 1 and 3##Option_C: Only 2 and 3##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:The States Reorganisation Commission ( SRC ) was a body constituted by centre in 1953 to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries. In 1955, after nearly 2 years of study, the Commission recommended that that India's state boundaries should be reorganized to form 16 states and 3 union territories. It came out with four factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of reorganization of states: Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country Linguistic and cultural homogeneity Financial, economic and administrative considerations Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the nation as a whole In context of Telangana, SRC says "After taking all these factors into consideration we have come to the conclusions that it will be in the interests of Andhra as well as Telangana, if for the present, the Telangana area is to constitute into a separate State, which may be known as the Hyderabad State with provision for its unification with Andhra after the general elections likely to be held in or about 1961 if by a two thirds majority the legislature of the residency Hyderabad State expresses itself in favor of such unification" The SRC recommended formation of separate Vidarbha state by splitting majority Marathi speaking areas from Madhya Pradesh state. However, the Indian government did not accept the recommendation.##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
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Which of the following fundamental rights is/are NOT available to all persons (including foreigners)? Protection of life and personal liberty. State is prohibited of discriminating on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Freedom of speech. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Only 1
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Only 2, 3 and 4
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Only 2 and 3
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Only 1
|
Fundamental rights under article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are available ONLY to citizens of India. Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.-(1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Article 19 - Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.-(1) All citizens shall have the right-(a) to (g) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.-(1) There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.-No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
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b
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Fundamental Rights
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following fundamental rights is/are NOT available to all persons (including foreigners)? Protection of life and personal liberty. State is prohibited of discriminating on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Freedom of speech. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2, 3 and 4##Option_C: Only 2 and 3##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:Fundamental rights under article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are available ONLY to citizens of India. Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.-(1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Article 19 - Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.-(1) All citizens shall have the right-(a) to (g) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.-(1) There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.-No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
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Which of the following is/are the directive principles of state policy? To organize animal husbandry on scientific lines. To secure a minimum wage. Opportunities for healthy development of children. To raise the level of nutrition and to improve public health. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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1 , 2 , 3 and 4
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2, 3 and 4
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1, 3 and 4
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1 , 2 , 3 and 4
|
Article 43 : To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life. There is a difference between minimum wage and living wage. The Living wage also includes education, health, insurance etc. apart from food, shelter and clothing
|
c
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Directive Principles
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the directive principles of state policy? To organize animal husbandry on scientific lines. To secure a minimum wage. Opportunities for healthy development of children. To raise the level of nutrition and to improve public health. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 , 2 , 3 and 4###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4##Option_D: 1 , 2 , 3 and 4##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 43 : To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life. There is a difference between minimum wage and living wage. The Living wage also includes education, health, insurance etc. apart from food, shelter and clothing##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
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Which of the following statements relating to OCI is/are correct? 1. OCI does not require a separate visa to visit India 2. OCI has to register with the local police after 180 days of stay in India. 3. OCI may be granted Indian citizenship after 5 years from the date of registration provided he/she stays in India for one year before applying. 4. PIOs of all countries except Pakistan and Afghanistan are eligible for the OCI scheme Choose the correct option:
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1, 2 and 4
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1, 3 and 4
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3 only
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1, 2 and 4
|
1. Multiple entry Visa is provided to them
2. OCIs dont need to register themselves
4. PIOs of all countries except Pakistan and Bangladesh
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c
|
Citizenship
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements relating to OCI is/are correct? 1. OCI does not require a separate visa to visit India 2. OCI has to register with the local police after 180 days of stay in India. 3. OCI may be granted Indian citizenship after 5 years from the date of registration provided he/she stays in India for one year before applying. 4. PIOs of all countries except Pakistan and Afghanistan are eligible for the OCI scheme Choose the correct option:##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 ###Option_B:1, 3 and 4##Option_C:3 only ##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 ##Answer:c##Explaination:1. Multiple entry Visa is provided to them
2. OCIs dont need to register themselves
4. PIOs of all countries except Pakistan and Bangladesh##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
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Which of the following articles are exceptions to article 14?
1. art 361
2. art 31-C
3. art 105
4. art 194
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All
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1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
All
|
nan
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following articles are exceptions to article 14?
1. art 361
2. art 31-C
3. art 105
4. art 194##Option_A:All ###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3 only ##Option_D:All ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
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Consider the following statements with regard to Trade winds: 1. These winds blow persistently from horse latitudes towards doldrums. 2. These are off shore winds that result in creation of deserts on western margins of continents in tropical latitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
|
Trade wind is the persistent wind that blows westward and toward the Equator from the subtropical high-pressure belts (horse latitudes) toward the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) or doldrums. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Its average speed is about 5 to 6 metres per second (11 to 13 miles per hour) but can increase to speeds of 13 metres per second (30 miles per hour) or more. The trade winds were named by the crews of sailing ships that depended on the winds during westward ocean crossings. Since, they blow from the cooler sub-tropical latitudes to the warmer tropics, they have great capacity for holding moisture. In their passage across the open oceans, they gather more moisture and bring rainfall to the east coast of continents. As they are off-shore on the west coast, these regions suffer from great aridity and form the Trade Wind Hot Deserts of the world, e.g. the Sahara, Kalahari, Atacama, and the Great Australian Deserts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
c
|
Winds Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Trade winds: 1. These winds blow persistently from horse latitudes towards doldrums. 2. These are off shore winds that result in creation of deserts on western margins of continents in tropical latitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Trade wind is the persistent wind that blows westward and toward the Equator from the subtropical high-pressure belts (horse latitudes) toward the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) or doldrums. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Its average speed is about 5 to 6 metres per second (11 to 13 miles per hour) but can increase to speeds of 13 metres per second (30 miles per hour) or more. The trade winds were named by the crews of sailing ships that depended on the winds during westward ocean crossings. Since, they blow from the cooler sub-tropical latitudes to the warmer tropics, they have great capacity for holding moisture. In their passage across the open oceans, they gather more moisture and bring rainfall to the east coast of continents. As they are off-shore on the west coast, these regions suffer from great aridity and form the Trade Wind Hot Deserts of the world, e.g. the Sahara, Kalahari, Atacama, and the Great Australian Deserts. Hence, statement 2 is correct. ##Topic:Winds Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
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Which of the following statements regarding preamble of the constitution is/are correct? Preamble is a part of the constitution. Preamble can be amended except basic features. Preamble is justiciable in the court of law. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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1 only
|
Statement 1 and 2 is correct : one of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of the constitution or not. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the SC said that it is not a part of the constitution. After Kesavananda Bharati (1973), SC held that it is a part of constitution and can be amended under article 368 subject to basic structure philosophy. Statement 3 is incorrect : Preamble is non-justiciable in court of law. It is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
|
b
|
The Preamble
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding preamble of the constitution is/are correct? Preamble is a part of the constitution. Preamble can be amended except basic features. Preamble is justiciable in the court of law. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 and 2 is correct : one of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of the constitution or not. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the SC said that it is not a part of the constitution. After Kesavananda Bharati (1973), SC held that it is a part of constitution and can be amended under article 368 subject to basic structure philosophy. Statement 3 is incorrect : Preamble is non-justiciable in court of law. It is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.##Topic:The Preamble##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Union Territories are represented in the Lok sabha but not in Rajya Sabha. Puducherry, Daman and Diu union territories were acquired from the France after independence. A governor of a state may be appointed as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Under schedule 4 of the constitution, NCT of Delhi is allocated 4 seats and Puducherry is allocated 1 seat in the Rajya sabha. They are also represented in the Lok Sabha with NCT of Delhi with maximum of 7 seats among all UTs. Only Puducherry was freed from France while Goa, Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli were acquired from Portuguese. Under article 239(2), the President may appoint the Governor of a State as the administrator of an adjoining Union territory, and where a Governor is so appointed, he shall exercise his functions as such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.
|
a
|
The Union and its Territory
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? Union Territories are represented in the Lok sabha but not in Rajya Sabha. Puducherry, Daman and Diu union territories were acquired from the France after independence. A governor of a state may be appointed as the administrator of an adjoining union territory. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Under schedule 4 of the constitution, NCT of Delhi is allocated 4 seats and Puducherry is allocated 1 seat in the Rajya sabha. They are also represented in the Lok Sabha with NCT of Delhi with maximum of 7 seats among all UTs. Only Puducherry was freed from France while Goa, Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli were acquired from Portuguese. Under article 239(2), the President may appoint the Governor of a State as the administrator of an adjoining Union territory, and where a Governor is so appointed, he shall exercise his functions as such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
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Which of the following statements is/are correct? Attorney General of India (AGI) has right to speak, take part and vote in the proceedings of either House of parliament. A minister who is not a member of either House of parliament cannot participate in the proceedings of the both the Houses. A member representing a state in Rajya Sabha must be an elector of a parliamentary constituency of same state Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
Only 1
|
Only 1 and 3
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Only 1
|
Article 88 provides certain rights to ministers and Attorney general of India. It says that Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that particular state was dispensed with in 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of this change.
|
d
|
Attorney general of India/Advocate general of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? Attorney General of India (AGI) has right to speak, take part and vote in the proceedings of either House of parliament. A minister who is not a member of either House of parliament cannot participate in the proceedings of the both the Houses. A member representing a state in Rajya Sabha must be an elector of a parliamentary constituency of same state Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 1 and 3##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:d##Explaination:Article 88 provides certain rights to ministers and Attorney general of India. It says that Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that particular state was dispensed with in 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of this change.##Topic:Attorney general of India/Advocate general of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Only municipalities can make laws on subjects mentioned schedule 12. Only parliament can enact law for disqualification of members of municipalities. At least two-third members of a Metropolitan planning committee (MPC) must be elected members. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Under article 243V(1)(b), a member of a Municipality shall be disqualified if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by the Legislature of the State. If state government makes law to entrust Powers, authority and responsibilities to municipalities regarding matters listed in schedule 12, then municipalities can enact laws on them. Till that time, state makes law on same. Article 243ZE provides that not less than 2/3 members of MPC shall be elected by, and from among st, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area.
|
b
|
Local Urban government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? Only municipalities can make laws on subjects mentioned schedule 12. Only parliament can enact law for disqualification of members of municipalities. At least two-third members of a Metropolitan planning committee (MPC) must be elected members. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Under article 243V(1)(b), a member of a Municipality shall be disqualified if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by the Legislature of the State. If state government makes law to entrust Powers, authority and responsibilities to municipalities regarding matters listed in schedule 12, then municipalities can enact laws on them. Till that time, state makes law on same. Article 243ZE provides that not less than 2/3 members of MPC shall be elected by, and from among st, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area.##Topic:Local Urban government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Fundamental rights except article 19 automatically suspends as soon as the emergency is declared. Fundamental rights under article 19 are suspended only when such suspension is approved in the Presidential order during national emergency. Fundamental rights under article 19 are suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of armed rebellion. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 3
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
under article 358, article 19 is suspended automatically when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression. Under article 359, fundamental rights, whose enforcement is mentioned in the Presidential Order, are suspended for a particular period. Such period can be equal or shorter than the duration of emergency and mentioned in the Presidential Order.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? Fundamental rights except article 19 automatically suspends as soon as the emergency is declared. Fundamental rights under article 19 are suspended only when such suspension is approved in the Presidential order during national emergency. Fundamental rights under article 19 are suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of armed rebellion. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: Only 1 and 2###Option_B: Only 3##Option_C: Only 1 and 3##Option_D: Only 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:under article 358, article 19 is suspended automatically when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression. Under article 359, fundamental rights, whose enforcement is mentioned in the Presidential Order, are suspended for a particular period. Such period can be equal or shorter than the duration of emergency and mentioned in the Presidential Order.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? During national emergency, life of Lok Sabha can be extended only for 3 years maximum. During national emergency, all state legislative assemblies are dissolved. Resolution of disapproval of national emergency is to be passed by a majority of not less than two-third of the members present and voting. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok sabha may be extended beyond its normal term (five years) by a law of parliament for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. Although the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended , it becomes subject to the overriding power of the parliament. A resolution of disapproval of national emergency is to be passed by a majority of not less than half of the members present and voting.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? During national emergency, life of Lok Sabha can be extended only for 3 years maximum. During national emergency, all state legislative assemblies are dissolved. Resolution of disapproval of national emergency is to be passed by a majority of not less than two-third of the members present and voting. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok sabha may be extended beyond its normal term (five years) by a law of parliament for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. Although the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended , it becomes subject to the overriding power of the parliament. A resolution of disapproval of national emergency is to be passed by a majority of not less than half of the members present and voting.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? National emergency can be declared only once war has started. National emergency is proclaimed for whole of the country. 44 th constitutional amendment replaced word "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" in article 352. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
Only 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 3
|
President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of the war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger. 42 nd constitutional amendment enabled the president to limit the operation of a national emergency to a specified part of India. In 1978, Morarji Desai government brought 44 th constitutional amendment to replace word 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in article 352.
|
a
|
Emergency Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? National emergency can be declared only once war has started. National emergency is proclaimed for whole of the country. 44 th constitutional amendment replaced word "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" in article 352. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: Only 3###Option_B: Only 1 and 2##Option_C: Only 1##Option_D: Only 3##Answer:a##Explaination:President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of the war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger. 42 nd constitutional amendment enabled the president to limit the operation of a national emergency to a specified part of India. In 1978, Morarji Desai government brought 44 th constitutional amendment to replace word 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in article 352.##Topic:Emergency Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding tribal advisory council under schedule five is/are correct? Tribal Advisory Councils are established only in states having "Scheduled Areas". All members of "Tribal Advisory Council" are representatives of "Scheduled Tribes" in the legislative assembly of the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Section 4 of the schedule five provides that There shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs , also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein. In accordance with the Para 4 (1) of the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution, the Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) have been established in the States having Scheduled Areas therein namely Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan and two non Scheduled Areas States of Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. A Tribes Advisory Council consisting of not more than twenty members of whom, as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Which of the following statements regarding tribal advisory council under schedule five is/are correct? Tribal Advisory Councils are established only in states having "Scheduled Areas". All members of "Tribal Advisory Council" are representatives of "Scheduled Tribes" in the legislative assembly of the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Section 4 of the schedule five provides that There shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs , also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein. In accordance with the Para 4 (1) of the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution, the Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) have been established in the States having Scheduled Areas therein namely Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan and two non Scheduled Areas States of Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. A Tribes Advisory Council consisting of not more than twenty members of whom, as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding schedule five of the constitution is/are correct? Governor is empowered to notify that an act of parliament is not applicable to a "schedule area". Amendment to fifth schedule is deemed to be an amendment under article 368. Under constitutional provisions, Governor declares a specified part of state as "schedule area". Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Under section 5 of the schedule 5, "…the Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area…". Section 7(2) of the schedule provides that law to amend schedule five shall not deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368. President may by order declare an area to be 'Scheduled area'.
|
a
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding schedule five of the constitution is/are correct? Governor is empowered to notify that an act of parliament is not applicable to a "schedule area". Amendment to fifth schedule is deemed to be an amendment under article 368. Under constitutional provisions, Governor declares a specified part of state as "schedule area". Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Under section 5 of the schedule 5, "…the Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area…". Section 7(2) of the schedule provides that law to amend schedule five shall not deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368. President may by order declare an area to be 'Scheduled area'.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a high court can issue for other purposes as well. The Supreme Court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction while a high court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
A remedy under article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court (SC) may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Article 32 does not merely confer power on the SC as article 226 does on a high court to issue writs for the enforcement of FR or other rights as part of its general jurisdiction. The SC is thus constituted as a defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a high court can issue for other purposes as well. The Supreme Court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction while a high court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:A remedy under article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court (SC) may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Article 32 does not merely confer power on the SC as article 226 does on a high court to issue writs for the enforcement of FR or other rights as part of its general jurisdiction. The SC is thus constituted as a defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty under article 51A of the constitution?
|
Protecting the natural environment
|
Safeguard public property
|
Paying taxes
|
Protecting the natural environment
|
Part IVA was added to the constitution with forty-second amendment, 1976 on recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. Paying taxes was one of the recommendation of committee which was not accepted.
|
c
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty under article 51A of the constitution?
##Option_A: Protecting the natural environment
###Option_B: Safeguard public property
##Option_C: Paying taxes
##Option_D: Protecting the natural environment
##Answer:c##Explaination:Part IVA was added to the constitution with forty-second amendment, 1976 on recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. Paying taxes was one of the recommendation of committee which was not accepted.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are incorrect ? Local government is part of the concurrent list 73rd and 74th amendment applies throughout India except J&K alone Manner of election of Chairperson of panchayat is enshrined in the constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Local government is in state list 73rd and 74th amendment does not apply to J&K, Meghalaya, mizoram, Delhi, nagalan Chairperson of panchayat shall be elected according to law passed by the state
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are incorrect ? Local government is part of the concurrent list 73rd and 74th amendment applies throughout India except J&K alone Manner of election of Chairperson of panchayat is enshrined in the constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Local government is in state list 73rd and 74th amendment does not apply to J&K, Meghalaya, mizoram, Delhi, nagalan Chairperson of panchayat shall be elected according to law passed by the state##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Jammu and Kashmir has special status in Indian Constitution. Which of the following statements is/are true about this? Jammu and Kashmir has a separate constitution and a flag. According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists. There is a constitutional provision that allows the President, with the concurrence of the State government, to specify which parts of the Union List shall apply to the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
J&K has a separate constitution and a flag. According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists. There is a constitutional provision that allows the President, with the concurrence of the State government, to specify which parts of the Union List shall apply to the State.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Jammu and Kashmir has special status in Indian Constitution. Which of the following statements is/are true about this? Jammu and Kashmir has a separate constitution and a flag. According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists. There is a constitutional provision that allows the President, with the concurrence of the State government, to specify which parts of the Union List shall apply to the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:J&K has a separate constitution and a flag. According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists. There is a constitutional provision that allows the President, with the concurrence of the State government, to specify which parts of the Union List shall apply to the State.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to constitutional safeguards provided to the minorities under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Both religious and linguistic minorities have the Fundamental Right to establish educational institutions. The President should appoint a special officer for linguistic and religious minorities to investigate matters relating to constitutional safeguards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic: All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. This provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to protect the right of minorities in this regard. The Act deleted the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 31). In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority. Thus, the protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens (as under Article 29). The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution2. This article contains the following provisions: There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. Thus, the provision of appointing Special Officer pertains only to linguistic minorities and not religious minorities,
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to constitutional safeguards provided to the minorities under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Both religious and linguistic minorities have the Fundamental Right to establish educational institutions. The President should appoint a special officer for linguistic and religious minorities to investigate matters relating to constitutional safeguards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic: All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. This provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to protect the right of minorities in this regard. The Act deleted the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 31). In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority. Thus, the protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens (as under Article 29). The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution2. This article contains the following provisions: There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. Thus, the provision of appointing Special Officer pertains only to linguistic minorities and not religious minorities,##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following rivers have their origin in the Vindhyas? Betwa Parbati Ken Banas Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Several tributaries of the Ganga-Yamuna system originate from the Vindhyas. These include Chambal, Betwa, Ken, Kali Sindh and Parbati. The northern slopes of the Vindhyas are drained by these rivers. Most of the tributaries of the river Yamuna have their origin in the Vindhyan and Kaimur ranges. Banas is the only significant tributary of the river Chambal that originates from the Aravalli in the west.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rivers have their origin in the Vindhyas? Betwa Parbati Ken Banas Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Several tributaries of the Ganga-Yamuna system originate from the Vindhyas. These include Chambal, Betwa, Ken, Kali Sindh and Parbati. The northern slopes of the Vindhyas are drained by these rivers. Most of the tributaries of the river Yamuna have their origin in the Vindhyan and Kaimur ranges. Banas is the only significant tributary of the river Chambal that originates from the Aravalli in the west.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was associated with which of the following? Kheda Satyagraha Bardoli Satyagraha Nagpur flag Satyagraha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928: In 1928, authorities raised the land revenue in Bardoli. The region was already reeling under the grunt of famine and floods. This unjustified levy of tax was opposed by the Congress leaders who set up the Bardoli Inquiry Committee to initiate this movement. Vallabh Bhai Patel was one of the most strong and prominent leaders from Gujarat. As such, he was given the command of this movement. He was respected by the farmers and entire Gujarati community. Kheda Peasant Struggle (1918): The Kheda peasant struggle is also known as no-tax peasant struggle. It was a satyagraha launched in March 1919 under the leadership of Gandhiji, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Indulal Yajnik, N.M. Joshi, Shankerlal Pareekh and several others. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel participated in the Nagpur flag satyagraha from May to August in 1923 in protest against the stopping of a procession which carried the national flag.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was associated with which of the following? Kheda Satyagraha Bardoli Satyagraha Nagpur flag Satyagraha Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928: In 1928, authorities raised the land revenue in Bardoli. The region was already reeling under the grunt of famine and floods. This unjustified levy of tax was opposed by the Congress leaders who set up the Bardoli Inquiry Committee to initiate this movement. Vallabh Bhai Patel was one of the most strong and prominent leaders from Gujarat. As such, he was given the command of this movement. He was respected by the farmers and entire Gujarati community. Kheda Peasant Struggle (1918): The Kheda peasant struggle is also known as no-tax peasant struggle. It was a satyagraha launched in March 1919 under the leadership of Gandhiji, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Indulal Yajnik, N.M. Joshi, Shankerlal Pareekh and several others. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel participated in the Nagpur flag satyagraha from May to August in 1923 in protest against the stopping of a procession which carried the national flag.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
In a vacuum container a coin and a leaf are dropped simultaneously. Which of the following is most likely to happen?
|
Coin will reach first at the bottom.
|
Leaf will reach first at the bottom.
|
Both will reach the bottom simultaneously.
|
Coin will reach first at the bottom.
|
In a vacuum container air friction will be absent. Hence gravitational force alone will determine the time of vertical drop. The acceleration 'g', initial speed and vertical height to be covered, all are same for both the articles. According to kinematics equations: Distance = Initial speed*t + ½*g*t2 t = time of flight; g = gravitational acceleration Thus "t" would be same for both the articles.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In a vacuum container a coin and a leaf are dropped simultaneously. Which of the following is most likely to happen?##Option_A: Coin will reach first at the bottom.###Option_B: Leaf will reach first at the bottom.##Option_C: Both will reach the bottom simultaneously.##Option_D: Coin will reach first at the bottom.##Answer:c##Explaination:In a vacuum container air friction will be absent. Hence gravitational force alone will determine the time of vertical drop. The acceleration 'g', initial speed and vertical height to be covered, all are same for both the articles. According to kinematics equations: Distance = Initial speed*t + ½*g*t2 t = time of flight; g = gravitational acceleration Thus "t" would be same for both the articles.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
With regard to independence of Constitutional bodies, which of the following is/are correct? The expenses of EC, CAG, UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to ensure their independence from Executive influence. The members of EC, CAG and UPSC can be removed only with special majority in Parliament for proved misbehaviour or incapacity. UPSC members can be removed by Executive order under some special circumstances. The Chairman of UPSC, EC and CAG are barred from future employment by the govt. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 4
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
Statement 1: EC's expenses are not charged. Statement 2: UPSC members can be removed after a Supreme Court inquiry finds him guilty. Parliament is not involved. Statement 3: correct. (unsound mind; insolvent etc. ) Statement 4: EC members are not barred from future employment.
|
d
|
UPSC/SPSC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to independence of Constitutional bodies, which of the following is/are correct? The expenses of EC, CAG, UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to ensure their independence from Executive influence. The members of EC, CAG and UPSC can be removed only with special majority in Parliament for proved misbehaviour or incapacity. UPSC members can be removed by Executive order under some special circumstances. The Chairman of UPSC, EC and CAG are barred from future employment by the govt. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3, 4###Option_B: 2, 3, 4##Option_C: 1, 2, 4##Option_D: 1, 2, 3, 4##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1: EC's expenses are not charged. Statement 2: UPSC members can be removed after a Supreme Court inquiry finds him guilty. Parliament is not involved. Statement 3: correct. (unsound mind; insolvent etc. ) Statement 4: EC members are not barred from future employment.##Topic:UPSC/SPSC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With respect Central Information Commission, which of the following is correct? Central Information Commission consists of Central Information Commissioner and not more than 10 members appointed by the President on recommendation of a committee comprising PM, Leader of Opposition and one other minister nominated by PM. The criteria for appointment is being a renowned contributor in the field of media, law, science, technology and social service. Right to Information, 2005 does not extend to Official Secrets Act and other such Acts exempted under Section 8(1) of the Act. The Supreme Court in a recent judgement stayed the order of change in composition of CIC requiring presence of a judge on every bench adjudicating on an information dispute. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 3
|
Statement 1: correct Statement 2: correct Statement 3: correct Statement 4: correct. The order has been presently stayed on a review petition filed by the Union govt.
|
d
|
CIC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect Central Information Commission, which of the following is correct? Central Information Commission consists of Central Information Commissioner and not more than 10 members appointed by the President on recommendation of a committee comprising PM, Leader of Opposition and one other minister nominated by PM. The criteria for appointment is being a renowned contributor in the field of media, law, science, technology and social service. Right to Information, 2005 does not extend to Official Secrets Act and other such Acts exempted under Section 8(1) of the Act. The Supreme Court in a recent judgement stayed the order of change in composition of CIC requiring presence of a judge on every bench adjudicating on an information dispute. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3###Option_B: 2, 3, 4##Option_C: 1, 3, 4##Option_D: 1, 2, 3##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1: correct Statement 2: correct Statement 3: correct Statement 4: correct. The order has been presently stayed on a review petition filed by the Union govt.##Topic:CIC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to State Human Rights Commission, which of the following is correct? SHRC members are appointed and removed by the Governor. Chairperson of SHRC can be removed on the ground of proved misbehaviour after an inquiry by a Supreme Court committee under Section 23 of Human Rights Act. SHRC is a quasi-judicial body with powers of a civil court and can take suo motu action within one year of alleged human rights violation. The recommendation of SHRC is not binding on the government. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 4
|
1, 3, 4
|
2, 3, 4
|
Statement 1: While SHRC members are appointed by the Governor, they can be removed only by the President. Statement 2: correct Statement 3: correct Statement 4: correct
|
a
|
NHRC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to State Human Rights Commission, which of the following is correct? SHRC members are appointed and removed by the Governor. Chairperson of SHRC can be removed on the ground of proved misbehaviour after an inquiry by a Supreme Court committee under Section 23 of Human Rights Act. SHRC is a quasi-judicial body with powers of a civil court and can take suo motu action within one year of alleged human rights violation. The recommendation of SHRC is not binding on the government. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 2, 3, 4###Option_B: 1, 2, 4##Option_C: 1, 3, 4 ##Option_D: 2, 3, 4##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1: While SHRC members are appointed by the Governor, they can be removed only by the President. Statement 2: correct Statement 3: correct Statement 4: correct##Topic:NHRC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With respect to Finance Commission, Planning Commission and National Development Council, which of the following is/are correct?
1. FC derives its authority for division of resources under Article 280. PC derives its powers from article 282.
2. The contention of the states that allocations made by the PC are arbitrary is wrong as allocations are based on a pre-determined Gadgil formula. Hence each state gets its due share.
3. NDC was constituted to secure the cooperation of the states as they have no representation in the PC.
4. FC is confined to revenue deficit allocation under the Constitution while PC is empowered to make plan allocations for states’ development.
Choose the correct option:
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
Statement 1: correct.
Statement 2: Additional Central Assistance and funds under Centrally Sponsored Schemes are given by the PC at its discretion. Most of the funds allocated are tied funds leaving little room for states.
Statement 3: correct
Statement 4: The Constitution makes no such distinction. FC can allocate plan funds as well.
|
c
|
NDC
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to Finance Commission, Planning Commission and National Development Council, which of the following is/are correct?
1. FC derives its authority for division of resources under Article 280. PC derives its powers from article 282.
2. The contention of the states that allocations made by the PC are arbitrary is wrong as allocations are based on a pre-determined Gadgil formula. Hence each state gets its due share.
3. NDC was constituted to secure the cooperation of the states as they have no representation in the PC.
4. FC is confined to revenue deficit allocation under the Constitution while PC is empowered to make plan allocations for states’ development.
Choose the correct option:##Option_A:1, 2, 3, 4 ###Option_B:2, 3, 4##Option_C:1, 3 ##Option_D:1, 2, 3, 4 ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1: correct.
Statement 2: Additional Central Assistance and funds under Centrally Sponsored Schemes are given by the PC at its discretion. Most of the funds allocated are tied funds leaving little room for states.
Statement 3: correct
Statement 4: The Constitution makes no such distinction. FC can allocate plan funds as well.##Topic:NDC##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With respect to Planning Commission, which of the following is/are correct?
1. The Vice Chairman of the Planning Commission is appointed by the President.
2. Planning Commission makes Normal Central Assistance to states on the basis of Gadgil-Mukherjee formula.
3. Planning Commission makes Additional Central Assistance to states based on Gadgil-Mukherjee formula.
4. Additional Central Assistance is sanctioned by the Finance Ministry while funds under Centrally Sponsored Schemes on subjects in state list are directly allocated by the Planning Commission.
|
1, 2, 4
|
2, 4
|
1, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 4
|
Statement 1: Vice Chairman is appointed by the Cabinet.
Statement 2: correct.
Statement 3: Additional Central Assistance is given by the Planning Commission as per its discretion.
Statement 4: correct.
|
b
|
Planning Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to Planning Commission, which of the following is/are correct?
1. The Vice Chairman of the Planning Commission is appointed by the President.
2. Planning Commission makes Normal Central Assistance to states on the basis of Gadgil-Mukherjee formula.
3. Planning Commission makes Additional Central Assistance to states based on Gadgil-Mukherjee formula.
4. Additional Central Assistance is sanctioned by the Finance Ministry while funds under Centrally Sponsored Schemes on subjects in state list are directly allocated by the Planning Commission.##Option_A:1, 2, 4 ###Option_B:2, 4##Option_C:1, 3, 4 ##Option_D:1, 2, 4 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1: Vice Chairman is appointed by the Cabinet.
Statement 2: correct.
Statement 3: Additional Central Assistance is given by the Planning Commission as per its discretion.
Statement 4: correct.##Topic:Planning Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements about the writ of Certiorari:
1. It is issued on the ground of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.
2. Writ of Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.
3. Like Prohibition, Certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in the case.
Writ of Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the writ of Certiorari:
1. It is issued on the ground of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.
2. Writ of Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.
3. Like Prohibition, Certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in the case.
Writ of Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which one of the statements given below,in regard to a High Court in India is correct?
|
A High Court is primarily a court of appeal, in respect of its subordinate courts.
|
A High Court can issue any writ, but only to enforce the fundamental rights of the citizens.
|
A High Court has power to supervise overall courts and tribunals, except revenue court functioning in its jurisdiction.
|
A High Court is primarily a court of appeal, in respect of its subordinate courts.
|
A high court can issue writs to enforce the fundamental rights of the citizen as well as for the other purpose also. A high court has power to supervise over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction except military courts and tribunals. A district judge is appointed by the Governor of the State.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the statements given below,in regard to a High Court in India is correct?##Option_A: A High Court is primarily a court of appeal, in respect of its subordinate courts.###Option_B: A High Court can issue any writ, but only to enforce the fundamental rights of the citizens.##Option_C: A High Court has power to supervise overall courts and tribunals, except revenue court functioning in its jurisdiction.##Option_D: A High Court is primarily a court of appeal, in respect of its subordinate courts.##Answer:a##Explaination:
A high court can issue writs to enforce the fundamental rights of the citizen as well as for the other purpose also. A high court has power to supervise over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction except military courts and tribunals. A district judge is appointed by the Governor of the State.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court: In any case the supreme court is not bound to tender its opinion to the President. The President can refer only such legal questions as has not been decided by the court earlier . Indian Constitution has borrowed this provision from the US constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
In the case of ant dispute arising out of any pre-constitution a treaty, agreement, covenent, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the Supreme Court.
There is no such provision of Advisory Jurisdiction in the US constitution.
Article 143 in news
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court: In any case the supreme court is not bound to tender its opinion to the President. The President can refer only such legal questions as has not been decided by the court earlier . Indian Constitution has borrowed this provision from the US constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
In the case of ant dispute arising out of any pre-constitution a treaty, agreement, covenent, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the Supreme Court.
There is no such provision of Advisory Jurisdiction in the US constitution.
Article 143 in news
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: At any time, the Chief Justice of India can request a retired judge of any court to act as a judge of Supreme Court. Retired judge could be appointed as the judge of Supreme Court without the previous consent of the President. He will be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The appointment of such judge is done only after the previous consent of the president.
Such judge will also enjoy the all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of judge of Supreme Court . But, he will not be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
|
b
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: At any time, the Chief Justice of India can request a retired judge of any court to act as a judge of Supreme Court. Retired judge could be appointed as the judge of Supreme Court without the previous consent of the President. He will be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
The appointment of such judge is done only after the previous consent of the president.
Such judge will also enjoy the all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of judge of Supreme Court . But, he will not be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Under which of the following conditions the Chief Justice of India may call a judge of High court to act as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme court:
|
Temporary increase in the business of the Supreme Court
|
Insufficient quorum of the Supreme Court judges
|
The seats of the Supreme Court judges are vacant
|
Temporary increase in the business of the Supreme Court
|
When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the SC, the chief justice of India can appoint a judge of a HC to act as an ad hoc judge.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under which of the following conditions the Chief Justice of India may call a judge of High court to act as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme court:
##Option_A: Temporary increase in the business of the Supreme Court
###Option_B: Insufficient quorum of the Supreme Court judges
##Option_C: The seats of the Supreme Court judges are vacant
##Option_D: Temporary increase in the business of the Supreme Court
##Answer:b##Explaination:
When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the SC, the chief justice of India can appoint a judge of a HC to act as an ad hoc judge.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are grounds for the removal of Supreme Court Judges: Proved misbehaviour Incapacity Insolvency Codes:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A judge of Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour and incapacity
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are grounds for the removal of Supreme Court Judges: Proved misbehaviour Incapacity Insolvency Codes:##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
A judge of Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour and incapacity
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: High Court judges are appointed by the Governor after consulting the Chief Justice India and President. Governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the President in case of a common High Court for two or more states. In case of appointment of High Court judges,Chief Justice of India has the binding opinion. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President. The chief justice of HC is appointed by the President after consultation with chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned. After the Third judges case , the SC opined that in the appointment of high court judges ,the chief justice of India should consult a collegium of two vey senior judges of the SC . Thus the sole opinion of the chief justice India alone does not constitute the consultation process and are not binding.
|
c
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: High Court judges are appointed by the Governor after consulting the Chief Justice India and President. Governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the President in case of a common High Court for two or more states. In case of appointment of High Court judges,Chief Justice of India has the binding opinion. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President. The chief justice of HC is appointed by the President after consultation with chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned. After the Third judges case , the SC opined that in the appointment of high court judges ,the chief justice of India should consult a collegium of two vey senior judges of the SC . Thus the sole opinion of the chief justice India alone does not constitute the consultation process and are not binding.##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the High Court Judge: Judges of High Courts are appointed by the President and hold their office during the pleasure of the President. Salaries, allowances and pensions of a High Court Judge is charged on the Consolidated fund of state. Chief Justice of High Court appoints officers and servants of High Court with the help of executive. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2, 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
Though the judges of the high courts are appointed by the President in consultation with the judiciary itself but they do not hold their office during the pleasure of President.
Salaries ,allowances of HC judges are charged on the Consolidated fund of state while the pension of a high court judge is charged on the Consolidated fund of India.
Chief Justice of High Court can appoint officers and servants of High Court without the interference of executive.
|
c
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the High Court Judge: Judges of High Courts are appointed by the President and hold their office during the pleasure of the President. Salaries, allowances and pensions of a High Court Judge is charged on the Consolidated fund of state. Chief Justice of High Court appoints officers and servants of High Court with the help of executive. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 ##Option_D: 2 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Though the judges of the high courts are appointed by the President in consultation with the judiciary itself but they do not hold their office during the pleasure of President.
Salaries ,allowances of HC judges are charged on the Consolidated fund of state while the pension of a high court judge is charged on the Consolidated fund of India.
Chief Justice of High Court can appoint officers and servants of High Court without the interference of executive.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are not a constitutional post? Solicitor General of India Advocate general of the States Chief Information Commissioner Chairman NHRC Chairman UGC Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 3, 4, 5
|
1, 2, 4
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 3, 4, 5
|
nan
|
a
|
Others Non-Constitutional Bodies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are not a constitutional post? Solicitor General of India Advocate general of the States Chief Information Commissioner Chairman NHRC Chairman UGC Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3, 4, 5###Option_B: 1, 2, 4##Option_C: 2, 3, 4##Option_D: 1, 3, 4, 5##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Others Non-Constitutional Bodies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The features of the Indian Federal System are— 1. Division of powers 2. Separation of powers 3. Independent judiciary 4. Leadership of the Prime Minister 5. A written constitution
|
2, 3, 5
|
1, 4, 5
|
1, 2, 5
|
2, 3, 5
|
.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The features of the Indian Federal System are— 1. Division of powers 2. Separation of powers 3. Independent judiciary 4. Leadership of the Prime Minister 5. A written constitution##Option_A:2, 3, 5 ###Option_B:1, 4, 5##Option_C:1, 2, 5 ##Option_D:2, 3, 5 ##Answer:d##Explaination:.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Assertion (A): Federalism in India is not a matter of administrative convenience, but one of principle.
Reason (R): Despite presence of Part XVIII, Federalism is part of Basic structure of Indian constitution.
|
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
|
A is true but R is false
|
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): Federalism in India is not a matter of administrative convenience, but one of principle.
Reason (R): Despite presence of Part XVIII, Federalism is part of Basic structure of Indian constitution.##Option_A:Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A###Option_B:Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A##Option_C:A is true but R is false##Option_D:Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
As per Art 370, a special status is granted to Jammu and Kashmir. Consider the following statements with respect to Jammu and Kashmir: The President has no power to suspend the Constitution of the state on the ground of failure to comply with direction given by him. President rule under Art 356 is not permitted due to special status granted to J&K. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both
|
Only 1
|
nan
|
a
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per Art 370, a special status is granted to Jammu and Kashmir. Consider the following statements with respect to Jammu and Kashmir: The President has no power to suspend the Constitution of the state on the ground of failure to comply with direction given by him. President rule under Art 356 is not permitted due to special status granted to J&K. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Both##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Part XI of the Constitution deal with the legislative relations between the Centre and the states. Consider these statement regarding this division of subjects: Schedule VII of the Constitution of India clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers which correspond to the three tiers of government. For the items enumerated in the Concurrent List laws made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the laws made by the Legislature of such State, shall prevail without any exception. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
There is an exception to second (b) statement, in cases "where a law made by the Legislature of a State with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List contains any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by Parliament or an existing law with respect to that matter, then, the law so made by the Legislature of such State shall, if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, prevail in that State."
|
d
|
Legislative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Part XI of the Constitution deal with the legislative relations between the Centre and the states. Consider these statement regarding this division of subjects: Schedule VII of the Constitution of India clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers which correspond to the three tiers of government. For the items enumerated in the Concurrent List laws made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the laws made by the Legislature of such State, shall prevail without any exception. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:There is an exception to second (b) statement, in cases "where a law made by the Legislature of a State with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List contains any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by Parliament or an existing law with respect to that matter, then, the law so made by the Legislature of such State shall, if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, prevail in that State."##Topic:Legislative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following sources of energy are NOT derived from solar energy?
|
wind power
|
water power
|
geothermal power
|
wind power
|
.
|
c
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following sources of energy are NOT derived from solar energy?##Option_A:wind power###Option_B:water power##Option_C:geothermal power##Option_D:wind power##Answer:c##Explaination:
.
##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which among the following tribes are found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands? 1. Onge 2. Jarawas 3. Sentinelese 4. Apatani Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands is home to 4 Negrito and 2 Mongoloid tribes. Those belonging to the Negrito origin – the Great Andamanese, the Onge, the Jarawas and the Sentinelese - are still at hunting-gathering stage. The Mongoloid origin, Nicobarese, have prospered and multiplied. The members of the other Mongoloid community, the Shompen, still shy away from outsiders. The Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese and Great Andamanese are thought to have travelled to the Andaman Islands from Africa up to 60,000 years ago. Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Apatani is a tribe of Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, option 4 is not correct.
|
a
|
World: Population , Distribution & Density , Races & Tribes , Settlement & Migration
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following tribes are found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands? 1. Onge 2. Jarawas 3. Sentinelese 4. Apatani Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Andaman and Nicobar Islands is home to 4 Negrito and 2 Mongoloid tribes. Those belonging to the Negrito origin – the Great Andamanese, the Onge, the Jarawas and the Sentinelese - are still at hunting-gathering stage. The Mongoloid origin, Nicobarese, have prospered and multiplied. The members of the other Mongoloid community, the Shompen, still shy away from outsiders. The Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese and Great Andamanese are thought to have travelled to the Andaman Islands from Africa up to 60,000 years ago. Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Apatani is a tribe of Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, option 4 is not correct. ##Topic:World: Population , Distribution & Density , Races & Tribes , Settlement & Migration##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Arrange the following mountain systems from the east to the west: 1. Pamir 2. Hi Q 11 malayas 3. Andes 4. Pyrenees 5. Alps 6. Rockies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2-1-4-5-6-3
|
1-2-4-5-3-6
|
4-1-2-5-6-3
|
2-1-4-5-6-3
|
Himalayas – Central Asia
Pamir – Central and Western Asia
Alps – Western Europe
Pyrenees – Western Europe
Andes – Western South America
Rockies – North America
|
d
|
Continents Major physical features
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Arrange the following mountain systems from the east to the west: 1. Pamir 2. Hi Q 11 malayas 3. Andes 4. Pyrenees 5. Alps 6. Rockies Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:
2-1-4-5-6-3
###Option_B:
1-2-4-5-3-6
##Option_C:
4-1-2-5-6-3
##Option_D:
2-1-4-5-6-3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Himalayas – Central Asia
Pamir – Central and Western Asia
Alps – Western Europe
Pyrenees – Western Europe
Andes – Western South America
Rockies – North America
##Topic:Continents Major physical features##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the concept of Sea floor spreading, which of the following statements is/are correct? The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridge show remarkable similarities in terms of magnetic properties. The ocean crust rocks are much older than the continental rocks. The age of rocks increases as one move away from the mid-oceanic ridge. Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. Nowhere, they are found more than 200 million years old while continental rocks are as old as 3,200 million years.
|
b
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the concept of Sea floor spreading, which of the following statements is/are correct? The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridge show remarkable similarities in terms of magnetic properties. The ocean crust rocks are much older than the continental rocks. The age of rocks increases as one move away from the mid-oceanic ridge. Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. Nowhere, they are found more than 200 million years old while continental rocks are as old as 3,200 million years.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
|
Plates Type Pacific plate and Antarctic plate Divergent boundary
|
Eurasian plate and Pacific plate Transform boundary
|
Eurasian plate and Indo-Australian plate Divergent boundary
|
Plates Type Pacific plate and Antarctic plate Divergent boundary
|
Eurasian plate and Pacific plate: convergent boundary; Eurasian plate and Indo-Australian plate: convergent boundary; African plate and South American plate: divergent boundary.
|
a
|
The Lithosphere Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?##Option_A:Plates Type Pacific plate and Antarctic plate Divergent boundary###Option_B:Eurasian plate and Pacific plate Transform boundary##Option_C:Eurasian plate and Indo-Australian plate Divergent boundary##Option_D:Plates Type Pacific plate and Antarctic plate Divergent boundary##Answer:a##Explaination:Eurasian plate and Pacific plate: convergent boundary; Eurasian plate and Indo-Australian plate: convergent boundary; African plate and South American plate: divergent boundary.##Topic:The Lithosphere Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to anti-conversion laws, consider the following statements: 1. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution restricts conversion of religion. 2. All states in the country have their anti-conversion laws in force. 3. Coercive conversion is a penal offence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Art. 25 of the Indian Constitution provides for right to practice, propagate, profess one’s religion. It is silent on conversion of religion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 5 states in the country have anti-conversion laws in force, they are - Odisha, MP, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HP. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Forced conversion is a penal offence under Section 295 of the Indian Penal Code. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to anti-conversion laws, consider the following statements: 1. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution restricts conversion of religion. 2. All states in the country have their anti-conversion laws in force. 3. Coercive conversion is a penal offence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Art. 25 of the Indian Constitution provides for right to practice, propagate, profess one’s religion. It is silent on conversion of religion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 5 states in the country have anti-conversion laws in force, they are - Odisha, MP, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HP. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Forced conversion is a penal offence under Section 295 of the Indian Penal Code. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Alfred Wegener's continental drift theory, which of the following statements is/are correct? Alfred Wegener's proposed super-continent, PANGAEA, broke into Laurasia and Gondwanaland initially. One of the forces responsible for drifting of the continents is convection currents operating in the mantle portion of the earth. Select the correct answer using codes given below
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Convectional current theory was helpful in discarding the continental drift theory of Alfred Wegener. He suggested pole-fleeing force and tidal force responsible for drifting of the continents.
|
a
|
Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Alfred Wegener's continental drift theory, which of the following statements is/are correct? Alfred Wegener's proposed super-continent, PANGAEA, broke into Laurasia and Gondwanaland initially. One of the forces responsible for drifting of the continents is convection currents operating in the mantle portion of the earth. Select the correct answer using codes given below##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:Convectional current theory was helpful in discarding the continental drift theory of Alfred Wegener. He suggested pole-fleeing force and tidal force responsible for drifting of the continents.##Topic:Landform Development First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory)##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the soil is/are true? "Relief" of the region determines the accumulation of the soil. "Time" factor determines the thickness of soil. "Climate" determines the rate of humus formation.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Flora, fauna and micro organisms determine the rate of humus formation.Climate influences rate of weathering.
|
b
|
Land Resources and Agriculture
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding the soil is/are true? "Relief" of the region determines the accumulation of the soil. "Time" factor determines the thickness of soil. "Climate" determines the rate of humus formation.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Flora, fauna and micro organisms determine the rate of humus formation.Climate influences rate of weathering.##Topic:Land Resources and Agriculture##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following road category covers maximum road length in India?
|
National Highways
|
State Highways
|
Major District roads
|
National Highways
|
Rural roads cover around 80% of road length.
|
d
|
Transport and Communication
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following road category covers maximum road length in India?##Option_A: National Highways###Option_B: State Highways##Option_C: Major District roads##Option_D: National Highways##Answer:d##Explaination:Rural roads cover around 80% of road length.##Topic:Transport and Communication##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are tributaries of the river Krishna? Tungbhadra Koyna Indravati Manjra Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Krishna is the second largest east-flowing Peninsular river which rises near Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major tributaries. The Indravati and the Manjra are some of the principal tributaries of the Godavari. River Indravati flows through Odisha, Chattisgarh and Maharashtra , whereas, Manjra flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana.
|
a
|
Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are tributaries of the river Krishna? Tungbhadra Koyna Indravati Manjra Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Krishna is the second largest east-flowing Peninsular river which rises near Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major tributaries. The Indravati and the Manjra are some of the principal tributaries of the Godavari. River Indravati flows through Odisha, Chattisgarh and Maharashtra , whereas, Manjra flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana.##Topic:Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
MMR vaccine is used to prevent which of the following diseases?
|
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
|
Malaria, MDR TB, and Rabies
|
Meningitis, Measles, and Rotavirus
|
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
|
The MMR vaccine is an immunization vaccine against measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles).
It is a mixture of live attenuated viruses of the three diseases, administered via injection.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:MMR vaccine is used to prevent which of the following diseases?##Option_A: Measles, Mumps, and Rubella###Option_B: Malaria, MDR TB, and Rabies##Option_C: Meningitis, Measles, and Rotavirus##Option_D: Measles, Mumps, and Rubella##Answer:a##Explaination:
The MMR vaccine is an immunization vaccine against measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles).
It is a mixture of live attenuated viruses of the three diseases, administered via injection.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP), consider the following statements: It aims to improve technical education through upgradation of Engineering colleges and Polytechnics in India. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Ministry of Human Resource Development launched in December, 2002 the “Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme of Government of India (TEQIP)” which aims to upscale and support ongoing efforts in improving quality of technical education and enhancing existing capacities of the institutions to become dynamic, demand-driven, quality conscious, efficient and forward looking, responsive to rapid economic and technological developments occurring both at national and international levels. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. The Programme was conceived and designed as a long term project to be implemented in 10-12 years in 3 phases to support excellence and transformation in Technical Education in the country. The first phase covered 109 State Institutions included 90 Engineering Colleges and 19 Polytechnics . Thus, statement 1 is correct. The phase 2 project was for the duration of 4 years covering about 200 institutions based on competitive funding. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister, had in 2016 approved the proposal for initiation of the Third Phase of Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP). The Project is implemented as a 'Central Sector Scheme' with total project outlay of Rs. 3600 crore. All the three phases h ave been assisted by World Bank.
|
a
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP), consider the following statements: It aims to improve technical education through upgradation of Engineering colleges and Polytechnics in India. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Ministry of Human Resource Development launched in December, 2002 the “Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme of Government of India (TEQIP)” which aims to upscale and support ongoing efforts in improving quality of technical education and enhancing existing capacities of the institutions to become dynamic, demand-driven, quality conscious, efficient and forward looking, responsive to rapid economic and technological developments occurring both at national and international levels. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. The Programme was conceived and designed as a long term project to be implemented in 10-12 years in 3 phases to support excellence and transformation in Technical Education in the country. The first phase covered 109 State Institutions included 90 Engineering Colleges and 19 Polytechnics . Thus, statement 1 is correct. The phase 2 project was for the duration of 4 years covering about 200 institutions based on competitive funding. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister, had in 2016 approved the proposal for initiation of the Third Phase of Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP). The Project is implemented as a 'Central Sector Scheme' with total project outlay of Rs. 3600 crore. All the three phases h ave been assisted by World Bank.##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act, 2016 consider the following statements: It enhances the maternity benefit to working women from 12 weeks to 26 weeks. It is applicable to women working both in organised and unorganised sectors. Adopting mothers have not been covered under the act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2016 aims at increasing maternity benefit to women covered under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 from 12 weeks to 26 weeks up to two surviving children in order to allow the mother to take care of the child during his/her most formative stage. Hence, statement 1 is correct . The entitlement will be for only up to first two children. For third child, the entitlement will be for only 12 weeks. It is aimed at benefiting about 1.8 million women in the organised sector. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It also provides maternity benefit of 12 weeks to Commissioning mother and Adopting mother. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. It seeks to facilitate "work from home" to a mother with mutual consent of the employee and the employer. It makes it mandatory in respect of establishment having fifty or more employees , to have the facility of creche either individually or as a shared common facility within such distance as may be prescribed by rules & also to allow four visits to the creche by the woman daily, including the interval for rest allowed to her.
|
b
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act, 2016 consider the following statements: It enhances the maternity benefit to working women from 12 weeks to 26 weeks. It is applicable to women working both in organised and unorganised sectors. Adopting mothers have not been covered under the act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2016 aims at increasing maternity benefit to women covered under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 from 12 weeks to 26 weeks up to two surviving children in order to allow the mother to take care of the child during his/her most formative stage. Hence, statement 1 is correct . The entitlement will be for only up to first two children. For third child, the entitlement will be for only 12 weeks. It is aimed at benefiting about 1.8 million women in the organised sector. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It also provides maternity benefit of 12 weeks to Commissioning mother and Adopting mother. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. It seeks to facilitate "work from home" to a mother with mutual consent of the employee and the employer. It makes it mandatory in respect of establishment having fifty or more employees , to have the facility of creche either individually or as a shared common facility within such distance as may be prescribed by rules & also to allow four visits to the creche by the woman daily, including the interval for rest allowed to her.##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Religious and Linguistic minorities are determined state wise. Right to impart education to its children in own language is a fundamental right of minorities. The Constitution defines Minorities as religious and linguistic minorities. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2, 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2, 3
|
Religious minorities are determined at national level. The Constitution does not define the term 'minority'.
|
c
|
Special officer for Linguistic Minorities
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? Religious and Linguistic minorities are determined state wise. Right to impart education to its children in own language is a fundamental right of minorities. The Constitution defines Minorities as religious and linguistic minorities. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3##Answer:c##Explaination:Religious minorities are determined at national level. The Constitution does not define the term 'minority'.##Topic:Special officer for Linguistic Minorities##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to ‘National Scholarship Portal’, consider the following statements:
(1) This portal enlists only those scholarships that are offered by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(2) The scholarship is available for Class I to Ph.D. as well as professional courses.
(3) It is introduced under ‘Direct Benefit Transfer’ mode.
Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. This portal acts as single window system for various types of scholarship schemes adminsterd by different ministries and departments.
Statement 2 is correct. The courses covered include Pre-matric from class I to X, Post-matric from XI to Ph.D. and Merit -cum- Means for technical and professional courses.
Statement 3 is also correct. It has been introduced under DBT mode.
|
b
|
Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to ‘National Scholarship Portal’, consider the following statements:
(1) This portal enlists only those scholarships that are offered by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(2) The scholarship is available for Class I to Ph.D. as well as professional courses.
(3) It is introduced under ‘Direct Benefit Transfer’ mode.
Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2, and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. This portal acts as single window system for various types of scholarship schemes adminsterd by different ministries and departments.
Statement 2 is correct. The courses covered include Pre-matric from class I to X, Post-matric from XI to Ph.D. and Merit -cum- Means for technical and professional courses.
Statement 3 is also correct. It has been introduced under DBT mode.
##Topic:Human Development, HDI, MDGs, SDGs##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following committee is not related to Panchayati Raj?
|
Ashok Mehta committee
|
V. K. R. V. Rao committee
|
LM Singvi committee
|
Ashok Mehta committee
|
V. K. R. V. Rao was related to National Income Committee.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following committee is not related to Panchayati Raj?##Option_A:Ashok Mehta committee ###Option_B:V. K. R. V. Rao committee##Option_C:LM Singvi committee##Option_D:Ashok Mehta committee ##Answer:b##Explaination:V. K. R. V. Rao was related to National Income Committee.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which one of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj institutions?
|
Assam
|
Kerala
|
Nagaland
|
Assam
|
Presently Delhi, Nagaland and Mizoram do not have PRIs.
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj institutions?##Option_A:Assam ###Option_B:Kerala##Option_C:Nagaland ##Option_D:Assam ##Answer:c##Explaination:Presently Delhi, Nagaland and Mizoram do not have PRIs.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are vows taken by the Jain monks/nuns.?
|
abstain from lying
|
feed the hungry
|
observe celibacy
|
abstain from lying
|
Jaina monks and nuns took five vows: to abstain from killing, stealing and lying; to observe celibacy; and to abstain from possessing property.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are vows taken by the Jain monks/nuns.?
##Option_A:abstain from lying
###Option_B:feed the hungry
##Option_C:observe celibacy
##Option_D:abstain from lying
##Answer:a##Explaination:Jaina monks and nuns took five vows: to abstain from killing, stealing and lying; to observe celibacy; and to abstain from possessing property.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Which of the following practices/beliefs is/are preached in Jainism? Monastic existence Penance Cycle of Karma Ahimsa Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 3
|
According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore,monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation.
|
d
|
Religion and Philosophy
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following practices/beliefs is/are preached in Jainism? Monastic existence Penance Cycle of Karma Ahimsa Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3###Option_B: 2, 3, 4##Option_C: 1, 3, 4##Option_D: 1, 2, 3##Answer:d##Explaination:According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore,monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation.##Topic:Religion and Philosophy##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding deserts is/are true?
1. Some plants store water and some shed leaves during droughts.
2. Seeds of grasses and herbs are very thick.
3. Deserts where nothing grows is very common
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,2
D. 1,3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
deserts where nothing grows is very rare. Predominant vegetation of both hot and mid latitude deserts is xerophytic scrub.
|
c
|
World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding deserts is/are true?
1. Some plants store water and some shed leaves during droughts.
2. Seeds of grasses and herbs are very thick.
3. Deserts where nothing grows is very common
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,2
D. 1,3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
deserts where nothing grows is very rare. Predominant vegetation of both hot and mid latitude deserts is xerophytic scrub.
##Topic:World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Mediterranean vegetation? Plants are not xerophytic or drought resistant. There is absence of shade. Grass is in abundance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Plants are in continuous struggle against heat, dry air, excessive evaporation and prolonged droughts. Trees with small broad leaves are widely spaced and never very tall.The absence of shade is a distinct feature of Mediterranean lands. Conditions in Mediterranean do not suit grass, because most of the rain comes in cool season when growth is slow.
|
b
|
World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct about Mediterranean vegetation? Plants are not xerophytic or drought resistant. There is absence of shade. Grass is in abundance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Plants are in continuous struggle against heat, dry air, excessive evaporation and prolonged droughts. Trees with small broad leaves are widely spaced and never very tall.The absence of shade is a distinct feature of Mediterranean lands. Conditions in Mediterranean do not suit grass, because most of the rain comes in cool season when growth is slow.##Topic:World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements about Mediterranean cultivation is/are true?
1. Transhumance is limited.
2. Fruit trees have long roots.
3. Quality of soil affects the quality of wine
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,3
D. 2,3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Transhumance is widely practised.
Other factors that affect the quality of wine: The types of vines grown ,The climate of the region, Method & extent of fermentation.
|
d
|
World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements about Mediterranean cultivation is/are true?
1. Transhumance is limited.
2. Fruit trees have long roots.
3. Quality of soil affects the quality of wine
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,3
D. 2,3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Transhumance is widely practised.
Other factors that affect the quality of wine: The types of vines grown ,The climate of the region, Method & extent of fermentation.
##Topic:World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Mark the region where 'Pastoral Farming' is not practised?
A. Temperate Grasslands.
B. African Savanna
C. Mediterranean Region
D. British Climate
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Temperate grasslands are major pastoral regions.
|
c
|
World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Mark the region where 'Pastoral Farming' is not practised?
A. Temperate Grasslands.
B. African Savanna
C. Mediterranean Region
D. British Climate
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Temperate grasslands are major pastoral regions.
##Topic:World: Agriculture , Industry , Mineral , Infrastructure , Forestry , Power , Industrial Product and Leading Producer , Major product of various natural region ,Important Boundary line , Important cities##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements about ‘Footloose industry’ is/are true? Emerging industry They don’t depend upon component parts. Polluting industry Small labour force is required. Close to road network. 2,4 1,5 2,3 4,5
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.
|
d
|
Population, Migration, Settlements
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about ‘Footloose industry’ is/are true? Emerging industry They don’t depend upon component parts. Polluting industry Small labour force is required. Close to road network. 2,4 1,5 2,3 4,5##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.##Topic:Population, Migration, Settlements##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are secondary activity?
1. Handicrafts
2. Entertainment industry
3. Tourism industry
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. None
Which of the following is/are secondary activity?
1. Handicrafts
2. Entertainment industry
3. Tourism industry
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
.
|
c
|
Population, Migration, Settlements
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are secondary activity?
1. Handicrafts
2. Entertainment industry
3. Tourism industry
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. None
Which of the following is/are secondary activity?
1. Handicrafts
2. Entertainment industry
3. Tourism industry
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
.
##Topic:Population, Migration, Settlements##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
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