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Consider the following statements about Government Securities (G-Secs): It acknowledges government debt obligation. They generally offer the highest rate of return. They are generally risk-free or carry minimum risk. They are regulated by SEBI in the secondary market. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
G-Secs are interest bearing dated securities offered by RBI on behalf of Central and State governments. Governments use these funds to meet their expenditure commitments. Since these are backed by government (i.e. the government stands guarantee), they are considered risk free. Because they have no or little risk associated with them, they do not offer very high rates of returns (Risk and Return are directly co-related). They are regulated by RBI even in the secondary market. It was proposed this year that their regulation be shifted to SEBI, but the proposal was later withdrawn.
|
b
|
Prices & Monetary management,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Government Securities (G-Secs): It acknowledges government debt obligation. They generally offer the highest rate of return. They are generally risk-free or carry minimum risk. They are regulated by SEBI in the secondary market. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:G-Secs are interest bearing dated securities offered by RBI on behalf of Central and State governments. Governments use these funds to meet their expenditure commitments. Since these are backed by government (i.e. the government stands guarantee), they are considered risk free. Because they have no or little risk associated with them, they do not offer very high rates of returns (Risk and Return are directly co-related). They are regulated by RBI even in the secondary market. It was proposed this year that their regulation be shifted to SEBI, but the proposal was later withdrawn.##Topic:Prices & Monetary management,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the provisions mentioned in the Constitution with respect to the qualification required to be appointed as a Chief Minister of a State: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the chief minister. The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he is appointed as the chief minister. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as chief minister. The term of the chief minister is fixed. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the CM because Article 164 only says that the CM shall be appointed by the Governor. This is done in accordance with the conventions of the Parliamentary system of government, wherein the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the CM. Statement 2 is correct - The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he is appointed as the chief minister. The Governor may first appoint him as a CM and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. Statement 3 is incorrect - A person who is not a member of the State legislature can be appointed as CM for 6 months, within which time, he should be elected to the State Legislature. Statement 4 is incorrect - The term of the chief minister is not fixed as he holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
|
a
|
Chief Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the provisions mentioned in the Constitution with respect to the qualification required to be appointed as a Chief Minister of a State: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the chief minister. The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he is appointed as the chief minister. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as chief minister. The term of the chief minister is fixed. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct - The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the CM because Article 164 only says that the CM shall be appointed by the Governor. This is done in accordance with the conventions of the Parliamentary system of government, wherein the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the CM. Statement 2 is correct - The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he is appointed as the chief minister. The Governor may first appoint him as a CM and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. Statement 3 is incorrect - A person who is not a member of the State legislature can be appointed as CM for 6 months, within which time, he should be elected to the State Legislature. Statement 4 is incorrect - The term of the chief minister is not fixed as he holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.##Topic:Chief Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With regard to the sessions of State Legislature, consider the following statements: The Speaker of legislative assembly from time to time summons each house of State Legislature to meet. An adjournment of a House suspends the work, in a sitting for a specified time which may be hours, days or weeks. The Governor of the State declares the house adjourned sine die, when the business of the session is completed. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1st Statement is incorrect because it is the Governor who summons from time to time each house of State Legislature to meet. 3rd Statement is incorrect because it is the Presiding Officer who declares the house adjourned sine die, when the business of the session is completed. Within the next few days the Governor issues a notification for prorogation of the session.
|
a
|
Working of Vidhan Sabha
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the sessions of State Legislature, consider the following statements: The Speaker of legislative assembly from time to time summons each house of State Legislature to meet. An adjournment of a House suspends the work, in a sitting for a specified time which may be hours, days or weeks. The Governor of the State declares the house adjourned sine die, when the business of the session is completed. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1st Statement is incorrect because it is the Governor who summons from time to time each house of State Legislature to meet. 3rd Statement is incorrect because it is the Presiding Officer who declares the house adjourned sine die, when the business of the session is completed. Within the next few days the Governor issues a notification for prorogation of the session.##Topic:Working of Vidhan Sabha##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following authorities makes recommendation to the governor of a state as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the panchayats in that particular state?
|
District planning committees
|
State Finance Commission
|
Finance ministry of the state
|
District planning committees
|
nan
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following authorities makes recommendation to the governor of a state as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the panchayats in that particular state?##Option_A: District planning committees###Option_B: State Finance Commission##Option_C: Finance ministry of the state##Option_D: District planning committees##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The governor is the chief legislative head of the state. The governor also acts as an agent of the central government. The office of governor of a state is an employment under the central government. Office of governor is under the direct control of central government. Which of the statement(s) give above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 4
|
1 and 3
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 4
|
1st statement is incorrect. Governor is the chief executive head of the state. 2nd statement is incorrect. Governor acts as a link between the Centre and State. It is a criticism against the Office of Governor that he/she acts as an agent of the Centre. 3rd statement is incorrect. Office of Governor of state is not an employment under the central government. 4th statement is incorrect. Office of governor is not under the direct control of central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the central government.
|
d
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The governor is the chief legislative head of the state. The governor also acts as an agent of the central government. The office of governor of a state is an employment under the central government. Office of governor is under the direct control of central government. Which of the statement(s) give above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4###Option_B: 1 and 3##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect. Governor is the chief executive head of the state. 2nd statement is incorrect. Governor acts as a link between the Centre and State. It is a criticism against the Office of Governor that he/she acts as an agent of the Centre. 3rd statement is incorrect. Office of Governor of state is not an employment under the central government. 4th statement is incorrect. Office of governor is not under the direct control of central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the central government.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation in the country under article 352, which of the following is/are in correct ? The parliament is empowered under article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the state list. The power of the state legislature to make a law which it is entitled to make under the constitution is suspended. The Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on 'any' matter. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 2 incorrect because- both centre and the state can make legislations because in case of National Emergency, the state list becomes the concurrent list. Rest all the statements are correct.
|
b
|
Emergency Provision
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation in the country under article 352, which of the following is/are in correct ? The parliament is empowered under article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the state list. The power of the state legislature to make a law which it is entitled to make under the constitution is suspended. The Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on 'any' matter. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 2 incorrect because- both centre and the state can make legislations because in case of National Emergency, the state list becomes the concurrent list. Rest all the statements are correct.##Topic:Emergency Provision##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Some states in India have bi-cameral legislature including legislative council and legislative assembly. The legislative council have limited powers with respect to passing of bills. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the upper house of state legislature? 1. The house does not have any power in passing the money bill 2. The elected members of the house have right to vote in election to the RajyaSabha. 3. The members of the house do not participate in the election of the President
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
1 and 2
|
Only legislative assembly participates in election to the Rajya Sabha.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Some states in India have bi-cameral legislature including legislative council and legislative assembly. The legislative council have limited powers with respect to passing of bills. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the upper house of state legislature? 1. The house does not have any power in passing the money bill 2. The elected members of the house have right to vote in election to the RajyaSabha. 3. The members of the house do not participate in the election of the President##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 1 and 3##Option_C: Only 1 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Only legislative assembly participates in election to the Rajya Sabha.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding adjournment and prorogation of houses of parliament- Adjournment is done by the Presiding officer of the House and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Prorogation is done by the President of India and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Prorogation is done by the president of India and it also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding adjournment and prorogation of houses of parliament- Adjournment is done by the Presiding officer of the House and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Prorogation is done by the President of India and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Prorogation is done by the president of India and it also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With regard to the Speaker, consider the following statements- Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker has to vacate his office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct - The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant , the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly- elected Lok Sabha meets.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the Speaker, consider the following statements- Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker has to vacate his office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct - The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant , the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly- elected Lok Sabha meets.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With regard to the office of Whip, consider the following statements: The office of Whip is mentioned in the Parliamentary Statute. He is appointed by the Speaker. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st Statement is incorrect. Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
2nd Statement is incorrect. The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the Parliamentary Government.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the office of Whip, consider the following statements: The office of Whip is mentioned in the Parliamentary Statute. He is appointed by the Speaker. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
1st Statement is incorrect. Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
2nd Statement is incorrect. The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the Parliamentary Government.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot be the presiding officer of which Committees: Business Advisory Committee The Rules Committee General Purpose Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Speaker appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General Purpose Committee.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot be the presiding officer of which Committees: Business Advisory Committee The Rules Committee General Purpose Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Speaker appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General Purpose Committee.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha. The power of Speaker in this regard is-
|
Arbitrary
|
Tribunal
|
Civil court
|
Arbitrary
|
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal . Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha. The power of Speaker in this regard is-##Option_A: Arbitrary###Option_B: Tribunal##Option_C: Civil court##Option_D: Arbitrary##Answer:b##Explaination:Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal . Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding prime minister of India- (a) If prime minister is the member of Rajya Sabha, he can cast vote in Lok Sabha but a minister cannot. (b) The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. Which of the above statements are true -
|
Only a
|
Only b
|
Both a and b
|
Only a
|
If prime minister or any minister is the member of Rajya Sabha, he cannot cast vote in Lok Sabha.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding prime minister of India- (a) If prime minister is the member of Rajya Sabha, he can cast vote in Lok Sabha but a minister cannot. (b) The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. Which of the above statements are true -##Option_A: Only a ###Option_B: Only b##Option_C: Both a and b ##Option_D: Only a ##Answer:b##Explaination:If prime minister or any minister is the member of Rajya Sabha, he cannot cast vote in Lok Sabha.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Parliament can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes. President appoints the attorney general of India and Parliament determines his remuneration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st statement is incorrect because it is the President who can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes.
2nd statement is incorrect because the President appoints the attorney general of India and determines his remuneration as well.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Parliament can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes. President appoints the attorney general of India and Parliament determines his remuneration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
1st statement is incorrect because it is the President who can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes.
2nd statement is incorrect because the President appoints the attorney general of India and determines his remuneration as well.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
What do you understand by loss of citizenship by deprivation?
|
If someone renounces his/her citizenship voluntarily.
|
If someone acquires the citizenship of another country.
|
A person who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947.
|
If someone renounces his/her citizenship voluntarily.
|
Loss of citizenship by deprivation means termination of citizenship by the central government if the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud, shown disloyalty to the constitution, communicated with the enemy during war, has been staying out of India for seven years continuously or within 5 years of registration or naturalisation been imprisoned in any country for two years.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What do you understand by loss of citizenship by deprivation?##Option_A: If someone renounces his/her citizenship voluntarily.###Option_B: If someone acquires the citizenship of another country.##Option_C: A person who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947.##Option_D: If someone renounces his/her citizenship voluntarily.##Answer:d##Explaination:Loss of citizenship by deprivation means termination of citizenship by the central government if the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud, shown disloyalty to the constitution, communicated with the enemy during war, has been staying out of India for seven years continuously or within 5 years of registration or naturalisation been imprisoned in any country for two years.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to Citizenship provisions under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement Constitution provides five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution doesn't deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement; however it has empowered parliament to make laws on such matter and Citizenship act of 1955 deals with the ways of acquiring citizenship not constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect: Not Constitution but the Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz., birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
|
d
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to Citizenship provisions under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement Constitution provides five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution doesn't deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement; however it has empowered parliament to make laws on such matter and Citizenship act of 1955 deals with the ways of acquiring citizenship not constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect: Not Constitution but the Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz., birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with respect to Citizenship: Enemy aliens enjoy lesser rights than friendly aliens. Aliens enjoy all the civil rights but not all the political rights as citizens. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st statement is correct. Enemy aliens don’t enjoy protection against arrest and detention under Article 22. 2nd statement is correct. Aliens do not enjoy all the civil and political rights as citizens do.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to Citizenship: Enemy aliens enjoy lesser rights than friendly aliens. Aliens enjoy all the civil rights but not all the political rights as citizens. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:1st statement is correct. Enemy aliens don’t enjoy protection against arrest and detention under Article 22. 2nd statement is correct. Aliens do not enjoy all the civil and political rights as citizens do.##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Hyderabad and Junagarh were integrated with India by means of referendum Kashmir was integrated by the instrument of accession. Both Nagaland and Mizoram was integrated to India with the use of army after independence Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were made new states based on linguistic reorganisation Sikkim and Goa were integrated to India using similar means. Which of the statement(s) given above is are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Hyderabad was integrate by the means of police action while Junagarh by referendum. Nagaland was part of Indian union and was separated later from Assam. 4 is incorrect. T he basis for creating these new states was socio-political and not linguistic. In Sikkim referendum was used while army was used to integrate Goa
|
c
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Hyderabad and Junagarh were integrated with India by means of referendum Kashmir was integrated by the instrument of accession. Both Nagaland and Mizoram was integrated to India with the use of army after independence Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were made new states based on linguistic reorganisation Sikkim and Goa were integrated to India using similar means. Which of the statement(s) given above is are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Hyderabad was integrate by the means of police action while Junagarh by referendum. Nagaland was part of Indian union and was separated later from Assam. 4 is incorrect. T he basis for creating these new states was socio-political and not linguistic. In Sikkim referendum was used while army was used to integrate Goa##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Both India and Pakistan ceased to be British dominions with commencement of their constitution. Pakistan remained a British dominion even after India ceased to be. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
India enacted its constitution in 1950 and Pakistan in 1956. Pakistan remained a British dominion until 1956.
|
c
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Both India and Pakistan ceased to be British dominions with commencement of their constitution. Pakistan remained a British dominion even after India ceased to be. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:India enacted its constitution in 1950 and Pakistan in 1956. Pakistan remained a British dominion until 1956.##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: All parts of constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. The Indian independence act, 1947 and Government of India act, 1935 were repealed on 26 th November, 1949 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Few parts of constitution e.g. Article 5, 6, 7, 8 ,9, 60, 324 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. The Indian independence act, 1947 and Government of India act, 1935 were repealed on 26 th January, 1950 with the commencement of the constitution.
|
d
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: All parts of constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. The Indian independence act, 1947 and Government of India act, 1935 were repealed on 26 th November, 1949 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Few parts of constitution e.g. Article 5, 6, 7, 8 ,9, 60, 324 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. The Indian independence act, 1947 and Government of India act, 1935 were repealed on 26 th January, 1950 with the commencement of the constitution.##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which is not true for the Government of India act of 1919?
|
It divided the provincial subjects into two parts.
|
It introduced bicameralism at the centre.
|
It introduced direct elections for the first time.
|
It divided the provincial subjects into two parts.
|
It required that three out of eight members of the Viceroy’s executive council were to be Indian. Rest all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which is not true for the Government of India act of 1919?##Option_A: It divided the provincial subjects into two parts.###Option_B: It introduced bicameralism at the centre.##Option_C: It introduced direct elections for the first time.##Option_D: It divided the provincial subjects into two parts.##Answer:d##Explaination:It required that three out of eight members of the Viceroy’s executive council were to be Indian. Rest all the statements are correct.##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
From which country’s constitution has India borrowed the procedure for electing Rajya Sabha members?
|
South Africa
|
France
|
Canada
|
South Africa
|
nan
|
a
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:From which country’s constitution has India borrowed the procedure for electing Rajya Sabha members?##Option_A: South Africa###Option_B: France##Option_C: Canada##Option_D: South Africa##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding various theatre forms of India: In swang theatre, language used is Haryanvi as it is associated with Rohtak only. In Theyyam theatre, heroes and ancestral worship is the most important aspect. Mudiyettu theatre represents triumph of goddess bhadrakali over asura darika. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1st statement is incorrect - Swang theatre is mainly music based. Two important style of swang are from Rohtak (used Haryanvi) and Hathras (uses Brajbhasa). Softness of emotion is visible in the form. 2nd statement is correct - Theyyam theatre is performed with head gear in Northern Kerala. It is also known as god's dance. Actors represent god and goddesses of local areas. Heroes and ancestral worship is important part of this art form. 3rd statement is correct : Mudiyettu theatre represents triumph of goddess bhadrakali over asura darika. It is performed in kali temples of kerala. It represents triumph of good over evil. It is also recognized by UNESCO in the representative list of intangible heritage.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Arts & Culture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding various theatre forms of India: In swang theatre, language used is Haryanvi as it is associated with Rohtak only. In Theyyam theatre, heroes and ancestral worship is the most important aspect. Mudiyettu theatre represents triumph of goddess bhadrakali over asura darika. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect - Swang theatre is mainly music based. Two important style of swang are from Rohtak (used Haryanvi) and Hathras (uses Brajbhasa). Softness of emotion is visible in the form. 2nd statement is correct - Theyyam theatre is performed with head gear in Northern Kerala. It is also known as god's dance. Actors represent god and goddesses of local areas. Heroes and ancestral worship is important part of this art form. 3rd statement is correct : Mudiyettu theatre represents triumph of goddess bhadrakali over asura darika. It is performed in kali temples of kerala. It represents triumph of good over evil. It is also recognized by UNESCO in the representative list of intangible heritage.##Topic:Miscellaneous Arts & Culture##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
As compared to FERA, FEMA is:
|
More positive law
|
More investment friendly
|
Both a and b
|
More positive law
|
Last line of Para 2 – positive law.
2 nd last line of Para 2 – all correct account transactions are permitted.
4 th line of Para 2 – regulate and manage transactions
Hence (c)
|
c
|
Aptitude Unclassified
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As compared to FERA, FEMA is:##Option_A:More positive law###Option_B:More investment friendly##Option_C:Both a and b##Option_D:More positive law##Answer:c##Explaination:Last line of Para 2 – positive law.
2 nd last line of Para 2 – all correct account transactions are permitted.
4 th line of Para 2 – regulate and manage transactions
Hence (c)##Topic:Aptitude Unclassified##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Tax expenditure is an instrument used by policy makers to manage taxation. Which of the following constitute tax expenditure? Targeted financial incentives in the form of tax holiday for the promotion of bamboo industry. Lower tax collection from the corporate sector on account of existence of black economy. Tax exemption on purchase of health insurance. Expenditure incurred in the process of tax collection by the tax authorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Tax expenditure refers to revenue a government foregoes through the provisions of tax laws that allow. deductions, exclusions, or exemptions from the taxpayers' taxable expenditure, income, or investment. Option 1 and 3 indicate tax exemptions to bamboo industry and the person obtaining health insurance respectively. The revenue foregone due to these exemptions would contribute to tax expenditure of the government. Option 2 and 4 do not depict such a scenario.
|
d
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Tax expenditure is an instrument used by policy makers to manage taxation. Which of the following constitute tax expenditure? Targeted financial incentives in the form of tax holiday for the promotion of bamboo industry. Lower tax collection from the corporate sector on account of existence of black economy. Tax exemption on purchase of health insurance. Expenditure incurred in the process of tax collection by the tax authorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4###Option_B: 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4##Answer:d##Explaination:Tax expenditure refers to revenue a government foregoes through the provisions of tax laws that allow. deductions, exclusions, or exemptions from the taxpayers' taxable expenditure, income, or investment. Option 1 and 3 indicate tax exemptions to bamboo industry and the person obtaining health insurance respectively. The revenue foregone due to these exemptions would contribute to tax expenditure of the government. Option 2 and 4 do not depict such a scenario.##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Veto powers of the President, consider the following statements: 1. The President cannot use Suspensive veto in the case of the Money bill and Constitutional amendment bill. 2. The President exercises Absolute veto only on the advice of the Council of Ministers. 3. Till now no President in India has ever used the Pocket veto. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Veto powers of the President, consider the following statements: 1. The President cannot use Suspensive veto in the case of the Money bill and Constitutional amendment bill. 2. The President exercises Absolute veto only on the advice of the Council of Ministers. 3. Till now no President in India has ever used the Pocket veto. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the components of economic drain according to drain theory given in the book “Poverty and UnBritish Rule”?
1. Interest on loan taken by Indian government from abroad.
2. Profits on foreign investments in India.
3. Purchase of handicrafts which were made in India and selling them in foreign markets.
4. The money which is sent by British officials in India to their home in England.
Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
According to the book Poverty and UnBritish Rule (written by DadaBhai Naoroji) the major components of drain were salaries and pensions of civil and military officials, interest on loan taken by Indian government from abroad, profits on foreign investment in India, Payments to be made from shipping, banking and insurance services, the remissions send by British officials abroad. So option 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Purchase of handicrafts which were made in India is not carrying Indian money outside India. Purchase of Indian product (by Britisher or other) is infusing money in Indian economy so it is not drain of wealth. So option 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
Economic Impact of British Rule
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are the components of economic drain according to drain theory given in the book “Poverty and UnBritish Rule”?
1. Interest on loan taken by Indian government from abroad.
2. Profits on foreign investments in India.
3. Purchase of handicrafts which were made in India and selling them in foreign markets.
4. The money which is sent by British officials in India to their home in England.
Select the correct answer using code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only
###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
According to the book Poverty and UnBritish Rule (written by DadaBhai Naoroji) the major components of drain were salaries and pensions of civil and military officials, interest on loan taken by Indian government from abroad, profits on foreign investment in India, Payments to be made from shipping, banking and insurance services, the remissions send by British officials abroad. So option 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Purchase of handicrafts which were made in India is not carrying Indian money outside India. Purchase of Indian product (by Britisher or other) is infusing money in Indian economy so it is not drain of wealth. So option 3 is incorrect.
##Topic:Economic Impact of British Rule##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Recently General Anti-Avoidance Rules were in news. In financial terms, tax avoidance occurs when?
|
the taxpayer pays less than he is obligated to pay by hiding income or information from tax authority.
|
the taxpayer avoids tax by taking advantage of a fiscal incentive of the tax legislation.
|
the taxpayer counters tax liability using legal loopholes, defeating the main intent of the law.
|
the taxpayer pays less than he is obligated to pay by hiding income or information from tax authority.
|
1. Tax Evasion: meaning illegal and fraudulent arrangements where liability to tax is hidden or ignored i.e. the tax payer pays less than he is legally obligated to pay by hiding income or information from tax authority.
2. Tax Avoidance: The legal means used to avoid or reduce tax liability, which would be otherwise incurred, by taking advantage of some provision or lack of provision in the law. Thus, in this case tax payer tries to reduce his tax liability but here the arrangement will be legal, but may not be as per intent of the law. Thus, in this case, tax payer does not hide the key facts but is still able to avoid or reduce tax liability on account of some loopholes or otherwise.
3. Tax Mitigation: It is a situation where the taxpayer takes advantage of a fiscal incentive afforded to him by the tax legislation by actually submitting to the conditions and economic consequences that the particular tax legislation entails. A good example of tax mitigation is the setting up of a business undertaking by a tax payer in a specified area such as Special Economic Zone (SEZ).
4. Tax Planning: Tax Planning is defined as arrangement of a person's business and / or private affairs in order to minimize tax liability.
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently General Anti-Avoidance Rules were in news. In financial terms, tax avoidance occurs when?
##Option_A: the taxpayer pays less than he is obligated to pay by hiding income or information from tax authority.
###Option_B: the taxpayer avoids tax by taking advantage of a fiscal incentive of the tax legislation.
##Option_C: the taxpayer counters tax liability using legal loopholes, defeating the main intent of the law.
##Option_D: the taxpayer pays less than he is obligated to pay by hiding income or information from tax authority.
##Answer:c##Explaination:
1. Tax Evasion: meaning illegal and fraudulent arrangements where liability to tax is hidden or ignored i.e. the tax payer pays less than he is legally obligated to pay by hiding income or information from tax authority.
2. Tax Avoidance: The legal means used to avoid or reduce tax liability, which would be otherwise incurred, by taking advantage of some provision or lack of provision in the law. Thus, in this case tax payer tries to reduce his tax liability but here the arrangement will be legal, but may not be as per intent of the law. Thus, in this case, tax payer does not hide the key facts but is still able to avoid or reduce tax liability on account of some loopholes or otherwise.
3. Tax Mitigation: It is a situation where the taxpayer takes advantage of a fiscal incentive afforded to him by the tax legislation by actually submitting to the conditions and economic consequences that the particular tax legislation entails. A good example of tax mitigation is the setting up of a business undertaking by a tax payer in a specified area such as Special Economic Zone (SEZ).
4. Tax Planning: Tax Planning is defined as arrangement of a person's business and / or private affairs in order to minimize tax liability.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to "crowding out" of private investment by government: It takes place when there is high private sector borrowing, thereby reducing the size of government investment. Due to crowding out of private investment by the government, private sector is not allowed to invest more in government securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Its an economic concept where increased public sector spending replaces, or drives down, private sector spending. " Crowding out " thus, refers to when government must finance its spending with taxes and/or with deficit spending, leaving businesses/ private sector with less money and effectively "crowding them out ."
One explanation of why crowding out occurs is government financing of projects with deficit spending through the use of borrowed money. When the government has to borrow, it needs to borrow from the private sector. This could be private individuals, pension funds or investment trusts. Thus, it is argued that if the private sector buy government securities this will crowd out private sector investment.
Also "crowding out" implies how government borrowing can cause higher interest rates because, if government needs to sell more securities, it may have to increase interest rates on its bonds to attract private sector to buy government securities. Thus, higher interest rates discourage private sector from borrowing money, which reduces their spending and investment activities.
|
d
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to "crowding out" of private investment by government: It takes place when there is high private sector borrowing, thereby reducing the size of government investment. Due to crowding out of private investment by the government, private sector is not allowed to invest more in government securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Its an economic concept where increased public sector spending replaces, or drives down, private sector spending. " Crowding out " thus, refers to when government must finance its spending with taxes and/or with deficit spending, leaving businesses/ private sector with less money and effectively "crowding them out ."
One explanation of why crowding out occurs is government financing of projects with deficit spending through the use of borrowed money. When the government has to borrow, it needs to borrow from the private sector. This could be private individuals, pension funds or investment trusts. Thus, it is argued that if the private sector buy government securities this will crowd out private sector investment.
Also "crowding out" implies how government borrowing can cause higher interest rates because, if government needs to sell more securities, it may have to increase interest rates on its bonds to attract private sector to buy government securities. Thus, higher interest rates discourage private sector from borrowing money, which reduces their spending and investment activities.
##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Following are given a few statements about frictional force. Select the incorrect statement regarding force of friction from the codes given below?
|
Force of friction is always opposite to the direction of motion of object on which it is acting.
|
A stone lying on a inclined ground because frictional force is balanced by the gravitational force acting downwards.
|
We can walk easily due to the force of friction that acts on our feet in the direction of movement.
|
Force of friction is always opposite to the direction of motion of object on which it is acting.
|
Solution:
A: This is the basic property of frictional force. Frictional force always opposes the motion, or it always acts in opposite direction of motion.
B: Here stone is lying in idle position. Thus all forces acting on the stone are getting balanced by each other. As only two forces are acting on stone (gravitational force and frictional force) they are balancing each other.
C: When we walk we push the ground backwards. Thus force of friction push us in foreward direction. Thus we can walk easily. We find it difficult to walk on slippery ground due to absence of frictional force. Eg. walking on ice.
D: In this option initially box does not move because ther force exerted on the box is balanced by frictional force. When the exerted force becomes greater than frictional force the box starts moving.
|
d
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Following are given a few statements about frictional force. Select the incorrect statement regarding force of friction from the codes given below?
##Option_A: Force of friction is always opposite to the direction of motion of object on which it is acting.
###Option_B: A stone lying on a inclined ground because frictional force is balanced by the gravitational force acting downwards.
##Option_C: We can walk easily due to the force of friction that acts on our feet in the direction of movement.
##Option_D: Force of friction is always opposite to the direction of motion of object on which it is acting.
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Solution:
A: This is the basic property of frictional force. Frictional force always opposes the motion, or it always acts in opposite direction of motion.
B: Here stone is lying in idle position. Thus all forces acting on the stone are getting balanced by each other. As only two forces are acting on stone (gravitational force and frictional force) they are balancing each other.
C: When we walk we push the ground backwards. Thus force of friction push us in foreward direction. Thus we can walk easily. We find it difficult to walk on slippery ground due to absence of frictional force. Eg. walking on ice.
D: In this option initially box does not move because ther force exerted on the box is balanced by frictional force. When the exerted force becomes greater than frictional force the box starts moving.
##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Recently there has been a steep decline in the global crude oil prices. How will this change impact Indian economy?
1. Retail price of Diesel will decrease at the same rate due to combined effect of deregulation.
2. It will lead to decrease in interest rates.
3. India's export to oil exporting countries will be affected positively.
4. Forex reserves will increase.
5. It provides an opportunity to shift taxes towards carbon use.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
Retail price of Diesel is dependent on the excise duty. Since the government is increasing the excise duty, the retail price will not decrease at the same rate. This is done by the government to increase the revenue which can be further invested in the infrastructure projects.
Reduction in the crude oil prices has resulted in decline in the inflation which has led to decrease in repo rate by the RBI.
India's exports to oil producing economies could get impacted when the growth rates of those economies take a dip due to low oil prices. Also, the fact that a large part of the Indian diaspora is working in oil producing countries, any slowdown there can also affect the inward remittances. Thus, it is very critical that oil recovers to a level (say around $70) at which it is balanced in favour of India's imports without affecting its exports too much.
Since India imports more than 70 per cent of its oil consumption, deflating global crude prices reduces India’s import bill. This gives the Reserve Bank some room to add more dollars to India’s forex reserves.
The recent steep decline in international oil prices is seen by many as an opportunity to rationalize the energy prices by getting rid of the distorting subsidies whilst shifting taxes towards carbon use. This will not only be a fiscally prudent measure but also an opportune time to introduce measures such as carbon taxes, which are still the most potent instruments in dealing with the threats of climate change.
|
a
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently there has been a steep decline in the global crude oil prices. How will this change impact Indian economy?
1. Retail price of Diesel will decrease at the same rate due to combined effect of deregulation.
2. It will lead to decrease in interest rates.
3. India's export to oil exporting countries will be affected positively.
4. Forex reserves will increase.
5. It provides an opportunity to shift taxes towards carbon use.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
##Option_A: 2, 4 and 5 only ###Option_B: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 2, 4 and 5 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
Retail price of Diesel is dependent on the excise duty. Since the government is increasing the excise duty, the retail price will not decrease at the same rate. This is done by the government to increase the revenue which can be further invested in the infrastructure projects.
Reduction in the crude oil prices has resulted in decline in the inflation which has led to decrease in repo rate by the RBI.
India's exports to oil producing economies could get impacted when the growth rates of those economies take a dip due to low oil prices. Also, the fact that a large part of the Indian diaspora is working in oil producing countries, any slowdown there can also affect the inward remittances. Thus, it is very critical that oil recovers to a level (say around $70) at which it is balanced in favour of India's imports without affecting its exports too much.
Since India imports more than 70 per cent of its oil consumption, deflating global crude prices reduces India’s import bill. This gives the Reserve Bank some room to add more dollars to India’s forex reserves.
The recent steep decline in international oil prices is seen by many as an opportunity to rationalize the energy prices by getting rid of the distorting subsidies whilst shifting taxes towards carbon use. This will not only be a fiscally prudent measure but also an opportune time to introduce measures such as carbon taxes, which are still the most potent instruments in dealing with the threats of climate change.
##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Strategic Action Plan 2011-2022 for rural drinking water, which of the following statements is / are correct?
It aims to provide enabling support and environment for Panchayati Raj Institutions and local communities to manage rural drinking water sources and systems.
It stipulates regulatory mechanism to make water quality standards mandatory and enforceable in phased manner.
It will ensure that all households, schools and anganwadis in rural India have access to and use adequate quantity of safe drinking water by 2017.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Strategic action plan 2011 -2022 has following goals :
Ensure that all households, schools and anganwadis in rural India have access to and use adequate quantity of safe drinking water. • Provide enabling support and environment for Panchayat Raj Institutions and local communities to manage at least 60% of rural drinking water sources and systems.
Legal and regulatory measures are proposed in plan to maintain high water quality.
By 2017-
Ensure that at least 55% of rural households are provided with piped water supply; at least 35% of rural households have piped water supply with a household connection; less than 20% use public taps and less than 45% use handpumps or other safe and adequate private water sources. All services meet set standards in terms of quality and number of hours of supply every day.
Ensure that all households, schools and anganwadis in rural India have access to and use adequate quantity of safe drinking water.
Provide enabling support and environment for Panchayat Raj Institutions and local communities to manage at least 60% of rural drinking water sources and systems.
By 2022 -
Ensure that at least 90% of rural households are provided with piped water supply; at least 80% of rural households have piped water supply with a household connection; less than 10% use public taps and less than 10% use handpumps or other safe and adequate private water sources.
Provide enabling support and environment for all Panchayat Raj Institutions and local communities to manage 100% of rural drinking water sources and systems.
Hence all three statements are correct.
|
d
|
Rural Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Strategic Action Plan 2011-2022 for rural drinking water, which of the following statements is / are correct?
It aims to provide enabling support and environment for Panchayati Raj Institutions and local communities to manage rural drinking water sources and systems.
It stipulates regulatory mechanism to make water quality standards mandatory and enforceable in phased manner.
It will ensure that all households, schools and anganwadis in rural India have access to and use adequate quantity of safe drinking water by 2017.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:The Strategic action plan 2011 -2022 has following goals :
Ensure that all households, schools and anganwadis in rural India have access to and use adequate quantity of safe drinking water. • Provide enabling support and environment for Panchayat Raj Institutions and local communities to manage at least 60% of rural drinking water sources and systems.
Legal and regulatory measures are proposed in plan to maintain high water quality.
By 2017-
Ensure that at least 55% of rural households are provided with piped water supply; at least 35% of rural households have piped water supply with a household connection; less than 20% use public taps and less than 45% use handpumps or other safe and adequate private water sources. All services meet set standards in terms of quality and number of hours of supply every day.
Ensure that all households, schools and anganwadis in rural India have access to and use adequate quantity of safe drinking water.
Provide enabling support and environment for Panchayat Raj Institutions and local communities to manage at least 60% of rural drinking water sources and systems.
By 2022 -
Ensure that at least 90% of rural households are provided with piped water supply; at least 80% of rural households have piped water supply with a household connection; less than 10% use public taps and less than 10% use handpumps or other safe and adequate private water sources.
Provide enabling support and environment for all Panchayat Raj Institutions and local communities to manage 100% of rural drinking water sources and systems.
Hence all three statements are correct.
##Topic:Rural Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following feature is similar in the USA and Indian Constitution?
|
Independent Judiciary
|
Independent Centre and state
|
Appointment of Governors
|
Independent Judiciary
|
Independent judiciary is same in both countries. Rest all are different.
|
a
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following feature is similar in the USA and Indian Constitution?##Option_A: Independent Judiciary###Option_B: Independent Centre and state##Option_C: Appointment of Governors##Option_D: Independent Judiciary##Answer:a##Explaination:Independent judiciary is same in both countries. Rest all are different.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to Indian Citizenship consider the following statements: An illegal migrant can acquire the Citizenship of India by naturalization if he is ordinarily resident in India for 12 years. Government of India may terminate the citizenship of a person acquired by Naturalization or Registration if he/she is imprisoned in any country for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct . An illegal migrant cannot acquire the Citizenship of India. Statement 2 is correct : The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship viz. renunciation, termination and deprivation. If a citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years, his citizenship is compulsorily terminated by the Central Government.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Indian Citizenship consider the following statements: An illegal migrant can acquire the Citizenship of India by naturalization if he is ordinarily resident in India for 12 years. Government of India may terminate the citizenship of a person acquired by Naturalization or Registration if he/she is imprisoned in any country for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct . An illegal migrant cannot acquire the Citizenship of India. Statement 2 is correct : The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship viz. renunciation, termination and deprivation. If a citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years, his citizenship is compulsorily terminated by the Central Government.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Swachha Bharat Mission:
1. The Mission has two Sub-Missions, the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), which aims to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2019.
2. SBM(G) aims at community managed sanitation systems focusing on scientific Solid & Liquid Waste Management systems for overall cleanliness in the rural areas
3. National Scheme Sanctioning Committee (NSSC) is constituted under the SBM(G) to approve or revise the Project Implementation Plan prepared by States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
National Scheme Sanctioning Committee (NSSC) will be constituted under the SBM(G) for specific periods to approve or revise the Perspective Plan called the Project Implementation Plan (PIP) for the States/Districts,
Community managed sanitation systems focusing on scientific Solid & Liquid Waste Management systems for overall cleanliness in the rural areas is one of the main objectives of SBM
SBM consists of two sub mission as mentioned in first statement
So answer is A
|
a
|
Sustainable Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Swachha Bharat Mission:
1. The Mission has two Sub-Missions, the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), which aims to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2019.
2. SBM(G) aims at community managed sanitation systems focusing on scientific Solid & Liquid Waste Management systems for overall cleanliness in the rural areas
3. National Scheme Sanctioning Committee (NSSC) is constituted under the SBM(G) to approve or revise the Project Implementation Plan prepared by States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:
National Scheme Sanctioning Committee (NSSC) will be constituted under the SBM(G) for specific periods to approve or revise the Perspective Plan called the Project Implementation Plan (PIP) for the States/Districts,
Community managed sanitation systems focusing on scientific Solid & Liquid Waste Management systems for overall cleanliness in the rural areas is one of the main objectives of SBM
SBM consists of two sub mission as mentioned in first statement
So answer is A
##Topic:Sustainable Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Subsidiary Alliance System followed by East India Company.
Policy of subsidiary alliance was started by Lord Wellesley.
Hyderabad and Awadh accepted subsidiary alliance treaty offered by Governor General.
By signing Subsidiary Alliance Treaty, Indian ruler lost the right of maintaining diplomatic relations with other states.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Lord Wellesley started Policy of subsidiary alliance to expand British authority in India. So, statement 1 is correct. All major powers such as Hyderabad and Awadh accepted subsidiary alliance treaty offered by Governor General. So, statement 2 is correct. By signing subsidiary alliance treaty, Indian ruler virtually lost his independence. It lost right to self defence, right to maintainin diplomatic relations. So, statement 3 is also correct.
|
d
|
The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Subsidiary Alliance System followed by East India Company.
Policy of subsidiary alliance was started by Lord Wellesley.
Hyderabad and Awadh accepted subsidiary alliance treaty offered by Governor General.
By signing Subsidiary Alliance Treaty, Indian ruler lost the right of maintaining diplomatic relations with other states.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:Lord Wellesley started Policy of subsidiary alliance to expand British authority in India. So, statement 1 is correct. All major powers such as Hyderabad and Awadh accepted subsidiary alliance treaty offered by Governor General. So, statement 2 is correct. By signing subsidiary alliance treaty, Indian ruler virtually lost his independence. It lost right to self defence, right to maintainin diplomatic relations. So, statement 3 is also correct.##Topic:The Advent of the Europeans and British Conquest of India##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution the Fourteenth Finance Commission (FFC) was set up. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding the FFC recommendations? The FFC has enchanced the share of states in the central divisible pool from 32 % to 42 % which includes taxes, surcharges and cess. The distinction between Special Category States and General Category States has been removed for the first time. The FFC recommendations will enhance fiscal federalism. The recommendations include grants to rural and urban local bodies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
The divisible pool is that portion of gross tax revenue which is distributed between the Centre and the States. The divisible pool consists of all taxes, except surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose, net of collection charges. Thus option 1st statement is incorrect.
The distinction between Special Category States and General Category States still exists. Hence 2nd is incorrect.
The FFC has suggested more share in the divisible pool of taxes and more autonomy to the states in use of these funds which would lead to fiscal federalism. Hence statement 3rd is correct.
As per the mandate of Finance Commission it would suggest measures, if needed, to augment State government finances to supplement the resources of local government and to review the state of the finances, deficit and debt conditions at different levels of government. Accordingly grants to rural and urban local bodies has been proposed. Hence, 4th statement is correct.
|
d
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution the Fourteenth Finance Commission (FFC) was set up. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding the FFC recommendations? The FFC has enchanced the share of states in the central divisible pool from 32 % to 42 % which includes taxes, surcharges and cess. The distinction between Special Category States and General Category States has been removed for the first time. The FFC recommendations will enhance fiscal federalism. The recommendations include grants to rural and urban local bodies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The divisible pool is that portion of gross tax revenue which is distributed between the Centre and the States. The divisible pool consists of all taxes, except surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose, net of collection charges. Thus option 1st statement is incorrect.
The distinction between Special Category States and General Category States still exists. Hence 2nd is incorrect.
The FFC has suggested more share in the divisible pool of taxes and more autonomy to the states in use of these funds which would lead to fiscal federalism. Hence statement 3rd is correct.
As per the mandate of Finance Commission it would suggest measures, if needed, to augment State government finances to supplement the resources of local government and to review the state of the finances, deficit and debt conditions at different levels of government. Accordingly grants to rural and urban local bodies has been proposed. Hence, 4th statement is correct.
##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Central Statistics Office (CSO) has recently shifted to the new base of 2011-12 from the earlier base of 2004-05. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding this change ? The growth rate will now be measured by GDP at factor cost at constant prices. Data collection has improved due to inclusion of information from SEBI, PFRDA and IRDA. Due to change in base, Gross value addition will now be captured. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Headline growth rate will now be measured by GDP at constant market prices, which will henceforth be referred to as 'GDP', as is the practice internationally. Earlier, growth was measured in terms of growth rate in GDP at factor cost at constant prices. Hence 1st statement is incorrect.
It would lead to comprehensive coverage of the financial sector by inclusion of information from the accounts of stock brokers, stock exchanges, asset management companies, mutual funds and pension funds, and the regulatory bodies including the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA). Hence 2nd statement is correct.
Due to shift from GDP at factor cost to GDP at market prices the value addition is captured. Hence 3rd statement is correct.
|
c
|
Fiscal Development & Public Finance,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Central Statistics Office (CSO) has recently shifted to the new base of 2011-12 from the earlier base of 2004-05. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding this change ? The growth rate will now be measured by GDP at factor cost at constant prices. Data collection has improved due to inclusion of information from SEBI, PFRDA and IRDA. Due to change in base, Gross value addition will now be captured. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Headline growth rate will now be measured by GDP at constant market prices, which will henceforth be referred to as 'GDP', as is the practice internationally. Earlier, growth was measured in terms of growth rate in GDP at factor cost at constant prices. Hence 1st statement is incorrect.
It would lead to comprehensive coverage of the financial sector by inclusion of information from the accounts of stock brokers, stock exchanges, asset management companies, mutual funds and pension funds, and the regulatory bodies including the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA). Hence 2nd statement is correct.
Due to shift from GDP at factor cost to GDP at market prices the value addition is captured. Hence 3rd statement is correct.
##Topic:Fiscal Development & Public Finance,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
A small piece of stone is tied to one end of a thread. Holding the other end of the thread stone is moved in circular path. On being released the stone moves along a straight line tangential to the circular path. (A tangent to the circle is line that just touches the circle at a single point.) Which of the following can be cited as a reason for this?
|
While moving on circular tension in the thread acted towards the centre. On being released the force acts away from the centre.
|
On being released, it continues to move along the direction it has been moving at that instance.
|
The stone was not accellerating. Thus its direction cannot change. Thus it will move in tangential direction.
|
While moving on circular tension in the thread acted towards the centre. On being released the force acts away from the centre.
|
Solution: The motion of the stone is known as uniform circular motion. The stone is changing direction at every point on its path. But stone continues to move on circular path due to tension in the thread. Thus at the movement thread is released the tension becomes zero. And stone continues to move along the direction it has been moving at that instance.
Option (d) also appears to be correct. But stone is accellerating as its direction is changing continuously. Thus option (D) is wrong as this option says that the stone is not accellerating.
Option A and D are directly wrong as in option A force cannot act in direction away from the centre. The stone is free and as thread is broken there is no other object to exert force in outward direction.
In option D stone moving randomly is not a possibility.
|
b
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
A small piece of stone is tied to one end of a thread. Holding the other end of the thread stone is moved in circular path. On being released the stone moves along a straight line tangential to the circular path. (A tangent to the circle is line that just touches the circle at a single point.) Which of the following can be cited as a reason for this?
##Option_A: While moving on circular tension in the thread acted towards the centre. On being released the force acts away from the centre.
###Option_B: On being released, it continues to move along the direction it has been moving at that instance.
##Option_C: The stone was not accellerating. Thus its direction cannot change. Thus it will move in tangential direction.
##Option_D: While moving on circular tension in the thread acted towards the centre. On being released the force acts away from the centre.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Solution: The motion of the stone is known as uniform circular motion. The stone is changing direction at every point on its path. But stone continues to move on circular path due to tension in the thread. Thus at the movement thread is released the tension becomes zero. And stone continues to move along the direction it has been moving at that instance.
Option (d) also appears to be correct. But stone is accellerating as its direction is changing continuously. Thus option (D) is wrong as this option says that the stone is not accellerating.
Option A and D are directly wrong as in option A force cannot act in direction away from the centre. The stone is free and as thread is broken there is no other object to exert force in outward direction.
In option D stone moving randomly is not a possibility.
##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
A moving truck, even at speeds as low as 5m/s , may kill a person standing in its path. Similarly, a small bullet fired from a gun may kill a person on its path. This sometimes appear contrasting. Which property of a truck and a bullet is responsible for killing the person.?
|
Both, truck and bullet, have large inertia.
|
The high momentum of the two objects is responsible for killing the person.
|
Frictional force acting on bullet and frictional force acting on truck are both high. Thus both kill the person.
|
Both, truck and bullet, have large inertia.
|
Solution: Momentum is defined as product of mass and velocity. (P= m*v)
Here, Truck has less velocity but is very heavy. On the other hand bullet has very less mass but great velocity. Thus both have very large momentum which is responsible for killing of the person.
On the other hand due to heavy mass truck has large inertia in comparison to bullet. Thus option A is not correct.
Frictional force is not relevant here.
|
b
|
Misc. Tech.
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
A moving truck, even at speeds as low as 5m/s , may kill a person standing in its path. Similarly, a small bullet fired from a gun may kill a person on its path. This sometimes appear contrasting. Which property of a truck and a bullet is responsible for killing the person.?
##Option_A: Both, truck and bullet, have large inertia.
###Option_B: The high momentum of the two objects is responsible for killing the person.
##Option_C: Frictional force acting on bullet and frictional force acting on truck are both high. Thus both kill the person.
##Option_D: Both, truck and bullet, have large inertia.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Solution: Momentum is defined as product of mass and velocity. (P= m*v)
Here, Truck has less velocity but is very heavy. On the other hand bullet has very less mass but great velocity. Thus both have very large momentum which is responsible for killing of the person.
On the other hand due to heavy mass truck has large inertia in comparison to bullet. Thus option A is not correct.
Frictional force is not relevant here.
##Topic:Misc. Tech.##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements about CAD is/are correct? It is the difference between national savings and investment. Higher CAD can discourage government subisidies. External Commercial borrowing can reduce CAD. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Typically in the literature, current account deficit (CAD) is viewed as foreign savings that promote growth through higher investment given the level of domestic savings in EMDEs; but in the context of India's large oil import dependence and the sharp rise in global crude oil prices, the widening of the CAD in 2011-12 and 2012-13 may be an atypical outcome. (Economic Survey 2014-15) ECB is a part of Capital Account and not Current Account. The current account can also be expressed as the difference between national (both public and private) savings and investment. A current account deficit may therefore reflect a low level of national savings relative to investment or a high rate of investment or both. For capital-poor developing countries, which have more investment opportunities than they can afford to undertake because of low levels of domestic savings, a current account deficit may be natural.
|
a
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about CAD is/are correct? It is the difference between national savings and investment. Higher CAD can discourage government subisidies. External Commercial borrowing can reduce CAD. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Typically in the literature, current account deficit (CAD) is viewed as foreign savings that promote growth through higher investment given the level of domestic savings in EMDEs; but in the context of India's large oil import dependence and the sharp rise in global crude oil prices, the widening of the CAD in 2011-12 and 2012-13 may be an atypical outcome. (Economic Survey 2014-15) ECB is a part of Capital Account and not Current Account. The current account can also be expressed as the difference between national (both public and private) savings and investment. A current account deficit may therefore reflect a low level of national savings relative to investment or a high rate of investment or both. For capital-poor developing countries, which have more investment opportunities than they can afford to undertake because of low levels of domestic savings, a current account deficit may be natural.##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With respect to education and empowerment of women during freedom struggle, consider the following statements: Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar founded Sanskrit college at Calcutta, to improve women education in India. In western India, Professor D K Karve made efforts for promotion of women education and widow remarriage. Ishawar Chandra Vidya Sagar founded the Bethune school. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Ishawar Chandra Vidya Sagar was the principal of Sanskrit college Calcutta. Though he associated with many schools for girls but he was not the founder of Sanskrit College Calcutta. So option 1 is incorrect. Prof. D K Karve married to a widow himself and opened Indian Women University at Bombay in 1916. He also worked for widow remarriage. So option 2 is correct. Bethune school was founded by Sir J.E.D. Bethune; so option 3 is wrong.
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to education and empowerment of women during freedom struggle, consider the following statements: Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar founded Sanskrit college at Calcutta, to improve women education in India. In western India, Professor D K Karve made efforts for promotion of women education and widow remarriage. Ishawar Chandra Vidya Sagar founded the Bethune school. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Ishawar Chandra Vidya Sagar was the principal of Sanskrit college Calcutta. Though he associated with many schools for girls but he was not the founder of Sanskrit College Calcutta. So option 1 is incorrect. Prof. D K Karve married to a widow himself and opened Indian Women University at Bombay in 1916. He also worked for widow remarriage. So option 2 is correct. Bethune school was founded by Sir J.E.D. Bethune; so option 3 is wrong.##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements are the objectives of SEZ? Promotion of investment from domestic sources. Promotion of Cultural heritage eg: handicrafts. Protection of SMEs. Promotion of export of services. Select the correct answer using code given below:
|
1, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 3
|
1, 4
|
1, 3, 4
|
The main objectives of the SEZ Act are: (a) generation of additional economic activity (b) promotion of exports of goods and services; (c) promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources; (d) creation of employment opportunities; (e) development of infrastructure facilities;
|
c
|
FDI/FII etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are the objectives of SEZ? Promotion of investment from domestic sources. Promotion of Cultural heritage eg: handicrafts. Protection of SMEs. Promotion of export of services. Select the correct answer using code given below:##Option_A: 1, 3, 4###Option_B: 1, 2, 3##Option_C: 1, 4##Option_D: 1, 3, 4##Answer:c##Explaination:The main objectives of the SEZ Act are: (a) generation of additional economic activity (b) promotion of exports of goods and services; (c) promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources; (d) creation of employment opportunities; (e) development of infrastructure facilities;##Topic:FDI/FII etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the National Action Plan and Monitoring Framework for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs), consider the following statements:
1. The action plan is designed to meet the objectives of the Global Monitoring Framework for prevention and control of NCDs endorsed in 2013 by the World Health Assembly.
2. The World Health Assembly is a decision making body of the World Health Organization composed of health ministers from member countries only.
3. It aims at relative reduction in risk of premature mortality from NCDs and relative reduction in alcohol use by 2025.
Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The world health assembly organized in may 2013 prepared global action plan for control and prevention of NCDs.
As a member country India is obliged to prepare plan of action to realise the objectives of the Global action plan.
WHA is decision making body where delegates from member countries take decisions. They can be health ministers as well as officials. so 2nd statement is incorrect.
The targets in the 3rd statement are correct along with deadline. So option B is correct
|
b
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the National Action Plan and Monitoring Framework for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs), consider the following statements:
1. The action plan is designed to meet the objectives of the Global Monitoring Framework for prevention and control of NCDs endorsed in 2013 by the World Health Assembly.
2. The World Health Assembly is a decision making body of the World Health Organization composed of health ministers from member countries only.
3. It aims at relative reduction in risk of premature mortality from NCDs and relative reduction in alcohol use by 2025.
Select the correct answer using codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
The world health assembly organized in may 2013 prepared global action plan for control and prevention of NCDs.
As a member country India is obliged to prepare plan of action to realise the objectives of the Global action plan.
WHA is decision making body where delegates from member countries take decisions. They can be health ministers as well as officials. so 2nd statement is incorrect.
The targets in the 3rd statement are correct along with deadline. So option B is correct
##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Universal immunization Program, which of the following is/are covered under vaccination protection? Tuberculosis Dengue Diphtheria Japanese Encephalitis Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
All the Disease except Dengue are covered under the protection by immunization from diseases.
Though Dengue is vector borned disease its not part of the Universal Immunazation program.
|
a
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Universal immunization Program, which of the following is/are covered under vaccination protection? Tuberculosis Dengue Diphtheria Japanese Encephalitis Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
All the Disease except Dengue are covered under the protection by immunization from diseases.
Though Dengue is vector borned disease its not part of the Universal Immunazation program.
##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Surksha Yojna (MGPSY).
1. MGPSY is a scheme launched by Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs (MOIA) for providing social security in the form pension, savings for return and resettlement and life insurance to unskilled / semi-skilled overseas Indian workers.
2. MGPSY combines the three existing voluntary savings schemes functioning under the jurisdiction of three financial sector regulators –Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority (PFRDA), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
MGPSY is a scheme launched by Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs (MOIA) for providing social security in the form pension, savings for return and resettlement and life insurance to unskilled / semi-skilled overseas Indian workers.
MGPSY combines the three existing voluntary savings schemes functioning under the jurisdiction of three financial sector regulators –Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority (PFRDA), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA).
So answer C
|
c
|
Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Surksha Yojna (MGPSY).
1. MGPSY is a scheme launched by Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs (MOIA) for providing social security in the form pension, savings for return and resettlement and life insurance to unskilled / semi-skilled overseas Indian workers.
2. MGPSY combines the three existing voluntary savings schemes functioning under the jurisdiction of three financial sector regulators –Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority (PFRDA), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
MGPSY is a scheme launched by Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs (MOIA) for providing social security in the form pension, savings for return and resettlement and life insurance to unskilled / semi-skilled overseas Indian workers.
MGPSY combines the three existing voluntary savings schemes functioning under the jurisdiction of three financial sector regulators –Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority (PFRDA), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (IRDA).
So answer C
##Topic:Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme##Subject:Botany##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are true about WTO? It provides legal protection for technological achievements. It makes loans to LDCs. It believes in the principle of "trade without discrimination." Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct because as per Article 4, TRIPS provides uniform legal protection for scientific, technological and artistic achievements. Statement 2 is false because the WTO does not make loans to the countries Statement 3 is true as the first principle of WTO is "trade without discrimination" which involves MFN status and national treatment.
|
c
|
India and IMF, WTO , WIPO
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are true about WTO? It provides legal protection for technological achievements. It makes loans to LDCs. It believes in the principle of "trade without discrimination." Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct because as per Article 4, TRIPS provides uniform legal protection for scientific, technological and artistic achievements. Statement 2 is false because the WTO does not make loans to the countries Statement 3 is true as the first principle of WTO is "trade without discrimination" which involves MFN status and national treatment.##Topic:India and IMF, WTO , WIPO##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Under WTO , which of the statements regarding Subsidies rules under "The Agriculture Agreement" is/are true? Red box includes tobacco, alcohol and related products. Subsidies directly related to production quantities are covered under Amber Box. Green box subsidies involves price support to consumers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2
|
2,3
|
2 only
|
1, 2
|
Statement 1 is false: In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by “boxes” which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down — i.e. be reduced), red (forbidden).The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production. Statement 3 is false. In order to qualify, green box subsidies must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion. They have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.
|
c
|
India and IMF, WTO , WIPO
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under WTO , which of the statements regarding Subsidies rules under "The Agriculture Agreement" is/are true? Red box includes tobacco, alcohol and related products. Subsidies directly related to production quantities are covered under Amber Box. Green box subsidies involves price support to consumers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2###Option_B: 2,3##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1, 2##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is false: In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by “boxes” which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down — i.e. be reduced), red (forbidden).The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production. Statement 3 is false. In order to qualify, green box subsidies must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion. They have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support.##Topic:India and IMF, WTO , WIPO##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Art 368, consider the following statements:
The bill can be introduced by a minister only and not by a private member.
The provisions of the Constitution which can be amended by a simple majority are outside the scope of Article 368.
The Constitution Amendment Bill does not require a prior permission of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect:The bill can be introduced by either a minister or by a private member. Statement 2 is correct : The provisions of the Constitution which can be amended by a simple majority are outside the scope of Article 368 like admission or establishment of new States;abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. Statement 3 is correct : The bill does not require the prior permission of the President.
|
d
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Art 368, consider the following statements:
The bill can be introduced by a minister only and not by a private member.
The provisions of the Constitution which can be amended by a simple majority are outside the scope of Article 368.
The Constitution Amendment Bill does not require a prior permission of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect:The bill can be introduced by either a minister or by a private member. Statement 2 is correct : The provisions of the Constitution which can be amended by a simple majority are outside the scope of Article 368 like admission or establishment of new States;abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. Statement 3 is correct : The bill does not require the prior permission of the President.
##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy may be classified as Gandhian Principles? To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife To raise the level of nutrition and standard of living of people and to improve public health To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections of the society Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Gandhian method included picketing of liquor shops. So (1) is correct. (2) is incorrect. Legal protection of environment is a relatively recent phenomenon. It was introduced by the 42nd Amendment. (3) is incorrect. It is a socialist principle. (4) is correct. The work of Gandhiji in upliftment of Harijans is well known.
|
b
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy may be classified as Gandhian Principles? To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife To raise the level of nutrition and standard of living of people and to improve public health To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections of the society Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Gandhian method included picketing of liquor shops. So (1) is correct. (2) is incorrect. Legal protection of environment is a relatively recent phenomenon. It was introduced by the 42nd Amendment. (3) is incorrect. It is a socialist principle. (4) is correct. The work of Gandhiji in upliftment of Harijans is well known.
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
It aims to establish a welfare state.
It seeks to promote social and economic democracy.
Supreme Court cannot declare an act of Parliament ultra vires if it violates any of the principles of DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish a welfare state and promote social and economic democracy. These are not justiciable in nature and hence can not be enforced by the court of law.
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
It aims to establish a welfare state.
It seeks to promote social and economic democracy.
Supreme Court cannot declare an act of Parliament ultra vires if it violates any of the principles of DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish a welfare state and promote social and economic democracy. These are not justiciable in nature and hence can not be enforced by the court of law.
##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With the reference to the Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
All Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State only.
Some of them are justiciable in nature while others are non-justiciable.
The Parliament can curtail or repeal them, but only by a constitutional amendment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Most of the FRs are available against the arbitrary action of the State with few exceptions like Art 15, Art 17 etc. which are also available against private individuals. Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature while DPSPs and Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With the reference to the Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
All Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State only.
Some of them are justiciable in nature while others are non-justiciable.
The Parliament can curtail or repeal them, but only by a constitutional amendment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Most of the FRs are available against the arbitrary action of the State with few exceptions like Art 15, Art 17 etc. which are also available against private individuals. Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature while DPSPs and Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature
##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to "Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression" under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution: The Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was originally a right guaranteed by Article 19. Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are protected against only state and not against private individuals. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both of the given statements are correct. Hence D is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to "Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression" under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution: The Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was originally a right guaranteed by Article 19. Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are protected against only state and not against private individuals. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Both of the given statements are correct. Hence D is the correct answer. ##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following: President’s Rule National Emergency Martial Rule Which of the above special circumstances has/have an effect on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
President's rule has no effect on Fundamental Rights whereas National Emergency and Martial Rule have. When a National Emergency is declared, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended and this suspension continues till the end of the emergency.
|
c
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: President’s Rule National Emergency Martial Rule Which of the above special circumstances has/have an effect on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:President's rule has no effect on Fundamental Rights whereas National Emergency and Martial Rule have. When a National Emergency is declared, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended and this suspension continues till the end of the emergency.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to the Objective Resolution moved by Nehru in the Constituent Assembly: The Objective Resolution was inspired from the Indian Nationalist Movement It stated the firm resolve of the Constituent Assembly to proclaim India as an Independent Socialist Democracy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Only statement 1 is correct. According to the Objectives Resolution, the Constituent Assembly declared its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Soverign Republic.
|
a
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to the Objective Resolution moved by Nehru in the Constituent Assembly: The Objective Resolution was inspired from the Indian Nationalist Movement It stated the firm resolve of the Constituent Assembly to proclaim India as an Independent Socialist Democracy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Only statement 1 is correct. According to the Objectives Resolution, the Constituent Assembly declared its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Soverign Republic.
##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to provisions related to Panchayats and Muncipalities in the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
The act had specifically given powers to Provincial Legislatures to enact legislation related to Panchayats.
The act also provided for vesting of powers related to criminal justice in Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
|
c
|
Historical Underpinnings
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to provisions related to Panchayats and Muncipalities in the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
The act had specifically given powers to Provincial Legislatures to enact legislation related to Panchayats.
The act also provided for vesting of powers related to criminal justice in Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.
##Topic:Historical Underpinnings##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regards to fundamental rights: President, on the advice of the council of ministers, can impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens. Parliament decides upon the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on the fundamental rights of the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Parliament can, by the law of amendment or by ordinary law, abridge or restrict the fundamental rights to the extent permitted in Part III. Thus, it can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. This was provided under The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971, which enabled Parliament to dilute Fundamental Rights through Amendments of the Constitution. It also amended article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution. The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. The judiciary decides upon the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on fundamental rights.
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regards to fundamental rights: President, on the advice of the council of ministers, can impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens. Parliament decides upon the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on the fundamental rights of the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Parliament can, by the law of amendment or by ordinary law, abridge or restrict the fundamental rights to the extent permitted in Part III. Thus, it can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. This was provided under The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971, which enabled Parliament to dilute Fundamental Rights through Amendments of the Constitution. It also amended article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution. The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. The judiciary decides upon the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on fundamental rights.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The term 'Co-operatives' can be found in which of the following part/parts of the Constitution? 1. Part III 2. Part IV 3. Part IX-B Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives is aimed to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India . It is expected to not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of cooperatives, but also the accountability of the management to the members and other stakeholders. As per the amendment the changes done to Constitution are: In Part III of the constitution, Article 19 (1)(c) In Part IV a new Article 43B was inserted , which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies'. Article 243ZJ, Article 243ZM, Article 243ZR and Article 243ZT under Part IX-B talks about co-operatives. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term 'Co-operatives' can be found in which of the following part/parts of the Constitution? 1. Part III 2. Part IV 3. Part IX-B Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives is aimed to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India . It is expected to not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of cooperatives, but also the accountability of the management to the members and other stakeholders. As per the amendment the changes done to Constitution are: In Part III of the constitution, Article 19 (1)(c) In Part IV a new Article 43B was inserted , which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies'. Article 243ZJ, Article 243ZM, Article 243ZR and Article 243ZT under Part IX-B talks about co-operatives. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are part of the "Basic Structure" of the Indian Constitution? Effective access to justice. Limited power of parliament to amend the constitution. Reasonableness Bicameralism in states. Select the correct answer using the code below.
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Bicameralism in states is not part of the basic structure.
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are part of the "Basic Structure" of the Indian Constitution? Effective access to justice. Limited power of parliament to amend the constitution. Reasonableness Bicameralism in states. Select the correct answer using the code below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Bicameralism in states is not part of the basic structure.
##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following Indian cities are a part of UNESCO"s Creative Cities Network?
Jaipur
Mysore
Varanasi
Madurai
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Jaipur and Varanasi were recently added to the Creative Cities Network as cities of Crafts & Folk Art and Music respectively.
|
b
|
Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Indian cities are a part of UNESCO"s Creative Cities Network?
Jaipur
Mysore
Varanasi
Madurai
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Jaipur and Varanasi were recently added to the Creative Cities Network as cities of Crafts & Folk Art and Music respectively.
##Topic:Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements: It was composed roughly along the lines of the plan suggested by the Cabinet Mission. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial legislative assemblies The Constituent Assembly was partly directy elected and partly nominated body. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Only statement 3 is incorrect. Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by indirect election by the members of the Provisional Legislative Assemblies that had been established in 1935. It was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the Cabinet Mission.
|
d
|
Evolution & Making of the Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements: It was composed roughly along the lines of the plan suggested by the Cabinet Mission. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial legislative assemblies The Constituent Assembly was partly directy elected and partly nominated body. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Only statement 3 is incorrect. Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by indirect election by the members of the Provisional Legislative Assemblies that had been established in 1935. It was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the Cabinet Mission.
##Topic:Evolution & Making of the Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Sahitya Akademi, consider the following statements: It is India"s National Akademi of Letters, dedicated to promotion of literature. The Akademi functions as an autonomous organisation. Other than the languages mentioned under Schedule VIII of the Constitution, its literary programmes can be implemented in English and Rajasthani only. It awards the prestigious Jnanpith Award. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Though set up by the Government, the Akademi functions as an autonomous organisation. Statement 2 is correct. Besides the 22 languages enumerated in Schedule VIII of the Constitution ofIndia, the SahityaAkademi has recognised English and Rajasthani as languages in which its programme may be implemented. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Jananpith Award is presented by the Bhartiya Jnanpith.
|
a
|
Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Sahitya Akademi, consider the following statements: It is India"s National Akademi of Letters, dedicated to promotion of literature. The Akademi functions as an autonomous organisation. Other than the languages mentioned under Schedule VIII of the Constitution, its literary programmes can be implemented in English and Rajasthani only. It awards the prestigious Jnanpith Award. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Though set up by the Government, the Akademi functions as an autonomous organisation. Statement 2 is correct. Besides the 22 languages enumerated in Schedule VIII of the Constitution ofIndia, the SahityaAkademi has recognised English and Rajasthani as languages in which its programme may be implemented. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Jananpith Award is presented by the Bhartiya Jnanpith.
##Topic:Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
The term "AUSINDEX15" was recently in news in which context?
|
The term was coined recently concluded nucler deal between India and Australia.
|
It was a bilateral maritime exercise between India and Australia
|
It is an index developed by both India and Australia to keep track on imports and exports between two countries.
|
The term was coined recently concluded nucler deal between India and Australia.
|
AUSINDEX15 is inaugural bilateral maritime exercise between India and Australia, commenced off coast of Visakhapatnam in September 2015.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "AUSINDEX15" was recently in news in which context?##Option_A: The term was coined recently concluded nucler deal between India and Australia.###Option_B: It was a bilateral maritime exercise between India and Australia##Option_C: It is an index developed by both India and Australia to keep track on imports and exports between two countries.##Option_D: The term was coined recently concluded nucler deal between India and Australia.##Answer:b##Explaination:AUSINDEX15 is inaugural bilateral maritime exercise between India and Australia, commenced off coast of Visakhapatnam in September 2015.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are true about External Debt?
1. External debt increased exceptionally due to FCNR scheme
2. Transfer Payments forms a part of External debt
3. Commercial Borrowings form the largest portion of external debt
Select the correct answers using code given below.
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
External Debt includes:
1. Multilateral.
2. Bilateral.
3. IMF.
4. Export Credit.
5. Commercial Borrowings.
6. NRI deposits.
7. Rupee Debt.
The increase in external debt was due to long-term debt, especially Non Resident Indian (NRI) deposits, the release said: “A sharp increase in NRI deposits reflected the impact of fresh FCNR (Foreign Currency Non Resident) deposits mobilised under the swap scheme during September-November 2013”.
|
d
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are true about External Debt?
1. External debt increased exceptionally due to FCNR scheme
2. Transfer Payments forms a part of External debt
3. Commercial Borrowings form the largest portion of external debt
Select the correct answers using code given below.
##Option_A: 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
External Debt includes:
1. Multilateral.
2. Bilateral.
3. IMF.
4. Export Credit.
5. Commercial Borrowings.
6. NRI deposits.
7. Rupee Debt.
The increase in external debt was due to long-term debt, especially Non Resident Indian (NRI) deposits, the release said: “A sharp increase in NRI deposits reflected the impact of fresh FCNR (Foreign Currency Non Resident) deposits mobilised under the swap scheme during September-November 2013”.
##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Coal Mines (Special Provision) Bill and Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2015, consider the following statements : All existing captive coal mines as well as non-captive mines will be re-allocated through competitive bidding. It provides for district mineral foundations (DMFs) for rehabilitation and welfare of project-affected people. It does not allow the company to transfer the rights/permits for the coal block to any other company. For four minerals namely iron ore, bauxite, limestone and manganese, the auction will be for grant of mining (production) leases, and not prospecting-cum-mining leases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 ,3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Following are the provisions for MMDR Bill, 2015: Existing captive mines will be auctioned after 2030, while existing non-captive mines will be auctioned in 2020. All new mines will be auctioned only. The Bill provides for freedom to trade rights/permits and non-exclusive reconnaissance permits For the four notified surficial minerals namely iron ore, bauxite, limestone and manganese, the auction will be for grant of mining (production) leases since the reserves in their case are known and nearly accurately estimated; as for deep-seated minerals including copper, nickel and zinc, given the lack of information database, prospecting-cum-mining leases will be issued to the winners emerging from competitive bidding.
|
c
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Coal Mines (Special Provision) Bill and Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2015, consider the following statements : All existing captive coal mines as well as non-captive mines will be re-allocated through competitive bidding. It provides for district mineral foundations (DMFs) for rehabilitation and welfare of project-affected people. It does not allow the company to transfer the rights/permits for the coal block to any other company. For four minerals namely iron ore, bauxite, limestone and manganese, the auction will be for grant of mining (production) leases, and not prospecting-cum-mining leases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 ,3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Following are the provisions for MMDR Bill, 2015: Existing captive mines will be auctioned after 2030, while existing non-captive mines will be auctioned in 2020. All new mines will be auctioned only. The Bill provides for freedom to trade rights/permits and non-exclusive reconnaissance permits For the four notified surficial minerals namely iron ore, bauxite, limestone and manganese, the auction will be for grant of mining (production) leases since the reserves in their case are known and nearly accurately estimated; as for deep-seated minerals including copper, nickel and zinc, given the lack of information database, prospecting-cum-mining leases will be issued to the winners emerging from competitive bidding.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: The All India Harijan Sangh was founded by Dr. B R Ambedkar. Arya Samaj philosophy and teaching was against the caste system. The aim of Satyashodhak Samaj was to spread education amongst women and lower caste people. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Mahatma Gandhi founded All India Harijan Sangh. So option 1 is incorrect. Though Arya samaj was in favour of four fold varna system but it was against the caste system. So option 2 is correct. Satyashodhak samaj founded by Jyotiba Phule aimed at women education, lower caste education and social service. So option 3 is also correct
|
b
|
Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The All India Harijan Sangh was founded by Dr. B R Ambedkar. Arya Samaj philosophy and teaching was against the caste system. The aim of Satyashodhak Samaj was to spread education amongst women and lower caste people. Which of the statements given above are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Mahatma Gandhi founded All India Harijan Sangh. So option 1 is incorrect. Though Arya samaj was in favour of four fold varna system but it was against the caste system. So option 2 is correct. Satyashodhak samaj founded by Jyotiba Phule aimed at women education, lower caste education and social service. So option 3 is also correct##Topic:Social – Religious Movements in 19th – 20th centuries##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
With regard to creation and abolition of Legislative Councils, consider the following statements: In the Parliament, motion for the creation or abolition of Legislative Council requires simple majority. If the motion for abolition or creation of Legislative Council is passed, it is deemed as an amendment of the constitution for the purpose of Article 368. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st Statement is incorrect because under Article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly (Absolute Majority) and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting (Special Majority). Also, any law referred to in clause (1) shall contain such provisions for the amendment of this Constitution as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions as Parliament may deem necessary. However, no such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 . Hence, 2nd Statement is also incorrect.
|
d
|
State Legislature
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to creation and abolition of Legislative Councils, consider the following statements: In the Parliament, motion for the creation or abolition of Legislative Council requires simple majority. If the motion for abolition or creation of Legislative Council is passed, it is deemed as an amendment of the constitution for the purpose of Article 368. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1st Statement is incorrect because under Article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly (Absolute Majority) and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting (Special Majority). Also, any law referred to in clause (1) shall contain such provisions for the amendment of this Constitution as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions as Parliament may deem necessary. However, no such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 . Hence, 2nd Statement is also incorrect.##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Council: It can both discuss and vote on the demands for grants. It can participate in the elections of President of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st statement is incorrect because the Legislative Councils can only discuss the budget but can not vote on the demand for grants. 2nd statement is incorrect because they do not participate in the elections of President of India. The Electoral College consists of the following: Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha). Elected members of State legislative members, including that if NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry Members of legislative councils in the states where there are bicameral legislatures can NOT participate in election of President.
|
d
|
State Legislature
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Council: It can both discuss and vote on the demands for grants. It can participate in the elections of President of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1st statement is incorrect because the Legislative Councils can only discuss the budget but can not vote on the demand for grants. 2nd statement is incorrect because they do not participate in the elections of President of India. The Electoral College consists of the following: Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha). Elected members of State legislative members, including that if NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry Members of legislative councils in the states where there are bicameral legislatures can NOT participate in election of President.##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Assembly, by the Constitution. The bonafides of the Governor’s nomination for Legislative Council can be challenged in the courts in case of misuse of power. Which of the statement(s) above given is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Only 2nd Statement is incorrect because the bonafides or propriety of the Governor’s nomination in any case cannot be challenged in the courts.
|
a
|
State Legislature
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Assembly, by the Constitution. The bonafides of the Governor’s nomination for Legislative Council can be challenged in the courts in case of misuse of power. Which of the statement(s) above given is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Only 2nd Statement is incorrect because the bonafides or propriety of the Governor’s nomination in any case cannot be challenged in the courts.##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding office of the Governor? India adopted Australian model to appoint Governor. According to the constitution, a Governor should not belong to the state where he/she is appointed. State Executive consists of the Governor, CM and Council of Ministers and the advocate general of the state. Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1st Statement incorrect because India adopted Canadian Model to appoint Governor. 2nd Statement incorrect because it is according to the Convention and not the Constitution that a Governor usually does not belong to the State where he/she is appointed.
|
c
|
Governor
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct regarding office of the Governor? India adopted Australian model to appoint Governor. According to the constitution, a Governor should not belong to the state where he/she is appointed. State Executive consists of the Governor, CM and Council of Ministers and the advocate general of the state. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:1st Statement incorrect because India adopted Canadian Model to appoint Governor. 2nd Statement incorrect because it is according to the Convention and not the Constitution that a Governor usually does not belong to the State where he/she is appointed.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Plant protection code (PPC), is a set of guidelines for regulating the chemical inputs for which plantation crop :
|
Tea
|
coffee
|
Sugarcane
|
Tea
|
Plant Protection Code (PPC), a set of guidelines for regulating the chemical inputs in tea cultivation and was rolled out on January 1, 2015. The aim is to make Indian tea a safe and healthy drink. The PPC is a comprehensive document, which deals with safe usage of crop protection products and methodologies that would be followed to reduce pesticide residues in tea. The code encourages tea growers to critically review their plant protection formulations (PPF), which are a list of chemicals that are used in tea. The code is based on the Codex Alimentarius, which is a set of international food standards and guidelines.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Plant protection code (PPC), is a set of guidelines for regulating the chemical inputs for which plantation crop :##Option_A: Tea###Option_B: coffee##Option_C: Sugarcane##Option_D: Tea##Answer:a##Explaination:Plant Protection Code (PPC), a set of guidelines for regulating the chemical inputs in tea cultivation and was rolled out on January 1, 2015. The aim is to make Indian tea a safe and healthy drink. The PPC is a comprehensive document, which deals with safe usage of crop protection products and methodologies that would be followed to reduce pesticide residues in tea. The code encourages tea growers to critically review their plant protection formulations (PPF), which are a list of chemicals that are used in tea. The code is based on the Codex Alimentarius, which is a set of international food standards and guidelines.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements are correct about National Air Quality Index (AQI)? The AQI is a ‘One Number-One Colour-One Description’ for people to judge air quality. The AQI will map eight pollutants. The AQI will provide one consolidated number and will use colour coding to describe associated health impacts. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 and 3 are correct-AQI was a ‘One Number-One Colour-One Description’ for people to judge air quality.It is a a comparable and comprehensive index to indicate the quality of air in a city and its impact on health.AQI is an attempt to effectively disseminate air quality information to the people. Statement 2 is correct- The AQI will consider eight pollutants PM (particulate matter)10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen dioxide, Sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, ozone, lead and ammonia for which National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct about National Air Quality Index (AQI)? The AQI is a ‘One Number-One Colour-One Description’ for people to judge air quality. The AQI will map eight pollutants. The AQI will provide one consolidated number and will use colour coding to describe associated health impacts. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 and 3 are correct-AQI was a ‘One Number-One Colour-One Description’ for people to judge air quality.It is a a comparable and comprehensive index to indicate the quality of air in a city and its impact on health.AQI is an attempt to effectively disseminate air quality information to the people. Statement 2 is correct- The AQI will consider eight pollutants PM (particulate matter)10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen dioxide, Sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, ozone, lead and ammonia for which National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements : Himadri Station is India"s first Arctic research station. Maitri Station is India"s second Arctic research station. Dakshin Gangotri is India"s first Antarctic research base. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Himadri Station is India's first Arctic research station located New research station in Arctic . IndARC Established in August 2014. Designed and developed by scientists from the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) and National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), the observatory has been deployed in the Kongsfjorden fjord of the Arctic, roughly halfway between Norway and the North Pole. In 1981 the Indian flag unfurled for the first time in Antarctica, marking the start of Southern Ocean expeditions under the environmental protocol of the Antarctic Treaty (1959). Dakshin Gangotri the first permanent settlement was built in 1983 and named Dakshin Gangotri. In 1989 it was buried and was later excavated and is being used again. Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station of India situated in Antarctica, part of the Indian Antarctic Program. It is located at a distance of 2,500 kilometres (1,600 mi) from the South Pole.It was abandoned in 1988-1989 after it was submerged in ice. It was succeeded by the Maitri, which was set up in a moderate climatic zone at a distance of 90 km and made operational in 1990.Dakshin Gangotri was finally decommissioned on 25 February 1990 and subsequently turned into a supply base. Maitri: The second permanent settlement, Maitri in the Antarctica region, was put up in 1989 on the Schirmacher Oasis and has been conducting experiments in geology, geography and medicine. India built a freshwater lake around Maitri known as Lake Priyadharshini. Maitri accomplished the mission of geomorphologic mapping of Schirmacher Oasis. Bharathi: India has demarcated an area beside Larsmann Hill at 69°S, 76°E for its third settlement and second active research station. The survey has already been completed and the station is operational. India has entered the elite group of nine nations having multiple stations within the Antarctic Circle. Bharati is proposed for oceanographic research and will collect evidence of continental breakup to reveal the 120-million-year-old ancient history of the Indian subcontinent.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements : Himadri Station is India"s first Arctic research station. Maitri Station is India"s second Arctic research station. Dakshin Gangotri is India"s first Antarctic research base. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Himadri Station is India's first Arctic research station located New research station in Arctic . IndARC Established in August 2014. Designed and developed by scientists from the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) and National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), the observatory has been deployed in the Kongsfjorden fjord of the Arctic, roughly halfway between Norway and the North Pole. In 1981 the Indian flag unfurled for the first time in Antarctica, marking the start of Southern Ocean expeditions under the environmental protocol of the Antarctic Treaty (1959). Dakshin Gangotri the first permanent settlement was built in 1983 and named Dakshin Gangotri. In 1989 it was buried and was later excavated and is being used again. Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station of India situated in Antarctica, part of the Indian Antarctic Program. It is located at a distance of 2,500 kilometres (1,600 mi) from the South Pole.It was abandoned in 1988-1989 after it was submerged in ice. It was succeeded by the Maitri, which was set up in a moderate climatic zone at a distance of 90 km and made operational in 1990.Dakshin Gangotri was finally decommissioned on 25 February 1990 and subsequently turned into a supply base. Maitri: The second permanent settlement, Maitri in the Antarctica region, was put up in 1989 on the Schirmacher Oasis and has been conducting experiments in geology, geography and medicine. India built a freshwater lake around Maitri known as Lake Priyadharshini. Maitri accomplished the mission of geomorphologic mapping of Schirmacher Oasis. Bharathi: India has demarcated an area beside Larsmann Hill at 69°S, 76°E for its third settlement and second active research station. The survey has already been completed and the station is operational. India has entered the elite group of nine nations having multiple stations within the Antarctic Circle. Bharati is proposed for oceanographic research and will collect evidence of continental breakup to reveal the 120-million-year-old ancient history of the Indian subcontinent.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Gender inequality Index is prepared by UNDP. Gender gap index is prepared by World Bank. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1st Statement is correct- The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is an index for measurement of gender disparity that was introduced in the 2010 Human Development Report 20th anniversary edition by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). This index is a composite measure which captures the loss of achievement within a country due to gender inequality. It uses three dimensions to do so: reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation. 2nd Statement is incorrect- Gender Gap Index was first introduced by the World Economic Forum in 2006 as a framework for capturing the magnitude of gender-based disparities and tracking their progress. The index benchmarks national gender gaps on economic, political, education and health criteria.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Gender inequality Index is prepared by UNDP. Gender gap index is prepared by World Bank. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1st Statement is correct- The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is an index for measurement of gender disparity that was introduced in the 2010 Human Development Report 20th anniversary edition by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). This index is a composite measure which captures the loss of achievement within a country due to gender inequality. It uses three dimensions to do so: reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation. 2nd Statement is incorrect- Gender Gap Index was first introduced by the World Economic Forum in 2006 as a framework for capturing the magnitude of gender-based disparities and tracking their progress. The index benchmarks national gender gaps on economic, political, education and health criteria.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are correct about Purchasing Managers" Index (PMI)? It is an indicator of business activity in the manufacturing sectors only. It was started in 1948 by the US-based Institute of Supply Management. It is a survey-based measure. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Started in 1948 by the US-based Institute of Supply Management, the Purchasing Managers' Index, or PMI is an indicator of business activity -- both in the manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before. It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed. Recent report Indicate that India's PMI is increasing while China's is decreasing.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct about Purchasing Managers" Index (PMI)? It is an indicator of business activity in the manufacturing sectors only. It was started in 1948 by the US-based Institute of Supply Management. It is a survey-based measure. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Started in 1948 by the US-based Institute of Supply Management, the Purchasing Managers' Index, or PMI is an indicator of business activity -- both in the manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before. It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed. Recent report Indicate that India's PMI is increasing while China's is decreasing.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are correct about World Social Forum? It is an organ of United Nations to promote equal rights for indigenous people It is an annual meeting of various advocacy groups to oppose Neo-imperialism and capitalism. It"s headquarter is located in Porto Alegre, Brazil. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The World Social Forum (WSF) developed as a response of the growing international movement to neo-liberal globalisation and the effects of neo-liberal economic policies being pursued in most countries. It is not an organ of UN. The World Social Forum was conceived as an open meeting space of Civil Society organizations , for deepening the reflection, the democratic discussion of ideas, the formulation of proposals, the free exchange of experiences and the articulation of civil society organizations and movements that are opposed to neoliberal globalisation and the domination of the world by capital and by any other form of imperialism. The first edition of the WSF was organized in Porto Alegre,Brazil( Headquarters) , from January 25 to 30, 2001, marking an opposition to the World Economic Forum held in Davos, which, since 1971, has fulfilled a strategic role in formulating the thought of those who promote and defend neoliberal policies throughout the world.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct about World Social Forum? It is an organ of United Nations to promote equal rights for indigenous people It is an annual meeting of various advocacy groups to oppose Neo-imperialism and capitalism. It"s headquarter is located in Porto Alegre, Brazil. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The World Social Forum (WSF) developed as a response of the growing international movement to neo-liberal globalisation and the effects of neo-liberal economic policies being pursued in most countries. It is not an organ of UN. The World Social Forum was conceived as an open meeting space of Civil Society organizations , for deepening the reflection, the democratic discussion of ideas, the formulation of proposals, the free exchange of experiences and the articulation of civil society organizations and movements that are opposed to neoliberal globalisation and the domination of the world by capital and by any other form of imperialism. The first edition of the WSF was organized in Porto Alegre,Brazil( Headquarters) , from January 25 to 30, 2001, marking an opposition to the World Economic Forum held in Davos, which, since 1971, has fulfilled a strategic role in formulating the thought of those who promote and defend neoliberal policies throughout the world.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following strengthens Indian federalism?
Rule of law
Written Constitution
Rigidity of Constitution
Emergency provisions in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Features of federal Govt. are- Dual government (national and regional govt.) and division of powers between these two governments, supremacy of the constitution, written constitution, rigid constitution, independent judiciary and bicameral system.
|
b
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following strengthens Indian federalism?
Rule of law
Written Constitution
Rigidity of Constitution
Emergency provisions in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Features of federal Govt. are- Dual government (national and regional govt.) and division of powers between these two governments, supremacy of the constitution, written constitution, rigid constitution, independent judiciary and bicameral system.
##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the functions of Prime Minister: He has full discretion in selection of Council of Ministers. He can allocate and redistribute portfolios to his ministers. He is the leader of Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President can appoint only those persons who are recommended by the PM and PM allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers. PM is also leader of Lok Sabha if he is member of it otherwise he nominates one minister as a leader of Lok Sabha hence statement 3 is wrong here.
|
a
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the functions of Prime Minister: He has full discretion in selection of Council of Ministers. He can allocate and redistribute portfolios to his ministers. He is the leader of Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President can appoint only those persons who are recommended by the PM and PM allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers. PM is also leader of Lok Sabha if he is member of it otherwise he nominates one minister as a leader of Lok Sabha hence statement 3 is wrong here.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Cabinet Secretariat: It is a staff agency to the cabinet. It enjoys the status of a department of Government of India. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Cabinet secretary does not enjoy the status of department of GOI.
|
a
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Cabinet Secretariat: It is a staff agency to the cabinet. It enjoys the status of a department of Government of India. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Cabinet secretary does not enjoy the status of department of GOI.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following Statements regarding the working of Federal & Unitary System of Indian Political System. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?
|
Dual Polity i.e. Union at Centre & States at the periphery( regional & local level) represent a Federal system in India.
|
Power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Centre is a testimony to the fact that India has a Strong Centre.
|
Rigid Constitution makes way for both Centre & State Govt. to amend those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure.
|
Dual Polity i.e. Union at Centre & States at the periphery( regional & local level) represent a Federal system in India.
|
Only Statement d is incorrect because the state of J&K has a separate Constitution under Article 370. Federal Features of Indian Constitution includes- Dual Polity, Written Constitution, Division of Powers, Supremacy of the Constitution, Rigid Constitution, Bicameralism & Independent Judiciary. Unitary Features In Indian Constitution includes- Strong Centre, States have no right to secede, Integrated Judiciary, All India Services, Single Citizenship, etc.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following Statements regarding the working of Federal & Unitary System of Indian Political System. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?##Option_A: Dual Polity i.e. Union at Centre & States at the periphery( regional & local level) represent a Federal system in India.###Option_B: Power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Centre is a testimony to the fact that India has a Strong Centre.##Option_C: Rigid Constitution makes way for both Centre & State Govt. to amend those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure.##Option_D: Dual Polity i.e. Union at Centre & States at the periphery( regional & local level) represent a Federal system in India.##Answer:d##Explaination:Only Statement d is incorrect because the state of J&K has a separate Constitution under Article 370. Federal Features of Indian Constitution includes- Dual Polity, Written Constitution, Division of Powers, Supremacy of the Constitution, Rigid Constitution, Bicameralism & Independent Judiciary. Unitary Features In Indian Constitution includes- Strong Centre, States have no right to secede, Integrated Judiciary, All India Services, Single Citizenship, etc.##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following Statements regarding the Parliamentary System In India . Which one of them is incorrect ?
|
The major criticism of Parliamentary System in India is that it does not provide a stable govt.
|
Since PM plays a major role in this system, who also heads the Cabinet as well as represents the Ruling Party in the Legislature, Parliamentary System witness more Harmony &Fusion of powers between the Executive & Legislature.
|
Prime Minister dissolves the lower House of the Parliament
|
The major criticism of Parliamentary System in India is that it does not provide a stable govt.
|
The lok Sabha is dissolved by the President on the recommendation of Prime Minister. Hence Statement C is incorrect. Parliamentary System of Govt. In India was adopted from Britain. In India its features include-Nominal & Real Executives;Majority Party Rule; Collective Responsibility; Political Homogeinity; Leadership of PM; etc.
|
c
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following Statements regarding the Parliamentary System In India . Which one of them is incorrect ?##Option_A: The major criticism of Parliamentary System in India is that it does not provide a stable govt.###Option_B: Since PM plays a major role in this system, who also heads the Cabinet as well as represents the Ruling Party in the Legislature, Parliamentary System witness more Harmony &Fusion of powers between the Executive & Legislature.##Option_C: Prime Minister dissolves the lower House of the Parliament##Option_D: The major criticism of Parliamentary System in India is that it does not provide a stable govt.##Answer:c##Explaination:The lok Sabha is dissolved by the President on the recommendation of Prime Minister. Hence Statement C is incorrect. Parliamentary System of Govt. In India was adopted from Britain. In India its features include-Nominal & Real Executives;Majority Party Rule; Collective Responsibility; Political Homogeinity; Leadership of PM; etc.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding FIRST PAST THE POST SYSTEM (FPTP) in India. In this method every party gets seat in the legislature in the proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets. In this system voters vote for the candidate and not for the Party. In this election method the winning candidate is one who gets majority of the votes. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
The First Past The Post System of election which is also known as Plurality System is one where the country is divided into Constituencies or districts, which elects one representative where voters vote for the candidate . Hence 2ND STATEMENT is Correct. Also ,a Party may get more seats than votes in the legislature . Hence 1st Statement is Incorrect & holds good for the Proportional System of Election. In FPTP, the Candidate who wins the election may not get majority ( 50%+1) votes.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding FIRST PAST THE POST SYSTEM (FPTP) in India. In this method every party gets seat in the legislature in the proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets. In this system voters vote for the candidate and not for the Party. In this election method the winning candidate is one who gets majority of the votes. Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: 1 and 2##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:b##Explaination:The First Past The Post System of election which is also known as Plurality System is one where the country is divided into Constituencies or districts, which elects one representative where voters vote for the candidate . Hence 2ND STATEMENT is Correct. Also ,a Party may get more seats than votes in the legislature . Hence 1st Statement is Incorrect & holds good for the Proportional System of Election. In FPTP, the Candidate who wins the election may not get majority ( 50%+1) votes.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the statements regarding the current position /status of NRI Voters in India during elections: An overseas elector (NRI) is a person who is a citizen of India, eligible to be a registered voter but who has not acquired citizenship of any other country. An NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in electoral roll in India. NRI"s can vote during elections in India provided they are physically present at the time of voting. In the recent 2014 elections, the NRIs voted for the first time through "Proxy Voting" mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Only 4 th Statement is incorrect because it was in Jan. 2015 that the Union government accepted Election Commission's recommendation to allow NRIs to vote through e-ballot system or through proxy. However, the EC discarded other possibilities - postal ballot and internet voting - terming them fraught with the danger of manipulation. According to the provisions of the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, a person who is a citizen of India and who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter and who is absenting from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the statements regarding the current position /status of NRI Voters in India during elections: An overseas elector (NRI) is a person who is a citizen of India, eligible to be a registered voter but who has not acquired citizenship of any other country. An NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in electoral roll in India. NRI"s can vote during elections in India provided they are physically present at the time of voting. In the recent 2014 elections, the NRIs voted for the first time through "Proxy Voting" mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Only 4 th Statement is incorrect because it was in Jan. 2015 that the Union government accepted Election Commission's recommendation to allow NRIs to vote through e-ballot system or through proxy. However, the EC discarded other possibilities - postal ballot and internet voting - terming them fraught with the danger of manipulation. According to the provisions of the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, a person who is a citizen of India and who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter and who is absenting from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements related to Nalanda Project. 1. It is a Faculty Development Program launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development for Higher Educational Institutions. 2. it’s an initiative taken only for Minority Higher Educational Institutions. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Union Ministry of Minority Affairs launched Nalanda Project for Minorities Higher Educational Institutions in March 2014.
Nalanda Project is an innovative Faculty Development Program being taken up at Aligarh Muslim University. Its Objective is to help faculty learn new ways to achieve excellence and to grow as faculty members.Faculty development includes education, collaboration, resources and support.
Faculty development is an essential element of institutional effectiveness in higher education. It has become a priority at many academic institutions as a way to improve the quality of academic programs and to respond to emerging faculty, student, program and industry needs.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements related to Nalanda Project. 1. It is a Faculty Development Program launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development for Higher Educational Institutions. 2. it’s an initiative taken only for Minority Higher Educational Institutions. Which of the following statements is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Union Ministry of Minority Affairs launched Nalanda Project for Minorities Higher Educational Institutions in March 2014.
Nalanda Project is an innovative Faculty Development Program being taken up at Aligarh Muslim University. Its Objective is to help faculty learn new ways to achieve excellence and to grow as faculty members.Faculty development includes education, collaboration, resources and support.
Faculty development is an essential element of institutional effectiveness in higher education. It has become a priority at many academic institutions as a way to improve the quality of academic programs and to respond to emerging faculty, student, program and industry needs.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements relating to the recent move of Supreme Court to constitute Social Justice Bench: Social Justice Bench will exclusively hear cases related to women, children and underprivileged. The Apex Court set up this bench in lieu of the specialized approach needed for dealing with such social issues. Given the huge pendency in cases, the Social Justice Bench will take only pending cases to ensure just & quick disposal of cases. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 st Statement is correct - Supreme Court on 3 December 2014 set up a Social Justice Bench to exclusively hear cases related to women, children and underprivileged. 2 nd Statement is correct - The apex court set up the special bench in lieu of the specialized approach needed for dealing with such social issues. 3 rd Statement is incorrect - This bench will take both pending as well as fresh matters.It will take upon cases like - release of surplus food grains lying in stocks for the use of people living in the drought-affected areas ;to take steps to prevent untimely death of women and children for want of nutritious food; to provide medical facilities to all the citizens irrespective of their economic condition; To provide safety and secure living condition for the fair gender who are forced into prostitution etc. will be taken up.
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements relating to the recent move of Supreme Court to constitute Social Justice Bench: Social Justice Bench will exclusively hear cases related to women, children and underprivileged. The Apex Court set up this bench in lieu of the specialized approach needed for dealing with such social issues. Given the huge pendency in cases, the Social Justice Bench will take only pending cases to ensure just & quick disposal of cases. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:1 st Statement is correct - Supreme Court on 3 December 2014 set up a Social Justice Bench to exclusively hear cases related to women, children and underprivileged. 2 nd Statement is correct - The apex court set up the special bench in lieu of the specialized approach needed for dealing with such social issues. 3 rd Statement is incorrect - This bench will take both pending as well as fresh matters.It will take upon cases like - release of surplus food grains lying in stocks for the use of people living in the drought-affected areas ;to take steps to prevent untimely death of women and children for want of nutritious food; to provide medical facilities to all the citizens irrespective of their economic condition; To provide safety and secure living condition for the fair gender who are forced into prostitution etc. will be taken up.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to Elections? The Model Code of conduct comes into force as soon as the schedule of the elections is announced by the Election Commission. Delimitation Commission is appointed by Election Commission to determine the geographical size of the constituencies based on their population. Seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for Scheduled Caste(SC), Scheduled Tribes(ST) and Other Backward Castes (OBC) State wise on the basis of their population ratio. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
2 nd Statement is incorrect- Delimitation Commission is appointed by President of India & works in collaboration with Election Commission. 3 rd Statement is incorrect- Seats are reserved for SC and STs in proportion to their population ratio but not for OBCs.
|
d
|
Election Commission
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to Elections? The Model Code of conduct comes into force as soon as the schedule of the elections is announced by the Election Commission. Delimitation Commission is appointed by Election Commission to determine the geographical size of the constituencies based on their population. Seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for Scheduled Caste(SC), Scheduled Tribes(ST) and Other Backward Castes (OBC) State wise on the basis of their population ratio. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:2 nd Statement is incorrect- Delimitation Commission is appointed by President of India & works in collaboration with Election Commission. 3 rd Statement is incorrect- Seats are reserved for SC and STs in proportion to their population ratio but not for OBCs.##Topic:Election Commission##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With regard to the 74 th Amendment Act , consider the following statements: It gave statutory status to the municipalities. The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a municipality should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. District Planning Committee is voluntary under the Act. Metropolitan Planning Committee is mandatory under the Act. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 st Statement is incorrect - The 74 th amendment act gave Constitutional status to the municipalities. In other words, state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new system of municipalities in accordance with the provisions of the act. 2 nd Statement is incorrect - All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people ( and not from amongst themselves ) of the municipal area. For this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be known as wards. The state legislature may provide the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. 3 rd Statement is incorrect - District Planning Committee is mandatory under the Act (Article 243-ZD). 4 th Statement is incorrect - Metropolitan Planning Committee is voluntary under the Act,(Article 243-ZE).
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the 74 th Amendment Act , consider the following statements: It gave statutory status to the municipalities. The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a municipality should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. District Planning Committee is voluntary under the Act. Metropolitan Planning Committee is mandatory under the Act. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1 st Statement is incorrect - The 74 th amendment act gave Constitutional status to the municipalities. In other words, state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new system of municipalities in accordance with the provisions of the act. 2 nd Statement is incorrect - All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people ( and not from amongst themselves ) of the municipal area. For this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be known as wards. The state legislature may provide the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. 3 rd Statement is incorrect - District Planning Committee is mandatory under the Act (Article 243-ZD). 4 th Statement is incorrect - Metropolitan Planning Committee is voluntary under the Act,(Article 243-ZE).##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the High Court.
Appointment of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service of a state are made by the Governor of the State only after consultation with the State Public Service Commission.
The expression "judicial service" means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge, but not the district judge.
The control over district courts and other subordinate courts including the posting, promotion and leave of persons belonging to the judicial service of a state and holding any post inferior to the post of district judge is vested in the High Court.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 st Statement is incorrect- The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the high court.
2 nd Statement is incorrect- Appointment of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service of a state are made by the Governor of the state after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and the high court both
3 rd Statement is incorrect- The expression ‘judicial service’ means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of district judge and other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge.
Hence, only 4 th statement is correct.
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the High Court.
Appointment of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service of a state are made by the Governor of the State only after consultation with the State Public Service Commission.
The expression "judicial service" means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge, but not the district judge.
The control over district courts and other subordinate courts including the posting, promotion and leave of persons belonging to the judicial service of a state and holding any post inferior to the post of district judge is vested in the High Court.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 4 only
##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
1 st Statement is incorrect- The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the high court.
2 nd Statement is incorrect- Appointment of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service of a state are made by the Governor of the state after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and the high court both
3 rd Statement is incorrect- The expression ‘judicial service’ means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of district judge and other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge.
Hence, only 4 th statement is correct.
##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With regard to the appointment of ad-hoc judges in Supreme Court, consider the following statements: They are appointed by the President with the consultation of Chief justice of India, for a temporary period. They should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
1 st Statement is incorrect- When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
2 nd Statement is incorrect - The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court, not High court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the appointment of ad-hoc judges in Supreme Court, consider the following statements: They are appointed by the President with the consultation of Chief justice of India, for a temporary period. They should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
1 st Statement is incorrect- When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
2 nd Statement is incorrect - The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court, not High court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding qualification and disqualification criteria of municipality elections: In some states, persons having more than two children are disqualified from contesting elections. Licensed planners and architects have been disqualified from contesting elections in some states. In some states contesting for more than two seats is not allowed. A person holding office of Profit is not allowed for contesting elections. Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
In Some states like Andhra Pradesh two child norm has been adopted for contesting elections. Persons having more than two children are disqualified. In some states like Himachal Pradesh and Haryana, licensed planners and architects have been disqualified from contesting elections. Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the two states where contesting for more than two seats is not allowed. Hence, all of the statements are correct.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding qualification and disqualification criteria of municipality elections: In some states, persons having more than two children are disqualified from contesting elections. Licensed planners and architects have been disqualified from contesting elections in some states. In some states contesting for more than two seats is not allowed. A person holding office of Profit is not allowed for contesting elections. Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In Some states like Andhra Pradesh two child norm has been adopted for contesting elections. Persons having more than two children are disqualified. In some states like Himachal Pradesh and Haryana, licensed planners and architects have been disqualified from contesting elections. Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the two states where contesting for more than two seats is not allowed. Hence, all of the statements are correct.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are compulsory provisions under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act? Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at all the three levels. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
2 and 3
|
1, 3 and 4
|
1, 4 and 5
|
2 and 3
|
Statement 1, 4 and 5 are voluntary provisions under the act. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels, is the mandatory provision while for backward classes is voluntary provision. The act provides that the super-intendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. Hence, only statement 2 and 3 are correct.
|
a
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are compulsory provisions under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act? Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at all the three levels. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 and 3###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4##Option_C: 1, 4 and 5##Option_D: 2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1, 4 and 5 are voluntary provisions under the act. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels, is the mandatory provision while for backward classes is voluntary provision. The act provides that the super-intendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. Hence, only statement 2 and 3 are correct.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: Large size of country Socio-cultural diversity Efficient Governance National Unity Curbing of regional autonomy Which of the above are the reasons for selecting a federal structure in India?
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
The objective of constitution makers was to provide a regional autonomy to fulfil regional aspirations along with national unity. Therefore, curbing of regional autonomy is an incorrect reason.
|
c
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Large size of country Socio-cultural diversity Efficient Governance National Unity Curbing of regional autonomy Which of the above are the reasons for selecting a federal structure in India?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 5 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 3 and 4##Option_D: 1, 2 and 5 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The objective of constitution makers was to provide a regional autonomy to fulfil regional aspirations along with national unity. Therefore, curbing of regional autonomy is an incorrect reason.##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements. High court can issue the writs for both fundamental rights and legal rights. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for issuing the writs is wider than HC. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
U/A 226 HC can issue writs for the violation of both fundamental rights and other legal rights, while SC can issue the writs only for violation of fundamental rights. SC controls the violation of rights all over the country while HC can do so in its own jurisdiction.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements. High court can issue the writs for both fundamental rights and legal rights. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for issuing the writs is wider than HC. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:U/A 226 HC can issue writs for the violation of both fundamental rights and other legal rights, while SC can issue the writs only for violation of fundamental rights. SC controls the violation of rights all over the country while HC can do so in its own jurisdiction.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The Supreme Court hears appeals against the judgement in a criminal proceeding of a high court if the high court:
Has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death.
Has taken before itself any case from any subordinate court and convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death.
Certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court.
Which of the above are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
All these powers are as a part of Appellate criminal jurisdiction of SC.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Supreme Court hears appeals against the judgement in a criminal proceeding of a high court if the high court:
Has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death.
Has taken before itself any case from any subordinate court and convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death.
Certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court.
Which of the above are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2
###Option_B: 1 and 3
##Option_C: 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 2
##Answer:d##Explaination:
All these powers are as a part of Appellate criminal jurisdiction of SC.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: The right to make "extra-territorial legislation" lies with the Parliament only. The laws of the Parliament are not applicable to Indian citizens and their property abroad. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Parliament has a control over Indian citizens living abroad.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The right to make "extra-territorial legislation" lies with the Parliament only. The laws of the Parliament are not applicable to Indian citizens and their property abroad. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Parliament has a control over Indian citizens living abroad.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following are federal features of the Indian constitution?
Dual Polity
Integrated Judiciary
Single citizenship
Written Constitution
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 4
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Federal features include Dual Polity, Written Constitution, separation of powers etc. while Unitary features include Single constitution, written constitution, single citizenship ,Integrated Judiciary etc.
|
b
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are federal features of the Indian constitution?
Dual Polity
Integrated Judiciary
Single citizenship
Written Constitution
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 4##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Federal features include Dual Polity, Written Constitution, separation of powers etc. while Unitary features include Single constitution, written constitution, single citizenship ,Integrated Judiciary etc.
##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with respect to the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. He/she is appointed by the President of India. At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Special Officer for Linguistic minorities is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. The Office of commissioner falls under Ministry of Minority affairs.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. He/she is appointed by the President of India. At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Special Officer for Linguistic minorities is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. The Office of commissioner falls under Ministry of Minority affairs.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India provides for the office of Solicitor General . The Attorney General of India is a member of central cabinet. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
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1 only
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2 only
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Both 1 and 2
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1 only
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1 st Statement is incorrect- Only Office of Attorney General is constitutional. The office of solicitor general and that of additional solicitor general is not constitutional. 2 nd Statement is incorrect -Attorney General is not a member of a central cabinet.
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d
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no_topic_assigned
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India provides for the office of Solicitor General . The Attorney General of India is a member of central cabinet. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:1 st Statement is incorrect- Only Office of Attorney General is constitutional. The office of solicitor general and that of additional solicitor general is not constitutional. 2 nd Statement is incorrect -Attorney General is not a member of a central cabinet.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
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Which of the following is/are statutory bodies? Planning commission(Now Disbanded) National Development Council CBI National Human Rights Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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1 and 2 only
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2 and 3 only
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3 and 4 only
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1 and 2 only
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First Three are extra constitutional bodies while NHRC is a statutory one i.e. passed by the Act of the Parliament.
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d
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no_topic_assigned
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Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
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This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are statutory bodies? Planning commission(Now Disbanded) National Development Council CBI National Human Rights Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:First Three are extra constitutional bodies while NHRC is a statutory one i.e. passed by the Act of the Parliament.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
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