Question
stringlengths 0
1.31k
| Option_A
stringlengths 0
220
| Option_B
stringlengths 0
265
| Option_C
stringlengths 0
589
| Option_D
stringlengths 0
220
| Explaination
stringlengths 0
7.94k
| Answer
stringclasses 4
values | Topic
stringclasses 480
values | Subject
stringclasses 12
values | prompt
stringlengths 165
8.89k
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
With reference to social security mechanisms in India, consider the following statements: National Pension system is open for all citizens of India to join on a voluntary basis. Swavalamban scheme is aimed at popularising long-term retirement saving among low-income earners in the organised sector. All rural households that belong to BPL category are eligible to take benefits of Aam Adami Bima Yojana. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces). With effect from 1 st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis. So statement 1 is correct. Swavalamban is a social security scheme to popularize voluntary long-term retirement saving among low-income earners in the unorganised sector. So statement 2 is incorrect. The AABY extends life and disability cover to persons between the ages of 18 and 59 years, living below and marginally above the poverty line in 47 vocational/ occupational groups, including rural landless households. So statement 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
GS_Economics_unclassified
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to social security mechanisms in India, consider the following statements: National Pension system is open for all citizens of India to join on a voluntary basis. Swavalamban scheme is aimed at popularising long-term retirement saving among low-income earners in the organised sector. All rural households that belong to BPL category are eligible to take benefits of Aam Adami Bima Yojana. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces). With effect from 1 st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis. So statement 1 is correct. Swavalamban is a social security scheme to popularize voluntary long-term retirement saving among low-income earners in the unorganised sector. So statement 2 is incorrect. The AABY extends life and disability cover to persons between the ages of 18 and 59 years, living below and marginally above the poverty line in 47 vocational/ occupational groups, including rural landless households. So statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:GS_Economics_unclassified##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Infrastructure Debt Funds (IDFs), which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. IDFs are investment vehicles that can be sponsored by commercial banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies in India.
2. Domestic institutional investors especially insurance and pension funds can invest in the IDFs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Infrastructure Debt Funds (IDFs), which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. IDFs are investment vehicles that can be sponsored by commercial banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies in India.
2. Domestic institutional investors especially insurance and pension funds can invest in the IDFs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Ultra Mega Power Projects (UMPPs) in India: All the envisaged and launched UMPPs are coal-based power plants The use of super-critical technology provides for higher fuel efficiency and lower greenhouse gas emissions Power Finance Corporation (PFC) is the nodal implementing agency for UMPPs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Ultra Mega Power Projects (UMPP) are very large-sized projects, approximately 4000 MW each involving an estimated investment of about 25,000 crores. The projects will substantially reduce power shortages in the country. The Central Government has accordingly taken the initiative for facilitating the development of a few Ultra Mega Power Projects of about 4,000 MW capacity each under tariff-based competitive bidding route using supercritical technology on build, own and operate basis. All the envisaged UMPPs are coal-based (both the pitheads and imported coal base). UMPPs are based on supercritical technology. It provides for higher fuel efficiency and lower greenhouse gas emissions. A supercritical steam generator is a type of boiler that operates at supercritical pressure. It allows for lesser usage of coal. Power Finance Corporation is the nodal agency for all the UMPPs. Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is the Technical partner. The first UMPP was launched in Mundra by Tata Power. Reliance Power commissioned UMPP in Sasan, Madhya Pradesh. Hence all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Energy , Infrastructure and Communication
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Ultra Mega Power Projects (UMPPs) in India: All the envisaged and launched UMPPs are coal-based power plants The use of super-critical technology provides for higher fuel efficiency and lower greenhouse gas emissions Power Finance Corporation (PFC) is the nodal implementing agency for UMPPs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Ultra Mega Power Projects (UMPP) are very large-sized projects, approximately 4000 MW each involving an estimated investment of about 25,000 crores. The projects will substantially reduce power shortages in the country. The Central Government has accordingly taken the initiative for facilitating the development of a few Ultra Mega Power Projects of about 4,000 MW capacity each under tariff-based competitive bidding route using supercritical technology on build, own and operate basis. All the envisaged UMPPs are coal-based (both the pitheads and imported coal base). UMPPs are based on supercritical technology. It provides for higher fuel efficiency and lower greenhouse gas emissions. A supercritical steam generator is a type of boiler that operates at supercritical pressure. It allows for lesser usage of coal. Power Finance Corporation is the nodal agency for all the UMPPs. Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is the Technical partner. The first UMPP was launched in Mundra by Tata Power. Reliance Power commissioned UMPP in Sasan, Madhya Pradesh. Hence all the statements are correct.##Topic:Energy , Infrastructure and Communication##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is correct regarding the provisions of the Companies Act 2013?
|
For every listed company, at least one-half of the directors should be independent.
|
The new Act mandates the setting up of a National Financial Reporting Authority to monitor accounting and auditing standards.
|
The Act caps the tenure of a company auditor to a maximum period of 5 years. The old law had capped it at 10 years.
|
For every listed company, at least one-half of the directors should be independent.
|
The Companies Act 2013 , introduces the concept of an independent director. For every listed company, at least one-third of the directors should be independent.
The Act mandates the setting up of a National Financial Reporting Authority, which will monitor compliance with accounting and auditing standards. It will also have the power to investigate auditors.
The Act caps the tenure of a company auditor to a maximum period of 10 years ; the old law had no such provisions.
Companies with a net worth of more than Rs.500 crore or turnover of more than Rs.1,000 crore or net profit of more than Rs.5 crore , should spend at least 2% of annual net profit towards CSR activities.
|
b
|
Services
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is correct regarding the provisions of the Companies Act 2013?
##Option_A: For every listed company, at least one-half of the directors should be independent.
###Option_B: The new Act mandates the setting up of a National Financial Reporting Authority to monitor accounting and auditing standards.
##Option_C: The Act caps the tenure of a company auditor to a maximum period of 5 years. The old law had capped it at 10 years.
##Option_D: For every listed company, at least one-half of the directors should be independent.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Companies Act 2013 , introduces the concept of an independent director. For every listed company, at least one-third of the directors should be independent.
The Act mandates the setting up of a National Financial Reporting Authority, which will monitor compliance with accounting and auditing standards. It will also have the power to investigate auditors.
The Act caps the tenure of a company auditor to a maximum period of 10 years ; the old law had no such provisions.
Companies with a net worth of more than Rs.500 crore or turnover of more than Rs.1,000 crore or net profit of more than Rs.5 crore , should spend at least 2% of annual net profit towards CSR activities.
##Topic:Services##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
As per the recently promulgated ordinance on land acquisition, the social impact assessment and mandatory consent is not required if the land is acquired for? National security Defense Urban infrastructure Industrial corridors Housing for poor Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
As per the new ordinance promulgated to bring changes into the Land Acquisition Act, the social impact assessment and mandatory consent is not required if the land is acquired for:
National security
Defence
Rural infrastructure including electrification
Industrial corridors
Housing for poor including PPP where ownership of land continues to be vested with the government
|
c
|
Energy , Infrastructure and Communication
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the recently promulgated ordinance on land acquisition, the social impact assessment and mandatory consent is not required if the land is acquired for? National security Defense Urban infrastructure Industrial corridors Housing for poor Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:As per the new ordinance promulgated to bring changes into the Land Acquisition Act, the social impact assessment and mandatory consent is not required if the land is acquired for:
National security
Defence
Rural infrastructure including electrification
Industrial corridors
Housing for poor including PPP where ownership of land continues to be vested with the government
##Topic:Energy , Infrastructure and Communication##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian agriculture sector: 1. The reduced percentage contribution of agriculture towards GDP from 1950 indicates reduction in farm production over the period. 2. Disguised unemployment in agriculture sector is more than any other sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The percentage contribution of agriculture towards GDP has reduced from 51% in 1950-51 to around 14% in 2014-15. However this reduced percentage does not imply reduction in farm production. Farm production has increased over the period. The reduced contribution of agriculture can be attributed to increase in non-farm activities.
Disguised unemployment is the situation of surplus labour. Compared to any other sector in India, the primary sector, particularly the agriculture sector, has more disguised unemployment.
Absentee landlordism is one of the main reasons behind lack of modernisation in agriculture. In absentee landlordism, the actual owner rents the land to the tiller and takes away the profit without investing back in the agriculture. The tiller is left with little money to invest in modernisation of agriculture.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Indian agriculture sector: 1. The reduced percentage contribution of agriculture towards GDP from 1950 indicates reduction in farm production over the period. 2. Disguised unemployment in agriculture sector is more than any other sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
The percentage contribution of agriculture towards GDP has reduced from 51% in 1950-51 to around 14% in 2014-15. However this reduced percentage does not imply reduction in farm production. Farm production has increased over the period. The reduced contribution of agriculture can be attributed to increase in non-farm activities.
Disguised unemployment is the situation of surplus labour. Compared to any other sector in India, the primary sector, particularly the agriculture sector, has more disguised unemployment.
Absentee landlordism is one of the main reasons behind lack of modernisation in agriculture. In absentee landlordism, the actual owner rents the land to the tiller and takes away the profit without investing back in the agriculture. The tiller is left with little money to invest in modernisation of agriculture.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Use of HYV technology has resulted in which of the following in Indian agriculture?
Increase in Gross area under cultivation.
Crop diversification.
Increase in marketable surplus.
Increase in farming population.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Use of HYV technology has reduced the time lag between sowing and harvesting of crops. Use of chemical fertilizers eliminated the need for fallowing. This has resulted in double cropping and hence the increase in Gross area under cultivation.
The use of HYV technology has been restricted to mainly wheat and rice . Hence the production of these crops have increased compared and there is no similar rise in the production of other crops. So crop diversification is not achieved.
Use of HYV technology has led to an increase in the output, generating good marketable surplus in agriculture.
Use of costly HYV technology has been restricted to a small group of rich farmers. Large number of poor farmers are not able to use the HYV technology. This has resulted in decrease in farm population over the period of time.
|
c
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Use of HYV technology has resulted in which of the following in Indian agriculture?
Increase in Gross area under cultivation.
Crop diversification.
Increase in marketable surplus.
Increase in farming population.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Use of HYV technology has reduced the time lag between sowing and harvesting of crops. Use of chemical fertilizers eliminated the need for fallowing. This has resulted in double cropping and hence the increase in Gross area under cultivation.
The use of HYV technology has been restricted to mainly wheat and rice . Hence the production of these crops have increased compared and there is no similar rise in the production of other crops. So crop diversification is not achieved.
Use of HYV technology has led to an increase in the output, generating good marketable surplus in agriculture.
Use of costly HYV technology has been restricted to a small group of rich farmers. Large number of poor farmers are not able to use the HYV technology. This has resulted in decrease in farm population over the period of time.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are the correct reasons that support the need for phasing out subsidies in agriculture?
Subsidies reduce competitiveness in the market.
Subsidies encourage wasteful use of energy.
Fertilizer subsidy has resulted in impaired micronutrients in the soil in many places.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
More than the poor or marginal farmers, the rich farmers get the benefit of subsidy. This keeps them insulated against the competitive forces of the market and reduces the competition. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
Subsidies encourage wasteful use of resources such as excessive use of electricity, fertilisers etc without worrying about the cost of such usage. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
Fertiliser subsidy such urea has led to excessive use of particular fertilisers, resulting in impaired micronutrients in the soil. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the correct reasons that support the need for phasing out subsidies in agriculture?
Subsidies reduce competitiveness in the market.
Subsidies encourage wasteful use of energy.
Fertilizer subsidy has resulted in impaired micronutrients in the soil in many places.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
More than the poor or marginal farmers, the rich farmers get the benefit of subsidy. This keeps them insulated against the competitive forces of the market and reduces the competition. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
Subsidies encourage wasteful use of resources such as excessive use of electricity, fertilisers etc without worrying about the cost of such usage. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
Fertiliser subsidy such urea has led to excessive use of particular fertilisers, resulting in impaired micronutrients in the soil. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following reasons necessitated the intervention of State in the industrial development after independence? The private sector lacked the huge capital required for setting up of heavy industries. The private players had less incentive to invest in industrialisation due to the low demand for industrial goods. The need to maximise the profit necessitated State intervention. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
At the time of independence, there were less private entrepreneurs and India needed a large capital in order to bring industrialisation.
The demand for industrial goods in market was less during that time owing to low income levels. The low demand had resulted in lack of incentives for the profit driven private investment.
Maximisation of profit would require private players rather than state intervention. The state intervention aimed for generation of employment and achievement of socialistic goals rather than maximising the profits.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following reasons necessitated the intervention of State in the industrial development after independence? The private sector lacked the huge capital required for setting up of heavy industries. The private players had less incentive to invest in industrialisation due to the low demand for industrial goods. The need to maximise the profit necessitated State intervention. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
At the time of independence, there were less private entrepreneurs and India needed a large capital in order to bring industrialisation.
The demand for industrial goods in market was less during that time owing to low income levels. The low demand had resulted in lack of incentives for the profit driven private investment.
Maximisation of profit would require private players rather than state intervention. The state intervention aimed for generation of employment and achievement of socialistic goals rather than maximising the profits.
##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the industrial policy during the period of pre-liberalization in India? The industrial licensing policy discouraged establishment of industries in backward regions. The development of small scale industries was encouraged with the aim of generating employment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy of industrial licencing was aimed to encourage the establishment of industry in backward regions. Licence was needed for both establishing a new industry and for expanding the production. Licences were liberally issued for backward regions. Statement 2 is correct. Industrial Policy Resolution 1977 encouraged the development of small scale industries (SSI) with the aim of employment generation and equity. Number of items reserved for this sector was increased (105 to 807). 'District Industries Centers' were established in every district, which are instrumental for support to small scale industry. This agency would provide under a single roof all the services and support required by small and rural entrepreneurs. Khadi and Village Industries Commission was revamped.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the industrial policy during the period of pre-liberalization in India? The industrial licensing policy discouraged establishment of industries in backward regions. The development of small scale industries was encouraged with the aim of generating employment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy of industrial licencing was aimed to encourage the establishment of industry in backward regions. Licence was needed for both establishing a new industry and for expanding the production. Licences were liberally issued for backward regions. Statement 2 is correct. Industrial Policy Resolution 1977 encouraged the development of small scale industries (SSI) with the aim of employment generation and equity. Number of items reserved for this sector was increased (105 to 807). 'District Industries Centers' were established in every district, which are instrumental for support to small scale industry. This agency would provide under a single roof all the services and support required by small and rural entrepreneurs. Khadi and Village Industries Commission was revamped.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following feature in the UNESCO's list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of humanity?
1. Chhau Dance
2. Kathak Dance
3. Yoga
4. Nautanki
5. Ramlila
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
Yoga has been listed as an element in the UNESCOs list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of humanity at the 11th session of the Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage held in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia .
Yoga has become the 12 th intangible cultural heritage that has been listed from India so far.
The list of other cultural heritage from India in the List are:
Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru.
Sankirtana – Ritual singing, drumming and dancing.
Buddhist Chanting of Ladakh
Kalbelia folk songs and dances.
Chhau dance.
Mudiyettu
Ramman
Ramlila
Vedic Chanting
Kutiyattam
Nowruz
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following feature in the UNESCO's list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of humanity?
1. Chhau Dance
2. Kathak Dance
3. Yoga
4. Nautanki
5. Ramlila
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 5 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 5 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 5 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Yoga has been listed as an element in the UNESCOs list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of humanity at the 11th session of the Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage held in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia .
Yoga has become the 12 th intangible cultural heritage that has been listed from India so far.
The list of other cultural heritage from India in the List are:
Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru.
Sankirtana – Ritual singing, drumming and dancing.
Buddhist Chanting of Ladakh
Kalbelia folk songs and dances.
Chhau dance.
Mudiyettu
Ramman
Ramlila
Vedic Chanting
Kutiyattam
Nowruz
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture aims to: Enhance horticulture production and augment farmer"s income. Strengthen nutritional security. Improve productivity by way of water use efficiency through Micro Irrigation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Main objectives of the Mission are: Promote holistic growth of horticulture sector, including bamboo and coconut through area based regionally differentiated strategies, which includes research, technology promotion, extension, post harvest management, processing and marketing, in consonance with comparative advantage of each State/region and its diverse agro-climatic features; Encourage aggregation of farmers into farmer groups like FIGs/FPOs and FPCs to bring economy of scale and scope. Enhance horticulture production, augment farmers, income and strengthen nutritional security; Improve productivity by way of quality germplasm, planting material and water use efficiency through Micro Irrigation. Support skill development and create employment generation opportunities for rural youth in horticulture and post harvest management, especially in the cold chain sector.
|
d
|
Agriculture: Recent trends in Agriculture Sector, Agricultural Marketing and Reforms, Agricultural Research, Sustainable Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture aims to: Enhance horticulture production and augment farmer"s income. Strengthen nutritional security. Improve productivity by way of water use efficiency through Micro Irrigation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Main objectives of the Mission are: Promote holistic growth of horticulture sector, including bamboo and coconut through area based regionally differentiated strategies, which includes research, technology promotion, extension, post harvest management, processing and marketing, in consonance with comparative advantage of each State/region and its diverse agro-climatic features; Encourage aggregation of farmers into farmer groups like FIGs/FPOs and FPCs to bring economy of scale and scope. Enhance horticulture production, augment farmers, income and strengthen nutritional security; Improve productivity by way of quality germplasm, planting material and water use efficiency through Micro Irrigation. Support skill development and create employment generation opportunities for rural youth in horticulture and post harvest management, especially in the cold chain sector.##Topic:Agriculture: Recent trends in Agriculture Sector, Agricultural Marketing and Reforms, Agricultural Research, Sustainable Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding certain terms frequently used in economy: If inflation in a particular month is 4%, this means that prices in that month are 4% higher than previous month. The gross national income is equal to total value of goods and services produced by nationals of that nation in a particular year. Per capita income = GDP / Total population of the nation. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Inflation in a particular month indicates increase in prices of that month with respect to the same month in previous year. So 1st statement is incorrect.
The gross national income is equal to total income of nationals of that nation during a particular year which is equal to total value of goods and services produced by nationals of that nation during a particular year. This also includes income of nationals which are residing in other countries. So 2nd statement is correct.
Per capita income = NNP/ total population of the nation. So option 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
National Income, Economic Growth and Development,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding certain terms frequently used in economy: If inflation in a particular month is 4%, this means that prices in that month are 4% higher than previous month. The gross national income is equal to total value of goods and services produced by nationals of that nation in a particular year. Per capita income = GDP / Total population of the nation. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
Inflation in a particular month indicates increase in prices of that month with respect to the same month in previous year. So 1st statement is incorrect.
The gross national income is equal to total income of nationals of that nation during a particular year which is equal to total value of goods and services produced by nationals of that nation during a particular year. This also includes income of nationals which are residing in other countries. So 2nd statement is correct.
Per capita income = NNP/ total population of the nation. So option 3 is incorrect.
##Topic:National Income, Economic Growth and Development,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding policy of liberalization in India : A policy of de-reservation was started in 1991 and presently only 3 industries are reserved for public sector namely railway, defence equipments and atomic energy. Now the set of industries which need license includes alcoholic drinks, mining, hazardous chemicals. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP) Act 1991 was introduced to restrict anti-competitive behaviour of industrialists because of liberalisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
A policy of de-reservation was started in 1991 and presently only 2 industries are reserved for public sector namely railway, atomic energy. So option 1 is incorrect.
Mining doesn’t require license so option 2 is incorrect.
MRTP Act 1969 which aimed at restriction on anti-competitive behaviour of industrialists was replaced by FERA in 1991. So option 3 is also incorrect.
|
d
|
Economic Reforms since 1991
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding policy of liberalization in India : A policy of de-reservation was started in 1991 and presently only 3 industries are reserved for public sector namely railway, defence equipments and atomic energy. Now the set of industries which need license includes alcoholic drinks, mining, hazardous chemicals. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP) Act 1991 was introduced to restrict anti-competitive behaviour of industrialists because of liberalisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
A policy of de-reservation was started in 1991 and presently only 2 industries are reserved for public sector namely railway, atomic energy. So option 1 is incorrect.
Mining doesn’t require license so option 2 is incorrect.
MRTP Act 1969 which aimed at restriction on anti-competitive behaviour of industrialists was replaced by FERA in 1991. So option 3 is also incorrect.
##Topic:Economic Reforms since 1991##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following options regarding terms used in budget: Fiscal deficit = Total Expenditure - Total receipts. Grants given by centre to states come under revenue expenditure. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit - interest payments - loan payments. Which of the options given above is/are incorrect ?
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure - Total receipts + borrowings Hence, option 1 is incorrect. Grants given by centre to states come under revenue deficit but grant used for creation of capital assets excluded from effective revenue deficit. Hence, option 2 is correct. To calculate primary deficit only interest payments is subtracted from fiscal deficit not the loan payments. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
|
b
|
Government Budgeting
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following options regarding terms used in budget: Fiscal deficit = Total Expenditure - Total receipts. Grants given by centre to states come under revenue expenditure. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit - interest payments - loan payments. Which of the options given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure - Total receipts + borrowings Hence, option 1 is incorrect. Grants given by centre to states come under revenue deficit but grant used for creation of capital assets excluded from effective revenue deficit. Hence, option 2 is correct. To calculate primary deficit only interest payments is subtracted from fiscal deficit not the loan payments. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.##Topic:Government Budgeting##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding deficit financing in India : Money for deficit financing can be generated by printing more currency. Borrowing from domestic banks and market preferred over borrowing from external market because repayment of borrowing from external market depend on exchange rate which is risky. Aids from IMF and other institutions are not generally used for deficit financing. Which of the options given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Money for deficit financing can be generated by printing more currency but it is not advisable as printing more currency increases inflation in economy. So option 1 is correct. Borrowing from external market preferred over borrowing from domestic market due to crowding out effect. If the government itself goes on borrowing from the banks and market of the country than money available for industry to invest will reduce. So external borrowings are preferred over internal borrowing. So option 2 is incorrect. External Aids are best source for deficit financing so option 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
Government Budgeting
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding deficit financing in India : Money for deficit financing can be generated by printing more currency. Borrowing from domestic banks and market preferred over borrowing from external market because repayment of borrowing from external market depend on exchange rate which is risky. Aids from IMF and other institutions are not generally used for deficit financing. Which of the options given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Money for deficit financing can be generated by printing more currency but it is not advisable as printing more currency increases inflation in economy. So option 1 is correct. Borrowing from external market preferred over borrowing from domestic market due to crowding out effect. If the government itself goes on borrowing from the banks and market of the country than money available for industry to invest will reduce. So external borrowings are preferred over internal borrowing. So option 2 is incorrect. External Aids are best source for deficit financing so option 3 is incorrect.##Topic:Government Budgeting##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) Act 2003 ?
|
Government can not borrow from RBI except by ways and means advances.
|
Government will reduce revenue deficit upto 3% of GDP.
|
Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit may exceed targets only on the grounds such as national security, calamity.
|
Government can not borrow from RBI except by ways and means advances.
|
In FRBM act following 3 statements were introduced. FRBM introduced the following:
Fiscal policy strategy statement.
Medium term fiscal policy statement.
Macroeconomic framework statement.
So statement (d) is correct.
Targets were set up (Target for revenue deficit = 0 till march 31, 2008) for RD and FD was 3% of GDP but Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit may exceed targets only on the grounds such as national security, calamity. So statement (b) is incorrect but (c) is correct.
There was provision that government can’t borrow from RBI except by ways and means advances. So option (a) is correct.
|
b
|
Prices & Monetary management,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) Act 2003 ?##Option_A: Government can not borrow from RBI except by ways and means advances.###Option_B: Government will reduce revenue deficit upto 3% of GDP.##Option_C: Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit may exceed targets only on the grounds such as national security, calamity.##Option_D: Government can not borrow from RBI except by ways and means advances.##Answer:b##Explaination:
In FRBM act following 3 statements were introduced. FRBM introduced the following:
Fiscal policy strategy statement.
Medium term fiscal policy statement.
Macroeconomic framework statement.
So statement (d) is correct.
Targets were set up (Target for revenue deficit = 0 till march 31, 2008) for RD and FD was 3% of GDP but Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit may exceed targets only on the grounds such as national security, calamity. So statement (b) is incorrect but (c) is correct.
There was provision that government can’t borrow from RBI except by ways and means advances. So option (a) is correct.
##Topic:Prices & Monetary management,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with respect to international financial institutions : World bank includes international development association, international bank for reconstruction and development. International finance corporation lends money to developing countries at low interest rates. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency encourages investment in developing countries. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
The term "World Bank" refers only to the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
The term "World Bank Group" incorporates five closely associated entities that work collaboratively towards poverty reduction:
the World Bank (IBRD and IDA), and
three other agencies,
the International Finance Corporation (IFC),
the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), and
the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).
IFC - The International Finance Corporation ( IFC ) lends money to private sector companies of its member nations. So option 2 is incorrect.
MIGA - encourages investment in developing countries by providing insurance to foreign private investors against loss caused by non-commercial (political war, civil disturbance, expropriation) risks. So option 3 is correct.
|
b
|
India and IMF, WTO , WIPO
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to international financial institutions : World bank includes international development association, international bank for reconstruction and development. International finance corporation lends money to developing countries at low interest rates. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency encourages investment in developing countries. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
The term "World Bank" refers only to the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
The term "World Bank Group" incorporates five closely associated entities that work collaboratively towards poverty reduction:
the World Bank (IBRD and IDA), and
three other agencies,
the International Finance Corporation (IFC),
the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), and
the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).
IFC - The International Finance Corporation ( IFC ) lends money to private sector companies of its member nations. So option 2 is incorrect.
MIGA - encourages investment in developing countries by providing insurance to foreign private investors against loss caused by non-commercial (political war, civil disturbance, expropriation) risks. So option 3 is correct.
##Topic:India and IMF, WTO , WIPO##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping in International Trade: 1. The purpose of anti dumping duty is to prevent export of goods by a country to another country at a price lower than the normal price of goods. 2. The anti dumping is a protective measure to remedy trade distortion. Which of the given statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Dumping is said to occur when the goods are exported by a country to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice which can have a distortive effect on international trade.
Anti dumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising out of the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, the purpose of anti dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The anti dumping is a trade remedial measure to counteract the trade distortion caused by dumping and the consequential injury to the domestic industry. Only in this sense, it can be seen as a protective measure. It can never be regarded as a protectionist measure.
|
c
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping in International Trade: 1. The purpose of anti dumping duty is to prevent export of goods by a country to another country at a price lower than the normal price of goods. 2. The anti dumping is a protective measure to remedy trade distortion. Which of the given statements is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Dumping is said to occur when the goods are exported by a country to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice which can have a distortive effect on international trade.
Anti dumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising out of the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, the purpose of anti dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The anti dumping is a trade remedial measure to counteract the trade distortion caused by dumping and the consequential injury to the domestic industry. Only in this sense, it can be seen as a protective measure. It can never be regarded as a protectionist measure.
##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Free Trade Agreement (FTA) focuses mainly on goods whereas, Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement (CECA) covers many areas like services, investment, competition, government procurement and disputes.
2. The mutual recognition agreements (MRAs) signed under CECA recognises different regulatory regimes of trading partners on the presumption that they achieve the same end objectives.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
CECA/CEPA are more comprehensive and ambitious that an FTA in terms of coverage of areas and the type of commitments. While a traditional FTA focuses mainly on goods; a CECA/CEPA is more ambitious in terms of a holistic coverage of many areas like services, investment, competition, government procurement, disputes etc.
CECA/CEPA looks deeper at the regulatory aspects of trade than an FTA. It is on account of this that it encompasses mutual recognition agreements (MRAs) that cover the regulatory regimes of the partners. An MRA recognises different regulatory regimes of partners on the presumption that they achieve the same end objectives.
|
c
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Free Trade Agreement (FTA) focuses mainly on goods whereas, Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement (CECA) covers many areas like services, investment, competition, government procurement and disputes.
2. The mutual recognition agreements (MRAs) signed under CECA recognises different regulatory regimes of trading partners on the presumption that they achieve the same end objectives.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
CECA/CEPA are more comprehensive and ambitious that an FTA in terms of coverage of areas and the type of commitments. While a traditional FTA focuses mainly on goods; a CECA/CEPA is more ambitious in terms of a holistic coverage of many areas like services, investment, competition, government procurement, disputes etc.
CECA/CEPA looks deeper at the regulatory aspects of trade than an FTA. It is on account of this that it encompasses mutual recognition agreements (MRAs) that cover the regulatory regimes of the partners. An MRA recognises different regulatory regimes of partners on the presumption that they achieve the same end objectives.
##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about " Transfer Payments "?
1. The party giving transfer payments can demand future payments.
2. Only Official Payments are categorised as Transfer Payments.
3. Dividends on assets abroad are included in "Transfer Payments"
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of a country receive ‘for free’, without having to make any present or future payments in return. They consist of remittances, gifts and grants. They could be official or private.
|
d
|
FDI/FII etc
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about " Transfer Payments "?
1. The party giving transfer payments can demand future payments.
2. Only Official Payments are categorised as Transfer Payments.
3. Dividends on assets abroad are included in "Transfer Payments"
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of a country receive ‘for free’, without having to make any present or future payments in return. They consist of remittances, gifts and grants. They could be official or private.
##Topic:FDI/FII etc##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act:
It empower the state governments to control production, supply and distribution of agricultural commodities resulting in monopolies.
Though subjected to legislative approval for fund utilization, the non-transparent methodology of revenue collection makes AMPCs hidden from scrutiny.
Agriculture being a state subject, the Constitution prevents the centre from enacting legislation for setting up a national common market for agricultural commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Presently, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act enacted by State Governments.
The APMC Act controls only the first sale of the agricultural produce . The Essential Commodities Act on the other hand, empowers the central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities, including pricing, stock-holding and the period for which the stocks can be kept and to impose duties.
The revenue earned by the APMCs does not go to the State excheque r and hence does not require the approval of State legislature to utilize the funds so collected. Thus APMC operations are hidden from scrutiny.
There are provisions/entries in List III of the Seventh Schedule (Concurrent List) in the Constitution which can be used by the Union to enact legislation for setting up a national common market for specified agricultural commodities, viz., Entry 33 which covers trade and commerce and production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oil seeds and oils raw cotton, raw jute etc. Entry 42 in the Union List, viz., "Interstate Trade and Commerce" also allows a role for the union. Once a law is passed by the Parliament to regulate trading in the specified agricultural commodities, it will override the state APMC laws, paving the way for creating a national common market. But this approach could be seen as heavy handed on the part of the center and contrary to the new spirit of cooperative federalism.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act:
It empower the state governments to control production, supply and distribution of agricultural commodities resulting in monopolies.
Though subjected to legislative approval for fund utilization, the non-transparent methodology of revenue collection makes AMPCs hidden from scrutiny.
Agriculture being a state subject, the Constitution prevents the centre from enacting legislation for setting up a national common market for agricultural commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:Presently, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act enacted by State Governments.
The APMC Act controls only the first sale of the agricultural produce . The Essential Commodities Act on the other hand, empowers the central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities, including pricing, stock-holding and the period for which the stocks can be kept and to impose duties.
The revenue earned by the APMCs does not go to the State excheque r and hence does not require the approval of State legislature to utilize the funds so collected. Thus APMC operations are hidden from scrutiny.
There are provisions/entries in List III of the Seventh Schedule (Concurrent List) in the Constitution which can be used by the Union to enact legislation for setting up a national common market for specified agricultural commodities, viz., Entry 33 which covers trade and commerce and production, supply and distribution of foodstuffs, including edible oil seeds and oils raw cotton, raw jute etc. Entry 42 in the Union List, viz., "Interstate Trade and Commerce" also allows a role for the union. Once a law is passed by the Parliament to regulate trading in the specified agricultural commodities, it will override the state APMC laws, paving the way for creating a national common market. But this approach could be seen as heavy handed on the part of the center and contrary to the new spirit of cooperative federalism.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the "Licence-Permit Raj Policy" before 1990s, which among the following can be considered as its impact? It led to a decrease in foreign exchange reserves due to import substitution. It resulted in inefficient public sector monopolies. It resulted in more competition with respect to the setting up of domestic industries, as many private players sought for licenses from the Government. It led to diversification of industrial sector with respect to special focus being given in creating industries in the backward regions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Even though the policy of import substitution aimed to save foreign exchange reserve, it failed to promote exports.
Also the policy of import substitution aims at promoting domestic production and self-sufficiency in many sectors. Import Substitution thus gives boost to domestic manufacturing sector, which creates more employment opportunities and considerably lowers the demand for foreign exchange.Hence the foreign exchange dwindled reaching lowest levels in 1990. Hence, 1st Statement is correct
Protection of public sector from competition of private players resulted in inefficient public sector monopolies, which gradually turned into dead social weight. Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.
Most of the domestic sectors were protected from foreign competition and many industries were restricted to public sector. This resulted in lack of competition in domestic industries and failed to achieve international standards. Hence, 3rd Statement is incorrect.
The licence-permit raj policy particularly helped in diversification of industrial sector by encouraging setting up of industries of all the types, both large scale and small scale, in all the regions. Hence, 4th Statement is correct.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the "Licence-Permit Raj Policy" before 1990s, which among the following can be considered as its impact? It led to a decrease in foreign exchange reserves due to import substitution. It resulted in inefficient public sector monopolies. It resulted in more competition with respect to the setting up of domestic industries, as many private players sought for licenses from the Government. It led to diversification of industrial sector with respect to special focus being given in creating industries in the backward regions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Even though the policy of import substitution aimed to save foreign exchange reserve, it failed to promote exports.
Also the policy of import substitution aims at promoting domestic production and self-sufficiency in many sectors. Import Substitution thus gives boost to domestic manufacturing sector, which creates more employment opportunities and considerably lowers the demand for foreign exchange.Hence the foreign exchange dwindled reaching lowest levels in 1990. Hence, 1st Statement is correct
Protection of public sector from competition of private players resulted in inefficient public sector monopolies, which gradually turned into dead social weight. Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.
Most of the domestic sectors were protected from foreign competition and many industries were restricted to public sector. This resulted in lack of competition in domestic industries and failed to achieve international standards. Hence, 3rd Statement is incorrect.
The licence-permit raj policy particularly helped in diversification of industrial sector by encouraging setting up of industries of all the types, both large scale and small scale, in all the regions. Hence, 4th Statement is correct.
##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following changes were brought in industrial sector after the 1991 reforms? The requirement of licencing was abolished in all the industries except for Atomic energy and Railways. Many production areas earlier reserved for large scale industries are now allowed for small scale industries. Freedom from licencing also included freedom to increase the production capacity without restrictions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Delicencing and de-reservation of industries for public sector are different concepts. The requirement of licencing is for the private players who start up industries in particular areas. The requirement of licencing was abolished in most of the industries except for liquor, cigarette, defence equipment, industrial explosives and dangerous chemicals. Atomic energy and railways are reserved for public sector industries. There is no private participation in these two industries. So there is no point of licencing in these two industries. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Earlier many production areas were reserved for small-scale industries and these are now allowed for large scale industries. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Earlier production capacities were also linked to licencing. With the removal of restrictions on licencing, the freedom to increase the production capacities was also granted. Hence statement 3 is correct .
|
d
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following changes were brought in industrial sector after the 1991 reforms? The requirement of licencing was abolished in all the industries except for Atomic energy and Railways. Many production areas earlier reserved for large scale industries are now allowed for small scale industries. Freedom from licencing also included freedom to increase the production capacity without restrictions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Delicencing and de-reservation of industries for public sector are different concepts. The requirement of licencing is for the private players who start up industries in particular areas. The requirement of licencing was abolished in most of the industries except for liquor, cigarette, defence equipment, industrial explosives and dangerous chemicals. Atomic energy and railways are reserved for public sector industries. There is no private participation in these two industries. So there is no point of licencing in these two industries. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Earlier many production areas were reserved for small-scale industries and these are now allowed for large scale industries. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Earlier production capacities were also linked to licencing. With the removal of restrictions on licencing, the freedom to increase the production capacities was also granted. Hence statement 3 is correct .
##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
After the initial emphasis on hydro-electric source, the power generation in India was gradually shifted towards thermal power. Which of the following are the reasons behind this? Thermal power is less polluting. Hydroelectric projects need huge investments. Presence of large reserves of coal. Lower gestation period of hydroelectric projects than of thermal power projects. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Thermal power is more polluting than hydro-electric power. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hydroelectric projects need huge investments compared to thermal power plants. And India has a large reserves of coal supporting the thermal power generation in India. Statement 4 is incorrect. Gestation period refers to the length of time required for the project to start making profits. The hydro-electric projects are of high gestation period compared to thermal power projects.
|
d
|
Energy , Infrastructure and Communication
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:After the initial emphasis on hydro-electric source, the power generation in India was gradually shifted towards thermal power. Which of the following are the reasons behind this? Thermal power is less polluting. Hydroelectric projects need huge investments. Presence of large reserves of coal. Lower gestation period of hydroelectric projects than of thermal power projects. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. Thermal power is more polluting than hydro-electric power. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hydroelectric projects need huge investments compared to thermal power plants. And India has a large reserves of coal supporting the thermal power generation in India. Statement 4 is incorrect. Gestation period refers to the length of time required for the project to start making profits. The hydro-electric projects are of high gestation period compared to thermal power projects.##Topic:Energy , Infrastructure and Communication##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding power consumption in India: Consumption of electricity in the agricultural sector is the highest compared to other sectors. All the thermal power stations in India are running at full capacity. Transmission and Distribution (T&D) Losses in India are negligible when compared to power production. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The industrial sector consumes the highest electricity than any other sector in India. Consumption of electricity in agriculture continues to be low due to dependence on manual labor and lack of mechanization. Hence statement 1 is not correct. There is an under-utilization of production capacity in most of the thermal power plants . Capacity utilization is measured by Plant Load Factor (PLF) which is the ratio of electricity generated to production capacity. It is around 75-77%. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Transmission and Distribution (T&D) losses are a percentage of energy loss in the power grid in the process of transporting electricity from generating stations to points of consumption. T&D losses are not negligible in India. It amounts to nearly 20% in most of the states. In some states, it is up to 50%. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
|
d
|
Energy , Infrastructure and Communication
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding power consumption in India: Consumption of electricity in the agricultural sector is the highest compared to other sectors. All the thermal power stations in India are running at full capacity. Transmission and Distribution (T&D) Losses in India are negligible when compared to power production. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The industrial sector consumes the highest electricity than any other sector in India. Consumption of electricity in agriculture continues to be low due to dependence on manual labor and lack of mechanization. Hence statement 1 is not correct. There is an under-utilization of production capacity in most of the thermal power plants . Capacity utilization is measured by Plant Load Factor (PLF) which is the ratio of electricity generated to production capacity. It is around 75-77%. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Transmission and Distribution (T&D) losses are a percentage of energy loss in the power grid in the process of transporting electricity from generating stations to points of consumption. T&D losses are not negligible in India. It amounts to nearly 20% in most of the states. In some states, it is up to 50%. Hence statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:Energy , Infrastructure and Communication##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Draft National Land Reform Policy 2013, which of the given statements is/are correct?
1. The policy proposes to impose ceiling not only on ‘Ownership’ of land holdings but also on ‘Operational’ land holdings to prevent concentration of large tracts of land through lease-in.
2. The policy proposes of exemptions to religious, educational, charitable, research and industrial organizations as well as plantations and aqua farms from the ceiling provisions.
3. Public Scrutiny of an inventory of all ceiling surplus lands is proposed under the policy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The National Land Reform Policy proposes that -:
All States shall impose ceiling not only on ‘Ownership’ of land holdings but also on ‘Operational’ land holdings to prevent concentration of large tracts of land through lease-in. Under no circumstance shall a person/institution/organisation be allowed to own more land than the ceiling.
States shall prepare and maintain an inventory of all ceiling surplus lands and make it available for public scrutiny.
Exemptions to religious, educational, charitable, research and industrial organizations as well as plantations and aqua farms should be strictly discontinued. These institutions shall not be allowed to use more than one unit of 15 acres.
Option A is correct
|
a
|
Rural Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Draft National Land Reform Policy 2013, which of the given statements is/are correct?
1. The policy proposes to impose ceiling not only on ‘Ownership’ of land holdings but also on ‘Operational’ land holdings to prevent concentration of large tracts of land through lease-in.
2. The policy proposes of exemptions to religious, educational, charitable, research and industrial organizations as well as plantations and aqua farms from the ceiling provisions.
3. Public Scrutiny of an inventory of all ceiling surplus lands is proposed under the policy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:The National Land Reform Policy proposes that -:
All States shall impose ceiling not only on ‘Ownership’ of land holdings but also on ‘Operational’ land holdings to prevent concentration of large tracts of land through lease-in. Under no circumstance shall a person/institution/organisation be allowed to own more land than the ceiling.
States shall prepare and maintain an inventory of all ceiling surplus lands and make it available for public scrutiny.
Exemptions to religious, educational, charitable, research and industrial organizations as well as plantations and aqua farms should be strictly discontinued. These institutions shall not be allowed to use more than one unit of 15 acres.
Option A is correct
##Topic:Rural Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding National Social Assistance Program (NSAP) :
It provides social assistance benefits to below poverty line households in the case of disability, old age, death of the breadwinner and maternity.
The NSAP represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 and 42 of the Constitution.
National Family Benefit Scheme under NSAP provides a lump sum amount for households on the death of the primary breadwinner in the bereaved family.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
NSAP stands for National Social Assistance Programme. It was launched on 15th August, 1995. In providing social assistance benefits to poor households in the case of old age, death of the breadwinner and maternity, the NSAP aims at ensuring minimum national standards, in addition to the benefits that the States are currently providing or might provide in future.
The National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS) was subsequently transferred on 1 st April, 2001 from the Ministry of Rural development to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. So it is no longer part of NSAP. Hence, 1 st statement is incorrect, as it doesnot include maternity provisions and benefits.
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 and 42 of the Constitution recognizing the concurrent responsibility of the Central and the State Governments in the matter. In particular, Article 41 of the Constitution of India directs the State to provide public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in other cases of undeserved want within the limit of its economic capacity and development. Earlier article 41 and 42 both were included but now with removal of maternity benefit scheme from it article 42 is not fulfilled by NSAP( Article 42- Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief). Hence 2 nd statement is incorrect.
National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS): Rs. 10000/- will be given as a lumpsum assistance to the bereaved household in the event of death of the bread-winner according to new guidelines published in March 2015. Hence, only 3 rd statement is correct.
|
c
|
Rural Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding National Social Assistance Program (NSAP) :
It provides social assistance benefits to below poverty line households in the case of disability, old age, death of the breadwinner and maternity.
The NSAP represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 and 42 of the Constitution.
National Family Benefit Scheme under NSAP provides a lump sum amount for households on the death of the primary breadwinner in the bereaved family.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
NSAP stands for National Social Assistance Programme. It was launched on 15th August, 1995. In providing social assistance benefits to poor households in the case of old age, death of the breadwinner and maternity, the NSAP aims at ensuring minimum national standards, in addition to the benefits that the States are currently providing or might provide in future.
The National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS) was subsequently transferred on 1 st April, 2001 from the Ministry of Rural development to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. So it is no longer part of NSAP. Hence, 1 st statement is incorrect, as it doesnot include maternity provisions and benefits.
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 and 42 of the Constitution recognizing the concurrent responsibility of the Central and the State Governments in the matter. In particular, Article 41 of the Constitution of India directs the State to provide public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in other cases of undeserved want within the limit of its economic capacity and development. Earlier article 41 and 42 both were included but now with removal of maternity benefit scheme from it article 42 is not fulfilled by NSAP( Article 42- Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief). Hence 2 nd statement is incorrect.
National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS): Rs. 10000/- will be given as a lumpsum assistance to the bereaved household in the event of death of the bread-winner according to new guidelines published in March 2015. Hence, only 3 rd statement is correct.
##Topic:Rural Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to the provisions of Citizenship under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: The Constitution enumerates the provisions related to acquisition and loss of citizenship subsequent to the commencement of the Constitution. Parliament is empowered to enact laws to provide for matters related to citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the provisions of Citizenship under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: The Constitution enumerates the provisions related to acquisition and loss of citizenship subsequent to the commencement of the Constitution. Parliament is empowered to enact laws to provide for matters related to citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy(DPSP) deals with which of the following institutions? Supreme Court Panchayati Raj Institutions Archeological Survey of India Khadi and Village Industries Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Article 50 : Separation of judiciary from executive The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State Establishing village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49)-ASI performs this function. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43). KVIC performs this function.
|
d
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy(DPSP) deals with which of the following institutions? Supreme Court Panchayati Raj Institutions Archeological Survey of India Khadi and Village Industries Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 4 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination: Article 50 : Separation of judiciary from executive The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State Establishing village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49)-ASI performs this function. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43). KVIC performs this function.##Topic:Directive Principles##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with respect to Model Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act, 2003:
The buyers will not have to pay APMC charges when the produce is sold directly outside the APMC area.
The farmers will be able to sell the farm produce directly to the contract farming sponsors.
It provides for the establishment of not only consumers" and farmers" markets but also "Special markets" for specified agricultural commodities like perishables.
It provides for licensing of market functionaries.
Private persons, farmers and consumers will now be able to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
4 and 5 only
|
1 only
|
The Model APMC Act: provides for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsors. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. provides for setting up "Special markets" for "specified agricultural commodities" - mostly perishables and provides for the establishment of consumer's and farmer's markets to facilitate direct sale of agricultural produce to consumers. Hence, 3rd statement is correct. permits private persons, farmers and consumers to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area . Hence, 5th statement is correct. requires a single levy of market fee on the sale of notified agricultural commodities in any market area; it replaces licensing with registrations of market functionaries which would allow them to operate in one or more different market areas. Hence, 4th statement is incorrect. provides for the creation of marketing infrastructure from the revenue earned by the APMC. The provisions of the Model APMC Act do not go far enough to create a national - or even state level common market for agricultural commodities. The reason is that the model APMC Act retains the mandatory requirement of the buyers having to pay APMC charges even when the produce is sold directly outside the APMC area , say, to the contract sponsors or in a market set up by private individuals even though no facility provided by the APMC is used. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
|
b
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with respect to Model Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act, 2003:
The buyers will not have to pay APMC charges when the produce is sold directly outside the APMC area.
The farmers will be able to sell the farm produce directly to the contract farming sponsors.
It provides for the establishment of not only consumers" and farmers" markets but also "Special markets" for specified agricultural commodities like perishables.
It provides for licensing of market functionaries.
Private persons, farmers and consumers will now be able to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 4 only
##Option_C: 4 and 5 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:The Model APMC Act: provides for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsors. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. provides for setting up "Special markets" for "specified agricultural commodities" - mostly perishables and provides for the establishment of consumer's and farmer's markets to facilitate direct sale of agricultural produce to consumers. Hence, 3rd statement is correct. permits private persons, farmers and consumers to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area . Hence, 5th statement is correct. requires a single levy of market fee on the sale of notified agricultural commodities in any market area; it replaces licensing with registrations of market functionaries which would allow them to operate in one or more different market areas. Hence, 4th statement is incorrect. provides for the creation of marketing infrastructure from the revenue earned by the APMC. The provisions of the Model APMC Act do not go far enough to create a national - or even state level common market for agricultural commodities. The reason is that the model APMC Act retains the mandatory requirement of the buyers having to pay APMC charges even when the produce is sold directly outside the APMC area , say, to the contract sponsors or in a market set up by private individuals even though no facility provided by the APMC is used. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference the 'equilibrium' and 'disequilibrium' in Balance of Payment situation, consider the following statements:
1. A country is in balance of payment equilibrium if the sum of its current account & capital account equals to zero.
2. A country is in balance of payment equilibrium when demand for domestic currency is equal to its supply.
3. A country can tide over disequilibrium in balance of payment situation by discouraging imports.
Which of above given statements is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
When we speak of equilibrium or disequilibrium in the balance of payments we refer to the balance on those parts of the account which do not include the accommodating items such as borrowing from the IMF, use of SDRs, drawing from the reserves of foreign currencies held by the Central Bank, etc.When excluding these accommodating items there is neither deficit nor surplus in the overall balance of payments, it is said to be in equilibrium i.e. when sum of capital and current account equals to zero.Thus, when in this sense, there is either deficit or surplus, the balance of payments is said to be in disequilibrium. Hence , 1st Statement is correct.
The deficit in balance of payments can be financed by drawings from the IMF, use of SDRs, drawings from the reserves of foreign currencies and loan and aid received from abroad.
When the balance of payments of a country is in equilibrium, the demand for the domestic currency is equal to its supply. The demand and supply situation is thus neither favourable nor unfavourable. If the balance of payments moves against a country, adjustments must be made by encouraging exports of goods, services or other forms of exports, or by discouraging imports of all kinds.Hence, 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.
|
d
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference the 'equilibrium' and 'disequilibrium' in Balance of Payment situation, consider the following statements:
1. A country is in balance of payment equilibrium if the sum of its current account & capital account equals to zero.
2. A country is in balance of payment equilibrium when demand for domestic currency is equal to its supply.
3. A country can tide over disequilibrium in balance of payment situation by discouraging imports.
Which of above given statements is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
When we speak of equilibrium or disequilibrium in the balance of payments we refer to the balance on those parts of the account which do not include the accommodating items such as borrowing from the IMF, use of SDRs, drawing from the reserves of foreign currencies held by the Central Bank, etc.When excluding these accommodating items there is neither deficit nor surplus in the overall balance of payments, it is said to be in equilibrium i.e. when sum of capital and current account equals to zero.Thus, when in this sense, there is either deficit or surplus, the balance of payments is said to be in disequilibrium. Hence , 1st Statement is correct.
The deficit in balance of payments can be financed by drawings from the IMF, use of SDRs, drawings from the reserves of foreign currencies and loan and aid received from abroad.
When the balance of payments of a country is in equilibrium, the demand for the domestic currency is equal to its supply. The demand and supply situation is thus neither favourable nor unfavourable. If the balance of payments moves against a country, adjustments must be made by encouraging exports of goods, services or other forms of exports, or by discouraging imports of all kinds.Hence, 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.
##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following can be a trademark?
1. Device
2. Shape of Goods
3. Colour
|
1,2
|
2,3
|
All of the Above
|
1,2
|
A Trade Mark can be a device, brand, heading, label ticket name, packaging, sign, word, letter, number, drawing, picture, emblem, colour or combination of colours, shape of goods, signature or a combination thereof
|
c
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following can be a trademark?
1. Device
2. Shape of Goods
3. Colour
##Option_A: 1,2 ###Option_B: 2,3
##Option_C: All of the Above ##Option_D: 1,2 ##Answer:c##Explaination:
A Trade Mark can be a device, brand, heading, label ticket name, packaging, sign, word, letter, number, drawing, picture, emblem, colour or combination of colours, shape of goods, signature or a combination thereof
##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following rights are covered under copyrights?
1. Translation of Work.
2. Communication to the public.
3. Rights of Reproduction.
|
3 only
|
1,3
|
2,3
|
3 only
|
Copyright is a right given by the law to creators of literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works and producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. In fact, it is a bundle of rights including, inter alia, rights of reproduction, communication to the public, adaptation and translation of the work.
|
d
|
BOP & International Trade ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following rights are covered under copyrights?
1. Translation of Work.
2. Communication to the public.
3. Rights of Reproduction.
##Option_A: 3 only ###Option_B: 1,3
##Option_C: 2,3 ##Option_D: 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Copyright is a right given by the law to creators of literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works and producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. In fact, it is a bundle of rights including, inter alia, rights of reproduction, communication to the public, adaptation and translation of the work.
##Topic:BOP & International Trade ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
SEBI has made some important ammendments in insider trading rules. Which of the following are incorrect.in this context?
1. The burden of proof lies with SEBI.
2. The term snider has been broadened to include all relatives, close friends who are in regular contact, personally appointed employees and directors who are in a position to have access to such information.
3. It has made the perpetual insiders to reveal their future trading plans at least 3 days in advance to the stock exchange.
4. The definition of price sensitive information has also been broadened to include company and securities.
|
1, 2, 3
|
1, 3, 4
|
2 only
|
1, 2, 3
|
The burden of proof lies with accused and not with SEBI where it became very difficult to establish some one as an insider.
The term snider has been broadened to include near immediate relatives, employees and directors who are in a position to have access to such information
It has made the perpetual insiders to reveal their future trading plans advance to the stock exchange. no such specific time gap mentioned
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
SEBI has made some important ammendments in insider trading rules. Which of the following are incorrect.in this context?
1. The burden of proof lies with SEBI.
2. The term snider has been broadened to include all relatives, close friends who are in regular contact, personally appointed employees and directors who are in a position to have access to such information.
3. It has made the perpetual insiders to reveal their future trading plans at least 3 days in advance to the stock exchange.
4. The definition of price sensitive information has also been broadened to include company and securities.
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 1, 3, 4
##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:
The burden of proof lies with accused and not with SEBI where it became very difficult to establish some one as an insider.
The term snider has been broadened to include near immediate relatives, employees and directors who are in a position to have access to such information
It has made the perpetual insiders to reveal their future trading plans advance to the stock exchange. no such specific time gap mentioned
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
The national mil day observed in the memory of Kurien Varghese , the father of the white revolution throughout his operation flood is on
|
29th November
|
26th November
|
30th November
|
29th November
|
World milk day observed is on 1st June designated by un food and agriculture organisation. aimed to publicise milk and ilk related activities and to raise public awareness about the nutritional qualities to health of milk and milk products
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The national mil day observed in the memory of Kurien Varghese , the father of the white revolution throughout his operation flood is on
##Option_A: 29th November ###Option_B: 26th November
##Option_C: 30th November ##Option_D: 29th November ##Answer:a##Explaination:
World milk day observed is on 1st June designated by un food and agriculture organisation. aimed to publicise milk and ilk related activities and to raise public awareness about the nutritional qualities to health of milk and milk products
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
The first state in the country to take e-governance route to provide pensions and scholarships .
|
Bihar
|
Uttaranchal
|
Sikkim
|
Bihar
|
Through integration of state treasury with centre public financial management system (PMFS) THE SCHOLARSHIPS AND PENSIONS WILL BE TRANSFERRED DIRECTLY TO THE BANK account and sms will also be sent to alert about the transaction. its believed to help 15 million beneficiaries.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The first state in the country to take e-governance route to provide pensions and scholarships .
##Option_A: Bihar ###Option_B: Uttaranchal
##Option_C: Sikkim ##Option_D: Bihar ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Through integration of state treasury with centre public financial management system (PMFS) THE SCHOLARSHIPS AND PENSIONS WILL BE TRANSFERRED DIRECTLY TO THE BANK account and sms will also be sent to alert about the transaction. its believed to help 15 million beneficiaries.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The first state to formulate defence products investment policy
|
Andhra Pradesh
|
MP
|
Karnataka
|
Andhra Pradesh
|
MP is the first state to implement it.
|
b
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The first state to formulate defence products investment policy
##Option_A: Andhra Pradesh ###Option_B: MP
##Option_C: Karnataka ##Option_D: Andhra Pradesh ##Answer:b##Explaination:
MP is the first state to implement it.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The Ministry of Culture will be setting up a National Cultural Audio Visual Archives in Jodhpur in an effort to preserve India"s rich cultural heritage. Consider the following statements regarding this project: The objective of this project is to create digital archives of international standards. It is a collaboration between the Indira Gandhi National Institute for the arts, Ministry of Culture and Rupayan Sansthan. The main focus of the project would be on identifying and preserving the cultural heritage of India available in audio-visual form in governmental and non-governmental institutions across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Union Culture Ministry will set up a National Cultural Audio-Visual Archives to identify and preserve the cultural heritage of India. The objective of this project is to create digital archives of international standards through IGNCA and its partnering and collaborating institutions. Hence 1st statement is correct.
A memorandum of agreement for a pilot project was signed between the I ndira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) under the Ministry of Culture and Rupayan Sansthan . Hence 2nd statement is correct.
Under the project, main focus would be on identifying and preserving the cultural heritage of India available in audio-visual form in governmental and non-governmental institutions across the country through digitisation and making the material accessible in the public domain. Hence 3rd statement is correct.
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Ministry of Culture will be setting up a National Cultural Audio Visual Archives in Jodhpur in an effort to preserve India"s rich cultural heritage. Consider the following statements regarding this project: The objective of this project is to create digital archives of international standards. It is a collaboration between the Indira Gandhi National Institute for the arts, Ministry of Culture and Rupayan Sansthan. The main focus of the project would be on identifying and preserving the cultural heritage of India available in audio-visual form in governmental and non-governmental institutions across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Union Culture Ministry will set up a National Cultural Audio-Visual Archives to identify and preserve the cultural heritage of India. The objective of this project is to create digital archives of international standards through IGNCA and its partnering and collaborating institutions. Hence 1st statement is correct.
A memorandum of agreement for a pilot project was signed between the I ndira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) under the Ministry of Culture and Rupayan Sansthan . Hence 2nd statement is correct.
Under the project, main focus would be on identifying and preserving the cultural heritage of India available in audio-visual form in governmental and non-governmental institutions across the country through digitisation and making the material accessible in the public domain. Hence 3rd statement is correct.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
UN has setup panel to review peacekeeping operations worldwide. Which of the statements are incorrect in the context.
1. India is the largest contributor to peace keeping forces.
2. Since its inception ,around 180 nations have contributed military and civil personnels for the operations by UNPKF.
3. Department of peacekeeping forces was established in 1984.
4. The panel will be headed by east timor president Jose Ramos Horta.
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 3
|
India is the third largest contributor to peace keeping forces. it is preceded by bangladesh and pakistan
Since its inception ,around 130 nations have contributed military and civil personnels for the operations by UNPKF.
Department of peacekeeping forces was established in 1948.
The panel will be headed by former east timor president Jose Ramos Horta.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
UN has setup panel to review peacekeeping operations worldwide. Which of the statements are incorrect in the context.
1. India is the largest contributor to peace keeping forces.
2. Since its inception ,around 180 nations have contributed military and civil personnels for the operations by UNPKF.
3. Department of peacekeeping forces was established in 1984.
4. The panel will be headed by east timor president Jose Ramos Horta.
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 2, 3, 4
##Option_C: 1, 3, 4 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:
India is the third largest contributor to peace keeping forces. it is preceded by bangladesh and pakistan
Since its inception ,around 130 nations have contributed military and civil personnels for the operations by UNPKF.
Department of peacekeeping forces was established in 1948.
The panel will be headed by former east timor president Jose Ramos Horta.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
BHAVINI is a fast breeder reactor company in india. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to it
1. Iits built at Rawatbhatta, Rajashthan.
2. It was involved in the setting up of India first indigenously designed 500 MW prototype fast breeder reactor(PFBR).
3. The biggest advantage in a FBR is that it breeds more material for nuclear fusion reaction than it actually consumes.
4. The PFBR will be fuelled by a blend of plutonium and uranium oxide called MOX fuel.
|
1, 2, 3
|
1, 3
|
2, 3, 4
|
1, 2, 3
|
Its built at kalpakkam
The biggest advantage in a FBR is that it breeds more material for nuclear fusion reaction than it actually consumes.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
BHAVINI is a fast breeder reactor company in india. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to it
1. Iits built at Rawatbhatta, Rajashthan.
2. It was involved in the setting up of India first indigenously designed 500 MW prototype fast breeder reactor(PFBR).
3. The biggest advantage in a FBR is that it breeds more material for nuclear fusion reaction than it actually consumes.
4. The PFBR will be fuelled by a blend of plutonium and uranium oxide called MOX fuel.
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 1, 3
##Option_C: 2, 3, 4 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:b##Explaination:
Its built at kalpakkam
The biggest advantage in a FBR is that it breeds more material for nuclear fusion reaction than it actually consumes.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Montreal Protocol consider the following statements:
1. Montreal Protocol is a UN treaty signed in 1987 for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
2. Montreal Protocol covers substances like chloroflurocarbons (CFC's) and hydrochloroflurocarbons (HCFCs).
3. HFCs which were the replacements for CFC's are greenhouse gases .
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement.Hence, 1st Statement is incorrect. Montreal Protocol is a UN treaty signed in 1987 to ban ozone-depleting substances like chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochloroflurocarbons (HCFCs), which were used in refrigerators and air conditioners. HFCs were brought into replace the ozone-depleting substances but it was proved later that the ozone friendly gas has a potent warming effect
|
b
|
Manorama year book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Montreal Protocol consider the following statements:
1. Montreal Protocol is a UN treaty signed in 1987 for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
2. Montreal Protocol covers substances like chloroflurocarbons (CFC's) and hydrochloroflurocarbons (HCFCs).
3. HFCs which were the replacements for CFC's are greenhouse gases .
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement.Hence, 1st Statement is incorrect. Montreal Protocol is a UN treaty signed in 1987 to ban ozone-depleting substances like chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochloroflurocarbons (HCFCs), which were used in refrigerators and air conditioners. HFCs were brought into replace the ozone-depleting substances but it was proved later that the ozone friendly gas has a potent warming effect##Topic:Manorama year book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The central govt has recently relaunched Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) scheme. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. Investment made in the KVP will Double in 100 Months.
2. Upper Ceiling on Investment is 50000 rupees.
3. The certificates can be issued in single or joint names.
4. The certificates can be transferred from one person to any other person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
FM to Relaunch (KVP); Available to the Investors in the Denomination of Rs. 1000, 5000, 10,000 and 50,000, with no Upper Ceiling on Investment; Investment made in the KVP will Double in 100 Months
In a bid to encourage the habit of small savings among citizens, Union government plans to re-launch the once successful Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) on Tuesday.
The certificates can be issued in single or joint names and can be transferred from one person to any other person / persons, multiple times.
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The central govt has recently relaunched Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) scheme. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. Investment made in the KVP will Double in 100 Months.
2. Upper Ceiling on Investment is 50000 rupees.
3. The certificates can be issued in single or joint names.
4. The certificates can be transferred from one person to any other person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
FM to Relaunch (KVP); Available to the Investors in the Denomination of Rs. 1000, 5000, 10,000 and 50,000, with no Upper Ceiling on Investment; Investment made in the KVP will Double in 100 Months
In a bid to encourage the habit of small savings among citizens, Union government plans to re-launch the once successful Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) on Tuesday.
The certificates can be issued in single or joint names and can be transferred from one person to any other person / persons, multiple times.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following includes the funtion(s) of liver in the human body?
1. maintaining level of sugar.
2. clearance of insulin.
3. maintaining levels of Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Lever maintains level of sugar by the synthesis of glucose from certain amino acids, lactate or glycerol, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose and the formation of glycogen from glucose.
Lever clears Insulin by breaking down it.
Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase is an engyme found in Lever.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following includes the funtion(s) of liver in the human body?
1. maintaining level of sugar.
2. clearance of insulin.
3. maintaining levels of Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Lever maintains level of sugar by the synthesis of glucose from certain amino acids, lactate or glycerol, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose and the formation of glycogen from glucose.
Lever clears Insulin by breaking down it.
Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase is an engyme found in Lever.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about Rangarajan panel recommendations on natural gas pricing?
1. The panel has suggested a gas pricing formula based on the sum of two prices — price at other producing destinations and the volume-weighted price of US, UK and Japan.
2. The arm’s length price would apply equally to all sectors.
3. The committee has also recommended of an extentantion of hitherto absent tax holidays to 10 years.
4. The timeframe for exploration in future PSCs for frontier, deep-water and ultra-deep-water blocks from eight years currently to 10 years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
For full understanding of the report a long explanation is provided :
If the recommendations of C. Rangarajan Panel find their way then the domestically produced gas price in the country would hover around $7-8/mm Btu at the current rate. This would be almost double that of the current rate.
This would also result in higher subsidy outgo, as the input costs for fertiliser and gas-based power plants will go up, those tracking the industry say.
But, the recommendations are close to what the petroleum industry has been seeking.
April 1, 2014, is when gas price from Reliance Industries-operated D6 block is to get a new price.
Gas from the block is currently sold at $4.2/mmBtu (landfall point). Reliance and its partners in the block BP and Niko Resources have been seeking a review of price. The proposed price according to them should be in the range of $13/mmBtu.
New formula
The panel has suggested a gas pricing formula based on the average of two prices — price at other producing destinations and the volume-weighted price of US’s Henry Hub, UK’s NBP and Japan Custom Cleared (on net-back basis, since it is an importer).
Arm's length price
The arm’s length price thus computed as the average of the two price estimates would apply equally to all sectors, regardless of their prioritisation for supply under the Gas Utilisation Policy, the report has said.
In its recently submitted report, the panel looking into production sharing contract in petroleum sector, has said that the proposed policy would provide for estimation of an unbiased arm’s length price for the Indian producer.
The relevant price in this context would be the price producers receive in other gas-producing destinations, an official statement said.
Average of two prices
One price would be derived from the volume-weighted net-back price to producers at the exporting country well-head for Indian imports for the trailing 12 months.
The other would be the volume-weighted price of US’s Henry Hub, UK's NBP and Japan Custom Cleared (on net-back basis, since it is an importer) prices for the trailing 12 months.
The suggested formula will apply to pricing decisions made in future, and can be reviewed after five years when the possibility of pricing based on direct gas-on-gas competition may be assessed, it said.
At present, the PSC provides for arm’s length pricing and prior Government approval of the formula or basis for gas pricing, subject to policy on natural gas pricing.
Other recommendations
Fiscal terms under PSC: In its report, the committee has opined that since cost recovery is at the root of the problems experienced so far, it is proposed to dispense with it, in favour of sharing of the overall revenue of the contractor, without setting off any costs.
The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons had reportedly advocated a production-linked payment system, where oil companies would have to pay the Government an agreed amount depending on the level of output, and not on the investment in the exploration block.
In the present fiscal model, the contractor first recovers its expenditure before sharing profit.
Production-linked payment
The production-linked payment is said to be more transparent and will have less intervention in routine exploration and development activities.
“The share will be determined through a competitive bid process for future PSCs. The bids will be made in a bid matrix, in which the bidder will offer different percentage revenue shares for different levels of production and price levels,” the report says.
The bids will have to be progressive with respect to both volume of production and price level.
This will ensure that as the contractor earns more, the Government gets progressively higher revenue, and will also safeguard Government interest in case of a windfall arising from a price surge or a surprise geological find.
Tax Holiday: The committee has also recommended that an extended tax holiday of 10 years against 7 years already available for all exploration blocks, be granted for blocks having a substantial portion involving drilling offshore at a depth of more than 1,500 metres, since the cost of a single well can be as high as $150 million.
Extension: Further, the committee has recommended extending the timeframe for exploration in future PSCs for frontier, deep-water (offshore, at more than 400 m depth) and ultra-deep-water (offshore, at more than 1,500 m depth) blocks from eight years currently to 10 years.
Other important suggestions
Fiscal terms under PSC: In its report, the committee has opined that since cost recovery is at the root of the problems experienced so far, it is proposed to dispense with it, in favour of sharing of the overall revenue of the contractor, without setting off any costs.
The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons had reportedly advocated a production linked payment system, where oil companies would have to pay the Government an agreed amount depending on the level of output, and not on the investment in the exploration block. In the present fiscal model, the contractor first recovers its expenditure before sharing profit.
Production-linked payment: The production linked payment is said to be more transparent and will have less intervention in routine exploration and development activities. “The share will be determined through a competitive bid process for future PSCs. The bids will be made in a bid matrix, in which the bidder will offer different percentage revenue shares for different levels of production and price levels,” the report says.
The bids will have to be progressive with respect to both volume of production and price level. This will ensure that as the contractor earns more, the Government gets progressively higher revenue, and will also safeguard Government interest in case of a windfall arising from a price surge or a surprise geological find.
Tax Holiday: The committee has also recommended that an extended tax holiday of 10 years against seven years already available for all exploration blocks, be granted for blocks having a substantial portion involving drilling offshore at a depth of more than 1,500 metres, since the cost of a single well can be as high as $150 million.
Extension: Further, the committee has recommended extending the timeframe for exploration in future PSCs for frontier, deep-water (offshore, at more than 400 metre depth) and ultra-deep-water (offshore, at more than 1,500 metre depth) blocks from eight years currently to 10 years
|
c
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about Rangarajan panel recommendations on natural gas pricing?
1. The panel has suggested a gas pricing formula based on the sum of two prices — price at other producing destinations and the volume-weighted price of US, UK and Japan.
2. The arm’s length price would apply equally to all sectors.
3. The committee has also recommended of an extentantion of hitherto absent tax holidays to 10 years.
4. The timeframe for exploration in future PSCs for frontier, deep-water and ultra-deep-water blocks from eight years currently to 10 years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
For full understanding of the report a long explanation is provided :
If the recommendations of C. Rangarajan Panel find their way then the domestically produced gas price in the country would hover around $7-8/mm Btu at the current rate. This would be almost double that of the current rate.
This would also result in higher subsidy outgo, as the input costs for fertiliser and gas-based power plants will go up, those tracking the industry say.
But, the recommendations are close to what the petroleum industry has been seeking.
April 1, 2014, is when gas price from Reliance Industries-operated D6 block is to get a new price.
Gas from the block is currently sold at $4.2/mmBtu (landfall point). Reliance and its partners in the block BP and Niko Resources have been seeking a review of price. The proposed price according to them should be in the range of $13/mmBtu.
New formula
The panel has suggested a gas pricing formula based on the average of two prices — price at other producing destinations and the volume-weighted price of US’s Henry Hub, UK’s NBP and Japan Custom Cleared (on net-back basis, since it is an importer).
Arm's length price
The arm’s length price thus computed as the average of the two price estimates would apply equally to all sectors, regardless of their prioritisation for supply under the Gas Utilisation Policy, the report has said.
In its recently submitted report, the panel looking into production sharing contract in petroleum sector, has said that the proposed policy would provide for estimation of an unbiased arm’s length price for the Indian producer.
The relevant price in this context would be the price producers receive in other gas-producing destinations, an official statement said.
Average of two prices
One price would be derived from the volume-weighted net-back price to producers at the exporting country well-head for Indian imports for the trailing 12 months.
The other would be the volume-weighted price of US’s Henry Hub, UK's NBP and Japan Custom Cleared (on net-back basis, since it is an importer) prices for the trailing 12 months.
The suggested formula will apply to pricing decisions made in future, and can be reviewed after five years when the possibility of pricing based on direct gas-on-gas competition may be assessed, it said.
At present, the PSC provides for arm’s length pricing and prior Government approval of the formula or basis for gas pricing, subject to policy on natural gas pricing.
Other recommendations
Fiscal terms under PSC: In its report, the committee has opined that since cost recovery is at the root of the problems experienced so far, it is proposed to dispense with it, in favour of sharing of the overall revenue of the contractor, without setting off any costs.
The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons had reportedly advocated a production-linked payment system, where oil companies would have to pay the Government an agreed amount depending on the level of output, and not on the investment in the exploration block.
In the present fiscal model, the contractor first recovers its expenditure before sharing profit.
Production-linked payment
The production-linked payment is said to be more transparent and will have less intervention in routine exploration and development activities.
“The share will be determined through a competitive bid process for future PSCs. The bids will be made in a bid matrix, in which the bidder will offer different percentage revenue shares for different levels of production and price levels,” the report says.
The bids will have to be progressive with respect to both volume of production and price level.
This will ensure that as the contractor earns more, the Government gets progressively higher revenue, and will also safeguard Government interest in case of a windfall arising from a price surge or a surprise geological find.
Tax Holiday: The committee has also recommended that an extended tax holiday of 10 years against 7 years already available for all exploration blocks, be granted for blocks having a substantial portion involving drilling offshore at a depth of more than 1,500 metres, since the cost of a single well can be as high as $150 million.
Extension: Further, the committee has recommended extending the timeframe for exploration in future PSCs for frontier, deep-water (offshore, at more than 400 m depth) and ultra-deep-water (offshore, at more than 1,500 m depth) blocks from eight years currently to 10 years.
Other important suggestions
Fiscal terms under PSC: In its report, the committee has opined that since cost recovery is at the root of the problems experienced so far, it is proposed to dispense with it, in favour of sharing of the overall revenue of the contractor, without setting off any costs.
The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons had reportedly advocated a production linked payment system, where oil companies would have to pay the Government an agreed amount depending on the level of output, and not on the investment in the exploration block. In the present fiscal model, the contractor first recovers its expenditure before sharing profit.
Production-linked payment: The production linked payment is said to be more transparent and will have less intervention in routine exploration and development activities. “The share will be determined through a competitive bid process for future PSCs. The bids will be made in a bid matrix, in which the bidder will offer different percentage revenue shares for different levels of production and price levels,” the report says.
The bids will have to be progressive with respect to both volume of production and price level. This will ensure that as the contractor earns more, the Government gets progressively higher revenue, and will also safeguard Government interest in case of a windfall arising from a price surge or a surprise geological find.
Tax Holiday: The committee has also recommended that an extended tax holiday of 10 years against seven years already available for all exploration blocks, be granted for blocks having a substantial portion involving drilling offshore at a depth of more than 1,500 metres, since the cost of a single well can be as high as $150 million.
Extension: Further, the committee has recommended extending the timeframe for exploration in future PSCs for frontier, deep-water (offshore, at more than 400 metre depth) and ultra-deep-water (offshore, at more than 1,500 metre depth) blocks from eight years currently to 10 years
##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about white-bellied heron?
1. The first nesting site of it in India is found in Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. China was (thought to be) the only country in the world to have a breeding population of the white-bellied heron.
3. It has been declared as a critically endangered species under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The white-bellied heron, also known as the imperial heron or great white-bellied heron, is a species of large heron found in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas in India, northeastern Bangladesh, Burma and Bhutan.
A nesting site of the extremely rare white-bellied heron has been discovered in a remote part of the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.It is the first nesting site of the white- bellied heron to be discovered in India. Before the discovery of this site, Bhutan was the only country in the world to have a breeding population of the white-bellied heron.
It is estimated that there are only 250 white-bellied herons (Ardea insignis) left in the world and only about 50 left in India.“This is the first nesting site of the white- bellied heron to be discovered in India. Before the discovery of this site, Bhutan was (thought to be) the only country in the world to have a breeding population of the white-bellied heron.
Declared as a critically endangered species under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), it is an “extremely shy” bird which feeds on fish in clear fast flowing rivers.
They are found mainly at the confluence of Noa-Dihing and Namdapha rivers in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about white-bellied heron?
1. The first nesting site of it in India is found in Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. China was (thought to be) the only country in the world to have a breeding population of the white-bellied heron.
3. It has been declared as a critically endangered species under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
The white-bellied heron, also known as the imperial heron or great white-bellied heron, is a species of large heron found in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas in India, northeastern Bangladesh, Burma and Bhutan.
A nesting site of the extremely rare white-bellied heron has been discovered in a remote part of the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.It is the first nesting site of the white- bellied heron to be discovered in India. Before the discovery of this site, Bhutan was the only country in the world to have a breeding population of the white-bellied heron.
It is estimated that there are only 250 white-bellied herons (Ardea insignis) left in the world and only about 50 left in India.“This is the first nesting site of the white- bellied heron to be discovered in India. Before the discovery of this site, Bhutan was (thought to be) the only country in the world to have a breeding population of the white-bellied heron.
Declared as a critically endangered species under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), it is an “extremely shy” bird which feeds on fish in clear fast flowing rivers.
They are found mainly at the confluence of Noa-Dihing and Namdapha rivers in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about Dhanush howitzers?
1. Dhanush is an upgraded version of the Bofors howitzers.
2. Dhanush is indigenously developed.
3. It has been inducted into Indian army.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nodhanushfor-the-army/article6603192.ece
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about Dhanush howitzers?
1. Dhanush is an upgraded version of the Bofors howitzers.
2. Dhanush is indigenously developed.
3. It has been inducted into Indian army.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nodhanushfor-the-army/article6603192.ece
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about El Nino and Indian Ocean interaction?
1. El Nino events weaken the summer westerly (blowing from west to east) winds over the Indian Ocean.
2. Westerly Winds have the effect of cooling the sea surface.
3. Strong winds cause evaporation and loss of latent heat from the ocean leading to cooling.
4. When the winds are weakened the opposite happens — the ocean warms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
El Nino events weaken the summer westerly (blowing from west to east) winds over the Indian Ocean.
Westerly Winds have the effect of cooling the sea surface.
Strong winds cause evaporation and loss of latent heat from the ocean leading to cooling.
When the winds are weakened the opposite happens — the ocean warms.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about El Nino and Indian Ocean interaction?
1. El Nino events weaken the summer westerly (blowing from west to east) winds over the Indian Ocean.
2. Westerly Winds have the effect of cooling the sea surface.
3. Strong winds cause evaporation and loss of latent heat from the ocean leading to cooling.
4. When the winds are weakened the opposite happens — the ocean warms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
El Nino events weaken the summer westerly (blowing from west to east) winds over the Indian Ocean.
Westerly Winds have the effect of cooling the sea surface.
Strong winds cause evaporation and loss of latent heat from the ocean leading to cooling.
When the winds are weakened the opposite happens — the ocean warms.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Bio-fertilizers have several advantages for agriculture. These are available in the market in which of the following forms?
1. Liquid
2. Peat
3. granules
4. freeze-dried powders
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
Liquid
Peat
granules
freeze-dried powders
|
d
|
Also in News(Geo+Eco)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Bio-fertilizers have several advantages for agriculture. These are available in the market in which of the following forms?
1. Liquid
2. Peat
3. granules
4. freeze-dried powders
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 2, 3 and 4 only ###Option_B: 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 2, 3 and 4 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Liquid
Peat
granules
freeze-dried powders
##Topic:Also in News(Geo+Eco)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Indian and Myanmar are in the process to improve connectivity through various infrastructure projects. Which of the following statements is/are true about these?
1. A trilateral highway will connect India-Myanmar-Yunan Province(China).
2. Kaladan Transit Transport Project will use road, river and sea route.
3. A bus service between Imphal and Mandalay will be commenced.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
As Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Myanmarese President Thein Sein met at Nay Pyi Taw, the capital of this eastern neighbour of India, on Tuesday, the big focus of discussions was improving connectivity between what they called “brother countries.”
The two leaders spoke about the need for more direct air links, as well as an India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway, and the Kaladan multi-modal transport project. The two nations are now not connected by direct flights. They signed an MoU for a bus service between Imphal and Mandalay only this year.
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will connect the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Myanmar by sea; it will then link Sittwe seaport to Lashio in Myanmar via Kaladan river boat route and then from Lashio on to Mizoram in India by road transport. Originally, the project was scheduled to be completed by 2014,[1] but as of November 2014, this project is likely to be completed and fully operational by 2016
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Indian and Myanmar are in the process to improve connectivity through various infrastructure projects. Which of the following statements is/are true about these?
1. A trilateral highway will connect India-Myanmar-Yunan Province(China).
2. Kaladan Transit Transport Project will use road, river and sea route.
3. A bus service between Imphal and Mandalay will be commenced.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
As Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Myanmarese President Thein Sein met at Nay Pyi Taw, the capital of this eastern neighbour of India, on Tuesday, the big focus of discussions was improving connectivity between what they called “brother countries.”
The two leaders spoke about the need for more direct air links, as well as an India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway, and the Kaladan multi-modal transport project. The two nations are now not connected by direct flights. They signed an MoU for a bus service between Imphal and Mandalay only this year.
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will connect the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Myanmar by sea; it will then link Sittwe seaport to Lashio in Myanmar via Kaladan river boat route and then from Lashio on to Mizoram in India by road transport. Originally, the project was scheduled to be completed by 2014,[1] but as of November 2014, this project is likely to be completed and fully operational by 2016
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Article 19(2) of the Constitution permits reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. defamation
2. integrity
3. morality
4. incitement to an offence
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 , 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 19(2) of the Constitution permits reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, among other grounds, “in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.”
|
d
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Article 19(2) of the Constitution permits reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. defamation
2. integrity
3. morality
4. incitement to an offence
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 , 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Article 19(2) of the Constitution permits reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, among other grounds, “in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.”
##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA)?
1. The act was first enacted in 1958 to curb the Naga resistance.
2. The Act was modelled on the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance of 1905 — used by the British Raj to quell the Swadeshi Movement.
3. The act was first implemented on the experimental basis for six months.
4. The JS Verma Commission Report said that security persons who murder civilians should be tried under the civilian law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The Act was modelled on the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance of 1942 — used by the Raj to quell the Quit India Movement.
The JS Verma Commission Report said that security persons who rape women should be tried under the civilian law.
|
b
|
Reports(National)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA)?
1. The act was first enacted in 1958 to curb the Naga resistance.
2. The Act was modelled on the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance of 1905 — used by the British Raj to quell the Swadeshi Movement.
3. The act was first implemented on the experimental basis for six months.
4. The JS Verma Commission Report said that security persons who murder civilians should be tried under the civilian law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Act was modelled on the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance of 1942 — used by the Raj to quell the Quit India Movement.
The JS Verma Commission Report said that security persons who rape women should be tried under the civilian law.
##Topic:Reports(National)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Russia and China have planned to build gas pipelines recently. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. These are part of China's “Asia Pivot” policy.
2. The western route pipeline will be known as Altay route.
3. The estern and western pipeline will be combinedly called Power of Siberia.
4. The fund for the project shall be contributed by BRICS bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
China would receive 30 billion cubic meters (bcm) of gas per year along the so-called “western” or "Altay" route, according to the agreement. This would supplement the proposed 38 bcm Russian gas to China that would flow through the “Power of Siberia” pipeline, passing along the “eastern route”. The “eastern route” deal, worth $400 billion, was signed in May, and work on the project has already commenced.
Analysts point out that China is pushing for Russian gas supplies, sent along a more secure land corridor, apprehending that shipments of oil and gas along the sea route are now more vulnerable to disruption after the United States announced its China-centric “Asia Pivot” military doctrine.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Russia and China have planned to build gas pipelines recently. Which of the following statements is/are true about this :-
1. These are part of China's “Asia Pivot” policy.
2. The western route pipeline will be known as Altay route.
3. The estern and western pipeline will be combinedly called Power of Siberia.
4. The fund for the project shall be contributed by BRICS bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:
China would receive 30 billion cubic meters (bcm) of gas per year along the so-called “western” or "Altay" route, according to the agreement. This would supplement the proposed 38 bcm Russian gas to China that would flow through the “Power of Siberia” pipeline, passing along the “eastern route”. The “eastern route” deal, worth $400 billion, was signed in May, and work on the project has already commenced.
Analysts point out that China is pushing for Russian gas supplies, sent along a more secure land corridor, apprehending that shipments of oil and gas along the sea route are now more vulnerable to disruption after the United States announced its China-centric “Asia Pivot” military doctrine.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
In 2014 RBI changed the norms for the NBFCs in India. Which of the following statements is/are true about this: NBFCs primarily engaged in lending against gold jewellery, will have to follow the BASEL III norms. NBFCs will have to maintain the net owned fund (NOF) requirement by 2017 to Rs. 2 crore. Where both public funds are accepted and customer interface exist, such companies will be subjected both to limited prudential regulations and conduct of business regulations. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Tightening norms for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), the Reserve Bank of India on Monday raised the capital adequacy requirement and the net owned fund limit, among others, with an objective to mitigate risks in the sector.
With a view to streamlining the regulations for the sector, the RBI also revoked temporary suspension on issuance of Certificate of Registration (CoR) to companies that want to conduct business of non-banking financial institution (NBFI). As per the latest directives, the RBI has raised the limit for NBFCs to maintain the net owned fund (NOF) requirement to four times by 2017 to Rs.2 crore.
Also, NBFCs primarily engaged in lending against gold jewellery, will have to maintain a minimum Tier I capital (or equity capital) of 12 per cent with effective from April 1 as against existing requirement of 10 per cent.
Those accepting public funds will be subjected to limited prudential regulations but not conduct of business regulations if they have no customer interface...Where both public funds are accepted and customer interface exist, such companies will be subjected both to limited prudential regulations and conduct of business regulations
|
b
|
Banking Reforms
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In 2014 RBI changed the norms for the NBFCs in India. Which of the following statements is/are true about this: NBFCs primarily engaged in lending against gold jewellery, will have to follow the BASEL III norms. NBFCs will have to maintain the net owned fund (NOF) requirement by 2017 to Rs. 2 crore. Where both public funds are accepted and customer interface exist, such companies will be subjected both to limited prudential regulations and conduct of business regulations. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Tightening norms for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), the Reserve Bank of India on Monday raised the capital adequacy requirement and the net owned fund limit, among others, with an objective to mitigate risks in the sector.
With a view to streamlining the regulations for the sector, the RBI also revoked temporary suspension on issuance of Certificate of Registration (CoR) to companies that want to conduct business of non-banking financial institution (NBFI). As per the latest directives, the RBI has raised the limit for NBFCs to maintain the net owned fund (NOF) requirement to four times by 2017 to Rs.2 crore.
Also, NBFCs primarily engaged in lending against gold jewellery, will have to maintain a minimum Tier I capital (or equity capital) of 12 per cent with effective from April 1 as against existing requirement of 10 per cent.
Those accepting public funds will be subjected to limited prudential regulations but not conduct of business regulations if they have no customer interface...Where both public funds are accepted and customer interface exist, such companies will be subjected both to limited prudential regulations and conduct of business regulations
##Topic:Banking Reforms##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about the caste base census in India?
1. Caste-wise enumeration in the census was given up as a matter of policy from 1951 onwards.
2. The High Court reasoned that no caste-wise enumeration was held since 1931.
3. The castes other than the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes have not been enumerated in all the censuses since 1951.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Caste-wise enumeration in the census was given up as a matter of policy from 1951 onwards. In pursuance of this policy decision, castes other than the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes have not been enumerated in all the censuses since 1951.
The High Court reasoned that no caste-wise enumeration was held since 1931, though there had been a manifold increase in the population of the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes. Hence, a caste-wise census should be done to increase the percentage of reservation proportionately. This, it said, would benefit weaker sections and help achieve social justice in its “true sense
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about the caste base census in India?
1. Caste-wise enumeration in the census was given up as a matter of policy from 1951 onwards.
2. The High Court reasoned that no caste-wise enumeration was held since 1931.
3. The castes other than the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes have not been enumerated in all the censuses since 1951.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Caste-wise enumeration in the census was given up as a matter of policy from 1951 onwards. In pursuance of this policy decision, castes other than the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes have not been enumerated in all the censuses since 1951.
The High Court reasoned that no caste-wise enumeration was held since 1931, though there had been a manifold increase in the population of the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes. Hence, a caste-wise census should be done to increase the percentage of reservation proportionately. This, it said, would benefit weaker sections and help achieve social justice in its “true sense
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
India and Russia have agreed on negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA). Which of the following statements is/are true about this : 1. It will cover Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India & the Customs Union of Belarus, Kazakhstan & Russia. 2. It includes proposals for establishment of a ‘Smart City’ in India. 3. It includes launching telecommunication satellites NextStar. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
For the first time India and Russia have agreed on negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India & the Customs Union of Belarus, Kazakhstan & Russia.
The Indo-Russian Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economics, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC) oversees 20 working groups covering trade, economic, scientific, technological and cultural cooperation.
Other major decisions include proposals for establishment of a ‘Smart City’ in India by the Russian company “Sistema,” joint cooperation for development of potassium and magnesium deposits in Russia, project for launching telecommunication satellites “Next Star” in the geostationary orbit of the Earth on low cost platforms and projects in high end computing. As expected, the focus was largely on boosting economic cooperation.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India and Russia have agreed on negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA). Which of the following statements is/are true about this : 1. It will cover Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India & the Customs Union of Belarus, Kazakhstan & Russia. 2. It includes proposals for establishment of a ‘Smart City’ in India. 3. It includes launching telecommunication satellites NextStar. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
For the first time India and Russia have agreed on negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India & the Customs Union of Belarus, Kazakhstan & Russia.
The Indo-Russian Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economics, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC) oversees 20 working groups covering trade, economic, scientific, technological and cultural cooperation.
Other major decisions include proposals for establishment of a ‘Smart City’ in India by the Russian company “Sistema,” joint cooperation for development of potassium and magnesium deposits in Russia, project for launching telecommunication satellites “Next Star” in the geostationary orbit of the Earth on low cost platforms and projects in high end computing. As expected, the focus was largely on boosting economic cooperation.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the source(s) of cosmic rays?
1. Dark Matter
2. Pulsars
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/experimental-results-hint-at-dark-matter-existence/article6568038.ecehttp://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/experimental-results-hint-at-dark-matter-existence/article6568038.ece
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are the source(s) of cosmic rays?
1. Dark Matter
2. Pulsars
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/experimental-results-hint-at-dark-matter-existence/article6568038.ecehttp://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/experimental-results-hint-at-dark-matter-existence/article6568038.ece
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about G-2 in the Milky Way galaxy ? It is made of hydrogen gas cloud. It is unaffected by the black hole. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A bizarre object in the centre of the Milky Way which has puzzled astronomers for years is most likely a pair of binary stars that merged together, a new study has found.
The object, known as G2, in the centre of Milky Way was believed to be a hydrogen gas cloud headed towards our galaxy's enormous black hole.
Astronomers had figured that if G2 had been a hydrogen cloud, it could have been torn apart by the black hole, and that the resulting celestial fireworks would have dramatically changed the state of the black hole.
G2 was basically unaffected by the black hole. There were no fireworks.
|
b
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about G-2 in the Milky Way galaxy ? It is made of hydrogen gas cloud. It is unaffected by the black hole. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
A bizarre object in the centre of the Milky Way which has puzzled astronomers for years is most likely a pair of binary stars that merged together, a new study has found.
The object, known as G2, in the centre of Milky Way was believed to be a hydrogen gas cloud headed towards our galaxy's enormous black hole.
Astronomers had figured that if G2 had been a hydrogen cloud, it could have been torn apart by the black hole, and that the resulting celestial fireworks would have dramatically changed the state of the black hole.
G2 was basically unaffected by the black hole. There were no fireworks.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The government has announced Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) programme to address the issue of declining Child Sex Ratio. Which of the following statements is/are the objectives of BBBP?
1. Ensure survival and protection of girl child.
2. Prevent child marriage.
3. Ensuring education and participation of the girl child.
4. Prevention of gender biased sex selective elimination.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
|
nan
|
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
|
The Government has announced Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao programme to address the issue of decline in CSR through a mass campaign & Multi-Sectoral action in 100 gender critical districts. It seeks convergence of various schemes and would be implemented through various ministries.
The objectives of the Scheme are as under :
To prevent Gender biased sex selective elimination : Focussed intervention targeting enforcement of all existing Legislations and Acts, especially to Strengthen the implementation of Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 (PC&PNDT Act) with stringent punishments for violations of the law. Thus option 4 is correct.
To ensure survival& protection of the girl child : Article 21 of the Constitution defines "protection of life and liberty" as a legitimate right of its citizens. Thus option 1 is correct.
To ensure education & participation of the girl child : The access and availability of services and entitlements during the various phases of the life cycle of the Girl Child has a bearing on her development. Thus option 3 is correct.
BBBP does not talk about prevention of child marriage as one of its objectives. Thus option 2 is wrong.
Monitorable Targets :
Improve the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) in 100 gender critical districts by 10 points in a year.
Reduce Gender differentials in Under Five Child Mortality Rate from 8 points in 2011 to 4 points by 2017.
Improve the Nutrition status of girls - by reducing number of underweight and anaemic girls under 5 years of age (from NFHS 3 levels).
Ensure universalization of ICDS, girls‟ attendance and equal care monitored, using joint ICDS NRHM Mother Child Protection Cards.
Increase the girl‟s enrolment in secondary education from 76% in 2013-14 to 79% by 2017.
Provide girl‟s toilet in every school in 100 CSR districts by 2017.
Promote a protective environment for Girl Children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act 2012.
Train Elected Representatives/ Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR & promote Girl‟s education.
|
b
|
Women and Child Development
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The government has announced Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) programme to address the issue of declining Child Sex Ratio. Which of the following statements is/are the objectives of BBBP?
1. Ensure survival and protection of girl child.
2. Prevent child marriage.
3. Ensuring education and participation of the girl child.
4. Prevention of gender biased sex selective elimination.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B:nan##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Government has announced Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao programme to address the issue of decline in CSR through a mass campaign & Multi-Sectoral action in 100 gender critical districts. It seeks convergence of various schemes and would be implemented through various ministries.
The objectives of the Scheme are as under :
To prevent Gender biased sex selective elimination : Focussed intervention targeting enforcement of all existing Legislations and Acts, especially to Strengthen the implementation of Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 (PC&PNDT Act) with stringent punishments for violations of the law. Thus option 4 is correct.
To ensure survival& protection of the girl child : Article 21 of the Constitution defines "protection of life and liberty" as a legitimate right of its citizens. Thus option 1 is correct.
To ensure education & participation of the girl child : The access and availability of services and entitlements during the various phases of the life cycle of the Girl Child has a bearing on her development. Thus option 3 is correct.
BBBP does not talk about prevention of child marriage as one of its objectives. Thus option 2 is wrong.
Monitorable Targets :
Improve the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) in 100 gender critical districts by 10 points in a year.
Reduce Gender differentials in Under Five Child Mortality Rate from 8 points in 2011 to 4 points by 2017.
Improve the Nutrition status of girls - by reducing number of underweight and anaemic girls under 5 years of age (from NFHS 3 levels).
Ensure universalization of ICDS, girls‟ attendance and equal care monitored, using joint ICDS NRHM Mother Child Protection Cards.
Increase the girl‟s enrolment in secondary education from 76% in 2013-14 to 79% by 2017.
Provide girl‟s toilet in every school in 100 CSR districts by 2017.
Promote a protective environment for Girl Children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act 2012.
Train Elected Representatives/ Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR & promote Girl‟s education.
##Topic:Women and Child Development##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
The path of Amur Falcon has been tracked with the help of sattelite. Which of the following paths is followed by it?
|
Nagaland->South Africa->Mangolia->Nagaland.
|
Nagaland->South Africa->Somalia->Nagaland.
|
Nagaland->South Africa->Nagaland.
|
Nagaland->South Africa->Mangolia->Nagaland.
|
The entire migration route of Amur Falcons — from Nagaland to South Africa on to Mongolia and back to Nagaland — has been scientifically plotted, with scientists confirming that a satellite-tagged Amur Falcon ‘Naga’ has arrived almost a year after it began its journey.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The path of Amur Falcon has been tracked with the help of sattelite. Which of the following paths is followed by it?
##Option_A: Nagaland->South Africa->Mangolia->Nagaland.
###Option_B: Nagaland->South Africa->Somalia->Nagaland.
##Option_C: Nagaland->South Africa->Nagaland.
##Option_D: Nagaland->South Africa->Mangolia->Nagaland.
##Answer:a##Explaination:
The entire migration route of Amur Falcons — from Nagaland to South Africa on to Mongolia and back to Nagaland — has been scientifically plotted, with scientists confirming that a satellite-tagged Amur Falcon ‘Naga’ has arrived almost a year after it began its journey.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
The Spanish government has successfully passed a new law which imposes "Google Tax" Which of the following statements is/are true about Google Tax?
1. It is aimed to protect the domestic IT and ITES companies.
2. It will be imposed on foreign search engines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Spanish government has successfully passed a new copyright law which imposes fees for online content aggregators such as Google News, in an effort to protect its print media industry.
The new intellectual property law, known popularly as the “Google Tax” or by its initials LPI, requires services which post links and excerpts of news articles to pay a fee to the organisation representing Spanish newspapers, the Association of Editors of Spanish Dailies (known by its Spanish-language abbreviation AEDE). Failure to pay up can lead to a fine of up to €600,000.
|
d
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Spanish government has successfully passed a new law which imposes "Google Tax" Which of the following statements is/are true about Google Tax?
1. It is aimed to protect the domestic IT and ITES companies.
2. It will be imposed on foreign search engines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Spanish government has successfully passed a new copyright law which imposes fees for online content aggregators such as Google News, in an effort to protect its print media industry.
The new intellectual property law, known popularly as the “Google Tax” or by its initials LPI, requires services which post links and excerpts of news articles to pay a fee to the organisation representing Spanish newspapers, the Association of Editors of Spanish Dailies (known by its Spanish-language abbreviation AEDE). Failure to pay up can lead to a fine of up to €600,000.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Sub-Orbital Space flight? The weightlessness is felt in Sub-Orbital Space flight. It is within the Earth atmosphere. The flight speed of suborbital flight is below the orbital velocity. Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
British billionaire Richard Branson, founder of Virgin Galactic, has been the front-runner in the fledgling race to give large numbers of paying civilians a suborbital ride that would let them experience weightlessness and see the Earth from the edge of space. Definition of "suborbital". We consider a suborbital flight to be any flight outside the Earth atmosphere with a maximum flight speed below the orbital velocity. If a rocket does not achieve orbital velocity, it falls back to Earth and re-enters the atmosphere within a few minutes after engine shutdown. Hence, only 2nd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Sub-Orbital Space flight? The weightlessness is felt in Sub-Orbital Space flight. It is within the Earth atmosphere. The flight speed of suborbital flight is below the orbital velocity. Select the correct answer using the code given below##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:British billionaire Richard Branson, founder of Virgin Galactic, has been the front-runner in the fledgling race to give large numbers of paying civilians a suborbital ride that would let them experience weightlessness and see the Earth from the edge of space. Definition of "suborbital". We consider a suborbital flight to be any flight outside the Earth atmosphere with a maximum flight speed below the orbital velocity. If a rocket does not achieve orbital velocity, it falls back to Earth and re-enters the atmosphere within a few minutes after engine shutdown. Hence, only 2nd statement is incorrect. Rest all are correct.##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
India time to time change import tariff value on gold, silver. Which of the following statements is/are true about import tariff?
1. The import tariff value is the base price at which Customs duty is determined.
2. It is revised on a fortnightly basis taking into account global prices.
3. It is set by RBI
4. It is set by SEBI
Select the correct answer using the code given below
|
1 , 2 and 3 only
|
1 , 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 , 2 and 3 only
|
The import tariff value is the base price at which Customs duty is determined to prevent under-invoicing. It is revised on a fortnightly basis taking into account global prices.
The decrease in tariff value on imported gold has been notified by the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC)
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
India time to time change import tariff value on gold, silver. Which of the following statements is/are true about import tariff?
1. The import tariff value is the base price at which Customs duty is determined.
2. It is revised on a fortnightly basis taking into account global prices.
3. It is set by RBI
4. It is set by SEBI
Select the correct answer using the code given below
##Option_A: 1 , 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1 , 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1 , 2 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
The import tariff value is the base price at which Customs duty is determined to prevent under-invoicing. It is revised on a fortnightly basis taking into account global prices.
The decrease in tariff value on imported gold has been notified by the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC)
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
With respect to FDI, consider the following statements
1. Gambling
2. Chit funds
3.Cigarettes
In which of the above sectors is FDI prohibited in India?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
d
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With respect to FDI, consider the following statements
1. Gambling
2. Chit funds
3.Cigarettes
In which of the above sectors is FDI prohibited in India?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
|
Consider the following statements
1. Department for Industrial Policy and Promotion(DIPP) name is now changed to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is under the Ministry of Finance.
Select the correct code from below
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
nan
|
a
|
Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
1. Department for Industrial Policy and Promotion(DIPP) name is now changed to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is under the Ministry of Finance.
Select the correct code from below##Option_A:Only 1###Option_B:Only 2##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:Balance of Payments: Definition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements
1. Ordinary share holder do not get any dividend when company is at loss.
2. In case of liquidating the assets of company ordinary share holders get the first preference.
Choose the correct code from below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
a
|
No_topic
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
1. Ordinary share holder do not get any dividend when company is at loss.
2. In case of liquidating the assets of company ordinary share holders get the first preference.
Choose the correct code from below##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
1- भारतीय प्रतिभूति और विनिमय बोर्ड (सेबी) भारत में प्रतिभूति और वित्त का नियामक बोर्ड है |
2- सेबी की स्थापना 12 अप्रैल 1988 में हुई तथा वैधानिक मान्यता 30 जनवरी 1992 को प्राप्त हुई |
उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सत्य हैं/है ?
|
केवल 1
|
केवल 2
|
1 और 2 दोनों
|
केवल 1
|
nan
|
c
|
Others Non-Constitutional Bodies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
1- भारतीय प्रतिभूति और विनिमय बोर्ड (सेबी) भारत में प्रतिभूति और वित्त का नियामक बोर्ड है |
2- सेबी की स्थापना 12 अप्रैल 1988 में हुई तथा वैधानिक मान्यता 30 जनवरी 1992 को प्राप्त हुई |
उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सत्य हैं/है ?##Option_A:केवल 1 ###Option_B:केवल 2 ##Option_C:1 और 2 दोनों ##Option_D:केवल 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Others Non-Constitutional Bodies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Sikh Gurus: 1. Guru Hargobind Singh laid the foundation of the Khalsa Panth and defined its five symbols. 2. Guru Nanak laid the foundations of Golden Temple at Amritsar. 3. Guru Arjan Dev compiled the first official edition of the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth, which later expanded into the Guru Granth Sahib . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Guru Arjan Dev : He was the fifth Sikh Guru. He compiled the first official edition of the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth, which later expanded into the Guru Granth Sahib. Adi Grant Sahib has compilations from religious poets like Baba Farid, Ravidas (also known as Raidas) and Kabir. These hymns, called “ gurbani ”, are composed in various languages. Hence statement 3 is correct. In 1588 A.D, Arjan Dev had laid the foundation of Harmandar Sahib in the middle of Amritsar Talab which was built by Guru Ramdas and today is known as Golden Temple. For this Guru Arjan Dev invited Mian Mir, a Muslim Saint from Lahore to lay the cornerstone of the foundation of the Harmandar, the present Golden Temple. The doors on all four sides of the building signified its acceptance of all the four castes and every Religion. Around 400 years old this temple map was prepared by Guru Arjan Dev himself. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Guru Hargobind, the sixth of the ten gurus, created the Akal Takhat . He initiated a military tradition within Sikhism to resist Islamic persecution and protect the freedom of religion. He had the longest tenure as Guru, lasting 37 years, 9 months and 3 days. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Guru Gobind Singh : He was last of the 10 Sikh Gurus and became the Sikh guru at the age of nine, following the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru. He is known for his significant contributions to the Sikh religion, including the introduction of the turban to cover hair. He established the Khalsa order (meaning 'The Pure'), soldier-saints and defined its five symbols( five Ks). The Khalsa upholds the highest Sikh virtues of commitment, dedication and a social conscious. The Khalsa are men and women who have undergone the Sikh baptism ceremony and who strictly follow the Sikh Code of Conduct and Conventions and wear the prescribed physical articles of the faith (5K’s: Kesh (uncut hair), Kangha (a wooden comb), Kara (a iron bracelet), Kachera (cotton underpants) and Kirpan (an iron dagger) . Under him the community got consolidated as a socio-religious and military force. He fought against the Mughals later in the battle of Muktsar in 1705. He was assassinated in 1708. He named Guru Granth Sahib, the religious text of the Khalsas. The Sikhs understand their religion as the product of five pivotal events: The first was the teaching of Guru Nanak: His message of liberation through meditation on the divine name. The second was the arming of the Sikhs by Guru Hargobind. The third was Guru Gobind Singh’s founding of the Khalsa, its distinctive code to be observed by all who were initiated. At his death came the fourth event, the passing of the mystical Guru from its 10 human bearers to the Guru Granth Sahib. The final event took place early in the 20th century when Sikhism underwent a profound reformation at the hands of the Tat Khalsa .
|
b
|
Religious Movements Bhakti Movement
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Sikh Gurus: 1. Guru Hargobind Singh laid the foundation of the Khalsa Panth and defined its five symbols. 2. Guru Nanak laid the foundations of Golden Temple at Amritsar. 3. Guru Arjan Dev compiled the first official edition of the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth, which later expanded into the Guru Granth Sahib . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Guru Arjan Dev : He was the fifth Sikh Guru. He compiled the first official edition of the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth, which later expanded into the Guru Granth Sahib. Adi Grant Sahib has compilations from religious poets like Baba Farid, Ravidas (also known as Raidas) and Kabir. These hymns, called “ gurbani ”, are composed in various languages. Hence statement 3 is correct. In 1588 A.D, Arjan Dev had laid the foundation of Harmandar Sahib in the middle of Amritsar Talab which was built by Guru Ramdas and today is known as Golden Temple. For this Guru Arjan Dev invited Mian Mir, a Muslim Saint from Lahore to lay the cornerstone of the foundation of the Harmandar, the present Golden Temple. The doors on all four sides of the building signified its acceptance of all the four castes and every Religion. Around 400 years old this temple map was prepared by Guru Arjan Dev himself. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Guru Hargobind, the sixth of the ten gurus, created the Akal Takhat . He initiated a military tradition within Sikhism to resist Islamic persecution and protect the freedom of religion. He had the longest tenure as Guru, lasting 37 years, 9 months and 3 days. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Guru Gobind Singh : He was last of the 10 Sikh Gurus and became the Sikh guru at the age of nine, following the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru. He is known for his significant contributions to the Sikh religion, including the introduction of the turban to cover hair. He established the Khalsa order (meaning 'The Pure'), soldier-saints and defined its five symbols( five Ks). The Khalsa upholds the highest Sikh virtues of commitment, dedication and a social conscious. The Khalsa are men and women who have undergone the Sikh baptism ceremony and who strictly follow the Sikh Code of Conduct and Conventions and wear the prescribed physical articles of the faith (5K’s: Kesh (uncut hair), Kangha (a wooden comb), Kara (a iron bracelet), Kachera (cotton underpants) and Kirpan (an iron dagger) . Under him the community got consolidated as a socio-religious and military force. He fought against the Mughals later in the battle of Muktsar in 1705. He was assassinated in 1708. He named Guru Granth Sahib, the religious text of the Khalsas. The Sikhs understand their religion as the product of five pivotal events: The first was the teaching of Guru Nanak: His message of liberation through meditation on the divine name. The second was the arming of the Sikhs by Guru Hargobind. The third was Guru Gobind Singh’s founding of the Khalsa, its distinctive code to be observed by all who were initiated. At his death came the fourth event, the passing of the mystical Guru from its 10 human bearers to the Guru Granth Sahib. The final event took place early in the 20th century when Sikhism underwent a profound reformation at the hands of the Tat Khalsa .##Topic:Religious Movements Bhakti Movement##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Cosmic rays are high energy charged particles, originating in outer space, that travel at nearly the speed of light and strike the Earth from all directions. Consider the following statements about cosmic rays:
1. Are elecromagnetic rays of extremely short wavelength
2. Cosmic rays include essentially all of the elements in the periodic table.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Because cosmic rays are electrically charged they are deflected by magnetic fields, and their directions have been randomized, making it impossible to tell where they originated. However, cosmic rays in other regions of the Galaxy can be traced by the electromagnetic radiation they produce.
Cosmic rays include essentially all of the elements in the periodic table; about 89% of the nuclei are hydrogen (protons), 10% helium, and about 1% heavier elements.
|
c
|
Space Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Cosmic rays are high energy charged particles, originating in outer space, that travel at nearly the speed of light and strike the Earth from all directions. Consider the following statements about cosmic rays:
1. Are elecromagnetic rays of extremely short wavelength
2. Cosmic rays include essentially all of the elements in the periodic table.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Because cosmic rays are electrically charged they are deflected by magnetic fields, and their directions have been randomized, making it impossible to tell where they originated. However, cosmic rays in other regions of the Galaxy can be traced by the electromagnetic radiation they produce.
Cosmic rays include essentially all of the elements in the periodic table; about 89% of the nuclei are hydrogen (protons), 10% helium, and about 1% heavier elements.
##Topic:Space Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
In WTO terminology, subsidies, in general, are identified by "boxes". Consider the following statements regarding different boxes:
" Development Box" subsidies have a direct effect on production and trade which have to be reduced.
" Green Box" subsidies have a minimum impact on trade and can be used freely.
"Blue Box" subsidies include certain direct payments to farmers for limiting production
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In WTO terminology, subsidies, in general, are identified by "boxes". Consider the following statements regarding different boxes:
" Development Box" subsidies have a direct effect on production and trade which have to be reduced.
" Green Box" subsidies have a minimum impact on trade and can be used freely.
"Blue Box" subsidies include certain direct payments to farmers for limiting production
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding the "International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor":
It is an experimental tokamak nuclear fusion reactor that is being built in France.
Fusion fuels are widely available and nearly inexhaustible.
Fusion does not emit harmful toxins like carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
Its major by-product is helium: an inert, non-toxic gas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
d
|
Nuclear Energy
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the "International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor":
It is an experimental tokamak nuclear fusion reactor that is being built in France.
Fusion fuels are widely available and nearly inexhaustible.
Fusion does not emit harmful toxins like carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
Its major by-product is helium: an inert, non-toxic gas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:Nuclear Energy##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the "White labelled ATMs" being set up in India as a step towards financial inclusion: 1. They can be opened by non-banking entities to increase the spread of ATMs in semi-urban and rural areas. 2. The non bank entities are permitted by RBI to set up , own and operate White label ATMs. 3. Like regular ATMs, they can accept deposits and withdrawals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Hitherto, only banks were permitted to set up and operate ATMs in India . In June 2012, the RBI issued policy guidelines permitting non-bank entities to set up and operate White label ATMs (WLAs) in the country after seeking the Reserve Bank’s authorisation under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 . Thus, WLAs are non-bank ATMs operated by private companies. The objective of permitting non-banks to operate white label ATMs was to enhance the spread of ATMs in semi-urban and rural areas,where bank-owned ATM penetration has not been growing. Hence, 1st Statement is correct. RBI permitted non-bank entities incorporated in India under the Companies Act 1956, to set up, own and operate ATMs in India. They will provide the banking services to the customers of banks in India, based on the cards (debit/credit/prepaid) issued by banks. The WLAO's role would be confined to acquisition of transactions of all banks' customers and hence they would need to establish technical connectivity with the existing authorised shared ATM Network Operators / Card Payment Network Operators. Hence, 2nd Statement is correct. The Reserve Bank of India has allowed operators of white label Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) to accept international credit, debit and prepaid cards and eased rules for cash supply tie-ups at these. However, a cceptance of deposits at the WLAs, by the WLA Operator would not be permitted. Hence, 3rd Statement is incorrect. Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) is the first company authorized by RBI to open White Label ATMs in the country. TCPSL’s first White Labelled ATM was launched under the brand name 'Indicash' in 2013, in Chandrapada, a village located in Vasai-Virar, Maharashtra. Further on the new rules, WLA operators will have an option to provide facilities for Dynamic Currency Conversion for international cards. The currency conversion rate can be only had from authorised banks. The conversion will be restricted to the amount requested by the international cardholder to his home currency. Also, WLA operators will now have the freedom to tie-up with other commercial banks for cash supply at their ATMs. Earlier, operators had to link only with sponsor banks for cash supply. Operators can enter into service agreements with the supplier bank for adequate supply of genuine and good quality notes.
|
a
|
Women and Child Development
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the "White labelled ATMs" being set up in India as a step towards financial inclusion: 1. They can be opened by non-banking entities to increase the spread of ATMs in semi-urban and rural areas. 2. The non bank entities are permitted by RBI to set up , own and operate White label ATMs. 3. Like regular ATMs, they can accept deposits and withdrawals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Hitherto, only banks were permitted to set up and operate ATMs in India . In June 2012, the RBI issued policy guidelines permitting non-bank entities to set up and operate White label ATMs (WLAs) in the country after seeking the Reserve Bank’s authorisation under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 . Thus, WLAs are non-bank ATMs operated by private companies. The objective of permitting non-banks to operate white label ATMs was to enhance the spread of ATMs in semi-urban and rural areas,where bank-owned ATM penetration has not been growing. Hence, 1st Statement is correct. RBI permitted non-bank entities incorporated in India under the Companies Act 1956, to set up, own and operate ATMs in India. They will provide the banking services to the customers of banks in India, based on the cards (debit/credit/prepaid) issued by banks. The WLAO's role would be confined to acquisition of transactions of all banks' customers and hence they would need to establish technical connectivity with the existing authorised shared ATM Network Operators / Card Payment Network Operators. Hence, 2nd Statement is correct. The Reserve Bank of India has allowed operators of white label Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) to accept international credit, debit and prepaid cards and eased rules for cash supply tie-ups at these. However, a cceptance of deposits at the WLAs, by the WLA Operator would not be permitted. Hence, 3rd Statement is incorrect. Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) is the first company authorized by RBI to open White Label ATMs in the country. TCPSL’s first White Labelled ATM was launched under the brand name 'Indicash' in 2013, in Chandrapada, a village located in Vasai-Virar, Maharashtra. Further on the new rules, WLA operators will have an option to provide facilities for Dynamic Currency Conversion for international cards. The currency conversion rate can be only had from authorised banks. The conversion will be restricted to the amount requested by the international cardholder to his home currency. Also, WLA operators will now have the freedom to tie-up with other commercial banks for cash supply at their ATMs. Earlier, operators had to link only with sponsor banks for cash supply. Operators can enter into service agreements with the supplier bank for adequate supply of genuine and good quality notes.##Topic:Women and Child Development##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
Which among the following is/are characteristic(s) of Tundra biomes? Low biotic diversity. Large population oscillations. Short season of growth and reproduction. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Tundras are among Earth's coldest, harshest biomes. Tundra lands are snow-covered for much of the year, until summer brings a burst of wildflowers.
The biodiversity of tundra is low. There are few species with large populations. Animal populations fluctuate throughout the seasons in the tundra biome. Some animals opt to hibernate during the winter and others migrate to warmer temperatures.
Characteristics of Tundra
Extremely cold climate
Low biotic diversity
Simple vegetation structure
Limitation of drainage
Short season of growth and reproduction
Energy and nutrients in the form of dead organic material
Large population oscillations
|
d
|
Climatic regions
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are characteristic(s) of Tundra biomes? Low biotic diversity. Large population oscillations. Short season of growth and reproduction. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Tundras are among Earth's coldest, harshest biomes. Tundra lands are snow-covered for much of the year, until summer brings a burst of wildflowers.
The biodiversity of tundra is low. There are few species with large populations. Animal populations fluctuate throughout the seasons in the tundra biome. Some animals opt to hibernate during the winter and others migrate to warmer temperatures.
Characteristics of Tundra
Extremely cold climate
Low biotic diversity
Simple vegetation structure
Limitation of drainage
Short season of growth and reproduction
Energy and nutrients in the form of dead organic material
Large population oscillations
##Topic:Climatic regions##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the setting up of "Payment Banks" to speed up the process of Financial Inclusion, consider the following statements: They will be registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. They cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities. They can undertake lending activities and 25% of the loans must be given under priority sector lending. Like regular banks they will have to comply with CRR and SLR requirements. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
RBI has recently announced guidelines for licensing of Payment Banks. Payment banks fall into the category of 'niche' or differentiated banks, meaning that they serve a specific purpose or a specific category of customers. Payments Banks are targeted to serve low-income households, small businesses and other unorganized entities thus bringing hitherto those sections of populations into the banking fold which were earlier excluded. The idea behind this is to facilitate high volume and low value transactions in a secure and technology-driven environment. The Payments Bank will be registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013, and licensed under Banking Regulation Act, 1949. So statement 1 is correct. The Payments Bank cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities. The other financial and non-financial services activities of the promoters, if any, should be kept distinctly ring-fenced and not commingled with the banking and financial services business of the Payments Bank. So statement 2 is correct. The Payments Bank cannot undertake lending activities, hence statement 3 is incorrect. Payments Bank will have to comply with SLR and CRR requirements. So statement 4 is correct.
|
d
|
Financial Intermediation & Markets ,
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the setting up of "Payment Banks" to speed up the process of Financial Inclusion, consider the following statements: They will be registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. They cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities. They can undertake lending activities and 25% of the loans must be given under priority sector lending. Like regular banks they will have to comply with CRR and SLR requirements. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:RBI has recently announced guidelines for licensing of Payment Banks. Payment banks fall into the category of 'niche' or differentiated banks, meaning that they serve a specific purpose or a specific category of customers. Payments Banks are targeted to serve low-income households, small businesses and other unorganized entities thus bringing hitherto those sections of populations into the banking fold which were earlier excluded. The idea behind this is to facilitate high volume and low value transactions in a secure and technology-driven environment. The Payments Bank will be registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013, and licensed under Banking Regulation Act, 1949. So statement 1 is correct. The Payments Bank cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities. The other financial and non-financial services activities of the promoters, if any, should be kept distinctly ring-fenced and not commingled with the banking and financial services business of the Payments Bank. So statement 2 is correct. The Payments Bank cannot undertake lending activities, hence statement 3 is incorrect. Payments Bank will have to comply with SLR and CRR requirements. So statement 4 is correct.##Topic:Financial Intermediation & Markets ,##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
कथन : उष्ण कटिबंधीय चक्रवात की गति उत्तरी गोलार्द्ध मे घड़ी की दिशा के विपरीत होती है | कारण : उष्ण कटिबंधीय चक्रवात की गति दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध मे घड़ी की दिशा के समान होती है |
|
कथन और कारण दोनों सही है |
|
कथन और कारण दोनों गलत है |
|
कथन सही है ,कारण गलत है |
|
कथन और कारण दोनों सही है |
|
,
|
a
|
Winds Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:कथन : उष्ण कटिबंधीय चक्रवात की गति उत्तरी गोलार्द्ध मे घड़ी की दिशा के विपरीत होती है | कारण : उष्ण कटिबंधीय चक्रवात की गति दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध मे घड़ी की दिशा के समान होती है |##Option_A:कथन और कारण दोनों सही है |###Option_B:कथन और कारण दोनों गलत है |##Option_C:कथन सही है ,कारण गलत है |##Option_D:कथन और कारण दोनों सही है |##Answer:a##Explaination:,##Topic:Winds Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is correct regarding Rani-ki-vav?
|
It is a swimming pool/ bathing area.
|
It is an elaborate drainage system.
|
It is a subterranean water storage point.
|
It is a swimming pool/ bathing area.
|
'Vav' or 'Vaav' is a stepwell, a common structure in western and northern India. It is also called 'bawadi' in Hindi. These are wells or ponds where water may be reached by descending a set of steps. They may be covered or protected and are often of architectural significance. Stepwells are examples of storage tanks and irrigation tanks that were developed mainly to cope with seasonal fluctuations in water availability.
|
d
|
Difference between Architecture & Sculpture
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is correct regarding Rani-ki-vav?
##Option_A: It is a swimming pool/ bathing area.
###Option_B: It is an elaborate drainage system.
##Option_C: It is a subterranean water storage point.
##Option_D: It is a swimming pool/ bathing area.
##Answer:d##Explaination:'Vav' or 'Vaav' is a stepwell, a common structure in western and northern India. It is also called 'bawadi' in Hindi. These are wells or ponds where water may be reached by descending a set of steps. They may be covered or protected and are often of architectural significance. Stepwells are examples of storage tanks and irrigation tanks that were developed mainly to cope with seasonal fluctuations in water availability.##Topic:Difference between Architecture & Sculpture##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following regarding Parliamentary Secretaries is wrong? They are appointed by the Prime Minister as well as the Chief Ministers. They enjoy similar status to a Cabinet Minister. MLAs can be appointed as parliamentary secretaries. Secretary General of Lok Sabha is the head of all Parliamentary Secretaries. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Parliamentary Secretaries are political appointees rather than constitutional ones. They generally are of similar rank as of Minister of State or even a deputy minister. Unlike their name, they are present not only in parliament but also in State legislatures. Moreover, it is not necessary that they should be members of any house. They are generally appointed to groom young leaders for their future anticipated role as a minister. After 91st amendment act, where the size of council of ministers was restricted, the governments have chosen this route to accommodate various interests.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following regarding Parliamentary Secretaries is wrong? They are appointed by the Prime Minister as well as the Chief Ministers. They enjoy similar status to a Cabinet Minister. MLAs can be appointed as parliamentary secretaries. Secretary General of Lok Sabha is the head of all Parliamentary Secretaries. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Parliamentary Secretaries are political appointees rather than constitutional ones. They generally are of similar rank as of Minister of State or even a deputy minister. Unlike their name, they are present not only in parliament but also in State legislatures. Moreover, it is not necessary that they should be members of any house. They are generally appointed to groom young leaders for their future anticipated role as a minister. After 91st amendment act, where the size of council of ministers was restricted, the governments have chosen this route to accommodate various interests.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding various scheme for development of agriculture sector in India:
1. Coarse cereals and commercial crop like sugarcane, cotton, and jute are included in National Food Security Mission.
2. Under NFSM Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) are formed to mitigate some of the risks like weather aberrations, erratic power supply, and inadequate marketing arrangements.
3. During 12 th plan States are at liberty to spend up to 100 per cent of total outlay in the infrastructure and asset creation component of RKVY (Rahtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana) funding.
Which of the options give above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
RKVY funding will be routed into three components, viz. production growth, infrastructure & assets, & sub-schemes and flexi-fund. In view of the need to increase capital formation and get higher returns on investments, states are at liberty to spend up to 100 per cent of total outlay in the infrastructure and asset creation component. So option 3 is correct.
In addition to rice, wheat and pulses, crops like coarse cereals and commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, and jute) have been included since 2014-15. So option 1 is correct.
Majority of the farmers are small producers who face difficulties in managing high risk involved in farming mainly due to weather aberrations, uneven access to technologies, unreliable input supplies, erratic power supply, inadequate marketing arrangements etc. Forming and strengthening of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) is likely to mitigate at least some of the risks and constraints faced by the farmers. So option 2 is correct.
|
a
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding various scheme for development of agriculture sector in India:
1. Coarse cereals and commercial crop like sugarcane, cotton, and jute are included in National Food Security Mission.
2. Under NFSM Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) are formed to mitigate some of the risks like weather aberrations, erratic power supply, and inadequate marketing arrangements.
3. During 12 th plan States are at liberty to spend up to 100 per cent of total outlay in the infrastructure and asset creation component of RKVY (Rahtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana) funding.
Which of the options give above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:RKVY funding will be routed into three components, viz. production growth, infrastructure & assets, & sub-schemes and flexi-fund. In view of the need to increase capital formation and get higher returns on investments, states are at liberty to spend up to 100 per cent of total outlay in the infrastructure and asset creation component. So option 3 is correct.
In addition to rice, wheat and pulses, crops like coarse cereals and commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, and jute) have been included since 2014-15. So option 1 is correct.
Majority of the farmers are small producers who face difficulties in managing high risk involved in farming mainly due to weather aberrations, uneven access to technologies, unreliable input supplies, erratic power supply, inadequate marketing arrangements etc. Forming and strengthening of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) is likely to mitigate at least some of the risks and constraints faced by the farmers. So option 2 is correct.##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) for procurement and distribution of perishables horticulture commodities, consider the following statements: This Fund will be used to advance loans to State Governments and Central agencies at a nominal rate of interest for procurement and distribution of perishables horticulture commodities. This Fund has been created to cover horticultural commodities because they are not covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) Mechanism. Currently this fund is being used for procurement of Potato and Onion mainly due to their extreme price volatility in recent times, which is affecting both the farmers and consumers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) as a Central Sector Scheme, with a corpus of Rs.500 crores, to support market interventions for price control of perishable agri-horticultural commodities. PSF will be used to advance interest free loan to State Governments and Central agencies to support their working capital and other expenses on procurement and distribution interventions for such commodities. For this purpose, the States will set up a revolving fund to which Centre and State will contribute equally (50:50). Hence, 1st Statement is incorrect. Horticultural commodities are not covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism and therefore, the farmers, at times, do not even recover their cost of cultivation, being fully dependent upon the market for disposal of their produce. As a result, farmers suffer the most on account of steep fall in prices. Hence, 2nd Statement is correct. The fund is proposed to be used for onion and potato only. Hence, 3rd Statement is correct. Procurement of these commodities will be undertaken directly from farmers or farmers's organizations at farm gate/mandi and made available at a more reasonable price to the consumers. Losses incurred, if any, in the operations will be shared between the Centre and the States. The Fund shall be managed by a Price Stabilization Fund Management Committee (PSFMC) under the Chairmanship of Secretary (DAC).
|
b
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) for procurement and distribution of perishables horticulture commodities, consider the following statements: This Fund will be used to advance loans to State Governments and Central agencies at a nominal rate of interest for procurement and distribution of perishables horticulture commodities. This Fund has been created to cover horticultural commodities because they are not covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) Mechanism. Currently this fund is being used for procurement of Potato and Onion mainly due to their extreme price volatility in recent times, which is affecting both the farmers and consumers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) as a Central Sector Scheme, with a corpus of Rs.500 crores, to support market interventions for price control of perishable agri-horticultural commodities. PSF will be used to advance interest free loan to State Governments and Central agencies to support their working capital and other expenses on procurement and distribution interventions for such commodities. For this purpose, the States will set up a revolving fund to which Centre and State will contribute equally (50:50). Hence, 1st Statement is incorrect. Horticultural commodities are not covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism and therefore, the farmers, at times, do not even recover their cost of cultivation, being fully dependent upon the market for disposal of their produce. As a result, farmers suffer the most on account of steep fall in prices. Hence, 2nd Statement is correct. The fund is proposed to be used for onion and potato only. Hence, 3rd Statement is correct. Procurement of these commodities will be undertaken directly from farmers or farmers's organizations at farm gate/mandi and made available at a more reasonable price to the consumers. Losses incurred, if any, in the operations will be shared between the Centre and the States. The Fund shall be managed by a Price Stabilization Fund Management Committee (PSFMC) under the Chairmanship of Secretary (DAC).##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Indian initiatives undertaken to deal with climate change, consider the following statements: Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) is India"s National Implementing Entity (NIE) for the Adaptation Fund created under the UNFCCC. National Clean Energy fund is financed by the "clean energy cess" levied on coal and is disbursed for renewable energy based initiatives and power projects. National Adaptation Fund will focus on innovative methods of water conservation and use of hybrid seeds. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
To supervise the operation of the Fund and to approve projects for adaptation activity in eligible developing countries an Adaptation Fund Board (AFB) was set up in 2008 under UNFCCC . India as an eligible country has access to Adaptation Fund and can seek financial support to undertake adaptation activities at national and regional level.
NABARD has been accredited by the Adaptation Fund Board of UNFCCC as National Implementing Entity (NIE) in India. The NIEs bears full responsibility for the overall management of the projects and programmes financed by the Adaptation Fund and will bear all financial, monitoring, and reporting responsibilities. Hence, 1st Statement is incorrect.
'National Clean Energy Fund' was created in 2011 and is financed by clean energy cess on coal produced and imported in India . Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.
In the budget, 2015-16 , it is p roposed to increase the Scheduled rate of Clean Energy Cess levied on coal, lignite and peat to Rs 300 per tonne from Rs 100 per tonne . The effective rate of Clean Energy Cess is being increased to Rs 200 per tonne from Rs 100 per tonne.
A 'National Adaptation Fund' for climate change, with an initial amount of Rs 100 crore. The fund will focus on innovative methods of water conservation, use of hybrid seeds, etc, to help agriculture from climate change. Hence, 3rd Statement is correct.
|
a
|
Sustainable Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Indian initiatives undertaken to deal with climate change, consider the following statements: Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) is India"s National Implementing Entity (NIE) for the Adaptation Fund created under the UNFCCC. National Clean Energy fund is financed by the "clean energy cess" levied on coal and is disbursed for renewable energy based initiatives and power projects. National Adaptation Fund will focus on innovative methods of water conservation and use of hybrid seeds. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
To supervise the operation of the Fund and to approve projects for adaptation activity in eligible developing countries an Adaptation Fund Board (AFB) was set up in 2008 under UNFCCC . India as an eligible country has access to Adaptation Fund and can seek financial support to undertake adaptation activities at national and regional level.
NABARD has been accredited by the Adaptation Fund Board of UNFCCC as National Implementing Entity (NIE) in India. The NIEs bears full responsibility for the overall management of the projects and programmes financed by the Adaptation Fund and will bear all financial, monitoring, and reporting responsibilities. Hence, 1st Statement is incorrect.
'National Clean Energy Fund' was created in 2011 and is financed by clean energy cess on coal produced and imported in India . Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.
In the budget, 2015-16 , it is p roposed to increase the Scheduled rate of Clean Energy Cess levied on coal, lignite and peat to Rs 300 per tonne from Rs 100 per tonne . The effective rate of Clean Energy Cess is being increased to Rs 200 per tonne from Rs 100 per tonne.
A 'National Adaptation Fund' for climate change, with an initial amount of Rs 100 crore. The fund will focus on innovative methods of water conservation, use of hybrid seeds, etc, to help agriculture from climate change. Hence, 3rd Statement is correct.
##Topic:Sustainable Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Priority Sector Lending: Credit to the medium enterprises forms the part of priority sector lending. All the banks operating in India are subject to this scheme of Differential Interest Rate. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently said that medium enterprises, social infrastructure and renewable energy would form part of priority sector in addition to the existing categories. Foreign banks, with 20 branches and above, already have priority sector targets and sub-targets are under the scheme. Whereas, the foreign banks with less than 20 branches are not subject to the scheme as of now. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Priority Sector Lending: Credit to the medium enterprises forms the part of priority sector lending. All the banks operating in India are subject to this scheme of Differential Interest Rate. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently said that medium enterprises, social infrastructure and renewable energy would form part of priority sector in addition to the existing categories. Foreign banks, with 20 branches and above, already have priority sector targets and sub-targets are under the scheme. Whereas, the foreign banks with less than 20 branches are not subject to the scheme as of now. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding stalled project in various sectors (in last 5 years) in India : 1. The primary reason for stalled projects in the private sector is lack of regulatory clearances. 2. Major reason for stalled projects in electricity sector is lack of environmental clearances. 3. The top reasons for stalled projects in government sector are Land acquisition problem and Lack of non-environmental clearances. Which of the options give above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Private (Indian) sector projects stalling
Reasons : Unfavourable market conditions Lack of promoter interest Lack of non-environmental clearances
Government sector projects stalling
Reasons : Land acquisition problem Lack of non-environmental Clearances Lack of fund (statement 3)
Perhaps contrary to popular belief, the evidence points towards over exuberance and a credit
bubble as primary reasons (rather than lack of regulatory clearances) for stalled projects in the private sector. (statement 1)
stalled projects in electricity are a victim of lack of coal (or coal linkages). ( Statement 2)
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding stalled project in various sectors (in last 5 years) in India : 1. The primary reason for stalled projects in the private sector is lack of regulatory clearances. 2. Major reason for stalled projects in electricity sector is lack of environmental clearances. 3. The top reasons for stalled projects in government sector are Land acquisition problem and Lack of non-environmental clearances. Which of the options give above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Private (Indian) sector projects stalling
Reasons : Unfavourable market conditions Lack of promoter interest Lack of non-environmental clearances
Government sector projects stalling
Reasons : Land acquisition problem Lack of non-environmental Clearances Lack of fund (statement 3)
Perhaps contrary to popular belief, the evidence points towards over exuberance and a credit
bubble as primary reasons (rather than lack of regulatory clearances) for stalled projects in the private sector. (statement 1)
stalled projects in electricity are a victim of lack of coal (or coal linkages). ( Statement 2)
##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): MRI scanning uses X rays in the magnetic field to produce images of body parts. While MRI scanning cannot produce the pictures of bone, Computerized Tomography (CT scan) can produce pictures of bone. Jewelry and other wearable metallic accessories are not allowed during MRI since it interferes with the magnetic field. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
MRI scanning does not use X rays. X-ray scanning uses ionizing radiations to excite electrons in the atoms. MRI does not use ionizing radiations . Instead, while in the magnet, radio waves redirect the alignment of hydrogen atoms that naturally exist within the body without causing any chemical changes in the tissues. As the hydrogen atoms return to their usual alignment, they emit energy that varies according to the type of body tissue in which they lie. Hence statement 1 is not correct. MRI can be used to produce pictures of internal organs and soft tissues including bone. But it is more useful in soft tissue evaluation. Computerized Tomography (CT scan) is suited for bone imaging , lung and chest imaging, cancer detection. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Jewelry and other wearable metallic accessories are not allowed during MRI since it interferes with the magnetic field. Hence statement 3 is correct.
|
a
|
Gene Therapy, Tissue culture, Health
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): MRI scanning uses X rays in the magnetic field to produce images of body parts. While MRI scanning cannot produce the pictures of bone, Computerized Tomography (CT scan) can produce pictures of bone. Jewelry and other wearable metallic accessories are not allowed during MRI since it interferes with the magnetic field. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:3 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:MRI scanning does not use X rays. X-ray scanning uses ionizing radiations to excite electrons in the atoms. MRI does not use ionizing radiations . Instead, while in the magnet, radio waves redirect the alignment of hydrogen atoms that naturally exist within the body without causing any chemical changes in the tissues. As the hydrogen atoms return to their usual alignment, they emit energy that varies according to the type of body tissue in which they lie. Hence statement 1 is not correct. MRI can be used to produce pictures of internal organs and soft tissues including bone. But it is more useful in soft tissue evaluation. Computerized Tomography (CT scan) is suited for bone imaging , lung and chest imaging, cancer detection. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Jewelry and other wearable metallic accessories are not allowed during MRI since it interferes with the magnetic field. Hence statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Gene Therapy, Tissue culture, Health##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Which of the following initiatives will improve the business environment in India? Time bound clearance of projects Improvement of physical infrastructure Institutional autonomy Weak environmental laws Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 ,2 and 3 only
|
1,2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Weak environment laws may help in business environment in short run but for long run and stable economic growth require effective environmental legislation.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following initiatives will improve the business environment in India? Time bound clearance of projects Improvement of physical infrastructure Institutional autonomy Weak environmental laws Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 ,2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1,2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Weak environment laws may help in business environment in short run but for long run and stable economic growth require effective environmental legislation.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding rural electrification in India : Integration of feeders (rural households & agricultural) is one of the component of Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY). Central Electricity authority is the nodal agency to operationalize DDUGJY. More than 90% of villages have been electrified till march 2014. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The major components of the scheme are feeder separation; strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution network; Metering at all levels (input points, feeders and distribution transformers).So option 1 is incorrect Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) is the Nodal Agency for operationalization of this Scheme. So option 2 is incorrect Till march 2014, 96.7% of villages have been electrified. So option 3 is correct.
|
c
|
Energy , Infrastructure and Communication
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding rural electrification in India : Integration of feeders (rural households & agricultural) is one of the component of Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY). Central Electricity authority is the nodal agency to operationalize DDUGJY. More than 90% of villages have been electrified till march 2014. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The major components of the scheme are feeder separation; strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution network; Metering at all levels (input points, feeders and distribution transformers).So option 1 is incorrect Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) is the Nodal Agency for operationalization of this Scheme. So option 2 is incorrect Till march 2014, 96.7% of villages have been electrified. So option 3 is correct.##Topic:Energy , Infrastructure and Communication##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With regard to various types of unemployment, consider the following statements:
1. If in an economy there is a surplus workforce in one sector and there is a short supply of workforce in the other sector then it is known as disguised unemployment.
2. Disguised unemployment is found in the agriculture sector in India.
3. Frictional unemployment is caused by a periodical increase and a decrease in the growth of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Unemployment: Types of Unemployment: Structural, Seasonal, Frictional, Cyclical, Nature of Unemployment in India
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to various types of unemployment, consider the following statements:
1. If in an economy there is a surplus workforce in one sector and there is a short supply of workforce in the other sector then it is known as disguised unemployment.
2. Disguised unemployment is found in the agriculture sector in India.
3. Frictional unemployment is caused by a periodical increase and a decrease in the growth of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Unemployment: Types of Unemployment: Structural, Seasonal, Frictional, Cyclical, Nature of Unemployment in India##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the healthcare spending in India in the last ten years : The expenditure on healthcare as a percent of GDP has been around four percent. The contribution of government in providing healthcare has been more than that of the private sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The expenditure on healthcare as a percent of GDP has been around 4% in the last ten years. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
Public spending in the last 10 years has been around 1% of GDP (Both Centre & states) while the rest has been provided by the private sector.
India is amongst the countries where private sector has major share in the healthcare . At its current level of income, most of the countries spend higher on health in terms of percentage of GDP. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
|
a
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the healthcare spending in India in the last ten years : The expenditure on healthcare as a percent of GDP has been around four percent. The contribution of government in providing healthcare has been more than that of the private sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:
The expenditure on healthcare as a percent of GDP has been around 4% in the last ten years. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
Public spending in the last 10 years has been around 1% of GDP (Both Centre & states) while the rest has been provided by the private sector.
India is amongst the countries where private sector has major share in the healthcare . At its current level of income, most of the countries spend higher on health in terms of percentage of GDP. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements.
1. The subject of health belongs to the Concurrent List in India.
2. If the share of elderly population will increase then it will lead to higher cost of healthcare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(
|
1 only
(
|
nbsp; 2 only
(
|
Both 1 & 2
|
1 only
(
|
Subject of Health belongs to the state list. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The rising share of elderly plays a relatively minor role in healthcare cost inflation. The major driver of costs is the rapid technological advancement because of import of expensive diagnostics and treatments from developed countries. However, it is also true that elderly will contribute to higher cost of healthcare. Although the degree of impact is subjective yet in developed countries it is attributed as one of the reasona for healthcare cost inflation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
b
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements.
1. The subject of health belongs to the Concurrent List in India.
2. If the share of elderly population will increase then it will lead to higher cost of healthcare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(##Option_A: 1 only
(###Option_B:nbsp; 2 only
(##Option_C: Both 1 & 2
##Option_D: 1 only
(##Answer:b##Explaination:
Subject of Health belongs to the state list. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The rising share of elderly plays a relatively minor role in healthcare cost inflation. The major driver of costs is the rapid technological advancement because of import of expensive diagnostics and treatments from developed countries. However, it is also true that elderly will contribute to higher cost of healthcare. Although the degree of impact is subjective yet in developed countries it is attributed as one of the reasona for healthcare cost inflation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements given below are included as objective of Universal Health Coverage according to WHO? Equity in access to health services. Providing quality medical education. Providing quality health services. Covering financial risks through insuring the poorest section of society. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
WHO describes three objectives of Universal Health Coverage :
Equity in access to health services - those who need the services should get them, not only those who can pay for them;
Quality of health services is good enough to improve the health of those receiving services; and
Financial-risk protection - ensuring that the cost of using care does not put people at risk of financial hardship.
Hence 1st and 3rd statement are correct.
Providing quality medical education is not included as the objective. Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
Also, the aim of universal health coverage is not only to insure the poor but even those who are well off. Hence 4th statement is incorrect.
Hence, option b is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Health , Health and Family Welfare
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements given below are included as objective of Universal Health Coverage according to WHO? Equity in access to health services. Providing quality medical education. Providing quality health services. Covering financial risks through insuring the poorest section of society. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
WHO describes three objectives of Universal Health Coverage :
Equity in access to health services - those who need the services should get them, not only those who can pay for them;
Quality of health services is good enough to improve the health of those receiving services; and
Financial-risk protection - ensuring that the cost of using care does not put people at risk of financial hardship.
Hence 1st and 3rd statement are correct.
Providing quality medical education is not included as the objective. Hence 2nd statement is incorrect.
Also, the aim of universal health coverage is not only to insure the poor but even those who are well off. Hence 4th statement is incorrect.
Hence, option b is the correct answer.
##Topic:Health , Health and Family Welfare##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to IMF: IMF lends to specific development projects. IMF promotes exchange rate stability. IMF fights money laundering and financing of terrorism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The IMF's fundamental mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system. It does so in three ways: keeping track of the global economy and the economies of member countries; lending to countries with balance of payments difficulties; and giving practical help to members. A core responsibility of the IMF is to provide loans to member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems. This financial assistance enables countries to rebuild their international reserves, stabilize their currencies, continue paying for imports, and restore conditions for strong economic growth, while undertaking policies to correct underlying problems. Unlike development banks, the IMF does not lend for specific projects.
|
b
|
Industry
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to IMF: IMF lends to specific development projects. IMF promotes exchange rate stability. IMF fights money laundering and financing of terrorism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The IMF's fundamental mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system. It does so in three ways: keeping track of the global economy and the economies of member countries; lending to countries with balance of payments difficulties; and giving practical help to members. A core responsibility of the IMF is to provide loans to member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems. This financial assistance enables countries to rebuild their international reserves, stabilize their currencies, continue paying for imports, and restore conditions for strong economic growth, while undertaking policies to correct underlying problems. Unlike development banks, the IMF does not lend for specific projects.##Topic:Industry ##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the revamped National Food Security Mission (NFSM), 2014-15, consider the following statements:
It includes rice, pulses, wheat, coarse cereals and commercial crops like sugarcane, cotton and jute.
Under NFSM Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) are formed to mitigate some of the risks like weather aberrations, erratic power supply, and inadequate marketing arrangements.
To restore soil fertility and productivity at individual farm level, subsidy on biofertilizers has been increased.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is being implemented with the new target of additional production of 25 million tonnes of foodgrains comprising 10 million tonnes rice, 8 million tonnes wheat, 4 million tonnes pulses, and 3 million tonnes coarse cereals by the end of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2016-17).
The revamped NFSM is being implemented from 2014-15 in 619 districts of 28 states. In addition to rice, wheat and pulses, crops like coarse cereals and commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, and jute) have been included since 2014-15. Hence, 1st Statement is correct.
The pulses component has been allocated fifty per cent of total funds under the NFSM in order to increase their production .
To promote the use of bio-fertilizers,subsidy on bio-fertilizer has also been enhanced from Rs.100 per ha to Rs.300 per ha. Hence, 3rd Statement is correct.
Promotion of farmer producer organizations (FPOs), value addition, dal mill, and assistance for custom hiring charges have also been undertaken under the Mission.
Majority of the farmers are small producers who face difficulties in managing high risk involved in farming mainly due to weather aberrations, uneven access to technologies, unreliable input supplies, erratic power supply, inadequate marketing arrangements etc. Forming and strengthening of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) is likely to mitigate at least some of the risks and constraints faced by the farmers. So option 2 is correct.
|
d
|
Agriculture
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the revamped National Food Security Mission (NFSM), 2014-15, consider the following statements:
It includes rice, pulses, wheat, coarse cereals and commercial crops like sugarcane, cotton and jute.
Under NFSM Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) are formed to mitigate some of the risks like weather aberrations, erratic power supply, and inadequate marketing arrangements.
To restore soil fertility and productivity at individual farm level, subsidy on biofertilizers has been increased.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is being implemented with the new target of additional production of 25 million tonnes of foodgrains comprising 10 million tonnes rice, 8 million tonnes wheat, 4 million tonnes pulses, and 3 million tonnes coarse cereals by the end of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2016-17).
The revamped NFSM is being implemented from 2014-15 in 619 districts of 28 states. In addition to rice, wheat and pulses, crops like coarse cereals and commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, and jute) have been included since 2014-15. Hence, 1st Statement is correct.
The pulses component has been allocated fifty per cent of total funds under the NFSM in order to increase their production .
To promote the use of bio-fertilizers,subsidy on bio-fertilizer has also been enhanced from Rs.100 per ha to Rs.300 per ha. Hence, 3rd Statement is correct.
Promotion of farmer producer organizations (FPOs), value addition, dal mill, and assistance for custom hiring charges have also been undertaken under the Mission.
Majority of the farmers are small producers who face difficulties in managing high risk involved in farming mainly due to weather aberrations, uneven access to technologies, unreliable input supplies, erratic power supply, inadequate marketing arrangements etc. Forming and strengthening of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) is likely to mitigate at least some of the risks and constraints faced by the farmers. So option 2 is correct.
##Topic:Agriculture##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following duties of citizens form a part of Fundamental Duties under Art.51A? Duty to provide early childhood care and education to the child till the age of six years. Duty to render national service whenever called upon to do so. Duty to pay taxes. Duty to develop scientific temper. Select the correct answer using the code below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect : Early childhood care and education till age of six years forms a part of Directive Principles of State policy( Art.45). It was added by 86th Amendment Act, 2002. Statement 3 is incorrect : Duty to pay taxes was recommended by Swaran Singh Committee to be included under Art. 51 A, but the recommendation was not accepted.
|
b
|
Citizenship
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following duties of citizens form a part of Fundamental Duties under Art.51A? Duty to provide early childhood care and education to the child till the age of six years. Duty to render national service whenever called upon to do so. Duty to pay taxes. Duty to develop scientific temper. Select the correct answer using the code below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect : Early childhood care and education till age of six years forms a part of Directive Principles of State policy( Art.45). It was added by 86th Amendment Act, 2002. Statement 3 is incorrect : Duty to pay taxes was recommended by Swaran Singh Committee to be included under Art. 51 A, but the recommendation was not accepted.##Topic:Citizenship##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978, consider the following statements: It provided that Fundamental Rights under Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during National Emergency. It deleted the Right to Property from Part III of the Indian Constitution. It made a provision to bind the President by the advice of cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. President was bound to the advice of cabinet by 42nd Constituional Aamendment Act.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978, consider the following statements: It provided that Fundamental Rights under Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during National Emergency. It deleted the Right to Property from Part III of the Indian Constitution. It made a provision to bind the President by the advice of cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statements 1 and 2 are correct. President was bound to the advice of cabinet by 42nd Constituional Aamendment Act.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following basic features are incorporated in the Constitution of India from Universal Declaration of Human Rights? Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a document adopted by the United Nations General Assembly that enshrines the rights and freedoms of all human beings. The declaration consists of 30 articles detailing an individual's basic rights and fundamental freedoms and affirming their universal character as inherent, inalienable, and applicable to all human beings. They are described briefly as follows: The preamble sets out the historical and social causes that led to the necessity of drafting the Declaration. Articles 1–2 established the basic concepts of dignity, liberty, and equality. Articles 3–5 established other individual rights, such as the right to life and the prohibition of slavery and torture. Articles 6–11 refer to the fundamental legality of human rights with specific remedies cited for their defence when violated. Articles 12–17 established the rights of the individual towards the community (including such things as freedom of movement). Articles 18–21 sanctioned the so-called constitutional liberties and with spiritual, public, and political freedoms, such as freedom of thought, opinion, religion and conscience, word, and peaceful association of the individual. Articles 22–27 sanctioned an individual's economic, social and cultural rights Articles 28–30 established the general ways of using these rights, the areas in which these rights of the individual can not be applied. Within a year of the adoption of the universal declaration of Human Rights (10 December 1948) , the assembly incorporated in the constitution of India the substance of most of these rights. The two parts, the fundamental rights and directive principles of the constitution of India between them covered almost the entire field of Human rights. The Economic, Social and Cultural Rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and also in the Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights are included in Part IV of the Indian Constitution and are known as the Directive Principle of State Policy. For example, the Universal Declaration addressed the question of social security in Article 22 when it mentioned that state effort should be directed towards the implementation of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
|
c
|
Rights Issues etc.
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following basic features are incorporated in the Constitution of India from Universal Declaration of Human Rights? Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B:3 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a document adopted by the United Nations General Assembly that enshrines the rights and freedoms of all human beings. The declaration consists of 30 articles detailing an individual's basic rights and fundamental freedoms and affirming their universal character as inherent, inalienable, and applicable to all human beings. They are described briefly as follows: The preamble sets out the historical and social causes that led to the necessity of drafting the Declaration. Articles 1–2 established the basic concepts of dignity, liberty, and equality. Articles 3–5 established other individual rights, such as the right to life and the prohibition of slavery and torture. Articles 6–11 refer to the fundamental legality of human rights with specific remedies cited for their defence when violated. Articles 12–17 established the rights of the individual towards the community (including such things as freedom of movement). Articles 18–21 sanctioned the so-called constitutional liberties and with spiritual, public, and political freedoms, such as freedom of thought, opinion, religion and conscience, word, and peaceful association of the individual. Articles 22–27 sanctioned an individual's economic, social and cultural rights Articles 28–30 established the general ways of using these rights, the areas in which these rights of the individual can not be applied. Within a year of the adoption of the universal declaration of Human Rights (10 December 1948) , the assembly incorporated in the constitution of India the substance of most of these rights. The two parts, the fundamental rights and directive principles of the constitution of India between them covered almost the entire field of Human rights. The Economic, Social and Cultural Rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and also in the Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights are included in Part IV of the Indian Constitution and are known as the Directive Principle of State Policy. For example, the Universal Declaration addressed the question of social security in Article 22 when it mentioned that state effort should be directed towards the implementation of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.##Topic:Rights Issues etc.##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct IMF?
1. The amount the member is obliged to provide to IMF is dependent on the "quota" 2. Member country cannot pay its quota in its own currency 3. SDRs can be exchanged for national currencies. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1,2
|
2,3
|
1,3
|
1,2
|
A member country normally pays upto one- quarter of its quota in the form of widely accepted foreign currencies(such as the US dollar,euro etc) or SDR. The remaining three-quarters are paid in the country"s own currency.
|
c
|
India and IMF, WTO , WIPO
|
Commerce & Accountancy
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct IMF?
1. The amount the member is obliged to provide to IMF is dependent on the "quota" 2. Member country cannot pay its quota in its own currency 3. SDRs can be exchanged for national currencies. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A:1,2###Option_B:2,3##Option_C:1,3##Option_D:1,2##Answer:c##Explaination:A member country normally pays upto one- quarter of its quota in the form of widely accepted foreign currencies(such as the US dollar,euro etc) or SDR. The remaining three-quarters are paid in the country"s own currency.##Topic:India and IMF, WTO , WIPO##Subject:Commerce & Accountancy##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are the conditionalities of IMF to provide assistance?
1. Deregulate the rupee in external transactions.
2. Reduce Priority Sector Lending
3. Downsize the Government
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. All
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All are correct
|
d
|
Non UN Institutions
|
Electrical Engineering
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are the conditionalities of IMF to provide assistance?
1. Deregulate the rupee in external transactions.
2. Reduce Priority Sector Lending
3. Downsize the Government
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. All
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
All are correct
##Topic:Non UN Institutions##Subject:Electrical Engineering##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the National Food Security in India : It aims to ensure that food supply is available in sufficient quantity. It is concerned with nutrition along with the availability of food. It aims to ensure that food prices remain stable. Identification of poor under the Food Security Act is done by the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
According to FAO “ food security exists when all people at all times have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences for an active, healthy life .”
Intrinsic to this definition are the four pillars of food security , that is, availability , stability of supply, access and utilization by the body.
Nutrition considerations are mentioned in the definition itself. In India although nutritional component is relatively constrained due to limited resources. However, nutrition of lactating mothers is taken care of under NFSA.
Stability of supply and access to food is possible when the food prices are available to the public at affordable prices and do not rise unexpectedly. It is the reason government procures the food grain and then distributes it through PDS to maintain a stable supply at affordable prices .
Under TPDS and now under NFSA, the identification of poor is to be done by the states.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the National Food Security in India : It aims to ensure that food supply is available in sufficient quantity. It is concerned with nutrition along with the availability of food. It aims to ensure that food prices remain stable. Identification of poor under the Food Security Act is done by the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
According to FAO “ food security exists when all people at all times have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences for an active, healthy life .”
Intrinsic to this definition are the four pillars of food security , that is, availability , stability of supply, access and utilization by the body.
Nutrition considerations are mentioned in the definition itself. In India although nutritional component is relatively constrained due to limited resources. However, nutrition of lactating mothers is taken care of under NFSA.
Stability of supply and access to food is possible when the food prices are available to the public at affordable prices and do not rise unexpectedly. It is the reason government procures the food grain and then distributes it through PDS to maintain a stable supply at affordable prices .
Under TPDS and now under NFSA, the identification of poor is to be done by the states.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
##Topic:Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme##Subject:Botany##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Geographical Indication(GI), which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Geographical Indication protects the product and craft of local people from being used for commercial purpose by outsiders.
A protected geographical indication enables the holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as those set out in the standards for that indication.
While trademark protects industrial product, a geographical indication is for agricultural product.
It is granted for a period of ten years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
c
|
c
|
Rural Development
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Geographical Indication(GI), which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Geographical Indication protects the product and craft of local people from being used for commercial purpose by outsiders.
A protected geographical indication enables the holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as those set out in the standards for that indication.
While trademark protects industrial product, a geographical indication is for agricultural product.
It is granted for a period of ten years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
c
##Topic:Rural Development##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Minimum Support Price (MSP) offered to farmers by the government: It is offered for food crops only. Its purpose is to control inflation by regulating the prices of agricultural products. The MSP is announced by the Government of India at the end of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Minimum support prices are currently announced for 24 commodities including seven cereals (paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi); five pulses (gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil); eight oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed); copra, raw cotton, raw jute and virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco . Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper production years.
The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. Hence, its purpose is not to control inflation of agricultural products.Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
A Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) already exists which is implemented on the request of State Governments by the centre for procurement of perishable and horticultural commodities in the event of fall in market prices. Hence, horticultural products are not going to be included in the MSP scheme.
The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
d
|
Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Minimum Support Price (MSP) offered to farmers by the government: It is offered for food crops only. Its purpose is to control inflation by regulating the prices of agricultural products. The MSP is announced by the Government of India at the end of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Minimum support prices are currently announced for 24 commodities including seven cereals (paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi); five pulses (gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil); eight oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed); copra, raw cotton, raw jute and virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco . Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper production years.
The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. Hence, its purpose is not to control inflation of agricultural products.Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
A Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) already exists which is implemented on the request of State Governments by the centre for procurement of perishable and horticultural commodities in the event of fall in market prices. Hence, horticultural products are not going to be included in the MSP scheme.
The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
##Topic:Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme##Subject:Botany##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India: There has been a decline in the PDS Leakages in India over the last ten years. The major beneficiaries of the PDS are people from States that have a larger number of poor. Although cash transfer reduces leakage it may result in reduce the affordability of food. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
As per the latest NSSO Data there has been a decline in the leakages in the PDS in the last ten years. However, this value is itself very high. In 2011-12 it is estimated that nearly 46.7% of food grain was diverted.
Five States — Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and West Bengal — which are home to close to 60 per cent of India’s poor, accounted for almost 50 per cent of the total grain leakage in the country. As a result major beneficiaries of the PDS are people from States that have a smaller number of poor.
Cash transfer is an established practice world-wide to transfer benefits. It has proved to be more efficient and the chances of diversion of benefits are minimized. However, if cost of food grains in the market increases, and government fails to increase the subsidy as per the market prices, then it will reduce the capacity of poor to buy foodgrain equivalent to that distributed under PDS. Also, cash transfer may lead to inflation further increasing the food prices.
|
b
|
Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme
|
Botany
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India: There has been a decline in the PDS Leakages in India over the last ten years. The major beneficiaries of the PDS are people from States that have a larger number of poor. Although cash transfer reduces leakage it may result in reduce the affordability of food. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
As per the latest NSSO Data there has been a decline in the leakages in the PDS in the last ten years. However, this value is itself very high. In 2011-12 it is estimated that nearly 46.7% of food grain was diverted.
Five States — Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and West Bengal — which are home to close to 60 per cent of India’s poor, accounted for almost 50 per cent of the total grain leakage in the country. As a result major beneficiaries of the PDS are people from States that have a smaller number of poor.
Cash transfer is an established practice world-wide to transfer benefits. It has proved to be more efficient and the chances of diversion of benefits are minimized. However, if cost of food grains in the market increases, and government fails to increase the subsidy as per the market prices, then it will reduce the capacity of poor to buy foodgrain equivalent to that distributed under PDS. Also, cash transfer may lead to inflation further increasing the food prices.
##Topic:Poverty & Unemployment, Poverty alleviation Programme & Employment Generation Programme##Subject:Botany##Answer:b
|
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.