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Which of the following reforms is/are attributed to Lord Cornwallis? The collector was divested of all judicial powers. Zamindars were deprived of all the police powers. Indianisation of civil services. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
The Police was under the Zamindars. It was taken away from Zamindars and handed over to the Superintendent of the Police at District level. The Police was Europeanized. They were now paid salary and given unlimited powers to arrest the suspected persons. Divesting the collector of all judicial and magisterial powers and left with him with the duty of administration of revenue. This was also known as Cornwallis code. The process of 'Indianisation of Civil Services' is not associated with Lord Cornwallis.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following reforms is/are attributed to Lord Cornwallis? The collector was divested of all judicial powers. Zamindars were deprived of all the police powers. Indianisation of civil services. Select the correct answer from the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Police was under the Zamindars. It was taken away from Zamindars and handed over to the Superintendent of the Police at District level. The Police was Europeanized. They were now paid salary and given unlimited powers to arrest the suspected persons. Divesting the collector of all judicial and magisterial powers and left with him with the duty of administration of revenue. This was also known as Cornwallis code. The process of 'Indianisation of Civil Services' is not associated with Lord Cornwallis.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has recently halted a hydro power project in Tawang due to threat to "black-necked crane". Consider the following statements about this bird: It is most commonly found in China. It is rated as vulnerable in the IUCN red list. It is the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The black-necked crane (Grus nigricollis) is a medium-sized crane that breeds on the Qinghai-Tibetan plateau, China, with a small population in adjacent Ladakh, India and Bhutan. A festival in Bhutan celebrates the bird while the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir considers it as the state bird. Great hornbill is the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh. The black-necked crane is evaluated as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence A is the correct answer.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has recently halted a hydro power project in Tawang due to threat to "black-necked crane". Consider the following statements about this bird: It is most commonly found in China. It is rated as vulnerable in the IUCN red list. It is the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The black-necked crane (Grus nigricollis) is a medium-sized crane that breeds on the Qinghai-Tibetan plateau, China, with a small population in adjacent Ladakh, India and Bhutan. A festival in Bhutan celebrates the bird while the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir considers it as the state bird. Great hornbill is the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh. The black-necked crane is evaluated as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence A is the correct answer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following plays are works of Bhasa? Madhyamavyayoga Ratnavali Urubhangam Devichandragupta Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Bhasa created plays mainly on themes drawn from the Mahabharata and the Ramayana. Madhyamvyayoga is a one act play where Bhima is involved in a conflict with his son Ghatotkatch who is unaware of bhima’s identity. Urubhangam depicts the death of Duryodhana. Other plays by Bhasa are Pratijnya Yaugandharayana, and Swapnavasadatta. Ratnavali is by Harsha. Devichandragupta is by Vishakhadutta and is about the rise to power of Chandragupta II.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following plays are works of Bhasa? Madhyamavyayoga Ratnavali Urubhangam Devichandragupta Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Bhasa created plays mainly on themes drawn from the Mahabharata and the Ramayana. Madhyamvyayoga is a one act play where Bhima is involved in a conflict with his son Ghatotkatch who is unaware of bhima’s identity. Urubhangam depicts the death of Duryodhana. Other plays by Bhasa are Pratijnya Yaugandharayana, and Swapnavasadatta. Ratnavali is by Harsha. Devichandragupta is by Vishakhadutta and is about the rise to power of Chandragupta II.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Speaker is empowered to frame rules to give effect to provisions of tenth schedule. Speaker can suo motu take up the case of defection. The decision of Speaker is subject to judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The presiding officer of the house is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the Tenth schedule. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The presiding officer can take up defection case only when he receives a complaint from a member of the house . Hence, statement 2 is not correct . In Kihoto Hollohan case Supreme court held that the presiding officer while deciding a question under the Tenth schedule functions as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fide. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Speaker is empowered to frame rules to give effect to provisions of tenth schedule. Speaker can suo motu take up the case of defection. The decision of Speaker is subject to judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The presiding officer of the house is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the Tenth schedule. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The presiding officer can take up defection case only when he receives a complaint from a member of the house . Hence, statement 2 is not correct . In Kihoto Hollohan case Supreme court held that the presiding officer while deciding a question under the Tenth schedule functions as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fide. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following hold their office during the pleasure of the President? Prime Minister Governor Advocate General Members of All India Services Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Article 75 states that Prime minister holds his office during the pleasure of the President. Article 156 states that governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 310 provides that every person who is a member of a defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an all India service or holds any post connected with defence or any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the President. The Advocate General holds his office during the pleasure of Governor while Attorney general holds his office during the pleasure of the President.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following hold their office during the pleasure of the President? Prime Minister Governor Advocate General Members of All India Services Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 75 states that Prime minister holds his office during the pleasure of the President. Article 156 states that governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 310 provides that every person who is a member of a defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an all India service or holds any post connected with defence or any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the President. The Advocate General holds his office during the pleasure of Governor while Attorney general holds his office during the pleasure of the President.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is correct about Silica Aerogel, a material developed by ISRO, recently seen in news? It is world’s lightest artificial material. It is a very good conductor of heat. It can be used in designing the space suits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Scientists from Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have indigenously developed world’s lightest synthetic material called 'silica aerogel' or 'blue air'. It is a heat insulating material. Silica Aerogel is the lightest synthetic material ever made by man. Dubbed frozen smoke, solid smoke or blue smoke owing to their translucent nature, aerogels are ultra-light materials derived from gel. Silica aerogel will find multiple uses. It can serve as a robust lightweight insulation for space suits, rovers and cryogenic-tanks on rockets. It can be used as 'fillers' in insulation jackets for soldiers deployed in extremely cold climate (ECC) regions and high altitudes, as it serves to keep the body warm. It can also be used in translucent window glazing and roofs to allow light to pass through but prevent heat transfer. For cold regions, it means heat can be trapped inside a room. Thus only statement 2 is wrong.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is correct about Silica Aerogel, a material developed by ISRO, recently seen in news? It is world’s lightest artificial material. It is a very good conductor of heat. It can be used in designing the space suits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Scientists from Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have indigenously developed world’s lightest synthetic material called 'silica aerogel' or 'blue air'. It is a heat insulating material. Silica Aerogel is the lightest synthetic material ever made by man. Dubbed frozen smoke, solid smoke or blue smoke owing to their translucent nature, aerogels are ultra-light materials derived from gel. Silica aerogel will find multiple uses. It can serve as a robust lightweight insulation for space suits, rovers and cryogenic-tanks on rockets. It can be used as 'fillers' in insulation jackets for soldiers deployed in extremely cold climate (ECC) regions and high altitudes, as it serves to keep the body warm. It can also be used in translucent window glazing and roofs to allow light to pass through but prevent heat transfer. For cold regions, it means heat can be trapped inside a room. Thus only statement 2 is wrong.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The term "mammography", often seen in news is related to which of the following?
|
A spectroscopic technique used to determine the chemical composition of proteins.
|
A carbon dating technique to determine the age of extinct species.
|
A medical imaging technique to detect the symptoms of breast cancer.
|
A spectroscopic technique used to determine the chemical composition of proteins.
|
Mammography is a specific type of breast imaging that uses low-dose x-rays to detect cancer early - before women experience symptoms - when it is most treatable. Mammography has gained popularity globally, as well as in India, over the years with the rising incidence of breast cancer. The IARC, the specialised cancer agency of the World Health Organisation, recommends mammography for women aged over 50 as now there is scientific evidence that it is effective in reducing breast cancer mortality for women in the 50-69 age-group, but has limited efficacy in the younger age band of 40 to 49. It states that the benefit of reduced mortality extends to women screened at age 70-74.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "mammography", often seen in news is related to which of the following?##Option_A: A spectroscopic technique used to determine the chemical composition of proteins.###Option_B: A carbon dating technique to determine the age of extinct species.##Option_C: A medical imaging technique to detect the symptoms of breast cancer.##Option_D: A spectroscopic technique used to determine the chemical composition of proteins.##Answer:c##Explaination:Mammography is a specific type of breast imaging that uses low-dose x-rays to detect cancer early - before women experience symptoms - when it is most treatable. Mammography has gained popularity globally, as well as in India, over the years with the rising incidence of breast cancer. The IARC, the specialised cancer agency of the World Health Organisation, recommends mammography for women aged over 50 as now there is scientific evidence that it is effective in reducing breast cancer mortality for women in the 50-69 age-group, but has limited efficacy in the younger age band of 40 to 49. It states that the benefit of reduced mortality extends to women screened at age 70-74.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another is done by:
|
Chief Justice of India only
|
Governor after consulting Chief Justice of India.
|
Chief Justice of India after consulting concerned Chief Justice of High Court.
|
Chief Justice of India only
|
The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another is done by: ##Option_A:Chief Justice of India only###Option_B:Governor after consulting Chief Justice of India.##Option_C:Chief Justice of India after consulting concerned Chief Justice of High Court.##Option_D:Chief Justice of India only##Answer:d##Explaination:The President can transfer a Judge from one High Court to another after consulting Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by the Parliament.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Prices of which of the following is/are not considered when measuring Core Inflation? Food Chemical Products Oil Prices Automobiles Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Core Inflation is also known as underlying inflation, is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement, notably food and energy. In other words, Core Inflation is nothing but Headline Inflation minus inflation that is contributed by food and energy commodities. To understand the concept in a better way we can say that food and fuel prices may go up in the short run due to some disturbance in the agriculture sector or oil economy. However, over the long term they tend to revert back to their normal trend growth. On the other hand, prices of other commodities do not fluctuate as regularly as food and fuel - as such increase in their prices could be taken relatively to be much more of a permanent nature. If this is so, then it follows logically for Central Banks to target only core inflation, as it reflects the demand side pressure in the economy.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Prices of which of the following is/are not considered when measuring Core Inflation? Food Chemical Products Oil Prices Automobiles Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Core Inflation is also known as underlying inflation, is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement, notably food and energy. In other words, Core Inflation is nothing but Headline Inflation minus inflation that is contributed by food and energy commodities. To understand the concept in a better way we can say that food and fuel prices may go up in the short run due to some disturbance in the agriculture sector or oil economy. However, over the long term they tend to revert back to their normal trend growth. On the other hand, prices of other commodities do not fluctuate as regularly as food and fuel - as such increase in their prices could be taken relatively to be much more of a permanent nature. If this is so, then it follows logically for Central Banks to target only core inflation, as it reflects the demand side pressure in the economy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
During Indus Valley Civilization seals were used for different activities. Which of the following was the main purpose for designing seals during that period?
|
Religious activities
|
Commerce
|
Toys
|
Religious activities
|
During IVC seals were used as ornaments(amulet made of seals), toys, religious dieties. But, the prominent reason for designing seals was for promotion of commercial activities. Seals of IVC were found in Mesopotamia and vice versa, which suggest the wide use of seals for the purpose of commerce.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:During Indus Valley Civilization seals were used for different activities. Which of the following was the main purpose for designing seals during that period?##Option_A: Religious activities###Option_B: Commerce##Option_C: Toys##Option_D: Religious activities##Answer:b##Explaination:During IVC seals were used as ornaments(amulet made of seals), toys, religious dieties. But, the prominent reason for designing seals was for promotion of commercial activities. Seals of IVC were found in Mesopotamia and vice versa, which suggest the wide use of seals for the purpose of commerce.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to "Heart of Asia" conference, consider the following statements: It provides a platform to discuss an agenda of regional cooperation with peaceful Syria at its centre. Only Asian countries are part of the process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Heart of Asia conference is a part of the 'Istanbul Process', which provides a platform to discuss an agenda of regional cooperation with Afghanistan at its centre. Hence, 1 st statement is incorrect. The member countries are: Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic, Pakistan, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, Turkey, Turkmenistan and the UAE. The United States, Japan, Egypt, the United Kingdom, France and Germany are among the supporting countries, while the UN, NATO, SAARC, SCO and OIC are among the supporting organisations. Hence, 2 nd statement is incorrect.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "Heart of Asia" conference, consider the following statements: It provides a platform to discuss an agenda of regional cooperation with peaceful Syria at its centre. Only Asian countries are part of the process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Heart of Asia conference is a part of the 'Istanbul Process', which provides a platform to discuss an agenda of regional cooperation with Afghanistan at its centre. Hence, 1 st statement is incorrect. The member countries are: Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic, Pakistan, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, Turkey, Turkmenistan and the UAE. The United States, Japan, Egypt, the United Kingdom, France and Germany are among the supporting countries, while the UN, NATO, SAARC, SCO and OIC are among the supporting organisations. Hence, 2 nd statement is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which among the following is/are included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Indian constitution? Ordinances enacted by the governor. Customs having the force of law. Constitutional Amendment Act. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Under Article 13, law includes any Ordinance, order, bye law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages having in the territory of India the force of law; laws in force includes laws passed or made by Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas. Article 13 declares that a Constitutional Amendment is not a law.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Indian constitution? Ordinances enacted by the governor. Customs having the force of law. Constitutional Amendment Act. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Under Article 13, law includes any Ordinance, order, bye law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages having in the territory of India the force of law; laws in force includes laws passed or made by Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas. Article 13 declares that a Constitutional Amendment is not a law.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to State Human rights commission (SHRC), consider the following statements: It can only be established for states and not for Union Territories. Its members are appointed and removed by the president. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct . Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to State Human rights commission (SHRC), consider the following statements: It can only be established for states and not for Union Territories. Its members are appointed and removed by the president. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Under the Human rights act, a state human rights commission can be be setup in a state only and not in union territories. Cases of human rights violation in union territories are taken up by National Human rights commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct . Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Padmapani and Vajrapani are:
|
Boddhisatvas
|
Disciples of Buddha
|
Followers of Mahavira
|
Boddhisatvas
|
These are Boddhisatvas. Padmapani holds a Padma (lotus) in his hand. Vajrapani holds a vajra in his right hand. Padmapani is also known as Avalokiteshwar. The paintings of padmapani and Vajrapani in Ajanta are masterpieces of art. Boddhisatva denotes a person with immeasurable compassion, who is on the path of buddhahood. Buddha himself called as boddhisatva before he attained enlightenment.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Padmapani and Vajrapani are:##Option_A: Boddhisatvas###Option_B: Disciples of Buddha##Option_C: Followers of Mahavira##Option_D: Boddhisatvas##Answer:a##Explaination:These are Boddhisatvas. Padmapani holds a Padma (lotus) in his hand. Vajrapani holds a vajra in his right hand. Padmapani is also known as Avalokiteshwar. The paintings of padmapani and Vajrapani in Ajanta are masterpieces of art. Boddhisatva denotes a person with immeasurable compassion, who is on the path of buddhahood. Buddha himself called as boddhisatva before he attained enlightenment.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: Birth rate is the number of babies born for every 1,000 people during a particular period of time. Infant mortality rate is the number of infants that die in the first 30 days of life per 1000 live births. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The birth rate is the total number of live births per 1,000 of a population in a year. The infant mortality rate (IMR) is the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1,000 live births. This rate is often used as an indicator of the level of health in a country. A neonatal death is defined as a death during the first 30 days of life. It is a crucial indicator of nutrition given to an infant. Indian has a high neonatal mortality rate. 70% of all the infants die in the first month. Thus statement 2 is wrong.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Birth rate is the number of babies born for every 1,000 people during a particular period of time. Infant mortality rate is the number of infants that die in the first 30 days of life per 1000 live births. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The birth rate is the total number of live births per 1,000 of a population in a year. The infant mortality rate (IMR) is the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1,000 live births. This rate is often used as an indicator of the level of health in a country. A neonatal death is defined as a death during the first 30 days of life. It is a crucial indicator of nutrition given to an infant. Indian has a high neonatal mortality rate. 70% of all the infants die in the first month. Thus statement 2 is wrong.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Oceanic Currents, consider the following statements: Surface oceanic currents contribute maximum to the overall oceanic circulation. West coast of the continents near the equator are surrounded by cold current. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Surface current constitute 10% of the overall ocean currents and rest is covered by deep ocean currents. Most of the visible impacts of currents like mixing of waters (cold and hot) are seen at surface level while deep ocean currents are primarily known for thermohaline circulation. On the west coast near the equator current is cold this is attributed to two reasons basically; Absence of coriolis force Due to equatorial and counter equatorial current.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Oceanic Currents, consider the following statements: Surface oceanic currents contribute maximum to the overall oceanic circulation. West coast of the continents near the equator are surrounded by cold current. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Surface current constitute 10% of the overall ocean currents and rest is covered by deep ocean currents. Most of the visible impacts of currents like mixing of waters (cold and hot) are seen at surface level while deep ocean currents are primarily known for thermohaline circulation. On the west coast near the equator current is cold this is attributed to two reasons basically; Absence of coriolis force Due to equatorial and counter equatorial current.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following passage about a volcano: "These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent openings leading to formation of layers. Famous examples include Mount Fuji in Japan and Mount Cotopaxi in Ecuador." Which of the following volcanoes is best described by the above passage?
|
Composite volcano
|
Shield volcano
|
Cinder
|
Composite volcano
|
Composite volcanoes, sometimes called stratovolcanoes, are typically deep-sided, symmetrical cones of large dimension built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, cinders, blocks, and bombs and may rise as much as 8,000 ft above their bases. The most majestic of the volcanoes are composite volcanoes, also known as strato-volcanoes. Unlike the shield volcanoes which are flat and broad, composite volcanoes are tall, symmetrically shaped, with steep sides, sometimes rising 10,000 feet high. They are built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, cinders, blocks, and bombs. Famous composite volcanoes include Mount Fuji in Japan, Mount Cotopaxi in Ecuador, Mount Shasta and Lassen in California, MountHood in Oregon, Mount St. Helens and Mount Rainier in Washington, Mt Pinatubo in the Philipenes, and Mt. Etna in Italy
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following passage about a volcano: "These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent openings leading to formation of layers. Famous examples include Mount Fuji in Japan and Mount Cotopaxi in Ecuador." Which of the following volcanoes is best described by the above passage?##Option_A: Composite volcano###Option_B: Shield volcano##Option_C: Cinder##Option_D: Composite volcano##Answer:a##Explaination:Composite volcanoes, sometimes called stratovolcanoes, are typically deep-sided, symmetrical cones of large dimension built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, cinders, blocks, and bombs and may rise as much as 8,000 ft above their bases. The most majestic of the volcanoes are composite volcanoes, also known as strato-volcanoes. Unlike the shield volcanoes which are flat and broad, composite volcanoes are tall, symmetrically shaped, with steep sides, sometimes rising 10,000 feet high. They are built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, cinders, blocks, and bombs. Famous composite volcanoes include Mount Fuji in Japan, Mount Cotopaxi in Ecuador, Mount Shasta and Lassen in California, MountHood in Oregon, Mount St. Helens and Mount Rainier in Washington, Mt Pinatubo in the Philipenes, and Mt. Etna in Italy##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
The stand taken by the Indian National Congress on the eve of World War II was:
|
to provide unconditional support to British war efforts.
|
to take advantage of Britain"s difficulties and start a mass movement.
|
to neither take advantage of the ongoing situation nor supporting the British war efforts.
|
to provide unconditional support to British war efforts.
|
The World War II broke out in 1939 and Britain declared India's support for war. This was condemned by Indian leaders. On this juncture, Mahatma Gandhi proposed to support the British efforts as they were fighting against the Nazis. The leftists on the other hand demanded to start a nationwide movement to take advantage of weaker position of Britain. Nehru devised a middle path, he suggested restraining from any movement but also not to support the British efforts in the War. Eventually the Congress decided that neither to take advantage of the ongoing situation nor supporting the British war efforts.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The stand taken by the Indian National Congress on the eve of World War II was:##Option_A: to provide unconditional support to British war efforts.###Option_B: to take advantage of Britain"s difficulties and start a mass movement.##Option_C: to neither take advantage of the ongoing situation nor supporting the British war efforts.##Option_D: to provide unconditional support to British war efforts.##Answer:c##Explaination:The World War II broke out in 1939 and Britain declared India's support for war. This was condemned by Indian leaders. On this juncture, Mahatma Gandhi proposed to support the British efforts as they were fighting against the Nazis. The leftists on the other hand demanded to start a nationwide movement to take advantage of weaker position of Britain. Nehru devised a middle path, he suggested restraining from any movement but also not to support the British efforts in the War. Eventually the Congress decided that neither to take advantage of the ongoing situation nor supporting the British war efforts. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which of the following art was the first Indian craft to receive the status of geographical indication (GI) protection?
|
Aranmula Kannadi
|
Jamdani
|
Kalamkari painting
|
Aranmula Kannadi
|
The exquisite Aranmula Mirror or "Aranmula Kannadi" is a very special type of metal mirror produced only in Aranmula, a village in the state of Kerala in India. Aranmula metal mirror is a rare piece of craft that had existed even during the Vedic period of Indian history. The myth about the origin and secret of its composition makes it a truly fascinating craft. As traditional as the mirror-making technology is, the artisans' belief that the composition of the metal mirror is divine and some undisclosed metals alloyed with silver, bronze, copper and tin are responsible for the distortion-free images.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following art was the first Indian craft to receive the status of geographical indication (GI) protection?##Option_A: Aranmula Kannadi###Option_B: Jamdani##Option_C: Kalamkari painting##Option_D: Aranmula Kannadi##Answer:a##Explaination:The exquisite Aranmula Mirror or "Aranmula Kannadi" is a very special type of metal mirror produced only in Aranmula, a village in the state of Kerala in India. Aranmula metal mirror is a rare piece of craft that had existed even during the Vedic period of Indian history. The myth about the origin and secret of its composition makes it a truly fascinating craft. As traditional as the mirror-making technology is, the artisans' belief that the composition of the metal mirror is divine and some undisclosed metals alloyed with silver, bronze, copper and tin are responsible for the distortion-free images.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
The planet Mercury appears dark due to which of the following reasons?
|
abundance of carbon that originated deep below the surface of Mercury.
|
total absorption of the sunlight that is incident upon the Mercury.
|
abundance of iron-rich minerals on Mercury surface.
|
abundance of carbon that originated deep below the surface of Mercury.
|
Mercury appears to be dark due to the abundance of carbon that originated deep below the surface of our solar system's innermost planet, a new study has found. They have also found that the carbon most likely originated deep below the surface in the form of a now-disrupted and buried ancient graphite-rich crust, some of which was later brought to the surface by impact processes after most of Mercury's current crust had formed.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The planet Mercury appears dark due to which of the following reasons?##Option_A: abundance of carbon that originated deep below the surface of Mercury.###Option_B: total absorption of the sunlight that is incident upon the Mercury.##Option_C: abundance of iron-rich minerals on Mercury surface.##Option_D: abundance of carbon that originated deep below the surface of Mercury.##Answer:a##Explaination:Mercury appears to be dark due to the abundance of carbon that originated deep below the surface of our solar system's innermost planet, a new study has found. They have also found that the carbon most likely originated deep below the surface in the form of a now-disrupted and buried ancient graphite-rich crust, some of which was later brought to the surface by impact processes after most of Mercury's current crust had formed.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
With reference to Insolation received by the earth"s surface, consider the following statements: At the same latitude, the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. Maximum insolation is received at the Equator. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans, since insolation depends on the transparency of the atmosphere. There is more cloud formation over the oceans. Statement 2 is incorrect. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Insolation received by the earth"s surface, consider the following statements: At the same latitude, the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. Maximum insolation is received at the Equator. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans, since insolation depends on the transparency of the atmosphere. There is more cloud formation over the oceans. Statement 2 is incorrect. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Jallianwala Bagh massacre, consider the following statements: British government constituted Hunter committee to inquire about it. House of Lords in Britain endorsed General Dyer"s action in Jallianwala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The Hunter Commission was immediate step taken by British government after Jallianwala Massacre incident in order to satisfy the demand of Indians to enquire about it. Statement 2 is correct. The House of Lords in British Parliament voted in favor of General Dyer.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Jallianwala Bagh massacre, consider the following statements: British government constituted Hunter committee to inquire about it. House of Lords in Britain endorsed General Dyer"s action in Jallianwala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The Hunter Commission was immediate step taken by British government after Jallianwala Massacre incident in order to satisfy the demand of Indians to enquire about it. Statement 2 is correct. The House of Lords in British Parliament voted in favor of General Dyer.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Which of the following acts empowered Viceroy to issue ordinances in India?
|
Indian Council Act, 1861
|
Indian Council Act, 1892
|
Indian Council Act, 1909
|
Indian Council Act, 1861
|
The Indian Councils Act, 1861 empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without, the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following acts empowered Viceroy to issue ordinances in India?##Option_A: Indian Council Act, 1861###Option_B: Indian Council Act, 1892##Option_C: Indian Council Act, 1909##Option_D: Indian Council Act, 1861##Answer:a##Explaination:The Indian Councils Act, 1861 empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without, the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: The Preamble is an integral part of the constitution. The provisions of the Preamble can be enforced by the law. It can work as source of power to the legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect: The provisions of the Preamble are not justiciable in nature. Statement 3 is incorrect: Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements: The Preamble is an integral part of the constitution. The provisions of the Preamble can be enforced by the law. It can work as source of power to the legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect: The provisions of the Preamble are not justiciable in nature. Statement 3 is incorrect: Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to recently adopted Hiroshima Declaration, consider the following statements: It aims to revitalise the momentum for the effort toward making a world without nuclear weapons It has been adopted by permanent members of United Nations security council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Hiroshima declaration aims to revitalise the momentum for the effort toward making a world without nuclear weapons. The declaration was adopted by Group of 7 (G-7) countries Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK and US. Hiroshima Declaration reaffirms commitment of G-7 countries’ to seek a safer world for all and create the conditions for a world without nuclear weapons to promote international stability. It calls for creating the conditions without nuclear weapons in a way that promotes international stability.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to recently adopted Hiroshima Declaration, consider the following statements: It aims to revitalise the momentum for the effort toward making a world without nuclear weapons It has been adopted by permanent members of United Nations security council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Hiroshima declaration aims to revitalise the momentum for the effort toward making a world without nuclear weapons. The declaration was adopted by Group of 7 (G-7) countries Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK and US. Hiroshima Declaration reaffirms commitment of G-7 countries’ to seek a safer world for all and create the conditions for a world without nuclear weapons to promote international stability. It calls for creating the conditions without nuclear weapons in a way that promotes international stability.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
What is the correct sequence in decreasing order of albedo for the following? Clouds Forest Sand Snow Cover Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
4-1-2-3
|
4-1-3-2
|
4-3-1-2
|
4-1-2-3
|
Albedo is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation) reflected from the Earth back into space. It is a measure of the reflectivity of the earth's surface. Ice, especially with snow on top of it, has a high albedo: most sunlight hitting the surface bounces back towards space. Water is much more absorbent and less reflective. Fresh snow or ice = 60-90% or 80-95%, Old, melting snow = 40-70%, Sea ice = 25-60%, Clouds = 40-90%, Forest = 5-20% or 10-20%, Tropical forests = 13% or Woodland = 14%, Crops or grasslands = 10-25%, Grasslands = 18-25% or 20%, Grass = 25-30%, Soil = 5-30%, Water = 5-10% or 8-10% or 10-60%, Clouds = 40-90%, Desert sand = 30-50% or Sandy desert = 37%, Stony desert = 24%, Tundra = 15-35%, Asphalt = 5-10% or 4-12%, Concrete (dry) = 17-27% or 55%, Brick or stone = 20-40%, Dark roof = 8-18% or Light roof = 35-50%, Moon = 6-14% (some bright areas 17-30%).
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the correct sequence in decreasing order of albedo for the following? Clouds Forest Sand Snow Cover Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 4-1-2-3###Option_B: 4-1-3-2##Option_C: 4-3-1-2##Option_D: 4-1-2-3##Answer:b##Explaination:Albedo is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation) reflected from the Earth back into space. It is a measure of the reflectivity of the earth's surface. Ice, especially with snow on top of it, has a high albedo: most sunlight hitting the surface bounces back towards space. Water is much more absorbent and less reflective. Fresh snow or ice = 60-90% or 80-95%, Old, melting snow = 40-70%, Sea ice = 25-60%, Clouds = 40-90%, Forest = 5-20% or 10-20%, Tropical forests = 13% or Woodland = 14%, Crops or grasslands = 10-25%, Grasslands = 18-25% or 20%, Grass = 25-30%, Soil = 5-30%, Water = 5-10% or 8-10% or 10-60%, Clouds = 40-90%, Desert sand = 30-50% or Sandy desert = 37%, Stony desert = 24%, Tundra = 15-35%, Asphalt = 5-10% or 4-12%, Concrete (dry) = 17-27% or 55%, Brick or stone = 20-40%, Dark roof = 8-18% or Light roof = 35-50%, Moon = 6-14% (some bright areas 17-30%).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to Committee on Public Undertakings, consider the following statements: Its members are drawn from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee. The Chairman has to be a member of Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members-fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct. A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Committee on Public Undertakings, consider the following statements: Its members are drawn from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee. The Chairman has to be a member of Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members-fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, 1st statement is correct. A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. Only Lok Sabha member can become the chairman of the committee. Hence, 3rd statement is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Government has recently setup Ashok Dalwai committee for which of the following purpose?
|
To suggest ways for doubling farmer"s income by 2020.
|
To suggest ways to reduce accidents in railways.
|
To suggest ways to increase the tax base.
|
To suggest ways for doubling farmer"s income by 2020.
|
The Union Government has recently constituted 8-member inter-ministerial committee to prepare a blueprint for doubling farmers’ income by 2022. The committee will be headed by Ashok Dalwai, Additional secretary at the Union Agriculture Ministry and is expected to submit the report in two months. Its members will include officials from Agriculture and Food Ministries, experts from the Delhi-based National Council of Applied Economic Research and National Institute of Agricultural Economics and Policy Research.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Government has recently setup Ashok Dalwai committee for which of the following purpose?##Option_A: To suggest ways for doubling farmer"s income by 2020.###Option_B: To suggest ways to reduce accidents in railways.##Option_C: To suggest ways to increase the tax base.##Option_D: To suggest ways for doubling farmer"s income by 2020.##Answer:a##Explaination:The Union Government has recently constituted 8-member inter-ministerial committee to prepare a blueprint for doubling farmers’ income by 2022. The committee will be headed by Ashok Dalwai, Additional secretary at the Union Agriculture Ministry and is expected to submit the report in two months. Its members will include officials from Agriculture and Food Ministries, experts from the Delhi-based National Council of Applied Economic Research and National Institute of Agricultural Economics and Policy Research.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following conditions may be considered by Indian Metereological Department (IMD) to declare the onset of the Northeast Monsoon? Withdrawal of south west Monsoon upto 15º N Onset of persistent surface easterlies over Tamil Nadu coast Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Criteria for Declaring Onset of Northeast Monsoon by IMD: For declaring onset of Northeast Monsoon following criteria may be considered: Withdrawal of south west Monsoon upto 15ºN. Onset of persistent surface easterlies over Tamil Nadu coast. Depth of easterlies upto 850 hpa over Tamil Nadu coast. Fairly widespread rainfall over the coastal Tamil Nadu and adjoining areas. Onset is not to be declared before 10th October even, if the conditions described above exist.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following conditions may be considered by Indian Metereological Department (IMD) to declare the onset of the Northeast Monsoon? Withdrawal of south west Monsoon upto 15º N Onset of persistent surface easterlies over Tamil Nadu coast Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Criteria for Declaring Onset of Northeast Monsoon by IMD: For declaring onset of Northeast Monsoon following criteria may be considered: Withdrawal of south west Monsoon upto 15ºN. Onset of persistent surface easterlies over Tamil Nadu coast. Depth of easterlies upto 850 hpa over Tamil Nadu coast. Fairly widespread rainfall over the coastal Tamil Nadu and adjoining areas. Onset is not to be declared before 10th October even, if the conditions described above exist.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
What is the significance of Manx comet recently seen in news?
|
It was used by Isaac Newton to verify Kepler"s law.
|
It is a first discovered tail-less comet.
|
It becomes visible from Earth after every 75 years.
|
It was used by Isaac Newton to verify Kepler"s law.
|
Astronomers have found a first-of-its-kind tailless comet whose composition may offer clues into long-standing questions about the solar system’s formation and evolution. The so-called "Manx" comet, named after a breed of cats without tails, was made of rocky materials that are normally found near Earth. Most comets are made of ice and other frozen compounds and were formed in solar system’s frigid far reaches.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is the significance of Manx comet recently seen in news?##Option_A: It was used by Isaac Newton to verify Kepler"s law.###Option_B: It is a first discovered tail-less comet.##Option_C: It becomes visible from Earth after every 75 years.##Option_D: It was used by Isaac Newton to verify Kepler"s law.##Answer:b##Explaination:Astronomers have found a first-of-its-kind tailless comet whose composition may offer clues into long-standing questions about the solar system’s formation and evolution. The so-called "Manx" comet, named after a breed of cats without tails, was made of rocky materials that are normally found near Earth. Most comets are made of ice and other frozen compounds and were formed in solar system’s frigid far reaches.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to "Quick Employment Survey" consider the following statement: It assesses the impact of economic slowdown on employment in India. It covers both manual and non-manual workers. It is conducted by Labour Bureau under Ministry of Labour and Employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The 'Quick Employment Survey' is being conducted by Labour Bureau since January 2009 to assess the impact of economic slowdown on employment in India. The economic slowdown which had engulfed the world economy had its implications on the domestic economy. The Ministry of Labour and Employment took a serious note of the economic slowdown and felt the need to assess the impact of the crisis on employment. The Quick Employment Surveys are quarterly surveys. The survey is conducted in Textiles, Metals, Automobiles, Gems & Jewellery, Transport, IT/BPO, Mining, leather and handloom/power loom. The Quick Employment Survey tries to capture changes in level of employment in two categories- Direct and contract covering both manual and non-manual workers. Hence all statements are correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to "Quick Employment Survey" consider the following statement: It assesses the impact of economic slowdown on employment in India. It covers both manual and non-manual workers. It is conducted by Labour Bureau under Ministry of Labour and Employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The 'Quick Employment Survey' is being conducted by Labour Bureau since January 2009 to assess the impact of economic slowdown on employment in India. The economic slowdown which had engulfed the world economy had its implications on the domestic economy. The Ministry of Labour and Employment took a serious note of the economic slowdown and felt the need to assess the impact of the crisis on employment. The Quick Employment Surveys are quarterly surveys. The survey is conducted in Textiles, Metals, Automobiles, Gems & Jewellery, Transport, IT/BPO, Mining, leather and handloom/power loom. The Quick Employment Survey tries to capture changes in level of employment in two categories- Direct and contract covering both manual and non-manual workers. Hence all statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Election commission of India, consider the following statements: The Parliament has the power to decide the number of election commissioners. The salary of Election Commissioner is a charged expenditure on the Consolidated fund of India. The Election Commissioners are not barred from further employment under the Government after retirement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India . Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Election commission of India, consider the following statements: The Parliament has the power to decide the number of election commissioners. The salary of Election Commissioner is a charged expenditure on the Consolidated fund of India. The Election Commissioners are not barred from further employment under the Government after retirement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The salary of Election commissioner is not a charged expenditure on the consolidated fund of India . Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further employment under the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following best illustrates the Cascading Effect in an economy?
|
lower bank rates by Central Bank leading to higher rate of interest of loan for public.
|
tax imposition leading to disproportionate rise in prices.
|
devaluation of a currency leading to decline in exports of a country.
|
lower bank rates by Central Bank leading to higher rate of interest of loan for public.
|
When tax imposition leads to a disproportionate rise in prices, i.e. by an extent more than the rise in tax, it is known as cascading effect. A cascade tax is a type of turnover tax with each successive transfer being taxed inclusive of any previous cascade taxes being levied. Because each successive turnovers includes the taxes of all previous turnovers, the end tax amount will be greater than the cascade tax rate. This can lead to disproportionate rise in prices.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best illustrates the Cascading Effect in an economy?##Option_A: lower bank rates by Central Bank leading to higher rate of interest of loan for public.###Option_B: tax imposition leading to disproportionate rise in prices.##Option_C: devaluation of a currency leading to decline in exports of a country.##Option_D: lower bank rates by Central Bank leading to higher rate of interest of loan for public.##Answer:b##Explaination:When tax imposition leads to a disproportionate rise in prices, i.e. by an extent more than the rise in tax, it is known as cascading effect. A cascade tax is a type of turnover tax with each successive transfer being taxed inclusive of any previous cascade taxes being levied. Because each successive turnovers includes the taxes of all previous turnovers, the end tax amount will be greater than the cascade tax rate. This can lead to disproportionate rise in prices.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following entities may be engaged as Banking Correspondents (BCs) by Banks in India? Post Offices NGOs Micro Finance Institutions Non-banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) Cooperative Societies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
Banking Correspondents (BCs) are individuals/entities engaged by a bank in India (commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Local Area Banks (LABs)) for providing banking services in unbanked / under-banked geographical territories. A banking correspondent works as an agent of the bank and substitutes for the brick and mortar branch of the bank. The banks in India may engage the following individuals/entities as BCs. The banks in India may engage the following individuals/entities as BCs: Individuals like retired bank employees, retired teachers, retired government employees and ex-servicemen, individual owners of kirana (small shops) / medical /Fair Price shops, individual Public Call Office (PCO) operators, agents of Small Savings schemes of Government of India/Insurance Companies, individuals who own petrol pumps, authorized functionaries of well-run Self Help Groups (SHGs) which are linked to banks, any other individual including those operating Common Service Centres (CSCs); NGOs/ Micro Finance Institutions set up under Societies/ Trust Acts or as Section 25 Companies ; Cooperative Societies registered under Mutually Aided Cooperative Societies Acts/ Cooperative Societies Acts of States/Multi State Cooperative Societies Act; Post Offices; Companies registered under the Indian Companies Act, 2013 with large and widespread retail outlets Non-banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) were not allowed to be appointed as Business Correspondents (BCs) by banks. However, since June 2014 banks have been permitted to engage non-deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) as BCs, subject to certain conditions.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following entities may be engaged as Banking Correspondents (BCs) by Banks in India? Post Offices NGOs Micro Finance Institutions Non-banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) Cooperative Societies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 5 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Banking Correspondents (BCs) are individuals/entities engaged by a bank in India (commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Local Area Banks (LABs)) for providing banking services in unbanked / under-banked geographical territories. A banking correspondent works as an agent of the bank and substitutes for the brick and mortar branch of the bank. The banks in India may engage the following individuals/entities as BCs. The banks in India may engage the following individuals/entities as BCs: Individuals like retired bank employees, retired teachers, retired government employees and ex-servicemen, individual owners of kirana (small shops) / medical /Fair Price shops, individual Public Call Office (PCO) operators, agents of Small Savings schemes of Government of India/Insurance Companies, individuals who own petrol pumps, authorized functionaries of well-run Self Help Groups (SHGs) which are linked to banks, any other individual including those operating Common Service Centres (CSCs); NGOs/ Micro Finance Institutions set up under Societies/ Trust Acts or as Section 25 Companies ; Cooperative Societies registered under Mutually Aided Cooperative Societies Acts/ Cooperative Societies Acts of States/Multi State Cooperative Societies Act; Post Offices; Companies registered under the Indian Companies Act, 2013 with large and widespread retail outlets Non-banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) were not allowed to be appointed as Business Correspondents (BCs) by banks. However, since June 2014 banks have been permitted to engage non-deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) as BCs, subject to certain conditions.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following factors affect the drainage pattern of a river or stream? Periodicity of flow Amount of water flowing Slope Nature and structure of rock Select the correct answer using codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The flow of water through well-defined channels is known as 'drainage' and the network of such channels is called a ‘drainage system’. The drainage pattern of an area is the outcome of or depends upon: the geological time period nature and structure of rocks topography slope amount of water flowing and the periodicity of the flow
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following factors affect the drainage pattern of a river or stream? Periodicity of flow Amount of water flowing Slope Nature and structure of rock Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The flow of water through well-defined channels is known as 'drainage' and the network of such channels is called a ‘drainage system’. The drainage pattern of an area is the outcome of or depends upon: the geological time period nature and structure of rocks topography slope amount of water flowing and the periodicity of the flow##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Credit Impulse: It is measured as the change in new credit issued as a percentage of GDP. It emphasizes that "spending" is a flow variable and not a stock variable. It is negatively correlated with investment growth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Credit impulse is measured as the change in new credit issued as a percentage of the gross domestic product (GDP). The concept emphasizes that spending is a flow and as such it should be compared with net new lending, a flow, rather than credit outstanding, which is a stock. The studies, analysing credit flow data since 2008 covering several countries, have shown that investment growth is very closely correlated (positively correlated) with credit impulse. Credit impulse has shown a consistent rise since March 2015 and this is also reflected in the real investment growth rate.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Credit Impulse: It is measured as the change in new credit issued as a percentage of GDP. It emphasizes that "spending" is a flow variable and not a stock variable. It is negatively correlated with investment growth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Credit impulse is measured as the change in new credit issued as a percentage of the gross domestic product (GDP). The concept emphasizes that spending is a flow and as such it should be compared with net new lending, a flow, rather than credit outstanding, which is a stock. The studies, analysing credit flow data since 2008 covering several countries, have shown that investment growth is very closely correlated (positively correlated) with credit impulse. Credit impulse has shown a consistent rise since March 2015 and this is also reflected in the real investment growth rate.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to the European Molecular Biology Organisation (EMBO), consider the following statements: The major goal of the organization is to support talented researchers at all stages of their careers. India through the Department of Biotechnology is an associate Member of EMBO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
India through the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology signed a Cooperation Agreement to acquire the status of the Associate Member State European Molecular Biology Organisation (EMBO). This would strengthen scientific interaction and collaborative research between India and Europe in this field. After the signing of an agreement with Singapore by EMBC in July 2015, India will now become second such country outside the European region. EMBO is an organization of more than 1700 leading researchers that promotes excellence in the life sciences. The major goals of the organization are to support talented researchers at all stages of their careers, stimulate the exchange of scientific information. The movement was started in 1964 as European Molecular Biology Conference (EMBC) and subsequently it got intergovernmental funding.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the European Molecular Biology Organisation (EMBO), consider the following statements: The major goal of the organization is to support talented researchers at all stages of their careers. India through the Department of Biotechnology is an associate Member of EMBO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:India through the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology signed a Cooperation Agreement to acquire the status of the Associate Member State European Molecular Biology Organisation (EMBO). This would strengthen scientific interaction and collaborative research between India and Europe in this field. After the signing of an agreement with Singapore by EMBC in July 2015, India will now become second such country outside the European region. EMBO is an organization of more than 1700 leading researchers that promotes excellence in the life sciences. The major goals of the organization are to support talented researchers at all stages of their careers, stimulate the exchange of scientific information. The movement was started in 1964 as European Molecular Biology Conference (EMBC) and subsequently it got intergovernmental funding.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Region in news Country 1. Ashgabat : Uzbekistan 2. Bay of Pigs : Cuba 3. Sittwe : Bangladesh Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Ashgabat is the capital and the largest city of Turkmenistan. Recently the Union Cabinet has given its approval for India to accede to the Ashgabat Agreement, an international transport and transit corridor facilitating transportation of goods between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf. The Bay of Pigs is an inlet of the Gulf of Cazones located on the southern coast of Cuba. US had attempted to invade it in 1961. US-Cuba relationship has seen major developments recently. Sittwe is the capital of Rakhine State, Myanmar. India intends utilising the Myanmar port of Sittwe to send goods upstream via the Kaladan river.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Region in news Country 1. Ashgabat : Uzbekistan 2. Bay of Pigs : Cuba 3. Sittwe : Bangladesh Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Ashgabat is the capital and the largest city of Turkmenistan. Recently the Union Cabinet has given its approval for India to accede to the Ashgabat Agreement, an international transport and transit corridor facilitating transportation of goods between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf. The Bay of Pigs is an inlet of the Gulf of Cazones located on the southern coast of Cuba. US had attempted to invade it in 1961. US-Cuba relationship has seen major developments recently. Sittwe is the capital of Rakhine State, Myanmar. India intends utilising the Myanmar port of Sittwe to send goods upstream via the Kaladan river.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the statement given below about Bureau of Energy Efficiency is/are correct? It gives financial assistance to institutions for promoting efficient use of energy. It is a statutory body under Energy Conservation Act, 2001. It works under Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Government of India set up Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing energy intensity of the Indian economy. It promote use of energy efficient processes, equipment, devices and systems and undertakes measures against the wasteful use of electricity. It also gives financial assistance to institutions for promoting efficient use of energy and its conservation. It works under Ministry of Power. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the statement given below about Bureau of Energy Efficiency is/are correct? It gives financial assistance to institutions for promoting efficient use of energy. It is a statutory body under Energy Conservation Act, 2001. It works under Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Government of India set up Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing energy intensity of the Indian economy. It promote use of energy efficient processes, equipment, devices and systems and undertakes measures against the wasteful use of electricity. It also gives financial assistance to institutions for promoting efficient use of energy and its conservation. It works under Ministry of Power. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Reported gross domestic product is adjusted for inflation. The growth of unadjusted GDP may mean which of the following in an economy? More production at the same prices. Same production at higher prices. More production at higher prices. Less production at much higher prices. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The growth of unadjusted GDP means that an economy has experienced one of five scenarios: Produced more at the same prices. Produced the same amount at higher prices. Produced more at higher prices. Produced much more at lower prices. Produced less at much higher prices. Each of the other three scenarios has been witnessed and either immediately or eventually causes higher prices or inflation. Scenario 1 implies that production is being increased to meet increased demand. Increased production leads to a lower unemployment rate, further increasing demand. Increased wages lead to higher demand as consumers spend more freely. This leads to higher GDP combined with inflation. Scenario 2 implies that there is no increased demand from consumers, but that prices are higher. Through the early 2000s many producers were faced with increased costs due to the rapidly rising price of oil. Both GDP and inflation increase in this scenario. These increases are due to decreased supply of key commodities and consumer expectations, rather than increased demand. Scenario 3 implies that there is both increased demand and shortage of supply. Businesses must hire more employees, further increasing demand by increasing wages. Increased demand in the face of decreased supply quickly forces prices up. In this scenario, GDP and inflation both increase at a rate that is unsustainable and is difficult for policymakers to influence or control. Scenario 4 is unheard of in modern democratic economies for any sustained period and would be an example of a deflationary growth environment. Scenario 5 is very similar to what the United States experienced in the 1970s and is often referred to as stagflation. GDP rises slowly, below the desired level, yet inflation persists and unemployment remains high due to low production.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Reported gross domestic product is adjusted for inflation. The growth of unadjusted GDP may mean which of the following in an economy? More production at the same prices. Same production at higher prices. More production at higher prices. Less production at much higher prices. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The growth of unadjusted GDP means that an economy has experienced one of five scenarios: Produced more at the same prices. Produced the same amount at higher prices. Produced more at higher prices. Produced much more at lower prices. Produced less at much higher prices. Each of the other three scenarios has been witnessed and either immediately or eventually causes higher prices or inflation. Scenario 1 implies that production is being increased to meet increased demand. Increased production leads to a lower unemployment rate, further increasing demand. Increased wages lead to higher demand as consumers spend more freely. This leads to higher GDP combined with inflation. Scenario 2 implies that there is no increased demand from consumers, but that prices are higher. Through the early 2000s many producers were faced with increased costs due to the rapidly rising price of oil. Both GDP and inflation increase in this scenario. These increases are due to decreased supply of key commodities and consumer expectations, rather than increased demand. Scenario 3 implies that there is both increased demand and shortage of supply. Businesses must hire more employees, further increasing demand by increasing wages. Increased demand in the face of decreased supply quickly forces prices up. In this scenario, GDP and inflation both increase at a rate that is unsustainable and is difficult for policymakers to influence or control. Scenario 4 is unheard of in modern democratic economies for any sustained period and would be an example of a deflationary growth environment. Scenario 5 is very similar to what the United States experienced in the 1970s and is often referred to as stagflation. GDP rises slowly, below the desired level, yet inflation persists and unemployment remains high due to low production.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Kuta, Ayatasra, Gaja-Prishta, Vritta and Ashtasra are the terms used in context of:
|
Types of Nagara style temples
|
Types of Dravidian style temples
|
Types of Vesara style temples
|
Types of Nagara style temples
|
These are the sub divisions of the Dravidian style of temples depending on shape: Kuta is square Ayatasra or shala is rectangular Gaja Prishta is elephant backed, also called vrittayata Vritta is circular Ashtasra is octagonal This is simplistic differentiation. Several different shapes may be combined to create new styles.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Kuta, Ayatasra, Gaja-Prishta, Vritta and Ashtasra are the terms used in context of:##Option_A:Types of Nagara style temples###Option_B:Types of Dravidian style temples##Option_C:Types of Vesara style temples##Option_D:Types of Nagara style temples##Answer:b##Explaination:These are the sub divisions of the Dravidian style of temples depending on shape: Kuta is square Ayatasra or shala is rectangular Gaja Prishta is elephant backed, also called vrittayata Vritta is circular Ashtasra is octagonal This is simplistic differentiation. Several different shapes may be combined to create new styles.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following belts found in the northern plains: Alluvial plains Tarai Bhabar What is the correct order in which these belts occur from North to South?
|
1-3-2
|
1-2-3
|
3-2-1
|
1-3-2
|
From the north to the south, the northern plains can be divided into three major zones: the Bhabar, the Tarai and the alluvial plains. The alluvial plains can be further divided into the Khadar and the Bhangar. Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break-up of the slope. South of the Bhabar is the Tarai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km. The south of Tarai is a belt consisting of old and new alluvial deposits known as the Bhangar and Khadar respectively.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following belts found in the northern plains: Alluvial plains Tarai Bhabar What is the correct order in which these belts occur from North to South?##Option_A: 1-3-2###Option_B: 1-2-3##Option_C: 3-2-1##Option_D: 1-3-2##Answer:c##Explaination:From the north to the south, the northern plains can be divided into three major zones: the Bhabar, the Tarai and the alluvial plains. The alluvial plains can be further divided into the Khadar and the Bhangar. Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break-up of the slope. South of the Bhabar is the Tarai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km. The south of Tarai is a belt consisting of old and new alluvial deposits known as the Bhangar and Khadar respectively.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following provisions create a strong central government?
1. Emergency provisions
2. Office of the State Governor
3. All-India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Some of the provisions that create a strong central government: 1. The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions , which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralised system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralised. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States. 2. The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely. 3. The all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government.
|
d
|
Nature of Indian Federalism
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions create a strong central government?
1. Emergency provisions
2. Office of the State Governor
3. All-India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Some of the provisions that create a strong central government: 1. The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions , which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralised system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralised. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States. 2. The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely. 3. The all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government. ##Topic:Nature of Indian Federalism##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements refers to Green GDP? Conventional GDP figures adjusted for the environmental costs of economic activities. Growth of Green Investments in economy. Monetary value of the resources like forests, land and all the economic services provided by them. Accounts showing the monetized loss of biodiversity, costs caused by climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
The green gross domestic product (green GDP) is an index of economic growth with the environmental consequences of that growth factored into a country's conventional GDP. Green GDP monetizes the loss of biodiversity, and accounts for costs caused by climate change.
|
c
|
GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements refers to Green GDP? Conventional GDP figures adjusted for the environmental costs of economic activities. Growth of Green Investments in economy. Monetary value of the resources like forests, land and all the economic services provided by them. Accounts showing the monetized loss of biodiversity, costs caused by climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The green gross domestic product (green GDP) is an index of economic growth with the environmental consequences of that growth factored into a country's conventional GDP. Green GDP monetizes the loss of biodiversity, and accounts for costs caused by climate change.##Topic:GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
The tribal communities Meiteis, Nagas and Kukis are found is which of the following states?
|
Tripura
|
Manipur
|
Arunachal Pradesh
|
Tripura
|
Manipur is a melting pot of diverse cultures and ethnicities and has gradually evolved into a dynamic multicultural society. Naga, Kuki and Meitei stayed together side by side for centuries and developed their heritage in parallel within their respective ethno-social boundaries
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The tribal communities Meiteis, Nagas and Kukis are found is which of the following states?##Option_A: Tripura###Option_B: Manipur##Option_C: Arunachal Pradesh##Option_D: Tripura##Answer:b##Explaination:Manipur is a melting pot of diverse cultures and ethnicities and has gradually evolved into a dynamic multicultural society. Naga, Kuki and Meitei stayed together side by side for centuries and developed their heritage in parallel within their respective ethno-social boundaries##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are the conditions for creation for Legislative Council?
A. Resolution must be first passed by Governor
B. Resolution must be first passed by Legislative Assembly by simple majority
C. Resolution must be first passed by Legislative Assembly by absolute majority
D. Resolution must be first passed by Legislative Assembly by special majority
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Under article 169(1) of the Constitution, Parliament may,by law provide for creation of Legislative Council of the state , if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to the effect by special majority.
|
d
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are the conditions for creation for Legislative Council?
A. Resolution must be first passed by Governor
B. Resolution must be first passed by Legislative Assembly by simple majority
C. Resolution must be first passed by Legislative Assembly by absolute majority
D. Resolution must be first passed by Legislative Assembly by special majority
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Under article 169(1) of the Constitution, Parliament may,by law provide for creation of Legislative Council of the state , if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to the effect by special majority.
##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following areas is/are major coral reef areas in India?
1. Gulf of Kutch
2. Gulf of Khambat
3. Gulf of Mannar
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2
C. 1,3
D. 2,3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The four major coral reef areas identified for intensive conservation and management are
1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Gulf of Kutch
3. Lakshadweep
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
|
c
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following areas is/are major coral reef areas in India?
1. Gulf of Kutch
2. Gulf of Khambat
3. Gulf of Mannar
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2
C. 1,3
D. 2,3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
The four major coral reef areas identified for intensive conservation and management are
1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Gulf of Kutch
3. Lakshadweep
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are the objectives of 'Project Tiger'?
To ensure the maintenance of viable population of Tigers in India for
1. Economic value
2. Cultural value
3. Aesthetic value
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1,2
D. 1,2,3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Project Tiger objective: "To ensure maintenance of a viable population of Tigers in India for scientific,economic,aesthetic,cultural and ecological values and to preserve for all times areas of biological importance as a national heritage for the benefit , education and enjoyment of the people."
|
d
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are the objectives of 'Project Tiger'?
To ensure the maintenance of viable population of Tigers in India for
1. Economic value
2. Cultural value
3. Aesthetic value
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1,2
D. 1,2,3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Project Tiger objective: "To ensure maintenance of a viable population of Tigers in India for scientific,economic,aesthetic,cultural and ecological values and to preserve for all times areas of biological importance as a national heritage for the benefit , education and enjoyment of the people."
##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Why was 'National Electricity Fund' created?
1. To provide interest subsidy to private sector
2. To provide loans to public sector for new plants.
3. To waive off electricity arrears of farmers
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. 1 only
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
National electricity fund is an interest subsidy scheme to provide interest subsidy to both private and public sector to improve distribution network.
|
d
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Why was 'National Electricity Fund' created?
1. To provide interest subsidy to private sector
2. To provide loans to public sector for new plants.
3. To waive off electricity arrears of farmers
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. 1 only
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
National electricity fund is an interest subsidy scheme to provide interest subsidy to both private and public sector to improve distribution network.
##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
1. Consider the following statements.
i. Lokayukta is appointed by the governor of the state after consultations with the Chief Justice of High Court and the Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
ii. In every state the lokayukta can initiate investigations either on the basis of a complaint received from the citizen against unfair administrative action or suo moto.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
1. Lokayukta is appointed by the governor of the state after consultations with the Chief Justice of High Court and the leader of Opposition in the state legislative Assembly
2. In states of UP, Himachal Pradesh and Assam, Lokayukta cannot initiate investigations suo motu. Thus, Lokayukta does not enjoy this power in every state.
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
1. Consider the following statements.
i. Lokayukta is appointed by the governor of the state after consultations with the Chief Justice of High Court and the Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
ii. In every state the lokayukta can initiate investigations either on the basis of a complaint received from the citizen against unfair administrative action or suo moto.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
1. Lokayukta is appointed by the governor of the state after consultations with the Chief Justice of High Court and the leader of Opposition in the state legislative Assembly
2. In states of UP, Himachal Pradesh and Assam, Lokayukta cannot initiate investigations suo motu. Thus, Lokayukta does not enjoy this power in every state.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the provisions for creation of a new state in India
1. Article 3 of the Constitution vests Parliament with the power to form a new State, provided that the Bill creating such a State is introduced on the recommendations of State Legislature
2. The President can only introduce an Amendment Bill in Parliament after referring it to the State legislatures concerned for their views.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not true?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
Article 3 of the Constitution vests Parliament with the power to form a new State, provided that the Bill creating such a State is introduced on the recommendation of the President and he has referred it to the legislature of the affected State “for expressing its views thereon.” Article 3 merely gives State Assemblies a consultative role — their views are not binding on Parliament in any way. Therefore, the formation of a new state is solely the prerogative of the government of India.
The current proviso to Article 3 was introduced by the Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955. Before this amendment, the President could only introduce an Amendment Bill in Parliament after referring it to the State legislatures concerned for their views. This was a time-consuming process, allowing States to vacillate in responding, thereby frustrating the efforts of the government of India. This amendment was necessary to lay the groundwork for the smooth passage of the States’ Reorganisation Commission Report.
|
c
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the provisions for creation of a new state in India
1. Article 3 of the Constitution vests Parliament with the power to form a new State, provided that the Bill creating such a State is introduced on the recommendations of State Legislature
2. The President can only introduce an Amendment Bill in Parliament after referring it to the State legislatures concerned for their views.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not true?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:
Article 3 of the Constitution vests Parliament with the power to form a new State, provided that the Bill creating such a State is introduced on the recommendation of the President and he has referred it to the legislature of the affected State “for expressing its views thereon.” Article 3 merely gives State Assemblies a consultative role — their views are not binding on Parliament in any way. Therefore, the formation of a new state is solely the prerogative of the government of India.
The current proviso to Article 3 was introduced by the Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955. Before this amendment, the President could only introduce an Amendment Bill in Parliament after referring it to the State legislatures concerned for their views. This was a time-consuming process, allowing States to vacillate in responding, thereby frustrating the efforts of the government of India. This amendment was necessary to lay the groundwork for the smooth passage of the States’ Reorganisation Commission Report.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which if the following is not a criteria for conferring special category status on a State?
1. Hilly and difficult terrain
2. Social backwardness
3. Non-viable nature of State finances
4. High Population density
5. Occurrence of special problems in states eg. Drought, famines, etc
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Criteria for Special category states is decided by National Development Council (NDC) and any state must fulfill following conditions:
a. hilly and difficult terrain
b. low population density and/or sizable share of tribal population
c. strategic location along borders with neighbouring countries
d. economic and infrastructural backwardness
e. Non-viable nature of State finances.
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which if the following is not a criteria for conferring special category status on a State?
1. Hilly and difficult terrain
2. Social backwardness
3. Non-viable nature of State finances
4. High Population density
5. Occurrence of special problems in states eg. Drought, famines, etc
##Option_A: 2 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Criteria for Special category states is decided by National Development Council (NDC) and any state must fulfill following conditions:
a. hilly and difficult terrain
b. low population density and/or sizable share of tribal population
c. strategic location along borders with neighbouring countries
d. economic and infrastructural backwardness
e. Non-viable nature of State finances.
##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which region in India has the lowest potential of Hydro electricity ?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Region Total potential(In terms of Installed capacity—above 25 MW)
Northern 52,263
Western 8,131
Southern 15,890
Eastern 10,680
North Eastern 58,356
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which region in India has the lowest potential of Hydro electricity ?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Region Total potential(In terms of Installed capacity—above 25 MW)
Northern 52,263
Western 8,131
Southern 15,890
Eastern 10,680
North Eastern 58,356
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements
1. The labor force is the actual number of people available for work.
2. The labor force of a country includes both the employed and the unemployed.
3. The labor force participation rate, LFPR, is the ratio between the labor force and the overall size of their cohort (national population of the same age range).
Which of the above statements are true?
|
1 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The labor force is the actual number of people available for work. The labor force of a country includes both the employed and the unemployed. The labor force participation rate, LFPR (or economic activity rate, EAR), is the ratio between the labor force and the overall size of their cohort (national population of the same age range).
· The recently released Employment and Unemployment Situation in India report of the NSS 68th round (2011-12) highlights some sobering facts.
· Labour force participation rate decreased for rural males by 1 per cent between 1993-94 and 2011-12 and increased by a meagre 2 per cent for urban males.
Women’s participation rates declined across both rural and urban areas India’s female labour force participation rate (LFPR) is 22.5%, according to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
|
d
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements
1. The labor force is the actual number of people available for work.
2. The labor force of a country includes both the employed and the unemployed.
3. The labor force participation rate, LFPR, is the ratio between the labor force and the overall size of their cohort (national population of the same age range).
Which of the above statements are true?
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:The labor force is the actual number of people available for work. The labor force of a country includes both the employed and the unemployed. The labor force participation rate, LFPR (or economic activity rate, EAR), is the ratio between the labor force and the overall size of their cohort (national population of the same age range).
· The recently released Employment and Unemployment Situation in India report of the NSS 68th round (2011-12) highlights some sobering facts.
· Labour force participation rate decreased for rural males by 1 per cent between 1993-94 and 2011-12 and increased by a meagre 2 per cent for urban males.
Women’s participation rates declined across both rural and urban areas India’s female labour force participation rate (LFPR) is 22.5%, according to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements. 1. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) built in 1984, is the newest addition to India"s national parks 2. The Great Himalayan National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh and has been nominated for UNESCO’s world heritage site Which of the above statements are true? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both d. None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Great Himalayan National Park in Himachal has been nominated for UNESCO’s world heritage site. It is located on the Western Part of the Himalayan Mountains in the Kullu District and is known for its biodiversity. It has more than 25 forest types, 800 kinds of plants and is home to more than 180 bird species. This site, included in the tentative list in 2009, was submitted for UNESCO’s consideration last year. But the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), which evaluated it for UNESCO, did not recommend the park for World Heritage status.
|
c
|
Also in News(Geo+Eco)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements. 1. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) built in 1984, is the newest addition to India"s national parks 2. The Great Himalayan National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh and has been nominated for UNESCO’s world heritage site Which of the above statements are true? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both d. None##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
The Great Himalayan National Park in Himachal has been nominated for UNESCO’s world heritage site. It is located on the Western Part of the Himalayan Mountains in the Kullu District and is known for its biodiversity. It has more than 25 forest types, 800 kinds of plants and is home to more than 180 bird species. This site, included in the tentative list in 2009, was submitted for UNESCO’s consideration last year. But the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), which evaluated it for UNESCO, did not recommend the park for World Heritage status.
##Topic:Also in News(Geo+Eco)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
According to the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013, which of the following is not true?
1. The law calls for construction and maintenance of the insanitary latrines.
2. The law provides for providing alternative employment to manual scavengers within a time bound manner.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013 came into force on 6 December 2013 across India except Jammu and Kashmir.
The Bill prohibits the employment of manual scavengers, the manual cleaning of sewers and septic tanks without protective equipment, and the construction of insanitary latrines. It seeks to rehabilitate manual scavengers and provide for their alternative employment. Each local authority, cantonment board and railway authority is responsible for surveying insanitary latrines within its jurisdiction. They shall also construct a number of sanitary community latrines.
Each occupier of insanitary latrines shall be responsible for converting or demolishing the latrine at his own cost. If he fails to do so, the local authority shall convert the latrine and recover the cost from him.
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
According to the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013, which of the following is not true?
1. The law calls for construction and maintenance of the insanitary latrines.
2. The law provides for providing alternative employment to manual scavengers within a time bound manner.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013 came into force on 6 December 2013 across India except Jammu and Kashmir.
The Bill prohibits the employment of manual scavengers, the manual cleaning of sewers and septic tanks without protective equipment, and the construction of insanitary latrines. It seeks to rehabilitate manual scavengers and provide for their alternative employment. Each local authority, cantonment board and railway authority is responsible for surveying insanitary latrines within its jurisdiction. They shall also construct a number of sanitary community latrines.
Each occupier of insanitary latrines shall be responsible for converting or demolishing the latrine at his own cost. If he fails to do so, the local authority shall convert the latrine and recover the cost from him.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements are not true with regards to principles of DNA testing?
1. Every person has two copies of each DNA marker, one inherited from each parent.
2. A probability of paternity of 99.9% or higher means the alleged father cannot be excluded as the biological father of the child
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The result report of a paternity test shows the DNA profiles of the tested parties, listing the different sizes of the DNA markers that were examined and used in the statistical calculations. It also shows a Paternity Index (PI) value for each marker tested. The PI is a statistical measure of how strongly a match at a specific marker indicates paternity. Every person has two copies of each DNA marker, one inherited from each parent. If neither of the marker sizes at a particular locus matches between a child and an alleged father, the PI for that locus is 0. If there is a match, the PI for that locus is 1.0 or higher, depending on how common the marker size is within the specific race population.
Once all the designated DNA markers have been analysed and assigned PI values, the PIs are multiplied together to generate the Combined Paternity Index (CPI). This value represents the odds that a random male in the population would have the same test results if his genetic profile were compared with the child’s.
Finally, the CPI is converted into a probability of paternity.
A probability of paternity of 0% means the alleged father is excluded as the biological father of the child - he is absolutely not the father.
A probability of paternity of 99.9% or higher means the alleged father cannot be excluded as the biological father of the child. In other words, there is only a minute possibility that a random male in the population could have the same paternity test results and be the child’s biological father.
A Supreme Court bench held DNA test as the accurate proof in a dispute over the parenthood of a child. It stressed that the result of DNA test was said to be scientifically accurate and it could not force a man to bear the fatherhood of a child when the scientific reports prove to the contrary.
|
d
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements are not true with regards to principles of DNA testing?
1. Every person has two copies of each DNA marker, one inherited from each parent.
2. A probability of paternity of 99.9% or higher means the alleged father cannot be excluded as the biological father of the child
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
The result report of a paternity test shows the DNA profiles of the tested parties, listing the different sizes of the DNA markers that were examined and used in the statistical calculations. It also shows a Paternity Index (PI) value for each marker tested. The PI is a statistical measure of how strongly a match at a specific marker indicates paternity. Every person has two copies of each DNA marker, one inherited from each parent. If neither of the marker sizes at a particular locus matches between a child and an alleged father, the PI for that locus is 0. If there is a match, the PI for that locus is 1.0 or higher, depending on how common the marker size is within the specific race population.
Once all the designated DNA markers have been analysed and assigned PI values, the PIs are multiplied together to generate the Combined Paternity Index (CPI). This value represents the odds that a random male in the population would have the same test results if his genetic profile were compared with the child’s.
Finally, the CPI is converted into a probability of paternity.
A probability of paternity of 0% means the alleged father is excluded as the biological father of the child - he is absolutely not the father.
A probability of paternity of 99.9% or higher means the alleged father cannot be excluded as the biological father of the child. In other words, there is only a minute possibility that a random male in the population could have the same paternity test results and be the child’s biological father.
A Supreme Court bench held DNA test as the accurate proof in a dispute over the parenthood of a child. It stressed that the result of DNA test was said to be scientifically accurate and it could not force a man to bear the fatherhood of a child when the scientific reports prove to the contrary.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is true about DNA paternity test?
1. Mother’s DNA helps in simplifying the DNA testing although it is not a prerequisite for the test
2. Father’s identity can only be confirmed after the birth of the child by DNA profiling
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
When possible, the mother should also be included in the testing, since she can provide additional genetic information and simplify the testing process. But paternity can still be checked without the mother’s DNA.
The father’s identity can be confirmed before the baby is born with prenatal testing
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is true about DNA paternity test?
1. Mother’s DNA helps in simplifying the DNA testing although it is not a prerequisite for the test
2. Father’s identity can only be confirmed after the birth of the child by DNA profiling
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
When possible, the mother should also be included in the testing, since she can provide additional genetic information and simplify the testing process. But paternity can still be checked without the mother’s DNA.
The father’s identity can be confirmed before the baby is born with prenatal testing
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is not true regarding external commercial borrowing (ECB)? An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used to facilitate the access to foreign money by Indian corporations and PSUs. It includes commercial bank loans, buyers" credit, suppliers" credit, and securitised instruments. ECBs can also be used for investment in stock market. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used to facilitate the access to foreign money by Indian corporations and PSUs. ECBs include commercial bank loans, buyers' credit, suppliers' credit, securitised instruments such as floating rate notes and fixed rate bonds etc., credit from official export credit agencies and commercial borrowings from the private sector window of multilateral financial Institutions. ECBs cannot be used for investment in stock market or speculation in real estate.
|
b
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not true regarding external commercial borrowing (ECB)? An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used to facilitate the access to foreign money by Indian corporations and PSUs. It includes commercial bank loans, buyers" credit, suppliers" credit, and securitised instruments. ECBs can also be used for investment in stock market. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used to facilitate the access to foreign money by Indian corporations and PSUs. ECBs include commercial bank loans, buyers' credit, suppliers' credit, securitised instruments such as floating rate notes and fixed rate bonds etc., credit from official export credit agencies and commercial borrowings from the private sector window of multilateral financial Institutions. ECBs cannot be used for investment in stock market or speculation in real estate.##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Identify the incorrect statements of the following.
1. FDI and FII both bring foreign capital, technology and management within the country.
2. The objective of FII is financial gain as well as to create a lasting interest in or effective management control over an enterprise.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
The first notable difference between FDI and FII is that while FDI brings foreign capital, technology & management, FII brings only foreign Capital.The objective of FII is financial gain only and does not create a lasting interest in or effective management control over an enterprise.
|
c
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Identify the incorrect statements of the following.
1. FDI and FII both bring foreign capital, technology and management within the country.
2. The objective of FII is financial gain as well as to create a lasting interest in or effective management control over an enterprise.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The first notable difference between FDI and FII is that while FDI brings foreign capital, technology & management, FII brings only foreign Capital.The objective of FII is financial gain only and does not create a lasting interest in or effective management control over an enterprise.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding Qualified Foreign Investors are true?
1. Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) can invest directly in Indian equity market
2. The QFIs shall include individuals, groups or associations, resident in a foreign country which is compliant with FATF and that is a signatory to IOSCO’s multilateral MoU
3. QFIs include FII/sub-accounts.
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. All of the above.
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The QFIs include individuals, groups or associations, resident in a foreign country which is compliant with FATF and that is a signatory to IOSCO’s multilateral MoU. QFIs do not include FII/sub-accounts. The new rules significantly benefit non-institutional foreign investors, who were previously barred from direct investment in listed securities, putting them on par with FIIs. QFIs are now allowed to invest in various additional securities such as derivatives and IDRs. Furthermore, QFIs will now be able to issue investment instructions directly to their stockbrokers, as opposed to the previous time-consuming practice of routing them through qualified depository participants. N RIs till now, who could invest through the portfolio investment scheme for investing in Indian securities or the QFI route, will be forced to come under the portfolio investment scheme only, which is not as flexible.
|
b
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding Qualified Foreign Investors are true?
1. Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) can invest directly in Indian equity market
2. The QFIs shall include individuals, groups or associations, resident in a foreign country which is compliant with FATF and that is a signatory to IOSCO’s multilateral MoU
3. QFIs include FII/sub-accounts.
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. All of the above.
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
The QFIs include individuals, groups or associations, resident in a foreign country which is compliant with FATF and that is a signatory to IOSCO’s multilateral MoU. QFIs do not include FII/sub-accounts. The new rules significantly benefit non-institutional foreign investors, who were previously barred from direct investment in listed securities, putting them on par with FIIs. QFIs are now allowed to invest in various additional securities such as derivatives and IDRs. Furthermore, QFIs will now be able to issue investment instructions directly to their stockbrokers, as opposed to the previous time-consuming practice of routing them through qualified depository participants. N RIs till now, who could invest through the portfolio investment scheme for investing in Indian securities or the QFI route, will be forced to come under the portfolio investment scheme only, which is not as flexible.
##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is not true regarding the role of Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) in his capacity can inspect the accounts of private telecom companies
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. In general the CAG can inspect the accounts of private companies but the Supreme Court bench of Justice K S Radhakrishnan and Justice Vikramjit Sen ruled that the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) in his capacity can inspect the accounts of private telecom companies. The court held that such an inspection was essential in order to make certain that the government, which has granted the private companies licenses of the precious natural resources, was getting in return its genuine share as per the revenue sharing agreement between the private company and Government.
|
d
|
Also in News(Polity)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not true regarding the role of Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) in his capacity can inspect the accounts of private telecom companies
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. In general the CAG can inspect the accounts of private companies but the Supreme Court bench of Justice K S Radhakrishnan and Justice Vikramjit Sen ruled that the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) in his capacity can inspect the accounts of private telecom companies. The court held that such an inspection was essential in order to make certain that the government, which has granted the private companies licenses of the precious natural resources, was getting in return its genuine share as per the revenue sharing agreement between the private company and Government.##Topic:Also in News(Polity)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
What is/are argument(s) in favor of using embryonic stem cells over adult stem cells?
|
Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into many more types of cells.
|
Adult stem cells cannot be cultured.
|
Adult stem cells are pluripotent but difficult to locate.
|
Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into many more types of cells.
|
Human embryonic and adult stem cells each have advantages and disadvantages regarding potential use for cell-based regenerative therapies. One major difference between adult and embryonic stem cells is their different abilities in the number and type of differentiated cell types they can become. Embryonic stem cells can become all cell types of the body because they are pluripotent. Adult stem cells are thought to be limited to differentiating into different cell types of their tissue of origin.
Embryonic stem cells can be grown relatively easily in culture. Adult stem cells are rare in mature tissues, so isolating these cells from an adult tissue is challenging, and methods to expand their numbers in cell culture have not yet been worked out. This is an important distinction, as large numbers of cells are needed for stem cell replacement therapies.
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What is/are argument(s) in favor of using embryonic stem cells over adult stem cells?
##Option_A:Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into many more types of cells.
###Option_B:Adult stem cells cannot be cultured.
##Option_C:Adult stem cells are pluripotent but difficult to locate.
##Option_D:Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into many more types of cells.
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Human embryonic and adult stem cells each have advantages and disadvantages regarding potential use for cell-based regenerative therapies. One major difference between adult and embryonic stem cells is their different abilities in the number and type of differentiated cell types they can become. Embryonic stem cells can become all cell types of the body because they are pluripotent. Adult stem cells are thought to be limited to differentiating into different cell types of their tissue of origin.
Embryonic stem cells can be grown relatively easily in culture. Adult stem cells are rare in mature tissues, so isolating these cells from an adult tissue is challenging, and methods to expand their numbers in cell culture have not yet been worked out. This is an important distinction, as large numbers of cells are needed for stem cell replacement therapies.
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
In 2013-14, India became net steel exporter because of the following reasons:
1. Slowdown in Indian construction sector because of economic slowdown
2. Low consumption of steel by Automobile Industry
3. Decline in imports and rise in exports
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
After a span of 6 years, in 2013-14, India became net steel exporter. India now is the world’s fourth largest steel maker
The Key reasons were as follows:
Rise in Exports
Decline in Imports
Construction sector and Automobile Industry hit by a slowdown in Economy
The Exports went up by 4.1% and Imports declined by 31.3%. Rise in Exports were driven by unpredictability of Rupee and uneven demand-supply situation in India. Imports went down primarily due to slowdown in the domestic economy.India’s total steel demand is chiefly from Construction sector (60%) and Automobile Industry consumes (15%). Both sectors were hit by a slowdown in the economy.
|
a
|
Also in News(Economy)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In 2013-14, India became net steel exporter because of the following reasons:
1. Slowdown in Indian construction sector because of economic slowdown
2. Low consumption of steel by Automobile Industry
3. Decline in imports and rise in exports
##Option_A: 2 only ###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:After a span of 6 years, in 2013-14, India became net steel exporter. India now is the world’s fourth largest steel maker
The Key reasons were as follows:
Rise in Exports
Decline in Imports
Construction sector and Automobile Industry hit by a slowdown in Economy
The Exports went up by 4.1% and Imports declined by 31.3%. Rise in Exports were driven by unpredictability of Rupee and uneven demand-supply situation in India. Imports went down primarily due to slowdown in the domestic economy.India’s total steel demand is chiefly from Construction sector (60%) and Automobile Industry consumes (15%). Both sectors were hit by a slowdown in the economy. ##Topic:Also in News(Economy)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is not true about 3D printing?
1. 3D printing is a process of making a three-dimensional solid object of virtually any shape from a digital model.
2. 3D printing is based on methods of applying a 3D image on plane surface forming layers.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
3D printing is based on methods of applying a 2D image on a 3D surface, a system for generating three-dimensional objects by creating a cross-sectional pattern of the object to be formed. 3D scanning is the process of analyzing and collecting data of real object; its shape and appearance and builds digital, three dimensional models. 3D Printing employs additive layer processes, where successive layers of materials are laid down in different shapes
|
a
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is not true about 3D printing?
1. 3D printing is a process of making a three-dimensional solid object of virtually any shape from a digital model.
2. 3D printing is based on methods of applying a 3D image on plane surface forming layers.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
3D printing is based on methods of applying a 2D image on a 3D surface, a system for generating three-dimensional objects by creating a cross-sectional pattern of the object to be formed. 3D scanning is the process of analyzing and collecting data of real object; its shape and appearance and builds digital, three dimensional models. 3D Printing employs additive layer processes, where successive layers of materials are laid down in different shapes
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Who are eligible for free legal aid in India? Women SC/ST Person in custody
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
Eligible persons for getting free legal aid include: Women and Children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disaster Persons in custody Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs 50000. Disabled Persons Victims of Trafficking in Human Beings.
|
d
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who are eligible for free legal aid in India? Women SC/ST Person in custody##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Eligible persons for getting free legal aid include: Women and Children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disaster Persons in custody Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs 50000. Disabled Persons Victims of Trafficking in Human Beings.##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about 'Arbitration'?
1. The authority of arbitrator vests on the consent of the parties
2. It does not render a binding award.
3. Decision is based on compromise by both parties.
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. None
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Arbitration is a process in which a neutral third party render a decision based on the merits of the case.
The authority of mediator and not arbitrator vests on the consent of the parties.
|
d
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are true about 'Arbitration'?
1. The authority of arbitrator vests on the consent of the parties
2. It does not render a binding award.
3. Decision is based on compromise by both parties.
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. None
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Arbitration is a process in which a neutral third party render a decision based on the merits of the case.
The authority of mediator and not arbitrator vests on the consent of the parties.
##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about Indian Climate?
1. North-east monsoon winds blows from land to sea.
2. Himalayan States do not experience autumn and spring.
3. India experiences Temperate Monsoon type climate.
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2
C. 1 only
D. 1,3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Climate of India is described as tropical monsoon type.
Himalayan states being more temperate experience autumn and spring.
|
c
|
India Year Book
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about Indian Climate?
1. North-east monsoon winds blows from land to sea.
2. Himalayan States do not experience autumn and spring.
3. India experiences Temperate Monsoon type climate.
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2
C. 1 only
D. 1,3##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:Climate of India is described as tropical monsoon type.
Himalayan states being more temperate experience autumn and spring.
##Topic:India Year Book##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is not true about First Past the Post Electoral System? It does not ensure proportional representation of all the groups in parliament. Only a person favoured by majority of the population of a constituency can win. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
It does not ensure proportional representation of all the groups in parliament. For example, Dalits in India are 17 per cent but being in the minority in every constituency, one of them would never get elected independently in the FPTP system; not even from the so-called reservedconstituencies. A person not favored by majority of the population of a constituency may win. It may happen that the person winning does not even gets half the votes and wins because of opposition being divided.
|
b
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not true about First Past the Post Electoral System? It does not ensure proportional representation of all the groups in parliament. Only a person favoured by majority of the population of a constituency can win. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:It does not ensure proportional representation of all the groups in parliament. For example, Dalits in India are 17 per cent but being in the minority in every constituency, one of them would never get elected independently in the FPTP system; not even from the so-called reservedconstituencies. A person not favored by majority of the population of a constituency may win. It may happen that the person winning does not even gets half the votes and wins because of opposition being divided.##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following rivers do not drain into sea? 1. Luni 2. Machhu 3. Ghaggar
|
1 only
|
1 ,2
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Few rivers of Rajasthan do not drain into the sea.These are Luni,Machhu,Rupen,Saraswati,Banas,Ghaggar.
|
d
|
Drainage System
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rivers do not drain into sea? 1. Luni 2. Machhu 3. Ghaggar##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 ,2##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Few rivers of Rajasthan do not drain into the sea.These are Luni,Machhu,Rupen,Saraswati,Banas,Ghaggar.##Topic:Drainage System##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is not true about the Election Commission’s Election Visitor’s Programme?
1. This is the first time that ECI is facilitating election visits from other countries on such a scale and under a structured programme
2. Under this programme, NRIs can visit India for voting purpose in order to increase the voting participation.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both
|
1 only
|
The 2014 Election Visitors Programme is part of the South-South Cooperation initiative of the Election Commission of India. The programme is for countries interested in witnessing our Lok Sabha elections and is being run in partnership with UNDP who are extending some funding support to needy countries.
Under the Programme, ECI and UNDP are facilitating visits of about 50 delegates from Election Management Bodies of approx. 20 countries. This is the first time that ECI is facilitating election visits from other countries on such a scale and under a structured programme.
|
b
|
committees and Commissions
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not true about the Election Commission’s Election Visitor’s Programme?
1. This is the first time that ECI is facilitating election visits from other countries on such a scale and under a structured programme
2. Under this programme, NRIs can visit India for voting purpose in order to increase the voting participation.
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:The 2014 Election Visitors Programme is part of the South-South Cooperation initiative of the Election Commission of India. The programme is for countries interested in witnessing our Lok Sabha elections and is being run in partnership with UNDP who are extending some funding support to needy countries.
Under the Programme, ECI and UNDP are facilitating visits of about 50 delegates from Election Management Bodies of approx. 20 countries. This is the first time that ECI is facilitating election visits from other countries on such a scale and under a structured programme.
##Topic:committees and Commissions##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
1. Consider the following statement about Mutation Breeding of crop
(1) Mutation breeding is a promising technology developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
(2) Scientist at the centre have been using radiation technology to develop mutant varieties of crop seeds especially in oilseeds and pulses for the past five decades
(3) This improves the quality and nutritional content of oil seeds and the bread making quality of wheat.
(4) Wheat plant cannot be made heat tolerant and resistant to stem rust by using Mutation breeding
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Explanation Wheat plant can be made heat tolerant and resistant to stem rust by using Mutation breeding. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
|
c
|
Also in News(Misc)
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
1. Consider the following statement about Mutation Breeding of crop
(1) Mutation breeding is a promising technology developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
(2) Scientist at the centre have been using radiation technology to develop mutant varieties of crop seeds especially in oilseeds and pulses for the past five decades
(3) This improves the quality and nutritional content of oil seeds and the bread making quality of wheat.
(4) Wheat plant cannot be made heat tolerant and resistant to stem rust by using Mutation breeding
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Explanation Wheat plant can be made heat tolerant and resistant to stem rust by using Mutation breeding. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
##Topic:Also in News(Misc)##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
1. Consider the following statement regarding India-Iran Relationship
(1) India has had diplomatic ties with Iran since 15 th march 1952.
(2) The year 1979 was a turning point in the history of Iran when a pro-US Iranian administration led by Shah Pahlavi was ousted in an Islamic Revolution
(3) Tehran Declaration of 2001 and Delhi Declaration of 2003 provided a framework for larger economic cooperation between Iran and India.
(4) India import around 22 million tonnes of crude oil annually that makes India the third largest market for Iranian Crude.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Explanation -India has had diplomatic ties with Iran since 15 th march 1950. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
1. Consider the following statement regarding India-Iran Relationship
(1) India has had diplomatic ties with Iran since 15 th march 1952.
(2) The year 1979 was a turning point in the history of Iran when a pro-US Iranian administration led by Shah Pahlavi was ousted in an Islamic Revolution
(3) Tehran Declaration of 2001 and Delhi Declaration of 2003 provided a framework for larger economic cooperation between Iran and India.
(4) India import around 22 million tonnes of crude oil annually that makes India the third largest market for Iranian Crude.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
Explanation -India has had diplomatic ties with Iran since 15 th march 1950. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement about Generic Drug
Supreme Court in a landmark ruling allows suppliers to continue making generic copies of Swiss firm Novartis’ Glivec or Gleevec.
The drug costs more than Rs 1 lakh per month, which has been shown to fight chronic blood cancer effectively.
Observers say that the court’s judgment sets a precedent against the practice of “evergreening“-a strategy through which drug manufacturers introduce modifications of drugs to extend the five year patents on them.
The Patents(Amendment) Act,2005 established that the “mere discovery of a new form of a known substance which does not result in the enhancement of the known efficacy of that substance ”is not an invention
Choose the Correct Options
|
nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
|
nbsp; 2,3 ,4 and 5
|
nbsp; 1,2 and 5
|
nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
|
All the statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement about Generic Drug
Supreme Court in a landmark ruling allows suppliers to continue making generic copies of Swiss firm Novartis’ Glivec or Gleevec.
The drug costs more than Rs 1 lakh per month, which has been shown to fight chronic blood cancer effectively.
Observers say that the court’s judgment sets a precedent against the practice of “evergreening“-a strategy through which drug manufacturers introduce modifications of drugs to extend the five year patents on them.
The Patents(Amendment) Act,2005 established that the “mere discovery of a new form of a known substance which does not result in the enhancement of the known efficacy of that substance ”is not an invention
Choose the Correct Options
##Option_A:nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
###Option_B:nbsp; 2,3 ,4 and 5
##Option_C:nbsp; 1,2 and 5
##Option_D:nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
##Answer:a##Explaination:
All the statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding Criminal Law(Amendment )Bill,2013
The New law provides for even capital punishment for the rapist if the act causes death for victim or leaves her in a permanent vegetative state.
Repeated offenders may also get capital punishment under the new law
This Bill has amended only sections of the Indian Evidence Act
Unlike the ordinance, the law keeps rape as a gender-specific crime where only a man can be booked for committing such offence.
It, however keeps the age of consent at 18 in sync with the Ordinance.
Choose the Correct Options
|
nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
|
nbsp; 3 ,4 and 5
|
nbsp; 1,2 ,4 and 5
|
nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
|
This Bill has amended various sections of the IPC,CrPC and the Indian Evidence Act. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Criminal Law(Amendment )Bill,2013
The New law provides for even capital punishment for the rapist if the act causes death for victim or leaves her in a permanent vegetative state.
Repeated offenders may also get capital punishment under the new law
This Bill has amended only sections of the Indian Evidence Act
Unlike the ordinance, the law keeps rape as a gender-specific crime where only a man can be booked for committing such offence.
It, however keeps the age of consent at 18 in sync with the Ordinance.
Choose the Correct Options
##Option_A:nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
###Option_B:nbsp; 3 ,4 and 5
##Option_C:nbsp; 1,2 ,4 and 5
##Option_D:nbsp; 1,2,3 and 4
##Answer:c##Explaination:
This Bill has amended various sections of the IPC,CrPC and the Indian Evidence Act. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Criminal Law(Amendment) Bill, 2013
The new law states that an offender can be sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 20 years, but which may extend to life, or imprisonment for the remainder of the convict’s natural life and with a fine.
The law, for the first time, defines stalking and voyeurism as non-bailable offences if repeated for a second time.
The law prescribes a punishment ranging from 10 years to life imprisonment, if someone traffics a minor and a jail term of 14 years which may be extended to life imprisonment if the offender is involved in trafficking more than one minor.
For acid attack that caused harm to the victim, the offender will get a jail term of minimum 20 years which can be extended to life term.
Offender can attract a penalty of five to seven years, if he is involved in acid attack.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 ,3 and 5
D. 3 and 5
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
-This Bill has amended various sections of the IPC,CrPC and the Indian Evidence Act. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Criminal Law(Amendment) Bill, 2013
The new law states that an offender can be sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 20 years, but which may extend to life, or imprisonment for the remainder of the convict’s natural life and with a fine.
The law, for the first time, defines stalking and voyeurism as non-bailable offences if repeated for a second time.
The law prescribes a punishment ranging from 10 years to life imprisonment, if someone traffics a minor and a jail term of 14 years which may be extended to life imprisonment if the offender is involved in trafficking more than one minor.
For acid attack that caused harm to the victim, the offender will get a jail term of minimum 20 years which can be extended to life term.
Offender can attract a penalty of five to seven years, if he is involved in acid attack.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 ,3 and 5
D. 3 and 5
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
-This Bill has amended various sections of the IPC,CrPC and the Indian Evidence Act. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Criminal Law(Amendment) Bill, 2013
The new law states that an offender can be sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 20 years, but which may extend to life, or imprisonment for the remainder of the convict’s natural life and with a fine.
The law, for the first time, defines stalking and voyeurism as non-bailable offences if repeated for a second time.
The law prescribes a punishment ranging from 10 years to life imprisonment, if someone traffics a minor and a jail term of 14 years which may be extended to life imprisonment if the offender is involved in trafficking more than one minor.
For acid attack that caused harm to the victim, the offender will get a jail term of minimum 20 years which can be extended to life term.
Offender can attract a penalty of five to seven years, if he is involved in acid attack.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 ,3 and 5
D. 3 and 5
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
For acid attack that caused harm to the victim, the offender will get a jail term of minimum 10 years(and not 20 year) which can be extended to life term. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Criminal Law(Amendment) Bill, 2013
The new law states that an offender can be sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 20 years, but which may extend to life, or imprisonment for the remainder of the convict’s natural life and with a fine.
The law, for the first time, defines stalking and voyeurism as non-bailable offences if repeated for a second time.
The law prescribes a punishment ranging from 10 years to life imprisonment, if someone traffics a minor and a jail term of 14 years which may be extended to life imprisonment if the offender is involved in trafficking more than one minor.
For acid attack that caused harm to the victim, the offender will get a jail term of minimum 20 years which can be extended to life term.
Offender can attract a penalty of five to seven years, if he is involved in acid attack.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 ,3 and 5
D. 3 and 5
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
For acid attack that caused harm to the victim, the offender will get a jail term of minimum 10 years(and not 20 year) which can be extended to life term. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The Supreme Court did not gave the green light to the commissioning of the nation’s largest nuclear plant in Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu.
The court ordered the government to submit a final report on the plant’s safety and waste disposal.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
-The Supreme Court gave the green light to the commissioning of the nation’s largest nuclear plant in Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Supreme Court did not gave the green light to the commissioning of the nation’s largest nuclear plant in Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu.
The court ordered the government to submit a final report on the plant’s safety and waste disposal.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
-The Supreme Court gave the green light to the commissioning of the nation’s largest nuclear plant in Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
The Bill entails a compensation package that proposes to offer the farmers four times the market value of the land in rural areas and twice the market value of the same in urban areas.
It also specifies that consent of 90 percent of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,60 percent consent is required.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
It also specifies that consent of 80 percent (and not 90) of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,70 percent (and not 60 ) consent is required. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
The Bill entails a compensation package that proposes to offer the farmers four times the market value of the land in rural areas and twice the market value of the same in urban areas.
It also specifies that consent of 90 percent of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,60 percent consent is required.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
It also specifies that consent of 80 percent (and not 90) of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,70 percent (and not 60 ) consent is required. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Pregnant women and lactating mothers entitled to nutritious meals and maternity benefit of atleast Rs 6000 for six month
The central government will provide funds to states in case of short supply of food grain.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 1,3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The work of identification of eligible households has been left to the states. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Pregnant women and lactating mothers entitled to nutritious meals and maternity benefit of atleast Rs 6000 for six month
The central government will provide funds to states in case of short supply of food grain.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 1,3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
The work of identification of eligible households has been left to the states. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statement regarding Land Acquisition Bill
The bill, officially known as “The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill, 2012”.
It aims to provide farmers with fair and reasonable compensation and to prevent the forcible acquisition of agricultural land without the consent of the landowner.
The Bill entails a compensation package that proposes to offer the farmers four times the market value of the land in rural areas and twice the market value of the same in urban areas.
It also specifies that consent of 90 percent of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,60 percent consent is required.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Explanation -It also specifies that consent of 80 percent (and not 90) of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,70 percent (and not 60 ) consent is required. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Land Acquisition Bill
The bill, officially known as “The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill, 2012”.
It aims to provide farmers with fair and reasonable compensation and to prevent the forcible acquisition of agricultural land without the consent of the landowner.
The Bill entails a compensation package that proposes to offer the farmers four times the market value of the land in rural areas and twice the market value of the same in urban areas.
It also specifies that consent of 90 percent of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,60 percent consent is required.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
Explanation -It also specifies that consent of 80 percent (and not 90) of the landowners is mandatory for private-partnership projects, while for public-private-partnership projects,70 percent (and not 60 ) consent is required. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Pension Bill
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Bill 2011, which aims to create a regulator for the pension sector and extend the coverage of pension benefits to more people
The bill seeks to establish, develop and regulate pension funds to protect the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and assures minimum returns to subscribers.
The PFRDA Bill, 2011 provides for guaranteed returns at the rate of 10%.
It will have provision for withdrawals for limited purposes from Tier-1 pension account, an incentive for subscribers to join the National Pension Scheme (NPS).
The Bill would also provide subscribers a wide choice to invest their funds for assured returns, like opting for government bonds as well as in other funds depending on their capacity to take risk.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 ,4 and 5
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
- The PFRDA Bill, 2011 provides for market based returns and wide coverage based on several investment options in the pension sector with an aim to building confidence in the subscribers. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Pension Bill
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Bill 2011, which aims to create a regulator for the pension sector and extend the coverage of pension benefits to more people
The bill seeks to establish, develop and regulate pension funds to protect the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and assures minimum returns to subscribers.
The PFRDA Bill, 2011 provides for guaranteed returns at the rate of 10%.
It will have provision for withdrawals for limited purposes from Tier-1 pension account, an incentive for subscribers to join the National Pension Scheme (NPS).
The Bill would also provide subscribers a wide choice to invest their funds for assured returns, like opting for government bonds as well as in other funds depending on their capacity to take risk.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 ,4 and 5
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
- The PFRDA Bill, 2011 provides for market based returns and wide coverage based on several investment options in the pension sector with an aim to building confidence in the subscribers. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Palestine.
The United Nation General Assembly voted to upgrade the status of the Palestinians to that of a “non-member observer state”.
The vote implies global recognition of the relevant territory as a sovereign state and is a major step towards a two-nation solution for historical Palestine.
The Palestinian can now take part in UN debates and potentially join bodies like the International Criminal Court
The new status amounts to an achievement of a full UN membership , which the security Council consider on the ground s that the members had make a “unanimous recommendation”.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 2
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The new status amounts to less of an achievement than a full UN membership, which the security Council declined to consider on the ground s that the members were unable to make a “unanimous recommendation”. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Palestine.
The United Nation General Assembly voted to upgrade the status of the Palestinians to that of a “non-member observer state”.
The vote implies global recognition of the relevant territory as a sovereign state and is a major step towards a two-nation solution for historical Palestine.
The Palestinian can now take part in UN debates and potentially join bodies like the International Criminal Court
The new status amounts to an achievement of a full UN membership , which the security Council consider on the ground s that the members had make a “unanimous recommendation”.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 2
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
The new status amounts to less of an achievement than a full UN membership, which the security Council declined to consider on the ground s that the members were unable to make a “unanimous recommendation”. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding UN Global Arms Trade Treaty
The United Nations has overwhelmingly approved a landmark treaty regulating trade in conventional arms, aimed to curb illicit global Arm Trade.
The treaty aimed to establish highest possible standard for regulating International trade in conventional Arm while building confidence among the participatory state.
The treaty seek to regulate all activities related to transfer of conventional Arm including export, import, transit and trans-shipment.
Each member state is required to prepare a national control list to be submitted to UN
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding UN Global Arms Trade Treaty
The United Nations has overwhelmingly approved a landmark treaty regulating trade in conventional arms, aimed to curb illicit global Arm Trade.
The treaty aimed to establish highest possible standard for regulating International trade in conventional Arm while building confidence among the participatory state.
The treaty seek to regulate all activities related to transfer of conventional Arm including export, import, transit and trans-shipment.
Each member state is required to prepare a national control list to be submitted to UN
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
All statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding UN Global Arms Trade Treaty
India, Russia, China along with 23 countries abstains from voting in UNGA which has adopted Arms Trade Treaty with an overwhelming Vote of 153 countries.
4 Countries namely Iran, Pakistan ,Syria and North Korea opposed the treaty
India’s objection to treaty is that the treaty does not provide for preventing conventional Arms falling in to hands of terrorist and Non state actors.
Another objection raised by India is that the treaty is biased as it fails to provide a balance of obligation between exporting and importing state.
The treaty can be used as an instrument in the hands of an exporting state to take unilateral measure against politically non complaint importing states
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
-3 Countries namely Iran, Syria and North Korea opposed the treaty. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding UN Global Arms Trade Treaty
India, Russia, China along with 23 countries abstains from voting in UNGA which has adopted Arms Trade Treaty with an overwhelming Vote of 153 countries.
4 Countries namely Iran, Pakistan ,Syria and North Korea opposed the treaty
India’s objection to treaty is that the treaty does not provide for preventing conventional Arms falling in to hands of terrorist and Non state actors.
Another objection raised by India is that the treaty is biased as it fails to provide a balance of obligation between exporting and importing state.
The treaty can be used as an instrument in the hands of an exporting state to take unilateral measure against politically non complaint importing states
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 ,4 and 5
C. 1,2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
-3 Countries namely Iran, Syria and North Korea opposed the treaty. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding Cell Phone Radiation
Unlike X-ray or gamma rays, cell tower radiation has a million times less energy.
The Cell tower radiation cannot damage the cells in the body to change some of them in to rogue cells with no rules, or its own rules to multiply uncontrollably to form cancer.
On the recommendation from an Inter Ministerial Committee(IMC), India enforces a radiation limit of one tenth of the ICNIRP guidelines for cell tower radiation , nation wide
India has also prescribed a stringent standard for Specific Absorption Rate(SAR) for cell phones.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Cell Phone Radiation
Unlike X-ray or gamma rays, cell tower radiation has a million times less energy.
The Cell tower radiation cannot damage the cells in the body to change some of them in to rogue cells with no rules, or its own rules to multiply uncontrollably to form cancer.
On the recommendation from an Inter Ministerial Committee(IMC), India enforces a radiation limit of one tenth of the ICNIRP guidelines for cell tower radiation , nation wide
India has also prescribed a stringent standard for Specific Absorption Rate(SAR) for cell phones.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
All statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Stem Cells
In bodily tissues like bone marrow and muscle tissue, adult stem cells generate replacements for bone and muscle cells that are lost through injury, disease or normal wear and tear.
Adult stem cells usually develop in to the same type of cell as the tissue they reside in eg an adult stem cell forming in muscle tissue, normally gives rise to muscle cells.
Human stem cells cannot be used to test new drugs and in medical treatments and require organ donors.
Embryonic stem cells renew themselves through cell division for long periods of time, unlike specialized cells such as nerve cells or blood cells.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Human stem cells can also be used to test new drugs and in medical treatments that now require organ donors. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about Stem Cells
In bodily tissues like bone marrow and muscle tissue, adult stem cells generate replacements for bone and muscle cells that are lost through injury, disease or normal wear and tear.
Adult stem cells usually develop in to the same type of cell as the tissue they reside in eg an adult stem cell forming in muscle tissue, normally gives rise to muscle cells.
Human stem cells cannot be used to test new drugs and in medical treatments and require organ donors.
Embryonic stem cells renew themselves through cell division for long periods of time, unlike specialized cells such as nerve cells or blood cells.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Human stem cells can also be used to test new drugs and in medical treatments that now require organ donors. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statement regarding Sound
Sound Volume is measured in decibels, a dimensionless, logarithmic scale.
The loudest sound you can safely hear is 160 dB because above that there is a chance that eardrum will rupture.
The existence of ‘brown note’ that resonates to cause victims to lose control of their bowels has been postulated.
The internal organ damage from very loud sounds is perfectly possible.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Sound
Sound Volume is measured in decibels, a dimensionless, logarithmic scale.
The loudest sound you can safely hear is 160 dB because above that there is a chance that eardrum will rupture.
The existence of ‘brown note’ that resonates to cause victims to lose control of their bowels has been postulated.
The internal organ damage from very loud sounds is perfectly possible.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
All statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding Human Genome
The genetic information of an individual is contained in 23 pairs of chromosomes. Every human cell contains the 23 pair of chromosomes.
One pair is called sex chromosomes Male: XY Female: XX, other 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes are called autosomes.
One member of each chromosome pair is from mother; the other is from father.
Genes are located on chromosomes and consist of DNA. They contain specific instructions for protein synthesis.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Human Genome
The genetic information of an individual is contained in 23 pairs of chromosomes. Every human cell contains the 23 pair of chromosomes.
One pair is called sex chromosomes Male: XY Female: XX, other 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes are called autosomes.
One member of each chromosome pair is from mother; the other is from father.
Genes are located on chromosomes and consist of DNA. They contain specific instructions for protein synthesis.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
All statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding Super Computer.
China’s defense scientists have built the World’s fastest supercomputer, the Tianhe-2, costing $100 Million.
According to TOP500, a project ranking the 500 most powerful computer systems in the world, Tianhe-2 or Milky Way-2, is the world’s fastest computing system which will be deployed at the National Supercomputer Centre in Guangzho, China
Tianhe-2 is capable of operating as fast as 33.86 petaflops per second.
Titan, a Cray XK7 system installed at the US Department of Energy’s (DOE) Oak Ridge National Laboratory was the previous no. 1 system, operating at speed of 17.59 petaflops.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 1 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Super Computer.
China’s defense scientists have built the World’s fastest supercomputer, the Tianhe-2, costing $100 Million.
According to TOP500, a project ranking the 500 most powerful computer systems in the world, Tianhe-2 or Milky Way-2, is the world’s fastest computing system which will be deployed at the National Supercomputer Centre in Guangzho, China
Tianhe-2 is capable of operating as fast as 33.86 petaflops per second.
Titan, a Cray XK7 system installed at the US Department of Energy’s (DOE) Oak Ridge National Laboratory was the previous no. 1 system, operating at speed of 17.59 petaflops.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 1 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
All statements are correct
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Cyber Law in India
The IT Act 2000 as amended by the IT(Amendment ) Act,2008 is the foundation of Cyber law in India.
It provide for civil remedies for cyber torts and penal liability for cyber crimes.
The act applies also to offences or contraventions committed outside India by any person irrespective of his nationality, provided it is committed against a computer, a computer system or computer network located in India.
Hacking is defined in the amended IT Act as unauthorized attempt to bypass the security mechanisms of an information system or network.
Identity threft is dealt within section 66C inserted by IT (amendment) Act 2009 which states that whoever, fraudulently or dishonestly makes use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person shal be punished with imprisonment of 3 years or fine of Rs 1 lakh.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1, 2,3 and 5
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3,4 and 5
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
- Hacking is not defined in the amended IT Act. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Cyber Law in India
The IT Act 2000 as amended by the IT(Amendment ) Act,2008 is the foundation of Cyber law in India.
It provide for civil remedies for cyber torts and penal liability for cyber crimes.
The act applies also to offences or contraventions committed outside India by any person irrespective of his nationality, provided it is committed against a computer, a computer system or computer network located in India.
Hacking is defined in the amended IT Act as unauthorized attempt to bypass the security mechanisms of an information system or network.
Identity threft is dealt within section 66C inserted by IT (amendment) Act 2009 which states that whoever, fraudulently or dishonestly makes use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person shal be punished with imprisonment of 3 years or fine of Rs 1 lakh.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1, 2,3 and 5
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3,4 and 5
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
- Hacking is not defined in the amended IT Act. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statement regarding Semiconductor Chip Design
India ranks 5 th in the world, after US, China, Japan and S. Korea, when it comes to the number of people working on chip design.
Transistors or MOSFETs (Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor) are basic building blocks of chips used as on/off Switches.
The transistors are connected together on the chip using Aluminum or Copper wiring.
Moore’s Law indicates that the number of transistors integrated on a chip, have approximately doubled every two years.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
India ranks 3 rd in the world, after US and China, when it comes to the number of people working on chip design. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Semiconductor Chip Design
India ranks 5 th in the world, after US, China, Japan and S. Korea, when it comes to the number of people working on chip design.
Transistors or MOSFETs (Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor) are basic building blocks of chips used as on/off Switches.
The transistors are connected together on the chip using Aluminum or Copper wiring.
Moore’s Law indicates that the number of transistors integrated on a chip, have approximately doubled every two years.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
India ranks 3 rd in the world, after US and China, when it comes to the number of people working on chip design. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Chemical Weapon Convention (CWC)
Chemical Weapon Convention (CWC) was adopted by Conference on Disarmament in Geneva.
CWC provide for elimination of entire category of weapons of mass destruction (WMD) under Universally applied Global Control
CWC envisage to prohibit the developed country production, acquisition, stock piling, retention, transfer or use of chemical Warfare material such as mustard Agent or Sarin.
India constituted National Authority of Chemical Weapon Convention (NACWC) by Cabinet resolution, later given statutory status in this regard.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 3 and 4
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
- All statements are correct
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Chemical Weapon Convention (CWC)
Chemical Weapon Convention (CWC) was adopted by Conference on Disarmament in Geneva.
CWC provide for elimination of entire category of weapons of mass destruction (WMD) under Universally applied Global Control
CWC envisage to prohibit the developed country production, acquisition, stock piling, retention, transfer or use of chemical Warfare material such as mustard Agent or Sarin.
India constituted National Authority of Chemical Weapon Convention (NACWC) by Cabinet resolution, later given statutory status in this regard.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 3 and 4
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
- All statements are correct
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following about UN conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD)
The UNCSD took place in Rio de Janeiro to define pathways to a safer, more equitable, cleaner, greener and more prosperous world for all.
The Conference was held 20 years after the UN Conference on Environment and Development (the Earth Summit) in 1992 in Rio, hence also refer as Rio +20.
The aim of the summit was to agree on ways to achieve economic growth in a way that ensures everyone in the world has access to sustainable food, energy and water.
Government had endorsed a Universal shift to a “green economy”, which would amount to transformation of traditional consumption and production practices.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 2 and 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following about UN conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD)
The UNCSD took place in Rio de Janeiro to define pathways to a safer, more equitable, cleaner, greener and more prosperous world for all.
The Conference was held 20 years after the UN Conference on Environment and Development (the Earth Summit) in 1992 in Rio, hence also refer as Rio +20.
The aim of the summit was to agree on ways to achieve economic growth in a way that ensures everyone in the world has access to sustainable food, energy and water.
Government had endorsed a Universal shift to a “green economy”, which would amount to transformation of traditional consumption and production practices.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 2 and 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:c##Explaination:
All statements are correct
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding Animals in India
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI),Botanical Survey of India(BSI) with its headquarters in Kolkata are alone responsible for surveying the faunal resources of India.
The animal welfare Division is entrusted with the implementation of the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animal Act,1960.
The Wild Life Crime Control Bureau has been constituted through amendment of the Wildlife(Protection) Act,1972 in 2008.
The centrally Sponsored ‘Project Tiger ‘ aims ”to ensure maintenance of the viable population of tigers in India for scientific, economic, aesthetic, cultural and ecological value.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with its headquarters in Kolkata and 16 regional stations is responsible for surveying the faunal resources of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Animals in India
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI),Botanical Survey of India(BSI) with its headquarters in Kolkata are alone responsible for surveying the faunal resources of India.
The animal welfare Division is entrusted with the implementation of the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animal Act,1960.
The Wild Life Crime Control Bureau has been constituted through amendment of the Wildlife(Protection) Act,1972 in 2008.
The centrally Sponsored ‘Project Tiger ‘ aims ”to ensure maintenance of the viable population of tigers in India for scientific, economic, aesthetic, cultural and ecological value.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with its headquarters in Kolkata and 16 regional stations is responsible for surveying the faunal resources of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following Statement regarding Bio Diversity Pools in India
A Biodiversity hotspot is a bio geographic region with a rich pool of biodiversity that is threatened by humans.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria
These criteria include at least 0.5% or 1500 species of vascular plants as endemics and should have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.
In India, only 3 regions satisfy these criteria are The western Ghats, The Eastern Himalayas, Indo Burma Region.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following Statement regarding Bio Diversity Pools in India
A Biodiversity hotspot is a bio geographic region with a rich pool of biodiversity that is threatened by humans.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria
These criteria include at least 0.5% or 1500 species of vascular plants as endemics and should have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.
In India, only 3 regions satisfy these criteria are The western Ghats, The Eastern Himalayas, Indo Burma Region.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
All statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement regarding Global Mercury Emission Control.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury, which is named after the city where over 3,000 people suffered deformities owing to mercury pollution in the mid 20 th century, commit countries to banning by 2020 the production, import and export of a large number of products containing mercury.
Mercury is found in products ranging from electrical switches, thermometers, devices measuring blood pressure and CFL light-bulbs, to amalgam dental filling and even facial creams etc
Serious mercury poisoning affects the body’s immune system and can lead to problems including psychological disorders, loss of teeth and problems with the digestive, cardiovascular and respiratory tracts.
Delegations from some 140 countries have agreed to adopt a ground- breaking treaty limiting the use of mercury, according to a statement by Swiss Foreign Ministry.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 2 and 3
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are Correct
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Global Mercury Emission Control.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury, which is named after the city where over 3,000 people suffered deformities owing to mercury pollution in the mid 20 th century, commit countries to banning by 2020 the production, import and export of a large number of products containing mercury.
Mercury is found in products ranging from electrical switches, thermometers, devices measuring blood pressure and CFL light-bulbs, to amalgam dental filling and even facial creams etc
Serious mercury poisoning affects the body’s immune system and can lead to problems including psychological disorders, loss of teeth and problems with the digestive, cardiovascular and respiratory tracts.
Delegations from some 140 countries have agreed to adopt a ground- breaking treaty limiting the use of mercury, according to a statement by Swiss Foreign Ministry.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 2 and 3
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
All statements are Correct
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement regarding Global Mercury Emission Control.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury, which is named after the city where over 3,000 people suffered deformities owing to mercury pollution in the mid 20 th century, commit countries to banning by 2020 the production, import and export of a large number of products containing mercury.
Mercury is found in products ranging from electrical switches, thermometers, devices measuring blood pressure and CFL light-bulbs, to amalgam dental filling and even facial creams etc
Serious mercury poisoning affects the body’s immune system and can lead to problems including psychological disorders, loss of teeth and problems with the digestive, cardiovascular and respiratory tracts.
Delegations from some 140 countries have agreed to adopt a ground- breaking treaty limiting the use of mercury, according to a statement by Swiss Foreign Ministry.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 2 and 3
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
All statements are Correct
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Global Mercury Emission Control.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury, which is named after the city where over 3,000 people suffered deformities owing to mercury pollution in the mid 20 th century, commit countries to banning by 2020 the production, import and export of a large number of products containing mercury.
Mercury is found in products ranging from electrical switches, thermometers, devices measuring blood pressure and CFL light-bulbs, to amalgam dental filling and even facial creams etc
Serious mercury poisoning affects the body’s immune system and can lead to problems including psychological disorders, loss of teeth and problems with the digestive, cardiovascular and respiratory tracts.
Delegations from some 140 countries have agreed to adopt a ground- breaking treaty limiting the use of mercury, according to a statement by Swiss Foreign Ministry.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 2 and 3
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:b##Explaination:
All statements are Correct
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following about the Telescope
The ALMA (Atacama large Millimeter/sub millimeter Array) is one of the most powerful telescope in existence, has been built on a high- altitude plateau in Chile
ALMA combines the dozens of individual radio telescope dishes into a single observing instrument.
The resolution of the ALMA array is 10 times finer than the Very Large Array and 5 times finer than the Hubble Space Telescope.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. Only 3
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Explanation -All statements are correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following about the Telescope
The ALMA (Atacama large Millimeter/sub millimeter Array) is one of the most powerful telescope in existence, has been built on a high- altitude plateau in Chile
ALMA combines the dozens of individual radio telescope dishes into a single observing instrument.
The resolution of the ALMA array is 10 times finer than the Very Large Array and 5 times finer than the Hubble Space Telescope.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. Only 3
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:
Explanation -All statements are correct.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement about International Organization
African Union is the Union consisting of 54 African States consisted of all African nations.
The League of Arab States or Arab League, is a voluntary association of countries whose peoples are mainly Arabic speaking. Its member countries are 22. (Iran is not a member, but Iraq is)
Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation with 21 members was founded to further co-operation on trade and investment between nations of the regions and the rest of the world.
The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established in 1966 to facilitate economic development of countries in Asia.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2,3 and 4
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
Explanation The only all- African state not in the AU is Morocco. Hence statement 1 Is incorrect
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement about International Organization
African Union is the Union consisting of 54 African States consisted of all African nations.
The League of Arab States or Arab League, is a voluntary association of countries whose peoples are mainly Arabic speaking. Its member countries are 22. (Iran is not a member, but Iraq is)
Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation with 21 members was founded to further co-operation on trade and investment between nations of the regions and the rest of the world.
The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established in 1966 to facilitate economic development of countries in Asia.
Choose the Correct Options
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2,3 and 4
##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:d##Explaination:
Explanation The only all- African state not in the AU is Morocco. Hence statement 1 Is incorrect
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
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