qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
62,606 | I read somewhere that you need to be careful of your laugh because when you laugh too loud shaytan laugh with you. Is it true? | 2020/09/04 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/62606",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/3627/"
] | Imam Sadiq said "laughing loudly is from satan" (القهقهة من الشیطان). But it is an ethical advice and it does not mean that loud laughing is haram.
**Ref:** [Al-Kafi 2/663](https://ar.lib.eshia.ir/11005/2/664/%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%82%D9%87%D9%82%D9%87%D8%A9_%D9%85%D9%86_%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B4%D9%8A%D8%B7%D8%A7%D9%86) | I'd say that laughing evilly, is evil. Whereas good humoured laughter is *halal* whether it is quiet or loud.
It's a question of taking into a persons character and it's always true in Islam that we must take that into account. After all, this is where the Whisperer slips in, into his heart, and then makes himself manifest - in evil laughter, evil intentions and evil speech. |
9,418 | I've done a series of chroma key shots of some co-workers for our website and generally everything came out great, except one of our guys is bald and, well, the green is reflecting onto his head. So, the question is, does anyone know of a good way to remove this sort of highlight in post-processing? I'm using Photoshop CS5. | 2011/03/04 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9418",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/472/"
] | There's probably several different ways to skin this cat (there always are in Photoshop), and it's be easier to give specific input if there was a picture to look at, but in general I'd probably tackle the problem with something like this:
1. Create a Hue/Saturation Adjustment layer
2. Modify the layer mask such that only the area with bleed problems is selected
3. Pull saturation out of the green out slowly using mostly the 'Greens' channel (Alt+5) and a bit in the Master channel (Alt+2).
As a 'future reference' thing, keeping subjects at least 6 feet from the backdrop will help keep bleed to a minimum. | I also am a make up artist and I say put a little face powder on his head to remove that shine. |
256,491 | I was going to replace an old 3 prong dryer receptacle with a new one. It being an old townhouse built in the late 60's I assumed there wouldn't be a ground wire, but when I took the outlet out I noticed there was a metal electrical box with with the 2 hots, neutral, and an extra bare copper wire. The copper wire is pinched between the box and what looks like some kind of face plate. There is no ground screw, I assume they did it this way to ground the metal box. I confirmed the box is grounded with a multimeter reading 120v between one of the hots and the box.
I decided to upgrade to a 4 prong outlet and dryer cord. What would be the best way to go about grounding the box and outlet? I bought some 10 gauge wire, grounding wire connectors, grounding screws and clips. All the research I've done says to ground the box first then the outlet, using either a ground screw or grounding clip. If using the grounding screw, if the copper wire coming from the bundle is long enough, wrap around the screw and then to the outlet. Other "proper" method is to grab 2 extra pieces of copper wire, and using a wire nut twist them together with the ground wire, with 1 scrap pigtailed to the ground screw and the other going to the outlet. I would have to cut the ground wire because I cannot get it out of it's current pinched/squeezed position. However this box is small and these are 10 gauge wires, I don't see how to squeeze all that in together with the outlet in this tiny box.
Some questions I have, can I leave the ground wire as is and just run a standalone pigtail from ground screw to the outlet since the box is already grounded or does the piece of copper wire going to the outlet have to be twisted together with the ground wire using a wire connector? If they must be twisted together, can I use a grounding wire connector with a hole and top and just have the pigtail from the screw go through the hole into the outlet while twisted together with the ground wire? I would save a little space at least. Also, since 10 gauge wire is thicker, it might be tougher to wrap around ground screw and read someone recommending using a yellow fork terminal connector, I thought those were only for stranded wires?
I am also not sure if the ground wire is connected to anything else below the box, although it's doubtful. The new outlet also has a grounding strip connecting it to the plate of the outlet, although some don't recommend relying on that to ground the outlet.
Thank you.
Edit: to clarify, there is a threaded 10-32 in the box, which I plan to use with grounding screws I bought.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/imaCK.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rwwae.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JSdfV.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nZE5z.jpg)
Update: Thank you all for the help. It did indeed have a mud plate, the opening was a bit too small for the new outlet to fit through, the previous 3 prong outlet did fit in there since it had a round body with only 3 connections. I went ahead and cut out some of the sheet rock to enlarge the hole and put in a new 2 gang mud plate. The box itself was not very deep, what I should have done was cut the wires for the hots and neutral short because they were a pain to twist around with them being 10 gauge. Probably not good to have that many twists I'd imagine.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cs9VL.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oPZFm.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DLIjc.jpg)
I originally did all this because the terminal block and power cord connections had melted/sparked and tripped the breaker. Most likely the screws became loose over many years due to the vibrations.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QZVQC.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7mbST.jpg)
Voltages checked out OK with a multimeter on the outlet and the terminal connections on the dryer. So far dryer works and nothing has caught on fire or exploded lol. Seems every month I have to learn new things when fixing something else that breaks. | 2022/09/11 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/256491",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/156467/"
] | The ground wire coming off the cable must go to the metal box *first*. That's a Code requirement.
If it is competently attached to the metal box using a feature intended for that purpose, you're all set there.
The new receptacle can pick up ground from the metal box one of three ways:
* If the mud ring is clean bare metal, and the metal yoke of the socket bottoms out on it. This doesn't usually work when a box is inset somewhat into the drywall, like yours is.
* If the socket is labeled "Self-Grounding", it will pick up ground off the mounting screws. (this is a special brush that assures good contact).
* You run a wire from the ground terminal to a ground clip or ground screw in the box.
* You replace the mud ring with a "domed cover" that has flattened corners, which make solid clean-metal contact with the box.
You might have bought the wrong receptacle for this application. That one is designed to fit a 2-gang box. Check its instructions for if it can be installed in a 1-gang box. Armand's guidance for replacing the 1-gang mud ring for a 2-gang is one way to solve that, but will require a 4x4 hole cut in the drywall. Make sure you get a cover plate that will cover it. | There should be (almost always is) a 10-32 **threaded** hole somewhere in the box. Normally it's the smallest hole. In newer boxes it's often in a "hump," which provides screw clearance if mounted to a hard surface, and makes it easier to find, but in old boxes, usually not.
If not, you can get self-threading grounding screws, drill the approriate size hole, and thread one in.
In either case, you connect the grounding wire to the box with the screw, and either extend it to connect to the receptacle, or join it to a pigtail to the receptacle. I'm personally dubious about depending on "self-grounding" of the receptacle metal parts to the metal box for 30A receptacles. |
256,491 | I was going to replace an old 3 prong dryer receptacle with a new one. It being an old townhouse built in the late 60's I assumed there wouldn't be a ground wire, but when I took the outlet out I noticed there was a metal electrical box with with the 2 hots, neutral, and an extra bare copper wire. The copper wire is pinched between the box and what looks like some kind of face plate. There is no ground screw, I assume they did it this way to ground the metal box. I confirmed the box is grounded with a multimeter reading 120v between one of the hots and the box.
I decided to upgrade to a 4 prong outlet and dryer cord. What would be the best way to go about grounding the box and outlet? I bought some 10 gauge wire, grounding wire connectors, grounding screws and clips. All the research I've done says to ground the box first then the outlet, using either a ground screw or grounding clip. If using the grounding screw, if the copper wire coming from the bundle is long enough, wrap around the screw and then to the outlet. Other "proper" method is to grab 2 extra pieces of copper wire, and using a wire nut twist them together with the ground wire, with 1 scrap pigtailed to the ground screw and the other going to the outlet. I would have to cut the ground wire because I cannot get it out of it's current pinched/squeezed position. However this box is small and these are 10 gauge wires, I don't see how to squeeze all that in together with the outlet in this tiny box.
Some questions I have, can I leave the ground wire as is and just run a standalone pigtail from ground screw to the outlet since the box is already grounded or does the piece of copper wire going to the outlet have to be twisted together with the ground wire using a wire connector? If they must be twisted together, can I use a grounding wire connector with a hole and top and just have the pigtail from the screw go through the hole into the outlet while twisted together with the ground wire? I would save a little space at least. Also, since 10 gauge wire is thicker, it might be tougher to wrap around ground screw and read someone recommending using a yellow fork terminal connector, I thought those were only for stranded wires?
I am also not sure if the ground wire is connected to anything else below the box, although it's doubtful. The new outlet also has a grounding strip connecting it to the plate of the outlet, although some don't recommend relying on that to ground the outlet.
Thank you.
Edit: to clarify, there is a threaded 10-32 in the box, which I plan to use with grounding screws I bought.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/imaCK.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rwwae.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JSdfV.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nZE5z.jpg)
Update: Thank you all for the help. It did indeed have a mud plate, the opening was a bit too small for the new outlet to fit through, the previous 3 prong outlet did fit in there since it had a round body with only 3 connections. I went ahead and cut out some of the sheet rock to enlarge the hole and put in a new 2 gang mud plate. The box itself was not very deep, what I should have done was cut the wires for the hots and neutral short because they were a pain to twist around with them being 10 gauge. Probably not good to have that many twists I'd imagine.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cs9VL.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oPZFm.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DLIjc.jpg)
I originally did all this because the terminal block and power cord connections had melted/sparked and tripped the breaker. Most likely the screws became loose over many years due to the vibrations.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QZVQC.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7mbST.jpg)
Voltages checked out OK with a multimeter on the outlet and the terminal connections on the dryer. So far dryer works and nothing has caught on fire or exploded lol. Seems every month I have to learn new things when fixing something else that breaks. | 2022/09/11 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/256491",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/156467/"
] | The ground wire coming off the cable must go to the metal box *first*. That's a Code requirement.
If it is competently attached to the metal box using a feature intended for that purpose, you're all set there.
The new receptacle can pick up ground from the metal box one of three ways:
* If the mud ring is clean bare metal, and the metal yoke of the socket bottoms out on it. This doesn't usually work when a box is inset somewhat into the drywall, like yours is.
* If the socket is labeled "Self-Grounding", it will pick up ground off the mounting screws. (this is a special brush that assures good contact).
* You run a wire from the ground terminal to a ground clip or ground screw in the box.
* You replace the mud ring with a "domed cover" that has flattened corners, which make solid clean-metal contact with the box.
You might have bought the wrong receptacle for this application. That one is designed to fit a 2-gang box. Check its instructions for if it can be installed in a 1-gang box. Armand's guidance for replacing the 1-gang mud ring for a 2-gang is one way to solve that, but will require a 4x4 hole cut in the drywall. Make sure you get a cover plate that will cover it. | You may have a 4" wide box under the visible mud ring. Sample photo of 1 device mud ring which may be what you have:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9vTm1.png)
Sample photo of 2 device mud ring replacement which would give you more room to work with, but require widening opening in wall:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/G4M7d.png)
Sample photo of 2-gang box extender to extend box more than just a mud ring would:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ps7pL.png) |
56,858 | I have design this database diagram to real estate property management just I want to see if I get it right especially the relation between properties and finances because I made it one(property) to many(finances"bank loans")? | 2014/01/15 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/56858",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Properties can be resold multiple times, refinanced multiple times, have multiple loans/cash financing options per, be sublet/subdivided, have to follow government reporting requirements for all of that, etc. You need a thorough understanding of the business and proper specifications; the fact that you asked the question you have asked suggests to me that either you don't, and/or that you lack experience in the biz. Also, "property" is the singular of "properties", so, "propertyID". | your diagram looks good, I assume that you are going to expand on the tables that you have as you develop this diagram more.
I would pull out the Purchase information into their own table.
also addresses should be their own table as well that way you don't duplicate data when a user moves into a property. you can just use the Address ID. |
929,819 | How do recursive ascent parsers work? I have written a recursive *descent* parser myself but I don't understand LR parsers all that well. What I [found on Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recursive_ascent_parser) has only added to my confusion.
Another question is why recursive ascent parsers aren't used more than their table-based counterparts. It seems that recursive ascent parsers have greater performance overall. | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/929819",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/17500/"
] | The clasical [dragon book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0321486811) explains very well how LR parsers work. There is also [Parsing Techniques. A Practical Guide.](http://www.cs.vu.nl/~dick/PTAPG.html) where you can read about them, if I remember well. The article in wikipedia (at least the introduction) is not right. They were created by Donald Knuth, and he explains them in his The Art of Computer Programming Volume 5. If you understand spanish, there is a complete list of books [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1669/learning-to-write-a-compiler/789357#789357) posted by me. Not all that books are in spanish, either.
Before to understand how they work, you must understand a few concepts like first, follows and lookahead. Also, I really recommend you to understand the concepts behind LL (descendant) parsers before trying to understand LR (ascendant) parsers.
There are a family of parsers LR, specially LR(K), SLR(K) and LALR(K), where K is how many lookahead they need to work. Yacc supports LALR(1) parsers, but you can make tweaks, not theory based, to make it works with more powerful kind of grammars.
About performance, it depends on the grammar being analyzed. They execute in linear time, but how many space they need depends on how many states do you build for the final parser. | I'm personally having a hard time understanding how a function call can be faster -- much less "significantly faster" than a table lookup. And I suspect that even "significantly faster" is insignificant when compared to everything else that a lexer/parser has to do (primarily reading and tokenizing the file). I looked at the Wikipedia page, but didn't follow the references; did the author actually profile a complete lexer/parser?
More interesting to me is the decline of table-driven parsers with respect to recursive descent. I come from a C background, where yacc (or equivalent) was the parser generator of choice. When I moved to Java, I found one table-driven implementation (JavaCup), and several recursive descent implementations (JavaCC, ANTLR).
I suspect that the answer is similar to the answer of "why Java instead of C": speed of execution isn't as important as speed of development. As noted in the Wikipedia article, table-driven parsers are pretty much impossible to understand from code (back when I was using them, I could follow their actions but would never have been able to reconstruct the grammar from the parser). Recursive descent, by comparison, is very intuitive (which is no doubt why it predates table-driven by some 20 years). |
929,819 | How do recursive ascent parsers work? I have written a recursive *descent* parser myself but I don't understand LR parsers all that well. What I [found on Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recursive_ascent_parser) has only added to my confusion.
Another question is why recursive ascent parsers aren't used more than their table-based counterparts. It seems that recursive ascent parsers have greater performance overall. | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/929819",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/17500/"
] | I'm personally having a hard time understanding how a function call can be faster -- much less "significantly faster" than a table lookup. And I suspect that even "significantly faster" is insignificant when compared to everything else that a lexer/parser has to do (primarily reading and tokenizing the file). I looked at the Wikipedia page, but didn't follow the references; did the author actually profile a complete lexer/parser?
More interesting to me is the decline of table-driven parsers with respect to recursive descent. I come from a C background, where yacc (or equivalent) was the parser generator of choice. When I moved to Java, I found one table-driven implementation (JavaCup), and several recursive descent implementations (JavaCC, ANTLR).
I suspect that the answer is similar to the answer of "why Java instead of C": speed of execution isn't as important as speed of development. As noted in the Wikipedia article, table-driven parsers are pretty much impossible to understand from code (back when I was using them, I could follow their actions but would never have been able to reconstruct the grammar from the parser). Recursive descent, by comparison, is very intuitive (which is no doubt why it predates table-driven by some 20 years). | The Wikipedia article on recursive *ascent* parsing references what appears to be the original paper on the topic ("Very Fast LR Parsing"). Skimming that paper cleared a few things up for me. Things I noticed:
1. The paper talks about generating assembly code. I wonder if you can do the same things they do if you're generating C or Java code instead; see sections 4 and 5, "Error recovery" and "Stack overflow checking". (I'm not trying to FUD their technique -- it might work out fine -- just saying that it's something you might want to look into before committing.)
2. They compare their recursive ascent tool to their own table-driven parser. From the description in their results section, it looks like their table-driven parser is "fully interpreted"; it doesn't require any custom generated code. I wonder if there's a middle ground where the overall structure is still table-driven but you generate custom code for certain actions to speed things up.
The paper referenced by the Wikipedia page:
* "Very fast LR parsing" (1986)
* <http://portal.acm.org/citation.cfm?id=13310.13326>
Another paper about using code-generation instead of table-interpretation:
* "Very fast YACC-compatible parsers (for very little effort)" (1999)
* <http://www3.interscience.wiley.com/journal/1773/abstract>
Also, note that recursive-descent parsing is not the fastest way to parse LL-grammar-based languages:
* [Difference between an LL and Recursive Descent parser?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1044600/difference-between-an-ll-and-recursive-descent-parser) |
929,819 | How do recursive ascent parsers work? I have written a recursive *descent* parser myself but I don't understand LR parsers all that well. What I [found on Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recursive_ascent_parser) has only added to my confusion.
Another question is why recursive ascent parsers aren't used more than their table-based counterparts. It seems that recursive ascent parsers have greater performance overall. | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/929819",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/17500/"
] | The clasical [dragon book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0321486811) explains very well how LR parsers work. There is also [Parsing Techniques. A Practical Guide.](http://www.cs.vu.nl/~dick/PTAPG.html) where you can read about them, if I remember well. The article in wikipedia (at least the introduction) is not right. They were created by Donald Knuth, and he explains them in his The Art of Computer Programming Volume 5. If you understand spanish, there is a complete list of books [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1669/learning-to-write-a-compiler/789357#789357) posted by me. Not all that books are in spanish, either.
Before to understand how they work, you must understand a few concepts like first, follows and lookahead. Also, I really recommend you to understand the concepts behind LL (descendant) parsers before trying to understand LR (ascendant) parsers.
There are a family of parsers LR, specially LR(K), SLR(K) and LALR(K), where K is how many lookahead they need to work. Yacc supports LALR(1) parsers, but you can make tweaks, not theory based, to make it works with more powerful kind of grammars.
About performance, it depends on the grammar being analyzed. They execute in linear time, but how many space they need depends on how many states do you build for the final parser. | The Wikipedia article on recursive *ascent* parsing references what appears to be the original paper on the topic ("Very Fast LR Parsing"). Skimming that paper cleared a few things up for me. Things I noticed:
1. The paper talks about generating assembly code. I wonder if you can do the same things they do if you're generating C or Java code instead; see sections 4 and 5, "Error recovery" and "Stack overflow checking". (I'm not trying to FUD their technique -- it might work out fine -- just saying that it's something you might want to look into before committing.)
2. They compare their recursive ascent tool to their own table-driven parser. From the description in their results section, it looks like their table-driven parser is "fully interpreted"; it doesn't require any custom generated code. I wonder if there's a middle ground where the overall structure is still table-driven but you generate custom code for certain actions to speed things up.
The paper referenced by the Wikipedia page:
* "Very fast LR parsing" (1986)
* <http://portal.acm.org/citation.cfm?id=13310.13326>
Another paper about using code-generation instead of table-interpretation:
* "Very fast YACC-compatible parsers (for very little effort)" (1999)
* <http://www3.interscience.wiley.com/journal/1773/abstract>
Also, note that recursive-descent parsing is not the fastest way to parse LL-grammar-based languages:
* [Difference between an LL and Recursive Descent parser?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1044600/difference-between-an-ll-and-recursive-descent-parser) |
5,366 | Stage races in cycling are interesting because they typically have multiple competitions inside one race. You have the general classification (usually seen as the most important one), and then there are numerous other classifications such as *points classification*, *intermediate sprints classification*, *mountains classification*, *young riders classification*, and the *combination classification*.
The *combination classification* is the one that confuses me, especially in the Vuelta a España, where it has consistently been one of the prizes for many years. This classification is almost always won by the same rider who wins the general classification. Because the combination classification is (literally) made up of a combination of the other classifications, there is no way for a rider to go for this prize; in order to improve your standings in the combination classification, a rider needs to improve his standings in *all other classifications*, which is something nobody is interested in doing. People who are possible contenders for this prize are usually also contenders for the general classification, which typically means that they *only care about the general classification*.
Interesting statistic: After 2003, only one rider has won the combination classification without also winning the general classification. This was Alejandro Valverde in 2012.
So, my question: why does the Vuelta keep employing the combination classification, and why don't they switch to a different prize that riders would actively try to achieve? Are there any historical reasons behind this, or sponsor contracts or so? | 2014/07/21 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/5366",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/6143/"
] | Few weeks ago I did some research for the question [Why does not Vuelta have young rider jersey?](https://sports.stackexchange.com/q/14288/11439). For that, I found an [interview with La Vuelta's general director Javier Guillén](http://www.ciclismoafondo.es/competicion/entrevistas/articulo/Entrevista-a-Javier-Guillen-director-de-la-Vuelta-a-Espana) from back in 2014. It is a pity it is in Spanish, but to simplify things I translated into English the relevant parts of it.
In a specific moment he stated:
>
> We do have the same amount of maillots as the other ones; this is, four. We do not have young classification, and I am not saying we should not have it, but nowadays **we have the combination with a sponsor which is very much identified with this ranking since it has been sponsoring La Vuelta for 19 years**. The combination is a distinguishing mark of La Vuelta, since it is the only race having it and we want to keep it like this. If we ever get the chance, we could include the young rider classification, but nowadays we think that the podium is full enough.
>
>
>
I also found you are absolutely right about this classification being quite secondary, since people winning it are normally those trying to win La Vuelta itself.
I could not find a full statistic on the winners of the combined classification compared to the overall winner. However, the Catalan article of Wikipedia on [Combination classification in the Vuelta a España](https://ca.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classificaci%C3%B3_de_la_combinada_a_la_Volta_a_Espanya) contains a very representative column. There, you can see which others jerseys the winner won: from 2004, just in one case (Joaquim Rodríguez in 2015) the winner just won this one. And in total just in 7 cases out of almost 30. | I think that it has to do with a historic reasons. Spanish riders were always trying to be the most complete rider. Hense their disire to win stage races and excel in those. They were lousy one-day riders. (e.g. The first Spanish World Champion was Olano in 1995). So I think that the persuit of being the most complete rider back in the days is the reason why there is still such a jersey. |
3,995,243 | I've a .Net 3.5 windows application.One of the modules uses a Oracle stored proc which returns a recordset to the C# client.
I just want to know which one is a better approach among the following two[wrt. code-readability and performance.]:
1.If I write a multiple CASE statement in the stored proc(SP) itself, then the recordset count is about 125.Here, the code of SP looks a bit messy.But on the positive side, the number of rows returned to the client are less.
2.If I dont use the CASE statement, then the recordset count is @375.In this approach, I will move the "case" logic of SP to the C# middler tier...may be using LINQ/delegates...
Here, the SP code is cleaner but the number of records returned is high.
So, shall i go with approach 1 or 2?
Thanks for reading. | 2010/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3995243",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/68717/"
] | It is bad policy to have a database stored procedure return too much data and then have a middle tier/client-side process winnow out the chaff. Not just because that process will punish the user by taking longer than filtering the result set in the database, but it will unnecessarily consume resources (network bandwidth, app server cycles) which could be used to satisfy other users' activities.
>
> "Here, the SP code is cleaner but the
> number of records returned is high."
>
>
>
Code hygiene is in the eye of the beholder. I prefer to have program units which are correct in their own right, rather than rely on external processes to make things right. Especially external processes which reside on other architectural tiers. | It depends on the server load and security policy.
I prefer 1), but if you need to have a really available sql server you should prefer 2) in order to light the sql server load. |
347,719 | Imagine a .NET application designed using a Layered architecture.
Is it possible to use something like the [trusted subsystem](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480587.aspx) pattern when deploying all layers of an application to the same machine?
Is this design insecure by default? | 2008/12/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/347719",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | It depends on how you're using the system and how your layers are deployed.
Let's say you have a machine where SQL Server is running in under one user account, your service layer is under another service account, and your users log in using a third account (without admin access, of course). Say the middle tier account is trusted to access the database, but no user account is. In this case, yes, this is basically your classical picture of a trusted subsystem model.
If you have a case, however, where the end-user account has access to the database AND the service layer, then you are indeed breaking the pattern and opening up a hole. If the end user is an admin and can somehow tamper with one of the layers, you are breaking the pattern. If the user has physical access to the machine and can tamper with IT, I'd even argue that you're breaking the pattern... | If all layers are deployed in the same process, then I'd say almost by definition you aren't using the trusted subsystem model.
You could (at least in theory) deploy different layers to the same physical machine while still using the trusted subsystem model, but of course it would be harder to guarantee the security of the middle tier. For example, your middle tier could be trusted web services running under IIS. |
71,896 | Occasionally I need to refer to my master's thesis itself in its text, e.g. in the sentence "These rules are sufficient to compute any differential in this \_\_\_\_".
I was wondering which of the following terms are appropriate to fill the gap: paper, thesis, text, work. | 2016/06/25 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/71896",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/57202/"
] | It's not a paper because this term usually denotes journal articles.
You can use the term *thesis* or the more generic *work*, instead. | ***Thesis*** and ***work*** are widely used terms. I would use *thesis* to refer to the text itself, and *work* to refer to the actual work that has been done, prior to the writing, which is reported in the thesis; e.g. the experiments, implementation, process, etc.
***Text*** would also be correct but I have not encountered it very often in the context of science and engineering.
I have also seen the term ***book*** used for this purpose. Usually this is within theses of which many copies are printed as books and circulated.
I would argue that *paper* is not a correct term to refer to a thesis. |
71,896 | Occasionally I need to refer to my master's thesis itself in its text, e.g. in the sentence "These rules are sufficient to compute any differential in this \_\_\_\_".
I was wondering which of the following terms are appropriate to fill the gap: paper, thesis, text, work. | 2016/06/25 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/71896",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/57202/"
] | It's not a paper because this term usually denotes journal articles.
You can use the term *thesis* or the more generic *work*, instead. | "document" seems to be a good general solution. |
71,896 | Occasionally I need to refer to my master's thesis itself in its text, e.g. in the sentence "These rules are sufficient to compute any differential in this \_\_\_\_".
I was wondering which of the following terms are appropriate to fill the gap: paper, thesis, text, work. | 2016/06/25 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/71896",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/57202/"
] | It's not a paper because this term usually denotes journal articles.
You can use the term *thesis* or the more generic *work*, instead. | I personally referred to mine as a study, or more specifically "the current study" (text or work would fit as well). This was you can avoid using the first person.
Examples:
* the aim of the current study was to...
* Smith *et al* demonstrated that.... which is in agreement with the findings of the current study
* Results of the current study challenge the notion that... |
71,896 | Occasionally I need to refer to my master's thesis itself in its text, e.g. in the sentence "These rules are sufficient to compute any differential in this \_\_\_\_".
I was wondering which of the following terms are appropriate to fill the gap: paper, thesis, text, work. | 2016/06/25 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/71896",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/57202/"
] | ***Thesis*** and ***work*** are widely used terms. I would use *thesis* to refer to the text itself, and *work* to refer to the actual work that has been done, prior to the writing, which is reported in the thesis; e.g. the experiments, implementation, process, etc.
***Text*** would also be correct but I have not encountered it very often in the context of science and engineering.
I have also seen the term ***book*** used for this purpose. Usually this is within theses of which many copies are printed as books and circulated.
I would argue that *paper* is not a correct term to refer to a thesis. | "document" seems to be a good general solution. |
71,896 | Occasionally I need to refer to my master's thesis itself in its text, e.g. in the sentence "These rules are sufficient to compute any differential in this \_\_\_\_".
I was wondering which of the following terms are appropriate to fill the gap: paper, thesis, text, work. | 2016/06/25 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/71896",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/57202/"
] | I personally referred to mine as a study, or more specifically "the current study" (text or work would fit as well). This was you can avoid using the first person.
Examples:
* the aim of the current study was to...
* Smith *et al* demonstrated that.... which is in agreement with the findings of the current study
* Results of the current study challenge the notion that... | "document" seems to be a good general solution. |
1,352,564 | I'd like to map from normalized device coordinates back to viewspace.
The other way arround works like this:
viewspace -> clip space : multiply the homogeneous coordinates by the projection matrix
clip space -> normalized device coordinates: divide the (x,y,z,w) by w
now in normalized device coordinates all coordinates which were within the view frustum fall into the cube x,y,z € [-1,1] and w=1
Now i'd like to transform some points on the boundary of that cube back into view coordinates. The projection matrix is nonsingular, so I can use the inverse to get from clipsace to viewspace. but i don't know how to get from normalized device space to clipspace, since i don't know how to calculate the 'w' i need to multiply the other coordinates with.
can someone help me with that? thanks! | 2009/08/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1352564",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Unless you actually want to recover your clip space values for some reason you don't need to calculate the W. Multiply your NDC point by the inverse of the projection matrix and then divide by W to get back to view space. | The flow graph on the top, and the formulas described on the following page, might help you : <http://www.songho.ca/opengl/gl_transform.html> |
9,502 | I enjoy taking pictures for fun with my iPhone 3GS, but I've now reached a point where I would like to be able to zoom in a bit on my motives, and I don't like the digital zoom.
Now I've seen that it is possible to buy small zoom lenses (so I can have them in my pocket all the time) that can be attached to the iPhone - <http://photojojo.com/store/awesomeness/iphone-telephoto-lens/> - but before buying I would like to hear if anyone in here have experiences to share, and perhaps even recommend this or another product.
Should I buy this item?
---
2017 update: Now a few years later, I agree with everybody who said this was a bad idea. I got a iPhone 4S and bought an olloclip which was nice for macro pictures etc but cumbersome to use. So the long term solution was to get a better camera. I now have a Canon 70D I use primarily and a Sony RX100M4 for having in my pocket. And I still use my Phone a lot but just for taking quick shots. | 2011/03/06 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9502",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4181/"
] | I don't have the lens, but as some comments above say - their sample images are quite telling.
1. Their very best pictures they chose to share as sample images are quite blurry and on a real camera would probably be tossed as unusable. (As best you can tell from their image sizes).
2. They show using a tripod and thats going to be needed in the majority of cases. You'll probably not have a high shutter speed, an iPhone isn't built for steady holding, and you're lacking any real image stabilization.
Unless you're taking *really* well lit pictures constantly (in order to get the shutter speed high), skip it and get a pocket-able real P&S camera or live with the existing iPhone limitations. | Part of learning about photography is learning to recognize and exploit the strengths and weaknesses of different cameras. The iPhone camera is very good for a phone, but **telephoto shots are not its strength**, and never will be. No accessory is going to change that.
I have three specific recommendations for you.
1. Use shoe-leather zoom: move closer to your subject.
2. Learn to love landscape shots. I have [taken several](http://www.flickr.com/photos/ieure/4764846341/lightbox/) [very nice](http://www.flickr.com/photos/ieure/5080357374/lightbox/) [wide shots](http://www.flickr.com/photos/ieure/4838178633/lightbox/) with my iPhones (both 3GS and 4). During the iPhone 4 keynote, lots of the shots they used were wide, such as the Golden Gate Bridge; these are the kinds of shots it is very good at. I don’t know if I’ve *ever* shot a really excellent portrait with one. You might also want to look at [The Best Camera Is The One That’s With You](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0321684788), a book of iPhone photos, to get a better idea of what your camera is capable of.
3. If you really cannot live without a zoom lens, buy yourself a dedicated camera. Either a nice compact (The Canon PowerShot S90/S95 are amazing; I *love* mine) or a superzoom. You’d have to tote around a special case lens with the PhotoJojo setup, so carrying a separate camera wouldn’t be all that much worse. [SnapSort](http://snapsort.com) is a fantastic site for comparing cameras. |
9,502 | I enjoy taking pictures for fun with my iPhone 3GS, but I've now reached a point where I would like to be able to zoom in a bit on my motives, and I don't like the digital zoom.
Now I've seen that it is possible to buy small zoom lenses (so I can have them in my pocket all the time) that can be attached to the iPhone - <http://photojojo.com/store/awesomeness/iphone-telephoto-lens/> - but before buying I would like to hear if anyone in here have experiences to share, and perhaps even recommend this or another product.
Should I buy this item?
---
2017 update: Now a few years later, I agree with everybody who said this was a bad idea. I got a iPhone 4S and bought an olloclip which was nice for macro pictures etc but cumbersome to use. So the long term solution was to get a better camera. I now have a Canon 70D I use primarily and a Sony RX100M4 for having in my pocket. And I still use my Phone a lot but just for taking quick shots. | 2011/03/06 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9502",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4181/"
] | I don't have the lens, but as some comments above say - their sample images are quite telling.
1. Their very best pictures they chose to share as sample images are quite blurry and on a real camera would probably be tossed as unusable. (As best you can tell from their image sizes).
2. They show using a tripod and thats going to be needed in the majority of cases. You'll probably not have a high shutter speed, an iPhone isn't built for steady holding, and you're lacking any real image stabilization.
Unless you're taking *really* well lit pictures constantly (in order to get the shutter speed high), skip it and get a pocket-able real P&S camera or live with the existing iPhone limitations. | Here's maybe a slightly different viewpoint to the general consensus opinion of 'this is a bad idea':
Will adding a lens modifier- generally speaking a modifier of significantly lower quality than the lens itself- detract from the quality of a lenses optics? Yes. Absolutely. Your picture will never be as sharp or accurate as if you hadn't added the modifier to the front of the lens. In fact, it will be significantly degraded. Period.
Should you buy this item? That depends on what you're looking to accomplish with your photography, and what (in general) you want your pictures to look like. If you like the 'lo-fi' photography look that can be achieved through the use of things like Lensbabys, and Lomo cameras, then you're likely to think the look that comes from one of these modifiers is cool! If, on the other hand, you're hoping for performance that in any way rivals an actual dedicated zoom lens on a 'real' camera, it would be better to avoid such modifiers because the quality of the images you'll be able to make won't even be in the same city as a dedicated lens would, let alone the same ballpark.
Personally, I think this modifier looks like a heck of a lot of fun for use as a 'goof around' camera attachment, and at ~$35 it's a small enough investment that it seems like a bit of 'no-brainer' to give it a go... |
9,502 | I enjoy taking pictures for fun with my iPhone 3GS, but I've now reached a point where I would like to be able to zoom in a bit on my motives, and I don't like the digital zoom.
Now I've seen that it is possible to buy small zoom lenses (so I can have them in my pocket all the time) that can be attached to the iPhone - <http://photojojo.com/store/awesomeness/iphone-telephoto-lens/> - but before buying I would like to hear if anyone in here have experiences to share, and perhaps even recommend this or another product.
Should I buy this item?
---
2017 update: Now a few years later, I agree with everybody who said this was a bad idea. I got a iPhone 4S and bought an olloclip which was nice for macro pictures etc but cumbersome to use. So the long term solution was to get a better camera. I now have a Canon 70D I use primarily and a Sony RX100M4 for having in my pocket. And I still use my Phone a lot but just for taking quick shots. | 2011/03/06 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9502",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4181/"
] | Part of learning about photography is learning to recognize and exploit the strengths and weaknesses of different cameras. The iPhone camera is very good for a phone, but **telephoto shots are not its strength**, and never will be. No accessory is going to change that.
I have three specific recommendations for you.
1. Use shoe-leather zoom: move closer to your subject.
2. Learn to love landscape shots. I have [taken several](http://www.flickr.com/photos/ieure/4764846341/lightbox/) [very nice](http://www.flickr.com/photos/ieure/5080357374/lightbox/) [wide shots](http://www.flickr.com/photos/ieure/4838178633/lightbox/) with my iPhones (both 3GS and 4). During the iPhone 4 keynote, lots of the shots they used were wide, such as the Golden Gate Bridge; these are the kinds of shots it is very good at. I don’t know if I’ve *ever* shot a really excellent portrait with one. You might also want to look at [The Best Camera Is The One That’s With You](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0321684788), a book of iPhone photos, to get a better idea of what your camera is capable of.
3. If you really cannot live without a zoom lens, buy yourself a dedicated camera. Either a nice compact (The Canon PowerShot S90/S95 are amazing; I *love* mine) or a superzoom. You’d have to tote around a special case lens with the PhotoJojo setup, so carrying a separate camera wouldn’t be all that much worse. [SnapSort](http://snapsort.com) is a fantastic site for comparing cameras. | Here's maybe a slightly different viewpoint to the general consensus opinion of 'this is a bad idea':
Will adding a lens modifier- generally speaking a modifier of significantly lower quality than the lens itself- detract from the quality of a lenses optics? Yes. Absolutely. Your picture will never be as sharp or accurate as if you hadn't added the modifier to the front of the lens. In fact, it will be significantly degraded. Period.
Should you buy this item? That depends on what you're looking to accomplish with your photography, and what (in general) you want your pictures to look like. If you like the 'lo-fi' photography look that can be achieved through the use of things like Lensbabys, and Lomo cameras, then you're likely to think the look that comes from one of these modifiers is cool! If, on the other hand, you're hoping for performance that in any way rivals an actual dedicated zoom lens on a 'real' camera, it would be better to avoid such modifiers because the quality of the images you'll be able to make won't even be in the same city as a dedicated lens would, let alone the same ballpark.
Personally, I think this modifier looks like a heck of a lot of fun for use as a 'goof around' camera attachment, and at ~$35 it's a small enough investment that it seems like a bit of 'no-brainer' to give it a go... |
67,537,339 | If the text is a clear directive and the cursor changes to a hand on mouseover, does that meet accessibility standards? Or does there have to be an actual visual change to the link itself? | 2021/05/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/67537339",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6783912/"
] | It satisfies WCAG 2.1. It may not satisfy your own personal or organizational standards for accessibility. | The answer is clearly **no**.
IF the appearance of the link doesn't change,
* how can keyboard only users see that it is on focus ?
* more generally, how is it possible to see that the link is on focus when not using the mouse or on device that don't have a mouse (e.g. touch screen) ?
Clearly, if there is no obvious way to know where the focus is, that's an huge accessibility problem.
It can even be difficult for partially sighted users, who might not well see the cursor changing in shape.
Changing the appearance of the element on hover make also users more confident on what they are exactly going to click on and what is going to happen when they click, and this is true for all users, not only partially sighted.
So, **this is a must for accessibility**, and certainly a good practice even for general UX. |
50,583 | We have a NTFS file share on a Windows 2k3 server which we'd like to limit file creation size to be a specific size (~1 MB/file or less). Is it possible to set a limit like this? If so, how? I've been unable to find any information related to this specifically.
Thanks in advance,
Mark | 2009/08/05 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/50583",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | There's no built-in mechanism in any version of Windows Server to do what you're describing. The quota functionality only deals with the total size of files owned by a given user, not with the sizes of indvidual files. The "file screen" functionality in Windows Server 2003 R2 File Server Resource Manager only concerns itself with file extensions, not with sizes.
It would take a fairly low-level hook into the filesystem driver stack in order to implement what you're looking for. I really doubt you're going to find an off-the-shelf utility to do what you're looking for.
You could always run a script that looks for files over that size and deletes them, but that's not going to stop users from saving files there (and potentially thinking that the files are safe and sound). | Off the top of my head I can't think of a way to do this. A couple of quick Google searches didn't bring my any useful answers either.
Sorry. |
50,583 | We have a NTFS file share on a Windows 2k3 server which we'd like to limit file creation size to be a specific size (~1 MB/file or less). Is it possible to set a limit like this? If so, how? I've been unable to find any information related to this specifically.
Thanks in advance,
Mark | 2009/08/05 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/50583",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | There's no built-in mechanism in any version of Windows Server to do what you're describing. The quota functionality only deals with the total size of files owned by a given user, not with the sizes of indvidual files. The "file screen" functionality in Windows Server 2003 R2 File Server Resource Manager only concerns itself with file extensions, not with sizes.
It would take a fairly low-level hook into the filesystem driver stack in order to implement what you're looking for. I really doubt you're going to find an off-the-shelf utility to do what you're looking for.
You could always run a script that looks for files over that size and deletes them, but that's not going to stop users from saving files there (and potentially thinking that the files are safe and sound). | I know FTP server software can do this but Windows out of the box cannot do this on shared areas. |
50,583 | We have a NTFS file share on a Windows 2k3 server which we'd like to limit file creation size to be a specific size (~1 MB/file or less). Is it possible to set a limit like this? If so, how? I've been unable to find any information related to this specifically.
Thanks in advance,
Mark | 2009/08/05 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/50583",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | There's no built-in mechanism in any version of Windows Server to do what you're describing. The quota functionality only deals with the total size of files owned by a given user, not with the sizes of indvidual files. The "file screen" functionality in Windows Server 2003 R2 File Server Resource Manager only concerns itself with file extensions, not with sizes.
It would take a fairly low-level hook into the filesystem driver stack in order to implement what you're looking for. I really doubt you're going to find an off-the-shelf utility to do what you're looking for.
You could always run a script that looks for files over that size and deletes them, but that's not going to stop users from saving files there (and potentially thinking that the files are safe and sound). | This might not be helpful in any way, but a unix samba server could probably support somethig like that via vfs hooks.
If you have an option to move the share to a small bsd/linux box (or put one "in front" of the original server) this might be worth researching. |
465,633 | When native speakers read "A Clockwork Orange", and sees "Moloko", "Devotchka", or "Kartoffel" how do they understand the meaning "moloko = milk", "Devotchka = girl", "Kartoffel = potato" ?
In "A Clockwork Orange" available 192 russian words!
---
**Maybe Anthony Burgess did a linguistic experiment?** | 2018/09/25 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/465633",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | Context.
--------
It's left pretty obvious for the most part - the writer handles it well and credits his reader with some sense, letting them work it out for themselves - gradually, in some instances.
Looking at the first few lines:
>
> What's it going to be then, eh?
>
>
> There was me, that is Alex, and my three **droogs**, that is Pete,
> Georgie, and Dim, Dim being really dim, and we sat in the Korova
> Milkbar making up our **rassoodocks** what to do with the evening, a flip
> dark chill winter bastard though dry.
>
>
>
**Droogs** and **rassodocks** explain themselves in the context, more or less.
**Rassoodock** ***must* mean** **'mind'** - *making up our minds* is the most obvious way to complete the sentence in a meaningful way.
**Droog is less sure** - at first glance it could be 'friend,' 'boy,' or anything of that sort - but **we have enough to proceed**, and the meaning can be clarified as we go along. (This is not at all dissimilar to how children pick up words.)
It's worth noting, too, that not all Burgess's [*Nadsat*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nadsat) is Russian in origin, or even Slavic: **ultraviolence** or **cutter** (money), for instance. The reader is expected to figure out those as well (in the same manner that anyone who has read this far but had not previously encountered the word *Nadsat* would now have a very good idea of what it means, without ever having explicitly been told).
As to Burgess's specific motivation for creating and employing *Nadsat*, [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nadsat) says:
>
> Burgess, a polyglot who loved language in all its forms, was aware
> that linguistic slang was of a constantly changing nature. **Burgess
> knew that if he used modes of speech that were contemporarily in use,
> the novel would very quickly become dated.** His use of Nadsat was
> essentially pragmatic; **he needed his narrator to have a unique voice
> that would remain ageless while reinforcing Alex's indifference to his
> society's norms**, and to suggest that youth subculture existed
> independently of the rest of society.
>
>
>
And it worked - *Nadsat* has helped put *A Clockwork Orange* and its setting outside any specific time. I don't doubt that's part of the book's enduring appeal, which is the primary reason why we are discussing it even now.
The little chunks of Russian and all the aberrant speech of Alex and his *droogs* are by no means unique as a literary device, either - fantasy and sci-fi authors often establish an idiom of this kind, for reasons of style, to stress the alien not-here-and-now-ness of the setting or to introduce necessary vocabulary for new concepts, with the wholesale creation of complete languages with their own writing systems, such as *Klingon* and *Elvish,* lying at the extreme end of this phenomenon.
---
*Edit:*
User GEdgar noted in the comments above that there was a glossary in the paperback edition he read. I don't remember one in the imprint I read, although I could very well be wrong. Nonetheless, this has a direct bearing on the correct answer if how readers actually understand the Russian vocabulary is simply, 'They look up the words in the back of the book.'
But, at least for some readers, GEdgar perhaps among them, this is definitely *part* of the answer.
[Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_Clockwork_Orange_(novel)#Use_of_slang) states:
>
> In the first edition of the book, no key was provided, and the reader was left to interpret the meaning from the context.
>
>
>
This is a frustratingly less-than-complete answer (and I wasn't reading a first edition!)
Looking at the introduction to the *Penguin Modern Classics* edition, written by Blake Morrison, and available to read through [Amazon's 'Look Inside' feature](https://www.amazon.co.uk/Clockwork-Orange-Penguin-Modern-Classics-ebook/dp/B005FKGUTK):
>
> The old American edition of *A Clockwork Orange* carried a glossary of *nadsat* words. Burgess did not approve of this: in a novel which takes brainwashing as its subject, he intended his own form of brainwashing, which was to force readers to use a Russian dictionary.
>
>
>
We can at least now see that not *all* imprints carried a glossary, and that there may be a British/American split on this.
I feel Blake Morrison is being a *little* flippant when he suggests that Burgess wanted his readers to use a Russian dictionary, as he immediately goes on to say:
>
> Though reading the novel requires some puzzle-solving, the meaning of a *nadsat* word is often clear from the context, or from Burgess's own glosses: a paragraph about the pleasures of *deng* obligingly ends: 'But, as they say, money isn't everything.'
>
>
>
So the answer to how readers understand *Nadsat* is: context, *sometimes* a glossary at the back of the book, and these days, most likely, by looking them up on the net when they encounter one they struggle with.
(For the curious, the text of the *Nadsat* glossary from the first American edition can be found [here](https://soomka.com/nadsat.html).) | When he was writing 'A Clockwork Orange', Anthony Burgess who, on top of being an author was a linguist, employed a fake 'future-slang' language called "Nadsat". This language was largely based in Russian, which Burgess stated was because of a trip he had taken to Russia in the midst of the Cold War. Of course, it's not just based on Russian. Other language components include Cockney rhyming slang, the Malay language (which Burgess had learned previously in anticipation of a trip to Indonesia), and Elizabethan English. As to understanding, Burgess was careful to include context clues through which a native English speaker might understand the meaning of a character's speech. I for one had some trouble understanding these words on a first read through, but I found that if I spent some time trying to understand the context in which they were used, I was usually able to settle on some meaning which made sense to me. Also, full confession, I looked some of them up. I would imagine that my experience is not far removed from the average reader's.
Further Reading:
A great write-up about Nadsat and its inspiration: <https://www.anthonyburgess.org/a-clockwork-orange/a-clockwork-orange-and-nadsat/>
This website includes a segment of Burgess' autobiography in which he discusses Nadsat: <http://accidentalrussophile.blogspot.com/2006/03/anthony-burgess-clockwork-orange-and.html> |
465,633 | When native speakers read "A Clockwork Orange", and sees "Moloko", "Devotchka", or "Kartoffel" how do they understand the meaning "moloko = milk", "Devotchka = girl", "Kartoffel = potato" ?
In "A Clockwork Orange" available 192 russian words!
---
**Maybe Anthony Burgess did a linguistic experiment?** | 2018/09/25 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/465633",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | Context.
--------
It's left pretty obvious for the most part - the writer handles it well and credits his reader with some sense, letting them work it out for themselves - gradually, in some instances.
Looking at the first few lines:
>
> What's it going to be then, eh?
>
>
> There was me, that is Alex, and my three **droogs**, that is Pete,
> Georgie, and Dim, Dim being really dim, and we sat in the Korova
> Milkbar making up our **rassoodocks** what to do with the evening, a flip
> dark chill winter bastard though dry.
>
>
>
**Droogs** and **rassodocks** explain themselves in the context, more or less.
**Rassoodock** ***must* mean** **'mind'** - *making up our minds* is the most obvious way to complete the sentence in a meaningful way.
**Droog is less sure** - at first glance it could be 'friend,' 'boy,' or anything of that sort - but **we have enough to proceed**, and the meaning can be clarified as we go along. (This is not at all dissimilar to how children pick up words.)
It's worth noting, too, that not all Burgess's [*Nadsat*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nadsat) is Russian in origin, or even Slavic: **ultraviolence** or **cutter** (money), for instance. The reader is expected to figure out those as well (in the same manner that anyone who has read this far but had not previously encountered the word *Nadsat* would now have a very good idea of what it means, without ever having explicitly been told).
As to Burgess's specific motivation for creating and employing *Nadsat*, [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nadsat) says:
>
> Burgess, a polyglot who loved language in all its forms, was aware
> that linguistic slang was of a constantly changing nature. **Burgess
> knew that if he used modes of speech that were contemporarily in use,
> the novel would very quickly become dated.** His use of Nadsat was
> essentially pragmatic; **he needed his narrator to have a unique voice
> that would remain ageless while reinforcing Alex's indifference to his
> society's norms**, and to suggest that youth subculture existed
> independently of the rest of society.
>
>
>
And it worked - *Nadsat* has helped put *A Clockwork Orange* and its setting outside any specific time. I don't doubt that's part of the book's enduring appeal, which is the primary reason why we are discussing it even now.
The little chunks of Russian and all the aberrant speech of Alex and his *droogs* are by no means unique as a literary device, either - fantasy and sci-fi authors often establish an idiom of this kind, for reasons of style, to stress the alien not-here-and-now-ness of the setting or to introduce necessary vocabulary for new concepts, with the wholesale creation of complete languages with their own writing systems, such as *Klingon* and *Elvish,* lying at the extreme end of this phenomenon.
---
*Edit:*
User GEdgar noted in the comments above that there was a glossary in the paperback edition he read. I don't remember one in the imprint I read, although I could very well be wrong. Nonetheless, this has a direct bearing on the correct answer if how readers actually understand the Russian vocabulary is simply, 'They look up the words in the back of the book.'
But, at least for some readers, GEdgar perhaps among them, this is definitely *part* of the answer.
[Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_Clockwork_Orange_(novel)#Use_of_slang) states:
>
> In the first edition of the book, no key was provided, and the reader was left to interpret the meaning from the context.
>
>
>
This is a frustratingly less-than-complete answer (and I wasn't reading a first edition!)
Looking at the introduction to the *Penguin Modern Classics* edition, written by Blake Morrison, and available to read through [Amazon's 'Look Inside' feature](https://www.amazon.co.uk/Clockwork-Orange-Penguin-Modern-Classics-ebook/dp/B005FKGUTK):
>
> The old American edition of *A Clockwork Orange* carried a glossary of *nadsat* words. Burgess did not approve of this: in a novel which takes brainwashing as its subject, he intended his own form of brainwashing, which was to force readers to use a Russian dictionary.
>
>
>
We can at least now see that not *all* imprints carried a glossary, and that there may be a British/American split on this.
I feel Blake Morrison is being a *little* flippant when he suggests that Burgess wanted his readers to use a Russian dictionary, as he immediately goes on to say:
>
> Though reading the novel requires some puzzle-solving, the meaning of a *nadsat* word is often clear from the context, or from Burgess's own glosses: a paragraph about the pleasures of *deng* obligingly ends: 'But, as they say, money isn't everything.'
>
>
>
So the answer to how readers understand *Nadsat* is: context, *sometimes* a glossary at the back of the book, and these days, most likely, by looking them up on the net when they encounter one they struggle with.
(For the curious, the text of the *Nadsat* glossary from the first American edition can be found [here](https://soomka.com/nadsat.html).) | The new terms in 'A Clockwork Orange' were intended to be
1. entirely new to English readers, and
2. mostly understandable from context and repetition.
If these new terms weren't perfectly definable from context, at least some sense could be made. The great majority of English speakers have no knowledge of Russian or other sources for the words.
When I first read this work, for school, I had absolutely no idea what these words meant. I found [the glossary that was added to later editions](https://www.sparknotes.com/lit/clockworkorange/terms/), counter to the author's intentions, to be necessary. Just one weird new word in a sentence makes everything revolve around that single word, trying to discover what is meant and forcing all sorts of meanings, which barely stick to the word.
Nowadays, with some recognition ability in Russian, I can see the source for some of the words and if I were to read the work today would make total sense if a bit out of place. eg malchick/devotchka = мальчик/девочка almost exact transliteration, dobby/doma = добрий/дом -> dobree/dom.
There is only one word out of the list thatbecame an actual English word of its own right outside of reference to the novel and is naturally used by English speakers (in informal contexts) and that is :
>
> [horrorshow](http://onlineslangdictionary.com/meaning-definition-of/horrorshow)
>
>
>
which is a reanalysis in English of the Russian word for 'good' ('хорошо' sounds like khorosho). It is *supposed* to mean 'excellent' (really good), as given in the online slang dictionary, but is usually used more literally as a synonym for 'clusterfuck' = 'where things are going horribly wrong.
None of the others have caught on. 'Droog' is not uncommon but almost intentionally with reference to the novel. 'Horrorshow' is used by the general public without knowledge of its origin. |
465,633 | When native speakers read "A Clockwork Orange", and sees "Moloko", "Devotchka", or "Kartoffel" how do they understand the meaning "moloko = milk", "Devotchka = girl", "Kartoffel = potato" ?
In "A Clockwork Orange" available 192 russian words!
---
**Maybe Anthony Burgess did a linguistic experiment?** | 2018/09/25 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/465633",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | When he was writing 'A Clockwork Orange', Anthony Burgess who, on top of being an author was a linguist, employed a fake 'future-slang' language called "Nadsat". This language was largely based in Russian, which Burgess stated was because of a trip he had taken to Russia in the midst of the Cold War. Of course, it's not just based on Russian. Other language components include Cockney rhyming slang, the Malay language (which Burgess had learned previously in anticipation of a trip to Indonesia), and Elizabethan English. As to understanding, Burgess was careful to include context clues through which a native English speaker might understand the meaning of a character's speech. I for one had some trouble understanding these words on a first read through, but I found that if I spent some time trying to understand the context in which they were used, I was usually able to settle on some meaning which made sense to me. Also, full confession, I looked some of them up. I would imagine that my experience is not far removed from the average reader's.
Further Reading:
A great write-up about Nadsat and its inspiration: <https://www.anthonyburgess.org/a-clockwork-orange/a-clockwork-orange-and-nadsat/>
This website includes a segment of Burgess' autobiography in which he discusses Nadsat: <http://accidentalrussophile.blogspot.com/2006/03/anthony-burgess-clockwork-orange-and.html> | The new terms in 'A Clockwork Orange' were intended to be
1. entirely new to English readers, and
2. mostly understandable from context and repetition.
If these new terms weren't perfectly definable from context, at least some sense could be made. The great majority of English speakers have no knowledge of Russian or other sources for the words.
When I first read this work, for school, I had absolutely no idea what these words meant. I found [the glossary that was added to later editions](https://www.sparknotes.com/lit/clockworkorange/terms/), counter to the author's intentions, to be necessary. Just one weird new word in a sentence makes everything revolve around that single word, trying to discover what is meant and forcing all sorts of meanings, which barely stick to the word.
Nowadays, with some recognition ability in Russian, I can see the source for some of the words and if I were to read the work today would make total sense if a bit out of place. eg malchick/devotchka = мальчик/девочка almost exact transliteration, dobby/doma = добрий/дом -> dobree/dom.
There is only one word out of the list thatbecame an actual English word of its own right outside of reference to the novel and is naturally used by English speakers (in informal contexts) and that is :
>
> [horrorshow](http://onlineslangdictionary.com/meaning-definition-of/horrorshow)
>
>
>
which is a reanalysis in English of the Russian word for 'good' ('хорошо' sounds like khorosho). It is *supposed* to mean 'excellent' (really good), as given in the online slang dictionary, but is usually used more literally as a synonym for 'clusterfuck' = 'where things are going horribly wrong.
None of the others have caught on. 'Droog' is not uncommon but almost intentionally with reference to the novel. 'Horrorshow' is used by the general public without knowledge of its origin. |
103,423 | The recently introduced [Marshal badge](https://stackoverflow.com/badges/1298/marshal) is awarded for achieving a flag weight of 749. According to [this investigation by marcog](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) ([meanwhile confirmed by Wladimir Palant](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/97890/how-many-flags-to-reach-750-flag-weight/103161#103161)), it takes a mere 10 correct flags to get from 749 to 750, so why isn't the badge awarded for reaching the maximal flag weight of 750?
To make this clear: The original *intention* was to make 750 an asymptotic limit that can't be reached (except due to rounding errors maybe). If that was the case, then the 749 *would* make a lot of sense. However, the actual *implementation* is such that the increase in flag weight is always at least 0.1 for each correct flag on questions and answers. Thus, it turns out that the limit **750 can** easily **be reached**, even **without** any **rounding issues**.
Just to point this out before people start telling me: I don't even know what my own flag weight is at the moment. | 2011/08/22 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/103423",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/155585/"
] | It seems that it *was* going to be impossible to reach 750, (check out the comment thread [on this answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/80170/what-is-flag-weight/80178#80178)) but [*someone* messed up his rounding...](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) | I think the reason is that 750 is, theoretically, the asymptotic limit for the flag weight. If it were not for computer rounding, it should not be a value that is possible to reach.
Now, it could be they are planning to change the code to calculate the flag weight, and they could use code that makes more difficult to reach a flag weight of 750. In this case, I imagine it makes sense not to set a badge for who reaches a flag weight of 750, when that value would (in a possibly close future) be a value impossible (or difficult) to reach. I agree it would be easier to change the badge to be gained from who has a flag weight of 749, instead of 750, but the question would then be: Why don't you set the badge for being gained from who has a flag weight of 749 since the beginning? |
103,423 | The recently introduced [Marshal badge](https://stackoverflow.com/badges/1298/marshal) is awarded for achieving a flag weight of 749. According to [this investigation by marcog](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) ([meanwhile confirmed by Wladimir Palant](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/97890/how-many-flags-to-reach-750-flag-weight/103161#103161)), it takes a mere 10 correct flags to get from 749 to 750, so why isn't the badge awarded for reaching the maximal flag weight of 750?
To make this clear: The original *intention* was to make 750 an asymptotic limit that can't be reached (except due to rounding errors maybe). If that was the case, then the 749 *would* make a lot of sense. However, the actual *implementation* is such that the increase in flag weight is always at least 0.1 for each correct flag on questions and answers. Thus, it turns out that the limit **750 can** easily **be reached**, even **without** any **rounding issues**.
Just to point this out before people start telling me: I don't even know what my own flag weight is at the moment. | 2011/08/22 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/103423",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/155585/"
] | OK, I found some (not quite satisfactory) explanation myself: the Marshal badge was introduced after a bounty was offered for the feature-request [New badges for the increased flag-weight](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/82799). There it was suggested that the badge should be awarded for achieving a flag weight of 749, and this was implemented on 21 August, shortly before the bounty period ended. The suggestion itself is from 11 March and was apparently based on the assumption that 750 is an asymptotic limit that can't be reached, so it made a lot of sense. It became clear only later on that 750 [can be reached](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) [with 576 correct flags in a row](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/97890/how-many-flags-to-reach-750-flag-weight/103161#103161). | I think the reason is that 750 is, theoretically, the asymptotic limit for the flag weight. If it were not for computer rounding, it should not be a value that is possible to reach.
Now, it could be they are planning to change the code to calculate the flag weight, and they could use code that makes more difficult to reach a flag weight of 750. In this case, I imagine it makes sense not to set a badge for who reaches a flag weight of 750, when that value would (in a possibly close future) be a value impossible (or difficult) to reach. I agree it would be easier to change the badge to be gained from who has a flag weight of 749, instead of 750, but the question would then be: Why don't you set the badge for being gained from who has a flag weight of 749 since the beginning? |
103,423 | The recently introduced [Marshal badge](https://stackoverflow.com/badges/1298/marshal) is awarded for achieving a flag weight of 749. According to [this investigation by marcog](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) ([meanwhile confirmed by Wladimir Palant](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/97890/how-many-flags-to-reach-750-flag-weight/103161#103161)), it takes a mere 10 correct flags to get from 749 to 750, so why isn't the badge awarded for reaching the maximal flag weight of 750?
To make this clear: The original *intention* was to make 750 an asymptotic limit that can't be reached (except due to rounding errors maybe). If that was the case, then the 749 *would* make a lot of sense. However, the actual *implementation* is such that the increase in flag weight is always at least 0.1 for each correct flag on questions and answers. Thus, it turns out that the limit **750 can** easily **be reached**, even **without** any **rounding issues**.
Just to point this out before people start telling me: I don't even know what my own flag weight is at the moment. | 2011/08/22 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/103423",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/155585/"
] | OK, I found some (not quite satisfactory) explanation myself: the Marshal badge was introduced after a bounty was offered for the feature-request [New badges for the increased flag-weight](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/82799). There it was suggested that the badge should be awarded for achieving a flag weight of 749, and this was implemented on 21 August, shortly before the bounty period ended. The suggestion itself is from 11 March and was apparently based on the assumption that 750 is an asymptotic limit that can't be reached, so it made a lot of sense. It became clear only later on that 750 [can be reached](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) [with 576 correct flags in a row](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/97890/how-many-flags-to-reach-750-flag-weight/103161#103161). | It seems that it *was* going to be impossible to reach 750, (check out the comment thread [on this answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/80170/what-is-flag-weight/80178#80178)) but [*someone* messed up his rounding...](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/84300/flag-weight-750-reached/84569#84569) |
15,571 | Say that a John Doe case (i.e. someone whose identity is unknown and the patient can't tell them) comes into the hospital and collapses, becoming incapacitated. They receive treatment yet ultimately die.
As the hospital staff doesn't know the identity of the John Doe, they can't tell if they have insurance to pay for the coverage, nor do they have any known next of kin. So who is ultimately responsible for their medical costs?
This question was inspired by the 2016 *Doctor Strange* movie where Strange brings the Ancient One into the hospital yet she dies, then Strange leaves without identifying her. | 2016/11/30 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/15571",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/1165/"
] | From the legal perspective, Doe has incurred a debt which would be paid from his estate. But in this case, we don't know who he is, so we can't "find" his estate. Suppose that in reality he is billionaire Bill Smith, who disappears without a trace (he's actually dead and buried in Potter's Field). His family starts the process to have him declared legally dead, and eventually they divide up the estate. Meantime, back at the hospital, there is an unpaid bill, which the hospital writes off as a loss: nobody pays the bill. Likewise the taxi driver who didn't get paid. | In brief, the dead person or, more precisely, their estate. If the estate is bankrupt (in this case because it has no identifiable assets) then the hospital writes off their losses just like every other creditor. |
15,571 | Say that a John Doe case (i.e. someone whose identity is unknown and the patient can't tell them) comes into the hospital and collapses, becoming incapacitated. They receive treatment yet ultimately die.
As the hospital staff doesn't know the identity of the John Doe, they can't tell if they have insurance to pay for the coverage, nor do they have any known next of kin. So who is ultimately responsible for their medical costs?
This question was inspired by the 2016 *Doctor Strange* movie where Strange brings the Ancient One into the hospital yet she dies, then Strange leaves without identifying her. | 2016/11/30 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/15571",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/1165/"
] | In the United States, Medicare and Medicaid pays for indigent patients in hospitals, via [Disproportionate Share Hospital](https://www.medicaid.gov/medicaid/financing-and-reimbursement/dsh/index.html) programs. This is not a direct reimbursement but a program based on certain qualifications and the ratios of indigent patient days to normal patient days in periods.
Medicare [link](https://www.cms.gov/Outreach-and-Education/Medicare-Learning-Network-MLN/MLNProducts/downloads/Disproportionate_Share_Hospital.pdf) | In brief, the dead person or, more precisely, their estate. If the estate is bankrupt (in this case because it has no identifiable assets) then the hospital writes off their losses just like every other creditor. |
15,571 | Say that a John Doe case (i.e. someone whose identity is unknown and the patient can't tell them) comes into the hospital and collapses, becoming incapacitated. They receive treatment yet ultimately die.
As the hospital staff doesn't know the identity of the John Doe, they can't tell if they have insurance to pay for the coverage, nor do they have any known next of kin. So who is ultimately responsible for their medical costs?
This question was inspired by the 2016 *Doctor Strange* movie where Strange brings the Ancient One into the hospital yet she dies, then Strange leaves without identifying her. | 2016/11/30 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/15571",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/1165/"
] | In the United States, Medicare and Medicaid pays for indigent patients in hospitals, via [Disproportionate Share Hospital](https://www.medicaid.gov/medicaid/financing-and-reimbursement/dsh/index.html) programs. This is not a direct reimbursement but a program based on certain qualifications and the ratios of indigent patient days to normal patient days in periods.
Medicare [link](https://www.cms.gov/Outreach-and-Education/Medicare-Learning-Network-MLN/MLNProducts/downloads/Disproportionate_Share_Hospital.pdf) | From the legal perspective, Doe has incurred a debt which would be paid from his estate. But in this case, we don't know who he is, so we can't "find" his estate. Suppose that in reality he is billionaire Bill Smith, who disappears without a trace (he's actually dead and buried in Potter's Field). His family starts the process to have him declared legally dead, and eventually they divide up the estate. Meantime, back at the hospital, there is an unpaid bill, which the hospital writes off as a loss: nobody pays the bill. Likewise the taxi driver who didn't get paid. |
2,985,176 | I am trying to write a Python code analyzer, and I am trying to avoid having to parse bare Python text files. I was hoping that once the Python compiler/interpreter parses the code there's a way to get to the object code or parse tree from within a running Python program.
Is there anyway to do this?
Thank you | 2010/06/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2985176",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9435/"
] | A combination of [ast](http://docs.python.org/library/ast.html) and [tokenize](http://docs.python.org/library/tokenize.html) should provide the necessary framework for what you want to do. | You can take a look at [Python's abstract syntax trees](http://docs.python.org/library/ast.html). |
254 | I posted a "proposed update" to the [mortgage tag wiki](https://money.stackexchange.com/tags/mortgage/info) yesterday, and got a message that it would display after being peer reviewed.
I've also noticed that I have the [approve tag wiki edits](https://money.stackexchange.com/privileges/approve-tag-wiki-edits) privilege, but I have no idea how to use it.
How does this feature work?
**Edit**:
This [Meta SO question](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/76251/how-does-peer-review-for-edits-work) is similar to mine. It explains the mechanics, but it doesn't address the tag-wiki piece well. ("How can I see proposed edits on a site-wide basis?")
(It also isn't clear if this is fully implemented for this site -- this is a new feature.)
See this [SO blog post](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2011/02/suggested-edits-and-edit-review/) for background.
**Edit**: I see them showing up now -- a "1" with a circle around it next to the "tools" link in the toolbar. | 2011/02/23 | [
"https://money.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/254",
"https://money.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.meta.stackexchange.com/users/855/"
] | It's a part of the newfangled review functionality:
<https://money.stackexchange.com/review/suggested-edits>
(It's the right most tab, if you go to the base ../review page.) | I was the one who approved your mortgage tag edit.
I've seen these tag wiki edit requests show up as flags for moderator attention next to the "mod" link in the top bar. The notification is a number link, but colored different than the abuse-type flags for moderator attention.
As to how *you* can see the edits and approve them, I'm not sure. Perhaps they did grant the *right* at your rep level, but the missing piece may be a link to the functionality for those folks who don't yet see the "mod" link? |
277,275 | I selected two non rechargable **CR123A lithium-manganese** battery to power my project due to their ability to operate under extreme temperature. A single battery is **3V** with a rated capacity of **1550mAh**. Since I need more capacity I decided to wire them in parallel so that the total capacity is 3100 but the voltage is the same.
**Bonus question: Is it bad to wire them in parallel for a consumer product? :)**
I read somewhere in this site that non-rechargable batteries might explode if someone inserts a fully charged one with a semi charged. I have not a safety circuit in there.
Now I need this to regulate them into 3.3V for my project.
Since I want efficiency two options exists:
1. Boost converter
2. Buck/Boost converter
Theoretically we want to go from the battery pack's 1.2-3V into 3.3Volts so we go up. A boost converter is the best choice since it can accept cut-off voltages down to 1.2Volts squeezing every little drop of energy from the batteries.
Practically I measured a battery bought from a local supplier and its voltage is 3.25Volts. What if a weird CR123A manufacturer makes a battery more than 3.3 Volts? Should I use a buck/boost converter and sucrifice the efficiency? Buck/Boost converter start from a Vin min=1.8 Volts and I would rather not use them if I could avoid them...
**How should I solve this?**
I could use a boost converter to regulate 3.3 from 3Volts but what if a user inserts a 3.5Volt CR123A bought from a weird chinese manufacturer from eBay?
Do I need a buck-boost converter to regulate 3.3V from rated 3V battery?
I am afraid that the actual voltage in the batteries might be more than 3V in the beginning. | 2016/12/28 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/277275",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/83880/"
] | I wouldn't worry about a battery exceeding 3.3 V. The voltage comes from the chemistry. Someone would have to use significantly different chemicals to make a higher voltage.
You might consider putting the batteries in series, then using a buck converter. By the time the cells get down to 1.65 V each, there is so little energy left that you're not really getting any advantage draining them to 1.2 V. | Parallel is fine if you use schottky diodes to OR them.
If the 0.25V Vf drop is too much for application, use ideal diodes such as LM66100 (see datasheet for proper configuration when using two of them).
With resepect to the voltages, you'd be much better off using components that work down to 2.5V than to use a boost (or buck) converter. With smart low-power design, you should be able to get sleep currents down to uA's. I do it all the time (with CR123's!). I do use boost regulators occasionally in those designs to accomadate white LEDs and such, but in sleep the processor is the only thing running, and it's tied directly to the battery.
Sorry for the necro post for those that are offended by that. |
5,602 | I have a trigger on the Custom Object that calls a class. That class makes an HTTP GET request to a Web Service.
However I get the following error:
**Callout from triggers are currently not supported.**
How can I get data to an external Web Service using Apex code?
However i can use **@future** method but it can only be support void and this method cannot return results, i need to be able to send data to external ervice and receive acknowlegements from it. | 2012/12/20 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/5602",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/537/"
] | Callouts cannot be made from triggers as that would hold up the database transaction until the callout completed, which can be up to 120 seconds from a limits perspective. This could obviously cause significant contention with other transactions and impact performance.
The only way that you can execute a callout from a trigger is to schedule it to run asynchronously, for example by executing a method with the @future method as you have found. The key word here is asynchronously - you can't wait for a response from the callout as that would require the transaction to stall until it completes, which is the reason that synchronous callouts aren't allowed.
The way that I've handled this kind of thing in the past is to have a field on the object that captures the response. I pass the id(s) of the record(s) that I am processing to the @future method. Then when the callout completes, the @future method can retrieve the record(s) from the database and update the field(s).
If you are trying to return a response to the user (as part of a visualforce page maybe) you can still utilise this mechanism, you just have to poll the controller to check the object to see if a response has been received - I've used an actionpoller for this and provided the user with a 'checking' spinner to keep them (hopefully) interested. | A very late-to-the-party answer, but one that takes a slightly different approach to the existing answers.
As stated in Bob Buzzard's answer, the Salesforce platform doesn't allow synchronous invocation of a callout here and [Salesforce has recommended](https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=000386018&type=1) the use of future methods to take the callout into a separate, asynchronous transaction.
However, there are numerous problems with doing that since:
* Your trigger can be called many times in a single transaction, for a single (bulk) DML operation or if multiple (smaller) DML operations are performed in your transaction.
* There are quite restrictive limits on how many future methods you can invoke in a single transaction.
* You cannot invoke future methods at all in an asynchronous context but your trigger may still be called in such a case.
* There are daily limits on the number of async processes you can run on your org.
The above is not an exhaustive list but captures the most important ones.
An alternative to future methods is to consider the use of Queueables, also mentioned in existing answers. However, these also suffer significant restrictions, especially in asynchronous contexts. They also use asynchronous apex limits.
My suggestion is to actually use record tagging and Platform Events to resolve this issue. Record tagging (marking the record as needing to be processed in some way, such as here performing a callout) is a good way of identifying those records to be processed in a manner that means you don't rely on Platform Events holding this important information - after all, Platform Events don't have guaranteed delivery and you want to make sure that you do your callout even if one or more Platform Events get lost.
Platform Events are a great vehicle for taking you out of the trigger and into a separate transaction because they don't use any asynchronous limits but still allow you to do your callout, initiated from your trigger.
You can also minimize the number of events you publish (there are hourly limits to this) since you only need one to be created and published from your transaction to initiate the processing you need. That processing can be written to fit in as much as is possible (100 callouts, for example) and if there are still more records to process simply publish a follow-up Platform Event. This leads to selective chaining of the processing while it is needed.
More detail on this can be found in [this Apex Hours article](https://www.apexhours.com/governor-friendly-asynchronous-processing-from-triggers/), which also references an [example implementation](https://github.com/sirephil/sf-async-from-trigger) (this doesn't do callouts, but illustrates how you could). |
1,781,052 | I have a scenario where I would like to display a message to the users of my application alerting them that his session will expire soon and that he should save his work to avoid the loss of his work.
This would be a typical scenario where a user is typing information on a textbox and then leaves his computer unattended for a while. Then when he presses a submit button to save his work, he is redirected to login page because his session expired, thus having to type all his information again in the textbox.
How can an alert message be displayed on the screen using ASP.NET 2.0/3.5?
Thanks in advance for your guidance.
G. | 2009/11/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1781052",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/205764/"
] | Reminders are not going to be much use if the user has left their computer for any period of time over 20 mins. The session will still time out. You'd be better off keeping the session alive:
* [AH, Ah, ah, ah…Staying Alive…Staying Alive](http://weblogs.asp.net/stevewellens/archive/2009/06/09/ah-ah-ah-ah-staying-alive-staying-alive.aspx) | To answer my own question, looks like the best way to accomplish this is to use a setTimeout javascript function to alert a reminder X mins before the session timeout. |
1,781,052 | I have a scenario where I would like to display a message to the users of my application alerting them that his session will expire soon and that he should save his work to avoid the loss of his work.
This would be a typical scenario where a user is typing information on a textbox and then leaves his computer unattended for a while. Then when he presses a submit button to save his work, he is redirected to login page because his session expired, thus having to type all his information again in the textbox.
How can an alert message be displayed on the screen using ASP.NET 2.0/3.5?
Thanks in advance for your guidance.
G. | 2009/11/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1781052",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/205764/"
] | Reminders are not going to be much use if the user has left their computer for any period of time over 20 mins. The session will still time out. You'd be better off keeping the session alive:
* [AH, Ah, ah, ah…Staying Alive…Staying Alive](http://weblogs.asp.net/stevewellens/archive/2009/06/09/ah-ah-ah-ah-staying-alive-staying-alive.aspx) | One way to do this is by **registing ClientScript**.
Pass the session expiry value to the client side java script. Which will execute a countdown, and at the end display the Popup. |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | You should always record at the highest possible settings (imho). I see no reason not to since storage is so cheap these days, plus you're future-proofing your library as well as technology allows.
Regarding dithering, I personally don't do anything special in that regard when mastering my recordings. I simply clean them up, apply any corrective EQ and/or compression, and save them down to the desired bit/sample rates. That's it! Keep it clean for unknown future purposes. | After some considerable looking around on the womb and gearslutz, the shared knowledge there seems to be that recording at 44.1khz is just fine (especially if you're going to be bringing it back to 44.1 for CD), though if you've got enough processing power, mixing at 88.2 offers some benefits as when using plugins, "the maths works better".
Bit depth of 24 is important mind.
;)
Best,
Rich
@thehuxcapacitor |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | You should always record at the highest possible settings (imho). I see no reason not to since storage is so cheap these days, plus you're future-proofing your library as well as technology allows.
Regarding dithering, I personally don't do anything special in that regard when mastering my recordings. I simply clean them up, apply any corrective EQ and/or compression, and save them down to the desired bit/sample rates. That's it! Keep it clean for unknown future purposes. | A key thing to understand is that post-CD/DVD, you may not be the one who is making the file that the listener gets. The music or video service does that, because the listeners may not all be getting the same format.
If you submit your masters to [iTunes](http://itunesconnect.apple.com/), they want the 24/96 master. From the [Mastered for iTunes guide](https://www.apple.com/ca/itunes/mastered-for-itunes/docs/mastered_for_itunes.pdf):
>
> An ideal master will have 24-bit 96kHz resolution. These files contain more detail from which our encoders can create more accurate encodes.
>
>
>
That is because they use the 24/96 master as a template for all other formats. Right now (early 2016) they ship a 16-bit 44.1kHz AAC to customers, but at some point in the future they will bump that up, using the same 24/96 master of your song, and likely ship multiple formats.
If you’re publishing on [Bandcamp](http://bandcamp.com/), this is from their [Uploading guide](https://bandcamp.com/help/uploading):
>
> **Why the WAV/AIFF/FLAC upload requirement? Why don’t you just accept MP3s?** It’s all about maximizing flexibility for you and your fans.
> WAV, AIFF and FLAC are high-fidelity (lossless) formats. By starting
> with the highest possible quality source, we’re able to convert your
> tracks into a bunch of different format and quality combinations …
>
>
> **Can I upload my 24-bit tracks?** You bet. Your 24-bit and 16-bit tunes are welcome, and lossless file downloads (FLAC or ALAC) will
> always have the same bit-depth as the originals you upload.
>
>
>
So not only does Bandcamp want you to upload a lossless 24-bit file, they can distribute your 24-bit audio to listeners right now.
Other services will also move to this model if they are not there already. YouTube has been doing it for video for years. They will take one 4K video from you and make a bunch of encodes at different sizes and bitrates and give viewers the right one for their situation, based on playback resolution and bandwidth.
So if your recording system can do 24 channels of 24/96 without failing you in some major way, you should definitely record, mix, and master in 24/96, as though no other format existed. Because you can’t know what format the listeners will ultimately get, both today and in the near future. You just need to be concerned with capturing and creating as much quality as possible when you are recording, mixing, and mastering.
If you can’t do 24/96 without reducing your channels too much then fallback to 24-bit 44.1kHz so that at least you aren’t doing sample rate conversion to generate 16-bit 44.1kHz. |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Always record at the highest bit depth you can, so you have the best dynamic range to work with. After you've mixed and gotten the levels right, then you can convert to 16-bit/44.1 kHz for end users. Playback at anything higher than 48 kHz decreases fidelity while doubling file size. (If you're distributing sound effects to be re-used by others, then this doesn't apply, you should stay at the higher sample rate, and the re-users should downsample.)
Dithering is used when converting to a lower bit depth. It decreases nasty things like quantization distortion by increasing the overall noise a little bit.
As for sampling frequency, I'd record at 88.2. It's not a matter of recording what humans can hear; 44.1 is plenty for that. Instead, it's a matter of avoiding aliasing. All converters have some amount of aliasing. Recording at a higher sampling rate ensures that the aliasing stays way up in the ultrasound, and then you can get rid of the ultrasound with a really good digital filter on the computer instead of the reasonably good digital filter in the oversampling ADC. (Also software monitoring latency is lower at higher sample rates.)
In my experience, ADCs have higher noise when recording at higher sample rates, and it provides no benefits unless you're intentionally trying to record ultrasound, so don't go any higher than 88.2/96. (Also see [this argument that the optimal sample rate is around 60 kHz](http://www.trustmeimascientist.com/2013/02/04/the-science-of-sample-rates-when-higher-is-better-and-when-it-isnt/).)
And 88.2 instead of 96 because 88.2 is a perfect multiple of 44.1. To downsample, you just [do the digital filter and then drop half the samples](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downsampling#Downsampling_by_integer_factor). To convert 96 to 44.1, you need to, uh... do [more than that](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sample_rate_conversion#Technical_explanation). I'm sure they don't literally oversample by 147x and then downsample by 320x, but that's effectively what the algorithm is doing. It's more complicated than 88.2, so the processing will take longer, even if the converter is designed well enough to get the same output quality, so I see no benefit to 96. | After some considerable looking around on the womb and gearslutz, the shared knowledge there seems to be that recording at 44.1khz is just fine (especially if you're going to be bringing it back to 44.1 for CD), though if you've got enough processing power, mixing at 88.2 offers some benefits as when using plugins, "the maths works better".
Bit depth of 24 is important mind.
;)
Best,
Rich
@thehuxcapacitor |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | I believe this article sums it up far better than I ever could. And I like it because it doesn't seem to lean to either side of the "sample rate war". I recommend everyone read it of you have the time.
<http://www.trustmeimascientist.com/2013/02/04/the-science-of-sample-rates-when-higher-is-better-and-when-it-isnt/>
From my personal experience, record at 24bit 96k for marketing reasons. Whether or not there's a true benefit means little when that's what the customer wants. And then dither down from there if needed.
And one point made in the linked article I fully support is the use of higher sample rates in the case of inferior electronics in cheaper converters. (Corners have to be cut to make those boxes cheaper). The basic premise, the expensive converters can give better sound at lower sample rates. So if you have a cheaper converter, record at higher same rates to allow the frequencies we CAN hear to sound better (or more accurate). Reasons for this explained in the article.
Again, to answer your question specifically, record high and dither. | After some considerable looking around on the womb and gearslutz, the shared knowledge there seems to be that recording at 44.1khz is just fine (especially if you're going to be bringing it back to 44.1 for CD), though if you've got enough processing power, mixing at 88.2 offers some benefits as when using plugins, "the maths works better".
Bit depth of 24 is important mind.
;)
Best,
Rich
@thehuxcapacitor |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | After some considerable looking around on the womb and gearslutz, the shared knowledge there seems to be that recording at 44.1khz is just fine (especially if you're going to be bringing it back to 44.1 for CD), though if you've got enough processing power, mixing at 88.2 offers some benefits as when using plugins, "the maths works better".
Bit depth of 24 is important mind.
;)
Best,
Rich
@thehuxcapacitor | A key thing to understand is that post-CD/DVD, you may not be the one who is making the file that the listener gets. The music or video service does that, because the listeners may not all be getting the same format.
If you submit your masters to [iTunes](http://itunesconnect.apple.com/), they want the 24/96 master. From the [Mastered for iTunes guide](https://www.apple.com/ca/itunes/mastered-for-itunes/docs/mastered_for_itunes.pdf):
>
> An ideal master will have 24-bit 96kHz resolution. These files contain more detail from which our encoders can create more accurate encodes.
>
>
>
That is because they use the 24/96 master as a template for all other formats. Right now (early 2016) they ship a 16-bit 44.1kHz AAC to customers, but at some point in the future they will bump that up, using the same 24/96 master of your song, and likely ship multiple formats.
If you’re publishing on [Bandcamp](http://bandcamp.com/), this is from their [Uploading guide](https://bandcamp.com/help/uploading):
>
> **Why the WAV/AIFF/FLAC upload requirement? Why don’t you just accept MP3s?** It’s all about maximizing flexibility for you and your fans.
> WAV, AIFF and FLAC are high-fidelity (lossless) formats. By starting
> with the highest possible quality source, we’re able to convert your
> tracks into a bunch of different format and quality combinations …
>
>
> **Can I upload my 24-bit tracks?** You bet. Your 24-bit and 16-bit tunes are welcome, and lossless file downloads (FLAC or ALAC) will
> always have the same bit-depth as the originals you upload.
>
>
>
So not only does Bandcamp want you to upload a lossless 24-bit file, they can distribute your 24-bit audio to listeners right now.
Other services will also move to this model if they are not there already. YouTube has been doing it for video for years. They will take one 4K video from you and make a bunch of encodes at different sizes and bitrates and give viewers the right one for their situation, based on playback resolution and bandwidth.
So if your recording system can do 24 channels of 24/96 without failing you in some major way, you should definitely record, mix, and master in 24/96, as though no other format existed. Because you can’t know what format the listeners will ultimately get, both today and in the near future. You just need to be concerned with capturing and creating as much quality as possible when you are recording, mixing, and mastering.
If you can’t do 24/96 without reducing your channels too much then fallback to 24-bit 44.1kHz so that at least you aren’t doing sample rate conversion to generate 16-bit 44.1kHz. |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Always record at the highest bit depth you can, so you have the best dynamic range to work with. After you've mixed and gotten the levels right, then you can convert to 16-bit/44.1 kHz for end users. Playback at anything higher than 48 kHz decreases fidelity while doubling file size. (If you're distributing sound effects to be re-used by others, then this doesn't apply, you should stay at the higher sample rate, and the re-users should downsample.)
Dithering is used when converting to a lower bit depth. It decreases nasty things like quantization distortion by increasing the overall noise a little bit.
As for sampling frequency, I'd record at 88.2. It's not a matter of recording what humans can hear; 44.1 is plenty for that. Instead, it's a matter of avoiding aliasing. All converters have some amount of aliasing. Recording at a higher sampling rate ensures that the aliasing stays way up in the ultrasound, and then you can get rid of the ultrasound with a really good digital filter on the computer instead of the reasonably good digital filter in the oversampling ADC. (Also software monitoring latency is lower at higher sample rates.)
In my experience, ADCs have higher noise when recording at higher sample rates, and it provides no benefits unless you're intentionally trying to record ultrasound, so don't go any higher than 88.2/96. (Also see [this argument that the optimal sample rate is around 60 kHz](http://www.trustmeimascientist.com/2013/02/04/the-science-of-sample-rates-when-higher-is-better-and-when-it-isnt/).)
And 88.2 instead of 96 because 88.2 is a perfect multiple of 44.1. To downsample, you just [do the digital filter and then drop half the samples](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downsampling#Downsampling_by_integer_factor). To convert 96 to 44.1, you need to, uh... do [more than that](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sample_rate_conversion#Technical_explanation). I'm sure they don't literally oversample by 147x and then downsample by 320x, but that's effectively what the algorithm is doing. It's more complicated than 88.2, so the processing will take longer, even if the converter is designed well enough to get the same output quality, so I see no benefit to 96. | A key thing to understand is that post-CD/DVD, you may not be the one who is making the file that the listener gets. The music or video service does that, because the listeners may not all be getting the same format.
If you submit your masters to [iTunes](http://itunesconnect.apple.com/), they want the 24/96 master. From the [Mastered for iTunes guide](https://www.apple.com/ca/itunes/mastered-for-itunes/docs/mastered_for_itunes.pdf):
>
> An ideal master will have 24-bit 96kHz resolution. These files contain more detail from which our encoders can create more accurate encodes.
>
>
>
That is because they use the 24/96 master as a template for all other formats. Right now (early 2016) they ship a 16-bit 44.1kHz AAC to customers, but at some point in the future they will bump that up, using the same 24/96 master of your song, and likely ship multiple formats.
If you’re publishing on [Bandcamp](http://bandcamp.com/), this is from their [Uploading guide](https://bandcamp.com/help/uploading):
>
> **Why the WAV/AIFF/FLAC upload requirement? Why don’t you just accept MP3s?** It’s all about maximizing flexibility for you and your fans.
> WAV, AIFF and FLAC are high-fidelity (lossless) formats. By starting
> with the highest possible quality source, we’re able to convert your
> tracks into a bunch of different format and quality combinations …
>
>
> **Can I upload my 24-bit tracks?** You bet. Your 24-bit and 16-bit tunes are welcome, and lossless file downloads (FLAC or ALAC) will
> always have the same bit-depth as the originals you upload.
>
>
>
So not only does Bandcamp want you to upload a lossless 24-bit file, they can distribute your 24-bit audio to listeners right now.
Other services will also move to this model if they are not there already. YouTube has been doing it for video for years. They will take one 4K video from you and make a bunch of encodes at different sizes and bitrates and give viewers the right one for their situation, based on playback resolution and bandwidth.
So if your recording system can do 24 channels of 24/96 without failing you in some major way, you should definitely record, mix, and master in 24/96, as though no other format existed. Because you can’t know what format the listeners will ultimately get, both today and in the near future. You just need to be concerned with capturing and creating as much quality as possible when you are recording, mixing, and mastering.
If you can’t do 24/96 without reducing your channels too much then fallback to 24-bit 44.1kHz so that at least you aren’t doing sample rate conversion to generate 16-bit 44.1kHz. |
2,757 | Hello.
Maybe this question has already answered itself as I'm not quite sure how else it would be done. But say I'm recording sound effects for distribution and I want to offer them in different variants... 24bit 96khz, 24bit 48khz and 16bit 44.1khz.
Is it absolute common practice to record in the highest possible format and then dither down to the others? ...or do pros record the sound at different formats each (which I can't really see how this is done)
With this, is there anything I should note when preforming dithering on such material? The dither options available to me are iZotope's 64-bit SRC and MBIT+.
Many thanks. | 2010/08/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/2757",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | I believe this article sums it up far better than I ever could. And I like it because it doesn't seem to lean to either side of the "sample rate war". I recommend everyone read it of you have the time.
<http://www.trustmeimascientist.com/2013/02/04/the-science-of-sample-rates-when-higher-is-better-and-when-it-isnt/>
From my personal experience, record at 24bit 96k for marketing reasons. Whether or not there's a true benefit means little when that's what the customer wants. And then dither down from there if needed.
And one point made in the linked article I fully support is the use of higher sample rates in the case of inferior electronics in cheaper converters. (Corners have to be cut to make those boxes cheaper). The basic premise, the expensive converters can give better sound at lower sample rates. So if you have a cheaper converter, record at higher same rates to allow the frequencies we CAN hear to sound better (or more accurate). Reasons for this explained in the article.
Again, to answer your question specifically, record high and dither. | A key thing to understand is that post-CD/DVD, you may not be the one who is making the file that the listener gets. The music or video service does that, because the listeners may not all be getting the same format.
If you submit your masters to [iTunes](http://itunesconnect.apple.com/), they want the 24/96 master. From the [Mastered for iTunes guide](https://www.apple.com/ca/itunes/mastered-for-itunes/docs/mastered_for_itunes.pdf):
>
> An ideal master will have 24-bit 96kHz resolution. These files contain more detail from which our encoders can create more accurate encodes.
>
>
>
That is because they use the 24/96 master as a template for all other formats. Right now (early 2016) they ship a 16-bit 44.1kHz AAC to customers, but at some point in the future they will bump that up, using the same 24/96 master of your song, and likely ship multiple formats.
If you’re publishing on [Bandcamp](http://bandcamp.com/), this is from their [Uploading guide](https://bandcamp.com/help/uploading):
>
> **Why the WAV/AIFF/FLAC upload requirement? Why don’t you just accept MP3s?** It’s all about maximizing flexibility for you and your fans.
> WAV, AIFF and FLAC are high-fidelity (lossless) formats. By starting
> with the highest possible quality source, we’re able to convert your
> tracks into a bunch of different format and quality combinations …
>
>
> **Can I upload my 24-bit tracks?** You bet. Your 24-bit and 16-bit tunes are welcome, and lossless file downloads (FLAC or ALAC) will
> always have the same bit-depth as the originals you upload.
>
>
>
So not only does Bandcamp want you to upload a lossless 24-bit file, they can distribute your 24-bit audio to listeners right now.
Other services will also move to this model if they are not there already. YouTube has been doing it for video for years. They will take one 4K video from you and make a bunch of encodes at different sizes and bitrates and give viewers the right one for their situation, based on playback resolution and bandwidth.
So if your recording system can do 24 channels of 24/96 without failing you in some major way, you should definitely record, mix, and master in 24/96, as though no other format existed. Because you can’t know what format the listeners will ultimately get, both today and in the near future. You just need to be concerned with capturing and creating as much quality as possible when you are recording, mixing, and mastering.
If you can’t do 24/96 without reducing your channels too much then fallback to 24-bit 44.1kHz so that at least you aren’t doing sample rate conversion to generate 16-bit 44.1kHz. |
89,165 | I've recently booked a trip to Mexico through Groupon. The trip is booked as all-inclusive. There is a section in the deal description that says that all "hotel taxes and gratuities included." **What can I reasonably assume is covered by hotel gratuities?** Specifically, I'm concerned about these things:
* We are working with the hotel to arrange a shuttle to pick us up from the airport and take us back to the hotel. Do I need to tip the driver?
* As the trip is all-inclusive, we plan to do quite a bit of dining and drinking. Do we need to tip our servers/bartenders?
* If we order room service, should we tip our delivery person?
* What about standard hotel services, such as housekeeping, doormen, bellhops, etc?
I personally would feel more comfortable erring on the safe side and tipping liberally, but the people I am travelling with feel that tipping is unnecessary as it is already "covered in the trip expenses". I'd appreciate any insight that could help us determine when and where it is inappropriate to abstain from tipping. | 2017/03/02 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/89165",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/58155/"
] | **It basically means that you are not expected to tip.** In such resorts, people usually do not carry any cash, cards or even a wallet at all.
The bill at the end of the stay *usually* includes how much of the payement was used for involuntary tip. It's frankly a strange concept but in theory, you are allowed to tip more or even less if you have had an issue with service. I've never contested it, so I don't know how hard it is to get some back.
Now, you are concerned with extras. You can add some tip and it will rarely be refused from what I see but you will probably not be expected to tip the driver, porter or bar-tenders. | To be sure, you'll have to ask the booking agent or contact the property directly.
What they're trying to portray is the all-inclusive aspect, similar to a cruise benefit where gratuities are 'included' or 'pre-paid'.
So, it's not wrong to not tip since the deal is advertised as 'all-inclusive, including gratuities' but, most people will still tip in many situations. You also have to consider they may be trying to reach markets where tipping is not as common as in the US.
It is generally understood that personnel that you interact with regularly, such as a Room Steward, are more accommodating if you at a tipper even if they are pre-paid or included.
I you want to recognize good service, tip. |
66,742 | I am using screen shots to present my web work then building an .svg with some additional layers, the resolution turns out great. I choose to save it as an svg because it maintains clarity, in the future I could animate some layers, so it gives me flexibility.
I am using illustrator for the quality it delivers, but when I place my screen shot and save as an svg some file sizes are 15mb, while others are much less, there is an inconsistency, not sure what the difference is in my process.
In all the folio items I use the same process, using my mac to take a screen shot and place it inside an illustrator template.
For a visual this is an example, I exported it as a .png and there is definitely quality loss, but here I have a subtle background and the screenshot in one.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/P6CmJ.png)
**My question** is how can I use a screen shot inside my illustrator canvas while maintaining a relatively low file size saved as preferably .svg format (quality is obviously important).
Is svg even the optimal solution, is it unwise to use that since its kind of arbitrary, there really is no artwork, but quality is a big factor to me that is why I chose it.
So basically how can I use screen shots inside an illustrator to get maximum quality with keeping relatively low file size, is there a better alternative? | 2016/02/09 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/66742",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/41222/"
] | Illustrator and SVG only deliver quality and clarity if you create documents with vector shapes in them, but you are storing bitmaps in there.
Vectors are like a recipe that can be scaled up or down to feed 2 or 200, while a bitmap is like a TV dinner for 1. It will never feed 200. You can’t increase its quality beyond what is already frozen in there.
The likely reason you are getting large file sizes is that you are scaling the screenshot up in Illustrator and then Illustrator is saving out a much larger bitmap image in the SVG. You can easily turn a 1 megabyte bitmap into a 15 megabyte bitmap in this way, but again, that doesn’t increase the quality.
The better way to do enhance the presentation of bitmap images is to use an HTML editor — not Illustrator — and place your PNG bitmaps into an HTML page. Then add borders or other presentational attributes to your images with CSS rules.
If you want to make the best-quality presentation that you can, then don’t use screenshots. Instead, use a tool that can convert a Web view into a bitmap image at both 1:1 (standard) and 2:1 (Retina) pixel ratios. Then your PNG images will show at much higher quality on Retina Display (assuming your work is Retina-ready which it should be.) For example, on the Mac there is an app called “Page Layers” (available in Mac App Store) that, given a URL, can capture the entirety of the Web rendering of that URL at 1:1 or 2:1 and give you either a flat PNG or a layered Photoshop document, where each element of your work is on a different layer. If you don’t use a Mac, look for a tool like that on your platform. Then those bitmap captures of your work can be turned into a Retina-ready browsable portfolio in any HTML editor.
One thing to consider, though, is just to show the actual native Web work, not pictures of the work. If the work is Web-native, then the best way to present that is as Web-native elements. So instead of creating an HTML page with a picture of a table in it, you would put in the actual table. You may want to convert the styles to inline styles with a tool, then just Copy/Paste the HTML example of your work into an HTML portfolio of your work. Or you can use iframes to show the actual online work in your portfolio without any conversion. | The problem is that SVG is a text format and therefore images (afaik) are all embedded via a base64 string. That is usually pretty big.
What you can do is try and optimize the PNG (reducing colors, etc) as much as possible with a tool before putting it into illustrator and hope it doesn't undo all of that.
Binary formats (or at least compressed formats) would probably do better, but theres no guarantee that you will get tiny file sizes. |
66,742 | I am using screen shots to present my web work then building an .svg with some additional layers, the resolution turns out great. I choose to save it as an svg because it maintains clarity, in the future I could animate some layers, so it gives me flexibility.
I am using illustrator for the quality it delivers, but when I place my screen shot and save as an svg some file sizes are 15mb, while others are much less, there is an inconsistency, not sure what the difference is in my process.
In all the folio items I use the same process, using my mac to take a screen shot and place it inside an illustrator template.
For a visual this is an example, I exported it as a .png and there is definitely quality loss, but here I have a subtle background and the screenshot in one.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/P6CmJ.png)
**My question** is how can I use a screen shot inside my illustrator canvas while maintaining a relatively low file size saved as preferably .svg format (quality is obviously important).
Is svg even the optimal solution, is it unwise to use that since its kind of arbitrary, there really is no artwork, but quality is a big factor to me that is why I chose it.
So basically how can I use screen shots inside an illustrator to get maximum quality with keeping relatively low file size, is there a better alternative? | 2016/02/09 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/66742",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/41222/"
] | Illustrator and SVG only deliver quality and clarity if you create documents with vector shapes in them, but you are storing bitmaps in there.
Vectors are like a recipe that can be scaled up or down to feed 2 or 200, while a bitmap is like a TV dinner for 1. It will never feed 200. You can’t increase its quality beyond what is already frozen in there.
The likely reason you are getting large file sizes is that you are scaling the screenshot up in Illustrator and then Illustrator is saving out a much larger bitmap image in the SVG. You can easily turn a 1 megabyte bitmap into a 15 megabyte bitmap in this way, but again, that doesn’t increase the quality.
The better way to do enhance the presentation of bitmap images is to use an HTML editor — not Illustrator — and place your PNG bitmaps into an HTML page. Then add borders or other presentational attributes to your images with CSS rules.
If you want to make the best-quality presentation that you can, then don’t use screenshots. Instead, use a tool that can convert a Web view into a bitmap image at both 1:1 (standard) and 2:1 (Retina) pixel ratios. Then your PNG images will show at much higher quality on Retina Display (assuming your work is Retina-ready which it should be.) For example, on the Mac there is an app called “Page Layers” (available in Mac App Store) that, given a URL, can capture the entirety of the Web rendering of that URL at 1:1 or 2:1 and give you either a flat PNG or a layered Photoshop document, where each element of your work is on a different layer. If you don’t use a Mac, look for a tool like that on your platform. Then those bitmap captures of your work can be turned into a Retina-ready browsable portfolio in any HTML editor.
One thing to consider, though, is just to show the actual native Web work, not pictures of the work. If the work is Web-native, then the best way to present that is as Web-native elements. So instead of creating an HTML page with a picture of a table in it, you would put in the actual table. You may want to convert the styles to inline styles with a tool, then just Copy/Paste the HTML example of your work into an HTML portfolio of your work. Or you can use iframes to show the actual online work in your portfolio without any conversion. | There might be several issues:
The PNG you are saving might have transparency, also called an alpha channel. If it blends with other objects, or Illustrator thinks it might, this could cause the file size to get big. SOLUTION: Make sure the PNG doesn't have a transparency or, even better, save as a jpeg, which can't have transparency.
You may want save as a jpeg anyway, since the file sizes are generally smaller than png (since it uses lossy compression). Save at a high quality setting (8 or 10) to avoid compression artifacts.
Another thing might be that you have 'Preserve Illustrator editing capabilities' checked which can increase file size. You need it to edit in illustrator, obviously, but not to export for the web.
You can also try linking your screenshots rather than embedding them, but than you have to keep track of a separate file.
Finally, you can have actual vector graphics instead of a screen shot. You can do this by saving a chart as a PDF, usually done by printing it to a PDF file. Than you can import the PDF into Illustrator, clean it up and save the vector graphics as an svg. I wouldn't recommend this though since the PDF may be difficult to clean up and with all that detail the file size may well be larger than a screenshot. |
66,742 | I am using screen shots to present my web work then building an .svg with some additional layers, the resolution turns out great. I choose to save it as an svg because it maintains clarity, in the future I could animate some layers, so it gives me flexibility.
I am using illustrator for the quality it delivers, but when I place my screen shot and save as an svg some file sizes are 15mb, while others are much less, there is an inconsistency, not sure what the difference is in my process.
In all the folio items I use the same process, using my mac to take a screen shot and place it inside an illustrator template.
For a visual this is an example, I exported it as a .png and there is definitely quality loss, but here I have a subtle background and the screenshot in one.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/P6CmJ.png)
**My question** is how can I use a screen shot inside my illustrator canvas while maintaining a relatively low file size saved as preferably .svg format (quality is obviously important).
Is svg even the optimal solution, is it unwise to use that since its kind of arbitrary, there really is no artwork, but quality is a big factor to me that is why I chose it.
So basically how can I use screen shots inside an illustrator to get maximum quality with keeping relatively low file size, is there a better alternative? | 2016/02/09 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/66742",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/41222/"
] | Illustrator and SVG only deliver quality and clarity if you create documents with vector shapes in them, but you are storing bitmaps in there.
Vectors are like a recipe that can be scaled up or down to feed 2 or 200, while a bitmap is like a TV dinner for 1. It will never feed 200. You can’t increase its quality beyond what is already frozen in there.
The likely reason you are getting large file sizes is that you are scaling the screenshot up in Illustrator and then Illustrator is saving out a much larger bitmap image in the SVG. You can easily turn a 1 megabyte bitmap into a 15 megabyte bitmap in this way, but again, that doesn’t increase the quality.
The better way to do enhance the presentation of bitmap images is to use an HTML editor — not Illustrator — and place your PNG bitmaps into an HTML page. Then add borders or other presentational attributes to your images with CSS rules.
If you want to make the best-quality presentation that you can, then don’t use screenshots. Instead, use a tool that can convert a Web view into a bitmap image at both 1:1 (standard) and 2:1 (Retina) pixel ratios. Then your PNG images will show at much higher quality on Retina Display (assuming your work is Retina-ready which it should be.) For example, on the Mac there is an app called “Page Layers” (available in Mac App Store) that, given a URL, can capture the entirety of the Web rendering of that URL at 1:1 or 2:1 and give you either a flat PNG or a layered Photoshop document, where each element of your work is on a different layer. If you don’t use a Mac, look for a tool like that on your platform. Then those bitmap captures of your work can be turned into a Retina-ready browsable portfolio in any HTML editor.
One thing to consider, though, is just to show the actual native Web work, not pictures of the work. If the work is Web-native, then the best way to present that is as Web-native elements. So instead of creating an HTML page with a picture of a table in it, you would put in the actual table. You may want to convert the styles to inline styles with a tool, then just Copy/Paste the HTML example of your work into an HTML portfolio of your work. Or you can use iframes to show the actual online work in your portfolio without any conversion. | As Jeremy S. has already pointed out, creating a PDF of the website is one way. Here's a quick tip for converting websites to PDF using [Paparazzi!](https://derailer.org/paparazzi/) and [Sketch](https://www.sketch.com/).
* [The 3 step guide to convert any webpage into Sketch | Hacking UI](http://hackingui.com/design/website-to-sketch/)
+ Launch Paparazzi, then type in any website’s URL into the URL bar and press ‘enter’.
+ Wait until the screenshot loads, then launch Sketch, and drag the screenshot into any open Sketch document.
+ In Sketch – filter the layer panel for the word “clip”, then select all layers and hit the ‘backspace’ key on your keyboard to delete all those layers. (These are masks that keep you from selecting elements on your document).
Then you can Export to PDF (or SVG) and continue editing in Illustrator. This is my preferred workflow for website redesigns, where I have to work with a lot of existing elements that have to be reorganized.
Also Paparazzi grabs the whole page height, which usually is difficult via normal browser print dialogues. |
12,371,343 | We have always traditionally used SAN as a backend storage for our databases. But recently our SAN vendor threw in an idea that we can even load our Application Servers (JBoss) directly from SAN.
I was suprised, but the concept is to install the application server on the SAN LUN and then run it from there. The SAN vendor mentioned about ease of DR replication of AppServer configuration, etc.
Is this a viable strategy for production systems? What are the risks, drawbacks? | 2012/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12371343",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1579031/"
] | I Tried to revoke acces to an app engine project of mine and I was able to revoke the permission by going to google accounts setting page. There you can revoke access from android login service. After that I had to remove the google account from my phone and add it back. If you start your app again you should see the permission dialog again. | Resetting/revoking the permission generally depend on the type of token. There are two sides of this: revoking the token on the server side using your Google profile page and revoking the permission for your app to use this type of token (on Android). For the server side you can revoke OAuth and AuthSub tokens, but not ClientLogin tokens. Go to <https://www.google.com/settings/security> and click the 'Edit' button in the 'Authorizing applications and sites' section. For revoking the on device permission, uninstalling the your app should reset it (it removes an entry in a system database when your package is uninstalled). Apparently this doesn't work properly on some devices, but it *should* work. The dialog will only appear when you try to use a token, so it shouldn't appear before you request it. You should handle expiry in your app (i.e., request a fresh token), but this won't show a permission dialog. |
10,169 | My nutrition shop websites for tampa and brandon were coming up on page one of google search results and now they have dissappeared. The 2 websites serve different markets although they are close geographically and have the same products, keywords, and layouts. Brandon, FL is considered a suburb of Tampa, FL and could be grouped into the Tampa Bay area. There's also a mirror site nutrition shop setup for orlando. Is the google search ranking drop because:
1) from a flash banner recently added on the front page
2) is the site just being re-indexed on all search engines b/c of new content?
3) is it seen as duplicate content as there are separate websites for the cities of Tampa and Brandon but with the same content?
What can be done to fix this?
Thanks! | 2011/03/07 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/10169",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/5847/"
] | We have so little information to go on that it's hard to say for sure but if you have three websites all with the same content then the odds are this site has been hit with a duplicate content penalty.
**UPDATE**
*From the comments below*
Those sites are definitely clones of each other so it's no surprise one is filtered out. The more differences you can make the better. If it is a template driven site change the layout as much as you can. See if you can do anything to the titles besides changing just the location name. Really, anything you can change is going to help differentiate the two. (Footer text, anchor text, meta desc tag) | Duplicate information can hurt you... but it is impossible to say more without knowing more :)
The main point you should consider is if it is your website that is going down in rank or your competitors going up. Check the ones which rank about you to see if they are more relevant or have more recent content. |
10,169 | My nutrition shop websites for tampa and brandon were coming up on page one of google search results and now they have dissappeared. The 2 websites serve different markets although they are close geographically and have the same products, keywords, and layouts. Brandon, FL is considered a suburb of Tampa, FL and could be grouped into the Tampa Bay area. There's also a mirror site nutrition shop setup for orlando. Is the google search ranking drop because:
1) from a flash banner recently added on the front page
2) is the site just being re-indexed on all search engines b/c of new content?
3) is it seen as duplicate content as there are separate websites for the cities of Tampa and Brandon but with the same content?
What can be done to fix this?
Thanks! | 2011/03/07 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/10169",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/5847/"
] | Several days ago, Google has made some changes to its algorithm which has been affecting a huge number of sites. Some sites have dropped unbelievably low in the SERPs, while some (like eHow) have seen a huge boost. See the attached Wall Street Journal article on the change. You may want to look into your duplicate content issue (try to make it more unique) but other than that, I recommend waiting it out a bit while Google balances its search engines. In the meantime, you can continue working on your project or work on a new one. Best of luck!
[Google Revamps to Fight Cheaters](http://online.wsj.com/article/SB10001424052748704150604576166390281747136.html) | Duplicate information can hurt you... but it is impossible to say more without knowing more :)
The main point you should consider is if it is your website that is going down in rank or your competitors going up. Check the ones which rank about you to see if they are more relevant or have more recent content. |
5,329,306 | I have a list of companies that I would like to get the wikipedia page's of. Does wikipedia offer an api or a way of doing this so I don't have to go and search each on individually?
Thanks for the help! | 2011/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5329306",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/156445/"
] | Wikipedia does have an API, which is documented at <http://www.mediawiki.org/wiki/API>. You can also export a list of pages (by title) using [Special:Export](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special%3aExport). But if you are intending to download a large number of articles, you would be better served with a [database download](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia%3aDatabase_download). | <http://www.mediawiki.org/wiki/API> |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | Tag named (graphing-functions) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. | Tag named (plotting) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | Tag named (graphing) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. | Tag named (plotting) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | Tag named (graphing) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. | I think the following proposal addresses all points:
Blacklist the tag [graph]. Put an entry in the tag-wiki indicating to consider either [graph-theory] or [graphing].
Make [plot] and [plotting] into synonyms for [graphing].
If people want it, also add [function-graph] to cover questions like [this one Martin Sleziak found](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/326902) which ask about the graph of a function in a non-visual manner. Having scanned through the entire [graph] tag, I only found this one question where I would use this tag, so I don't think it is necessary, but I have no strong objection to it.
I like [graphing] as a tag because I think it is the term an unsophisticated poster would use for this topic, and it is a topic that attracts a lot of basic questions. |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | I think the following proposal addresses all points:
Blacklist the tag [graph]. Put an entry in the tag-wiki indicating to consider either [graph-theory] or [graphing].
Make [plot] and [plotting] into synonyms for [graphing].
If people want it, also add [function-graph] to cover questions like [this one Martin Sleziak found](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/326902) which ask about the graph of a function in a non-visual manner. Having scanned through the entire [graph] tag, I only found this one question where I would use this tag, so I don't think it is necessary, but I have no strong objection to it.
I like [graphing] as a tag because I think it is the term an unsophisticated poster would use for this topic, and it is a topic that attracts a lot of basic questions. | Tag named (function-graph) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | Tag named (graphing-functions) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. | I think the following proposal addresses all points:
Blacklist the tag [graph]. Put an entry in the tag-wiki indicating to consider either [graph-theory] or [graphing].
Make [plot] and [plotting] into synonyms for [graphing].
If people want it, also add [function-graph] to cover questions like [this one Martin Sleziak found](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/326902) which ask about the graph of a function in a non-visual manner. Having scanned through the entire [graph] tag, I only found this one question where I would use this tag, so I don't think it is necessary, but I have no strong objection to it.
I like [graphing] as a tag because I think it is the term an unsophisticated poster would use for this topic, and it is a topic that attracts a lot of basic questions. |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | I think the following proposal addresses all points:
Blacklist the tag [graph]. Put an entry in the tag-wiki indicating to consider either [graph-theory] or [graphing].
Make [plot] and [plotting] into synonyms for [graphing].
If people want it, also add [function-graph] to cover questions like [this one Martin Sleziak found](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/326902) which ask about the graph of a function in a non-visual manner. Having scanned through the entire [graph] tag, I only found this one question where I would use this tag, so I don't think it is necessary, but I have no strong objection to it.
I like [graphing] as a tag because I think it is the term an unsophisticated poster would use for this topic, and it is a topic that attracts a lot of basic questions. | Tag named (plotting) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. |
8,729 | The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is supposed to be for questions about the graphs of functions. But it is very commonly misapplied to questions that are about the graphs of graph theory. These questions are supposed to have the [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'") tag instead. Many don't.
Many questions have both tags. There are between 50 and 100 questions tagged with both graph and graph-theory, and I would be surprised if both tags were appropriate for even one of these.
The [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag is usually wrong. I suggested in the "tagging" chat that we:
1. Eliminate [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'")
2. Replace it with something less ambiguous: perhaps [function-graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/function-graph "show questions tagged 'function-graph'"), or perhaps just eliminate it
* (My current favorite suggestion is that we replace it with [graphing](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graphing "show questions tagged 'graphing'").)
3. Blacklist it to prevent further confusion
I suggested this in the "tagging" chat.
Martin Sleziak, the person who seems to have given the most thought to tagging issues, replied:
>
> It is good that you have mentioned this problem. I've retagged a few questions (but there is a lot of them remaining.) I've also added a comment template [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/4925/list-of-comment-templates/8587#8587).
> If you think that the [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") tag should be blacklisted, you should probably start a meta thread. Blacklisting a tag is a big decision, so the community should know about it and it would be good if some consensus could be achieved.
>
>
>
I thought about it some more, and here we are. There are a few hundred questions tagged with [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'"), so it would not be an insurmountable task to eliminate them manually. Around one-sixth of these also have [graph-theory](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph-theory "show questions tagged 'graph-theory'"), and we might decide, as a first step, to mechanically remove [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'") from each of those; this would be correct in the great majority of cases.
Thoughts? | 2013/03/10 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8729",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25554/"
] | Tag named (graphing) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. | Tag named (function-graph) would be a good replacement for [graph](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/graph "show questions tagged 'graph'").
Please upvote/downvote this answer to show your opinion on this. |
9,990,588 | Let's say I have a 6-core machine with 12MB cache. I use it for a server application that has a few gigabytes of heap (much of it 2nd level Hibernate cache).
I noticed that most of the time I have a handful threads actively serving client requests (burning CPU and talking to DB), as well as about 30-50 more threads that are only doing ol' good synchronous network IO with client.
As I am learning about Java memory model, I am wondering if this can impact performance. Does context switching for one of the many network IO threads ruin thread/CPU cache of the "active" threads? Is this level of concurrency harmful in itself (memory cache aside)?
Does it really matter, given how small the CPU cache is in relation to the whole application memory? How can I determine where the boundary is? | 2012/04/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9990588",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/277683/"
] | >
> Does context switching for one of the many network IO threads ruin thread/CPU cache of the "active" threads?
>
>
>
There are no hard guarantees, but my gut feeling is that, in practice, CPU caches get updated by order(s) of magnitude more frequently than the scheduler switches threads. If this is the case, then the cache update required by thread context switching is extremely small overhead compared to the cache updates that are going on already.
>
> How can I determine where the boundary is?
>
>
>
By experimenting and measuring (profiling), as is the case with most performance-related questions. Simple theoretical approximations won't work because the reality of what's *really* going on in a modern PC is more complex than any reasonable approximation. | There will be an impact and you can get some jitter when you have more active threads than cpus. However, the jitter is usually considered to be relatively small 10 to 100 micro-seconds.
You can have the thread competing for cache resources, but there is not much you can do about it except reduce the amount of active data each thread uses. This can reduce your cpu load by a factor of 2x or more, but involves alot of work, possibly a complete re-write (including some JDK and third party libraries) and it may yeild little benefit. e.g. how much do you need the cpu load to be lower. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | I found this page after running into this same problem.
What I found worked for me might be *part* of the answer you need:
Take a look at the Page Manager Redirect Module <http://drupal.org/project/page_manager_redirect> . I just started playing with it.
It uses the Page Manager module of CTools to redirect one page to another. What makes this most powerful is that Page Manager uses Contexts. So, if you want to redirect all pages of a particular content type, you can do so.
I just started to use it (instead of Taxonomy Redirect and Path Redirect) to redirect (301 response code) my taxonomy terms for a particular vocabulary to particular nodes.
In your instance, you should be able to use contexts to filter for specific pages.
Of course this doesn't solve the problem of these nodes coming up in search results. | I am having the same problem, and are currently thinking of the following solution where all the content of a node is to be displayed to certain users (permission based):
- unpublish node
- create a new published checkbox
- create a view with fields that shows alle the content
Haven't tested it thoroughly yet, but it seems to work.
The node is to be displayed to the creator (only one in permission 1), some of it to permission 2 and all of it to permission 3.
Any comments on this solution.
I assume this will also exclude it from search, but permission 2 and 3 needs to be able to search it. Still haven't figured that one out. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | Tough one.
If you want to have many nodes like this and do the "displaying elsewhere" dynamically, I can't think of anything right now (at 2:20 AM I rarely can).
If there is onne such page (or very few), I'd restrict access to it by any available means (Permissions, Nodeaccess, Content Access, TAC, whatever) and then create special themes for the pages where the restricted content should be displayed. The themes would contain database queries, fetching content from the restricted nodes.
Other possibility might include creating a special theme for the hidden nodes in question (perhaps all belonging to the same content type?). Make full node display nothing (or a message saying the access is restricted) and add a ROBOTS meta tag asking Google not to index the page. Make the teaser view available though - you can display it freely inside a view, but since /node/1234 is the FULL view, the actual content will be unavailable here.
Dunno if this solves your problem, hope it helps at least a bit. | I found this page after running into this same problem.
What I found worked for me might be *part* of the answer you need:
Take a look at the Page Manager Redirect Module <http://drupal.org/project/page_manager_redirect> . I just started playing with it.
It uses the Page Manager module of CTools to redirect one page to another. What makes this most powerful is that Page Manager uses Contexts. So, if you want to redirect all pages of a particular content type, you can do so.
I just started to use it (instead of Taxonomy Redirect and Path Redirect) to redirect (301 response code) my taxonomy terms for a particular vocabulary to particular nodes.
In your instance, you should be able to use contexts to filter for specific pages.
Of course this doesn't solve the problem of these nodes coming up in search results. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | I am having the same problem, and are currently thinking of the following solution where all the content of a node is to be displayed to certain users (permission based):
- unpublish node
- create a new published checkbox
- create a view with fields that shows alle the content
Haven't tested it thoroughly yet, but it seems to work.
The node is to be displayed to the creator (only one in permission 1), some of it to permission 2 and all of it to permission 3.
Any comments on this solution.
I assume this will also exclude it from search, but permission 2 and 3 needs to be able to search it. Still haven't figured that one out. | I used Rules module with an "entity is of bundle" and the built-in "Page redirect" action. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | There is also another module [Rabbit Hole](https://drupal.org/project/rabbit_hole) which has a similar functionality like [Internal Nodes](https://drupal.org/project/internal_nodes) but works for all entities, not only nodes. | I used Rules module with an "entity is of bundle" and the built-in "Page redirect" action. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | Tough one.
If you want to have many nodes like this and do the "displaying elsewhere" dynamically, I can't think of anything right now (at 2:20 AM I rarely can).
If there is onne such page (or very few), I'd restrict access to it by any available means (Permissions, Nodeaccess, Content Access, TAC, whatever) and then create special themes for the pages where the restricted content should be displayed. The themes would contain database queries, fetching content from the restricted nodes.
Other possibility might include creating a special theme for the hidden nodes in question (perhaps all belonging to the same content type?). Make full node display nothing (or a message saying the access is restricted) and add a ROBOTS meta tag asking Google not to index the page. Make the teaser view available though - you can display it freely inside a view, but since /node/1234 is the FULL view, the actual content will be unavailable here.
Dunno if this solves your problem, hope it helps at least a bit. | In Drupal 7 you can use: <http://drupal.org/project/internal_nodes>
Description: Some content/nodes should never be viewed directly; only visible be through something else such as Views or Panels. This module denies access to node/[nid] URLs while allowing the content to stay published and otherwise viewable.
Full disclosure: I am the creator and co-maintainer of Internal Nodes. I found this question while searching to see how the module could be found on Google. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | In Drupal 7 you can use: <http://drupal.org/project/internal_nodes>
Description: Some content/nodes should never be viewed directly; only visible be through something else such as Views or Panels. This module denies access to node/[nid] URLs while allowing the content to stay published and otherwise viewable.
Full disclosure: I am the creator and co-maintainer of Internal Nodes. I found this question while searching to see how the module could be found on Google. | There is a really easy way to do this if you only want to show a content type through a view.
1. create a content type as and make it unpublished.
2. create a view and on the filter option set the filter to "Content: Published (No)"
the view will give anon users access to the content through the view but they won't have access to the unpublished content at the direct link to the content. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | I found this page after running into this same problem.
What I found worked for me might be *part* of the answer you need:
Take a look at the Page Manager Redirect Module <http://drupal.org/project/page_manager_redirect> . I just started playing with it.
It uses the Page Manager module of CTools to redirect one page to another. What makes this most powerful is that Page Manager uses Contexts. So, if you want to redirect all pages of a particular content type, you can do so.
I just started to use it (instead of Taxonomy Redirect and Path Redirect) to redirect (301 response code) my taxonomy terms for a particular vocabulary to particular nodes.
In your instance, you should be able to use contexts to filter for specific pages.
Of course this doesn't solve the problem of these nodes coming up in search results. | I used Rules module with an "entity is of bundle" and the built-in "Page redirect" action. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | In Drupal 7 you can use: <http://drupal.org/project/internal_nodes>
Description: Some content/nodes should never be viewed directly; only visible be through something else such as Views or Panels. This module denies access to node/[nid] URLs while allowing the content to stay published and otherwise viewable.
Full disclosure: I am the creator and co-maintainer of Internal Nodes. I found this question while searching to see how the module could be found on Google. | I used Rules module with an "entity is of bundle" and the built-in "Page redirect" action. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | Tough one.
If you want to have many nodes like this and do the "displaying elsewhere" dynamically, I can't think of anything right now (at 2:20 AM I rarely can).
If there is onne such page (or very few), I'd restrict access to it by any available means (Permissions, Nodeaccess, Content Access, TAC, whatever) and then create special themes for the pages where the restricted content should be displayed. The themes would contain database queries, fetching content from the restricted nodes.
Other possibility might include creating a special theme for the hidden nodes in question (perhaps all belonging to the same content type?). Make full node display nothing (or a message saying the access is restricted) and add a ROBOTS meta tag asking Google not to index the page. Make the teaser view available though - you can display it freely inside a view, but since /node/1234 is the FULL view, the actual content will be unavailable here.
Dunno if this solves your problem, hope it helps at least a bit. | I am having the same problem, and are currently thinking of the following solution where all the content of a node is to be displayed to certain users (permission based):
- unpublish node
- create a new published checkbox
- create a view with fields that shows alle the content
Haven't tested it thoroughly yet, but it seems to work.
The node is to be displayed to the creator (only one in permission 1), some of it to permission 2 and all of it to permission 3.
Any comments on this solution.
I assume this will also exclude it from search, but permission 2 and 3 needs to be able to search it. Still haven't figured that one out. |
3,783,337 | I have seen many somewhat similar questions, but nothing quite what I'm looking for. So at the risk of being told this is a duplicate... here it goes.
I've found that there are times I have a node that simply contains content that will be displayed somewhere else, but shouldn't be viewed directly. That is, no one should ever go to node/1234, but the content in node 1234 should be displayed somewhere else.
For example, I create an about page with tabbed content using views. So there are "About Me", "About Us" and "About Them" pages. All of these are displayed in a single page with tabs using Views. So I don't want people to get directly to the "About Us" node because then they wouldn't see the tabs for the other pages. At the same time, I don't want Google giving people a direct link to this node, I want to limit access so users can only get to it through the View (i.e., the tab).
So I need to restrict access to the node, remove it from the Drupal search results, and make sure Google doesn't pick up on it. Any suggestions?
---- Note ----
I've accepted the answer from mingos (thanks btw) because even though it's not a full answer / solution, it gave me some good things to think about. Additional answers are still welcome. | 2010/09/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3783337",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/318158/"
] | I found this page after running into this same problem.
What I found worked for me might be *part* of the answer you need:
Take a look at the Page Manager Redirect Module <http://drupal.org/project/page_manager_redirect> . I just started playing with it.
It uses the Page Manager module of CTools to redirect one page to another. What makes this most powerful is that Page Manager uses Contexts. So, if you want to redirect all pages of a particular content type, you can do so.
I just started to use it (instead of Taxonomy Redirect and Path Redirect) to redirect (301 response code) my taxonomy terms for a particular vocabulary to particular nodes.
In your instance, you should be able to use contexts to filter for specific pages.
Of course this doesn't solve the problem of these nodes coming up in search results. | There is a really easy way to do this if you only want to show a content type through a view.
1. create a content type as and make it unpublished.
2. create a view and on the filter option set the filter to "Content: Published (No)"
the view will give anon users access to the content through the view but they won't have access to the unpublished content at the direct link to the content. |
10,070 | I'm toying with the idea of writing a single standalone book and then later follow it with a series, in the same world with some of the same characters.
Are there any examples of this? I couldn't think of any.
Also, is this a good idea? Any major detractors to doing this? | 2014/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/10070",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/6517/"
] | Many series consist of books that conclude their respective plots and don't continue it in the next volume.
Examples:
* Safe-Keepers series by [Sharon Shinn](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sharon_Shinn)
* Twelve Houses series by Sharon Shinn, has an ongoing subplot, but this only comes to the foreground of the storytelling in the fourth volume which sort of wraps up everything that had been going on and appeared as separate events until then (pretty realistic story structure, actually, because in real life we often don't recognize the connections between different events, too)
* The Saga of Recluce by [L. E. Modesitt, Jr.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L._E._Modesitt,_Jr.), the series tells the history of a fictional land in non-chronological order; some characters appear in several books, and then the earlier events are taken up and continue, but mostly there are several independent storylines that are connected only by the fact that some historical events lay the ground for some that follow
* many of the series of SF authors that play in the same universe work like this, e.g. the Hainish cycle by [Ursula K. Le Guin](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ursula_K._Le_Guin) or the novels in the Alliance-Union universe of [C. J. Cherryh](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C._J._Cherryh)
I don't know of any series that starts with a pilot and continues with a series, except the Rama novels by Clarke (who wrote the first volume alone and as a standalone) and Gentry Lee (who persuaded Clarke to turn this into a series and cowrite it) that Lauren Ipsum mentioned, but I have the feeling that some first volumes were originally conceived as standalone books and only continued as a series because of their success. You can see this in publication dates (long hiatus between first and following books) as well as in the closed structure of the first and the open structure of the following volumes. I've had this experience often, but can't at the moment think of any example besides Rama. | The *Rama* series by Arthur Clarke would fit that bill. the first book was very hard scifi, basically a history book, and books 2 to 4 were a trilogy about a specific family and their travails. |
10,070 | I'm toying with the idea of writing a single standalone book and then later follow it with a series, in the same world with some of the same characters.
Are there any examples of this? I couldn't think of any.
Also, is this a good idea? Any major detractors to doing this? | 2014/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/10070",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/6517/"
] | It can be justified it is indeed a very good idea, if you want to publish it through a classic publishing house. This is because publishers prefer to try how well a book sells before committing to a full series, and finding, halfway through, it would be better (from a business point of view) to discontinue it.
I am currently doing this very technique, because I started with a standalone idea, and there are many things left to explain about the world and characters, but I am not a published author yet. A thing I learned and would be worth pointing is that it's better if you have at least an intuition of the direction and/or ending of the series, the most important pieces, so you can hide in your first book some *Chekhov's guns* for later use, allowing yourself the freedom to play with them and their relevance.
For example, in Harry Potter series, (SPOILER ALERT) concretely in Harry Potter and the Chamber of Secrets (the 2nd in the series), the plot centers on an object (Tom Riddle's diary) which turns out to be of pivotal importance in the series, but until the 6th book you won't suspect its story hasn't finished already.
Here's an article on [ways to write a stand-alone book pilot to a series](http://www.writersdigest.com/online-editor/7-ways-to-write-a-stand-alone-book-with-series-potential). | The *Rama* series by Arthur Clarke would fit that bill. the first book was very hard scifi, basically a history book, and books 2 to 4 were a trilogy about a specific family and their travails. |
10,070 | I'm toying with the idea of writing a single standalone book and then later follow it with a series, in the same world with some of the same characters.
Are there any examples of this? I couldn't think of any.
Also, is this a good idea? Any major detractors to doing this? | 2014/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/10070",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/6517/"
] | It can be justified it is indeed a very good idea, if you want to publish it through a classic publishing house. This is because publishers prefer to try how well a book sells before committing to a full series, and finding, halfway through, it would be better (from a business point of view) to discontinue it.
I am currently doing this very technique, because I started with a standalone idea, and there are many things left to explain about the world and characters, but I am not a published author yet. A thing I learned and would be worth pointing is that it's better if you have at least an intuition of the direction and/or ending of the series, the most important pieces, so you can hide in your first book some *Chekhov's guns* for later use, allowing yourself the freedom to play with them and their relevance.
For example, in Harry Potter series, (SPOILER ALERT) concretely in Harry Potter and the Chamber of Secrets (the 2nd in the series), the plot centers on an object (Tom Riddle's diary) which turns out to be of pivotal importance in the series, but until the 6th book you won't suspect its story hasn't finished already.
Here's an article on [ways to write a stand-alone book pilot to a series](http://www.writersdigest.com/online-editor/7-ways-to-write-a-stand-alone-book-with-series-potential). | Many series consist of books that conclude their respective plots and don't continue it in the next volume.
Examples:
* Safe-Keepers series by [Sharon Shinn](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sharon_Shinn)
* Twelve Houses series by Sharon Shinn, has an ongoing subplot, but this only comes to the foreground of the storytelling in the fourth volume which sort of wraps up everything that had been going on and appeared as separate events until then (pretty realistic story structure, actually, because in real life we often don't recognize the connections between different events, too)
* The Saga of Recluce by [L. E. Modesitt, Jr.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L._E._Modesitt,_Jr.), the series tells the history of a fictional land in non-chronological order; some characters appear in several books, and then the earlier events are taken up and continue, but mostly there are several independent storylines that are connected only by the fact that some historical events lay the ground for some that follow
* many of the series of SF authors that play in the same universe work like this, e.g. the Hainish cycle by [Ursula K. Le Guin](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ursula_K._Le_Guin) or the novels in the Alliance-Union universe of [C. J. Cherryh](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C._J._Cherryh)
I don't know of any series that starts with a pilot and continues with a series, except the Rama novels by Clarke (who wrote the first volume alone and as a standalone) and Gentry Lee (who persuaded Clarke to turn this into a series and cowrite it) that Lauren Ipsum mentioned, but I have the feeling that some first volumes were originally conceived as standalone books and only continued as a series because of their success. You can see this in publication dates (long hiatus between first and following books) as well as in the closed structure of the first and the open structure of the following volumes. I've had this experience often, but can't at the moment think of any example besides Rama. |
10,070 | I'm toying with the idea of writing a single standalone book and then later follow it with a series, in the same world with some of the same characters.
Are there any examples of this? I couldn't think of any.
Also, is this a good idea? Any major detractors to doing this? | 2014/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/10070",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/6517/"
] | Many series consist of books that conclude their respective plots and don't continue it in the next volume.
Examples:
* Safe-Keepers series by [Sharon Shinn](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sharon_Shinn)
* Twelve Houses series by Sharon Shinn, has an ongoing subplot, but this only comes to the foreground of the storytelling in the fourth volume which sort of wraps up everything that had been going on and appeared as separate events until then (pretty realistic story structure, actually, because in real life we often don't recognize the connections between different events, too)
* The Saga of Recluce by [L. E. Modesitt, Jr.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L._E._Modesitt,_Jr.), the series tells the history of a fictional land in non-chronological order; some characters appear in several books, and then the earlier events are taken up and continue, but mostly there are several independent storylines that are connected only by the fact that some historical events lay the ground for some that follow
* many of the series of SF authors that play in the same universe work like this, e.g. the Hainish cycle by [Ursula K. Le Guin](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ursula_K._Le_Guin) or the novels in the Alliance-Union universe of [C. J. Cherryh](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C._J._Cherryh)
I don't know of any series that starts with a pilot and continues with a series, except the Rama novels by Clarke (who wrote the first volume alone and as a standalone) and Gentry Lee (who persuaded Clarke to turn this into a series and cowrite it) that Lauren Ipsum mentioned, but I have the feeling that some first volumes were originally conceived as standalone books and only continued as a series because of their success. You can see this in publication dates (long hiatus between first and following books) as well as in the closed structure of the first and the open structure of the following volumes. I've had this experience often, but can't at the moment think of any example besides Rama. | To expand on the idea that What presented that a wildly successful book sometimes draws sequels, after Jim Baen's death It was mentioned that David Weber's Honor books did not meet this pattern and that *that* was unusual. |
10,070 | I'm toying with the idea of writing a single standalone book and then later follow it with a series, in the same world with some of the same characters.
Are there any examples of this? I couldn't think of any.
Also, is this a good idea? Any major detractors to doing this? | 2014/01/17 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/10070",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/6517/"
] | It can be justified it is indeed a very good idea, if you want to publish it through a classic publishing house. This is because publishers prefer to try how well a book sells before committing to a full series, and finding, halfway through, it would be better (from a business point of view) to discontinue it.
I am currently doing this very technique, because I started with a standalone idea, and there are many things left to explain about the world and characters, but I am not a published author yet. A thing I learned and would be worth pointing is that it's better if you have at least an intuition of the direction and/or ending of the series, the most important pieces, so you can hide in your first book some *Chekhov's guns* for later use, allowing yourself the freedom to play with them and their relevance.
For example, in Harry Potter series, (SPOILER ALERT) concretely in Harry Potter and the Chamber of Secrets (the 2nd in the series), the plot centers on an object (Tom Riddle's diary) which turns out to be of pivotal importance in the series, but until the 6th book you won't suspect its story hasn't finished already.
Here's an article on [ways to write a stand-alone book pilot to a series](http://www.writersdigest.com/online-editor/7-ways-to-write-a-stand-alone-book-with-series-potential). | To expand on the idea that What presented that a wildly successful book sometimes draws sequels, after Jim Baen's death It was mentioned that David Weber's Honor books did not meet this pattern and that *that* was unusual. |
6,908 | Can I target a creature as soon as it is played, even with summoning sickness?
*Example:* If my card, [Beguiler of Wills](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=Beguiler%20of%20Wills), reads "Gain control of target creature," or [Dungeon Geist](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=Dungeon%20Geist)'s "tap target creature opponent controls," can I gain control or tap a creature my opponent just played? I have a friend arguing I can't, because they're in summoning sickness, but I thought that just stopped their tap-ability and attacking for the first turn. | 2012/03/18 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/6908",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2645/"
] | Yes you can target a creature with Summoning Sickness. Summoning Sickness only prevents creatures that you haven't controlled since the start of your turn from attacking or using activated abilities with {T} (Tap) or {Q} (Untap) in their activation cost.
>
> \**Summoning Sickness Rule \**
>
>
> Informal term for a player’s inability to attack with a creature or to activate its abilities that include the tap symbol or the untap symbol unless the creature has been under that player’s control since the beginning of that player’s most recent turn. See rule 302.6. See also Haste.
>
>
> 302.6. A creature’s activated ability with the tap symbol or the untap symbol in its activation cost can’t be activated unless the creature has been under its controller’s control continuously since his or her most recent turn began. A creature can’t attack unless it has been under its controller’s control continuously since his or her most recent turn began. This rule is informally called the “summoning sickness” rule.
>
>
> 107.6. The untap symbol is {Q}. The untap symbol in an activation cost means “Untap this permanent.” A permanent that’s already untapped can’t be untapped again to pay the cost. A creature’s activated ability with the untap symbol in its activation cost can’t be activated unless the creature has been under its controller’s control continuously since his or her most recent turn began. See rule 302.6.
>
>
> | You are right. The *only* thing that summoning sickness prevents is using the creature's own tap ability or attacking. You are allowed to target a just-summoned creature with spells and abilities. You're also allowed to enchant it, to sacrifice it, to attach Equipment to it, and to block with it. You can even tap it if the tap ability belongs to a different spell or ability, such as if you have an ability that includes in its cost, "Tap 2 untapped creatures that you control." |
269,746 | How would you create the vines of the wood, because I'm not sure how to approach that before getting to sculpting, and what is the problem with the shading?
I still don't understand how to avoid shading problems like that.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SnrGz.png) | 2022/07/19 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/269746",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/149688/"
] | This happens because you have a large ngon that Blender tries to shade smooth with the adjacent faces. Ngons, under the hood and like any other faces, are made of tris, but contrary to quads the tris organization can be messy, therefore the bad shading. You need to convert your ngon to a series of quads, see the difference:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TEVFd.jpg)
On your topology it should give something like that:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IaP0t.jpg)
There are some tricks though, like insetting the ngon (which will make it coplanar to its new adjacent faces), or using the *Weighted Normal* modifier:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZNFsv.jpg) | [moonboots' answer](https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/269746/what-am-i-doing-wrong-shading-and-modeling/269748#269748) is correct. Adding to that: For the vines, you can just use a spline all around the wood and add geometry to that spline so it will be like a cylinder all around.
Don't try to always add geometry to the same object if you don't know how to do that. Just add a new object and work with that one. Then you can see if it's useful to merge both in the same object or not.
Video game assets most of the time are not made of one primitive. It's a sum of various primitives. |
514,833 | How to delete a workspace in Eclipse? | 2009/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/514833",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/24424/"
] | For Eclipse PDT in Mac OS, once you have deleted the actual workspace directory the option to select and switch to that workspace will still be available unless you delete the entry from **Preferences** >> **General** >> **Startup and Shutdown** >> **Workspaces**. | Just go to the \eclipse-java-helios-SR2-win32\eclipse\configuration.settings directory and change or remove **org.eclipse.ui.ide.prefs** file. |
5,333,681 | what do I need to study before programming a windows chat application in C#?? Moreover, can you recommended me books names or tutorials links about this topic?? | 2011/03/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5333681",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/224754/"
] | You'll need to understand interprocess communication if you want to make a "chat" application.
Typically, in C#, this is currently handled via [Windows Communication Foundation](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms731082.aspx). That would be a good place to start. | It depends on the specific requirements for your chat program. Is your application going to be web-based (runs in the browser) or will people need to download a program for it to work? Will communication be handled directly from one computer to another (peer-to-peer), or will there be a central server that handles communication? Will there be "chat rooms" where more than two people are chatting together at once? Will chat conversations be encrypted for privacy? Will chat conversations be saved?
Depending on your answers to these questions, you may want to look into:
* Windows Communication Foundation
* Asp.net MVC
* SQL Server
* Entity Framework or LINQ to SQL
* Interprocess communication
* AJAX
* JSONP
* Windows Presentation Foundation or Windows Forms
... and possibly others as well.
>
> If you don't know where you're going, any road will get you there. -- The Cheshire Cat
>
>
> |
8,495 | Do the Cylons in the new Battlestar Galactica always have the latest memories present after being downloaded to a new body? That is, do they remember up to the moment of their death?
If so, does that require some kind of permanent link with a Cylon network? | 2012/01/04 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/8495",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | Yes. Upon death, the Cylon's consciousness is downloaded into a new body. The memories come along with it.
The limitation is that they must be in range of a [Resurrection Ship](http://en.battlestarwiki.org/wiki/Resurrection_Ship) or the [Resurrection Hub](http://en.battlestarwiki.org/wiki/Resurrection_Hub) at the moment of death. | Yes they do remember.....e.g. the rebel Cylon that killed the human then killed her in new Caprica ...
And no, there is no permanent link. Three had to transfer the images of Hera via a raider; she couldn't send the info by herself. |
8,495 | Do the Cylons in the new Battlestar Galactica always have the latest memories present after being downloaded to a new body? That is, do they remember up to the moment of their death?
If so, does that require some kind of permanent link with a Cylon network? | 2012/01/04 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/8495",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/143/"
] | Yes. Upon death, the Cylon's consciousness is downloaded into a new body. The memories come along with it.
The limitation is that they must be in range of a [Resurrection Ship](http://en.battlestarwiki.org/wiki/Resurrection_Ship) or the [Resurrection Hub](http://en.battlestarwiki.org/wiki/Resurrection_Hub) at the moment of death. | They most definitely remember the moment of their death. This was stated VERY plainly as the justification for the **exceptional** hatred which *Scar* had for the colonials. He had been shot down countless times, and they made it quite plain in the series that he took it extra personal, and that was what made him so vicious and effective.
Unless of course you're talking specifically about the 'skin-jobs'. But the series made it clear the Raiders also resurrected (which does make me wonder why the Centurions didn't). |
97,557 | Is a polymorphed familiar still considered a familiar for purposes of casting touch spells through them? | 2017/04/03 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/97557",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/34308/"
] | Yes.
----
While [polymorph](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/polymorph) bans the polymorphed form from casting spells, the wording of the [find familiar](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/find-familiar) spell states that familiars do not cast spells--they only deliver them:
>
> Finally, when you cast a spell with a range of touch, your familiar can deliver the spell as if it had cast the spell.
>
>
>
**All familiars, polymorphed or not, are merely conduits for your spells, and cannot cast spells themselves.** Because **you** are not polymorphed, you can still cast a spell and deliver it through your familiar. The animals you can have as a familiar can't cast spells to begin with, anyway.
The CR limit ensures balance
----------------------------
Note that all of the creatures you can have as a familiar have CR0, except for the poisonous snake at CR1/8. This means that the number of creatures you can polymorph your familiar into is quite limited.
An explanation in the fiction
-----------------------------
Your familiar is merely a spirit that takes on a "familiar form":
>
> You gain the service of a familiar, a spirit that takes an animal form you choose...
>
>
>
Moreover, recasting the find familiar spell allows you to change its form:
>
> If you cast this spell while you already have a familiar, you instead cause it to adopt a new form.
>
>
>
This suggests that the physical form of a familiar, which polymorph targets, is not as important as its connection to its master--after all, it is merely a spirit that can take on many mutable forms. | No. Polymorphed creatures can't cast spells
===========================================
The effects of Polymorph over the target creature's new capabilities include the following (I have added emphasis to the relevant parts of the text):
>
> The creature is limited in the actions it can perform by the nature of its new form, and **it can't speak, cast Spells**, or take any other action that requires hands or Speech.
>
>
> The target's gear melds into the new form. The creature can't activate, use, wield, or otherwise benefit from any of its Equipment.
>
>
>
The familiar's ability to deliver one of your spells reads as follows:
>
> Finally, when you Cast a Spell with a range of touch, your familiar can deliver the spell **as if it had cast the spell**.
>
>
>
A polymorphed creature cannot cast spells, and the ability to deliver a touch spell reads that the familiar is treated as the one casting the spell. Thus, it's not possible. |
254,457 | Set 1:
>
> 1. China is close **to be** the centre of world trade.
>
>
>
>
> 2. China is close **to being** the centre of world trade.
>
>
>
Set 2:
>
> 1. I am on my way **to be** 25.
>
>
>
>
> 2. I am on my way **to being** 25
>
>
>
Which is the correct form, the first or the second? What is the difference in meaning between these two sentences? | 2020/07/21 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/254457",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/105168/"
] | If memory serves me correctly, he had just gotten out of jail. Sprung is an abbreviated form of “sprung out of jail”.
So, in its entirety, the sentence is...
>
> Tuco, what's happening my brother. Sick crib,yo! You've been keeping it real since you been sprung *out of jail*. What, [it’s] been like a year?
>
>
> | It's not an adjective, but a verb. The following is from Merriam-Webster's definition of *spring*:
>
> *transitive verb*
>
> **7** : to release or cause to be released from confinement or custody
>
> // *sprung* them from jail
>
>
>
---
Note that it's not necessary to provide *from jail* or *out of jail*, especially in this context.
In fact, informal language would more commonly *not* include that additional information (and it also doesn't need to be in the past tense):
* "See what you can do to spring me."
* "When did you get sprung?"
* "How long has it been since you were sprung?" |
91,822 | I'm in the Physics community. I've already published an article on a journal where I've described a solution scheme that serves to solve a certain problem. Now, I've discovered that the same approach can be used to solve a different model. Of course the model, the comments the results, the plots, etc are different, but the technique is the same. So, is it ok to copy the section of my previous article where I describe the solution technique and paste it into the new one? Notice that the old and the new article feature the same identical authors and that the previous article would be, of course, properly cited. | 2017/07/07 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/91822",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/75724/"
] | Technically this is self-plagiarism and not OK. We had problems before where we published the 6th paper on a very similar topic and one sentence in our introduction was the same as in another of our papers (there are only so many ways to describe one thing) and it got flagged and we had to rewrite it, which in my personal opinion is just stupid.
However, if it's part of a methods section it is usually tolerated, since it doesn't make sense to rewrite technical statements all the time. For example in synthetic chemistry you would write something like
>
> All chemicals were purchased from Sigma Aldrich and used without further purification.
>
>
>
Which is fine to just copy/paste. | I never do this, and I would not recommend doing this to anyone. You can keep the same meaning, but change the wording, add a couple of new sentences, etc. It's pretty simple. |
91,822 | I'm in the Physics community. I've already published an article on a journal where I've described a solution scheme that serves to solve a certain problem. Now, I've discovered that the same approach can be used to solve a different model. Of course the model, the comments the results, the plots, etc are different, but the technique is the same. So, is it ok to copy the section of my previous article where I describe the solution technique and paste it into the new one? Notice that the old and the new article feature the same identical authors and that the previous article would be, of course, properly cited. | 2017/07/07 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/91822",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/75724/"
] | Technically this is self-plagiarism and not OK. We had problems before where we published the 6th paper on a very similar topic and one sentence in our introduction was the same as in another of our papers (there are only so many ways to describe one thing) and it got flagged and we had to rewrite it, which in my personal opinion is just stupid.
However, if it's part of a methods section it is usually tolerated, since it doesn't make sense to rewrite technical statements all the time. For example in synthetic chemistry you would write something like
>
> All chemicals were purchased from Sigma Aldrich and used without further purification.
>
>
>
Which is fine to just copy/paste. | If you explicitly state that "*the following section describes the method and is identical to §2.2 of our previous work [4]"*, then this is IMHO okay. However, you should definitely check with the journal editor before submission.
But, do you really need to do this? Surely, you can improve the text and/or adapt it to the particular application. |
70,632 | I searched extensively for good materials for prevention of XSS attacks using OWASP ESAPI, but could not find any beginner material. Can some one please give me an example how this works? | 2014/10/14 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/70632",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/58586/"
] | your best bet for this would be probably to look at the other OWASP ESAPI implementations to see how they've handled it, which should at least give you the approaches to look at, even if you then need to translate that over to PHP.
In terms of information you could look at this [post](http://www.jtmelton.com/2009/01/12/the-owasp-top-ten-and-esapi-part-2-cross-site-scripting-xss/) about the Java ESAPI implementation which is, AFAIK, the most mature one about. There's another post [here](http://www.securityninja.co.uk/application-security/output-validation-using-the-owasp-esapi/) which also looks at XSS and ESAPI. | I found this tutorial which steps through creating first an unsafe web application with PHP and then securing it with ESAPI. I haven't yet tried the tutorial with an up to date version of ESAPI (tutorial dates from 2010) but am about to.
In any case it seems to give a good basic idea on how to use ESAPI.
<http://jackwillk.blogspot.be/2010/08/using-owasp-esapi-php-part-4.html> |
4,458,275 | right now i am working on one ipad application where i am giving facility of opening the pdf file and also to customize it,now i want to add one functionality like i want to convert that pdf file in .doc format.
I researched but did not get any way around. Can anybody help me out?
Thanking you in advance. | 2010/12/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4458275",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1004776/"
] | It’s not possible to convert a generic PDF back into a text format. I guess you could render the PDF into images and create a DOC from those, but that doesn’t sound very useful. | I wrote [an article on PDF to text conversion issues](http://www.jpedal.org/PDFblog/2009/04/pdf-text/). If you look at some of the existing PDF to Word conversion tools (ie BCL) you will see what is realistically possible with a lot of work. |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | It is not at all a simple task to reverse the habits cultivated over umpteenth lifetimes. It is next to impossible without gaining a good knowledge of the Dhamma and putting it to practice diligently. Then, and only then you are going to have any success in thwarting the mind’s ingrained habits. The personality view is the hardest of them all. If you could begin altering your habits, one day in the years to come you will be very thankful for getting into a path that made the impossible possible. Now it will feel like drug withdrawal of an addict when quitting the bad habits.
We can alter our habits because they too are impermanent. Consciousness too is impermanent and constantly changing. Thus, all these aggregates are constantly changing and impermanent. They are processes, not things. They are dynamic, not static. This knowledge will help us to see personal experiences in terms of processes, in terms of impersonal functions rather than in terms of a self and what affects a self.
You’re learning to use the tools that Buddhism offers to sort out your own mind. First the tools help you look at the habits, the things the mind is doing. Then goodness will come, not from any innate goodness in the mind, but from a keen sense of the dangers of the unskillful habits already there, and the benefits of the skillful habits that one can develop in their place. Once we have this understanding, we can overcome ingrained habits. This is why the Buddha said that heedfulness is the root of all skillfulness.
In psychotherapy, to root out ingrained tendencies in the mind one may trace things back to what you did as a child. The teachings of the Buddha instead gets you to focus on looking at your habits right now, as they keep coming back again and again and again. The Dhamma will inform you as to what is virtue, and what is not; what is blameworthy, and what is not; what should be made a habit of, and what should not. This will get you to civilize your eating habits by learning to wean yourself from your passion for the junk food of sights, sounds, smells, etc., and look instead for good food within.
Unlearning some old habits is not easy. After a while complacency sets in. Complacency is a form of sloth/torpor. Complacency can be said as lethargy in the body (sloth) and drowsiness in the mind (torpor). It is when the mind is not sleeping, but not awake either. So be aware of this twilight zone, where nothing of use is achieved. Buddha advises us to be aware of this enemy in life that would stop you from succeeding in life. So we have to make a habit of getting up early every day, being energetic. Energy arises when one has a clear-cut direction. One knows exactly where one is going and keeps at it. This is one to keep Mara’s armies at bay.
Also check [Cetana Sutta 3 - S 12.40](http://www.themindingcentre.org/dharmafarer/wp-content/uploads/2009/12/7.6abc-Cetana-S-s12.38-40-piya-1.pdf) to find out how we form our personal habits. | The Pali Buddhist scriptures teach that present happiness & suffering of a person are not caused by actions performed in the past. Refer to [AN 3.61](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an03/an03.061.than.html), which states:
>
> *When one falls back on what was done in the past as being essential, monks, there is no desire, no effort, 'This should be
> done. This shouldn't be done.' When one can't pin down as a truth or
> reality what should & shouldn't be done, one dwells bewildered &
> unprotected.*
>
>
> |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | Easy. Well, easy in theory :) -- you need to get fed up! You need to get really sick and tired of your conditions, so sick that you cannot live like that anymore. You are so fed up that you are either ready to die - or to change your habits. So that desire to get out leads to iron intent to change. | The Pali Buddhist scriptures teach that present happiness & suffering of a person are not caused by actions performed in the past. Refer to [AN 3.61](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an03/an03.061.than.html), which states:
>
> *When one falls back on what was done in the past as being essential, monks, there is no desire, no effort, 'This should be
> done. This shouldn't be done.' When one can't pin down as a truth or
> reality what should & shouldn't be done, one dwells bewildered &
> unprotected.*
>
>
> |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | It is not at all a simple task to reverse the habits cultivated over umpteenth lifetimes. It is next to impossible without gaining a good knowledge of the Dhamma and putting it to practice diligently. Then, and only then you are going to have any success in thwarting the mind’s ingrained habits. The personality view is the hardest of them all. If you could begin altering your habits, one day in the years to come you will be very thankful for getting into a path that made the impossible possible. Now it will feel like drug withdrawal of an addict when quitting the bad habits.
We can alter our habits because they too are impermanent. Consciousness too is impermanent and constantly changing. Thus, all these aggregates are constantly changing and impermanent. They are processes, not things. They are dynamic, not static. This knowledge will help us to see personal experiences in terms of processes, in terms of impersonal functions rather than in terms of a self and what affects a self.
You’re learning to use the tools that Buddhism offers to sort out your own mind. First the tools help you look at the habits, the things the mind is doing. Then goodness will come, not from any innate goodness in the mind, but from a keen sense of the dangers of the unskillful habits already there, and the benefits of the skillful habits that one can develop in their place. Once we have this understanding, we can overcome ingrained habits. This is why the Buddha said that heedfulness is the root of all skillfulness.
In psychotherapy, to root out ingrained tendencies in the mind one may trace things back to what you did as a child. The teachings of the Buddha instead gets you to focus on looking at your habits right now, as they keep coming back again and again and again. The Dhamma will inform you as to what is virtue, and what is not; what is blameworthy, and what is not; what should be made a habit of, and what should not. This will get you to civilize your eating habits by learning to wean yourself from your passion for the junk food of sights, sounds, smells, etc., and look instead for good food within.
Unlearning some old habits is not easy. After a while complacency sets in. Complacency is a form of sloth/torpor. Complacency can be said as lethargy in the body (sloth) and drowsiness in the mind (torpor). It is when the mind is not sleeping, but not awake either. So be aware of this twilight zone, where nothing of use is achieved. Buddha advises us to be aware of this enemy in life that would stop you from succeeding in life. So we have to make a habit of getting up early every day, being energetic. Energy arises when one has a clear-cut direction. One knows exactly where one is going and keeps at it. This is one to keep Mara’s armies at bay.
Also check [Cetana Sutta 3 - S 12.40](http://www.themindingcentre.org/dharmafarer/wp-content/uploads/2009/12/7.6abc-Cetana-S-s12.38-40-piya-1.pdf) to find out how we form our personal habits. | If a yard has lots of weeds, just by getting rid of the weeds alone won't be effective. One will also need to overseed their yard with strong grass so that they will overwhelm the weeds and grow into a healthy lush green lawn. Similarly, not only one needs to abandon bad habits, one'd also need to cultivate good habits so that they will "overwhelm" the bad ones. In Buddhism, it's called [SammaPpadhana/The Four Right Exertions](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/ptf/dhamma/sacca/sacca4/samma-vayamo/) |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | It is not at all a simple task to reverse the habits cultivated over umpteenth lifetimes. It is next to impossible without gaining a good knowledge of the Dhamma and putting it to practice diligently. Then, and only then you are going to have any success in thwarting the mind’s ingrained habits. The personality view is the hardest of them all. If you could begin altering your habits, one day in the years to come you will be very thankful for getting into a path that made the impossible possible. Now it will feel like drug withdrawal of an addict when quitting the bad habits.
We can alter our habits because they too are impermanent. Consciousness too is impermanent and constantly changing. Thus, all these aggregates are constantly changing and impermanent. They are processes, not things. They are dynamic, not static. This knowledge will help us to see personal experiences in terms of processes, in terms of impersonal functions rather than in terms of a self and what affects a self.
You’re learning to use the tools that Buddhism offers to sort out your own mind. First the tools help you look at the habits, the things the mind is doing. Then goodness will come, not from any innate goodness in the mind, but from a keen sense of the dangers of the unskillful habits already there, and the benefits of the skillful habits that one can develop in their place. Once we have this understanding, we can overcome ingrained habits. This is why the Buddha said that heedfulness is the root of all skillfulness.
In psychotherapy, to root out ingrained tendencies in the mind one may trace things back to what you did as a child. The teachings of the Buddha instead gets you to focus on looking at your habits right now, as they keep coming back again and again and again. The Dhamma will inform you as to what is virtue, and what is not; what is blameworthy, and what is not; what should be made a habit of, and what should not. This will get you to civilize your eating habits by learning to wean yourself from your passion for the junk food of sights, sounds, smells, etc., and look instead for good food within.
Unlearning some old habits is not easy. After a while complacency sets in. Complacency is a form of sloth/torpor. Complacency can be said as lethargy in the body (sloth) and drowsiness in the mind (torpor). It is when the mind is not sleeping, but not awake either. So be aware of this twilight zone, where nothing of use is achieved. Buddha advises us to be aware of this enemy in life that would stop you from succeeding in life. So we have to make a habit of getting up early every day, being energetic. Energy arises when one has a clear-cut direction. One knows exactly where one is going and keeps at it. This is one to keep Mara’s armies at bay.
Also check [Cetana Sutta 3 - S 12.40](http://www.themindingcentre.org/dharmafarer/wp-content/uploads/2009/12/7.6abc-Cetana-S-s12.38-40-piya-1.pdf) to find out how we form our personal habits. | Each experience can trigger your habitual response which might be followed by and intention to act. What triggers your habitual or reflexive response is and external stimuli coming in contact with your sense faculties.
So what you have to see is if your intention is good or bad. If it is good follow through else try to practice some restraint. When trying to restrain yourself you find then your habitual response overpowers you. But with practice you will be able to retrain your self when in intentions are not good.
Generally when your intentions are bad you have either unpleasant or neutral feeling / sensation in your body. If they are good it is pleasant or neutral. You do not get pleasant sensation if your motivation is bad and unpleasant sensations if your motivations is good. Neutral being a gray area. To get a better understanding see the 121 mind states and 52 mental contents. Refer to [Comprehensive Manual of Abhidhamma](https://store.pariyatti.org/Comprehensive-Manual-of-Abhidhamma-A--PDF-eBook_p_4362.html) by Bhikkhu Bodhi and [Kītagiri Sutta](http://www.themindingcentre.org/dharmafarer/wp-content/uploads/2009/12/11.1-Kitagiri-S-m70-piya.pdf) section on feelings. |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | It is not at all a simple task to reverse the habits cultivated over umpteenth lifetimes. It is next to impossible without gaining a good knowledge of the Dhamma and putting it to practice diligently. Then, and only then you are going to have any success in thwarting the mind’s ingrained habits. The personality view is the hardest of them all. If you could begin altering your habits, one day in the years to come you will be very thankful for getting into a path that made the impossible possible. Now it will feel like drug withdrawal of an addict when quitting the bad habits.
We can alter our habits because they too are impermanent. Consciousness too is impermanent and constantly changing. Thus, all these aggregates are constantly changing and impermanent. They are processes, not things. They are dynamic, not static. This knowledge will help us to see personal experiences in terms of processes, in terms of impersonal functions rather than in terms of a self and what affects a self.
You’re learning to use the tools that Buddhism offers to sort out your own mind. First the tools help you look at the habits, the things the mind is doing. Then goodness will come, not from any innate goodness in the mind, but from a keen sense of the dangers of the unskillful habits already there, and the benefits of the skillful habits that one can develop in their place. Once we have this understanding, we can overcome ingrained habits. This is why the Buddha said that heedfulness is the root of all skillfulness.
In psychotherapy, to root out ingrained tendencies in the mind one may trace things back to what you did as a child. The teachings of the Buddha instead gets you to focus on looking at your habits right now, as they keep coming back again and again and again. The Dhamma will inform you as to what is virtue, and what is not; what is blameworthy, and what is not; what should be made a habit of, and what should not. This will get you to civilize your eating habits by learning to wean yourself from your passion for the junk food of sights, sounds, smells, etc., and look instead for good food within.
Unlearning some old habits is not easy. After a while complacency sets in. Complacency is a form of sloth/torpor. Complacency can be said as lethargy in the body (sloth) and drowsiness in the mind (torpor). It is when the mind is not sleeping, but not awake either. So be aware of this twilight zone, where nothing of use is achieved. Buddha advises us to be aware of this enemy in life that would stop you from succeeding in life. So we have to make a habit of getting up early every day, being energetic. Energy arises when one has a clear-cut direction. One knows exactly where one is going and keeps at it. This is one to keep Mara’s armies at bay.
Also check [Cetana Sutta 3 - S 12.40](http://www.themindingcentre.org/dharmafarer/wp-content/uploads/2009/12/7.6abc-Cetana-S-s12.38-40-piya-1.pdf) to find out how we form our personal habits. | Paying conscious attention to whatever you are doing now fully, whatever the activity may be. Life is happening right now, right this moment as you read.
Any actions have consequences, even thoughts. Unconscious activities have unknowable/unforeseeable consequences. Habits are like unconscious activities. If you are doing a good thing why don't you do it with full attention? Why do you need "good habits"? Why do you need habits? Habit seems like you are using some body memory to just do whatever action and it will have whatever consequence.
Put yourself in control over this moment. The next moment does not exist except in your mind. Quell it. Your past lives don't exist except in your mind.
Don't create past lives in your mind. It does not know anyway. You have no idea about them. Habits are forming when you don't pay the right attention to whatever you are doing. For example, if I go to draw water from the well everyday, outside people may see it as a habit, but I am doing it for a particular purpose, we need water for some other activities. In the same way, look at your actions as doing something we need for the circumstances. Not as a habit.
Focus on whatever action you are taking now. Focus on life right now. Not past lives. |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | Easy. Well, easy in theory :) -- you need to get fed up! You need to get really sick and tired of your conditions, so sick that you cannot live like that anymore. You are so fed up that you are either ready to die - or to change your habits. So that desire to get out leads to iron intent to change. | If a yard has lots of weeds, just by getting rid of the weeds alone won't be effective. One will also need to overseed their yard with strong grass so that they will overwhelm the weeds and grow into a healthy lush green lawn. Similarly, not only one needs to abandon bad habits, one'd also need to cultivate good habits so that they will "overwhelm" the bad ones. In Buddhism, it's called [SammaPpadhana/The Four Right Exertions](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/ptf/dhamma/sacca/sacca4/samma-vayamo/) |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | Easy. Well, easy in theory :) -- you need to get fed up! You need to get really sick and tired of your conditions, so sick that you cannot live like that anymore. You are so fed up that you are either ready to die - or to change your habits. So that desire to get out leads to iron intent to change. | Each experience can trigger your habitual response which might be followed by and intention to act. What triggers your habitual or reflexive response is and external stimuli coming in contact with your sense faculties.
So what you have to see is if your intention is good or bad. If it is good follow through else try to practice some restraint. When trying to restrain yourself you find then your habitual response overpowers you. But with practice you will be able to retrain your self when in intentions are not good.
Generally when your intentions are bad you have either unpleasant or neutral feeling / sensation in your body. If they are good it is pleasant or neutral. You do not get pleasant sensation if your motivation is bad and unpleasant sensations if your motivations is good. Neutral being a gray area. To get a better understanding see the 121 mind states and 52 mental contents. Refer to [Comprehensive Manual of Abhidhamma](https://store.pariyatti.org/Comprehensive-Manual-of-Abhidhamma-A--PDF-eBook_p_4362.html) by Bhikkhu Bodhi and [Kītagiri Sutta](http://www.themindingcentre.org/dharmafarer/wp-content/uploads/2009/12/11.1-Kitagiri-S-m70-piya.pdf) section on feelings. |
18,708 | If one has cultivated a habit for countless lifetimes, how is it possible to reverse such habit? Is it possible at all? Is that person entirely at the mercy of external factors? (are we ever not entirely at the mercy of external factors? This is an entirely different question though).
I have trouble understanding how habits are changed, and where that change originates. I figure the answer to this 'extreme case' question will shed some light.
Thank you.
EDIT:
This question is a different way of phrasing these two questions [What allows to make a choice](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18716/what-allows-to-make-a-choice) and [What is volition?](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18738/what-is-volition/18762#18762) | 2016/12/31 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18708",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/5849/"
] | Easy. Well, easy in theory :) -- you need to get fed up! You need to get really sick and tired of your conditions, so sick that you cannot live like that anymore. You are so fed up that you are either ready to die - or to change your habits. So that desire to get out leads to iron intent to change. | Paying conscious attention to whatever you are doing now fully, whatever the activity may be. Life is happening right now, right this moment as you read.
Any actions have consequences, even thoughts. Unconscious activities have unknowable/unforeseeable consequences. Habits are like unconscious activities. If you are doing a good thing why don't you do it with full attention? Why do you need "good habits"? Why do you need habits? Habit seems like you are using some body memory to just do whatever action and it will have whatever consequence.
Put yourself in control over this moment. The next moment does not exist except in your mind. Quell it. Your past lives don't exist except in your mind.
Don't create past lives in your mind. It does not know anyway. You have no idea about them. Habits are forming when you don't pay the right attention to whatever you are doing. For example, if I go to draw water from the well everyday, outside people may see it as a habit, but I am doing it for a particular purpose, we need water for some other activities. In the same way, look at your actions as doing something we need for the circumstances. Not as a habit.
Focus on whatever action you are taking now. Focus on life right now. Not past lives. |
412,407 | One of the practice questions for my upcoming test is this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0SGlc.png)
After some googling, it seems like the correct answer is A. But why? | 2018/12/15 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/412407",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/206065/"
] | Push-Pull is used for analog , digital, Class B, D,E, half-bridge switches and all sorts of applications.
In theory with sine wave and ideal saturation =0V say with MOSFETs, it is η=π/4 or 78.5% but 78% may be closer to what is possible but given no assumptions choose (c) ~~(d)~~ for sine as this is the typical signal not a square wave which in theory is 100% but a practical design goal might be 99% for Class D or E.
The problem is lack of assumptions or specs so the question is vague but assume by push-pull they imply Class B not Class D or E. Unless one states signal shape, and distortion allowed, efficiency must be based on some standard test method. like 1KHz sine 1% THD, so the question is very typical of an academic one.
The archaic nature of this academic question leads me to suggest they only want you to compute the integral of a sine current (I-peak) squared times a fixed resistance, which I leave for you to figure out. | The answer can be found by integrating over one cycle the product of the output current and the voltage across the collector of the output transistor, which represents the loss in the amplifier. The output voltage times the output current is the output power. The resultant value, found by dividing the power loss by the sum of the power loss and the output power, is pi/4 for a maximum level sinusoidal signal. Efficiency decreases as the output power decreases. This result can be found in any book on power amplifiers. It is only true for push-pull (class B) amplifiers. For class A amplifiers, the maximum is 50%. As pointed out, these results are for ideal cases, not real amplifiers. |
32,789 | In the famous [Alexander Mosaic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_Mosaic) found in Pompeii, Darius is wearing some form of head covering, it appears to just be cloth wrapped around his head. What is the hat called? I can't find any information on it. Was this common combat attire, or just artistic?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a7epZ.jpg) | 2016/09/16 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/32789",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | From this website <http://www.iranicaonline.org/articles/clothing-ii> , in a section concerning historical clothing it goes into length on several styles of headgear. This style falls under the designation 'tiara'.
>
> In any event, *the tiara* had a top like a hood, often lined inside with
> luxurious animal fur. Ordinarily it was worn flat, either pressed down
> in front to form three knobs or falling in folds on either side. Only
> *the great king had the right to wear his tiara (kyrbasía) “upright*,”
> that is, with the top erect, presumably held by inner retainers
> (Xenophon, Anabasis 2.5.23; Arrian, Anabasis 3.25.3; Plutarch,
> Artaxerxes 26, 28; idem, Themistocles 29).
> (emphasis mine)
>
>
>
from the mosaic:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/A9o99.jpg)
and a normal 'tiara' from the above mentioned web page shown in 'flat' style:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IJ2hg.jpg) | It looks like a [padded coif](https://www.google.com/search?q=padded+coif):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Z0fae.jpg)
(source: [tripod.com](http://mailmaker.tripod.com/paddedcoif/ccoifa.jpg))
OT aside: you might also find this [Youtube video from Lindeybeige on mail coifs](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mbmd-kVgc2E) interesting. |
286,716 | *Disclaimer*:
* I have read [How does the bounty system works?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/16065/how-does-the-bounty-system-work).
* I have read questions such as [How to award a bounty (+50) instantly?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/166318/how-to-award-a-bounty50-instantly), and its peers, closed as duplicate of the former.
I know how the system works; I find it annoying.
* I have read [Should the 24-hour timeout apply to bounties awareded for "exemplary answer"?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/116072/should-the-24-hour-timeout-apply-to-bounties-awarded-for-exemplary-answer); it comes close to what I'd like, but was declined with no explicit reason.
* I have read [Waiting 24 hours to reward an existing answer is completely illogical](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/268362/waiting-24-hours-to-reward-an-existing-answer-is-completely-illogical); it's half of the issue I present here (or a 1/3, depending on whether you count the time or the number of interactions required).
It seems clear that I am not the only one having issues with rewarding specific existing answers.
---
I regularly come upon excellent answers on StackOverflow, and I'd like to reward them with more than a simple uvpote.
>
> There is a mechanism exactly suited for this on StackExchange: the bounties.
>
>
>
Great! Let's award a bounty!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dDSWM.gif)
>
> One must wait 48 hours before being able to open a bounty on a question.
>
>
>
*Reaaally?*
Oh well, let's setup a reminder...
*Fast-forward 48h...*
Alright, let's award this bounty! Just have to create it and...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dDSWM.gif)
>
> One must wait 24 hours before being able to award a bounty (but less than 7 days).
>
>
>
*Reaaally?*
Yes. Even when said bounty was created specifically with to **Reward existing answer**.
Let's setup **another** reminder then...
---
It takes me more effort to award a +50 bounty to an excellent answer than it takes me to actually earn those +50 in the first place. Quite ludicrous, isn't it?
Each time I wish to award a bounty to an excellent answer, I'm reminded that it's really a drag. And I seriously reconsider awarding the bounty.
---
So, here comes the question. Disregarding the actual time it would take between the awarder deciding to award +N to an answer, and the answerer actually receiving this +N (or actually, +2\*N), and disregarding the additional attention that may be garnered from the question being *featured*, ...
**Is the principle itself of awarding bounties to existing answers in one-click desirable or not?**
*Note: I am interested if anyone has a user-script for that...* | 2016/11/07 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/286716",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/132600/"
] | As I see it, the "Reward existing answer" is kind of a "hack", not something that was meant to be part of the bounty system.
The original intent of the bounty system was to attract attention to questions that passed their "glory time" of activity, which is usually in the first few hours, until it's buried deep down the questions list.
At some point the team decided to add yet another bounty reason, not sure when exactly and why, but it surely different from the other reasons in that it's not meant to draw attention to the question.
This led to what you now describe, rightfully, as a problem and weird user experience, since this bounty reason is just a reason, text, without any real meaning, so it's bound to the other reasons rules of having to wait before it can be started and awarded.
---
Can this be made easier? Of course, it's all matter of time and efforts. My idea is to set up a separate mechanism for awarding existing answers, built upon the bounty mechanism but something that can be started and awarded in a totally independent way, e.g. "Donate Reputation" button next to each answer, limited to three each day etc. | I think that the reason you can't do this is the same reason why I can't accept my own answer for a few days after I ask the question: the question has a lot more attention (by which I mean it's displayed in a specific tab) before awarding the bounty, and *you might just find a better answer on the way.* Additionally, the extra attention will likely find the answerer with more upvotes to their answer, which rewards them even more, which is the *whole point of exemplary-answer bounties*, right? Not to mention the other problem with this, which is shoveling reputation from sock puppets into your main account.
Don't get me wrong, I wanted to award one of my own bounties instantly too, but this is something that we need. |
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