qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
25,041 | Over the years, I have heard many times that adding more developers to a team does not make things faster. My opinion is that it's a question of management. If you can allocate one complex screen of a mobile app per developer, and you have 8 such screens, it might be beneficial to have 8 developers (e.g 4 permanents and 4 contractors) on it if a deadline looms.
What are your thoughts / experiences on that ? | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/25041",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/33768/"
] | I've always heard (and experienced) it as "Adding more developers to a **late project** will make it later."
Every new developer requires ramp-up time to be familiarized with the project's architecture, domain, etc. This requires time not only of the new developer, but of a mentor as well. So, your initial velocity will be slowed down. Eventually, though, it (might) speed up compared to before. | I'm not a manager, but I've had a lot of experience both transitioning to new software teams myself, and watching others transition to teams that I've been a part of. There are a lot of factors that go into whether or not adding developers will speed up a project.
**There will *always* be some ramp-up time for a new developer. It's important to minimize this time. If you don't actively work to minimize ramp-up time, I conjecture this is where we run into the case where adding a new developer will (permanently) slow down the project.**
Minimizing Ramp-Up Time for a Software Project
==============================================
Some of these items are management related, some of them are not. Here's the list in order of importance:
### 1) **Have an automated test suite that you can run with a single command, and use continuous integration (CI).**
This is by far the most important item on this list, and there are so many pros to doing it that I haven't even written about all of them here.
**From a developers perspective, joining a project that already has a test suite and continuous integration rolling is *very* easy.** The reason is, I can make a code change with impunity (if a dev isn't make code changes, then they aren't very useful). If I make a *bad change*, then the test suite will break when I run it. When a test suite breaks in a dev's local environment, that's actually a good thing. We just caught a bug early, fast, and no one was involved with the bug hunting *except* the new developer who tried to commit a breaking change.
Look at any Github project that has 1000+ contributors. Almost all of them have run-able test suites (I actually can't find one that doesn't and has 1000+ contributors), and are typically using some form of CI. If your corporate software has a test suite and is using CI, you can add developers and have them all working harmoniously and have them be productive. CI is the only sane way I know of where you can have 100s of developers contributing to the same baseline. If you don't have CI, you simply can't effectively scale past 2-5 developers (well, you can, but then each developer will just cost you more time than they save you).
Have you ever seen 20 million lines of code and you're *not even sure how to run it or where the main entry point is*? Then when you *do* finally figure out how to compile it, and make an executable, (which might have taken you *weeks*) it keeps *seg faulting* on very reasonable input? Been there, done that, and it's a huge waste of time. A test suite also avoids this particular problem. A simple test suite (even with only a handful of tests) can go a *long* way on a legacy project.
Some teams like to keep wiki's that state how to run their code and list some simple test cases. **DO NOT DO THIS.** Wiki's *always* rot, and sometimes lie. A running, live test suite *will not rot* if you run it often and fix failing tests. If you use CI, the test suite *can't* rot. If it *was* rotting, then the tests would be failing, and builds would get kicked back from your CI server.
Furthermore, lack of docstrings or documentation? *Who cares.* **Documentation lies all the time: code never lies though.** A test suite is much more valuable than ANY documentation you're ever going to find, hands down. A test suite is *living, runnable, documentation*. I'm not saying don't write comprehensive docstrings/documentation, but given the choice between a test suite and documentation, I'll take the test suite every time.
**The catch here is that you have to have relatively skilled programmers, and they have to be willing to write tests when they submit a change.** Writing high quality tests is not something that you can teach someone how to do overnight. It takes practice, patience, effort, trial/error, and time. Sometimes this means a culture change.
### **2) (Ping-pong) Paired Programming**
**Ideally, you have a test suite and CI, since it's the best way to help devs spin up on your project. If you don't, *start building one*. I recommend reading Working Effectively With Legacy Code by Michael Feathers.**
If you don't have a test suite, like it or not, *you have legacy code, even if it was written yesterday*. That is Michael Feathers' definition of legacy code, and it's the best definition you'll find on the subject. Read his book.
**Given you already have CI/test suite:**
New dev pairs with senior/experience dev. New dev writes a unit test for a task on your board (yes, write the test *first*). Senior dev writes code to implement said test. Now senior dev writes a unit test for the task. New dev implements production code to satisfy said test. Rinse and repeat until the task is done.
This allows both a new dev to get some guidance with the baseline, how to build/run the test suite, how to write solid tests, and also gets to know the senior dev on a more personal level and fosters that communication and boding.
Senior dev also gets a (small) glimpse into potential strengths/weakenesses of their new dev and can plan accordingly. For instance, if new dev Johnny is a very strong with filesystems and networking/socket coding, but weaker with linear algebra, maybe don't have Johnny implement the code that calculates the pairwise cosign similarity over a set of vectors (at least not without a partner). And, maybe let Johnny teach the team a thing or two about filesystems and networking by assigning him tasks where he can shine in those areas (i.e. pair him with people who are weak in networking/filesystems). Easiest organic knowledge transfer you'll come across. Ping pong paired programming can also help with ramping up on esoteric domain knowledge.
**Given you *are now building* your CI/test suite:**
See the above. The best way to *start* a test suite also happens to be using this strategy. It might be best if two senior devs start a test suite this way, however, instead of the new dev and a senior dev. It provides sanity checks between two parties where both parties are probably new to automated testing.
### **3) Maintain a wiki with "static" documentation, or environment documentation**
Wiki's are most useful when storing information that is relatively static (i.e. not code) and unlikely to change. Examples include (but are not limited to):
* How to use relevant software development tools for your particular team (BitBucket, Gitlab, TravisCI, Jenkins, Bamboo, git/svn/mercurial/version-control, etc)
* How to log in to the test/prod environment
* What the development workflow looks like (one-flow, gitflow, etc)
* How to create accounts a dev might need
### **4) Getting the environment in order *before* the new dev joins the project**
This one is simple and often overlooked. If you're hiring a new developer or developer(s), then please have the items ready that they'd need to he productive. When they show up, the first day, they should be able to log in, clone the baseline, and at least start looking at what tasks they'll be doing soon. If you don't have a laptop or machine ready for them, then they can't do that. If you didn't provision them an account or the right SQL grants, then they can't do that. Just put in some time for this simple prep.
It also just *feels* bad when your manager/team didn't take the time to get you set up. When you show up for your first day of work and you don't have your laptop and can't login, that *really sucks*.
HTH! |
25,041 | Over the years, I have heard many times that adding more developers to a team does not make things faster. My opinion is that it's a question of management. If you can allocate one complex screen of a mobile app per developer, and you have 8 such screens, it might be beneficial to have 8 developers (e.g 4 permanents and 4 contractors) on it if a deadline looms.
What are your thoughts / experiences on that ? | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/25041",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/33768/"
] | It sounds like the idea you're concerned about is a rather over-simplified version of the point raised by Fred Brooks in the (rightly) famous essay *The Mythical Man-Month*. What Brooks pointed out is that you cannot just treat developer man-months as an infinitely elastic resource -- so doubling the number of developers does not halve delivery time.
There are two main reasons for that:
1. Some tasks cannot be divided up between developers
2. Adding more people to a team (or more teams to a project) increases communications overheads and complexity.
(In addition the point raised by @Sarov about ramp-up time is relevant but I do not believe it is significant except on very short timescales - unless, as noted by @Erik, we are talking about inexperienced developers being added to a team.)
I believe that it is the second reason that is the main factor. Communications overhead and the difficulty of keeping everyone clear about what they are meant to be doing, how parts communicate with each other, who is responsible for what, repeating mistakes because lessons have not been learned -- all these things and more mean that teams tend to become less efficient as they get bigger.
Note however that neither Brooks nor I are saying that adding more developers will always make a delivery later: that is stretching the point too far. What we are saying is that the relationship is not linear. Doubling the number of developers will not halve the development time - it might reduce it by 30%, for example, but you can **not** assume that it will reduce by 50%. | I'm not a manager, but I've had a lot of experience both transitioning to new software teams myself, and watching others transition to teams that I've been a part of. There are a lot of factors that go into whether or not adding developers will speed up a project.
**There will *always* be some ramp-up time for a new developer. It's important to minimize this time. If you don't actively work to minimize ramp-up time, I conjecture this is where we run into the case where adding a new developer will (permanently) slow down the project.**
Minimizing Ramp-Up Time for a Software Project
==============================================
Some of these items are management related, some of them are not. Here's the list in order of importance:
### 1) **Have an automated test suite that you can run with a single command, and use continuous integration (CI).**
This is by far the most important item on this list, and there are so many pros to doing it that I haven't even written about all of them here.
**From a developers perspective, joining a project that already has a test suite and continuous integration rolling is *very* easy.** The reason is, I can make a code change with impunity (if a dev isn't make code changes, then they aren't very useful). If I make a *bad change*, then the test suite will break when I run it. When a test suite breaks in a dev's local environment, that's actually a good thing. We just caught a bug early, fast, and no one was involved with the bug hunting *except* the new developer who tried to commit a breaking change.
Look at any Github project that has 1000+ contributors. Almost all of them have run-able test suites (I actually can't find one that doesn't and has 1000+ contributors), and are typically using some form of CI. If your corporate software has a test suite and is using CI, you can add developers and have them all working harmoniously and have them be productive. CI is the only sane way I know of where you can have 100s of developers contributing to the same baseline. If you don't have CI, you simply can't effectively scale past 2-5 developers (well, you can, but then each developer will just cost you more time than they save you).
Have you ever seen 20 million lines of code and you're *not even sure how to run it or where the main entry point is*? Then when you *do* finally figure out how to compile it, and make an executable, (which might have taken you *weeks*) it keeps *seg faulting* on very reasonable input? Been there, done that, and it's a huge waste of time. A test suite also avoids this particular problem. A simple test suite (even with only a handful of tests) can go a *long* way on a legacy project.
Some teams like to keep wiki's that state how to run their code and list some simple test cases. **DO NOT DO THIS.** Wiki's *always* rot, and sometimes lie. A running, live test suite *will not rot* if you run it often and fix failing tests. If you use CI, the test suite *can't* rot. If it *was* rotting, then the tests would be failing, and builds would get kicked back from your CI server.
Furthermore, lack of docstrings or documentation? *Who cares.* **Documentation lies all the time: code never lies though.** A test suite is much more valuable than ANY documentation you're ever going to find, hands down. A test suite is *living, runnable, documentation*. I'm not saying don't write comprehensive docstrings/documentation, but given the choice between a test suite and documentation, I'll take the test suite every time.
**The catch here is that you have to have relatively skilled programmers, and they have to be willing to write tests when they submit a change.** Writing high quality tests is not something that you can teach someone how to do overnight. It takes practice, patience, effort, trial/error, and time. Sometimes this means a culture change.
### **2) (Ping-pong) Paired Programming**
**Ideally, you have a test suite and CI, since it's the best way to help devs spin up on your project. If you don't, *start building one*. I recommend reading Working Effectively With Legacy Code by Michael Feathers.**
If you don't have a test suite, like it or not, *you have legacy code, even if it was written yesterday*. That is Michael Feathers' definition of legacy code, and it's the best definition you'll find on the subject. Read his book.
**Given you already have CI/test suite:**
New dev pairs with senior/experience dev. New dev writes a unit test for a task on your board (yes, write the test *first*). Senior dev writes code to implement said test. Now senior dev writes a unit test for the task. New dev implements production code to satisfy said test. Rinse and repeat until the task is done.
This allows both a new dev to get some guidance with the baseline, how to build/run the test suite, how to write solid tests, and also gets to know the senior dev on a more personal level and fosters that communication and boding.
Senior dev also gets a (small) glimpse into potential strengths/weakenesses of their new dev and can plan accordingly. For instance, if new dev Johnny is a very strong with filesystems and networking/socket coding, but weaker with linear algebra, maybe don't have Johnny implement the code that calculates the pairwise cosign similarity over a set of vectors (at least not without a partner). And, maybe let Johnny teach the team a thing or two about filesystems and networking by assigning him tasks where he can shine in those areas (i.e. pair him with people who are weak in networking/filesystems). Easiest organic knowledge transfer you'll come across. Ping pong paired programming can also help with ramping up on esoteric domain knowledge.
**Given you *are now building* your CI/test suite:**
See the above. The best way to *start* a test suite also happens to be using this strategy. It might be best if two senior devs start a test suite this way, however, instead of the new dev and a senior dev. It provides sanity checks between two parties where both parties are probably new to automated testing.
### **3) Maintain a wiki with "static" documentation, or environment documentation**
Wiki's are most useful when storing information that is relatively static (i.e. not code) and unlikely to change. Examples include (but are not limited to):
* How to use relevant software development tools for your particular team (BitBucket, Gitlab, TravisCI, Jenkins, Bamboo, git/svn/mercurial/version-control, etc)
* How to log in to the test/prod environment
* What the development workflow looks like (one-flow, gitflow, etc)
* How to create accounts a dev might need
### **4) Getting the environment in order *before* the new dev joins the project**
This one is simple and often overlooked. If you're hiring a new developer or developer(s), then please have the items ready that they'd need to he productive. When they show up, the first day, they should be able to log in, clone the baseline, and at least start looking at what tasks they'll be doing soon. If you don't have a laptop or machine ready for them, then they can't do that. If you didn't provision them an account or the right SQL grants, then they can't do that. Just put in some time for this simple prep.
It also just *feels* bad when your manager/team didn't take the time to get you set up. When you show up for your first day of work and you don't have your laptop and can't login, that *really sucks*.
HTH! |
226,757 | I'm working in a videogame set at the end of the Third Age in Middle-earth, and I would like to properly use Middle-earth materials, flora and fauna. I've been looking at *MERP* (a tabletop RPG) publications, they're great, but I'm aware of them adding non-canon elements. For example, [adarcer](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/226619/which-one-is-correct-ardacer-or-adarcer) metal.
The problem is, how do I know what is non-canon? Is there any compilation with canon material? Some publication or website. Based on [this question](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/173436/what-material-are-weapons-and-armors-in-the-middle-earth-forged-from), I suspect there is none, but checking Tolkien's novels and letters by myself would be pretty crazy.
Ideally I would have descriptions and explanations of their special properties. If not, I'll use MERP stuff, but at least it would be great to know what's canon. | 2020/01/30 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/226757",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/24896/"
] | As far as flora is concerned you can check the [Flora of Middle-Earth: Plants of J.R.R. Tolkien's Legendarium](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/32335739-flora-of-middle-earth) book, which seems to follow Tolkien canon quite closely.
>
> Few settings in literature are as widely known or celebrated as J.R.R. Tolkien's Middle-Earth. The natural landscape plays a major role in nearly all of Tolkien's major works, and readers have come to view the geography of this fictional universe as integral to understanding and enjoying Tolkien's works. And in laying out this continent, Tolkien paid special attention to its plant life; in total, over 160 plants are explicitly mentioned and described as a part of Middle-Earth. Nearly all of these plants are real species, and many of the fictional plants are based on scientifically grounded botanic principles.
>
>
> In Flora of Middle Earth: Plants of Tolkien's Legendarium, botanist Walter Judd gives a detailed species account of every plant found in Tolkien's universe, complete with the etymology of the plant's name, a discussion of its significance within Tolkien's work, a description of the plant's distribution and ecology, and an original hand-drawn illustration by artist Graham Judd in the style of a woodcut print. Among the over three-thousand vascular plants Tolkien would have seen in the British Isles, the authors show why Tolkien may have selected certain plants for inclusion in his universe over others, in terms of their botanic properties and traditional uses. The clear, comprehensive alphabetical listing of each species, along with the visual identification key of the plant drawings, adds to the reader's understanding and appreciation of the Tolkien canon.
>
>
> | I typed "middle-earth anachronisms" in the search bar which led to this:
<https://scifi.stackexchange.com/search?q=Middle+Earth+anachronisms>
But there are only three questions there and I remember answering a few other questions on similar topics.
Including: [How did non-native plants find their way to Middle-earth?](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/90680/how-did-non-native-plants-find-their-way-to-middle-earth/90683#90683)[1](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/90680/how-did-non-native-plants-find-their-way-to-middle-earth/90683#90683)
And: [What modern day items are mentioned in JRRT's writings?](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/103158/what-modern-day-items-are-mentioned-in-jrrts-writings/103316#103316)[2](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/103158/what-modern-day-items-are-mentioned-in-jrrts-writings/103316#103316)
And: [Did the Shire import any goods?](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/160944/did-the-shire-import-any-goods/161115#161115)[3](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/160944/did-the-shire-import-any-goods/161115#161115)
And: [What was the value of the Shire and everything in it?](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/153133/what-was-the-value-of-the-shire-and-everything-in-it/153273#153273)[4](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/153133/what-was-the-value-of-the-shire-and-everything-in-it/153273#153273)
So those are some places to look for native and non native plants and animals mentioned in Middle-earth.
And here is a link to another question about Middle-earth materials:
[What material are weapons and armors in the Middle-earth forged from?](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/173436/what-material-are-weapons-and-armors-in-the-middle-earth-forged-from?noredirect=1&lq=1)[5](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/173436/what-material-are-weapons-and-armors-in-the-middle-earth-forged-from?noredirect=1&lq=1) |
121,607 | To my understanding, a gauche interaction occurs between two R groups when staggered by 60 degrees in a Newman Projection. When looking down the C-1 to C-2 bond of a cyclohexane, the Newman Projection shows that C-3 and C-6 are staggered by 60 degrees. Would this still be a gauche interaction, and if so, why does it not result in an energy increase in the chair conformation? I was told this is because cyclohexane in the chair conformation acts as a long chain carbon, but I did not understand how that results in no energy increase.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fOFnE.png) | 2019/09/23 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/121607",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/84010/"
] | Yes, you're exactly right. Not only is the axial methyl gauche with respect to the methylene unit that you point out, but there are also gauche interactions of the two methylenes that are drawn in the "bridging" positions of your Newman projections.
So, why is the chair conformation so stable?
For one, gauche interactions are really not that destabilizing. You're talking about maybe a few kJ mol-1. Realistically, the axial interactions between that methyl group and other axial *hydrogens* is going to be more energetically unfavorable. But this is easily solved by a ring flip, which maintains the chair conformation.
Whoever mentioned that chair cyclohexane "acts like a long carbon chain" was probably referring to the fact that the bond angles are close to 109.5 degrees, which means that it is far less strained than rings that are fewer than 5 carbons or greater than 7 carbons. However, that's true for boat cyclohexane as well, so it's not that relevant to the question at hand.
For reference, boat cyclohexane is about 25 kJ mol-1 higher in energy than chair cyclohexane, so the gauche interactions you're talking about are a very minor contribution the the energy of the molecule. | Axial methylcyclohexane has two gauche interactions. One is between the CH3-C1 bond and the C2-C3 bond shown in red. The dihedral (torsional) angle is ~60o. Given the plane of symmetry passing through CH3-C1-C4, the second gauche interaction is on the opposite side of the plane (CH3-C1 bond and the C6-C5 bond). Each of these interactions is worth ~0.9 kcal/mol, a value that is reminiscent of the value for gauche n-butane.
Equatorial cyclohexane has two anti-butane interactions (CH3-C1-C2-C3 (in red) and (CH3-C1-C6-C5). As in the case of anti-n-butane, it is assigned a value of 0 kcal/mol. Thus, the axial conformation is ~1.8 kcal/mol less stable than the equatorial conformation.
Although it is true that there are gauche interactions within the ring, these interactions obviously cancel out in any case because they are the same in both conformations. It is differences in energy we are evaluating, not absolute values. It is the interactions of ring substituents with atoms in the ring that are at issue.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OS61L.jpg) |
227,288 | Can anyone helps me how to add a custom text field and value save in database:
I have followed the below link text field is created but the value is not saving in database:
[How to add custom checkout fields and save them in db?](https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/126036/how-to-add-custom-checkout-fields-and-save-them-in-db) | 2018/05/24 | [
"https://magento.stackexchange.com/questions/227288",
"https://magento.stackexchange.com",
"https://magento.stackexchange.com/users/49102/"
] | For Custom attribute you needto use layoutprocessor and custom extension attribute.
Here is the good example, you can use it.
<https://github.com/dckapblog/Custom-field-in-checkout-page> | I followed this tutorial and its worked for me.
>
> <https://webkul.com/blog/add-custom-field-checkout-address-form-magento2/>
>
>
> |
1,457 | The ArcGIS ModelBuilder is nice to work for when dealing with single input/outfiles. When I want to use the List option (As to, for example, Clip several layers using the same clip feature layer), I always end up having to fill in the file names manually, as copy paste is very problematic (the ArcGIS help suggests using excel, but the copy-paste of every single path is the problem, not making the names).
Does anybody know of a way to overcome this (I wish there was a way to load a list, but either I didn't find it or it doesn't exist) ???
(oh, and I almost forgot: I'm using 9.3.1) | 2010/08/25 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/1457",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/692/"
] | Have you tried listing your datasets?
<http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/9.3/index.cfm?TopicName=Iteration_using_Lists>
**TIP:
A good tip with ArcGIS ModelBuilder is you can drag and drop multiple datasets from ArcCatalog or from the Table of Contents [TOC] in ArcMap.**
Drag and drop a dataset from the ArcCatalog tree or a layer from the ArcMap table of content
<http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/9.3/index.cfm?TopicName=Listing_data>
Lists all datasets from the selected workspace. Specifying search conditions (wildcard) and a feature type limits the results. The workspace must be specified before using any of the List methods
<http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/9.3/index.cfm?TopicName=ListDatasets_method>
also useful tips
<http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/9.3/index.cfm?TopicName=Using_the_batch_grid_control> | In ModelBuilder, this class of problem can often be solved with a Python controlled loop. See slide 35 or so in the following Powerpoint presentation "Python and ModelBuilder": <http://users.rowan.edu/~reiser/modelbuilder/python_second_day.ppt> |
303,070 | What is the power factor of a classical power supply ? I mean a transformer, rectifier and filter capacitor. Is it constant ? | 2017/05/02 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/303070",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/65171/"
] | There is no one answer. No, it is not constant.
Think about it. When there is no load on the output, the transformer primary just looks like a inductor. However, when there is a load there are current spike twice per line cycle when the rectifiers conduct. That adds a lot of harmonics, which contribute to a lower power factor. | When a bridge rectifier is used you get a very non-linear current taken from the AC supply because the diodes are only conducting for a small duration of the time: -
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GFPOu.png)
This can make the overall power factor very poor but it is load dependent and this means there is no one fixed value for power factor. |
66,614 | This would only comprise death by natural causes, no accidents, suicides, homicides etc.
As Wikipedia says:
>
> A death by natural causes is one that is primarily attributed to an
> illness or an internal malfunction of the body not directly influenced
> by external forces. For example, a person dying from complications
> from influenza (an infection) or a heart attack (an internal body
> malfunction) or sudden heart failure would be listed as having died
> from natural causes.
>
>
>
How long would it take until we realise that on the whole world people suddenly stopped dying by natural causes?
(Let's say it is caused by some alien medicament that they are secretly testing on us.)
Instead of death, they are living the same as they did before this day came. | 2017/01/03 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/66614",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/31105/"
] | One day. Few at most.
In most modern countries death reports are passed to government agency on daily basis. Clerk responsible for them would be surprised that there are none in his area. He will notice sudden drop, and 0 in one category. At least some clerks would call their counterparts in adjacent areas to chit-chat about this impossible coincidence, and, with surprise, hear that the same thing happened. From this, it'll be a cascade.
The same, or next day it'll be brought to the upper seniority of government's healthcare ministers. And to the press, things like that make for really good news. And while making sure that it really is "whole world" might take a bit, I'm pretty sure it'll take well under a week for virtually everybody to know. My money is on three days for the internet-connected people.
---
Of course there is a gap between "been exposed to such information" and "actually believe this is happening". Denial and disbelief will be natural at the beginning. | Probably after one day, people these days, keep Track of deaths. Even in Sl Salvador.
There was a newspaper article in Switzerland, that said, that there hasn't been a murder in 24 Hours in Sl Salvador. If such an event will be noticed and in the news (on the other side of the globe). If countries like El Salvador keep (that good) trak of their deaths (and why), it'll probably be the same to realize this, if it's the case from natural causes as well. Especially from "First world nations" with a preference for statistics, like the US.
This does not answer your answer directely, but shows, how good they keep track of deaths and their causes and how fast such things will be in the news aroud the world.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/isx3I.jpg) |
14,394 | Lets say I have an object and I want to render it in squarish wireframe in orthographic view. Here is what I mean -
I am not looking for a specific topology in the 3d view, but what ever the topology of a model is, is it possible to render it in this way? I know that there are tricks to do this, for example by using chroma key, but as you can see in the image it is not acurate because it has picked up information from the original black background. Is there any way to do this in blender without the usage of chroma key?
Update - Basically, to render an object independent of its topology with a checkered wireframe | 2014/07/26 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/14394",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/3398/"
] | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/UXn1l.png)
The *Brick* texture node makes the grid texture.
The settings to change in the *Brick* texture node are:
* both *Frequency* fields, set to 1
* *brick width* and *Row height* must match to get squares.
* *Mortar size* to set how thick the lines are.
The *Camera* socket of the *Texture Coordinates* node, sets the mapping to match the camera. Thus the grid will be straight.
The *Mix* node is used to overlay the grid over any shader you already have on the object. It works from the *Fac* output from the brick texture. white = 1, and black = 0 so where ever there is black in the grid it will use the bottom shader, and whereever there is white (where the bricks would go) it will use the top input of the *Mix shader*. The brown *Diffuse* node would be the underlying shader.
Those nodes will render this:
 | Yes(if I read your question correctly).
In this case I'm overlaying a ~~grid~~(checker texture) as such:
You can use a image of a grid texture instead of the checker texture.
**Steps:**
1. Uv unwrap your mesh.
2. Add a uv project modifier.
3. Set the projector to your camera.
4. Set the Uv map to your Uv map
5. Set up a material such as this:
You can use any texture instead of the checker texture. |
103,834 | can anyone recommend a Sata pci or pci-e card that is compatible with OpenSolaris? Raid isn't necessary as aim is to use ZFS.
**I ended up getting:**
- Intel sasuc8i (based on LSI 1068)
- Dell 5/i SAS (Dell code UCS-51)
- Sil3124 based card
Both are very cheap(sil3124 ~$50, Dell $25 including cables), 4 port and work reasonably well using OpenSolaris build 132. The Dell card doesn't always play nice on Intel chipset boards. It requires taping pins 5-6 from the pci-e connector. | 2010/01/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/103834",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/29533/"
] | It's best if you check the [OpenSolaris Hardware Compatibility Page](http://www.sun.com/bigadmin/hcl/data/os/components/views/disk_controller_all_results.page1.html) before you purchase HW. | Supermicro makes an [add-on PCI-X card](http://www.supermicro.com/products/accessories/addon/AOC-SAT2-MV8.cfm) that uses the same chipset as the X4540/Thumpers and people seem to have good success with it. Supermicro also has a [PCI-e version](http://www.supermicro.com/products/accessories/addon/AOC-SASLP-MV8.cfm), but I haven’t heard anything as far as compatibility. |
8,799 | As I was recently attempting to determine which Republican presidential candidate was least in the pocket of Big Agriculture, I came across Rand Paul's record. It's [mostly strongly anti-subsidy](http://ballotpedia.org/2016_presidential_candidates_on_agricultural_subsidies) except one case where he voted against [an amendment](https://www.congress.gov/amendment/113th-congress/senate-amendment/923) that would end subsidized [crop "insurance"](http://www.npr.org/sections/thesalt/2011/10/27/141766762/crop-insurance-a-pricey-safety-net-for-farmers) for tobacco farmers. Since he already alienated the agro lobby with his other votes, this vote doesn't make sense to me even from a purely corrupt bargain standpoint.
Has Rand Paul ever talked about this vote and why he voted the way he did? If not, is there a procedural/strategic issue that makes this vote different, legitimate justification that applies only to subsidies for tobacco farmers (and not to the plethora of other subsidies Paul voted against), or specific tie between Rand Paul and the Tobacco lobby that could explain this one singular deviation from a strong anti cronyism record? | 2015/08/13 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/8799",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/2951/"
] | As far as I can tell, Paul's never talked about why, but it's not hard to figure out the reason. Kentucky's the #2 tobacco growing state in the nation. He's simply trying to get money for farmers in his state.
<http://www.rockthecapital.com/03/05/top-ten-tobacco-producing-states/> | Tobacco is a major cash crop in his home state of Kentucky, so it benefits him politically to oppose this legislation. But perhaps he felt that the legislation unfairly singled out one industry, rather than phase out subsidies across the board. |
240,896 | I have created a custom object called funding and I am trying to related it you to Opportunity Product object using the data type lookup relationship however when I review the list Opportunity Product is not on the list, why? | 2018/11/28 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/240896",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/60801/"
] | Because it's not allowed. Certain child objects, like OpportunityLineItem, OrderLineItem, OpportunityLineItemSchedule, etc, do not support lookup relationships. This is simply a limitation of the platform. I'm not sure where, or if, it's in the documentation, but you'll find that only objects that support tabs can be in lookup relationships. If the object can't have a tab, it can't be the parent in a relationship (note: there may be exceptions to this rule, but I don't recall seeing any). | Updating the correct answer to note that lookup relationships using Opportunity Products are possible as of [Spring 21](https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=release-notes.rn_sales_features_core_opportunities_line_item_lookup.htm&type=5&release=230). |
456,174 | I've recently purchased and installed a PNY Nvidia Quadro NVS 450 into my Dell Optiplex 755 desktop machine that's running XP SP3 and for the most part, the performance is abysmal for anything except OpenGL. The configuration I have is 4 x outputs, each running at 1280x1024 resolution and 60 Hz.
I started by using the newest Quadro/Tesla driver (297.03) and noticed that anything applications with 2D graphics (for instance Google Chrome playing a YouTube video) will grind framerates to a crawl once the size of the window approaches the size of filling one monitor or if I open two videos at the same time. Similarly, there's some noticeable issues when just trying to drag windows around on the screen too -- just the most basic of 2D causes trouble. Similarly, if I try to use something like Google Earth in DirectX mode the performance for 3D is awful as well. I So, it seems that a chunk of rendering might be being attempted in software for some strange reason, but I can't be sure. If I change Google Earth to use OpenGL instead, performance is fantastic and running it across all 4 monitors is flawless. 'm currently using the oldest driver, version 267.05, in the hopes that it would change something, but it's still the same.
It's worth noting that in my testing, I disabled DirectDraw entirely within Dxdiag and the performance issues appear to be resolved. Unfortunately, keeping it like this isn't an option as taking out DirectDraw takes out Direct3D and who knows what else. I shouldn't need to resort to this for such a new card. Furthermore, what's interesting is that my previous configuration - with a 64MB Quadro NVS 280 graphics card in the PCI (not PCI-e) slot - had far better performance by comparison.
Separately, when DirectDraw/Direct3D is enabled, I'm noticing that when trying to run the tests in Dxdiag, none of the full screen tests (eg bouncing box and 'spinning cube') will work. More curiously, the DX9 spinning cube test has run successfully 2 of the 5 times I've run the tests -- seemingly no consistency except for the fact that the DX7, DX8 and full screen DirectDraw tests all fail to complete.
I've already submitted a support request with Nvidia, but does anyone have any ideas?
Note: I've upgraded DirectX to the latest that would install (9.0c) via the web installer.
Note2: Tried running the card with Windows 7 x64 on the same machine model (Optiplex 755) with the same latest drivers, yielding the same results. Interestingly, Dxdiag on Windows 7 reports that DirectDraw and AGP Acceleration are both entirely unavailable. | 2012/08/01 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/456174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/149559/"
] | I recommend contacting someone at nVidia. I know it's not the answer. But, I work in 3D Visualization in Oil & Gas software where they are rendering literally Trillions of data points into a 3D format with excellent speed.
Now, that is all OpenGL & you've said that OpenGL is fine. That's why I suggest contacting nVidia. They will know if there's some inherent bleed in the driver that's causing DirectX to not work properly. In some cases, they may just say "Install this different driver and install and you'll be fine". I've had that a couple of times.
This sounds like a driver problem, not necessarily a problem you've created or caused on your own. | To me this problem seems to be related to DirectX as OpenGL working implies the hardware itself is fine.
As you have Windows XP you may be able to nuke DirectX using [DirectX Eradicator](http://downloads.guru3d.com/download.php?det=626) which might be able to clear it out enough for the DirectX installer to actually replace files and configuration rather than its default of just checking that they exist. I would not recommend trying the Eradicator on anything but Windows XP or earlier.
I would recommend the following (though please be aware this may cause more problems) :
1. Uninstall graphics card drivers
2. Use the Eradicator to remove DirectX
3. Reboot if you do not get asked to.
4. Reinstall DirectX normally or via the eradicator (if it gives the option)
5. Reinstall Graphics card drivers.
If that does not fix it then try the card in a different Windows XP machine to see if it has the same problem. If it does not have a problem in the other machine then to me the only other option is to reinstall Windows as it seems something is seriously wrong with your install.
If the card does not work on another machine then the next thing to try is a Windows 7 machine, if that has problems then it may be that the card is faulty. |
456,174 | I've recently purchased and installed a PNY Nvidia Quadro NVS 450 into my Dell Optiplex 755 desktop machine that's running XP SP3 and for the most part, the performance is abysmal for anything except OpenGL. The configuration I have is 4 x outputs, each running at 1280x1024 resolution and 60 Hz.
I started by using the newest Quadro/Tesla driver (297.03) and noticed that anything applications with 2D graphics (for instance Google Chrome playing a YouTube video) will grind framerates to a crawl once the size of the window approaches the size of filling one monitor or if I open two videos at the same time. Similarly, there's some noticeable issues when just trying to drag windows around on the screen too -- just the most basic of 2D causes trouble. Similarly, if I try to use something like Google Earth in DirectX mode the performance for 3D is awful as well. I So, it seems that a chunk of rendering might be being attempted in software for some strange reason, but I can't be sure. If I change Google Earth to use OpenGL instead, performance is fantastic and running it across all 4 monitors is flawless. 'm currently using the oldest driver, version 267.05, in the hopes that it would change something, but it's still the same.
It's worth noting that in my testing, I disabled DirectDraw entirely within Dxdiag and the performance issues appear to be resolved. Unfortunately, keeping it like this isn't an option as taking out DirectDraw takes out Direct3D and who knows what else. I shouldn't need to resort to this for such a new card. Furthermore, what's interesting is that my previous configuration - with a 64MB Quadro NVS 280 graphics card in the PCI (not PCI-e) slot - had far better performance by comparison.
Separately, when DirectDraw/Direct3D is enabled, I'm noticing that when trying to run the tests in Dxdiag, none of the full screen tests (eg bouncing box and 'spinning cube') will work. More curiously, the DX9 spinning cube test has run successfully 2 of the 5 times I've run the tests -- seemingly no consistency except for the fact that the DX7, DX8 and full screen DirectDraw tests all fail to complete.
I've already submitted a support request with Nvidia, but does anyone have any ideas?
Note: I've upgraded DirectX to the latest that would install (9.0c) via the web installer.
Note2: Tried running the card with Windows 7 x64 on the same machine model (Optiplex 755) with the same latest drivers, yielding the same results. Interestingly, Dxdiag on Windows 7 reports that DirectDraw and AGP Acceleration are both entirely unavailable. | 2012/08/01 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/456174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/149559/"
] | After sitting on this for a while, I've come to needing this card again. Placing this graphics card into a new computer (a rack-mounted workstation running Windows 7 Ultimate x64) and configuring with the latest Nvidia Quadro drivers has the card working correctly. 3D rendering works fairly well (as expected from a low-end card), and there appear to be no issues at all, and the card has now been running for several weeks.
I thus conclude either the original computers I was using to test the card had some other hardware incompatibility (such as being electrically underpowered) or that Nvidia or Microsoft have fixed something along the way.
Either way, the issue is finally sorted. | To me this problem seems to be related to DirectX as OpenGL working implies the hardware itself is fine.
As you have Windows XP you may be able to nuke DirectX using [DirectX Eradicator](http://downloads.guru3d.com/download.php?det=626) which might be able to clear it out enough for the DirectX installer to actually replace files and configuration rather than its default of just checking that they exist. I would not recommend trying the Eradicator on anything but Windows XP or earlier.
I would recommend the following (though please be aware this may cause more problems) :
1. Uninstall graphics card drivers
2. Use the Eradicator to remove DirectX
3. Reboot if you do not get asked to.
4. Reinstall DirectX normally or via the eradicator (if it gives the option)
5. Reinstall Graphics card drivers.
If that does not fix it then try the card in a different Windows XP machine to see if it has the same problem. If it does not have a problem in the other machine then to me the only other option is to reinstall Windows as it seems something is seriously wrong with your install.
If the card does not work on another machine then the next thing to try is a Windows 7 machine, if that has problems then it may be that the card is faulty. |
456,174 | I've recently purchased and installed a PNY Nvidia Quadro NVS 450 into my Dell Optiplex 755 desktop machine that's running XP SP3 and for the most part, the performance is abysmal for anything except OpenGL. The configuration I have is 4 x outputs, each running at 1280x1024 resolution and 60 Hz.
I started by using the newest Quadro/Tesla driver (297.03) and noticed that anything applications with 2D graphics (for instance Google Chrome playing a YouTube video) will grind framerates to a crawl once the size of the window approaches the size of filling one monitor or if I open two videos at the same time. Similarly, there's some noticeable issues when just trying to drag windows around on the screen too -- just the most basic of 2D causes trouble. Similarly, if I try to use something like Google Earth in DirectX mode the performance for 3D is awful as well. I So, it seems that a chunk of rendering might be being attempted in software for some strange reason, but I can't be sure. If I change Google Earth to use OpenGL instead, performance is fantastic and running it across all 4 monitors is flawless. 'm currently using the oldest driver, version 267.05, in the hopes that it would change something, but it's still the same.
It's worth noting that in my testing, I disabled DirectDraw entirely within Dxdiag and the performance issues appear to be resolved. Unfortunately, keeping it like this isn't an option as taking out DirectDraw takes out Direct3D and who knows what else. I shouldn't need to resort to this for such a new card. Furthermore, what's interesting is that my previous configuration - with a 64MB Quadro NVS 280 graphics card in the PCI (not PCI-e) slot - had far better performance by comparison.
Separately, when DirectDraw/Direct3D is enabled, I'm noticing that when trying to run the tests in Dxdiag, none of the full screen tests (eg bouncing box and 'spinning cube') will work. More curiously, the DX9 spinning cube test has run successfully 2 of the 5 times I've run the tests -- seemingly no consistency except for the fact that the DX7, DX8 and full screen DirectDraw tests all fail to complete.
I've already submitted a support request with Nvidia, but does anyone have any ideas?
Note: I've upgraded DirectX to the latest that would install (9.0c) via the web installer.
Note2: Tried running the card with Windows 7 x64 on the same machine model (Optiplex 755) with the same latest drivers, yielding the same results. Interestingly, Dxdiag on Windows 7 reports that DirectDraw and AGP Acceleration are both entirely unavailable. | 2012/08/01 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/456174",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/149559/"
] | After sitting on this for a while, I've come to needing this card again. Placing this graphics card into a new computer (a rack-mounted workstation running Windows 7 Ultimate x64) and configuring with the latest Nvidia Quadro drivers has the card working correctly. 3D rendering works fairly well (as expected from a low-end card), and there appear to be no issues at all, and the card has now been running for several weeks.
I thus conclude either the original computers I was using to test the card had some other hardware incompatibility (such as being electrically underpowered) or that Nvidia or Microsoft have fixed something along the way.
Either way, the issue is finally sorted. | I recommend contacting someone at nVidia. I know it's not the answer. But, I work in 3D Visualization in Oil & Gas software where they are rendering literally Trillions of data points into a 3D format with excellent speed.
Now, that is all OpenGL & you've said that OpenGL is fine. That's why I suggest contacting nVidia. They will know if there's some inherent bleed in the driver that's causing DirectX to not work properly. In some cases, they may just say "Install this different driver and install and you'll be fine". I've had that a couple of times.
This sounds like a driver problem, not necessarily a problem you've created or caused on your own. |
6,184,459 | I'm creating a website using Google Maps API and everything was fine until the client asked me if it was possible to calculate distance and travelling time when riding a bicycle or when using public transport. As far as I know, GMaps support bicycle in the US only and has no support for public transport.
I need a solution that is available world-wide. What other options do I have apart from Google Maps? Can I use web services from other sites and then combine them with GMaps API? (for example make a query to public transport companies and then display the result on GMaps)? | 2011/05/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6184459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/397861/"
] | I've found out this option that looks promising:
<http://developer.mapquest.com/> | Why don't you just use device's GPS to get the coordinates? GPS can get you distance, time, speed, altitude, bearing. Also you can plot the coordinates you got from GPS to Google Maps. |
6,184,459 | I'm creating a website using Google Maps API and everything was fine until the client asked me if it was possible to calculate distance and travelling time when riding a bicycle or when using public transport. As far as I know, GMaps support bicycle in the US only and has no support for public transport.
I need a solution that is available world-wide. What other options do I have apart from Google Maps? Can I use web services from other sites and then combine them with GMaps API? (for example make a query to public transport companies and then display the result on GMaps)? | 2011/05/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6184459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/397861/"
] | You can use Google Maps API (GMaps) and simple distance calculations to calculate cycling distances throughout the world. An example website which calculates distances on google maps using Google Maps API and javascript is <http://www.mappedometer.com/> | Why don't you just use device's GPS to get the coordinates? GPS can get you distance, time, speed, altitude, bearing. Also you can plot the coordinates you got from GPS to Google Maps. |
6,184,459 | I'm creating a website using Google Maps API and everything was fine until the client asked me if it was possible to calculate distance and travelling time when riding a bicycle or when using public transport. As far as I know, GMaps support bicycle in the US only and has no support for public transport.
I need a solution that is available world-wide. What other options do I have apart from Google Maps? Can I use web services from other sites and then combine them with GMaps API? (for example make a query to public transport companies and then display the result on GMaps)? | 2011/05/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6184459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/397861/"
] | I've found out this option that looks promising:
<http://developer.mapquest.com/> | You can use Google Maps API (GMaps) and simple distance calculations to calculate cycling distances throughout the world. An example website which calculates distances on google maps using Google Maps API and javascript is <http://www.mappedometer.com/> |
61,694 | I understand that ICANN does make the rules requiring this, but I don't understand why we have to? Each time we do transfer the domain, we have to pay to do so. That partially stops fraud. I also do know that it can take from a few hours to a month for the transfer process to be completed on both ends.
**Why do we have to wait 60 days between each domain transfer?**
Also, allow me to quote the [ICANN FAQ](http://www.icann.org/en/resources/registrars/transfers/name-holder-faqs)
>
> **If I bought a name through one registrar, am I allowed to switch to a different registrar?**
>
>
> Yes. The Inter-Registrar Transfer Policy, applicable to all ICANN-accredited registrars, provides that registered name holders must be able to transfer their domain name registrations between registrars. You must wait 60 days after the initial registration or any previous transfers to initiate a transfer.
>
>
>
It states that it is a *requirement* without an understanding of the reason why it is. | 2014/05/13 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/61694",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/38341/"
] | Here is a [Guardlex article](http://guardlex.com/blog/what-is-domain-name-hijacking-or-theft/) that claims that it is to prevent domain hijacking:
>
> Once a hijacking has been discovered, the responses to it tend to vary. The registrar is sometimes able to return the registration to its original state. However, if the domain name was transferred to a different registrar, this can prove to be difficult. This is especially true if the registrar is in a different country. There have been many cases where the original owner of the domain has not been able to regain control over a domain that was hijacked.
>
>
> The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) requires that there must be a waiting period of 60 days between the time that the registration information is changed and when it is transferred to a different registrar. By doing this, the process of hijacking a domain becomes a tougher task. This is because there is a good possibility that the original registrant will notice the problem during the 60-day window and alert the authorities about the issue. A domain that has been transferred is also a lot harder to reclaim. This is another reason that this method reduces the risk of domain hijacking.
>
>
>
If a domain name were hijacked and the hijacker were able to transfer it several times, getting it back would need to involve all the registrars to which it was transferred. The process should be simpler if there are only at most two registrars that need to cooperate for the solution. | My experience is a little different. When I transfer a (.com) domain to LCN they offer an option to reject the 60 day lock. The transfer process takes a week and the domain owner is sent an email for confirmation, no response and the domain doesn't move. LCN do make a small charge but state that it includes the next 12 month renewal.
I have a related issue. The transfer lock doesn't apply to .co.uk names, neither does the one week wait, the email confirmation of the small fee. However when I tried to transfer a "bare" .uk name (as opposed to .co.uk) the current registrar refused quoting the ICANN 60 day limit, and when challenged said bare .uk is handled differently to .co.uk
I've been unable so far to get a definitive view as to whether this is true or if the "losing" registrar is choosing to be difficult. I've got round the issue for the short-term by changing nameservers and will try the transfer again when the 60 period has elapsed. |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | Online backup service. There are many now. But a local cvs respostory is a good idea for backup of code, because the development history it provides is eventually invaluable. | I do most of my work at home under Mac OS X. I have my own Subversion repository. I run TimeMachine, which does continuous backups of the entire system to an external drive. At the end of every month I swap external drives and take the offline drive to work for safekeeping. I'm sure there are TimeMachine equivalents for Linux and Windows. |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | One word: Git.
Commit locally as often as you like, giving you a backup. Push remotely as often as you like, giving you an offsite backup. Have a full history of all changes, be able to fork locally and remotely, so that you can play around with ideas.
And it's dead easy to set up. It's not sooo easy to learn, but anyone who can learn to code can learn to use Git by experience. | I do most of my work at home under Mac OS X. I have my own Subversion repository. I run TimeMachine, which does continuous backups of the entire system to an external drive. At the end of every month I swap external drives and take the offline drive to work for safekeeping. I'm sure there are TimeMachine equivalents for Linux and Windows. |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | One word: Git.
Commit locally as often as you like, giving you a backup. Push remotely as often as you like, giving you an offsite backup. Have a full history of all changes, be able to fork locally and remotely, so that you can play around with ideas.
And it's dead easy to set up. It's not sooo easy to learn, but anyone who can learn to code can learn to use Git by experience. | Locally : I would have the code in two drives, along with a copy of code in USB Pendrive
Internet : I use google project hosting, or microsoft sky-drive. There are other sites too like Codeplex, git-hub but i haven't used them.
IMO Internet is more secure, because one can't really expect Google and Microsoft to go down :-) |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | One word: Git.
Commit locally as often as you like, giving you a backup. Push remotely as often as you like, giving you an offsite backup. Have a full history of all changes, be able to fork locally and remotely, so that you can play around with ideas.
And it's dead easy to set up. It's not sooo easy to learn, but anyone who can learn to code can learn to use Git by experience. | Online backup service. There are many now. But a local cvs respostory is a good idea for backup of code, because the development history it provides is eventually invaluable. |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | One word: Git.
Commit locally as often as you like, giving you a backup. Push remotely as often as you like, giving you an offsite backup. Have a full history of all changes, be able to fork locally and remotely, so that you can play around with ideas.
And it's dead easy to set up. It's not sooo easy to learn, but anyone who can learn to code can learn to use Git by experience. | Local personal projects: Git to a repo stored in my Dropbox account.
Local work projects: SVN to a remote server, and a rotating copy stored in my Dropbox just in case. |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | Local personal projects: Git to a repo stored in my Dropbox account.
Local work projects: SVN to a remote server, and a rotating copy stored in my Dropbox just in case. | Locally : I would have the code in two drives, along with a copy of code in USB Pendrive
Internet : I use google project hosting, or microsoft sky-drive. There are other sites too like Codeplex, git-hub but i haven't used them.
IMO Internet is more secure, because one can't really expect Google and Microsoft to go down :-) |
110,452 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Version control for independent developers?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/27147/version-control-for-independent-developers)
>
>
>
I have a folder containing all my code (working code, experiment code). I'd like to back it up to a zip file on an external hard drive or whatever is best. How do you guys backup your code?
Do you setup your own source control server?
Do you use a script to zip all files? | 2011/09/24 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/110452",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/34537/"
] | Local personal projects: Git to a repo stored in my Dropbox account.
Local work projects: SVN to a remote server, and a rotating copy stored in my Dropbox just in case. | I do most of my work at home under Mac OS X. I have my own Subversion repository. I run TimeMachine, which does continuous backups of the entire system to an external drive. At the end of every month I swap external drives and take the offline drive to work for safekeeping. I'm sure there are TimeMachine equivalents for Linux and Windows. |
203,739 | The following piece is from *1984*:
>
> For the moment he had shut his ears to the remoter noises and was listening to the stuff that streamed out of the telescreen. It appeared that there had even been demonstrations to thank Big Brother for raising the chocolate ration to twenty grammes a week. And only yesterday, he reflected, it had been announced that the ration was to be reduced to twenty grammes a week. Was it possible that they could swallow that, after only twenty-four hours? Yes, they swallowed it. Parsons swallowed it easily, with the stupidity of an animal. The eyeless creature at the other table swallowed it fanatically, passionately, with a furious desire to track down, denounce, and vaporize anyone who **should** suggest that last week the ration had been thirty grammes.
>
>
>
What does ***should suggest*** exactly mean here? If we were to replace *should* with *would*, would the meaning of the sentence change in any way? | 2019/04/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/203739",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/21520/"
] | "Cents the large nip" is not complete grammar. It's colloquial. In this sentence I would translate "the" as meaning "for a."
"Per" could work, although my feeling is (in this case) you don't want to add adjectives after "per" if you can help it because it makes the sentence more clumsy. Saying "ten cents per nip" is nice, but hey, it's a large nip. | Presumably, there were **other nips** you could buy. **Imagine a sign on the wall**:
Small nip, medium nip, large nip. Therefore, when talking about the liquor in relation to those, it is specifically the large one he is referring to. This is imaginary for purposes of explanation.
No, **per the large nip** would just mean: for the large nip but would not be elegant here. per is **usually** used in business or economics or administrative texts. |
4,346,422 | I'm developing a small application in VB6 to receive sms am using a ZTE MF637U modem,someone please help me with the AT commands to receive sms and also send?
the normal AT commands are not working with this modem. | 2010/12/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4346422",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/154199/"
] | [This](http://www.developershome.com/sms/howToSendSMSFromPC.asp) is a great guide.
Before I switched to SMS using internet gateways, using the guide i was was able to send (AT+CMGS) and receive sms (AT+CMGL) via a usb mobile modem from mscomm control and vb6 | GSM modems use a different command set than regular modems and they vary by manufacturer.
Try this link for some guidance.
<http://gatling.ikk.sztaki.hu/~kissg/gsm/at+c.html> |
4,346,422 | I'm developing a small application in VB6 to receive sms am using a ZTE MF637U modem,someone please help me with the AT commands to receive sms and also send?
the normal AT commands are not working with this modem. | 2010/12/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4346422",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/154199/"
] | [This](http://www.developershome.com/sms/howToSendSMSFromPC.asp) is a great guide.
Before I switched to SMS using internet gateways, using the guide i was was able to send (AT+CMGS) and receive sms (AT+CMGL) via a usb mobile modem from mscomm control and vb6 | Try finding documentation specific for your phone, it might need some specific commands.
Alternatively use some existing library to do the job, like [libGammu](http://wammu.eu/libgammu/), there seems to be success with several [ZTE phones with Gammu](http://wammu.eu/phones/zte/) (though your particular model is not listed). |
21,373 | My iTunes library has disappeared and looking in the Music/iTunes folder, I see an 'iTunes Library (Damaged)' file. All of the music appears to still be there, so I am guessing it is just the database that is damaged. Is there a way to recover the library, like from the xml file? There is also a folder with Previous iTunes Libraries that are a couple months old. Can I just copy and rename one of those files? | 2011/08/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/21373",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/144/"
] | **Apple's documentation** on recreating your iTunes library if it is corrupt:
[iTunes: How to re-create your iTunes library and playlists](http://support.apple.com/kb/HT1451)
Last Modified: April 07, 2011 | I just copied one of the backup files from the 'Previous iTunes Libraries' folders and renamed it to iTunes Library which was quick and easy. I imagine the effectiveness of this solution depends on how old these files are as they are meant to be a backup for upgrading iTunes rather than a timely backup. It worked well for me though and I didn't have to re-create playlists or download album artwork. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | This is just my opinion but I can spot an HTML/Javascript solution embedded in an iPhone app anywhere no matter what program created it. I prefer an app that was designed for the device not for the web and made to fit the device. my 2 cents.
The main advantage to me of an HTML/Javascript app is resizing to fit most any devices.
The main advantage to me of a Livecode app is the ability to exactly match the device it was built for. | Two main reasons:
1. Performance issues due to lack of hardware acceleration.
2. Lack of flexibility to the kind of apps you can create. i.e only features that are supported by the 3rd parties. Whereas for native Objective C, the sky is the limit. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | I'd stay away from the build-a-bad-app-quickly tools, but I'm a little biased.
My only first-hand experience is with Titanium Appcelerator, but in that brief time I had to write a script to patch the auto-generated project source to work around a crash (and it either needed to be a script or a modification to the SDK, since the auto-generated code was overwritten every build). The UI API was far from easy to use, I found problems incredibly hard to debug since your code is converted to a compressed JavaScript blob running in an interpreter, and the incredible hoops it jumped through to pass things between the JS thread and the main thread pretty much ruled out extending it with any missing features. I'm *very* biased here, since that was a project recovery (ironically, the original developer ended up writing the Android version natively, and possibly spent more time trying to make a "cross-platform" version than it would've taken to do a native iOS version).
I've heard good things about PhoneGap *if all you need is a webview* with occasional things done in native code (the API for passing things between JS and native code is reported to be good), but that's a big "if" — it might be okay if you don't care about a "native" UI, or perhaps as a starting point from which you add native features.
Googling for PhoneGap gave an ad for trigger.io; I tested the apps I could on the [examples page](https://trigger.io/examples/):
* PlayerPro's login screen scrolls (a dead giveaway), the contentSize is 20 pixels too high, and does not use native Facebook login. The "Sign up with facebook" button image is stretched and does not change visibly when tapped.
* Fanium's login screen buttons do not change visibly when tapped. The "buttons" in the nav bar disappear and reappear when you press the login button.
* Hojoki's buttons aren't quite right. The login page scrolls vertically, but only in one direction (and it doesn't need to!). It does not use native Facebook login.
* Fetchnotes' intro screen has left/right buttons (with misaligned arrows) to scroll; you can't just scroll normally. The scrolling animation is not native. The back button on the login/signup screens is clearly not native and too close to the left side of the screen (all the non-native buttons generally looked slightly out of place). The username/email/password fields are too tall. Tapping a field shows a prev/next/done bar on top of the keyboard, just like Safari. While in the username field, the return key says "Go", tapping it causes an error message to appear *behind* the prev/next/done bar (the bar is translucent, but dark enough that the user might not even notice it) instead of changing to the next field.
* In all apps, non-native buttons took longer to respond to touches than native buttons (on the prev/next/done bar above the keyboard or the "close" button associated with the subsidiary Facebook/Yahoo/Google login webview).
And that's their "App Showcase", and I didn't even get very far since I don't care enough to create throwaway accounts because they can't be bothered supporting native login (which exists at least for Facebook).
Of course, if you don't mind quirky not-quite-native apps, that's your call. | It depends on what you wish to accomplish.
If you want cross-platform ease of use, [Titanium Mobile's Appcelerator](http://www.appcelerator.com/) is really good, especially if you already know JavaScript. However, personally, I have never found the performance and extensibility of these tools to be as robust as those of Objective-C's, but they do have the major advantage of being cross-platform.
If you want an iOS only content-driven application, [RareWire](http://content.rarewire.com) is an excellent solution. It doesn't require a Mac, and is all cloud based. My only real issue with RareWire is the lack of true processing power, and control statements. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | I'd stay away from the build-a-bad-app-quickly tools, but I'm a little biased.
My only first-hand experience is with Titanium Appcelerator, but in that brief time I had to write a script to patch the auto-generated project source to work around a crash (and it either needed to be a script or a modification to the SDK, since the auto-generated code was overwritten every build). The UI API was far from easy to use, I found problems incredibly hard to debug since your code is converted to a compressed JavaScript blob running in an interpreter, and the incredible hoops it jumped through to pass things between the JS thread and the main thread pretty much ruled out extending it with any missing features. I'm *very* biased here, since that was a project recovery (ironically, the original developer ended up writing the Android version natively, and possibly spent more time trying to make a "cross-platform" version than it would've taken to do a native iOS version).
I've heard good things about PhoneGap *if all you need is a webview* with occasional things done in native code (the API for passing things between JS and native code is reported to be good), but that's a big "if" — it might be okay if you don't care about a "native" UI, or perhaps as a starting point from which you add native features.
Googling for PhoneGap gave an ad for trigger.io; I tested the apps I could on the [examples page](https://trigger.io/examples/):
* PlayerPro's login screen scrolls (a dead giveaway), the contentSize is 20 pixels too high, and does not use native Facebook login. The "Sign up with facebook" button image is stretched and does not change visibly when tapped.
* Fanium's login screen buttons do not change visibly when tapped. The "buttons" in the nav bar disappear and reappear when you press the login button.
* Hojoki's buttons aren't quite right. The login page scrolls vertically, but only in one direction (and it doesn't need to!). It does not use native Facebook login.
* Fetchnotes' intro screen has left/right buttons (with misaligned arrows) to scroll; you can't just scroll normally. The scrolling animation is not native. The back button on the login/signup screens is clearly not native and too close to the left side of the screen (all the non-native buttons generally looked slightly out of place). The username/email/password fields are too tall. Tapping a field shows a prev/next/done bar on top of the keyboard, just like Safari. While in the username field, the return key says "Go", tapping it causes an error message to appear *behind* the prev/next/done bar (the bar is translucent, but dark enough that the user might not even notice it) instead of changing to the next field.
* In all apps, non-native buttons took longer to respond to touches than native buttons (on the prev/next/done bar above the keyboard or the "close" button associated with the subsidiary Facebook/Yahoo/Google login webview).
And that's their "App Showcase", and I didn't even get very far since I don't care enough to create throwaway accounts because they can't be bothered supporting native login (which exists at least for Facebook).
Of course, if you don't mind quirky not-quite-native apps, that's your call. | Two main reasons:
1. Performance issues due to lack of hardware acceleration.
2. Lack of flexibility to the kind of apps you can create. i.e only features that are supported by the 3rd parties. Whereas for native Objective C, the sky is the limit. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | LiveCode is a good solution if you are interested in deploying the same app with perhaps some minor user interface tweaks on iOS, android, Windows, OS X, x86 Linux... soon Windows 8 & arm Linux too. There's also a server side scripting option so it's possible to implement a library that can be used across many platforms. The platform is also now open source with the first code drop due this month. | This is just my opinion but I can spot an HTML/Javascript solution embedded in an iPhone app anywhere no matter what program created it. I prefer an app that was designed for the device not for the web and made to fit the device. my 2 cents.
The main advantage to me of an HTML/Javascript app is resizing to fit most any devices.
The main advantage to me of a Livecode app is the ability to exactly match the device it was built for. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | LiveCode is a good solution if you are interested in deploying the same app with perhaps some minor user interface tweaks on iOS, android, Windows, OS X, x86 Linux... soon Windows 8 & arm Linux too. There's also a server side scripting option so it's possible to implement a library that can be used across many platforms. The platform is also now open source with the first code drop due this month. | The biggest advantage to any development platform is maximizing the revenue you generate over time for the same work.
Targeting iOS with Objective-C lets you target users of iPhone, iPod Touch, iPad. There's no mincing words here - you are learning an object-oriented derivative of C - one that is only applicable to Apple devices (lets not forget Mac OS X here too, though you have more options there).
Multi-platform (specifically with LiveCode) also opens up all major desktops (Windows, Linux, Mac OS X) and also Android devices. The IDE isn't a web app, and you can test out your ideas very, very quickly. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | It's a "to each his own" world, but I lean toward LiveCode as my one stop shop for app making. As someone previously mentioned, there are many 'create a bad app quickly' solutions, but LiveCode strives to make the code easy to learn and use, while supporting modern features. Working with the lower level objective C isn't for everyone, but when you need a feature that's not there yet, you can either roll up your sleeves and create an external yourself, or reach out to the LC community. There are a few who specialize in providing awesome externals, like Monte. Now that LC is going open source, the power under the hood is only going to get better. | If you are targeting only IOS, is is better to develop application using objective C. But, if you are targeting multiple mobile platforms like android, iphone, blackberry you can use other frameworks like phonegap, kony etc.
Advantages of phone gap
Knowledge of HTML, javascript and CSS would be sufficient.
Advantages of Kony
Knowledge of basic Luva coding would be sufficient.
If you are developing a web application, frameworks like phonegap would be better and if native application, using native frameworks would be better. This is my suggestion. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | It's a "to each his own" world, but I lean toward LiveCode as my one stop shop for app making. As someone previously mentioned, there are many 'create a bad app quickly' solutions, but LiveCode strives to make the code easy to learn and use, while supporting modern features. Working with the lower level objective C isn't for everyone, but when you need a feature that's not there yet, you can either roll up your sleeves and create an external yourself, or reach out to the LC community. There are a few who specialize in providing awesome externals, like Monte. Now that LC is going open source, the power under the hood is only going to get better. | This is just my opinion but I can spot an HTML/Javascript solution embedded in an iPhone app anywhere no matter what program created it. I prefer an app that was designed for the device not for the web and made to fit the device. my 2 cents.
The main advantage to me of an HTML/Javascript app is resizing to fit most any devices.
The main advantage to me of a Livecode app is the ability to exactly match the device it was built for. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | LiveCode is a good solution if you are interested in deploying the same app with perhaps some minor user interface tweaks on iOS, android, Windows, OS X, x86 Linux... soon Windows 8 & arm Linux too. There's also a server side scripting option so it's possible to implement a library that can be used across many platforms. The platform is also now open source with the first code drop due this month. | It depends on what you wish to accomplish.
If you want cross-platform ease of use, [Titanium Mobile's Appcelerator](http://www.appcelerator.com/) is really good, especially if you already know JavaScript. However, personally, I have never found the performance and extensibility of these tools to be as robust as those of Objective-C's, but they do have the major advantage of being cross-platform.
If you want an iOS only content-driven application, [RareWire](http://content.rarewire.com) is an excellent solution. It doesn't require a Mac, and is all cloud based. My only real issue with RareWire is the lack of true processing power, and control statements. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | It depends on what you wish to accomplish.
If you want cross-platform ease of use, [Titanium Mobile's Appcelerator](http://www.appcelerator.com/) is really good, especially if you already know JavaScript. However, personally, I have never found the performance and extensibility of these tools to be as robust as those of Objective-C's, but they do have the major advantage of being cross-platform.
If you want an iOS only content-driven application, [RareWire](http://content.rarewire.com) is an excellent solution. It doesn't require a Mac, and is all cloud based. My only real issue with RareWire is the lack of true processing power, and control statements. | Two main reasons:
1. Performance issues due to lack of hardware acceleration.
2. Lack of flexibility to the kind of apps you can create. i.e only features that are supported by the 3rd parties. Whereas for native Objective C, the sky is the limit. |
10,984,460 | There seem to be quite a lot of "Build your iPhone app quickly" 3rd party solutions to Objective-C but am not sure if there is an advantage to any of them. I am learning Objective-C through tutorials and creating example apps. I feel I am learning slowly but nonetheless, I am learning it. Are these 3rd party solutions good or bad? | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10984460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1449379/"
] | LiveCode is a good solution if you are interested in deploying the same app with perhaps some minor user interface tweaks on iOS, android, Windows, OS X, x86 Linux... soon Windows 8 & arm Linux too. There's also a server side scripting option so it's possible to implement a library that can be used across many platforms. The platform is also now open source with the first code drop due this month. | If you are targeting only IOS, is is better to develop application using objective C. But, if you are targeting multiple mobile platforms like android, iphone, blackberry you can use other frameworks like phonegap, kony etc.
Advantages of phone gap
Knowledge of HTML, javascript and CSS would be sufficient.
Advantages of Kony
Knowledge of basic Luva coding would be sufficient.
If you are developing a web application, frameworks like phonegap would be better and if native application, using native frameworks would be better. This is my suggestion. |
59,974 | The Overleaf website has a LaTeX template IEEE Transactions. Does it fully support the format as desired by IEEE? | 2015/12/13 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/59974",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/45977/"
] | According to Overleaf, **yes**. The top of their [gallery page](https://www.overleaf.com/gallery/tagged/academic-journal) states:
>
> Here we provide a selection of academic journal templates for articles and papers which automatically format your manuscripts in the style required for submission to that journal.
>
>
>
For what it is worth, the IEEEtran template looks identical to the one that one would [download from the IEEE](https://www.ieee.org/publications_standards/publications/authors/author_templates.html) for the Computer Society. Given how easy it is for Overleaf to keep the template file up to date and the loss of users they may suffer from providing invalid templates, there isn't really a strong reason to suspect that they do not have the correct version for use there. | These are the templates tagged as IEEE Official: <https://www.overleaf.com/gallery/tagged/ieee-official>, but I also recommend to download the latest LaTeX template from IEEE's website and upload it to Overleaf as a zip. |
206,112 | Is there an build-in feature to deploy Journeys between multiple business units?
If not, what are common ways to deploy journeys? | 2018/01/28 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/206112",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/44424/"
] | Historically - no is the short answer.
This month's update however does offer Journey Templates, but I haven't found a method of saving a Journey as a template and sharing between BUs.
I have read rumour that the feature to copy a Journey between business units is on the horizon but no idea of the truth in this.
You can really only create journeys manually in each business unit. I typically create and document at the parent, and then create manually in the child BUs. A bit of a pain there isn't a feature to copy/paste a journey as it would make life easier. | You should be able to pull out the journey into a JSON file via the REST endpoint however you'll need to go through and edit portions to respect the changes between BUs, activities and DEs so depending on the size of the journey it might be easier to just recreate in the UI.
<https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.mc-apis.meta/mc-apis/journey-builder-api-overview.htm> |
206,112 | Is there an build-in feature to deploy Journeys between multiple business units?
If not, what are common ways to deploy journeys? | 2018/01/28 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/206112",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/44424/"
] | Historically - no is the short answer.
This month's update however does offer Journey Templates, but I haven't found a method of saving a Journey as a template and sharing between BUs.
I have read rumour that the feature to copy a Journey between business units is on the horizon but no idea of the truth in this.
You can really only create journeys manually in each business unit. I typically create and document at the parent, and then create manually in the child BUs. A bit of a pain there isn't a feature to copy/paste a journey as it would make life easier. | There is a new feature with the last release that allows migrating Journeys between BUs. So that, it is necessary to install the package ‘[Deployment Manager](https://appexchange.salesforce.com/listingDetail?listingId=a0N3A00000FvMviUAF)’ from the Appexchange in all the BUs that will be involved in the migration (here you have the [link](https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=mc_overview_deployment_manager.htm&type=5) to the documentation).
This functionality can help you to replicate journeys from the testing BU to the marketing one. The only thing to keep mind is that only the journey flow is migrated, not the configuration of each activity, but for sure it will save more time than starting to do it from scratch. |
206,112 | Is there an build-in feature to deploy Journeys between multiple business units?
If not, what are common ways to deploy journeys? | 2018/01/28 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/206112",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/44424/"
] | According to the April 2019 release notes, you will soon be able to 'use Deployment Manager to copy the design of the journey and deploy it in other business units or enterprises in Marketing Cloud'
You can check out this link for more information:
<https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=mc_rn_april_2019_platform_deployment_manager.htm&type=5> | You should be able to pull out the journey into a JSON file via the REST endpoint however you'll need to go through and edit portions to respect the changes between BUs, activities and DEs so depending on the size of the journey it might be easier to just recreate in the UI.
<https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.mc-apis.meta/mc-apis/journey-builder-api-overview.htm> |
206,112 | Is there an build-in feature to deploy Journeys between multiple business units?
If not, what are common ways to deploy journeys? | 2018/01/28 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/206112",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/44424/"
] | There is a new feature with the last release that allows migrating Journeys between BUs. So that, it is necessary to install the package ‘[Deployment Manager](https://appexchange.salesforce.com/listingDetail?listingId=a0N3A00000FvMviUAF)’ from the Appexchange in all the BUs that will be involved in the migration (here you have the [link](https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=mc_overview_deployment_manager.htm&type=5) to the documentation).
This functionality can help you to replicate journeys from the testing BU to the marketing one. The only thing to keep mind is that only the journey flow is migrated, not the configuration of each activity, but for sure it will save more time than starting to do it from scratch. | You should be able to pull out the journey into a JSON file via the REST endpoint however you'll need to go through and edit portions to respect the changes between BUs, activities and DEs so depending on the size of the journey it might be easier to just recreate in the UI.
<https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.mc-apis.meta/mc-apis/journey-builder-api-overview.htm> |
206,112 | Is there an build-in feature to deploy Journeys between multiple business units?
If not, what are common ways to deploy journeys? | 2018/01/28 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/206112",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/44424/"
] | According to the April 2019 release notes, you will soon be able to 'use Deployment Manager to copy the design of the journey and deploy it in other business units or enterprises in Marketing Cloud'
You can check out this link for more information:
<https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=mc_rn_april_2019_platform_deployment_manager.htm&type=5> | There is a new feature with the last release that allows migrating Journeys between BUs. So that, it is necessary to install the package ‘[Deployment Manager](https://appexchange.salesforce.com/listingDetail?listingId=a0N3A00000FvMviUAF)’ from the Appexchange in all the BUs that will be involved in the migration (here you have the [link](https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=mc_overview_deployment_manager.htm&type=5) to the documentation).
This functionality can help you to replicate journeys from the testing BU to the marketing one. The only thing to keep mind is that only the journey flow is migrated, not the configuration of each activity, but for sure it will save more time than starting to do it from scratch. |
54,013 | Quoting <http://www.moneyflowindex.org/shares-of-principal-financial-group-inc-nysepfg-sees-large-outflow-of-money-3/3128858/>,
>
> Goldman Sachs downgrades their rating on the shares of Principal Financial Group Inc (NYSE:PFG). The current rating of the shares is Sell. Earlier, the shares were rated a Neutral by the brokerage firm.
>
>
>
How can I see what Goldman Sachs has rated stocks? | 2015/09/19 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/54013",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/9984/"
] | I was in a similar situation with my now 6 year old. So I'll share what I chose. Like you, I was already funding a 529. So I opened a custodial brokerage account with Fidelity and chose to invest in very low expense index fund ETFs which are sponsored by Fidelity, so there are no commissions. The index funds have a low turnover as well, so they tend to be minimal on capital gains.
As mentioned in the other answer, CDs aren't paying anything right now. And given your long time to grow, investing in the stock market is a decent bet. However, I would steer clear of any insurance products. They tend to be heavy on fees and low on returns. Insurance is for insuring something not for investing. | CDs pay less than the going rate so that the banks can earn money. Investing is risky right now due to the inaction of the Fed.
Try your independent life insurance agent. You could get endowment life insurance. It would pay out at age 21.
If you decide to invest it yourself try to buy a stable equity fund. My 'bedrock' fund is PGF. It pays dividends each month and is currently yealding 5.5% per year. Scottrade has a facility to automatically reinvest the dividend each month at no commission.
<http://www.marketwatch.com/investing/Fund/PGF?CountryCode=US> |
54,013 | Quoting <http://www.moneyflowindex.org/shares-of-principal-financial-group-inc-nysepfg-sees-large-outflow-of-money-3/3128858/>,
>
> Goldman Sachs downgrades their rating on the shares of Principal Financial Group Inc (NYSE:PFG). The current rating of the shares is Sell. Earlier, the shares were rated a Neutral by the brokerage firm.
>
>
>
How can I see what Goldman Sachs has rated stocks? | 2015/09/19 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/54013",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/9984/"
] | I was in a similar situation with my now 6 year old. So I'll share what I chose. Like you, I was already funding a 529. So I opened a custodial brokerage account with Fidelity and chose to invest in very low expense index fund ETFs which are sponsored by Fidelity, so there are no commissions. The index funds have a low turnover as well, so they tend to be minimal on capital gains.
As mentioned in the other answer, CDs aren't paying anything right now. And given your long time to grow, investing in the stock market is a decent bet. However, I would steer clear of any insurance products. They tend to be heavy on fees and low on returns. Insurance is for insuring something not for investing. | American Century has their Heritage Fund:
<https://www.americancentury.com/sd/mobile/fund_facts_jstl?fund=30>
It has a good track record.
Here are all the mutual funds from American Century:
<https://www.americancentury.com/content/americancentury/direct/en/fund-performance/performance.html>
A mutual fund is a good wayway to go as it is not subject to fluctuations throughout the day whereas an ETF is. |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | My two lepta on this mainly conceptual and semantic problem:
It seems that people have an initial position/desire: those who want/expect/believe that measurements should be predictable to the last decimal point and those who are pragmatic and accept that maybe they are not. The first want an explanation of why there exists unpredictability.
An experimentalist knows that measurements are predictable within errors, which errors can sometimes be very large. Take wave mechanics, classical. Try to predict fronts in climate, a completely classical problem. The weather report is a daily reminder how large the uncertainties are in classical problems, in principle completely deterministic. Which leads to the theory of deterministic chaos. So predictability is a concept in the head of the questioner, as far as quantum or classical measurements goes. The difference is that in classical physics we believe we know why there is unpredictability.
Has physics given up on the predictability of the throw of a dice? Taken to extremes trying to find the physics of the metastable state of the fall of the dice we come again to errors and accuracy of measurement.
Within errors in measurements in the order of magnitude we live in, nano to kilometers, quantum mechanics is very predictive, as evinced by all the marvelous ways we communicate through this board . Even in achieving lasing and superconductivity. It is only when probing the very small that the theoretical unpredictability of individual measurements in QM enters. So small that "intuitions" and beliefs can become dominant to measurement and errors. And there, according to the inherent beliefs of each observer, the desire to have a classical predictability framework or the willingness to explore new concepts plays a role to a physicist, whether he/she will obsess about this conundrum or live with it until TOE.. | Yes - physics HAS given up on the existence of microscopic physical laws that you assume would provide the outcome. And what evidence is there that Nature adheres to the idea that P and Q must commute? Physics never established such an idea to begin with. It was always just a convenient assumption, until it turned out that Maxwell simply can not explain atoms. The world can make perfectly good mathematical sense where particles are actually oscillators with a complex phase and possible paths, rather than "mass-points" with classical deterministic behavior. You ask if there is a way to pick out one of the possibilities, but evidently Nature does not know or care. The idea that there is a 'block spacetime' where all events were determined appears to be false. |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | The indeterminism does not originate from Quantum Mechanics. It has a wider philosophical origin.
For example, consider the multi-world interpretation of quantum mechanics. It is a completely deterministic theory which describes unitary, reversible and predictable evolution of a quantum system or the Universe (Multiverse in terms of MWI) as a whole.
But any actual experiments still will show uncertainty. Why? According the MWI with each act of measurement the observer gets splitted in two copies each of which experience different results.
One can thus formulate a similar problem but without involving the quantum mechanics: what would one experience if somebody creates an exact copy of him? Will he still experience the old body or the newer one? What happens if the old body is killed?
There can be formulated several related thought experiments:
1. There is a teleportation device that scans your body, sends that information to the receiver which re-creates an exact copy of your body and then the original body is destroyed. Would a reasonable person use such teleporter even if their friends used it and say it's great?
2. Suppose the medicine of the future became very advanced. Now you are proposed a game: your brain will be splitted in two parts with one of them left in your body and the other transplanted into another body and then the both fully regenerated. The memories of the both parts are completely (or mostly) restored. Now one of the resulting people is given billion of dollars while the other is sent to a life imprisonment. Should you agree to such a game? What is the probability that you will find yourself as a billionaire or as a prisoner after the operation? Should you agree if someone cuts not a half of the brain but a smaller part? What about other parts of the body?
This leads to the yet unresolved philosophical questions which exist from the very ancient times when people knew nothing about quantum mechanics.
Here is a list of open philosophical problems that arise in the course of the thought experiment:
* Hard problem of consciousness (philosophical zombies)
* Problem of induction
* Qualia problem
* Ship of Theseus paradox | I accidentally found a partial answer to my question on [arxiv](http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.1657).
It's still completely theoretical, but the answer can be summarized like this.
It is assumed that some form of event horizon exists on a microscopic level. This event horizon prevents some information from escaping. With these premises, a QFT-like theory can be developed by observing the event horizon. The source of the randomness is the fact that information, as seen from outside the event horizon, is incomplete - the assumption being that randomness is the opposite of information.
>
> As the field enters the Rinder horizon for the observer R, the observer shall not get information about future configurations of φ any more and all what the observer can expect about φ evolution beyond the horizon is a probabilistic distribution P[φ] of φ beyond the horizon. Already known information about φ acts as constraints for the distribution. I suggested that this ignorance is the origin of quantum randomness. Physics in the F wedge should reflect the ignorance of the observer in the R wedge, if information is fundamental.
>
>
> |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | First of all, let me start out by pointing out to you that there have been experimental violations of [Bell's inequalities](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_inequalities). This provides damning evidence against hidden variable models of quantum mechanics, and thus essentially proves that the random outcomes are an essential feature of quantum mechanics. If the outcomes of measurements in every basis were predetermined, we should not be able to violate Bell's inequality.
One way of seeing why this is in fact a reasonable state of affairs is to consider Schroedinger's cat. Evolution of closed quantum systems is unitary, and hence entirely deterministic. For example, in the case of the cat, at some point in time we have a state of the system which is a superposition of (atom decayed and cat dead) and (atom undecayed and cat alive) with equal amplitude for each. This far quantum mechanics predicts the exact state of the system. We need to consider what happens when we open the box and look at the cat. When we do this, the system should then be in a superposition of (atom decayed, cat dead, box open, you aware cat is dead) and (atom undecayed, cat alive, box closed, you aware cat is alive). Clearly as time goes on the two branches of the wave function diverge further as the consequences of whether the cat is alive or dead propagate out into the world, and as a result no interference is likely possible. Thus there are two branches of the wave function with different configurations of the world. If you believe the [Everett interpretation](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Everett_interpretation) of quantum mechanics then both branches continue to exist indefinitely. Clearly our thinking depends on whether we have seen the cat alive or dead so that we ourselves are in a state (seen cat dead and aware we have seen the cat dead and not seen the cat alive) or (seen cat alive and aware we have seen the cat alive and not seen the cat dead). Thus even if we exist in a superposition we are only aware of a classical outcome to the experiment. Quantum mechanics allows us to calculate the exact wavefunction which is the outcome of the experiment, however, it cannot tell us a priori which branch we will find ourselves aware of after the experiment. This isn't really a shortcoming of the mathematical framework, but rather of our inability to perceive ourselves in anything other than classical states. | Yes - physics HAS given up on the existence of microscopic physical laws that you assume would provide the outcome. And what evidence is there that Nature adheres to the idea that P and Q must commute? Physics never established such an idea to begin with. It was always just a convenient assumption, until it turned out that Maxwell simply can not explain atoms. The world can make perfectly good mathematical sense where particles are actually oscillators with a complex phase and possible paths, rather than "mass-points" with classical deterministic behavior. You ask if there is a way to pick out one of the possibilities, but evidently Nature does not know or care. The idea that there is a 'block spacetime' where all events were determined appears to be false. |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | The short answer is that we do not know why the world is this way. There might eventually be theories which explain this, rather than the current ones which simply take it as axiomatic. Maybe these future theories will relate to what we currently call the holographic principle, for example.
There is also the apparently partially related fact of the quantization of elementary phenomena, e.g. that the measured spin of an elementary particle always is measured in integer or half integer values. We also do not know why the world is this way.
If we try to unify these two, the essential statistical aspect of quantum phenomena and the quantization of the phenomena themselves, the beginnings of a new theory start to emerge. See papers by Tomasz Paterek, Borivoje Dakic, Caslav Brukner, Anton Zeilinger, and others for details .
<https://arxiv.org/abs/0804.1423> and
<https://www.univie.ac.at/qfp/publications3/pdffiles/Paterek_Logical%20independence%20and%20quantum%20randomness.pdf>
beginning with Zeilinger's (1999)
<https://doi.org/10.1023/A:1018820410908>, also online free [here](https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?rep=rep1&type=pdf&doi=10.1.1.205.7809)
These papers present phenomenological (preliminary) theories in which logical propositions about elementary phenomena somehow can only carry 1 or a few bits of information.
Thanks for asking this question. It was a pleasure to find these papers. | You might want to read about Bohmian mechanics. Bohmian mechanics is perfectly deterministic. The reason randomness appears is explained in the same way as the appearance of randomness in thermodynamic equilibrium.
Here's some further reading with links to several papers at the bottom of the page:
<http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qm-bohm/#qr> |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | My two lepta on this mainly conceptual and semantic problem:
It seems that people have an initial position/desire: those who want/expect/believe that measurements should be predictable to the last decimal point and those who are pragmatic and accept that maybe they are not. The first want an explanation of why there exists unpredictability.
An experimentalist knows that measurements are predictable within errors, which errors can sometimes be very large. Take wave mechanics, classical. Try to predict fronts in climate, a completely classical problem. The weather report is a daily reminder how large the uncertainties are in classical problems, in principle completely deterministic. Which leads to the theory of deterministic chaos. So predictability is a concept in the head of the questioner, as far as quantum or classical measurements goes. The difference is that in classical physics we believe we know why there is unpredictability.
Has physics given up on the predictability of the throw of a dice? Taken to extremes trying to find the physics of the metastable state of the fall of the dice we come again to errors and accuracy of measurement.
Within errors in measurements in the order of magnitude we live in, nano to kilometers, quantum mechanics is very predictive, as evinced by all the marvelous ways we communicate through this board . Even in achieving lasing and superconductivity. It is only when probing the very small that the theoretical unpredictability of individual measurements in QM enters. So small that "intuitions" and beliefs can become dominant to measurement and errors. And there, according to the inherent beliefs of each observer, the desire to have a classical predictability framework or the willingness to explore new concepts plays a role to a physicist, whether he/she will obsess about this conundrum or live with it until TOE.. | You might want to read about Bohmian mechanics. Bohmian mechanics is perfectly deterministic. The reason randomness appears is explained in the same way as the appearance of randomness in thermodynamic equilibrium.
Here's some further reading with links to several papers at the bottom of the page:
<http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qm-bohm/#qr> |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | The indeterminism does not originate from Quantum Mechanics. It has a wider philosophical origin.
For example, consider the multi-world interpretation of quantum mechanics. It is a completely deterministic theory which describes unitary, reversible and predictable evolution of a quantum system or the Universe (Multiverse in terms of MWI) as a whole.
But any actual experiments still will show uncertainty. Why? According the MWI with each act of measurement the observer gets splitted in two copies each of which experience different results.
One can thus formulate a similar problem but without involving the quantum mechanics: what would one experience if somebody creates an exact copy of him? Will he still experience the old body or the newer one? What happens if the old body is killed?
There can be formulated several related thought experiments:
1. There is a teleportation device that scans your body, sends that information to the receiver which re-creates an exact copy of your body and then the original body is destroyed. Would a reasonable person use such teleporter even if their friends used it and say it's great?
2. Suppose the medicine of the future became very advanced. Now you are proposed a game: your brain will be splitted in two parts with one of them left in your body and the other transplanted into another body and then the both fully regenerated. The memories of the both parts are completely (or mostly) restored. Now one of the resulting people is given billion of dollars while the other is sent to a life imprisonment. Should you agree to such a game? What is the probability that you will find yourself as a billionaire or as a prisoner after the operation? Should you agree if someone cuts not a half of the brain but a smaller part? What about other parts of the body?
This leads to the yet unresolved philosophical questions which exist from the very ancient times when people knew nothing about quantum mechanics.
Here is a list of open philosophical problems that arise in the course of the thought experiment:
* Hard problem of consciousness (philosophical zombies)
* Problem of induction
* Qualia problem
* Ship of Theseus paradox | is not true that this mechanism is mysterious; however most physicists don't have the time to ponder about these philosophical questions and they just prefer to leave the random nature of quantum mechanics as an 'axiom'
to understand how the random happens, first, let's make a Gedanken experiment were our physical bodies (including our brains) are classically described; they all have well-defined position and momenta, and hence any indeterminism in its evolution is completely of practical reasons, and not a matter of principle.
So in this hypothetical classical universe, teleportation star trek style is a completely legal operation; you can read all the physical microstate of any person, and write it to another place.
But in this classical universe, it is also possible to ***copy*** a person microstate: so let's walk on the consequences of such experiment.
So our experimental configuration consists of two separate rooms with big posters on the wall: one of the rooms contains a '+' and the other room contains a '-'. Now we send our test individual into the teleportation chamber, and we will desintegrate this person and create two copies of him into each room
Now the question arises; if you are the test individual, what is that you are going to experience? well, the truth is that there are not that many options for our experiences after we enter the teleportation chamber:
1) we don't experience nothing afterwards, because we have been desintegrated, so we are dead, our goblin soul went away and in the world there are two zombie copies of you that don't have 'soul'
2) we experience to appear in a room with a big poster with a '+'
3) we experience to appear in a room with a big poster with a '-'
So if we discard 1) (i don't wanna argue about religion with anyone here, i'll just say that 1) is preposterous) we are left with two options: 2) and 3)
So, the important thing here, is that, even in this classical, determinist universe, the fact of being able to copy a conscious being, means that some observers/conscious beings, **will experience events that are fundamentally random, and are intrinsically non deterministic, even if everything else is.**
You could argue that there are underlying 'physical' reasons of why the 'real you' went to 2) instead of 3) or viceversa, you could say that the copy in 2) was more 'perfect' than 3) and hence the real you goes there. But the truth is that these arguments are not fundamental; you are basically trying to take to the heart the fact that there is a single 'you'.
Which makes me go back to your question; How does all this applies to our world?, after all, copying a living being is disallowed (there is even a no-clone theorem on QM) However this is not entirely true. Many-Worlds interpretation of QM is basically taking the determinism of QM to the extreme; if we allow a a quantum superposition to couple to a quantum conscious entity (an observer) the quantum observer will undergo a split and become entangled with the physical system he is measuring; he has physically become two separate copies quantum observers (*mutually non-interacting copies, hence the no-clone theorem doesn't apply*), experiencing different outcomes, which individually seem random to each one of them. |
317 | Quantum Mechanics is very successful in determining the overall statistical distribution of many measurements of the same process.
On the other hand, it is completely clueless in determining the outcome of a single measurement. It can only describe it as having a "random" outcome within the predicted distribution.
Where does this randomness come from? Has physics "given up" on the existence of microscopic physical laws by saying that single measurements are not bound to a physical law?
As a side note: repeating the same measurement over and over with the same apparatus makes the successive measurements non-independent, statistically speaking. There could be a hidden "stateful" mechanism influencing the results. Has any study of fundamental QM features been performed taking this into account? What was the outcome?
---
Edit: since 2 out of 3 questions seem to me not to answer my original question, maybe a clarification on the question itself will improve the quality of the page :-)
The question is about why single measurements have the values they have. Out of the, say, 1000 measure that make a successful QM experiment, why do the single measurements happen in that particular order?
Why does the wave function collapse to a specific eigenvalue and not another? It's undeniable that this collapse (or projection) happens. Is this random? What is the source of this randomness?
In other words: what is the mechanism of choice?
---
Edit 2: More in particular you can refer to chapter 29 of "The road to reality" by Penrose, and with special interest page 809 where the Everett interpretation is discussed - including why it is, if not wrong, quite incomplete. | 2010/11/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/317",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/66/"
] | The short answer is that we do not know why the world is this way. There might eventually be theories which explain this, rather than the current ones which simply take it as axiomatic. Maybe these future theories will relate to what we currently call the holographic principle, for example.
There is also the apparently partially related fact of the quantization of elementary phenomena, e.g. that the measured spin of an elementary particle always is measured in integer or half integer values. We also do not know why the world is this way.
If we try to unify these two, the essential statistical aspect of quantum phenomena and the quantization of the phenomena themselves, the beginnings of a new theory start to emerge. See papers by Tomasz Paterek, Borivoje Dakic, Caslav Brukner, Anton Zeilinger, and others for details .
<https://arxiv.org/abs/0804.1423> and
<https://www.univie.ac.at/qfp/publications3/pdffiles/Paterek_Logical%20independence%20and%20quantum%20randomness.pdf>
beginning with Zeilinger's (1999)
<https://doi.org/10.1023/A:1018820410908>, also online free [here](https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?rep=rep1&type=pdf&doi=10.1.1.205.7809)
These papers present phenomenological (preliminary) theories in which logical propositions about elementary phenomena somehow can only carry 1 or a few bits of information.
Thanks for asking this question. It was a pleasure to find these papers. | First of all, let me start out by pointing out to you that there have been experimental violations of [Bell's inequalities](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell%27s_inequalities). This provides damning evidence against hidden variable models of quantum mechanics, and thus essentially proves that the random outcomes are an essential feature of quantum mechanics. If the outcomes of measurements in every basis were predetermined, we should not be able to violate Bell's inequality.
One way of seeing why this is in fact a reasonable state of affairs is to consider Schroedinger's cat. Evolution of closed quantum systems is unitary, and hence entirely deterministic. For example, in the case of the cat, at some point in time we have a state of the system which is a superposition of (atom decayed and cat dead) and (atom undecayed and cat alive) with equal amplitude for each. This far quantum mechanics predicts the exact state of the system. We need to consider what happens when we open the box and look at the cat. When we do this, the system should then be in a superposition of (atom decayed, cat dead, box open, you aware cat is dead) and (atom undecayed, cat alive, box closed, you aware cat is alive). Clearly as time goes on the two branches of the wave function diverge further as the consequences of whether the cat is alive or dead propagate out into the world, and as a result no interference is likely possible. Thus there are two branches of the wave function with different configurations of the world. If you believe the [Everett interpretation](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Everett_interpretation) of quantum mechanics then both branches continue to exist indefinitely. Clearly our thinking depends on whether we have seen the cat alive or dead so that we ourselves are in a state (seen cat dead and aware we have seen the cat dead and not seen the cat alive) or (seen cat alive and aware we have seen the cat alive and not seen the cat dead). Thus even if we exist in a superposition we are only aware of a classical outcome to the experiment. Quantum mechanics allows us to calculate the exact wavefunction which is the outcome of the experiment, however, it cannot tell us a priori which branch we will find ourselves aware of after the experiment. This isn't really a shortcoming of the mathematical framework, but rather of our inability to perceive ourselves in anything other than classical states. |
14,160 | My daughter, who is coming up to be 7 years old, loves swimming and has recently started race training. She is the youngest/smallest/thinnest of all the children in the group. Her technique is pretty good in all 4 strokes (better than some of the older children), but she lacks the stamina, endurance and general body strength to keep up with the others and as such she's finding the pool-training quite harsh.
She already swims as often as is reasonably possible - 3 sessions a week training plus one or two swims with me where we just have fun in the local pool. The coaches have suggested she does 5 days training , but this would a) be difficult for us logistically, and b) I think it's too much for her at this age. One of her former instructors in group lessons at our local pool advised extreme caution with pushing her too hard at this age.
She plays football once a week for an hour, and does Tai-kwon-do for another hour, and generally she is quite an active child.
So I am wondering what are the best exercises that can be done at home that would help her endurance, stamina and general physical preparedness/strength.
FYI, at the moment I just let her do what exercises she enjoys at home - which are sit-ups, press-ups, star jumps, wheel-barrows with her brother up stairs, hand stands, walking hand stands (she's just started to try this), and a few exercises with little 2.5Kg dumbbells (curls, shoulder presses, lunges and side bends) - as and when she feels like it.... | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/14160",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/6897/"
] | Sounds to me like you are doing what you should be doing. Seven years old is very young to start any structured training, and I would just let her do what she wants to do. | I totally agree with Eric Gunnerson.
I recently found easy [home exercises](http://homegym-exercises.com/) on this page... But I don't know if working out is a good thing for her. |
14,160 | My daughter, who is coming up to be 7 years old, loves swimming and has recently started race training. She is the youngest/smallest/thinnest of all the children in the group. Her technique is pretty good in all 4 strokes (better than some of the older children), but she lacks the stamina, endurance and general body strength to keep up with the others and as such she's finding the pool-training quite harsh.
She already swims as often as is reasonably possible - 3 sessions a week training plus one or two swims with me where we just have fun in the local pool. The coaches have suggested she does 5 days training , but this would a) be difficult for us logistically, and b) I think it's too much for her at this age. One of her former instructors in group lessons at our local pool advised extreme caution with pushing her too hard at this age.
She plays football once a week for an hour, and does Tai-kwon-do for another hour, and generally she is quite an active child.
So I am wondering what are the best exercises that can be done at home that would help her endurance, stamina and general physical preparedness/strength.
FYI, at the moment I just let her do what exercises she enjoys at home - which are sit-ups, press-ups, star jumps, wheel-barrows with her brother up stairs, hand stands, walking hand stands (she's just started to try this), and a few exercises with little 2.5Kg dumbbells (curls, shoulder presses, lunges and side bends) - as and when she feels like it.... | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/14160",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/6897/"
] | One of the great things about swimming is that it is very much technique based, and while muscle strength may compensate for that to some extent, once she start growing she will soon catch and surpass bigger children because of that good form.
Until then, I would continue as you have been. Participating in many sports at her age is great, it means that she is active, enjoys exercise and activity, and in time she will find what she enjoys the most. The stuff that she is doing on her own (handstands, pressups, etc) should be sufficient to keep her developing well for both athletics and fun.
Seven years old is not too young to start a structured training program IF (and I repeat IF) she has kind of "settled" on one sport as her main focus. There are many sports where children start structured training programs at young ages(Swimming, gymnastics, martial arts immediately come to mind), but that doesn't necessarily mean weights, intense training, things like that.
So in summary, let her enjoy the sports, if she gets totally frustrated with swimming and wants to do something else, let her give that a try. If she decides that swimming is for her, then you can look at possibly working with a trainer for appropriate exercises designed around swimming. | Sounds to me like you are doing what you should be doing. Seven years old is very young to start any structured training, and I would just let her do what she wants to do. |
14,160 | My daughter, who is coming up to be 7 years old, loves swimming and has recently started race training. She is the youngest/smallest/thinnest of all the children in the group. Her technique is pretty good in all 4 strokes (better than some of the older children), but she lacks the stamina, endurance and general body strength to keep up with the others and as such she's finding the pool-training quite harsh.
She already swims as often as is reasonably possible - 3 sessions a week training plus one or two swims with me where we just have fun in the local pool. The coaches have suggested she does 5 days training , but this would a) be difficult for us logistically, and b) I think it's too much for her at this age. One of her former instructors in group lessons at our local pool advised extreme caution with pushing her too hard at this age.
She plays football once a week for an hour, and does Tai-kwon-do for another hour, and generally she is quite an active child.
So I am wondering what are the best exercises that can be done at home that would help her endurance, stamina and general physical preparedness/strength.
FYI, at the moment I just let her do what exercises she enjoys at home - which are sit-ups, press-ups, star jumps, wheel-barrows with her brother up stairs, hand stands, walking hand stands (she's just started to try this), and a few exercises with little 2.5Kg dumbbells (curls, shoulder presses, lunges and side bends) - as and when she feels like it.... | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/14160",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/6897/"
] | I certainly don't ever train 7 year olds more than what your daughter is already doing. If she is already generally fit **all effort and focus should be put on skill progression.** She can potentially get stronger than the average child but focusing on athletic training as if she were a young adult is physically and psychologically unnecessary for a few more years. There is little to gain until the onset of maturation. When comparing children of similar size and maturity, skills are by far the biggest differentiator for speed. Watch a local meet and see it play out! | Sounds to me like you are doing what you should be doing. Seven years old is very young to start any structured training, and I would just let her do what she wants to do. |
14,160 | My daughter, who is coming up to be 7 years old, loves swimming and has recently started race training. She is the youngest/smallest/thinnest of all the children in the group. Her technique is pretty good in all 4 strokes (better than some of the older children), but she lacks the stamina, endurance and general body strength to keep up with the others and as such she's finding the pool-training quite harsh.
She already swims as often as is reasonably possible - 3 sessions a week training plus one or two swims with me where we just have fun in the local pool. The coaches have suggested she does 5 days training , but this would a) be difficult for us logistically, and b) I think it's too much for her at this age. One of her former instructors in group lessons at our local pool advised extreme caution with pushing her too hard at this age.
She plays football once a week for an hour, and does Tai-kwon-do for another hour, and generally she is quite an active child.
So I am wondering what are the best exercises that can be done at home that would help her endurance, stamina and general physical preparedness/strength.
FYI, at the moment I just let her do what exercises she enjoys at home - which are sit-ups, press-ups, star jumps, wheel-barrows with her brother up stairs, hand stands, walking hand stands (she's just started to try this), and a few exercises with little 2.5Kg dumbbells (curls, shoulder presses, lunges and side bends) - as and when she feels like it.... | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/14160",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/6897/"
] | One of the great things about swimming is that it is very much technique based, and while muscle strength may compensate for that to some extent, once she start growing she will soon catch and surpass bigger children because of that good form.
Until then, I would continue as you have been. Participating in many sports at her age is great, it means that she is active, enjoys exercise and activity, and in time she will find what she enjoys the most. The stuff that she is doing on her own (handstands, pressups, etc) should be sufficient to keep her developing well for both athletics and fun.
Seven years old is not too young to start a structured training program IF (and I repeat IF) she has kind of "settled" on one sport as her main focus. There are many sports where children start structured training programs at young ages(Swimming, gymnastics, martial arts immediately come to mind), but that doesn't necessarily mean weights, intense training, things like that.
So in summary, let her enjoy the sports, if she gets totally frustrated with swimming and wants to do something else, let her give that a try. If she decides that swimming is for her, then you can look at possibly working with a trainer for appropriate exercises designed around swimming. | I totally agree with Eric Gunnerson.
I recently found easy [home exercises](http://homegym-exercises.com/) on this page... But I don't know if working out is a good thing for her. |
14,160 | My daughter, who is coming up to be 7 years old, loves swimming and has recently started race training. She is the youngest/smallest/thinnest of all the children in the group. Her technique is pretty good in all 4 strokes (better than some of the older children), but she lacks the stamina, endurance and general body strength to keep up with the others and as such she's finding the pool-training quite harsh.
She already swims as often as is reasonably possible - 3 sessions a week training plus one or two swims with me where we just have fun in the local pool. The coaches have suggested she does 5 days training , but this would a) be difficult for us logistically, and b) I think it's too much for her at this age. One of her former instructors in group lessons at our local pool advised extreme caution with pushing her too hard at this age.
She plays football once a week for an hour, and does Tai-kwon-do for another hour, and generally she is quite an active child.
So I am wondering what are the best exercises that can be done at home that would help her endurance, stamina and general physical preparedness/strength.
FYI, at the moment I just let her do what exercises she enjoys at home - which are sit-ups, press-ups, star jumps, wheel-barrows with her brother up stairs, hand stands, walking hand stands (she's just started to try this), and a few exercises with little 2.5Kg dumbbells (curls, shoulder presses, lunges and side bends) - as and when she feels like it.... | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/14160",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/6897/"
] | I certainly don't ever train 7 year olds more than what your daughter is already doing. If she is already generally fit **all effort and focus should be put on skill progression.** She can potentially get stronger than the average child but focusing on athletic training as if she were a young adult is physically and psychologically unnecessary for a few more years. There is little to gain until the onset of maturation. When comparing children of similar size and maturity, skills are by far the biggest differentiator for speed. Watch a local meet and see it play out! | I totally agree with Eric Gunnerson.
I recently found easy [home exercises](http://homegym-exercises.com/) on this page... But I don't know if working out is a good thing for her. |
14,160 | My daughter, who is coming up to be 7 years old, loves swimming and has recently started race training. She is the youngest/smallest/thinnest of all the children in the group. Her technique is pretty good in all 4 strokes (better than some of the older children), but she lacks the stamina, endurance and general body strength to keep up with the others and as such she's finding the pool-training quite harsh.
She already swims as often as is reasonably possible - 3 sessions a week training plus one or two swims with me where we just have fun in the local pool. The coaches have suggested she does 5 days training , but this would a) be difficult for us logistically, and b) I think it's too much for her at this age. One of her former instructors in group lessons at our local pool advised extreme caution with pushing her too hard at this age.
She plays football once a week for an hour, and does Tai-kwon-do for another hour, and generally she is quite an active child.
So I am wondering what are the best exercises that can be done at home that would help her endurance, stamina and general physical preparedness/strength.
FYI, at the moment I just let her do what exercises she enjoys at home - which are sit-ups, press-ups, star jumps, wheel-barrows with her brother up stairs, hand stands, walking hand stands (she's just started to try this), and a few exercises with little 2.5Kg dumbbells (curls, shoulder presses, lunges and side bends) - as and when she feels like it.... | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/14160",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/6897/"
] | I certainly don't ever train 7 year olds more than what your daughter is already doing. If she is already generally fit **all effort and focus should be put on skill progression.** She can potentially get stronger than the average child but focusing on athletic training as if she were a young adult is physically and psychologically unnecessary for a few more years. There is little to gain until the onset of maturation. When comparing children of similar size and maturity, skills are by far the biggest differentiator for speed. Watch a local meet and see it play out! | One of the great things about swimming is that it is very much technique based, and while muscle strength may compensate for that to some extent, once she start growing she will soon catch and surpass bigger children because of that good form.
Until then, I would continue as you have been. Participating in many sports at her age is great, it means that she is active, enjoys exercise and activity, and in time she will find what she enjoys the most. The stuff that she is doing on her own (handstands, pressups, etc) should be sufficient to keep her developing well for both athletics and fun.
Seven years old is not too young to start a structured training program IF (and I repeat IF) she has kind of "settled" on one sport as her main focus. There are many sports where children start structured training programs at young ages(Swimming, gymnastics, martial arts immediately come to mind), but that doesn't necessarily mean weights, intense training, things like that.
So in summary, let her enjoy the sports, if she gets totally frustrated with swimming and wants to do something else, let her give that a try. If she decides that swimming is for her, then you can look at possibly working with a trainer for appropriate exercises designed around swimming. |
55,153,654 | I am trying to capture the data packets from dpdk interface.
Using pdump+testpmd, able to capture the data packets.
However, if Wireshark is used with testpmd, the above fails.
Any suggestions highly appreciated. Thanks
Working on Ubuntu v 18+, DPDK v 19+ Wireshark v 3+ | 2019/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/55153654",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10217849/"
] | First capture the data in the "create quote" tab into a collection item in your process. Then go to the object in Object Studio and inside the Start stage, Add a new input:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/F4Gxy.png)
In the object, create a collection item and call it the same as the collection item in the process; then use it to populate the "Store In" field in the Start new input as shown in the picture above - OK. Then add any other stages you need in your object and remember to publish your object and save. This is to make the object available to your process in Process Studio.
Then back in your process, use an Action stage to use your object and the page inside the object where you created the (duplicate)collection item. When you run this stage from your process what will happen is that the data from "quote tab" that you captured inside the collection item in your process, will be passed to the (duplicate) collection item inside your object (as long as they both have the exact same name).
To do the reverse, you will be adding an output to the End stage in your object, and adding an input to the Start stage of your process. | 1. First Open VBO- BP travels and open the respective action page
2. Now drag and drop a collection data item and name it as "Input collection" and click on Ok
3. Then open start stage and click on Add and enter the following
Name as Input collection
Description as Collection that is passed from process studio to object studio
Type as collection
Store In as Input collection i.e., the collection data item name which you created in step 2
After adding the details, click on ok and then save and publish the object.
4. Now open the process and open the respective Action stage i.e., where you are calling the object and have a glance in Inputs tab
5. Now the name added in step 3 i.e., Input Collection will be reflected here.
6. Now drag and drop the collection i.e., Capture Collection which you wished to pass to object studio.
When you run this stage the a copy of capture collection will be passed from process studio to object studio.
Note:
If you want to pass the collection data from object studio to process studio
follow the same process but in object studio you should create in End stage
which will be reflecting in Process Studio -> Action stage -> Outputs tab |
213 | Я на Вашем (НАШЕМ) Форуме не так давно, всего три месяца.
Не сразу, - но меня очень удивила ситуация: САМ задам вопрос - САМ на него отвечу - САМ его "приму" (оценю).
В основном, это вопросы - ответы "нескольколетней" давности.
**КТО** их - правильные, неправильные, сомнительные, спорные, дублированные - отслеживает, корректирует, удаляет через энное количество лет?
Вот сегодня, конкретно:
[**шиворот навыворот**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/394/%D0%9F%D1%80%D0%BE%D0%B8%D1%81%D1%85%D0%BE%D0%B6%D0%B4%D0%B5%D0%BD%D0%B8%D0%B5-%D0%B2%D1%8B%D1%80%D0%B0%D0%B6%D0%B5%D0%BD%D0%B8%D1%8F-%D1%88%D0%B8%D0%B2%D0%BE%D1%80%D0%BE%D1%82-%D0%BD%D0%B0%D0%B2%D1%8B%D0%B2%D0%BE%D1%80%D0%BE%D1%82):
задан - 05.01.12 - 12.08
ответ - (сам себе) 05.01.12 - 12.10
[**шиворот-навыворот**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/45618/%D0%97%D0%BD%D0%B0%D1%87%D0%B5%D0%BD%D0%B8%D0%B5-%D1%81%D0%BB%D0%BE%D0%B2%D0%B0-%D0%A8%D0%98%D0%92%D0%9E%D0%A0%D0%9E%D0%A2-%D0%9D%D0%90%D0%92%D0%AB%D0%92%D0%9E%D0%A0%D0%9E%D0%A2)
Очень даже понятно, что любой, "забредший" на сайт, будет сомневаться - А КАК ПРАВИЛЬНО? - если вопросов: два, и оба - "приняты"!
Нонсенс. Как быть? Что делать с этими [относительно - правильными] ответами?
P.S. Специально не искала, но, если еще обнаружу, - дополню.
Дополнение: [**вперемеШку или вперемеЖку?**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/1/%D0%92%D0%BF%D0%B5%D1%80%D0%B5%D0%BC%D0%B5%D0%A8%D0%BA%D1%83-%D0%B8%D0%BB%D0%B8-%D0%B2%D0%BF%D0%B5%D1%80%D0%B5%D0%BC%D0%B5%D0%96%D0%BA%D1%83)
Дополнение(-1): [**"на ощупь" или "наощупь"?**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/347/%D0%9D%D0%B0-%D0%BE%D1%89%D1%83%D0%BF%D1%8C-%D0%B8%D0%BB%D0%B8-%D0%BD%D0%B0%D0%BE%D1%89%D1%83%D0%BF%D1%8C)
Дополнение: [**выпить "чая" или выпить "чаю"?**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/662/%D0%92%D1%8B%D0%BF%D0%B8%D1%82%D1%8C-%D1%87%D0%B0%D1%8F-%D0%B8%D0%BB%D0%B8-%D0%B2%D1%8B%D0%BF%D0%B8%D1%82%D1%8C-%D1%87%D0%B0%D1%8E)
Дополнение: [**"гривна" или "гривня"?**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/1282/%D0%93%D1%80%D0%B8%D0%B2%D0%BD%D0%B0-%D0%B8%D0%BB%D0%B8-%D0%B3%D1%80%D0%B8%D0%B2%D0%BD%D1%8F)
Дополнение: [**Этимология слова "Москва"**](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/699/%D0%AD%D1%82%D0%B8%D0%BC%D0%BE%D0%BB%D0%BE%D0%B3%D0%B8%D1%8F-%D1%81%D0%BB%D0%BE%D0%B2%D0%B0-%D0%9C%D0%BE%D1%81%D0%BA%D0%B2%D0%B0)
P.P.S. Мне кажется, что достаточно: не буду больше "рыть"... | 2017/05/12 | [
"https://rus.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/213",
"https://rus.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://rus.meta.stackexchange.com/users/185295/"
] | Дубликаты объединил, справедливости ради там ответы одни и те же, различаются только степенью развернутости.
Теперь по поводу этих вопросов. До того как форум раскрутился, чтобы он не выглядел пустым, модератор Fuchoin Kazuki создавала множество аккаунтов и задавала с них вопросы, имитируя активность пользователей. В первое время ей иногда даже приходилось отвечать на них самой, чтобы вопросы не остались без ответа. После переезда на новую платформу все эти аккаунты объединили и поэтому может создаться ощущение, что у пользователя раздвоение личности похлеще чем в фильме "Сплит", так как она говорит о себе то в мужском роде, то в женском, то из Крыма, то с Чукотки и т. д.
Удалять эти вопросы не вижу смысла, так как ответы в них по большей части верные. Да и этимология Fuchoin Kazuki в основном интересовала, а по этой тематике задают вопросы не так часто, но её ищут, так что база подобных вопросов сообществу не повредит.
Теперь, что касается ответов на собственные вопросы. Такое возможно, если автор вопроса разобрался в рассматриваемой проблеме сам и хочет этим поделиться с остальными пользователями. У меня, например, есть [ответ](https://rus.stackexchange.com/a/32856/1067) на собственный вопрос, который пользователи оценили также высоко как ответ, выбранный мною лучшим. Если выбрать свой ответ лучшим, очки рейтинга за него не добавляются и в верх списка этот ответ не становится, поэтому ставить галочку у него имеет смысл лишь тогда, когда остальные до собственного ответа явно не дотягивают. | Не могу согласиться с *Марк Из*ом.
**1.** *Дубликаты объединил, справедливости ради там ответы одни и те же, различаются только степенью развернутости.*
Не совсем верно: **"шиворот навыворот" -**
*"шиворот-навыворот" пишется через дефис – М\_Г 15 янв в 15:25* (комментарий) - через три года.
**2.** *Удалять эти вопросы не вижу смысла, так как ответы в них **по большей части верные.***
**“На ощупь” или “наощупь”?** - ответ неверный, с отрицательным рейтингом, НО! - принят: *Тем не менее, слово "на ощупь", согласно нормам русского языка, пишется слитно.*
Есть комментарий: *Не ответ. Надо бы убрать или объяснить себе и другим. – shampar 17 мар '16 в 20:07* - через четыре года.
КОМУ - тем не менее? Ответу с рейтингом [+6] - развернутому и абсолютно противоположному?
**3.** *...если автор вопроса разобрался в рассматриваемой проблеме сам и хочет этим поделиться с остальными пользователями.
...ставить галочку у него имеет смысл лишь тогда, когда остальные до собственного ответа явно не дотягивают.*
**Выпить “чая” или выпить “чаю”?**
Ответ: *В русском языке правомерны оба варианта.*
**Этимология слова “Москва”**
Ответ: *Есть множество гипотез на этот счет, но самая распространенная - это родство слова "москва" и "промозглый", то есть, холодны сырой. То есть, слово "москва" обозначает низменность, сырое место.*
***Где же тут "разборки" в проблеме, высокий уровень, ссылки, цитаты?***
**4.** Я никак не призываю **изничтожить всё и вся.** Просто мне кажется, что **пришло время рассмотреть эти проблемы: они многих путают, вызывают непонимание и сомнения, а отсюда - и недоверие к Форуму.**
Вопросов у *Fuchoin Kazuki* - более двух тысяч, конечно, не все они "самоприняты".
Достойные - оставляем принятыми, спорные - "галочку" убираем, чтобы она никого не смущала.
*Есть **модераторы**, есть участники **с глобальными знаниями и репутацией** - кому как не им на МЕТЕ заняться этим делом!? **Понемножку.*** |
26,610 | I have a 95 Chevrolet K1500 pickup and I have recently had the brake booster replaced and it worked fine for the past year but now my pedal is sticking in the pressed position but only in colder weather.
Is this a booster problem or maybe the master cylinder? | 2016/02/27 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/26610",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/15374/"
] | If the brakes are firmly on while the pedal is stuck down, then the fault will be in the booster. One of the vacuum valves in the booster may be sticking in the cold, or an leak may form in the rear of booster.
If the brakes are not on, then it could be the master cylinder if you are not loosing fluid. | you can try lubing the brake pedal joint as a quick tip and if not follow HandyHowie's solution. |
11,545,758 | I'm getting this error.
>
> Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.WebPages.Razor, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified.
>
>
>
My Hosting provider is saying that MVC 3 is already installed and it works for one domain that s on the same server, but this domain is not working.
I saw lot of questions and answers related to this, but I want to avoid adding DLLs manually. If MVC 3 is installed properly. I wouldn't get this error. right?
How can I resolve this? | 2012/07/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11545758",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/177883/"
] | As per my comment above, it sounds like there were some MVC 4 components being referenced by the app. Glad to hear that you've got a solution! | I had this error after doing a delete and publish for a NON MVC website. Apparently something in my site is referencing System.Web.Helpers and that is copied over (even if I remove the reference from the project) but the following dlls were not copied in the publish:
* System.Web.Razor
* System.Web.WebPages
* System.Web.WebPages.Deployment
* System.Web.WebPages.Razor
I would prefer to remove all of these dlls from the project but the simple solution was to set the "Copy Local" property of each of the above dlls to True. |
332,581 | **Question:**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nm9Xk.jpg)
**Work:** [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cVyMe.png)
I have decided to approach this question using a differential equation for practice, but I keep getting an equation that doesn’t seem right. The reason I think this is because for part b, I keep getting -inf or inf for my current or voltage. That obviously can be right. Would you mind checking my work and seeing where I went wrong? I am using KCL with the linear ode method. | 2017/10/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/332581",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/140688/"
] | The min breakdown voltage @1mA is about 10% more than the standoff voltage for which it is rated in the pn.
So you have two unidrectional TVS's in series with a standoff of 26V+ 14V= 28V and a diode forward drop Vf for each <1V.
Conclusion
----------
Maybe you put them in backwards. Cathode bar is +ve.
Why you chose [these](http://www.littelfuse.com/~/media/electronics/datasheets/tvs_diodes/littelfuse_tvs_diode_smbj_datasheet.pdf.pdf) is a mystery . | Two possibilities come to mind:
1. You accidentally wired them in parallel so that when one was reversed it put a forward biased diode across the supply which would be an almost-short.
2. One is faulty. To test this you could put a 100k resistor in parallel with each. If they're both OK you should measure 2.5 V at the junction. If not you'll get a low reading across the faulty one. |
38,606 | The Lloyd-Max quantizer is a scalar quantizer which can be seen as a special case
of a vector quantizer (VQ) designed with the Linde Buzo
Gray (LBG) algorithm.
In k-means clustering, we are given a set of n data points in d-dimensional space and an integer k and the problem is to determine a set of k points in $R^d$, called centers, so as to minimize the mean squared distance from each data point to its nearest center. A popular heuristic for k-means clustering is Lloyd's (1982) algorithm.
Confusion :
1. What is the difference between clustering and quantization. I understand the mechanism of clustering technique which is a unsupervised method of grouping data points whereby we map data points into indices of cluster centers which is closest to it. There are different algorithm to perform clustering - Is clustering another way of doing quantization? Quantization are of 2 kinds -scalar and vector. k-means algorithm is applied for vector quantization. Again k-means algorithm is also applied in vector clustering. So, is vector quantization = vector clustering?
Thank you. | 2017/03/24 | [
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/38606",
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com",
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com/users/780/"
] | They are essentially the same. The generalized form of the Lloyd's algorithm is LBG which is used for vector quantization (VQ).You may use k-means for the purpose of vector quantization just like the LBG algorithm. In vector quantization, the input space is partitioned into a set of convex areas. They are also referred to as [Voronoi](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voronoi_diagram) regions or cells. If you look at [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/K-means_clustering) it says k-means (which is mostly used in computer science) is actually originated from VQ in signal processing as well as pulse code modulation back in fifties.
If you want to implement VQ, you may directly use k-means algorithm. The original LBG algorithm is presented in the following paper if you are interested:
Y. Linde, A. Buzo, and R. M. Gray, ``An Algorithm for Vector Quantizer Design,'' IEEE Transactions on Communications, pp. 702--710, January 1980. | Quantization and clustering both aim at representing samples in groups, groups indexed by one single representative template, according to some proximity metric. The difference in their acceptation mostly resides in the historical use of the terms, and on the field of application.
Indeed, one of the early papers in Hugo Steinhaus' 1956 article: [Sur la division des corps matériels en parties](http://www.laurent-duval.eu/Documents/Steinhaus_H_1956_j-bull-acad-polon-sci_division_cmp-k-means.pdf) (more historical details in blog post [Hugo Steinhaus, or K-means clustering in French](https://laurent-duval.blogspot.com/2015/08/hugo-steinhaus-or-k-means-clustering-in.html)).
Later,
an history of K-means can be found in [Data Clustering: 50 Years Beyond K-Means](http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/j.patrec.2009.09.011), Anil K. Jain, Pattern recognition letters, 2010. Other historic bits can be found in [Origins and extensions of the k-means algorithm in cluster analysis](http://www.jehps.net/Decembre2008/Bock.pdf), Hans-Hermann Bock, Electronic Journ@l for History of Probability and Statistics, 2008. This algorithm is deeply linked to Lloyd-Max algorithm, developed by Lloyd in 1957, and rediscovered by Max three after after. It is useful for optimal scalar quantifier design. |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | My thought is this: all of the fundamental particles (electrons, quarks, and photons (NOT protons or neutrons)) are zero dimensional if you don't believe in string theory, and one dimensional if you do. This means that protons, neutrons, and atoms are all just collections of zero/one dimensional particles, relative to eachother in space. The only reason atoms are three dimensional is because these fundamental particles are only situated in, and moving in, three dimensions. If a force were applied to a three dimensional atom, in a direction perpendicular to the normal three, the fundamental particles would settle into positions in four dimensions. You would then have a four dimensional atom which could, with enough of them, fill a tank. | A cube of arbitrary dimension that is higher than 3 can be 'filled' with 3-cubes (but not with 2-cubes or 1-cubes, no analogy with Peano and Hilbert). This is a so called 3-cube theorem proved in the forties by L.V. Keldysh and published in 1957. Find a place to read about it.
The article is hard to find and written in Russian, but see [this summary](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692266/open-mapping-and-space-filling). |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | filling
=======
Look at [space filling curves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space-filling_curve). You can apply the same idea to filling a 4th dimension with a 3d ribbon.
You still need an infinite amount, though.
You might also consider how 3d matter exists in the 4d world. Just like sheets of paper (or even ink on a sheet of paper) in our 3d world is not *really* 2 dimensional but meerly extremely thin in the 3rd dimension, you can postulate that the 3d objects, in order to exist at all in the 4d realm, are actually paper thin in the 4th dimension rather than having zero extent.
pushing
=======
See [my answer to *interactions with higher dimensions*](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/10666/interactions-with-higher-dimensions/10834#10834) for details. Of note:
>
> you don't have to stand beside something at w=5 inches for example to push in the −w direction. The physics is not "closed" over the domain of the dimensions of the current arrangement of particles. **Effects can operate at right angles to the participants.** That is the general thing you see with cross products. Gyroscopes would produce torque in that direction, electromagnetic effects would have more right angles to reach out to.
>
>
> | A cube of arbitrary dimension that is higher than 3 can be 'filled' with 3-cubes (but not with 2-cubes or 1-cubes, no analogy with Peano and Hilbert). This is a so called 3-cube theorem proved in the forties by L.V. Keldysh and published in 1957. Find a place to read about it.
The article is hard to find and written in Russian, but see [this summary](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692266/open-mapping-and-space-filling). |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | Hmm. Do you really need to "fill up" 4d space, or do you just want 4d objects?
If you just want 4d objects, that's easy. First note that you can create 2d objects from 1d objects. Behold the triangle
a rigid 2D object made from 3 1D objects. In 3D, we get the tetrahedron
a rigid 3D object made from 4 1D objects. We can even get to 4D this way. Behold the [5-cell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/5-cell)
a rigid 4D object made from 5 1D objects.
So, you only need 5 1D objects to make a 4D object. If you insist on using 3D objects, there are other ways you glue them into rigid 4D objects. It won't *fill* 4D space, but it allow you to make rigid objects. | My thought is this: all of the fundamental particles (electrons, quarks, and photons (NOT protons or neutrons)) are zero dimensional if you don't believe in string theory, and one dimensional if you do. This means that protons, neutrons, and atoms are all just collections of zero/one dimensional particles, relative to eachother in space. The only reason atoms are three dimensional is because these fundamental particles are only situated in, and moving in, three dimensions. If a force were applied to a three dimensional atom, in a direction perpendicular to the normal three, the fundamental particles would settle into positions in four dimensions. You would then have a four dimensional atom which could, with enough of them, fill a tank. |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | filling
=======
Look at [space filling curves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space-filling_curve). You can apply the same idea to filling a 4th dimension with a 3d ribbon.
You still need an infinite amount, though.
You might also consider how 3d matter exists in the 4d world. Just like sheets of paper (or even ink on a sheet of paper) in our 3d world is not *really* 2 dimensional but meerly extremely thin in the 3rd dimension, you can postulate that the 3d objects, in order to exist at all in the 4d realm, are actually paper thin in the 4th dimension rather than having zero extent.
pushing
=======
See [my answer to *interactions with higher dimensions*](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/10666/interactions-with-higher-dimensions/10834#10834) for details. Of note:
>
> you don't have to stand beside something at w=5 inches for example to push in the −w direction. The physics is not "closed" over the domain of the dimensions of the current arrangement of particles. **Effects can operate at right angles to the participants.** That is the general thing you see with cross products. Gyroscopes would produce torque in that direction, electromagnetic effects would have more right angles to reach out to.
>
>
> | Your reasoning is sound. This is impossible, almost by definition of what a dimension (and multidimensionality) is.
1. There are an **infinite** amount of points (0-dimensional) on a given line (1-dimensional), as a point has no width.
2. There are **infinite** lines on a given plane (2-dimensional), as a line has no thickness and therefore doesn't quite "stack".
3. There are **infinite** planes in a space (3-dimensional), as a plane has no thickness and therefore doesn't quite "stack".
4. Logically, you can therefore fit an **infinite** amount of 3-dimensional objects in a 4-dimensional space (note that this logical consequence is consistent **regardless** of whether you consider the 4th dimension to be time, or something else).
>
> In order to fill an N-dimensional space, your object must have a defined "thickness" in all N dimensions.
>
> But an (N-1)-dimensional object inherently does not have a defined "thickness" in all N dimensions, since it only has N-1 defined dimensions.
>
>
> **If it did have N defined dimensions, then it would be an N-dimensional object**.
>
>
>
---
As for your hypothetical scenario's, we simply cannot say. As it stands, we perceive the universe as having exactly as many dimensions that we ourselves consist of.
Every object with a different amount of dimensions (points, lines, planes, 8-dimensional space) are all just **abstract theoretical** constructs. We can reason about them, we can make representations of them, but we can never truly **see** one.
From a tangible point of view of an N-dimensional observer, non-N-dimensional objects are as abstract as concepts such as *love* or *awkwardness* or *cynicism*.
They are not tangible in any way, even though they can be **represented** by a related N-dimensional object e.g. we could construct a cylinder, and then point at its base and say that it's a circle. But we cannot create a circle by itself, without it being part of an N-dimensional representation. |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | **Disclaimer, none of this should be regarded as proof since it's all theory.**
The 4th Dimension
=================
The 4th dimension is by humans incomprehensible, the same way that the 3rd dimension is incomprehensible for a 2D entity and the 2nd dimension is incomprehensible for a 1D entity.
A 2D entity simply can't view its existence from a 3D perspective. Just like we are incapable of imagining viewing something from the 4th dimension, quite similarly how we cannot imagine a color outside our spectrum simply because it's outside of our perceived reality.
Dimensions
==========
A 1D object simply has one dimension, "forward" and "backward" along a line. (so to speak)
A 2D object has two dimensions, "forward", "backward" and "side-to-side".
A 3D object has the dimensions of a 2D object with an added "up" and "down",
In short, 1D has one axis, 2D has two and 3D has three.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XOl8p.gif)
Now, some argue that the 4th dimension is "time" but that does not quite represent the entire picture.
We, as "3-dimensional" beings, comprehend the world and our universe as infinite 2D "projections" so to speak. In essence, we are viewing an infinite number of 2D planes. The same way a 2D being would observe their universe as an infinite number of "lines" of the first dimension. (this is not a 100% correct statement, but I hope you understand what I mean.)
So, A 4-dimensional being would be viewing their universe as an infinite number of 3-dimensional "projections". An "angle" or perspective we are simply unable to comprehend, the same way a 2D being is incapable of comprehending the angle a 3D being would observe it.
Thus, the 4th dimension would be an infinite number of 3D "instances" or projections. Now, some argue that this is what "time" means; "An infinite number of 3D projections over time". In other words, moving through a 3D space and through time.
However, for us to comprehend this fourth dimension, the fourth dimension needs to be presented in a "3D" format.
The interstellar movie had a pretty good take on this, as can be seen here:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VtYsG.gif)
Essentially, the fourth dimension would be presented as infinite instances in 3 dimensions; "up, down, forward, backward, left, right", that we would be able to traverse.
**Note that these 3D "instances" should actually exist in the exact same place at the exact same time.**
But that would mean that we would perceive it as only one instance, the one we are currently in.
In regards to OP's question:
============================
If this theory is correct, your 4D cube of space would not "fill up" or suck water into it. It would probably merely be an infinite number of instances of the same water. (through time? maybe? nobody knows)
What this would mean that if the 4D "cube" was 1x1x1 meters in 3D size, the water inside it would be an infinite number of 1x1x1 meter instances of the same 3D water. In essence, an infinite number of the same 1 cubic meter of water. | The thing is that you have to realize that there is no such thing as a 2d object. Even sheets of paper, no matter how thin, are 3d. Looking at it from a 3d perspective, we live in a 3d world and all objects in it are 3d. 1d and 2d are theoretical constructs that we use to incrementally understand our universe.
So then, when you start thinking of our universe in 4 dimensions, you realize that nothing in it would have zero length in that 4th dimension. Say you think of time as that fourth dimension. If an object had zero length in the fourth dimension, it would exist for 0 seconds, i.e. it would never exist. Ergo, no such object can exist, and it should not be hard to see how this would extend to any dimension (1st or 2nd or 3rd or 4th or ...).
Here is another thought experiment to help you think in terms of four dimensions - Our perception allows us to look "backwards" through that time axis, so we can "see" an object projecting back in time. I can see my car out in the parking lot, and I have a vivid memory of it when I was getting into it in my garage. But our perception does not allow us to look forward, so we do not see the extent forward of an object in that time axis, but that is ok as a backward look is sufficient for this experiment. Now, look at your computer; it's there. Then remember it at a time before, and realize that you are looking at a 4d object.
As far as filling a 4d hypercube with 3d cubes of water, realize that there is no such thing as 3d cubes of water. They are 4d, because they exist in a universe that has more than 3 dimensions. If your 4th dimension in your 4d hypercube is a real dimension that exists in the same universe as those 3d cubes of water, for example "time", then those "3d" cubes of water are going to have some sort or extent along that dimension in order for them to exist in that universe. Therefore you could extend their length or stack them, end to end, along that dimension and fill that hypercube. |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | **Disclaimer, none of this should be regarded as proof since it's all theory.**
The 4th Dimension
=================
The 4th dimension is by humans incomprehensible, the same way that the 3rd dimension is incomprehensible for a 2D entity and the 2nd dimension is incomprehensible for a 1D entity.
A 2D entity simply can't view its existence from a 3D perspective. Just like we are incapable of imagining viewing something from the 4th dimension, quite similarly how we cannot imagine a color outside our spectrum simply because it's outside of our perceived reality.
Dimensions
==========
A 1D object simply has one dimension, "forward" and "backward" along a line. (so to speak)
A 2D object has two dimensions, "forward", "backward" and "side-to-side".
A 3D object has the dimensions of a 2D object with an added "up" and "down",
In short, 1D has one axis, 2D has two and 3D has three.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XOl8p.gif)
Now, some argue that the 4th dimension is "time" but that does not quite represent the entire picture.
We, as "3-dimensional" beings, comprehend the world and our universe as infinite 2D "projections" so to speak. In essence, we are viewing an infinite number of 2D planes. The same way a 2D being would observe their universe as an infinite number of "lines" of the first dimension. (this is not a 100% correct statement, but I hope you understand what I mean.)
So, A 4-dimensional being would be viewing their universe as an infinite number of 3-dimensional "projections". An "angle" or perspective we are simply unable to comprehend, the same way a 2D being is incapable of comprehending the angle a 3D being would observe it.
Thus, the 4th dimension would be an infinite number of 3D "instances" or projections. Now, some argue that this is what "time" means; "An infinite number of 3D projections over time". In other words, moving through a 3D space and through time.
However, for us to comprehend this fourth dimension, the fourth dimension needs to be presented in a "3D" format.
The interstellar movie had a pretty good take on this, as can be seen here:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VtYsG.gif)
Essentially, the fourth dimension would be presented as infinite instances in 3 dimensions; "up, down, forward, backward, left, right", that we would be able to traverse.
**Note that these 3D "instances" should actually exist in the exact same place at the exact same time.**
But that would mean that we would perceive it as only one instance, the one we are currently in.
In regards to OP's question:
============================
If this theory is correct, your 4D cube of space would not "fill up" or suck water into it. It would probably merely be an infinite number of instances of the same water. (through time? maybe? nobody knows)
What this would mean that if the 4D "cube" was 1x1x1 meters in 3D size, the water inside it would be an infinite number of 1x1x1 meter instances of the same 3D water. In essence, an infinite number of the same 1 cubic meter of water. | A cube of arbitrary dimension that is higher than 3 can be 'filled' with 3-cubes (but not with 2-cubes or 1-cubes, no analogy with Peano and Hilbert). This is a so called 3-cube theorem proved in the forties by L.V. Keldysh and published in 1957. Find a place to read about it.
The article is hard to find and written in Russian, but see [this summary](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692266/open-mapping-and-space-filling). |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | filling
=======
Look at [space filling curves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space-filling_curve). You can apply the same idea to filling a 4th dimension with a 3d ribbon.
You still need an infinite amount, though.
You might also consider how 3d matter exists in the 4d world. Just like sheets of paper (or even ink on a sheet of paper) in our 3d world is not *really* 2 dimensional but meerly extremely thin in the 3rd dimension, you can postulate that the 3d objects, in order to exist at all in the 4d realm, are actually paper thin in the 4th dimension rather than having zero extent.
pushing
=======
See [my answer to *interactions with higher dimensions*](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/10666/interactions-with-higher-dimensions/10834#10834) for details. Of note:
>
> you don't have to stand beside something at w=5 inches for example to push in the −w direction. The physics is not "closed" over the domain of the dimensions of the current arrangement of particles. **Effects can operate at right angles to the participants.** That is the general thing you see with cross products. Gyroscopes would produce torque in that direction, electromagnetic effects would have more right angles to reach out to.
>
>
> | I think you are right with the 2d analogy. Draw the vectors. How can a 3d object produce a vector force into a 4th dimension? You are right about the stack of squares too.
A bummer thing about the infinite number of third dimensions is that you (3d person) would not be able to see from one to the next unless you give light some special properties.
Other weird thing is that all infinite number of stack of squares are in the same place. There is no order to them. If you have infinite number of 3d dimensions and you leave yours, be sure to take your stuff with because you are never finding your original one again. |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | Your reasoning is sound. This is impossible, almost by definition of what a dimension (and multidimensionality) is.
1. There are an **infinite** amount of points (0-dimensional) on a given line (1-dimensional), as a point has no width.
2. There are **infinite** lines on a given plane (2-dimensional), as a line has no thickness and therefore doesn't quite "stack".
3. There are **infinite** planes in a space (3-dimensional), as a plane has no thickness and therefore doesn't quite "stack".
4. Logically, you can therefore fit an **infinite** amount of 3-dimensional objects in a 4-dimensional space (note that this logical consequence is consistent **regardless** of whether you consider the 4th dimension to be time, or something else).
>
> In order to fill an N-dimensional space, your object must have a defined "thickness" in all N dimensions.
>
> But an (N-1)-dimensional object inherently does not have a defined "thickness" in all N dimensions, since it only has N-1 defined dimensions.
>
>
> **If it did have N defined dimensions, then it would be an N-dimensional object**.
>
>
>
---
As for your hypothetical scenario's, we simply cannot say. As it stands, we perceive the universe as having exactly as many dimensions that we ourselves consist of.
Every object with a different amount of dimensions (points, lines, planes, 8-dimensional space) are all just **abstract theoretical** constructs. We can reason about them, we can make representations of them, but we can never truly **see** one.
From a tangible point of view of an N-dimensional observer, non-N-dimensional objects are as abstract as concepts such as *love* or *awkwardness* or *cynicism*.
They are not tangible in any way, even though they can be **represented** by a related N-dimensional object e.g. we could construct a cylinder, and then point at its base and say that it's a circle. But we cannot create a circle by itself, without it being part of an N-dimensional representation. | A cube of arbitrary dimension that is higher than 3 can be 'filled' with 3-cubes (but not with 2-cubes or 1-cubes, no analogy with Peano and Hilbert). This is a so called 3-cube theorem proved in the forties by L.V. Keldysh and published in 1957. Find a place to read about it.
The article is hard to find and written in Russian, but see [this summary](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692266/open-mapping-and-space-filling). |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | I think you are right with the 2d analogy. Draw the vectors. How can a 3d object produce a vector force into a 4th dimension? You are right about the stack of squares too.
A bummer thing about the infinite number of third dimensions is that you (3d person) would not be able to see from one to the next unless you give light some special properties.
Other weird thing is that all infinite number of stack of squares are in the same place. There is no order to them. If you have infinite number of 3d dimensions and you leave yours, be sure to take your stuff with because you are never finding your original one again. | A cube of arbitrary dimension that is higher than 3 can be 'filled' with 3-cubes (but not with 2-cubes or 1-cubes, no analogy with Peano and Hilbert). This is a so called 3-cube theorem proved in the forties by L.V. Keldysh and published in 1957. Find a place to read about it.
The article is hard to find and written in Russian, but see [this summary](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692266/open-mapping-and-space-filling). |
67,766 | Imagine that you need to fill-up a 4D unit [hypercube](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypercube) with 3D unit cubes of water.
At first, I thought you'd need an infinite amount, arguing that it would take an infinite number of stacked 2D squares to fill up a 3D cube.
But then, I realized that given that each square had zero height, an infinite number stacked on top of each other should still have zero volume. Essentially, one can't talk about the volume of a 2D object. Similar reasoning can be applied to argue that 3D matter cannot fill up 4D space, regardless of whether it is infinite or not. Is this reasoning sound?
---
Consider these hypothetical scenarios: suppose a unit cube of space, relative to Earth so that it 'moves along' with the planet... suppose, a unit cube of such a space submerged in the oceans opens up into a 4th space dimension. Assume that the surround universe is not immediately destroyed.
1. Can the water be pushed into the 4th dimension via say natural movement of the oceans? Why I'm asking this is because an object in 2D space cannot be pushed into 3D space by forces in the 2D space itself.
2. Suppose it can be pushed by 3D forces: will it start draining immediately? How fast would it drain?
Basically, I'm writing a story about a 4th spatial dimension interfering with everyday life, and trying to make it as logically coherent as I can. | 2017/01/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/67766",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32147/"
] | filling
=======
Look at [space filling curves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space-filling_curve). You can apply the same idea to filling a 4th dimension with a 3d ribbon.
You still need an infinite amount, though.
You might also consider how 3d matter exists in the 4d world. Just like sheets of paper (or even ink on a sheet of paper) in our 3d world is not *really* 2 dimensional but meerly extremely thin in the 3rd dimension, you can postulate that the 3d objects, in order to exist at all in the 4d realm, are actually paper thin in the 4th dimension rather than having zero extent.
pushing
=======
See [my answer to *interactions with higher dimensions*](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/10666/interactions-with-higher-dimensions/10834#10834) for details. Of note:
>
> you don't have to stand beside something at w=5 inches for example to push in the −w direction. The physics is not "closed" over the domain of the dimensions of the current arrangement of particles. **Effects can operate at right angles to the participants.** That is the general thing you see with cross products. Gyroscopes would produce torque in that direction, electromagnetic effects would have more right angles to reach out to.
>
>
> | Hmm. Do you really need to "fill up" 4d space, or do you just want 4d objects?
If you just want 4d objects, that's easy. First note that you can create 2d objects from 1d objects. Behold the triangle
a rigid 2D object made from 3 1D objects. In 3D, we get the tetrahedron
a rigid 3D object made from 4 1D objects. We can even get to 4D this way. Behold the [5-cell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/5-cell)
a rigid 4D object made from 5 1D objects.
So, you only need 5 1D objects to make a 4D object. If you insist on using 3D objects, there are other ways you glue them into rigid 4D objects. It won't *fill* 4D space, but it allow you to make rigid objects. |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | I would suggest schools, but more and more schools are getting rid of their pianos. However, if you find one, ask about seeing the caretaker and going in at holidays (now!) or weekends. Some pubs may provide, and maybe you could play in the background when punters are in. Occasionally rehearsal studios (not cheap) have a real piano.Colleges , especially music colleges, will have the facility - you either ask nicely, or walk in brazenly, it's up to you !
Alternatively, print some fliers, and go posting locally. There will be a neighbour, possibly an old biddy, who would love you to play the piano her kids learnt on 40 yrs ago !
Some churches will have retained their piano, or there may be one in the Church Hall that needs playing : always mention that acoustic pianos need regular playing ! | No idea on the accuracy or validity of this information, sorry: <http://streetpianos.com/london2012> says some are still available.
Failing that, these look reasonably priced: <http://www.jspianos.com/hire/practice-room-hire> - I might use them myself next time I'm working in London, since real pianos kinda scare me. |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | I would suggest schools, but more and more schools are getting rid of their pianos. However, if you find one, ask about seeing the caretaker and going in at holidays (now!) or weekends. Some pubs may provide, and maybe you could play in the background when punters are in. Occasionally rehearsal studios (not cheap) have a real piano.Colleges , especially music colleges, will have the facility - you either ask nicely, or walk in brazenly, it's up to you !
Alternatively, print some fliers, and go posting locally. There will be a neighbour, possibly an old biddy, who would love you to play the piano her kids learnt on 40 yrs ago !
Some churches will have retained their piano, or there may be one in the Church Hall that needs playing : always mention that acoustic pianos need regular playing ! | schools, churches, nursing homes. that's probably about it.
nursing homes have sort of gone to digitals or else you may find their acoustic way out of tune. but it's worth a shot. you'll definitely have an appreciative audience.
other than that, pony up the cash and buy one, or make do with your digital. My cp-33 is fine for me, at least. I like to come across an acoustic, though. |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | I would suggest schools, but more and more schools are getting rid of their pianos. However, if you find one, ask about seeing the caretaker and going in at holidays (now!) or weekends. Some pubs may provide, and maybe you could play in the background when punters are in. Occasionally rehearsal studios (not cheap) have a real piano.Colleges , especially music colleges, will have the facility - you either ask nicely, or walk in brazenly, it's up to you !
Alternatively, print some fliers, and go posting locally. There will be a neighbour, possibly an old biddy, who would love you to play the piano her kids learnt on 40 yrs ago !
Some churches will have retained their piano, or there may be one in the Church Hall that needs playing : always mention that acoustic pianos need regular playing ! | Here's a couple of central practice rooms I've used:
<http://www.jspianos.com/hire/practice-room-hire>
<http://themusicstudios.co.uk/rates.php>
And a list from RAM (PDF):
<http://www.ram.ac.uk/viewfile.cfm?id=794&h=C4EEABAD93A5D4D0B5D22A704D1F4E39F63F9CDC2DA53FE99DC276FCF6EF25DD>
Typical prices are between £10 and £20 an hour. |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | I would suggest schools, but more and more schools are getting rid of their pianos. However, if you find one, ask about seeing the caretaker and going in at holidays (now!) or weekends. Some pubs may provide, and maybe you could play in the background when punters are in. Occasionally rehearsal studios (not cheap) have a real piano.Colleges , especially music colleges, will have the facility - you either ask nicely, or walk in brazenly, it's up to you !
Alternatively, print some fliers, and go posting locally. There will be a neighbour, possibly an old biddy, who would love you to play the piano her kids learnt on 40 yrs ago !
Some churches will have retained their piano, or there may be one in the Church Hall that needs playing : always mention that acoustic pianos need regular playing ! | It might be worth trying Lonely Pianos - They list pianos and rehearsal rooms that are available to hire. <http://lonelypianos.com/> |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | No idea on the accuracy or validity of this information, sorry: <http://streetpianos.com/london2012> says some are still available.
Failing that, these look reasonably priced: <http://www.jspianos.com/hire/practice-room-hire> - I might use them myself next time I'm working in London, since real pianos kinda scare me. | It might be worth trying Lonely Pianos - They list pianos and rehearsal rooms that are available to hire. <http://lonelypianos.com/> |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | schools, churches, nursing homes. that's probably about it.
nursing homes have sort of gone to digitals or else you may find their acoustic way out of tune. but it's worth a shot. you'll definitely have an appreciative audience.
other than that, pony up the cash and buy one, or make do with your digital. My cp-33 is fine for me, at least. I like to come across an acoustic, though. | It might be worth trying Lonely Pianos - They list pianos and rehearsal rooms that are available to hire. <http://lonelypianos.com/> |
16,793 | *I love my digital piano. She's got weighted keys and can be quiet when she needs to, but for practice there are few things which compare to a real nice acoustic piano.*
I live in London so there must be some places to go every week or 2 for the real deal. Bonus points for cheaper places, but I'm willing to accept that a Bosendorfer might push the price up!
So, the question is, Where might I be able to go to play a good quality acoustic piano regularly? | 2014/04/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/16793",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/6629/"
] | Here's a couple of central practice rooms I've used:
<http://www.jspianos.com/hire/practice-room-hire>
<http://themusicstudios.co.uk/rates.php>
And a list from RAM (PDF):
<http://www.ram.ac.uk/viewfile.cfm?id=794&h=C4EEABAD93A5D4D0B5D22A704D1F4E39F63F9CDC2DA53FE99DC276FCF6EF25DD>
Typical prices are between £10 and £20 an hour. | It might be worth trying Lonely Pianos - They list pianos and rehearsal rooms that are available to hire. <http://lonelypianos.com/> |
2,511 | Say I wanted to make an ale which has some of the banana characteristics of a Belgian yeast, but also wanted some of the citrusy flavors of an American ale yeast. Could I achieve this by making a starter which is half Belgian yeast and half American yeast (or maybe some other ratio)? What results should I expect from introducing two (or more!) strains of yeast in the same batch? | 2010/09/22 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/2511",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/609/"
] | I do not know of any American Ale yeasts that provide citrusy flavors. Its all hop derived.
American Ale yeast is very neutral in flavor. So yes you can mix them, but the only fermentation character you will really detect will be from the belgian strain.
I have done some interesting blending of English Ale yeast and American Ale yeast in the past. The flavor was all English in character, just mildly subdued. I used two yeast strains I was very very familiar with so I can say subdued with confidence.
But the reason why I blended them wasn't for flavor it was for flocculation. I was wondering if the super flocculant nature of the the English yeast would help to pull down the American strain (which normally takes much longer and cooler temps to flocc well).
And yes indeed all the yeast flocculated out quite nicely. It wasn't 100% like the English would be alone, but man it was really improved over American alone.
The strains I used were WLP001 from WhiteLabs and S-04 from Fermentis.
Good luck with the experiment. | Multiple single strain fermentation followed by blending gives much better control over the combined yeast character and is way more reproducible.
It goes like this. Split the batch into multiple fermenters, innoculating each with a different yeast strain. You can split the wort volume equally the first time you brew the recipe. Ferment each part optimizing temperature for each yeast strain (e.g., hotter WLP565, colder for US-05). After fermentation and conditioning, just prior to packaging, you can experiment blending in a small glass with different ratios to reach the desired yeast profile and complexity. When you found the ideal ratio, package according to it and take note. Next time you brew the recipe again, split the wort following this ideal ratio for maximum utilization. |
75,822 | I put way too much corn starch into a "random sauce": I was just mixing random things together to dip my carrots in. It includes whey, honey, and other random things. It was too thin and I used at least 1/2 a box of corn starch. It is still too thin, but that is far more easily edible then the corn starch problem. I was not aware that corn starch could add any taste to anything since it never has before. Now it tastes like chalk was added. How do you fix it to remove the "corn starch taste", and no "add tons and tons of the other ingredients" is not the answer - that would require having tons of money and I wouldn't need to ask on the Internet if that were possible. Just how to remove the corn starch taste. | 2016/11/24 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/75822",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Corn starch is a thickener, *but not right out of the box*. It needs to be heated to [gelatinize](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Starch_gelatinization), which also gets rid of the chalky taste.
If you tried to cook your random sauce now, you'd get a very thick mass that could easily be a prop in a bad sci-fi or horror movie, but not a dipping sauce. And the sheer amount of starch would "absorb and eliminate" most of the flavours you added.
Long boiling and vigourous stirring can break up the bindings again and so can freezing the cooked sauce, but with half a box of starch in what I assume to be a relatively small quantity of other ingredients, you are more likely to burn the "sauce" during cooking before you get to that stage.
As a little starch goes a long way in binding liquids (rule of thumb: 20g for two cups of sauce), you'd have to add *a lot* of liquid tomget that ratio, which you stated is neither practical nor economical - who's going to eat all that stuff?
But there is one property of starch that could save your sauce:
In cold liquids, uncooked starch sinks towards the bottom. So pour your mix into a container (preferably something rather narrow or conical), and wait an hour or so. The thinner your mix, the faster the starch will settle.
Then pour off the liquid, leaving the concentrated starch in the container. Do not discard it yet.
Gently heat your sauce in a pot, stirring carefully and watch it thicken as it nears boiling temperature. You will most likely have enough starch left in the mix to reach the desired thickness. If not, add a bit of the reserved starch slurry, a teaspoon or so. Remember that a hot sauce with starch will still be liquid, but thicken a lot when it cools down.
You didn't elaborate on you other ingredients, so be aware that not all ingredients or ingredient combinations take well to being heated - they might curdle or break down, for example. In this case, sorry, you will have to discard your experiment, write off the cost and start over. Perhaps with a tested recipe and work from there. We'll be here if you need help in tweaking it.
---
You might want to have a look at [this Q/A](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/49766/why-did-my-chowder-turn-out-watery), what went *wrong* there could help you. | 1/2 a box is a lot of cornstarch! Generally you'd add it by the teaspoon or tablespoon. You cannot fix this. If you leave it as it is it's an unpleasant tasting mess as cornstarch is not totally flavorless, and if you heat it you will get rid of the taste somewhat but the starch will thicken the sauce so much that it's practically solid. It doesn't sound like you had anything super-amazing to begin with so just throw it out and start over. |
128,144 | My cell phone seems to charge slowly, especially at my home (I've tried different outlets). But recently I was in a coffee bar, and it seemed to charge a lot - a lot! - faster. I was using the same charger. (My phone is an inexpensive Samsung Galaxy phone, I paid like $50 for it.) | 2015/11/06 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/128144",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/135617/"
] | Could be because
1. Coffee bar may be using [charging stations](https://chargetech.com/portfolio-item/mcdonalds/) which may look like regular charging wall outlets but seem to be designed to charge faster (have not been able to get technical view to back that yet and am searching)
2. Outlet at home is not providing sufficient wattage either in terms of voltage or amperage, may be because of poor electrical earthing | Also, your phone may be connected to WIFI at home which will also slow down charging. |
128,144 | My cell phone seems to charge slowly, especially at my home (I've tried different outlets). But recently I was in a coffee bar, and it seemed to charge a lot - a lot! - faster. I was using the same charger. (My phone is an inexpensive Samsung Galaxy phone, I paid like $50 for it.) | 2015/11/06 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/128144",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/135617/"
] | Could be because
1. Coffee bar may be using [charging stations](https://chargetech.com/portfolio-item/mcdonalds/) which may look like regular charging wall outlets but seem to be designed to charge faster (have not been able to get technical view to back that yet and am searching)
2. Outlet at home is not providing sufficient wattage either in terms of voltage or amperage, may be because of poor electrical earthing | It depends on the voltage and current being supplied to the charger at different places. Like for me while travelling via train, the sockets have half the voltage but higher current(Amps) which used to charge my cell faster(of course cannot exceed the maximum output of your charger). I guess so, can be some other reason too. |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | James Bond is a big fan of [Universal Exports](https://www.universalexports.net/james-bond-universal-exports/).
>
> First used in Fleming’s novels, Universal Exports operates as the cover for MI6. M is referred to as the “managing director” and Bond is a field agent. Although Fleming changed Universal Exports to “Transworld Consortium” in his novel The Man With The Golden Gun, this change was never reflected on in the films.
>
>
>
It's a very non-descriptive name of a company that probably does something international with goods (exporting). They could be doing anything! They actually had their name printed on buildings and vehicles (including the well-known helicopter from For Your Eyes Only (with Blofeld going down the chimney)):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Fb1Ge.png)
[](https://i.imgur.com/BmYwoif.png)
[(YouTube)](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AqNruPovbhc)
While the origin of the name is quite old of-course, it's in the original novels by Fleming, some of the movies were released quite recently.
This shot is from Quantum of Solace (2008):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hrNNS.png)
Considering how non-descriptive the name is and that the referenced site is actually a fansite, I doubt you'd get into any copyright trouble for using it either. It has the added benefit of being recognized in a wide range of demographics. | You can make your own.
Just take a word related to what the fictional company does and attach "-dyne" to the end. You automatically have a company name that sounds modern and on the bleeding edge of their industry. We see this is existing fiction already with names like Cyberdyne and Yoyodyne. You don't even need to ask what they do, the name tells you they are the leaders in their field.
Have a high-tech pizza company? "Pizzadyne". Automobile manufacturing? "Autodyne". Use a company name like "Aardvarkdyne", now they sound like they could use the help of some imaginative students in class. You can have fun with it.
Alternatively, you can also take a name and add "-corp" to the end. It sounds like a big corporation. Existing fiction gives use names like MomCorp from Futurama, the giant corporation run by Mom, or Oscorp from Spirderman, the business venture run by Norman Osborn. Why not give your students your own company? Let them work with "JimCorp". Again, you can have fun with this.
The names sound fictional, but at the same time you know exactly what they are. |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | My own preference is **TLC** -- which stands for **T**hree **L**etter **C**orporation (not to be confused with **TLA**, **T**hree **L**etter **A**gency, which is a super-secret government operation). | I've thought that calling a company "Widget Manufacturing" would be a very generic name. |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | My own preference is **TLC** -- which stands for **T**hree **L**etter **C**orporation (not to be confused with **TLA**, **T**hree **L**etter **A**gency, which is a super-secret government operation). | It's quite possible that there are other "generic" names out there that would apply to any industry. But for airlines, the go-to is [Oceanic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oceanic_Airlines)
There are occasionally cases where companies take names from pop-culture references (like [Brawndo](https://www.wired.com/2008/05/nyt-from-silver/)), but Oceanic is fairly safe as if it were a real airline, it would have to overcome their horrific safety record set by so many movies & tv shows.
Another brand name that is widely used is [Morley cigarettes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Morley_(cigarette)). |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | James Bond is a big fan of [Universal Exports](https://www.universalexports.net/james-bond-universal-exports/).
>
> First used in Fleming’s novels, Universal Exports operates as the cover for MI6. M is referred to as the “managing director” and Bond is a field agent. Although Fleming changed Universal Exports to “Transworld Consortium” in his novel The Man With The Golden Gun, this change was never reflected on in the films.
>
>
>
It's a very non-descriptive name of a company that probably does something international with goods (exporting). They could be doing anything! They actually had their name printed on buildings and vehicles (including the well-known helicopter from For Your Eyes Only (with Blofeld going down the chimney)):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Fb1Ge.png)
[](https://i.imgur.com/BmYwoif.png)
[(YouTube)](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AqNruPovbhc)
While the origin of the name is quite old of-course, it's in the original novels by Fleming, some of the movies were released quite recently.
This shot is from Quantum of Solace (2008):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hrNNS.png)
Considering how non-descriptive the name is and that the referenced site is actually a fansite, I doubt you'd get into any copyright trouble for using it either. It has the added benefit of being recognized in a wide range of demographics. | It's quite possible that there are other "generic" names out there that would apply to any industry. But for airlines, the go-to is [Oceanic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oceanic_Airlines)
There are occasionally cases where companies take names from pop-culture references (like [Brawndo](https://www.wired.com/2008/05/nyt-from-silver/)), but Oceanic is fairly safe as if it were a real airline, it would have to overcome their horrific safety record set by so many movies & tv shows.
Another brand name that is widely used is [Morley cigarettes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Morley_(cigarette)). |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | James Bond is a big fan of [Universal Exports](https://www.universalexports.net/james-bond-universal-exports/).
>
> First used in Fleming’s novels, Universal Exports operates as the cover for MI6. M is referred to as the “managing director” and Bond is a field agent. Although Fleming changed Universal Exports to “Transworld Consortium” in his novel The Man With The Golden Gun, this change was never reflected on in the films.
>
>
>
It's a very non-descriptive name of a company that probably does something international with goods (exporting). They could be doing anything! They actually had their name printed on buildings and vehicles (including the well-known helicopter from For Your Eyes Only (with Blofeld going down the chimney)):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Fb1Ge.png)
[](https://i.imgur.com/BmYwoif.png)
[(YouTube)](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AqNruPovbhc)
While the origin of the name is quite old of-course, it's in the original novels by Fleming, some of the movies were released quite recently.
This shot is from Quantum of Solace (2008):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hrNNS.png)
Considering how non-descriptive the name is and that the referenced site is actually a fansite, I doubt you'd get into any copyright trouble for using it either. It has the added benefit of being recognized in a wide range of demographics. | If you want to stick to a generic name that can still be a modern reference I would suggest [E Corp](https://mrrobot.fandom.com/wiki/E_Corp). It appears in the American cybersecurity drama [Mr Robot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mr._Robot) in which it is often referred to as "Evil Corp".
It fits the bill for generic name and the "E" itself could stand for a number of things, including but not limited to:
* Electronic Corporation
* Entertainment Corporation
* Engineering Corporation
By keeping the "E" unknown, it means the name can play whatever role you want it to. |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | James Bond is a big fan of [Universal Exports](https://www.universalexports.net/james-bond-universal-exports/).
>
> First used in Fleming’s novels, Universal Exports operates as the cover for MI6. M is referred to as the “managing director” and Bond is a field agent. Although Fleming changed Universal Exports to “Transworld Consortium” in his novel The Man With The Golden Gun, this change was never reflected on in the films.
>
>
>
It's a very non-descriptive name of a company that probably does something international with goods (exporting). They could be doing anything! They actually had their name printed on buildings and vehicles (including the well-known helicopter from For Your Eyes Only (with Blofeld going down the chimney)):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Fb1Ge.png)
[](https://i.imgur.com/BmYwoif.png)
[(YouTube)](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AqNruPovbhc)
While the origin of the name is quite old of-course, it's in the original novels by Fleming, some of the movies were released quite recently.
This shot is from Quantum of Solace (2008):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hrNNS.png)
Considering how non-descriptive the name is and that the referenced site is actually a fansite, I doubt you'd get into any copyright trouble for using it either. It has the added benefit of being recognized in a wide range of demographics. | The current trend in fiction is to depict parodies of specific existing companies and products (with parodies of Walmart being the Walmart of such parodies, I suppose). This is done by changing a letter or series of letters in the name (thus sidestepping a lot of potential trademark issues):
* McDonald's becomes WcDonald's
* Instagram becomes Outstagram
* Google becomes Boogle
For inspiration, a few hundred examples of this can be found on [TV Tropes' Bland Name Product](https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/BlandNameProduct) and many more (specific to anime) can be found on the [Fictional Companies Wiki](https://fictionalcompanies.fandom.com/wiki/List_of_fake_brands_in_anime). |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | Sure!
-----
[There's always one.](https://list.fandom.com/wiki/List_of_fictional_companies) This site is a great list, but here are a few:
* Umbrella Corporation (Resident Evil)
* Innovative Online Industries (Ready Player One)
* Wayne Industries (DC)
* Oscorp, Stark Industries (Marvel)
* Union Aerospace Corporation [UAC] (Doom)
* Spaceley's Sprockets/Cogswell's Cogs (The Jetsons)
* Cyberdyne Systems Corporation (The Terminator)
* Zorin Industries (James Bond)
* Momcorp (Futurama)
* Omni Consumer products [OCP] (RoboCop)
And these are just for starters. Pick your niche group. I've actually heard people use Umbrella Corporation this way, so that specifically meets your requirements (and is why I put it first).
**PS:** My initial reading of your question was that it was for a class, which would be unlikely to get you sued for using any of these names. If you are actually doing marketing, Laurel very aptly pointed out that they are likely coming with copyright and/or trademark issues that may make using them expensive or impossible. If so, you may want to go with more generic names that have a general connotation but no specific usage (like "Global Consolidated Conglomerates Incorporated") | If you want to stick to a generic name that can still be a modern reference I would suggest [E Corp](https://mrrobot.fandom.com/wiki/E_Corp). It appears in the American cybersecurity drama [Mr Robot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mr._Robot) in which it is often referred to as "Evil Corp".
It fits the bill for generic name and the "E" itself could stand for a number of things, including but not limited to:
* Electronic Corporation
* Entertainment Corporation
* Engineering Corporation
By keeping the "E" unknown, it means the name can play whatever role you want it to. |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | Sure!
-----
[There's always one.](https://list.fandom.com/wiki/List_of_fictional_companies) This site is a great list, but here are a few:
* Umbrella Corporation (Resident Evil)
* Innovative Online Industries (Ready Player One)
* Wayne Industries (DC)
* Oscorp, Stark Industries (Marvel)
* Union Aerospace Corporation [UAC] (Doom)
* Spaceley's Sprockets/Cogswell's Cogs (The Jetsons)
* Cyberdyne Systems Corporation (The Terminator)
* Zorin Industries (James Bond)
* Momcorp (Futurama)
* Omni Consumer products [OCP] (RoboCop)
And these are just for starters. Pick your niche group. I've actually heard people use Umbrella Corporation this way, so that specifically meets your requirements (and is why I put it first).
**PS:** My initial reading of your question was that it was for a class, which would be unlikely to get you sued for using any of these names. If you are actually doing marketing, Laurel very aptly pointed out that they are likely coming with copyright and/or trademark issues that may make using them expensive or impossible. If so, you may want to go with more generic names that have a general connotation but no specific usage (like "Global Consolidated Conglomerates Incorporated") | Since the word acme means the best, but is kind of dated. You can get the same effect as Acme Co. With a more modern, word for the best. Like Pinnacle Corp. Or Peak Technologies. Or Zenith (a real company that made televisions that is out of business.) |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | It's quite possible that there are other "generic" names out there that would apply to any industry. But for airlines, the go-to is [Oceanic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oceanic_Airlines)
There are occasionally cases where companies take names from pop-culture references (like [Brawndo](https://www.wired.com/2008/05/nyt-from-silver/)), but Oceanic is fairly safe as if it were a real airline, it would have to overcome their horrific safety record set by so many movies & tv shows.
Another brand name that is widely used is [Morley cigarettes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Morley_(cigarette)). | Seinfeld is still current in our cultural consciousness, so:
Vandelay Industries,
Kramerica,
Kruger industrial Smoothing,
Van Nostrand |
55,217 | Yes, Acme is an actual company name used by many real companies - bricks, bikes, food, real estate, etc.
But more relevant to this point, it has also been used for ages for fictional purposes - not just as a company making all kinds of dangerous stuff in Road Runner cartoons, but also as a fictional company in training materials, documentation, marketing, etc. And for that purpose, it's also quite long in the tooth. Even to me (not a boomer but definitely not "young"), it seems quaint if not archaic.
We need a fictional company name for marketing to college students in STEM fields. I'm wondering if there's a newer, kinda pop-culture fictional company name that serves a similar purpose as "Acme" used to? I'm not aware of any but I'm not remotely in that demographic.
I thought of "Skynet" but even that reference is 30 years old. | 2021/03/11 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/55217",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/49117/"
] | The reason for Acme's use is two fold: First the name has a meaning of "peak or pinnacle of achievement" which is good for any standard, but also happens to be perfect for the obsolete search algorithm of "phone books." Back in the day before the internet was accessible to the general public on their phones, the phone book (specifically the Yellow Pages, so named because, well, the pages were yellow) were arranged alphabetically by service provided, then alphabetically again by business name. Acme was a popular name for a company because not only did it have a meaning of superiority, but given the AC letter combination, it was almost always going to be the first company listed in a phone book. Didn't matter if you were Acme Plumbing, Acme Grocery, or Acme Road Runner Hunting Equipment. You would likely be the first company that people saw when they flipped open the book to look for whatever you were offering.
Acme isn't the only name used for this, nor does it have to be an AC letter combination. Disney shorts had their own "order anything" company in the form of Ajax, which had similar meaning and similar front page of the phonebook. It did differ in that it was never presented as a single company like Looney Tune's Acme morphed into being, as Mickey's various start ups of the short would often be named Ajax as well. If you want this "front of the phone book style" the "Ace [insert industry jargon here] Company/Corp/Inc" would fit the bill and have the double benefit of not being the silly Acme Company as people know it today. Generally, the meaning of the word was less important than the name and some real life companies were named for Phone Book search optimization. I had a family friend that ran the very successful "Apple Plumbing" and of course my phone comes from "Apple Computers" and what does Apple have to do with clogged sinks and computers? Nothing but being on the first page of the phonebook for those services.
A "modern" gag take would be a company named solely to comply with Search Engine Optimization (SEO) so that when you google its industry, it pops up as on the first page (more so than the phone book, it's common knowledge that if you're not in the top five results for a google search, you're not gonna be seen at all).
The Looney Tunes cartoon Acme Corp was actually mocking both this trend and the "Sears Magazine" which was THE shopping for specialized products product for almost 100 years of American industry. You could buy a prefabbed house from Sears Magazine (some assembly required, batteries not included) and cars! While the higher-end stuff did cease in the 1890s following an economic recession, the Sears Magazine still went with and the company opened physical department stores across the nation with a selection of their at times 523 page magazine's popular offerings. The cartoon ACME (which the animators gave said was an acronym for American Corporation Makes Everything... because half the memorable gag of Acme products was "Acme" was not the most apt adjective for their shoddy work) was spoofing the sheer variety of Sears and similar products. Today, the closest thing we have to Sears Magazine would be Amazon; however, they don't have much in the way of the Amazon logo slapped on all of their available products.
A modern trend to the ACME [product] would be the Apple computer naming conventions of a lowercase "i" prefixed to the product (iPhone, iPad, iMac) so perhaps the modern Coyote has an app on his aPhone brand phone to swipe right on road runners he wishes to eat? | I've thought that calling a company "Widget Manufacturing" would be a very generic name. |
98,792 | When I point to <https://stackoverflow.com/search?q=How+to+redefine+FrontEndEventActions%3F>, I see:
When I point to <https://stackoverflow.com/unanswered/tagged/?page=2&tab=mytags>, I see:
(I am sorry it is not useful if you don't share tags with me.)
Please note the difference in author and modification date.
The question in question is [How to redefine FrontEndEventActions?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5673277/how-to-redefine-frontendeventactions)
Why? | 2011/07/16 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/98792",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/152358/"
] | The reason is the text right above the user that you're not seeing
>
> Asked Apr 15 at 6:49
>
>
>
verus
>
> modified Jun 17 at 3:45
>
>
>
Community bumped it, or someone anonymized it.
This is how the views have always been. | >
> Please note the difference in author and modification date.
>
>
>
In the first screenshot is shown the author of the question, the user who asked the question.
In the second screenshot is shown the user who has last modified the question, which also includes who answered the question.
In this case, the user is [Community](https://stackoverflow.com/users/-1/community), who is not a real person, but occasionally touches the "modified by" record of questions that don't have an accepted or up-voted answer to "bump" them (move it toward the top of recently-modified lists).
Note that the Community user can *also* appear to have modified a question when an anonymous user proposes an edit that has been accepted (since there's no user name to attribute the edit to). However, this did not happen here. |
4,394 | It occurred to me that, while I've pieced together some ideas over the years about the differences between statistics and biostatistics, I've never heard a formal explanation. What is the distinction between these two disciplines (currently)? And why did this distinction begin in the first place?
EDIT: I've not been specific enough in my original question. I understand that biostatistics is the application and development of statistics in the biomedical field. But what are some specific examples of the distinctions? For example, what distinguishes graduate education in the two fields? What is the purpose of having distinct academic departments for the two disciplines (a distinction I see in no other field)? | 2010/11/10 | [
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/4394",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/71/"
] | I will take a swing at answering this from the perspective of someone who is *neither* a statistician nor a biostatistician. Rather, I exist in the blurry grey area that is "epidemiological methods".
As other posters have mentioned, biostatistics is a discipline particularly focused on statistics as they apply to biological problems - including those that arise in medicine. While this seems somewhat semantic, it does result in some things that I think it make it a distinct entity on its own, though none of these are strictly exclusive:
* A reliance on subject-matter expertise. Be this through collaboration with subject matter experts, or simply working on the same problem for a long time, biostats involves the fusion of a statistical method with a particularly applied problem.
* A common and fairly restricted set of study designs. While exotic study designs are growing more acceptable, by and large the field is still dominated by cohort, case-control and clinical trial designs. The focus is often on estimating categorical exposures (given the drug, not given the drug...) and categorical outcomes (died, didn't die).
* A ubiquity of missing/misclassified/poor data.
* Less emphasis on classification and prediction. As @Alexis has mentioned, causal inference, and the desire to explore counterfactuals is hugely important for biostatistics. While not exclusively true, something that is a good predictor but has no etiologic explanation is of less interest. This has, for example, somewhat limited the penetration of machine learning methods. | I see the answers here just define the domain of work so I try to give a more comprehensive answer based on my experience of learning statistics as a medical practitioner. Most of my experience is on clinical trials, but this can be applied to any domain of biostatistics.
The purpose of biostatistics is biological and medical field, this gives it subtle differences according to this purpose.
**Statistics is all the same!** it is just math! However, here is the difference that comes to my head when I define biostatistics.
### 1- Ordinary statistician will not understand all the terminologies in biostatistics but he will understand the math!
Both of them are coming from mathematical and probability theories. So you will find most of the tests resonates will with both words like regression analysis, t-test ... etc
However, when it comes some other tests like relative risk, attributable risk reduction, kaplen mieir curves ... etc these few tests will sound strange for someone with no biostatistical knowledge. However, they can easily go through it when they read about these tests
### 2- Biostatistics field usually don't reinvent the wheel, they just enhance what is available
As I said biostatistics is built on statistics. But unlike the previous point, most of the current active research on biostatistics is mostly about enhancing few properties of existing test with different terminology to serve the purpose of biostatistics. For example, something like overall survival or time-to-death are all terminologies exclusive for biostatistics (that's for sure or who would study life and death) however they are built on time-to-event analysis that biostatistician has created these terminologies to make the test serve the purpose of biostatistics, more standardized and easy to interpret in among medical practitioners.
### 3- Biostatistics has its specific guidelines (just like any other field) however it is more strict.
Biostatistics has established many guidelines and conventions to analyze the data of different field. For example, statisticians working in biology and genomics are doing different tests and have different thinking than who are working in clinical trials(and of course who are working in business intelligence). But this way of working is considered fixed among the community of **biostatistician**, so a biostatistician don't usually think out of the box unless there is something urges that has not existed before, and this usually don't happen as study design of biostatistics fields is very definitive.
A clearer example of this is the baysian statistics application on biostatistics. Bayesian statistics are known to be flexible, so you will not find a lot of usage of this type of statistics. Also, this usage is tied to a certain repetitive application like sensitivity measurement. There is no need to think of probabilities when there are easier options that are easier to interpret and perform.
**Why This restriction?**
1. The community is trying to avoid p hacking and beautifying the results. Especially if you are working in clinical trials, you don't just use the tests the gives the best results. You even don't use one-sided tests usually! These conventions are there to protect the trials validity and anything else will make the community suspicious.
2. That's the most important part. All the work of biostatistics should be interpreted by a medical practitioner, so he should make some sense of results himself. So they try to stick to a few approaches.
3. This point is unfair because there is no comparison, but study design in biostatistics is very definitive. Usually, you don't have to think a lot on how to prove the efficacy of a drug or adverse effect or so. So it is very unlikely you will need to keep your head busy of learning different techniques and tests every while as it is very rare to see a pattern change.
That's all I have right now, I will update my answer if I remembered something else. |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.