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39,752	Jesus described his mission in terms taken directly from Isaiah: > > [Luk 4:19 NKJV] (19) To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD." > > > > > > > mGNT Luke 4:19 κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν > > > > > > > > > [Isa 61:2 NKJV] (2) To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, And the day of vengeance of our God; To comfort all who mourn, > > > > > > > mGNT Isaiah 61:2 καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν καὶ ἡμέραν ἀνταποδόσεως παρακαλέσαι πάντας τοὺς πενθοῦντας > > > > > > > > > Note that Luke has "days of vengeance" while Isaiah has "days of repayment" which Isaiah has used in two other places: > > [Isa 59:18 KJV] (18) According to their deeds, accordingly he will repay, fury to his adversaries, recompence to his enemies; to the islands he will repay recompence. > > > [Isa 66:6 KJV] (6) A voice of noise from the city [IE: Jerusalem], a voice from the temple, a voice of the LORD that rendereth recompence to his enemies. > > > He announces his mission to proclaim the acceptable day of the Lord in Luke 4:19 but it apparently isn't until chapter 21 of Luke that he announces the days (plural) of vengeance: > > [Luk 21:22 CSB] (22) "because these are days of vengeance to fulfill all the things that are written. > > > > > > > [Luke 21:22 mGNT] (22) ὅτι ἡμέραι [ἐκδικήσεως](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1557&t=KJV) αὗταί εἰσιν τοῦ πλησθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα > > > > > > > > > So to what does Jesus refer in Luke 21:22? What vengeance did Jesus refer to and how long would "the days of vengeance" last? Note: "vengeance" appears here, where God predicted long ago that he would > > [Deu 32:35 CSB] (35) "Vengeance belongs to me; I will repay. In time their foot will slip, for their day of disaster is near, and their doom is coming quickly." > > > > > > > [Deu 32:35 LXX] (35) ἐν ἡμέρᾳ ἐκδικήσεως ἀνταποδώσω ἐν καιρῷ ὅταν σφαλῇ ὁ ποὺς αὐτῶν ὅτι ἐγγὺς ἡμέρα ἀπωλείας αὐτῶν καὶ πάρεστιν ἕτοιμα ὑμῗν > > > > > > > > >	2019/03/28	[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/39752", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/" ]	Before answering your main question, I want to address whether or not Luke 21:22 and Isa 61:2 are necessarily talking about the same thing, in order to determine how much we should consider Isa 61:2 when interpreting Luke 21:22. Is there an allusion to Isa 61:2 in Luke 21:22? It appears that in the question, you're asserting that Jesus in Luke 21:22 is alluding to Isa 61:2. I haven't studied this in depth, but at the very least such an assertion would require some amount of evidence, especially since in contrast to Luke 4:19 where there is a clear quotation of the LXX, there is no such lexical similarity between Luke 21:22 and Isa 61:2. (By lexical similarity I mean using the same lexemes, the same words). Compare the similarity between the NA27 text of Lk 4:18-19 and Rahlf's LXX: Isa 61:1-2 LXX Πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾿ ἐμέ, οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με· εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς ἀπέσταλκέν με, ἰάσασθαι τοὺς συντετριμμένους τῇ καρδίᾳ, κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν, καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν Luke 4:18-19 πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾿ ἐμὲ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς, ἀπέσταλκέν με, κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν, ἀποστεῖλαι τεθραυσμένους ἐν ἀφέσει, κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν. There are clear differences but enough lexical similarity (even apart from the fact that Jesus says He's quoting Isaiah) to know He's quoting Isa 61. So not to say that there needs to be 100% lexical similarity for there to be a quote or an allusion, but if there's not at least strong lexical similarity we would want to look for other indicators if we want to argue that there's an allusion or quotation happening (eg, see Echoes of Scripture in the Letters of Paul by Hays pg 29ff for a one list of criteria to use when determining if there's an allusion or not). So then, comparing that to the similarity (or lack thereof) of NA27 Luke 21:22 and Rahlf's LXX Isa 61:2: Isa 61:2 ...ἡμέραν ἀνταποδόσεως... Luke 21:22 ...ἡμέραι ἐκδικήσεως... If it were just that one is plural and one is not, maybe there could still be an allusion. But since the word translated "vengeance" is different and even coming from different roots, I'm a bit hesitant. Even more than that, when there are only two words that are similar between two passages, we should be cautious in assuming there is an allusion being made necessarily, unless there are other factors involved (including possibly how rare those two words are, etc). Jesus might also be doing a direct translation/paraphrase of the Hebrew (which happens in other passages where we know there is an allusion), but if so we can only know there is an allusion being made from other factors. Accordingly, I don't think we should consider a possible allusion to Isaiah 61:2 when interpreting the meaning of Luke 21:22, at least without further evidence. (Although well done keeping your eyes/ears peeled for potential allusions). So then what events do Luke 21:22 refer to? It seems that as far as timing goes, we have two major indicators of when these things happen: 1. In Luke 21:20, Jerusalem's time has come near when it is surrounded by armies 2. This time of desolation is said to endure until the times of the Gentiles has been fulfilled (NA27 ἄχρι οὗ πληρωθῶσιν καιροὶ ἐθνῶν; 21:25). We also have to take into account that by Jesus' description, these events will "to fulfill all that is written" (21:22), which seems to indicate a weighty event in my book! Another factor to consider is that, especially when referring to prophecy but even otherwise, I tend to see if there's an OT backdrop/context that Jesus would share with His original audience, that both of them would understand. Like [Mac's Musings in this answer](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/39758/25621), I would say that some of Daniel's prophecies seem to be more in the foreground of Jesus' thought here than Isa 61, especially in light of the fact that Jesus refers to Daniel in the parallel passage in Matthew 24:15 and alludes to the same passage in Daniel in Mark 13:14. Looking at Daniel also gives a potential answer for what the "times" (plural) of the Gentiles could be referring to, since prophecies in Daniel list out a series of times where nations have dominion over Israel (first Babylon, then Persia-Media, then Greece, then Rome). In Daniel, this series of eras (or "times" as the case may be...) then culminates in the end of Jerusalem's desolation, for there comes a rock which destroys these nations, establishing Jerusalem as the capital of the Kingdom of God on earth (cf. Dan 2). This is the direction Jesus continues in as well: from the desolation of Jerusalem under Gentile reign to the end of Gentile reign whereby the kingdom of the Messiah is established; cf. Luke 21:25-28, where Jesus alludes to Dan 7:13 by referring to the "Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory" which culminates in redemption for God's people. This fits the picture that Jesus describes in Luke as well. There is desolation in Jerusalem until the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled, at which point Jerusalem will no longer be desolate, exiled, or trampled underfoot by the Gentiles. This fits the timeline presented by a number of other prophets as well, regarding the Day of the LORD. Jerusalem is exiled and under foreign rule until the Messiah returns, ends exile, and establishes his kingdom. This could explain why Jesus would say that this would "fulfill all that is written" (Lk 21:22). So then what's the vengeance in 21:22? I could see someone arguing it's referring to vengeance on Israel for their covenant unfaithfulness to God, perhaps particularly since they crucified their Messiah. But I could also see it referring to vengeance on both Israel and the nations, particularly since when the OT prophets talk about the Day of the LORD, it is a day of judgment against both Israel (eg Joel 2) and the nations (Obad 15). In other words, since the OT sometimes pictured God's judgment against the sin of the nations and the sin of Israel as two parts of the same coin, perhaps Jesus is doing the same thing here. (Of course, I'm begging the question of all kinds of interpretive issues related to the Day of the LORD...but there's also other examples where Israel and the nations are all pictured being judged together, eg Amos 1-2). But how long does it all last? Jerusalem had been likewise destroyed and exiled before by Babylon, which is what I'm arguing is the beginning of these "times of the Gentiles". As one of these times of the Gentiles, Jerusalem was under Roman reign, and would destroy Jerusalem in AD 70. These times of the Gentiles will end when the Son of Man returns in the clouds and establish His kingdom. This has still not occurred, and we see how this plays out currently, as Israel still does not have total control over the Temple mount in Jerusalem. --- Notes/disclaimers: * Of course I recognize that there is no one single "LXX", since rather there are many Greek translations of the OT, but just using that terminology here for simplicity. * Again, I am not contributing as someone who has studied this passage in depth but just to add to the conversation. * I'm coming from a relatively conservative and Premillenial background. Not apologizing for that, but especially for a discussion like prophecy, presuppositions account for quite a bit. :)	There will be great distress in the land and wrath against this people. They will fall by the sword and will be taken as prisoners to all the nations. Jerusalem will be trampled on by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles have been fulfilled.The sixth seal and seventh seal, the trumpets and bowls, the Two Witnesses. Revelation 15~20, Jerusalem will be destroyed.The seventh trumpet before the return of the Lord Jesus, the seventh bowl after, and then the New Jerusalem coming down out of heaven from God
39,752	Jesus described his mission in terms taken directly from Isaiah: > > [Luk 4:19 NKJV] (19) To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD." > > > > > > > mGNT Luke 4:19 κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν > > > > > > > > > [Isa 61:2 NKJV] (2) To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, And the day of vengeance of our God; To comfort all who mourn, > > > > > > > mGNT Isaiah 61:2 καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν καὶ ἡμέραν ἀνταποδόσεως παρακαλέσαι πάντας τοὺς πενθοῦντας > > > > > > > > > Note that Luke has "days of vengeance" while Isaiah has "days of repayment" which Isaiah has used in two other places: > > [Isa 59:18 KJV] (18) According to their deeds, accordingly he will repay, fury to his adversaries, recompence to his enemies; to the islands he will repay recompence. > > > [Isa 66:6 KJV] (6) A voice of noise from the city [IE: Jerusalem], a voice from the temple, a voice of the LORD that rendereth recompence to his enemies. > > > He announces his mission to proclaim the acceptable day of the Lord in Luke 4:19 but it apparently isn't until chapter 21 of Luke that he announces the days (plural) of vengeance: > > [Luk 21:22 CSB] (22) "because these are days of vengeance to fulfill all the things that are written. > > > > > > > [Luke 21:22 mGNT] (22) ὅτι ἡμέραι [ἐκδικήσεως](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1557&t=KJV) αὗταί εἰσιν τοῦ πλησθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα > > > > > > > > > So to what does Jesus refer in Luke 21:22? What vengeance did Jesus refer to and how long would "the days of vengeance" last? Note: "vengeance" appears here, where God predicted long ago that he would > > [Deu 32:35 CSB] (35) "Vengeance belongs to me; I will repay. In time their foot will slip, for their day of disaster is near, and their doom is coming quickly." > > > > > > > [Deu 32:35 LXX] (35) ἐν ἡμέρᾳ ἐκδικήσεως ἀνταποδώσω ἐν καιρῷ ὅταν σφαλῇ ὁ ποὺς αὐτῶν ὅτι ἐγγὺς ἡμέρα ἀπωλείας αὐτῶν καὶ πάρεστιν ἕτοιμα ὑμῗν > > > > > > > > >	2019/03/28	[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/39752", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/" ]	Before answering your main question, I want to address whether or not Luke 21:22 and Isa 61:2 are necessarily talking about the same thing, in order to determine how much we should consider Isa 61:2 when interpreting Luke 21:22. Is there an allusion to Isa 61:2 in Luke 21:22? It appears that in the question, you're asserting that Jesus in Luke 21:22 is alluding to Isa 61:2. I haven't studied this in depth, but at the very least such an assertion would require some amount of evidence, especially since in contrast to Luke 4:19 where there is a clear quotation of the LXX, there is no such lexical similarity between Luke 21:22 and Isa 61:2. (By lexical similarity I mean using the same lexemes, the same words). Compare the similarity between the NA27 text of Lk 4:18-19 and Rahlf's LXX: Isa 61:1-2 LXX Πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾿ ἐμέ, οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με· εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς ἀπέσταλκέν με, ἰάσασθαι τοὺς συντετριμμένους τῇ καρδίᾳ, κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν, καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν Luke 4:18-19 πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾿ ἐμὲ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς, ἀπέσταλκέν με, κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν, ἀποστεῖλαι τεθραυσμένους ἐν ἀφέσει, κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν. There are clear differences but enough lexical similarity (even apart from the fact that Jesus says He's quoting Isaiah) to know He's quoting Isa 61. So not to say that there needs to be 100% lexical similarity for there to be a quote or an allusion, but if there's not at least strong lexical similarity we would want to look for other indicators if we want to argue that there's an allusion or quotation happening (eg, see Echoes of Scripture in the Letters of Paul by Hays pg 29ff for a one list of criteria to use when determining if there's an allusion or not). So then, comparing that to the similarity (or lack thereof) of NA27 Luke 21:22 and Rahlf's LXX Isa 61:2: Isa 61:2 ...ἡμέραν ἀνταποδόσεως... Luke 21:22 ...ἡμέραι ἐκδικήσεως... If it were just that one is plural and one is not, maybe there could still be an allusion. But since the word translated "vengeance" is different and even coming from different roots, I'm a bit hesitant. Even more than that, when there are only two words that are similar between two passages, we should be cautious in assuming there is an allusion being made necessarily, unless there are other factors involved (including possibly how rare those two words are, etc). Jesus might also be doing a direct translation/paraphrase of the Hebrew (which happens in other passages where we know there is an allusion), but if so we can only know there is an allusion being made from other factors. Accordingly, I don't think we should consider a possible allusion to Isaiah 61:2 when interpreting the meaning of Luke 21:22, at least without further evidence. (Although well done keeping your eyes/ears peeled for potential allusions). So then what events do Luke 21:22 refer to? It seems that as far as timing goes, we have two major indicators of when these things happen: 1. In Luke 21:20, Jerusalem's time has come near when it is surrounded by armies 2. This time of desolation is said to endure until the times of the Gentiles has been fulfilled (NA27 ἄχρι οὗ πληρωθῶσιν καιροὶ ἐθνῶν; 21:25). We also have to take into account that by Jesus' description, these events will "to fulfill all that is written" (21:22), which seems to indicate a weighty event in my book! Another factor to consider is that, especially when referring to prophecy but even otherwise, I tend to see if there's an OT backdrop/context that Jesus would share with His original audience, that both of them would understand. Like [Mac's Musings in this answer](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/39758/25621), I would say that some of Daniel's prophecies seem to be more in the foreground of Jesus' thought here than Isa 61, especially in light of the fact that Jesus refers to Daniel in the parallel passage in Matthew 24:15 and alludes to the same passage in Daniel in Mark 13:14. Looking at Daniel also gives a potential answer for what the "times" (plural) of the Gentiles could be referring to, since prophecies in Daniel list out a series of times where nations have dominion over Israel (first Babylon, then Persia-Media, then Greece, then Rome). In Daniel, this series of eras (or "times" as the case may be...) then culminates in the end of Jerusalem's desolation, for there comes a rock which destroys these nations, establishing Jerusalem as the capital of the Kingdom of God on earth (cf. Dan 2). This is the direction Jesus continues in as well: from the desolation of Jerusalem under Gentile reign to the end of Gentile reign whereby the kingdom of the Messiah is established; cf. Luke 21:25-28, where Jesus alludes to Dan 7:13 by referring to the "Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory" which culminates in redemption for God's people. This fits the picture that Jesus describes in Luke as well. There is desolation in Jerusalem until the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled, at which point Jerusalem will no longer be desolate, exiled, or trampled underfoot by the Gentiles. This fits the timeline presented by a number of other prophets as well, regarding the Day of the LORD. Jerusalem is exiled and under foreign rule until the Messiah returns, ends exile, and establishes his kingdom. This could explain why Jesus would say that this would "fulfill all that is written" (Lk 21:22). So then what's the vengeance in 21:22? I could see someone arguing it's referring to vengeance on Israel for their covenant unfaithfulness to God, perhaps particularly since they crucified their Messiah. But I could also see it referring to vengeance on both Israel and the nations, particularly since when the OT prophets talk about the Day of the LORD, it is a day of judgment against both Israel (eg Joel 2) and the nations (Obad 15). In other words, since the OT sometimes pictured God's judgment against the sin of the nations and the sin of Israel as two parts of the same coin, perhaps Jesus is doing the same thing here. (Of course, I'm begging the question of all kinds of interpretive issues related to the Day of the LORD...but there's also other examples where Israel and the nations are all pictured being judged together, eg Amos 1-2). But how long does it all last? Jerusalem had been likewise destroyed and exiled before by Babylon, which is what I'm arguing is the beginning of these "times of the Gentiles". As one of these times of the Gentiles, Jerusalem was under Roman reign, and would destroy Jerusalem in AD 70. These times of the Gentiles will end when the Son of Man returns in the clouds and establish His kingdom. This has still not occurred, and we see how this plays out currently, as Israel still does not have total control over the Temple mount in Jerusalem. --- Notes/disclaimers: * Of course I recognize that there is no one single "LXX", since rather there are many Greek translations of the OT, but just using that terminology here for simplicity. * Again, I am not contributing as someone who has studied this passage in depth but just to add to the conversation. * I'm coming from a relatively conservative and Premillenial background. Not apologizing for that, but especially for a discussion like prophecy, presuppositions account for quite a bit. :)	### In Luke 21:22 when did Jesus say the days of vengeance would occur? The topic "Vengeance" from the Insight on the Scriptures has the following: > > *A fixed time for God’s vengeance.* The Scriptures indicate that God has a due time for large-scale expressions of his vengeance upon his enemies. The prophet Isaiah was commissioned to proclaim “the day of vengeance on the part of our God.” God’s vengeance was expressed against ancient Babylon, the oppressor of his people, when the armies of Medo-Persia were used to break her power in 539 B.C.E. ([Isa 61:1, 2;](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/9/0) [13:1,](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/9/1) [6,](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/9/2) [9,](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/9/3) [17](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/9/4)) Jesus Christ, when on earth, quoted part of Isaiah’s prophecy ([61:1, 2](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/10/0)) and applied it to himself. ([Lu 4:16-21](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/11/0)) Though the record does not say that he quoted the part concerning “the day of vengeance,” in actuality he did proclaim that “day,” which came upon Jerusalem in 70 C.E. Jesus foretold the encampment by armies (of the Romans) around the city, telling his followers to flee from Jerusalem when they saw this, “because these are days for meting out justice [“days of vengeance”], that all the things written may be fulfilled.”—[Lu 21:20-22](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/bc/r1/lp-e/1200004551/12/0), Int; compare AT, KJ, Ro, RS. > > > So Jesus' quoting Isaiah 61 and its application to Jesus as the Messiah are correct. But Jesus' words from Luke 21 apply to the destruction of Jerusalem. [All scripture quotations from the [New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures (Study Edition)](https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/study-bible/books/)]
39,752	Jesus described his mission in terms taken directly from Isaiah: > > [Luk 4:19 NKJV] (19) To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD." > > > > > > > mGNT Luke 4:19 κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν > > > > > > > > > [Isa 61:2 NKJV] (2) To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, And the day of vengeance of our God; To comfort all who mourn, > > > > > > > mGNT Isaiah 61:2 καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν καὶ ἡμέραν ἀνταποδόσεως παρακαλέσαι πάντας τοὺς πενθοῦντας > > > > > > > > > Note that Luke has "days of vengeance" while Isaiah has "days of repayment" which Isaiah has used in two other places: > > [Isa 59:18 KJV] (18) According to their deeds, accordingly he will repay, fury to his adversaries, recompence to his enemies; to the islands he will repay recompence. > > > [Isa 66:6 KJV] (6) A voice of noise from the city [IE: Jerusalem], a voice from the temple, a voice of the LORD that rendereth recompence to his enemies. > > > He announces his mission to proclaim the acceptable day of the Lord in Luke 4:19 but it apparently isn't until chapter 21 of Luke that he announces the days (plural) of vengeance: > > [Luk 21:22 CSB] (22) "because these are days of vengeance to fulfill all the things that are written. > > > > > > > [Luke 21:22 mGNT] (22) ὅτι ἡμέραι [ἐκδικήσεως](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1557&t=KJV) αὗταί εἰσιν τοῦ πλησθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα > > > > > > > > > So to what does Jesus refer in Luke 21:22? What vengeance did Jesus refer to and how long would "the days of vengeance" last? Note: "vengeance" appears here, where God predicted long ago that he would > > [Deu 32:35 CSB] (35) "Vengeance belongs to me; I will repay. In time their foot will slip, for their day of disaster is near, and their doom is coming quickly." > > > > > > > [Deu 32:35 LXX] (35) ἐν ἡμέρᾳ ἐκδικήσεως ἀνταποδώσω ἐν καιρῷ ὅταν σφαλῇ ὁ ποὺς αὐτῶν ὅτι ἐγγὺς ἡμέρα ἀπωλείας αὐτῶν καὶ πάρεστιν ἕτοιμα ὑμῗν > > > > > > > > >	2019/03/28	[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/39752", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/" ]	Before answering your main question, I want to address whether or not Luke 21:22 and Isa 61:2 are necessarily talking about the same thing, in order to determine how much we should consider Isa 61:2 when interpreting Luke 21:22. Is there an allusion to Isa 61:2 in Luke 21:22? It appears that in the question, you're asserting that Jesus in Luke 21:22 is alluding to Isa 61:2. I haven't studied this in depth, but at the very least such an assertion would require some amount of evidence, especially since in contrast to Luke 4:19 where there is a clear quotation of the LXX, there is no such lexical similarity between Luke 21:22 and Isa 61:2. (By lexical similarity I mean using the same lexemes, the same words). Compare the similarity between the NA27 text of Lk 4:18-19 and Rahlf's LXX: Isa 61:1-2 LXX Πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾿ ἐμέ, οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με· εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς ἀπέσταλκέν με, ἰάσασθαι τοὺς συντετριμμένους τῇ καρδίᾳ, κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν, καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν Luke 4:18-19 πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾿ ἐμὲ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς, ἀπέσταλκέν με, κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν, ἀποστεῖλαι τεθραυσμένους ἐν ἀφέσει, κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν. There are clear differences but enough lexical similarity (even apart from the fact that Jesus says He's quoting Isaiah) to know He's quoting Isa 61. So not to say that there needs to be 100% lexical similarity for there to be a quote or an allusion, but if there's not at least strong lexical similarity we would want to look for other indicators if we want to argue that there's an allusion or quotation happening (eg, see Echoes of Scripture in the Letters of Paul by Hays pg 29ff for a one list of criteria to use when determining if there's an allusion or not). So then, comparing that to the similarity (or lack thereof) of NA27 Luke 21:22 and Rahlf's LXX Isa 61:2: Isa 61:2 ...ἡμέραν ἀνταποδόσεως... Luke 21:22 ...ἡμέραι ἐκδικήσεως... If it were just that one is plural and one is not, maybe there could still be an allusion. But since the word translated "vengeance" is different and even coming from different roots, I'm a bit hesitant. Even more than that, when there are only two words that are similar between two passages, we should be cautious in assuming there is an allusion being made necessarily, unless there are other factors involved (including possibly how rare those two words are, etc). Jesus might also be doing a direct translation/paraphrase of the Hebrew (which happens in other passages where we know there is an allusion), but if so we can only know there is an allusion being made from other factors. Accordingly, I don't think we should consider a possible allusion to Isaiah 61:2 when interpreting the meaning of Luke 21:22, at least without further evidence. (Although well done keeping your eyes/ears peeled for potential allusions). So then what events do Luke 21:22 refer to? It seems that as far as timing goes, we have two major indicators of when these things happen: 1. In Luke 21:20, Jerusalem's time has come near when it is surrounded by armies 2. This time of desolation is said to endure until the times of the Gentiles has been fulfilled (NA27 ἄχρι οὗ πληρωθῶσιν καιροὶ ἐθνῶν; 21:25). We also have to take into account that by Jesus' description, these events will "to fulfill all that is written" (21:22), which seems to indicate a weighty event in my book! Another factor to consider is that, especially when referring to prophecy but even otherwise, I tend to see if there's an OT backdrop/context that Jesus would share with His original audience, that both of them would understand. Like [Mac's Musings in this answer](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/39758/25621), I would say that some of Daniel's prophecies seem to be more in the foreground of Jesus' thought here than Isa 61, especially in light of the fact that Jesus refers to Daniel in the parallel passage in Matthew 24:15 and alludes to the same passage in Daniel in Mark 13:14. Looking at Daniel also gives a potential answer for what the "times" (plural) of the Gentiles could be referring to, since prophecies in Daniel list out a series of times where nations have dominion over Israel (first Babylon, then Persia-Media, then Greece, then Rome). In Daniel, this series of eras (or "times" as the case may be...) then culminates in the end of Jerusalem's desolation, for there comes a rock which destroys these nations, establishing Jerusalem as the capital of the Kingdom of God on earth (cf. Dan 2). This is the direction Jesus continues in as well: from the desolation of Jerusalem under Gentile reign to the end of Gentile reign whereby the kingdom of the Messiah is established; cf. Luke 21:25-28, where Jesus alludes to Dan 7:13 by referring to the "Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory" which culminates in redemption for God's people. This fits the picture that Jesus describes in Luke as well. There is desolation in Jerusalem until the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled, at which point Jerusalem will no longer be desolate, exiled, or trampled underfoot by the Gentiles. This fits the timeline presented by a number of other prophets as well, regarding the Day of the LORD. Jerusalem is exiled and under foreign rule until the Messiah returns, ends exile, and establishes his kingdom. This could explain why Jesus would say that this would "fulfill all that is written" (Lk 21:22). So then what's the vengeance in 21:22? I could see someone arguing it's referring to vengeance on Israel for their covenant unfaithfulness to God, perhaps particularly since they crucified their Messiah. But I could also see it referring to vengeance on both Israel and the nations, particularly since when the OT prophets talk about the Day of the LORD, it is a day of judgment against both Israel (eg Joel 2) and the nations (Obad 15). In other words, since the OT sometimes pictured God's judgment against the sin of the nations and the sin of Israel as two parts of the same coin, perhaps Jesus is doing the same thing here. (Of course, I'm begging the question of all kinds of interpretive issues related to the Day of the LORD...but there's also other examples where Israel and the nations are all pictured being judged together, eg Amos 1-2). But how long does it all last? Jerusalem had been likewise destroyed and exiled before by Babylon, which is what I'm arguing is the beginning of these "times of the Gentiles". As one of these times of the Gentiles, Jerusalem was under Roman reign, and would destroy Jerusalem in AD 70. These times of the Gentiles will end when the Son of Man returns in the clouds and establish His kingdom. This has still not occurred, and we see how this plays out currently, as Israel still does not have total control over the Temple mount in Jerusalem. --- Notes/disclaimers: * Of course I recognize that there is no one single "LXX", since rather there are many Greek translations of the OT, but just using that terminology here for simplicity. * Again, I am not contributing as someone who has studied this passage in depth but just to add to the conversation. * I'm coming from a relatively conservative and Premillenial background. Not apologizing for that, but especially for a discussion like prophecy, presuppositions account for quite a bit. :)	Some points to consider … you have conflated several verses, and the common point is ‘vengeance’. But, you seem to be assuming that the source of each/all of these is the same. This may not be necessarily the case .. First, let’s look at your Q When did Jesus says these days of Vengeance would occur? Jesus reads the first part of Isaiah’s prophecy… but then … > > LUKE 19:20 Then He closed the book, and gave it back to the attendant and sat down. And the eyes of all who were in the synagogue were fixed on Him. 21 And He began to say to them, “Today this Scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.” > > > So it is suggested that the second part of Isaiah’s prophecy, the ‘vengeance’ part, was not going to be fulfilled ‘Today’. ‘Today’ - specifically ‘this day’. The period of time we are in. The ‘vengeance’ was clearly not for this day, this ‘coming’ - which arguably moves it to Christ’s next coming. One reason (of many, but this one is important for this answer) for this deduction is that God is the ‘source’ of this vengeance. The context in Isaiah, the context of the original quote makes this abundantly clear. Isaiah is talking about (prophesying about) the ‘end times’ - in each of those selected verses. But now consider the ‘source’ of vengeance in the other quoted verses. The other ‘Isaiah’ verses clearly reflect the same as Isaiah 61:2 - the end of time. But …. Luke 21 the ‘vengeance’ is coming via ‘Jerusalem’ being ‘surrounded by armies’ - the Roman armies. I appreciate that some theologians may argue that despite this, that it’s really God - but that can not be argued exegetically, it can only be argued doctrinally. This occurrence in Luke 21, referring to the destruction of the temple in 70AD, was to fulfil prophecy, (DANIEL 9). The ‘source’ of that vengeance came via the ‘people of the Prince’. (DANIEL 9:26). And Josephus tells us exactly who they were - and the reason they did - the ‘source’ of that vengeance was Emperor Titus. So, trying to ‘link’ those verses via the word ‘vengeance’ is difficult as that ‘vengeance’ is arguably not coming from the same source.
61,854,085	I need to implement camunda bpmn where 1 of my task is a java delegate task which calls an api. now the api what it calls is an async api, because of which the bpmn flow moves to next task after calling the async api but i want is that after calling the api the flow shud stop and then some call back happens through some api to camunda server(hosted as spring boot app). what would be the best way to achieve the above scenario.	2020/05/17	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/61854085", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/11857352/" ]	Options for asynchronous communication are 1. A send task/event follow by receive task/event <https://docs.camunda.org/manual/latest/reference/bpmn20/tasks/send-task/> <https://docs.camunda.org/manual/latest/reference/bpmn20/tasks/receive-task/> <https://docs.camunda.org/manual/latest/reference/bpmn20/events/message-events/> 2. a service task of implementation type external [![External Task Pattern](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lJK9o.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lJK9o.png) <https://docs.camunda.org/manual/latest/user-guide/process-engine/external-tasks/> 3. Advanced: Implement asynchronous service invocation using a Signallable Activity Behavior <https://github.com/camunda/camunda-bpm-examples/tree/master/servicetask/service-invocation-asynchronous> [![Asynchronous Communication in one service task](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YQzYc.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YQzYc.png) From this blog post, whcih provides a detailed explanation: <https://blog.camunda.com/post/2013/11/bpmn-service-synchronous-asynchronous/>	You can do this to halt the execution for the specified amount of time. [This will halt the execution for the response](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3FhfK.png)
130,617	I have an iMac with a pair of wireless keyboard/trackpad and another Macbook Pro (MBP). I just got a thunderbolt cable and try to use iMac as an external monitor for the MBP. However, one problem is that, I have to press cmd+F2 on iMac. Then after that the wireless keyboard/trackpad will have problem pair with MBP using bluetooth, because it's still paired with iMac. Is there a better way to have keyboard/trackpad easily switch between my iMac and MBP? I know two of the solutions but none of them seems to be very appealing to me: 1) Buy another pair of keyboard/trackpad just for MBP 2) Logitech got a easy-switch keyboard but no easy-switch trackpad Any suggestion would be great. Thanks.	2014/05/13	[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/130617", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/10224/" ]	Check out [Synergy](http://synergy-project.org/). It's a virtual keyboard/mouse switcher between multiple OS types. You install the same client on each machine you want to use, and on the "master" machine (server), you configure the virtual arrangement of all the screens. Very easy to use and set up. I use it between multiple Macs while they're each booted into their own OS's. The keyboard/mouse stays "connected" to the "server," so here's how you might use it for your problem: 1. Download and install Synergy on both machines. 2. Setup the iMac as the "client." 3. Setup the MacBook Pro as the "server." 4. Drag the mouse cursor to the iMac and press Command+F2. I haven't tested this exact setup myself, but I think it might be a feasable solution. Best of luck!	I've moved the original answer [here](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/23146/sharing-a-bluetooth-keyboard-and-mouse-sequentially-between-two-macs/207281#207281), because that question is older and more popular. I think more people will find it there. But I leave here some highlights. > > There's [VirtualKVM](https://github.com/duanefields/VirtualKVM/releases) software solution by Duane Fields, which perfectly suites your needs. > > > You can download it [here](https://github.com/duanefields/VirtualKVM/releases) and read [the full answer](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/23146/sharing-a-bluetooth-keyboard-and-mouse-sequentially-between-two-macs/207281#207281) if you need details about how does it work.
68,480	I often find newsletter teasers that already include a text field that allows the user to fill in his email address. While it seems as the email was the only required field and submit would successfully subscribe the user to the newsletter submit instead loads page including the actual sign up form that asks for (additional) user data or enables the user to customize newsletter settings. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eg5Ba.png) I generally like the idea of the teaser format as I'd suppose that the input field succeeds in triggering the desired interaction. However, I wonder if users feel cheated when submit will load another form. Unfortunately – now that I was looking for real examples – I couldn't find one. I'll update my post when I found one ...	2014/12/08	[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/68480", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/13699/" ]	It's generally best to that the "teaser" actually performs an action. In the example you gave with the email, inputing their email should subscribe them to the list right away even though a secondary window might appear, this then become optional. IF they want to specify what types of emails they want or give some profile information then they can do that. However if they choose not to, they can just close that out. The benefit of this is that you have captured some information from the user (or in this case generated a lead). As usual, context is important. If you do in fact need all the pieces of information, then having a "teaser" can help to hide the excessive fields or not to overwhelm users too much up from. I agree with the previous answer that you should never trick your user. If there will be additional info after the teaser, you should try to make it obvious.	I think it's a good feature only if: * the users knows that the process is not completed. You can put «Wanna receive exclusive updates? Type your email to start sign up…»; here the keyword is "start". * it's enough to achieve the desired goal (receive the newsletter) but you can continue the process (customize which news you wanna receive, set a password, etc.). It's a bad feature if you deceive the user: if the user thinks that typing the email will achieve the desired goal (receive the newsletter), and then you require more steps, probably the user will drop his intentions (maybe (s)he asks, when are you going to stop aking more things). It's the same when a site said "sign up for free" and then they ask your credit card number. Even if I know they don't use the data and only it's to reduce the gap inthe decision to upgrade to a paid service, I quit the site. It's annoying, and makes you distrust.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	Make it interesting and spend each year writing an interpreter or compiler for your own programming language that fills up a niche you've never used a programming language for. Each year, write your next compiler/interpreter using the language you wrote the previous year.	C - as the essential, "underlies everything", systems programming language Lisp (Scheme)- the strange but incredibly powerful ur-language that great hackers think defines cool Smalltalk - because this is what OO was meant to be Erlang (or other Actor language) to understand Actors Haskell - to understand Monads Javascript - because its everywhere and essential for scripting the browser One of Python / Ruby / Perl (but it really doesn't matter which) - so you know what a popular, modern, high-level scripting language with good library support feels like SQL - so you can talk to relational databases Prolog - because you still need to blow your mind
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	Make it interesting and spend each year writing an interpreter or compiler for your own programming language that fills up a niche you've never used a programming language for. Each year, write your next compiler/interpreter using the language you wrote the previous year.	A language that doesn't affect the way you think about programming, is not worth knowing. - Alan Perlis As some of the other answers have touched on, if you are learning one new language per year, the why? is to expand your capabilities as a programmer. The how? is by learning languages with distinct paradigms from those of languages you already know, and taking stock of the paradigms you already know determines what language to learn next. What are these paradigms? The advanced book [Concepts, Techniques, and Models of Computer Programming](http://www.info.ucl.ac.be/~pvr/book.html) provides an excellent [overview with a graphical map](http://www.info.ucl.ac.be/~pvr/paradigms.html). Thus, if you only know C-like imperative languages, then learning Scheme/Lisp is extremely useful. If you already know imperative and functional languages, then learning Prolog will be useful, etc. A recent book that tries to teach multiple languages and paradigms is [Seven Languages in Seven Weeks](http://pragprog.com/titles/btlang/seven-languages-in-seven-weeks). Of course, you won't be fluent in each language after a week of study, but it does seem to provide an approachable, practitioner-oriented multi-paradigm perspective. When you do grok another paradigm, it's truly a Zen moment; going from imperative to functional programming made me see the world of computing in an entirely new light. Happy learning!
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	You should maximize the "marginal relevance", ie always venture into new areas that you are not yet strong at. Vary both the programming languages and the concepts. If you don't know any object-oriented language, try Java and some high-abstraction framework such as Hibernate. Then write some systems administration stuff in a script language such as Python or Perl. Then pick up some low-level skills in C or C++, writing high-performance multithreaded server code. If you don't know functional programming, try Haskell with some graph theory problems such as [solving Peg Solitaire](http://code.google.com/p/peg-solitaire/), etc. It's very feasible to do it so that everything you learn has immediate market value, until you hit erudite or special-purpose stuff such as [object-capability security](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Object-capability_model), [Prolog](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prolog) or [VHDL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/VHDL). Good exercise by the way! This will teach you to think laterally and envision problems in language-agnostic terms, instead of relying on too few platform-specific techniques. For instance, once you master the similarities and differences in virtual method dispatch between C++ and Python, you'll pretty much "get it" instantly for any other language.	While I agree it is good to learn new languages (and even imperative through a long career), I think one a year is too much past the first five-ten years. What I would rather see is someone with this level of experience learning new things about the languages they already know. At some point you need depth as well as breadth of knowledge. So you can write an If construct in 12 languages, big whoop. I'd rather see someone who really digs in and become expert in at least one thing. And then the next few years become an expert at something else. Over a 30+year career, I want someone to have depth of knowledge not just the basics in a lot of things.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	You should maximize the "marginal relevance", ie always venture into new areas that you are not yet strong at. Vary both the programming languages and the concepts. If you don't know any object-oriented language, try Java and some high-abstraction framework such as Hibernate. Then write some systems administration stuff in a script language such as Python or Perl. Then pick up some low-level skills in C or C++, writing high-performance multithreaded server code. If you don't know functional programming, try Haskell with some graph theory problems such as [solving Peg Solitaire](http://code.google.com/p/peg-solitaire/), etc. It's very feasible to do it so that everything you learn has immediate market value, until you hit erudite or special-purpose stuff such as [object-capability security](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Object-capability_model), [Prolog](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prolog) or [VHDL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/VHDL). Good exercise by the way! This will teach you to think laterally and envision problems in language-agnostic terms, instead of relying on too few platform-specific techniques. For instance, once you master the similarities and differences in virtual method dispatch between C++ and Python, you'll pretty much "get it" instantly for any other language.	Besides the ones you listed, Haskell, F#, Clojure, OCaml, Lua, Go, D, Erlang, Objective C.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	C - as the essential, "underlies everything", systems programming language Lisp (Scheme)- the strange but incredibly powerful ur-language that great hackers think defines cool Smalltalk - because this is what OO was meant to be Erlang (or other Actor language) to understand Actors Haskell - to understand Monads Javascript - because its everywhere and essential for scripting the browser One of Python / Ruby / Perl (but it really doesn't matter which) - so you know what a popular, modern, high-level scripting language with good library support feels like SQL - so you can talk to relational databases Prolog - because you still need to blow your mind	Besides the ones you listed, Haskell, F#, Clojure, OCaml, Lua, Go, D, Erlang, Objective C.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	A language that doesn't affect the way you think about programming, is not worth knowing. - Alan Perlis As some of the other answers have touched on, if you are learning one new language per year, the why? is to expand your capabilities as a programmer. The how? is by learning languages with distinct paradigms from those of languages you already know, and taking stock of the paradigms you already know determines what language to learn next. What are these paradigms? The advanced book [Concepts, Techniques, and Models of Computer Programming](http://www.info.ucl.ac.be/~pvr/book.html) provides an excellent [overview with a graphical map](http://www.info.ucl.ac.be/~pvr/paradigms.html). Thus, if you only know C-like imperative languages, then learning Scheme/Lisp is extremely useful. If you already know imperative and functional languages, then learning Prolog will be useful, etc. A recent book that tries to teach multiple languages and paradigms is [Seven Languages in Seven Weeks](http://pragprog.com/titles/btlang/seven-languages-in-seven-weeks). Of course, you won't be fluent in each language after a week of study, but it does seem to provide an approachable, practitioner-oriented multi-paradigm perspective. When you do grok another paradigm, it's truly a Zen moment; going from imperative to functional programming made me see the world of computing in an entirely new light. Happy learning!	1) Prolog: It's completely different to all the imperative languages you've been using so far, and it will change the way you think about problems 2) Lisp: without it, you might as well be using Vi 3) Erlang: Again, it's completely different, also, it seems quite fashionable. 4) Something from the Turing Tarpit (e.g. Brainfuck), and probably write a compiler or interpreter for it: I can't think of a reason to do this, but it feels like a good idea.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	Make it interesting and spend each year writing an interpreter or compiler for your own programming language that fills up a niche you've never used a programming language for. Each year, write your next compiler/interpreter using the language you wrote the previous year.	Besides the ones you listed, Haskell, F#, Clojure, OCaml, Lua, Go, D, Erlang, Objective C.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	* Go (new system level programming language with good support for concurrency and concepts not so traditional) * Lua (scripting language simple, expressive, extremely flexible and balanced paradigms imperative, functional and meta programming, allowing OOP) * D (C/C++ done right) * Groovy (Expressiveness and meta programming in Java world) * Eiffel (Design By Contract and a different approach to OOP) * Prolog (THE logic programming language)	While I agree it is good to learn new languages (and even imperative through a long career), I think one a year is too much past the first five-ten years. What I would rather see is someone with this level of experience learning new things about the languages they already know. At some point you need depth as well as breadth of knowledge. So you can write an If construct in 12 languages, big whoop. I'd rather see someone who really digs in and become expert in at least one thing. And then the next few years become an expert at something else. Over a 30+year career, I want someone to have depth of knowledge not just the basics in a lot of things.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	Make it interesting and spend each year writing an interpreter or compiler for your own programming language that fills up a niche you've never used a programming language for. Each year, write your next compiler/interpreter using the language you wrote the previous year.	While I agree it is good to learn new languages (and even imperative through a long career), I think one a year is too much past the first five-ten years. What I would rather see is someone with this level of experience learning new things about the languages they already know. At some point you need depth as well as breadth of knowledge. So you can write an If construct in 12 languages, big whoop. I'd rather see someone who really digs in and become expert in at least one thing. And then the next few years become an expert at something else. Over a 30+year career, I want someone to have depth of knowledge not just the basics in a lot of things.
1,719	In chapter one of ["The Pragmatic Programmer"](http://www.informit.com/store/product.aspx?isbn=0132100673) the first learning goal is: > > Learn at least one new language every year. Different languages solve the same problems in different ways. By learning several different approaches, you can help broaden your thinking and avoid getter struck in a rut. [...] > > > To achieve this over a career, the list of languages is likely to get quite long (particularly if you do not want to "progress" into management). Clearly the education of a programmer (or whatever form) is going to get you started with a core of commercially useful languages (the usual list from job posting: C, C++, Ruby, Python, JavaScript, C#, Java, VB, ...). Additionally a formal or informal learning programme is likely to have covered functional approaches (via something like Haskell, LISP or an ML derived language) But once a reasonable subset of that list is learned- what's next, and why?	2010/09/09	[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1719", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/542/" ]	A language that doesn't affect the way you think about programming, is not worth knowing. - Alan Perlis As some of the other answers have touched on, if you are learning one new language per year, the why? is to expand your capabilities as a programmer. The how? is by learning languages with distinct paradigms from those of languages you already know, and taking stock of the paradigms you already know determines what language to learn next. What are these paradigms? The advanced book [Concepts, Techniques, and Models of Computer Programming](http://www.info.ucl.ac.be/~pvr/book.html) provides an excellent [overview with a graphical map](http://www.info.ucl.ac.be/~pvr/paradigms.html). Thus, if you only know C-like imperative languages, then learning Scheme/Lisp is extremely useful. If you already know imperative and functional languages, then learning Prolog will be useful, etc. A recent book that tries to teach multiple languages and paradigms is [Seven Languages in Seven Weeks](http://pragprog.com/titles/btlang/seven-languages-in-seven-weeks). Of course, you won't be fluent in each language after a week of study, but it does seem to provide an approachable, practitioner-oriented multi-paradigm perspective. When you do grok another paradigm, it's truly a Zen moment; going from imperative to functional programming made me see the world of computing in an entirely new light. Happy learning!	* Go (new system level programming language with good support for concurrency and concepts not so traditional) * Lua (scripting language simple, expressive, extremely flexible and balanced paradigms imperative, functional and meta programming, allowing OOP) * D (C/C++ done right) * Groovy (Expressiveness and meta programming in Java world) * Eiffel (Design By Contract and a different approach to OOP) * Prolog (THE logic programming language)
2,854	I know we can download and manually install apps from the Store via SD card. But I want to know if a can install this app manually downloaded from Store in devices with no SD card slot. Before anyone asks, sometimes I want to install apps in my daughter's phone but we don't have WiFi available. Download many games would be cost impeditive via 3G so I can previously download them in WiFi.	2013/12/22	[ "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/2854", "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com", "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/60/" ]	It's only possible to install apps on a Windows Phone via... 1. [The Store app on the phone](http://www.windowsphone.com/en-IE/how-to/wp8/apps/get-apps-from-the-store) 2. [Install apps from the SD card](http://www.windowsphone.com/en-gb/how-to/wp8/apps/how-do-i-install-apps-from-an-sd-card) (not an option on the Lumia 920, for example) 3. [Deploying apps with the Application Deployment tool](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windowsphone/develop/ff402565%28v=vs.105%29.aspx#BKMK_tool) (Only works with XAPs build with Visual Studio, [not with XAPs from the Windows Phone Store](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/wpapps/en-US/77861698-e446-4d8c-86ef-24d407590345/all-xap-files-invalid?forum=wptools)) And thanks to a comment from Max Vernon, we know that the following methods do NOT work... 1. Trying to install the XAP via the Email app 2. Launching the XAP from a 3rd party app such as SkyDrive 3. Installing a XAP file via a website link (Even the Microsoft Store XAP link)	Pretty sure you can sign up for Windows Phone App Studio (<http://apps.windowsstore.com/>) for free and that gives you certain developer privileges. If App Studio allows you to developer unlock your phone you might be able to use the Application Deployment Tool as mentioned by Neil Turner. You'll need Windows 8 to install the Windows Phone SDK.
2,854	I know we can download and manually install apps from the Store via SD card. But I want to know if a can install this app manually downloaded from Store in devices with no SD card slot. Before anyone asks, sometimes I want to install apps in my daughter's phone but we don't have WiFi available. Download many games would be cost impeditive via 3G so I can previously download them in WiFi.	2013/12/22	[ "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/2854", "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com", "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/60/" ]	Yeh, It is possible with the new Windows Phone 8.1 update. For that, copy the .xap files using Bluetooth or USB to your phone from the PC. Then open Store on the Phone, tap the app bar at the bottom (...), select the "install local apps" option and install the apps shown in the list that you actually stored somewhere on the phone. This is working on my Nokia Lumia 630. PS: If you can't see that option try for an update of the Store app from "settings" option. ![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/p875y.png) Edit: You need an active internet connection to do this. Store will check whether new update is available for the selected apps. Also if the app is removed from the store you cannot install it using this method.	It's only possible to install apps on a Windows Phone via... 1. [The Store app on the phone](http://www.windowsphone.com/en-IE/how-to/wp8/apps/get-apps-from-the-store) 2. [Install apps from the SD card](http://www.windowsphone.com/en-gb/how-to/wp8/apps/how-do-i-install-apps-from-an-sd-card) (not an option on the Lumia 920, for example) 3. [Deploying apps with the Application Deployment tool](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windowsphone/develop/ff402565%28v=vs.105%29.aspx#BKMK_tool) (Only works with XAPs build with Visual Studio, [not with XAPs from the Windows Phone Store](http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/wpapps/en-US/77861698-e446-4d8c-86ef-24d407590345/all-xap-files-invalid?forum=wptools)) And thanks to a comment from Max Vernon, we know that the following methods do NOT work... 1. Trying to install the XAP via the Email app 2. Launching the XAP from a 3rd party app such as SkyDrive 3. Installing a XAP file via a website link (Even the Microsoft Store XAP link)
2,854	I know we can download and manually install apps from the Store via SD card. But I want to know if a can install this app manually downloaded from Store in devices with no SD card slot. Before anyone asks, sometimes I want to install apps in my daughter's phone but we don't have WiFi available. Download many games would be cost impeditive via 3G so I can previously download them in WiFi.	2013/12/22	[ "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/2854", "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com", "https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/60/" ]	Yeh, It is possible with the new Windows Phone 8.1 update. For that, copy the .xap files using Bluetooth or USB to your phone from the PC. Then open Store on the Phone, tap the app bar at the bottom (...), select the "install local apps" option and install the apps shown in the list that you actually stored somewhere on the phone. This is working on my Nokia Lumia 630. PS: If you can't see that option try for an update of the Store app from "settings" option. ![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/p875y.png) Edit: You need an active internet connection to do this. Store will check whether new update is available for the selected apps. Also if the app is removed from the store you cannot install it using this method.	Pretty sure you can sign up for Windows Phone App Studio (<http://apps.windowsstore.com/>) for free and that gives you certain developer privileges. If App Studio allows you to developer unlock your phone you might be able to use the Application Deployment Tool as mentioned by Neil Turner. You'll need Windows 8 to install the Windows Phone SDK.
166,788	I noticed that a whip when used creates a sonic boom. The definition of a musical instrument is as follows (from [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Musical_instrument)): > > A musical instrument is a device created or adapted to make musical sounds. In principle, any object that produces sound can be considered a musical instrument—it is through purpose that the object becomes a musical instrument. > > > Under performance (PHB, page 179) it reads: > > Your Charisma (Performance) check determines how well you can delight an audience with music, dance, acting, storytelling, or some other form of entertainment. > > > Because of this, I was wondering if I could do something akin to a bladedancer with whips for dancing and use my charisma modifier to attack as my character danced around the battlefield. As far as I know, that's not an option in 5e (at least not with officially available material, but material allowed under Unearthed Arcana would work). If an altered bladedancer is not an option, I was thinking maybe bard/ranger (bard 1st) with war caster feat and dual wielding. Would this work?	2020/03/25	[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/166788", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23099/" ]	You can't use a performance check for an attack =============================================== [Attacks](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/combat#MakinganAttack) in 5e are an entirely separate mechanic from [ability checks](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/using-ability-scores#AbilityChecks). The weapons define what ability is scored is used, and are generally are based off of STR or DEX. However, some classes do allow you to use different ability scores for your attack rolls. Some examples of this are the Warlock (hexblade), which allow you to use Charisma, or spells like shillelagh which allow you to use your spellcasting modifier. Picking one of those options that mechanically allow this will provide you the ability to narrate your attack how you'd like. Performance while attacking --------------------------- The above being said, you can describe how you're attacking however you'd like. And a DM could ask for an ability check of any variety they would like that they think fits your narration. It's unlikely to have any impact on the attack itself, but it will change your how you narrate your attack.	You can use the whip as an instrument, but not with your attack bonus --------------------------------------------------------------------- As [NautArch's answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/166788/is-it-possible-to-use-a-whip-as-an-instrument-because-it-creates-a-sonic-boom/166789#166789) elaborates, making a performance and attacking are two entirely different things, and use two different rules mechanics. Your attack proficiency with a weapon is about making an attack, as per page 193f, PHB: > > Whether you’re striking with a melee weapon, firing a weapon at range, or making an attack roll as part of a spell, an attack has a simple structure. 1. Choose a target (...) > > > You choose a target, apply modifiers make an attack roll, and deal damage (and with some attacks, special effects). This process is what you are proficient with. It has nothing to do with artfully creating sounds to entertain, and therefore you will not be able to use your attack bonus for that purpose. You could argue that gladiatorial games, where you are actually fighting against another creature to entertain the audience, could be seen as a performance. How this would be handled however would be up to your DM, there are no specific rules for it. He might demand a separate Charisma (Performance) check to see if you not only fight effectively but also entertainingly, or he might choose another way to resolve this. ### Musical performance with a whip There is real-world precedent for people using all kinds of objects to create sound and entertain, from the [Blue Man Group](https://www.blueman.com/) using tubes, to [people actually using dual wielded whips](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QquXdrDcX7I). This is entirely different from attacking, it is using the same object, a whip, in a very different way, as a musical instrument. With 5e's game mechanics, using the whip in this way would require a Tools Proficiency (page 154, PHB) in Musical Instrument (Whip). It would have nothing to do with your attack proficiency bonus. > > If you have proficiency with a given musical instrument, you can add your proficiency bonus to any ability checks you make to play music with the > instrument. > > > That means, if you were making a Charisma (Performance) check to entertain your audience with the whip's sounds, you then would be able to add your proficiency bonus to the check. ### Approximating a blade dancer in 5e It appears your main objective is not to entertain an audience using a whip, but to play a "bladedancer" character concept. The game has several options for this * The Warlock (Hexblade) from Xanathar's Guide to Everything. This directly allows you to use your Charisma bonus for weapon attacks with a weaopon of your choice (which could be a whip), although not with a second-hand weapon for dual wielding. * The Wizard (Bladesinger) from Tasha's Cauldron of Everyting, starting at second level. "Bladesingers master a tradition of wizardry that incorporates swordplay and dance." This will give you proficiency with a one-handed melee weapon of choice (which could be a whip), light armor and a Performance skill proficiency, and allow you to enter Bladesong, for an array of melee combat releated benefits. * The Rogue (Swashbuckler) from Xanathar's Guide to Everything, starting at third level. While it does not allow substituting Charisma for Dexterity in attacks, it states "your method of fighting look s almost like a performance.", and allows adding your Charisma bonus to initiative, and later on to beguile your opponents with the Panache feature. * Multiclassing builds: your suggestion of combining a bard and ranger, with war caster and dual wielding would be able express your character idea, of a dual-wielding character that is able to perform; you would however not be able to apply your Charisma bonus to your weapon attacks. If you just want the performance ability, the Entertainer background, combined with any character class that can use whips would work, too.
47,404	I used ITunes to download to my new IPad3 a variety of songs and albums I had already purchased. However, in some cases, I have two copies of every song. When I play an album with the "Music" app, I can see two copies of each song - and yes it plays both copies as it moves forward. I've seen instructions online of [how to get rid of ITunes duplicates on a PC](http://garagesalepreview.com/how-to-find-and-remove-duplicate-songs-in-itunes/). But I'm dealing with my IPad3, not a PC.	2012/04/02	[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/47404", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/21083/" ]	In the "gif settings" box there's a value for "frame delay" which defaults at 100. This is the time in milliseconds between each frame. The small it is, the faster the gif will animate. Frame delay of 100 is 10 frames per second. If you have 30 frames per second, use 33 as the frame delay. If you have 15 frames per second, use 67 as the frame delay. Or just change the "frame delay" value until it looks right - smaller for faster speed, bigger for slower speed. There's a pretty good overview of how to use the app in this article: <http://www.macworld.com/article/1164864/how_to_create_an_animated_gif_from_a_video_clip.html> Also note that the preview inside the app is limited to 10 frames per second or slower - if it looks slow inside the app, test it out in a real browser.	[GifRocket](http://www.gifrocket.com/) creates a gif in the proper speed. The problem is that it doesn't have any configuration to change speed, but you could use [Adapter](http://www.macroplant.com/adapter/) and convert a video with the configuration you want and then convert it to `.gif` using GifRocket. Best thing is that both apps are free.
270,523	Can any one tell me how to convert an legacy application which is vb6 ( COM dll's ocx and exes) to use Regfree COM . I tried opening the dlls in visual studio and created manifest file, but some of the dlls it is giving error. Is there any tools out there which will help me to do this process? I tried a tool from codeproject which is called regsvr42, which is not creating the manifest fully. I used tools like PE explorer where I get all the typelib information , but converting them into manifest files is too difficult. We have started migrating that to .NET, for some months we have to deploy it, it will easier if it is xcopy based deployment.	2008/11/06	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/270523", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/32670/" ]	To create manifest files you can try to use Make My Manifest from <http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/>. EDIT The MMM website is down. I see [here](http://web.archive.org/web/20140829021337/http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) that the author was having trouble with their hosting and has provided another location to get Make My Manifest - [download it here](https://app.box.com/s/yvm0wk95e1lachm7juf5). If you can control creation of objects you can use DirectCOM from <http://www.thecommon.net/10.html> Keep in mind that if one of used DLLs or OCXs is creating other COM objects dynamically with CreateObject calls, that reference will not be stored in vbp project file and you won't get full manifest file. Probably you will have to catch object creations while the application is running. Depends.exe application can profile running application and report all used dlls. I don't know if there is tool that can find additional COM related information.	Make My Manifest can accomodate late binding as well as early binding. You simply have to add the references to the late-bound dependencies manually, by file location or by ProgId. You might look at <http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/mmm-demo-1248.html> for additional help in using the utility.
270,523	Can any one tell me how to convert an legacy application which is vb6 ( COM dll's ocx and exes) to use Regfree COM . I tried opening the dlls in visual studio and created manifest file, but some of the dlls it is giving error. Is there any tools out there which will help me to do this process? I tried a tool from codeproject which is called regsvr42, which is not creating the manifest fully. I used tools like PE explorer where I get all the typelib information , but converting them into manifest files is too difficult. We have started migrating that to .NET, for some months we have to deploy it, it will easier if it is xcopy based deployment.	2008/11/06	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/270523", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/32670/" ]	To create manifest files you can try to use Make My Manifest from <http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/>. EDIT The MMM website is down. I see [here](http://web.archive.org/web/20140829021337/http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) that the author was having trouble with their hosting and has provided another location to get Make My Manifest - [download it here](https://app.box.com/s/yvm0wk95e1lachm7juf5). If you can control creation of objects you can use DirectCOM from <http://www.thecommon.net/10.html> Keep in mind that if one of used DLLs or OCXs is creating other COM objects dynamically with CreateObject calls, that reference will not be stored in vbp project file and you won't get full manifest file. Probably you will have to catch object creations while the application is running. Depends.exe application can profile running application and report all used dlls. I don't know if there is tool that can find additional COM related information.	There is an excellent walkthrough of what to do in this article on MSDN: [Registration-Free Activation of COM Components: A Walkthrough](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms973913.aspx).
270,523	Can any one tell me how to convert an legacy application which is vb6 ( COM dll's ocx and exes) to use Regfree COM . I tried opening the dlls in visual studio and created manifest file, but some of the dlls it is giving error. Is there any tools out there which will help me to do this process? I tried a tool from codeproject which is called regsvr42, which is not creating the manifest fully. I used tools like PE explorer where I get all the typelib information , but converting them into manifest files is too difficult. We have started migrating that to .NET, for some months we have to deploy it, it will easier if it is xcopy based deployment.	2008/11/06	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/270523", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/32670/" ]	To create manifest files you can try to use Make My Manifest from <http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/>. EDIT The MMM website is down. I see [here](http://web.archive.org/web/20140829021337/http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) that the author was having trouble with their hosting and has provided another location to get Make My Manifest - [download it here](https://app.box.com/s/yvm0wk95e1lachm7juf5). If you can control creation of objects you can use DirectCOM from <http://www.thecommon.net/10.html> Keep in mind that if one of used DLLs or OCXs is creating other COM objects dynamically with CreateObject calls, that reference will not be stored in vbp project file and you won't get full manifest file. Probably you will have to catch object creations while the application is running. Depends.exe application can profile running application and report all used dlls. I don't know if there is tool that can find additional COM related information.	[MakeMyManifest](http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) is well spoken of as an automatic tool for creating manifests for VB6 projects, haven't tried it myself. [DirectCOM](http://www.thecommon.net/10.html) also has fans, again I haven't tried it. EDIT The MMM website is down. I see [here](http://web.archive.org/web/20140829021337/http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) that the author was having trouble with their hosting and has provided another location to get Make My Manifest - [download it here](https://app.box.com/s/yvm0wk95e1lachm7juf5). There is a semi-automatic technique. You can create the manifests with Visual Studio 2008 (you can use a free version like Visual Basic Express Edition). Then make a couple of edits by hand to make the manifests suitable for use from VB6. See [this section](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa697429(VS.80).aspx#atupvb6ap2_topic4) of this MSDN article for step-by-step instructions - ignore the rest of the article which is about ClickOnce.
270,523	Can any one tell me how to convert an legacy application which is vb6 ( COM dll's ocx and exes) to use Regfree COM . I tried opening the dlls in visual studio and created manifest file, but some of the dlls it is giving error. Is there any tools out there which will help me to do this process? I tried a tool from codeproject which is called regsvr42, which is not creating the manifest fully. I used tools like PE explorer where I get all the typelib information , but converting them into manifest files is too difficult. We have started migrating that to .NET, for some months we have to deploy it, it will easier if it is xcopy based deployment.	2008/11/06	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/270523", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/32670/" ]	There is an excellent walkthrough of what to do in this article on MSDN: [Registration-Free Activation of COM Components: A Walkthrough](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms973913.aspx).	Make My Manifest can accomodate late binding as well as early binding. You simply have to add the references to the late-bound dependencies manually, by file location or by ProgId. You might look at <http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/mmm-demo-1248.html> for additional help in using the utility.
270,523	Can any one tell me how to convert an legacy application which is vb6 ( COM dll's ocx and exes) to use Regfree COM . I tried opening the dlls in visual studio and created manifest file, but some of the dlls it is giving error. Is there any tools out there which will help me to do this process? I tried a tool from codeproject which is called regsvr42, which is not creating the manifest fully. I used tools like PE explorer where I get all the typelib information , but converting them into manifest files is too difficult. We have started migrating that to .NET, for some months we have to deploy it, it will easier if it is xcopy based deployment.	2008/11/06	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/270523", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/32670/" ]	There is an excellent walkthrough of what to do in this article on MSDN: [Registration-Free Activation of COM Components: A Walkthrough](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms973913.aspx).	[MakeMyManifest](http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) is well spoken of as an automatic tool for creating manifests for VB6 projects, haven't tried it myself. [DirectCOM](http://www.thecommon.net/10.html) also has fans, again I haven't tried it. EDIT The MMM website is down. I see [here](http://web.archive.org/web/20140829021337/http://mmm4vb6.atom5.com/) that the author was having trouble with their hosting and has provided another location to get Make My Manifest - [download it here](https://app.box.com/s/yvm0wk95e1lachm7juf5). There is a semi-automatic technique. You can create the manifests with Visual Studio 2008 (you can use a free version like Visual Basic Express Edition). Then make a couple of edits by hand to make the manifests suitable for use from VB6. See [this section](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa697429(VS.80).aspx#atupvb6ap2_topic4) of this MSDN article for step-by-step instructions - ignore the rest of the article which is about ClickOnce.
1,354	We've got a couple of [app]s out there for various iProducts: * [GeeQe](https://stackapps.com/questions/1096/geeqe-native-stack-overflow-client) * [StackUp](https://stackapps.com/questions/1261/stack-up-for-ios-1-0-1) * [Six to Eight](https://stackapps.com/questions/623/six-to-eight-an-iphone-client-now-in-the-app-store) But searching for "Stack Overflow" or "Stack Exchange" only finds StackUp (of the above) in the AppStore\. This is, suboptimal, to say the least. All [three](http://itunes.apple.com/us/app/six-to-eight/id384094708?mt=8) [AppStore](http://itunes.apple.com/us/app/geeqe/id330493203?mt=8) [pages](http://itunes.apple.com/app/stack-up/id383709484) mention one of those search terms, which begs the question as to why they aren't all returned in a search? What steps could these developers take to resolve this? --- To be clear, while we've implied this in the past... It's 100% OK to use the Stack Overflow, Stack Exchange, and related names as keywords (or similar) when publicizing [app]s* You just can't imply that the [app]s are official, first-party, or similar. \*As of August 10th, 2010	2010/08/11	[ "https://stackapps.com/questions/1354", "https://stackapps.com", "https://stackapps.com/users/2/" ]	If you have one of these apps, YOU MUST MUST MUST mention it in the keywords section in iTunes Connect. Apple doesn't give you a lot of room (100 char. I believe), but it's important that you mention SO and SE, since without them you wouldn't have the app, so if you have room, include them, if you don't, get rid of something, whether it be your company name, or your name, or even unrelated terms that you used to possibly get more hits. If you didn't include them, just submit some bogus update citing bug fixes or something so you can change them, since you can't change them without submitting an update.	As others hae said, searches only currently work on keywords, and keywords are a rocky area in the App Store. The keyword guidance states: > > "The most common rejections are for keywords which are offensive, objectionable words or phrases; using trademarks, company or product names" > > > The SOF trademark page states > > "The Stack Overflow and Stack Exchange name and logos are trademarks of Stack Overflow Inc. The names and logos for sites and products operating on the Stack Exchange network are also trademarks of Stack Overflow Inc." > > > Now, it also says it's generally OK to use the name, but don't explicitly say "You can use the names in advertising" (though I'm sure that's what was meant, as long as it doesn't appear to be an endorsement). As we know, the App Store reviewers are not very nuanced and I really didn't want a rejection fight or post-release pull off for Six to Eight v1.0, so I was quite conservative (this also explains the 17+ age rating). They're also not consistent, so the fact that other apps already used them is no defence in their eyes. I've a version with a few minor bug fixes coming, and I plan to use that to drop the age rating, add the keywords and have any arguments that might result. They're sometimes easier on updates, and I can give more explanation in my review notes to explain (there was limited space left for 1.0).
40,215,325	I am working under linux, it seems to me that the effect of "-g" and "-ggdb" are no much difference. I only find using "-ggdb" will generate binary several bytes bigger. So what's the core difference that gdb should have one "-g" option and another "-ggdb" option?	2016/10/24	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40215325", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5890784/" ]	The compiled program should be stored at some where, for the debuggers (GDB here) to look into it and follow. This is technically called as "Debugging data format". Some universaslly accepted debugging data formats are (there are some more): COFF - Common Object File Format - on UNIX like systems. PE/COFF - Portable Executable - pretty famous on windows, usually dotnet uses it. DWARF - popular on UNIX like systems. etc.. The GDB options you asked in your question are related to generating these debugging data formats. Based on documenation the funcdamental difference is: option "g" provides the debugging data in particular system's native format. option "-ggdb" is bit rich and expensive. provides the debugging data in most expressive format available.	I recommend you to read this [documentation](https://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Debugging-Options.html#Debugging-Options), and this [topic](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/668962/what-is-the-difference-between-gcc-ggdb-and-gcc-g).
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	### Plants With five hours of indirect sunlight (dusk/dawn), there are few plants that would survive long-term. Many plants (including most food crops) depend on photosynthesis. Thus, your people probably aren't going to be eating a lot of home-grown wheat bread. However, there are a lot of edible plants, roots, and herbs that will grow in low light levels. Animals will be similarly challenged. They either eat plants, or they eat other animals that eat plants. In other words, animals would have a tough time, too, if they are confined to the dark area. ### Weather Without direct sunlight, if the region is small, its weather will be dominated by warm air (and possibly water) currents from outside regions. If the region is very large, it could get quite cold indeed. If that's the case, the cold temperatures will obviously present additional challenges to plant and animal survival. ### What about humans? Since your humans named something "Ghafir's Spear", I'm assuming they have at least discovered basic tool-making (spears). Such humans would probably have good survival prospects, and would develop the skills to adapt to a dark environment reasonably well. That would probably include "importing" food from beyond the dark border and/or cultivating low-light crops and animal herds. On a physiological level, humans can survive in the dark just fine, as long as we have food, clean water, and can stay warm (in other words, the same requirements in sunlight!). Importantly, the same is true for many animals. The reason animals would die off would be because they lose access to food sources (or perhaps if the weather is too cold—see above). If the animals can roam into "light" areas to hunt or graze or have help from the humans, most animal species could survive indefinitely, in spite of the dark. Given the choice, however, many animal species might migrate to areas with sunlight because the hunting/grazing is better there. ### Vitamin D deficiency Exposure to sunlight (specifically, UV-B radiation) on our skin actually causes our body to produce [Vitamin D](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitamin_D), which has beneficial effects. Your humans (and possibly some animal species) might experience some Vit-D-deficiency-related health problems, such as suppressed immune systems, depression, and bone diseases. However, they might find other (dietary) sources of vitamin D (even by accident), and the limited sunlight they get might be enough to produce sufficient vitamin D if they spent enough time outdoors. ### What if the humans venture into the sunlight? It depends how long they have been in the dark, but probably not much would happen to them. They might be dazzled by the sunlight, although indirect strong daylight isn't that much different than looking into the flames of a bright campfire. If an entire society has been isolated in the dark for many, many generations (I can't even guess at a reasonable number) with no outside genetic contribution, their eyes and skin (melanin) might have adapted somewhat—they'd likely be rather pale-skinned—but that would take quite some time, and exposure to sunlight still wouldn't be very harmful. At most they might suffer some temporary/partial blindness and a nasty sunburn if they don't take precautions. If they shield their eyes, wear long sleeves, and a wide-brimmed hat, they'll probably be fine. ### Is such a place scientifically feasible? As you describe it, no, not really. The closest we have on Earth: as you get nearer the poles on Earth, there will be days of the year where the sun never rises. However, it is necessarily the case that in the summer, the sun never sets. I'll discuss some other options: If you had a planet that was [tidally locked](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tidal_locking) with its star, there would be a dark side (night 100% of the time, almost certainly very cold), a light side (day 100% of the time, and probably very hot), and a middle zone that remains partially lit and warm-ish. However, I don't think that fits what you want, because the planet wouldn't have "days" in the conventional sense of sunrise/sunset at all, and your semi-dark "region" would be a geodesic ring around the entire planet. You then asked about a perpetually "misty" region. While I don't have a good answer for you on how that might (realistically) be achieved, there are a number of ways you could have a "dark" region: * Underground. Pretty obvious, so it's probable you've already thought of this and discarded it for some reason. * Heavily forested. The advantage here is that it solves the plant/animal problem as there are many species adapted to live under the canopies of dense forests. * Magic. You did list a "magic" tag, so your last resort is perhaps some powerful wizard (or whoever wears the magical pants in your story) who throws a spell/curse/etc. on the entire region, condemning the inhabitants to live in misty, shrouded darkness for 19 hours of the day.	To deal with a linguistic point first, you can't have anywhere with 2.5 hours of daylight but no noon, since noon is simply the middle of the period of daylight. Kiruna in Sweden right now has 2.5 hours of daylight and probably a similar period of dusk, because it's close to the Arctic Circle and it's midwinter And there's life in Kiruna. The short period of daylight won't last long, of course. But if your planet has a similar axial tilt to the Earth but circles a very large star at a very large distance, it could have a much longer year so that the far north has an extended period of little daylight (or no daylight, within the Arctic Circle). Life would evolve to cope with it. Try reading the [Helliconia trilogy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Helliconia) by Brian Aldiss, which is set on a world like this. You do have a problem. Very large stars have a very short life, not long enough for complex life to evolve on their planets.
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	I agree with [type\_outcast's answer](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/32964/16729) although I think there are some points missed... Bioluminescence is commonly associated with dark deep sea, serving many purposes aside from simple illumination - such as communication for instance. Yet it is not unique of the sea^1, since there are fungi, insects, [arachnids](http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/shared/spl/hi/pop_ups/07/sci_nat_enl_1175631258/html/1.stm) and a few others small animals capable of bioluminescence - being fireflies probably the best well known example. ^1: various types of bateria, algae, fish, jellyfish, crustaceans, cephalopods, etc... have bioluminescence. The ability to produce its own light would - obviously - be useful in a place of perpetual darkness - it makes it easy to find what to eat, and equally important it may play a role in mate selection. There is a catch to that! if you use your light to attract your sexual partner, you are attracting predators too. I would expect this strategy to be only used by small animals that produce many offspring that overcompensate for the losses that naturally happen during their mating season - which I would expect has a low frequency, enough for no predator to sustain only from eating them. On the other hand bioluminescence requires energy, and food is scarse, so while you should be able to find some examples in the dark regions... they wouldn't be the rule. --- Without sight, hunting wont be the task of fast predators that run behind a pack of herbivores. Instead other senses would develop to be more useful in darkness. And hunting tactics will have to adapt. For instance acute olfactory organs are used by animals that expend most of their lifes underground - with little sunlight. If tracking by smell is a good idea, rapine comes with it. Chemical tactics are also very effective, such as poisoning a victim, and track it while the poison takes effect and kills it... or a swarm of small animals may resource to inducing high pain and paralysis while they devour the victim alive. Prey animals may try to use fast discharges of fluid - cough urine cough - as defence mechanism when cornered. --- Another strategy of life in the dark is Echolocation, which is mostly known by bats - which is where it was discovered. Yet has been found in various other species such as the [Tenrecs rats from Madagascar](http://afrotheria.net/tenrecs/). Your dark regions can't trope be complete without them. --- We may also extend on the topic of animal eyes. The eyes of nocture animals may be bigger to allow more light in, would have relatively more rods in the retina allowing to differentiate smaller changes in illumination - in expense of cones, meaning that they have less color perception. Also a very common adaptation is the lucidum that used to reflect light internally in the eye to allow for a greater exposure - and also causes [laser eyed cats](http://theverybesttop10.com/images-of-laser-eyed-cats/). --- Another imporant topic is the Circadian rhythm if you still have a few hours of dusk/dawn it [not really a problem for animals](http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1081/CBI-120021443?journalCode=icbi20). Still it is a problem for [plants that adapt their metabolism for day and night](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circadian_rhythm#/media/File:TOC1_interactions.jpg) - that puts a cap on plant growth. And also in lack of seasonal changes there wouldn't be trigger for bloom. [Moss](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moss), [Ferns](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fern) and others flowerless plants and known to be able to grow with minimal light can still thrive there. Aside from that, there are saprotrophic, mycoheterotrophic and parasitic plants that don't need light to grow - [Monotropa uniflora](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotropa_uniflora) comes to mind. Regarding humans, when living underground - with aritifial light - people just sleeps whenever they feel like it, regardless of the daytime of which they are unaware of. People may still sync their sleep and eating patterns within small groups for social reasons. --- The problem with dietary sources of Vitamin D is that whatever you eat to get Vitamin D has to get Vitamin D from somewhere. For that I want to suggest [Lichen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lichen) which takes minerals from the rock on which it grows and is the main source of Vitamin D (if you want to go vegan, that is). Finally, ragarding food sources for humans, Tubers are probably the best option for cultivation - with the help of some [artificial light](http://spinoff.nasa.gov/Spinoff2010/cg_1.html). [Or use "magic"](http://gizmodo.com/5911185/scientists-invent-grow-in-the-dark-plants). Also chances are you can invent some interesting fish adapted to darkness but not the high preasures of deep sea. Insects and small mammals would also be on the plate. [Glow-in-the-dark rabbits](http://www.theguardian.com/world/2013/aug/13/glow-in-dark-rabbits-scientists) anyone?	To deal with a linguistic point first, you can't have anywhere with 2.5 hours of daylight but no noon, since noon is simply the middle of the period of daylight. Kiruna in Sweden right now has 2.5 hours of daylight and probably a similar period of dusk, because it's close to the Arctic Circle and it's midwinter And there's life in Kiruna. The short period of daylight won't last long, of course. But if your planet has a similar axial tilt to the Earth but circles a very large star at a very large distance, it could have a much longer year so that the far north has an extended period of little daylight (or no daylight, within the Arctic Circle). Life would evolve to cope with it. Try reading the [Helliconia trilogy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Helliconia) by Brian Aldiss, which is set on a world like this. You do have a problem. Very large stars have a very short life, not long enough for complex life to evolve on their planets.
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	The thing that sunlight provides for life is energy, so that plants can conduct photosynthesis, and the entire ecosystem is built on that. If you had something other than the sun that could provide the energy that the plants need for photosynthesis, you could have a normal ecosystem there. In a fictional universe I created a long time ago, I had this one planet that had no access to external light(no sun, stars, moon, or anything else). The energy came from a material that was underground on the planet, which was tapped into by a plant-like species which lived off of it. Other creatures would then eat those creatures to survive.	To deal with a linguistic point first, you can't have anywhere with 2.5 hours of daylight but no noon, since noon is simply the middle of the period of daylight. Kiruna in Sweden right now has 2.5 hours of daylight and probably a similar period of dusk, because it's close to the Arctic Circle and it's midwinter And there's life in Kiruna. The short period of daylight won't last long, of course. But if your planet has a similar axial tilt to the Earth but circles a very large star at a very large distance, it could have a much longer year so that the far north has an extended period of little daylight (or no daylight, within the Arctic Circle). Life would evolve to cope with it. Try reading the [Helliconia trilogy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Helliconia) by Brian Aldiss, which is set on a world like this. You do have a problem. Very large stars have a very short life, not long enough for complex life to evolve on their planets.
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	### Plants With five hours of indirect sunlight (dusk/dawn), there are few plants that would survive long-term. Many plants (including most food crops) depend on photosynthesis. Thus, your people probably aren't going to be eating a lot of home-grown wheat bread. However, there are a lot of edible plants, roots, and herbs that will grow in low light levels. Animals will be similarly challenged. They either eat plants, or they eat other animals that eat plants. In other words, animals would have a tough time, too, if they are confined to the dark area. ### Weather Without direct sunlight, if the region is small, its weather will be dominated by warm air (and possibly water) currents from outside regions. If the region is very large, it could get quite cold indeed. If that's the case, the cold temperatures will obviously present additional challenges to plant and animal survival. ### What about humans? Since your humans named something "Ghafir's Spear", I'm assuming they have at least discovered basic tool-making (spears). Such humans would probably have good survival prospects, and would develop the skills to adapt to a dark environment reasonably well. That would probably include "importing" food from beyond the dark border and/or cultivating low-light crops and animal herds. On a physiological level, humans can survive in the dark just fine, as long as we have food, clean water, and can stay warm (in other words, the same requirements in sunlight!). Importantly, the same is true for many animals. The reason animals would die off would be because they lose access to food sources (or perhaps if the weather is too cold—see above). If the animals can roam into "light" areas to hunt or graze or have help from the humans, most animal species could survive indefinitely, in spite of the dark. Given the choice, however, many animal species might migrate to areas with sunlight because the hunting/grazing is better there. ### Vitamin D deficiency Exposure to sunlight (specifically, UV-B radiation) on our skin actually causes our body to produce [Vitamin D](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitamin_D), which has beneficial effects. Your humans (and possibly some animal species) might experience some Vit-D-deficiency-related health problems, such as suppressed immune systems, depression, and bone diseases. However, they might find other (dietary) sources of vitamin D (even by accident), and the limited sunlight they get might be enough to produce sufficient vitamin D if they spent enough time outdoors. ### What if the humans venture into the sunlight? It depends how long they have been in the dark, but probably not much would happen to them. They might be dazzled by the sunlight, although indirect strong daylight isn't that much different than looking into the flames of a bright campfire. If an entire society has been isolated in the dark for many, many generations (I can't even guess at a reasonable number) with no outside genetic contribution, their eyes and skin (melanin) might have adapted somewhat—they'd likely be rather pale-skinned—but that would take quite some time, and exposure to sunlight still wouldn't be very harmful. At most they might suffer some temporary/partial blindness and a nasty sunburn if they don't take precautions. If they shield their eyes, wear long sleeves, and a wide-brimmed hat, they'll probably be fine. ### Is such a place scientifically feasible? As you describe it, no, not really. The closest we have on Earth: as you get nearer the poles on Earth, there will be days of the year where the sun never rises. However, it is necessarily the case that in the summer, the sun never sets. I'll discuss some other options: If you had a planet that was [tidally locked](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tidal_locking) with its star, there would be a dark side (night 100% of the time, almost certainly very cold), a light side (day 100% of the time, and probably very hot), and a middle zone that remains partially lit and warm-ish. However, I don't think that fits what you want, because the planet wouldn't have "days" in the conventional sense of sunrise/sunset at all, and your semi-dark "region" would be a geodesic ring around the entire planet. You then asked about a perpetually "misty" region. While I don't have a good answer for you on how that might (realistically) be achieved, there are a number of ways you could have a "dark" region: * Underground. Pretty obvious, so it's probable you've already thought of this and discarded it for some reason. * Heavily forested. The advantage here is that it solves the plant/animal problem as there are many species adapted to live under the canopies of dense forests. * Magic. You did list a "magic" tag, so your last resort is perhaps some powerful wizard (or whoever wears the magical pants in your story) who throws a spell/curse/etc. on the entire region, condemning the inhabitants to live in misty, shrouded darkness for 19 hours of the day.	I agree with [type\_outcast's answer](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/32964/16729) although I think there are some points missed... Bioluminescence is commonly associated with dark deep sea, serving many purposes aside from simple illumination - such as communication for instance. Yet it is not unique of the sea^1, since there are fungi, insects, [arachnids](http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/shared/spl/hi/pop_ups/07/sci_nat_enl_1175631258/html/1.stm) and a few others small animals capable of bioluminescence - being fireflies probably the best well known example. ^1: various types of bateria, algae, fish, jellyfish, crustaceans, cephalopods, etc... have bioluminescence. The ability to produce its own light would - obviously - be useful in a place of perpetual darkness - it makes it easy to find what to eat, and equally important it may play a role in mate selection. There is a catch to that! if you use your light to attract your sexual partner, you are attracting predators too. I would expect this strategy to be only used by small animals that produce many offspring that overcompensate for the losses that naturally happen during their mating season - which I would expect has a low frequency, enough for no predator to sustain only from eating them. On the other hand bioluminescence requires energy, and food is scarse, so while you should be able to find some examples in the dark regions... they wouldn't be the rule. --- Without sight, hunting wont be the task of fast predators that run behind a pack of herbivores. Instead other senses would develop to be more useful in darkness. And hunting tactics will have to adapt. For instance acute olfactory organs are used by animals that expend most of their lifes underground - with little sunlight. If tracking by smell is a good idea, rapine comes with it. Chemical tactics are also very effective, such as poisoning a victim, and track it while the poison takes effect and kills it... or a swarm of small animals may resource to inducing high pain and paralysis while they devour the victim alive. Prey animals may try to use fast discharges of fluid - cough urine cough - as defence mechanism when cornered. --- Another strategy of life in the dark is Echolocation, which is mostly known by bats - which is where it was discovered. Yet has been found in various other species such as the [Tenrecs rats from Madagascar](http://afrotheria.net/tenrecs/). Your dark regions can't trope be complete without them. --- We may also extend on the topic of animal eyes. The eyes of nocture animals may be bigger to allow more light in, would have relatively more rods in the retina allowing to differentiate smaller changes in illumination - in expense of cones, meaning that they have less color perception. Also a very common adaptation is the lucidum that used to reflect light internally in the eye to allow for a greater exposure - and also causes [laser eyed cats](http://theverybesttop10.com/images-of-laser-eyed-cats/). --- Another imporant topic is the Circadian rhythm if you still have a few hours of dusk/dawn it [not really a problem for animals](http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1081/CBI-120021443?journalCode=icbi20). Still it is a problem for [plants that adapt their metabolism for day and night](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circadian_rhythm#/media/File:TOC1_interactions.jpg) - that puts a cap on plant growth. And also in lack of seasonal changes there wouldn't be trigger for bloom. [Moss](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moss), [Ferns](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fern) and others flowerless plants and known to be able to grow with minimal light can still thrive there. Aside from that, there are saprotrophic, mycoheterotrophic and parasitic plants that don't need light to grow - [Monotropa uniflora](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotropa_uniflora) comes to mind. Regarding humans, when living underground - with aritifial light - people just sleeps whenever they feel like it, regardless of the daytime of which they are unaware of. People may still sync their sleep and eating patterns within small groups for social reasons. --- The problem with dietary sources of Vitamin D is that whatever you eat to get Vitamin D has to get Vitamin D from somewhere. For that I want to suggest [Lichen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lichen) which takes minerals from the rock on which it grows and is the main source of Vitamin D (if you want to go vegan, that is). Finally, ragarding food sources for humans, Tubers are probably the best option for cultivation - with the help of some [artificial light](http://spinoff.nasa.gov/Spinoff2010/cg_1.html). [Or use "magic"](http://gizmodo.com/5911185/scientists-invent-grow-in-the-dark-plants). Also chances are you can invent some interesting fish adapted to darkness but not the high preasures of deep sea. Insects and small mammals would also be on the plate. [Glow-in-the-dark rabbits](http://www.theguardian.com/world/2013/aug/13/glow-in-dark-rabbits-scientists) anyone?
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	### Plants With five hours of indirect sunlight (dusk/dawn), there are few plants that would survive long-term. Many plants (including most food crops) depend on photosynthesis. Thus, your people probably aren't going to be eating a lot of home-grown wheat bread. However, there are a lot of edible plants, roots, and herbs that will grow in low light levels. Animals will be similarly challenged. They either eat plants, or they eat other animals that eat plants. In other words, animals would have a tough time, too, if they are confined to the dark area. ### Weather Without direct sunlight, if the region is small, its weather will be dominated by warm air (and possibly water) currents from outside regions. If the region is very large, it could get quite cold indeed. If that's the case, the cold temperatures will obviously present additional challenges to plant and animal survival. ### What about humans? Since your humans named something "Ghafir's Spear", I'm assuming they have at least discovered basic tool-making (spears). Such humans would probably have good survival prospects, and would develop the skills to adapt to a dark environment reasonably well. That would probably include "importing" food from beyond the dark border and/or cultivating low-light crops and animal herds. On a physiological level, humans can survive in the dark just fine, as long as we have food, clean water, and can stay warm (in other words, the same requirements in sunlight!). Importantly, the same is true for many animals. The reason animals would die off would be because they lose access to food sources (or perhaps if the weather is too cold—see above). If the animals can roam into "light" areas to hunt or graze or have help from the humans, most animal species could survive indefinitely, in spite of the dark. Given the choice, however, many animal species might migrate to areas with sunlight because the hunting/grazing is better there. ### Vitamin D deficiency Exposure to sunlight (specifically, UV-B radiation) on our skin actually causes our body to produce [Vitamin D](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitamin_D), which has beneficial effects. Your humans (and possibly some animal species) might experience some Vit-D-deficiency-related health problems, such as suppressed immune systems, depression, and bone diseases. However, they might find other (dietary) sources of vitamin D (even by accident), and the limited sunlight they get might be enough to produce sufficient vitamin D if they spent enough time outdoors. ### What if the humans venture into the sunlight? It depends how long they have been in the dark, but probably not much would happen to them. They might be dazzled by the sunlight, although indirect strong daylight isn't that much different than looking into the flames of a bright campfire. If an entire society has been isolated in the dark for many, many generations (I can't even guess at a reasonable number) with no outside genetic contribution, their eyes and skin (melanin) might have adapted somewhat—they'd likely be rather pale-skinned—but that would take quite some time, and exposure to sunlight still wouldn't be very harmful. At most they might suffer some temporary/partial blindness and a nasty sunburn if they don't take precautions. If they shield their eyes, wear long sleeves, and a wide-brimmed hat, they'll probably be fine. ### Is such a place scientifically feasible? As you describe it, no, not really. The closest we have on Earth: as you get nearer the poles on Earth, there will be days of the year where the sun never rises. However, it is necessarily the case that in the summer, the sun never sets. I'll discuss some other options: If you had a planet that was [tidally locked](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tidal_locking) with its star, there would be a dark side (night 100% of the time, almost certainly very cold), a light side (day 100% of the time, and probably very hot), and a middle zone that remains partially lit and warm-ish. However, I don't think that fits what you want, because the planet wouldn't have "days" in the conventional sense of sunrise/sunset at all, and your semi-dark "region" would be a geodesic ring around the entire planet. You then asked about a perpetually "misty" region. While I don't have a good answer for you on how that might (realistically) be achieved, there are a number of ways you could have a "dark" region: * Underground. Pretty obvious, so it's probable you've already thought of this and discarded it for some reason. * Heavily forested. The advantage here is that it solves the plant/animal problem as there are many species adapted to live under the canopies of dense forests. * Magic. You did list a "magic" tag, so your last resort is perhaps some powerful wizard (or whoever wears the magical pants in your story) who throws a spell/curse/etc. on the entire region, condemning the inhabitants to live in misty, shrouded darkness for 19 hours of the day.	If there's a way for your humans to create electricity - say, coal or tidal power or wind farms or something like that (that doesn't require light directly), then electric lights could be powered to sustain plant life on the planet, with the humans completely in control of its growth. However, I agree with the above points - if your planet is orbiting a star, then there will have to be somewhere on it that has sunlight. Perhaps you could set it on a planet really far out from the sun, though an issue with this is that there wouldn't be liquid water - a problem your humans could potentially deal with by creating heat by, as I said before, lightless energy sources. Furthermore, a question that arises is exactly how was this planet inhabited? If they are colonists that knew about the planetary conditions beforehand, presumably they would have brought supplies with them and technology to deal with the extreme conditions. Evolution on such a planet, I do not think would be feasible at all, given the lack of sunlight. If magic is involved, and only a certain region is affected, then your problem of planets and suns and biology is solved quite well and gives a rather obvious story to tell!
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	### Plants With five hours of indirect sunlight (dusk/dawn), there are few plants that would survive long-term. Many plants (including most food crops) depend on photosynthesis. Thus, your people probably aren't going to be eating a lot of home-grown wheat bread. However, there are a lot of edible plants, roots, and herbs that will grow in low light levels. Animals will be similarly challenged. They either eat plants, or they eat other animals that eat plants. In other words, animals would have a tough time, too, if they are confined to the dark area. ### Weather Without direct sunlight, if the region is small, its weather will be dominated by warm air (and possibly water) currents from outside regions. If the region is very large, it could get quite cold indeed. If that's the case, the cold temperatures will obviously present additional challenges to plant and animal survival. ### What about humans? Since your humans named something "Ghafir's Spear", I'm assuming they have at least discovered basic tool-making (spears). Such humans would probably have good survival prospects, and would develop the skills to adapt to a dark environment reasonably well. That would probably include "importing" food from beyond the dark border and/or cultivating low-light crops and animal herds. On a physiological level, humans can survive in the dark just fine, as long as we have food, clean water, and can stay warm (in other words, the same requirements in sunlight!). Importantly, the same is true for many animals. The reason animals would die off would be because they lose access to food sources (or perhaps if the weather is too cold—see above). If the animals can roam into "light" areas to hunt or graze or have help from the humans, most animal species could survive indefinitely, in spite of the dark. Given the choice, however, many animal species might migrate to areas with sunlight because the hunting/grazing is better there. ### Vitamin D deficiency Exposure to sunlight (specifically, UV-B radiation) on our skin actually causes our body to produce [Vitamin D](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitamin_D), which has beneficial effects. Your humans (and possibly some animal species) might experience some Vit-D-deficiency-related health problems, such as suppressed immune systems, depression, and bone diseases. However, they might find other (dietary) sources of vitamin D (even by accident), and the limited sunlight they get might be enough to produce sufficient vitamin D if they spent enough time outdoors. ### What if the humans venture into the sunlight? It depends how long they have been in the dark, but probably not much would happen to them. They might be dazzled by the sunlight, although indirect strong daylight isn't that much different than looking into the flames of a bright campfire. If an entire society has been isolated in the dark for many, many generations (I can't even guess at a reasonable number) with no outside genetic contribution, their eyes and skin (melanin) might have adapted somewhat—they'd likely be rather pale-skinned—but that would take quite some time, and exposure to sunlight still wouldn't be very harmful. At most they might suffer some temporary/partial blindness and a nasty sunburn if they don't take precautions. If they shield their eyes, wear long sleeves, and a wide-brimmed hat, they'll probably be fine. ### Is such a place scientifically feasible? As you describe it, no, not really. The closest we have on Earth: as you get nearer the poles on Earth, there will be days of the year where the sun never rises. However, it is necessarily the case that in the summer, the sun never sets. I'll discuss some other options: If you had a planet that was [tidally locked](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tidal_locking) with its star, there would be a dark side (night 100% of the time, almost certainly very cold), a light side (day 100% of the time, and probably very hot), and a middle zone that remains partially lit and warm-ish. However, I don't think that fits what you want, because the planet wouldn't have "days" in the conventional sense of sunrise/sunset at all, and your semi-dark "region" would be a geodesic ring around the entire planet. You then asked about a perpetually "misty" region. While I don't have a good answer for you on how that might (realistically) be achieved, there are a number of ways you could have a "dark" region: * Underground. Pretty obvious, so it's probable you've already thought of this and discarded it for some reason. * Heavily forested. The advantage here is that it solves the plant/animal problem as there are many species adapted to live under the canopies of dense forests. * Magic. You did list a "magic" tag, so your last resort is perhaps some powerful wizard (or whoever wears the magical pants in your story) who throws a spell/curse/etc. on the entire region, condemning the inhabitants to live in misty, shrouded darkness for 19 hours of the day.	The thing that sunlight provides for life is energy, so that plants can conduct photosynthesis, and the entire ecosystem is built on that. If you had something other than the sun that could provide the energy that the plants need for photosynthesis, you could have a normal ecosystem there. In a fictional universe I created a long time ago, I had this one planet that had no access to external light(no sun, stars, moon, or anything else). The energy came from a material that was underground on the planet, which was tapped into by a plant-like species which lived off of it. Other creatures would then eat those creatures to survive.
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	I agree with [type\_outcast's answer](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/32964/16729) although I think there are some points missed... Bioluminescence is commonly associated with dark deep sea, serving many purposes aside from simple illumination - such as communication for instance. Yet it is not unique of the sea^1, since there are fungi, insects, [arachnids](http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/shared/spl/hi/pop_ups/07/sci_nat_enl_1175631258/html/1.stm) and a few others small animals capable of bioluminescence - being fireflies probably the best well known example. ^1: various types of bateria, algae, fish, jellyfish, crustaceans, cephalopods, etc... have bioluminescence. The ability to produce its own light would - obviously - be useful in a place of perpetual darkness - it makes it easy to find what to eat, and equally important it may play a role in mate selection. There is a catch to that! if you use your light to attract your sexual partner, you are attracting predators too. I would expect this strategy to be only used by small animals that produce many offspring that overcompensate for the losses that naturally happen during their mating season - which I would expect has a low frequency, enough for no predator to sustain only from eating them. On the other hand bioluminescence requires energy, and food is scarse, so while you should be able to find some examples in the dark regions... they wouldn't be the rule. --- Without sight, hunting wont be the task of fast predators that run behind a pack of herbivores. Instead other senses would develop to be more useful in darkness. And hunting tactics will have to adapt. For instance acute olfactory organs are used by animals that expend most of their lifes underground - with little sunlight. If tracking by smell is a good idea, rapine comes with it. Chemical tactics are also very effective, such as poisoning a victim, and track it while the poison takes effect and kills it... or a swarm of small animals may resource to inducing high pain and paralysis while they devour the victim alive. Prey animals may try to use fast discharges of fluid - cough urine cough - as defence mechanism when cornered. --- Another strategy of life in the dark is Echolocation, which is mostly known by bats - which is where it was discovered. Yet has been found in various other species such as the [Tenrecs rats from Madagascar](http://afrotheria.net/tenrecs/). Your dark regions can't trope be complete without them. --- We may also extend on the topic of animal eyes. The eyes of nocture animals may be bigger to allow more light in, would have relatively more rods in the retina allowing to differentiate smaller changes in illumination - in expense of cones, meaning that they have less color perception. Also a very common adaptation is the lucidum that used to reflect light internally in the eye to allow for a greater exposure - and also causes [laser eyed cats](http://theverybesttop10.com/images-of-laser-eyed-cats/). --- Another imporant topic is the Circadian rhythm if you still have a few hours of dusk/dawn it [not really a problem for animals](http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1081/CBI-120021443?journalCode=icbi20). Still it is a problem for [plants that adapt their metabolism for day and night](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circadian_rhythm#/media/File:TOC1_interactions.jpg) - that puts a cap on plant growth. And also in lack of seasonal changes there wouldn't be trigger for bloom. [Moss](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moss), [Ferns](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fern) and others flowerless plants and known to be able to grow with minimal light can still thrive there. Aside from that, there are saprotrophic, mycoheterotrophic and parasitic plants that don't need light to grow - [Monotropa uniflora](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotropa_uniflora) comes to mind. Regarding humans, when living underground - with aritifial light - people just sleeps whenever they feel like it, regardless of the daytime of which they are unaware of. People may still sync their sleep and eating patterns within small groups for social reasons. --- The problem with dietary sources of Vitamin D is that whatever you eat to get Vitamin D has to get Vitamin D from somewhere. For that I want to suggest [Lichen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lichen) which takes minerals from the rock on which it grows and is the main source of Vitamin D (if you want to go vegan, that is). Finally, ragarding food sources for humans, Tubers are probably the best option for cultivation - with the help of some [artificial light](http://spinoff.nasa.gov/Spinoff2010/cg_1.html). [Or use "magic"](http://gizmodo.com/5911185/scientists-invent-grow-in-the-dark-plants). Also chances are you can invent some interesting fish adapted to darkness but not the high preasures of deep sea. Insects and small mammals would also be on the plate. [Glow-in-the-dark rabbits](http://www.theguardian.com/world/2013/aug/13/glow-in-dark-rabbits-scientists) anyone?	If there's a way for your humans to create electricity - say, coal or tidal power or wind farms or something like that (that doesn't require light directly), then electric lights could be powered to sustain plant life on the planet, with the humans completely in control of its growth. However, I agree with the above points - if your planet is orbiting a star, then there will have to be somewhere on it that has sunlight. Perhaps you could set it on a planet really far out from the sun, though an issue with this is that there wouldn't be liquid water - a problem your humans could potentially deal with by creating heat by, as I said before, lightless energy sources. Furthermore, a question that arises is exactly how was this planet inhabited? If they are colonists that knew about the planetary conditions beforehand, presumably they would have brought supplies with them and technology to deal with the extreme conditions. Evolution on such a planet, I do not think would be feasible at all, given the lack of sunlight. If magic is involved, and only a certain region is affected, then your problem of planets and suns and biology is solved quite well and gives a rather obvious story to tell!
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	I agree with [type\_outcast's answer](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/32964/16729) although I think there are some points missed... Bioluminescence is commonly associated with dark deep sea, serving many purposes aside from simple illumination - such as communication for instance. Yet it is not unique of the sea^1, since there are fungi, insects, [arachnids](http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/shared/spl/hi/pop_ups/07/sci_nat_enl_1175631258/html/1.stm) and a few others small animals capable of bioluminescence - being fireflies probably the best well known example. ^1: various types of bateria, algae, fish, jellyfish, crustaceans, cephalopods, etc... have bioluminescence. The ability to produce its own light would - obviously - be useful in a place of perpetual darkness - it makes it easy to find what to eat, and equally important it may play a role in mate selection. There is a catch to that! if you use your light to attract your sexual partner, you are attracting predators too. I would expect this strategy to be only used by small animals that produce many offspring that overcompensate for the losses that naturally happen during their mating season - which I would expect has a low frequency, enough for no predator to sustain only from eating them. On the other hand bioluminescence requires energy, and food is scarse, so while you should be able to find some examples in the dark regions... they wouldn't be the rule. --- Without sight, hunting wont be the task of fast predators that run behind a pack of herbivores. Instead other senses would develop to be more useful in darkness. And hunting tactics will have to adapt. For instance acute olfactory organs are used by animals that expend most of their lifes underground - with little sunlight. If tracking by smell is a good idea, rapine comes with it. Chemical tactics are also very effective, such as poisoning a victim, and track it while the poison takes effect and kills it... or a swarm of small animals may resource to inducing high pain and paralysis while they devour the victim alive. Prey animals may try to use fast discharges of fluid - cough urine cough - as defence mechanism when cornered. --- Another strategy of life in the dark is Echolocation, which is mostly known by bats - which is where it was discovered. Yet has been found in various other species such as the [Tenrecs rats from Madagascar](http://afrotheria.net/tenrecs/). Your dark regions can't trope be complete without them. --- We may also extend on the topic of animal eyes. The eyes of nocture animals may be bigger to allow more light in, would have relatively more rods in the retina allowing to differentiate smaller changes in illumination - in expense of cones, meaning that they have less color perception. Also a very common adaptation is the lucidum that used to reflect light internally in the eye to allow for a greater exposure - and also causes [laser eyed cats](http://theverybesttop10.com/images-of-laser-eyed-cats/). --- Another imporant topic is the Circadian rhythm if you still have a few hours of dusk/dawn it [not really a problem for animals](http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1081/CBI-120021443?journalCode=icbi20). Still it is a problem for [plants that adapt their metabolism for day and night](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circadian_rhythm#/media/File:TOC1_interactions.jpg) - that puts a cap on plant growth. And also in lack of seasonal changes there wouldn't be trigger for bloom. [Moss](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moss), [Ferns](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fern) and others flowerless plants and known to be able to grow with minimal light can still thrive there. Aside from that, there are saprotrophic, mycoheterotrophic and parasitic plants that don't need light to grow - [Monotropa uniflora](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotropa_uniflora) comes to mind. Regarding humans, when living underground - with aritifial light - people just sleeps whenever they feel like it, regardless of the daytime of which they are unaware of. People may still sync their sleep and eating patterns within small groups for social reasons. --- The problem with dietary sources of Vitamin D is that whatever you eat to get Vitamin D has to get Vitamin D from somewhere. For that I want to suggest [Lichen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lichen) which takes minerals from the rock on which it grows and is the main source of Vitamin D (if you want to go vegan, that is). Finally, ragarding food sources for humans, Tubers are probably the best option for cultivation - with the help of some [artificial light](http://spinoff.nasa.gov/Spinoff2010/cg_1.html). [Or use "magic"](http://gizmodo.com/5911185/scientists-invent-grow-in-the-dark-plants). Also chances are you can invent some interesting fish adapted to darkness but not the high preasures of deep sea. Insects and small mammals would also be on the plate. [Glow-in-the-dark rabbits](http://www.theguardian.com/world/2013/aug/13/glow-in-dark-rabbits-scientists) anyone?	The thing that sunlight provides for life is energy, so that plants can conduct photosynthesis, and the entire ecosystem is built on that. If you had something other than the sun that could provide the energy that the plants need for photosynthesis, you could have a normal ecosystem there. In a fictional universe I created a long time ago, I had this one planet that had no access to external light(no sun, stars, moon, or anything else). The energy came from a material that was underground on the planet, which was tapped into by a plant-like species which lived off of it. Other creatures would then eat those creatures to survive.
32,962	In my fantasy world, Ghafir's Spear is known by many to be a place without light. Here, there is no light, and darkness dominates the land. Despite its shadow, however, there is life here, including humans in the city of Ardam. I am thinking of a setting where part of Earth is dark 24/7. However, I encountered a problem where I need to have life (including humans, though this one is optional) thrive with little to no sunlight. Let's just say night lasts about 19 hours, 2.5 hours of morning, 2.5 hours of dusk, and no noon. Is life in such place scientifically feasible? What kind of animals and plants would live in such place? Could the regular deers and trees and crops live here? How would a human survive here? If a human stayed here for long periods of time would there be terrible effects should they see sunlight in the outside world? If it happens to not be scientifically feasible, how about a place where it is misty 24 hours a day? Can life thrive here? Edit: Thank you everyone! In advance as well. I appreciate your answers!	2016/01/10	[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32962", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/16905/" ]	The thing that sunlight provides for life is energy, so that plants can conduct photosynthesis, and the entire ecosystem is built on that. If you had something other than the sun that could provide the energy that the plants need for photosynthesis, you could have a normal ecosystem there. In a fictional universe I created a long time ago, I had this one planet that had no access to external light(no sun, stars, moon, or anything else). The energy came from a material that was underground on the planet, which was tapped into by a plant-like species which lived off of it. Other creatures would then eat those creatures to survive.	If there's a way for your humans to create electricity - say, coal or tidal power or wind farms or something like that (that doesn't require light directly), then electric lights could be powered to sustain plant life on the planet, with the humans completely in control of its growth. However, I agree with the above points - if your planet is orbiting a star, then there will have to be somewhere on it that has sunlight. Perhaps you could set it on a planet really far out from the sun, though an issue with this is that there wouldn't be liquid water - a problem your humans could potentially deal with by creating heat by, as I said before, lightless energy sources. Furthermore, a question that arises is exactly how was this planet inhabited? If they are colonists that knew about the planetary conditions beforehand, presumably they would have brought supplies with them and technology to deal with the extreme conditions. Evolution on such a planet, I do not think would be feasible at all, given the lack of sunlight. If magic is involved, and only a certain region is affected, then your problem of planets and suns and biology is solved quite well and gives a rather obvious story to tell!
21,014	I'm looking for the correct translation of the German word "Kleinunternehmer". The translations I found are individual businesses, small entrepreneurs, small businesses, etc., but I'm not sure which of them to use. The text I'm trying to translate is a note for an order form which gives the users the information that the business owner is, based on a certain legal regulation, exempted from the value added tax (VAT). > > "Gemäß § 19 UStG sind wir als Kleinunternehmer von der MwSt. > freigestellt." > > > Unfortunately I wasn't able to come up with something which seemed correct to me. This is what I've got so far: > > "As entrepreneurs we are according to § 19 UStG exempt from VAT." > > > Is there a chance to improve this?	2014/04/10	[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/21014", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/1991/" ]	[StoneyB](https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/32/stoneyb) recommends translating “Kleinunternehmer” as “small business owners”. > > Small Business > Small businesses are normally privately owned corporations, partnerships, or sole proprietorships. What constitutes "small" in terms of government support and tax policy varies depending on the country and industry. > Source: [Wikipedia entry – Small business](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Small_business_owner) > > > There is some flexibility to how you order things in this sentence, but the most natural way is probably: > > As small business owners, we are exempt from VAT under § 19 UStG. > > > If you wanted to stay closer to the order in the original statement, you could write: > > According to § 19 UStG, we small businesses are exempt from VAT. > > >	According to this website <https://leitsch.org/blog/ein-kleinunternehmen-gruenden-und-alles-was-dazu-gehoert> "Kleinunternehmen" in the legal sense in Germany is a single person trading with an annual revenue of at most €17,500. I would suggest that for a UK audience, "sole trader" is most likely a much better translation. A "small business" is very unlikely to be VAT exempt (according to German rules), a "sole trader" quite possibly is.
380,923	I have downloaded a file called ubuntu-12.04.3-desktop-amd64 iso image file to my downloads folder. When I try to run the file, Windows starts to configure Sonic RecordNow! (why?) but then reports: > > The feature you are trying to use is on a network resource that is unavailable. > Click OK to try again, or enter an alternate path to a folder containing the installation package 'RNENU.msi' in the box below. > > > where "the box below" contains the string c:\hp\tmp\src\ I've used Windows Explorer to look for RNENU.msi but it couldn't find it in My Computer. I would like to know how I could use this iso file to install Ubuntu and migrate from windows	2013/11/22	[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/380923", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/218431/" ]	Right click on the ISO file and, if available, look at the options under "Open with". You should see an alternative program such as "Windows Disc Image Burner" (depending on which version of Windows you are using). Alternatively, download "ImgBurn" which is a free ISO writing application which will allow you to burn this image to disc avoiding the problematic installation of "Sonic RecordNow!".	The recommended way to install Ubuntu is from a USB drive, CD, or DVD. If you have a newer computer which is capable of booting off of a USB drive, you can follow [these instructions](http://www.ubuntu.com/download/desktop/create-a-usb-stick-on-windows) to create a bootable Ubuntu USB drive using [Pen Drive Linux](http://www.pendrivelinux.com/universal-usb-installer-easy-as-1-2-3/). If you do not have access to a USB drive, or your computer cannot boot off of one, you can create a bootable CD or DVD, which will work on almost all computers. Follow [these instructions](http://www.ubuntu.com/download/desktop/burn-a-dvd-on-windows) to create a bootable CD or DVD on Windows.
6,840	I'm working on a [Hybrid classical-quantum linear solver](https://arxiv.org/pdf/1903.10949.pdf). For this, they make a loop on a quantum circuit (ie. below), and each time they change the value of the classical register and apply a X gate on the quantum register conditioned on the state of the classical register. [![quantum circuit](https://i.stack.imgur.com/053WY.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/053WY.png) Therefore, I ask myself, is there a way to initialize the classical register ?	2019/07/22	[ "https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/6840", "https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com", "https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/users/7762/" ]	Classical registers are typically used for capturing measurement results, and may also be used for conditionally applying quantum operation. See: <https://github.com/Qiskit/openqasm/blob/master/spec/qasm2.rst> Given the problem you described, one approach would be to have a classical program that iteratively: 1) defines and executes a quantum circuit on a quantum processor or simulator 2) reads the results from the classical registers for guidance in defining the circuit for the next iteration	You might find this section of the documentation helpful, it goes over initializing and using registers. <https://qiskit.org/documentation/terra/quantum_circuits.html>
96,726	Last week I was deputed to my office headquarter. In the beginning everything was fine, but after a few weeks some of my co-workers started having conversations in local regional language during meetings and the team discussion. This is really irritating and even my immediate boss joined them and I was like "O wow, now what is going here?". Are they discussing about me or don't they agree with me?. How do I handle this and ask them to speak in English so that everyone understands? Is this unprofessional behaviour of my co-workers?	2017/08/08	[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/96726", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/74785/" ]	> > How to handle this and ask them to speak in English so that everyone understands? > > > Say a variation of any of the following: * I'm sorry, could we return to [company language]? * Sorry to interrupt but I'm afraid you've lost me here, could you repeat that in [company language]? * I didn't catch that, could we stick to [company language]? As long as you remain matter-of-fact and just gently steer the conversation back to the company language no one should think less of you for doing so. Most decent coworkers will also eventually get the hint and stop switching to the local language in the first place. People with great interpersonal skills can inject some levity here with half-joking responses like "Ah, I caught [word in local language] but I'm not sure we're talking about [unrelated topic linked to that word]." But that takes some skill and charisma to pull off. It's not something I could or would do. > > Is this unprofessional behaviour of my co-workers? > > > Yes, though it's not that uncommon, particularly in certain (company) cultures. It happens more often with junior people and with colleagues who aren't very well versed in the company language. When they're struggling to translate something it's often easier to switch to the local language to explain to their peers. Sometimes that can be appropriate but then they should tell you that they're switching to [local language], keep the discussion short, and summarise what was discussed after the conversation returns to the company language. But in most companies or departments that have an international staff, employees at all levels are typically expected to be able to converse in the company language. That said, if it happens rarely it's often not worth making a big deal of. But if the conversation often moves to the local language while you're there you should address that with your manager or whoever is running those meetings or that team. You'd say something like: > > I've noticed that we often switch to the local language in meetings and as you know I don't speak [local language] at all, which makes it impossible for me to follow the conversation. Can we make sure that in future meetings we stick to [company language]? I realise that it's sometimes more convenient to switch but when extended conversations are held in a language I don't speak I completely lose track of the discussion. > > > Not that this only really applies to team meetings and discussions that are work-related and that actually involve you. If this happens during idle office chatter that is still a problem, but you would address it differently. You'd also focus on first making sure that it doesn't happen in work discussions first before trying to force changes during social chat.	There are 2-3 things you can try. First is that you discuss this with your boss in person. Try to point out that you are not a native speaker and miss out on what is being discussed. It also makes you feel not a part of the group. I have seen this issue many times. Usually people don't realize that they have a non native language speaker in between them. They will go to informal language because some people are not very comfortable with English or because they are not discussing something related to business, i.e. the conversation has gone informal to weekend plans or leg pulling. It is rare for people to talk about you in their native language in front of you, but it may happen sometimes. Second, try to visibly note down some words which are spoken and ask their meaning later on with their boss. The boss will then sensitize the people. They will also become conscious that you will do follow up on the words spoken, so they cannot speak about you in the meetings. As suggested in other answer, please feel free to point out "English Please!!" so that the conversation can come back to English. There is no quick fix to this, except for the chair to gently steer back the conversation to English. Constantly asking people to translate what they said would make them realize they have a non native speaker and will help them getting used to talk in English only. Hope this helps!!
96,726	Last week I was deputed to my office headquarter. In the beginning everything was fine, but after a few weeks some of my co-workers started having conversations in local regional language during meetings and the team discussion. This is really irritating and even my immediate boss joined them and I was like "O wow, now what is going here?". Are they discussing about me or don't they agree with me?. How do I handle this and ask them to speak in English so that everyone understands? Is this unprofessional behaviour of my co-workers?	2017/08/08	[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/96726", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/74785/" ]	> > How to handle this and ask them to speak in English so that everyone understands? > > > Say a variation of any of the following: * I'm sorry, could we return to [company language]? * Sorry to interrupt but I'm afraid you've lost me here, could you repeat that in [company language]? * I didn't catch that, could we stick to [company language]? As long as you remain matter-of-fact and just gently steer the conversation back to the company language no one should think less of you for doing so. Most decent coworkers will also eventually get the hint and stop switching to the local language in the first place. People with great interpersonal skills can inject some levity here with half-joking responses like "Ah, I caught [word in local language] but I'm not sure we're talking about [unrelated topic linked to that word]." But that takes some skill and charisma to pull off. It's not something I could or would do. > > Is this unprofessional behaviour of my co-workers? > > > Yes, though it's not that uncommon, particularly in certain (company) cultures. It happens more often with junior people and with colleagues who aren't very well versed in the company language. When they're struggling to translate something it's often easier to switch to the local language to explain to their peers. Sometimes that can be appropriate but then they should tell you that they're switching to [local language], keep the discussion short, and summarise what was discussed after the conversation returns to the company language. But in most companies or departments that have an international staff, employees at all levels are typically expected to be able to converse in the company language. That said, if it happens rarely it's often not worth making a big deal of. But if the conversation often moves to the local language while you're there you should address that with your manager or whoever is running those meetings or that team. You'd say something like: > > I've noticed that we often switch to the local language in meetings and as you know I don't speak [local language] at all, which makes it impossible for me to follow the conversation. Can we make sure that in future meetings we stick to [company language]? I realise that it's sometimes more convenient to switch but when extended conversations are held in a language I don't speak I completely lose track of the discussion. > > > Not that this only really applies to team meetings and discussions that are work-related and that actually involve you. If this happens during idle office chatter that is still a problem, but you would address it differently. You'd also focus on first making sure that it doesn't happen in work discussions first before trying to force changes during social chat.	No one feels completely comfortable when they are in a meeting where conversations are happening that they cannot understand -- whether it be a side or the main conversation. Sometimes however, it is necessary. Some people may not feel fully comfortable using the company standard language. This is especially frequent in USA where people from all over the world work and collaborate together. English is difficult to learn well for many foreign born people, and it is not uncommon for there to be quiet side conversations in other languages where people try to help each other understand and participate in the dialog. Ways to help everyone in this situation is to acknowledge the difficulty in a helpful and friendly way, ask presenters to speak a bit slower and more clearly, and avoid jargon and unnecessarily complex words and phrases. Language learners should be allowed to ask questions and have someone present quietly and quickly explain what was said in their own language if necessary. In the event you are a visitor and/or not conversant in the company language, you will have to politely endure listening to many conversations that you cannot understand until they are translated for you. In this case, you just need to learn patience and bring an attitude of grace to the forefront.
36,916	While perusing gatherer today I came across the [15 special guest designed magic cards](https://magic.wizards.com/en/articles/archive/arcana/designer-cards-magic-2015-2014-04-16-0) that came out in the M15 set. One card kind of stood out to me, [Waste Not](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?multiverseid=383436). Whereas the other cards are attributed to each designer (eg. [Aggressive Mining](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?multiverseid=383179) has Markus Persson, [Avarice Amulet](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?multiverseid=383186) has Penny Arcade etc.) in the flavour text, Waste Not has the following flavour text: > > Designed by the Magic community > > > I am wondering how was Waste Not created, and why was it attributed to the Magic community instead of a specific person? If it was contest type thing where many people submitted different card designs it seems odd that the winning design wouldn't have its designers name put onto the card.	2017/07/21	[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/36916", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/15514/" ]	My name is CJ Mlsna, and I submitted the rules text for the card that became Waste Not. Jennifer Clarke Wilkes had a different entry in YMTC 4. When the card was released alongside the other guest-designed cards, I asked Ethan Fleischer why my name had been omitted. His answer was that since it had been voted on by the community, it should have the credit it did. I was able to submit some short answers to a survey they emailed me, which was [posted here](https://magic.wizards.com/en/articles/archive/making-magic/you-make-card-4-%E2%80%93-winning-mechanic-2013-05-28).	The Magic community as a whole created Waste Not in an event know as "You Make the Card 4". (The first three You Make the Card cards were [Forgotten Ancient](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bForgotten%20Ancient%5d), [Crucible of Worlds](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bCrucible%20of%20Worlds%5d), and [Vanish into Memory](http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Search/Default.aspx?name=%2b%5bVanish%20into%20Memory%5d).) The Magic website hosted a series of polls to determine the card's color, color, type, and so on. The final results page, including an overview of the voting rounds and results, can be found at <http://magic.wizards.com/en/articles/archive/feature/you-made-card-2013-09-30-0>
210,394	I'm looking for another way to say that I doubt if person X is a good cultural fit for a certain club, but it's important for me to imply that the problem is in X and not in the club. Just to get my intention across, I'll say that in some other languages there are expressions like "X is not crafted from the right material" or "X is not crafted from the same material as the club's members". Can you think of anything similar?	2014/11/26	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/210394", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5159/" ]	One could say X "does not [seem to] fit the mold" [of the typical club member]. Or "X [is not][does not seem to be] a good match with the club's culture" But your original, with "fit", is fine.	'X is not a cultural fit' is fine and sounds much better than your proposed alternative English wise. Stating X is not a fit is active voice, asserting your intention and authority in the matter. Saying "I'm not sure if X is ... " is much more passive. It sounds like you aren't sure enough of yourself to make a declarative statement.
210,394	I'm looking for another way to say that I doubt if person X is a good cultural fit for a certain club, but it's important for me to imply that the problem is in X and not in the club. Just to get my intention across, I'll say that in some other languages there are expressions like "X is not crafted from the right material" or "X is not crafted from the same material as the club's members". Can you think of anything similar?	2014/11/26	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/210394", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5159/" ]	> > "X is not crafted from the right material" > > > X doesn't have the right stuff. (American) For a proper answer, we'd need to have a better sense of the "register" you desire.	'X is not a cultural fit' is fine and sounds much better than your proposed alternative English wise. Stating X is not a fit is active voice, asserting your intention and authority in the matter. Saying "I'm not sure if X is ... " is much more passive. It sounds like you aren't sure enough of yourself to make a declarative statement.
210,394	I'm looking for another way to say that I doubt if person X is a good cultural fit for a certain club, but it's important for me to imply that the problem is in X and not in the club. Just to get my intention across, I'll say that in some other languages there are expressions like "X is not crafted from the right material" or "X is not crafted from the same material as the club's members". Can you think of anything similar?	2014/11/26	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/210394", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5159/" ]	One could say X "does not [seem to] fit the mold" [of the typical club member]. Or "X [is not][does not seem to be] a good match with the club's culture" But your original, with "fit", is fine.	There is "not one of us." It is the title of a song in the musical "The Lion King," <http://www.metrolyrics.com/not-one-of-us-lyrics-lion-king.html>
210,394	I'm looking for another way to say that I doubt if person X is a good cultural fit for a certain club, but it's important for me to imply that the problem is in X and not in the club. Just to get my intention across, I'll say that in some other languages there are expressions like "X is not crafted from the right material" or "X is not crafted from the same material as the club's members". Can you think of anything similar?	2014/11/26	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/210394", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/5159/" ]	> > "X is not crafted from the right material" > > > X doesn't have the right stuff. (American) For a proper answer, we'd need to have a better sense of the "register" you desire.	There is "not one of us." It is the title of a song in the musical "The Lion King," <http://www.metrolyrics.com/not-one-of-us-lyrics-lion-king.html>
10,131,853	I've been always thinking "Testing? I don't need no freakin' testing! I'm doing without it just fine!" And then my code became long. Now I realize why it is important to write tests. I'm always afraid a little change will result in breaking something. I really want to start writing tests. But the code base has become so large that I'm really overwhelmed. I don't know where to start. And much of it I don't even remember why I coded it that way so if I begin to go back and write tests, it will take forever. Can someone provide advice on how to start writing tests if I already have a large code base?	2012/04/12	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10131853", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/996375/" ]	First, I would recommend reading [the WELC book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0131177052), which should really come in handy in your situation. Start the next time you touch the code, the very next time you need to change something in the code, go write a test for it first and then continue to write tests surrounding everything that you have to change, update, fix, or add. That way, over time you will have added tests to all the areas that are changing and will get to a point when writing tests for the rest of the code doesn't seem so overwhelming. However, I would reiterate that the book I linked to how legacy code would be very helpful as it goes into lots of detail about ways to approach this issue.	Writing tests, especially good takes a lot of time, sometimes it can take much as 50% of the development time/cost, sometimes more. I would first work on writing unit tests for all your functions and attempting to get as much statement coverage as possible. If you don't know how a method works, it's probably poorly documented and/or written, and you'll be better off rewriting it anyway. This isn't a direct answer to the question, but is a little piece of advice: You should really spend the time now to fix and clean up your code, otherwise it's going to continue to spiral out of control. Code doesn't get better by writing more code, it will only get worse, if you want it to get better you have to go back and rewrite it.
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	Luke tells Leia in ROTJ, right before he also tells her she is his sister. > > My father has it, I have it, my sister has it. Yes, it's you, Leia! > > > Edit: You now clarified that you mean "besides Leia". I'm not aware of canon events where Luke would have disclosed that. From TFA, we do know that Han knew > > There's nothing we could have done. There's too much Vader in him > (1:24:26) > > > As did Lor San Tekka, almost certainly, as he know Ben/Kylo's heritage > > The First Order rose from the dark side, you did not. (0:7:18) > > >	In the first Black Fleet Crisis novel, it seems to be common knowledge, at least among the political/military decision council that President of the Senate Leia Organa Solo is Darth Vader’s daughter. Most people in the room (including Ackbar and Wedge) don’t seem to think it’s a big deal. This is one of the Bantam publisher novels from the 1990s. So, Legends.
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	In the first Black Fleet Crisis novel, it seems to be common knowledge, at least among the political/military decision council that President of the Senate Leia Organa Solo is Darth Vader’s daughter. Most people in the room (including Ackbar and Wedge) don’t seem to think it’s a big deal. This is one of the Bantam publisher novels from the 1990s. So, Legends.	For another EU/Legends answer, Luke mentions it to his first batch of trainees on Yavin. Not certain if it occurs in the Jedi Academy trilogy itself, but it does happen in the book I, Jedi, which at least partly follows the same events.
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	*In Legends* Yes, at least some people are aware of this. All the Solo/Skywalker family is aware of this, as well as the (new) Jedi order. I have no precise sources but it should be referenced in many books. One of the first reference could be in the Thrawn saga where Noghris called Leia "Lady Vader" but I think it was more or less secret, then just became known by more people. In Disney canon** In The Force Awakens, yes > > Kylo Ren is aware he's Darth Vader's grandson. > > > There is a scene where he speaks to Vader's helmet : > > Show me again the power of the darkness, and I'll let nothing stand in our way. Show me, grandfather, and I will finish what you started. > > > Regarding other people, there is no exact answer yet as far as I know, but some details could be provided in the upcoming books, comics and movies (note: I heard rumors that we may have some info in the Bloodline novel but this is not confirmed as it hasn't been released yet).	It doesn't seem to be common knowledge and would have been very easy for Palpatine to keep the details of the massacre of younglings concealed (Jedi/present company such as yoda and so on excluded) but if anyone has watched rebels you see that through visions Ashoka finds out about Anakins wrong doings but who she passes that knowledge onto I can't tell you but the fact that Capt. Rex never says anything and the others don't even know who Anakin is its safe to say other people didn't know Edit I jus realised this was an answer to a comment from T.E.D but still Im not sure if Luke told others but as some else said Han Solo clearly knew and therefore chewy too.. I can't see much reason why they would need to keep it a secret though the empire has fallen vader is gone and the emperor is no longer hunting the remaining Jedi as to the first order it doesn't seem that destroying the Jedi is their primary goal even if Kylo Ren does
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	Luke tells Leia in ROTJ, right before he also tells her she is his sister. > > My father has it, I have it, my sister has it. Yes, it's you, Leia! > > > Edit: You now clarified that you mean "besides Leia". I'm not aware of canon events where Luke would have disclosed that. From TFA, we do know that Han knew > > There's nothing we could have done. There's too much Vader in him > (1:24:26) > > > As did Lor San Tekka, almost certainly, as he know Ben/Kylo's heritage > > The First Order rose from the dark side, you did not. (0:7:18) > > >	It doesn't seem to be common knowledge and would have been very easy for Palpatine to keep the details of the massacre of younglings concealed (Jedi/present company such as yoda and so on excluded) but if anyone has watched rebels you see that through visions Ashoka finds out about Anakins wrong doings but who she passes that knowledge onto I can't tell you but the fact that Capt. Rex never says anything and the others don't even know who Anakin is its safe to say other people didn't know Edit I jus realised this was an answer to a comment from T.E.D but still Im not sure if Luke told others but as some else said Han Solo clearly knew and therefore chewy too.. I can't see much reason why they would need to keep it a secret though the empire has fallen vader is gone and the emperor is no longer hunting the remaining Jedi as to the first order it doesn't seem that destroying the Jedi is their primary goal even if Kylo Ren does
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	Luke tells Leia in ROTJ, right before he also tells her she is his sister. > > My father has it, I have it, my sister has it. Yes, it's you, Leia! > > > Edit: You now clarified that you mean "besides Leia". I'm not aware of canon events where Luke would have disclosed that. From TFA, we do know that Han knew > > There's nothing we could have done. There's too much Vader in him > (1:24:26) > > > As did Lor San Tekka, almost certainly, as he know Ben/Kylo's heritage > > The First Order rose from the dark side, you did not. (0:7:18) > > >	*In Legends* Yes, at least some people are aware of this. All the Solo/Skywalker family is aware of this, as well as the (new) Jedi order. I have no precise sources but it should be referenced in many books. One of the first reference could be in the Thrawn saga where Noghris called Leia "Lady Vader" but I think it was more or less secret, then just became known by more people. In Disney canon** In The Force Awakens, yes > > Kylo Ren is aware he's Darth Vader's grandson. > > > There is a scene where he speaks to Vader's helmet : > > Show me again the power of the darkness, and I'll let nothing stand in our way. Show me, grandfather, and I will finish what you started. > > > Regarding other people, there is no exact answer yet as far as I know, but some details could be provided in the upcoming books, comics and movies (note: I heard rumors that we may have some info in the Bloodline novel but this is not confirmed as it hasn't been released yet).
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	*In Legends* Yes, at least some people are aware of this. All the Solo/Skywalker family is aware of this, as well as the (new) Jedi order. I have no precise sources but it should be referenced in many books. One of the first reference could be in the Thrawn saga where Noghris called Leia "Lady Vader" but I think it was more or less secret, then just became known by more people. In Disney canon** In The Force Awakens, yes > > Kylo Ren is aware he's Darth Vader's grandson. > > > There is a scene where he speaks to Vader's helmet : > > Show me again the power of the darkness, and I'll let nothing stand in our way. Show me, grandfather, and I will finish what you started. > > > Regarding other people, there is no exact answer yet as far as I know, but some details could be provided in the upcoming books, comics and movies (note: I heard rumors that we may have some info in the Bloodline novel but this is not confirmed as it hasn't been released yet).	In the first Black Fleet Crisis novel, it seems to be common knowledge, at least among the political/military decision council that President of the Senate Leia Organa Solo is Darth Vader’s daughter. Most people in the room (including Ackbar and Wedge) don’t seem to think it’s a big deal. This is one of the Bantam publisher novels from the 1990s. So, Legends.
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	Luke told Leia. Leia told Han. Leia and Han told Ben Solo. That may be it.1 Leia isn't even sure if Chewbacca knows. So speaketh the new canon novel, Bloodline. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- *Note: Spoilers for Star Wars: Bloodline* ahead > > Casterfo frowned. “Princess Leia?” > > > He had dared to tell her his most painful truth. She could never reveal hers, not to anyone who didn’t already know; Leia understood that. But perhaps she could find the courage to match his honesty with a measure of her own.** > > > “At the beginning of the war against the Empire, just as the Imperial Senate was dissolved—” She swallowed hard. “My ship was captured by the Devastator. That was Darth Vader’s flagship at the time. He personally brought me to the Death Star, where he— where he questioned me.”... > > > “Then he brought me to witness Alderaan’s destruction. Vader’s hand gripped my shoulder just after I watched my planet die. He made me suffer in every way a human being can suffer, all for the love of the Emperor.” > > > Casterfo slipped his arm from under her hand — she had gone utterly motionless — and grasped her fingers in his. As old as she was, as cynical as she’d become, Leia would never have guessed that such a gesture could still move her, but it did. > > > “I hated him so much,” she whispered. The breeze blew past them, rustling the blueblossom trees within the hanging gardens. It was as if they were helping to hide her painful words. “Sometimes I felt as if the only thing that kept me going in the aftermath of Alderaan was the strength of my hatred for Vader.” > > > For my father. > > - Star Wars: Bloodline > > > ... > > Think of your conversation with Casterfo as practice, she told herself. One day she would have to reveal all this to her son. The truth of Vader’s identity had shattered her; she could not imagine what it might mean to Ben. At least Luke could tell Ben the most important part— that Vader had, in the end, been redeemed. Anakin Skywalker had returned; the dark side had been defeated by the light. > > - ibid > > > ... > > Tai-Lin hesitated before he came closer. “There’s something I’ve been meaning to ask you for a long time, and finally I feel I know you well enough to dare. If I overstep my bounds, please, tell me.” > > > Uh-oh, Leia thought. Was this some kind of romantic overture? Surely not. She seemed to have a case of paranoia this morning. But she understood why an outside observer might believe she was available, which was proof Han had definitely been gone too long. “I’ll tell you, Tai-Lin. Go ahead and ask me.” > > > “Did you never consider following in your brother’s path and becoming a Jedi?” > > > Leia found herself caught short. “Why do you ask?” > > > “They say on my world that the Force sometimes runs strong in certain families.” > > > So much of the lore of the Jedi had been lost— but on Gatalenta, the old religion had remained strong. History had become legend, but some of the legends were still told. Gatalenta had been one of Luke’s first destinations when he began his research into the Jedi Knights of old. > > > Tai-Lin continued, “If that is true, then you might have the potential, just like your brother.” > > > And my son, she thought but did not say. > > > “If you have that ability, then I cannot imagine why you would not become a Jedi as well,” Tai-Lin finished. “Surely I’ve known few people who would make a finer Jedi Knight than you.” > > > Leia inclined her head in gratitude for the compliment, but she could not answer right away, because she could not tell the full truth. The Force was too important a subject to be shared lightly, even with Tai-Lin, her ally and friend. > > - ibid > > > However, it wouldn't have been necessary for Luke to tell anyone else - the secret had been exposed in front of the galactic senate by a political rival of Leia's: ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- > > Ransolm continued, “Princess Leia’s lies have protected her long enough. Her deception cannot be permitted to endanger the entire galaxy. If people are considering electing her as First Senator, they have the right to know exactly who they’re voting for.” > > > Leia’s confusion crystallized in an instant around one of her most terrible fears: He knows. > > > No. Impossible. Nobody had ever known this besides her, Luke, and Han; she wasn’t even sure whether Han had told Chewie. They hadn’t even told Ben yet. So Ransolm couldn’t have learned the most horrible truth of her life. There was no way. He had to be talking about something else. > > > But what? There was nothing Leia could think of, nothing besides... > > > *Ransolm pointed at her and declared to the entire Galactic Senate, “Senator Leia Organa is none other than the daughter of Darth Vader himself!”* > > - ibid > > > How did he find out, if Leia, Luke, and Han didn't tell him? Oddly, he had obtained a recording of Bail Organa spilling the beans - a recording Leia had never heard. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- > > Uproar swirled around Leia, surrounded her. She could hardly hear the shouts, stamps, whistles, and pounded desks from the senators over the rushing of blood in her own ears. Her breaths came shallow in her chest, as if Ransolm Casterfo’s revelation had wound itself so tightly around her that she would soon suffocate. > > > “This is a lie!” Varish howled over the din. “A filthy, outrageous lie, and one Senator Organa will rise to deny!” > > > Will I? Leia’s thoughts filtered through a daze. Her limbs had gone so watery and weak from shock that she wasn’t sure she could get to her feet. > > > “I do not come without proof,” Ransolm said. “I will now present my evidence for everyone to hear, so that they can all know how close we came to allowing Lord Vader’s daughter to rule over us all.” > > > Proof? What possible proof could there be? Leia stared at Ransolm, aware that she should feel angry or betrayed, but unable to summon any emotions besides horror and confusion. > > > Then Ransolm held up a box — not just any box, a keepsake chest. Every child on Alderaan had one. Parents and grandparents carved the designs, but only the child decided what would be put inside. Placing one of your possessions inside the keepsake chest meant that you had outgrown it but recognized its importance to you. In adulthood you could open the chest, look back, and see how you had chosen to tell your own story. > > > Leia thought that keepsake chest looked like hers. But she hadn’t seen it in at least thirty years, and surely it had been destroyed with Alderaan. > > > Nobody was ever supposed to open a keepsake chest without permission, but Ransolm opened this one now. From within he pulled out a music box, one Leia recognized so instantly that the memory pierced her heart like an arrow. She had no time to wonder how it had survived or come into Ransolm Casterfo’s possession; Ransolm had already opened it, and the tune began to play. Mirrorbright shines the moon— > > > — and then Bail Organa began to speak. Just the sound of his voice brought tears to her eyes, but every word revealed her deepest secret. In despair Leia thought, They are using both my fathers against me. > > > *Bail Organa, who had so often spoken out in the Old Republic and Imperial senates, who had possessed the courage to stand against Palpatine when nearly every other planetary leader had bowed to the Emperor’s power, uttered his last words to the public from the music box, played on every speaker, to be reproduced by every news source around the galaxy within moments. “Your father has become Darth Vader.”*** > > > The shouting rose again, even louder than before. Leia bit the inside of her cheek, struggling to keep some small measure of her composure. Her father — her real father — had had the foresight to store this somewhere offplanet. He had given Leia the truth in the only way he could. And the Senate had repaid his service and his love by using it to humiliate his daughter. She felt a moment of dull gratitude that at least Bail had never known this; he’d never had to face just how terribly his message had been used against her. > > - ibid > > > --- 1 Of course, R2-D2 knew by the end of Revenge of the Sith, and unlike C-3PO, his memory wasn't wiped. Even if it had been, R2 was on Dagobah when Yoda confirmed to Luke that Vader was Luke's father, so he may have overheard it then. So we may be able to add R2 to the list.	For another EU/Legends answer, Luke mentions it to his first batch of trainees on Yavin. Not certain if it occurs in the Jedi Academy trilogy itself, but it does happen in the book I, Jedi, which at least partly follows the same events.
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	Luke told Leia. Leia told Han. Leia and Han told Ben Solo. That may be it.1 Leia isn't even sure if Chewbacca knows. So speaketh the new canon novel, Bloodline. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- *Note: Spoilers for Star Wars: Bloodline* ahead > > Casterfo frowned. “Princess Leia?” > > > He had dared to tell her his most painful truth. She could never reveal hers, not to anyone who didn’t already know; Leia understood that. But perhaps she could find the courage to match his honesty with a measure of her own.** > > > “At the beginning of the war against the Empire, just as the Imperial Senate was dissolved—” She swallowed hard. “My ship was captured by the Devastator. That was Darth Vader’s flagship at the time. He personally brought me to the Death Star, where he— where he questioned me.”... > > > “Then he brought me to witness Alderaan’s destruction. Vader’s hand gripped my shoulder just after I watched my planet die. He made me suffer in every way a human being can suffer, all for the love of the Emperor.” > > > Casterfo slipped his arm from under her hand — she had gone utterly motionless — and grasped her fingers in his. As old as she was, as cynical as she’d become, Leia would never have guessed that such a gesture could still move her, but it did. > > > “I hated him so much,” she whispered. The breeze blew past them, rustling the blueblossom trees within the hanging gardens. It was as if they were helping to hide her painful words. “Sometimes I felt as if the only thing that kept me going in the aftermath of Alderaan was the strength of my hatred for Vader.” > > > For my father. > > - Star Wars: Bloodline > > > ... > > Think of your conversation with Casterfo as practice, she told herself. One day she would have to reveal all this to her son. The truth of Vader’s identity had shattered her; she could not imagine what it might mean to Ben. At least Luke could tell Ben the most important part— that Vader had, in the end, been redeemed. Anakin Skywalker had returned; the dark side had been defeated by the light. > > - ibid > > > ... > > Tai-Lin hesitated before he came closer. “There’s something I’ve been meaning to ask you for a long time, and finally I feel I know you well enough to dare. If I overstep my bounds, please, tell me.” > > > Uh-oh, Leia thought. Was this some kind of romantic overture? Surely not. She seemed to have a case of paranoia this morning. But she understood why an outside observer might believe she was available, which was proof Han had definitely been gone too long. “I’ll tell you, Tai-Lin. Go ahead and ask me.” > > > “Did you never consider following in your brother’s path and becoming a Jedi?” > > > Leia found herself caught short. “Why do you ask?” > > > “They say on my world that the Force sometimes runs strong in certain families.” > > > So much of the lore of the Jedi had been lost— but on Gatalenta, the old religion had remained strong. History had become legend, but some of the legends were still told. Gatalenta had been one of Luke’s first destinations when he began his research into the Jedi Knights of old. > > > Tai-Lin continued, “If that is true, then you might have the potential, just like your brother.” > > > And my son, she thought but did not say. > > > “If you have that ability, then I cannot imagine why you would not become a Jedi as well,” Tai-Lin finished. “Surely I’ve known few people who would make a finer Jedi Knight than you.” > > > Leia inclined her head in gratitude for the compliment, but she could not answer right away, because she could not tell the full truth. The Force was too important a subject to be shared lightly, even with Tai-Lin, her ally and friend. > > - ibid > > > However, it wouldn't have been necessary for Luke to tell anyone else - the secret had been exposed in front of the galactic senate by a political rival of Leia's: ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- > > Ransolm continued, “Princess Leia’s lies have protected her long enough. Her deception cannot be permitted to endanger the entire galaxy. If people are considering electing her as First Senator, they have the right to know exactly who they’re voting for.” > > > Leia’s confusion crystallized in an instant around one of her most terrible fears: He knows. > > > No. Impossible. Nobody had ever known this besides her, Luke, and Han; she wasn’t even sure whether Han had told Chewie. They hadn’t even told Ben yet. So Ransolm couldn’t have learned the most horrible truth of her life. There was no way. He had to be talking about something else. > > > But what? There was nothing Leia could think of, nothing besides... > > > *Ransolm pointed at her and declared to the entire Galactic Senate, “Senator Leia Organa is none other than the daughter of Darth Vader himself!”* > > - ibid > > > How did he find out, if Leia, Luke, and Han didn't tell him? Oddly, he had obtained a recording of Bail Organa spilling the beans - a recording Leia had never heard. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- > > Uproar swirled around Leia, surrounded her. She could hardly hear the shouts, stamps, whistles, and pounded desks from the senators over the rushing of blood in her own ears. Her breaths came shallow in her chest, as if Ransolm Casterfo’s revelation had wound itself so tightly around her that she would soon suffocate. > > > “This is a lie!” Varish howled over the din. “A filthy, outrageous lie, and one Senator Organa will rise to deny!” > > > Will I? Leia’s thoughts filtered through a daze. Her limbs had gone so watery and weak from shock that she wasn’t sure she could get to her feet. > > > “I do not come without proof,” Ransolm said. “I will now present my evidence for everyone to hear, so that they can all know how close we came to allowing Lord Vader’s daughter to rule over us all.” > > > Proof? What possible proof could there be? Leia stared at Ransolm, aware that she should feel angry or betrayed, but unable to summon any emotions besides horror and confusion. > > > Then Ransolm held up a box — not just any box, a keepsake chest. Every child on Alderaan had one. Parents and grandparents carved the designs, but only the child decided what would be put inside. Placing one of your possessions inside the keepsake chest meant that you had outgrown it but recognized its importance to you. In adulthood you could open the chest, look back, and see how you had chosen to tell your own story. > > > Leia thought that keepsake chest looked like hers. But she hadn’t seen it in at least thirty years, and surely it had been destroyed with Alderaan. > > > Nobody was ever supposed to open a keepsake chest without permission, but Ransolm opened this one now. From within he pulled out a music box, one Leia recognized so instantly that the memory pierced her heart like an arrow. She had no time to wonder how it had survived or come into Ransolm Casterfo’s possession; Ransolm had already opened it, and the tune began to play. Mirrorbright shines the moon— > > > — and then Bail Organa began to speak. Just the sound of his voice brought tears to her eyes, but every word revealed her deepest secret. In despair Leia thought, They are using both my fathers against me. > > > *Bail Organa, who had so often spoken out in the Old Republic and Imperial senates, who had possessed the courage to stand against Palpatine when nearly every other planetary leader had bowed to the Emperor’s power, uttered his last words to the public from the music box, played on every speaker, to be reproduced by every news source around the galaxy within moments. “Your father has become Darth Vader.”*** > > > The shouting rose again, even louder than before. Leia bit the inside of her cheek, struggling to keep some small measure of her composure. Her father — her real father — had had the foresight to store this somewhere offplanet. He had given Leia the truth in the only way he could. And the Senate had repaid his service and his love by using it to humiliate his daughter. She felt a moment of dull gratitude that at least Bail had never known this; he’d never had to face just how terribly his message had been used against her. > > - ibid > > > --- 1 Of course, R2-D2 knew by the end of Revenge of the Sith, and unlike C-3PO, his memory wasn't wiped. Even if it had been, R2 was on Dagobah when Yoda confirmed to Luke that Vader was Luke's father, so he may have overheard it then. So we may be able to add R2 to the list.	*In Legends* Yes, at least some people are aware of this. All the Solo/Skywalker family is aware of this, as well as the (new) Jedi order. I have no precise sources but it should be referenced in many books. One of the first reference could be in the Thrawn saga where Noghris called Leia "Lady Vader" but I think it was more or less secret, then just became known by more people. In Disney canon** In The Force Awakens, yes > > Kylo Ren is aware he's Darth Vader's grandson. > > > There is a scene where he speaks to Vader's helmet : > > Show me again the power of the darkness, and I'll let nothing stand in our way. Show me, grandfather, and I will finish what you started. > > > Regarding other people, there is no exact answer yet as far as I know, but some details could be provided in the upcoming books, comics and movies (note: I heard rumors that we may have some info in the Bloodline novel but this is not confirmed as it hasn't been released yet).
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	*In Legends* Yes, at least some people are aware of this. All the Solo/Skywalker family is aware of this, as well as the (new) Jedi order. I have no precise sources but it should be referenced in many books. One of the first reference could be in the Thrawn saga where Noghris called Leia "Lady Vader" but I think it was more or less secret, then just became known by more people. In Disney canon** In The Force Awakens, yes > > Kylo Ren is aware he's Darth Vader's grandson. > > > There is a scene where he speaks to Vader's helmet : > > Show me again the power of the darkness, and I'll let nothing stand in our way. Show me, grandfather, and I will finish what you started. > > > Regarding other people, there is no exact answer yet as far as I know, but some details could be provided in the upcoming books, comics and movies (note: I heard rumors that we may have some info in the Bloodline novel but this is not confirmed as it hasn't been released yet).	For another EU/Legends answer, Luke mentions it to his first batch of trainees on Yavin. Not certain if it occurs in the Jedi Academy trilogy itself, but it does happen in the book I, Jedi, which at least partly follows the same events.
126,050	Did it ever become "public" knowledge that Anakin was Darth Vader, after he died? There were of course several people at the Viking Jedi funeral of Darth Vader, but did the others (not including Leia) know he was Anakin and the father of Luke and Leia? EU or canon?	2016/04/25	[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/126050", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/21237/" ]	Luke tells Leia in ROTJ, right before he also tells her she is his sister. > > My father has it, I have it, my sister has it. Yes, it's you, Leia! > > > Edit: You now clarified that you mean "besides Leia". I'm not aware of canon events where Luke would have disclosed that. From TFA, we do know that Han knew > > There's nothing we could have done. There's too much Vader in him > (1:24:26) > > > As did Lor San Tekka, almost certainly, as he know Ben/Kylo's heritage > > The First Order rose from the dark side, you did not. (0:7:18) > > >	For another EU/Legends answer, Luke mentions it to his first batch of trainees on Yavin. Not certain if it occurs in the Jedi Academy trilogy itself, but it does happen in the book I, Jedi, which at least partly follows the same events.
300,882	I had a hard drive crash and now that I reinstalled iTunes it seems to threaten to replace my current iPhone apps with the redownloaded apps on my new hard drive. This will cause me to lose all my progress in the various games that I have. Is there a way to turn the app sync on without having it rewrite my current apps?	2011/06/23	[ "https://superuser.com/questions/300882", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/25598/" ]	Make sure the computer is authorised on the same account as the iPhone, then delete the apps from your hard drive. The next time you sync your iPhone, the apps will be copied over from your phone.	Also, if you only want to manually transfer apps from your iPhone to your iTunes, with your device connected, right-click on the iPhone icon on the left-hand side pane in iTunes and select "Transfer purchases".
23,763	For example, Germans occupied Poland, then Ukraine as a part of USSR. And this occupation went on for several years. Did universities keep on working? Schools? How did the curriculum change? I understand that there was no need to change maths. But what about history? Economics? Literature? Were new textbooks written? Or were those lessons and faculties just abolished? Maybe someone knows concrete examples of how Germans dealt with those issues? Was it very different in Ukraine and France for example? Maybe Germans thought that Slavs didn't need schools and colleges at all?	2015/08/01	[ "https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/23763", "https://history.stackexchange.com", "https://history.stackexchange.com/users/13056/" ]	Depends on the country. In occupied Norway there were several factors. Many schools became barracs for german soldiers or used for other purposes by the occupiers. There were attempts to "nazify" the schools (as well as the church and the organizations for various sports), which ended with the arrest and deportation of many teachers. These were replaced by more "suitable" people, which perhaps had less experience as teachers. Some parents took their children out of schools and home-schooled them. In Oslo students at the University went on strike and demonstrated. This resulted in mass-arrest and the closing of the University. It's worth mentioning, that the resistance movement also flourished among youth in high-school and college age, and that several resistance-groups had universities as their base (for example the Norways technical university in Trondheim). So this combined -- closed schools, bad teachers, and joining various resistance movement -- made educations (especially higher education, but primary too) somewhat "scetchy" in Norway during the five years the occupation lasted.	In the places that I know, universities were working: in Lvov, Kiev, Kharkov. Certainly universities were working in Paris. Schools were also working. Of course, in Soviet Union, students were not indoctrinated in Communist ideology under the occupation. Whether they were indoctrinated in any other ideology, and how, it is hard to tell: the teachers were the same, after all. Germans did not send teachers to teach in Ukraine. Enrollment to the universities sharply decreased, of course, and many teachers had to leave. Others were fired. In Lvov, the Germans shot 25 university professors soon after the occupation. Many courses were cancelled. But those universities that I mentioned were not completely closed. I found it difficult to learn more detail about the occupied Soviet Union, because the whole subject of German occupation was somewhat taboo in the Soviet Union. I have not seen textbooks published under occupation, but this [very informative article](http://www.almavest.ru/ru/favorite/2011/03/29/194/) cited by Anixx and [translated into English by Google](http://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&sl=auto&tl=en&u=http://www.almavest.ru/ru/favorite/2011/03/29/194/), details how the Germans printed Russian language textbooks, for use in formerly Soviet schools beginning in the school year that started on October 1, 1942.
23,763	For example, Germans occupied Poland, then Ukraine as a part of USSR. And this occupation went on for several years. Did universities keep on working? Schools? How did the curriculum change? I understand that there was no need to change maths. But what about history? Economics? Literature? Were new textbooks written? Or were those lessons and faculties just abolished? Maybe someone knows concrete examples of how Germans dealt with those issues? Was it very different in Ukraine and France for example? Maybe Germans thought that Slavs didn't need schools and colleges at all?	2015/08/01	[ "https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/23763", "https://history.stackexchange.com", "https://history.stackexchange.com/users/13056/" ]	In the places that I know, universities were working: in Lvov, Kiev, Kharkov. Certainly universities were working in Paris. Schools were also working. Of course, in Soviet Union, students were not indoctrinated in Communist ideology under the occupation. Whether they were indoctrinated in any other ideology, and how, it is hard to tell: the teachers were the same, after all. Germans did not send teachers to teach in Ukraine. Enrollment to the universities sharply decreased, of course, and many teachers had to leave. Others were fired. In Lvov, the Germans shot 25 university professors soon after the occupation. Many courses were cancelled. But those universities that I mentioned were not completely closed. I found it difficult to learn more detail about the occupied Soviet Union, because the whole subject of German occupation was somewhat taboo in the Soviet Union. I have not seen textbooks published under occupation, but this [very informative article](http://www.almavest.ru/ru/favorite/2011/03/29/194/) cited by Anixx and [translated into English by Google](http://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&sl=auto&tl=en&u=http://www.almavest.ru/ru/favorite/2011/03/29/194/), details how the Germans printed Russian language textbooks, for use in formerly Soviet schools beginning in the school year that started on October 1, 1942.	The rest of pre-war Czechoslovakia (without Sudetenland) was occupied by German forces on March 15, 1939 (creation of Protektorat Bohmen und Mahredn) and at the same time a Slovak state was formed. In October 1939, while celebrating anniversary of formation of Czechoslovakia (1918), a Czech university student Jan Opletal was shot, and later died. His funeral became a pretext for suppression of Czech university students, many were executed or sent to concentration camps. ALL universities closed. High school remained opened and operational. The German language became compulsory as the second language at schools. All other "normal life" in an occupied country continued: football league, movies were shot as well as 250.000 Jews who has been living in Czech.
23,763	For example, Germans occupied Poland, then Ukraine as a part of USSR. And this occupation went on for several years. Did universities keep on working? Schools? How did the curriculum change? I understand that there was no need to change maths. But what about history? Economics? Literature? Were new textbooks written? Or were those lessons and faculties just abolished? Maybe someone knows concrete examples of how Germans dealt with those issues? Was it very different in Ukraine and France for example? Maybe Germans thought that Slavs didn't need schools and colleges at all?	2015/08/01	[ "https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/23763", "https://history.stackexchange.com", "https://history.stackexchange.com/users/13056/" ]	Depends on the country. In occupied Norway there were several factors. Many schools became barracs for german soldiers or used for other purposes by the occupiers. There were attempts to "nazify" the schools (as well as the church and the organizations for various sports), which ended with the arrest and deportation of many teachers. These were replaced by more "suitable" people, which perhaps had less experience as teachers. Some parents took their children out of schools and home-schooled them. In Oslo students at the University went on strike and demonstrated. This resulted in mass-arrest and the closing of the University. It's worth mentioning, that the resistance movement also flourished among youth in high-school and college age, and that several resistance-groups had universities as their base (for example the Norways technical university in Trondheim). So this combined -- closed schools, bad teachers, and joining various resistance movement -- made educations (especially higher education, but primary too) somewhat "scetchy" in Norway during the five years the occupation lasted.	In the first year of the war in the West, life went on as usual, schools would open for the new school year, Universities opened their gates, heck even football season continued in the Netherlands (and other Western countries) up until 1944. Universities were rapidly closed as the outrage about dismissal and ban of Jewish professors and other legislation caused resistance; they closed in late 1940/early 1941. As for other types of schools, at first the only difference was that the new bosses interfered much more with the ongoings of the schools and were trying to nazify the Dutch youth. However, unlike in Eastern Europe, the population in Western Europe was on a much and much bigger scale concerned about what was happening to their fellow Jewish countrymen, leading to one school in my own home area calling upon their students to all wear yellow stars of David in response to the Jewish inhabitants of their town being forced to. All the students adhered and this was the ONLY example in the West, de facto the whole of occupied Europe, that all the students of a school showed their disgust of the new measures. This incident, as well as the "Dokwerker" strike in Amsterdam of February 1941 (the first ever done during WW2 and the only one of it's kind in the West) and other incidents made it happen that school life was severely interrupted by the end of school year 1940-41 and that schools would close down for increasingly longer periods of time until they were definitively shut down in school year 1944-45.
23,763	For example, Germans occupied Poland, then Ukraine as a part of USSR. And this occupation went on for several years. Did universities keep on working? Schools? How did the curriculum change? I understand that there was no need to change maths. But what about history? Economics? Literature? Were new textbooks written? Or were those lessons and faculties just abolished? Maybe someone knows concrete examples of how Germans dealt with those issues? Was it very different in Ukraine and France for example? Maybe Germans thought that Slavs didn't need schools and colleges at all?	2015/08/01	[ "https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/23763", "https://history.stackexchange.com", "https://history.stackexchange.com/users/13056/" ]	Depends on the country. In occupied Norway there were several factors. Many schools became barracs for german soldiers or used for other purposes by the occupiers. There were attempts to "nazify" the schools (as well as the church and the organizations for various sports), which ended with the arrest and deportation of many teachers. These were replaced by more "suitable" people, which perhaps had less experience as teachers. Some parents took their children out of schools and home-schooled them. In Oslo students at the University went on strike and demonstrated. This resulted in mass-arrest and the closing of the University. It's worth mentioning, that the resistance movement also flourished among youth in high-school and college age, and that several resistance-groups had universities as their base (for example the Norways technical university in Trondheim). So this combined -- closed schools, bad teachers, and joining various resistance movement -- made educations (especially higher education, but primary too) somewhat "scetchy" in Norway during the five years the occupation lasted.	The rest of pre-war Czechoslovakia (without Sudetenland) was occupied by German forces on March 15, 1939 (creation of Protektorat Bohmen und Mahredn) and at the same time a Slovak state was formed. In October 1939, while celebrating anniversary of formation of Czechoslovakia (1918), a Czech university student Jan Opletal was shot, and later died. His funeral became a pretext for suppression of Czech university students, many were executed or sent to concentration camps. ALL universities closed. High school remained opened and operational. The German language became compulsory as the second language at schools. All other "normal life" in an occupied country continued: football league, movies were shot as well as 250.000 Jews who has been living in Czech.
23,763	For example, Germans occupied Poland, then Ukraine as a part of USSR. And this occupation went on for several years. Did universities keep on working? Schools? How did the curriculum change? I understand that there was no need to change maths. But what about history? Economics? Literature? Were new textbooks written? Or were those lessons and faculties just abolished? Maybe someone knows concrete examples of how Germans dealt with those issues? Was it very different in Ukraine and France for example? Maybe Germans thought that Slavs didn't need schools and colleges at all?	2015/08/01	[ "https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/23763", "https://history.stackexchange.com", "https://history.stackexchange.com/users/13056/" ]	In the first year of the war in the West, life went on as usual, schools would open for the new school year, Universities opened their gates, heck even football season continued in the Netherlands (and other Western countries) up until 1944. Universities were rapidly closed as the outrage about dismissal and ban of Jewish professors and other legislation caused resistance; they closed in late 1940/early 1941. As for other types of schools, at first the only difference was that the new bosses interfered much more with the ongoings of the schools and were trying to nazify the Dutch youth. However, unlike in Eastern Europe, the population in Western Europe was on a much and much bigger scale concerned about what was happening to their fellow Jewish countrymen, leading to one school in my own home area calling upon their students to all wear yellow stars of David in response to the Jewish inhabitants of their town being forced to. All the students adhered and this was the ONLY example in the West, de facto the whole of occupied Europe, that all the students of a school showed their disgust of the new measures. This incident, as well as the "Dokwerker" strike in Amsterdam of February 1941 (the first ever done during WW2 and the only one of it's kind in the West) and other incidents made it happen that school life was severely interrupted by the end of school year 1940-41 and that schools would close down for increasingly longer periods of time until they were definitively shut down in school year 1944-45.	The rest of pre-war Czechoslovakia (without Sudetenland) was occupied by German forces on March 15, 1939 (creation of Protektorat Bohmen und Mahredn) and at the same time a Slovak state was formed. In October 1939, while celebrating anniversary of formation of Czechoslovakia (1918), a Czech university student Jan Opletal was shot, and later died. His funeral became a pretext for suppression of Czech university students, many were executed or sent to concentration camps. ALL universities closed. High school remained opened and operational. The German language became compulsory as the second language at schools. All other "normal life" in an occupied country continued: football league, movies were shot as well as 250.000 Jews who has been living in Czech.
7,173,503	I created for a project a single class, that contains all access code to the database. Is this a good practice , under the assumption that this class doesn't contain any logic, or should i use several classes? If yes, how should i partition my code? I use C# .Net.	2011/08/24	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7173503", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/457261/" ]	Actually Under the concept of MVC framework, it is a good practice to create a different class for database access, seperate class for logic and seperate class for your views. You are doing good if you are writing a seperate class for database access under the assumption that it does not contain any logic. In Agile Developement there is a term named as Database Encapsulation Layers. A database encapsulation layer hides the implementation details of your database, including their physical schemas, from your business code. In effect this layer provides your business objects with persistence services – the ability to read data from, write data to, and delete data from – data sources. Ideally your business objects should know nothing about how they are persisted, it just happens. Database encapsulation layers aren’t magic and they aren’t academic theories; database encapsulation layers are commonly used practice by both large and small applications as well as in both simple and complex applications. Database encapsulation layers are an important technique that every agile software developer should be aware of and be prepared to use. An effective database encapsulation layer will provide several benefits: -> It reduces the coupling between your object schema and your data schema, increasing your ability to evolve either one. -> It implements all database-related code in one place. -> It simplifies the job of application programmers. -> It allows application programmers to focus on the business problem and Agile DBA(s) can focus on the database. -> It gives you a common place to implement data-oriented business rules and logic. -> It takes advantage of specific database features, increasing application performance. Hope this helps.	If your database is quite small, say, only a couple of tables, you could write all your queries in one class. otherwise I would suggest that per Entity/Table one class. for example, StudentDao.class will only focus on the queries to database table "STUDENT", and TeacherDao.class will only contain queries to table "TEACHER". if you are gonna implement a complex business logic, you may want to have a service class, to weave StudentDao and TeacherDao together.
7,173,503	I created for a project a single class, that contains all access code to the database. Is this a good practice , under the assumption that this class doesn't contain any logic, or should i use several classes? If yes, how should i partition my code? I use C# .Net.	2011/08/24	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7173503", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/457261/" ]	Actually Under the concept of MVC framework, it is a good practice to create a different class for database access, seperate class for logic and seperate class for your views. You are doing good if you are writing a seperate class for database access under the assumption that it does not contain any logic. In Agile Developement there is a term named as Database Encapsulation Layers. A database encapsulation layer hides the implementation details of your database, including their physical schemas, from your business code. In effect this layer provides your business objects with persistence services – the ability to read data from, write data to, and delete data from – data sources. Ideally your business objects should know nothing about how they are persisted, it just happens. Database encapsulation layers aren’t magic and they aren’t academic theories; database encapsulation layers are commonly used practice by both large and small applications as well as in both simple and complex applications. Database encapsulation layers are an important technique that every agile software developer should be aware of and be prepared to use. An effective database encapsulation layer will provide several benefits: -> It reduces the coupling between your object schema and your data schema, increasing your ability to evolve either one. -> It implements all database-related code in one place. -> It simplifies the job of application programmers. -> It allows application programmers to focus on the business problem and Agile DBA(s) can focus on the database. -> It gives you a common place to implement data-oriented business rules and logic. -> It takes advantage of specific database features, increasing application performance. Hope this helps.	These are some of the suggestions while accessing database. 1.) Always keep your database access parameters in a properties file. Use a handler to get those data. Because when you change your database then you need not change your code just make a change in the properties file it's enough. -- So here you need a handler class. 2.) Never create a single class (a god class) which performs all the actions. Disperse your behaviour in to different classes depending on the intent. For example Keep all read behavior in one class, Write behavior in another class ... so on. 3.) You can create a class which deals with connection creations and pooling stuff... Hope this helps.
7,173,503	I created for a project a single class, that contains all access code to the database. Is this a good practice , under the assumption that this class doesn't contain any logic, or should i use several classes? If yes, how should i partition my code? I use C# .Net.	2011/08/24	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7173503", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/457261/" ]	Actually Under the concept of MVC framework, it is a good practice to create a different class for database access, seperate class for logic and seperate class for your views. You are doing good if you are writing a seperate class for database access under the assumption that it does not contain any logic. In Agile Developement there is a term named as Database Encapsulation Layers. A database encapsulation layer hides the implementation details of your database, including their physical schemas, from your business code. In effect this layer provides your business objects with persistence services – the ability to read data from, write data to, and delete data from – data sources. Ideally your business objects should know nothing about how they are persisted, it just happens. Database encapsulation layers aren’t magic and they aren’t academic theories; database encapsulation layers are commonly used practice by both large and small applications as well as in both simple and complex applications. Database encapsulation layers are an important technique that every agile software developer should be aware of and be prepared to use. An effective database encapsulation layer will provide several benefits: -> It reduces the coupling between your object schema and your data schema, increasing your ability to evolve either one. -> It implements all database-related code in one place. -> It simplifies the job of application programmers. -> It allows application programmers to focus on the business problem and Agile DBA(s) can focus on the database. -> It gives you a common place to implement data-oriented business rules and logic. -> It takes advantage of specific database features, increasing application performance. Hope this helps.	Unless your data access is very simple, probably not. you probably shouldn't need to write this code yourself. Take a look at some Object Relational Mapping tools. NHibernate is a popular .Net solution. <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NHibernate> If you really do want to write it yourself look up design patterns in this area, like the Data Transfer Object pattern. <http://martinfowler.com/eaaCatalog/dataTransferObject.html>
7,173,503	I created for a project a single class, that contains all access code to the database. Is this a good practice , under the assumption that this class doesn't contain any logic, or should i use several classes? If yes, how should i partition my code? I use C# .Net.	2011/08/24	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7173503", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/457261/" ]	If your database is quite small, say, only a couple of tables, you could write all your queries in one class. otherwise I would suggest that per Entity/Table one class. for example, StudentDao.class will only focus on the queries to database table "STUDENT", and TeacherDao.class will only contain queries to table "TEACHER". if you are gonna implement a complex business logic, you may want to have a service class, to weave StudentDao and TeacherDao together.	These are some of the suggestions while accessing database. 1.) Always keep your database access parameters in a properties file. Use a handler to get those data. Because when you change your database then you need not change your code just make a change in the properties file it's enough. -- So here you need a handler class. 2.) Never create a single class (a god class) which performs all the actions. Disperse your behaviour in to different classes depending on the intent. For example Keep all read behavior in one class, Write behavior in another class ... so on. 3.) You can create a class which deals with connection creations and pooling stuff... Hope this helps.
7,173,503	I created for a project a single class, that contains all access code to the database. Is this a good practice , under the assumption that this class doesn't contain any logic, or should i use several classes? If yes, how should i partition my code? I use C# .Net.	2011/08/24	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7173503", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/457261/" ]	Unless your data access is very simple, probably not. you probably shouldn't need to write this code yourself. Take a look at some Object Relational Mapping tools. NHibernate is a popular .Net solution. <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NHibernate> If you really do want to write it yourself look up design patterns in this area, like the Data Transfer Object pattern. <http://martinfowler.com/eaaCatalog/dataTransferObject.html>	These are some of the suggestions while accessing database. 1.) Always keep your database access parameters in a properties file. Use a handler to get those data. Because when you change your database then you need not change your code just make a change in the properties file it's enough. -- So here you need a handler class. 2.) Never create a single class (a god class) which performs all the actions. Disperse your behaviour in to different classes depending on the intent. For example Keep all read behavior in one class, Write behavior in another class ... so on. 3.) You can create a class which deals with connection creations and pooling stuff... Hope this helps.
33,614	Many periodic tables place lanthanum and actinium in the f-block of elements, for example, [this periodic table](http://periodic.lanl.gov/index.shtml) from Los Alamos National Laboratory. However, [this table](http://www.rsc.org/periodic-table) from the Royal Society of Chemsitry places lanthanum and actinium in the d-block. Which is the most appropriate placement of these two elements on the periodic table? What is the most recent scientific consensus regarding this matter?	2015/07/05	[ "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/33614", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/16852/" ]	Lanthanum and Actinium are generally both accepted as f-block elements. You will notice in the Royal Society's periodic table, La and Ac are both color coded to match the other f-block elements. They do this to show the beginning of both the Lanthanide and Actinide series, while maintaining a reasonable symmetry for their periodic table (that is, without "holes" in their table, similar to the first link you provided).	As per IUPAC, lanthanum and actinium are f-block elements. source: <https://iupac.org/what-we-do/periodic-table-of-elements/>
33,614	Many periodic tables place lanthanum and actinium in the f-block of elements, for example, [this periodic table](http://periodic.lanl.gov/index.shtml) from Los Alamos National Laboratory. However, [this table](http://www.rsc.org/periodic-table) from the Royal Society of Chemsitry places lanthanum and actinium in the d-block. Which is the most appropriate placement of these two elements on the periodic table? What is the most recent scientific consensus regarding this matter?	2015/07/05	[ "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/33614", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/16852/" ]	Lanthanum and Actinium are generally both accepted as f-block elements. You will notice in the Royal Society's periodic table, La and Ac are both color coded to match the other f-block elements. They do this to show the beginning of both the Lanthanide and Actinide series, while maintaining a reasonable symmetry for their periodic table (that is, without "holes" in their table, similar to the first link you provided).	From the [IUPAC red book](https://iupac.org/cms/wp-content/uploads/2016/07/Red_Book_2005.pdf): > > The groups of elements in the periodic table (see inside front cover) are numbered from 1 to 18. The elements (except hydrogen) of groups 1, 2 and 13–18 are designated as main group elements and, except in group 18, the first two elements of each main group are termed typical elements. Optionally, the letters s, p, d and f may be used to distinguish different blocks of elements. For example, the elements of groups 3–12 are the d-block elements. These elements are also commonly referred to as the transition elements, though the elements of group 12 are not always included; the f-block elements are sometimes referred to as the inner transition elements. If appropriate for a particular purpose, the various groups > may be named from the first element in each, for example elements of the boron group (B, Al, Ga, In, Tl), elements of the titanium group (Ti, Zr, Hf, Rf), etc. > The following collective names for like elements are IUPAC-approved: alkali metals > (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr), alkaline earth metals (Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra), pnictogens$^8$ (N, P, As, Sb, Bi), chalcogens (O, S, Se, Te, Po), halogens (F, Cl, Br, I, At), noble gases (He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn), lanthanoids (La, Ce, Pr, Nd, Pm, Sm, Eu, Gd, Tb, Dy, Ho, Er, Tm, Yb, Lu), rare earth metals (Sc, Y and the lanthanoids) and actinoids (Ac, Th, Pa, U, Np, Pu, Am, Cm, Bk, Cf, Es, Fm, Md, No, Lr). > > > So to decide which block La and Ac belong to, you would have to know which group they are in (group 3 or no group). In the periodic table shown in the same document, there is only an asterisk in period 6 and 7 group 3. So according to the red book, La and Ac (and Lu and Lr) are in the f-block. If a periodic table shows elements in group 3, this would imply they are in the d-block. This is true even if they are color-coded in the same way as the lanthanoids and actinoids. The IUPAC red book also makes a statement about the terms lanthanide and actinide: > > Although lanthanoid means ‘like lanthanum’ and so should not include lanthanum, > lanthanum has become included by common usage. Similarly, actinoid. The ending ‘ide’ normally indicates a negative ion, and therefore lanthanoid and actinoid are preferred to lanthanide and actinide. > > > The placement of La and Ac in the periodic table is [debatable](https://www.chemistryworld.com/news/new-rationale-for-15-element-wide-f-block/3009047.article), and maybe one day IUPAC will change its mind.
33,614	Many periodic tables place lanthanum and actinium in the f-block of elements, for example, [this periodic table](http://periodic.lanl.gov/index.shtml) from Los Alamos National Laboratory. However, [this table](http://www.rsc.org/periodic-table) from the Royal Society of Chemsitry places lanthanum and actinium in the d-block. Which is the most appropriate placement of these two elements on the periodic table? What is the most recent scientific consensus regarding this matter?	2015/07/05	[ "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/33614", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/16852/" ]	Lanthanum and actinium are usually regarded as d-block elements (Myers, Oldham & Tocci 2004, p. 130) and generally counted as lanthanides and actinides (the rest of which occupy the f-block). Some periodic tables, like the one from LANL emphasise chemical similarities, so lanthanum and actinium are shown at the foot of the table, along with the f-block elements. That's fine, but leaves a hole under yttrium so it isn't clear which two elements go there. Other tables, like the one from the Royal Society of Chemistry, presumably rely on electron configurations to work our which elements fit under yttrium, and use colour shading to emphasise similarities in chemical behaviour. Myers RT, Oldham KB & Tocci S 2004, Holt Chemistry, Holt, Rinehart and Winston, Orlando	As per IUPAC, lanthanum and actinium are f-block elements. source: <https://iupac.org/what-we-do/periodic-table-of-elements/>
33,614	Many periodic tables place lanthanum and actinium in the f-block of elements, for example, [this periodic table](http://periodic.lanl.gov/index.shtml) from Los Alamos National Laboratory. However, [this table](http://www.rsc.org/periodic-table) from the Royal Society of Chemsitry places lanthanum and actinium in the d-block. Which is the most appropriate placement of these two elements on the periodic table? What is the most recent scientific consensus regarding this matter?	2015/07/05	[ "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/33614", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com", "https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/16852/" ]	Lanthanum and actinium are usually regarded as d-block elements (Myers, Oldham & Tocci 2004, p. 130) and generally counted as lanthanides and actinides (the rest of which occupy the f-block). Some periodic tables, like the one from LANL emphasise chemical similarities, so lanthanum and actinium are shown at the foot of the table, along with the f-block elements. That's fine, but leaves a hole under yttrium so it isn't clear which two elements go there. Other tables, like the one from the Royal Society of Chemistry, presumably rely on electron configurations to work our which elements fit under yttrium, and use colour shading to emphasise similarities in chemical behaviour. Myers RT, Oldham KB & Tocci S 2004, Holt Chemistry, Holt, Rinehart and Winston, Orlando	From the [IUPAC red book](https://iupac.org/cms/wp-content/uploads/2016/07/Red_Book_2005.pdf): > > The groups of elements in the periodic table (see inside front cover) are numbered from 1 to 18. The elements (except hydrogen) of groups 1, 2 and 13–18 are designated as main group elements and, except in group 18, the first two elements of each main group are termed typical elements. Optionally, the letters s, p, d and f may be used to distinguish different blocks of elements. For example, the elements of groups 3–12 are the d-block elements. These elements are also commonly referred to as the transition elements, though the elements of group 12 are not always included; the f-block elements are sometimes referred to as the inner transition elements. If appropriate for a particular purpose, the various groups > may be named from the first element in each, for example elements of the boron group (B, Al, Ga, In, Tl), elements of the titanium group (Ti, Zr, Hf, Rf), etc. > The following collective names for like elements are IUPAC-approved: alkali metals > (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr), alkaline earth metals (Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra), pnictogens$^8$ (N, P, As, Sb, Bi), chalcogens (O, S, Se, Te, Po), halogens (F, Cl, Br, I, At), noble gases (He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn), lanthanoids (La, Ce, Pr, Nd, Pm, Sm, Eu, Gd, Tb, Dy, Ho, Er, Tm, Yb, Lu), rare earth metals (Sc, Y and the lanthanoids) and actinoids (Ac, Th, Pa, U, Np, Pu, Am, Cm, Bk, Cf, Es, Fm, Md, No, Lr). > > > So to decide which block La and Ac belong to, you would have to know which group they are in (group 3 or no group). In the periodic table shown in the same document, there is only an asterisk in period 6 and 7 group 3. So according to the red book, La and Ac (and Lu and Lr) are in the f-block. If a periodic table shows elements in group 3, this would imply they are in the d-block. This is true even if they are color-coded in the same way as the lanthanoids and actinoids. The IUPAC red book also makes a statement about the terms lanthanide and actinide: > > Although lanthanoid means ‘like lanthanum’ and so should not include lanthanum, > lanthanum has become included by common usage. Similarly, actinoid. The ending ‘ide’ normally indicates a negative ion, and therefore lanthanoid and actinoid are preferred to lanthanide and actinide. > > > The placement of La and Ac in the periodic table is [debatable](https://www.chemistryworld.com/news/new-rationale-for-15-element-wide-f-block/3009047.article), and maybe one day IUPAC will change its mind.
123,186	Is it advisable for a security-minded company (data stored could be client's detailed information, patent pending docs) destroy all replaced HDDs/SSD? Or is it OK to re-sell them online? Information used in the disk was encrypted.	2016/05/13	[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/123186", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/29727/" ]	Disk is cheap, peace of mind isn't. Shred the disks and you won't have to worry about them. "But it's encrypted..." - is it? Are all your disks encrypted? If not, how confident are you that your asset management never ever confuses encrypted and unencrypted disks? Are you willing to sink the necessary effort into tracking assets that closely? Disk is cheap. You won't earn that much from selling them, and people buying the rest of the hardware can backfill a disk pretty cheaply. Just shred them.	Things that are encrypted are potentially decryptable. A pile of disk dust is less so. Physical destruction has a few other advantages - its relatively fast. A drill press could render a platter unreadable fairly quickly, and a shredder can be used to destroy disks in bulk. Wiping might take an hour or more depending on the size of the disk. It can be done on disks that won't read on your systems (but could be fixed by professional recovery services or $attacker). Its a relatively unskilled task that needs minimal babysitting, and is easy to verify. Unusable media is safe media.
123,186	Is it advisable for a security-minded company (data stored could be client's detailed information, patent pending docs) destroy all replaced HDDs/SSD? Or is it OK to re-sell them online? Information used in the disk was encrypted.	2016/05/13	[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/123186", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/29727/" ]	Disk is cheap, peace of mind isn't. Shred the disks and you won't have to worry about them. "But it's encrypted..." - is it? Are all your disks encrypted? If not, how confident are you that your asset management never ever confuses encrypted and unencrypted disks? Are you willing to sink the necessary effort into tracking assets that closely? Disk is cheap. You won't earn that much from selling them, and people buying the rest of the hardware can backfill a disk pretty cheaply. Just shred them.	Consider disk as a paper which contains some sensitive information. Would you like to crumple them and sell them off for some monetary gain, or would you rather use a shredder machine so that the data becomes irrecoverable? Disks can be bought, data leaked cannot be. There are many people out there who are eager and ready to accept the challenge of breaking your encryption, and selling off the data. Even if you wipe the data, or rewrite it over and over, still there would be chances of getting the data(or some of it) back. Best solution? Shred the disk. Consider it as an investment towards securing your sensitive/confidential data.
123,186	Is it advisable for a security-minded company (data stored could be client's detailed information, patent pending docs) destroy all replaced HDDs/SSD? Or is it OK to re-sell them online? Information used in the disk was encrypted.	2016/05/13	[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/123186", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/29727/" ]	Disk is cheap, peace of mind isn't. Shred the disks and you won't have to worry about them. "But it's encrypted..." - is it? Are all your disks encrypted? If not, how confident are you that your asset management never ever confuses encrypted and unencrypted disks? Are you willing to sink the necessary effort into tracking assets that closely? Disk is cheap. You won't earn that much from selling them, and people buying the rest of the hardware can backfill a disk pretty cheaply. Just shred them.	Well ask yourself what would you do. Lets say you have a hard disk with all your credit card info etc. Do you think encryption is enough? Personally I would forensically wipe the drive and then destroy it before i throw it in the garbage.
123,186	Is it advisable for a security-minded company (data stored could be client's detailed information, patent pending docs) destroy all replaced HDDs/SSD? Or is it OK to re-sell them online? Information used in the disk was encrypted.	2016/05/13	[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/123186", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/29727/" ]	Things that are encrypted are potentially decryptable. A pile of disk dust is less so. Physical destruction has a few other advantages - its relatively fast. A drill press could render a platter unreadable fairly quickly, and a shredder can be used to destroy disks in bulk. Wiping might take an hour or more depending on the size of the disk. It can be done on disks that won't read on your systems (but could be fixed by professional recovery services or $attacker). Its a relatively unskilled task that needs minimal babysitting, and is easy to verify. Unusable media is safe media.	Well ask yourself what would you do. Lets say you have a hard disk with all your credit card info etc. Do you think encryption is enough? Personally I would forensically wipe the drive and then destroy it before i throw it in the garbage.
123,186	Is it advisable for a security-minded company (data stored could be client's detailed information, patent pending docs) destroy all replaced HDDs/SSD? Or is it OK to re-sell them online? Information used in the disk was encrypted.	2016/05/13	[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/123186", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/29727/" ]	Consider disk as a paper which contains some sensitive information. Would you like to crumple them and sell them off for some monetary gain, or would you rather use a shredder machine so that the data becomes irrecoverable? Disks can be bought, data leaked cannot be. There are many people out there who are eager and ready to accept the challenge of breaking your encryption, and selling off the data. Even if you wipe the data, or rewrite it over and over, still there would be chances of getting the data(or some of it) back. Best solution? Shred the disk. Consider it as an investment towards securing your sensitive/confidential data.	Well ask yourself what would you do. Lets say you have a hard disk with all your credit card info etc. Do you think encryption is enough? Personally I would forensically wipe the drive and then destroy it before i throw it in the garbage.
113,518	I currently have a triple-boot setup in one dev machine (OSX/Win/Linux). I wonder how many more could I install. I know Windows needs a primary partition, and Linux could be installed in an extended partition; what about OSX? In theory, can you install 2 versions of Windows, 3 of OSX, and 1 Linux in a single hard disk?	2010/02/25	[ "https://superuser.com/questions/113518", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/-1/" ]	Depend of you OS and partition type, if the OS can only boot from primary partition on a MBR partition table, the limit is 4, if the OS can boot from a GUID partition table, as I know there is no limitation. But i'm not sure at 100% of that (for the GUID Partition Table), I never tried.	I would say that in theory, it depends on your boot-loader. For the sake of argument, let's say that your boot-loader is some sort of hypervisor. Then, the question is moot.
113,518	I currently have a triple-boot setup in one dev machine (OSX/Win/Linux). I wonder how many more could I install. I know Windows needs a primary partition, and Linux could be installed in an extended partition; what about OSX? In theory, can you install 2 versions of Windows, 3 of OSX, and 1 Linux in a single hard disk?	2010/02/25	[ "https://superuser.com/questions/113518", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/-1/" ]	I've heard of someone having 40+ different operating systems on a single machine before. Certainly the standard Windows boot loader won't play nicely with multiple systems, but any modern open source boot loader would just fine. I'd suspect you're limited to the number of partitions (and systems) you can fit on a disk.	I would say that in theory, it depends on your boot-loader. For the sake of argument, let's say that your boot-loader is some sort of hypervisor. Then, the question is moot.
19,981	I am trying to design an ultra low noise power supply for my sensitive circuit. The supply will provide 5V and 600mA. (Worst case, 200mA typical). My input voltage is 2V to 4V. My ripple target under load is less than 5mV. The signals I am trying to measure are very small, nA level, and the opamps need to be on a very clean supply hence the very low noise DC/DC converter requirement. What are the precautions I can take and what are the parameters I should look at while I am selecting the DC/DC converter. I know the forum doesn't like people to provide specific requirements but in this case I appreciate if you could indicate parts that meets the parameters indicated. Also, what other circuit level precautions I can take? Decoupling caps for once but are there others? UPDATE My source is a simple two AA batteries, alkaline, but people may use other stuff. Anything that fits to AA battery compartment. My signal, the opamp input, is 1Mhz with 75% duty cycle UPDATE 2 I went back and completely re-look at the design, change the Opamps so that I can turn off the power to them (and they can work at 4.5V), arranged GPIOs etc so that we can control the power flow, changed some of the modulation schemes etc. At last, I was able to bring down the total requirement of power to 400mA where 200mA for 5V and 200mA for 3.3V. I have chosen the high efficiency TI part for the design on the switcher side. [TPS661100](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps61100.pdf). This has an LDO which I will use for 3.3V. (interestingly, this LDO has a great PSRR but I am afraid to use it for the 5V supply since I cannot pass it through a pi network before feeding into the LDO) Now I am trying to choose an external LDO to for 5V. This switcher has 500Khz switching frequency but finding an LDO that has a good rejection at 500Khz proved to be challenging. I can find parts that has a low drop out and 30dB PSRR but nothing like you guys recommended such as 60-70dB. I am now open to suggestions and feedback. Final note, when my design is complete, I will extend this question so that the next guy can follow or learn from my experience. Thanks to you all.	2011/09/25	[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/19981", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/3685/" ]	Summary: * Avoid using a switched mode power supply (SMPS) if at all possible. * Use a high PSRR regulator either without a SMPS or following one. * Look at all the usual design advice on PCB design etc - see below and othes * Look at all the PSRR design references below --- You say input is 2V - 4V. Why is this? What is the energy source? If batteries, 1 x LiIon ~= 3V- 4.2V 1 x LiFePO4 ~= 2V - 3.5V 2 x NimH ~= 2V - 2.8V ...? You mention "opamps". Are they 5V single supply ? eg 2 x LiIon will give you 6V - 8.4V with most operation in the 6.5V - 7.5V range. Using a linear regulator gives you about 70% efficiency typically BUT a vast potential reduction in power supply noise. 5 x NiMh gives you say 5.x V to 6.5V and somewhat higher average efficiency. If you MUST use a Switched Mode Power Supply (SMPS), which will add to your woes with its noise compared to a good quality purely linear supply, then after you follow all the good practices that everyone else will tell you about you are going to also want a superb linear regulator to follow the smps. For the smps you'll * Consider using a sinusoidal waveform or resonant design (Royer maybe). * You'll want to look at a balance L-C-L input and output filter to the smps * with balanced bifilar wound common mode filtering choke. * All the usual care with return currents stuff, * No loops in PCB go & return paths to pick up em noise * No slots intersecting ground plane return paths * Decoupling caps AT IC pins with possibly several caps of a range of values * Ceramic caps and tantalum maybe (on output)(Tantalum on input OKish if utterly spike free operation above Cap\_Vmax is guaranteed. * With a smps pay attention to any oscillatory portions of waveforms, leakage inductance that isn't properly snubbed, diodes not to hard recovery, switching waveforms somewhat bandwidth limited, ... . * A switched capacitor smps will have the advantage of no magnetic field interference - still has E field (minor) and power supply noise (can be significant. * And ... BUT You will then want a linear regulator with an immensely good PSRR (Power Supply Rejection Ratio). Ye olde standard LM317 claims up to around 80 dB PSRR BUT results can vary vastly across frequency range and with implementation. If you search eg Digikey for PSRR you'll get devices that claim high PSRR as it doesn't get mentioned unless they are trying to make it better than usual. I got 206 voltage regulators with PSRR mentioned at Digikey - a small number compared to most searches. As a disturbing example, (not enough current for your application but indicative of the PSRR performance you may expect) here's the datasheet for the [TI TPS717xx](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps71715.pdf) which mentions low noise and "high bandwidth PSRR" in the title. BUT claoms 70/67/45 dB PSRR at 1/100/1000 kHz. That's actually good BUT that may not be obvious looking at apparent datasheet figures for standard parts. From the graph below it's clear that it would be a REALLY good idea to get rod of as much HF noise before the regulator as possible. This is reasonably easy using a mains sourced linear supply, and "not so easy" using a SMPS ahead of the high PSRR regulator. I looked at this datasheet based on it being the dearest in 1000 quantity at [Digikey that mentions PSRR](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps79650.pdf) It's far worse than the TPS717xx - but much higher current rated. --- ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jpNKS.jpg) --- Real world design advice: Here's a useful [Maxim application note on good PSRR design](http://www.maxim-ic.com/app-notes/index.mvp/id/883). Here's an [Omicron PSRR testing application note](http://www.omicron-lab.com/fileadmin/assets/application_notes/App_Note_PSRR_V1_0.pdf) - they want to sell you test gear but it's a useful guide to what you are trying to achieve. If serious or desperate enough [this for $ paper may be of use](http://ieeexplore.ieee.org/xpl/freeabs_all.jsp?arnumber=810434) 96dB rejection ratio PSU design. Here's a useful [TI design note)](http://www.ti.com/lit/an/slyt202/slyt202.pdf) making the good point that performance may vary "strangely" across frequency. As ever [Wikipedia have something to say](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power_supply_rejection_ratio) --- Power supply Output: 5V and 600mA. (Worst case, 200mA typical). Supply: 2VDC - 3VDC (2 x Alkaline) Assume 250 mA mean. At say Vbattery = 2.5V and say 80% all up converter efficiency: Iin = 5V x 0.25 A / 2.5V x 1/80% = 625 mA A 2500 mAh capacity AA cell will last nominally 2.5/0.625 ~= 4 hours. For NimH the voltage of 2 cells under that order of load will be 2.4V typical so slightly lower life nominal but they achieve closer to their rated capacity than Alkalines as loads start to approach 1C (here load = C/4). Only the very very best AA NimH actually achieve 2500 mAh and then only when new so real world lifetime will be 4 hours or less. Is a 4 hour battery life acceptable? Can you increase battery voltage to allow a linear only supply? What is the lowest opamp etc supply rail that you can really tolerate? (eg 5.0V, 4.9V, 4.5V ...?) Overall real world result with NimH is liable to be better than using Alkalines.	If you are lucky, you will achieve 75% efficiency in the power conversion circuitry. To deliver 600 mA at the output will require 600/0.75 = 800 mA from the batteries. This is a pretty substantial load for random AA batteries. Are other batteries possible? Even C Cells would work out better.
19,981	I am trying to design an ultra low noise power supply for my sensitive circuit. The supply will provide 5V and 600mA. (Worst case, 200mA typical). My input voltage is 2V to 4V. My ripple target under load is less than 5mV. The signals I am trying to measure are very small, nA level, and the opamps need to be on a very clean supply hence the very low noise DC/DC converter requirement. What are the precautions I can take and what are the parameters I should look at while I am selecting the DC/DC converter. I know the forum doesn't like people to provide specific requirements but in this case I appreciate if you could indicate parts that meets the parameters indicated. Also, what other circuit level precautions I can take? Decoupling caps for once but are there others? UPDATE My source is a simple two AA batteries, alkaline, but people may use other stuff. Anything that fits to AA battery compartment. My signal, the opamp input, is 1Mhz with 75% duty cycle UPDATE 2 I went back and completely re-look at the design, change the Opamps so that I can turn off the power to them (and they can work at 4.5V), arranged GPIOs etc so that we can control the power flow, changed some of the modulation schemes etc. At last, I was able to bring down the total requirement of power to 400mA where 200mA for 5V and 200mA for 3.3V. I have chosen the high efficiency TI part for the design on the switcher side. [TPS661100](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps61100.pdf). This has an LDO which I will use for 3.3V. (interestingly, this LDO has a great PSRR but I am afraid to use it for the 5V supply since I cannot pass it through a pi network before feeding into the LDO) Now I am trying to choose an external LDO to for 5V. This switcher has 500Khz switching frequency but finding an LDO that has a good rejection at 500Khz proved to be challenging. I can find parts that has a low drop out and 30dB PSRR but nothing like you guys recommended such as 60-70dB. I am now open to suggestions and feedback. Final note, when my design is complete, I will extend this question so that the next guy can follow or learn from my experience. Thanks to you all.	2011/09/25	[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/19981", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/3685/" ]	Summary: * Avoid using a switched mode power supply (SMPS) if at all possible. * Use a high PSRR regulator either without a SMPS or following one. * Look at all the usual design advice on PCB design etc - see below and othes * Look at all the PSRR design references below --- You say input is 2V - 4V. Why is this? What is the energy source? If batteries, 1 x LiIon ~= 3V- 4.2V 1 x LiFePO4 ~= 2V - 3.5V 2 x NimH ~= 2V - 2.8V ...? You mention "opamps". Are they 5V single supply ? eg 2 x LiIon will give you 6V - 8.4V with most operation in the 6.5V - 7.5V range. Using a linear regulator gives you about 70% efficiency typically BUT a vast potential reduction in power supply noise. 5 x NiMh gives you say 5.x V to 6.5V and somewhat higher average efficiency. If you MUST use a Switched Mode Power Supply (SMPS), which will add to your woes with its noise compared to a good quality purely linear supply, then after you follow all the good practices that everyone else will tell you about you are going to also want a superb linear regulator to follow the smps. For the smps you'll * Consider using a sinusoidal waveform or resonant design (Royer maybe). * You'll want to look at a balance L-C-L input and output filter to the smps * with balanced bifilar wound common mode filtering choke. * All the usual care with return currents stuff, * No loops in PCB go & return paths to pick up em noise * No slots intersecting ground plane return paths * Decoupling caps AT IC pins with possibly several caps of a range of values * Ceramic caps and tantalum maybe (on output)(Tantalum on input OKish if utterly spike free operation above Cap\_Vmax is guaranteed. * With a smps pay attention to any oscillatory portions of waveforms, leakage inductance that isn't properly snubbed, diodes not to hard recovery, switching waveforms somewhat bandwidth limited, ... . * A switched capacitor smps will have the advantage of no magnetic field interference - still has E field (minor) and power supply noise (can be significant. * And ... BUT You will then want a linear regulator with an immensely good PSRR (Power Supply Rejection Ratio). Ye olde standard LM317 claims up to around 80 dB PSRR BUT results can vary vastly across frequency range and with implementation. If you search eg Digikey for PSRR you'll get devices that claim high PSRR as it doesn't get mentioned unless they are trying to make it better than usual. I got 206 voltage regulators with PSRR mentioned at Digikey - a small number compared to most searches. As a disturbing example, (not enough current for your application but indicative of the PSRR performance you may expect) here's the datasheet for the [TI TPS717xx](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps71715.pdf) which mentions low noise and "high bandwidth PSRR" in the title. BUT claoms 70/67/45 dB PSRR at 1/100/1000 kHz. That's actually good BUT that may not be obvious looking at apparent datasheet figures for standard parts. From the graph below it's clear that it would be a REALLY good idea to get rod of as much HF noise before the regulator as possible. This is reasonably easy using a mains sourced linear supply, and "not so easy" using a SMPS ahead of the high PSRR regulator. I looked at this datasheet based on it being the dearest in 1000 quantity at [Digikey that mentions PSRR](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps79650.pdf) It's far worse than the TPS717xx - but much higher current rated. --- ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jpNKS.jpg) --- Real world design advice: Here's a useful [Maxim application note on good PSRR design](http://www.maxim-ic.com/app-notes/index.mvp/id/883). Here's an [Omicron PSRR testing application note](http://www.omicron-lab.com/fileadmin/assets/application_notes/App_Note_PSRR_V1_0.pdf) - they want to sell you test gear but it's a useful guide to what you are trying to achieve. If serious or desperate enough [this for $ paper may be of use](http://ieeexplore.ieee.org/xpl/freeabs_all.jsp?arnumber=810434) 96dB rejection ratio PSU design. Here's a useful [TI design note)](http://www.ti.com/lit/an/slyt202/slyt202.pdf) making the good point that performance may vary "strangely" across frequency. As ever [Wikipedia have something to say](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power_supply_rejection_ratio) --- Power supply Output: 5V and 600mA. (Worst case, 200mA typical). Supply: 2VDC - 3VDC (2 x Alkaline) Assume 250 mA mean. At say Vbattery = 2.5V and say 80% all up converter efficiency: Iin = 5V x 0.25 A / 2.5V x 1/80% = 625 mA A 2500 mAh capacity AA cell will last nominally 2.5/0.625 ~= 4 hours. For NimH the voltage of 2 cells under that order of load will be 2.4V typical so slightly lower life nominal but they achieve closer to their rated capacity than Alkalines as loads start to approach 1C (here load = C/4). Only the very very best AA NimH actually achieve 2500 mAh and then only when new so real world lifetime will be 4 hours or less. Is a 4 hour battery life acceptable? Can you increase battery voltage to allow a linear only supply? What is the lowest opamp etc supply rail that you can really tolerate? (eg 5.0V, 4.9V, 4.5V ...?) Overall real world result with NimH is liable to be better than using Alkalines.	Two points, which others have also made: - 5 mV on 5V isn't all that ultra low noise. - The best way to achieve this within your stated parameters is to boost switcher followed by a linear post regulator. To conserve power, you want to use a LDO (but see point 3). However, 600 mA is a lot for a LDO. And as Steven mentioned, the nature of LDOs usually gives them poorer input ripple rejection, at least at higher frequencies. So, a few points: - Break up your 600 mA load into multiple pieces and power each piece from its own LDO. Once you get down to 250 mA per regulator, you will have a lot more choices. - Put a separate L-C filter in front of every LDO. LDOs in general have poor capability to adjust to high frequency input voltage changes. I've seen this in action and in one case had to retrofit a chip inductor and capacitor to a existing circuit because too much swithing noise was getting onto the supposedly clean linearly regulated output. Just a 0805 chip inductor followed by 22 µF to ground will help a lot. These chip inductors will have a few 100 mΩ resistance too, but that actually helps a little here. You do have to watch the current rating and possibly use a larger package to get the current you want. You can use two such filters in series if neccessary to really squash the high frequencies the LDO can't handle well. - You don't have to put all the low ripple burden on the power supply. The switching ripple can be easily filtered out when it is high frequency enough. You could use a bare off the shelf boost chip that runs at 500 kHz or more, then add L-C filters as above where needed. These won't be needed for powering digital circuitry like a microcontroller. You do want to put the filters on any analog part. Most likely the sensitive circuitry isn't where most of the 600 mA is going. This solution is the most effecient because you don't have the extra voltage drop of a linear regulator in there.
19,981	I am trying to design an ultra low noise power supply for my sensitive circuit. The supply will provide 5V and 600mA. (Worst case, 200mA typical). My input voltage is 2V to 4V. My ripple target under load is less than 5mV. The signals I am trying to measure are very small, nA level, and the opamps need to be on a very clean supply hence the very low noise DC/DC converter requirement. What are the precautions I can take and what are the parameters I should look at while I am selecting the DC/DC converter. I know the forum doesn't like people to provide specific requirements but in this case I appreciate if you could indicate parts that meets the parameters indicated. Also, what other circuit level precautions I can take? Decoupling caps for once but are there others? UPDATE My source is a simple two AA batteries, alkaline, but people may use other stuff. Anything that fits to AA battery compartment. My signal, the opamp input, is 1Mhz with 75% duty cycle UPDATE 2 I went back and completely re-look at the design, change the Opamps so that I can turn off the power to them (and they can work at 4.5V), arranged GPIOs etc so that we can control the power flow, changed some of the modulation schemes etc. At last, I was able to bring down the total requirement of power to 400mA where 200mA for 5V and 200mA for 3.3V. I have chosen the high efficiency TI part for the design on the switcher side. [TPS661100](http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/tps61100.pdf). This has an LDO which I will use for 3.3V. (interestingly, this LDO has a great PSRR but I am afraid to use it for the 5V supply since I cannot pass it through a pi network before feeding into the LDO) Now I am trying to choose an external LDO to for 5V. This switcher has 500Khz switching frequency but finding an LDO that has a good rejection at 500Khz proved to be challenging. I can find parts that has a low drop out and 30dB PSRR but nothing like you guys recommended such as 60-70dB. I am now open to suggestions and feedback. Final note, when my design is complete, I will extend this question so that the next guy can follow or learn from my experience. Thanks to you all.	2011/09/25	[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/19981", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/3685/" ]	Two points, which others have also made: - 5 mV on 5V isn't all that ultra low noise. - The best way to achieve this within your stated parameters is to boost switcher followed by a linear post regulator. To conserve power, you want to use a LDO (but see point 3). However, 600 mA is a lot for a LDO. And as Steven mentioned, the nature of LDOs usually gives them poorer input ripple rejection, at least at higher frequencies. So, a few points: - Break up your 600 mA load into multiple pieces and power each piece from its own LDO. Once you get down to 250 mA per regulator, you will have a lot more choices. - Put a separate L-C filter in front of every LDO. LDOs in general have poor capability to adjust to high frequency input voltage changes. I've seen this in action and in one case had to retrofit a chip inductor and capacitor to a existing circuit because too much swithing noise was getting onto the supposedly clean linearly regulated output. Just a 0805 chip inductor followed by 22 µF to ground will help a lot. These chip inductors will have a few 100 mΩ resistance too, but that actually helps a little here. You do have to watch the current rating and possibly use a larger package to get the current you want. You can use two such filters in series if neccessary to really squash the high frequencies the LDO can't handle well. - You don't have to put all the low ripple burden on the power supply. The switching ripple can be easily filtered out when it is high frequency enough. You could use a bare off the shelf boost chip that runs at 500 kHz or more, then add L-C filters as above where needed. These won't be needed for powering digital circuitry like a microcontroller. You do want to put the filters on any analog part. Most likely the sensitive circuitry isn't where most of the 600 mA is going. This solution is the most effecient because you don't have the extra voltage drop of a linear regulator in there.	If you are lucky, you will achieve 75% efficiency in the power conversion circuitry. To deliver 600 mA at the output will require 600/0.75 = 800 mA from the batteries. This is a pretty substantial load for random AA batteries. Are other batteries possible? Even C Cells would work out better.
91,247	Is it currently safe to travel with a car through Dagestan? The car has a Russian license plate and both of us travellers (one guy, one girl) look European (with dark hair in case this matters). The proposed route goes from Astrakhan along the coast of the Caspian sea to Lagan, Artezian, Kizlyar, Makhachkala, Derbent and on to Baku with a possible overnight stay in a hotel/guesthouse in Makhachkala. Considering how close Chechnya and South Ossetia are, how safe would such a trip be? What exactly are the political, ethnic or cultural problems and such possible risks, and how should one behave to reduce the risk of being a victim of crime or harassment?	2017/04/07	[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/91247", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/27970/" ]	This is challenging task, especially if you do not know the Russian. Moreover, it'd be considered as dangerous even for native Russians. North Caucasus is a place for unclaimed civil war for years, and each week something happen. Here you may find unofficial news portal [about current situation](http://www.eng.kavkaz-uzel.eu/dagestan). In some cases the fact that you are tourist can help you, but in general it's not a place you should take a drive. If you can, find a local guide so some situation could be resolved, but if I were you, I wouldn't go there. Even if you're European looking people, it will be easy to understand that you're not locals, as you probably do not have a beard, and your trip partner doesn't wear appropriate (from local point of view) women clothes. It's a high risk to became a victim of robbery, kidnapping or get a health damage.	Not safe at all. I don't know what's going on right now, but I remember seeing on news how local police cars were bombed, how someone drove a car to a police checkpoint and it exploded and how some random/police cars were shot near Mahachkala. Its usually local bands/rebels/boeviks from Dagestan/Chechnya and they usually target Russian police. However it doesn't mean you can be 100% safe. There are many cases of abduction/ransom even nowadays. Just be careful.
91,247	Is it currently safe to travel with a car through Dagestan? The car has a Russian license plate and both of us travellers (one guy, one girl) look European (with dark hair in case this matters). The proposed route goes from Astrakhan along the coast of the Caspian sea to Lagan, Artezian, Kizlyar, Makhachkala, Derbent and on to Baku with a possible overnight stay in a hotel/guesthouse in Makhachkala. Considering how close Chechnya and South Ossetia are, how safe would such a trip be? What exactly are the political, ethnic or cultural problems and such possible risks, and how should one behave to reduce the risk of being a victim of crime or harassment?	2017/04/07	[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/91247", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/27970/" ]	This is challenging task, especially if you do not know the Russian. Moreover, it'd be considered as dangerous even for native Russians. North Caucasus is a place for unclaimed civil war for years, and each week something happen. Here you may find unofficial news portal [about current situation](http://www.eng.kavkaz-uzel.eu/dagestan). In some cases the fact that you are tourist can help you, but in general it's not a place you should take a drive. If you can, find a local guide so some situation could be resolved, but if I were you, I wouldn't go there. Even if you're European looking people, it will be easy to understand that you're not locals, as you probably do not have a beard, and your trip partner doesn't wear appropriate (from local point of view) women clothes. It's a high risk to became a victim of robbery, kidnapping or get a health damage.	I think you know that it is not safe because you had to ask this question... Your government (Germany I believe?) can provide you the explicit answer. Always check your national travel advisories!! On their website, in regards to Northern Caucaus, the German government [specifically states](https://www.auswaertiges-amt.de/de/aussenpolitik/laender/russischefoederation-node/russischefoederationsicherheit/201536): > > Traveling to the North Caucasus > Federal District and adjacent regions is an indication of the > increased security risk. In particular, not necessarily required trips > to Ingushetia, Chechnya and Dagestan is strongly discouraged. In the > above mentioned regions there is a higher security risk due to > attacks, armed conflicts and kidnapping cases than in other Russian > parts of the country. Persons who travel to the above-mentioned > regions despite the high risks can expect only limited assistance from > the German Embassy in Moscow in the event of an emergency. Short-term > restrictions on the right of travel for foreigners can not be ruled > out. > > > Border traffic with Georgia and Azerbaijan The Dariali / Hoher Lars > border crossing on the A 301 ("Georgian Military Route"), which > connects North Ossetia (Russia) with Georgia, as well as the border > crossing between Samur on the border between Dagestan (Russia) and > Azerbaijan are now back for the international Travel opened. However, > capacity-related difficulties in crossing the border can not be ruled > out. An entry via the Georgian-Russian border into the Georgian > conflict areas Abkhazia and South Ossetia will continue to be punished > by the Georgian authorities as an illegal border crossing. > > > Regarding the security situation in South Ossetia and Abkhazia, the > travel and security information of the Foreign Office for Georgia has > to be observed. > > > So, basically what they're trying to tell you is, do not go there unless it is essential. It is up to you to decide what is essential and if its worth the risk. Keep in mind that the German consulate in Moscow is very, very far away when you're sitting in a Dagestan jail or held for ransom. Just give it thought. In regards to Georgia (and South Ossetia you asked about), as it is referenced by the Russian section above, the German government also [specifically states](https://www.auswaertiges-amt.de/de/aussenpolitik/laender/georgien-node/georgiensicherheit/201918): > > Entry by land is possible via Turkey, Armenia, Azerbaijan and Russia. > Foreigners wishing to enter Russia from Georgia must use the Dariali / > Hoher Lars border crossing on the M3, the so-called "Georgian Army > Route". Capacity-related difficulties at border crossing and resulting > waiting times can not be excluded. Above all, however, the security > situation in the North Caucasus should be taken into account: Travel > to Ingushetia, Chechnya, Dagestan, North Ossetia and > Kabardino-Balkaria is strongly discouraged (see Travel and Security > Policy Russian Federation ). > > > South Ossetia and Abkhazia Travel to Abkhazia and South Ossetia and > the immediate vicinity of the conflict region are strongly > discouraged. Consular protection can not currently be granted to > German nationals for lack of access. Even the feasibility of a rescue > flight to these areas is not ensured in an emergency. > > > Entry into Georgia - defected areas of Abkhazia and South Ossetia from > Russia continues to be prosecuted by Georgian authorities as illegal > border crossing, South Ossetia is closed to international travel, the > administrative border with South Ossetia is restricted area, since the > 2008 war there is an increased danger from mines and unexploded > ammunition. > > > Due to the unpredictable security situation near the administrative > borders, it is strongly recommended that the area be avoided or that > Georgian authorities obtain prior approval. Abkhazia and South > Ossetia are not under the control of the Georgian government. Russian > troops are stationed in the areas and at their administrative borders. > The situation in the conflict regions is currently stable, but it can > change at any time. Therefore, inform yourself about the local media. > > > The Georgian "Occupied Territories Act" prohibits travel, economic > activity, land acquisition or real estate, as well as other activities > in Abkhazia and South Ossetia, with few exceptions. Infringements can > result in fines or imprisonment of up to five years. > > > Also on later trips to Georgia threatens the refusal of entry, it > should emerge from the pass that previously an illegal entry into > Abkhazia or South Ossetia / Georgia has taken place. Therefore, it is > strongly advised to be informed about the relevant regulations in a > timely manner, and to obtain the necessary approval from the Georgian > government. The Georgian Ministry of Foreign Affairs and the Minister > of State for Reconciliation and Civil Equality provide information and > permission to enter the country . > > > I recently visited Krasnodar, Sochi, Maykop, Stavropol and Tbilisi/Stepstanminda Georgia which is not too terribly far from these areas you are asking about. My Russian fiancee works for one of the large oil companies in Russia and they send her to Krasnodar region for work often, and its completely not safe at all for her. They must be off the streets at sunset and she must cover her blonde hair, to avoid trouble. I traveled through Georgia this past January, in the snow, and many trucks were lined up, unable to move. Keep this in mind, that the weather can greatly impact any travel to the Northern Caucasus mountains. I also know my country (USA) specifically states that any travel is forbidden to Dagestan. USA state department [outlines it here](https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/traveladvisories/traveladvisories/russia-travel-advisory.html): > > North Caucasus (including Chechnya and Mount Elbrus) > > > Civil unrest and terrorist attacks continue throughout the North > Caucasus region including in Chechnya, North Ossetia, Ingushetia, > Dagestan, Stavropol, Karachayevo-Cherkessiya, and Kabardino-Balkariya. > Local gangs have kidnapped U.S. citizens and other foreigners for > ransom. There have been credible reports of arrest, torture, and > extrajudicial killing of gay men in Chechnya allegedly conducted by > Chechen regional authorities. > > > Do not attempt to climb Mount Elbrus, as travelers must pass close to > volatile and insecure areas of the North Caucasus region. > > > The U.S. government is unable to provide emergency services to U.S. > citizens traveling in the North Caucasus region, including Mount > Elbrus, as U.S. government employees are prohibited from traveling to > the region. > > > Visit our website for Travel to High-Risk Areas. > > >
91,247	Is it currently safe to travel with a car through Dagestan? The car has a Russian license plate and both of us travellers (one guy, one girl) look European (with dark hair in case this matters). The proposed route goes from Astrakhan along the coast of the Caspian sea to Lagan, Artezian, Kizlyar, Makhachkala, Derbent and on to Baku with a possible overnight stay in a hotel/guesthouse in Makhachkala. Considering how close Chechnya and South Ossetia are, how safe would such a trip be? What exactly are the political, ethnic or cultural problems and such possible risks, and how should one behave to reduce the risk of being a victim of crime or harassment?	2017/04/07	[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/91247", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/27970/" ]	Not safe at all. I don't know what's going on right now, but I remember seeing on news how local police cars were bombed, how someone drove a car to a police checkpoint and it exploded and how some random/police cars were shot near Mahachkala. Its usually local bands/rebels/boeviks from Dagestan/Chechnya and they usually target Russian police. However it doesn't mean you can be 100% safe. There are many cases of abduction/ransom even nowadays. Just be careful.	I think you know that it is not safe because you had to ask this question... Your government (Germany I believe?) can provide you the explicit answer. Always check your national travel advisories!! On their website, in regards to Northern Caucaus, the German government [specifically states](https://www.auswaertiges-amt.de/de/aussenpolitik/laender/russischefoederation-node/russischefoederationsicherheit/201536): > > Traveling to the North Caucasus > Federal District and adjacent regions is an indication of the > increased security risk. In particular, not necessarily required trips > to Ingushetia, Chechnya and Dagestan is strongly discouraged. In the > above mentioned regions there is a higher security risk due to > attacks, armed conflicts and kidnapping cases than in other Russian > parts of the country. Persons who travel to the above-mentioned > regions despite the high risks can expect only limited assistance from > the German Embassy in Moscow in the event of an emergency. Short-term > restrictions on the right of travel for foreigners can not be ruled > out. > > > Border traffic with Georgia and Azerbaijan The Dariali / Hoher Lars > border crossing on the A 301 ("Georgian Military Route"), which > connects North Ossetia (Russia) with Georgia, as well as the border > crossing between Samur on the border between Dagestan (Russia) and > Azerbaijan are now back for the international Travel opened. However, > capacity-related difficulties in crossing the border can not be ruled > out. An entry via the Georgian-Russian border into the Georgian > conflict areas Abkhazia and South Ossetia will continue to be punished > by the Georgian authorities as an illegal border crossing. > > > Regarding the security situation in South Ossetia and Abkhazia, the > travel and security information of the Foreign Office for Georgia has > to be observed. > > > So, basically what they're trying to tell you is, do not go there unless it is essential. It is up to you to decide what is essential and if its worth the risk. Keep in mind that the German consulate in Moscow is very, very far away when you're sitting in a Dagestan jail or held for ransom. Just give it thought. In regards to Georgia (and South Ossetia you asked about), as it is referenced by the Russian section above, the German government also [specifically states](https://www.auswaertiges-amt.de/de/aussenpolitik/laender/georgien-node/georgiensicherheit/201918): > > Entry by land is possible via Turkey, Armenia, Azerbaijan and Russia. > Foreigners wishing to enter Russia from Georgia must use the Dariali / > Hoher Lars border crossing on the M3, the so-called "Georgian Army > Route". Capacity-related difficulties at border crossing and resulting > waiting times can not be excluded. Above all, however, the security > situation in the North Caucasus should be taken into account: Travel > to Ingushetia, Chechnya, Dagestan, North Ossetia and > Kabardino-Balkaria is strongly discouraged (see Travel and Security > Policy Russian Federation ). > > > South Ossetia and Abkhazia Travel to Abkhazia and South Ossetia and > the immediate vicinity of the conflict region are strongly > discouraged. Consular protection can not currently be granted to > German nationals for lack of access. Even the feasibility of a rescue > flight to these areas is not ensured in an emergency. > > > Entry into Georgia - defected areas of Abkhazia and South Ossetia from > Russia continues to be prosecuted by Georgian authorities as illegal > border crossing, South Ossetia is closed to international travel, the > administrative border with South Ossetia is restricted area, since the > 2008 war there is an increased danger from mines and unexploded > ammunition. > > > Due to the unpredictable security situation near the administrative > borders, it is strongly recommended that the area be avoided or that > Georgian authorities obtain prior approval. Abkhazia and South > Ossetia are not under the control of the Georgian government. Russian > troops are stationed in the areas and at their administrative borders. > The situation in the conflict regions is currently stable, but it can > change at any time. Therefore, inform yourself about the local media. > > > The Georgian "Occupied Territories Act" prohibits travel, economic > activity, land acquisition or real estate, as well as other activities > in Abkhazia and South Ossetia, with few exceptions. Infringements can > result in fines or imprisonment of up to five years. > > > Also on later trips to Georgia threatens the refusal of entry, it > should emerge from the pass that previously an illegal entry into > Abkhazia or South Ossetia / Georgia has taken place. Therefore, it is > strongly advised to be informed about the relevant regulations in a > timely manner, and to obtain the necessary approval from the Georgian > government. The Georgian Ministry of Foreign Affairs and the Minister > of State for Reconciliation and Civil Equality provide information and > permission to enter the country . > > > I recently visited Krasnodar, Sochi, Maykop, Stavropol and Tbilisi/Stepstanminda Georgia which is not too terribly far from these areas you are asking about. My Russian fiancee works for one of the large oil companies in Russia and they send her to Krasnodar region for work often, and its completely not safe at all for her. They must be off the streets at sunset and she must cover her blonde hair, to avoid trouble. I traveled through Georgia this past January, in the snow, and many trucks were lined up, unable to move. Keep this in mind, that the weather can greatly impact any travel to the Northern Caucasus mountains. I also know my country (USA) specifically states that any travel is forbidden to Dagestan. USA state department [outlines it here](https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/traveladvisories/traveladvisories/russia-travel-advisory.html): > > North Caucasus (including Chechnya and Mount Elbrus) > > > Civil unrest and terrorist attacks continue throughout the North > Caucasus region including in Chechnya, North Ossetia, Ingushetia, > Dagestan, Stavropol, Karachayevo-Cherkessiya, and Kabardino-Balkariya. > Local gangs have kidnapped U.S. citizens and other foreigners for > ransom. There have been credible reports of arrest, torture, and > extrajudicial killing of gay men in Chechnya allegedly conducted by > Chechen regional authorities. > > > Do not attempt to climb Mount Elbrus, as travelers must pass close to > volatile and insecure areas of the North Caucasus region. > > > The U.S. government is unable to provide emergency services to U.S. > citizens traveling in the North Caucasus region, including Mount > Elbrus, as U.S. government employees are prohibited from traveling to > the region. > > > Visit our website for Travel to High-Risk Areas. > > >
103,321	Let's say for example, in a railway station a sign board displays the arrival of train. Let's take two scenarios. Scenario 1 The sign board displays "train 1 arriving at 9:35" Scenario 2 The sign board displays "train 1 arriving in 5 minutes"(assuming the time is 9:30) Between these two scenarios, many people I asked for, has voted for the second scenario citing better user experience. My question is, doesn't it make the human lazy to think?	2017/01/05	[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/103321", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/95556/" ]	I would try to merge the two. I remember LinkedIn doing so in earlier versions. I don't know if that is still true. There is a definite benefit of merging. Your user need not remember if she has added that contact before or not. More often than not, users tend to forget who all are in their contact lists. By merging you also reduce clutter on the screen. User comes with a clear objective. She wants to place a call. She searches for a contact. Your autocomplete feature will pull up the right contact or ask to follow up with an invitation. The invite link can open a pop up or navigate the user to a different screen to do other formalities for inviting the user. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D4vAG.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D4vAG.png)	I would recommend to go with option 1, because when user click on the the Invite tab you can provide a link to join the conversation in the same belonging Textbox. While with option 2 you need to than open some popup or need to manage other UI to display link. In case if invite link is directly send to the user, than go for the option 2 but the below UI will be more friendly. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kuzQU.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kuzQU.png) Even excluding 'or' will look more decent.
103,321	Let's say for example, in a railway station a sign board displays the arrival of train. Let's take two scenarios. Scenario 1 The sign board displays "train 1 arriving at 9:35" Scenario 2 The sign board displays "train 1 arriving in 5 minutes"(assuming the time is 9:30) Between these two scenarios, many people I asked for, has voted for the second scenario citing better user experience. My question is, doesn't it make the human lazy to think?	2017/01/05	[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/103321", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/95556/" ]	I would try to merge the two. I remember LinkedIn doing so in earlier versions. I don't know if that is still true. There is a definite benefit of merging. Your user need not remember if she has added that contact before or not. More often than not, users tend to forget who all are in their contact lists. By merging you also reduce clutter on the screen. User comes with a clear objective. She wants to place a call. She searches for a contact. Your autocomplete feature will pull up the right contact or ask to follow up with an invitation. The invite link can open a pop up or navigate the user to a different screen to do other formalities for inviting the user. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D4vAG.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D4vAG.png)	What about having just one field entry for name or email. Your app then validates the entry against the associated address book. If no match is found you simply offer users the opportunity to invite that user.
844,945	I got this weird error which mentions I should install VSTS 2008 SP1, during the process of installation of SQL Server 2008 developer edition. But actually I have VSTS 2008 SP1 installed. Any ideas what is wrong? Here is my screen snapshot. <http://i41.tinypic.com/9teo7m.jpg> thanks in advance, George	2009/05/10	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/844945", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/63235/" ]	Here's the [KB article](http://support.microsoft.com/kb/956139) for that error. Here's another [interesting article](http://blogs.msdn.com/psssql/archive/2008/08/11/sql-server-2008-visual-studio-2008-sp1-and-net-framework-3-5-sp1-explained.aspx). If you have multiple Visual Studio products installed, you must upgrade all of them to SP1. If you have Visual Studio 2008 and one or more 2008 Express Editions, you cannot upgrade the Express Editions until you have upgraded Visual Studio. If you have not installed Visual Studio 2008 RTM but have this problem it is because Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode) is installed on your system but not at the SP1 level. This is probably because it was left over from a SQL Server 2008 CTP installation. Did you doublecheck if you have SP1 in the About box? The service pack should be in the list of "Installed products".	Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode) is used by Team Explorer (client to Team Foundation Server) as well as SQL management tools. If you install Team Explorer AFTER you install Visual Studio 2008 SP1 then Team Explorer will regress some of the VS Shell files to the RTM patch level even though Visual Studio itself is at SP1. Rerunning the Visual Studio 2008 Service Pack installer should patch up the files that the Team Explorer install regressed, no need to uninstall the Shell. See this [detailed description](http://consultingblogs.emc.com/jamiethomson/archive/2009/04/23/installation-order-for-visual-studio-2008-sp1-team-explorer-and-sql-server-2008.aspx). To paraphrase, the install order is important and should be as follows: 1. Visual Studio 2008 2. Team Explorer 3. Visual Studio 2008 Service Pack 1 4. SQL Server
844,945	I got this weird error which mentions I should install VSTS 2008 SP1, during the process of installation of SQL Server 2008 developer edition. But actually I have VSTS 2008 SP1 installed. Any ideas what is wrong? Here is my screen snapshot. <http://i41.tinypic.com/9teo7m.jpg> thanks in advance, George	2009/05/10	[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/844945", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/63235/" ]	renaming the following registry key during install of SQL 2008 HKEY\_LOCAL\_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\DevDiv\VS\Servicing\9.0	Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode) is used by Team Explorer (client to Team Foundation Server) as well as SQL management tools. If you install Team Explorer AFTER you install Visual Studio 2008 SP1 then Team Explorer will regress some of the VS Shell files to the RTM patch level even though Visual Studio itself is at SP1. Rerunning the Visual Studio 2008 Service Pack installer should patch up the files that the Team Explorer install regressed, no need to uninstall the Shell. See this [detailed description](http://consultingblogs.emc.com/jamiethomson/archive/2009/04/23/installation-order-for-visual-studio-2008-sp1-team-explorer-and-sql-server-2008.aspx). To paraphrase, the install order is important and should be as follows: 1. Visual Studio 2008 2. Team Explorer 3. Visual Studio 2008 Service Pack 1 4. SQL Server
114,927	In Dungeon World's character creation rules, the rules for choosing a name are as follows: > > Choose your character’s name from the list. > > > The list of human wizard names, for example, is as follows: > > Avon, Morgan, Rath, Ysolde, Ovid, Vitus, Aldara, Xeno, Uri > > > Does this mean every Dungeon World human wizard player character has one of these nine names? Am I forbidden from coming up with my own name?	2018/02/06	[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/114927", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/40971/" ]	It's PbtA tradition to just tell you to do stuff without hemming and hawing about it. It's also PbtA tradition that the game is a conversation and it's fine to tinker with the rules. Going off-list is perfectly fine as long as you take a sec to make sure the group's fine with your new choice. --- Here's some guidance about it from game designers. For example, [in this thread](http://apocalypse-world.com/forums/index.php?topic=1518.0), an Apocalypse World player asks: > > Was I wrong (not wrong, but maybe not quite approaching things in the best spirit of the game) to pick my own name? > > > If you're wondering, my character is a Maestro D' and the named I picked was Dickson. He's the proprietor of a high class retro-Victorian brothel. > > > John Harper, now the designer of Blades in the Dark, replies: > > You and the GM talking about it? That's one of the reasons there are name lists. > > > The way authority is hashed out there, between you and [the GM], and the role of the text and all: kind of like practice, in a way. Those exceptions hashed out beforehand ("Can my tank actually be a helicopter instead?") are an easy way for the group to find its feet and start the process of judgment calls and shared vision needed for play. > > > Vincent Baker, designer of Apocalypse World, replies: > > I think John [Harper]'s nailed it. I don't think anybody's playing this wrong, certainly not [the OP]. > > > "Can my car be a helicopter?" "Can my hardhold be a caravan of trucks, buses and vans?" "Can my infirmary be, like, a meditative state I go into, to go with my healing touch?" "Can my name be Dickson even though it's not on the list?" > > > The [GM] gets to say yes or no. All's well. > > >	Technically, Yes. ----------------- The rule in the book is pretty clear, as you quoted: > > Choose your character’s name from the list. > > > You find the list that matches your race and class, then pick a name. On the other hand ----------------- The DM's Agenda includes portray a fantastic world, and the Principles include embrace the fantastic, name every person, and be a fan of the characters. If you (or your player) wants to pick a different name, go nuts. I admit that I once let a player choose a name from the wrong race! And as a side note, there are no rules about nicknames, aliases, or pseudonyms. --- Let me expand a bit on my experience letting the thief (of course!) break this particular rule. For context, the players were all long-time RPG players and longer-time friends, with none to some experience with DW specifically. I believe the total campaign length was four sessions. During character generation, the thief's player (full disclosure: my wife) was looking over the list of halfling rogue names and was dissatisfied. She asked if she could choose a name that wasn't on the list. At this point, I gave no real thought to the Agenda or Principles and went with the old stand by: is it fun for everyone? Sure, it probably won't hurt! Then I recalled there are rules to this game. I brought it up to the other players (ask questions and use the answers), and we agreed that she's stuck with picking a name from the character sheet, but that she could be flexible about which list she chose from. Thus, we ended up with a halfing thief named Sparrow. For the other players, this had basically no effect on the game. By my estimation, there was significantly more interest when I asked the Swordmage what his sword's name was (there's no list for that). However, for my wife, she was pleased to be allowed a bit more customization to her character. By the end of character generation, she ended up playing the Paladin and the Cleric off of each other. After that, I'm not sure anyone else even remembered bending the naming rules.
122,654	Last night I realized my AC stopped working. I turned the thermostat to 74 degrees and by the time I woke up the house temperature was 80 degrees. My home has a single Carrier compressor (obviously outside). The air handler, evaporator coil and blower are upstairs in the attic. I spent the day troubleshooting and figured out a few things: * The refrigerant-filled tubes that come out of the compressor unit and into the house had ice around them, but right outside the compressor case and right before entering the house (see 2 pictures below). * The condenser seems to be working OK as I can see some water on it (see picture). * On the thermostat, when the system is off and the fan is on no air comes out of the registers (is my blower broken?). Every 5 minutes the attic makes a loud noise for about 10 seconds, a motor noise. I could smell burnt in my bedroom for a few minutes as well. * Return vent filters were replaced 3 weeks ago. * I cannot open the evaporator coils as the casing seems to be "glued" somehow with sparkling (??) or some sort of tape (see picture with red arrows). * There is a tube coming out of the furnace in the attic with some green liquid spill around it. I'm assuming it's the refrigerant liquid. Is this normal or is there a leak going on? * After speaking to an AC repair guy over the phone, he thinks the blower is broken. That makes sense and would explain the loud noise (blower trying to work) + the "burnt" smell + the fact that there is no air coming out of the registers even when the fan is set to "On" on the thermostat. Any thoughts will be much appreciated.![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/y8TQa.jpg)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GSdYM.jpg)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/X9jTN.jpg)	2017/09/03	[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/122654", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/75033/" ]	The AC coil in your ductwork is freezing due to insufficient airflow across the coil. The coil needs to transfer heat by having airflow across it. If there is no airflow the coil freezes; hence, the ice. The coil is either too dirty for sufficient air to pass through or the fan blowing air isn't working anymore. Thanks, Tom	Turn the system off and let it warm up this may take a while if the evaporator coil is frozen up. When a system charge is low icing of the coils is a indication. The fan motor may be bad but once fully defrosted it is possible it will work. (Thermal overload tripped and was just hot because the coils were iced up) . If you can not get into the evaporator coil the indoor one give it a good long time to thaw out there may be 20-40 pounds of ice in there and it takes a while. The green liquid could possibly be a leak we regularly narrow leaks down by spotting oil that has leaked. The green liquid could be condensate that has grown some green gunkies. Don't jump to conclusions I have seen systems do exactly what yours has done that worked after thawing. In these cases adding some Freon or in more severe cases pulling the system to a vacuum after repairing the leak and recharging has worked for me. The noise every 10 minutes may be the thermal overload on the fan resetting and then overheating from blocked coils. I did not see the photos on first review but the PVC line looks like your condensate line and it has been leaking could be plugged with algae or my technical term Green Gunkies. The coil and drain need to be cleaned for health reasons! The heavy frost could be from a low Freon charge or the evaporator coil icing up and the heat exchange not occurring. Since you can not open the evaporator get an HVAC person to do it it was probably sealed with calking that a razor knife can cut through the system must be opened and inspected at a minimum.
122,654	Last night I realized my AC stopped working. I turned the thermostat to 74 degrees and by the time I woke up the house temperature was 80 degrees. My home has a single Carrier compressor (obviously outside). The air handler, evaporator coil and blower are upstairs in the attic. I spent the day troubleshooting and figured out a few things: * The refrigerant-filled tubes that come out of the compressor unit and into the house had ice around them, but right outside the compressor case and right before entering the house (see 2 pictures below). * The condenser seems to be working OK as I can see some water on it (see picture). * On the thermostat, when the system is off and the fan is on no air comes out of the registers (is my blower broken?). Every 5 minutes the attic makes a loud noise for about 10 seconds, a motor noise. I could smell burnt in my bedroom for a few minutes as well. * Return vent filters were replaced 3 weeks ago. * I cannot open the evaporator coils as the casing seems to be "glued" somehow with sparkling (??) or some sort of tape (see picture with red arrows). * There is a tube coming out of the furnace in the attic with some green liquid spill around it. I'm assuming it's the refrigerant liquid. Is this normal or is there a leak going on? * After speaking to an AC repair guy over the phone, he thinks the blower is broken. That makes sense and would explain the loud noise (blower trying to work) + the "burnt" smell + the fact that there is no air coming out of the registers even when the fan is set to "On" on the thermostat. Any thoughts will be much appreciated.![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/y8TQa.jpg)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GSdYM.jpg)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/X9jTN.jpg)	2017/09/03	[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/122654", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/75033/" ]	The AC coil in your ductwork is freezing due to insufficient airflow across the coil. The coil needs to transfer heat by having airflow across it. If there is no airflow the coil freezes; hence, the ice. The coil is either too dirty for sufficient air to pass through or the fan blowing air isn't working anymore. Thanks, Tom	I think Ed's answer is on point, in fact from your story I don't assume the fan is bad. I think he is spot on, its thermal overload. So, the fan COULD have, or WILL burn out, so, turn the system off. Open all of the registers, let the hot air in. It will need to thaw (almost certainly!) With all that said, I'm also in agreement that the green liquid is likely algae . This makes me actually wonder more if your condensate drain line is plugged AND also if the pump itself is burned out. They are "cheap" and the float limit switches, and the motors, and the pumps, that make up these units are not very expensive. I'd almost say that if you can move that drain line by hand to a bucket, go for it. You want to get that water out of the unit. Also the core issue could have been from condensate not getting out of the unit. Again to Ed's point, you may have a 40lb block of ice in there. The air cannot get past it, the motor shuts off. after a few hours, you can try having a helper call for fan, and feel the plenum, if it starts vibrating, your motor "works" - turn it off and wait until the water is done draining from the unit. It might take a day! You'll probably want to get the coils cleaned, if there is algae at the outlet, there is probably in the unit. It also could have been blocking air flow, promoting ice build up, and maybe helping you get unpleasant smells from the unit. Having an AC tech there, they will pressure test almost always as a matter of procedure, so they will rule out leaks quickly.
98,257	Is it possible to code an NFT-compliant smart contract which has the following properties? * There are multiple owners instead of just one * Royalties are paid out to all owners in perpetuity, across all secondary market sales Currently here is what I have tried: I created an ERC-721 compliant token, and issued ERC-20 tokens against it (essentially fractionalized it). Whoever holds the ERC-20 tokens are then fractional owners of the said NFT. However, I had to wrap the NFT in a separate smart contract in order to issue the ERC-20 tokens against the asset. Now once/if this NFT is sold to a new buyer, the ERC-20 tokens are redeemed and each owner gets their share of the proceeds. There is no way - under this scheme - to enforce royalties in perpetuity for the original owners. Can an industry expert provide an illustrative example of how my original question can be accomplished? And if the current standards do not allow this to happen, getting that knowledge would be good too. I read various literature that NFTs solve the royalty issue, so I was trying to experiment with all the possibilities. I'm a originally a server-side dev, and a newbie in the smart contract universe (thus the noob question).	2021/05/04	[ "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/questions/98257", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com", "https://ethereum.stackexchange.com/users/70535/" ]	I am not an industry expert, however one of my blue papers decribes using nft this way but I do not breakt it down to individual nft tokenIDs. Here is my solution: Create your ERC20 and NFT separately... no need to wrap. Create a safe/fairly launched Balancer V1 (VERSION ONE!!!) eth/Token pool Set royalty payout to send ether to a custom contract that: A) Maintains a minimum threshold of eth for fee reserve (1 ETH is mine) B) Forwards surplus ether to the balancer pool address C) Calls the balancer pool gulp() function to rebalance the pricing of the pool. (same # tokens but now more eth = higher eth/token) D) Manage non Ether commissions via a uniswap v2 router (ie, forward usdc to add liquidity in usdc/eth and remove liquidity as eth and send back to the royalty forwarder contract) So essentially anytime a royalty is generated, all token holders values increase. FYI I recommend putting 100% total supply into liquidity at balancer v1 and then send the bpt to burn address (permalock)	You should look at the EIP-3602 which is about Fractional-NFT with an on-chain royalty distribution system. This is the link <https://github.com/ethereum/EIPs/pull/3602>
45,671	The phrase > > temporary pause > > > is unnecessarily long; just 'pause' is enough. Does a simple noun exist to use to describe this type of usage? 'Redundant' or 'wordy' are good adjectives but I can't think of a good simple noun. (suggesting 'redundant usage' isn't what I'm looking for). I'm looking for something analogous to 'oxymoron' but as it relates to the redundancy of the phrase.	2011/10/19	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/45671", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/14009/" ]	The 75 cent word you are looking for is > > pleonasm > > > [the use of more words than are necessary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/pleonasm).	I would just call it a redundancy. According to [Dictionary.com](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/redundancy): > > noun > > 2. superfluous repetition or overlapping, especially of words. > > >
45,671	The phrase > > temporary pause > > > is unnecessarily long; just 'pause' is enough. Does a simple noun exist to use to describe this type of usage? 'Redundant' or 'wordy' are good adjectives but I can't think of a good simple noun. (suggesting 'redundant usage' isn't what I'm looking for). I'm looking for something analogous to 'oxymoron' but as it relates to the redundancy of the phrase.	2011/10/19	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/45671", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/14009/" ]	It's an example of [tautology](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/tautology) > > (Linguistics / Grammar) use of words that merely repeat elements of the meaning already conveyed, as in the sentence Will these supplies be adequate enough? in place of Will these supplies be adequate? > > > It's also redundancy, but that word has many other meanings beyond this specific sense. And pleonasm - [far less common overall](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=pleonasm,tautology&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3), and often occurs as [pleonastic](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=pleonasm,pleonastic&year_start=1900&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) (referring to longer texts, or to people who habitually write in this way).	I would just call it a redundancy. According to [Dictionary.com](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/redundancy): > > noun > > 2. superfluous repetition or overlapping, especially of words. > > >
45,671	The phrase > > temporary pause > > > is unnecessarily long; just 'pause' is enough. Does a simple noun exist to use to describe this type of usage? 'Redundant' or 'wordy' are good adjectives but I can't think of a good simple noun. (suggesting 'redundant usage' isn't what I'm looking for). I'm looking for something analogous to 'oxymoron' but as it relates to the redundancy of the phrase.	2011/10/19	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/45671", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/14009/" ]	I would just call it a redundancy. According to [Dictionary.com](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/redundancy): > > noun > > 2. superfluous repetition or overlapping, especially of words. > > >	Not exactly what you're looking for, but [turgid](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/turgid) can be used to describe language that is unnecessarily complex or bloated.
45,671	The phrase > > temporary pause > > > is unnecessarily long; just 'pause' is enough. Does a simple noun exist to use to describe this type of usage? 'Redundant' or 'wordy' are good adjectives but I can't think of a good simple noun. (suggesting 'redundant usage' isn't what I'm looking for). I'm looking for something analogous to 'oxymoron' but as it relates to the redundancy of the phrase.	2011/10/19	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/45671", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/14009/" ]	The 75 cent word you are looking for is > > pleonasm > > > [the use of more words than are necessary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/pleonasm).	It's an example of [tautology](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/tautology) > > (Linguistics / Grammar) use of words that merely repeat elements of the meaning already conveyed, as in the sentence Will these supplies be adequate enough? in place of Will these supplies be adequate? > > > It's also redundancy, but that word has many other meanings beyond this specific sense. And pleonasm - [far less common overall](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=pleonasm,tautology&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3), and often occurs as [pleonastic](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=pleonasm,pleonastic&year_start=1900&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) (referring to longer texts, or to people who habitually write in this way).
45,671	The phrase > > temporary pause > > > is unnecessarily long; just 'pause' is enough. Does a simple noun exist to use to describe this type of usage? 'Redundant' or 'wordy' are good adjectives but I can't think of a good simple noun. (suggesting 'redundant usage' isn't what I'm looking for). I'm looking for something analogous to 'oxymoron' but as it relates to the redundancy of the phrase.	2011/10/19	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/45671", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/14009/" ]	The 75 cent word you are looking for is > > pleonasm > > > [the use of more words than are necessary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/pleonasm).	Not exactly what you're looking for, but [turgid](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/turgid) can be used to describe language that is unnecessarily complex or bloated.
45,671	The phrase > > temporary pause > > > is unnecessarily long; just 'pause' is enough. Does a simple noun exist to use to describe this type of usage? 'Redundant' or 'wordy' are good adjectives but I can't think of a good simple noun. (suggesting 'redundant usage' isn't what I'm looking for). I'm looking for something analogous to 'oxymoron' but as it relates to the redundancy of the phrase.	2011/10/19	[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/45671", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/14009/" ]	It's an example of [tautology](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/tautology) > > (Linguistics / Grammar) use of words that merely repeat elements of the meaning already conveyed, as in the sentence Will these supplies be adequate enough? in place of Will these supplies be adequate? > > > It's also redundancy, but that word has many other meanings beyond this specific sense. And pleonasm - [far less common overall](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=pleonasm,tautology&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3), and often occurs as [pleonastic](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=pleonasm,pleonastic&year_start=1900&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) (referring to longer texts, or to people who habitually write in this way).	Not exactly what you're looking for, but [turgid](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/turgid) can be used to describe language that is unnecessarily complex or bloated.

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