qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
291,198 | I'm looking at using 12VDC or 24VDC LED light strips for over and under cabinet lighting. These would be the LED strips you can buy in 100 foot lengths and cut to the desired length. They have solder tabs for connecting power.
**My questions are:**
1) Can I use a standard 120VAC to 12VDC or 24VDC wall transformer connected to the LED lights, and control the brightness of the LED lights using a 120VAC lighting dimmer wired to the receptacle?
2) If so, would I have a wider range of control with a 24VDC transformer as compared to a 12VDC transformer?
I would make sure that the transformers are rated to carry the load. | 2017/03/09 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/291198",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/141559/"
] | To directly answer both of your questions:
1) *Probably* not. Check out [this rundown on wall warts](http://digitaldiy.io/articles/electronics/general/339-ac-dc-power-supplies-using-wall-warts?showall=&limitstart=). Some have linear regulators and some have switching regulators. In both cases, the transformer and rectifier will output a voltage higher than the desired output, and either a linear regulator or a switching regulator will drop the voltage to the desired one. This is useful because it helps maintain voltage across a range of loads (at least, sort of and in theory).
2) Your range of brightnesses won't vary based on strip voltage because of how the power strip is designed. I go into a lot more detail [here](https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/108590/can-i-connect-power-supplies-to-each-end-of-an-led-strip/108591#108591) about LED strips, but the quick version is this: The LEDs are arranged in bundles. Each bundle has the LEDs in series, allowing them to be powered by 12V (3 LEDs) or 24V (6 LEDs). You put a lot of bundles in parallel and that makes an LED strip. So, you won't get more control over brightness just because the operating voltage is different.
So, you may be asking, **"How on earth do I do this then???"** Well, it turns out the answer is fairly straightforward. You get a 12V or 24V LED dimmer. These go between your power supply (which provides 12 or 24V) and the LED strip. I've linked one [here](https://www.superbrightleds.com/moreinfo/controllers/lvdx-60w-led-dimmer-for-standard-wall-switch-box/1180/2911/?utm_source=googlebase&utm_medium=base&utm_content=LVD-60W&utm_campaign=GoogleBaseChild&gclid=CLa5zKeqyNICFdRyfgod6YIDdg), to provide an example. I have no experience with that particular unit, and StackExchange isn't for product recommendations anyway, but it should help *you* find the right unit for your needs. | Nope just rectify it and use PWM it is far less complex. The dimmer might cause harmonics on the transfomer and a range of other nasty things. A 555 timer wired for pwm with a full bridge rectifier would be much better. The DC system simply has less that can go wrong with it so use it. Messing with the wave form of AC on inductive devices is a bad idea. |
11,402,272 | Just started testing TortoiseSVN.
Actions taken:
* Created folder [project name] Repo.
* Opened [project name] Repo in Repo-Browser.
* Went to project folder in Windows.
* Right-clicked on file to be ignored.
+ Selected TortoiseSVN from menu.
+ No ignore option present.
* Tried other files/folders. Same.
Help? Thanks.
Edit:
Options in the menu, with the Repo-Browser open and clicking on [project].csproj:
* Repo-Browers
* Settings
* About | 2012/07/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11402272",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/479794/"
] | If you select 'SVN Commit' from the menu, then select the file/folder you will be able to Ignore from there.
Otherwise, you can select 'TortoiseSVN > Properties' and manually add a 'SVN:ignore' entry there.
Note: you cannot ignore a file once it has been committed. You must unversion it and then ignore it. | >
> Step 1) Right Click on Project Repository
>
>
>
>
> Step 2) Select TortoiseSVN
>
>
>
>
> Step 3) Next Select Settings (Setting Popup will be open)
>
>
>
>
> Step 4) In General tab you will see the Subversion Panel
>
>
>
>
> Step 5) In Subversion panel You will see "Global ignore pattern", add the folder name which you want to ignore.
>
>
>
>
> Step 6) Click on Apply button then Okay.
>
>
> |
6,367,236 | I have a GUI with several JDialogs, 2 or 3 of which are "basic" big ones, and should therefore be "never on top" of others (small ones).
I think using "always on top" on the other JDialog would be a solution, but is not exactly what I'm trying to achieve.
any tip welcome, thanks ! | 2011/06/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6367236",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/316198/"
] | If you are using 1.6, maybe playing around with [ModalityType](http://download.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/api/java/awt/Dialog.ModalityType.html) and [ModalExclusionType](http://download.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/api/java/awt/Dialog.ModalExclusionType.html) will help you. Note that modalitytype and modalexclusiontype are only available in 1.6 onwards | Sounds like your large JDialogs might need to be JFrames instead.
Another option: Use a JDesktopPane and use JInternalFrame.
Third option: Use a Layered Panes to control the ordering of items. |
54,932 | [1 Timothy 4:10](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Timothy+4%3A10&version=NIV) reads:
>
> That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and *especially of those who believe*. [NIV]
>
>
>
Is there any historical use of this text by known early adherents to Universalism?
(See also [this parallel question](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/26834/36) about the origins of this verse.) | 2017/01/29 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/54932",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/31712/"
] | At least three early adherents of *apocatastasis* refer to this passage. But not all their references to it are necessarily defenses of that particular doctrine. For example, [Origen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origen) uses it to argue for the general love of God for his creation:
>
> We both read and know that God loves all existing things, and loathes nothing which He has made, for He would not have created anything in hatred. [...] For He Himself is said to be the Saviour of all men, especially of them that believe; and His Christ to be the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. ([*Against Celsus*, 4.28](http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf04.vi.ix.iv.xxviii.html))
>
>
>
[Clement of Alexandria](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clement_of_Alexandria)'s *Stromata* is often cited to demonstrate his belief in universalism, and he quotes this verse in it:
>
> And to speak comprehensively, all benefit appertaining to life, in its highest reason, proceeding from the Sovereign God, the Father who is over all, is consummated by the Son, who also on this account “is the Saviour of all men,” says the apostle, “but especially of those who believe.” ([6.17](http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf02.vi.iv.vi.xvii.html))
>
>
>
He also quotes it in *Exhortation to the Heathen*, which may be the earliest reference to the verse by a universalist (c. 195):
>
> You may, if you choose, purchase salvation, though of inestimable value, with your own resources, love and living faith, which will be reckoned a suitable price. This recompense God cheerfully accepts; “for we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, especially of those who believe.” ([Chapter 9](http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf02.vi.ii.ix.html))
>
>
>
And finally, [Gregory of Nyssa](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gregory_of_Nyssa) cites the verse in his argument for the trinity, "[On 'Not Three Gods'](http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf205.viii.v.html)":
>
> And as the Saviour of all men, specially of them that believe, is spoken of by the Apostle as one, and no one from this phrase argues either that the Son does not save them who believe, or that salvation is given to those who receive it without the intervention of the Spirit; but God who is over all, is the Saviour of all, while the Son works salvation by means of the grace of the Spirit, and yet they are not on this account called in Scripture three Saviours
>
>
>
There's some debate over whether these three all believe in "universalism" as it is defined today. But these three authors are certainly among the most likely candidates for that label in the early church. | If anyone in the biblical canon should be called a Universalist, it is most certainly Paul. This is understandable, since nobody at this time had ever heard of such a thing as an "eternal hell". Paul was very mystical, mixing the Hebrew Scriptures with Greek philosophy to explain his own idea of how this was to come about.
The oldest reference to 1 Timothy 4:10 seems to come from [Clement of Alexandria](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clement_of_Alexandria) (150-215 AD). In the Stromata, Clement says:
>
> "And to speak comprehensively, all benefit appertaining to life, in its highest reason, proceeding from the Sovereign God, the Father who is over all, is consummated by the Son, **who also on this account is the Saviour of all men, says the apostle, but especially of those who believe. 1 Timothy 4:10**"- [Stromata, Book VI, Chapter 17](http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/02106.htm)
>
>
>
Later in the Stromata, Clement alludes to this passage again:
>
> "**For either the Lord does not care for all men; and this is the case either because He is unable (which is not to be thought, for it would be a proof of weakness), or because He is unwilling, which is not the attribute of a good being.** And He who for our sakes assumed flesh capable of suffering, is far from being luxuriously indolent. Or He does care for all, which is befitting for Him who has become Lord of all. **For He is Saviour; not [the Saviour] of some, and of others not.** But in proportion to the adaptation possessed by each, **He has dispensed His beneficence both to Greeks and Barbarians**, even to those of them that were predestinated, and in due time called, the faithful and elect....
>
>
> ...**And how is He Saviour and Lord, if not the Saviour and Lord of all? But He is the Saviour of those who have believed, because of their wishing to know; and the Lord of those who have not believed, till, being enabled to confess him, they obtain the peculiar and appropriate boon which comes by Him.**" [Stromata, Book VII, Chapter 2](http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/clement-stromata-book7.html)
>
>
>
That is all I can find for now. I'm trying to find works from Origen, but unfortunately most of his work was destroyed **[Edit: Please see Nathaniel's answer]**. So this may be the only surviving Universalist use of 1 Timothy 4:10 from the early church. |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | 
D7 with mark F2, It's a Fast tripping resettable circuit protection.
<http://way-on.cn/products/detail.aspx?id=597> | It's a fuse for sure. We always designate ferrite beads with FB. |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | The F2 next to it designates this as a fuse.... F1 is green | It's a fuse for sure. We always designate ferrite beads with FB. |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | That looks like an LP-USML400 resettable "polyfuse" made by Way-On.
Datasheet [here](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=http://way-on.cn/UploadFile/Product/LP-USM_L_series201505.pdf&ved=2ahUKEwjSspKa2LDiAhXjQd8KHWB4BuIQFjAAegQIBRAC&usg=AOvVaw2266C0ba23inS2Il2W8HB2) | The F2 next to it designates this as a fuse.... F1 is green |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | 
D7 with mark F2, It's a Fast tripping resettable circuit protection.
<http://way-on.cn/products/detail.aspx?id=597> | D is used for diode in most cases by various techies. however not sure about under line representation, |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | The F2 next to it designates this as a fuse.... F1 is green | Looks like it could be a fuse. Looks identical to the one to the 12V pin from [this](https://linustechtips.com/main/topic/959130-cooler-master-h500m-front-panel-io-not-working/). |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | That looks like an LP-USML400 resettable "polyfuse" made by Way-On.
Datasheet [here](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=http://way-on.cn/UploadFile/Product/LP-USM_L_series201505.pdf&ved=2ahUKEwjSspKa2LDiAhXjQd8KHWB4BuIQFjAAegQIBRAC&usg=AOvVaw2266C0ba23inS2Il2W8HB2) | A resistance check could determine if it's a diode. It should exhibit a different resistance in each direction. A fuse would provide a short in both directions. "D" is very commonly used as a reference designator for diodes, but that is NOT a hard and fast rule. |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | Looks like it could be a fuse. Looks identical to the one to the 12V pin from [this](https://linustechtips.com/main/topic/959130-cooler-master-h500m-front-panel-io-not-working/). | D is used for diode in most cases by various techies. however not sure about under line representation, |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | D is used for diode in most cases by various techies. however not sure about under line representation, | A resistance check could determine if it's a diode. It should exhibit a different resistance in each direction. A fuse would provide a short in both directions. "D" is very commonly used as a reference designator for diodes, but that is NOT a hard and fast rule. |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | That looks like an LP-USML400 resettable "polyfuse" made by Way-On.
Datasheet [here](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=http://way-on.cn/UploadFile/Product/LP-USM_L_series201505.pdf&ved=2ahUKEwjSspKa2LDiAhXjQd8KHWB4BuIQFjAAegQIBRAC&usg=AOvVaw2266C0ba23inS2Il2W8HB2) | It's a fuse for sure. We always designate ferrite beads with FB. |
439,930 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xxt6T.jpg)
I'm trying to identify the SMD component (marked as D7 with an underline) on a circuit board of an ARGB LED controller. I think it is a diode or resistor, but I'm not sure about it. Please can I get some help with identifying it? | 2019/05/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/439930",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/222632/"
] | The F2 next to it designates this as a fuse.... F1 is green | D is used for diode in most cases by various techies. however not sure about under line representation, |
7,234,618 | I'm getting an error when I start up the windows phone emulator:
windows phone emulator not supported because your computer does not have the required graphics processing unit configuration. An XNA framework page will not function without a graphics processing unit. Do you want to continue starting the emulator?
And when I attempt to access a web page (any web page) - I just get a blank screen. How do I resolve this?
I'm running windows 7 on a mac. | 2011/08/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7234618",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/287436/"
] | Check out the system requirements for the emulator on MSDN.
Start by updating your graphics drivers to the latest available. If that doesn't work the next step would be to upgrade the graphics card, if you can.
A PC which won't run the emulator can probably still be used to develop and debug on a real device. | It may be you're also trying to run the latest SDK 7.1 which is far more restrictive than 7.0. If you find yourself unable to run 7.1, dropping down to 7.0 may work on your particular machine. |
7,234,618 | I'm getting an error when I start up the windows phone emulator:
windows phone emulator not supported because your computer does not have the required graphics processing unit configuration. An XNA framework page will not function without a graphics processing unit. Do you want to continue starting the emulator?
And when I attempt to access a web page (any web page) - I just get a blank screen. How do I resolve this?
I'm running windows 7 on a mac. | 2011/08/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7234618",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/287436/"
] | Check out the system requirements for the emulator on MSDN.
Start by updating your graphics drivers to the latest available. If that doesn't work the next step would be to upgrade the graphics card, if you can.
A PC which won't run the emulator can probably still be used to develop and debug on a real device. | If you are running Windows 7 on a Virtual Machine on Mac OS X it won't work because there are some restrictions on running a Virtual Machine inside a Virtual Machine.
The quick and easy solution for this is installing Windows 7 in bootcamp, it worked for me. |
34,150 | If I wanted my party's spellcaster to enhance/enchant a weapon or piece of armor, is there a limit to the number enhancements it can have on it? I haven't read anywhere that there is a limit, but putting an unlimited number on them seems OP. I also remember the game Neverwinter Nights 2 limited you to 4, but it didn't follow the rules 100%. | 2014/02/23 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/34150",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/10919/"
] | *Magic Item Compendium* updated and clarified weapons’ limits. These rules are in addition to those in the *Player’s Handbook*: for example, *Magic Item Compendium* does not repeat, but does not repeal, the rule that non-epic weapons and armor are limited to a +5 enhancement bonus.
But for the purposes of non-enhancement magic properties, we have the following rules:
### Weapons
>
> A weapon with a special property must have at least a +1 enhancement bonus. You can’t simply have a *flaming longsword*—it would have to be at least a *+1 flaming longsword*. A single weapon **cannot have** a modified bonus (enhancement bonus plus property bonus equivalents) **higher than +10**, nor can it have a market price (not counting special materials or the price of the masterwork weapon itself) of **greater than 200,000 gp** (or 200,000 gp for each end of a double weapon). For weapons that exceed these limits, see *Epic Level Handbook*.
>
>
>
### Armor
>
> To add a special property to a shield or suit of armor, the shield or armor must already have at least a +1 enhancement bonus. A single suit of armor or shield **cannot have** a modified bonus (enhancement bonus plus special ability bonus equivalents) **higher than +10**, nor can it have a market price (not counting special materials or the price of the masterwork armor or shield itself) of **greater than 200,000 gp**. For armor or shields that exceed these limits, see *Epic Level Handbook*.
>
>
>
### General Limitation: You have to pay for it
Even self-crafted magical enhancements are expensive. You are unlikely to *actually want* to have more than +10-equivalent or 200,000 gp worth of properties much before epic levels anyway, simply because it is unwise to sink so much money into a single item. At the very highest levels (say 18th level and upward) you might have considered buying such an expensive item but it is a dubious choice even if it were allowed. | The limit is based on the total enhancement bonus. Each enchantment has, listed as its price, a number, for example [Bane](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/magicItems/magicWeapons.htm#bane) has a +1 for its price. A non epic weapon/armor can have only up to a total of +10, and at least +1 of it must be an actual enhancement bonus, and no more than +5 can be actual enhancement bonus.
So for example, a +1 Bane long sword would have the cost of a +2 weapon and has room on it for a total of +8 more on it.
An important note, some armor enchantments have an actual price and not a bonus, these do not count towards the limit. |
39,877 | I'm working with some collaborators as part of my every day workflow.
Sometimes I have to give them access to my shared hosting accounts, even to my WHCMS accounts in order to solve problems regarding hosting. On top of that, some other times I have to give them access to some websites - Wordpress based mostly, but that's an issue only if they have admin priviledges.
Is there any software or browser extension that allows them to use credentials for login, but never see passwords?
An option will be AccessURL, e new startup app that generates URLs for each of the accounts. The problem is when I'm done with some project and certain collaborators should not be allowed to access the accounts anymore, because I have to reset the passwords all over again. So, in AccessURL's case, I need to generate other URLs for other people involved, giving up the old URLs.
When I work with a couple of credentials that's fine. But once the portofolio scales, I need to change several (tens even hundreds) of password at once.
Any ideas? | 2017/03/05 | [
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/39877",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/30019/"
] | ### Dashlane
You can try [Dashlane](https://www.dashlane.com/), a password manager app and secure digital wallet. It comes with an apps for most of the operating systems, mobiles and as a plugin for web-browsers, which makes it easy to use. The app's premium feature enables users to securely sync the data between an unlimited number of devices on all platforms.
You can share your specific passwords, payment details or security notes to other collaborators with different level of access (e.g. without revealing password it-self).
See also: [Security analysis of Dashlane](https://security.stackexchange.com/q/74656/11825). | **LastPass Enterprise**
Look at [LastPass Enterprise](https://www.lastpass.com/enterprise/) which has many of the features you are looking for. You can share passwords with other users without revealing passwords. You also have fine grained access over who has access to it.
LastPass has extensions for all major browsers (Chrome, Firefox and IE) and mobile (iOS and Android).
Disclaimer: I use the Personal version and it works well for me. I know folks who use the Enterprise version and they have good things to say about it. |
2,685,133 | I have an AIR application and would like to connect to an LDAP server to obtain some information for a particular user.
The url is something like **ldap://ldapservername:389/**
I would like to pass the userid/Name as the parameter and hope to retrieve the Full Name, Email address etc.
Can you please provide suggestions regarding implementing this? A Windows specific solution is also fine with me. | 2010/04/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2685133",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/133946/"
] | Adobe AIR does not have built-in support for LDAP. All online examples go through a server for LDAP integration.
Sample: Performing an LDAP query for role resolution
<http://www.adobe.com/devnet/livecycle/articles/perform_ldap_resolution.html>
Short of using a server, you're limited to two options, neither of which is good.
1. Completely re-implement the LDAP protocol in AIR. I think this is feasible, but is a huge undertaking. With [Alchemy](http://labs.adobe.com/technologies/alchemy/) you theoretically could recompile an existing C library to work with AIR, but I don't know how well that will work for this particular use-case. Plus it's a research project, not production ready.
2. Embed a native application. With AIR 2.0 you can include a native application written in C or .NET or whatever and launch it to perform your LDAP calls. The only way to communicate with this other process is through stdin/stdout so it's not easy to transfer complex/typed data, but it's feasible.
AIR is not suited for all applications. If all of your application's requirements can be fulfilled within AIR's API, then it's great. But if you need to do something not directly supported by AIR and don't have a server component, you're better off not using AIR. | You will probably need to do the usual LDAP stuff. Either start with the full DN of the user (uncommon) or search for it.
Bind to the LDAP directory as a proxy user, or as an anonymous bind. Query for ATTR=VALUE where ATTR is something you define as the unique value in the directory. Traditionally this is uid in LDAP servers. For Active Directory probably would be better to search for ATTR of sAMAccountName. Keep this as a setup parameter for the admin, since it will make it easier on different LDAP backend servers.
It might be mail, and the login value the user would enter is their email address. Depends on the use case. But leave it configurable to be flexible.
Then the search should return one value, with a full DN, then you want to bind as that user with the full DN and the provided password. I like the approach of binding as the user, instead of comparing the password, since then you increment any Last Login attributes, or the like, making it easier to detect account inactivity from the directory administrators perspective. |
30,292 | I'm looking for some Open Source [free] or relatively inexpensive solution for monitoring specific folders on a file system and 'Windows' network with several shares. When a file is added or changed, I would like to be able to notify myself and/or others that there is a new file, or changes to the current files. We have a SBS 2003 Server with a couple of shares, in a small non-profit office.
I would prefer:
* Runs on Server Side (we have both Windows and Linux servers)
* Notification on different time scales - hourly/daily/weekly
* Notification sent via e-mail to different addresses
It would be entirely possible to 'roll my own' using bash/php/program of choice but I am curious as to any current solutions to avoid re-inventing the wheel. Also would love to hear anyone using a current system or how they have implemented this idea in their office.
Also most office workers are non-computer literate so git or other version control system isn't an option at this point. | 2009/06/23 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/30292",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/4271/"
] | For your linux server you can use [inotify-tools](http://inotify-tools.sourceforge.net/) based on [inotify](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inotify).
For your windows server I haven't a solution. | The following tools are worth considering
* Osiris -<http://osiris.shmoo.com/>
* samhain - <http://la-samhna.de/samhain/index.html>
If you are open to commercial software, then you can have a look at Tripwire enterprise. The OSS version AFAIK can not be run on Windows.
Tripwire enterprise - <http://www.tripwire.com/products/enterprise/index.cfm> |
30,292 | I'm looking for some Open Source [free] or relatively inexpensive solution for monitoring specific folders on a file system and 'Windows' network with several shares. When a file is added or changed, I would like to be able to notify myself and/or others that there is a new file, or changes to the current files. We have a SBS 2003 Server with a couple of shares, in a small non-profit office.
I would prefer:
* Runs on Server Side (we have both Windows and Linux servers)
* Notification on different time scales - hourly/daily/weekly
* Notification sent via e-mail to different addresses
It would be entirely possible to 'roll my own' using bash/php/program of choice but I am curious as to any current solutions to avoid re-inventing the wheel. Also would love to hear anyone using a current system or how they have implemented this idea in their office.
Also most office workers are non-computer literate so git or other version control system isn't an option at this point. | 2009/06/23 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/30292",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/4271/"
] | For your linux server you can use [inotify-tools](http://inotify-tools.sourceforge.net/) based on [inotify](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inotify).
For your windows server I haven't a solution. | If you wanted an Open Source tool, I'd recommend [OSSEC](http://www.ossec.net) (works on both Windows and Linux), which also offers commercial support if required.
A commercial option is [Verisys](http://www.ionx.co.uk). It's easy to use and a lot cheaper than Tripwire (from your question I would say that Tripwire would be way too expensive, and bloated for your requirements). |
30,292 | I'm looking for some Open Source [free] or relatively inexpensive solution for monitoring specific folders on a file system and 'Windows' network with several shares. When a file is added or changed, I would like to be able to notify myself and/or others that there is a new file, or changes to the current files. We have a SBS 2003 Server with a couple of shares, in a small non-profit office.
I would prefer:
* Runs on Server Side (we have both Windows and Linux servers)
* Notification on different time scales - hourly/daily/weekly
* Notification sent via e-mail to different addresses
It would be entirely possible to 'roll my own' using bash/php/program of choice but I am curious as to any current solutions to avoid re-inventing the wheel. Also would love to hear anyone using a current system or how they have implemented this idea in their office.
Also most office workers are non-computer literate so git or other version control system isn't an option at this point. | 2009/06/23 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/30292",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/4271/"
] | If you wanted an Open Source tool, I'd recommend [OSSEC](http://www.ossec.net) (works on both Windows and Linux), which also offers commercial support if required.
A commercial option is [Verisys](http://www.ionx.co.uk). It's easy to use and a lot cheaper than Tripwire (from your question I would say that Tripwire would be way too expensive, and bloated for your requirements). | The following tools are worth considering
* Osiris -<http://osiris.shmoo.com/>
* samhain - <http://la-samhna.de/samhain/index.html>
If you are open to commercial software, then you can have a look at Tripwire enterprise. The OSS version AFAIK can not be run on Windows.
Tripwire enterprise - <http://www.tripwire.com/products/enterprise/index.cfm> |
233,782 | I am taking an intro to astronomy class, and have touched upon absorption and emission lines and etc, the prof asked this question in class and got me thinking.
I would want to say no, because one photon should stay as one photon, mass cannot be created.
Could someone please confirm if this is true or false, and why? or what conditions must be met? | 2016/02/04 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/233782",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/106144/"
] | Absolutely it can - and it happens all the time. If you excite an atom, it can go through various "stages" of decay back to the ground state - with each drop in energy resulting in an emission of radiation.
This happens during photosynthesis: see [this page](http://plantcellbiology.masters.grkraj.org/html/Plant_Cell_Biochemistry_And_Metabolism6-Plant_Cell_Energy_transductions2-Photosynthesis.htm) from which I copy this image:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/n0eq8.jpg)
As you can see, there are multiple paths for the energy to be lost by various transitions - some of which involve the emission of light.
Note that in some multi-level systems, some of the transitions are non-radiative - but there is no reason why they have to be. | Yes, absolutely! This is the phenomenon of so-called *non-linear light scattering*. These include an absorption of a photon and its remission as several photons, or as a photon of different frequency, or a combination of a photon and a phonon, etc. (You may want to look up Raman scattering and Mandelstam-Brillouin scattering.)
Note also that the Rayleigh scattering of the photons with the same frequency does not actually involve the absorption. |
50,725 | Music has been around for a long time, but how about music theory? What was the first instance of a publication on music theory? | 2016/11/30 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/32603/"
] | **Short Answer:** The earliest known publication on western music theory is Aristoxenus's *Rhythmic Elements* of the 4th century BCE; it is fragmentary, and it is the *only* surviving text from before the 11th century CE (!). His *Harmonic Elements* of roughly the same time has been reconstructed from later writers.
**Long Answer:** The music theory community generally agrees that Pythagoras was the first western music theorist identified in the literature. With that said, nothing that Pythagoras ever personally wrote regarding music theory has survived; we only know of his writings from later writers. The earliest of these writers is Aristoxenus, living in the 4th century BC (Pythagoras died around 500 BC). With that said, although Aristoxenus transmits a lot of Pythagoras's concepts, the two are considered to be leaders of their own respective Greek traditions: the Pythagoreans, who emphasized the role of *numbers* in music and the cosmos, and thus their teachings were not very practical for the performing musician; and the Aristoxenians, who emphasized tools for the practical (that is, performing/composing) musician. (Warning: this is a very broad generalization between the two!)
Pythagoras's emphasis on numbers would continue for centuries; the famous (if apocryphal) story of him passing by the blacksmith and learning the ratios for intervals was recorded by Nicomachus in his *Manual of Harmonics* in the 2nd century AD. These Pythagorean ratios were largely unchallenged until about the 15th century with Ramis de Pareia, but even then the influence of Pythagoras is sensed in Zarlino (1558) all the way up to the present day in discussions of tuning systems.
(Source: *The Cambridge History of Western Music Theory*, ed. Thomas Christensen. See especially the chapter "Greek music theory" by Thomas J. Mathiesen.) | Not sure if you are thinking about Western music theory, but people all over the world have had 'music theory' before Pythagoras.
For example this link goes into history of Indian music theory
<https://nadsadhna.com/indian-music/>
>
> the first reference to musical theory is found in Rikpratisakhya (400 BC).
>
>
> |
50,725 | Music has been around for a long time, but how about music theory? What was the first instance of a publication on music theory? | 2016/11/30 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/32603/"
] | **Short Answer:** The earliest known publication on western music theory is Aristoxenus's *Rhythmic Elements* of the 4th century BCE; it is fragmentary, and it is the *only* surviving text from before the 11th century CE (!). His *Harmonic Elements* of roughly the same time has been reconstructed from later writers.
**Long Answer:** The music theory community generally agrees that Pythagoras was the first western music theorist identified in the literature. With that said, nothing that Pythagoras ever personally wrote regarding music theory has survived; we only know of his writings from later writers. The earliest of these writers is Aristoxenus, living in the 4th century BC (Pythagoras died around 500 BC). With that said, although Aristoxenus transmits a lot of Pythagoras's concepts, the two are considered to be leaders of their own respective Greek traditions: the Pythagoreans, who emphasized the role of *numbers* in music and the cosmos, and thus their teachings were not very practical for the performing musician; and the Aristoxenians, who emphasized tools for the practical (that is, performing/composing) musician. (Warning: this is a very broad generalization between the two!)
Pythagoras's emphasis on numbers would continue for centuries; the famous (if apocryphal) story of him passing by the blacksmith and learning the ratios for intervals was recorded by Nicomachus in his *Manual of Harmonics* in the 2nd century AD. These Pythagorean ratios were largely unchallenged until about the 15th century with Ramis de Pareia, but even then the influence of Pythagoras is sensed in Zarlino (1558) all the way up to the present day in discussions of tuning systems.
(Source: *The Cambridge History of Western Music Theory*, ed. Thomas Christensen. See especially the chapter "Greek music theory" by Thomas J. Mathiesen.) | There are two questions here. Taking the second first:
What was the first instance of a publication on music theory?
=============================================================
Wikipedia's "Music Theory" page devotes four segments to theory dating to "antiquity":
* [Mesopotamia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#Mesopotamia),
* [China](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#China),
* [India](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#India), and
* [Greece](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#Greece).
The earliest surviving music theoretical writings are [Mesopotamian](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesopotamia).
>
> four single cuneiform texts and a fifth text group [reveal] ... **musical theory at least as early as the first half of the second millennium [BCE]**, but that also provide us with the proper names given to the notes on the scale and to certain intervals of the scale.1
>
>
>
Next oldest, from China,
>
> are inscriptions on musical instruments found in the tomb of Marquis Yi of Zeng, the ruler of a small state in the middle Yangzi region, who died in 433 BC.... The inscriptions about music theory appear on [several] chime stones and the bells. They concern pitches and scales, and the pitches they refer to can still be sounded by the bells.2
>
>
>
This would put the Chinese inscriptions in roughly the same time-period as the Indian texts mentioned in [@meowlicious's answer](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725/when-was-music-theory-first-studied/50773#50773).
The earliest Greek writings also date (or are estimated) from around this time. The most significant, but for which the date is uncertain, is [Aristoxenus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aristoxenus), discussed in [@Richard's answer](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725/when-was-music-theory-first-studied/50729#50729).
When was music theory first studied
===================================
The oldest documented music theory is Mesopotamian (see above). By comparison, Pythagoras, who is the legendary, if not actual, founder of Greek music theory, lived a millennium later.
Chinese music itself [can be dated back about 8000 year](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_musicology)s, so one can at least speculate whether music theoretical thought there pre-dated the "more recent" inscriptions described above. And there is evidence of (primitive) music in India [as far back as 30,000 years](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_of_India#Paleolithic), which further invites wonder at how long ago music theoretical thought might have emerged.
---
1 Kilmer, Anne Draffkorn. "The Discovery of an Ancient Mesopotamian Theory of Music." *Proceedings of the American Philosophical Society* 115, no. 2 (1971): 131-49. Accessed December 29, 2020. <http://www.jstor.org/stable/985853>. (Quotation from pages 131-32; Emphasis mine.)
2 Bagley, Robert. "The Prehistory of Chinese Music Theory." *Proceedings of the British Academy* 131 (2005): 41–90. Accessed December 29, 2020. <https://www.thebritishacademy.ac.uk/documents/2010/pba131p041.pdf> (Quotation from pages 41-43.) |
50,725 | Music has been around for a long time, but how about music theory? What was the first instance of a publication on music theory? | 2016/11/30 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/32603/"
] | Not sure if you are thinking about Western music theory, but people all over the world have had 'music theory' before Pythagoras.
For example this link goes into history of Indian music theory
<https://nadsadhna.com/indian-music/>
>
> the first reference to musical theory is found in Rikpratisakhya (400 BC).
>
>
> | There are two questions here. Taking the second first:
What was the first instance of a publication on music theory?
=============================================================
Wikipedia's "Music Theory" page devotes four segments to theory dating to "antiquity":
* [Mesopotamia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#Mesopotamia),
* [China](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#China),
* [India](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#India), and
* [Greece](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_theory#Greece).
The earliest surviving music theoretical writings are [Mesopotamian](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesopotamia).
>
> four single cuneiform texts and a fifth text group [reveal] ... **musical theory at least as early as the first half of the second millennium [BCE]**, but that also provide us with the proper names given to the notes on the scale and to certain intervals of the scale.1
>
>
>
Next oldest, from China,
>
> are inscriptions on musical instruments found in the tomb of Marquis Yi of Zeng, the ruler of a small state in the middle Yangzi region, who died in 433 BC.... The inscriptions about music theory appear on [several] chime stones and the bells. They concern pitches and scales, and the pitches they refer to can still be sounded by the bells.2
>
>
>
This would put the Chinese inscriptions in roughly the same time-period as the Indian texts mentioned in [@meowlicious's answer](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725/when-was-music-theory-first-studied/50773#50773).
The earliest Greek writings also date (or are estimated) from around this time. The most significant, but for which the date is uncertain, is [Aristoxenus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aristoxenus), discussed in [@Richard's answer](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/50725/when-was-music-theory-first-studied/50729#50729).
When was music theory first studied
===================================
The oldest documented music theory is Mesopotamian (see above). By comparison, Pythagoras, who is the legendary, if not actual, founder of Greek music theory, lived a millennium later.
Chinese music itself [can be dated back about 8000 year](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_musicology)s, so one can at least speculate whether music theoretical thought there pre-dated the "more recent" inscriptions described above. And there is evidence of (primitive) music in India [as far back as 30,000 years](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_of_India#Paleolithic), which further invites wonder at how long ago music theoretical thought might have emerged.
---
1 Kilmer, Anne Draffkorn. "The Discovery of an Ancient Mesopotamian Theory of Music." *Proceedings of the American Philosophical Society* 115, no. 2 (1971): 131-49. Accessed December 29, 2020. <http://www.jstor.org/stable/985853>. (Quotation from pages 131-32; Emphasis mine.)
2 Bagley, Robert. "The Prehistory of Chinese Music Theory." *Proceedings of the British Academy* 131 (2005): 41–90. Accessed December 29, 2020. <https://www.thebritishacademy.ac.uk/documents/2010/pba131p041.pdf> (Quotation from pages 41-43.) |
140,727 | Words to describe people with good/poor vocabularies. I am looking for words which I can use to describe characters and I would also like to describe their vocabularies, and explain how their vocabularies stem from their upbringing | 2013/12/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/140727",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59091/"
] | an extensive or sophisticated or impressive or broad vocabulary
vs
a limited or monosyllabic or rudimentary vocabulary | I do not know of any adjectives that squarely fit the bill, however one of the following might be adaptable for your use. You should probably confirm that their definitions will fit your usage.
Good vocabulary: Eloquent, well-versed, well-spoken, erudite, articulate
Poor vocabulary: linguistically challenged, inarticulate |
140,727 | Words to describe people with good/poor vocabularies. I am looking for words which I can use to describe characters and I would also like to describe their vocabularies, and explain how their vocabularies stem from their upbringing | 2013/12/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/140727",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59091/"
] | Apparently there isn't a single good word for this. You'll go around and around defining your word.
***articulate***: having or showing the ability to speak fluently and coherently. ***eloquent***: fluent or persuasive in speaking or writing.
***fluent***: able to express oneself easily and articulately.
***expressive***: effectively conveying thought or feeling.
**communicative**: ready to talk or impart information.
***cogent***: clear, logical, and convincing.
***loquacious***: tending to talk a great deal; talkative.
***verbose***: using or expressed in more words than are needed.
To express this concept, I think you need two words: ***well-spoken***, perhaps:
**1**. (Linguistics) having a clear, articulate, and socially acceptable accent and way of speaking
**2**. spoken satisfactorily or pleasingly
The opposite word does not seem to exist either. ***bumbling*** might work, except it carries a physical connotation as well, as do ***inept, muddled***, etc. | an extensive or sophisticated or impressive or broad vocabulary
vs
a limited or monosyllabic or rudimentary vocabulary |
140,727 | Words to describe people with good/poor vocabularies. I am looking for words which I can use to describe characters and I would also like to describe their vocabularies, and explain how their vocabularies stem from their upbringing | 2013/12/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/140727",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59091/"
] | A *wordsmith* is a skilled user (or maker) of words.
A *logophile* is a lover of words.
A *logodaedalus* is cunning in words.
Someone with a poor vocabulary is necessarily illiterate or has had elementary instruction - in other words they are *abecedary* or *abecedarian*.
(OED) | an extensive or sophisticated or impressive or broad vocabulary
vs
a limited or monosyllabic or rudimentary vocabulary |
140,727 | Words to describe people with good/poor vocabularies. I am looking for words which I can use to describe characters and I would also like to describe their vocabularies, and explain how their vocabularies stem from their upbringing | 2013/12/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/140727",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59091/"
] | Apparently there isn't a single good word for this. You'll go around and around defining your word.
***articulate***: having or showing the ability to speak fluently and coherently. ***eloquent***: fluent or persuasive in speaking or writing.
***fluent***: able to express oneself easily and articulately.
***expressive***: effectively conveying thought or feeling.
**communicative**: ready to talk or impart information.
***cogent***: clear, logical, and convincing.
***loquacious***: tending to talk a great deal; talkative.
***verbose***: using or expressed in more words than are needed.
To express this concept, I think you need two words: ***well-spoken***, perhaps:
**1**. (Linguistics) having a clear, articulate, and socially acceptable accent and way of speaking
**2**. spoken satisfactorily or pleasingly
The opposite word does not seem to exist either. ***bumbling*** might work, except it carries a physical connotation as well, as do ***inept, muddled***, etc. | I do not know of any adjectives that squarely fit the bill, however one of the following might be adaptable for your use. You should probably confirm that their definitions will fit your usage.
Good vocabulary: Eloquent, well-versed, well-spoken, erudite, articulate
Poor vocabulary: linguistically challenged, inarticulate |
140,727 | Words to describe people with good/poor vocabularies. I am looking for words which I can use to describe characters and I would also like to describe their vocabularies, and explain how their vocabularies stem from their upbringing | 2013/12/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/140727",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59091/"
] | A *wordsmith* is a skilled user (or maker) of words.
A *logophile* is a lover of words.
A *logodaedalus* is cunning in words.
Someone with a poor vocabulary is necessarily illiterate or has had elementary instruction - in other words they are *abecedary* or *abecedarian*.
(OED) | I do not know of any adjectives that squarely fit the bill, however one of the following might be adaptable for your use. You should probably confirm that their definitions will fit your usage.
Good vocabulary: Eloquent, well-versed, well-spoken, erudite, articulate
Poor vocabulary: linguistically challenged, inarticulate |
140,727 | Words to describe people with good/poor vocabularies. I am looking for words which I can use to describe characters and I would also like to describe their vocabularies, and explain how their vocabularies stem from their upbringing | 2013/12/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/140727",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59091/"
] | Apparently there isn't a single good word for this. You'll go around and around defining your word.
***articulate***: having or showing the ability to speak fluently and coherently. ***eloquent***: fluent or persuasive in speaking or writing.
***fluent***: able to express oneself easily and articulately.
***expressive***: effectively conveying thought or feeling.
**communicative**: ready to talk or impart information.
***cogent***: clear, logical, and convincing.
***loquacious***: tending to talk a great deal; talkative.
***verbose***: using or expressed in more words than are needed.
To express this concept, I think you need two words: ***well-spoken***, perhaps:
**1**. (Linguistics) having a clear, articulate, and socially acceptable accent and way of speaking
**2**. spoken satisfactorily or pleasingly
The opposite word does not seem to exist either. ***bumbling*** might work, except it carries a physical connotation as well, as do ***inept, muddled***, etc. | A *wordsmith* is a skilled user (or maker) of words.
A *logophile* is a lover of words.
A *logodaedalus* is cunning in words.
Someone with a poor vocabulary is necessarily illiterate or has had elementary instruction - in other words they are *abecedary* or *abecedarian*.
(OED) |
375,155 | What was the actual actual problem that led Euler to graph theory?
By looking even at non-simplified map like this
It is obvious that, if a landmass is connected by odd number of bridges, it cannot be only visited by crossing each bridge once - it must either be the start or the end of path. Here I see four landmasses with odd number of bridges, so it is obvious that there is no solution to the problem.
How could such a simple problem lead Euler to creating methods of analyzing such problem? And how could solution to such problem even get published?
My own guesses are that either mathematicians of the time were worried about some problems of rigour which I have missed or Euler just didn't imagine that the problem was unsolvable - instead he tried various unsuccesful paths and then simplified and reformulated the problem to get closer to the elusive solution. | 2013/04/28 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/375155",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/43535/"
] | If you consider this problem trivial today, this is in part due to the fact that Euler created the language of graph theory that makes it easy to formulate this kinds of reasoning. Indeed the general fact that a connected graph admits an Eulerian path (if and) only if at most two vertices have odd degree is a very simple theorem of graph theory. But in Euler's time, mathematics simply did not have much language to discuss or solve this kinds of problems, so it is to the credit of Euler that he put in place the abstractions necessary to do these things cleanly. This was a more fundamental step than developing more involved theorems once the language is in place.
You may object that you did not need the language of graph theory to formulate an obstruction showing that the problem is unsolvable. Well, you may not have used the same language, but the argument is based exactly on the same abstractions that lead to graph theory. The very fact of formulating the problem in terms of landmasses (vertices) linked by bridges (edges), and reducing the route followed to a sequence of bridges crossed, is precisely the abstraction that makes the problem tractable, and indeed quite easy. You need not know about graph theory, or even be aware that you are doing this abstraction when formulating the obstruction, but if you try to analyse carefully what makes your argument work, you will find that in the end this abstraction is the crucial factor.
It seems unlikely many people cared about the [seven bridges problem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Seven_Bridges_of_K%C3%B6nigsberg) at all before Euler dealt with it. Or maybe some did, but after a bit of reflection concluded that there is (probably) no solution, and stopped worrying about it; history would certainly have forgotten them. The great insight of Euler is that a powerful abstraction is involved that can be applied very effectively to a wide range of more difficult problems.
Of course if Euler hadn't invented graph theory someone else would have; it is a fairly natural thing to do. But it happened to be Euler who did it first. | The abstraction to land mases with an odd/even number of bridges is already a step that is not totally obvious - otherwise people without any prior knowledge of graph theory or this specific problem would not go ahead and try to sketch attempted solutions with trial and error (and they do). |
183,517 | When I visit passwords.google.com in Chrome for Android (Marshmallow) I have the option to autocomplete the password.
I would like to disable passoword autocomplete for this site only, or maybe for selected sites, leaving the autocomplete enabled for most sites.
Is it possible to do so? How? | 2017/09/19 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/183517",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/92551/"
] | It is not possible for an user to disable *autocomplete* for a single site. You can check [this link to disable the feature on Chrome (all sites)](https://www.lifewire.com/disable-autofill-in-google-chrome-4103633) - it is a simple tutorial on how to do it.
However, for a single site, unless you are the website's developer and don't want your users to have this feature, you can't. But, if you are, you can check [this stackoverflow post](https://stackoverflow.com/a/40200269/2405914) | Actually you can disable the autofill for usernames and passwords for just one site. Go to settings in the Chrome browser then to passwords. Scroll down to find the website that you do not want autofilled. Then you hit on the 3 dots and remove it from the list of saved passwords. |
1,169,003 | I am opening an image picker, camera style, as a modalviewcontroller. If I open the image picker, then cancel, the previous view comes back fine.
If I open the image picker, take a picture, then go back and cancel, the background to my previous view is missing and I can see through to the main window. Does anyone know how this might happen? | 2009/07/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1169003",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/142159/"
] | My guess is that you're getting a low memory warning and your view is getting released since it's currently hidden. Set a breakpoint on didRecieveMemoryWarning... | My first inclination is that you're releasing (or rather not retaining) your views properly. That should not happen because of the way that the modalviewcontroller, but I guess it might be possible that autoreleased views might get dumped when the modalview come in. See if you are doing any retain or release stuff in your code (including property creation). Also see if you can't hit any breakpoints within the functions of the view controller you hope to go back to. If you can hit them, try to reinitialize the view. If not, hit the documentation:[Using modalViewController](http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/featuredarticles/ViewControllerPGforiPhoneOS/PresentingModelViewControllers/PresentingModelViewControllers.html) or sample code. |
96,433 | I have a list, users can add items to it. By applying current user filter web part, I can show the items created by the login user. However, for some users, i.e. belong to 'admin' group, I want to show all items.
Is it possible to do this? thanks | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/96433",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10246/"
] | I agree with Per Jakobsen and wish to add that there also intelligent scanners (I have seen such models from HP) that even have the required button on the scanner's menu and are capable of scanning and doing OCR before sending the document to the designated document library. | [Asprise Web Scan](http://asprise.com/webscan/) has a browser extension (Chrome & Firefox) that adds a scan button beside the 'Upload' button in Sharepoint:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1xQj5.png)
Click 'Scan' to start scanning from any TWAIN scanners.
Disclaimer: I am from the developer company. |
96,433 | I have a list, users can add items to it. By applying current user filter web part, I can show the items created by the login user. However, for some users, i.e. belong to 'admin' group, I want to show all items.
Is it possible to do this? thanks | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/96433",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10246/"
] | I have to add my support to the **original** request...
Here's the scenario: a user has used their browser to get to a specific Sharepoint site/library. They realize that they have in hand the printed copy of the document that they need in this library to which they have browsed. Why can't they press a button in the ribbon that is labeled **Scan** that fires-up their scanner and saves the scan in the library to which they have browsed?
Why do they need to send it to Email, get a workflow to run, etc?
What would be even better would be to modify the Upload "dialog" that appears when you click the ribbon **Upload Document** button to have a *start-the-scanner* option. | [Asprise Web Scan](http://asprise.com/webscan/) has a browser extension (Chrome & Firefox) that adds a scan button beside the 'Upload' button in Sharepoint:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1xQj5.png)
Click 'Scan' to start scanning from any TWAIN scanners.
Disclaimer: I am from the developer company. |
96,433 | I have a list, users can add items to it. By applying current user filter web part, I can show the items created by the login user. However, for some users, i.e. belong to 'admin' group, I want to show all items.
Is it possible to do this? thanks | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/96433",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10246/"
] | Honestly, in my opinion, the best thing I've come across to scan directly into sharepoint or office 365 was using a product called GScan Online. It literally does more than just the scanning, it has great imaging feature, OCR to index info directly into the metadata fields, and even provides a fulltext searchable pdf. You can even try it out for a month for free, and see if you like it, but it's the easiest App I've used in order to scan directly within sharepoint, and I never have to leave my sharepoint window/environment. | Take a look at [Udocx for SharePoint](http://www.udocx.com/SharePoint). It'll allow you to browse SharePoint from the scanner/MFP and both print from and scan to specific folders. |
96,433 | I have a list, users can add items to it. By applying current user filter web part, I can show the items created by the login user. However, for some users, i.e. belong to 'admin' group, I want to show all items.
Is it possible to do this? thanks | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/96433",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10246/"
] | Honestly, in my opinion, the best thing I've come across to scan directly into sharepoint or office 365 was using a product called GScan Online. It literally does more than just the scanning, it has great imaging feature, OCR to index info directly into the metadata fields, and even provides a fulltext searchable pdf. You can even try it out for a month for free, and see if you like it, but it's the easiest App I've used in order to scan directly within sharepoint, and I never have to leave my sharepoint window/environment. | [Asprise Web Scan](http://asprise.com/webscan/) has a browser extension (Chrome & Firefox) that adds a scan button beside the 'Upload' button in Sharepoint:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1xQj5.png)
Click 'Scan' to start scanning from any TWAIN scanners.
Disclaimer: I am from the developer company. |
96,433 | I have a list, users can add items to it. By applying current user filter web part, I can show the items created by the login user. However, for some users, i.e. belong to 'admin' group, I want to show all items.
Is it possible to do this? thanks | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/96433",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10246/"
] | Take a look at [Udocx for SharePoint](http://www.udocx.com/SharePoint). It'll allow you to browse SharePoint from the scanner/MFP and both print from and scan to specific folders. | [Asprise Web Scan](http://asprise.com/webscan/) has a browser extension (Chrome & Firefox) that adds a scan button beside the 'Upload' button in Sharepoint:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1xQj5.png)
Click 'Scan' to start scanning from any TWAIN scanners.
Disclaimer: I am from the developer company. |
96,433 | I have a list, users can add items to it. By applying current user filter web part, I can show the items created by the login user. However, for some users, i.e. belong to 'admin' group, I want to show all items.
Is it possible to do this? thanks | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/96433",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/10246/"
] | Depending on the scanner it may be able to send scans as emails either directly or through an app.
If that's the case then you can [email enable the document library](http://sharepointquester.com/2013/09/04/configuring-incoming-email-on-a-sharepoint-2013-document-library/) and then configure the scanner to send to the email address of the document library. | I have to add my support to the **original** request...
Here's the scenario: a user has used their browser to get to a specific Sharepoint site/library. They realize that they have in hand the printed copy of the document that they need in this library to which they have browsed. Why can't they press a button in the ribbon that is labeled **Scan** that fires-up their scanner and saves the scan in the library to which they have browsed?
Why do they need to send it to Email, get a workflow to run, etc?
What would be even better would be to modify the Upload "dialog" that appears when you click the ribbon **Upload Document** button to have a *start-the-scanner* option. |
18,521 | We have a not for profit curriculum that a few schools are starting to use for their students. We need a website that will enable teachers to download the course materials, share their own materials and activities for each lesson, have discussions, and give feedback.
I have looked into multiple Learning Management Systems (like Moodle) and they all seem to be centered around the student (our site is exclusively for teachers of our curriculum).
Any suggestions (including thinking out of the box) are welcome. | 2015/04/06 | [
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/18521",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/8856/"
] | [Cloud9](http://c9.io) is a really nice IDE and works with many programming languages, including C. The code behind it is open source. If you have a hard time setting it up, [Bitnami](https://bitnami.com/) should be coming out with installers for it within the next few months (it won their voting contest).
EDIT: I just noticed that the old open source version is no longer maintained.
The new one may be a little limited, but if you don't find anything, you can wait for Bitnami. | Client-side online IDEs abound. See <https://github.com/showcases/text-editors> or <http://codemirror.net/> or <https://www.wikipedia.org/>.
You could teach students to fish for themselves by trying a combination of [remote/web-based terminals](https://github.com/search?o=desc&q=web+terminal&ref=searchresults&s=stars&type=Repositories&utf8=%E2%9C%93) and terminal-based editors. |
5,394 | Is the melting and boiling point of ionic bond usually higher than covalent bond?
I know that compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid at room temperature, so I want other answers than this. (and this question can also be about why compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid in room temperature.) | 2013/06/21 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/5394",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/1857/"
] | One set of comparisons is:
Why it take so much energy to turn sodium chloride molten, whereas candle wax melts virtually upon touch?
"Ionic compounds" tend to form crystals. You may have seen pictures of a crystal lattice of sodium chloride: cubic packing with a sodium being surrounded by many chlorides. It takes a lot of energy to break up all of those bonds.
In the case of wax (also a solid at room temperature), there are not these strong, "ionic" interactions between molecules. Things are more "layered" and disordered rather than crystalline. (Though there is definitely inter-molecular bonding Otherwise it would never be solid!!!) | In the case of ionic compounds, there is a complete transfer of electrons from one atom of the element to another atom of the another element. So, there exists a strong electrostatic force.
In the case of covalent compounds, electrons are not completely dragged, the atoms of different elements are attracted by a weaker electrostatic force. Thus, ionic compounds have atoms bound by stronger electrostatic force than in case of covalent compounds.
So, in general it is easier to break covalent bonds than ionic bonds. Thus, the melting and boiling points of ionic compounds are greater than covalent compounds. |
5,394 | Is the melting and boiling point of ionic bond usually higher than covalent bond?
I know that compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid at room temperature, so I want other answers than this. (and this question can also be about why compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid in room temperature.) | 2013/06/21 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/5394",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/1857/"
] | The answer relates to the strength of the interactions between the component units that make up a crystal or a solid.
The reason why anything is a solid at a given temperature is, crudely, that the interactions between the units that make up the solid (atoms, ions or molecules) are stronger than the amount of thermal energy available at that temperature.
Diamond, for example, is a solid because each unit carbon is bonded to its neighbours by a strong carbon-carbon bond that takes a great deal of energy to break. Non-polar molecular compounds, like candle wax (in reality a mixture but imagine a pure long chain hydrocarbon to keep it simple) are held together by the intermolecular forces between the molecules (often called dispersion or Van der Waals forces). These are much weaker than chemical bonds and depend on the surface area of the molecules. So small non-polar or not-very polar molecules tend to have low melting points. Hexane is a volatile liquid. The shape and symmetry of the molecule matters a bit to these interactions so toluene is a liquid down to -95°C but benzene, which is very similar to toluene but far more symmetric and slightly flatter only melts at about 6°C as the molecules pack together better encouraging stronger interactions. Polar molecules have stronger interactions because the molecular dipoles interact and this produces stronger forces than the non-polar dispersion forces. So phenol (very similar in size to toluene but far more polar) melts at about 41°C.
Simple ionic solid are made from charged ions. Table salt crystals consist of Na+ and Cl- ions. The key interaction between these is electrostatic and this is a strong force that takes a lot of energy to break. The melting point is about 800°C. Permanent electrostatic interactions are strong especially if the components can get close (remember, it's an inverse square law). This explains why not every ionic compound is a solid. There are ionic compounds that are liquid at room temperature. These tend to consist of molecular ions that are large and sometime irregular so forcing structures where the ionic force has to act over much larger distances and, therefore, be much weaker. An example is [BMIM]PF6 which has a melting point well below room temperature:
These ionic liquids are an interesting area of research in chemistry as they sometimes enable much less wasteful chemical reactions in industry (see [wikipedia](http://www.wikiwand.com/en/Ionic_liquid)). | One set of comparisons is:
Why it take so much energy to turn sodium chloride molten, whereas candle wax melts virtually upon touch?
"Ionic compounds" tend to form crystals. You may have seen pictures of a crystal lattice of sodium chloride: cubic packing with a sodium being surrounded by many chlorides. It takes a lot of energy to break up all of those bonds.
In the case of wax (also a solid at room temperature), there are not these strong, "ionic" interactions between molecules. Things are more "layered" and disordered rather than crystalline. (Though there is definitely inter-molecular bonding Otherwise it would never be solid!!!) |
5,394 | Is the melting and boiling point of ionic bond usually higher than covalent bond?
I know that compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid at room temperature, so I want other answers than this. (and this question can also be about why compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid in room temperature.) | 2013/06/21 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/5394",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/1857/"
] | The answer relates to the strength of the interactions between the component units that make up a crystal or a solid.
The reason why anything is a solid at a given temperature is, crudely, that the interactions between the units that make up the solid (atoms, ions or molecules) are stronger than the amount of thermal energy available at that temperature.
Diamond, for example, is a solid because each unit carbon is bonded to its neighbours by a strong carbon-carbon bond that takes a great deal of energy to break. Non-polar molecular compounds, like candle wax (in reality a mixture but imagine a pure long chain hydrocarbon to keep it simple) are held together by the intermolecular forces between the molecules (often called dispersion or Van der Waals forces). These are much weaker than chemical bonds and depend on the surface area of the molecules. So small non-polar or not-very polar molecules tend to have low melting points. Hexane is a volatile liquid. The shape and symmetry of the molecule matters a bit to these interactions so toluene is a liquid down to -95°C but benzene, which is very similar to toluene but far more symmetric and slightly flatter only melts at about 6°C as the molecules pack together better encouraging stronger interactions. Polar molecules have stronger interactions because the molecular dipoles interact and this produces stronger forces than the non-polar dispersion forces. So phenol (very similar in size to toluene but far more polar) melts at about 41°C.
Simple ionic solid are made from charged ions. Table salt crystals consist of Na+ and Cl- ions. The key interaction between these is electrostatic and this is a strong force that takes a lot of energy to break. The melting point is about 800°C. Permanent electrostatic interactions are strong especially if the components can get close (remember, it's an inverse square law). This explains why not every ionic compound is a solid. There are ionic compounds that are liquid at room temperature. These tend to consist of molecular ions that are large and sometime irregular so forcing structures where the ionic force has to act over much larger distances and, therefore, be much weaker. An example is [BMIM]PF6 which has a melting point well below room temperature:
These ionic liquids are an interesting area of research in chemistry as they sometimes enable much less wasteful chemical reactions in industry (see [wikipedia](http://www.wikiwand.com/en/Ionic_liquid)). | In the case of ionic compounds, there is a complete transfer of electrons from one atom of the element to another atom of the another element. So, there exists a strong electrostatic force.
In the case of covalent compounds, electrons are not completely dragged, the atoms of different elements are attracted by a weaker electrostatic force. Thus, ionic compounds have atoms bound by stronger electrostatic force than in case of covalent compounds.
So, in general it is easier to break covalent bonds than ionic bonds. Thus, the melting and boiling points of ionic compounds are greater than covalent compounds. |
5,394 | Is the melting and boiling point of ionic bond usually higher than covalent bond?
I know that compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid at room temperature, so I want other answers than this. (and this question can also be about why compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid in room temperature.) | 2013/06/21 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/5394",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/1857/"
] | It looks to me like sodium chloride is sort of a big frat party. All the boys are attracted to all the girls (you choose which element is which), so they're all holding hands with each other. To break NaCl into smaller bits, you have to break those handholds (melting, requiring lots of energy) or give them something else to hold (such as one end of a polarized water molecule). By contrast, sugar molecules are a bunch of close knit family groups. The members of each family are holding on to each other, but not attracted to any other family. To melt sugar, by getting the families to move around relative to each other, does not require much energy. When sugar is dissolved in water, the water molecules easily fit in among the sugar molecules, but again, elements of a given family are not attracted to outsiders. | In the case of ionic compounds, there is a complete transfer of electrons from one atom of the element to another atom of the another element. So, there exists a strong electrostatic force.
In the case of covalent compounds, electrons are not completely dragged, the atoms of different elements are attracted by a weaker electrostatic force. Thus, ionic compounds have atoms bound by stronger electrostatic force than in case of covalent compounds.
So, in general it is easier to break covalent bonds than ionic bonds. Thus, the melting and boiling points of ionic compounds are greater than covalent compounds. |
5,394 | Is the melting and boiling point of ionic bond usually higher than covalent bond?
I know that compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid at room temperature, so I want other answers than this. (and this question can also be about why compounds with ionic bonds are usually solid in room temperature.) | 2013/06/21 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/5394",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/1857/"
] | The answer relates to the strength of the interactions between the component units that make up a crystal or a solid.
The reason why anything is a solid at a given temperature is, crudely, that the interactions between the units that make up the solid (atoms, ions or molecules) are stronger than the amount of thermal energy available at that temperature.
Diamond, for example, is a solid because each unit carbon is bonded to its neighbours by a strong carbon-carbon bond that takes a great deal of energy to break. Non-polar molecular compounds, like candle wax (in reality a mixture but imagine a pure long chain hydrocarbon to keep it simple) are held together by the intermolecular forces between the molecules (often called dispersion or Van der Waals forces). These are much weaker than chemical bonds and depend on the surface area of the molecules. So small non-polar or not-very polar molecules tend to have low melting points. Hexane is a volatile liquid. The shape and symmetry of the molecule matters a bit to these interactions so toluene is a liquid down to -95°C but benzene, which is very similar to toluene but far more symmetric and slightly flatter only melts at about 6°C as the molecules pack together better encouraging stronger interactions. Polar molecules have stronger interactions because the molecular dipoles interact and this produces stronger forces than the non-polar dispersion forces. So phenol (very similar in size to toluene but far more polar) melts at about 41°C.
Simple ionic solid are made from charged ions. Table salt crystals consist of Na+ and Cl- ions. The key interaction between these is electrostatic and this is a strong force that takes a lot of energy to break. The melting point is about 800°C. Permanent electrostatic interactions are strong especially if the components can get close (remember, it's an inverse square law). This explains why not every ionic compound is a solid. There are ionic compounds that are liquid at room temperature. These tend to consist of molecular ions that are large and sometime irregular so forcing structures where the ionic force has to act over much larger distances and, therefore, be much weaker. An example is [BMIM]PF6 which has a melting point well below room temperature:
These ionic liquids are an interesting area of research in chemistry as they sometimes enable much less wasteful chemical reactions in industry (see [wikipedia](http://www.wikiwand.com/en/Ionic_liquid)). | It looks to me like sodium chloride is sort of a big frat party. All the boys are attracted to all the girls (you choose which element is which), so they're all holding hands with each other. To break NaCl into smaller bits, you have to break those handholds (melting, requiring lots of energy) or give them something else to hold (such as one end of a polarized water molecule). By contrast, sugar molecules are a bunch of close knit family groups. The members of each family are holding on to each other, but not attracted to any other family. To melt sugar, by getting the families to move around relative to each other, does not require much energy. When sugar is dissolved in water, the water molecules easily fit in among the sugar molecules, but again, elements of a given family are not attracted to outsiders. |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | Some people in societies with a Christian tradition use the names of sacred figures such as God, Jesus, etc, as an oath or exclamation, particularly to intensify an utterance, often with an exclamation mark afterwards, e.g. *God! It's hot today; Jesus! I'm tired*. Some Roman Catholics invoke the entire "Holy Family" - *Jesus, Mary and Joseph! I want a drink!* Using these words in this way does not necessarily imply strong religious belief, in fact many Christians consider such swearing to be wrong, and a form of profanity. | *[God](https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/god-oh-my-god-good-god-god-almighty)* in your example is used to emphasize what you are saying when you are surprised, annoyed, or amused (Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English). |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | [God](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/god_3) is used in this case as an [interjection](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/interjection):
>
> used for expressing strong feelings such as anger, surprise, or worry. *Note that: some people consider this expression offensive”.*
>
>
> * God! Would you shut up for a minute?
> * My God, you scared me!
> * Oh my God, are you all right?
>
>
>
(Macmillan Dictionary) | *[God](https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/god-oh-my-god-good-god-god-almighty)* in your example is used to emphasize what you are saying when you are surprised, annoyed, or amused (Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English). |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | *[God](https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/god-oh-my-god-good-god-god-almighty)* in your example is used to emphasize what you are saying when you are surprised, annoyed, or amused (Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English). | Although there is no "!" just after god, it is used as an exclamation. Notice the exclamation at the end of the sentence
The author remarks as with how much will or love she wanted to get out of here. She was very willing to get out.
One example:
"God, how beautiful that painting is!" |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | *[God](https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/god-oh-my-god-good-god-god-almighty)* in your example is used to emphasize what you are saying when you are surprised, annoyed, or amused (Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English). | Visitor @goelakash says in a comment that it's not clear how *swearing* is involved, and asks whether a living person, a president, say, can be invoked merely by name in such a locution.
It's not *swearing* as in cussing (cursing) but as in telling the truth. The exclamation is a shortened form of ***By* God**, that is, an invocation of God to attest to the truthfulness of the utterance. We swear **by** something, for example, "by all that is holy".
*God, it's hot today!* or *Jeez it's cold in here!*
Speakers have long lost the sense that an oath is involved when using these exclamations. They are merely very strong emphatics and can express intense emotion, such as anger or dismay or alarm.
*Jesus Mary and Joseph, what the f--k are you doing to my car!?*
To swear by a living person or some other *ad hoc* entity, we need to use the preposition **by**.
***By*** the Trump brand, I'm telling the truth, I say! The god's honest truth!
P.S. Speakers who consider such language truly offensive are a small minority. The speech of many people who are good and devout, and who are kind and charitable to others, is peppered with such "oaths". But on those occasions that require propriety most of them would rein themselves in.
P.P.S. I've spelled the word *f--k* only because the answer might get censored otherwise. |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | [God](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/god_3) is used in this case as an [interjection](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/interjection):
>
> used for expressing strong feelings such as anger, surprise, or worry. *Note that: some people consider this expression offensive”.*
>
>
> * God! Would you shut up for a minute?
> * My God, you scared me!
> * Oh my God, are you all right?
>
>
>
(Macmillan Dictionary) | Some people in societies with a Christian tradition use the names of sacred figures such as God, Jesus, etc, as an oath or exclamation, particularly to intensify an utterance, often with an exclamation mark afterwards, e.g. *God! It's hot today; Jesus! I'm tired*. Some Roman Catholics invoke the entire "Holy Family" - *Jesus, Mary and Joseph! I want a drink!* Using these words in this way does not necessarily imply strong religious belief, in fact many Christians consider such swearing to be wrong, and a form of profanity. |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | Some people in societies with a Christian tradition use the names of sacred figures such as God, Jesus, etc, as an oath or exclamation, particularly to intensify an utterance, often with an exclamation mark afterwards, e.g. *God! It's hot today; Jesus! I'm tired*. Some Roman Catholics invoke the entire "Holy Family" - *Jesus, Mary and Joseph! I want a drink!* Using these words in this way does not necessarily imply strong religious belief, in fact many Christians consider such swearing to be wrong, and a form of profanity. | Although there is no "!" just after god, it is used as an exclamation. Notice the exclamation at the end of the sentence
The author remarks as with how much will or love she wanted to get out of here. She was very willing to get out.
One example:
"God, how beautiful that painting is!" |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | Some people in societies with a Christian tradition use the names of sacred figures such as God, Jesus, etc, as an oath or exclamation, particularly to intensify an utterance, often with an exclamation mark afterwards, e.g. *God! It's hot today; Jesus! I'm tired*. Some Roman Catholics invoke the entire "Holy Family" - *Jesus, Mary and Joseph! I want a drink!* Using these words in this way does not necessarily imply strong religious belief, in fact many Christians consider such swearing to be wrong, and a form of profanity. | Visitor @goelakash says in a comment that it's not clear how *swearing* is involved, and asks whether a living person, a president, say, can be invoked merely by name in such a locution.
It's not *swearing* as in cussing (cursing) but as in telling the truth. The exclamation is a shortened form of ***By* God**, that is, an invocation of God to attest to the truthfulness of the utterance. We swear **by** something, for example, "by all that is holy".
*God, it's hot today!* or *Jeez it's cold in here!*
Speakers have long lost the sense that an oath is involved when using these exclamations. They are merely very strong emphatics and can express intense emotion, such as anger or dismay or alarm.
*Jesus Mary and Joseph, what the f--k are you doing to my car!?*
To swear by a living person or some other *ad hoc* entity, we need to use the preposition **by**.
***By*** the Trump brand, I'm telling the truth, I say! The god's honest truth!
P.S. Speakers who consider such language truly offensive are a small minority. The speech of many people who are good and devout, and who are kind and charitable to others, is peppered with such "oaths". But on those occasions that require propriety most of them would rein themselves in.
P.P.S. I've spelled the word *f--k* only because the answer might get censored otherwise. |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | [God](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/god_3) is used in this case as an [interjection](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/interjection):
>
> used for expressing strong feelings such as anger, surprise, or worry. *Note that: some people consider this expression offensive”.*
>
>
> * God! Would you shut up for a minute?
> * My God, you scared me!
> * Oh my God, are you all right?
>
>
>
(Macmillan Dictionary) | Although there is no "!" just after god, it is used as an exclamation. Notice the exclamation at the end of the sentence
The author remarks as with how much will or love she wanted to get out of here. She was very willing to get out.
One example:
"God, how beautiful that painting is!" |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | [God](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/god_3) is used in this case as an [interjection](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/interjection):
>
> used for expressing strong feelings such as anger, surprise, or worry. *Note that: some people consider this expression offensive”.*
>
>
> * God! Would you shut up for a minute?
> * My God, you scared me!
> * Oh my God, are you all right?
>
>
>
(Macmillan Dictionary) | Visitor @goelakash says in a comment that it's not clear how *swearing* is involved, and asks whether a living person, a president, say, can be invoked merely by name in such a locution.
It's not *swearing* as in cussing (cursing) but as in telling the truth. The exclamation is a shortened form of ***By* God**, that is, an invocation of God to attest to the truthfulness of the utterance. We swear **by** something, for example, "by all that is holy".
*God, it's hot today!* or *Jeez it's cold in here!*
Speakers have long lost the sense that an oath is involved when using these exclamations. They are merely very strong emphatics and can express intense emotion, such as anger or dismay or alarm.
*Jesus Mary and Joseph, what the f--k are you doing to my car!?*
To swear by a living person or some other *ad hoc* entity, we need to use the preposition **by**.
***By*** the Trump brand, I'm telling the truth, I say! The god's honest truth!
P.S. Speakers who consider such language truly offensive are a small minority. The speech of many people who are good and devout, and who are kind and charitable to others, is peppered with such "oaths". But on those occasions that require propriety most of them would rein themselves in.
P.P.S. I've spelled the word *f--k* only because the answer might get censored otherwise. |
177,428 | >
> God, she’d love to get out of here!
>
>
>
Could you please tel me what **God** exactly means here?
The fuller text is:
>
> Lauren examines a broken fingernail, trying to recall whether she
> brought a nail file with her. She glances at all the gloomy faces
> around her. No one appears to be enjoying themselves—even if they
> wanted to, it would be in bad taste. Candice going off to the library
> to work, as if nothing has happened, seems a bit callous. **God, she’d
> love to get out of here!** And it’s barely past lunchtime. She wonders
> how much longer they will be trapped in this hotel.
>
>
> | 2018/08/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/177428",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74396/"
] | Visitor @goelakash says in a comment that it's not clear how *swearing* is involved, and asks whether a living person, a president, say, can be invoked merely by name in such a locution.
It's not *swearing* as in cussing (cursing) but as in telling the truth. The exclamation is a shortened form of ***By* God**, that is, an invocation of God to attest to the truthfulness of the utterance. We swear **by** something, for example, "by all that is holy".
*God, it's hot today!* or *Jeez it's cold in here!*
Speakers have long lost the sense that an oath is involved when using these exclamations. They are merely very strong emphatics and can express intense emotion, such as anger or dismay or alarm.
*Jesus Mary and Joseph, what the f--k are you doing to my car!?*
To swear by a living person or some other *ad hoc* entity, we need to use the preposition **by**.
***By*** the Trump brand, I'm telling the truth, I say! The god's honest truth!
P.S. Speakers who consider such language truly offensive are a small minority. The speech of many people who are good and devout, and who are kind and charitable to others, is peppered with such "oaths". But on those occasions that require propriety most of them would rein themselves in.
P.P.S. I've spelled the word *f--k* only because the answer might get censored otherwise. | Although there is no "!" just after god, it is used as an exclamation. Notice the exclamation at the end of the sentence
The author remarks as with how much will or love she wanted to get out of here. She was very willing to get out.
One example:
"God, how beautiful that painting is!" |
48,759,760 | I have seen
[Move data from hive tables in Google Dataproc to BigQuery](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/47900265/move-data-from-hive-tables-in-google-dataproc-to-bigquery)
[Migrate hive table to Google BigQuery](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/46958916/migrate-hive-table-to-google-bigquery/47038501#47038501)
But issue with distcp is, it will move data from hdfs to gs..and My tables are in ORC format. Also till now bigquery is claiming to support only JSON, CSV, AVRO.
So need help to transfer data from hive table (ORC format) to BigQuery(any format) | 2018/02/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48759760",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5055476/"
] | As mentioned by Elliot, ORC is not supported. So you have to convert your ORC data into one of the 3 formats you mentioned.
I would personally prefer Avro because this serialization is more robust than JSON or CSV.
So the process to follow is:
1. Create your BQ table with the correct data types (need to be done as first step, to ensure proper cast with some Avro logical types like Timestamp)
2. Launch a Hive query to generate the data in a Avro format. See [this SQL example](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/46958916/migrate-hive-table-to-google-bigquery/47038501#comment81024969_47038501).
3. disctp to Google Cloud Storage
4. "bq load" into your table
5. Check that you haven't done any mistake by comparing that the tables on both Hive and BigQuery have the same data: <https://github.com/bolcom/hive_compared_bq> | orc is supported and you can easily create table from GCP console.
<https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/loading-data-cloud-storage-orc>
I have done it .
NOTE : The schema of the table is never mentioned in the orc files in case of hive tables and hence while uploading you will get column names as below picture . Once table created you need to rename and update the column names.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XHyeQ.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U4rsZ.png) |
1,274,189 | I have a COM dll that is working fine as an in-proc server and I install it in Component Services COM+ Applications. Now when I try to CoCreate it from my client app, I get HRESULT 0x8007007e "The specified module could not be found". What could be causing this? | 2009/08/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1274189",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1759/"
] | Module not found means that the COM system tried to load a module/dll (probably referred to by a GUID) that wasn't found, either because it wasn't registered, or because the dll was not present at the registered path.
I used to get this error when trying to create an object "A" from e.g. A.dll, which called into another dll (B.dll) that wasn't registered.
A tool you may be interested in is [process monitor](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896645.aspx), which tells you exactly what register keys were looked for by what process, with failure and success codes, and even let you see it's call stack. | Please elaborate on the different circumstances between working and not working.
I suspect there is a module that is depended on that is not found - some dll that is not in a search path for example. |
1,274,189 | I have a COM dll that is working fine as an in-proc server and I install it in Component Services COM+ Applications. Now when I try to CoCreate it from my client app, I get HRESULT 0x8007007e "The specified module could not be found". What could be causing this? | 2009/08/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1274189",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1759/"
] | The dll was registered on a ClearCase dynamic view, similar to a mapped drive, not available to COM+. Solution was to move the dll and the proxy/stub dll to a local drive and register them there. | Please elaborate on the different circumstances between working and not working.
I suspect there is a module that is depended on that is not found - some dll that is not in a search path for example. |
1,274,189 | I have a COM dll that is working fine as an in-proc server and I install it in Component Services COM+ Applications. Now when I try to CoCreate it from my client app, I get HRESULT 0x8007007e "The specified module could not be found". What could be causing this? | 2009/08/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1274189",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1759/"
] | Module not found means that the COM system tried to load a module/dll (probably referred to by a GUID) that wasn't found, either because it wasn't registered, or because the dll was not present at the registered path.
I used to get this error when trying to create an object "A" from e.g. A.dll, which called into another dll (B.dll) that wasn't registered.
A tool you may be interested in is [process monitor](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896645.aspx), which tells you exactly what register keys were looked for by what process, with failure and success codes, and even let you see it's call stack. | HArd to tell . I rember that usually I need to register com component with something like that:
>
> Regsvr32 my\_com.dll
>
>
>
Also you may verify that the path to your DLL is in PATH envornnemnt variable (Is it PATH or another variable?). Or copy it in the folder for your application.
Verify also your user's rights on this DLL. |
1,274,189 | I have a COM dll that is working fine as an in-proc server and I install it in Component Services COM+ Applications. Now when I try to CoCreate it from my client app, I get HRESULT 0x8007007e "The specified module could not be found". What could be causing this? | 2009/08/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1274189",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1759/"
] | The dll was registered on a ClearCase dynamic view, similar to a mapped drive, not available to COM+. Solution was to move the dll and the proxy/stub dll to a local drive and register them there. | HArd to tell . I rember that usually I need to register com component with something like that:
>
> Regsvr32 my\_com.dll
>
>
>
Also you may verify that the path to your DLL is in PATH envornnemnt variable (Is it PATH or another variable?). Or copy it in the folder for your application.
Verify also your user's rights on this DLL. |
1,274,189 | I have a COM dll that is working fine as an in-proc server and I install it in Component Services COM+ Applications. Now when I try to CoCreate it from my client app, I get HRESULT 0x8007007e "The specified module could not be found". What could be causing this? | 2009/08/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1274189",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1759/"
] | Module not found means that the COM system tried to load a module/dll (probably referred to by a GUID) that wasn't found, either because it wasn't registered, or because the dll was not present at the registered path.
I used to get this error when trying to create an object "A" from e.g. A.dll, which called into another dll (B.dll) that wasn't registered.
A tool you may be interested in is [process monitor](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896645.aspx), which tells you exactly what register keys were looked for by what process, with failure and success codes, and even let you see it's call stack. | The dll was registered on a ClearCase dynamic view, similar to a mapped drive, not available to COM+. Solution was to move the dll and the proxy/stub dll to a local drive and register them there. |
17,485 | I will be recording my first film shoot this month. To this point, all of my work has been Audio-post. I was just wondering how people keep records of what they are recording? I know about sound reports, but am finding it difficult to find out how they really work?
How do I really keep track of what I'm recording?
Any advise anybody can offer would be much appreciated.
Cheers. | 2012/12/29 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/17485",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/5590/"
] | You can find printable production sound report templates [here](http://www.gothamsound.com/main.shtml?page=docs).
A great read on production sound essentials [here](http://www.amps.net/technical/Essentials.htm). | Just a few tips from my experience:
You'll want to speak to the script supervisor (scripty) and ask them to keep you updated as to what scene/take you're on. On your sound report you'll want to write down the scene and take numbers and keep track of how many mics/channels you used and make notes regarding the quality of the recording (was the an airplane going by during the take? was the speech intelligible? etc.) If there are problems make sure you let the director know that sound had a problem and ask for another take. If you don't get another take, write that on your report ("no reshoot as per director").
Some recorders will allow you to enter a name for your recording - if so, enter the scene: "01A\_T" as in Scene 01 Alpha, Take\_ The recorder should add a number each time you do another take so you shouldn't have to manually enter the number each time you do a take. If your recorder doesn't allow you to name your tracks, you should probably write on your sound reports the name your recorder has assigned to the recording. |
38,150,788 | In preparation for an upgrade from TFS 2012 to TFS 2015, we cloned the existing TFS 2012 build server. The existing server has 4 build agents (but no controllers) installed. After cloning the existing server (server 1), the new server (server 2) has four build agents as expected. The new server was renamed and 'cleaned up' by IT. However when I delete an agent from server 2, it is automagically deleted from server 1. This is the case even when the related controller is disabled. Two questions:
Q1: Although we could delete and recreate an agent, we would rather not risk breaking or losing any vital data. How can we delete an agent on server 2 without deleting it from server 1?
Q2: We can live with re-creating the agents if we have to, but what happens if we delete the entire TFS build service from Server 2? Will we break the existing build service on server 1? And does this issue indicate we have bigger issues on the new server we need to resolve before we upgrade the build engine to 2015? | 2016/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/38150788",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/312826/"
] | If you are using 2012 or newer build agents, the build agents are configured to connect to server 1. The build agents though listed on server 2 won't connect to server 2 unless the agent configuration is changed to use server 2. | Usually, after you upgrade the TFS application tier, you would install the new build service. Deleting build agent won't change your build data as the build data doesn't store in the build agent. |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | Traffic Shaper XP is free and looks like it will do what you need:
<http://bandwidthcontroller.com/trafficShaperXp.html> | As others have stated, you can likely adjust QoS settings to make HTTP traffic have priority, within your local LAN.
Some notes however:
* You can't affect the priority of the traffic until it hits your local network. Any QoS settings you make in the outbound direction are going to be ignored/overwritten by your ISP.
* If you have any kind of modern LAN infrastructure in your house, chances are good that you have plenty of bandwidth from the cable modem/DSL to your PC's. Congestion management only applies to situations of congestion. If the 100BaseT Ethernet hardware from your cable modem to your PC can keep up with the traffic (and there's a very high chance it can), then may never be used.
* You could arbitrarily traffic-shape certain types of traffic to a low-bandwidth, but then you're hurting those applications during those periods where perhaps no HTTP is occurring. |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | Try **[NetBalancer\*](http://seriousbit.com/netbalancer/)**.
>
> Browse and do any internet activity
> comfortably even when your download
> manager or torrent client downloads
> huge files from internet - just lower
> their network priority with
> NetBalancer.
>
>
> You can use NetBalancer to set
> download/upload transfer rate priority
> for any applications and monitor their
> internet traffic.
>
>
>
\*Free version is limited to 5 process priorities/limits at a time. I think 5 is quite enough. | You can shape your traffic with inbuilt limiter in utorrent...you can right click the torrent and select upload and download limit..or you can adjust your bandwidth priority...
to know more about torrents visit:
<http://computertipstrickstweaks.blogspot.com/2010/03/introduction-to-torrents.html> |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | You'll want to look into a setting on your router called **QoS** (Quality of Service). If your router is capable of supporting 3rd party firmware, I'd suggest [DD-WRT](http://dd-wrt.com). It has an excellent QoS engine among tons of other great features. Bitorrent and HTTP traffic can easily be prioritized with the presets they give you.
See the **Services Priority** section:
 | What you are talking about is called "traffic shaping".
This generally needs to be supported by your router. However, if you want to build your own router at home, [pfSense](http://www.pfsense.com/) supports traffic shaping. |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | If you want true per application traffic shaping [Cfosspeed](http://www.cfos.de/speed/cfosspeed_e.htm) is a good solution. I agree that the best solution probably is traffic shaping through the router but a router cannot distinguish between applications, just ports. | Traffic Shaper XP is free and looks like it will do what you need:
<http://bandwidthcontroller.com/trafficShaperXp.html> |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | You'll want to look into a setting on your router called **QoS** (Quality of Service). If your router is capable of supporting 3rd party firmware, I'd suggest [DD-WRT](http://dd-wrt.com). It has an excellent QoS engine among tons of other great features. Bitorrent and HTTP traffic can easily be prioritized with the presets they give you.
See the **Services Priority** section:
 | You can shape your traffic with inbuilt limiter in utorrent...you can right click the torrent and select upload and download limit..or you can adjust your bandwidth priority...
to know more about torrents visit:
<http://computertipstrickstweaks.blogspot.com/2010/03/introduction-to-torrents.html> |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | Try **[NetBalancer\*](http://seriousbit.com/netbalancer/)**.
>
> Browse and do any internet activity
> comfortably even when your download
> manager or torrent client downloads
> huge files from internet - just lower
> their network priority with
> NetBalancer.
>
>
> You can use NetBalancer to set
> download/upload transfer rate priority
> for any applications and monitor their
> internet traffic.
>
>
>
\*Free version is limited to 5 process priorities/limits at a time. I think 5 is quite enough. | What you are talking about is called "traffic shaping".
This generally needs to be supported by your router. However, if you want to build your own router at home, [pfSense](http://www.pfsense.com/) supports traffic shaping. |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | Try **[NetBalancer\*](http://seriousbit.com/netbalancer/)**.
>
> Browse and do any internet activity
> comfortably even when your download
> manager or torrent client downloads
> huge files from internet - just lower
> their network priority with
> NetBalancer.
>
>
> You can use NetBalancer to set
> download/upload transfer rate priority
> for any applications and monitor their
> internet traffic.
>
>
>
\*Free version is limited to 5 process priorities/limits at a time. I think 5 is quite enough. | As others have stated, you can likely adjust QoS settings to make HTTP traffic have priority, within your local LAN.
Some notes however:
* You can't affect the priority of the traffic until it hits your local network. Any QoS settings you make in the outbound direction are going to be ignored/overwritten by your ISP.
* If you have any kind of modern LAN infrastructure in your house, chances are good that you have plenty of bandwidth from the cable modem/DSL to your PC's. Congestion management only applies to situations of congestion. If the 100BaseT Ethernet hardware from your cable modem to your PC can keep up with the traffic (and there's a very high chance it can), then may never be used.
* You could arbitrarily traffic-shape certain types of traffic to a low-bandwidth, but then you're hurting those applications during those periods where perhaps no HTTP is occurring. |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | You can shape your traffic with inbuilt limiter in utorrent...you can right click the torrent and select upload and download limit..or you can adjust your bandwidth priority...
to know more about torrents visit:
<http://computertipstrickstweaks.blogspot.com/2010/03/introduction-to-torrents.html> | As others have stated, you can likely adjust QoS settings to make HTTP traffic have priority, within your local LAN.
Some notes however:
* You can't affect the priority of the traffic until it hits your local network. Any QoS settings you make in the outbound direction are going to be ignored/overwritten by your ISP.
* If you have any kind of modern LAN infrastructure in your house, chances are good that you have plenty of bandwidth from the cable modem/DSL to your PC's. Congestion management only applies to situations of congestion. If the 100BaseT Ethernet hardware from your cable modem to your PC can keep up with the traffic (and there's a very high chance it can), then may never be used.
* You could arbitrarily traffic-shape certain types of traffic to a low-bandwidth, but then you're hurting those applications during those periods where perhaps no HTTP is occurring. |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | Try **[NetBalancer\*](http://seriousbit.com/netbalancer/)**.
>
> Browse and do any internet activity
> comfortably even when your download
> manager or torrent client downloads
> huge files from internet - just lower
> their network priority with
> NetBalancer.
>
>
> You can use NetBalancer to set
> download/upload transfer rate priority
> for any applications and monitor their
> internet traffic.
>
>
>
\*Free version is limited to 5 process priorities/limits at a time. I think 5 is quite enough. | Traffic Shaper XP is free and looks like it will do what you need:
<http://bandwidthcontroller.com/trafficShaperXp.html> |
82,525 | The printer won't print with empty color cartridges. I want to print only black ink. From what I've read so far the Epson Stylus C84 won't print like this because it uses a little bit of color in even when you print only in black to prevent the ink heads from drying out.
Is there ANY way that I can bypass this? | 2009/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/82525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/6070/"
] | Try **[NetBalancer\*](http://seriousbit.com/netbalancer/)**.
>
> Browse and do any internet activity
> comfortably even when your download
> manager or torrent client downloads
> huge files from internet - just lower
> their network priority with
> NetBalancer.
>
>
> You can use NetBalancer to set
> download/upload transfer rate priority
> for any applications and monitor their
> internet traffic.
>
>
>
\*Free version is limited to 5 process priorities/limits at a time. I think 5 is quite enough. | Use your router settings to do that and port detect and distribute priority. |
20,948,894 | I am writing my own theme based on Twitter Bootstrap 3.x and want to be sure that I implement all styles for all elements properly. So I have decided that it would be great to have a html page with all elements included, which I can use as "check list" of what has to be done.
Does anybody have or see such or similar page? | 2014/01/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20948894",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/531994/"
] | You can go to the [twitter bootstrap](http://bootswatch.com/default/) and get html source and test your css and other functionality there. | This page <http://bootswatch.com/default/> has the whole lot on one page. Easier than downloading the official docs, and it's updated when bootstrap changes. |
9,769 | I am an experienced SharePoint Consultant/Contractor with a very solid technical background and excellent refrences. In Decemeber last year, I accepted a 6 month contract of "SharePoint Developer" in one of the country's biggest organizations.
In my job interview, in addition to SharePoint technical questions, I was asked about my Excel macro development skills. I clearly and honestly stated that I am not an Excel programmer and just use Excel as and when basis.
Since I have started my contract, I am continuously being assigned to develop different types of Excel worksheets, macros, formulas, etc. Everybody talks in Excel and they just use SharePoint as a repository. No one has ever developed a solution in Excel and even nobody has ever installed Visual Studio on their machine.
My question is what should I do?
1. Should I resign (which is quite difficult for me because of financial reasons for the time being)?
2. Just wait and keep developing useless Excel Macros? In this case what will I write in my resume about this contract?
3. Talk to manager and tell him to assign me only SharePoint related work?
People don't know anything about SharePoint, but they use SharePoint. Therfore they hired me as a "SharePoint Developer" to create Excel sheets for them :)
By the way, everybody is very happy with me because I have designed some some very good macros for them. However this is not what I wanted to do. | 2013/02/19 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/9769",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/7844/"
] | First, look into your contract to see what kinds of terms would you have if you did quit or if you tried option 3 only to be told that you aren't a team player and so your services are no longer required here. This is a starting point as it could determine what other choices you have.
Second, how horrible is it writing Excel Macros for another few months? You could claim that you improved productivity by automating report generation among other things. The key here is to get what was the business value of the work you did. If it is helping the business be much more productive and efficient then that is the benefit you want to tell for future employers.
I'd be careful about trying option 3 as I could see that backfiring as you may well end up committing Excel spreadsheets in SharePoint so that you do use it a little bit. | In addition to what has been said in other answers, I would like to add the following:
1. Don't resign!
2. If they are willing to pay you to develop the Excel Macros, they are by definition not useless. I would explain on your resume how you adapted to successfully solve the the **business's** problem.
3. Do not **tell** your manager what kind of work you should be assigned to, this is **literally** part of their job. You need to sell the advantages of SharePoint development over Excel Macro development. You need to convince everyone that there are benefits to using SharePoint as more than just a repository.
Any position is created because the business needs to solve a problem that it cannot currently solve or at least solve quickly enough. This means that a job posting for new technology will involve fixing mission critical old technology. Every position is going to have legacy code, products and processes. The goal is to innovate within the existing structure to provide a greater [Return on Investment(ROI)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Return_on_investment). |
9,769 | I am an experienced SharePoint Consultant/Contractor with a very solid technical background and excellent refrences. In Decemeber last year, I accepted a 6 month contract of "SharePoint Developer" in one of the country's biggest organizations.
In my job interview, in addition to SharePoint technical questions, I was asked about my Excel macro development skills. I clearly and honestly stated that I am not an Excel programmer and just use Excel as and when basis.
Since I have started my contract, I am continuously being assigned to develop different types of Excel worksheets, macros, formulas, etc. Everybody talks in Excel and they just use SharePoint as a repository. No one has ever developed a solution in Excel and even nobody has ever installed Visual Studio on their machine.
My question is what should I do?
1. Should I resign (which is quite difficult for me because of financial reasons for the time being)?
2. Just wait and keep developing useless Excel Macros? In this case what will I write in my resume about this contract?
3. Talk to manager and tell him to assign me only SharePoint related work?
People don't know anything about SharePoint, but they use SharePoint. Therfore they hired me as a "SharePoint Developer" to create Excel sheets for them :)
By the way, everybody is very happy with me because I have designed some some very good macros for them. However this is not what I wanted to do. | 2013/02/19 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/9769",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/7844/"
] | You're already between 2 and 3 months, presumably, into a 6 month contract so quitting early is almost certainly a bad idea. The world tends to be rather small and the chances that you'll burn a bridge that you'd like to use in a few years is rather high. Plus, it sounds like quitting would be problematic for you financially which makes it even less attractive.
If you are doing short-term contract work, the problem tends to be how to compress, say, 10 6-month contracts into a paragraph to show what you did for the past 5 years. You can talk about the business problems you solved without needing to be specific about which technologies were used on which contracts. Realistically, though, it seems likely that a few months of heavy-duty Excel macro development would be a good skill for a Sharepoint developer to have given how most people use Sharepoint.
The only reason I would consider talking with your manager is if the company has told you that it intends to renew your contract at the end of the 6-month period. If that's the case, it may be helpful to meet with your manager and explain that you're perfectly happy to fulfill the contract doing Excel macro development but that you aren't going to be interested in renewing unless there is more Sharepoint work to do. And you may want to suggest to your manager that they may want to change the job description if and when they look for a new developer because they are likely to be better served by someone that has more Excel macro experience that can pick up Sharepoint than the reverse. | In addition to what has been said in other answers, I would like to add the following:
1. Don't resign!
2. If they are willing to pay you to develop the Excel Macros, they are by definition not useless. I would explain on your resume how you adapted to successfully solve the the **business's** problem.
3. Do not **tell** your manager what kind of work you should be assigned to, this is **literally** part of their job. You need to sell the advantages of SharePoint development over Excel Macro development. You need to convince everyone that there are benefits to using SharePoint as more than just a repository.
Any position is created because the business needs to solve a problem that it cannot currently solve or at least solve quickly enough. This means that a job posting for new technology will involve fixing mission critical old technology. Every position is going to have legacy code, products and processes. The goal is to innovate within the existing structure to provide a greater [Return on Investment(ROI)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Return_on_investment). |
212,787 | If you shrunk the "magnetic part" from inside the Earth down to a fridge magnet size, how strong would it be in Gauss?
This is not a home work question. I just watched [this video](http://www.ted.com/talks/jim_al_khalili_how_quantum_biology_might_explain_life_s_biggest_questions) which included the statement: "A fridge magnet is 100x stronger than the Earth's magnetic field". I am trying to answer my friend's question of: "How come a compass usually points North instead of at the nearest fridge magnet?". I got into postulating some relationship based on the inverse cube of distance from the magnets centre and decided there might be a better approach (see above). | 2015/10/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/212787",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/7957/"
] | I'm glad you posed your friend's original question of "How come a compass usually points North instead of at the nearest fridge magnet?" because that's a more straightforward and apt question than the question derived from it. The Earth's magnetic field at the surface of the Earth has an average magnitude of about 0.5 Gauss. The magnetic field strength right next to a refrigerator magnet is 100x greater or more.
However, you then have to consider how quickly the magnetic field strength from the magnet decreases as a function of distance from the magnet. If you were to model the magnetic field from a refrigerator magnet as simply the field from a magnetic monopole, the magnetic field strength would drop off as the inverse square of the distance from the magnet. In reality, though, the refrigerator magnet, like any bar magnet, has an 'N' pole and a 'S' pole with opposite polarities, and so if you're at a distance from the bar magnet there is significant 'cancellation' between the 'N' pole and the 'S' pole (visualize the 'N' pole of a magnet as being a source of magnetic flux lines, and the 'S' pole as being a sink of magnetic flux lines) and so the magnetic field strength actually drops off as about the inverse cube of the distance from the magnet.
I'll leave it to you as an exercise to figure out how what the approximate magnetic field strength due to a magnet having a size of 1 inch and a surface field of 500 Gauss is at a distance of, say, 3 feet from the refrigerator. You should be able to see that it doesn't take much distance to reduce even a very large magnetic field at the surface of a bar magnet down to much less than the Earth's magnetic field strength of about 0.5 Gauss. | Magnetic intensity doesn't increase due to size. A neodymium magnet the size of the Earth with have the same pull on a given object as if it was a dime. |
263,959 | Is there a stand-alone GUI designer that can read and write the .form files that NetBeans (Matisse) generates? I like the GUI designer, but I don't want all the overhead of a complete Java IDE just to create and edit .form XML files. | 2008/11/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/263959",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/29173/"
] | You could check out [JFormDesigner](http://www.jformdesigner.com/). I know it can import Netbeans .form files, but I'm not sure how it works vice versa. Available both as stand-alone and as plug-in to severals IDEs. | There are probably none available. The form editor has several features that are not trivial to implement, such as custom controls and code.
It's simply to complex and not useful enough. |
17,470,420 | If I have a column in a MySQL database that is:
* Non-nullable
* Is an ENUM with 5 possible values
* Has a default value of 1 of those ENUM's
Can it be guaranteed that there can never be a value in that column apart from one of those ENUM's? | 2013/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17470420",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/460043/"
] | Not by default - there is one more value your column can have in addition to the values of the enum, an empty string in the column.
You have to enable strict SQL mode in MySQL to have the guarantee that only the enum values (or NULL if the column is nullable ) can occur.
Taken from [here](http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/enum.html)
>
> If you insert an invalid value into an ENUM (that is, a string not
> present in the list of permitted values), the empty string is inserted
> instead as a special error value. This string can be distinguished
> from a “normal” empty string by the fact that this string has the
> numeric value 0. See Section 11.4.4, “ Index Values for Enumeration
> Literals ” for details about the numeric indexes for the enumeration
> values.
>
>
> If strict SQL mode is enabled, attempts to insert invalid ENUM values
> result in an error.
>
>
> | >
> If strict SQL mode is enabled, attempts to insert invalid ENUM values result in an error.
>
>
>
[Source](http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/enum.html) |
14,080 | I don't have the book in front of me at the moment, but a part of the power Mythic Speed states something along the lines of "Opponents don't get to make checks against you." What does this mean? Do NPCs (and other PCs) just never get to see a creature with Mythic Speed? | 2012/05/04 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/14080",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/1914/"
] | Here's what Mythic Speed does.
------------------------------
* You always go first in a conflict.
* All Athletics checks are at +3, including dodging. Sprinting boosts that to +6.
* You can keep up with a moving vehicle without any problem.
* You can move up to three zones without a penalty when moving as part of another physical activity.
* No one ever gets a bonus to spot you when you're using Stealth, regardless of your speed. (*I think this might be what you're thinking of in your quote.*)
All this is from page 178 of **DF: Your Story**. | I think what you're talking about is this, from YS p.178:
>
> **Like the Wind**. No one ever gets a bonus to spot you when you’re using
> Stealth, no matter how fast you’re moving.
>
>
>
Which just means what it says - no bonuses to spot you when you're trying to not be seen. Not "nobody ever sees you." |
285 | I read in the [Linguistics section on the Wikipedia page for American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language#Linguistics) that ASL was "*proven [to be a natural language] to the satisfaction of the linguistic community by William Stokoe, and contains **phonology**, **morphology**, **semantics**, **syntax** and **pragmatics** just like spoken languages*" (emphasis mine).
Are these elements, of phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics, generally accepted as the necessary and sufficient components of a natural language? Would a constructed language which developed such features be accepted as "natural"? (Note that [American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language) itself would be an ambiguous case, being a systematically modified version of [Old French Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French_Sign_Language), a signing language which developed "in the wild", so to speak, in the deaf community in Paris well before the French Revolution.)
To consider a somewhat flippant example: what would be the necessary conditions, linguistically (as opposed to sociologically) speaking, for either Esperanto or Klingon to develop dialects which would be considered natural?
**Edited to add:** I am accepting Alennano's answer as being the most factually correct with respect to what it means for a language to be "natural"; but I also think that, from the answers and comments, the question of whether a language is "natural" is completely beside the point on a matter of linguistics, except inasmuch as the vast majority of "vernacular languages" happened to evolve more-or-less organically most of the time from a prehistoric origin. | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/285",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/173/"
] | I'd say a natural language has (or had) **native speakers**. Natural languages don't cease to be natural when their last native speaker dies. A native speaker is one that learnt it as a child. This means that it had at one time been learned as the first language of **children** (one child is not enough). So if adults got together to learn a language, it couldn't be a natural language until their children could use it as their sole and first language. A language that is no longer learnt by children will go extinct.
The test of a definition of *natural language* is what to do with Esperanto. It now has at least three generations of native speakers (though they are all multilingual). Can a constructed language become a natural language by being the first language of children or will a constructed language always be a mere constructed language no matter what. It should be noted that the Esperanto these people speak is different and more complex than the Esperanto of the parents, who learnt it as adults. | A **natural language** has developed spontaneously over time and it has done it gradually. While an **artificial language** has been created in a relatively short time, usually for a definite aim. Now that other one is the main difference: it has been created. Also natural languages are man-made but the genesis is totally different, in terms of procedures and time.
No-one thought "let's create a language called English", over time from Old English to the English we know, it developed "by itself", through people's usage. While Esperanto, for example was created in more or less 15 years.
Unlike pidgins, an artificial language has a fairly complex grammar in addition to a good phonology system that is usually as complex as the creator's language, a good furnished lexicon and it's provided with syntax too.
Natural languages have all these things as well, but like I said, in contrast to the artificial languages, they were acquired over time. There were influences, development. In other words: an evolution.
**EDIT**: I read your question again and I wanted to add that those parameters (syntax, phonology, semantics, syntax, etc) are not parameters to distinguish a natural language from the rest, since also artificial ones have them.
I'm not sure how it works with Sign Languages (about being a natural language or not), but since you mentioned spoken languages too, I answered to that.
**EDIT 2**: Answering to your comment, the point was to prove that ASL was not a "bad gesturing imitation" of the English language, but rather a true language on its own; this was done by Stokoe, who also encountered many obstacles doing it. The American Sign Language is complex enough under all those points, so it can't just be a simplified version of English; not to mention that it didn't even derive from English. Stokoe wrote some texts about this in case you're interested to go more in depth. |
285 | I read in the [Linguistics section on the Wikipedia page for American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language#Linguistics) that ASL was "*proven [to be a natural language] to the satisfaction of the linguistic community by William Stokoe, and contains **phonology**, **morphology**, **semantics**, **syntax** and **pragmatics** just like spoken languages*" (emphasis mine).
Are these elements, of phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics, generally accepted as the necessary and sufficient components of a natural language? Would a constructed language which developed such features be accepted as "natural"? (Note that [American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language) itself would be an ambiguous case, being a systematically modified version of [Old French Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French_Sign_Language), a signing language which developed "in the wild", so to speak, in the deaf community in Paris well before the French Revolution.)
To consider a somewhat flippant example: what would be the necessary conditions, linguistically (as opposed to sociologically) speaking, for either Esperanto or Klingon to develop dialects which would be considered natural?
**Edited to add:** I am accepting Alennano's answer as being the most factually correct with respect to what it means for a language to be "natural"; but I also think that, from the answers and comments, the question of whether a language is "natural" is completely beside the point on a matter of linguistics, except inasmuch as the vast majority of "vernacular languages" happened to evolve more-or-less organically most of the time from a prehistoric origin. | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/285",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/173/"
] | A **natural language** has developed spontaneously over time and it has done it gradually. While an **artificial language** has been created in a relatively short time, usually for a definite aim. Now that other one is the main difference: it has been created. Also natural languages are man-made but the genesis is totally different, in terms of procedures and time.
No-one thought "let's create a language called English", over time from Old English to the English we know, it developed "by itself", through people's usage. While Esperanto, for example was created in more or less 15 years.
Unlike pidgins, an artificial language has a fairly complex grammar in addition to a good phonology system that is usually as complex as the creator's language, a good furnished lexicon and it's provided with syntax too.
Natural languages have all these things as well, but like I said, in contrast to the artificial languages, they were acquired over time. There were influences, development. In other words: an evolution.
**EDIT**: I read your question again and I wanted to add that those parameters (syntax, phonology, semantics, syntax, etc) are not parameters to distinguish a natural language from the rest, since also artificial ones have them.
I'm not sure how it works with Sign Languages (about being a natural language or not), but since you mentioned spoken languages too, I answered to that.
**EDIT 2**: Answering to your comment, the point was to prove that ASL was not a "bad gesturing imitation" of the English language, but rather a true language on its own; this was done by Stokoe, who also encountered many obstacles doing it. The American Sign Language is complex enough under all those points, so it can't just be a simplified version of English; not to mention that it didn't even derive from English. Stokoe wrote some texts about this in case you're interested to go more in depth. | To answer the question: IMO, Esperanto and Klingon (and other constructed/synthetic languages) are not and therefore never will be natural languages. Among native speakers, the languages will begin to *act* like natural languages because there will always be language change with time, but I think we'll need to coin a new phrase for these types of languages. (The language formerly known as constructed? Bam! Prince joke.)
I'm still not sure about calling ASL a natural language. It is definitely a language of its own right, but it did not happen entirely spontaneously. I guess I wonder about calling any sign language a natural language when it develops in the context of a spoken language society. This is why Nicaraguan Sign Language is so interesting, which developed (among children!) like a pidgin>creole language in an almost entirely deaf community, which may be the closest a sign language could get to being natural since it comes from necessity instead of planning. By the time researchers came in to observe, it already had a basic grammar. |
285 | I read in the [Linguistics section on the Wikipedia page for American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language#Linguistics) that ASL was "*proven [to be a natural language] to the satisfaction of the linguistic community by William Stokoe, and contains **phonology**, **morphology**, **semantics**, **syntax** and **pragmatics** just like spoken languages*" (emphasis mine).
Are these elements, of phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics, generally accepted as the necessary and sufficient components of a natural language? Would a constructed language which developed such features be accepted as "natural"? (Note that [American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language) itself would be an ambiguous case, being a systematically modified version of [Old French Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French_Sign_Language), a signing language which developed "in the wild", so to speak, in the deaf community in Paris well before the French Revolution.)
To consider a somewhat flippant example: what would be the necessary conditions, linguistically (as opposed to sociologically) speaking, for either Esperanto or Klingon to develop dialects which would be considered natural?
**Edited to add:** I am accepting Alennano's answer as being the most factually correct with respect to what it means for a language to be "natural"; but I also think that, from the answers and comments, the question of whether a language is "natural" is completely beside the point on a matter of linguistics, except inasmuch as the vast majority of "vernacular languages" happened to evolve more-or-less organically most of the time from a prehistoric origin. | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/285",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/173/"
] | A **natural language** has developed spontaneously over time and it has done it gradually. While an **artificial language** has been created in a relatively short time, usually for a definite aim. Now that other one is the main difference: it has been created. Also natural languages are man-made but the genesis is totally different, in terms of procedures and time.
No-one thought "let's create a language called English", over time from Old English to the English we know, it developed "by itself", through people's usage. While Esperanto, for example was created in more or less 15 years.
Unlike pidgins, an artificial language has a fairly complex grammar in addition to a good phonology system that is usually as complex as the creator's language, a good furnished lexicon and it's provided with syntax too.
Natural languages have all these things as well, but like I said, in contrast to the artificial languages, they were acquired over time. There were influences, development. In other words: an evolution.
**EDIT**: I read your question again and I wanted to add that those parameters (syntax, phonology, semantics, syntax, etc) are not parameters to distinguish a natural language from the rest, since also artificial ones have them.
I'm not sure how it works with Sign Languages (about being a natural language or not), but since you mentioned spoken languages too, I answered to that.
**EDIT 2**: Answering to your comment, the point was to prove that ASL was not a "bad gesturing imitation" of the English language, but rather a true language on its own; this was done by Stokoe, who also encountered many obstacles doing it. The American Sign Language is complex enough under all those points, so it can't just be a simplified version of English; not to mention that it didn't even derive from English. Stokoe wrote some texts about this in case you're interested to go more in depth. | Phonology, morphology and etc are not elements or components that can be developed, they are levels of linguistic analysis. At the level of the morpheme, rules tell how the morphemes fit together into a structure. If they are just jumbled together with no structure, there is no language. That was thought to be the case with ASL, until Stokoe proved otherwise.
If someone invented a *language* it would by definition have such structures at each level of analysis. Later, if users of the language developed different rules and structures, one could ask if it was now sufficiently different to be a new language, and if so, if that language was 'natural'.
ASL was proven to be a *natural* language by showing that it was not invented, it is not a modified version of OFLS or anything else; it was not planned, it arose spontaneously, with genetic roots in at least three existing signed languages, and none in any spoken language.
**Not all sign language is ASL. Not all “sign language” is a natural signed language.** Some is just gestures; some is [Signed English](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manually_Coded_English) or a [manual code](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manually_coded_language) for some other spoken language. Signed English is an artificial language which *was* planned and so forth; ASL is a natural language.
Being a constructed language, Signed English has structure at all the above named levels. At the level of phonology its structure is partly that of ASL and partly invented. At the levels of syntax and morphology it has the structure of English. Syntactically, as shown here, the two languages have different word order. Morphologically, Signed English uses one sign for each English word, ASL uses fewer words and more affixes.
It's worth noting that there are children whose first and only language is Signed English, but that doesn't make SE a natural language. |
285 | I read in the [Linguistics section on the Wikipedia page for American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language#Linguistics) that ASL was "*proven [to be a natural language] to the satisfaction of the linguistic community by William Stokoe, and contains **phonology**, **morphology**, **semantics**, **syntax** and **pragmatics** just like spoken languages*" (emphasis mine).
Are these elements, of phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics, generally accepted as the necessary and sufficient components of a natural language? Would a constructed language which developed such features be accepted as "natural"? (Note that [American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language) itself would be an ambiguous case, being a systematically modified version of [Old French Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French_Sign_Language), a signing language which developed "in the wild", so to speak, in the deaf community in Paris well before the French Revolution.)
To consider a somewhat flippant example: what would be the necessary conditions, linguistically (as opposed to sociologically) speaking, for either Esperanto or Klingon to develop dialects which would be considered natural?
**Edited to add:** I am accepting Alennano's answer as being the most factually correct with respect to what it means for a language to be "natural"; but I also think that, from the answers and comments, the question of whether a language is "natural" is completely beside the point on a matter of linguistics, except inasmuch as the vast majority of "vernacular languages" happened to evolve more-or-less organically most of the time from a prehistoric origin. | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/285",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/173/"
] | I'd say a natural language has (or had) **native speakers**. Natural languages don't cease to be natural when their last native speaker dies. A native speaker is one that learnt it as a child. This means that it had at one time been learned as the first language of **children** (one child is not enough). So if adults got together to learn a language, it couldn't be a natural language until their children could use it as their sole and first language. A language that is no longer learnt by children will go extinct.
The test of a definition of *natural language* is what to do with Esperanto. It now has at least three generations of native speakers (though they are all multilingual). Can a constructed language become a natural language by being the first language of children or will a constructed language always be a mere constructed language no matter what. It should be noted that the Esperanto these people speak is different and more complex than the Esperanto of the parents, who learnt it as adults. | To answer the question: IMO, Esperanto and Klingon (and other constructed/synthetic languages) are not and therefore never will be natural languages. Among native speakers, the languages will begin to *act* like natural languages because there will always be language change with time, but I think we'll need to coin a new phrase for these types of languages. (The language formerly known as constructed? Bam! Prince joke.)
I'm still not sure about calling ASL a natural language. It is definitely a language of its own right, but it did not happen entirely spontaneously. I guess I wonder about calling any sign language a natural language when it develops in the context of a spoken language society. This is why Nicaraguan Sign Language is so interesting, which developed (among children!) like a pidgin>creole language in an almost entirely deaf community, which may be the closest a sign language could get to being natural since it comes from necessity instead of planning. By the time researchers came in to observe, it already had a basic grammar. |
285 | I read in the [Linguistics section on the Wikipedia page for American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language#Linguistics) that ASL was "*proven [to be a natural language] to the satisfaction of the linguistic community by William Stokoe, and contains **phonology**, **morphology**, **semantics**, **syntax** and **pragmatics** just like spoken languages*" (emphasis mine).
Are these elements, of phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics, generally accepted as the necessary and sufficient components of a natural language? Would a constructed language which developed such features be accepted as "natural"? (Note that [American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language) itself would be an ambiguous case, being a systematically modified version of [Old French Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French_Sign_Language), a signing language which developed "in the wild", so to speak, in the deaf community in Paris well before the French Revolution.)
To consider a somewhat flippant example: what would be the necessary conditions, linguistically (as opposed to sociologically) speaking, for either Esperanto or Klingon to develop dialects which would be considered natural?
**Edited to add:** I am accepting Alennano's answer as being the most factually correct with respect to what it means for a language to be "natural"; but I also think that, from the answers and comments, the question of whether a language is "natural" is completely beside the point on a matter of linguistics, except inasmuch as the vast majority of "vernacular languages" happened to evolve more-or-less organically most of the time from a prehistoric origin. | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/285",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/173/"
] | I'd say a natural language has (or had) **native speakers**. Natural languages don't cease to be natural when their last native speaker dies. A native speaker is one that learnt it as a child. This means that it had at one time been learned as the first language of **children** (one child is not enough). So if adults got together to learn a language, it couldn't be a natural language until their children could use it as their sole and first language. A language that is no longer learnt by children will go extinct.
The test of a definition of *natural language* is what to do with Esperanto. It now has at least three generations of native speakers (though they are all multilingual). Can a constructed language become a natural language by being the first language of children or will a constructed language always be a mere constructed language no matter what. It should be noted that the Esperanto these people speak is different and more complex than the Esperanto of the parents, who learnt it as adults. | Phonology, morphology and etc are not elements or components that can be developed, they are levels of linguistic analysis. At the level of the morpheme, rules tell how the morphemes fit together into a structure. If they are just jumbled together with no structure, there is no language. That was thought to be the case with ASL, until Stokoe proved otherwise.
If someone invented a *language* it would by definition have such structures at each level of analysis. Later, if users of the language developed different rules and structures, one could ask if it was now sufficiently different to be a new language, and if so, if that language was 'natural'.
ASL was proven to be a *natural* language by showing that it was not invented, it is not a modified version of OFLS or anything else; it was not planned, it arose spontaneously, with genetic roots in at least three existing signed languages, and none in any spoken language.
**Not all sign language is ASL. Not all “sign language” is a natural signed language.** Some is just gestures; some is [Signed English](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manually_Coded_English) or a [manual code](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manually_coded_language) for some other spoken language. Signed English is an artificial language which *was* planned and so forth; ASL is a natural language.
Being a constructed language, Signed English has structure at all the above named levels. At the level of phonology its structure is partly that of ASL and partly invented. At the levels of syntax and morphology it has the structure of English. Syntactically, as shown here, the two languages have different word order. Morphologically, Signed English uses one sign for each English word, ASL uses fewer words and more affixes.
It's worth noting that there are children whose first and only language is Signed English, but that doesn't make SE a natural language. |
285 | I read in the [Linguistics section on the Wikipedia page for American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language#Linguistics) that ASL was "*proven [to be a natural language] to the satisfaction of the linguistic community by William Stokoe, and contains **phonology**, **morphology**, **semantics**, **syntax** and **pragmatics** just like spoken languages*" (emphasis mine).
Are these elements, of phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics, generally accepted as the necessary and sufficient components of a natural language? Would a constructed language which developed such features be accepted as "natural"? (Note that [American Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Sign_Language) itself would be an ambiguous case, being a systematically modified version of [Old French Sign Language](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French_Sign_Language), a signing language which developed "in the wild", so to speak, in the deaf community in Paris well before the French Revolution.)
To consider a somewhat flippant example: what would be the necessary conditions, linguistically (as opposed to sociologically) speaking, for either Esperanto or Klingon to develop dialects which would be considered natural?
**Edited to add:** I am accepting Alennano's answer as being the most factually correct with respect to what it means for a language to be "natural"; but I also think that, from the answers and comments, the question of whether a language is "natural" is completely beside the point on a matter of linguistics, except inasmuch as the vast majority of "vernacular languages" happened to evolve more-or-less organically most of the time from a prehistoric origin. | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/285",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/173/"
] | Phonology, morphology and etc are not elements or components that can be developed, they are levels of linguistic analysis. At the level of the morpheme, rules tell how the morphemes fit together into a structure. If they are just jumbled together with no structure, there is no language. That was thought to be the case with ASL, until Stokoe proved otherwise.
If someone invented a *language* it would by definition have such structures at each level of analysis. Later, if users of the language developed different rules and structures, one could ask if it was now sufficiently different to be a new language, and if so, if that language was 'natural'.
ASL was proven to be a *natural* language by showing that it was not invented, it is not a modified version of OFLS or anything else; it was not planned, it arose spontaneously, with genetic roots in at least three existing signed languages, and none in any spoken language.
**Not all sign language is ASL. Not all “sign language” is a natural signed language.** Some is just gestures; some is [Signed English](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manually_Coded_English) or a [manual code](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manually_coded_language) for some other spoken language. Signed English is an artificial language which *was* planned and so forth; ASL is a natural language.
Being a constructed language, Signed English has structure at all the above named levels. At the level of phonology its structure is partly that of ASL and partly invented. At the levels of syntax and morphology it has the structure of English. Syntactically, as shown here, the two languages have different word order. Morphologically, Signed English uses one sign for each English word, ASL uses fewer words and more affixes.
It's worth noting that there are children whose first and only language is Signed English, but that doesn't make SE a natural language. | To answer the question: IMO, Esperanto and Klingon (and other constructed/synthetic languages) are not and therefore never will be natural languages. Among native speakers, the languages will begin to *act* like natural languages because there will always be language change with time, but I think we'll need to coin a new phrase for these types of languages. (The language formerly known as constructed? Bam! Prince joke.)
I'm still not sure about calling ASL a natural language. It is definitely a language of its own right, but it did not happen entirely spontaneously. I guess I wonder about calling any sign language a natural language when it develops in the context of a spoken language society. This is why Nicaraguan Sign Language is so interesting, which developed (among children!) like a pidgin>creole language in an almost entirely deaf community, which may be the closest a sign language could get to being natural since it comes from necessity instead of planning. By the time researchers came in to observe, it already had a basic grammar. |
36,405,577 | Is there a way to send EOF to stdin when running a c program in Clion IDE?
I tried ctrl+D - it simply shuts the program down.
Ctrl+Z doesn't work either.
Any ideas?
BTW - I'm using it on a Windows 10 OS. | 2016/04/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36405577",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5462551/"
] | ctrl+D does the job, however there is a known [problem](https://youtrack.jetbrains.com/issue/CPP-5704), to avoid it disable option *run.processes.with.pty* in Registry (Find Action > Registry). | Another option is to run the program from command line, and attach to it from CLion.
In that case, you'll have your native shell.
It's detailed at
<https://blog.jetbrains.com/clion/2016/01/attach-to-local-process/>
The process is very simple - after running the program from command line, choose Run->Attach to Local Process...
And choose your program from the list. You can type in the search field. |
36,405,577 | Is there a way to send EOF to stdin when running a c program in Clion IDE?
I tried ctrl+D - it simply shuts the program down.
Ctrl+Z doesn't work either.
Any ideas?
BTW - I'm using it on a Windows 10 OS. | 2016/04/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36405577",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5462551/"
] | ctrl+D does the job, however there is a known [problem](https://youtrack.jetbrains.com/issue/CPP-5704), to avoid it disable option *run.processes.with.pty* in Registry (Find Action > Registry). | Type in ^ on a newline, in the console after your input, I found it does the trick. |
36,405,577 | Is there a way to send EOF to stdin when running a c program in Clion IDE?
I tried ctrl+D - it simply shuts the program down.
Ctrl+Z doesn't work either.
Any ideas?
BTW - I'm using it on a Windows 10 OS. | 2016/04/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36405577",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5462551/"
] | Type in ^ on a newline, in the console after your input, I found it does the trick. | Another option is to run the program from command line, and attach to it from CLion.
In that case, you'll have your native shell.
It's detailed at
<https://blog.jetbrains.com/clion/2016/01/attach-to-local-process/>
The process is very simple - after running the program from command line, choose Run->Attach to Local Process...
And choose your program from the list. You can type in the search field. |
214,437 | Whenever I come across a new [API](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_programming_interface) or programming language or even simple Linux [man pages](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Man_page), I always (ever since I remember) avoided them and instead lazily relied on examples for gaining understanding of new concepts.
Subconsciously, I avoid documentation/APIs whenever it is not straightforward or cryptic or just plain boring. It's been years since I began programming and now I feel like I need to mend my ways as I now realize that I'm causing more damage by refraining from reading cryptic/difficult documentation as it is still a million times better than examples as the official documentation has more coverage than any example out there. Even after realizing that examples should be treated as "added" value instead of the "primary" source for learning.
How do I break this bad habit as a programmer or am I overthinking? | 2013/10/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/214437",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/104978/"
] | Information provided by documentation falls in three catgeories:
* Recipe.
* Reference.
* Expert knowledge.
Recipes or example makes a bridge between the problem domain and the functionalities of the software. Reference describes completely some functionality and is useful if you want to adapt a recipe to a specific case.
(Expert knowledge maps concepts of the problem domain to concepts of documentation, it is useful if concepts can be expressed in several manners or if users of the software are not experts in the field.)
>
> How do I break this bad habit as a programmer or am I over thinking? Any wisdom from fellow programmers is appreciated.
>
>
>
I do not think that your habit is bad. When you learn an API, you first get an idea of which problems can be solved and which methodologies are provided with the help of Recipes (your examples). Reference documentation then helps you to fine tune the methodologies to special cases. | Examples are documentation. I don't think it is bad from a getting familiar with the API standpoint. If it is the only documentation that you look at then it can be an issue. Most examples skimp on error checking which can lead to overly brittle code if you don't go back and pick up the missing pieces from the reference documentation. |
214,437 | Whenever I come across a new [API](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_programming_interface) or programming language or even simple Linux [man pages](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Man_page), I always (ever since I remember) avoided them and instead lazily relied on examples for gaining understanding of new concepts.
Subconsciously, I avoid documentation/APIs whenever it is not straightforward or cryptic or just plain boring. It's been years since I began programming and now I feel like I need to mend my ways as I now realize that I'm causing more damage by refraining from reading cryptic/difficult documentation as it is still a million times better than examples as the official documentation has more coverage than any example out there. Even after realizing that examples should be treated as "added" value instead of the "primary" source for learning.
How do I break this bad habit as a programmer or am I overthinking? | 2013/10/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/214437",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/104978/"
] | Information provided by documentation falls in three catgeories:
* Recipe.
* Reference.
* Expert knowledge.
Recipes or example makes a bridge between the problem domain and the functionalities of the software. Reference describes completely some functionality and is useful if you want to adapt a recipe to a specific case.
(Expert knowledge maps concepts of the problem domain to concepts of documentation, it is useful if concepts can be expressed in several manners or if users of the software are not experts in the field.)
>
> How do I break this bad habit as a programmer or am I over thinking? Any wisdom from fellow programmers is appreciated.
>
>
>
I do not think that your habit is bad. When you learn an API, you first get an idea of which problems can be solved and which methodologies are provided with the help of Recipes (your examples). Reference documentation then helps you to fine tune the methodologies to special cases. | Different people learn better in different ways. Some people are like you and learn better from examples. Some people are like me and learn better from detailed documentation. Having both in the documentation seems to cover most developers pretty well. Talk to a teacher, they can tell you half a dozen ways people learn. |
214,437 | Whenever I come across a new [API](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_programming_interface) or programming language or even simple Linux [man pages](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Man_page), I always (ever since I remember) avoided them and instead lazily relied on examples for gaining understanding of new concepts.
Subconsciously, I avoid documentation/APIs whenever it is not straightforward or cryptic or just plain boring. It's been years since I began programming and now I feel like I need to mend my ways as I now realize that I'm causing more damage by refraining from reading cryptic/difficult documentation as it is still a million times better than examples as the official documentation has more coverage than any example out there. Even after realizing that examples should be treated as "added" value instead of the "primary" source for learning.
How do I break this bad habit as a programmer or am I overthinking? | 2013/10/15 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/214437",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/104978/"
] | Examples are documentation. I don't think it is bad from a getting familiar with the API standpoint. If it is the only documentation that you look at then it can be an issue. Most examples skimp on error checking which can lead to overly brittle code if you don't go back and pick up the missing pieces from the reference documentation. | Different people learn better in different ways. Some people are like you and learn better from examples. Some people are like me and learn better from detailed documentation. Having both in the documentation seems to cover most developers pretty well. Talk to a teacher, they can tell you half a dozen ways people learn. |
204,725 | Mac Preview always opens in single page or double page view when going to full-screen mode while I prefer continuous scroll. I know I could press CMD+1 every time but is there a way to set this scroll option by default on PDF file open?
Edit: I also tried the Preferences -> Opening for the first time, Show as: Continuous scroll. It still always opens files in single page view when going to full-screen mode. Is this some sort of bug?
Version: OS X 10.9.4 MacBook Air | 2015/09/07 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/204725",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/127047/"
] | Preview Preferences → Opening for the first time:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/L6C6S.png) | Sierra, still the same problem.
Went to prefs and changing the option (which I don't remember having changed before) with Terminal:
cd ~/Library/Containers/com.apple.Preview/Data/Library/Preferences/
defaults write com.apple.Preview kPVPDFDefaultPageViewModeOption 0
and restarted Preview
Taken from <http://www.amsys.co.uk/2013/08/how-to-configure-os-xs-preview-app-to-always-start-in-single-page-mode/>
Didn't work, also not the option in the next post.... hm. |
204,725 | Mac Preview always opens in single page or double page view when going to full-screen mode while I prefer continuous scroll. I know I could press CMD+1 every time but is there a way to set this scroll option by default on PDF file open?
Edit: I also tried the Preferences -> Opening for the first time, Show as: Continuous scroll. It still always opens files in single page view when going to full-screen mode. Is this some sort of bug?
Version: OS X 10.9.4 MacBook Air | 2015/09/07 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/204725",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/127047/"
] | Preview Preferences → Opening for the first time:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/L6C6S.png) | The preview preferences may be overridden by system preferences. Open System Preferences, General. In middle of panel there is a section that says 'Show scroll bars'. There are 3 options. I'd try the 'always' option and see if that works on preview. I'd leave the preview preference set to continuous scroll as well. |
204,725 | Mac Preview always opens in single page or double page view when going to full-screen mode while I prefer continuous scroll. I know I could press CMD+1 every time but is there a way to set this scroll option by default on PDF file open?
Edit: I also tried the Preferences -> Opening for the first time, Show as: Continuous scroll. It still always opens files in single page view when going to full-screen mode. Is this some sort of bug?
Version: OS X 10.9.4 MacBook Air | 2015/09/07 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/204725",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/127047/"
] | Preview Preferences → Opening for the first time:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/L6C6S.png) | Think I found it.
Used "defaults write com.apple.Preview PVPDFDisplayMode 3" from apple.stackexchange.com/questions/24359/…
It is making now scroll mode in fullscreen, works, now on OS 10.14 |
204,725 | Mac Preview always opens in single page or double page view when going to full-screen mode while I prefer continuous scroll. I know I could press CMD+1 every time but is there a way to set this scroll option by default on PDF file open?
Edit: I also tried the Preferences -> Opening for the first time, Show as: Continuous scroll. It still always opens files in single page view when going to full-screen mode. Is this some sort of bug?
Version: OS X 10.9.4 MacBook Air | 2015/09/07 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/204725",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/127047/"
] | Sierra, still the same problem.
Went to prefs and changing the option (which I don't remember having changed before) with Terminal:
cd ~/Library/Containers/com.apple.Preview/Data/Library/Preferences/
defaults write com.apple.Preview kPVPDFDefaultPageViewModeOption 0
and restarted Preview
Taken from <http://www.amsys.co.uk/2013/08/how-to-configure-os-xs-preview-app-to-always-start-in-single-page-mode/>
Didn't work, also not the option in the next post.... hm. | The preview preferences may be overridden by system preferences. Open System Preferences, General. In middle of panel there is a section that says 'Show scroll bars'. There are 3 options. I'd try the 'always' option and see if that works on preview. I'd leave the preview preference set to continuous scroll as well. |
204,725 | Mac Preview always opens in single page or double page view when going to full-screen mode while I prefer continuous scroll. I know I could press CMD+1 every time but is there a way to set this scroll option by default on PDF file open?
Edit: I also tried the Preferences -> Opening for the first time, Show as: Continuous scroll. It still always opens files in single page view when going to full-screen mode. Is this some sort of bug?
Version: OS X 10.9.4 MacBook Air | 2015/09/07 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/204725",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/127047/"
] | Think I found it.
Used "defaults write com.apple.Preview PVPDFDisplayMode 3" from apple.stackexchange.com/questions/24359/…
It is making now scroll mode in fullscreen, works, now on OS 10.14 | The preview preferences may be overridden by system preferences. Open System Preferences, General. In middle of panel there is a section that says 'Show scroll bars'. There are 3 options. I'd try the 'always' option and see if that works on preview. I'd leave the preview preference set to continuous scroll as well. |
21,326,114 | We're developing a solution which uses Ektron. As part of our solution we all have local IIS instances (localhost) and deploy to this local instance as part of the development life cycle.
The problem is that after a deployment and once dll's are replaced IIS restarts and the app pool is recycled, this means that Ektron dll's need to reload themselves.
This process takes an extended amount of time.
Is there anyway to improve the loading time of "Ektron" | 2014/01/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/21326114",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41543/"
] | To some extent, this is the nature of a large app running as a website rather than a web application. Removing the workarea from your local environment is one way to get this compile time down, though this will naturally not work depending on your workflow, for example if you are not using a separate dev DB or if you are storing the workarea in source control.
I have seen some attempts to pre-complile the workarea and keep the working code in a separate project (<http://dev.ektron.com/forum.aspx?g=posts&t=10996>) but this approach will only speed up your builds, not the recompilation of individual pages that will occur after a build as a result of running as a web site.
The last (and least best-practice) solution is to simply avoid making code changes that cause a recompile, like modifying app\_code. Apps running as websites are perfectly happy to recompile a single page's codebehind without regenerating DLLs, which is advantageous for productivity but ultimately discourages good practices like reusing code in libraries. **Keep in mind that this is terrible advice**, but if you have a deadline and are staring at an ektron page loading every 30 minutes it can be useful to know. | There is not, this is just how IIS works. Instead of running a local instance of Ektron it's a good idea just to point your web.config file to the database of your test database and copy the /workarea folder to your local PC. You can't edit ektron locally but you can change the data on your test server and it will show up locally. |
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