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494,525
The default pdf handler in Windows 8 is the "Reader" app, which runs in the new UI only. Aside from using a "normal" pdf reader (Foxit/Adobe) is there any other way I can make the Reader app run in desktop ui mode. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eLVOg.jpg) I am looking for this, because I am used to opening PDF and an editor side by side (50%). The modern UI only gives me one-thirds, which is not what I want
2012/10/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/494525", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/42532/" ]
You can "snap" the Windows Reader to the Desktop. 1. Open Windows Reader 2. Go to Desktop 3. Point with the mouse to the top-left corner until a box with Windows Reader icon appears 4. Right click on it, and select Snap left or Snap Right
Just use the Control Panel - Default programs and change the file association for .pdf to acrobat reader or foxit or whatever reader you prefer. PDF's will then open up in windowed mode.
494,525
The default pdf handler in Windows 8 is the "Reader" app, which runs in the new UI only. Aside from using a "normal" pdf reader (Foxit/Adobe) is there any other way I can make the Reader app run in desktop ui mode. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eLVOg.jpg) I am looking for this, because I am used to opening PDF and an editor side by side (50%). The modern UI only gives me one-thirds, which is not what I want
2012/10/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/494525", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/42532/" ]
You can "snap" the Windows Reader to the Desktop. 1. Open Windows Reader 2. Go to Desktop 3. Point with the mouse to the top-left corner until a box with Windows Reader icon appears 4. Right click on it, and select Snap left or Snap Right
Not UI mode but it is more manageable with : Windows key and left, right arrow will make it 50% of the screen. Process to use the windows key and D to put the desktop on the other side. You also have got a bar you can move to set the size for yourself then
61,757
I was given an assignment for a graduate course a few days ago, and I had to do some background reading in order to understand what one question was asking. In the process of doing this reading, I discovered a paper that contained the exact question I was working on, but phrased as a statement. A proof of this statement was also included, meaning the solution was now laid out in front of me. I'm not sure how to approach this situation. I can't simply reference this paper, since telling the instructor "the solution may be found here" misses the point of the exercise. On the other hand, I can't write my solution without providing a citation, since that would be academic dishonesty. What should I do in this situation?
2016/01/16
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/61757", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Literature research is a legitimate process in science, they can't blame you for that. Clearly, however, you did not "rediscover" the result. One option would be to tell the tutor that you found a solution in the literature and if s/he could give you an alternative assignment instead.
I suggest a variation of Captain Emacs's suggestion, namely to write the solution (in your own words) and hand it in, including an explanation of where and how you found the reference that contained the solution, and including a note stating that because you hadn't arrived at the solution by yourself, you would be happy to accept an alternative assignment. However, I doubt that that would be necessary. The instructor likely cares to know mainly that you reached a good level of understanding of the material covered by the question, and would not care as much how you arrived at that understanding. I should also note that it's not clear to me that not including a citation would represent academic dishonesty. It certainly would if you were specifically instructed not to use the internet as an aid to solving the homework, or if you copied the solution verbatim rather than read it, understand it and write it in your own words, but otherwise, whether this was seen or dishonest or not would depend on whether there was an (implicit or explicit) assumption that students are allowed to use any sources they wish to in order to arrive at a solution, as long as the solution they hand in is written by them, in their own words, and represents genuine understanding that they have attained. With that said, it's best to be as honest as possible, not least because you haven't done anything wrong by stumbling on the solution accidentally, so I would greatly favor the honest approach advocated above or the similar one suggested by Captain Emacs.
61,757
I was given an assignment for a graduate course a few days ago, and I had to do some background reading in order to understand what one question was asking. In the process of doing this reading, I discovered a paper that contained the exact question I was working on, but phrased as a statement. A proof of this statement was also included, meaning the solution was now laid out in front of me. I'm not sure how to approach this situation. I can't simply reference this paper, since telling the instructor "the solution may be found here" misses the point of the exercise. On the other hand, I can't write my solution without providing a citation, since that would be academic dishonesty. What should I do in this situation?
2016/01/16
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/61757", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
*I discovered a paper that contained the exact question I was working on* Common research practice, before working on a problem that you think is relevant for your work of publication quality, it is advisable to do a background search on the same to see if someone had worked out the problem already. It saves a good deal of time and energy when you find your brilliant idea already published else where before actually investing time on it. **Now**, from the spirit of what you described, the aim is not to *discover* a publishable result rather than understanding how to reach the solution. If you understood the solution and submit it in writing, there is absolutely no problem if you ***cite the source*** even though you will miss the joy of independent work. It is also possible that you may find a related problem solved elsewhere, which may or may not be a publication in the usual sense, but the same logic applies there too. In my opinion, > > it is appropriate to cite the source unless you reach the solution by > independent work. > > >
I suggest a variation of Captain Emacs's suggestion, namely to write the solution (in your own words) and hand it in, including an explanation of where and how you found the reference that contained the solution, and including a note stating that because you hadn't arrived at the solution by yourself, you would be happy to accept an alternative assignment. However, I doubt that that would be necessary. The instructor likely cares to know mainly that you reached a good level of understanding of the material covered by the question, and would not care as much how you arrived at that understanding. I should also note that it's not clear to me that not including a citation would represent academic dishonesty. It certainly would if you were specifically instructed not to use the internet as an aid to solving the homework, or if you copied the solution verbatim rather than read it, understand it and write it in your own words, but otherwise, whether this was seen or dishonest or not would depend on whether there was an (implicit or explicit) assumption that students are allowed to use any sources they wish to in order to arrive at a solution, as long as the solution they hand in is written by them, in their own words, and represents genuine understanding that they have attained. With that said, it's best to be as honest as possible, not least because you haven't done anything wrong by stumbling on the solution accidentally, so I would greatly favor the honest approach advocated above or the similar one suggested by Captain Emacs.
35
For example, would "I want to know of good first hand sources and academic texts about the Templars military tactics" be on or off topic?
2011/10/12
[ "https://history.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/35", "https://history.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://history.meta.stackexchange.com/users/103/" ]
What if instead of banning such questions we created a special tag for them, similar to Tex.SX's 'Community Wiki' 'big-list' tags? I can see the value in such answers, as starting research in a new area can be very daunting, particularly with a broad topic or one with answers scattered through books on more general topics. Also when I come to history.SX I'm not likely to have an identical question as someone else, but if I have a similar one then the list of references could be very useful. For example, I'm starting an essay on German Rearmament. I don't want people to give me information on my essay topic outright, but I would love to have some of the more knowledgeable people point me to where to find books on it, as such topics are scattered; I've got books on the end of the Wimer republic, the start of WWII, military history and the road to total war. I'm positive I'm missing good sources, and have a number of chaff book sin my pile, and being able to ask for help would be *really* useful, as well as beneficial to anyone else working on the same topic. I'm having trouble finding examples right now, but [Naming LaTeX Files](https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/12174/naming-latex-files-best-practice) is a clear example of a clear, but open-ended, question, as is [What are the finishing touches you put to a document?](https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/19263/what-are-the-finishing-touches-you-put-to-a-document) I think having them as questions is much more useful then in chat, as it is far easier to search for questions on the same/similar topics when a new person comes along then it is in chat. Chat also has the risk of no one available to help, especially as we grow, then answers do. Finally if I'm out and about and see a question asking about, say, the British Army leading up to WWI, I can say 'Oh hey, I just wrote an essay on that, I'll grab my sources list for them when I get some time' -I'm not going to do that if they ask in chat, and I don't see them online again. I *would* say that we need to restrict such questions to narrow topics: "I'm looking for sources on the British Army in the years leading up to WWI" or "1850-1914" for example, not "What are a list of good books on the British Army?"
I think this site will get a pretty alive chat for side-reasoning/discussion where such reference/keyword questions can be asked. Also Wikipedia gives out alot literature links for every topic. But too much of those questions would likely corrupt the tag system of "real" historical questions.
35
For example, would "I want to know of good first hand sources and academic texts about the Templars military tactics" be on or off topic?
2011/10/12
[ "https://history.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/35", "https://history.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://history.meta.stackexchange.com/users/103/" ]
What if instead of banning such questions we created a special tag for them, similar to Tex.SX's 'Community Wiki' 'big-list' tags? I can see the value in such answers, as starting research in a new area can be very daunting, particularly with a broad topic or one with answers scattered through books on more general topics. Also when I come to history.SX I'm not likely to have an identical question as someone else, but if I have a similar one then the list of references could be very useful. For example, I'm starting an essay on German Rearmament. I don't want people to give me information on my essay topic outright, but I would love to have some of the more knowledgeable people point me to where to find books on it, as such topics are scattered; I've got books on the end of the Wimer republic, the start of WWII, military history and the road to total war. I'm positive I'm missing good sources, and have a number of chaff book sin my pile, and being able to ask for help would be *really* useful, as well as beneficial to anyone else working on the same topic. I'm having trouble finding examples right now, but [Naming LaTeX Files](https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/12174/naming-latex-files-best-practice) is a clear example of a clear, but open-ended, question, as is [What are the finishing touches you put to a document?](https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/19263/what-are-the-finishing-touches-you-put-to-a-document) I think having them as questions is much more useful then in chat, as it is far easier to search for questions on the same/similar topics when a new person comes along then it is in chat. Chat also has the risk of no one available to help, especially as we grow, then answers do. Finally if I'm out and about and see a question asking about, say, the British Army leading up to WWI, I can say 'Oh hey, I just wrote an essay on that, I'll grab my sources list for them when I get some time' -I'm not going to do that if they ask in chat, and I don't see them online again. I *would* say that we need to restrict such questions to narrow topics: "I'm looking for sources on the British Army in the years leading up to WWI" or "1850-1914" for example, not "What are a list of good books on the British Army?"
These types of questions should be strictly **off-topic**. These are what I would consider list questions. You'll get a bunch of one-line answers and I don't think they'd really add value to the site. This question could be rewritten as "What were the Templar's military tactics?" and would be on-topic (well, it might be a bit too broad).
22,505
From the [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html), there are four paths described: 1. Development of insight preceded by development of tranquility 2. Development of tranquility preceded by development of insight 3. Tranquility developed in tandem with insight 4. **Mind's restlessness concerning the Dhamma well under control** From my understanding, the first three are about [vipassana](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vipassan%C4%81) (insight) and [samatha](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samatha) (tranquility). Questions: 1. How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path. 2. How does one practise that? Please provide details. 3. Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path? > > Ven. Ananda said: "Friends, whoever — monk or nun — declares the > attainment of arahantship in my presence, they all do it by means of > one or another of four paths. Which four? > > > "There is the case where a monk has developed insight preceded by > tranquillity. As he develops insight preceded by tranquillity, the > path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity > preceded by insight. As he develops tranquillity preceded by insight, > the path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity in > tandem with insight. As he develops tranquillity in tandem with > insight, the path is born. ..... > > > "**Then there is the case where a monk's mind has its restlessness > concerning the Dhamma [Comm: the corruptions of insight] well under > control. There comes a time when his mind grows steady inwardly, > settles down, and becomes unified & concentrated. In him the path is > born.** > > > He follows that path, develops it, pursues it. As he follows the > path, developing it & pursuing it — his fetters are abandoned, his > obsessions destroyed. > > [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html) > > >
2017/09/04
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/22505", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/471/" ]
**How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path.** By attaining “anariya jhanas”, one can attain only ceto vimutti. Thus to achieve all of the four paths, one has to practice “ariya jhanas”. Only this second Ariya Jhana will lead to magga phala with panna vimutti. The fourth path does not involve samatha meditation. It is completely a vipassana meditation. In Pali this fourth method is called \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. Unlike the other three methods, it takes only a very short time to come to realization through this method, but only a highly developed person can do this. This method is not for you and I. The only Ariya Meditation that may help the ordinary folk is the Savitakka/Savicara mode of meditation. For those who are more disciplined and wiser, there is the Avitakka/Avicara mode of meditation. **How does one practise that? Please provide details.** This question can never be answered. The scriptures tell us of only 14 people who have realized nibbhana by practising this method. Few of them that come to mind are Bahiya Dharuciraya, King Pukkusati, King’s Minister Santhathi, Arahant Dabbamallatissa, and Bhikku Kumara Kashyapa. **Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path?** This answer is there within the above explanation. These few individuals came to panna vimutti, but to come to this they never did any kind of Jhana. They never had to do samatha or vipassana meditation. Within a matter of minutes, they achieved nibbana through \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. To explain this Pali term…. Uddhacca means the tendency to be high-minded (restlessness) - It arises because of high-mindedness. Uddacca remains as a cetasika and is removed only at the Arahant stage. Uddacca is the tendency to get at least irritated when not treated as expected. But it is to be noted that the levels of mana, uddacca, avijja that an Anagami has, are at much reduced level. Uddhacca Vigghahita means the eradication of Uddhacca. This is the quickest way to remove all traces of the root causes - raga, dosa, and, moha. Or in other words Uddhacca Vigghahita is the easiest way to remove lobha, dosa, and, moha (for akusala kamma), and alobha, adosa, and amoha (for kusala kamma).
Bhikkhu Bodhi has a footnote about this, which I have decided to disagree with, for the sake of alternative view. However, in his footnote, he points out how there are three variations of this Pali text (PTS, Sinhala, Burmese), including 'dham­muddhac­ca­vig­gahitaṃ **mānasaṃ**' (which he agrees with, namely, 'manasa' as 'mind' or 'thinking') versus 'dham­muddhac­ca­vig­gahita**ṃanā**' (which I have decided to agree with). BB rejects the later because it would include the word 'conceit' ('ṃanā'), which he believes is suspicious. However, I have decided to disagree with BB and speculate 'ṃanā' is not suspicious because the other term in the phrase is 'uddhac­ca', namely, restlessness. The other word is '[*vig­gahita*](https://suttacentral.net/define/viggahita)', which means '*taken hold of, seized; seduced by*'. 'Conceit' ('ṃanā') is the 8th fetter; 'restlessness' ('uddhac­ca') is the 9th fetter. Here, in the 4th path, the practitioner is a 'non-returner' ('anāgāmi') seized/seduced by two of the final fetters needed to be broken for arahantship. Thus, in this 4th path, the non-returner has already developed tranquility & insight but encounters a speed bump with the 8th & 9th fetters. But the non-returner settles the mind (*citta*), breaks the fetters and completes the path. Since the sutta is strangely attributed to Ananda about arahants making declarations to him, which is even more bizarre, and since this sutta is both a one-off and has varied versions, personally, I would ignore & reject it. The sutta seems typical of the non-sense found in the Anguttara Nikaya. Bhikkhu Sujato at Sutta Central might take an interest in this. I suggest to start this topic there.
22,505
From the [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html), there are four paths described: 1. Development of insight preceded by development of tranquility 2. Development of tranquility preceded by development of insight 3. Tranquility developed in tandem with insight 4. **Mind's restlessness concerning the Dhamma well under control** From my understanding, the first three are about [vipassana](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vipassan%C4%81) (insight) and [samatha](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samatha) (tranquility). Questions: 1. How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path. 2. How does one practise that? Please provide details. 3. Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path? > > Ven. Ananda said: "Friends, whoever — monk or nun — declares the > attainment of arahantship in my presence, they all do it by means of > one or another of four paths. Which four? > > > "There is the case where a monk has developed insight preceded by > tranquillity. As he develops insight preceded by tranquillity, the > path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity > preceded by insight. As he develops tranquillity preceded by insight, > the path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity in > tandem with insight. As he develops tranquillity in tandem with > insight, the path is born. ..... > > > "**Then there is the case where a monk's mind has its restlessness > concerning the Dhamma [Comm: the corruptions of insight] well under > control. There comes a time when his mind grows steady inwardly, > settles down, and becomes unified & concentrated. In him the path is > born.** > > > He follows that path, develops it, pursues it. As he follows the > path, developing it & pursuing it — his fetters are abandoned, his > obsessions destroyed. > > [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html) > > >
2017/09/04
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/22505", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/471/" ]
**How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path.** By attaining “anariya jhanas”, one can attain only ceto vimutti. Thus to achieve all of the four paths, one has to practice “ariya jhanas”. Only this second Ariya Jhana will lead to magga phala with panna vimutti. The fourth path does not involve samatha meditation. It is completely a vipassana meditation. In Pali this fourth method is called \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. Unlike the other three methods, it takes only a very short time to come to realization through this method, but only a highly developed person can do this. This method is not for you and I. The only Ariya Meditation that may help the ordinary folk is the Savitakka/Savicara mode of meditation. For those who are more disciplined and wiser, there is the Avitakka/Avicara mode of meditation. **How does one practise that? Please provide details.** This question can never be answered. The scriptures tell us of only 14 people who have realized nibbhana by practising this method. Few of them that come to mind are Bahiya Dharuciraya, King Pukkusati, King’s Minister Santhathi, Arahant Dabbamallatissa, and Bhikku Kumara Kashyapa. **Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path?** This answer is there within the above explanation. These few individuals came to panna vimutti, but to come to this they never did any kind of Jhana. They never had to do samatha or vipassana meditation. Within a matter of minutes, they achieved nibbana through \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. To explain this Pali term…. Uddhacca means the tendency to be high-minded (restlessness) - It arises because of high-mindedness. Uddacca remains as a cetasika and is removed only at the Arahant stage. Uddacca is the tendency to get at least irritated when not treated as expected. But it is to be noted that the levels of mana, uddacca, avijja that an Anagami has, are at much reduced level. Uddhacca Vigghahita means the eradication of Uddhacca. This is the quickest way to remove all traces of the root causes - raga, dosa, and, moha. Or in other words Uddhacca Vigghahita is the easiest way to remove lobha, dosa, and, moha (for akusala kamma), and alobha, adosa, and amoha (for kusala kamma).
*When you read S.N. or A.N. You should connect sutta that come before or after together, too. Obviously, the sequence of everything in contexts are very important to understand tipitaka. This is a reason that why I often said that reciting&memorizing, just pāli, are better than reading, and especially better than reading the translated version.* *I don't want to insult anyone. I just try to advise the one way path that intention-cetasika of bodhisatta choose to born to be then buddha force bikkhu to make it done for to be a perfect bhikkhu and for to be ariya (perfect person).* The Answer ---------- *Full answers already answered inside yugganaddhakathā of paṭisambihdāmagga, and nettipakaraṇa desanāhāravibhaṅga+nayasamuṭṭhāna. Also, you can use commentary, but you must recite and memorize tipitaka first because comment in commentary is over short, for the reader.* Connect with the previous sutta, [Asubha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.163.than.html). 1. **Practitioner who hard to meditate, quickly/delayed access to insight** = Development of insight preceded by meditating concentration. This practitioner's hindrances often arise between his meditation. He must inhibits hindrances before meditate an insight. *So buddha said "Bhikkhu, you must meditate a concentration, bhikkhu who meditated a concentration, will access to insight (5 aggregates)".* 2. **Practitioner who easily to meditate, quickly/delayed access to insight** = Development of concentration preceded by meditating insight. This practitioner's hindrances not often arise between his meditation. So he meditate easily. 3. **Practitioner who quickly access to insight, easily/hard to meditate** = Tranquility developed in tandem with insight. This practitioner turned to be pro of 1st and 2nd above. He meditating insight at pahāna-pariññā state (from 3 pariññā). 4. **Practitioner who delayed access to insight, easily/hard to meditate** = Practitioner who has to inhibit hindrances from mind when meditating insight. This practitioner is not pro enough of 1st and 2nd above. He still meditating insight at tīraṇa-pariññā state. So he have to try more to meditate 1st, 2nd to be 3rd. See the advance detail in tipitaka paṭisambhidāmagga (somewhere, I have not read it done), and [visuddhimagga](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/nanamoli/PathofPurification2011.pdf) understanding-part maggāmaggañāṇadassanavisuddhi-niddesa to (especially from indriyatikkhakāraṇanavaka-kathā to paṭipadāñāṇadassanavisuddhi-niddesa). **Vocabulary in sutta that connect it together:** Paṭipadā=Maggo sañjāyati. Dhammuddhacca=Vipassanpakilesa. (there are more word, but you should to recite&memorize&meditate from pali of them yourselves **with the meditated teacher such as pa-auk teachers**).
22,505
From the [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html), there are four paths described: 1. Development of insight preceded by development of tranquility 2. Development of tranquility preceded by development of insight 3. Tranquility developed in tandem with insight 4. **Mind's restlessness concerning the Dhamma well under control** From my understanding, the first three are about [vipassana](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vipassan%C4%81) (insight) and [samatha](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samatha) (tranquility). Questions: 1. How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path. 2. How does one practise that? Please provide details. 3. Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path? > > Ven. Ananda said: "Friends, whoever — monk or nun — declares the > attainment of arahantship in my presence, they all do it by means of > one or another of four paths. Which four? > > > "There is the case where a monk has developed insight preceded by > tranquillity. As he develops insight preceded by tranquillity, the > path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity > preceded by insight. As he develops tranquillity preceded by insight, > the path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity in > tandem with insight. As he develops tranquillity in tandem with > insight, the path is born. ..... > > > "**Then there is the case where a monk's mind has its restlessness > concerning the Dhamma [Comm: the corruptions of insight] well under > control. There comes a time when his mind grows steady inwardly, > settles down, and becomes unified & concentrated. In him the path is > born.** > > > He follows that path, develops it, pursues it. As he follows the > path, developing it & pursuing it — his fetters are abandoned, his > obsessions destroyed. > > [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html) > > >
2017/09/04
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/22505", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/471/" ]
**How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path.** By attaining “anariya jhanas”, one can attain only ceto vimutti. Thus to achieve all of the four paths, one has to practice “ariya jhanas”. Only this second Ariya Jhana will lead to magga phala with panna vimutti. The fourth path does not involve samatha meditation. It is completely a vipassana meditation. In Pali this fourth method is called \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. Unlike the other three methods, it takes only a very short time to come to realization through this method, but only a highly developed person can do this. This method is not for you and I. The only Ariya Meditation that may help the ordinary folk is the Savitakka/Savicara mode of meditation. For those who are more disciplined and wiser, there is the Avitakka/Avicara mode of meditation. **How does one practise that? Please provide details.** This question can never be answered. The scriptures tell us of only 14 people who have realized nibbhana by practising this method. Few of them that come to mind are Bahiya Dharuciraya, King Pukkusati, King’s Minister Santhathi, Arahant Dabbamallatissa, and Bhikku Kumara Kashyapa. **Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path?** This answer is there within the above explanation. These few individuals came to panna vimutti, but to come to this they never did any kind of Jhana. They never had to do samatha or vipassana meditation. Within a matter of minutes, they achieved nibbana through \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. To explain this Pali term…. Uddhacca means the tendency to be high-minded (restlessness) - It arises because of high-mindedness. Uddacca remains as a cetasika and is removed only at the Arahant stage. Uddacca is the tendency to get at least irritated when not treated as expected. But it is to be noted that the levels of mana, uddacca, avijja that an Anagami has, are at much reduced level. Uddhacca Vigghahita means the eradication of Uddhacca. This is the quickest way to remove all traces of the root causes - raga, dosa, and, moha. Or in other words Uddhacca Vigghahita is the easiest way to remove lobha, dosa, and, moha (for akusala kamma), and alobha, adosa, and amoha (for kusala kamma).
> > 1. How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path. > > > You are thinking and pondering about the dhamma you have experiencing > > 2. How does one practise that? Please provide details. > > > There is no explicit way to to do this. If you start thinking and pondering on the Dhamma then this happens. > > 3. Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path? > > > Both are required. If you do not do Vipassana you do not experience the Dhamma to think and ponder on. Either Samantha develops or through developing Samantha where you mind is calmed.
22,505
From the [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html), there are four paths described: 1. Development of insight preceded by development of tranquility 2. Development of tranquility preceded by development of insight 3. Tranquility developed in tandem with insight 4. **Mind's restlessness concerning the Dhamma well under control** From my understanding, the first three are about [vipassana](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vipassan%C4%81) (insight) and [samatha](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samatha) (tranquility). Questions: 1. How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path. 2. How does one practise that? Please provide details. 3. Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path? > > Ven. Ananda said: "Friends, whoever — monk or nun — declares the > attainment of arahantship in my presence, they all do it by means of > one or another of four paths. Which four? > > > "There is the case where a monk has developed insight preceded by > tranquillity. As he develops insight preceded by tranquillity, the > path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity > preceded by insight. As he develops tranquillity preceded by insight, > the path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity in > tandem with insight. As he develops tranquillity in tandem with > insight, the path is born. ..... > > > "**Then there is the case where a monk's mind has its restlessness > concerning the Dhamma [Comm: the corruptions of insight] well under > control. There comes a time when his mind grows steady inwardly, > settles down, and becomes unified & concentrated. In him the path is > born.** > > > He follows that path, develops it, pursues it. As he follows the > path, developing it & pursuing it — his fetters are abandoned, his > obsessions destroyed. > > [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html) > > >
2017/09/04
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/22505", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/471/" ]
**How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path.** By attaining “anariya jhanas”, one can attain only ceto vimutti. Thus to achieve all of the four paths, one has to practice “ariya jhanas”. Only this second Ariya Jhana will lead to magga phala with panna vimutti. The fourth path does not involve samatha meditation. It is completely a vipassana meditation. In Pali this fourth method is called \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. Unlike the other three methods, it takes only a very short time to come to realization through this method, but only a highly developed person can do this. This method is not for you and I. The only Ariya Meditation that may help the ordinary folk is the Savitakka/Savicara mode of meditation. For those who are more disciplined and wiser, there is the Avitakka/Avicara mode of meditation. **How does one practise that? Please provide details.** This question can never be answered. The scriptures tell us of only 14 people who have realized nibbhana by practising this method. Few of them that come to mind are Bahiya Dharuciraya, King Pukkusati, King’s Minister Santhathi, Arahant Dabbamallatissa, and Bhikku Kumara Kashyapa. **Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path?** This answer is there within the above explanation. These few individuals came to panna vimutti, but to come to this they never did any kind of Jhana. They never had to do samatha or vipassana meditation. Within a matter of minutes, they achieved nibbana through \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. To explain this Pali term…. Uddhacca means the tendency to be high-minded (restlessness) - It arises because of high-mindedness. Uddacca remains as a cetasika and is removed only at the Arahant stage. Uddacca is the tendency to get at least irritated when not treated as expected. But it is to be noted that the levels of mana, uddacca, avijja that an Anagami has, are at much reduced level. Uddhacca Vigghahita means the eradication of Uddhacca. This is the quickest way to remove all traces of the root causes - raga, dosa, and, moha. Or in other words Uddhacca Vigghahita is the easiest way to remove lobha, dosa, and, moha (for akusala kamma), and alobha, adosa, and amoha (for kusala kamma).
I think that comy is almost certainly wrong here and that the 4th path probably refers to people who don't need to do much in terms of learning [pondering] or meditating [for lower attainments] and their mind rather quickly goes to the Deathless [destruction of taints; nibbananirodhadhatu; associated with cessation of perception & feeling] even from the lower jhanas as soon as there is an opening due to the maturity of their insight faculty, these are probably those who end up as released-by-wisdom-arahants lacking the arupa jhanas or as what they call dry-insight worker maybe. I don't see what else it could be based on other sutta and i think the commentary theory has no basis at all in the sutta. If one takes the first 3 types to be those whovdeveloped arupa jhana and 4th type as those who didn't then the 4-fold classification makes sense imo.
22,505
From the [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html), there are four paths described: 1. Development of insight preceded by development of tranquility 2. Development of tranquility preceded by development of insight 3. Tranquility developed in tandem with insight 4. **Mind's restlessness concerning the Dhamma well under control** From my understanding, the first three are about [vipassana](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vipassan%C4%81) (insight) and [samatha](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samatha) (tranquility). Questions: 1. How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path. 2. How does one practise that? Please provide details. 3. Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path? > > Ven. Ananda said: "Friends, whoever — monk or nun — declares the > attainment of arahantship in my presence, they all do it by means of > one or another of four paths. Which four? > > > "There is the case where a monk has developed insight preceded by > tranquillity. As he develops insight preceded by tranquillity, the > path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity > preceded by insight. As he develops tranquillity preceded by insight, > the path is born. ..... > > > "Then there is the case where a monk has developed tranquillity in > tandem with insight. As he develops tranquillity in tandem with > insight, the path is born. ..... > > > "**Then there is the case where a monk's mind has its restlessness > concerning the Dhamma [Comm: the corruptions of insight] well under > control. There comes a time when his mind grows steady inwardly, > settles down, and becomes unified & concentrated. In him the path is > born.** > > > He follows that path, develops it, pursues it. As he follows the > path, developing it & pursuing it — his fetters are abandoned, his > obsessions destroyed. > > [Yuganaddha Sutta](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.170.than.html) > > >
2017/09/04
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/22505", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/471/" ]
**How does the fourth path work? Please elaborate on the fourth path.** By attaining “anariya jhanas”, one can attain only ceto vimutti. Thus to achieve all of the four paths, one has to practice “ariya jhanas”. Only this second Ariya Jhana will lead to magga phala with panna vimutti. The fourth path does not involve samatha meditation. It is completely a vipassana meditation. In Pali this fourth method is called \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. Unlike the other three methods, it takes only a very short time to come to realization through this method, but only a highly developed person can do this. This method is not for you and I. The only Ariya Meditation that may help the ordinary folk is the Savitakka/Savicara mode of meditation. For those who are more disciplined and wiser, there is the Avitakka/Avicara mode of meditation. **How does one practise that? Please provide details.** This question can never be answered. The scriptures tell us of only 14 people who have realized nibbhana by practising this method. Few of them that come to mind are Bahiya Dharuciraya, King Pukkusati, King’s Minister Santhathi, Arahant Dabbamallatissa, and Bhikku Kumara Kashyapa. **Why is vipassana and samatha not required on the fourth path?** This answer is there within the above explanation. These few individuals came to panna vimutti, but to come to this they never did any kind of Jhana. They never had to do samatha or vipassana meditation. Within a matter of minutes, they achieved nibbana through \*\*Dhamma Uddhacca Vigghahita Maanasan”. To explain this Pali term…. Uddhacca means the tendency to be high-minded (restlessness) - It arises because of high-mindedness. Uddacca remains as a cetasika and is removed only at the Arahant stage. Uddacca is the tendency to get at least irritated when not treated as expected. But it is to be noted that the levels of mana, uddacca, avijja that an Anagami has, are at much reduced level. Uddhacca Vigghahita means the eradication of Uddhacca. This is the quickest way to remove all traces of the root causes - raga, dosa, and, moha. Or in other words Uddhacca Vigghahita is the easiest way to remove lobha, dosa, and, moha (for akusala kamma), and alobha, adosa, and amoha (for kusala kamma).
I wrote a formatted and detailed answer here on my blog, which I cut and paste below the blog post link (losing html formatting). <http://notesonthedhamma.blogspot.com/2021/08/an-4170-forum-question-how-does-4th-way.html> There are 4 permutations of samatha and vipassana, the order in which they're developed. The 3rd permutations is the ideal scenario, where both are developed in tandem. The 4th permutation, neither are developed, at first. But then: Puna caparaṃ, āvuso, bhikkhuno dhammuddhaccaviggahitaṃ mānasaṃ hoti. Another monk’s mind is seized by restlessness to realize the teaching. Hoti so, āvuso, samayo yaṃ taṃ cittaṃ ajjhattameva santiṭṭhati sannisīdati ekodi hoti samādhiyati. But there comes a time when their mind is stilled internally; it settles, unifies, and becomes undistractify-&-lucidifyd in samādhi. Tassa maggo sañjāyati. The path is born in them. So taṃ maggaṃ āsevati bhāveti bahulīkaroti. They cultivate, develop, and make much of it. To answer the OP questions, two key points need to be understood. ekodi and samadhi is code phrase indicating second jhana or higher (see MN 20, MN 119, and several others). dhamma-uddhacca-viggahitaṃ Uddhacca is referring to the 5 hindrance's restlessnness. vigggahitam means trying to the ascertain the meaning. So the meditator, in trying to ascertain the meaning of Dhamma when under the influence of the hindrance of restlessness (4th of 5 hindrances), fails. In other words, he's not doing vipassana successfully because he has insufficient samatha. But later on, he develops second jhana or higher as indicated by the ekodi and samadhi markers, fullfilling requisite amount of samatha (see SN 46.2, samatha is nutriment for samadhi). Therefore the uddhacca restlessness is no longer a problem, and his Dharma investigation succeeds, his vipassana succeeds because his samatha is good enough. Since the 4 permutations already covered the samatha preceding vipassanna, then this 4th case is unlikely to be that, and more likely to be having initially no samatha and vipassana, and later samatha and vipassana in tandem. Conclusion on AN 4.170 So when one considers all 4 permutations, and all 4 attain a path that leads to arahantship, it's clear that samatha and vipassana both need to be present to sufficient quality to succeed, it's just that through inherent weakness in individual meditators, some may mature in samatha first or vipassana first, and not the case that the Buddha recommended one develop samatha before vipassana, or vice versa. Also, if you study the formula for the four jhanas carefully, and the satipatthana formula carefully, you'll see that 3rd jhana (any of 4 jhanas would fulfill samatha) includes both sati and sampajano (equivalent to pañña and vipassana). And within the satipatthana formula, which also includes sati and sampajano factors, the "vineyya loke abhijja domanassa" is a reference to one having subdued the 5 hindrances, the tough part of samatha training, and putting you right in the doorway of first jhana (which would satisfy samatha). In other words, satipatthana is embedded within jhana, and jhana is embedded within satipatthana. That's the Buddha saying samatha and vipassana is ideally developed in tanndem ( 4 Jhānas ≈ 4 Satipaṭṭhāna ).
72,794
I've played the Whimsyshire level a few times but only saw the pinata once near the exit stone. Is the chance of it spawning random? If it does, does it always show up near the exit stone?
2012/06/09
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/72794", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/6975/" ]
No it does not. I've run 3 full clears of Whimsyshire, and never seen the pinata once. Since the Pinata is just the Whimsyshire version of a Resplendent Chest, I would assume that it has a relatively low chance to spawn. I would assume however, that it will always spawn somewhere near the exit stone, as most resplendent chests in dungeons do so.
The Pinata can spawn anywhere. On my second last run it had spawned just inside the entrance point. On my last run I didn't find one at all. I am currently at 40% for spawning but have only done 10 runs so i may have been lucky/unlucky or missed it on occasion. It doesn't seem to spawn every time however.
72,794
I've played the Whimsyshire level a few times but only saw the pinata once near the exit stone. Is the chance of it spawning random? If it does, does it always show up near the exit stone?
2012/06/09
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/72794", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/6975/" ]
No it does not. I've run 3 full clears of Whimsyshire, and never seen the pinata once. Since the Pinata is just the Whimsyshire version of a Resplendent Chest, I would assume that it has a relatively low chance to spawn. I would assume however, that it will always spawn somewhere near the exit stone, as most resplendent chests in dungeons do so.
I have done 15+ runs in legendary and it has always spawned for me. As for loot I always get 4+ yellows and a bunch of gold with 5 stacks. First time I opened one I got a Horadric Hamburger which I sold for 15m.
72,794
I've played the Whimsyshire level a few times but only saw the pinata once near the exit stone. Is the chance of it spawning random? If it does, does it always show up near the exit stone?
2012/06/09
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/72794", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/6975/" ]
No it does not. I've run 3 full clears of Whimsyshire, and never seen the pinata once. Since the Pinata is just the Whimsyshire version of a Resplendent Chest, I would assume that it has a relatively low chance to spawn. I would assume however, that it will always spawn somewhere near the exit stone, as most resplendent chests in dungeons do so.
I've ran through whimsyshire about 30 times on torment 1,2,& 3 and I've only seen the pinata once. In my experience, the pinata is a very rare spawn. I'm not sure what factors influence whether or not it spawns.
72,794
I've played the Whimsyshire level a few times but only saw the pinata once near the exit stone. Is the chance of it spawning random? If it does, does it always show up near the exit stone?
2012/06/09
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/72794", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/6975/" ]
The Pinata can spawn anywhere. On my second last run it had spawned just inside the entrance point. On my last run I didn't find one at all. I am currently at 40% for spawning but have only done 10 runs so i may have been lucky/unlucky or missed it on occasion. It doesn't seem to spawn every time however.
I have done 15+ runs in legendary and it has always spawned for me. As for loot I always get 4+ yellows and a bunch of gold with 5 stacks. First time I opened one I got a Horadric Hamburger which I sold for 15m.
72,794
I've played the Whimsyshire level a few times but only saw the pinata once near the exit stone. Is the chance of it spawning random? If it does, does it always show up near the exit stone?
2012/06/09
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/72794", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/6975/" ]
The Pinata can spawn anywhere. On my second last run it had spawned just inside the entrance point. On my last run I didn't find one at all. I am currently at 40% for spawning but have only done 10 runs so i may have been lucky/unlucky or missed it on occasion. It doesn't seem to spawn every time however.
I've ran through whimsyshire about 30 times on torment 1,2,& 3 and I've only seen the pinata once. In my experience, the pinata is a very rare spawn. I'm not sure what factors influence whether or not it spawns.
66,819
On alternative training in case you can not practice a violin for a long time? I have been playing the violin for about 25 years. I am doing it as a hobby, but I play it at least once every two days on weekdays. This time, overseas business trips for one year are decided, during that time you will not be able to practice at all. (It is impossible to play in a business trip destination) I think that my arm will fall considerably if I do not touch musical instruments for a year as expected. I'm not want to degradation of performance technique as much as possible, what are the workarounds? I am considering muscular strength training by its own weight so as not to drop the minimum necessary muscle strength. Please tell me if you have any other ideas.
2018/02/12
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/66819", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/48050/" ]
You haven't explained why you can't play while you're on the trip, but I'll assume it's because it will be too loud. If that's the case, consider a "silent" electric violin. The concept is the same as the electric guitar: minimal acoustic sound is amplified by electronic pickups. For performances, it is played through an amplifier/speaker system, but you can get a very small portable amplifier for your electric violin (there are many such devices for guitar, they would probably work just as well for violin) and play through headphones. I used to practice electric bass that way when I went to visit relatives: Here are some informative videos about silent electric violins - there is plenty of material out there: Here's what they call a "plug amp", designed for guitar. (I have one for bass): [***Vox amPlug 2 Clean Headphone Guitar Amp***](http://www.sweetwater.com/store/detail/amPlugCleanG2--vox-amplug-2-clean-headphone-guitar-amp) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RJ725.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RJ725.png)
When I can't play, I keep my hands and arms in shape by using a medium sized soft rubber ball. I squeeze it repeatedly until my hand feels strained, and then change hands and do it again. That takes care of the hands. Musically I can look at the music and imagine myself actually performing the piece as I read the music, this goes a long way towards keeping the music fresh in my mind. When you think about it, you see that is what you're doing when you are actually playing your fiddle.
10,471
In the following game of [Dots and Boxes](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dots_and_Boxes), it is your move. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NrOZx.png) Your opponent is a computer who will play perfectly. What is the best move, and why?
2015/03/18
[ "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/10471", "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com", "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/463/" ]
This is my first experience with Dots and Boxes, so please be kind if I am making some terrible mistakes. Per the wikipedia link: > > An expert player tries to force their opponent to be the one to open the first long chain, because the player who first opens a long chain usually loses. > > > That is what we will try to do. Initial analysis shows four "safe" (will not enable the opponent to complete a box) moves, which Werner has conveniently [Numbered 1-4](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/10473/10334). It is important to note that 1 and 3 are exclusive with 2 (ie if 1 gets played, 2 is no longer safe; whereas if 2 gets played, 1 and 3 are no longer safe). So the immediate assumption is to play either 1 or 3 as that removes 2, leaving two other safe moves (4 and 3 or 1) on the opponent's turn. We would get the last safe move, and the computer must open the long chains for us. > > But there is one other move on the board which, while not safe, will not open a long chain. The horizontal line on the second row in the middle column (the line between the two red squares in the second third image of JonTheMon's [answer](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/10513/10334)). > > > With this in mind, we must play 2. The computer will play 4, and we will follow with the line I mentioned in the previous paragraph. The computer will take its two squares, then be forced to open the first long chain leading to our win. (edit: whoops forgot about one of the diagrams)
Most likely you wish to avoid connecting any dots that would allow your opponent (computer) to place a box. As such, you're left with individually choosing one of the following possibilities (marked with red): ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Y0pGV.png) All other possibilities will render a box for the opponent. Possible play sequences are between the player **P** and computer **C** are: * **P** draws 1: **C** draws 3 or 4, since 2 would lead to a string of boxes for **P**; + **C** draws 3 would leave **P** with 4 (good outcome for **P**); + **C** draws 4 would leave **P** with 3 (good outcome for **P**). * **P** draws 2: + **C** draws 4 (bad outcome for **P**) * **P** draws 3: **C** draws 1 or 4, since 2 would lead to a string of boxed for **P**; + **C** draws 1 would leave **P** with 4 (good outcome for **P**); + **C** draws 4 would leave **P** with 1 (good outcome for **P**); * **P** draws 4: **C** draws 1 or 2 or 3; + **C** draws 1, leaving **P** to draw 3 (good outcome for **P**); + **C** draws 2, leaving **P** with no obvious choice (bad outcome for **P**); + **C** draws 3, leaving **P** to draw 1 (good outcome for **P**); Summarizing these options and a perfect **C**-player (albeit greedy, perhaps), **P** drawing either 1 or 3 would be the best next move. The above strategy seems somewhat greedy from the opponent, but it also seems logically best.
10,471
In the following game of [Dots and Boxes](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dots_and_Boxes), it is your move. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NrOZx.png) Your opponent is a computer who will play perfectly. What is the best move, and why?
2015/03/18
[ "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/10471", "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com", "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/463/" ]
This is my first experience with Dots and Boxes, so please be kind if I am making some terrible mistakes. Per the wikipedia link: > > An expert player tries to force their opponent to be the one to open the first long chain, because the player who first opens a long chain usually loses. > > > That is what we will try to do. Initial analysis shows four "safe" (will not enable the opponent to complete a box) moves, which Werner has conveniently [Numbered 1-4](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/10473/10334). It is important to note that 1 and 3 are exclusive with 2 (ie if 1 gets played, 2 is no longer safe; whereas if 2 gets played, 1 and 3 are no longer safe). So the immediate assumption is to play either 1 or 3 as that removes 2, leaving two other safe moves (4 and 3 or 1) on the opponent's turn. We would get the last safe move, and the computer must open the long chains for us. > > But there is one other move on the board which, while not safe, will not open a long chain. The horizontal line on the second row in the middle column (the line between the two red squares in the second third image of JonTheMon's [answer](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/10513/10334)). > > > With this in mind, we must play 2. The computer will play 4, and we will follow with the line I mentioned in the previous paragraph. The computer will take its two squares, then be forced to open the first long chain leading to our win. (edit: whoops forgot about one of the diagrams)
The goal of dots and boxes is to be the person that makes the last (and biggest) group of boxes. To that end, you need to figure out how many regions there are and which one is smallest. ![Region boundaries](https://i.stack.imgur.com/LNLUa.png) Here are your potential boundaries of regions. And here is one example of how it could play out: ![Example game](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PlI4k.png) Here you have 6 regions, so you want to let the computer take the first (smallest) region so you can take the last (black) region. Unfortunately, you're a bit stuck **and can't win**. There are about 5 regions to start with, but only 2 moves that don't affect the number of regions. So, either you have to start off by giving them the first region (so they get the last region), or if you merge 2 regions (top left, bottom left), the computer will give you the first region. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Xr4hv.png)
10,471
In the following game of [Dots and Boxes](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dots_and_Boxes), it is your move. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NrOZx.png) Your opponent is a computer who will play perfectly. What is the best move, and why?
2015/03/18
[ "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/10471", "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com", "https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/463/" ]
This is my first experience with Dots and Boxes, so please be kind if I am making some terrible mistakes. Per the wikipedia link: > > An expert player tries to force their opponent to be the one to open the first long chain, because the player who first opens a long chain usually loses. > > > That is what we will try to do. Initial analysis shows four "safe" (will not enable the opponent to complete a box) moves, which Werner has conveniently [Numbered 1-4](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/10473/10334). It is important to note that 1 and 3 are exclusive with 2 (ie if 1 gets played, 2 is no longer safe; whereas if 2 gets played, 1 and 3 are no longer safe). So the immediate assumption is to play either 1 or 3 as that removes 2, leaving two other safe moves (4 and 3 or 1) on the opponent's turn. We would get the last safe move, and the computer must open the long chains for us. > > But there is one other move on the board which, while not safe, will not open a long chain. The horizontal line on the second row in the middle column (the line between the two red squares in the second third image of JonTheMon's [answer](https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/10513/10334)). > > > With this in mind, we must play 2. The computer will play 4, and we will follow with the line I mentioned in the previous paragraph. The computer will take its two squares, then be forced to open the first long chain leading to our win. (edit: whoops forgot about one of the diagrams)
This is an unwinnable position if the computer plays perfectly. **I need an even number of chains** I am player one, as an even number of moves has been made, and there are an even number of dots. *(This is known as the chain rule, and anyone who is unfamiliar with it should learn it as it is a key to winning dots and boxes. The number of squares already in chains means the winner of the chains battle in this game wins the majority of the squares by sacrificing two at the end of each of the chains they are given.)* The board is split in two with the left (green) and right (blue). ![left and right sides](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DUjnP.png) **There are two chains on the left hand side of the board** We can assume that the two is played before any chains (of three or more) are given, since a large number of squares in the final chains wins the game overwhelmingly, so giving any chain allows the opponent to take all the other chains. ![Giving a chain leaves a chain](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WSgJM.png) **I cannot stop the computer from making a single chain on the left of the board** If I try to split the left hand side into two chains, the computer can easily kill the other chain by splitting it into two twos. ![Playing horizontally just below half way down allows the computer to kill the other chain.](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2uooF.png) If I try to kill both chains on the left, the computer makes the other, for example: ![giving two top left allows a chain of three bottom left](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MIwXU.png) **Delaying doesn't help** Given the first move on the left, the computer can make the top left chain long enough to leave the bottom left no alternative but to be joined to it or split. ![giving two centre top leaves one chain on the left](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hbNyD.png) The best I can do is 8 ---------------------- The best I can do is force the computer to give away an extra two by threatening to make two chains on the left. I've numbered the moves made after taking free squares, with purple being me and pink being the computer. ![best play](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ArLw1.png)
50,138,941
Here's what I want to change: <https://imgur.com/a/uhKOvY1> Here's what I tried: * Right click inside subreport / Page Setup / Increase "Horizontal" * Right click inside main report / Page Setup / Increase "Horizontal" * Change size of subreport object inside main report None of these worked.. can you please let me know how to change the page size of a subreport?
2018/05/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/50138941", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9731247/" ]
SOLVED - I had to save, close and reopen Crystal Reports for the change to take effect. Credit to Legmar from the CrystalReportsBook forum for the [answer](http://www.crystalreportsbook.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=13920).
I did all the steps in your question, and last one below solved it for me. -Right click inside subreport / Page Setup / Increase "Horizontal" -Right click inside main report / Page Setup / Increase "Horizontal" -Change size of subreport object inside main report.
235,819
Is this punctuated correctly? > > If happy little bluebirds fly beyond the rainbow, > > Why oh why can’t I?" > > > Or should “oh why” be set off by commas? > > If happy little bluebirds fly beyond the rainbow, > > Why, oh why, can’t I? > > >
2015/03/26
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/235819", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/115087/" ]
I think the commas after the "why"s are rests, and are needed because Garland shifts from a 2 4 rhythm to a 3 4 rhythm beginning at the two measures I've marked with ||. (I'm not saying that's in the score, but I've just listened to the song a bunch of times, and I think that's what she does.) > > If |happy |little |bluebirds |fly be|yond the |rainbow, ||why, oh ||why, can't ||I? > > > Afterthoughts: But maybe the first of those rests comes after "oh" instead of before it. And it should be a 4 4 rhythm, not 2 4. > > If |happy little |bluebirds fly be|yond the rainbow, ||why oh, ||why, can't ||I? > > >
The second one is correctly punctuated; however, it does not require a capital "W". > > If happy little bluebirds fly beyond the rainbow, why, oh why, can't I? > > >
752,016
Good day, I'm new to Visual Studio 2005 Team Suite web testing. Here's the action i'm trying to achieve. On a webpage, I have a dropdownlist that is populated from a simple database table. In my tests, I want to click on each items of the dynamically populated dropdownlist, and after the postback, check if a label is visible on the page, which depends of the selected item in the dropdownlist. However, since the dropdownlist is dynamically generated, I cannot simply 'record' and manually click on each item of the dropdownlist, so I have to code the test. I'm pretty sure this is really simple to achieve, so I was wondering if there is a good free tutorial on web testing that I could use. Thank you very much!
2009/04/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/752016", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/42848/" ]
You question. > > However, since the dropdownlist is > dynamically generated, I cannot simply > 'record' and manually click on each > item of the dropdownlist, so I have to > code the test. > > > It seems to me that you need add "Data Binding" to your test. Please read through this [MSDN article](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms243142(VS.80).aspx). HTH.
As long as it is fairly standard web-form postbacks you can use NUnitAsp: <http://nunitasp.sourceforge.net/> Here is a decent article on it here: [ServerSide NUnitASP](http://www.theserverside.net/tt/articles/showarticle.tss?id=TestingASP) NUnitAsp is no longer really active or supported, but it still works good enough for simple form testing.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I've had this issue and I did the following: 1. Restarting by holding down both the Digital Crown and Friends button. 2. Erasing and restoring the Apple Watch from backup. 3. Erasing and setting Apple Watch up as new I hope 1 or 2 works for you, because I unfortunately had to set it up as new.
* Do you have a location set up in Weather for iOS? * Is your watch connected to iPhone or WiFi? Those are two reasons why it may not show correctly.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I have to continually switch to the next watch face over and then back again, and that fixes it. Only since the last update. Annoying.
Try that hard restart (the current iteration of the watch OS doesn't have a "friends" button), and then set your watch location to either a town close by or—best, if that works—"present location." I just coaxed mine to register the temperature that way. I live in a town that doesn't register on the Apple map, for some reason, but when I set the watch to "current location," the name of the town popped up. If the location you want is greyed out, that's a clue. 02/18
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I've had this issue and I did the following: 1. Restarting by holding down both the Digital Crown and Friends button. 2. Erasing and restoring the Apple Watch from backup. 3. Erasing and setting Apple Watch up as new I hope 1 or 2 works for you, because I unfortunately had to set it up as new.
Try changing the app at that location on your watch face to another app, from the Watch app on your iphone. Then change it back to the weather app. Just worked.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I did restart, but still did not work. I opened my weather app on iPhone and that fixed the problem. The weather app seems buggy with the latest update.
* Do you have a location set up in Weather for iOS? * Is your watch connected to iPhone or WiFi? Those are two reasons why it may not show correctly.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I've had this issue and I did the following: 1. Restarting by holding down both the Digital Crown and Friends button. 2. Erasing and restoring the Apple Watch from backup. 3. Erasing and setting Apple Watch up as new I hope 1 or 2 works for you, because I unfortunately had to set it up as new.
Try that hard restart (the current iteration of the watch OS doesn't have a "friends" button), and then set your watch location to either a town close by or—best, if that works—"present location." I just coaxed mine to register the temperature that way. I live in a town that doesn't register on the Apple map, for some reason, but when I set the watch to "current location," the name of the town popped up. If the location you want is greyed out, that's a clue. 02/18
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I did restart, but still did not work. I opened my weather app on iPhone and that fixed the problem. The weather app seems buggy with the latest update.
Try changing the app at that location on your watch face to another app, from the Watch app on your iphone. Then change it back to the weather app. Just worked.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I did restart, but still did not work. I opened my weather app on iPhone and that fixed the problem. The weather app seems buggy with the latest update.
I have to continually switch to the next watch face over and then back again, and that fixes it. Only since the last update. Annoying.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I've had this issue and I did the following: 1. Restarting by holding down both the Digital Crown and Friends button. 2. Erasing and restoring the Apple Watch from backup. 3. Erasing and setting Apple Watch up as new I hope 1 or 2 works for you, because I unfortunately had to set it up as new.
I have to continually switch to the next watch face over and then back again, and that fixes it. Only since the last update. Annoying.
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I did restart, but still did not work. I opened my weather app on iPhone and that fixed the problem. The weather app seems buggy with the latest update.
Try that hard restart (the current iteration of the watch OS doesn't have a "friends" button), and then set your watch location to either a town close by or—best, if that works—"present location." I just coaxed mine to register the temperature that way. I live in a town that doesn't register on the Apple map, for some reason, but when I set the watch to "current location," the name of the town popped up. If the location you want is greyed out, that's a clue. 02/18
236,143
I have set up two IMAP email accounts on 1 Iphone. Both accounts are set to send via their respective outgoing email server. The first account sends emails properly. The second account tries to send outgoing email via an old mail server that no longer exists. I have deleted the 2nd account multiple times and re-added it from scratch each time but it still insists on sending via the old non-existent mail server. Is there some other place where this is stored? Any suggestions on how to fix this?
2016/04/25
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/236143", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181089/" ]
I have to continually switch to the next watch face over and then back again, and that fixes it. Only since the last update. Annoying.
Try changing the app at that location on your watch face to another app, from the Watch app on your iphone. Then change it back to the weather app. Just worked.
380,566
In the [Badges page](https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/badges), out of the 80+ badge descriptions, only 5 have full stops, and the others don't have. The five are: Fanatic, Enthusiast, and the three Tag Badges, it can be seen here: [![badges with full stop highlighted](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kuk8E.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kuk8E.png) Can this please be made consistent by removing the full stop from the above 5 badge descriptions?
2022/07/20
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/380566", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/1121369/" ]
The current badge descriptions are already consistent. The descriptions without period are all examples of imperative phrases: *Do this*. In contrast, the tag badges are a different type of sentence in subject-verb-object style: *You must have X to achieve this badge*. The Enthusiast and Fanatic badges also use imperative phrases, but they are followed by another, separate phrase (about UTC). Therefore the description is now a paragraph, and both phrases must be "upgraded" to a sentence with a period to be able to separate the phrases properly. Not doing so would be a grammatical error in paragraph composition. So the consistency is: * for imperative phrases, don't use a period, except + for a paragraph, i.e., two or more consecutive phrases, use a period after each phrase * for complete sentences, use a period The [Style guide](https://stackoverflow.design/content/guidelines/grammar-and-mechanics/) practises this difference, although implicitly. From [active tense](https://stackoverflow.design/content/guidelines/grammar-and-mechanics/#use-active-tense-(most-of-the-time)): > > ✅ Do > > > “Update your profile” > > > Two phrases, from [ellipses](https://stackoverflow.design/content/guidelines/grammar-and-mechanics/#ellipses): > > ✅ Do > > > Avoid subjective questions. Stick to fact-based questions. > > > However, the guide also contradicts this principle in [hyphens](https://stackoverflow.design/content/guidelines/grammar-and-mechanics/#hyphens): > > ✅ Do > > > Start your free 14-day trial. > > > Get started. Sign up today. > > > Therefore, while the badge page is consistent, the Style guide does not explicitly provide relevant guidelines. Also the guide is inconsistent on this point regarding the examples given. Another inconsistency in the examples is the use of quotes (only used in active tense and contractions, nowhere else). So the guide can be made more clear by providing explicit definitions and remove inconsistencies - but the badge page seems fine.
Example of a famous [Laconic phrase](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laconic_phrase): > > If. > --- > > > Spartan ephors replying to: *"If I invade Laconia, I shall turn you out.*" > > > And ***"if"*** really is the keyword here. [What is a sentence?](https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/sentence/what-is-a-sentence.htm) Well, apparently linguists are divided but [***"Stop!*** (Look and listen)"](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/156938) does appear when you fail a review audit, so elsewhere on SE Laconic phrases are also used. **If** you look at consistency as more than a word and consider the [Stacks style guide - Periods](https://stackoverflow.design/content/guidelines/grammar-and-mechanics/#periods) you'll see it defines an interesting intersection between design and grammar, namely: *"Don’t use periods in interface copy **unless** (**if**) it’s a full sentence or description."* And why is that interesting? Because it engages you in the exercise of understanding what makes a sentence a sentence. I think the problem is most of the descriptions in the badges page are sentences, but some would look good ending in a full stop while others wouldn't. I don't think the two sentences: *"Visit the site each day for N consecutive days. (Days are counted in UTC.)"* would look good without the two periods. But ***if*** someone thinks it would look better, please, post an example and let's look at it.
47,995
I am trying to get a Singapore multiple entry visa. My question is: can I work in Singapore on this visa base legally? After how many days do I need to come back to my home-country?
2015/05/20
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/47995", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/29807/" ]
**You won't be able to work on the visa.** What you need to get in order to legally work in Singapore is some sort of [work pass or permit](http://www.mom.gov.sg/passes-and-permits), which usually your employer will have to get for you. However, there is no issue with looking for a job while on a visa. Once you get a job, your employer can apply for a work permit or pass on your behalf, which will give you a long term pass to stay in the country. Until then, you will most probably not be able to stay [any longer than 30 days](http://www.globalsingapore.sg/visa-to-singapore/singapore-visa-faq/) at a time in Singapore. DO NOT [overstay](http://www.straitstimes.com/news/singapore/courts-crime/story/45-foreign-nationals-arrested-overstaying-20150313) or [work illegally](http://www.channelnewsasia.com/news/singapore/illegal-import-of-foreign/299586.html), as this will most certainly get you into trouble, and other than being potentially fined, [caned and/or imprisoned](http://www.todayonline.com/singapore/two-men-jailed-attempting-depart-singapore-illegally-woodlands-checkpoint), you will also be very unlikely to be granted a visa again in the future.
Multiple entry visa is a business pass working not allowed on this pass and 1month + 1month extend and one re- enter total...3month
81,287
When clicking between "Week", "Month", "Quarter", "Year" and "All" on the users page, the name I have typed in to filter on disappears. I feel like it should stay there, so that I can type in my name, and see how I've done in a week/month/etc.
2011/03/02
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/81287", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/141509/" ]
This is not only with the name filter: If you click on the "Week" tab for instance, you go to this url: > > <https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users?tab=reputation&filter=week> > > > but there the "next page" button doesn't include that filter: > > <https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users?page=2&tab=reputation> > > > so when you click it, you're back to the default "month" filter.
This is exactly what the [reputation leagues](https://stackexchange.com/leagues/1/week/stackoverflow) already do. On every page, it shows *your* place at the very top. Preferable to use the feature that was actually designed explicitly for this purpose, no?
166
This question [Where can I find an external 8-inch floppy disk drive?](https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/756/where-can-i-find-an-external-8-inch-floppy-disk-drive) Raised a couple of issues for me while I think it's just about on topic (given the age of hardware and difficulty) it does leave me wondering what the correct response to questions like: > > Where can I buy a replacement Apple II PSU in Europe? > > > While it's on topic is a list of vendors (which I assume would be the answer) a good stackexchange answer. Another similar question is ["Where to buy a 6502 chip"](https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/q/15100/7208).
2016/06/11
[ "https://retrocomputing.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/166", "https://retrocomputing.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://retrocomputing.meta.stackexchange.com/users/632/" ]
**Let's try it.** Since the expertise of this site lies largely in maintaining and restoring old hardware including video games, I would be inclined to at least *try it* and see how well it fits. I don't suspect there will be a *huge* deluge of pinball-restoration questions to annoy anyone who might not be intense about the subject, but based on posts like this [**What constitutes computing?**](https://retrocomputing.meta.stackexchange.com/a/48/47) I would be inclined to see how these work in actual practice before dismissing them out of hand. *(it's not as if we're likely to create a pinball-restoration site, so this seems like a reasonable audience to take advantage of that space)*
I'm pretty sure I'd vote off-topic. Even though some of these old machines have a fair amount of computing in them, they are primarily mechanical devices that have more to do with [PLCs](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Programmable_logic_controller) than general purpose computers or gaming systems. How those hybrid video/pachinko games would fit is an exercise left for the reader. Likewise questions about embedded 6809 boards that *might* be used in a pinball machine. Though, the latter might be a better fit wherever [embedded systems are discussed](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/39135/stack-overflow-for-hardware-embedded-systems). I'm not sure where pinball game questions might go, but The Arqade might be the best fit. They even have a `pinball` tag, though this might be used more for 2D video pinball.
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
Stack Overflow have released their own profiler as a new opensource project <http://miniprofiler.com/> --- ### UPDATE: It's also worth mentioning Glimpse as another alternative profiling tool <http://getglimpse.com/>
You may take a look at [JMeter](http://jakarta.apache.org/jmeter/) which is a free Java based desktop application allowing you to load test any web application. Another free tool is [The Grinder](http://grinder.sourceforge.net/).
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
[Glimpse](http://getglimpse.com/) is a helpful tool. It provides many detailed information and has support for EF and both Asp.net webforms and MVC. Hope this helps someone.
You may take a look at [JMeter](http://jakarta.apache.org/jmeter/) which is a free Java based desktop application allowing you to load test any web application. Another free tool is [The Grinder](http://grinder.sourceforge.net/).
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
Stack Overflow have released their own profiler as a new opensource project <http://miniprofiler.com/> --- ### UPDATE: It's also worth mentioning Glimpse as another alternative profiling tool <http://getglimpse.com/>
Can you use [this technique](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/266373/one-could-use-a-profiler-but-why-not-just-halt-the-program/317160#317160)? It's free and it works with any language or platform. It precisely locates points to optimize, though as a measurement method it is imprecise. It is low-tech, but [here's discussion of why it works](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/375913/what-can-i-use-to-profile-c-code-in-linux/378024#378024).
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
[Glimpse](http://getglimpse.com/) is a helpful tool. It provides many detailed information and has support for EF and both Asp.net webforms and MVC. Hope this helps someone.
Can you use [this technique](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/266373/one-could-use-a-profiler-but-why-not-just-halt-the-program/317160#317160)? It's free and it works with any language or platform. It precisely locates points to optimize, though as a measurement method it is imprecise. It is low-tech, but [here's discussion of why it works](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/375913/what-can-i-use-to-profile-c-code-in-linux/378024#378024).
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
Stack Overflow have released their own profiler as a new opensource project <http://miniprofiler.com/> --- ### UPDATE: It's also worth mentioning Glimpse as another alternative profiling tool <http://getglimpse.com/>
My best candidate is dotTrace profile from JetBrains.Have a look [here](http://www.jetbrains.com/profiler/index.html)
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
[Glimpse](http://getglimpse.com/) is a helpful tool. It provides many detailed information and has support for EF and both Asp.net webforms and MVC. Hope this helps someone.
My best candidate is dotTrace profile from JetBrains.Have a look [here](http://www.jetbrains.com/profiler/index.html)
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
Stack Overflow have released their own profiler as a new opensource project <http://miniprofiler.com/> --- ### UPDATE: It's also worth mentioning Glimpse as another alternative profiling tool <http://getglimpse.com/>
If you're serious about performance profiling then you might need to spend some money. I've spent a lot of time using Redgate's ANTS profiler and it has helped me find some very unusual aspects of my code that have caused performance problems. Mike's suggested technique is good, and I've used that too, but if you really want to dig into the hot spots and how those hot spots were called then tools like dotTrace and ANTS are very good. Personally I prefer ANTS but dotTrace will do the job too.
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
[Glimpse](http://getglimpse.com/) is a helpful tool. It provides many detailed information and has support for EF and both Asp.net webforms and MVC. Hope this helps someone.
If you're serious about performance profiling then you might need to spend some money. I've spent a lot of time using Redgate's ANTS profiler and it has helped me find some very unusual aspects of my code that have caused performance problems. Mike's suggested technique is good, and I've used that too, but if you really want to dig into the hot spots and how those hot spots were called then tools like dotTrace and ANTS are very good. Personally I prefer ANTS but dotTrace will do the job too.
3,013,166
How are people currently profiling the performance of their ASP.NET MVC applications? I'd be most interested in simple and free approaches.
2010/06/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3013166", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/324381/" ]
Stack Overflow have released their own profiler as a new opensource project <http://miniprofiler.com/> --- ### UPDATE: It's also worth mentioning Glimpse as another alternative profiling tool <http://getglimpse.com/>
[Glimpse](http://getglimpse.com/) is a helpful tool. It provides many detailed information and has support for EF and both Asp.net webforms and MVC. Hope this helps someone.
31,818,695
In the screenshot below we see the (useful!) source code for an XYPlot chart. The problem is - well if I were to actually want to *use* the code .. how to do it? Notice that the **Edit menu item is disabled**. So presumably there may have been cut and paste there .. but .. So is there a workaround for this (well .. besides whipping out iTerm, cutting to the directory of the source and launching vim manually ..) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iBd3Q.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iBd3Q.jpg)
2015/08/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31818695", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1056563/" ]
This is an oversight in the demo application. The 'Edit' menu is used to copy and paste chart images when charts are being viewed. The menu is disabled for the other tabs. It does, of course, make sense that the user should be able to copy and paste the demo source code from the 'Source Code' tab rather than be required to find the relevant source file in the download. I will update the code to enable this.
I tried to fix this in source code. However the whole ant/build.xml and even the codebase are broken in multiple ways.. See here: [JFreecharts Demo Code does not build?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/31818166/jfreecharts-demo-code-does-not-build) . I have contacted Object Refinery about a series of issues in their demo build script and setup.
47,339
I have trouble understanding how to deal with Aspects implying a resistance or immunity to a given category of attacks. Let's say for example a dragon has the Aspect ***Can Withstand the Hottest Flames*** or something similar that implies he is resistant to fire. Should he invoke that Aspect every time he is attacked by a fire attack? In that case, what happens when he runs out of Fate Points, is he not resistant to Fire anymore? Similarly, what about a character immune to fire? Is he immune only as long as he has Fate Points? Or are all fire attacks simply unable to cause damage? And finally, is it even pertinent to use Aspects for this kind of Resistance/Immunity, or would it be better handled through Stunts?
2014/09/05
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/47339", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/2900/" ]
For resistance to fire: ----------------------- It's pretty straightforward to use stunts and extras. > > Because I am a dragon, I have armor:2 against heat-based attacks. > > > or > > Because I am a dragon, I have +2 to defence rolls against fire. > > > If you go this route, then stress and consequences you do take will probably represent an attack finally penetrating your resistance. This is no different than using a Kevlar vest with armor:2 to reduce stress from a bullet, or a bonus to Physique defence representing your ability to get punched and keep on coming. But what about *immunity* to fire, you ask? ------------------------------------------- Here's the deal: **Aspects can make you immune to fire, but they probably shouldn't make you immune to stress from fire attacks.** It's a matter of exploiting the fact that stress is not damage, and consequences aren't damage either (though they *can* be). (For an experimental way to represent immunity through stunts/extras, see [this answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/41283/4398).) Stress is "the ephemeral toll of participating in a conflict," while consequences are "injury *and trauma* you just can't shake off after the dust settles" (emphasis mine). Thus if you're immune to fire, taking stress from a fire attack represents your ability to keep the fire in the scene from impacting the narrative in ways you don't like. Once you start taking consequences, that means you didn't prevent the fire attacks from doing bad things which cause you lasting trauma or drama: *Accused of arson* is just as valid a lasting consequence as *Covered in burns,* and probably more leads to more interesting story. If this seems esoteric or weird--it kinda is! --------------------------------------------- Stress and consequences have [spawned](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/q/21600/4398) several [questions](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/q/45640/4398) about their relationship to hit points (or lack thereof). To try and wrap our head around it in this context, let's look at an extreme example of immunity to damage: [Superman](http://ryanmdanks.com/?p=261). We shouldn't just give him a high rank in Physique and call it a day, because Superman isn't just good at avoiding damage: most of the time he actually *can't* get hurt even if he wanted to, and skill rolls are set up to fail regularly. We could give him a stunt or an extra to make him immune to physical stress, but that seems dishonest to the character concept: Supes gets thrown around, punched through buildings, and thrown into space. He's vulnerable to physical stress, he just doesn't bruise or bleed because of it. But with an aspect like *The last Kryptonian*, Superman is narratively immune to nearly all physical damage. So Supes takes physical stress, sure. But stress is not damage! It's his ability to stay in the fight without lasting consequences: he absorbs or redirects the attack safely. When he can't use a stress track to absorb the shifts, he takes lasting consequences if he wants to stay in the fight, but consequences don't have to be damage either. When Superman is unable to handle a physical attack, it's almost always shown as being redirected into the environment: he's unable to control the force being leveraged at him. This tells us that when Superman takes a consequence from physical stress, it probably represents collateral damage (*Injured child* or *Jimmy's been shot!*). If instead he chooses to be taken out by physical stress--or to concede in a physical conflict--it means he let the villain succeed rather than have innocent bystanders get hurt (Luthor gets away while Superman holds the falling build up long enough for Lois to crawl to safety).
One of the elements of Fate Core that comes into play here is that Aspects remain true whether they are invoked or not. (FC76) If your dragon has "Can Withstand the Hottest Flames," then that's just a fact about the dragon. Immune to fire, dead sure. Invoking that Aspect means that being able to Withstand the Hottest Flames is something dramatically relevant to the action you're about to under take. ("I'm going to charge into the burning building to rescue that girl!") Spend the Fate Point, get your bonus or reroll or declare your fact or what have you. But if that's an Aspect of your character, it's not something that requires Fate Points to exist; it's just so. I think that's not a great Aspect, by the way; I can't think of many good ways to Compel that. I might make it part of a larger Aspect, like "Great Wyrm beneath the Mountain" or "Fireproof Mutant" or something that encompasses more parts of the character. Oh! You also asked about Stunts. Stunts interact with the Skill system, so it's not especially appropriate here — you're not immune to fire if you do something in particular; you just are. I wouldn't use a Stunt in this case.
375,345
I am asked to calculate the voltage at the non-inverting input of the op-amp if v1=4.78V and v2=0v. I thought that the answer would be zero, as the voltage at the non-inverting input must be approximately equal to the voltage at the inverting input, and the inverting input is connected to ground. However, this is incorrect. I would appreciate it if you could help me understand what is happening here. I have gone through some practice questions relating to op-amps with circuits constructed similar to this using the assumption that the voltage at the input equals that at the output, however, i am getting this question wrong. Thank you very much for your time, [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WcWY0.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WcWY0.png)
2018/05/20
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/375345", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/189357/" ]
They can't tell you how cold it can get because that is a function of how much you are trying to cool, and the difference (Delta T) between the inside (cold side) and the outside (ambient) air temp. Also how well the 2 sides are insulated from each other. That is how good the insulation of the cooler box. The Q is how efficient the module is at doing its job of cooling. If you have a small space to cool, and the external heat sink is exposed to a cool day as opposed to hot, you will get a much lower internal temperature. The Peltier you purchase may not come with a fan. If not, be sure to include one to cool the heat sink. You will get poor efficiency without one. The better the cooling of the external heatsink, the lower your inside will go.
Also having a small heat sink on the cold side and a much larger heat sink on the hot side with a decent temperature controlled fan that blows harder when hotter. The small heat sink on the cold side with wide spacing between the fins will increase the surface area of the cooling side and allow a ice film to build up on the small inner heat sink and keep the ice box colder more efficiently.
4,106,303
Right now I have a set of tools for AutoCAD that get deployed to users in our company. Currently they are being deployed via an msi that I maintain through a Visual Studio Setup Project. The files include .NET dlls for some of our custom commands and lisp functions as well as many script, lisp, .pc3, .ctb, etc. files. The current method for installation is as such: At log in time it checks if the machine has the tools installed or needs an update. If they are not installed then it silently runs the msi. If they are installed but need an update then it does an uninstall then install also silently. When the user closes out of AutoCAD it also runs this same method except that it notifies the user via the system tray not to reopen AutoCAD until the update is complete. Right now it appears that either the log in or the updater isn't always working because I have users getting errors caused by missing components and they seem to occur randomly. I'm assuming that one of the msis is getting cutoff mid process. Taking into account that I need to be able to do updates on the fly (i.e. tell the user to exit AutoCAD and get back in to receive the updates) what are some alternative methods to update my AutoCAD plug-in?
2010/11/05
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4106303", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/180529/" ]
We place our .Net dll's in a shared network folder. When the users launch AutoCad, we run a LISP routine that performs a 'netload' of the dll's. This way, if we want to update, we just rename the old dll's and place the new ones in the shared network location. The next time users launch AutoCad, they will have the latest. You stated that you want to update on the fly and let the users know, which is something that we don't have to worry much about. If we are concerned, we'll just send an email to our AutoCad user group and tell them they must restart for the latest changes to take affect. This probably isn't exactly what you're looking for, but hopefully it made you aware of a possible 'different' approach.
> > Right now it appears that either the log in or the updater isn't always working because I have users getting errors caused by missing components and they seem to occur randomly. I'm assuming that one of the msis is getting cutoff mid process. > > > At face value this suggests users are not seeing the notification in the system tray (maybe too diminutive?) and are firing up AutoCAD before the install is complete. Simplistic and/or draconian suggestions ... * Use a normal dialog that is more obvious, **and/or** * Temporarily rename the AutoCAD executable until the installation is complete, say to *acad.exe.save*, **and/or** * During the installation monitor all processes, and if AutoCAD fires up immediately kill said process; display a dialog telling the user it's being shut down and why, **and/or** * Add another module to your suite, one that checks the thoroughness of the install once it's finished so you know about problems immediately, rather than waiting for users to stumble upon, and report problems later, **and/or** * Maintain a master list of files / versions / dates etc. and have AutoCAD's startup suite, perhaps as simple as a self diagnosis function entry in S::Startup, examine the current configuration/setup and compare it to the master list, reporting accordingly. Good luck, Michael. *Edit/PS: Didn't see JSprang's post until I posted mine. Overall I think his is a superior strategy and similar what we do with simple lisp libraries.*
33,066
Earning badges on StackExchange is, well, fun. But aside from that it promotes quality interaction from users and helps weed out spam (I have never seen a spam post on the site). I have a community website with about 500 active users, but the spammers are starting to become more prolific. I would like a way to make the site more engaging while promoting the same quality of interactivity. How would you recommend to put in a good **reputation** system, as well as a **goal achievement** system?
2012/06/04
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/33066", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/5073/" ]
There's the [User Points](http://drupal.org/project/userpoints) module and the [User Badges](http://drupal.org/project/user_badges) module, though the 7.x version of User Badges is not suitable for production yet (as of June 4, 2012). Thankfully, User Points integrates with the [Rules](http://drupal.org/project/rules) module, which allows you to greatly customize the ways users gain (or possibly lose) points. There's also a collection of [contributed modules for userpoints](http://drupal.org/project/userpoints_contrib) of varying stability. You can certainly set up some amazing stuff with these modules, but make sure to carefully test your implementation-- though the modules are well written and fairly stable, there's still a lot that can go wrong so make sure to verify everything works properly.
For the badges, there is the [Achievements](http://drupal.org/project/achievements) module. > > The Achievements module offers the ability to create achievements and badges similar to systems seen on Xbox 360, Playstation 3, Foursquare, Gowalla, GetGlue, and more. For a Drupal site, this could mean commenting a certain number of times, starting a forum topic, visiting the site every day of the week, or anything else that can be tracked and coded. > > >
197,785
I have found an old Logitech MOMO Force wheel. ![Racing wheel controller](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CyNP6.jpg) Will this one work with a PS4? Or is there any game, I could try it with. I don´t want to buy a game and then figure out that it is not working.
2014/12/24
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/197785", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/96455/" ]
PS3 racing wheels aren't supported by the PS4, [it seems developers can write support drivers directly into their games](http://www.eurogamer.net/articles/2014-11-05-whats-the-deal-with-ps4-and-xbox-one-steering-wheels), but it doesn't seem any game has that funtionality right now. [DriveClub currently supports two racing wheels](http://blog.us.playstation.com/2014/09/30/which-wheels-work-with-driveclub/). These are new wheels designed specifically with support the PS4 but they support the PS3 as well. These seem to be the only PS4 racing wheels available. The Crew FAQ states that [If your steering wheel is supported by your PC/PS4/Xbox One then it should work for the game.](http://forums.ubi.com/showthread.php/806230-The-Crew-Q-amp-A-November-2013-Forums). So I guess both of these wheels should work with it as well (Note: this FAQ was published in Nov 2013, things might've changed until the game's release. NFS Rivals [doesn't seem to support racing wheels at all](http://community.eu.playstation.com/t5/PS4-General/Does-Need-For-Speed-Rivals-for-PS4-support-racing-wheels/m-p/20143243#M41736).
Momo not working for PS4. But Thrustmaster T80, T100, T300 , T500 , Hori 4 they all work with PS4 (T100 and T500 work ok in gameplay only and not in the ps4 menu too)
1,275,739
I have a ASP.NET application running on Windows 2003 that needs to communicate with a DB2 database that resides on the mainframe. We installed DB2 Client driver v9.5 on our server so the application can perform the connection and work with the database. The connection string to connect to the database contains the username and password, it is not a trusted connection. To be clear, we are using the DB2 .NET provider and not OLE DB, ODBC, etc. What we're noticing is that when the ASP.NET application is attempting to make that first connection to DB2, it takes a very long time, roughly 20 seconds. After talking to one of our resident DBAs, they said it may be because the DB2 driver is trying to authenticate the user account that is being used to connect to the database, against Active Directory. Their solution to this was to create a local user account on the Win2003 server, with the same name as the user account that is being used to make the connection. The local user account does not have to be a member of any acl groups and it can be disabled. I tried this solution, and to my amazement, it actually worked. The connection was made within milliseconds. What I am concerned with is that this "feature" seems like a flaw in the DB2 driver, and any new versions of this driver could actually prevent this from working again. Does anyone know if there is an actual setting in the DB2 driver that we could set, so it does not try to authenticate with Active Directory? I would feel more comfortable using that setting, than relying on, what looks to me, a flaw in their authentication algorithm. Thanks BTW, the same question was asked on Server Fault, however, no one has been able to answer there. <https://serverfault.com/questions/53971/db2-client-v9-5-on-win-2003-taking-long-time-to-establish-connection>
2009/08/14
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1275739", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/114512/" ]
``` % ``` It works with most languages where it's clear that your cursor is on or near a block marker.
Try this - <http://www.vim.org/scripts/script.php?script_id=303> (Disclaimer: untested)
1,275,739
I have a ASP.NET application running on Windows 2003 that needs to communicate with a DB2 database that resides on the mainframe. We installed DB2 Client driver v9.5 on our server so the application can perform the connection and work with the database. The connection string to connect to the database contains the username and password, it is not a trusted connection. To be clear, we are using the DB2 .NET provider and not OLE DB, ODBC, etc. What we're noticing is that when the ASP.NET application is attempting to make that first connection to DB2, it takes a very long time, roughly 20 seconds. After talking to one of our resident DBAs, they said it may be because the DB2 driver is trying to authenticate the user account that is being used to connect to the database, against Active Directory. Their solution to this was to create a local user account on the Win2003 server, with the same name as the user account that is being used to make the connection. The local user account does not have to be a member of any acl groups and it can be disabled. I tried this solution, and to my amazement, it actually worked. The connection was made within milliseconds. What I am concerned with is that this "feature" seems like a flaw in the DB2 driver, and any new versions of this driver could actually prevent this from working again. Does anyone know if there is an actual setting in the DB2 driver that we could set, so it does not try to authenticate with Active Directory? I would feel more comfortable using that setting, than relying on, what looks to me, a flaw in their authentication algorithm. Thanks BTW, the same question was asked on Server Fault, however, no one has been able to answer there. <https://serverfault.com/questions/53971/db2-client-v9-5-on-win-2003-taking-long-time-to-establish-connection>
2009/08/14
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1275739", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/114512/" ]
Looks like there is an official package at [rubyforge](http://rubyforge.org/frs/shownotes.php?group_id=16&release_id=11557) that has some support for this: > > The Ruby ftplugin now includes Ruby specific implementations for the [[, ]], > [], ][, [m, ]m, [M, and ]M normal mode commands. These allow you to move to > move quickly between module, class and method declarations. > > > **Edit**: The README says that these files are included in the default VIM distro but they don't work for me in GVIM on Windows, '{' and '}' seem to work on vim under Linux
``` % ``` It works with most languages where it's clear that your cursor is on or near a block marker.
1,275,739
I have a ASP.NET application running on Windows 2003 that needs to communicate with a DB2 database that resides on the mainframe. We installed DB2 Client driver v9.5 on our server so the application can perform the connection and work with the database. The connection string to connect to the database contains the username and password, it is not a trusted connection. To be clear, we are using the DB2 .NET provider and not OLE DB, ODBC, etc. What we're noticing is that when the ASP.NET application is attempting to make that first connection to DB2, it takes a very long time, roughly 20 seconds. After talking to one of our resident DBAs, they said it may be because the DB2 driver is trying to authenticate the user account that is being used to connect to the database, against Active Directory. Their solution to this was to create a local user account on the Win2003 server, with the same name as the user account that is being used to make the connection. The local user account does not have to be a member of any acl groups and it can be disabled. I tried this solution, and to my amazement, it actually worked. The connection was made within milliseconds. What I am concerned with is that this "feature" seems like a flaw in the DB2 driver, and any new versions of this driver could actually prevent this from working again. Does anyone know if there is an actual setting in the DB2 driver that we could set, so it does not try to authenticate with Active Directory? I would feel more comfortable using that setting, than relying on, what looks to me, a flaw in their authentication algorithm. Thanks BTW, the same question was asked on Server Fault, however, no one has been able to answer there. <https://serverfault.com/questions/53971/db2-client-v9-5-on-win-2003-taking-long-time-to-establish-connection>
2009/08/14
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1275739", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/114512/" ]
Looks like there is an official package at [rubyforge](http://rubyforge.org/frs/shownotes.php?group_id=16&release_id=11557) that has some support for this: > > The Ruby ftplugin now includes Ruby specific implementations for the [[, ]], > [], ][, [m, ]m, [M, and ]M normal mode commands. These allow you to move to > move quickly between module, class and method declarations. > > > **Edit**: The README says that these files are included in the default VIM distro but they don't work for me in GVIM on Windows, '{' and '}' seem to work on vim under Linux
Try this - <http://www.vim.org/scripts/script.php?script_id=303> (Disclaimer: untested)
2,668,821
which browsers do not send referer information?
2010/04/19
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2668821", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
This is not dependent on the browser make/version, but on the browser configuration. All decent browsers with default settings will send it, but the enduser can configure it to not send it. It's also dependent on the environmental software. If you have for example Norton AntiVirus/InternetSecurity installed, then you can configure it to let it block or spoof the referrer header with something entirely different, regardless of the browser used.
All the popular web browsers send referrer headers, at least by default. Some web browsers give their users the option to turn them off. ([Example](http://kb.mozillazine.org/Network.http.sendRefererHeader))
2,668,821
which browsers do not send referer information?
2010/04/19
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2668821", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
This is not dependent on the browser make/version, but on the browser configuration. All decent browsers with default settings will send it, but the enduser can configure it to not send it. It's also dependent on the environmental software. If you have for example Norton AntiVirus/InternetSecurity installed, then you can configure it to let it block or spoof the referrer header with something entirely different, regardless of the browser used.
Referrer information not sent with a Flash http request <http://training.sessions.edu/resources/SoftwareDesignTips/current/flash.asp> For example, if someone clicks on flash banner linked to your site, request can come to your server without HTTP referrer information
32,250,656
I develop a C++ code whose main object will be called in a larger program. Only one instance of the object needs to be created within the host, so I have been declaring all class variables and methods as static. * My first question is a best practice question : is it a good idea to do so in term of performance, portability, maintainability ? On the one hand, the drawback with static members is that it becomes difficult to implement multithreading as these members would be shared by all threads. On the other hand, redeclaring all members as non-static would require to make some inheritances virtual, which brings to the second question. * I know that virtual methods have their cost, but what about the virtual inheritance itself ? Does virtual inheritance affect performances ? Thanks for your attention. Best regards.
2015/08/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32250656", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2320773/" ]
On today's system virtual methods and inheritance don't have a large impact, unless you expect to call virtual functions a lot (more than millions of times per second). Static members tend to create problems for maintainability. What's best is usually to start with the simplest implementation and see how it performs.
I am not sure you really understand multithreading. Static methods are not problematic for multithreading, in no way they are. They behave exactly like free-standing functions, and on themselves have no multithreading problems. Also, I fail to see the need to use a class with all static members - free-standing functions in the namespace will be better.
32,250,656
I develop a C++ code whose main object will be called in a larger program. Only one instance of the object needs to be created within the host, so I have been declaring all class variables and methods as static. * My first question is a best practice question : is it a good idea to do so in term of performance, portability, maintainability ? On the one hand, the drawback with static members is that it becomes difficult to implement multithreading as these members would be shared by all threads. On the other hand, redeclaring all members as non-static would require to make some inheritances virtual, which brings to the second question. * I know that virtual methods have their cost, but what about the virtual inheritance itself ? Does virtual inheritance affect performances ? Thanks for your attention. Best regards.
2015/08/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32250656", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2320773/" ]
> > is it a good idea to do so in term of performance, portability, maintainability ? > > > No - it looks like you're making things more complex than necessary. > > Only one instance of the object needs to be created within the host, so I have been declaring all class variables and methods as static. > > > Rather than declaring everything static, there is a pattern known as the [Singleton](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singleton_pattern) which achieves what you need. Declare your class as normal, and just create a single instance. > > I know that virtual methods have their cost, but what about the virtual inheritance itself ? Does virtual inheritance affect performances ? > > > There is a very small cost to dispatching virtual methods, but in the vast majority of cases, it is dwarfed by the computation. This is very much premature optimisation - don't worry about the overheads unless you are certain it's a major cost. Profile first, then optimise. [Virtual inheritance](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_inheritance) is a very particular solution to multiple inheritance and the 'diamond problem', but there is insufficient information here in the question to know if that is even relevant to your problem.
I am not sure you really understand multithreading. Static methods are not problematic for multithreading, in no way they are. They behave exactly like free-standing functions, and on themselves have no multithreading problems. Also, I fail to see the need to use a class with all static members - free-standing functions in the namespace will be better.
32,250,656
I develop a C++ code whose main object will be called in a larger program. Only one instance of the object needs to be created within the host, so I have been declaring all class variables and methods as static. * My first question is a best practice question : is it a good idea to do so in term of performance, portability, maintainability ? On the one hand, the drawback with static members is that it becomes difficult to implement multithreading as these members would be shared by all threads. On the other hand, redeclaring all members as non-static would require to make some inheritances virtual, which brings to the second question. * I know that virtual methods have their cost, but what about the virtual inheritance itself ? Does virtual inheritance affect performances ? Thanks for your attention. Best regards.
2015/08/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32250656", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2320773/" ]
> > is it a good idea to do so in term of performance, portability, maintainability ? > > > No - it looks like you're making things more complex than necessary. > > Only one instance of the object needs to be created within the host, so I have been declaring all class variables and methods as static. > > > Rather than declaring everything static, there is a pattern known as the [Singleton](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singleton_pattern) which achieves what you need. Declare your class as normal, and just create a single instance. > > I know that virtual methods have their cost, but what about the virtual inheritance itself ? Does virtual inheritance affect performances ? > > > There is a very small cost to dispatching virtual methods, but in the vast majority of cases, it is dwarfed by the computation. This is very much premature optimisation - don't worry about the overheads unless you are certain it's a major cost. Profile first, then optimise. [Virtual inheritance](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_inheritance) is a very particular solution to multiple inheritance and the 'diamond problem', but there is insufficient information here in the question to know if that is even relevant to your problem.
On today's system virtual methods and inheritance don't have a large impact, unless you expect to call virtual functions a lot (more than millions of times per second). Static members tend to create problems for maintainability. What's best is usually to start with the simplest implementation and see how it performs.
1,083,043
I'm not sure how to describe this without a picture: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yNu9I.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yNu9I.png) Is there a way to do this without drawing the lines manually? Preferably the lines will look as shown.
2016/06/01
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1083043", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/600166/" ]
You can create a table that includes the label and all the letter slots, then set widths and borders. For example, suppose you want 9 letter slots: 1. Create a table with 1 row and 10 columns. 2. Set the width of the leftmost column wide enough for your label (let's say 3.5 cm). 3. Set the width for the 9 other columns to 0.5 cm. 4. Remove the top, left and bottom borders from the left cell. 5. Remove the top border from the other 9 cells. And there you have it: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0jT2q.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0jT2q.png) This is what it looks like in Print Preview: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mbhgX.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mbhgX.png) The advantage of this method is that the user can move from cell to cell using the Tab key, and also cannot accidentally break the structure.
You can do this with unicode chars. Title: ┗━┻━┛ This is a left box, a middle bit and a right box corner, with a bottom bit to widen it. You get this holding `Alt` and hitting the keys on the number pad. Note that this must be done in an Office app or one that supports Unicode codepoints (otherwise the 4 digit code will be modulo 256 and so wrapped to a number less than 256). ┗ : 9495 ┻ : 9531 ┛ : 9499 ━ : 9473 Or you can just cut and paste from here.
146,592
If a three-month dark period was a normal, recurring, part of a 15-month calendar, and plants had evolved to be bio-luminescent, could they survive? Would only some survive and, if so, would it be enough to keep a large human population stable (or would there be a type of culling for the lower-class people)? Would this change if many animals were also bio-luminescent?
2019/05/08
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/146592", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/64804/" ]
Can a plant survive a 3 month period of no luminosity (or at least in amount that does not provide enough light to sustain any photosynthesis)? Yes, it's called WINTER, in case of polar night the tolerated period without light can be even longer. Being bioluminesent would be quite expensive from evolutionary perspective. There would be an evolutionary pressure to drop this folly, unless there is some strong benefit for plant. By occasion - low sunlight generally tend to mean lower temperature. That may be problem of its own. Animals can adapt, unless such change would happen overnight, then we would face another mass extinction event, especially in tropical regions. Humans (in A.D. 2019)? In long run it would be easily adaptable, we could squeeze much more production per hectare if the prices were higher. The tricky part would be surviving first year. I don't think that there would be any culling of low classes per se. There would be culling of livestock and food rationing, and if that's not enough, then 1st world would halt (either officially or simply by overbidding) its food exports towards third world. Even in pessimistic scenario a low class person from first country would become much slimmer, while watching on TV how people in Africa resort to cannibalism.
Yes, just like plants on Earth create stores of energy in their roots to survive winter, your plants could develop a similar strategy of survival. It is also very likely that the leaves of said plants will fall off during this darkness period as leaves take energy to maintain and would not be returning energy without light. As for human survival, the plants would not be doing much growing without an incoming source of energy, so harvesting from these plants during the darkness period would be difficult. However, humans are more than capable of preserving food ahead of time to be used throughout this period.
26,323
Is there a way plot groups of my Gmail contacts' physical locations in Google Maps? OS is Windows Vista.
2012/05/01
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/26323", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Umm, [Google Latitude](https://www.google.com/latitude/)? But of course it needs the contacts to have a mobile device with GPS and their permission.
You Can add GPS location (Lang,Long) to the contacts with Name Maps, So when you click it the maps will take you to the location
26,323
Is there a way plot groups of my Gmail contacts' physical locations in Google Maps? OS is Windows Vista.
2012/05/01
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/26323", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Umm, [Google Latitude](https://www.google.com/latitude/)? But of course it needs the contacts to have a mobile device with GPS and their permission.
The app has just been created and is in Beta called [INSET](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.quad.inset). Goto Google Play store, download and check out. The beta will only load 10 contacts. The pro version will allow you to load all your contacts from whatever gmail account you link up with on your browser.
26,323
Is there a way plot groups of my Gmail contacts' physical locations in Google Maps? OS is Windows Vista.
2012/05/01
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/26323", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
You Can add GPS location (Lang,Long) to the contacts with Name Maps, So when you click it the maps will take you to the location
The app has just been created and is in Beta called [INSET](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.quad.inset). Goto Google Play store, download and check out. The beta will only load 10 contacts. The pro version will allow you to load all your contacts from whatever gmail account you link up with on your browser.
265,123
I understand how we get 3.5 as the expected value for rolling a fair 6-sided die. But intuitively, I can expect each face with equal chance of 1/6. So shouldn't the expected value of rolling a die be either of the number between 1-6 with equal probability? In other words, when asked the question 'what's the expected value of throwing a fair 6-sided die?', one should answer 'oh, it can be anything between 1-6 with equal chance'. Instead it's 3.5. Intuitively in real world, can someone explain how 3.5 is the value I should expect on throwing a die? Again I don't want the formula or the derivation for the expectation.
2017/03/03
[ "https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/265123", "https://stats.stackexchange.com", "https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/146856/" ]
Excellent question. It's more subtle than it seems at first. It has to do with the [random event](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Event_(probability_theory)) and [random variable](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random_variable) (number, value). Your confusion stems from mixing together these two related but distinct concepts. Let's start with an event. From the way you formulated your question, it appears that you consider the outcome of a dice throw an event. It's random, so you may get one of its six sides with equal chance, as you wrote. It makes a perfect sense. What is expected value of this experiment? The expectations are defined for random variables (values) not events. For you the numbers 1 to 6 on the dice are simply the ways to distinguish its sides (in the context of your question's formulation). Imagine you instead used letters: A, B, C, D, E, and F. Replace the numbers with letters and repeat your question as follows: > > In other words, when asked the question 'what's the expected value of > throwing a fair 6-sided die?', one should answer 'oh, it can be > anything between A and F with equal chance' > > > Now try to come up with an expected value. It's not defined! The expectations show up when you define the random values, such as 1 to 6. You map the values to the event space, for instance, you define that side A is 1, side B is 2 etc. Now you have 6 numbers and can calculate the expectation, which happens to be 3.5.
From an historical point of view, the concept seemed to appear in different countries, so I would consider the use of this word as a **convenient convergence** between similar concepts across languages. My starting point was the excellent [Earliest Uses of Symbols in Probability and Statistics](http://www.math.hawaii.edu/~tom/history/stat.html): > > Expectation. A large script E was used for the expectation in W. A. Whitworth's well-known textbook Choice and Chance (fifth edition) of 1901 but neither the symbol nor the calculus of expectations became established in the English literature until much later. For example, Rietz Mathematical Statistics (1927) used the symbol E and commented that "the expected value of the variable is a concept that has been much used by various continental European writers..." For the continental European writers E signified "Erwartung" or "[espérance (editor's note: mathématique)](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Esp%C3%A9rance_math%C3%A9matique)." > > > The term is sometimes "attributed to" Huyghens, which is discussed in [Huygens Foundations Of Probability](http://www.staff.science.uu.nl/~hietb101/gnpdf/freudenthal_Huygens_foundations.pdf): > > It is generally accepted that Huygens based probability on expectation. The term "expectation," however, stems from Van-Schooten's Latin translation of Huygens' treatise. A literal translation of Huygens' Dutch text shows more clearly what Huygens actually meant and how > he proceeded. > > > Additional details with respect to Fermat, Pascal can be found in [Expectation and the early probabilists](http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/0315-0860(83)90035-6).
265,123
I understand how we get 3.5 as the expected value for rolling a fair 6-sided die. But intuitively, I can expect each face with equal chance of 1/6. So shouldn't the expected value of rolling a die be either of the number between 1-6 with equal probability? In other words, when asked the question 'what's the expected value of throwing a fair 6-sided die?', one should answer 'oh, it can be anything between 1-6 with equal chance'. Instead it's 3.5. Intuitively in real world, can someone explain how 3.5 is the value I should expect on throwing a die? Again I don't want the formula or the derivation for the expectation.
2017/03/03
[ "https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/265123", "https://stats.stackexchange.com", "https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/146856/" ]
Imagine that you are in Paris in 1654 and you and your friend are observing a gambling game based on sequential rolling of a six sided dice. Now, gambling is highly illegal and busts by the gendarme are quite frequent, and to be caught at a table with stacks of livre is to almost surely guarantee a lengthy stint in the Chateau d'If. To get around this you and your friend have a gentleman's agreement on a bet made between two of you prior to the last die roll. He agrees to pay you five livre if you observe two sixes in the next five rolls of dice, and you agree to pay him the same amount if two ones are rolled, with no other action if these combinations do not come up. Now, the last die roll is a six so you are on the edge of your seat, figuratively. At this moment, heavily armed guardsmen burst into the den and arrests everyone at the table, and the crowd disperses. **Your friend believes that the bet made between the two of you is now invalidated. However, you believe that he should pay you some amount as one six had already been rolled. What is a fair way of settling this dispute between the two of you?** (This is my interpretation of the origins of the expected value as presented in [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Expected_value#History) and discussed in greater detail [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_points)) Let's answer this question of fair value in a non rigorous way. The amount your friend should pay you can be calculated in the following manner. Consider all possible rolls of four dice. Some sets of rolls (namely those containing at least one six) will result in your friend paying out the agreed amount. However, on other sets (namely, those not containing a single six) will result in you receiving no money. How do you balance the possibility of these two types of rolls happening? Simple, average out the amount you would have been paid over ALL possible rolls. However, your friend, (quite unlikely), can still win his bet! You have to consider the number of times two ones will be rolled in the remaining four dice, and average out the amount you will pay him over the number of all possible rolls of four dice. This is the fair amount you should pay your friend for his bet. Thus the amount you end up getting is the amount your friend should pay you, minus what you should pay your friend. This is why we call it the "expected value". It is the average amount you expect to receive if you are able to simulate an event happening in multiple simultaneous universes.
From an historical point of view, the concept seemed to appear in different countries, so I would consider the use of this word as a **convenient convergence** between similar concepts across languages. My starting point was the excellent [Earliest Uses of Symbols in Probability and Statistics](http://www.math.hawaii.edu/~tom/history/stat.html): > > Expectation. A large script E was used for the expectation in W. A. Whitworth's well-known textbook Choice and Chance (fifth edition) of 1901 but neither the symbol nor the calculus of expectations became established in the English literature until much later. For example, Rietz Mathematical Statistics (1927) used the symbol E and commented that "the expected value of the variable is a concept that has been much used by various continental European writers..." For the continental European writers E signified "Erwartung" or "[espérance (editor's note: mathématique)](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Esp%C3%A9rance_math%C3%A9matique)." > > > The term is sometimes "attributed to" Huyghens, which is discussed in [Huygens Foundations Of Probability](http://www.staff.science.uu.nl/~hietb101/gnpdf/freudenthal_Huygens_foundations.pdf): > > It is generally accepted that Huygens based probability on expectation. The term "expectation," however, stems from Van-Schooten's Latin translation of Huygens' treatise. A literal translation of Huygens' Dutch text shows more clearly what Huygens actually meant and how > he proceeded. > > > Additional details with respect to Fermat, Pascal can be found in [Expectation and the early probabilists](http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/0315-0860(83)90035-6).
265,123
I understand how we get 3.5 as the expected value for rolling a fair 6-sided die. But intuitively, I can expect each face with equal chance of 1/6. So shouldn't the expected value of rolling a die be either of the number between 1-6 with equal probability? In other words, when asked the question 'what's the expected value of throwing a fair 6-sided die?', one should answer 'oh, it can be anything between 1-6 with equal chance'. Instead it's 3.5. Intuitively in real world, can someone explain how 3.5 is the value I should expect on throwing a die? Again I don't want the formula or the derivation for the expectation.
2017/03/03
[ "https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/265123", "https://stats.stackexchange.com", "https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/146856/" ]
The expected value is called so because if you average all dice rolls you *expect* to get this *expected value* in the *long run*. The expected value is not related to any single dice roll.
From an historical point of view, the concept seemed to appear in different countries, so I would consider the use of this word as a **convenient convergence** between similar concepts across languages. My starting point was the excellent [Earliest Uses of Symbols in Probability and Statistics](http://www.math.hawaii.edu/~tom/history/stat.html): > > Expectation. A large script E was used for the expectation in W. A. Whitworth's well-known textbook Choice and Chance (fifth edition) of 1901 but neither the symbol nor the calculus of expectations became established in the English literature until much later. For example, Rietz Mathematical Statistics (1927) used the symbol E and commented that "the expected value of the variable is a concept that has been much used by various continental European writers..." For the continental European writers E signified "Erwartung" or "[espérance (editor's note: mathématique)](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Esp%C3%A9rance_math%C3%A9matique)." > > > The term is sometimes "attributed to" Huyghens, which is discussed in [Huygens Foundations Of Probability](http://www.staff.science.uu.nl/~hietb101/gnpdf/freudenthal_Huygens_foundations.pdf): > > It is generally accepted that Huygens based probability on expectation. The term "expectation," however, stems from Van-Schooten's Latin translation of Huygens' treatise. A literal translation of Huygens' Dutch text shows more clearly what Huygens actually meant and how > he proceeded. > > > Additional details with respect to Fermat, Pascal can be found in [Expectation and the early probabilists](http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/0315-0860(83)90035-6).
57,803
I recently unlocked the guided missile for tanks. The first round using it was a blast. I ended up killing a total of 36 helicopters, tanks and vehicles. However the second round (and every round since), was terrible. The little lock-on symbol that previously appeared when I pointed at a vehicle, doesn't show anymore. Which means I can't fire. So I'm puzzled as to why it worked brilliantly that first round, but hasn't worked since. Am I missing something?
2012/03/24
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/57803", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/22075/" ]
Guided shell is a perk that requires teamwork to use effectively (or at all). You need a teammate using a laser designation device (SOFLAM, CITV station (last tank unlock), laser painter (on jets and choppers)) before you will be able to lock on to *anything* in the air or out of line of sight. You can lock onto land vehicles in line of sight. Until that point, it is just a lovely piece of useless machinery.
In your first round, some one on your team must have been laser designating your opponents. That is the only way the guided missile unlock can target air vehicles. **Air targets must be laser designated before you can target them with the guided shell perk.**
57,803
I recently unlocked the guided missile for tanks. The first round using it was a blast. I ended up killing a total of 36 helicopters, tanks and vehicles. However the second round (and every round since), was terrible. The little lock-on symbol that previously appeared when I pointed at a vehicle, doesn't show anymore. Which means I can't fire. So I'm puzzled as to why it worked brilliantly that first round, but hasn't worked since. Am I missing something?
2012/03/24
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/57803", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/22075/" ]
In your first round, some one on your team must have been laser designating your opponents. That is the only way the guided missile unlock can target air vehicles. **Air targets must be laser designated before you can target them with the guided shell perk.**
In all fairness, the guides missile is pretty useless anyway. Hardly anyone ever uses a SOFLAM, and when they do the missile takes so damn long to get to the target that %90 of the time the enemy vehicle has either deployed smoke, or has moved out of sight of the designator anyway, and as it takes 2 missiles to even disable the sodding tanks, getting 2/3 consecutive hits is nigh on impossible.
57,803
I recently unlocked the guided missile for tanks. The first round using it was a blast. I ended up killing a total of 36 helicopters, tanks and vehicles. However the second round (and every round since), was terrible. The little lock-on symbol that previously appeared when I pointed at a vehicle, doesn't show anymore. Which means I can't fire. So I'm puzzled as to why it worked brilliantly that first round, but hasn't worked since. Am I missing something?
2012/03/24
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/57803", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/22075/" ]
Guided shell is a perk that requires teamwork to use effectively (or at all). You need a teammate using a laser designation device (SOFLAM, CITV station (last tank unlock), laser painter (on jets and choppers)) before you will be able to lock on to *anything* in the air or out of line of sight. You can lock onto land vehicles in line of sight. Until that point, it is just a lovely piece of useless machinery.
In all fairness, the guides missile is pretty useless anyway. Hardly anyone ever uses a SOFLAM, and when they do the missile takes so damn long to get to the target that %90 of the time the enemy vehicle has either deployed smoke, or has moved out of sight of the designator anyway, and as it takes 2 missiles to even disable the sodding tanks, getting 2/3 consecutive hits is nigh on impossible.
22,277
**Background** First, about me. I've got Asperger's and (social) anxiety. I started my first job after college a bit over a year ago and moved into a nice apartment with a fully furnished kitchen and wallpapering and floors included. I honestly made a mistake with the apartment. The place was great, but too expensive. I had blown most of the little savings I had (college is expensive) on some furniture and the deposit before I realized how expensive things are. I could just about afford it and save up a little. Over the year I lived there, I managed to save up enough to cover the costs of moving. A few weeks ago, I got offered a much cheaper [council house](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Council_house)\*. I would save around 25% of my wages per year accepting it, so I did. The exact day I would receive the keys was "somewhere in summer". The people living there had offered to sell me their floors, blinds and their kitchen furniture. Their price seemed a tad on the high side, but they were really friendly and I was too anxious to counter, so I accepted. We agreed I would pay in two terms, one the day before they would give keys back and one on my next payday. I hadn't even heard when they would receive the keys (I would receive them a few hours after they gave them to the council) when I received an angry phone call: why hadn't I paid yet? I nicely explained to them I hadn't heard when they were moving out yet, so I would call the council. I called the council and this day was 3 weeks in the future, but I paid anyway, just to be nice. When I received the keys, I found out some of the floors were damaged below where furniture had been. They didn't tell me. I was now starting to find their tad high price a bit too high. After I moved in, I found out the dishwasher didn't work and one of the blinds didn't go up. Now their tad high price was just unreasonable. **Question** We moved around my payday, the day I was supposed to pay the second term, and then my grandmother passed, and, stupid, I know, I forgot to pay. Even worse, I seemed to have misbudgeted, and was out of the money for the second term. Can the situation get any shittier? They called me and my flight instinct kicked in, but I still answered the call. I was trembling, my voice cracked and I profoundly apologized and promised I would pay them as soon as the deposit for my previous place would come back to me, hopefully before the end of the week. They told me that if the money isn't in their account by Friday, they would come get all their stuff back and destroy the floor. I want to pay them. Even if I think it is too much. I promised and I will do everything I can to keep my promise. I am incredibly scared of them coming over and trespassing. I'm scared of keeping the garden door open in this heatwave. I'm scared of talking to them too. But I think talking is needed to sort this out, so I want to be as prepared as possible for this talk. **How can I talk with these people about this?** I want them to understand I want to pay and I will as soon as I have money (my next payday or whenever the deposit comes back) and that they are not entering my house. There is a written agreement with a description of the items, like "fridge", but no quality or price mentioned. Legally, these items are mine, although they are entitled to their money. \*Technically in Netherlands these are owned by non-profit woningcorporaties, but in practice these are very similar
2019/07/03
[ "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/22277", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/12101/" ]
**How can I talk with these people about this?** Be concise and to the point. I know it is probably very hard for you to do but try to be stern and short. Remind yourself that they, in my opinion at least, do not necessarily have any claim on the remainder of that money outside of your morals. You do not owe them the remainder of the money persay but to avoid legal costs and a stressful hassle I would probably pay them as well (Unless we are talking about some incredibly high amount here). Remain friendly but make no empty promises or promises you can not keep. Do not say something along the lines of "But I do want to note that your floor is in shit condition and I think this is an unfair amount that I need to pay." either. These people seem to be hotheaded enough as it is, this will not make them see reason, it will anger them further. There is also no point in saying that unless you are actually serious about seeking mediation and/ or legal steps against this. Call them yourself. Do not wait for them to call you back. Call them on a moment you are feeling calm and collected. Try to not let your voice crack up because people have a nasty habit of exploiting any weakness they come across. **I would say something like this** > > "Hey x, This is Belle. I wanted to talk to you about the money I still > need to pay you. I am terribly sorry about the delay but I wanted to > let you know that I will pay the remaining amount on date x. That is > when I will get my paycheck. I can not pay it any earlier unless the > deposit of my previous place comes in but I have no idea when that > will be. If I do end up being able to pay it sooner I will give you > another call." > > > This is friendly and direct and you only say what you need to say. The only date you will give is a date on which you are certain you can pay them (payday) and you let them know that IF you can pay them earlier, that you will. If they overreact and get angry, start to shout, make threats, or other similar things. Simply tell them you will not talk to them like this and hang up. Log the call as well for later. **The threats** I am Belgian, our law system should not be too different I think. What they did is threatening you and threatening to break in and break stuff you legally own right now. These are multiple infractions of the law and you should go to the police with this. It does not matter if you want to press charges or not, or if the Police will act upon it or not. You need to go and report this so that the Police register the complaint and there is a trail of this. This means that if they do end up visiting you and breaking things, there will be a record of that. This will help you afterwards in the legal stuff. Also keep a log of every communication with these people. Take copies of the written agreement, and keep a log of any conversations and phone calls that happened. Back up all emails and texts/ direct messages as well. This again will help you afterwards if they do end up doing illegal stuff to your home. **Your home and safety** How easy can these people access your home? You make it sound as if they can freely enter your home. Do they still have a key? (This would be illegal) or are you concerned they can enter your garden and force a way inside? If you are scared that they can enter your home without a second set of keys, you need to take steps to better protect your home. More locks, chain locks,... If you worry these people can enter your home, others can too, take steps so you feel safe in your own home. **Personal experience and insight** I have some personal experience in the same 'kind' of people/ situations. The situation was not entirely the same and without any kind of written agreement. We bought an item second hand and paid X money for it. Upon receiving the item, it was clear that x should really have been y. So we told them that and that we either would pay Y or that they could come and get their item back. This angered them and they ended up coming to our home willing to fight us over this. Luckily for us, and the reason that we escalated and did not simply pay up is I was with my father and brother, and the other person was alone. If he had actually done anything violent it would have been relatively easy for us to pin him down and call the cops. I tell this because I Want to point out that people who act like this are often very volatile and unpredictable and prone to lashing out as long as they think they can 'win' that way. It is a bit of a long stretch for me to 'profile' the people in question like this but I really want to point out that a situation like this can quickly escalate in person, often without you wanting it to escalate. All we said in my story was "We are willing to pay Y for the item but not X, so either you agree to Y or come and get your item back." We remained calm and friendly and they reacted as I said. I do not want to scare you but do keep in mind that people often are stressed themselves and can be volatile and explode. Often for things that are no reason for such a reaction but this situation can be the drop that overflows the bucket. **Written agreement** Lastly, what kind of written agreement do you have? Is it something you and them made up and then signed? Documents like this have little value often because they are not made up by professionals. And if you want to go down that avenue it might be worth it to seek the advice of a lawyer. This all would depend on the money owned as it might not be worth it. **So in short** * Be direct and concise in your communication to them. Tell them they will receive money on x date, but make sure you can really pay them on x date. If the day after x is a more sure bet than say that date. Be friendly and calm and speak only facts, not promises. Because if you say I will pay on x, and on x you can not pay, then that will lead to further escalation of the situation. * Go to the police and report the threats that they have made, give the full story and tell them what you plan to do now. Listen to them as well, if they give you other advice, follow up on their advice. Keep track of and log every conversation with these people. Also any texts, DM's or written agreements. Back those up as well. * Do a checkup of your security at home. You need to be able to feel safe in your own home. * In the future, if you make written agreements, make sure they hold everything in it or hire a professional for mediation in this sort of thing.
First of all, you need to calm down again when facing these people. 1. Risk Assessment ------------------ This technique is part of Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) and helps soldiers and other people with PTSD, who are hyper-aware and expect danger at ever corner, to dial their anxiety down to an appropriate level. > > CPT focuses on learning skills to evaluate whether you thoughts are supported by facts and if there are more helpful ways to think about your trauma. [Source](https://adaa.org/understanding-anxiety/posttraumatic-stress-disorder-ptsd/treatment) > > > A **risk** is composed of the **severity of an adverse effect** and the **probability** of this adverse effect happening. In your case, the adverse effect would be those people destroying your floor. The severity is medium (your property is endagered, but your health and life are not). Now what is the probability? * These people would need to find big tools (like a sledgehammer, pick or chainsaw) to even be able to destroy your floor. * They would need to pack these tools into a car and drive to your house. * They need to enter your property and your house against your will (read: through locked doors). * They then need to exert a lot of physical work to actually damage the floor with their tools. * The only thing they gain from their actions is the knowledge that you won't be able to use the items you paid only in part. * In turn, they risk being arrested for committing several crimes at once. You see, the probability of them actually following through is close to zero. You can lower the chance even further with the next steps. 2. Renegotiate -------------- You agreed to pay a price for items you hadn't seen at that time. The price made you assume a certain quality of those items. Seeing that they are damaged and don't meet your expectation, the situation changed and warrants a renegotiation of the price. **Make a list of what you were promised** The former owners promised you a list of things like: * floors * blinds * kitchen furniture * kitchen appliances You have to assume that these items are not new, but functional and not broken, otherwise they wouldn't be sold, right? Note the price for all these items on the bottom of your list. Since the price was quite high to begin with, you assumed the items were in top condition, not run down and broken. You can compare the price to what new appliances would cost to strengthen your argument. This is a very important argument in your re-negotiation and you should note it down with the original price. **Make a list of defects** Next to the first list, note down anything that's broken or in bad condition. Then determine how much repairing or replacing the defect items would cost. Don't assume the price a friend would pay, but how much it would cost to buy new items in a regular store or how much a craftsman would ask for a professional repair. Substract these costs from the overall price you agreed to pay before seeing the defects. Take notes of all your arguments to be prepared for the actual negotiation **Be proactive, contact them first** I'm well aware that this will be very difficult for you, but you need to be the one who initiates the renegotiation. The person calling / speaking first is usually the one who sets the tone for a discussion, so you cannot let them put you in a powerless position by the first accusation they utter when you pick up the phone. Keeping your anxiety in mind, it might be better to write them an email or even a letter. Take an example in warning letters by lawyers and use a very strict language that leaves no room for arguments. You can take your time formulating this email without your anxiety limiting your options. Keep it civilized, but don't waste your time with pleasentries. I found this article ["Who gets heard and why"](https://hbr.org/1995/09/the-power-of-talk-who-gets-heard-and-why) by Harvard Business Review very enlightening in that aspect. You must be (and always stay) aware that these people are constantly trying to put you in a position below them. By trying to find a compromize and make everyone happy, you contribute to your own lack of power and let them manipulate you into things you don't want. That said, **do not mention the recent passing of your grandma**. It's a very sad situation and will surely agitate your emotions. Avoid that at any cost. If you have to explain yourself, say no more than "I won't pay you right now" or "I don't have the money right now." I personally found that play-acting to be a strong man is very helpful in such a situation. Square your shoulders, raise your head and stare your immaginary enemy right into the eyes. Keep in mind that they cannot see you through the phone or computer screen. It doesn't matter how much you sweat or tremble, as long as vour voice is play-acting a strong man. Standing up during the discussion is helpful, too, because it adds to the role you're playing. Have your list of facts and arguments at hand if you call them or add a spreadsheet to your mail. It adds to the illusion of being strong and clever, knowing all the facts and finding the right arguments at the right time. **Tell them** that their price is not reasonable for the conditions of the items and **tell them** (don't ask them) what you are willing to pay instead and why. 3. Offer solutions ------------------ Telling them their price in unreasonable but not offering any alternatives puts the ball back into their field and gives them the initiative to coerce you into paying the full price anyways. Don't do that. Offer them a list of alternatives and don't accept any solution but one you offered. You have entered into a poorly written contract that settles the exchange of items against a certain amount of money. Both parties are required to fulfill it, so you cannot withheld money from them, but they cannot withheld fully functional wares fron you either. If the contract doesn't contain the words "as is" or specifies that the items are sold in whatever condition they're currently in, it's reasonable for you to expect fully functional items. Since that's not the case, the other people are not fulfilling their part of the contract. Make it clear that **you are willing to fulfill the contract, but not under the current conditions**. You should offer the following solutions: * You pay the rest of the money minus the cost for replacements and repairs. * You pay the full price only if they hire qualified and professional craftsmen to do the repairs and you only pay **after all repairs are done**. Don't accept offers from them to come around and do the repairs themselves. * You offer to remove the items from your house and hand them over outside of your property only **after they returned the initial payment**. At no point in time are they welcome to enter your property. That way you are the active negotiator and dictate your terms, instead of hoping for a reasonable offer from them. It also offers you a strategy to postprone payment. It's not unusual to pay only after all defects were repaired, so you reserve the right to postprone payment until both parties have come to terms about the contract. As said above, your grandma is not part of the discussion, avoid mentioning her at any cost. Lie if you must, but I'm sure it's not much of a lie if you tell them you're not willing to pay until the defects are repaired or your current move left you short on money.
1,720
Between the time of the historical Buddha and state support by emperor Ashoka, were Buddhist monks evangelical? In other words, did Buddhism spread through enthusiastic recruitment by the sangha, or did it spread more due to state support or something else? **Background** This personally occurred to me after living a life as a crypto-Buddhist. There were not many Buddhists around me and no one knew I was a Buddhist. This is despite nominally believing in the Bodhisattva vow, which to my ears, sounds rather evangelical. I'm trying this question out on Stack Exchange to see if it fares better than it did on a forum, where pretty much people only could agree that they really didn't like Christians knocking at the door and that just about any form of promoting the Dharma to someone not already inclined towards Buddhism (or possibly already a self identifying Buddhist) was a grave violation of respect for autonomy, i.e. *forcing* one's religion on someone else. And that sentiment sounds like the value system of contemporary ex-Christians in the US more than whatever the earliest Buddhists might have thought.
2014/06/30
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/1720", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/289/" ]
"Go forth, o bhikkhus, for the good of the many, for the happiness of the many, out of compassion for the world, for the benefit, for the good, for the happiness of gods and men. Let not two go by one way. Preach the doctrine that is beautiful in its beginning, beautiful in its middle, and beautiful in its ending. Declare the holy life in its purity, completely both in the spirit and the letter." ~ Mahavagga, Vinaya Pitaka." I'd imagine it spread much the same way as other religions. In many cultural centers of the ancient world you would have places where multiple beliefs congregated to talk to those who walked by about their faith. Imagine going to the mall today and in center court you had a Christian, Hindu, Buddhist, Jewish, Muslim, and taoist all speaking of their doctrines? You get a glimpse in the Kalama sutta of the time of the Buddha being one where teachers and traditions were numerous and they wandered about teaching their doctrines. "As they sat there, the Kalamas of Kesaputta said to the Blessed One, "Lord, there are some brahmans & contemplatives who come to Kesaputta. They expound & glorify their own doctrines, but as for the doctrines of others, they deprecate them, revile them, show contempt for them, & disparage them. And then other brahmans & contemplatives come to Kesaputta. They expound & glorify their own doctrines, but as for the doctrines of others, they deprecate them, revile them, show contempt for them, & disparage them. They leave us absolutely uncertain & in doubt: Which of these venerable brahmans & contemplatives are speaking the truth, and which ones are lying?" So it is obvious that Buddhism was spread much the same way as other traditions in ancient times. What makes Buddhism mostly different is that there are almost no examples of buddhism involving forced conversation. There is no doubt that king Asoka did for Buddhism what King Constantine did for Christianity hundreds of years later. Once it became a religion of the dominant Kingdom its spread was assured as it went from one of many doctrines to the official state doctrine.
There was no knocking on doors tradition.It was an era of wisdom and everyone was so exited to see who is right.So when a sage comes to a village people will go to see him as a habit.If they accept what has been said they continue to be followers or they look away. This excitement was not very far from what we see today.I am sure that you have seen how people wait in line to buy the new "Apple iPhone" or how they wait to see the next "James Bond" movie. You might say it was diferent but it was actually quite a happening time. For the first time they saw human defy gravity,walk in water,levitate,teleport. They were exited to see who is right / who will win this battle of beliefs. A good example can be found in "**Maha mangala sutta**".In it a being from another realm (a Deva) says that there is a certain struggle among humans that even found its way to their realm. The question was "What is mangala / what is good or fortunate" This was the best time for religions because it wasn't a time like this in which people are too busy for spiritual things.People were actually waiting to see what will happen next.There was a cultural and spiritual awakening in the society of India. And Lord Buddha had no trouble introducing himself after all he was a prince once with a huge and powerful kingdom.Lord Buddha gave up all of that to find the path.Even before the enlightenment Prince siddhartha (The prince who became lord Buddha) was quite like a celebrity among the people. But there was a special method to Lord Buddha. Once lord Buddha saw a future of a farmer.That man was about to loose everything to a flood.But lord Buddha did not said anything,instead Lord Buddha visited him in his paddy field daily and talk to him.It was only after the flood Lord Buddha taught him dhamma. Almost all of other religions came to debate with lord Buddha to ensure their survival against this new path.All of them were lost,and the major supporters of these beliefs became Lord Buddha's followers.This was a huge advantage.Not to mention all the sages who lost and became followers themselves like the "3 Jatila sage leaders Gaya kashyapa,Nadee kashyapa and their brother"
1,720
Between the time of the historical Buddha and state support by emperor Ashoka, were Buddhist monks evangelical? In other words, did Buddhism spread through enthusiastic recruitment by the sangha, or did it spread more due to state support or something else? **Background** This personally occurred to me after living a life as a crypto-Buddhist. There were not many Buddhists around me and no one knew I was a Buddhist. This is despite nominally believing in the Bodhisattva vow, which to my ears, sounds rather evangelical. I'm trying this question out on Stack Exchange to see if it fares better than it did on a forum, where pretty much people only could agree that they really didn't like Christians knocking at the door and that just about any form of promoting the Dharma to someone not already inclined towards Buddhism (or possibly already a self identifying Buddhist) was a grave violation of respect for autonomy, i.e. *forcing* one's religion on someone else. And that sentiment sounds like the value system of contemporary ex-Christians in the US more than whatever the earliest Buddhists might have thought.
2014/06/30
[ "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/1720", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com", "https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/289/" ]
Adding to Jayantha's very good answer: One needs to look at Indian society at the time of the Buddha. There were many masters profounding various siddhāntas(established and accepted view of a particular philosophical school). It is called an 'established conclusion' but that view is final and definitive for the one who has settled on it. It does not necessarily mean that the person will never abandon that view, but for now that person thinks it is final. The masters continued transmission of their siddhāntas through paramparās(lineage of followers). These masters had great respect among people and many went to different masters seeking guidance and became a follower of a siddhānta. Often, one paramparā was challenged by another paramparā with philosophical arguments. The victor persisted. Thus we could consider that at that time, every master was a missionary. This answers your question if all early Buddhists were missionaries. But there is a difference in the kind of missionary religion Buddhism is. As Dr. Arvind Sharma puts it: "Buddhism is indeed a missionary religion, it possesses a feature which distinguishes it from Christianity and Islam as missionary religions. When one converts to these two religions, one is supposed to break from one’s previous religious past and then substitute Christian or Islamic beliefs and practices for the old ones, which are now abandoned. Buddhism, however, does not insist on such a break and conversion to it need not entail the abandonment of one’s religious past. In other words, we have another dichotomy here, between those religions which require one to abandon one’s previous religious loyalties upon conversion, and those which do not."‡ **References:** * ‡ Sharma, Arvind. "Of Conversion and Reversion." OPEN Magazine. N.p., n.d. Web. 09 Nov. 2015. * Perdue, Daniel. "Reasoning within the Buddhist Context." The Course in Buddhist Reasoning and Debate: An Asian Approach to Analytical Thinking Drawn from Indian and Tibetan Sources. N.p.: n.p., n.d. N. pag. Print.
There was no knocking on doors tradition.It was an era of wisdom and everyone was so exited to see who is right.So when a sage comes to a village people will go to see him as a habit.If they accept what has been said they continue to be followers or they look away. This excitement was not very far from what we see today.I am sure that you have seen how people wait in line to buy the new "Apple iPhone" or how they wait to see the next "James Bond" movie. You might say it was diferent but it was actually quite a happening time. For the first time they saw human defy gravity,walk in water,levitate,teleport. They were exited to see who is right / who will win this battle of beliefs. A good example can be found in "**Maha mangala sutta**".In it a being from another realm (a Deva) says that there is a certain struggle among humans that even found its way to their realm. The question was "What is mangala / what is good or fortunate" This was the best time for religions because it wasn't a time like this in which people are too busy for spiritual things.People were actually waiting to see what will happen next.There was a cultural and spiritual awakening in the society of India. And Lord Buddha had no trouble introducing himself after all he was a prince once with a huge and powerful kingdom.Lord Buddha gave up all of that to find the path.Even before the enlightenment Prince siddhartha (The prince who became lord Buddha) was quite like a celebrity among the people. But there was a special method to Lord Buddha. Once lord Buddha saw a future of a farmer.That man was about to loose everything to a flood.But lord Buddha did not said anything,instead Lord Buddha visited him in his paddy field daily and talk to him.It was only after the flood Lord Buddha taught him dhamma. Almost all of other religions came to debate with lord Buddha to ensure their survival against this new path.All of them were lost,and the major supporters of these beliefs became Lord Buddha's followers.This was a huge advantage.Not to mention all the sages who lost and became followers themselves like the "3 Jatila sage leaders Gaya kashyapa,Nadee kashyapa and their brother"
4,080,977
I'm building a Silverlight wp7 app in C#. I have objects that I want to convert to and from JSON. I'm using JSON.NET. Several properties of these objects require a bit of logic to initialize. Is there some way to use a custom converter method? (One such property is a List of strings. The data is given as a single String, and in the constructor the class splits it into a list.) Also, I'd rather have the properties be read only, but they have to be read-write for conversation (right?). That's kind of a pain. Or am I stuck doing the conversion manually?
2010/11/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4080977", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/147601/" ]
Writing a JsonConverter allows you to manually serialize/deserialize a type. You could write one for a List that will split the string when reading and concatenate it when writing JSON.
If you are calling for the objects through a web service, you can change the encoding of the web service response to return JSON. <http://blog.davebouwman.com/posting-data-to-aspnet-json-services-with-doj>
70,350
Ranger casts Hunter's Mark on a werewolf and shoots it with a mundane bow. Does the werewolf take the hunter's mark damage and ignore the piercing damage from the bow, or does it take no damage at all? Hunter's Mark doesn't specify damage type like Hex, for example.
2015/10/27
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70350", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/24542/" ]
Unfortunately, by RAW, **the Werewolf is immune to the damage boost from Hunter's Mark**. Like you've mentioned, Hunter's Mark does not specify a damage type, and thus the boost is of the same damage type as the weapon attack. It also does not specifically grant magical properties to the weapon attack, and thus does not allow for piercing the Werewolf's immunities. I like to imagine the Hunter's Mark to be granting the caster the ability to place more precise strikes against the marked creature. If the creature is immune to your attack, however, it does not matter how precise you are. --- To compare to a similar effect, consider the *Magic Weapon* spell. It makes the distinction of declaring the weapon as a "magic weapon" (in addition to the bonus to attack and damage), thus allowing it to pierce the Werewolf's immunity. If it didn't make that distinction, I'd say that the boosts (+1 to atk & dmg of the weapon) would still not get through because it'd be granting the weapon mundane "extra damage". Not all damage that is "brought about" by spell effects are *magical* for purposes of resistances/immunities. Now, consider the *Thorn Whip* spell, which deals piercing damage without specifically mentioning that it is magical in nature. Because the damage is dealt *directly* by the spell (and not "extra" or "additional" damage that is consequent to a successful weapon attack), it then automatically becomes magical in nature, and would thus punch thru the Werewolf's immunity.
**Only if the weapon normally bypasses said immunity.** PHB. pg. 251 By RAW, the spell states (emphasis mine): > > You choose a creature you can see within range and > mystically mark it as your quarry. Until the spell ends, > you deal an **extra 1d6 damage to the target whenever > you hit it with a weapon attack**, and you have advantage > on any Wisdom (Perception) or Wisdom (Survival) > check you make to find it. > > > The bolded section implies, very heavily, that the extra damage is from your weapon since it is directly contingent on the weapon. This is further reinforced by the fact that unlike other damage spells, when cast at a higher level the damage remains unchanged and instead the duration is affected. Consider this to be the same effect as a sneak attack from a rogue, in that the damage type is dependent on what is hitting the target and is not calculated separately.
70,350
Ranger casts Hunter's Mark on a werewolf and shoots it with a mundane bow. Does the werewolf take the hunter's mark damage and ignore the piercing damage from the bow, or does it take no damage at all? Hunter's Mark doesn't specify damage type like Hex, for example.
2015/10/27
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70350", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/24542/" ]
Unfortunately, by RAW, **the Werewolf is immune to the damage boost from Hunter's Mark**. Like you've mentioned, Hunter's Mark does not specify a damage type, and thus the boost is of the same damage type as the weapon attack. It also does not specifically grant magical properties to the weapon attack, and thus does not allow for piercing the Werewolf's immunities. I like to imagine the Hunter's Mark to be granting the caster the ability to place more precise strikes against the marked creature. If the creature is immune to your attack, however, it does not matter how precise you are. --- To compare to a similar effect, consider the *Magic Weapon* spell. It makes the distinction of declaring the weapon as a "magic weapon" (in addition to the bonus to attack and damage), thus allowing it to pierce the Werewolf's immunity. If it didn't make that distinction, I'd say that the boosts (+1 to atk & dmg of the weapon) would still not get through because it'd be granting the weapon mundane "extra damage". Not all damage that is "brought about" by spell effects are *magical* for purposes of resistances/immunities. Now, consider the *Thorn Whip* spell, which deals piercing damage without specifically mentioning that it is magical in nature. Because the damage is dealt *directly* by the spell (and not "extra" or "additional" damage that is consequent to a successful weapon attack), it then automatically becomes magical in nature, and would thus punch thru the Werewolf's immunity.
The Hunter's Mark damage is from a spell (i.e. magical) therefore it bypasses immunity. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Hunter's Mark states: > > ... Until the spell ends, you deal an extra 1d6 damage to the target **whenever you hit it with a weapon attack**... > > > The damage type is unspecified so we can safely assume it is of the same damage type as the weapon that was used. If the weapon used was a non-magical weapon, the weapon's damage would be reduced to 0 because of Immunity but the spell would do full damage, as Hunter's Mark only depends on the attack *hitting* the creature, as opposed to *damaging* the creature. The thought process is so: 1. **Did you hit the creature?** *Yes.* 2. **Did the weapon's hit damage the creature?** *No.* 3. **Did Hunter's Mark trigger?** *Yes.* 4. **Isn't Hunter's Mark damage magical because it's a spell?** *Why, yes. Yes, it is* 5. **Then the Werewolf takes 1d6 damage.** If this is difficult to believe, remember that magical weapons (and silvered weapons) pierce through this immunity. So even if the damage type is the same, the difference-maker is the magical effect of the weapon. In this case, the weapon damage isn't magical but the [damage from the spell is 100% magical.](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/630915981016064000) (thanks to @Josh Clark for finding this tweet) --- Take, for example, another spell: > > Divine Favor > ------------ > > > Your prayer empowers you with divine radiance. Until the spell ends, your weapon attacks deal an extra 1d4 radiant damage on a hit. > > > **If you cast Divine Favor, and you hit something which has immune to radiant damage, the damage would be calculated as:** **5** (1d8 mundane slashing, longsword) + **3** (mundane slashing, str mod) + **0** (1d4 radiant, from spell) **If you hit a creature with immunity to BPS damage, it is:** **0** (1d8 mundane slashing, longsword) + **0** (mundane slashing, str mod) + **3** (1d4 radiant, from spell) Notice how the damage is calculated independently of each other for the purpose of overcoming immunity. **With that said, if you hit a creature with immunity to BPS but with Hunter's Mark on it:** **0** (1d8 mundane piercing, longbow) + **0** (mundane piercing, dex mod) + **4** (1d6 magical piercing, from spell)
70,350
Ranger casts Hunter's Mark on a werewolf and shoots it with a mundane bow. Does the werewolf take the hunter's mark damage and ignore the piercing damage from the bow, or does it take no damage at all? Hunter's Mark doesn't specify damage type like Hex, for example.
2015/10/27
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70350", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/24542/" ]
Jeremy Crawford has finally [weighed in](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/663025214926655489): > > The damage dealt by the hunter's mark spell is magical. [#DnD](https://mobile.twitter.com/search/?q=%23DnD&s=hash) [twitter.com/redwullf/statu…](https://t.co/AOnRWhv2Hu) > > [8:08am - 7 Nov 2015](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/663025214926655489) > > >
Unfortunately, by RAW, **the Werewolf is immune to the damage boost from Hunter's Mark**. Like you've mentioned, Hunter's Mark does not specify a damage type, and thus the boost is of the same damage type as the weapon attack. It also does not specifically grant magical properties to the weapon attack, and thus does not allow for piercing the Werewolf's immunities. I like to imagine the Hunter's Mark to be granting the caster the ability to place more precise strikes against the marked creature. If the creature is immune to your attack, however, it does not matter how precise you are. --- To compare to a similar effect, consider the *Magic Weapon* spell. It makes the distinction of declaring the weapon as a "magic weapon" (in addition to the bonus to attack and damage), thus allowing it to pierce the Werewolf's immunity. If it didn't make that distinction, I'd say that the boosts (+1 to atk & dmg of the weapon) would still not get through because it'd be granting the weapon mundane "extra damage". Not all damage that is "brought about" by spell effects are *magical* for purposes of resistances/immunities. Now, consider the *Thorn Whip* spell, which deals piercing damage without specifically mentioning that it is magical in nature. Because the damage is dealt *directly* by the spell (and not "extra" or "additional" damage that is consequent to a successful weapon attack), it then automatically becomes magical in nature, and would thus punch thru the Werewolf's immunity.
70,350
Ranger casts Hunter's Mark on a werewolf and shoots it with a mundane bow. Does the werewolf take the hunter's mark damage and ignore the piercing damage from the bow, or does it take no damage at all? Hunter's Mark doesn't specify damage type like Hex, for example.
2015/10/27
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70350", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/24542/" ]
The Hunter's Mark damage is from a spell (i.e. magical) therefore it bypasses immunity. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Hunter's Mark states: > > ... Until the spell ends, you deal an extra 1d6 damage to the target **whenever you hit it with a weapon attack**... > > > The damage type is unspecified so we can safely assume it is of the same damage type as the weapon that was used. If the weapon used was a non-magical weapon, the weapon's damage would be reduced to 0 because of Immunity but the spell would do full damage, as Hunter's Mark only depends on the attack *hitting* the creature, as opposed to *damaging* the creature. The thought process is so: 1. **Did you hit the creature?** *Yes.* 2. **Did the weapon's hit damage the creature?** *No.* 3. **Did Hunter's Mark trigger?** *Yes.* 4. **Isn't Hunter's Mark damage magical because it's a spell?** *Why, yes. Yes, it is* 5. **Then the Werewolf takes 1d6 damage.** If this is difficult to believe, remember that magical weapons (and silvered weapons) pierce through this immunity. So even if the damage type is the same, the difference-maker is the magical effect of the weapon. In this case, the weapon damage isn't magical but the [damage from the spell is 100% magical.](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/630915981016064000) (thanks to @Josh Clark for finding this tweet) --- Take, for example, another spell: > > Divine Favor > ------------ > > > Your prayer empowers you with divine radiance. Until the spell ends, your weapon attacks deal an extra 1d4 radiant damage on a hit. > > > **If you cast Divine Favor, and you hit something which has immune to radiant damage, the damage would be calculated as:** **5** (1d8 mundane slashing, longsword) + **3** (mundane slashing, str mod) + **0** (1d4 radiant, from spell) **If you hit a creature with immunity to BPS damage, it is:** **0** (1d8 mundane slashing, longsword) + **0** (mundane slashing, str mod) + **3** (1d4 radiant, from spell) Notice how the damage is calculated independently of each other for the purpose of overcoming immunity. **With that said, if you hit a creature with immunity to BPS but with Hunter's Mark on it:** **0** (1d8 mundane piercing, longbow) + **0** (mundane piercing, dex mod) + **4** (1d6 magical piercing, from spell)
**Only if the weapon normally bypasses said immunity.** PHB. pg. 251 By RAW, the spell states (emphasis mine): > > You choose a creature you can see within range and > mystically mark it as your quarry. Until the spell ends, > you deal an **extra 1d6 damage to the target whenever > you hit it with a weapon attack**, and you have advantage > on any Wisdom (Perception) or Wisdom (Survival) > check you make to find it. > > > The bolded section implies, very heavily, that the extra damage is from your weapon since it is directly contingent on the weapon. This is further reinforced by the fact that unlike other damage spells, when cast at a higher level the damage remains unchanged and instead the duration is affected. Consider this to be the same effect as a sneak attack from a rogue, in that the damage type is dependent on what is hitting the target and is not calculated separately.
70,350
Ranger casts Hunter's Mark on a werewolf and shoots it with a mundane bow. Does the werewolf take the hunter's mark damage and ignore the piercing damage from the bow, or does it take no damage at all? Hunter's Mark doesn't specify damage type like Hex, for example.
2015/10/27
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70350", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/24542/" ]
Jeremy Crawford has finally [weighed in](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/663025214926655489): > > The damage dealt by the hunter's mark spell is magical. [#DnD](https://mobile.twitter.com/search/?q=%23DnD&s=hash) [twitter.com/redwullf/statu…](https://t.co/AOnRWhv2Hu) > > [8:08am - 7 Nov 2015](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/663025214926655489) > > >
**Only if the weapon normally bypasses said immunity.** PHB. pg. 251 By RAW, the spell states (emphasis mine): > > You choose a creature you can see within range and > mystically mark it as your quarry. Until the spell ends, > you deal an **extra 1d6 damage to the target whenever > you hit it with a weapon attack**, and you have advantage > on any Wisdom (Perception) or Wisdom (Survival) > check you make to find it. > > > The bolded section implies, very heavily, that the extra damage is from your weapon since it is directly contingent on the weapon. This is further reinforced by the fact that unlike other damage spells, when cast at a higher level the damage remains unchanged and instead the duration is affected. Consider this to be the same effect as a sneak attack from a rogue, in that the damage type is dependent on what is hitting the target and is not calculated separately.
70,350
Ranger casts Hunter's Mark on a werewolf and shoots it with a mundane bow. Does the werewolf take the hunter's mark damage and ignore the piercing damage from the bow, or does it take no damage at all? Hunter's Mark doesn't specify damage type like Hex, for example.
2015/10/27
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70350", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/24542/" ]
Jeremy Crawford has finally [weighed in](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/663025214926655489): > > The damage dealt by the hunter's mark spell is magical. [#DnD](https://mobile.twitter.com/search/?q=%23DnD&s=hash) [twitter.com/redwullf/statu…](https://t.co/AOnRWhv2Hu) > > [8:08am - 7 Nov 2015](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/663025214926655489) > > >
The Hunter's Mark damage is from a spell (i.e. magical) therefore it bypasses immunity. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Hunter's Mark states: > > ... Until the spell ends, you deal an extra 1d6 damage to the target **whenever you hit it with a weapon attack**... > > > The damage type is unspecified so we can safely assume it is of the same damage type as the weapon that was used. If the weapon used was a non-magical weapon, the weapon's damage would be reduced to 0 because of Immunity but the spell would do full damage, as Hunter's Mark only depends on the attack *hitting* the creature, as opposed to *damaging* the creature. The thought process is so: 1. **Did you hit the creature?** *Yes.* 2. **Did the weapon's hit damage the creature?** *No.* 3. **Did Hunter's Mark trigger?** *Yes.* 4. **Isn't Hunter's Mark damage magical because it's a spell?** *Why, yes. Yes, it is* 5. **Then the Werewolf takes 1d6 damage.** If this is difficult to believe, remember that magical weapons (and silvered weapons) pierce through this immunity. So even if the damage type is the same, the difference-maker is the magical effect of the weapon. In this case, the weapon damage isn't magical but the [damage from the spell is 100% magical.](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/630915981016064000) (thanks to @Josh Clark for finding this tweet) --- Take, for example, another spell: > > Divine Favor > ------------ > > > Your prayer empowers you with divine radiance. Until the spell ends, your weapon attacks deal an extra 1d4 radiant damage on a hit. > > > **If you cast Divine Favor, and you hit something which has immune to radiant damage, the damage would be calculated as:** **5** (1d8 mundane slashing, longsword) + **3** (mundane slashing, str mod) + **0** (1d4 radiant, from spell) **If you hit a creature with immunity to BPS damage, it is:** **0** (1d8 mundane slashing, longsword) + **0** (mundane slashing, str mod) + **3** (1d4 radiant, from spell) Notice how the damage is calculated independently of each other for the purpose of overcoming immunity. **With that said, if you hit a creature with immunity to BPS but with Hunter's Mark on it:** **0** (1d8 mundane piercing, longbow) + **0** (mundane piercing, dex mod) + **4** (1d6 magical piercing, from spell)
5,473
I'm looking into creating a Damascus steel ring, but using a rose gold and steel mix. Because of the blending of two metals, I'm curious whether or not there would be durability concerns? I have found one example of this being done on Etsy: <https://www.etsy.com/listing/616316545/8mm-damascus-steel-ring-mens-wedding>
2018/09/25
[ "https://crafts.stackexchange.com/questions/5473", "https://crafts.stackexchange.com", "https://crafts.stackexchange.com/users/6140/" ]
Former goldsmith here. I used to work with gold, a lot, but not so much with steel, and I never did damascus or mokume gane. From your question I'm guessing it may be the opposite for you ? Before thinking about durability, I would question feasability. Due to their very different fusion temperatures, and different "behavior" when heated, **these two metals may be difficult to mix together**. To illustrate this, you usually work gold while it's cold. If you try to hit or bend it while it's red, it will offer almost no resistance. Meanwhile, steel offers quite a good resistance even when it's red hot. How do you forge those two metals together in these conditions ? But again I am no expert in forging, even less in damascus or mokume gane. I can only tell you the metals commonly used together are : * silver/gold/copper for mokume gane. * steel/other steel for damascus. About the durability, I think, if you manage somehow to make your ring, it would be quite a durable ring, because the steel would prevent rose gold (which is already one of the hardest of golds) to suffer too much from abrasion. **The only concern that I see may be the need to change the ring's size** (quite frequent after 10+ years). Other than that, **such a ring should last for a lifetime** and more, assuming you treat it with care (=> taking it off when doing something that could damage it). Quick note, just a basic reminder on how to keep your jewelry as long as possible : * Don't make any part of the ring thinier than 1.5mm. * Don't wear it in bed. Bedsheet are quite abrasive over time. * Don't wear it into the shower. Since I assume we're talking about stainless steel, this is not so much about durability than about the risk of loosing it into the siphon.
I suspect that the example you link to isn't a true gold/steel laminate but rather a steel/steel laminate which has been heavily etched and then gold plated into the low areas of the relief. I doubt that you could create a gold/steel laminate using the usual pattern welding technique. Forge welding and even forging temperatures are well in excess of the melting point of gold. There is also the issue that when you try to forge it the gold is going to be forced outwards before the steel starts to move. There are laminating methods for precious metals, often known by the Japanese term [mokume-gane](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mokume-gane)
477,124
I know asp stands for Active Server Pages but wondering if "Active Server" means anything actually?
2009/01/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/477124", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38212/" ]
ASP.NET pages aren't *static*; they have executable, server-side code behind them that may dynamically generate page content or interact with the serving system—they're *active* (web) server pages.
As an aside, ASP.NET isn't *really* an upgrade for ASP, it was just named that way to get it past corporate departments - you could sell it to your higher-ups as an "upgrade" to ASP even though it was pretty much a separate technology.
477,124
I know asp stands for Active Server Pages but wondering if "Active Server" means anything actually?
2009/01/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/477124", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38212/" ]
ASP.NET pages aren't *static*; they have executable, server-side code behind them that may dynamically generate page content or interact with the serving system—they're *active* (web) server pages.
[According to Microsoft](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972347.aspx), it refers to the ActiveX components. > > Microsoft® Active Server Pages (ASP) is the server-side execution environment in Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) 3.0 that enables you to run ActiveX™ scripts and ActiveX server components on the server. By combining scripts and components, developers can create dynamic content and powerful Web-based applications easily. > > >
477,124
I know asp stands for Active Server Pages but wondering if "Active Server" means anything actually?
2009/01/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/477124", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38212/" ]
ASP.NET pages aren't *static*; they have executable, server-side code behind them that may dynamically generate page content or interact with the serving system—they're *active* (web) server pages.
Microsoft have used "Active" in the past for a few products, eg; Active Directory. Many other technologies that mix presentation and logic have also used X S)erver P)ages - eg: J)ava S)erver P)ages.
477,124
I know asp stands for Active Server Pages but wondering if "Active Server" means anything actually?
2009/01/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/477124", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38212/" ]
[According to Microsoft](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972347.aspx), it refers to the ActiveX components. > > Microsoft® Active Server Pages (ASP) is the server-side execution environment in Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) 3.0 that enables you to run ActiveX™ scripts and ActiveX server components on the server. By combining scripts and components, developers can create dynamic content and powerful Web-based applications easily. > > >
As an aside, ASP.NET isn't *really* an upgrade for ASP, it was just named that way to get it past corporate departments - you could sell it to your higher-ups as an "upgrade" to ASP even though it was pretty much a separate technology.
477,124
I know asp stands for Active Server Pages but wondering if "Active Server" means anything actually?
2009/01/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/477124", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38212/" ]
As an aside, ASP.NET isn't *really* an upgrade for ASP, it was just named that way to get it past corporate departments - you could sell it to your higher-ups as an "upgrade" to ASP even though it was pretty much a separate technology.
Microsoft have used "Active" in the past for a few products, eg; Active Directory. Many other technologies that mix presentation and logic have also used X S)erver P)ages - eg: J)ava S)erver P)ages.
477,124
I know asp stands for Active Server Pages but wondering if "Active Server" means anything actually?
2009/01/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/477124", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/38212/" ]
[According to Microsoft](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972347.aspx), it refers to the ActiveX components. > > Microsoft® Active Server Pages (ASP) is the server-side execution environment in Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) 3.0 that enables you to run ActiveX™ scripts and ActiveX server components on the server. By combining scripts and components, developers can create dynamic content and powerful Web-based applications easily. > > >
Microsoft have used "Active" in the past for a few products, eg; Active Directory. Many other technologies that mix presentation and logic have also used X S)erver P)ages - eg: J)ava S)erver P)ages.
81,036
> > Ken runs faster than Taku. But Taku swims faster than Ken. Yuji runs as fast as Taku and **he** swims the fastest of the three. > > > Who does "he" refer to? I want to say Yuji but it could be Taku if you stressed the words differently. Any rules on this?
2016/02/10
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/81036", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/29922/" ]
In your sentence > > **Yuji** runs as fast as Taku and **he** swims the fastest of the three. > > > **he** would generally be understood to be **Yuji** because of **parrallel construction** of the **two main clauses** with **Yuji** being the subject of both. Changing your sentence to > > **Yuji** runs as fast as Taku, **who** swims the fastest of the three. > > > would change the emphasis of swimming to Taku
This sentence is made up of two independent clauses joined by the conjunction "and". > > Yuji runs as fast as Taku > > > Yuji is the subject. "As fast as Taku" is a prepositional phrase that modifies the verb "runs". > > He swims the fastest of the three. > > > "He" is the subject, "the fastest" is a superlative adverb that modifies the verb "swims", and "of the three" is a prepositional phrase that modifies "he". A simple way to rephrase this sentence is, "Yuji runs as fast as Taku, and of the three, he swims the fastest." There is no way to definitely state who "he" refers to, but in context, it refers to Yuji.
66,719
Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Jesus was talking about more than outward giving of alms. He was talking about giving from the heart. Being clean on the inside makes the outside clean. Giving of yourself from within as if you were giving alms on the outside makes your actions clean as well as the inside. The context: > > 37 While Jesus was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38 The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39 And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees! For you tithe mint and rue and every herb, and neglect justice and the love of God. These you ought to have done, without neglecting the others. 43 Woe to you Pharisees! For you love the best seat in the synagogues and greetings in the marketplaces. 44 Woe to you! For you are like unmarked graves, and people walk over them without knowing it.” > (Luke 11:37–44, ESV) > > > Note what Jesus also said: > > A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another: just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. 35 By this all people will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another.” > (John 13:34–35, ESV) > > > > > This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this, that someone lay down his life for his friends. > (John 15:12–13, ESV) > > > > > Jesus answered, “The most important is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. 30 And you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.’ 31 The second is this: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him. 33 And to love him with all the heart and with all the understanding and with all the strength, and to love one’s neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.” 34 And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, “You are not far from the kingdom of God.” And after that no one dared to ask him any more questions. > (Mark 12:29–34, ESV) > > > Paul expressed it this way: > > Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfilling of the law. > (Rom. 13:8–10, ESV) > > > **Appendix:** Commentaries > > 11:41. The Aramaic word for “cleanse” (Mt 23:26) is similar to that for “give in charity”; it is possible that Luke adopts one nuance of an Aramaic wordplay by Jesus, while Matthew adopts another. > -- > Keener, C. S. (1993). The IVP Bible background commentary: New Testament (Lk 11:41). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press. > > > What is interesting the the amount of Aramaic play on words the Greek are contained within Luke's Gospel, although he was a Gentile. > > **Give as alms what is inside.** A difficult text in the original Greek. One possibility: “Give to the poor what is inside your cups and dishes,” here understood no longer as robbery and wickedness (v. 39) but food, good things in general. Another: “Give truly, from your heart,” i.e., from what is inside. A third: Luke, working from an Aramaic source, misread “zakki” (“give alms”) for “dakki” (“clean,” as in the parallel passage, Mt 23:26). > -- > Stern, D. H. (1996). Jewish New Testament Commentary : a companion volume to the Jewish New Testament (electronic ed., Lk 11:41). Clarksville: Jewish New Testament Publications. > > > > > **Howbeit** (πλην [plēn]). See Luke 6:24. Instead of devoting so much attention to the outside. **Those things which are within** (τα ἐνοντα [ta enonta]). Articular neuter plural participle from ἐνειμι [eneimi], to be in, common verb. This precise phrase only here in the N. T. though in the papyri, and it is not clear what it means. Probably, give as alms the things within the dishes, that is have inward righteousness with a brotherly spirit and the outward becomes “clean” (καθαρα [kathara]). Properly understood, this is not irony and is not Ebionism, but good Christianity (Plummer). > -- > Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Lk 11:40). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press. > > > > > One indication that they were clean on the inside would be their willingness to give material things to the poor. This meant not that their act of giving would atone for their sins, but that it would show a proper relationship to the Law and to God. > -- > Martin, J. A. (1985). Luke. In J. F. Walvoord & R. B. Zuck (Eds.), The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures (Vol. 2, p. 237). Wheaton, IL: Victor Books. > > > > > 41. A very obscure verse, perhaps meaning that alms effect a true cleansing because they unite the affluent with the poor in one great human need for salvation. > -- > Brown, R. E., Fitzmyer, J. A., & Murphy, R. E. (1996). The Jerome Biblical commentary (Vol. 2, p. 145). Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall. > > >
Luke 11:41 What is clean by giving alms? What exactly is clean by giving alms? all my deeds, my heart or is it all meat? To understand Vs 41 it is necessary to read it in context, Jesus is rebuking the Pharisees and Experts in the Law. The Pharisees and others ritually wash their hands before the meal but do not cleanse their hearts from greed and wickedness. And so Jesus advises: 41 But give from your heart to those in need, and then everything will be clean for you. "Giving from the heart", Jesus is referring to the qualities of the heart, a good deed to be an act of true mercy, it must be a gift that comes from inside​, from a loving and willing heart. The parallel in Matthew 6:2 also reads "do not blow your trumpet", figuratively meaning that one should not publicize their acts of charity--then everything will be clean for you. Rebuking the Pharisees and Experts in the Law > > 37 As he spoke,[dj] a Pharisee[dk] invited Jesus[dl] to have a meal > with him, so he went in and took his place at the table.[dm] 38 > The[dn] Pharisee was astonished when he saw that Jesus[do] did not > first wash his hands[dp] before the meal. 39 But the Lord said to him, > “Now you Pharisees clean the outside of the cup and the plate, but > inside you are full of greed and wickedness.[dr] 40 You fools![ds] > Didn’t the one who made the outside make the inside as well?[dt] 41 > But give from your heart to those in need,[du] and[dv] then everything > will be clean for you.[dw] > > > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees You give a tenth of your mint, rue,[ea] > and every herb, yet you neglect justice and love for God! But you > should have done these things without neglecting the others. > > >
66,719
Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Jesus was talking about more than outward giving of alms. He was talking about giving from the heart. Being clean on the inside makes the outside clean. Giving of yourself from within as if you were giving alms on the outside makes your actions clean as well as the inside. The context: > > 37 While Jesus was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38 The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39 And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees! For you tithe mint and rue and every herb, and neglect justice and the love of God. These you ought to have done, without neglecting the others. 43 Woe to you Pharisees! For you love the best seat in the synagogues and greetings in the marketplaces. 44 Woe to you! For you are like unmarked graves, and people walk over them without knowing it.” > (Luke 11:37–44, ESV) > > > Note what Jesus also said: > > A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another: just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. 35 By this all people will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another.” > (John 13:34–35, ESV) > > > > > This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this, that someone lay down his life for his friends. > (John 15:12–13, ESV) > > > > > Jesus answered, “The most important is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. 30 And you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.’ 31 The second is this: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him. 33 And to love him with all the heart and with all the understanding and with all the strength, and to love one’s neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.” 34 And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, “You are not far from the kingdom of God.” And after that no one dared to ask him any more questions. > (Mark 12:29–34, ESV) > > > Paul expressed it this way: > > Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfilling of the law. > (Rom. 13:8–10, ESV) > > > **Appendix:** Commentaries > > 11:41. The Aramaic word for “cleanse” (Mt 23:26) is similar to that for “give in charity”; it is possible that Luke adopts one nuance of an Aramaic wordplay by Jesus, while Matthew adopts another. > -- > Keener, C. S. (1993). The IVP Bible background commentary: New Testament (Lk 11:41). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press. > > > What is interesting the the amount of Aramaic play on words the Greek are contained within Luke's Gospel, although he was a Gentile. > > **Give as alms what is inside.** A difficult text in the original Greek. One possibility: “Give to the poor what is inside your cups and dishes,” here understood no longer as robbery and wickedness (v. 39) but food, good things in general. Another: “Give truly, from your heart,” i.e., from what is inside. A third: Luke, working from an Aramaic source, misread “zakki” (“give alms”) for “dakki” (“clean,” as in the parallel passage, Mt 23:26). > -- > Stern, D. H. (1996). Jewish New Testament Commentary : a companion volume to the Jewish New Testament (electronic ed., Lk 11:41). Clarksville: Jewish New Testament Publications. > > > > > **Howbeit** (πλην [plēn]). See Luke 6:24. Instead of devoting so much attention to the outside. **Those things which are within** (τα ἐνοντα [ta enonta]). Articular neuter plural participle from ἐνειμι [eneimi], to be in, common verb. This precise phrase only here in the N. T. though in the papyri, and it is not clear what it means. Probably, give as alms the things within the dishes, that is have inward righteousness with a brotherly spirit and the outward becomes “clean” (καθαρα [kathara]). Properly understood, this is not irony and is not Ebionism, but good Christianity (Plummer). > -- > Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Lk 11:40). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press. > > > > > One indication that they were clean on the inside would be their willingness to give material things to the poor. This meant not that their act of giving would atone for their sins, but that it would show a proper relationship to the Law and to God. > -- > Martin, J. A. (1985). Luke. In J. F. Walvoord & R. B. Zuck (Eds.), The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures (Vol. 2, p. 237). Wheaton, IL: Victor Books. > > > > > 41. A very obscure verse, perhaps meaning that alms effect a true cleansing because they unite the affluent with the poor in one great human need for salvation. > -- > Brown, R. E., Fitzmyer, J. A., & Murphy, R. E. (1996). The Jerome Biblical commentary (Vol. 2, p. 145). Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall. > > >
Mark 7: > > 14 Again Jesus called the crowd to him and said, “Listen to me, everyone, and understand this. 15Nothing outside a person can defile them by **going into** them. Rather, it is what **comes out** of a person that defiles them.” > > > Jesus contrasted going-into from coming-out of a person. He focused on the deeper reality of what was inside a person that came out of a person. In particular, he targeted the Pharisees, Luke 11: > > 37 While Jesuse was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39And the Lord said to him, “Now you **Pharisees** cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. > > > The Pharisees' focus was outside and not inside. > > 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? > > > But the reality was that God controlled both sides and the inside was more important than the outside. > > 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > > > Jesus was saying: If these Pharisees would clean their hearts and let clean things come out, then they would not need to worry about washing their hands so much. What is clean by giving alms? If the Pharisees would clean their hearts and generously give good things to the poor from their hearts, then everything will be clean for them. Then they wouldn't need to worry about washing their hands so frequently because God would take care of them. Jesus went one step further before he ascended, Mark 16: > > 18b > when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; > > >
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Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Jesus was talking about more than outward giving of alms. He was talking about giving from the heart. Being clean on the inside makes the outside clean. Giving of yourself from within as if you were giving alms on the outside makes your actions clean as well as the inside. The context: > > 37 While Jesus was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38 The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39 And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees! For you tithe mint and rue and every herb, and neglect justice and the love of God. These you ought to have done, without neglecting the others. 43 Woe to you Pharisees! For you love the best seat in the synagogues and greetings in the marketplaces. 44 Woe to you! For you are like unmarked graves, and people walk over them without knowing it.” > (Luke 11:37–44, ESV) > > > Note what Jesus also said: > > A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another: just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. 35 By this all people will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another.” > (John 13:34–35, ESV) > > > > > This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this, that someone lay down his life for his friends. > (John 15:12–13, ESV) > > > > > Jesus answered, “The most important is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. 30 And you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.’ 31 The second is this: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him. 33 And to love him with all the heart and with all the understanding and with all the strength, and to love one’s neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.” 34 And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, “You are not far from the kingdom of God.” And after that no one dared to ask him any more questions. > (Mark 12:29–34, ESV) > > > Paul expressed it this way: > > Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfilling of the law. > (Rom. 13:8–10, ESV) > > > **Appendix:** Commentaries > > 11:41. The Aramaic word for “cleanse” (Mt 23:26) is similar to that for “give in charity”; it is possible that Luke adopts one nuance of an Aramaic wordplay by Jesus, while Matthew adopts another. > -- > Keener, C. S. (1993). The IVP Bible background commentary: New Testament (Lk 11:41). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press. > > > What is interesting the the amount of Aramaic play on words the Greek are contained within Luke's Gospel, although he was a Gentile. > > **Give as alms what is inside.** A difficult text in the original Greek. One possibility: “Give to the poor what is inside your cups and dishes,” here understood no longer as robbery and wickedness (v. 39) but food, good things in general. Another: “Give truly, from your heart,” i.e., from what is inside. A third: Luke, working from an Aramaic source, misread “zakki” (“give alms”) for “dakki” (“clean,” as in the parallel passage, Mt 23:26). > -- > Stern, D. H. (1996). Jewish New Testament Commentary : a companion volume to the Jewish New Testament (electronic ed., Lk 11:41). Clarksville: Jewish New Testament Publications. > > > > > **Howbeit** (πλην [plēn]). See Luke 6:24. Instead of devoting so much attention to the outside. **Those things which are within** (τα ἐνοντα [ta enonta]). Articular neuter plural participle from ἐνειμι [eneimi], to be in, common verb. This precise phrase only here in the N. T. though in the papyri, and it is not clear what it means. Probably, give as alms the things within the dishes, that is have inward righteousness with a brotherly spirit and the outward becomes “clean” (καθαρα [kathara]). Properly understood, this is not irony and is not Ebionism, but good Christianity (Plummer). > -- > Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Lk 11:40). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press. > > > > > One indication that they were clean on the inside would be their willingness to give material things to the poor. This meant not that their act of giving would atone for their sins, but that it would show a proper relationship to the Law and to God. > -- > Martin, J. A. (1985). Luke. In J. F. Walvoord & R. B. Zuck (Eds.), The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures (Vol. 2, p. 237). Wheaton, IL: Victor Books. > > > > > 41. A very obscure verse, perhaps meaning that alms effect a true cleansing because they unite the affluent with the poor in one great human need for salvation. > -- > Brown, R. E., Fitzmyer, J. A., & Murphy, R. E. (1996). The Jerome Biblical commentary (Vol. 2, p. 145). Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall. > > >
In the passage of the verse in question, the Pharisees question why Jesus did not wash before eating. Beyond just hygiene, this custom of washing held ceremonial and religious significance. Compare to the similar scenario involving Jesus’ disciples in Mark 7:1-5: > > Now when the Pharisees gathered to him, with some of the scribes who > had come from Jerusalem, 2 they saw that some of his disciples ate > with hands that were defiled, that is, unwashed. 3 (For the Pharisees > and all the Jews do not eat unless they wash their hands properly, > holding to the tradition of the elders, 4 and when they come from the > marketplace, they do not eat unless they wash. And there are many > other traditions that they observe, such as the washing of cups and > pots and copper vessels and dining couches.) 5 And the Pharisees and > the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to > the tradition of the elders, but eat with defiled hands?” > > > In both instances Jesus challenges the Pharisees’ notion of defilement while juxtaposing two sets of opposing concepts: inside vs. outside and clean vs. unclean. > > There is nothing outside a person that by going into him can defile > him, but the things that come out of a person are what defile him. – > Mark 7:14 > > > And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of > the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and > wickedness. – Luke 11:41 > > > Jesus points out the irony that though the Pharisees kept the outward appearance of cleanliness through the customs of washing and purification, they were inwardly full of impurity. If “greed and wickedness” make a person unclean, it follows that their antithetical counterparts, such things as charity and goodness, are what marks a person as clean. By this logic, giving “as alms those things that are within” then refers to the sharing of such intangible treasures as kindness, compassion, forgiveness and mercy. These things flow from and testify to the purity of what lies within. “And behold, everything is clean for you.” The implication is that if the inside is clean, then the outside, indeed everything else, will be clean as well. In other words, when the inside of a person is pure, then their external actions, whether they be acts of charity or religious rites and practices, will be pure as well. The cleaning of the cup and the dish is an external act of purification that is pointless because it neither reflects nor effects a genuine inner cleansing. > > From the Meyer’s NT Commentary > > > Luke 11:41. A prescription how they are to effect the true > purification. Πλήν is verumtamen (see on Luke 6:24): Still, in order > to set aside this foolish incongruity, give that which is therein (the > contents of your cups and platters) as alms, and behold everything is > pure unto you … this loving activity will then make your entire > ceremonial purifications superfluous for you. > > > To my mind Jesus’ words reinforce one of the most important themes of Scripture: that true religion does not lie in superficial acts of piety and purification, but in inner transformation and sanctification. > > For I desire steadfast love and not sacrifice, > the knowledge of God rather than burnt offerings. – Hosea 6:6 > > > We are the cup and the dish that God created to become, as Paul the apostle so aptly words it, “vessels of mercy” (Rom 9:23). This is the will of God for us, and it is in the daily effort to fulfill it that we come closer to meeting God’s standards of purity. > > And everyone who thus hopes in him purifies himself as he is pure. – 1 > John 3:3 > > >
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Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Jesus was talking about more than outward giving of alms. He was talking about giving from the heart. Being clean on the inside makes the outside clean. Giving of yourself from within as if you were giving alms on the outside makes your actions clean as well as the inside. The context: > > 37 While Jesus was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38 The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39 And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees! For you tithe mint and rue and every herb, and neglect justice and the love of God. These you ought to have done, without neglecting the others. 43 Woe to you Pharisees! For you love the best seat in the synagogues and greetings in the marketplaces. 44 Woe to you! For you are like unmarked graves, and people walk over them without knowing it.” > (Luke 11:37–44, ESV) > > > Note what Jesus also said: > > A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another: just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. 35 By this all people will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another.” > (John 13:34–35, ESV) > > > > > This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this, that someone lay down his life for his friends. > (John 15:12–13, ESV) > > > > > Jesus answered, “The most important is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. 30 And you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.’ 31 The second is this: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him. 33 And to love him with all the heart and with all the understanding and with all the strength, and to love one’s neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.” 34 And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, “You are not far from the kingdom of God.” And after that no one dared to ask him any more questions. > (Mark 12:29–34, ESV) > > > Paul expressed it this way: > > Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfilling of the law. > (Rom. 13:8–10, ESV) > > > **Appendix:** Commentaries > > 11:41. The Aramaic word for “cleanse” (Mt 23:26) is similar to that for “give in charity”; it is possible that Luke adopts one nuance of an Aramaic wordplay by Jesus, while Matthew adopts another. > -- > Keener, C. S. (1993). The IVP Bible background commentary: New Testament (Lk 11:41). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press. > > > What is interesting the the amount of Aramaic play on words the Greek are contained within Luke's Gospel, although he was a Gentile. > > **Give as alms what is inside.** A difficult text in the original Greek. One possibility: “Give to the poor what is inside your cups and dishes,” here understood no longer as robbery and wickedness (v. 39) but food, good things in general. Another: “Give truly, from your heart,” i.e., from what is inside. A third: Luke, working from an Aramaic source, misread “zakki” (“give alms”) for “dakki” (“clean,” as in the parallel passage, Mt 23:26). > -- > Stern, D. H. (1996). Jewish New Testament Commentary : a companion volume to the Jewish New Testament (electronic ed., Lk 11:41). Clarksville: Jewish New Testament Publications. > > > > > **Howbeit** (πλην [plēn]). See Luke 6:24. Instead of devoting so much attention to the outside. **Those things which are within** (τα ἐνοντα [ta enonta]). Articular neuter plural participle from ἐνειμι [eneimi], to be in, common verb. This precise phrase only here in the N. T. though in the papyri, and it is not clear what it means. Probably, give as alms the things within the dishes, that is have inward righteousness with a brotherly spirit and the outward becomes “clean” (καθαρα [kathara]). Properly understood, this is not irony and is not Ebionism, but good Christianity (Plummer). > -- > Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Lk 11:40). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press. > > > > > One indication that they were clean on the inside would be their willingness to give material things to the poor. This meant not that their act of giving would atone for their sins, but that it would show a proper relationship to the Law and to God. > -- > Martin, J. A. (1985). Luke. In J. F. Walvoord & R. B. Zuck (Eds.), The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures (Vol. 2, p. 237). Wheaton, IL: Victor Books. > > > > > 41. A very obscure verse, perhaps meaning that alms effect a true cleansing because they unite the affluent with the poor in one great human need for salvation. > -- > Brown, R. E., Fitzmyer, J. A., & Murphy, R. E. (1996). The Jerome Biblical commentary (Vol. 2, p. 145). Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall. > > >
The thing that is given is the inner things of yourself - your desires, your hopes, your doctrines, your inner man. If you are willing to give these up in service to God and to the community, then you will be cleansed. And how are you to give? As if you were giving an alm. Specifically, alms are to be given: * in service to God * generously * cheerfully * in a way that costs you (you are to give something dearly) not give something that is not important to you. In the same way, if you give of the inner things within yourself in service to God, generously, cheerfuly, and in a way that costs you - then you will be cleansed. Thus this is a restatement of the idea of abandoning yourself, or taking no thought for yourself, and offering yourself as a living sacrifice to God, where it is understood that God is not interested in your physical strength or your money, but in your heart, in your *inward self*. That is what must be given as an appropriate alm or sacrifice to God.
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Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Luke 11:41 What is clean by giving alms? What exactly is clean by giving alms? all my deeds, my heart or is it all meat? To understand Vs 41 it is necessary to read it in context, Jesus is rebuking the Pharisees and Experts in the Law. The Pharisees and others ritually wash their hands before the meal but do not cleanse their hearts from greed and wickedness. And so Jesus advises: 41 But give from your heart to those in need, and then everything will be clean for you. "Giving from the heart", Jesus is referring to the qualities of the heart, a good deed to be an act of true mercy, it must be a gift that comes from inside​, from a loving and willing heart. The parallel in Matthew 6:2 also reads "do not blow your trumpet", figuratively meaning that one should not publicize their acts of charity--then everything will be clean for you. Rebuking the Pharisees and Experts in the Law > > 37 As he spoke,[dj] a Pharisee[dk] invited Jesus[dl] to have a meal > with him, so he went in and took his place at the table.[dm] 38 > The[dn] Pharisee was astonished when he saw that Jesus[do] did not > first wash his hands[dp] before the meal. 39 But the Lord said to him, > “Now you Pharisees clean the outside of the cup and the plate, but > inside you are full of greed and wickedness.[dr] 40 You fools![ds] > Didn’t the one who made the outside make the inside as well?[dt] 41 > But give from your heart to those in need,[du] and[dv] then everything > will be clean for you.[dw] > > > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees You give a tenth of your mint, rue,[ea] > and every herb, yet you neglect justice and love for God! But you > should have done these things without neglecting the others. > > >
In the passage of the verse in question, the Pharisees question why Jesus did not wash before eating. Beyond just hygiene, this custom of washing held ceremonial and religious significance. Compare to the similar scenario involving Jesus’ disciples in Mark 7:1-5: > > Now when the Pharisees gathered to him, with some of the scribes who > had come from Jerusalem, 2 they saw that some of his disciples ate > with hands that were defiled, that is, unwashed. 3 (For the Pharisees > and all the Jews do not eat unless they wash their hands properly, > holding to the tradition of the elders, 4 and when they come from the > marketplace, they do not eat unless they wash. And there are many > other traditions that they observe, such as the washing of cups and > pots and copper vessels and dining couches.) 5 And the Pharisees and > the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to > the tradition of the elders, but eat with defiled hands?” > > > In both instances Jesus challenges the Pharisees’ notion of defilement while juxtaposing two sets of opposing concepts: inside vs. outside and clean vs. unclean. > > There is nothing outside a person that by going into him can defile > him, but the things that come out of a person are what defile him. – > Mark 7:14 > > > And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of > the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and > wickedness. – Luke 11:41 > > > Jesus points out the irony that though the Pharisees kept the outward appearance of cleanliness through the customs of washing and purification, they were inwardly full of impurity. If “greed and wickedness” make a person unclean, it follows that their antithetical counterparts, such things as charity and goodness, are what marks a person as clean. By this logic, giving “as alms those things that are within” then refers to the sharing of such intangible treasures as kindness, compassion, forgiveness and mercy. These things flow from and testify to the purity of what lies within. “And behold, everything is clean for you.” The implication is that if the inside is clean, then the outside, indeed everything else, will be clean as well. In other words, when the inside of a person is pure, then their external actions, whether they be acts of charity or religious rites and practices, will be pure as well. The cleaning of the cup and the dish is an external act of purification that is pointless because it neither reflects nor effects a genuine inner cleansing. > > From the Meyer’s NT Commentary > > > Luke 11:41. A prescription how they are to effect the true > purification. Πλήν is verumtamen (see on Luke 6:24): Still, in order > to set aside this foolish incongruity, give that which is therein (the > contents of your cups and platters) as alms, and behold everything is > pure unto you … this loving activity will then make your entire > ceremonial purifications superfluous for you. > > > To my mind Jesus’ words reinforce one of the most important themes of Scripture: that true religion does not lie in superficial acts of piety and purification, but in inner transformation and sanctification. > > For I desire steadfast love and not sacrifice, > the knowledge of God rather than burnt offerings. – Hosea 6:6 > > > We are the cup and the dish that God created to become, as Paul the apostle so aptly words it, “vessels of mercy” (Rom 9:23). This is the will of God for us, and it is in the daily effort to fulfill it that we come closer to meeting God’s standards of purity. > > And everyone who thus hopes in him purifies himself as he is pure. – 1 > John 3:3 > > >
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Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Luke 11:41 What is clean by giving alms? What exactly is clean by giving alms? all my deeds, my heart or is it all meat? To understand Vs 41 it is necessary to read it in context, Jesus is rebuking the Pharisees and Experts in the Law. The Pharisees and others ritually wash their hands before the meal but do not cleanse their hearts from greed and wickedness. And so Jesus advises: 41 But give from your heart to those in need, and then everything will be clean for you. "Giving from the heart", Jesus is referring to the qualities of the heart, a good deed to be an act of true mercy, it must be a gift that comes from inside​, from a loving and willing heart. The parallel in Matthew 6:2 also reads "do not blow your trumpet", figuratively meaning that one should not publicize their acts of charity--then everything will be clean for you. Rebuking the Pharisees and Experts in the Law > > 37 As he spoke,[dj] a Pharisee[dk] invited Jesus[dl] to have a meal > with him, so he went in and took his place at the table.[dm] 38 > The[dn] Pharisee was astonished when he saw that Jesus[do] did not > first wash his hands[dp] before the meal. 39 But the Lord said to him, > “Now you Pharisees clean the outside of the cup and the plate, but > inside you are full of greed and wickedness.[dr] 40 You fools![ds] > Didn’t the one who made the outside make the inside as well?[dt] 41 > But give from your heart to those in need,[du] and[dv] then everything > will be clean for you.[dw] > > > 42 “But woe to you Pharisees You give a tenth of your mint, rue,[ea] > and every herb, yet you neglect justice and love for God! But you > should have done these things without neglecting the others. > > >
The thing that is given is the inner things of yourself - your desires, your hopes, your doctrines, your inner man. If you are willing to give these up in service to God and to the community, then you will be cleansed. And how are you to give? As if you were giving an alm. Specifically, alms are to be given: * in service to God * generously * cheerfully * in a way that costs you (you are to give something dearly) not give something that is not important to you. In the same way, if you give of the inner things within yourself in service to God, generously, cheerfuly, and in a way that costs you - then you will be cleansed. Thus this is a restatement of the idea of abandoning yourself, or taking no thought for yourself, and offering yourself as a living sacrifice to God, where it is understood that God is not interested in your physical strength or your money, but in your heart, in your *inward self*. That is what must be given as an appropriate alm or sacrifice to God.
66,719
Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Mark 7: > > 14 Again Jesus called the crowd to him and said, “Listen to me, everyone, and understand this. 15Nothing outside a person can defile them by **going into** them. Rather, it is what **comes out** of a person that defiles them.” > > > Jesus contrasted going-into from coming-out of a person. He focused on the deeper reality of what was inside a person that came out of a person. In particular, he targeted the Pharisees, Luke 11: > > 37 While Jesuse was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39And the Lord said to him, “Now you **Pharisees** cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. > > > The Pharisees' focus was outside and not inside. > > 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? > > > But the reality was that God controlled both sides and the inside was more important than the outside. > > 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > > > Jesus was saying: If these Pharisees would clean their hearts and let clean things come out, then they would not need to worry about washing their hands so much. What is clean by giving alms? If the Pharisees would clean their hearts and generously give good things to the poor from their hearts, then everything will be clean for them. Then they wouldn't need to worry about washing their hands so frequently because God would take care of them. Jesus went one step further before he ascended, Mark 16: > > 18b > when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; > > >
In the passage of the verse in question, the Pharisees question why Jesus did not wash before eating. Beyond just hygiene, this custom of washing held ceremonial and religious significance. Compare to the similar scenario involving Jesus’ disciples in Mark 7:1-5: > > Now when the Pharisees gathered to him, with some of the scribes who > had come from Jerusalem, 2 they saw that some of his disciples ate > with hands that were defiled, that is, unwashed. 3 (For the Pharisees > and all the Jews do not eat unless they wash their hands properly, > holding to the tradition of the elders, 4 and when they come from the > marketplace, they do not eat unless they wash. And there are many > other traditions that they observe, such as the washing of cups and > pots and copper vessels and dining couches.) 5 And the Pharisees and > the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to > the tradition of the elders, but eat with defiled hands?” > > > In both instances Jesus challenges the Pharisees’ notion of defilement while juxtaposing two sets of opposing concepts: inside vs. outside and clean vs. unclean. > > There is nothing outside a person that by going into him can defile > him, but the things that come out of a person are what defile him. – > Mark 7:14 > > > And the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees cleanse the outside of > the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and > wickedness. – Luke 11:41 > > > Jesus points out the irony that though the Pharisees kept the outward appearance of cleanliness through the customs of washing and purification, they were inwardly full of impurity. If “greed and wickedness” make a person unclean, it follows that their antithetical counterparts, such things as charity and goodness, are what marks a person as clean. By this logic, giving “as alms those things that are within” then refers to the sharing of such intangible treasures as kindness, compassion, forgiveness and mercy. These things flow from and testify to the purity of what lies within. “And behold, everything is clean for you.” The implication is that if the inside is clean, then the outside, indeed everything else, will be clean as well. In other words, when the inside of a person is pure, then their external actions, whether they be acts of charity or religious rites and practices, will be pure as well. The cleaning of the cup and the dish is an external act of purification that is pointless because it neither reflects nor effects a genuine inner cleansing. > > From the Meyer’s NT Commentary > > > Luke 11:41. A prescription how they are to effect the true > purification. Πλήν is verumtamen (see on Luke 6:24): Still, in order > to set aside this foolish incongruity, give that which is therein (the > contents of your cups and platters) as alms, and behold everything is > pure unto you … this loving activity will then make your entire > ceremonial purifications superfluous for you. > > > To my mind Jesus’ words reinforce one of the most important themes of Scripture: that true religion does not lie in superficial acts of piety and purification, but in inner transformation and sanctification. > > For I desire steadfast love and not sacrifice, > the knowledge of God rather than burnt offerings. – Hosea 6:6 > > > We are the cup and the dish that God created to become, as Paul the apostle so aptly words it, “vessels of mercy” (Rom 9:23). This is the will of God for us, and it is in the daily effort to fulfill it that we come closer to meeting God’s standards of purity. > > And everyone who thus hopes in him purifies himself as he is pure. – 1 > John 3:3 > > >
66,719
Wisdom חָכְמָה allowed מֶ֜֗לֶךְ King שְׁלֹמֹ֣ה Shlomoh (Solomon) to reveal **Proverb 19:17** stating "He who is gracious to a poor man lends to YHVH, and He will repay him his reward." ( מַלְוֵ֣ה יְ֖הוָה ח֣וֹנֵֽן דָּ֑ל וּ֜גְמֻל֗וֹ יְשַׁלֶּם־לֽוֹ ) Then Jesus the Nazarene restated Proverb 19:17 in **Matthew 25:40** "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me". * [Question] **Is Matthew 25:40 establishing Proverb 19:17 is a 'prophecy' about Jesus being King YHVH?**
2021/08/18
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66719", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/37964/" ]
Mark 7: > > 14 Again Jesus called the crowd to him and said, “Listen to me, everyone, and understand this. 15Nothing outside a person can defile them by **going into** them. Rather, it is what **comes out** of a person that defiles them.” > > > Jesus contrasted going-into from coming-out of a person. He focused on the deeper reality of what was inside a person that came out of a person. In particular, he targeted the Pharisees, Luke 11: > > 37 While Jesuse was speaking, a Pharisee asked him to dine with him, so he went in and reclined at table. 38The Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash before dinner. 39And the Lord said to him, “Now you **Pharisees** cleanse the outside of the cup and of the dish, but inside you are full of greed and wickedness. > > > The Pharisees' focus was outside and not inside. > > 40 You fools! Did not he who made the outside make the inside also? > > > But the reality was that God controlled both sides and the inside was more important than the outside. > > 41 But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything is clean for you. > > > Jesus was saying: If these Pharisees would clean their hearts and let clean things come out, then they would not need to worry about washing their hands so much. What is clean by giving alms? If the Pharisees would clean their hearts and generously give good things to the poor from their hearts, then everything will be clean for them. Then they wouldn't need to worry about washing their hands so frequently because God would take care of them. Jesus went one step further before he ascended, Mark 16: > > 18b > when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; > > >
The thing that is given is the inner things of yourself - your desires, your hopes, your doctrines, your inner man. If you are willing to give these up in service to God and to the community, then you will be cleansed. And how are you to give? As if you were giving an alm. Specifically, alms are to be given: * in service to God * generously * cheerfully * in a way that costs you (you are to give something dearly) not give something that is not important to you. In the same way, if you give of the inner things within yourself in service to God, generously, cheerfuly, and in a way that costs you - then you will be cleansed. Thus this is a restatement of the idea of abandoning yourself, or taking no thought for yourself, and offering yourself as a living sacrifice to God, where it is understood that God is not interested in your physical strength or your money, but in your heart, in your *inward self*. That is what must be given as an appropriate alm or sacrifice to God.
50,629
![same photo in diffused light](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2czN2.jpg)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DTaGn.jpg)My new camera Canon 6D show this lensflare (raw or jpeg) in all the photos with this lens (Canon 50mm 1.8) or with the Samyang 16mm 2.8 (which I returned for judging what was defective). The lensflare is visible on the right side and less visible over to the center. Samyang 16mm had various circles, a true rainbow of color totally ruining the picture. In this landscape position my canon 600D took thousands of photos at night, no experiencing the problem. I wonder if you could help me, considering that the camera is in warranty and represented a major investment for me. So: - It is a problem of canon 6D? (sensor) - It's a problem of the lens (my aps-c sigma lens 10/20mm it works in 6D, shows no lensflare in 6D)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3agO3.jpg) - It will be a problem of focal length? (canon 1.8/samyang 2.8 / sigma 4.0) - It will be some kind of interference with the sensor from Canon 6D? (I read that the top of the camera is made of plastic to protect the gps and wifi). I appreciate any help thanks.
2014/05/29
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/50629", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/28283/" ]
Are you shooting through glass, like a window? That could be the cause of both the streak in the top right in the first two images, and the flare in the third. I may not be looking hard enough, but I can't make out the flare you're referring to in the top two images, but I do see a dirty streak in the top right - if you are shooting through a window this could be on the window, perhaps. The third image does show obvious flare. One important thing about flare is that any time you put glass in front of the camera lens, particularly glass that doesn't have multiple anti-reflective coatings on both sides, you introduce *significant* flare. Light reflects off the front of the camera or its lens, hits the glass, and reflects back towards the lens. The reason this doesn't happen with all the glass in the lens itself is that every glass to air surface of this glass is multi-coated: it has multi-layered anti-reflective coatings that cut reflections from, say, 3% down to, say, 0.2%. The cumulative effect of cutting reflections by this much all but elinimates the visible effect of flare in all but the most extreme lighting conditions. However, add just a single pane of glass in front, and you go right back to up to a significant amount of flare. That said, even if you *don't* have glass in front of the camera, it's still a situation that is relatively likely to result in flare, where you are pointing the camera at a very strong light that is much stronger than the rest of the scene, and due to the exposure you're using, the sheer brightness of light relative to the exposure chosen is magnifying what would normally be undetectable levels of flare to become visible.
If you have a problem with several lenses, and the camera is still under warranty, I'd get the sample pictures on an SD card (also adding pics of a neutral grey/whitish wall at varying apertures for reference) to take with you to the shop, and get it serviced there.
50,629
![same photo in diffused light](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2czN2.jpg)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DTaGn.jpg)My new camera Canon 6D show this lensflare (raw or jpeg) in all the photos with this lens (Canon 50mm 1.8) or with the Samyang 16mm 2.8 (which I returned for judging what was defective). The lensflare is visible on the right side and less visible over to the center. Samyang 16mm had various circles, a true rainbow of color totally ruining the picture. In this landscape position my canon 600D took thousands of photos at night, no experiencing the problem. I wonder if you could help me, considering that the camera is in warranty and represented a major investment for me. So: - It is a problem of canon 6D? (sensor) - It's a problem of the lens (my aps-c sigma lens 10/20mm it works in 6D, shows no lensflare in 6D)![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3agO3.jpg) - It will be a problem of focal length? (canon 1.8/samyang 2.8 / sigma 4.0) - It will be some kind of interference with the sensor from Canon 6D? (I read that the top of the camera is made of plastic to protect the gps and wifi). I appreciate any help thanks.
2014/05/29
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/50629", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/28283/" ]
Are you shooting through glass, like a window? That could be the cause of both the streak in the top right in the first two images, and the flare in the third. I may not be looking hard enough, but I can't make out the flare you're referring to in the top two images, but I do see a dirty streak in the top right - if you are shooting through a window this could be on the window, perhaps. The third image does show obvious flare. One important thing about flare is that any time you put glass in front of the camera lens, particularly glass that doesn't have multiple anti-reflective coatings on both sides, you introduce *significant* flare. Light reflects off the front of the camera or its lens, hits the glass, and reflects back towards the lens. The reason this doesn't happen with all the glass in the lens itself is that every glass to air surface of this glass is multi-coated: it has multi-layered anti-reflective coatings that cut reflections from, say, 3% down to, say, 0.2%. The cumulative effect of cutting reflections by this much all but elinimates the visible effect of flare in all but the most extreme lighting conditions. However, add just a single pane of glass in front, and you go right back to up to a significant amount of flare. That said, even if you *don't* have glass in front of the camera, it's still a situation that is relatively likely to result in flare, where you are pointing the camera at a very strong light that is much stronger than the rest of the scene, and due to the exposure you're using, the sheer brightness of light relative to the exposure chosen is magnifying what would normally be undetectable levels of flare to become visible.
I recognized it right away.....take off that cheap lens filter the cameras store sold you(they're useless rip-offs) and replace it with a lens hood(will reduce lens flare AND protect lens). Hoods for pros, filters for amateurs. Bad lens filters tend to be flare prone. Since you went from full frame, my guess is the cheap lens filter effect is much more visible since your using the entire lens versus a small cropped section. Get a lens hood, remove the filter, and see if problem still exist. It's maybe possible you got over zealous cleaning both and destroyed the lens coatings...unlikely unless you scrub the lens very HARD and use some weird, dissolving cleaning solution. Got any scratches on the lens? Usually harmless but can induce flaring. Could also be a light leak problem on the body....rare but it happens.
8,028,509
I am developing iPhone application which involves the frameworks available from iOS 3.2 (Core Text, etc..) for rapid development, but the client requires deployment target to be iOS 3.0 The dilemma is either drop the comparability requirement together with development cost but narrow the potential user range or to take an significant extra effort to develop application compatible with older iOS. The dilemma comes from the opinion that the users who do not update their iPhones are the ones who do not use AppStore, do not buy apps, etc... so keeping developing for them does not have marketing sense. Is this true? Do you know any reliable resource/research regarding the subject?
2011/11/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8028509", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/229229/" ]
If you are selling such a massive huge number of apps that even a tiny percentage increase in sales can pay the salary of full time programmers and QA testers, and your app is usable without the newer APIs, then maybe it's worth supporting ancient OS versions. If not, it's most likely **not** worth it, as 1) the smaller feature set allowed by not using the newest APIs, and 2) the longer development and testing time as well, might cost you more new sales than you would get from customers with ancient devices; and 3) people who don't upgrade their OS or their devices don't buy nearly as many apps as people running more up-to-date OS versions.
As i see it - Apple is one of the companies with the highest upgrading percentages, most users upgrade to a steady release no longer than 3-4 months after its out (the more savvy ones will upgrade almost immediately usually), Honestly i think the number of users who are actively downloading apps that DON'T have iOS > 3 is low enough to "ignore" it when needed. If the decision was left to me i would go for > 3.2 as you need Core Text as you said and the downside isn't that high . Thats my personal opinion about it :) Cheers.