qid
int64
1
74.7M
question
stringlengths
12
33.8k
date
stringlengths
10
10
metadata
list
response_j
stringlengths
0
115k
response_k
stringlengths
2
98.3k
117,550
Is there any reason why most non-governmental organizations (NGOs) tend to publish non-peer reviewed literature? I have seen some NGO scientists as co-authors, even in some important papers, but most of their production is reports which are not peer-reviewed. While it is true that most NGOs do not do basic research, some of their reports could easily be converted to reviews, and some of their projects to applied research. Do they want to avoid peer review for political reasons in order to be able to convey the message they want? In my view their message would be much stronger if it came from a peer-reviewed article. Is it also a matter of time as peer-reviewed articles take a long time to get published?
2018/09/27
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/117550", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/4050/" ]
**Because they are not incentivized to**. Publishing in peer reviewed journals costs time, money, and is frustrating. These costs are more relevant in social sciences with a lower turnaround time than natural sciences, but are nonetheless a factor. The main reason academics publish in these is because they are incentivized to do so by tenure and status. These incentives come from the need of measuring academics' performance (and that of their institutions). Among other things, academic institutions compete for the best researchers, phd students and funding -- and signal quality with their publications. NGOs mostly do not have research as an intrinsic motive. The aforementioned competition is much less relevant for them. Therefore, many of them do not incentivize their researchers to publish in peer-reviewed journals. Given the lack of incentives, and the presence of high cost of doing so, few researchers in NGOs publish in peer-reviwed journals.
Expanding on the answer by @Maarten Buis: I think it is fundamentally about why people in different settings do research. NGO's usually do not do research for the sake of research. They generally have a social mission to accomplish, thus their research is conducted to that end. It is not to increase knowledge, as it is in academia. To accomplish their mission, they need media, financial and public support. If you need as much as possible of those things, would a fancy infographic work better than a peer-reviewed paper? Thus, they need to make sure their research is as accessible as possible for their base, and a broad audience helps too. Supporters for NGOs come from every walk of life. Whatever the people around here happen to think, most people are not turned on at the thought of peer-reviewed research, if they even know what it is. The audience of any one peer-reviewed paper is often very small. Peer-reviewed papers are usually locked behind paywalls, use complex terminology and are nearly always so specialised they cannot be accessed, let alone appeal to a broad audience. NGO's probably aren't going to add much to their audience by publishing an extra peer-reviewed paper. Academics, on the other hand, get pay rises and positions based on peer-reviewed publications, even if the publications happen to be whatever bit of data They could maybe, possibly turn into a peer-reviewed paper. So, cynic that I am, I have to point out that NGOs are not the only people motivated by money. Edit: As for the added credibility - credibility doesn't have one currency, that being peer-reviewed papers. Something is not made credible by peer-review (especially with the many meta-analyses showing all kinds of problems in the literature, from bad statistics to publishing results selectively leading to positivity bias). NGO's are subject to a whole suite of regulations and audits, not to mention public opinion, that most academics never hear about. So, maybe they don't have peer-reviewed credibility, but they do have other standards.
117,550
Is there any reason why most non-governmental organizations (NGOs) tend to publish non-peer reviewed literature? I have seen some NGO scientists as co-authors, even in some important papers, but most of their production is reports which are not peer-reviewed. While it is true that most NGOs do not do basic research, some of their reports could easily be converted to reviews, and some of their projects to applied research. Do they want to avoid peer review for political reasons in order to be able to convey the message they want? In my view their message would be much stronger if it came from a peer-reviewed article. Is it also a matter of time as peer-reviewed articles take a long time to get published?
2018/09/27
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/117550", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/4050/" ]
**Because they are not incentivized to**. Publishing in peer reviewed journals costs time, money, and is frustrating. These costs are more relevant in social sciences with a lower turnaround time than natural sciences, but are nonetheless a factor. The main reason academics publish in these is because they are incentivized to do so by tenure and status. These incentives come from the need of measuring academics' performance (and that of their institutions). Among other things, academic institutions compete for the best researchers, phd students and funding -- and signal quality with their publications. NGOs mostly do not have research as an intrinsic motive. The aforementioned competition is much less relevant for them. Therefore, many of them do not incentivize their researchers to publish in peer-reviewed journals. Given the lack of incentives, and the presence of high cost of doing so, few researchers in NGOs publish in peer-reviwed journals.
Both NGO's and governments routinely commission and use non-peer reviewed work. Often because of the shorter turn around but mostly because it is intended for a different audience. I worked in a large government research organisation where this was a hot topic amongst the scientists. The organisation was routinely commisioned to provide reports for government and industry & many begrudged the time it took from the development of journal papers - on which their reputation and in some cases salary was based. However this was bread & butter work for the organisation. This is not to say the reports were not based on good science. Just that they were not suitable for journal submission. When writing for government / industry journal style does not work. It needs to be more accessable to the non-specialist lay person. While this may leave it open to criticism based on lack of rigor this need not be so. That is up to the author. While it is unfortunate that many of the captains of industry & government are functionally illiterate when it comes to science this is the world we live in. I have seen good policy set based on great work in this 'grey' literature. Why? Because the freedom from publication strictures enabled the author to communicate key science clearly and succinctly. Would the work be accepted for publication - no. Did it have real impact and advance science, absolutely. IMHO the key question does not revolve around the domain in which publication occurs but is it grounded in good science.
117,550
Is there any reason why most non-governmental organizations (NGOs) tend to publish non-peer reviewed literature? I have seen some NGO scientists as co-authors, even in some important papers, but most of their production is reports which are not peer-reviewed. While it is true that most NGOs do not do basic research, some of their reports could easily be converted to reviews, and some of their projects to applied research. Do they want to avoid peer review for political reasons in order to be able to convey the message they want? In my view their message would be much stronger if it came from a peer-reviewed article. Is it also a matter of time as peer-reviewed articles take a long time to get published?
2018/09/27
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/117550", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/4050/" ]
Expanding on the answer by @Maarten Buis: I think it is fundamentally about why people in different settings do research. NGO's usually do not do research for the sake of research. They generally have a social mission to accomplish, thus their research is conducted to that end. It is not to increase knowledge, as it is in academia. To accomplish their mission, they need media, financial and public support. If you need as much as possible of those things, would a fancy infographic work better than a peer-reviewed paper? Thus, they need to make sure their research is as accessible as possible for their base, and a broad audience helps too. Supporters for NGOs come from every walk of life. Whatever the people around here happen to think, most people are not turned on at the thought of peer-reviewed research, if they even know what it is. The audience of any one peer-reviewed paper is often very small. Peer-reviewed papers are usually locked behind paywalls, use complex terminology and are nearly always so specialised they cannot be accessed, let alone appeal to a broad audience. NGO's probably aren't going to add much to their audience by publishing an extra peer-reviewed paper. Academics, on the other hand, get pay rises and positions based on peer-reviewed publications, even if the publications happen to be whatever bit of data They could maybe, possibly turn into a peer-reviewed paper. So, cynic that I am, I have to point out that NGOs are not the only people motivated by money. Edit: As for the added credibility - credibility doesn't have one currency, that being peer-reviewed papers. Something is not made credible by peer-review (especially with the many meta-analyses showing all kinds of problems in the literature, from bad statistics to publishing results selectively leading to positivity bias). NGO's are subject to a whole suite of regulations and audits, not to mention public opinion, that most academics never hear about. So, maybe they don't have peer-reviewed credibility, but they do have other standards.
Both NGO's and governments routinely commission and use non-peer reviewed work. Often because of the shorter turn around but mostly because it is intended for a different audience. I worked in a large government research organisation where this was a hot topic amongst the scientists. The organisation was routinely commisioned to provide reports for government and industry & many begrudged the time it took from the development of journal papers - on which their reputation and in some cases salary was based. However this was bread & butter work for the organisation. This is not to say the reports were not based on good science. Just that they were not suitable for journal submission. When writing for government / industry journal style does not work. It needs to be more accessable to the non-specialist lay person. While this may leave it open to criticism based on lack of rigor this need not be so. That is up to the author. While it is unfortunate that many of the captains of industry & government are functionally illiterate when it comes to science this is the world we live in. I have seen good policy set based on great work in this 'grey' literature. Why? Because the freedom from publication strictures enabled the author to communicate key science clearly and succinctly. Would the work be accepted for publication - no. Did it have real impact and advance science, absolutely. IMHO the key question does not revolve around the domain in which publication occurs but is it grounded in good science.
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
I just had this problem and resolved it. My iPhone thought it was in New York when it was in Abu Dhabi. Go to Settings > Location Services > System Services System Services is the last item on the Location Services page. Scroll all the way down and tap it. Inside System Services, there will be options for: Cell Network Search, Compass Calibration, Diagnostics & Usage, Location-Based iAds, Setting Time Zone, and Traffic. On my iPhone, Setting Time Zone was switched off. I turned it on and voila! I now have the correct time zone. I may have turned off location services when I was trying to troubleshoot battery life under iOS 5 and forgotten to turn it back on. I hope this is helpful.
I found that calendars had time zone support on, which means all times are shown at that time zone, instead of the time zone of the current location. To turn it off, go to Settings>Mail,Contacts,Calendars>Time Zone Support>Off
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
I've had this problem too. The settings seemed to change when i entered my WiFi network at home. I resolved this simply by entering Settings -> General -> Date and time -> (uncheck)Set Automatically. I then entered my timezone, and boom, problem solved! Hope it helped :)
I found that calendars had time zone support on, which means all times are shown at that time zone, instead of the time zone of the current location. To turn it off, go to Settings>Mail,Contacts,Calendars>Time Zone Support>Off
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
Try to reset Settings > General > Reset > Reset Location Warnings.
I've had this problem too. The settings seemed to change when i entered my WiFi network at home. I resolved this simply by entering Settings -> General -> Date and time -> (uncheck)Set Automatically. I then entered my timezone, and boom, problem solved! Hope it helped :)
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
Try to reset Settings > General > Reset > Reset Location Warnings.
I had that issue too; it went back to normal after a sync with a PC.
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
You should see the Location you are in under the set automaticly button. As below. It is greyed out, as this is taken from your current location, so you must have location service enabled. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fhrxP.png)
I had that issue too; it went back to normal after a sync with a PC.
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
I just had this problem and resolved it. My iPhone thought it was in New York when it was in Abu Dhabi. Go to Settings > Location Services > System Services System Services is the last item on the Location Services page. Scroll all the way down and tap it. Inside System Services, there will be options for: Cell Network Search, Compass Calibration, Diagnostics & Usage, Location-Based iAds, Setting Time Zone, and Traffic. On my iPhone, Setting Time Zone was switched off. I turned it on and voila! I now have the correct time zone. I may have turned off location services when I was trying to troubleshoot battery life under iOS 5 and forgotten to turn it back on. I hope this is helpful.
I've had this problem too. The settings seemed to change when i entered my WiFi network at home. I resolved this simply by entering Settings -> General -> Date and time -> (uncheck)Set Automatically. I then entered my timezone, and boom, problem solved! Hope it helped :)
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
Try to reset Settings > General > Reset > Reset Location Warnings.
I found that calendars had time zone support on, which means all times are shown at that time zone, instead of the time zone of the current location. To turn it off, go to Settings>Mail,Contacts,Calendars>Time Zone Support>Off
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
You should see the Location you are in under the set automaticly button. As below. It is greyed out, as this is taken from your current location, so you must have location service enabled. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fhrxP.png)
I found that calendars had time zone support on, which means all times are shown at that time zone, instead of the time zone of the current location. To turn it off, go to Settings>Mail,Contacts,Calendars>Time Zone Support>Off
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
I had that issue too; it went back to normal after a sync with a PC.
I found that calendars had time zone support on, which means all times are shown at that time zone, instead of the time zone of the current location. To turn it off, go to Settings>Mail,Contacts,Calendars>Time Zone Support>Off
33,783
I have a 2009 MacBook Pro 15". What would I need to buy in order to be able to use my LED HDTV with it, and which wireless keyboard works the best with it?
2011/12/15
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/33783", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/5856/" ]
I just had this problem and resolved it. My iPhone thought it was in New York when it was in Abu Dhabi. Go to Settings > Location Services > System Services System Services is the last item on the Location Services page. Scroll all the way down and tap it. Inside System Services, there will be options for: Cell Network Search, Compass Calibration, Diagnostics & Usage, Location-Based iAds, Setting Time Zone, and Traffic. On my iPhone, Setting Time Zone was switched off. I turned it on and voila! I now have the correct time zone. I may have turned off location services when I was trying to troubleshoot battery life under iOS 5 and forgotten to turn it back on. I hope this is helpful.
Try to reset Settings > General > Reset > Reset Location Warnings.
42,260
I am a UX designer, and my task in a desktop application development is to discover what is the need of the users and how they would want to use it. It's a UX designing job plus customer discovery/understanding job. Now, the target segments of my customers are professionals (engineers/sales), and being in an Asian country ( south east asia to be exact), even the professionals are not good in expressing what they want and what they need. I have a hard time to get them talking and express their opinion. When I present my prototype in front of them, usually they would not have any opinion at all. In the end, I feel like I am wasting time preparing prototype since either their feedback is usually lame ( "can you make sure that the text box doesn't overlap with other text box"? Yeah, I know that *bug*, but it's just a prototype, can we move on to something bigger? Like the overall userflow and how would you use the application?), or worse still, there is no feedback. The users either don't know how to tell what they need, or they don't even know what they need. How to get them talking in a fruitful way as far as application development is concerned?
2013/07/16
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/42260", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/484/" ]
Taking this question as more about how to get feedback on prototypes\*, that is quite straight forward - **You need to set them tasks so that they are focused on using the prototype to achieve a goal**. This could be things such as *"From this screen where would you go to find out information about Red MacGuffin Shoes?"* or *"From the point of view of a typical user, how would you find the contact number of this company?"*. Things like that, although you want to cater the tasks specifically to the target audience and site purpose of that particular project. Ask them to vocalize their thought process as they go, and watch how they progress to see if what they say they are trying to do matches their actual actions. In addition to giving them some tasks to complete, ask them to rate the prototype against some [subjective heuristics](http://www.nngroup.com/articles/ten-usability-heuristics/) such as the famous Nielsen ones, although there are many, many usability heuristics out there to use. Obviously which ones you choose to measure would depend on how high-fidelity your prototypes are (you can't get them to evaluate the language used of you've still got Lorem Ipsum everwhere). \*You're sort of coming at things from two directions at once - firstly you say you're having difficulty identifying the requirements, and secondly you say that once you present the prototype then you don't get any useful feedback - well I don't really understand how you got to the prototype stage without having any user requirements identified - what is it you've used to build against?
It is known effect of the skilled users can't verbalize their thoughts. From [Testing Expert Users](http://www.nngroup.com/articles/testing-expert-users/) by J.Nielsen: > > * Skilled behavior is often automated behavior. When people are unaware of how they think about a certain behavior, they can't > verbalize the reasoning behind their actions. > * Expert users can turn into design critics and bend your ear with their opinions on the product, as opposed to staying in the user role > and engaging with the actual features. > > > At the same time they do their job, so you could gather their needs by: * Observing their job * Researching their office instructions and manuals * Exploring the artifacts using [primary-noun](https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/40558/what-is-a-primary-noun-table) technique Then in user test use scenarios containing their primary tasks and assess their usability metrics.
42,260
I am a UX designer, and my task in a desktop application development is to discover what is the need of the users and how they would want to use it. It's a UX designing job plus customer discovery/understanding job. Now, the target segments of my customers are professionals (engineers/sales), and being in an Asian country ( south east asia to be exact), even the professionals are not good in expressing what they want and what they need. I have a hard time to get them talking and express their opinion. When I present my prototype in front of them, usually they would not have any opinion at all. In the end, I feel like I am wasting time preparing prototype since either their feedback is usually lame ( "can you make sure that the text box doesn't overlap with other text box"? Yeah, I know that *bug*, but it's just a prototype, can we move on to something bigger? Like the overall userflow and how would you use the application?), or worse still, there is no feedback. The users either don't know how to tell what they need, or they don't even know what they need. How to get them talking in a fruitful way as far as application development is concerned?
2013/07/16
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/42260", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/484/" ]
Taking this question as more about how to get feedback on prototypes\*, that is quite straight forward - **You need to set them tasks so that they are focused on using the prototype to achieve a goal**. This could be things such as *"From this screen where would you go to find out information about Red MacGuffin Shoes?"* or *"From the point of view of a typical user, how would you find the contact number of this company?"*. Things like that, although you want to cater the tasks specifically to the target audience and site purpose of that particular project. Ask them to vocalize their thought process as they go, and watch how they progress to see if what they say they are trying to do matches their actual actions. In addition to giving them some tasks to complete, ask them to rate the prototype against some [subjective heuristics](http://www.nngroup.com/articles/ten-usability-heuristics/) such as the famous Nielsen ones, although there are many, many usability heuristics out there to use. Obviously which ones you choose to measure would depend on how high-fidelity your prototypes are (you can't get them to evaluate the language used of you've still got Lorem Ipsum everwhere). \*You're sort of coming at things from two directions at once - firstly you say you're having difficulty identifying the requirements, and secondly you say that once you present the prototype then you don't get any useful feedback - well I don't really understand how you got to the prototype stage without having any user requirements identified - what is it you've used to build against?
I think you are asking two separate questions here? 1) understanding what you should be designing 2) Validating those designs with users Lets start with looking at: 1) If you are designing purely for the end user then great! But there are often other stakeholders involved so make sure you get their input. Contextual research - Observe the users in their environment, try to understand the key tasks they need to perform. What are the current barriers to completion etc. Ideas workshop - Get a selection of end users and other stakeholders together and run through a bunch of activities. These could include reviewing competitors offerings, prioritising functionality, card sorting etc. Have a look at game storming: <http://www.gogamestorm.com/> 2) Validating designs can be done in various ways. User testing - from looking at specific design challenges and running them past users to fully fledged lab based user testing. The important thing to remember is to provide context. What is the problem you are trying to solve? Give the users a real life situation and ask them to use the prototype to solve it. Heuristic evaluation - You could also perform a heuristic evaluation on the prototype. This should help identify any usability issues with the designs. Heuristics are a set of principles that you review your designs against: <http://www.nngroup.com/topic/heuristic-evaluation/>
42,260
I am a UX designer, and my task in a desktop application development is to discover what is the need of the users and how they would want to use it. It's a UX designing job plus customer discovery/understanding job. Now, the target segments of my customers are professionals (engineers/sales), and being in an Asian country ( south east asia to be exact), even the professionals are not good in expressing what they want and what they need. I have a hard time to get them talking and express their opinion. When I present my prototype in front of them, usually they would not have any opinion at all. In the end, I feel like I am wasting time preparing prototype since either their feedback is usually lame ( "can you make sure that the text box doesn't overlap with other text box"? Yeah, I know that *bug*, but it's just a prototype, can we move on to something bigger? Like the overall userflow and how would you use the application?), or worse still, there is no feedback. The users either don't know how to tell what they need, or they don't even know what they need. How to get them talking in a fruitful way as far as application development is concerned?
2013/07/16
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/42260", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/484/" ]
Taking this question as more about how to get feedback on prototypes\*, that is quite straight forward - **You need to set them tasks so that they are focused on using the prototype to achieve a goal**. This could be things such as *"From this screen where would you go to find out information about Red MacGuffin Shoes?"* or *"From the point of view of a typical user, how would you find the contact number of this company?"*. Things like that, although you want to cater the tasks specifically to the target audience and site purpose of that particular project. Ask them to vocalize their thought process as they go, and watch how they progress to see if what they say they are trying to do matches their actual actions. In addition to giving them some tasks to complete, ask them to rate the prototype against some [subjective heuristics](http://www.nngroup.com/articles/ten-usability-heuristics/) such as the famous Nielsen ones, although there are many, many usability heuristics out there to use. Obviously which ones you choose to measure would depend on how high-fidelity your prototypes are (you can't get them to evaluate the language used of you've still got Lorem Ipsum everwhere). \*You're sort of coming at things from two directions at once - firstly you say you're having difficulty identifying the requirements, and secondly you say that once you present the prototype then you don't get any useful feedback - well I don't really understand how you got to the prototype stage without having any user requirements identified - what is it you've used to build against?
To help identify these tasks that you have been advised to set, may I suggest going back a step and conduct some interviews. Don't start from zero, go into those meetings knowing as much about the user as possible; I would recommend taking a step back and interviewing to gather up enough feedback that can help illustrate the peoples needs and goals. With this information you begin outlining a scenario comprising of a number of tasks needed to complete the goals you have identified. You might find this task grid a helpful starting point: <http://www.servicedesigntools.org/tools/137> Once you have identified a number of scenarios, arrange another session and prompt the users to complete each task, the structure should ensure a productive session. With this approach in place you should achieve a design loop of prototype, validate, revise.
42,260
I am a UX designer, and my task in a desktop application development is to discover what is the need of the users and how they would want to use it. It's a UX designing job plus customer discovery/understanding job. Now, the target segments of my customers are professionals (engineers/sales), and being in an Asian country ( south east asia to be exact), even the professionals are not good in expressing what they want and what they need. I have a hard time to get them talking and express their opinion. When I present my prototype in front of them, usually they would not have any opinion at all. In the end, I feel like I am wasting time preparing prototype since either their feedback is usually lame ( "can you make sure that the text box doesn't overlap with other text box"? Yeah, I know that *bug*, but it's just a prototype, can we move on to something bigger? Like the overall userflow and how would you use the application?), or worse still, there is no feedback. The users either don't know how to tell what they need, or they don't even know what they need. How to get them talking in a fruitful way as far as application development is concerned?
2013/07/16
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/42260", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/484/" ]
It is known effect of the skilled users can't verbalize their thoughts. From [Testing Expert Users](http://www.nngroup.com/articles/testing-expert-users/) by J.Nielsen: > > * Skilled behavior is often automated behavior. When people are unaware of how they think about a certain behavior, they can't > verbalize the reasoning behind their actions. > * Expert users can turn into design critics and bend your ear with their opinions on the product, as opposed to staying in the user role > and engaging with the actual features. > > > At the same time they do their job, so you could gather their needs by: * Observing their job * Researching their office instructions and manuals * Exploring the artifacts using [primary-noun](https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/40558/what-is-a-primary-noun-table) technique Then in user test use scenarios containing their primary tasks and assess their usability metrics.
I think you are asking two separate questions here? 1) understanding what you should be designing 2) Validating those designs with users Lets start with looking at: 1) If you are designing purely for the end user then great! But there are often other stakeholders involved so make sure you get their input. Contextual research - Observe the users in their environment, try to understand the key tasks they need to perform. What are the current barriers to completion etc. Ideas workshop - Get a selection of end users and other stakeholders together and run through a bunch of activities. These could include reviewing competitors offerings, prioritising functionality, card sorting etc. Have a look at game storming: <http://www.gogamestorm.com/> 2) Validating designs can be done in various ways. User testing - from looking at specific design challenges and running them past users to fully fledged lab based user testing. The important thing to remember is to provide context. What is the problem you are trying to solve? Give the users a real life situation and ask them to use the prototype to solve it. Heuristic evaluation - You could also perform a heuristic evaluation on the prototype. This should help identify any usability issues with the designs. Heuristics are a set of principles that you review your designs against: <http://www.nngroup.com/topic/heuristic-evaluation/>
42,260
I am a UX designer, and my task in a desktop application development is to discover what is the need of the users and how they would want to use it. It's a UX designing job plus customer discovery/understanding job. Now, the target segments of my customers are professionals (engineers/sales), and being in an Asian country ( south east asia to be exact), even the professionals are not good in expressing what they want and what they need. I have a hard time to get them talking and express their opinion. When I present my prototype in front of them, usually they would not have any opinion at all. In the end, I feel like I am wasting time preparing prototype since either their feedback is usually lame ( "can you make sure that the text box doesn't overlap with other text box"? Yeah, I know that *bug*, but it's just a prototype, can we move on to something bigger? Like the overall userflow and how would you use the application?), or worse still, there is no feedback. The users either don't know how to tell what they need, or they don't even know what they need. How to get them talking in a fruitful way as far as application development is concerned?
2013/07/16
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/42260", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/484/" ]
It is known effect of the skilled users can't verbalize their thoughts. From [Testing Expert Users](http://www.nngroup.com/articles/testing-expert-users/) by J.Nielsen: > > * Skilled behavior is often automated behavior. When people are unaware of how they think about a certain behavior, they can't > verbalize the reasoning behind their actions. > * Expert users can turn into design critics and bend your ear with their opinions on the product, as opposed to staying in the user role > and engaging with the actual features. > > > At the same time they do their job, so you could gather their needs by: * Observing their job * Researching their office instructions and manuals * Exploring the artifacts using [primary-noun](https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/40558/what-is-a-primary-noun-table) technique Then in user test use scenarios containing their primary tasks and assess their usability metrics.
To help identify these tasks that you have been advised to set, may I suggest going back a step and conduct some interviews. Don't start from zero, go into those meetings knowing as much about the user as possible; I would recommend taking a step back and interviewing to gather up enough feedback that can help illustrate the peoples needs and goals. With this information you begin outlining a scenario comprising of a number of tasks needed to complete the goals you have identified. You might find this task grid a helpful starting point: <http://www.servicedesigntools.org/tools/137> Once you have identified a number of scenarios, arrange another session and prompt the users to complete each task, the structure should ensure a productive session. With this approach in place you should achieve a design loop of prototype, validate, revise.
44,219
I'm only up to episode 5 in the *Boruto* anime but the intro instantly implied what I thought and after watching the first few episode it certainly suggests that Boruto is a brat. Does this point/suggest that Naruto might be too blame for this situation?
2018/01/14
[ "https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/44219", "https://anime.stackexchange.com", "https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/10653/" ]
Yes, and no. [Boruto](http://naruto.wikia.com/wiki/Boruto_Uzumaki) acts rebellious and resentful towards Naruto as he felt that his father being Hokage took him away from his family. > > Initially nonchalant in his duties as a member of Team Konohamaru and is resentful of his father and the office of Hokage because it left him with no time for his family > > > Eventually Boruto and Naruto do come eye to eye in this aspect > > Boruto eventually comes to respect and reconcile with his father and his role as Hokage > > > However, most of Boruto’s arrogance comes from his lineage and believes he is better than everyone else > > For these reasons, Boruto has a high opinion of himself and freely brags about his abilities, but his arrogance has made him put no value in teammates or teamwork, believing he can do anything on his own > > >
No, I wouldn't call Boruto a brat. I'd term him stubborn. Being the son of arguably the greatest shinobi/Hokage, Boruto is always known and accepted as his father's son. He feels that he has no identity for himself apart from being the 'Seventh's Son...!!!' which is why he despises his father. Naruto, who can take down an entire Zetsu army, fails at being a father because he himself had no father (Iruka, Jiraiya, Kakashi were close to father figures) and doesn't know how to acknowledge his child. Boruto despises that fact. He wants to rise above than being his father's son which he mistakes to be better than his father. Not only in terms of nature, but also in strength. Boruto, like any kid, has a lot of love for his mother and Himawari and cannot stand to see them unhappy. So it's natural for him to feel that his father doesn't have time to spend with his family at important occasions like Himawari's birthday. He doesn't understand what it's to be a Hokage, at least until the later episodes where he remarks that he still hasn't understood his father yet. In his mindset, he feels that becoming stronger than Naruto would be a great way to get back at Naruto. Knowing that his father has only one person who can match up to his level. He tries to learn from him.
315,528
We have [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") on Meta SE but it could be used by anyone, by the other hand we have [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'") on Meta sites but it's not always used and it isn't kept forever. Is there a way to search for posts made by ♦ users other than creating a list of their user ids? I know that looking at the posts of ♦ user (moderator / employee Valued Associate) will not assure that those posts are official posts as they could reflect they personal opinions I still would like to find an easier way to scan the posts made by these users. Related * [Can we be notified about official posts?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/186614/289691) * [¿Cómo encontrar las publicaciones oficiales?](https://es.meta.stackoverflow.com/q/2659/65) (How to find the official posts?) * [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * [Full list of Moderators](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/109875/289691) * [Keep "Employee" on the profile of SE employees on meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/161197/289691) * [Employee profiles are now marked with a “Staff” indicator](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/331654/289691)
2018/09/16
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/315528", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/289691/" ]
I do not think that this would be useful information because you would need to distinguish questions asked by current/past moderators and staff before and/or after they became or ceased being moderators and staff. Also, even when elected/appointed as moderators or staff, posts from such users often represent their user opinion rather than official policy. When wearing their moderator/staff hat rather than replying as an ordinary user they will sometimes/often mention that in their posts.
It isn't currently possible to search for questions only made by moderators/employees. However, you can look up the list of moderators for a site, for example [Stack Overflow](https://stackoverflow.com/users?tab=moderators). You can then look up the profile of a particular moderator and search for their questions and answers in a similar vein to searching for any user's questions and answers.
315,528
We have [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") on Meta SE but it could be used by anyone, by the other hand we have [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'") on Meta sites but it's not always used and it isn't kept forever. Is there a way to search for posts made by ♦ users other than creating a list of their user ids? I know that looking at the posts of ♦ user (moderator / employee Valued Associate) will not assure that those posts are official posts as they could reflect they personal opinions I still would like to find an easier way to scan the posts made by these users. Related * [Can we be notified about official posts?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/186614/289691) * [¿Cómo encontrar las publicaciones oficiales?](https://es.meta.stackoverflow.com/q/2659/65) (How to find the official posts?) * [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * [Full list of Moderators](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/109875/289691) * [Keep "Employee" on the profile of SE employees on meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/161197/289691) * [Employee profiles are now marked with a “Staff” indicator](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/331654/289691)
2018/09/16
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/315528", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/289691/" ]
I do not think that this would be useful information because you would need to distinguish questions asked by current/past moderators and staff before and/or after they became or ceased being moderators and staff. Also, even when elected/appointed as moderators or staff, posts from such users often represent their user opinion rather than official policy. When wearing their moderator/staff hat rather than replying as an ordinary user they will sometimes/often mention that in their posts.
A this time it's not possible to use a single search query to get all the posts from a group of specific users. Since on Meta the Users > Moderator page is blanck, below is a list of the URL to search the posts of each diamond user on Meta SE. Note: At this time the list only include CM's. I took the CM user id's from [answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/99341/289691) to [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * Robert Cartaino: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:98786> * Shog9: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:811> * hairboat: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:165581> * Grace Note: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:146126> * Tim Post: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:50049> * Jon Ericson: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:1438> * Nicolas Chabanovsky: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:274323> * Juan M: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:296470> * animuson: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:141525> * JNat: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:208518> * Catija: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:284336> --- Users who have the ♦ on MSE, posted an [announcement](/questions/tagged/announcement "show questions tagged 'announcement'") but aren't CMs 2018 * Joe Friend: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:354333> * Adam Lear: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:155160> * Taryn: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:164200> 2017 * Tom Limoncelli: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:222882> * Nick Craver: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:135201> --- Users who currently haven't the ♦ that made offial posts (maybe without using [announcement](/questions/tagged/announcement "show questions tagged 'announcement'"), [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'")) * Laura: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:166017>
315,528
We have [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") on Meta SE but it could be used by anyone, by the other hand we have [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'") on Meta sites but it's not always used and it isn't kept forever. Is there a way to search for posts made by ♦ users other than creating a list of their user ids? I know that looking at the posts of ♦ user (moderator / employee Valued Associate) will not assure that those posts are official posts as they could reflect they personal opinions I still would like to find an easier way to scan the posts made by these users. Related * [Can we be notified about official posts?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/186614/289691) * [¿Cómo encontrar las publicaciones oficiales?](https://es.meta.stackoverflow.com/q/2659/65) (How to find the official posts?) * [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * [Full list of Moderators](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/109875/289691) * [Keep "Employee" on the profile of SE employees on meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/161197/289691) * [Employee profiles are now marked with a “Staff” indicator](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/331654/289691)
2018/09/16
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/315528", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/289691/" ]
I do not think that this would be useful information because you would need to distinguish questions asked by current/past moderators and staff before and/or after they became or ceased being moderators and staff. Also, even when elected/appointed as moderators or staff, posts from such users often represent their user opinion rather than official policy. When wearing their moderator/staff hat rather than replying as an ordinary user they will sometimes/often mention that in their posts.
The [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") tag is *one* possible way that employees can post updates, streams of consciousness, ad-hoc data that might be of interest or similar artifacts that aren't ideally suited for our blog audience. However, we've gotta implement an archetype to accommodate these posts (and make the tag, whatever it ends up being) reserved specifically for that use. Searching based on *who* wrote it is problematic for a bunch of reasons pointed out by others, but it also excludes the *many* instances where we saw something that someone in the community wrote and just up-voted that instead. Not *all* questions about policy require a direct response from us, *especially* if it's in an area where we'd rather leave it to the autonomy of any given community. What you're looking for from a *practical* standpoint is probably ***consensus***, where you can find *some* kind of agreement on a given topic even if you have to take a lack of a reply from us on it as a tacit endorsement. Meta is quite frankly *really* bad at this, and that's something we're going to need to tackle. Discussions happen, stuff gets voted on, people go back to what they were doing thinking it's all settled and a year later, nobody can be *quite* sure anymore, especially someone new just trying to grok policy and the rules. What we really need is some kinda process for *referendum*, which I plan to kick off a discussion about later this year. We might need to just support formal polls, and have some way of attaching them to questions (Trivia: they've existed in the database structure for eons, we just never built them). I don't have a definite ETA other than this is something that blocks a more efficient, unobstructed flow of community governance into more official things like the help center, so it's important, as soon as we figure out how in the heck we can do it. More pressing right now: Question lifecycle, quality, tooling on the main site. But this needs to be in place, too, in order to support that.
315,528
We have [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") on Meta SE but it could be used by anyone, by the other hand we have [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'") on Meta sites but it's not always used and it isn't kept forever. Is there a way to search for posts made by ♦ users other than creating a list of their user ids? I know that looking at the posts of ♦ user (moderator / employee Valued Associate) will not assure that those posts are official posts as they could reflect they personal opinions I still would like to find an easier way to scan the posts made by these users. Related * [Can we be notified about official posts?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/186614/289691) * [¿Cómo encontrar las publicaciones oficiales?](https://es.meta.stackoverflow.com/q/2659/65) (How to find the official posts?) * [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * [Full list of Moderators](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/109875/289691) * [Keep "Employee" on the profile of SE employees on meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/161197/289691) * [Employee profiles are now marked with a “Staff” indicator](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/331654/289691)
2018/09/16
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/315528", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/289691/" ]
It isn't currently possible to search for questions only made by moderators/employees. However, you can look up the list of moderators for a site, for example [Stack Overflow](https://stackoverflow.com/users?tab=moderators). You can then look up the profile of a particular moderator and search for their questions and answers in a similar vein to searching for any user's questions and answers.
A this time it's not possible to use a single search query to get all the posts from a group of specific users. Since on Meta the Users > Moderator page is blanck, below is a list of the URL to search the posts of each diamond user on Meta SE. Note: At this time the list only include CM's. I took the CM user id's from [answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/99341/289691) to [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * Robert Cartaino: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:98786> * Shog9: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:811> * hairboat: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:165581> * Grace Note: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:146126> * Tim Post: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:50049> * Jon Ericson: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:1438> * Nicolas Chabanovsky: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:274323> * Juan M: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:296470> * animuson: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:141525> * JNat: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:208518> * Catija: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:284336> --- Users who have the ♦ on MSE, posted an [announcement](/questions/tagged/announcement "show questions tagged 'announcement'") but aren't CMs 2018 * Joe Friend: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:354333> * Adam Lear: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:155160> * Taryn: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:164200> 2017 * Tom Limoncelli: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:222882> * Nick Craver: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:135201> --- Users who currently haven't the ♦ that made offial posts (maybe without using [announcement](/questions/tagged/announcement "show questions tagged 'announcement'"), [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'")) * Laura: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:166017>
315,528
We have [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") on Meta SE but it could be used by anyone, by the other hand we have [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'") on Meta sites but it's not always used and it isn't kept forever. Is there a way to search for posts made by ♦ users other than creating a list of their user ids? I know that looking at the posts of ♦ user (moderator / employee Valued Associate) will not assure that those posts are official posts as they could reflect they personal opinions I still would like to find an easier way to scan the posts made by these users. Related * [Can we be notified about official posts?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/186614/289691) * [¿Cómo encontrar las publicaciones oficiales?](https://es.meta.stackoverflow.com/q/2659/65) (How to find the official posts?) * [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * [Full list of Moderators](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/109875/289691) * [Keep "Employee" on the profile of SE employees on meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/161197/289691) * [Employee profiles are now marked with a “Staff” indicator](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/331654/289691)
2018/09/16
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/315528", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/289691/" ]
The [announcements](/questions/tagged/announcements "show questions tagged 'announcements'") tag is *one* possible way that employees can post updates, streams of consciousness, ad-hoc data that might be of interest or similar artifacts that aren't ideally suited for our blog audience. However, we've gotta implement an archetype to accommodate these posts (and make the tag, whatever it ends up being) reserved specifically for that use. Searching based on *who* wrote it is problematic for a bunch of reasons pointed out by others, but it also excludes the *many* instances where we saw something that someone in the community wrote and just up-voted that instead. Not *all* questions about policy require a direct response from us, *especially* if it's in an area where we'd rather leave it to the autonomy of any given community. What you're looking for from a *practical* standpoint is probably ***consensus***, where you can find *some* kind of agreement on a given topic even if you have to take a lack of a reply from us on it as a tacit endorsement. Meta is quite frankly *really* bad at this, and that's something we're going to need to tackle. Discussions happen, stuff gets voted on, people go back to what they were doing thinking it's all settled and a year later, nobody can be *quite* sure anymore, especially someone new just trying to grok policy and the rules. What we really need is some kinda process for *referendum*, which I plan to kick off a discussion about later this year. We might need to just support formal polls, and have some way of attaching them to questions (Trivia: they've existed in the database structure for eons, we just never built them). I don't have a definite ETA other than this is something that blocks a more efficient, unobstructed flow of community governance into more official things like the help center, so it's important, as soon as we figure out how in the heck we can do it. More pressing right now: Question lifecycle, quality, tooling on the main site. But this needs to be in place, too, in order to support that.
A this time it's not possible to use a single search query to get all the posts from a group of specific users. Since on Meta the Users > Moderator page is blanck, below is a list of the URL to search the posts of each diamond user on Meta SE. Note: At this time the list only include CM's. I took the CM user id's from [answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/99341/289691) to [Who are the Community Team, and what do they do?](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/99338/289691) * Robert Cartaino: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:98786> * Shog9: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:811> * hairboat: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:165581> * Grace Note: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:146126> * Tim Post: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:50049> * Jon Ericson: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:1438> * Nicolas Chabanovsky: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:274323> * Juan M: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:296470> * animuson: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:141525> * JNat: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:208518> * Catija: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:284336> --- Users who have the ♦ on MSE, posted an [announcement](/questions/tagged/announcement "show questions tagged 'announcement'") but aren't CMs 2018 * Joe Friend: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:354333> * Adam Lear: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:155160> * Taryn: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:164200> 2017 * Tom Limoncelli: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:222882> * Nick Craver: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:135201> --- Users who currently haven't the ♦ that made offial posts (maybe without using [announcement](/questions/tagged/announcement "show questions tagged 'announcement'"), [featured](/questions/tagged/featured "show questions tagged 'featured'")) * Laura: <https://meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:166017>
15,933
Do cats commit incest? If so, at what age would this behavior begin, and when should male and female kittens be separated from one another so as to avoid incest?
2016/12/19
[ "https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/15933", "https://pets.stackexchange.com", "https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/2932/" ]
Cats, like most animals, will mate with any willing member of the opposite sex. So, yes, they will sometimes inbreed. Humans have been known to encourage that when trying to select for specific genetic traits. Rather than trying to separate them -- they can hit puberty as early as 8 months, if I remember correctly -- I strongly recommend getting them surgically neutered, unless you are raising purebreds. There are already many more cats looking for homes than homes looking for cats.
Yes unfortunately cats do inbreed. It is safe to fix your pet at any age. There are restrictions for too young and too old. Fortunately most vet practices 'screen' your pet before surgery. At our clinic we put every pet under anesthesia for the procedure. So it's best to be cautious about the pets health. There are clinics that offer discounted or at cost fixing. You may have to travel a bit to find a clinic. Or submit financial information for consideration to see if you are eligible to get a discounted rate. We have a local clinic that does not make you jump through hoops to have your pet fixed. All they ask is that you provide proof that your pet has been vaccinated.
28,959,530
i have pdf files that i need to get their text contents with php FPDF/FPDI. thank you.
2015/03/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28959530", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3725920/" ]
basically this feature is already built-in! It is called Webhooks: <https://confluence.atlassian.com/display/JIRA/Managing+Webhooks> Simple example: If you define such a Webhook the URL is invoked at every Issue update with all fields and also all fields that changed (before - after). You could intercept your desired step in the workflow transition in the Webservice and do what you want.
Well, as far as I know, there are two possibilities: First would be to implement your own post function as a Jira plugin, which is more complicated to both code and maintain. Easier possibility would be the free [Script Runner](https://jamieechlin.atlassian.net/wiki/display/GRV/Script+Runner) plugin. This plugin allows you to customize Jira with simple groovy scripts. It will allow you to write your own workflow post-function, validator or condition (depends on your needs) as a simple Groovy script with the entire Jira and Java API to your disposal. You will be most interested in this part of [documentation](https://jamieechlin.atlassian.net/wiki/display/GRV/Script+Runner#ScriptRunner-Conditions,Validators,Post-Functions) to get you started.
44,728
Recently, the [single-blind peer-review process](http://blogs.plos.org/everyone/2015/05/01/plos-one-update-peer-review-investigation/#.VUO6vdTtlT0.twitter) failed to appropriately deal with highly sexist comments. An anonymous reviewer provided a sexist review and the Academic Editor forwarded it on. They have since blacklisted the reviewer and asked the Academic Editor to step down. While I think that blind peer review provides useful protection for reviewers, are Academic Editors generally provided anonymity? Further, is there any precedence for when a journal should reveal the name of a reviewer?
2015/05/03
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/44728", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/929/" ]
> > While I think that blind peer review provides useful protection for reviewers, are Academic Editors generally provided anonymity? > > > In my experience this is rare but not unheard of. For example, the [PNAS submission guidelines](http://www.pnas.org/site/authors/guidelines.xhtml) specify that the editor handling the paper will remain anonymous until the paper is accepted. Presumably this is meant to protect editors from retribution over a rejected paper. I'm not convinced this is necessary, but the existence of these policies indicates that someone must care. > > Further, is there any precedence for when a journal should reveal the name of a reviewer? > > > I'm not aware of any policy that allows journals to reveal the name of a reviewer without the reviewer's consent. It could be reasonable in a case like this, but I wouldn't want to be in charge of writing a policy delineating when it is or isn't allowed.
Anonymity, when used for any scientific role, is intended to make it easier for people to conduct honest scientific assessments. It is not intended to be a shield from which to attack with impunity. In business, there is a concept of "[piercing the corporate veil](http://www.nolo.com/legal-encyclopedia/personal-liability-piercing-corporate-veil-33006.html)," in which the shielding of corporate liability limits is removed in cases of gross misconduct. Likewise, I think that it is reasonable to pierce the veil of scientific anonymity in cases of gross misconduct. This recent case of "please add a male author" is one such; others could include abusive personal attacks or plagiarism. I'm not sure that exact boundaries of such a policy would need to be spelled out in advance: simply saying "anonymity may be breached in cases of gross misconduct" may be sufficient.
1,208
Lets say I want to make a VLF loop antenna for a Sub AM radio band. I don't want a full wavelength because that would be a humongous antenna. Would I wind more turns of wire to decrease the frequency it can operate on, or is there any other way without a phisically enormous loop?
2014/01/06
[ "https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/1208", "https://ham.stackexchange.com", "https://ham.stackexchange.com/users/174/" ]
There are plenty of ways to make antennas smaller. Unfortunately, all of these things also make the antenna less efficient. Economics provides a compelling proof: if efficient, small, low-frequency antennas could be realized, why do AM broadcast stations erect huge, expensive towers to support their enormous antennas? ![AM broadcast antenna](https://i.stack.imgur.com/guxSR.jpg) Antenna inefficiency isn't necessarily a problem for receiving, as long as the received power is enough to overcome your receiver's noise floor. See [What is the relationship between SWR and receive performance?](https://ham.stackexchange.com/a/905/218) For transmitting, an inefficient antenna can still work, but it's much more difficult to come up extra transmitter power, and find a way to handle all that heat. A longer wire is usually cheaper than a 10kW amplifier. To your specific case: the type of antenna you are describing is a *small* loop antenna. These antennas are not resonant, by definition. When resonant operation is desired, a capacitor is added at the feedpoint to create an LC resonant circuit which greatly increases sensitivity at the resonant frequency, and greatly decreases bandwidth. Since the small loop is an inductor, adding more turns increases the inductance, and thus lowers the resonant frequency if the capacitor is not changed. Increasing the [permeability](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Permeability_%28electromagnetism%29) of the material inside the loop also increases the inductance. If you think a lot of turns around some high permeability core is a good idea, you have conceived a [loopstick antenna](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loop_antenna#Small_loop_receiving_antennas): ![loopstick antenna](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wRcHw.jpg) However, such an antenna will not work well for transmitting. The ferrite will saturate at very low transmit powers, and the ohmic losses of the many turns of wire at any reasonable transmit power will make it a better heater than an antenna.
If you're going to be using this antenna strictly for reception, then increasing the windings is fine, but as the previous answer stated you're on increasing inductance, and when you increase inductance, you are by nature adding more radiation resistance. So, for transmitting that is not ideal at the wavelengths of VLF. These are small loops and can only radiate a small amount of the power from the transmitter. So increasing the windings will get you properly tuned for reception (i.e. the small magnetic loop in AM radios), but not very effective for transmitting.
674,739
I want to benchmark PHP vs Pylons. I want my comparison of both to be as even as possible, so here is what I came up with: * PHP 5.1.6 with APC, using a smarty template connecting to a MySQL database * Python 2.6.1, using Pylons with a mako template connecting the the same MySQL database Is there anything that I should change in that setup to make it a more fair comparison? I'm going to run it on a spare server that has almost no activity, 2G of ram and 4 cores. Any suggestions of how I should or shouldn't benchmark them? I plan on using ab to do the actual benchmarking. ### Related * [Which is faster, python webpages or php webpages?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/77086/which-is-faster-python-webpages-or-php-webpages)
2009/03/23
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/674739", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/13778/" ]
If you're not using an ORM in PHP you should not use the SQLAlchemy ORM or SQL-Expression language either but use raw SQL commands. If you're using APC you should make sure that Python has write privileges to the folder your application is in, or that the .py files are precompiled. Also if you're using the smarty cache consider enabling the Mako cache as well for fairness sake. However there is a catch: the Python MySQL adapter is incredible bad. For the database connections you will probably notice either slow performance (if SQLAlchemy performs the unicode decoding for itself) or it leaks memory (if the MySQL adapter does that). Both issues you don't have with PHP because there is no unicode support. So for total fairness you would have to disable unicode in the database connection (which however is an incredible bad idea). So: there doesn't seem to be a fair way to compare PHP and Pylons :)
1. your PHP version is out of date, PHP has been in the 5.2.x area for awhile and while there are not massive improvements, there are enough changes that I would say to test anything older is an unfair comparison. 2. PHP 5.3 is on the verge of becomming final and you should include that in your benchmarks as there are massive improvements to PHP 5.x as well as being the last version of 5.x, if you really want to split hairs PHP 6 is also in alpha/beta and that's a heavy overhaul also. 3. Comparing totally different languages can be interesting but don't forget you are comparing apples to oranges, and the biggest bottleneck in any 2/3/N-Tier app is waiting on I/O. So the biggest factor is your database speed, comparing PHP vs Python VS ASP.Net purely on speed is pointless as all 3 of them will execute in less than 1 second but yet you can easily wait 2-3 seconds on your database query, depending on your hardware and what you are doing. 4. **If you are worried what is faster, you're taking the absolute wrong approach to choosing a platform.** There are more important issues, such as (not in order): a. How easily can I find skilled devs in that platform b. How much do those skilled devs cost c. How much ROI does the language offer d. How feature rich is the language
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
One main difference is that an awk program can maintain state and can operate using multiple passes over the same data. A sed invocation is necessarily stateless single-pass because sed (Stream EDitor) is inherently stream-oriented. The advantage, though, is that this makes sed simpler and more appropriate for using in pipe chains.
SED is a stream editor, and therefore does not have variables and a few other constructs like AWK has. AWK is a fully fledged language.
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
In the original (and still the best) book, [The AWK Programming Language](http://www.amazon.co.uk/AWK-Programming-Language-Alfred-Aho/dp/020107981X), the following are implemented (among many other things): * a simple assembler * recursive descent compiler * a text indexing program Try doing that with sed.
SED is a stream editor, and therefore does not have variables and a few other constructs like AWK has. AWK is a fully fledged language.
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
One main difference is that an awk program can maintain state and can operate using multiple passes over the same data. A sed invocation is necessarily stateless single-pass because sed (Stream EDitor) is inherently stream-oriented. The advantage, though, is that this makes sed simpler and more appropriate for using in pipe chains.
G'day, Awk is more powerful. sed tends to be more limited in what it can do. Sed is good for line-based changes to data. It has some simple looping constructs, the usual ed/ex/vi regexp stuff and substitution things, compound statements, decisions etc. Most people use it for modifying piped data. Awk is good for filtering or rearranging data. It mostly gets used for reporting. I'd suggest having a look at Dale Dougherty's excellent book "sed & awk" ([sanitised Amazon link](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1565922255)). BTW It's got one of the best explanations of regexps in there as well. Many people would say use Perl anyway! (-: **Edit:** Forgot to say that the awk language is quite C like which is no surprise given that the 'k' in awk stands for Brian Kernighan. Yes. **That** Brian Kernighan! Also, sed only works on data streams whereas awk works on both data streams and files. HTH cheers,Sed only works on data streams whereas awk works on both data streams and files.
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
In the original (and still the best) book, [The AWK Programming Language](http://www.amazon.co.uk/AWK-Programming-Language-Alfred-Aho/dp/020107981X), the following are implemented (among many other things): * a simple assembler * recursive descent compiler * a text indexing program Try doing that with sed.
G'day, Awk is more powerful. sed tends to be more limited in what it can do. Sed is good for line-based changes to data. It has some simple looping constructs, the usual ed/ex/vi regexp stuff and substitution things, compound statements, decisions etc. Most people use it for modifying piped data. Awk is good for filtering or rearranging data. It mostly gets used for reporting. I'd suggest having a look at Dale Dougherty's excellent book "sed & awk" ([sanitised Amazon link](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1565922255)). BTW It's got one of the best explanations of regexps in there as well. Many people would say use Perl anyway! (-: **Edit:** Forgot to say that the awk language is quite C like which is no surprise given that the 'k' in awk stands for Brian Kernighan. Yes. **That** Brian Kernighan! Also, sed only works on data streams whereas awk works on both data streams and files. HTH cheers,Sed only works on data streams whereas awk works on both data streams and files.
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
One main difference is that an awk program can maintain state and can operate using multiple passes over the same data. A sed invocation is necessarily stateless single-pass because sed (Stream EDitor) is inherently stream-oriented. The advantage, though, is that this makes sed simpler and more appropriate for using in pipe chains.
In the original (and still the best) book, [The AWK Programming Language](http://www.amazon.co.uk/AWK-Programming-Language-Alfred-Aho/dp/020107981X), the following are implemented (among many other things): * a simple assembler * recursive descent compiler * a text indexing program Try doing that with sed.
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
One main difference is that an awk program can maintain state and can operate using multiple passes over the same data. A sed invocation is necessarily stateless single-pass because sed (Stream EDitor) is inherently stream-oriented. The advantage, though, is that this makes sed simpler and more appropriate for using in pipe chains.
The only thing I can think of is that sed can do little changes in less char count the awk. So for quick tweaks on a live shell, it's faster to type.
1,353,569
I used sed for a batch ptovess where I could not do it with awk. Vould awk have done it? Or is it more a matter of choice and call awk and sed equivalent for the usage. They both do the common search replace similar with i/o. Is there a good example what can't be done with one that the other can?
2009/08/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1353569", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/108207/" ]
In the original (and still the best) book, [The AWK Programming Language](http://www.amazon.co.uk/AWK-Programming-Language-Alfred-Aho/dp/020107981X), the following are implemented (among many other things): * a simple assembler * recursive descent compiler * a text indexing program Try doing that with sed.
The only thing I can think of is that sed can do little changes in less char count the awk. So for quick tweaks on a live shell, it's faster to type.
764,096
I really love using *Powershell ISE* - something about it makes me want to work with it; everything just fits together well, and it is smooth. Also I love the way intelligent autocomplete is integrated - it just feels clean and smooth and usable. The only problem is that I primarily code in Javascript, PHP, and with software that was originally designed for Unix-like OS's - e.g. Apache, bash, even node.js is a hell of a lot more usable on Unix. But programming inside of Powershell ISE is just so damn user friendly, I find myself really wanting to use it. ***My question is*:** Does the possibility exist without too much pain of getting Intellisense for other languages like Javascript or Node or PHP, etc. to work like the Intellisense in Visual Studio and ISE? In other words - importing language files to provide the same functionality as is currently provided for the editor including scope based completion, etc
2014/06/05
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/764096", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/177382/" ]
There are ways to modify the Intellisense library for the PowerShell ISE. Take a [look at this](http://jamesone111.wordpress.com/2013/07/05/powershell-tabcompletion-or-tabcompletion/). It's pretty complex, but it's possible.
Intellisense has been integrated into many coding environments. Intellisense began long before Microsoft added it to the powershell ISE. SciTE is a customizable text editor for which many have created intellisense libraries. Netbeans (used primarily for Java dev) also includes intellisense and can be used for Javascript. Now to be clear, Javascript is not Java despite the name sharing, but the IDE (netbeans) has javascript ability. The point I'm trying to get across is that most widely used languages already have intellisense built into some editor, some where. While the idea of multiple IDE/ISE's might seem like a distraction at first, each one is built for a purpose (netbeans for java, ISE for powershell). You might also want to look into something called PowerGUI. Microsoft copied a lot of design elements from PowerGUI and a lot of sysadmins prefer PowerGUI over the current ISE. What I usually do when looking for an editor for a language is google it. I google "intellisense editor $language" and usually find something cool. Enjoy coding!
4,216
> > The boy's innate goodness will withstand the challenges because unless *he himself* wants to turn evil, [...]. > > > My teacher thinks that commas should set off the word "himself", but I disagree. Who is right, and why?
2010/10/19
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/4216", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/100/" ]
I think a comma would be wrong there. *(Deletes justification on the basis of it being a rearrangement of "he wants himself to turn evil", which is wrong because "he himself wants Fred to turn evil" is just as valid a sentence. At least I realised that before I posted.)* "Himself" here is actually an intensifier rather than a reflexive pronoun (the [World Atlas of Language Structures](http://wals.info/feature/description/47) notes that they are often identical). As such it very much belongs with the noun phrase it is intensifying ("He"), and splitting them with a comma would weaken that relationship.
I don't think commas are necessary here, but they could serve to emphasize that phrase.
4,216
> > The boy's innate goodness will withstand the challenges because unless *he himself* wants to turn evil, [...]. > > > My teacher thinks that commas should set off the word "himself", but I disagree. Who is right, and why?
2010/10/19
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/4216", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/100/" ]
I don't think commas are necessary here, but they could serve to emphasize that phrase.
The best way to resolve such doubts is the reference to English corpus: <http://corpus2.byu.edu/coca/> - AmE, you need to sign up; <http://www.natcorp.ox.ac.uk/> - BrE, you do not need to sign up. By the way, your teacher was wrong, you don't have to put commas before and after himself:)
4,216
> > The boy's innate goodness will withstand the challenges because unless *he himself* wants to turn evil, [...]. > > > My teacher thinks that commas should set off the word "himself", but I disagree. Who is right, and why?
2010/10/19
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/4216", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/100/" ]
I think a comma would be wrong there. *(Deletes justification on the basis of it being a rearrangement of "he wants himself to turn evil", which is wrong because "he himself wants Fred to turn evil" is just as valid a sentence. At least I realised that before I posted.)* "Himself" here is actually an intensifier rather than a reflexive pronoun (the [World Atlas of Language Structures](http://wals.info/feature/description/47) notes that they are often identical). As such it very much belongs with the noun phrase it is intensifying ("He"), and splitting them with a comma would weaken that relationship.
The best way to resolve such doubts is the reference to English corpus: <http://corpus2.byu.edu/coca/> - AmE, you need to sign up; <http://www.natcorp.ox.ac.uk/> - BrE, you do not need to sign up. By the way, your teacher was wrong, you don't have to put commas before and after himself:)
8,775
Using TorBrowser, login with *username* and *password* on site.com (e.g., google, amazon, etc.), then ask TorBrowser for "New Tor circuit for this site." **Why does site.com (sometimes) recognize this "new Tor circuit" as associated with the same *username* rather than a new, currently anonymous connection?** * I assume "New Tor circuit" request specifically forces new Tor exit node (new IP address). * The url is generic (not site.com/username-abc123.html). * JavaScript disabled. * It seems that TorBrowser has allowed site.com to put cookie or other identifying feature on this browser session that persists across "New Tor circuit" request. **Is this expected behavior for "New Tor circuit for this site"?**
2015/10/02
[ "https://tor.stackexchange.com/questions/8775", "https://tor.stackexchange.com", "https://tor.stackexchange.com/users/4995/" ]
Requesting a new circuit will get you exactly that -- a new circuit. It does not mean that Tor won't pick the same exit again, and it will not clean any cookies. It is trivial then of course for a site to recognize you again. What you want and what was already suggested is "New Identity". Unfortunately, Tor Browser currently has to restart to get you a clean new profile. You cannot safely get a new session without restarting the browser. A good document that goes into more detail is <https://www.torproject.org/projects/torbrowser/design/> . This question was also previously discussed in [Tor Browser Bundle (TBB) new circuit versus new identity](https://tor.stackexchange.com/questions/8673/tor-browser-bundle-tbb-new-circuit-versus-new-identity) .
It could be a session cookie. Try using a new identity, instead of *merely* a new circuit. I believe that the latter will get rid of any session cookies.
8,775
Using TorBrowser, login with *username* and *password* on site.com (e.g., google, amazon, etc.), then ask TorBrowser for "New Tor circuit for this site." **Why does site.com (sometimes) recognize this "new Tor circuit" as associated with the same *username* rather than a new, currently anonymous connection?** * I assume "New Tor circuit" request specifically forces new Tor exit node (new IP address). * The url is generic (not site.com/username-abc123.html). * JavaScript disabled. * It seems that TorBrowser has allowed site.com to put cookie or other identifying feature on this browser session that persists across "New Tor circuit" request. **Is this expected behavior for "New Tor circuit for this site"?**
2015/10/02
[ "https://tor.stackexchange.com/questions/8775", "https://tor.stackexchange.com", "https://tor.stackexchange.com/users/4995/" ]
Requesting a new circuit will get you exactly that -- a new circuit. It does not mean that Tor won't pick the same exit again, and it will not clean any cookies. It is trivial then of course for a site to recognize you again. What you want and what was already suggested is "New Identity". Unfortunately, Tor Browser currently has to restart to get you a clean new profile. You cannot safely get a new session without restarting the browser. A good document that goes into more detail is <https://www.torproject.org/projects/torbrowser/design/> . This question was also previously discussed in [Tor Browser Bundle (TBB) new circuit versus new identity](https://tor.stackexchange.com/questions/8673/tor-browser-bundle-tbb-new-circuit-versus-new-identity) .
It's a persistent cookies + browser fingerprinting. You need to use a *separated/dedicated* virtual machine for web browsing to be 100% sure to "split identities"
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Write it the way you feel it should be written. However, I would then finish the entire trilogy before finding an agent and shopping it to publishers or publishing it yourself. That way you can either promise your self-pub readers that the next two books are coming, or let your agent pitch that it's a finished trilogy. (I can't see a publisher taking on something so obviously ending in a cliffhanger if the other two books aren't completed.) I remember at least one book in David Eddings's Belgariad series ending on an absolute cliffhanger, so it's not like it can't ever be done. But the Belgariad was sold as a trilogy and re-broken into five books, so the publisher bought the entire series at a shot.
Since you can't please everybody, you might as well please yourself. Write the book that you would like to read. Life itself is a series of cliffhangers, isn't it? Picture that friend or relative who would love reading a book like yours, then picture him turning the last page and it's a cliffhanger. What will he say to you? But overall, write the book that you want to write. If your book ever gets picked up by a publisher, believe me, their editor will tell you exactly how to finish your book.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Write it the way you feel it should be written. However, I would then finish the entire trilogy before finding an agent and shopping it to publishers or publishing it yourself. That way you can either promise your self-pub readers that the next two books are coming, or let your agent pitch that it's a finished trilogy. (I can't see a publisher taking on something so obviously ending in a cliffhanger if the other two books aren't completed.) I remember at least one book in David Eddings's Belgariad series ending on an absolute cliffhanger, so it's not like it can't ever be done. But the Belgariad was sold as a trilogy and re-broken into five books, so the publisher bought the entire series at a shot.
One of most important aspects of a good story - I'd say about the most important of all - is the **aftertaste**. It's the feeling left after finishing the story. Satisfying or disturbing, puzzling, leaving us thoughtful - that's all achieved by closures, by finishing various threads in various ways. Some stories are *open-ended*. It could be said they end where another story could begin, but they end in such a way that the reader can create that story in his/her head, keep the story going on past the end of the written text. The text left enough clues, enough threads firmly heading in a certain direction, that the next few unwritten pages are simply obvious to the reader - and then the story spins off in wild tangents in their imagination. I can say some of very best stories are open-ended. And there are stories with a cliffhanger. Ones that cut off right at a point where the next seconds are a total mystery to the reader, and force them to wait, seek a sequel, but primarily get very frustrated at the terrible interruption. Cliffhangers are *cheap*. They are annoying and leave a bad aftertaste which the reader might hope to wash off with the continuation. Nobody likes cliffhangers, maybe except people who make money off them. Some readers are tolerant, they accept the mantra "good things come to those who wait." Others - like me - have been burned with false promise of a continuation a few times too many, and outright hate and despise cliffhangers. That doesn't mean you can't leave a hook for a sequel. Bring a forgotten side-thread into focus and show how its unresolved issue is about to escalate. Have someone do just the wrong thing at the wrong moment. Make a revelation that was barely hinted so far. But for goodness sake, if you have one or two primary, major threads, close them! If there are two major antagonists, and the book ends with beating the weaker one while the stronger one just finished building an army, you're going to receive all my hate.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Write it the way you feel it should be written. However, I would then finish the entire trilogy before finding an agent and shopping it to publishers or publishing it yourself. That way you can either promise your self-pub readers that the next two books are coming, or let your agent pitch that it's a finished trilogy. (I can't see a publisher taking on something so obviously ending in a cliffhanger if the other two books aren't completed.) I remember at least one book in David Eddings's Belgariad series ending on an absolute cliffhanger, so it's not like it can't ever be done. But the Belgariad was sold as a trilogy and re-broken into five books, so the publisher bought the entire series at a shot.
It's absolutely fine. I have seen many famous authors end a book on a cliffhanger and no one cares. For example, Margaret Peterson Haddix (I think that's her name) wrote her book Turnabout, in which case it ends in total uncertainty with a cliffhanger. So yeah, go ahead.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
The whole trilogy fad started with the *Lord of the Rings* being published in three volumes instead of one as its author intended, because of post war paper shortage and to keep down the price (of one single "book"). A trilogy in this original sense is one book that is so long that publishing it in one volume is impractical. Its story runs smoothly through all three volumes, as if the text was undivided. Only recently have trilogies been planned as marketing strategy: write one great book that ends in mid story so readers are left hooked. Then publish two mediocre volumes that consist mostly of boring filler and a weak or irritating end. From the marketing practice today it follows that trilogies *must* end with a cliffhanger! ======================================== Otherwise the bad reviews of the second and third volume will keep your readers from buying them. Only the cliffhanger forces them to pay for that s\*\*t despite their better judgement. --- Or in other words: **Any literary work should be composed as a whole.** If you plan to write a trilogy, think of the story arch as stretching from the fist page until page 10.000. Consequently the arc of suspence should increase over all three volumes, and the climax and the resolution of the great mystery should happen close to the end of the last volume. If you think in the three act structure or the hero's journey or Schneyders beats or whatever, they must be spread across the three volumes equally. Do not use up all your ideas and plot twists in the first volume. Instead, make the second volume **more intense** than the fist, and the third volume a veritable emotional bomb. The first volume is the first act. It ends with the point of no return, not with the final battle between hero and antagonist. If you write your first volume as both first part of a trilogy *and* a standalone novel, the second and third volumes will disappoint. Only if you allow your first book to set the stage and the other two books to finish it, will the whole trilogy succeed. But of course, the point of no return, or "door", *is* a cliffhanger.
It's absolutely fine. I have seen many famous authors end a book on a cliffhanger and no one cares. For example, Margaret Peterson Haddix (I think that's her name) wrote her book Turnabout, in which case it ends in total uncertainty with a cliffhanger. So yeah, go ahead.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Since you can't please everybody, you might as well please yourself. Write the book that you would like to read. Life itself is a series of cliffhangers, isn't it? Picture that friend or relative who would love reading a book like yours, then picture him turning the last page and it's a cliffhanger. What will he say to you? But overall, write the book that you want to write. If your book ever gets picked up by a publisher, believe me, their editor will tell you exactly how to finish your book.
Here are some things you can do to soften the blow: * Resolve a major subplot * Include the first chapter of boom two as a teaser after the ending * Release the whole series as fast as you can, if not all at once * Leave things unresolved but draw attention to what is resolved and don't emphasize the unresolved parts * Show that your hero has a plan and is going to resolve things ASAP * Introduce something new and fascinating for your readers to chew on while they wait * Don't out the climax of the whole book on the page; put a climax somewhere in the middle in addition. To the cliffhanger so the book doesn't feel incomplete * Plan ahead so that the readers who come back for book two are well rewarded for their patience; don't pull a Sherlock and leave things ambiguous even after the wait
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Unless readers know they've picked up a trilogy or a book in a story arc, most will find a cliffhanger ending unsatisfying and wonder why the author didn't finish the story. As most television show episodes, motion pictures, novels and short stories have a clear beginning-middle-end, readers have become accustomed to tales that follow such a plot line. If you wish to open the way for a sequel, consider structuring your novel so it completes one story that is part of a larger tale. For example, a trilogy might be about an unlikely band of characters going on a quest. To complete the first part of the journey, they must overcome some major obstacle that cements them together as a team. This leaves an opening for them to pick up their quest in progress in the next novel, which has them overcome a specific goal necessary for them to continue their journey (Perhaps to reach a specific spot they must solve some large puzzle). The third novel would follow this pattern by following another specific adventure in the quest. Indeed, most of the original King Arthur stories about the quest for the Holy Grail were written using this structure – as self-contained stories that each bring the characters a little closer to achieving their overall goal. One possibility for including the cliffhanger in a novel is to add as an epilogue. Once the segment of the heroes’ adventure has been completed in the novel’s chapters, the epilogue is an extra that doesn’t feel tacked on but opens the ways for a sequel. To get a novel with a cliffhanger to not end that way, you’ll likely need to add the solution to the cliffhanger in one last chapter. That may require editing some sections out of the story to prevent it from being too long. In a worst-case scenario, you may need to revisit the story’s plot and revise it so it contains a self-contained story. Rob Bignell
It's absolutely fine. I have seen many famous authors end a book on a cliffhanger and no one cares. For example, Margaret Peterson Haddix (I think that's her name) wrote her book Turnabout, in which case it ends in total uncertainty with a cliffhanger. So yeah, go ahead.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Since you can't please everybody, you might as well please yourself. Write the book that you would like to read. Life itself is a series of cliffhangers, isn't it? Picture that friend or relative who would love reading a book like yours, then picture him turning the last page and it's a cliffhanger. What will he say to you? But overall, write the book that you want to write. If your book ever gets picked up by a publisher, believe me, their editor will tell you exactly how to finish your book.
More than likely you will alienate whatever readers did pick up your book. They PAID to buy your story, and you did not provide them with a complete story. A Series does not mean each story segment is left unfinished. If it is made clear up front your Trilogy is an ongoing SERIAL which requires all three books to reach the conclusion, you might get by with it. But you don't find booksellers offering SERIAL as an option for categorizing the books they sell. Another option is to only sell your story as a three book SET. Do not allow individual sales of each book. I'm writing a very long series spanning 175 years. In each book I cover the major events that take place within the time frame established for that book. Readers will know the story doesn't end. But they won't be left wondering what happened. Each book can stand-alone, but is not written in episodic fashion either. EG: One book may lead through teens to early adult and end before marriage, or at graduation. The next book may start with the wedding and carry the story through married life and up until the kids begin leaving the nest. But the reader will not be cheated on finding out what happened during the specified time frame. Perhaps a mild hook, did he marry his college sweetheart? The only way to find out is to buy the next book, but no topics started in the book are left unanswered, unless impossible to answer them until the end. VTY Dutch
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Since you can't please everybody, you might as well please yourself. Write the book that you would like to read. Life itself is a series of cliffhangers, isn't it? Picture that friend or relative who would love reading a book like yours, then picture him turning the last page and it's a cliffhanger. What will he say to you? But overall, write the book that you want to write. If your book ever gets picked up by a publisher, believe me, their editor will tell you exactly how to finish your book.
One of most important aspects of a good story - I'd say about the most important of all - is the **aftertaste**. It's the feeling left after finishing the story. Satisfying or disturbing, puzzling, leaving us thoughtful - that's all achieved by closures, by finishing various threads in various ways. Some stories are *open-ended*. It could be said they end where another story could begin, but they end in such a way that the reader can create that story in his/her head, keep the story going on past the end of the written text. The text left enough clues, enough threads firmly heading in a certain direction, that the next few unwritten pages are simply obvious to the reader - and then the story spins off in wild tangents in their imagination. I can say some of very best stories are open-ended. And there are stories with a cliffhanger. Ones that cut off right at a point where the next seconds are a total mystery to the reader, and force them to wait, seek a sequel, but primarily get very frustrated at the terrible interruption. Cliffhangers are *cheap*. They are annoying and leave a bad aftertaste which the reader might hope to wash off with the continuation. Nobody likes cliffhangers, maybe except people who make money off them. Some readers are tolerant, they accept the mantra "good things come to those who wait." Others - like me - have been burned with false promise of a continuation a few times too many, and outright hate and despise cliffhangers. That doesn't mean you can't leave a hook for a sequel. Bring a forgotten side-thread into focus and show how its unresolved issue is about to escalate. Have someone do just the wrong thing at the wrong moment. Make a revelation that was barely hinted so far. But for goodness sake, if you have one or two primary, major threads, close them! If there are two major antagonists, and the book ends with beating the weaker one while the stronger one just finished building an army, you're going to receive all my hate.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Write it the way you feel it should be written. However, I would then finish the entire trilogy before finding an agent and shopping it to publishers or publishing it yourself. That way you can either promise your self-pub readers that the next two books are coming, or let your agent pitch that it's a finished trilogy. (I can't see a publisher taking on something so obviously ending in a cliffhanger if the other two books aren't completed.) I remember at least one book in David Eddings's Belgariad series ending on an absolute cliffhanger, so it's not like it can't ever be done. But the Belgariad was sold as a trilogy and re-broken into five books, so the publisher bought the entire series at a shot.
The whole trilogy fad started with the *Lord of the Rings* being published in three volumes instead of one as its author intended, because of post war paper shortage and to keep down the price (of one single "book"). A trilogy in this original sense is one book that is so long that publishing it in one volume is impractical. Its story runs smoothly through all three volumes, as if the text was undivided. Only recently have trilogies been planned as marketing strategy: write one great book that ends in mid story so readers are left hooked. Then publish two mediocre volumes that consist mostly of boring filler and a weak or irritating end. From the marketing practice today it follows that trilogies *must* end with a cliffhanger! ======================================== Otherwise the bad reviews of the second and third volume will keep your readers from buying them. Only the cliffhanger forces them to pay for that s\*\*t despite their better judgement. --- Or in other words: **Any literary work should be composed as a whole.** If you plan to write a trilogy, think of the story arch as stretching from the fist page until page 10.000. Consequently the arc of suspence should increase over all three volumes, and the climax and the resolution of the great mystery should happen close to the end of the last volume. If you think in the three act structure or the hero's journey or Schneyders beats or whatever, they must be spread across the three volumes equally. Do not use up all your ideas and plot twists in the first volume. Instead, make the second volume **more intense** than the fist, and the third volume a veritable emotional bomb. The first volume is the first act. It ends with the point of no return, not with the final battle between hero and antagonist. If you write your first volume as both first part of a trilogy *and* a standalone novel, the second and third volumes will disappoint. Only if you allow your first book to set the stage and the other two books to finish it, will the whole trilogy succeed. But of course, the point of no return, or "door", *is* a cliffhanger.
12,370
First thing you should know: I'm writing the first book in a trilogy and I'm at that beautiful moment where I'm ending it. I know exactly how I want to end it BUT there's one problem. I've been reading a lot of comments where people say they absolutely hate cliffhangers. They say that it's only a ploy that authors use to get you to buy the next novel. My book ends on a cliffhanger and honestly, there's no other way I feel I can end it. Is it really that bad to end your novel with a cliffhanger? Am I a bad author if I do end it with a cliffhanger?
2014/07/12
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/12370", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/10086/" ]
Write it the way you feel it should be written. However, I would then finish the entire trilogy before finding an agent and shopping it to publishers or publishing it yourself. That way you can either promise your self-pub readers that the next two books are coming, or let your agent pitch that it's a finished trilogy. (I can't see a publisher taking on something so obviously ending in a cliffhanger if the other two books aren't completed.) I remember at least one book in David Eddings's Belgariad series ending on an absolute cliffhanger, so it's not like it can't ever be done. But the Belgariad was sold as a trilogy and re-broken into five books, so the publisher bought the entire series at a shot.
Here are some things you can do to soften the blow: * Resolve a major subplot * Include the first chapter of boom two as a teaser after the ending * Release the whole series as fast as you can, if not all at once * Leave things unresolved but draw attention to what is resolved and don't emphasize the unresolved parts * Show that your hero has a plan and is going to resolve things ASAP * Introduce something new and fascinating for your readers to chew on while they wait * Don't out the climax of the whole book on the page; put a climax somewhere in the middle in addition. To the cliffhanger so the book doesn't feel incomplete * Plan ahead so that the readers who come back for book two are well rewarded for their patience; don't pull a Sherlock and leave things ambiguous even after the wait
32,325
From what I understand of digital cameras, they are basically a lens plus a tiny two-dimensional array of millions of photo-diodes. And from what I understand of photo-diodes, they create a voltage when in the light, with higher-intensity light immediately causing a higher voltages. However, if this were all true, there would be no need for an exposure in digital cameras: the individual voltages could be read and *(assuming our voltage-reader is sensitive enough and electrical noise is negligible)* we'd get as accurate an image as possible almost instantly. But, this is not what happens. So where is my understanding incorrect? And *are* there any digital cameras that work this way? Sorry if this is a better fit for [electronics.SE](http://electronics.stackexchange.com) - but I felt like this question would be more interesting to this audience.
2013/01/10
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/32325", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4848/" ]
Digital cameras attempt to do exactly that, it is only because of noise that they do not. Such as camera could be described as having an arbitrarily high ISO, and consequently correct exposure would be obtained with an arbitrarily short shutter speed. Making a low resolution large format back out of large photo diodes could be a fun project. I also think that in the future 'multi exposure' systems will be integrated into sensors- record the sensor values mid exposure but keep the shutter open, to get more detail in the blacks. **The following is a rough calculation of the energy captured by a pixel of a modern DSLR during an exposure in room lighting:** [Warren Mars's Photon Behavior](http://warrenmars.com/photography/technical/resolution/photons.htm) site provides a table of the number of photons incident upon the pixels of various size under various lighting conditions for a 1/60th second exposure. The smallest pixel listed in the chard it a 70µm² pixel, three times larger than those of the D7000; the [D7000's imager has a pixel size of 4.78µm](http://www.imaging-resource.com/PRODS/D7000/D7000A.HTM) Under 'living room light' this gives a value of about 110000 photons per pixel on a D7000. A red photon has about 1.6\*10E-19 J of energy. It can be seen that the energy per pixel is on the order of 10E-14 J. A very small amount of energy to measure indeed. ![Pixel on Sensor](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cxx5o.jpg) For more information (and source of image): <http://www.gyes.eu/photo/sensor_pixel_sizes.htm> It should also be noted that fundamentally a zero second exposure camera is impossible, since it would allow no time for photons to hit the surface. Suppose we create a photon counting camera- that is one that can provide a 100% accurate zero noise count of the photons that hit each pixel. To get a 10 bit image the brightest pixels require that 1024 photons. In room lighting (Using the pixel pitch from the D7000) 2 million photons hit each pixel every second. Dividing the 2 million photons by the number of brightness levels (1024) we get a theoretical maximum frame rate of 1950 frames per second. 1/1950 would be the minimum possible exposure time for a 10bit image under room lighting.
The brighter light immediately causes a higher voltage, but not hugely higher. That's the crucial part. If you want to have an image that looks like the eye expects it to, you either need to amplify the signal (increasing the differences between high and low, both correct and incorrect due to noise) *or* you need to read for longer, increasing the actual sample. The latter is what the sensors used in digital cameras do. Each photosite is not just a light-sensitive photodiode, but also contains an accumulator called a "well". As the photodiode continues to produce voltage (as it is exposed to light), the accumulator fills. If the light hitting a particular site is bright, that well fills quickly. If the light is dim, it fills slowly. When the exposure is finished, the level of the well is sampled and converted to a digital value. Of course, in bright light, there's a lot of data, so a short exposure paints an accurate picture (if you'll pardon the turn of phrase). In low light, though, there's just not much energy to measured. If you just take a quick sampling, noise from reading the sensor and other unavoidable real-world randomness will indroduce variation as strong as the "legitimate" difference between the more full and more empty photosites, and there's no way to tell which is which. This is what happens when you take an underexposed image and try to crank up the amplification in software: noise, noise, noise, and maybe just blackness. And any instantaneous read (without an accumulator well) would not have enough data to be useful. Simple as that, really. Turns out that modern sensors *are* better at this than chemical-process film: it's why we can have seemingly insane ISO values of 25k and above. Those are able to measure finely enough that a large amount of amplification can be applied without noise becoming overwhelming. Fundamentally, though, compared to the magical instant-read device, we're still in the same ballpark.
32,325
From what I understand of digital cameras, they are basically a lens plus a tiny two-dimensional array of millions of photo-diodes. And from what I understand of photo-diodes, they create a voltage when in the light, with higher-intensity light immediately causing a higher voltages. However, if this were all true, there would be no need for an exposure in digital cameras: the individual voltages could be read and *(assuming our voltage-reader is sensitive enough and electrical noise is negligible)* we'd get as accurate an image as possible almost instantly. But, this is not what happens. So where is my understanding incorrect? And *are* there any digital cameras that work this way? Sorry if this is a better fit for [electronics.SE](http://electronics.stackexchange.com) - but I felt like this question would be more interesting to this audience.
2013/01/10
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/32325", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4848/" ]
Digital cameras attempt to do exactly that, it is only because of noise that they do not. Such as camera could be described as having an arbitrarily high ISO, and consequently correct exposure would be obtained with an arbitrarily short shutter speed. Making a low resolution large format back out of large photo diodes could be a fun project. I also think that in the future 'multi exposure' systems will be integrated into sensors- record the sensor values mid exposure but keep the shutter open, to get more detail in the blacks. **The following is a rough calculation of the energy captured by a pixel of a modern DSLR during an exposure in room lighting:** [Warren Mars's Photon Behavior](http://warrenmars.com/photography/technical/resolution/photons.htm) site provides a table of the number of photons incident upon the pixels of various size under various lighting conditions for a 1/60th second exposure. The smallest pixel listed in the chard it a 70µm² pixel, three times larger than those of the D7000; the [D7000's imager has a pixel size of 4.78µm](http://www.imaging-resource.com/PRODS/D7000/D7000A.HTM) Under 'living room light' this gives a value of about 110000 photons per pixel on a D7000. A red photon has about 1.6\*10E-19 J of energy. It can be seen that the energy per pixel is on the order of 10E-14 J. A very small amount of energy to measure indeed. ![Pixel on Sensor](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cxx5o.jpg) For more information (and source of image): <http://www.gyes.eu/photo/sensor_pixel_sizes.htm> It should also be noted that fundamentally a zero second exposure camera is impossible, since it would allow no time for photons to hit the surface. Suppose we create a photon counting camera- that is one that can provide a 100% accurate zero noise count of the photons that hit each pixel. To get a 10 bit image the brightest pixels require that 1024 photons. In room lighting (Using the pixel pitch from the D7000) 2 million photons hit each pixel every second. Dividing the 2 million photons by the number of brightness levels (1024) we get a theoretical maximum frame rate of 1950 frames per second. 1/1950 would be the minimum possible exposure time for a 10bit image under room lighting.
The simplest answer is that light is particle based, consisting of photons. A digital sensor is not a single photon trigger, but a bucket to be measured. I believe this is where you are confused: a sensor is not binary, nor are they sensitive to a single photon: a photon does not 'turn on' the sensor photo site. Instead, what is measured is how full the bucket is. Enough time must be given to properly fill the bucket, or no image will be recorded. Brighter scenes emit more and higher energy photons, thus filling the bucket quicker. Overfilling the bucket overexposes the image, losing detail or 'washing out' the image. To prevent this washing out, you simply shorten the time you collect photons.
32,325
From what I understand of digital cameras, they are basically a lens plus a tiny two-dimensional array of millions of photo-diodes. And from what I understand of photo-diodes, they create a voltage when in the light, with higher-intensity light immediately causing a higher voltages. However, if this were all true, there would be no need for an exposure in digital cameras: the individual voltages could be read and *(assuming our voltage-reader is sensitive enough and electrical noise is negligible)* we'd get as accurate an image as possible almost instantly. But, this is not what happens. So where is my understanding incorrect? And *are* there any digital cameras that work this way? Sorry if this is a better fit for [electronics.SE](http://electronics.stackexchange.com) - but I felt like this question would be more interesting to this audience.
2013/01/10
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/32325", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4848/" ]
I'm visiting from Electronics, so I'll add a little bit of electronics/semiconductor physics background to a couple of the answers you've already gotten. The key misunderstanding I think you have is that a photodiode doesn't create a voltage in response to light, it creates a current. Each photon that hits the photodiode generates a mobile electron inside the device (really an "electron-hole pair", but if you want that level of detail you'd better take the question over to EE.SE). Millions of electrons together constitute a measurable electrical current. Finally when this current is used to charge a capacitor, then you have a measurable voltage which can be sensed or recorded to form a pixel in your image. This is why, as cmason says, the sensor needs some time to fill each "bucket", and as mattdm says, it takes time for an accumulator to fill to the point it can be measured to form an image.
Digital cameras attempt to do exactly that, it is only because of noise that they do not. Such as camera could be described as having an arbitrarily high ISO, and consequently correct exposure would be obtained with an arbitrarily short shutter speed. Making a low resolution large format back out of large photo diodes could be a fun project. I also think that in the future 'multi exposure' systems will be integrated into sensors- record the sensor values mid exposure but keep the shutter open, to get more detail in the blacks. **The following is a rough calculation of the energy captured by a pixel of a modern DSLR during an exposure in room lighting:** [Warren Mars's Photon Behavior](http://warrenmars.com/photography/technical/resolution/photons.htm) site provides a table of the number of photons incident upon the pixels of various size under various lighting conditions for a 1/60th second exposure. The smallest pixel listed in the chard it a 70µm² pixel, three times larger than those of the D7000; the [D7000's imager has a pixel size of 4.78µm](http://www.imaging-resource.com/PRODS/D7000/D7000A.HTM) Under 'living room light' this gives a value of about 110000 photons per pixel on a D7000. A red photon has about 1.6\*10E-19 J of energy. It can be seen that the energy per pixel is on the order of 10E-14 J. A very small amount of energy to measure indeed. ![Pixel on Sensor](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cxx5o.jpg) For more information (and source of image): <http://www.gyes.eu/photo/sensor_pixel_sizes.htm> It should also be noted that fundamentally a zero second exposure camera is impossible, since it would allow no time for photons to hit the surface. Suppose we create a photon counting camera- that is one that can provide a 100% accurate zero noise count of the photons that hit each pixel. To get a 10 bit image the brightest pixels require that 1024 photons. In room lighting (Using the pixel pitch from the D7000) 2 million photons hit each pixel every second. Dividing the 2 million photons by the number of brightness levels (1024) we get a theoretical maximum frame rate of 1950 frames per second. 1/1950 would be the minimum possible exposure time for a 10bit image under room lighting.
32,325
From what I understand of digital cameras, they are basically a lens plus a tiny two-dimensional array of millions of photo-diodes. And from what I understand of photo-diodes, they create a voltage when in the light, with higher-intensity light immediately causing a higher voltages. However, if this were all true, there would be no need for an exposure in digital cameras: the individual voltages could be read and *(assuming our voltage-reader is sensitive enough and electrical noise is negligible)* we'd get as accurate an image as possible almost instantly. But, this is not what happens. So where is my understanding incorrect? And *are* there any digital cameras that work this way? Sorry if this is a better fit for [electronics.SE](http://electronics.stackexchange.com) - but I felt like this question would be more interesting to this audience.
2013/01/10
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/32325", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4848/" ]
I'm visiting from Electronics, so I'll add a little bit of electronics/semiconductor physics background to a couple of the answers you've already gotten. The key misunderstanding I think you have is that a photodiode doesn't create a voltage in response to light, it creates a current. Each photon that hits the photodiode generates a mobile electron inside the device (really an "electron-hole pair", but if you want that level of detail you'd better take the question over to EE.SE). Millions of electrons together constitute a measurable electrical current. Finally when this current is used to charge a capacitor, then you have a measurable voltage which can be sensed or recorded to form a pixel in your image. This is why, as cmason says, the sensor needs some time to fill each "bucket", and as mattdm says, it takes time for an accumulator to fill to the point it can be measured to form an image.
The brighter light immediately causes a higher voltage, but not hugely higher. That's the crucial part. If you want to have an image that looks like the eye expects it to, you either need to amplify the signal (increasing the differences between high and low, both correct and incorrect due to noise) *or* you need to read for longer, increasing the actual sample. The latter is what the sensors used in digital cameras do. Each photosite is not just a light-sensitive photodiode, but also contains an accumulator called a "well". As the photodiode continues to produce voltage (as it is exposed to light), the accumulator fills. If the light hitting a particular site is bright, that well fills quickly. If the light is dim, it fills slowly. When the exposure is finished, the level of the well is sampled and converted to a digital value. Of course, in bright light, there's a lot of data, so a short exposure paints an accurate picture (if you'll pardon the turn of phrase). In low light, though, there's just not much energy to measured. If you just take a quick sampling, noise from reading the sensor and other unavoidable real-world randomness will indroduce variation as strong as the "legitimate" difference between the more full and more empty photosites, and there's no way to tell which is which. This is what happens when you take an underexposed image and try to crank up the amplification in software: noise, noise, noise, and maybe just blackness. And any instantaneous read (without an accumulator well) would not have enough data to be useful. Simple as that, really. Turns out that modern sensors *are* better at this than chemical-process film: it's why we can have seemingly insane ISO values of 25k and above. Those are able to measure finely enough that a large amount of amplification can be applied without noise becoming overwhelming. Fundamentally, though, compared to the magical instant-read device, we're still in the same ballpark.
32,325
From what I understand of digital cameras, they are basically a lens plus a tiny two-dimensional array of millions of photo-diodes. And from what I understand of photo-diodes, they create a voltage when in the light, with higher-intensity light immediately causing a higher voltages. However, if this were all true, there would be no need for an exposure in digital cameras: the individual voltages could be read and *(assuming our voltage-reader is sensitive enough and electrical noise is negligible)* we'd get as accurate an image as possible almost instantly. But, this is not what happens. So where is my understanding incorrect? And *are* there any digital cameras that work this way? Sorry if this is a better fit for [electronics.SE](http://electronics.stackexchange.com) - but I felt like this question would be more interesting to this audience.
2013/01/10
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/32325", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4848/" ]
I'm visiting from Electronics, so I'll add a little bit of electronics/semiconductor physics background to a couple of the answers you've already gotten. The key misunderstanding I think you have is that a photodiode doesn't create a voltage in response to light, it creates a current. Each photon that hits the photodiode generates a mobile electron inside the device (really an "electron-hole pair", but if you want that level of detail you'd better take the question over to EE.SE). Millions of electrons together constitute a measurable electrical current. Finally when this current is used to charge a capacitor, then you have a measurable voltage which can be sensed or recorded to form a pixel in your image. This is why, as cmason says, the sensor needs some time to fill each "bucket", and as mattdm says, it takes time for an accumulator to fill to the point it can be measured to form an image.
The simplest answer is that light is particle based, consisting of photons. A digital sensor is not a single photon trigger, but a bucket to be measured. I believe this is where you are confused: a sensor is not binary, nor are they sensitive to a single photon: a photon does not 'turn on' the sensor photo site. Instead, what is measured is how full the bucket is. Enough time must be given to properly fill the bucket, or no image will be recorded. Brighter scenes emit more and higher energy photons, thus filling the bucket quicker. Overfilling the bucket overexposes the image, losing detail or 'washing out' the image. To prevent this washing out, you simply shorten the time you collect photons.
12,861,610
JavaFX 2.2 now includes a "nativebundles" attribute on its deploy method which is very convenient to provide native packages of your application to multiple platforms. However, it only builds native packages for the current platform. Is there a way to expand its functionality so it can built from one system, for all platforms? Even if it's just possible from, say, Windows to build for a subset of other native systems that would be a bonus.
2012/10/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12861610", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/551406/" ]
The "nativebundles" attribute produces [Self-Contained Application Packages](http://docs.oracle.com/javafx/2/deployment/self-contained-packaging.htm#A1307236), for which the JavaFX 2.x documention says: > > Self-contained application packages are platform specific and can only be produced for the same system that you build on. If you want to deliver self-contained application packages on Windows, Linux and Mac you will have to build your project on all three platforms. > > > If you don't want to use multiple physical machines, then you will need to build in virtual machines. Something free like [VirtualBox](https://www.virtualbox.org/) could be installed on your development or build machine with VM instances for your target OSes. If your development machine is a Mac, then you can install two VM instances, one for Windows and one for Linux to build to those target platforms. If your development machine is Linux or Windows, then you may need to get access to a Mac machine to create a Mac specific build. Also be careful of 32 bit vs 64 bit builds. You may want to generate further packages if you want to distribute both 32 bit and 64 bit versions of your software and you won't be able to do that from a 32 bit operating system.
I don't think that's supported in JavaFX 2.2. There's a feature request for that. Please see RT-22994: Native installers - provide a way to build all installers for all OS's on one OS. <http://javafx-jira.kenai.com/browse/RT-22994>
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
This usage is justified by the usage notes in Merriam-Webster Dictionary of English Usage and the Merriam-Webster Collegiate Dictionary. See my answer to [You and Yourself, Me and Myself](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/1176/you-and-yourself-me-and-myself/1186#1186) for a discussion of the grammaticality of *myself* in non-reflexive constructions. This usage probably comes from discomfort people have with selecting pronoun case in coordinates. There is a rule in informal English that you always use accusative case in coordinations of pronouns regardless of syntactic position (“My brother and me are hardly on speaking terms these days.”—you can find many examples like this in the [Corpus of Contemporary American English](http://www.americancorpus.org/)), but there is also a rule in standard formal English that those kinds of coordinations are ungrammatical and you must use the nominative case. As a result, people are uncomfortable using either *me* or *I* because their intuition leads them to say *me* but the formal grammar they learned in school draws them towards *I*, so they “split the difference”, as it were, and use *myself*. **Edit:** Shinto Sherlock correctly points out that the second example usage in the question is in fact a perfectly normal use of reflexive *myself*. I’m not sure either why it would be a surprising usage.
It's quite commonly used here in the States; "myself" and "yourself" seem to denote only slightly more formal equivalents of "me" and "you", particularly in groups and formal situations. Consider it explication: "and/or myself" is like "and/or even me", both somewhat implying that the listener might not otherwise have expected the inclusion of the speaker in the group. Nor is "myself" limited to the last element of a list: > > You can get in touch with myself or Jimmy when you've completed the work. >
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
This usage is justified by the usage notes in Merriam-Webster Dictionary of English Usage and the Merriam-Webster Collegiate Dictionary. See my answer to [You and Yourself, Me and Myself](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/1176/you-and-yourself-me-and-myself/1186#1186) for a discussion of the grammaticality of *myself* in non-reflexive constructions. This usage probably comes from discomfort people have with selecting pronoun case in coordinates. There is a rule in informal English that you always use accusative case in coordinations of pronouns regardless of syntactic position (“My brother and me are hardly on speaking terms these days.”—you can find many examples like this in the [Corpus of Contemporary American English](http://www.americancorpus.org/)), but there is also a rule in standard formal English that those kinds of coordinations are ungrammatical and you must use the nominative case. As a result, people are uncomfortable using either *me* or *I* because their intuition leads them to say *me* but the formal grammar they learned in school draws them towards *I*, so they “split the difference”, as it were, and use *myself*. **Edit:** Shinto Sherlock correctly points out that the second example usage in the question is in fact a perfectly normal use of reflexive *myself*. I’m not sure either why it would be a surprising usage.
This always strikes my ear as an obnoxious affectation, as though *me* is too small to be important, so I'll puff it up to *myself*.
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
This always strikes my ear as an obnoxious affectation, as though *me* is too small to be important, so I'll puff it up to *myself*.
Far from being appropriate in more formal situations, non-reflexive use of ‘myself’, being ungrammatical, sticks out as ungrammatical and thus, informal. Anytime I hear a non-reflexive use of ‘myself’,I think the person saying it is using it as a crutch to avoid misusing ‘I’ or ‘me’ because they know they don’t know when to use which. Maddening to me since the solution is to simplify the sentence, as above, removing other referents such as “He and I’, or ‘He and Jack’ to ‘I’. No one ways ‘Me went to the store.’ Nor do they say ‘They gave it to I…’ But we hear ‘Me and Mary went…’, and ‘She told Mary and I…’ Just take out the other person to determine whether to use Me or I, then add the other back in. It seems to me that myself has taken root in particular settings. For example, almost any time I read or hear a police report or officer talking, they use Myself instead of Me or I. I sometimes wonder if they are trained to do so, it seems so ubiquitous. I think it is used a lot by some military people as well. So it seems it is regularly adopted in specific formalized settings, but that does not make it a grammatically correct formal usage. Now, don’t get me started on ‘There’s guys…’
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
> > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > Hum, that seems like a completely legitimate use of myself to me. > > I sent it to myself > > > rather than > > I sent it to me > > > (set to community wiki, yes this is a comment on the question but the comment box is hopeless for writing comments in.)
Myself is used increasingly in all manners of speech, spoken and written. And it's usually wrong! Steer clear is my advice. If you can reduce a sentence to 'me' or 'I', do so. Get in touch with me. I've sent it to myself. Then add the rest around the sentence... Get in touch with Tom, Dick, Harry, and me. I've sent it to Tom, Dick, Harry, and myself. If 'I' doesn't work in the simple sentence, don't use it in the more complex one. People have a weird antipathy to using 'me', and now even 'I' is being replaced with 'myself', as though 'I' and 'me' sound like boasting or arrogance. Lol I cringe, and despair.
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
I agree, it sounds very stuck up. (like what moioci said earlier) > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > This is improper English. (Basically people who want to sound smart but don't know grammar.) Mind that it has nothing to do with formality, and in proper English, you should never use myself in place of me when it isn't reflexive. > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This is correct because it is used as a reflexive.
Myself is used increasingly in all manners of speech, spoken and written. And it's usually wrong! Steer clear is my advice. If you can reduce a sentence to 'me' or 'I', do so. Get in touch with me. I've sent it to myself. Then add the rest around the sentence... Get in touch with Tom, Dick, Harry, and me. I've sent it to Tom, Dick, Harry, and myself. If 'I' doesn't work in the simple sentence, don't use it in the more complex one. People have a weird antipathy to using 'me', and now even 'I' is being replaced with 'myself', as though 'I' and 'me' sound like boasting or arrogance. Lol I cringe, and despair.
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
This always strikes my ear as an obnoxious affectation, as though *me* is too small to be important, so I'll puff it up to *myself*.
Myself is used increasingly in all manners of speech, spoken and written. And it's usually wrong! Steer clear is my advice. If you can reduce a sentence to 'me' or 'I', do so. Get in touch with me. I've sent it to myself. Then add the rest around the sentence... Get in touch with Tom, Dick, Harry, and me. I've sent it to Tom, Dick, Harry, and myself. If 'I' doesn't work in the simple sentence, don't use it in the more complex one. People have a weird antipathy to using 'me', and now even 'I' is being replaced with 'myself', as though 'I' and 'me' sound like boasting or arrogance. Lol I cringe, and despair.
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
Far from being appropriate in more formal situations, non-reflexive use of ‘myself’, being ungrammatical, sticks out as ungrammatical and thus, informal. Anytime I hear a non-reflexive use of ‘myself’,I think the person saying it is using it as a crutch to avoid misusing ‘I’ or ‘me’ because they know they don’t know when to use which. Maddening to me since the solution is to simplify the sentence, as above, removing other referents such as “He and I’, or ‘He and Jack’ to ‘I’. No one ways ‘Me went to the store.’ Nor do they say ‘They gave it to I…’ But we hear ‘Me and Mary went…’, and ‘She told Mary and I…’ Just take out the other person to determine whether to use Me or I, then add the other back in. It seems to me that myself has taken root in particular settings. For example, almost any time I read or hear a police report or officer talking, they use Myself instead of Me or I. I sometimes wonder if they are trained to do so, it seems so ubiquitous. I think it is used a lot by some military people as well. So it seems it is regularly adopted in specific formalized settings, but that does not make it a grammatically correct formal usage. Now, don’t get me started on ‘There’s guys…’
Myself is used increasingly in all manners of speech, spoken and written. And it's usually wrong! Steer clear is my advice. If you can reduce a sentence to 'me' or 'I', do so. Get in touch with me. I've sent it to myself. Then add the rest around the sentence... Get in touch with Tom, Dick, Harry, and me. I've sent it to Tom, Dick, Harry, and myself. If 'I' doesn't work in the simple sentence, don't use it in the more complex one. People have a weird antipathy to using 'me', and now even 'I' is being replaced with 'myself', as though 'I' and 'me' sound like boasting or arrogance. Lol I cringe, and despair.
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
This usage is justified by the usage notes in Merriam-Webster Dictionary of English Usage and the Merriam-Webster Collegiate Dictionary. See my answer to [You and Yourself, Me and Myself](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/1176/you-and-yourself-me-and-myself/1186#1186) for a discussion of the grammaticality of *myself* in non-reflexive constructions. This usage probably comes from discomfort people have with selecting pronoun case in coordinates. There is a rule in informal English that you always use accusative case in coordinations of pronouns regardless of syntactic position (“My brother and me are hardly on speaking terms these days.”—you can find many examples like this in the [Corpus of Contemporary American English](http://www.americancorpus.org/)), but there is also a rule in standard formal English that those kinds of coordinations are ungrammatical and you must use the nominative case. As a result, people are uncomfortable using either *me* or *I* because their intuition leads them to say *me* but the formal grammar they learned in school draws them towards *I*, so they “split the difference”, as it were, and use *myself*. **Edit:** Shinto Sherlock correctly points out that the second example usage in the question is in fact a perfectly normal use of reflexive *myself*. I’m not sure either why it would be a surprising usage.
I agree, it sounds very stuck up. (like what moioci said earlier) > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > This is improper English. (Basically people who want to sound smart but don't know grammar.) Mind that it has nothing to do with formality, and in proper English, you should never use myself in place of me when it isn't reflexive. > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This is correct because it is used as a reflexive.
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
This always strikes my ear as an obnoxious affectation, as though *me* is too small to be important, so I'll puff it up to *myself*.
It's quite commonly used here in the States; "myself" and "yourself" seem to denote only slightly more formal equivalents of "me" and "you", particularly in groups and formal situations. Consider it explication: "and/or myself" is like "and/or even me", both somewhat implying that the listener might not otherwise have expected the inclusion of the speaker in the group. Nor is "myself" limited to the last element of a list: > > You can get in touch with myself or Jimmy when you've completed the work. >
2,269
Occasionally, I will hear or read coworkers using "myself" in place of "me," as in: > > If you have any questions, you can contact Gimli or myself. > > > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > This sticks out to me every time I hear it, and seems like an attempt to sound more professional than if they were to say "Gimli or me". It seems wrong because you would not say "You can contact myself." I also wonder if "myself" is an attempt to avoid the confusion of "me" versus "I" in a sentence. 1. Is this a valid use of "myself"? 2. Has anyone else experienced this, or is it a Midwestern regional idiom?
2010/08/31
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2269", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/572/" ]
> > I have sent the list to Legolas, Glorfindel, Aragorn, and myself. > > > Hum, that seems like a completely legitimate use of myself to me. > > I sent it to myself > > > rather than > > I sent it to me > > > (set to community wiki, yes this is a comment on the question but the comment box is hopeless for writing comments in.)
Far from being appropriate in more formal situations, non-reflexive use of ‘myself’, being ungrammatical, sticks out as ungrammatical and thus, informal. Anytime I hear a non-reflexive use of ‘myself’,I think the person saying it is using it as a crutch to avoid misusing ‘I’ or ‘me’ because they know they don’t know when to use which. Maddening to me since the solution is to simplify the sentence, as above, removing other referents such as “He and I’, or ‘He and Jack’ to ‘I’. No one ways ‘Me went to the store.’ Nor do they say ‘They gave it to I…’ But we hear ‘Me and Mary went…’, and ‘She told Mary and I…’ Just take out the other person to determine whether to use Me or I, then add the other back in. It seems to me that myself has taken root in particular settings. For example, almost any time I read or hear a police report or officer talking, they use Myself instead of Me or I. I sometimes wonder if they are trained to do so, it seems so ubiquitous. I think it is used a lot by some military people as well. So it seems it is regularly adopted in specific formalized settings, but that does not make it a grammatically correct formal usage. Now, don’t get me started on ‘There’s guys…’
225,236
Is there a verb form for 'Logistics'? > > We logistic your growth. > > > Does this sentence make sense in English?
2015/02/03
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/225236", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/108364/" ]
As suggested in the comments above, logistic is not a verb, and *[logisticize or logisticate](http://www.grammarphobia.com/blog/2014/05/logisticate.html)* may sound queer and are definitely unusual: Logistic refers to [logistics](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/heedless) meaning: > > * (Economics) the management of materials flow through an organization, from raw materials through to finished goods > * the detailed planning and organization of any large complex operation. > > > I think that [coordinate](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/coordinate) may well fit in your sentence suggesting the management of planning and organisation of operations.
Grammatically this sentence does not make sense. *Logistic* is an adjective. Its describing the application of logic to a complex problem or the shape of a [curve](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logistic_function). Logistic growth curves are used to describe populations of organisms that initially grow rapidly and then plateau at some upper limit.
56,744
So, I've had the chain slip under the biggest sprocket a couple of times, and the spokes got chewed up by it to the point that two of them have broken recently. So, I decided to replace all the affected spokes, and am now left with six chewed-up spokes that didn't actually break (although one of them sounded pretty suspicious when I rode it home after the second breakage). Here's what the spokes look like: [![Six spokes chewed up by a chain slip](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XclC8.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XclC8.jpg) The damage seems to vary anywhere from scratched paint-job up to the two spokes that actually broke. Anyway, there were supply chain and delivery issues that ended up with me waiting two full weeks for the spokes to arrive, so I'm wondering: are any of these spokes in good enough condition to use as a temporary replacement while I wait for the replacement?
2018/08/26
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/56744", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/33466/" ]
If you break more spoke you can use the least damaged ones temporarily, understanding that they might break, but will probably last two weeks. Save yourself a from future headaches by addressing adjustment of the lower limit on your rear derailleur, or getting a spoke protector, or both.
I assume you want to use them now because else you can't ride at all so for the temporary use you mention (a couple of weeks) and if you want to do the effort of taking them in/out again it should be fine but don't be surprised if one breaks around the damage point. I'm saying this from firsthand experience with spokes which are damaged in a very similar way, just worse i.e. less material left, from grinds on a bmx: what you typically get there is the spokes get squeezed between the hub and a concrete wall which then basically acts like a file shaving off steel. Plus they get bent a little bit above the hub because that's where they hit the wall. When there's about 2/3 of the diameter left and on a sketchy landing they'll tend to break. Your spokes still look much better than that though and if you're just riding on the road without jumping around you should be good.
26,240
I'm a woman who happened to be one of those who are born attracted to their same gender. But, I'm a strong follower of islam and I love Allah a lot! Therefore I suppress all my desires for the sake of god, and I know for a fact that I will never allow myself to commit a sin involving homosexuality. Yet, everyone ends up loving someone, and I'm not an exception. I happened to (secretly) really love this one person, but I will never pursue it no matter what. What I am wondering about is, our prophet (pbuh) said that in heaven everyone will be married to the one he truly loves, and nothing is prohibited. If I was patient for my whole life and kept on doing right deeds, then am I able to end up with that person in heaven? Even though it's homosexual?
2015/08/19
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/26240", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13838/" ]
Most scholars agree that if you only *wish* and don't *commit* this sin, you will not be punished on the day of judgement. Because you follow what is mentioned in this verse: > > وَذَرُوا ظَاهِرَ الْإِثْمِ وَبَاطِنَهُ > And leave what is outward (dhahir) of sin and what is in depth (batin) thereof [6:120] > > > An outward (dhahir) sin means: You can see it's a sin, it's obvious that it's bad, you don't wish to commit it and nobody needs to tell you that you shouldn't commit it. A profound / in depth sin (batin) means: You don't '*see*' it's a sin, but you know it, because Quran and prophet told you. You understand it with reason, but not with heart. You might even desire it, but you know it's wrong. So every deed has an outward appearance (appearance of this world) and an inside/profound appearance (otherwordly appearance). The otherwordly appearance of a sin is fire, which we can't see in this life, but will see in the next. > > They know only the outside appearance (dhahir) of the life of the world, and they are heedless of the Hereafter. [30:7] > > > We only see the outside appearance of a sin, like a sin involving homosexuality. Though most people don't desire it, some do. But this is only because we all cannot see the true (otherwordly, deeper, batin) appearance of this sin. If you could see it, you wouldn't have any desire to come close to it. Maybe Allah will grant you to 'see' the reality of this sin, the otherwordly appearance of this sin, even in this life. Definetly in the hereafter we will all see the reality of our deeds and wishes. Ugly and beauty creatures will follow us wherever we go. The more good deeds we've done, the more beauty and sweet smelling creatures will be close to us. The more sins we've commited, the more ugly and foul-smelling creatures will follow us. This is based on Ahadith. So why would someone wish to be close to an ugly creature? Because this is what the sin is. I hope I could give at least part of an answer to your question. What we muslims all really should want and wish is to be close to Allah (*meet his Lord*, 18:110) and to *be in the proximity of the King all-powerful* (54:55), not only the garden, fruits, rivers and partners. Like the prophets who only wished to be close to Allah (t.).
> > Is the description of Paradise, which the righteous are promised, wherein are ... rivers of wine delicious to those who drink..." (Surah Muhammad, 47:15) > > > There are rivers of alcohol in Paradise. Wine is haraam on Earth. Thus, it could be that things forbidden on Earth may be granted in Heaven.
26,240
I'm a woman who happened to be one of those who are born attracted to their same gender. But, I'm a strong follower of islam and I love Allah a lot! Therefore I suppress all my desires for the sake of god, and I know for a fact that I will never allow myself to commit a sin involving homosexuality. Yet, everyone ends up loving someone, and I'm not an exception. I happened to (secretly) really love this one person, but I will never pursue it no matter what. What I am wondering about is, our prophet (pbuh) said that in heaven everyone will be married to the one he truly loves, and nothing is prohibited. If I was patient for my whole life and kept on doing right deeds, then am I able to end up with that person in heaven? Even though it's homosexual?
2015/08/19
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/26240", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13838/" ]
Most scholars agree that if you only *wish* and don't *commit* this sin, you will not be punished on the day of judgement. Because you follow what is mentioned in this verse: > > وَذَرُوا ظَاهِرَ الْإِثْمِ وَبَاطِنَهُ > And leave what is outward (dhahir) of sin and what is in depth (batin) thereof [6:120] > > > An outward (dhahir) sin means: You can see it's a sin, it's obvious that it's bad, you don't wish to commit it and nobody needs to tell you that you shouldn't commit it. A profound / in depth sin (batin) means: You don't '*see*' it's a sin, but you know it, because Quran and prophet told you. You understand it with reason, but not with heart. You might even desire it, but you know it's wrong. So every deed has an outward appearance (appearance of this world) and an inside/profound appearance (otherwordly appearance). The otherwordly appearance of a sin is fire, which we can't see in this life, but will see in the next. > > They know only the outside appearance (dhahir) of the life of the world, and they are heedless of the Hereafter. [30:7] > > > We only see the outside appearance of a sin, like a sin involving homosexuality. Though most people don't desire it, some do. But this is only because we all cannot see the true (otherwordly, deeper, batin) appearance of this sin. If you could see it, you wouldn't have any desire to come close to it. Maybe Allah will grant you to 'see' the reality of this sin, the otherwordly appearance of this sin, even in this life. Definetly in the hereafter we will all see the reality of our deeds and wishes. Ugly and beauty creatures will follow us wherever we go. The more good deeds we've done, the more beauty and sweet smelling creatures will be close to us. The more sins we've commited, the more ugly and foul-smelling creatures will follow us. This is based on Ahadith. So why would someone wish to be close to an ugly creature? Because this is what the sin is. I hope I could give at least part of an answer to your question. What we muslims all really should want and wish is to be close to Allah (*meet his Lord*, 18:110) and to *be in the proximity of the King all-powerful* (54:55), not only the garden, fruits, rivers and partners. Like the prophets who only wished to be close to Allah (t.).
It's likely this question is not definitely answerable, as most specific details about heaven have not been revealed. Moreover, heaven is probably incomprehensible to humans: > > Allah said, "I have prepared for My righteous slaves (such excellent things) as no eye has ever seen, nor an ear has ever heard nor a human heart can ever think of." > > [Sahih al-Bukhari 7498](https://sunnah.com/bukhari/97/123) > > > Consequently, answers to *what will heaven be like?* are probably far less accurate than answers to *what will the world be like in 100 years?* (except for what was revealed by Allah). Nevertheless, to attempt to answer the question: ### Maybe... The Qur'an says: > > Circulated among them will be plates and vessels of gold. And **therein is whatever the souls desire and [what] delights the eyes**, and you will abide therein eternally. > > [Qur'an 43:71](https://quran.com/43/71) > > > There may be exceptions to this (e.g., if someone desires something against Allah's will), or Allah may have instead designed heaven so that these exceptions do not arise. The Qur'an also talks about drinking non-intoxicating wine in heaven ([IslamWeb](http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=1810)), e.g.: > > They will exchange with one another a cup [of wine] wherein [results] no ill speech or commission of sin. > > [Qur'an 52:23](https://quran.com/52/23) > > > So the worldly problems with wine do not apply to the form of wine available in heaven. It's thus plausible that the worldly problems with homosexuality analogously don't apply in heaven. However, drinking wine is not considered wholly bad (*...great sin and [yet, some] benefit...* [Qur'an 2:219](https://quran.com/2/219)), which distinguishes it from homosexuality. Moreover, non-alcoholic wine is sometimes considered halal by scholars (e.g. *...any drink that does not cause intoxication ... is not deemed to be haraam...* [Islam Q&A](https://islamqa.info/en/148690)). Thus, the applicability of the "wine in heaven" analogy is questionable. ### Maybe not... It's also plausible that homosexuality does not take place in heaven. This seems logical, since homosexuality is described in the Qur'an as "transgressing": > > And leave what your Lord has created for you as mates? But you are a people transgressing. > > [Qur'an 26:166](https://quran.com/26/166) > > > In this context, presumably homosexual interests will become something else, such as towards straight intercourse ([IslamWeb](http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=85663)), or something else. (At a philosophical level, such a radical change in a person's interests would be perceived as a radical change in that person. It raises the question: *who is actually entering heaven?* This gets too far away from the posed question.)
26,240
I'm a woman who happened to be one of those who are born attracted to their same gender. But, I'm a strong follower of islam and I love Allah a lot! Therefore I suppress all my desires for the sake of god, and I know for a fact that I will never allow myself to commit a sin involving homosexuality. Yet, everyone ends up loving someone, and I'm not an exception. I happened to (secretly) really love this one person, but I will never pursue it no matter what. What I am wondering about is, our prophet (pbuh) said that in heaven everyone will be married to the one he truly loves, and nothing is prohibited. If I was patient for my whole life and kept on doing right deeds, then am I able to end up with that person in heaven? Even though it's homosexual?
2015/08/19
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/26240", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13838/" ]
> > Is the description of Paradise, which the righteous are promised, wherein are ... rivers of wine delicious to those who drink..." (Surah Muhammad, 47:15) > > > There are rivers of alcohol in Paradise. Wine is haraam on Earth. Thus, it could be that things forbidden on Earth may be granted in Heaven.
It's likely this question is not definitely answerable, as most specific details about heaven have not been revealed. Moreover, heaven is probably incomprehensible to humans: > > Allah said, "I have prepared for My righteous slaves (such excellent things) as no eye has ever seen, nor an ear has ever heard nor a human heart can ever think of." > > [Sahih al-Bukhari 7498](https://sunnah.com/bukhari/97/123) > > > Consequently, answers to *what will heaven be like?* are probably far less accurate than answers to *what will the world be like in 100 years?* (except for what was revealed by Allah). Nevertheless, to attempt to answer the question: ### Maybe... The Qur'an says: > > Circulated among them will be plates and vessels of gold. And **therein is whatever the souls desire and [what] delights the eyes**, and you will abide therein eternally. > > [Qur'an 43:71](https://quran.com/43/71) > > > There may be exceptions to this (e.g., if someone desires something against Allah's will), or Allah may have instead designed heaven so that these exceptions do not arise. The Qur'an also talks about drinking non-intoxicating wine in heaven ([IslamWeb](http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=1810)), e.g.: > > They will exchange with one another a cup [of wine] wherein [results] no ill speech or commission of sin. > > [Qur'an 52:23](https://quran.com/52/23) > > > So the worldly problems with wine do not apply to the form of wine available in heaven. It's thus plausible that the worldly problems with homosexuality analogously don't apply in heaven. However, drinking wine is not considered wholly bad (*...great sin and [yet, some] benefit...* [Qur'an 2:219](https://quran.com/2/219)), which distinguishes it from homosexuality. Moreover, non-alcoholic wine is sometimes considered halal by scholars (e.g. *...any drink that does not cause intoxication ... is not deemed to be haraam...* [Islam Q&A](https://islamqa.info/en/148690)). Thus, the applicability of the "wine in heaven" analogy is questionable. ### Maybe not... It's also plausible that homosexuality does not take place in heaven. This seems logical, since homosexuality is described in the Qur'an as "transgressing": > > And leave what your Lord has created for you as mates? But you are a people transgressing. > > [Qur'an 26:166](https://quran.com/26/166) > > > In this context, presumably homosexual interests will become something else, such as towards straight intercourse ([IslamWeb](http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=85663)), or something else. (At a philosophical level, such a radical change in a person's interests would be perceived as a radical change in that person. It raises the question: *who is actually entering heaven?* This gets too far away from the posed question.)
85,019
Tried disconnecting the PSU and checked it by shorting green and black wires. It is working. However, when I connect it back to the motherboard and try to switch on the computer, all I hear is a faint click sound. The light at the back of the PSU turns off as well. Of course, the CPU does not power on. What might be the reason?
2009/12/18
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/85019", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/2145/" ]
It could be a failing power supply, but it could also be a bad mother board. Most modern power supplies shut down when there is a short. The only way to know for sure is to get another power supply or another mother board.
Dead motherboard? Are there any diagnostic lights on the motherboard? I'm assuming it doesn't make any beeping sounds. Might want to try a different power supply as well: just because it has power, doesn't mean it has *enough* power, or that the motherboard isn't reading some weird power condition and shutting itself down.
85,019
Tried disconnecting the PSU and checked it by shorting green and black wires. It is working. However, when I connect it back to the motherboard and try to switch on the computer, all I hear is a faint click sound. The light at the back of the PSU turns off as well. Of course, the CPU does not power on. What might be the reason?
2009/12/18
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/85019", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/2145/" ]
It could be a failing power supply, but it could also be a bad mother board. Most modern power supplies shut down when there is a short. The only way to know for sure is to get another power supply or another mother board.
It may be that your motherboard is broken. If it is making beep sound and the power LED is on there is a chance that your motherboard is fine. Check if your power supply is working by attaching it to another motherboard. If the power supply is working than check the RAM is working by putting it in a friends PC. In most cases, the CPU is not faulty and the fault is elsewhere.
39,580,584
I have just started learning pentaho spoon steps and have one problem with solving one problem. I need to transform the data from xls-file and convert it do database. The problem is that my input file looks like this: [table-description](http://i.stack.imgur.com/AMSJ1.jpg) And I can not find how to solve two problems: 1. For my next step I need to save not only the table itself (Range A8:D11), but also the date (cell A5). When I am trying to do it in pentaho with Microsoft Excel Input – Step it works only when I select A8-cell as a start row, but the date is not saved. 2. In Microsoft Excel Input – Step I must always select a start row in order to generate a table and use it in next steps. And I must do it manually, I mean to say that my table starts from A8-cell. In my case I can not always say for sure that the table starts from A8-cell. I know, that the start-cell is that cell, which is in A-Column and has value = “Date”. Microsoft Excel Input – Step will be first step in my kettle because I must get data and change them. That is why I think I can not use before Java Script. I have not found the solution to these two problems and I do not know if it is possible to make it. I will be grateful for any help.
2016/09/19
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/39580584", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6460096/" ]
You should put your .php file in the htdocs folder of MAMP or XAMP. After that you must copy your file path in your browser. Replace everything up to and including htdocs with your localhost. For example: If my file is in Users/Documents/MAMP/htdocs/index.php it should be like localhost:8888/index.php
You can download mamp or xamp and install server on your mac. Then you can test your all php files.
282,411
1. A few years back, I was living in a student dormitory. 2. A few years back, I was staying in a student dormitory. Which one of the above is correct and why?
2021/04/25
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/282411", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Both are correct, although 'staying' conveys the additional information that you were living in the dormitory temporarily. > > live verb (HAVE A HOME) > > live in, at, etc. > > to have your home > somewhere > > > stay verb (LIVE) > > to live or be in a place for a short time > as a visitor > > > [Live (Cambridge Dictionary)](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/live) [Stay (Cambridge Dictionary)](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/staying)
When I'm on vacation, I often **stay** in a hotel. But I've never lived in a hotel. Sometimes, friends or relatives who **live** far away come and **stay** at my house for a few days. So which is correct for your particular situation? Maybe either could work?
4,191,885
i want to send sms using c# coding
2010/11/16
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4191885", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/509164/" ]
Use SMSLib ( <http://smslib.org/download/> ) You may find working codes here, i had worked using java platform, and it works all fine. try for c#. All you need is a gsm moden,connect to USB and provide proper port number in the availaible code at SMSlib website. download <http://smslib.org/download/files/smslib.net-v3.5.0.zip> You will find C# herein.
download library from one of the sms sites and integrate: [SMS provider](http://www.clickatell.com/) It is very easy.
4,191,885
i want to send sms using c# coding
2010/11/16
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4191885", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/509164/" ]
I did both sms sending and receiving with the Api provided by <https://www.csoft.co.uk/>. It is a paid service, but it is very easy to implement.
download library from one of the sms sites and integrate: [SMS provider](http://www.clickatell.com/) It is very easy.
4,191,885
i want to send sms using c# coding
2010/11/16
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4191885", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/509164/" ]
Use SMSLib ( <http://smslib.org/download/> ) You may find working codes here, i had worked using java platform, and it works all fine. try for c#. All you need is a gsm moden,connect to USB and provide proper port number in the availaible code at SMSlib website. download <http://smslib.org/download/files/smslib.net-v3.5.0.zip> You will find C# herein.
I did both sms sending and receiving with the Api provided by <https://www.csoft.co.uk/>. It is a paid service, but it is very easy to implement.
87,675
I have a motorised shutter and I need to buy a in-wall switch to automatically stop when the shutter reaches the floor or the ceiling by only one push and not keep holding the switch.
2016/03/29
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/87675", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/51862/" ]
You'll want a controller circuit then, so a pulse will activate the motor going down and will deactivate when a limit switch has been activated or the button has been pushed again (using another button for going up). The design of such a circuit is out of scope on this SE. When you do install such a controller circuit make sure the relays for driving the motor are rated for its power.
To do so, you'll need a new motor & not a new switch. The new motor needs to be much like a Garage Door Opener's motor with similar circuitry, by having its own built-in & adjustable limiter switch. Then, you'll be able to press the switch once & walk away, for raising & lowering.
33,094,288
With innosetup I have this error EndUpdateResource (5) when compiling a simple .ico file. 5 = access denied I have disabled antivirus : same issue, I ran innosetup as admin, same issue. Looked at the file rights, nothing special. How to overcome this ? Thanks
2015/10/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33094288", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4059171/" ]
I had the same issue - have started using ISCC to compile several packages from a single script. Was working great for weeks then suddenly stops. I resolved this by changing the read only status on the OUTPUT FOLDER (uncheck). I'd have to say Martin Prikryl's comment was 'spot on': > > The error is most likely caused by attempt to write the target setup > file, rather then reading the source icon file. So antivirus can be > the culprit. Though you wrote that you had disabled it. – Martin > Prikryl > > >
I did a small project, and I carefully inspected the anti virus software (Microsoft Security Essentials), and real time protection seems to be the culprit, because it worked out. So the previous comment was good. Now I will remove this folder from the real time protection from the anti virus. This is really bad because it happenned suddenly.
183,422
The description of the Giant's Might feature for the Rune Knight fighter in *Tasha's Cauldron of Everything* (p. 45) says that their weapons and armor grow with them, meaning their sword would be large/oversized. Giant weapons roll double the dice. Would a Rune Knight fighter using the Giant's Might feature benefit from this?
2021/03/29
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/183422", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/70322/" ]
### The class feature description has everything you need to know. The feature description for Giant’s Might is complete - you don’t have to look elsewhere to learn its effects: > > As a bonus action, *you magically gain the following benefits*, which last for 1 minute: > > > * If you are smaller than Large, you become Large, along with anything you are wearing. If you lack the room to become Large, your size doesn’t change. > * You have advantage on Strength checks and Strength saving throws. > * *Once on each of your turns, one of your attacks with a weapon or an unarmed strike can deal an extra 1d6 damage to a target on a hit.* > > > A little bit of extra damage is baked into the feature, and these are all the benefits of the feature. You don’t have to look elsewhere to learn how this feature works. ### You don't need the *Monster Manual* or *Dungeon Master's Guide* to understand your class features. The *Dungeon Master's Guide* contains guidance for the DM can use to create new monster stat blocks: > > If you want a full monster stat block, use the following method to create your new monster. > > > The introduction to the Monster Manual explains all the components of a monster’s stat block. Familiarize yourself with that material before you begin. In the course of creating your monster, if you find yourself unable to make a decision, let the examples in the Monster Manual guide you. > > > Once you have a monster concept in mind, follow the steps below. > > > The instructions for creating a monster include the following guidance for bigger monsters, which is where you got the idea: > > Big monsters typically wield oversized weapons that deal extra dice of damage on a hit. Double the weapon dice if the creature is Large, triple the weapon dice if it’s Huge, and quadruple the weapon dice if it’s Gargantuan. For example, a Huge giant wielding an appropriately sized greataxe deals 3d12 slashing damage (plus its Strength bonus), instead of the normal 1d12. > > > This is guidance for the DM to use to homebrew a monster. *This has nothing to do with player character class features*. This section isn't even giving "rules" about anything. This is telling the DM, "If you want to create a monster, here's some help".
It doesn't say that the items change in size, sadly. It only specifies what is being worn. I would agree that if it did change the weapon to an oversized weapon, it should gain the extra damage dice. A "monster" is specified as such, if you wanna use the DMG and Monster Manual for such a ruling. The definition is located in the Introduction of the Monster Manual. > > A monster is defined as any creature that can be interacted with and potentially fought and killed. Even something as harmless as a frog or as benevolent as a unicorn is a monster by this definition. The term also applies to humans, elves, dwarves, and other civilized folk who might be friends or rivals to the player characters. Most of the monsters that haunt the D&D world, however, are threats that are meant to be stopped: rampaging demons, conniving devils, soul-sucking undead, summoned elementals — the list goes on. > > > Therefore, player characters also qualify as "monsters". It's really up to the GM if the weapon size increased via the feature, but the only other plausible way to get that extra d12 on your Battleaxe is if someone used Enlarge/Reduce.
183,422
The description of the Giant's Might feature for the Rune Knight fighter in *Tasha's Cauldron of Everything* (p. 45) says that their weapons and armor grow with them, meaning their sword would be large/oversized. Giant weapons roll double the dice. Would a Rune Knight fighter using the Giant's Might feature benefit from this?
2021/03/29
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/183422", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/70322/" ]
### The class feature description has everything you need to know. The feature description for Giant’s Might is complete - you don’t have to look elsewhere to learn its effects: > > As a bonus action, *you magically gain the following benefits*, which last for 1 minute: > > > * If you are smaller than Large, you become Large, along with anything you are wearing. If you lack the room to become Large, your size doesn’t change. > * You have advantage on Strength checks and Strength saving throws. > * *Once on each of your turns, one of your attacks with a weapon or an unarmed strike can deal an extra 1d6 damage to a target on a hit.* > > > A little bit of extra damage is baked into the feature, and these are all the benefits of the feature. You don’t have to look elsewhere to learn how this feature works. ### You don't need the *Monster Manual* or *Dungeon Master's Guide* to understand your class features. The *Dungeon Master's Guide* contains guidance for the DM can use to create new monster stat blocks: > > If you want a full monster stat block, use the following method to create your new monster. > > > The introduction to the Monster Manual explains all the components of a monster’s stat block. Familiarize yourself with that material before you begin. In the course of creating your monster, if you find yourself unable to make a decision, let the examples in the Monster Manual guide you. > > > Once you have a monster concept in mind, follow the steps below. > > > The instructions for creating a monster include the following guidance for bigger monsters, which is where you got the idea: > > Big monsters typically wield oversized weapons that deal extra dice of damage on a hit. Double the weapon dice if the creature is Large, triple the weapon dice if it’s Huge, and quadruple the weapon dice if it’s Gargantuan. For example, a Huge giant wielding an appropriately sized greataxe deals 3d12 slashing damage (plus its Strength bonus), instead of the normal 1d12. > > > This is guidance for the DM to use to homebrew a monster. *This has nothing to do with player character class features*. This section isn't even giving "rules" about anything. This is telling the DM, "If you want to create a monster, here's some help".
Here is one of the great things about being a DM. You can chose to be fair and make your own ruling on these types of things. You can spend your game trying to come up with excuses to cheat players. The feature does what it says. Since the Giant Might ability clearly says "you become large, along with anything you are wearing." Anything you are wearing, this includes carrying, is now a size larger, *and we now need to know if this change affects the weapon in some way, Thus, we now need to know what a large size, or over-sized weapon does for damage*. The **Dungeon Masters Guide has rules for oversized weapons on pages 277-278**. It begins by talking about monsters who have oversized weapons and how to calculate for oversized weapons. This should definitely include your currently over-sized (large) weapons, making them one level of over-sized, which by RAW (Rules As Written) doubles their dice. **If your DM makes it all about "oversized weapons only apply to monsters", then do what a guy in the campaign I am playing in did, and chose a "monstrous" race** like the Bugbear, Centaur, Deep Gnome, Duergar, Fairy, Firbolg, Githyanki, Githzerai, Goblin, Grung, Hobgoblin, Kobold, Lizardfolk, Merfolk, Minotaur, Naga, Orc, Satyr, Siren, Vampire or Yuan-Ti. All of these are races from the Monster Manual, so all of these would qualify, even by the DM’s twisted interpretation of RAW. In this example, the player literally has a Minotaur with a greataxe. There is no way you can tell me that when a Large size Minotaur with an vicious, large-sized, two handed Greataxe charges to attack you, that it isn't going to cause massively more damage than usual. Any other answer than "yes" and I call, "BS" ! **Finally, the best solution to this mess that gives you large-size weapon damage that is impossible to ignore. Take Smith Tools, or hire a Smith, and make a large weapon. You can also get large weapons for free off dead creatures of large size (bugbear, minotaur, Fiends, golems, etc.).** *Carry the weapon with you, pull it out, put it on the ground and lean it against your body/leg. When you grow, grab the large weapon that already has the increased damage and use it.* **Now there is no way, without being the world's greatest hypocrite and cheat, the DM will HAVE to give you the appropriate damage.** *You can even then ask, after that combat, what is the difference between the large weapon you brought, and the large weapon you also hold, that grew with you. At this point it is fun to watch people dancing to justify their contrary logic/ruling.*
47,018
I'm trying to scale the image x,y but there is no way to do it. A quick google search shows a stretch/fit/crop option which I do not see even after scaling and scrolling through the panel. They are suppose to show up under the Back/Front buttons. [![background image options](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EYRZd.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EYRZd.png)
2016/02/15
[ "https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/47018", "https://blender.stackexchange.com", "https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/21880/" ]
According to the Blender manual, the stretch/fit/crop apply to the **camera** view only. They do not apply to the Top, Left, Right, or Bottom views in the 3D view-port. I don't have Blender in-front of me to be able to check, however, I suspect those options will only appear when your image is set to display in the camera view (on your screenshot, your image is set to display in the Top view). They might only appear when you are looking through the camera (`Numpad 0`). I will verify next time I have access to Blender.
I had the same problem. The solution I found was to write the number in the X: ... part and the Y: ... part and then to adjust them to move your image where you want it to be. It's a bit long, but, at least it works
651,787
To understand what I'm asking, it's important to distinguish from among the several uses of SUID in Unix. I have a project that uses an executable in the user's PATH which is owned by the project and which has the SUID bit set. In this way, when it runs, it runs in the context of the file's owner, not the calling user. This way, it has access to things that the user does not, and thereby these things are protected from the user by normal file system protections. This works reasonably well. Plans are to move the project to a client-server architecture but that's going to take some time. In the mean time, how can I replicate this type of behavior on Windows systems? Note that the project's executables do not call the SETUID library call though, frankly, that would be a great feature to add, in my opinion, given what the project does. The project does not need system root privileges. It's first security concern is that it needs to protect its own files from the user (which is simply any user other than the file owner) and it would be very nice if it had the ability to switch to "user context" to access the file system as if it were the calling user. (In this way, it could more easily determine what is OK for the project to touch and what is not.) The project is written in a combination of C and Java - a C program with SUID set calls the Java code... I am keen to know all such mechanisms, and am especially focused on those which are: 1. Suitable for C and Java, and; 2. Easy to implement for non-Windows programmers, and; 3. Require minimal coding unique to Windows. If some solutions are superior, please share your thoughts on whatever you are aware of in this regard. NOTES: 1. LogonUser: Requires a password in plain text. How can that be an answer? 2. RunAs: Requires password be entered at PROMPT! ...As with LogonUser only worse; I don't see how this is an answer.
2009/03/16
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/651787", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26976/" ]
Cygwin has an excellent discussion on how they do this without requiring the user password here: [Using Windows security in Cygwin](http://www.cygwin.com/cygwin-ug-net/ntsec.html#ntsec-nopasswd1) Basically they install a custom LSA authentication package that provides security tokens without requiring a password. As a fallback, when the authentication package is not installed, they use the undocumented NtCreateToken API. An application wanting to impersonate could make a cygwin setuid call before calling java.
I don't think there's an equivilent of SETUID in Windows, but you can launch a process as another user. If you are using C, there are really only two major Windows Specific functions you'll need to look into: [LogonUser](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa378184(VS.85).aspx) [CreateProcessAsUser](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms682429(VS.85).aspx) The docs for those functions are pretty good, so it shouldn't be that huge of a challenge. Basicly, you'll use LogonUser to impersonate the user, then CreateProcessAsUser to launch the JVM as that user. You could also look at the [RUNAS](http://www.ss64.com/nt/runas.html) command, but I'm not sure if that would meet your needs or not.
59,978,903
Facing some challenges in changing the default theme page layouts to elementor full width. A single post or single page layouts are unable to be accessed for changing the layout structure. Any help would be appreciated.
2020/01/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/59978903", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/12105100/" ]
An aggregate root should never contain a reference to another aggregate root. You should use either an id to reference an associated aggregate or a value object containing the id and some other pertinent data. Anything that is *floating in the ether* would be an aggregate root since it has a lifecycle of its own. I reckon the hierarchy should just work in a unidirectional manner as far as the domain is concerned. If you need to query lower level items based on higher level containment then you either need joins or need to denormalize the relevant higher level identifiers/data into the lower level items. My advice would be to attempt to keep any aggregate a single level deep but if that isn't practical then try something deeper but it gets unwieldy rather quickly.
Remember something can be an Aggregate in one use case and an Aggregate Root in another. If your use case is AddPlanetarySystemToSector, then Sector is your Aggregate Root. If your use case is AddMoonToPlanet, then Planet is the AR. The difference is that an AR should not be saved unless it and all Aggregates it owns satisfy all business rules. The higher level your AR, the more business rules you must test and satisfy. Therefore your use cases should be a specific as possible and target the proper AR. If this poses problems, a work around is to have ARs own value objects instead of aggregates. So a Sector would own PlanetarySystemVOs. If the Sector needs to modify a PlanetarySystem, it can launch a PlanetarySystem use case that performs the proper action.
49,866
I need some help. I am already deep into 2 stories that involve composers and in both stories there is a character based on Ludwig van Beethoven. Here is what I have trouble getting across: Friendly and stressed at the same time This is the typical way my Beethoven character feels. He sounds friendly and he is. He would save his best friend from a disaster. At the same time though, he is stressed out like very often. Sometimes it comes out as an angry tone. But often, this comes out as him tearing up letters. Also, people who know him well see him differently than those who have just met him. People who know Beethoven well: > > Beethoven would do anything for me, I just know it. He will understand what I'm saying and won't lash out simply because of what I said. > > > People who have just met Beethoven: > > What the? I asked him politely and what I asked him wasn't even that hard on him, and yet, he is yelling at me and it looks like he might hurt me severely. Why did I even agree to meet this Beethoven guy when he gets so angry at every little thing I say? > > > As you can probably tell, my Beethoven character has a bipolar personality. But I'm having difficulty making the angry speech and the friendly speech both sound like they are from the same person. Angry Beethoven sounds completely unrelated from friendly Beethoven, yet, it is the same person speaking. I don't want to have to mention Beethoven's name every time he speaks. I already mention things like "Beethoven tore up letters in anger" in the narration, but it doesn't seem to be enough to make the dialogue from this particular character sound like it is coming from the same person regardless of emotion. If you need to know what triggers him to suddenly lash out in anger at a friendly person, there are 2 known triggers in my stories, acquaintances and letters asking him to write another great symphony. There are probably other anger triggers as well, but these are not known in the stories because they aren't relevant to the stories. **So, how can I make Beethoven's speech more cohesive while also getting across the extreme emotional swings that he experiences, going from calm and friendly one minute to suddenly lashing out in anger the next?**
2020/01/29
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/49866", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/8607/" ]
My older sister is a bipolar adult - around 35 years old. She's aware of it, she's been medicated for it, and frankly, I think she manages it very well 99% of the time. While it's true that she has triggers, I think it's probably more relevant to your writing to be aware of how certain situations could be defused or snowball into a complete disaster, so I'm going to tell a quick story. My sister and I were speaking on the phone. She was already moderately upset because she'd had a fight with her husband. She was not quite on the brink of tears, but you could hear her voice faltering as she told what had happened. It was fairly innocuous - there was a failure in communication, and she had been waiting on him for dinner, while he ate without her. And then she asked me if she was right to be upset with him. A friend might have sided with her. An acquaintance might have pointed out that she was completely overreacting. I could tell she didn't actually *want* to be angry with him - so I decided to explain the situation from his perspective, so she could understand why he made the decision to eat without her. Her voice immediately became aggressive, any hint of sadness completely leeching out of it, and she practically yelled through the phone: > > "You think I'm at fault?" > > > "No, I don't," I respond, back-pedaling to control her outrage. > > > Immediately, she is calm and rational again. "Oh, okay." > > > "Neither of you is really 'at fault'. There was a miscommunication..." > > > I go on to explain again, having reassured her that I'm not attacking her. We talk for a little bit, and then I hear her sort of come to a realization and she says, > > "Oh. So we were both at fault." > > > And that was that. She was happy with the outcome, no disasters or rage-induced problems. The point I'm trying to make is that this scene could have played out very differently based on who she was talking to. If it was a complete stranger, she might cuss at him and move on. If it was someone she was close to, they might choose to avoid confrontation entirely, because they know she sometimes goes into these rages and they don't want to deal with it. If I had chosen to prevaricate or say "You were both at fault" from the get-go, she would probably have lost it. Someone bi-polar is completely capable of rational thought and speech. Keep the same general voice and word choices the same even when he starts getting upset. But as soon as the trigger is flipped, remember that he is in motion. He is moving, getting up, standing, clenching his fists, shouting, snarling, ripping his paper. There is no thought process or hesitation, no decision that he's *going* to rip up his music, he just can't stand it another second. And then as soon as the rage is over, he's completely fine and rational. Calm. Still. All the motion has fled, and he doesn't hold any sort of passive-aggressive feelings towards whoever just triggered him. There is no apology, no acknowledgment that it even happened (at least not until much later). --- Disclaimer: I am not bipolar, this is based purely on my observation of a single subject. Your mileage may vary)
If he’s bi-polar, it’s more likely that he lashes out at those he loves and that he knows love and care for him. It is safe for him to take it out on the people he trusts. I think it’s more likely that he is courteous and charming to strangers. It’s not going to be what he says but how he say it. Friendly and seemingly gracious to strangers and belligerent and rude to close family and friends.
90,431
I modelled a very simple beginners version of a rabbit ear (improvement proposals for better implementation welcome). [![rabbit ear model](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9wUkj.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9wUkj.png) I managed to create a curve from the root to the tip of the ear by applying a Curve Modifier and using a Path I deformed in Edit Mode. This is what I have: **[Blend file](https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B2FsEJdefonnSnJsTmR2bFJxemM)**. Now I want to **create a curvature at the root of the ear to buldge the lower part** like ![here](https://thumb9.shutterstock.com/display_pic_with_logo/1455908/178476836/stock-vector-rabbit-ears-crown-178476836.jpg) (but not that extreme). I made a Vertex Group (*earRoot*) for all the bottom vertices and wanted to place them onto a (circle) Path using the *Curve Modifier*. But I have several problems: * Whenever I assign the *Vertex Group* to the *Curve Modifier* the lower part of the ear gets displaced from the rest of the ear and totally twisted * If I do not use the *Vertex Group* I also do not find the correct axis/settings/position to deform the ear like I wish. * I also tried to set the origin of the ear to the bottom with no effect. Any help appreciated. **[EDIT:]** The answers from @cegaton and @MikeMoore already helped perfectly to achieve the desired end result and I understand it is lot easier and simpler to do proportional editing here. But I'd *still love to understand the correct usage of the Curve Modifier for this purpose (assuming it is even possible) - and what I did wrong (learning purposes)*.
2017/09/17
[ "https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/90431", "https://blender.stackexchange.com", "https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/45012/" ]
Actually, it is the specular value input, specular is reflectivity. It's just that in some non PBR setups specular is a way of faking a reflected highlight without calulating actual reflections, and they called it specular. But in the principled shader specular means reflection and that's where you would put the reflection map, also sometimes called a specular map. Play with the specular value and you'll see you can go from zero reflection to 100% mirror reflection. Roughness is basically your way of dulling down or polishing up the reflectivity, it's like a gloss value
Ok. This is from Blender guru. He shows where is the reflections. A short explanation of principled: link: <https://goo.gl/fgsyxN> [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TVkiE.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TVkiE.jpg)
166,988
Should words derived from proper nouns be capitalized or not? e.g. "Romanize/romanize", "Boolean/boolean" (I have seen both forms in the corpora and dictionaries). Personally I think the derived words are not proper (they refer to a concept rather than a person) and should not be capitalized.
2014/04/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/166988", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/71087/" ]
Your examples are of two different types. Boolean is named after George Boole, a specific person. Therefore **Boolean** should be capitalized. In common usage, Romanize, frequently appears in lower case. I don't know if "common usage" equates to "being correct"
I think generally capitalizing would make it more specific and proper, however a lower-case would do as well. Browsing around, lots of words like anglicize have alternate forms like Anglicize. However, words like Latinize are generally always uppercase, but romanize is generally lower-case. I think a hard and fast rule would be always to capitalize to clarify to your audience that the words are derived from proper noun roots.
166,988
Should words derived from proper nouns be capitalized or not? e.g. "Romanize/romanize", "Boolean/boolean" (I have seen both forms in the corpora and dictionaries). Personally I think the derived words are not proper (they refer to a concept rather than a person) and should not be capitalized.
2014/04/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/166988", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/71087/" ]
The difference between Boolean and boolean becomes distinct in computer languages, such as Java. See <https://stackoverflow.com/q/3728616/509840>. In Java, *Boolean* refers to an Object, which may be true, false, or null. In contrast, *boolean* refers to a primitive type, which may only be true or false. I am guessing that the OP is deciding between *Boolean* and *boolean* in the context of mathematics or computers. Most of the mathematical references I'm seeing (Wikipedia, Wolfram) for [Boolean logic](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boolean_logic) or [Boolean algebra](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BooleanAlgebra.html) capitalized the word.
I think generally capitalizing would make it more specific and proper, however a lower-case would do as well. Browsing around, lots of words like anglicize have alternate forms like Anglicize. However, words like Latinize are generally always uppercase, but romanize is generally lower-case. I think a hard and fast rule would be always to capitalize to clarify to your audience that the words are derived from proper noun roots.
166,988
Should words derived from proper nouns be capitalized or not? e.g. "Romanize/romanize", "Boolean/boolean" (I have seen both forms in the corpora and dictionaries). Personally I think the derived words are not proper (they refer to a concept rather than a person) and should not be capitalized.
2014/04/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/166988", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/71087/" ]
Etymology is not a determiner of whether something gets capitalized or not. Many proper nouns are derived from non-proper nouns (e.g. *Apple, Smith, United Kingdom, World Wide Web*), and vice versa (e.g. *atlas, echo, narcissist, siren, sodomy*). It is usage and usage alone that determines whether something gets capitalized or not. This is decided for each and every word individually. And it is decided not by a committee in a single sitting on a given date, but by millions of people all over the world over the course of decades or even centuries. As a result, there is no general pattern. The Roman Empire had nothing whatsoever to do with George Boole, after all. However, there can be a clear pattern for words of the same group, for obvious reasons. For example, the days of the week, the months, and the names of languages are always capitalized regardless of whether or not they were derived from proper or common nouns. Conversely, genericized trademarks (*aspirin, bandaid, coke, escalator, kleenex, thermos, zipper*) are no longer capitalized, even though they were *specifically invented* to be capitalized at all times ever. Lastly, while capitalized nouns and adjectives are quite common in English, it simply does not like to capitalize verbs anywhere as much. So it is safe to say that even if we collectively try really hard to Google for Photoshopped cats in order to LOL, we will eventually end up googling for photoshopped cats and lolling. See also: [Should the word "Boolean" be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/4481/should-the-word-boolean-be-capitalized)
I think generally capitalizing would make it more specific and proper, however a lower-case would do as well. Browsing around, lots of words like anglicize have alternate forms like Anglicize. However, words like Latinize are generally always uppercase, but romanize is generally lower-case. I think a hard and fast rule would be always to capitalize to clarify to your audience that the words are derived from proper noun roots.
166,988
Should words derived from proper nouns be capitalized or not? e.g. "Romanize/romanize", "Boolean/boolean" (I have seen both forms in the corpora and dictionaries). Personally I think the derived words are not proper (they refer to a concept rather than a person) and should not be capitalized.
2014/04/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/166988", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/71087/" ]
The difference between Boolean and boolean becomes distinct in computer languages, such as Java. See <https://stackoverflow.com/q/3728616/509840>. In Java, *Boolean* refers to an Object, which may be true, false, or null. In contrast, *boolean* refers to a primitive type, which may only be true or false. I am guessing that the OP is deciding between *Boolean* and *boolean* in the context of mathematics or computers. Most of the mathematical references I'm seeing (Wikipedia, Wolfram) for [Boolean logic](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boolean_logic) or [Boolean algebra](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BooleanAlgebra.html) capitalized the word.
Your examples are of two different types. Boolean is named after George Boole, a specific person. Therefore **Boolean** should be capitalized. In common usage, Romanize, frequently appears in lower case. I don't know if "common usage" equates to "being correct"
166,988
Should words derived from proper nouns be capitalized or not? e.g. "Romanize/romanize", "Boolean/boolean" (I have seen both forms in the corpora and dictionaries). Personally I think the derived words are not proper (they refer to a concept rather than a person) and should not be capitalized.
2014/04/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/166988", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/71087/" ]
Etymology is not a determiner of whether something gets capitalized or not. Many proper nouns are derived from non-proper nouns (e.g. *Apple, Smith, United Kingdom, World Wide Web*), and vice versa (e.g. *atlas, echo, narcissist, siren, sodomy*). It is usage and usage alone that determines whether something gets capitalized or not. This is decided for each and every word individually. And it is decided not by a committee in a single sitting on a given date, but by millions of people all over the world over the course of decades or even centuries. As a result, there is no general pattern. The Roman Empire had nothing whatsoever to do with George Boole, after all. However, there can be a clear pattern for words of the same group, for obvious reasons. For example, the days of the week, the months, and the names of languages are always capitalized regardless of whether or not they were derived from proper or common nouns. Conversely, genericized trademarks (*aspirin, bandaid, coke, escalator, kleenex, thermos, zipper*) are no longer capitalized, even though they were *specifically invented* to be capitalized at all times ever. Lastly, while capitalized nouns and adjectives are quite common in English, it simply does not like to capitalize verbs anywhere as much. So it is safe to say that even if we collectively try really hard to Google for Photoshopped cats in order to LOL, we will eventually end up googling for photoshopped cats and lolling. See also: [Should the word "Boolean" be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/4481/should-the-word-boolean-be-capitalized)
Your examples are of two different types. Boolean is named after George Boole, a specific person. Therefore **Boolean** should be capitalized. In common usage, Romanize, frequently appears in lower case. I don't know if "common usage" equates to "being correct"
166,988
Should words derived from proper nouns be capitalized or not? e.g. "Romanize/romanize", "Boolean/boolean" (I have seen both forms in the corpora and dictionaries). Personally I think the derived words are not proper (they refer to a concept rather than a person) and should not be capitalized.
2014/04/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/166988", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/71087/" ]
Etymology is not a determiner of whether something gets capitalized or not. Many proper nouns are derived from non-proper nouns (e.g. *Apple, Smith, United Kingdom, World Wide Web*), and vice versa (e.g. *atlas, echo, narcissist, siren, sodomy*). It is usage and usage alone that determines whether something gets capitalized or not. This is decided for each and every word individually. And it is decided not by a committee in a single sitting on a given date, but by millions of people all over the world over the course of decades or even centuries. As a result, there is no general pattern. The Roman Empire had nothing whatsoever to do with George Boole, after all. However, there can be a clear pattern for words of the same group, for obvious reasons. For example, the days of the week, the months, and the names of languages are always capitalized regardless of whether or not they were derived from proper or common nouns. Conversely, genericized trademarks (*aspirin, bandaid, coke, escalator, kleenex, thermos, zipper*) are no longer capitalized, even though they were *specifically invented* to be capitalized at all times ever. Lastly, while capitalized nouns and adjectives are quite common in English, it simply does not like to capitalize verbs anywhere as much. So it is safe to say that even if we collectively try really hard to Google for Photoshopped cats in order to LOL, we will eventually end up googling for photoshopped cats and lolling. See also: [Should the word "Boolean" be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/4481/should-the-word-boolean-be-capitalized)
The difference between Boolean and boolean becomes distinct in computer languages, such as Java. See <https://stackoverflow.com/q/3728616/509840>. In Java, *Boolean* refers to an Object, which may be true, false, or null. In contrast, *boolean* refers to a primitive type, which may only be true or false. I am guessing that the OP is deciding between *Boolean* and *boolean* in the context of mathematics or computers. Most of the mathematical references I'm seeing (Wikipedia, Wolfram) for [Boolean logic](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boolean_logic) or [Boolean algebra](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BooleanAlgebra.html) capitalized the word.
693,672
I've decided to learn D, and I'm wondering which standard library I should use. Should I use Phobos or Tango? What are the pros and cons of each?
2009/03/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/693672", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/83871/" ]
Tango. It's more object-oriented where appropriate, it includes containers (like STL or Java Collections), it's got an active development team, it has more momentum (it may soon be incorporated into the official compiler), and it's got real documentation, including [Learn to Tango with D](http://www.apress.com/book/view/1590599608). It looks like Tango may soon be incorporated into Walter's releases.
From [Dispelling Common D Myths](https://semitwist.com/articles/article/view/dispelling-common-d-myths#dmyths-tango): > > Phobos is D's standard lib, period. Tango is now an optional but Phobos-compatible third party library. That's all there is to it. > > >
693,672
I've decided to learn D, and I'm wondering which standard library I should use. Should I use Phobos or Tango? What are the pros and cons of each?
2009/03/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/693672", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/83871/" ]
Tango. It's more object-oriented where appropriate, it includes containers (like STL or Java Collections), it's got an active development team, it has more momentum (it may soon be incorporated into the official compiler), and it's got real documentation, including [Learn to Tango with D](http://www.apress.com/book/view/1590599608). It looks like Tango may soon be incorporated into Walter's releases.
[Phobos 1\* vs Tango](http://docs.google.com/Doc?id=dcswwfd8_48hq4fdwhd)
693,672
I've decided to learn D, and I'm wondering which standard library I should use. Should I use Phobos or Tango? What are the pros and cons of each?
2009/03/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/693672", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/83871/" ]
Tango. It's more object-oriented where appropriate, it includes containers (like STL or Java Collections), it's got an active development team, it has more momentum (it may soon be incorporated into the official compiler), and it's got real documentation, including [Learn to Tango with D](http://www.apress.com/book/view/1590599608). It looks like Tango may soon be incorporated into Walter's releases.
If you use D2, use Phobos If you use D1, use Tango. And you must learn D2, so use Phobos. Easy, not ? Note : Phobos for D2 it's much powerfull and bigger that for D1.
693,672
I've decided to learn D, and I'm wondering which standard library I should use. Should I use Phobos or Tango? What are the pros and cons of each?
2009/03/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/693672", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/83871/" ]
Tango. It's more object-oriented where appropriate, it includes containers (like STL or Java Collections), it's got an active development team, it has more momentum (it may soon be incorporated into the official compiler), and it's got real documentation, including [Learn to Tango with D](http://www.apress.com/book/view/1590599608). It looks like Tango may soon be incorporated into Walter's releases.
In my opinion, (having never actually used Boost), Tango is more like Boost, and Phobos is more elegant. As was stated above, using Phobos is much like Python.
693,672
I've decided to learn D, and I'm wondering which standard library I should use. Should I use Phobos or Tango? What are the pros and cons of each?
2009/03/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/693672", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/83871/" ]
[Phobos 1\* vs Tango](http://docs.google.com/Doc?id=dcswwfd8_48hq4fdwhd)
In my opinion, (having never actually used Boost), Tango is more like Boost, and Phobos is more elegant. As was stated above, using Phobos is much like Python.