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172,348 | I work as a software developer where we have a voluntary on-call roster, where devs do on-call duties in a round-robin fashion. Recently, my manager told me that the roster is currently too small and it's putting strain on the devs who have volunteered (it pays extra btw). As a result, devs who are not on the roster are being encouraged to do so.
The way it works is that you get put on on-call duty where you have to be available pretty much 24/7 (including weekend) for a week.
Since the company has no policy that makes this mandatory (it wasn't mentioned when I joined close to a year ago), I want to decline joining the roster since I feel like it's a lot of pressure. Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light? | 2021/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/172348",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/121069/"
] | I can see three ways this will pan out:
First - enough people volunteer so that the roster is no longer strained. This won't reflect badly on you since they will have achieved what they set out to do.
Second - no-one (or not enough) volunteers, and the status quo reigns. This won't reflect badly on you directly, they might be annoyed at *everyone* who didn't volunteer but unless there's something that makes you stand out it's likely to be pretty diffuse.
Third - no-one (or not enough) volunteers, and they start pressuring or trying to volun-tell people on to the roster. Refusing in this scenario *might* reflect badly on you directly, but it's *still the right thing to do.* You've stated it's not about the money for you so there's no sense in negotiating more money for doing it - you'll still be miserable doing it and you'll likely resent the company to hell and back for putting you in that position in the first place. And that's a one-way express ticket to you choosing to bail from the job. Whereas even *if* they look badly on you for not agreeing to do it it's only going to be an issue long-term if they're the unpleasant, vindictive sort of employer,and in that case you just pull that rip-cord and get out anyway. If they aren't you get to carry on as before and haven't lost anything.
So if you stick to your guns they *might* be annoyed with you and that *might* have some lasting negative effects - but if you agree to do it you *are* going to be having lasting negative effects. At this point sticking to your guns seems like a no-brainer. | >
> Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light?
>
>
>
I wasn't hired for the maintenance of the coffee machine at work, so I won't do it. I have other work to do. But if the coffee machine was on fire, I'd drop my work to extinguish it.
The same principle applies to any activities in the company that are not officially in your contract. You are legally allowed to refuse them (within the legal bounds of course), but if you are a stickler for the contract at a time of *true* need, that is going to paint you as unhelpful (at the very least).
But this is highly contextual.
* Maybe the company has a genuine short term "act of god"-type emergency requiring more attendance
* Maybe the company hides a lack of budget/proper management by making everything an emergency all the time
* Maybe the company is consistently understaffing its efforts and expecting employees to voluntarily fix it for them
Whether I would help out or not massively depends on the context. For a *true* emergency, I'll be willing to help out, but not for a consistent issue that is caused by bad resource management.
That is my decision, but that is not necessarily yours. You have to make this for yourself. |
172,348 | I work as a software developer where we have a voluntary on-call roster, where devs do on-call duties in a round-robin fashion. Recently, my manager told me that the roster is currently too small and it's putting strain on the devs who have volunteered (it pays extra btw). As a result, devs who are not on the roster are being encouraged to do so.
The way it works is that you get put on on-call duty where you have to be available pretty much 24/7 (including weekend) for a week.
Since the company has no policy that makes this mandatory (it wasn't mentioned when I joined close to a year ago), I want to decline joining the roster since I feel like it's a lot of pressure. Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light? | 2021/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/172348",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/121069/"
] | I can see three ways this will pan out:
First - enough people volunteer so that the roster is no longer strained. This won't reflect badly on you since they will have achieved what they set out to do.
Second - no-one (or not enough) volunteers, and the status quo reigns. This won't reflect badly on you directly, they might be annoyed at *everyone* who didn't volunteer but unless there's something that makes you stand out it's likely to be pretty diffuse.
Third - no-one (or not enough) volunteers, and they start pressuring or trying to volun-tell people on to the roster. Refusing in this scenario *might* reflect badly on you directly, but it's *still the right thing to do.* You've stated it's not about the money for you so there's no sense in negotiating more money for doing it - you'll still be miserable doing it and you'll likely resent the company to hell and back for putting you in that position in the first place. And that's a one-way express ticket to you choosing to bail from the job. Whereas even *if* they look badly on you for not agreeing to do it it's only going to be an issue long-term if they're the unpleasant, vindictive sort of employer,and in that case you just pull that rip-cord and get out anyway. If they aren't you get to carry on as before and haven't lost anything.
So if you stick to your guns they *might* be annoyed with you and that *might* have some lasting negative effects - but if you agree to do it you *are* going to be having lasting negative effects. At this point sticking to your guns seems like a no-brainer. | Work out what it would take to make working on-call acceptable to you, and tell your boss that. This is a negotiation, and the company is trying to get the best deal they can. Don't let them use guilt to take a deal that you're not happy with, because you have something to sell that the company wants.
* Maybe you could take extra time off instead of being paid for call out.
* Maybe you never want to be on call on Sunday morning so you can go to church, or you need to look after your kids all weekend.
* Maybe you are willing to answer calls but can't promise to always be sober enough to drive in to the office.
* Maybe you wouldn't mind taking a call in the evening but there's no amount they could pay you to be woken up in the night.
* Maybe it *is* about the money.
There will be some people on your team for whom the extra money is very valuable and others for whom it doesn't make a lot of difference. There will be those who spend their evenings and weekends on the couch, and others who need to get home to care for an elderly parent. Everyone has a different price on their free time.
If the company isn't willing to be flexible or just isn't offering enough for what they're asking from you, just say no. It's not your responsibility to make sacrifices to make the company profitable. |
172,348 | I work as a software developer where we have a voluntary on-call roster, where devs do on-call duties in a round-robin fashion. Recently, my manager told me that the roster is currently too small and it's putting strain on the devs who have volunteered (it pays extra btw). As a result, devs who are not on the roster are being encouraged to do so.
The way it works is that you get put on on-call duty where you have to be available pretty much 24/7 (including weekend) for a week.
Since the company has no policy that makes this mandatory (it wasn't mentioned when I joined close to a year ago), I want to decline joining the roster since I feel like it's a lot of pressure. Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light? | 2021/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/172348",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/121069/"
] | **If the on-call work is voluntary and you don't want to do it, don't volunteer.** Everybody, including management, seems to agree that you don't have to do it, so there's no problem. You shouldn't be penalized for not volunteering, and it sounds like you won't be. However, the people that *do* step up might be rewarded; right now, the reward seems to be extra pay, but don't be surprised if they also get promoted sooner, or get first shot at fun or interesting projects. In addition to being seen as willing to step up and help management out, they're also building relationships with the people who need support and demonstrating their ability to solve problems, and those are the kinds of things that get you noticed.
**Look for other ways to help out.** If you don't want to do the on-call work, maybe you can head up an effort that'll reduce the strain on the people who do. Hopefully, each after-hours call should result in some sort of artifact, maybe a problem ticket, an entry in a work log, whatever. If your company isn't already tracking the on-call work, then you should suggest they start doing that. See if you can go through the reports and identify the issues that come up most often. Then, figure out what you need to do to reduce the frequency of those issues and do it. If you server is going down twice a week, fix that. If customers regularly have a problem, maybe you can tweak the documentation or improve the user interface.
By taking the lead on reducing the problems, you'll be helping to make your co-worker's lives better -- they'll still get paid extra for being there when needed, but they'll be needed less. You'll get some of the same exposure to the trouble spots in your systems or products that the on-call folks do, so you won't suffer in terms of experience. And if your efforts succeed, management will notice your efforts to help the company. | I am going to offer a contrary outlook (at least to those that have answered here), but you may want to consider.
* Some small(-er) growing companies that I have worked at had similar arrangements where developers provided support, where the support work did not justify hiring full-time staff as of yet.
* Joining in the shared support work shows you are interested in becoming part of the team. Conversely, refusing (or not volunteering) gives the impression you are only interested in your own short-term wants, and not the supporting the larger goals of the team.
* Working in customer support for the software you develop can be very beneficial. Hearing first-hand user pains and problems will help you in crafting better solutions and evaluating alternatives when you work on the software.
* Many of the opinions provided here are obviously geared to larger companies, and jump on the "company is cheap" or "company is evil" rationale, and think support is beneath them. I would suggest ignoring these people. |
172,348 | I work as a software developer where we have a voluntary on-call roster, where devs do on-call duties in a round-robin fashion. Recently, my manager told me that the roster is currently too small and it's putting strain on the devs who have volunteered (it pays extra btw). As a result, devs who are not on the roster are being encouraged to do so.
The way it works is that you get put on on-call duty where you have to be available pretty much 24/7 (including weekend) for a week.
Since the company has no policy that makes this mandatory (it wasn't mentioned when I joined close to a year ago), I want to decline joining the roster since I feel like it's a lot of pressure. Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light? | 2021/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/172348",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/121069/"
] | >
> Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light?
>
>
>
I wasn't hired for the maintenance of the coffee machine at work, so I won't do it. I have other work to do. But if the coffee machine was on fire, I'd drop my work to extinguish it.
The same principle applies to any activities in the company that are not officially in your contract. You are legally allowed to refuse them (within the legal bounds of course), but if you are a stickler for the contract at a time of *true* need, that is going to paint you as unhelpful (at the very least).
But this is highly contextual.
* Maybe the company has a genuine short term "act of god"-type emergency requiring more attendance
* Maybe the company hides a lack of budget/proper management by making everything an emergency all the time
* Maybe the company is consistently understaffing its efforts and expecting employees to voluntarily fix it for them
Whether I would help out or not massively depends on the context. For a *true* emergency, I'll be willing to help out, but not for a consistent issue that is caused by bad resource management.
That is my decision, but that is not necessarily yours. You have to make this for yourself. | I am going to offer a contrary outlook (at least to those that have answered here), but you may want to consider.
* Some small(-er) growing companies that I have worked at had similar arrangements where developers provided support, where the support work did not justify hiring full-time staff as of yet.
* Joining in the shared support work shows you are interested in becoming part of the team. Conversely, refusing (or not volunteering) gives the impression you are only interested in your own short-term wants, and not the supporting the larger goals of the team.
* Working in customer support for the software you develop can be very beneficial. Hearing first-hand user pains and problems will help you in crafting better solutions and evaluating alternatives when you work on the software.
* Many of the opinions provided here are obviously geared to larger companies, and jump on the "company is cheap" or "company is evil" rationale, and think support is beneath them. I would suggest ignoring these people. |
172,348 | I work as a software developer where we have a voluntary on-call roster, where devs do on-call duties in a round-robin fashion. Recently, my manager told me that the roster is currently too small and it's putting strain on the devs who have volunteered (it pays extra btw). As a result, devs who are not on the roster are being encouraged to do so.
The way it works is that you get put on on-call duty where you have to be available pretty much 24/7 (including weekend) for a week.
Since the company has no policy that makes this mandatory (it wasn't mentioned when I joined close to a year ago), I want to decline joining the roster since I feel like it's a lot of pressure. Would it be the right thing to do or might it paint me in a bad light? | 2021/05/11 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/172348",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/121069/"
] | Work out what it would take to make working on-call acceptable to you, and tell your boss that. This is a negotiation, and the company is trying to get the best deal they can. Don't let them use guilt to take a deal that you're not happy with, because you have something to sell that the company wants.
* Maybe you could take extra time off instead of being paid for call out.
* Maybe you never want to be on call on Sunday morning so you can go to church, or you need to look after your kids all weekend.
* Maybe you are willing to answer calls but can't promise to always be sober enough to drive in to the office.
* Maybe you wouldn't mind taking a call in the evening but there's no amount they could pay you to be woken up in the night.
* Maybe it *is* about the money.
There will be some people on your team for whom the extra money is very valuable and others for whom it doesn't make a lot of difference. There will be those who spend their evenings and weekends on the couch, and others who need to get home to care for an elderly parent. Everyone has a different price on their free time.
If the company isn't willing to be flexible or just isn't offering enough for what they're asking from you, just say no. It's not your responsibility to make sacrifices to make the company profitable. | You could refuse to be part of the roster, but this might turn out to limit your career advancement opportunities and possibly your standing within the team.
The people currently on the roster might be doing it to earn a little more money for themselves, but they're also increasing their visibility to management in terms of being available to work on and correct urgent issues.
You should really talk to your manager and the team members who currently work on the roster and see what the actual work entails. Do people really get woken up at 2am and told to fix issues? Is there any documentation to help resolve common issues?
Being a part of the roster can only be a positive for you. Even if you can't resolve specific issues to full resolution, performing the initial diagnosis steps is a whole lot better than nothing at all happening. |
26,835 | I am about to take a role as a BI Product Owner, but there is some debate as to how to structure the team. Some of the articles and white papers discuss a BI 'team' but this causes me a few conceptual concerns. If I read people like Craig Larman (Large Scale Scrum) he advises creating a 'feature team' that works across the stack to create a coherent customer-centric product. That might include embedded BI to the extent that the customer wanted it and found it valuable. If so, the feature team might need BI skills, as well as their other cross functional skills to deliver, but at least they would understand the data since it would be part of their app.
However, BI is also a valuable internal product...using customer/app data to deliver customer insights, but also a whole range of internal operational issues that the customer might have no interest in. If you create a BI team centred on that 'product' then you have diverged from the customer-centric view (at least from a revenue generation point of view) but also you have a team that is not working right across the stack and doesn't work directly with the data.
Does anyone see that as a tension? Any thoughts/ideas/observations/resources?
All input gratefully received.
Ged | 2019/07/20 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/26835",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/36543/"
] | >
> Some of the articles and white papers discuss a **BI 'team'** but this
> causes me a few conceptual concerns. If I read people like Craig
> Larman (Large Scale Scrum) he advises creating a **'feature team'** that
> works across the stack to create a coherent customer-centric product.
>
>
>
What about having both?
On scaled frameworks such as [SAFe](https://www.scaledagileframework.com), the guideline is to have, as you rightly mentioned, the feature team able to deliver value capable of delivering value with as less external dependencies as possible.
At the same time, SAFe understands that the knowledge amongst peers sharing same role and areas is not only important but *critical for leveraging the multiple experiences and different types of practical knowledge available from a variety of people*. How to address this? **Creating [Communities of Practice](https://www.scaledagileframework.com/communities-of-practice/)**.
This way, you'll still be part of a *client-centric* feature team as PO, and at the same time constantly catching up with other BI POs in a *product-centric* community. | >
> However, BI is also a valuable internal product
>
>
>
With this sentence you have answered your own question.
It is preferable to have feature teams rather than component teams, but not all products are externally facing. Many products are for internal consumption.
The way I like to define a product is something that provides business value and has distinct customers. Those customers can be external *or* internal to the organisation.
The tricky bit is defining what is a means to an end and what is a genuine product. For example:
>
> Authentication component
>
>
>
Does not of itself deliver value. The authentication component is typically combined with other components and code to becomes a product that delivers business value.
>
> BI sales report
>
>
>
This is an internal product as it delivers real business value to the sales team. They may use the information in the report to influence their decisions and so there is clear value and a defined customer. |
1,464 | I see this one quite a lot: an author releases something under a standard free/open license (i.e. *not* a [crayon license](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/q/1445/175)), but on the same release page adds a clause that conflicts with the license. I.e.
>
> **Free Frobnicator** is a handy utility that frobs widgets, by Jane Doe
>
>
> Released under <license>
>
>
> By the way, <additional clause that conflicts with license>
>
>
>
These additional clauses could be from misunderstanding the license, or carelessness. I've seen these:
* "Let me know if you use this in your project!"
As far as I'm aware, no free/open license requires contacting the author if you use it.
* "Contact me if you want to use this commercially."
Implying that the license doesn't already allow commercial use, which free/open licenses do.
* "You are free to use however you want, except in pornography."
Free/open licenses can't discriminate on usage.
**Do these extra conflicting clauses make the license invalid, or is the license unaffected?** Does it depend on the license used? Or is this legally ambiguous? | 2015/08/06 | [
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com/questions/1464",
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com",
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com/users/175/"
] | You are asking three questions, I think:
1. are they enforceable?
2. do they tamper with the enforceability of the main license?
3. do they pollute the open/free status of the overall license?
The answer to the third question is 'yes'. If someone adds a clause that is incompatible with, for example, OSI, then it's not an OSI-licence. This has no legal implication at all. It's just a fact.
The first two questions are for lawyers, but, in general, crayons are contagious. If you scribble on a license with a crayon, the results can very possibly be crayon-ish, since by ignorance the extra provisions can conflict with or change the interpretation of the base license. | The concise, well-written [answer by bmargulies](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/a/1465/997) does miss *one* thing in your question:
>
> Does it depend on the license used?
>
>
>
**Yes,** it does. The GNU GPL, for instance, specifically says that conflicting provisions are void if they add restrictions. This is from section 7 of v.3; v.2 had the corresponding text in its section 6.
>
> All other non-permissive additional terms are considered “further restrictions” within the meaning of section 10. If the Program as you received it, or any part of it, contains a notice stating that it is governed by this License along with a term that is a further restriction, you may remove that term.
>
>
>
Other licences that do not have such a clause *may or may not* be affected; I'm not a lawyer. (But it seems to me that a comment "alongside" the licence is probably meant to be *part of* the licencing terms, so yes, I think it'd be affected.) |
1,464 | I see this one quite a lot: an author releases something under a standard free/open license (i.e. *not* a [crayon license](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/q/1445/175)), but on the same release page adds a clause that conflicts with the license. I.e.
>
> **Free Frobnicator** is a handy utility that frobs widgets, by Jane Doe
>
>
> Released under <license>
>
>
> By the way, <additional clause that conflicts with license>
>
>
>
These additional clauses could be from misunderstanding the license, or carelessness. I've seen these:
* "Let me know if you use this in your project!"
As far as I'm aware, no free/open license requires contacting the author if you use it.
* "Contact me if you want to use this commercially."
Implying that the license doesn't already allow commercial use, which free/open licenses do.
* "You are free to use however you want, except in pornography."
Free/open licenses can't discriminate on usage.
**Do these extra conflicting clauses make the license invalid, or is the license unaffected?** Does it depend on the license used? Or is this legally ambiguous? | 2015/08/06 | [
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com/questions/1464",
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com",
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com/users/175/"
] | You are asking three questions, I think:
1. are they enforceable?
2. do they tamper with the enforceability of the main license?
3. do they pollute the open/free status of the overall license?
The answer to the third question is 'yes'. If someone adds a clause that is incompatible with, for example, OSI, then it's not an OSI-licence. This has no legal implication at all. It's just a fact.
The first two questions are for lawyers, but, in general, crayons are contagious. If you scribble on a license with a crayon, the results can very possibly be crayon-ish, since by ignorance the extra provisions can conflict with or change the interpretation of the base license. | In addition to the good answers of [bmargulies](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/a/1465/55) and [Free Radical](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/a/1466/55) there is a perspective beyond the legal stuff.
If you release something under an open source license, your express intent is to give others some rights, including the right to redistribute, use it without restriction and to modify and release the modified work. If you do not intent to grant these rights, you don't need to add a license at all.
But the contradicting clauses cause confusion. Especially people not experienced with the legal stuff, might be shying away from using their rights on your work. So you lose possible applications of your work against your intent. Even if you legally clearly know what you do is legally working, such confusion might lead to you losing possible users.
An example that shows how legal uncertainty lead to problems, although the reason of the legal uncertainties isn't an additional clause. The german programmer [Jörg Schilling](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/J%C3%B6rg_Schilling) is well known as the programmer of cdrtools. At some point he decided to [change the license](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cdrtools#License_compatibility_controversy) on most of his work, while still incorporating some GPL-work. Jörg Schilling is sure, he isn't violating the GPL in this case as he expressed, and at no point any legal action happened (as far as I'm aware), this controversy didn't go to court. Still most binary Linux-distributions (source distribution is unaffected) removed cdrtools and use a fork named cdrkit. So, however the real legal situation is, the uncertainty alone lead to a lot of lost users.
So it is generally advisable to avoid confusion as much as possible. |
1,464 | I see this one quite a lot: an author releases something under a standard free/open license (i.e. *not* a [crayon license](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/q/1445/175)), but on the same release page adds a clause that conflicts with the license. I.e.
>
> **Free Frobnicator** is a handy utility that frobs widgets, by Jane Doe
>
>
> Released under <license>
>
>
> By the way, <additional clause that conflicts with license>
>
>
>
These additional clauses could be from misunderstanding the license, or carelessness. I've seen these:
* "Let me know if you use this in your project!"
As far as I'm aware, no free/open license requires contacting the author if you use it.
* "Contact me if you want to use this commercially."
Implying that the license doesn't already allow commercial use, which free/open licenses do.
* "You are free to use however you want, except in pornography."
Free/open licenses can't discriminate on usage.
**Do these extra conflicting clauses make the license invalid, or is the license unaffected?** Does it depend on the license used? Or is this legally ambiguous? | 2015/08/06 | [
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com/questions/1464",
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com",
"https://opensource.stackexchange.com/users/175/"
] | The concise, well-written [answer by bmargulies](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/a/1465/997) does miss *one* thing in your question:
>
> Does it depend on the license used?
>
>
>
**Yes,** it does. The GNU GPL, for instance, specifically says that conflicting provisions are void if they add restrictions. This is from section 7 of v.3; v.2 had the corresponding text in its section 6.
>
> All other non-permissive additional terms are considered “further restrictions” within the meaning of section 10. If the Program as you received it, or any part of it, contains a notice stating that it is governed by this License along with a term that is a further restriction, you may remove that term.
>
>
>
Other licences that do not have such a clause *may or may not* be affected; I'm not a lawyer. (But it seems to me that a comment "alongside" the licence is probably meant to be *part of* the licencing terms, so yes, I think it'd be affected.) | In addition to the good answers of [bmargulies](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/a/1465/55) and [Free Radical](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/a/1466/55) there is a perspective beyond the legal stuff.
If you release something under an open source license, your express intent is to give others some rights, including the right to redistribute, use it without restriction and to modify and release the modified work. If you do not intent to grant these rights, you don't need to add a license at all.
But the contradicting clauses cause confusion. Especially people not experienced with the legal stuff, might be shying away from using their rights on your work. So you lose possible applications of your work against your intent. Even if you legally clearly know what you do is legally working, such confusion might lead to you losing possible users.
An example that shows how legal uncertainty lead to problems, although the reason of the legal uncertainties isn't an additional clause. The german programmer [Jörg Schilling](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/J%C3%B6rg_Schilling) is well known as the programmer of cdrtools. At some point he decided to [change the license](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cdrtools#License_compatibility_controversy) on most of his work, while still incorporating some GPL-work. Jörg Schilling is sure, he isn't violating the GPL in this case as he expressed, and at no point any legal action happened (as far as I'm aware), this controversy didn't go to court. Still most binary Linux-distributions (source distribution is unaffected) removed cdrtools and use a fork named cdrkit. So, however the real legal situation is, the uncertainty alone lead to a lot of lost users.
So it is generally advisable to avoid confusion as much as possible. |
298,972 | **The Situation**
A question has two or more answers. One answer (answer A) is either marked by the questioner or has a lot of upvotes. Another answer (answer B) is, in my estimation, better in some manner (more clear, more complete, better examples, more up to date, etc), but the A is correct as well.
**My Question**
What is the right thing to do in this situation? I believe the purpose of stackexchange is to provide the best answer to a well asked question. In voting, our goal should be to further this purpose. If I do not vote, nothing changes and A is still dominant. If I upvote both, the same occurs. If I upvote B only, it becomes more dominant. If I downvote A and upvote B, I get the best result towards making B more dominant. Only downvoting is unhelpful.
However, A is both correct and helpful, and had B not existed, ought to be dominant. Additionally, the author is deserving of positive reputation. B is just more correct and helpful, and also deserving of positive reputation.
Readers sometimes only see or read the top answer, especially if it is marked correct or highly upvoted. A reader would be better served by seeing B, in my opinion.
**Answer**
What is the right thing to do? | 2017/07/28 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/298972",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/338233/"
] | Again, as the tooltip suggests
>
> This answer is **not useful**
>
>
>
So personally, I would **vote B up while leaving A alone**. Anyway, A isn't unhelpful, but only "not as helpful as" B, so leaving it alone makes more sense than downvoting it. I would vote A down only if it's wrong or totally useless. | Voting is up to you. You may either upvote or downvote answer A, or decline to vote on it. That said, the [help center's description of the vote down privilege](https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/vote-down) says:
>
> ### When should I vote down?
>
>
> Use your downvotes whenever you encounter an egregiously sloppy, no-effort-expended post, or an answer that is clearly and perhaps dangerously incorrect.
>
>
>
Since answer A is "both correct and helpful" it doesn't need to be downvoted, at least according to the help center. Personally, in these situations I vote up the better answer (B) and decline to vote on the correct but inferior answer (A). In some cases it may make sense to comment on A in order to encourage the answerer to improve his answer.
Note that if answer A is the accepted answer then it is usually put at the top of the list regardless of votes (unless answer A is a self-answer). In that case there is no point in downvoting it for the purpose of moving answer B to the top -- answer A will always be at the top as long as it is accepted. The best you can do is to post a comment on the question to encourage to OP to accept answer B instead of A. |
298,972 | **The Situation**
A question has two or more answers. One answer (answer A) is either marked by the questioner or has a lot of upvotes. Another answer (answer B) is, in my estimation, better in some manner (more clear, more complete, better examples, more up to date, etc), but the A is correct as well.
**My Question**
What is the right thing to do in this situation? I believe the purpose of stackexchange is to provide the best answer to a well asked question. In voting, our goal should be to further this purpose. If I do not vote, nothing changes and A is still dominant. If I upvote both, the same occurs. If I upvote B only, it becomes more dominant. If I downvote A and upvote B, I get the best result towards making B more dominant. Only downvoting is unhelpful.
However, A is both correct and helpful, and had B not existed, ought to be dominant. Additionally, the author is deserving of positive reputation. B is just more correct and helpful, and also deserving of positive reputation.
Readers sometimes only see or read the top answer, especially if it is marked correct or highly upvoted. A reader would be better served by seeing B, in my opinion.
**Answer**
What is the right thing to do? | 2017/07/28 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/298972",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/338233/"
] | Again, as the tooltip suggests
>
> This answer is **not useful**
>
>
>
So personally, I would **vote B up while leaving A alone**. Anyway, A isn't unhelpful, but only "not as helpful as" B, so leaving it alone makes more sense than downvoting it. I would vote A down only if it's wrong or totally useless. | If both the answers are correct, but I think one is more helpful than the other one, I up-vote the more helpful answer, and leave alone the other one. I would down-vote an answer if it is blatantly wrong, or if it is not helpful at all. (That is what the tool-tip for the down-vote button says: *This answer is not useful*.)
At the end, voting is subjective, but I would never down-vote an answer because I find it less useful than another one, which is still useful.
An answer that is blatantly repeating what another answer is saying, and it was written time after the other one, could deserve the down-vote, thought. |
298,972 | **The Situation**
A question has two or more answers. One answer (answer A) is either marked by the questioner or has a lot of upvotes. Another answer (answer B) is, in my estimation, better in some manner (more clear, more complete, better examples, more up to date, etc), but the A is correct as well.
**My Question**
What is the right thing to do in this situation? I believe the purpose of stackexchange is to provide the best answer to a well asked question. In voting, our goal should be to further this purpose. If I do not vote, nothing changes and A is still dominant. If I upvote both, the same occurs. If I upvote B only, it becomes more dominant. If I downvote A and upvote B, I get the best result towards making B more dominant. Only downvoting is unhelpful.
However, A is both correct and helpful, and had B not existed, ought to be dominant. Additionally, the author is deserving of positive reputation. B is just more correct and helpful, and also deserving of positive reputation.
Readers sometimes only see or read the top answer, especially if it is marked correct or highly upvoted. A reader would be better served by seeing B, in my opinion.
**Answer**
What is the right thing to do? | 2017/07/28 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/298972",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/338233/"
] | Just because answer A *would* be helpful in a fictional world where B doesn't exist, and would merit upvotes in such a world, that isn't the case here. B *does* exist, and because B *does* exist, A is an answer that's less clear, less complete has worse examples, and is out of date. People who read that as the answer are worse off than those reading the other answer instead. That makes the answer unhelpful.
You should be voting on how useful the answer *actually is*, not how useful it could have been (or used to be). You also shouldn't be thinking about what you think the author deserves. Vote on whether or not the content is useful. | Voting is up to you. You may either upvote or downvote answer A, or decline to vote on it. That said, the [help center's description of the vote down privilege](https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/vote-down) says:
>
> ### When should I vote down?
>
>
> Use your downvotes whenever you encounter an egregiously sloppy, no-effort-expended post, or an answer that is clearly and perhaps dangerously incorrect.
>
>
>
Since answer A is "both correct and helpful" it doesn't need to be downvoted, at least according to the help center. Personally, in these situations I vote up the better answer (B) and decline to vote on the correct but inferior answer (A). In some cases it may make sense to comment on A in order to encourage the answerer to improve his answer.
Note that if answer A is the accepted answer then it is usually put at the top of the list regardless of votes (unless answer A is a self-answer). In that case there is no point in downvoting it for the purpose of moving answer B to the top -- answer A will always be at the top as long as it is accepted. The best you can do is to post a comment on the question to encourage to OP to accept answer B instead of A. |
298,972 | **The Situation**
A question has two or more answers. One answer (answer A) is either marked by the questioner or has a lot of upvotes. Another answer (answer B) is, in my estimation, better in some manner (more clear, more complete, better examples, more up to date, etc), but the A is correct as well.
**My Question**
What is the right thing to do in this situation? I believe the purpose of stackexchange is to provide the best answer to a well asked question. In voting, our goal should be to further this purpose. If I do not vote, nothing changes and A is still dominant. If I upvote both, the same occurs. If I upvote B only, it becomes more dominant. If I downvote A and upvote B, I get the best result towards making B more dominant. Only downvoting is unhelpful.
However, A is both correct and helpful, and had B not existed, ought to be dominant. Additionally, the author is deserving of positive reputation. B is just more correct and helpful, and also deserving of positive reputation.
Readers sometimes only see or read the top answer, especially if it is marked correct or highly upvoted. A reader would be better served by seeing B, in my opinion.
**Answer**
What is the right thing to do? | 2017/07/28 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/298972",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/338233/"
] | Just because answer A *would* be helpful in a fictional world where B doesn't exist, and would merit upvotes in such a world, that isn't the case here. B *does* exist, and because B *does* exist, A is an answer that's less clear, less complete has worse examples, and is out of date. People who read that as the answer are worse off than those reading the other answer instead. That makes the answer unhelpful.
You should be voting on how useful the answer *actually is*, not how useful it could have been (or used to be). You also shouldn't be thinking about what you think the author deserves. Vote on whether or not the content is useful. | If both the answers are correct, but I think one is more helpful than the other one, I up-vote the more helpful answer, and leave alone the other one. I would down-vote an answer if it is blatantly wrong, or if it is not helpful at all. (That is what the tool-tip for the down-vote button says: *This answer is not useful*.)
At the end, voting is subjective, but I would never down-vote an answer because I find it less useful than another one, which is still useful.
An answer that is blatantly repeating what another answer is saying, and it was written time after the other one, could deserve the down-vote, thought. |
479,476 | a couple of days ago I had this idea, why not implementing asp-classic as another language in .net...
it would have helped lots of people to migrate to the new platform...
I mean there's IronRuby, IronPython, etc...
It sounded to me like a great idea... but, come on, I'm no genius, there must be some reason why they haven't done so...
I'm just curious about it... | 2009/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/479476",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/47633/"
] | I am assuming that the login\_required method performs a redirect if the user is not logged in. In which case:
Your before filter should return false after calling redirect. This will prevent the new action from ever being called. Later versions of rails automatically do this if you call render or redirect in a before\_filter, so maybe you are using an older version.
Also you should return after the call to redirect in the new handler, unless you want to always create a new Payment object. | Your class should be PaymentController, not Payment. The reason for this is so the controller class and model class do not clash. |
728,716 | we need to have the "automatically detect settings" on in order for users to connect to the internet while in the office. But at times, the setting is unchecked when the user takes the laptop home or connects outside of the office. So when they return, they have to go back and check the setting on again.
Is there anyway to change that so it always stays on no matter where they are connected?
Thanks for any help you can provide | 2014/03/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/728716",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/307536/"
] | General answer:
Normally, in RAID 5, you pull the broken drive. Then you insert a new drive in its place. Sometimes you have to tell the software to resync after that, but most hardware RAID cards do that just fine on their own.
For your specific card: see page 12 [of the manual](http://www.highpoint-tech.com/PDF/rr2700/RR2720C2/RocketRAID%202720C2%20User%20Manual_v1.00.pdf) in how to add spare drives. Also read the part which says *"Spare Disks
are used to automatically rebuild Redundant RAID arrays"* | I have not used that particular model, but other RAID controller cards from Highpoint. It should be as simple as removing the bad drive and inserting the new one and from the Rocketraid software telling the array to rebuild.
If you do not have the software installed, or is incompatible with your OS (I know there were some issues with Linux a while back), you can boot to the RAID BIOS and tell it to rebuild from there. |
395 | I was digging through Unanswered Questions today and have noticed several questions where users have requested more information in order to be able to answer them and no response from the OP.
This topic had been covered previously [here](https://sqa.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/171/cleaning-up-dead-questions/174#174) but I am not seeing any clear reason for closing a question due to inactivity. There is unclear what they are asking, but it is clear. They simply are not providing enough data to answer their extremely specific question.
A few examples:
[Request for More Data](https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/17988/selenium-webdriver-spicejet-website-automation)
[Request for more Data](https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/17969/unable-to-locate-element-on-win-7-safari-browser-using-selenium)
[Slightly older one](https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/16383/appium-getting-stuck-at-tapping-on-buttons-under-a-loop)
I think providing some time to answer these requests for more information (1 - 4 weeks) would be great but getting the question to where it could be answerable or closed/deleted would be great for the community as a whole. | 2016/04/11 | [
"https://sqa.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/395",
"https://sqa.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.meta.stackexchange.com/users/7043/"
] | I agree with that, and I don't know why we would wait more than four weeks.
I think "unclear what you're asking" is the best available choice. | I agree with that. Unanswered questions should be deleted or moved to a more appropriate forum so it can receive proper answers.
But for the question where people have asked for more feedback or info and haven't received, I guess 4 weeks time is more than enough for them. After that such question should be deleted. Clearly the person who asked the question isn't interested enough to get an asnwer anyway. Deleting such answers will also mean that the site will have better data for people looking for help. Sometimes such dead question line up in a search result and the user may go away from the site. |
151,279 | I am doing image processing project in VHDL. And as output am getting array of pixels (32 bit each). I want test this output data visually, for that it must be converted to image either png or jpg or bmp. How can I do that?
Edit: Or if am getting same data in four different files like alpha, red, green and blue in a.txt, r.txt, g.txt and b.txt respectively. Does this make it easier to get the image ? | 2015/01/28 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/151279",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/37488/"
] | What about Open cores [jpg encoder](http://opencores.org/project,mkjpeg)? | Basically, you want to interpret a raw array of pixel data as a image. You may be able to use my INF image file mechanism for that. You create a text file that contains commands to the INF reader to explain where the pixel data is in the raw array.
Various image manipulation utilities, which include the INF file driver, should be included in my Full Runtime release at <http://www.embedinc.com/pic/dload.htm>. After you install that, documentation files will be in the DOC directory within wherever you installed the software to. In particularly, look at the INF doc file to see if this will do what you want.
The image manipulation programs are generally named IMAGE\_xxx, with corresponding doc files in the DOC directory. If you set up the INF file right, then IMAGE\_COPY will be able to convert your pixel data to a JPG file, or a number of other file formats. The supported file formats are listed in the IMAGE\_TYPES doc file. You could also use IMAGE\_DISP or IMAGE\_EDIT to see the image directly without it first being converted to a standard file format. |
151,279 | I am doing image processing project in VHDL. And as output am getting array of pixels (32 bit each). I want test this output data visually, for that it must be converted to image either png or jpg or bmp. How can I do that?
Edit: Or if am getting same data in four different files like alpha, red, green and blue in a.txt, r.txt, g.txt and b.txt respectively. Does this make it easier to get the image ? | 2015/01/28 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/151279",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/37488/"
] | Write out image data in ascii PPM format is easy:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Netpbm_format#PPM_example>
A lot of image viewer understand that format, for example Irfanview.
There's also a more complex format supporting 32bit with alpha channel:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Netpbm#PAM_graphics_format>
So you at least have to create the right header in front of your data.
The netpbm package delivers some command line conversion tools:
pamtotiff, pamtopnm, pamtojpeg2k,...
I often used that ppm format for testbenches in the past... | Basically, you want to interpret a raw array of pixel data as a image. You may be able to use my INF image file mechanism for that. You create a text file that contains commands to the INF reader to explain where the pixel data is in the raw array.
Various image manipulation utilities, which include the INF file driver, should be included in my Full Runtime release at <http://www.embedinc.com/pic/dload.htm>. After you install that, documentation files will be in the DOC directory within wherever you installed the software to. In particularly, look at the INF doc file to see if this will do what you want.
The image manipulation programs are generally named IMAGE\_xxx, with corresponding doc files in the DOC directory. If you set up the INF file right, then IMAGE\_COPY will be able to convert your pixel data to a JPG file, or a number of other file formats. The supported file formats are listed in the IMAGE\_TYPES doc file. You could also use IMAGE\_DISP or IMAGE\_EDIT to see the image directly without it first being converted to a standard file format. |
260,078 | The end of spring is coming up, and I don't want to waste any of my spring seeds (wild seeds) on crops that will die before being harvestable. How many days do they take to grow/what is the last day I can plant them and still get a harvest? | 2016/03/24 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/260078",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/7992/"
] | Wild seeds, whatever what they will give you in the end, will always take seven days to grow up, as you said. It is confirmed in the [Stardew Valley Wiki Crops' page](http://stardewvalleywiki.com/Crops#Wild_Seeds) :
>
> Regardless of what ends up growing, wild seeds all take the same
> amount of time to grow to maturity (7 days, not counting the day
> planted).
>
>
> | This information is directly from the [Stardew Valley Wiki](http://stardewvalleywiki.com/Crops#Wild_Seeds)
>
> Wild Seeds can be crafted out of foraged plants once you reach the
> appropriate foraging level (Spring at level 1, Summer at level 4, Fall
> at level 6, Winter at level 7). Each recipe will produce 10 seed
> packets. When planted, wild seeds will randomly grow into one of that
> season's foraged plants. Regardless of what ends up growing, wild
> seeds all take the same amount of time to grow to maturity (7 days,
> not counting the day planted).
>
>
> |
586,313 | Is there a difference between
>
> "I am going cycling."
>
>
>
and
>
> "I am going to cycle."
>
>
>
Assuming that I'm at home right now and I'm informing everyone here that I'm leaving the house to do some cycling.
Further,
>
> "I'm going playing"
> or
> "I'm going to play"
>
>
>
>
> "I'm going bathing"
> or
> "I'm going to bathe"
>
>
>
This has been confusing me for quite a lot of time.
Is this different in British and American English? | 2022/03/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/586313",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/449237/"
] | Your question's body asks about two constructions, but its title asks about two different ones --- to express the latter in terms of cycling: "I go cycling" and "I go to do cycling". Now "I go to do cycling" is not idiomatic (at least I can't think of any context where it would be the idiomatic thing to say). So let's consider:
1. I go cycling.
2. I am going cycling.
3. I am going to cycle.
One issue here is that there are two sorts of activity mentioned here. There's "cycling", the ordinary verb for riding a bicycle, and "going cycling", which has the connotation of riding a bicycle as a leisure or exercise activity.
One way to talk about things happening in the future is to use a construction "(be) going to (verb)" where the verb is in the infinitive. For example: Prices are going to rise. It's going to rain.
Sentence 3, "I am going to cycle.", is best understood as having this construct. So it's not about "going cycling", it's about plain "cycling". You might use it in a context like this.
A: I'll need to go to XTown tomorrow.
B: Are you going to drive?
C: No, I am going to cycle.
This construction always uses the words "going to", and doesn't use the verb's "-ing" form. Therefore sentences 1 and 2 above are not using this construction. Rather, they are talking about "going cycling" as a leisure or exercise activity. "I go cycling" indicates that you do it habitually. "I am going cycling" indicates that you are planning to do it some time in the future. | It's up to you.
===============
This is a Question about gerunds vs infinitives, specifically whether an occasion calls for one, the other, or either.
From [EC](https://www.ecenglish.com/learnenglish/lessons/gerund-vs-infinitive-practice):
>
> **Gerunds** are often used when actions are real, fixed, or completed. *"I enjoy cooking."*
>
>
> **Infinitives** are often used when actions are unreal, abstract, or future: *"He wants to swim."*
>
>
>
Sometimes, it is about right and wrong grammar.
From [Ginger](https://www.gingersoftware.com/content/grammar-rules/nouns/gerunds-infinitives/):
>
> Knowing the difference between gerund and infinitive can save you from making costly grammar mistakes when writing.
>
>
>
But, that's not the case with your examples. All of your examples are grammatically correct. And no, this is not any major difference between British and American English. Any difference would be about habits, not spellings or common sayings.
Which nuance do you want?
=========================
The *-ing* ending will communicate a continuous action, as if you will be doing this for a prolonged period of time. The infinitive *(to \_\_\_)* views it as a complete, whole, single event.
**Gerunds** from [Purdue](https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/general_writing/mechanics/gerunds_participles_and_infinitives/comparing_gerunds_participles_and_infinitives.html):
>
> With many of the verbs that follow the object, the use of the gerund indicates continuous action while the use of the simple verb indicates a one-time action.
>
>
>
**Infinitives** from [Purdue](https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/general_writing/mechanics/gerunds_participles_and_infinitives/infinitives.html):
>
> therefore expresses action or a state of being.
>
>
>
There isn't a difference in definition, and each can be rightly used to describe the other. As the artist using these words, you need to decide whether you want to portray this as a **continuous event** (-ing) or a **singular event** (to \_\_\_).
The difference is minimal at most. You could use either. |
4,411 | I am having site on Joomla 3.3. Whenever i share article on facebook, it dosent fetch image. So googled and found that gzip is causing problem. so i turned it off and checked, all images were displaying properly while sharing.
I want gzip enabled, but if i do facebook wont show images. Can someone please help? Currently my gzip is off. here is my site: livemedia24.com | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com/questions/4411",
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com",
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com/users/1863/"
] | It's a known Facebook bug. There exists a Joomla plugin which allows to work around it. I think by disabling GZip if the request comes from Facebook.
I think the plugin is on JED. Of you can't find it I can look it up later. | The best way to debug an issue with Facebook is via the **Open Graph Debugger**:
<https://developers.facebook.com/tools/debug/>
<https://developers.facebook.com/tools/debug/og/object?q=livemedia24.com>
Your site is showing several alternative images now. |
213,427 | Is it currently possible to translate C# code into an Abstract Syntax Tree?
Edit: some clarification; I don't necessarily expect the compiler to generate the AST for me - a parser would be fine, although I'd like to use something "official." Lambda expressions are unfortunately not going to be sufficient given they don't allow me to use statement bodies, which is what I'm looking for. | 2008/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/213427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16942/"
] | Check out .NET [CodeDom](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/reflection-and-codedom/using-the-codedom) support. There is an old article on code project for a [C# CodeDOM parser](https://www.codeproject.com/Articles/2502/C-CodeDOM-parser), but it won't support the new language features.
There is also supposed to be support in #develop for generating a CodeDom tree from C# source code according to this [posting](https://web.archive.org/web/20200214175901/http://geekswithblogs.net:80/willemf/archive/2006/07/24/86075.aspx). | ANTLR is not very useful. LINQ is not what you want.
Try Mono.Cecil! <http://www.mono-project.com/Cecil>
It is used in many projects, including NDepend! <http://www.ndepend.com/> |
213,427 | Is it currently possible to translate C# code into an Abstract Syntax Tree?
Edit: some clarification; I don't necessarily expect the compiler to generate the AST for me - a parser would be fine, although I'd like to use something "official." Lambda expressions are unfortunately not going to be sufficient given they don't allow me to use statement bodies, which is what I'm looking for. | 2008/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/213427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16942/"
] | I've just answered on another thread here at StackOverflow a solution where I implemented an API to [create and manipulate AST from C# Source Code](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/81406/parser-for-c/2214810#2214810) | It is strange that nobody suggested hacking the existing Mono C# compiler. |
213,427 | Is it currently possible to translate C# code into an Abstract Syntax Tree?
Edit: some clarification; I don't necessarily expect the compiler to generate the AST for me - a parser would be fine, although I'd like to use something "official." Lambda expressions are unfortunately not going to be sufficient given they don't allow me to use statement bodies, which is what I'm looking for. | 2008/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/213427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16942/"
] | Check out .NET [CodeDom](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/reflection-and-codedom/using-the-codedom) support. There is an old article on code project for a [C# CodeDOM parser](https://www.codeproject.com/Articles/2502/C-CodeDOM-parser), but it won't support the new language features.
There is also supposed to be support in #develop for generating a CodeDom tree from C# source code according to this [posting](https://web.archive.org/web/20200214175901/http://geekswithblogs.net:80/willemf/archive/2006/07/24/86075.aspx). | I've just answered on another thread here at StackOverflow a solution where I implemented an API to [create and manipulate AST from C# Source Code](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/81406/parser-for-c/2214810#2214810) |
213,427 | Is it currently possible to translate C# code into an Abstract Syntax Tree?
Edit: some clarification; I don't necessarily expect the compiler to generate the AST for me - a parser would be fine, although I'd like to use something "official." Lambda expressions are unfortunately not going to be sufficient given they don't allow me to use statement bodies, which is what I'm looking for. | 2008/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/213427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16942/"
] | Check out .NET [CodeDom](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/reflection-and-codedom/using-the-codedom) support. There is an old article on code project for a [C# CodeDOM parser](https://www.codeproject.com/Articles/2502/C-CodeDOM-parser), but it won't support the new language features.
There is also supposed to be support in #develop for generating a CodeDom tree from C# source code according to this [posting](https://web.archive.org/web/20200214175901/http://geekswithblogs.net:80/willemf/archive/2006/07/24/86075.aspx). | It looks like this sort of functionality will be included with whatever comes after C# 4, according to [Anders Hejlsberg's 'Future of C#' PDC video](http://channel9.msdn.com/pdc2008/TL16/). |
213,427 | Is it currently possible to translate C# code into an Abstract Syntax Tree?
Edit: some clarification; I don't necessarily expect the compiler to generate the AST for me - a parser would be fine, although I'd like to use something "official." Lambda expressions are unfortunately not going to be sufficient given they don't allow me to use statement bodies, which is what I'm looking for. | 2008/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/213427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16942/"
] | It looks like this sort of functionality will be included with whatever comes after C# 4, according to [Anders Hejlsberg's 'Future of C#' PDC video](http://channel9.msdn.com/pdc2008/TL16/). | It is strange that nobody suggested hacking the existing Mono C# compiler. |
213,427 | Is it currently possible to translate C# code into an Abstract Syntax Tree?
Edit: some clarification; I don't necessarily expect the compiler to generate the AST for me - a parser would be fine, although I'd like to use something "official." Lambda expressions are unfortunately not going to be sufficient given they don't allow me to use statement bodies, which is what I'm looking for. | 2008/10/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/213427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16942/"
] | There is much powerful than R# project.
Nemerle.Peg:
<https://code.google.com/p/nemerle/source/browse/nemerle/trunk/snippets/peg-parser/>
And it has C# Parser which parsers all C# code and translates it to AST !
<https://code.google.com/p/nemerle/source/browse/nemerle/trunk/snippets/csharp-parser/>
You can download installer here: <https://code.google.com/p/nemerle/> | Our [C# front end for DMS](http://www.semanticdesigns.com/Products/FrontEnds/CSharpFrontEnd.html) parses full C# 3.0 including LINQ and produces ASTs. DMS in fact is an ecosystem for analyzing/transforming source code using ASTs for front-end provided langauges.
EDIT 3/10/2010: ... Now handles full C# 4.0
EDIT: 6/27/2014: Handles C# 5.0 since quite awhile.
EDIT: 6/15/2016: Handles C# 6.0. See <https://stackoverflow.com/a/37847714/120163> for a sample AST. |
320,599 | At [this question](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3027353/understanding-output-in-sagemath-regarding-dirichlet-characters) (and a number of others with similar tags), a SE question has been answered elsewhere on a domain-specific non-SE Q&A site. Indeed, the same user acknowledges posting both places simultaneously (which is fine, for the record).
My question is what to do in this situation regarding answering. Is it best for:
* The OP to cut and paste this answer
* For someone else to do so
* To close the question
* Just leave it open and unanswered forever
My understanding is that the third option is bad, and that the fourth is what usually happens. I find the second distasteful because it is so obviously answered and it was asked at the same time, so gaining rep for that is weird, but the first might not feel appropriate to the OP. Any ideas?
To my mind, this is not a duplicate of [closing your own question in general](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/288816/is-there-an-option-to-close-your-own-questions-regardless-of-reputation?noredirect=1&lq=1) or [answering questions answered elsewhere in general](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/208703/question-answered-by-a-non-se-site-what-to-do), because of the fact it was a different Q&A site and it was asked by the same person. | 2018/12/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/320599",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/196058/"
] | Same as if an answer's to be found in a paper, a textbook, a Wikipedia article, a blog, or anywhere else: anyone may write an answer here citing it & providing at least a brief summary of its content. No-one has dibs on answering here, & there's no sense in withholding the answer from readers other than the OP.
The point is to make it as easy as we can for someone searching an SE site for the same question to see that it's been asked & answered; &, as they'll need to follow an link off-site for the detail, help them decide if it's worth the candle by giving them the gist of it & our opinion, expressed through votes & comments: even though we've nothing (yet) to add to the off-site answer.
If anyone feels they don't deserve the rep. accrued from up-votes for such a minimal answer, they may choose to make it a [community wiki](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/11740/what-are-community-wiki-posts).† If you feel other people don't deserve that rep., you could try to build a consensus on the sites you frequent that all such answers should be made CWs—to my mind the establishing & enforcing of the policy wouldn't be worth the bother.
---
† I'd be tempted to advise them to just take the rep. & to give it away in a bounty if they're losing sleep over it; on the other hand [Help](https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/community-wiki) gives the following guidance:
>
> **When should I make my answers Community Wiki?**
>
>
> 1. When you want to enhance the "wiki" aspect of your post, so that it can be a continually evolving source of good information through
> repeated editing.
> 2. When you feel your post would benefit from less concern about voting affecting the reputation of those participating in it.
>
>
>
It does seem appropriate to use CW in this case:–"There's an answer *here*, saying such & such: I'm not taking the credit, or vouching for it." | >
> Question asked by same person (and answered) on different site - how should it be answered.
>
>
>
The way it should be **asked** is to inform the answerers that it has been asked on a different site.
The way it should be **answered** is from the ***point of view*** **of the site** on which it was asked.
For example: A particular question/subject will possibly get entirely different perspectives depending upon if it is asked on [space exploration](https://space.stackexchange.com/), [physics](https://physics.stackexchange.com/), [mathematics](https://math.stackexchange.com/), or [science fiction and fantasy](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/).
If you feel that asking on more than one site wasn't justified (or even mentioned) in the question you can ask for clarification or suggest an improvement in a comment. This is likely to be appreciated by **new users**.
If you think that **the person ought to** have justified asking multiple times, and especially if there is a link to a product or their own site; even if they seem to be promoting some agenda, it's fair to flag the question. At the very least simply point out in a comment that they have an answer elsewhere. |
320,599 | At [this question](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3027353/understanding-output-in-sagemath-regarding-dirichlet-characters) (and a number of others with similar tags), a SE question has been answered elsewhere on a domain-specific non-SE Q&A site. Indeed, the same user acknowledges posting both places simultaneously (which is fine, for the record).
My question is what to do in this situation regarding answering. Is it best for:
* The OP to cut and paste this answer
* For someone else to do so
* To close the question
* Just leave it open and unanswered forever
My understanding is that the third option is bad, and that the fourth is what usually happens. I find the second distasteful because it is so obviously answered and it was asked at the same time, so gaining rep for that is weird, but the first might not feel appropriate to the OP. Any ideas?
To my mind, this is not a duplicate of [closing your own question in general](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/288816/is-there-an-option-to-close-your-own-questions-regardless-of-reputation?noredirect=1&lq=1) or [answering questions answered elsewhere in general](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/208703/question-answered-by-a-non-se-site-what-to-do), because of the fact it was a different Q&A site and it was asked by the same person. | 2018/12/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/320599",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/196058/"
] | The first would be ideal, especially if they made it clear it was their answer.
Failing which the second would work - though one would need to paraphrase at minimum, and better yet, add on to that answer. The nice thing here well, you've earned your rep as an answer.
The point of a community wiki isn't to "not get" rep you feel you didn't earn. Its meant for collaborative posts but its kind of not really used much these days | >
> Question asked by same person (and answered) on different site - how should it be answered.
>
>
>
The way it should be **asked** is to inform the answerers that it has been asked on a different site.
The way it should be **answered** is from the ***point of view*** **of the site** on which it was asked.
For example: A particular question/subject will possibly get entirely different perspectives depending upon if it is asked on [space exploration](https://space.stackexchange.com/), [physics](https://physics.stackexchange.com/), [mathematics](https://math.stackexchange.com/), or [science fiction and fantasy](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/).
If you feel that asking on more than one site wasn't justified (or even mentioned) in the question you can ask for clarification or suggest an improvement in a comment. This is likely to be appreciated by **new users**.
If you think that **the person ought to** have justified asking multiple times, and especially if there is a link to a product or their own site; even if they seem to be promoting some agenda, it's fair to flag the question. At the very least simply point out in a comment that they have an answer elsewhere. |
102,484 | So as the title describes, I need an apocalyptic event which is survivable by cryogenically preserved humans in hermetically sealed bunkers underground (or somewhere else). This event should wipe out almost all life and change the climate and environment sufficiently enough that life with completely different biochemistries can evolve.
Possible ideas:
* Close (20 ly) gamma-ray burst: Superheating and ionization of the atmosphere. This wouldn't really cause a complete redesigning of life as we know it. Although new species will arise, they will likely have the same or similar biochemistry as current life.
* Asteroid impact: Again, it wouldn't change biochemistry much.
* Nuclear winter: The same problem.
Any ideas? | 2018/01/17 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/102484",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | >
> This event should wipe out almost all life and change the climate and environment sufficiently enough that life with completely different biochemistries can evolve
>
>
>
It's going to need a lot of handwaving, but you can have a comet "strike" (actually, burn and partially dissolve in the upper atmosphere) Earth.
The comet is mostly made up of dirty water ice, and the "dirt" is actually a sludge of space-evolved [bacteria and viruses](http://journalofcosmology.com/Panspermia10.html). If these bacteria are not based on the same exact DNA code as Earth life, and yet have evolved to be able to optionally prey on Earth proteins, there would be very little defense against infection, and the bacteria would wreck the biosphere. At the same time, the viruses could trigger all sort of mutations in surviving organisms, including mutations giving increased resistance to infection. | Biochemistry of the life as we know it is entirely based on the chemistry, that is available elements, of the planet we live on.
Wiping out life will likely set up again the same biochemistry if you leave the available elements unchanged.
Unfortunately, changing the chemistry of an entire planet while preserving a tiny bunker hosting some cryogenically stored humans is hardly possible. I.e. wiping out phosphorus and set up an arsenic based biochemistry would require something like building the planet from scratch.
Probably your safest bet is to have that the new life starts with different [chirality](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chirality_(chemistry)):
>
> The origin of this homochirality in biology is the subject of much debate. Most scientists believe that Earth life's "choice" of chirality was purely random, and that if carbon-based life forms exist elsewhere in the universe, their chemistry could theoretically have opposite chirality.
>
>
> |
102,484 | So as the title describes, I need an apocalyptic event which is survivable by cryogenically preserved humans in hermetically sealed bunkers underground (or somewhere else). This event should wipe out almost all life and change the climate and environment sufficiently enough that life with completely different biochemistries can evolve.
Possible ideas:
* Close (20 ly) gamma-ray burst: Superheating and ionization of the atmosphere. This wouldn't really cause a complete redesigning of life as we know it. Although new species will arise, they will likely have the same or similar biochemistry as current life.
* Asteroid impact: Again, it wouldn't change biochemistry much.
* Nuclear winter: The same problem.
Any ideas? | 2018/01/17 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/102484",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | >
> This event should wipe out almost all life and change the climate and environment sufficiently enough that life with completely different biochemistries can evolve
>
>
>
It's going to need a lot of handwaving, but you can have a comet "strike" (actually, burn and partially dissolve in the upper atmosphere) Earth.
The comet is mostly made up of dirty water ice, and the "dirt" is actually a sludge of space-evolved [bacteria and viruses](http://journalofcosmology.com/Panspermia10.html). If these bacteria are not based on the same exact DNA code as Earth life, and yet have evolved to be able to optionally prey on Earth proteins, there would be very little defense against infection, and the bacteria would wreck the biosphere. At the same time, the viruses could trigger all sort of mutations in surviving organisms, including mutations giving increased resistance to infection. | **1: Invasive species from elsewhere.**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FrobR.jpg)
<http://waroftheworlds.wikia.com/wiki/Red_weed>
If you want an ecosystem to turn into a radically different ecosystem at some rate faster than ordinary geological/evolutionary time, have the radically different ecosystem move in and displace what was there. That happens on Earth not infrequently.
Have organisms with your desired biochemistry show up from elsewhere. There are many possible sources - space, alternate dimension, alternate timeline, Earth's future or past, experimental lab creations etc. Bonus: make them as you like. These things proceed to systemically displace the organisms of Earth, and you can have this occur right down to the level you desire. Maybe only Archons survive in their inhospitable refugia. Or maybe them too. Your invaders can adapt, more or less.
---
**2: Clear off the earth of earth beings with help from Outside.**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/29bUL.jpg)
<https://torontoist.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/11/Cthulhurising-640x360.jpg>
from the diary of Wilbur Whateley, [The Dunwich Horror](http://www.hplovecraft.com/writings/texts/fiction/dh.aspx)
>
> Grandfather kept me saying the Dho formula last night, and I think I
> saw the inner city at the 2 magnetic poles. I shall go to those poles
> when the earth is cleared off if I can’t break through with the
> Dho-Hna formula when I commit it. They from the air told me at Sabbat
> that it will be years before I can clear off the earth, and I guess
> grandfather will be dead then, so I shall have to learn all the angles
> of the planes and all the formulas between the Yr and the Nhhngr. They
> from outside will help, but they cannot take body without human blood.
> That upstairs looks it will have the right cast. I can see it a little
> when I make the Voorish sign or blow the powder of Ibn Ghazi at it,
> and it is near like them at May-Eve on the Hill. The other face may
> wear off some. I wonder how I shall look when the earth is cleared and
> there are no earth beings on it. He that came with the Aklo Sabaoth
> said I may be transfigured, there being much of outside to work on.”
>
>
>
Similar to #1 except the things which wish to clear off the Earth were the entities who owned the earth long before and then were somehow displaced. They want it back, and the way it was. I think only the loosest sense of "biochemistry" would describe these things which want to repossess the Earth. In this context, all extant biological life are "earth beings". |
102,484 | So as the title describes, I need an apocalyptic event which is survivable by cryogenically preserved humans in hermetically sealed bunkers underground (or somewhere else). This event should wipe out almost all life and change the climate and environment sufficiently enough that life with completely different biochemistries can evolve.
Possible ideas:
* Close (20 ly) gamma-ray burst: Superheating and ionization of the atmosphere. This wouldn't really cause a complete redesigning of life as we know it. Although new species will arise, they will likely have the same or similar biochemistry as current life.
* Asteroid impact: Again, it wouldn't change biochemistry much.
* Nuclear winter: The same problem.
Any ideas? | 2018/01/17 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/102484",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | >
> This event should wipe out almost all life and change the climate and environment sufficiently enough that life with completely different biochemistries can evolve
>
>
>
It's going to need a lot of handwaving, but you can have a comet "strike" (actually, burn and partially dissolve in the upper atmosphere) Earth.
The comet is mostly made up of dirty water ice, and the "dirt" is actually a sludge of space-evolved [bacteria and viruses](http://journalofcosmology.com/Panspermia10.html). If these bacteria are not based on the same exact DNA code as Earth life, and yet have evolved to be able to optionally prey on Earth proteins, there would be very little defense against infection, and the bacteria would wreck the biosphere. At the same time, the viruses could trigger all sort of mutations in surviving organisms, including mutations giving increased resistance to infection. | To create a complete new biochemistry, we are going to make carbon-carbon bonds obsolete. Carbon-carbon bonds are the backbone of our carbon-based life. To make them obsolete, we will force life to resort to some other basic bonds.
Radiation in the wavelength of 330-350 nm will be absorbed by carbon-carbon bonds, and if enough energy is provided, it will break the bond. If I am not completely off, Si-Si bonds absorb chiefly in the range around 460nm.
Nitrogen-gas lasers spark in the 340nm range, which is exactly what we would need. Now, on Earth there is a **lot** of C-C bonds, so the energy needed to succeed will have to be rather large, and the dosage will need to occur over a longer period of time.
To achieve this, we are going to add a new satellite to the Earth. This new celestial body is heavy and covered in a sufficiently dense atmosphere of nitrogen. The body itself is made of piezoelectric material and, not being tidally locked to the Earth, it suffers constant tidal forces, which translate in huge sparks across the nitrogen atmosphere, resulting in a constant, Moon-size, UV laser pointed at the Earth.
The new satellite, Moon2, also carries a smaller set of its own satellites, all made of solid CFC. When Moon2 is captured by the Earth, its satellites fall onto our planet, burning in the atmosphere and releasing massive doses of gaseous CFC, which get rid of the ozone layer, and make our Nitrogen laser way more effective.
Let Moon2 in orbit long enough, and carbon-based life may become less-likely than silicon-based life. The massive doses of CFC may also poison the larger life-forms, which stood a better chance of surviving the radiation, or actively find shelter.
Some pockets of carbon-based life may remain, hid in caves, or deep at the bottom of the seas, but as time passes, they will become just niche-survivors, as rare as a Dodo today.
Finally, let the Moon and Moon2 collide together before waking up the humans, and welcome them back with a huge firework. |
213,347 | I am studying theatre directing. It’s a thing of beauty to build a world for a set design.
So: I’ve written a text that will be played by actors. It’s about a computer programmer who meets and falls in love with a weirdo, she’s called the Great Bum, a sort of an android, a cyber-girl that teases him with surrealist music that she plays. She’s a Singer in the nightclub where they meet.
The world is trying to cope with the apocalypse (cosmic objects are approaching Earth, and the atmosphere is very dark and poisonous, but also very aphrodisiac - people feel the urge to have sex in such a dangerous space-time)
The nightclub is very much like a bunker - it’s safe for the party animals. But how do you think it would look like (in a detailed version)?
Thank you,
Monica | 2021/09/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/213347",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90156/"
] | I feel like nightclubs are one of the most-portrayed, if not THE most-portrayed, cyberpunk settings.
You can find lists of examples at <https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/CyberPunkIsTechno> and <https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/CoolestClubEver>
In Second Life, pretty much everyone builds a cyberpunk nightclub, it's the most common location type.
Image search for 'cyberpunk nightclub': <https://yandex.com/images/search?text=cyberpunk%20nightclub>
Breakdown of the visual elements of cyberpunk interiors: <https://old.reddit.com/r/Cyberpunk/wiki/decor>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CQ3eg.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fWoym.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VuaeV.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gTmGm.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QrfC7.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lZ9W0.jpg) | **It would look like a bunker.**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Gt57w.jpg)
<https://www.theguardian.com/books/2020/aug/11/bunker-building-for-the-end-times-by-bradley-garrett-review-the-new-doom-boom>
Because that is what it is. This one is being used as a night club. There are light effects along the walls. The acoustics are less than idea for reproducing recorded music. But for live music, the artists factor in the acoustic properties of this venue and it is awesome. |
213,347 | I am studying theatre directing. It’s a thing of beauty to build a world for a set design.
So: I’ve written a text that will be played by actors. It’s about a computer programmer who meets and falls in love with a weirdo, she’s called the Great Bum, a sort of an android, a cyber-girl that teases him with surrealist music that she plays. She’s a Singer in the nightclub where they meet.
The world is trying to cope with the apocalypse (cosmic objects are approaching Earth, and the atmosphere is very dark and poisonous, but also very aphrodisiac - people feel the urge to have sex in such a dangerous space-time)
The nightclub is very much like a bunker - it’s safe for the party animals. But how do you think it would look like (in a detailed version)?
Thank you,
Monica | 2021/09/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/213347",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90156/"
] | I feel like nightclubs are one of the most-portrayed, if not THE most-portrayed, cyberpunk settings.
You can find lists of examples at <https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/CyberPunkIsTechno> and <https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/CoolestClubEver>
In Second Life, pretty much everyone builds a cyberpunk nightclub, it's the most common location type.
Image search for 'cyberpunk nightclub': <https://yandex.com/images/search?text=cyberpunk%20nightclub>
Breakdown of the visual elements of cyberpunk interiors: <https://old.reddit.com/r/Cyberpunk/wiki/decor>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CQ3eg.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fWoym.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VuaeV.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gTmGm.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QrfC7.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lZ9W0.jpg) | The flash of another impact.. large holes in the ceiling allow dust and smoke pouring in
Below, young people dance and party, to the end of times..
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Wic76.png)
KHAOS festival in Tessaloniki 2012. |
213,347 | I am studying theatre directing. It’s a thing of beauty to build a world for a set design.
So: I’ve written a text that will be played by actors. It’s about a computer programmer who meets and falls in love with a weirdo, she’s called the Great Bum, a sort of an android, a cyber-girl that teases him with surrealist music that she plays. She’s a Singer in the nightclub where they meet.
The world is trying to cope with the apocalypse (cosmic objects are approaching Earth, and the atmosphere is very dark and poisonous, but also very aphrodisiac - people feel the urge to have sex in such a dangerous space-time)
The nightclub is very much like a bunker - it’s safe for the party animals. But how do you think it would look like (in a detailed version)?
Thank you,
Monica | 2021/09/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/213347",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90156/"
] | From the inside it would probably just look like a regular nightclub. In times of stress of stress people like to be reminded of the good old days. So From the outside The place might be a reinforced concrete bunker with with armed guards patrolling, But from the inside it probably looked very similar if not identical to what we would see at 21 St. Century night club, Just with a little bit more technology And a little bit more cybernetic customers.
As the other answer said you can con find examples of night clubs like this all over sience fiction. | **It would look like a bunker.**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Gt57w.jpg)
<https://www.theguardian.com/books/2020/aug/11/bunker-building-for-the-end-times-by-bradley-garrett-review-the-new-doom-boom>
Because that is what it is. This one is being used as a night club. There are light effects along the walls. The acoustics are less than idea for reproducing recorded music. But for live music, the artists factor in the acoustic properties of this venue and it is awesome. |
213,347 | I am studying theatre directing. It’s a thing of beauty to build a world for a set design.
So: I’ve written a text that will be played by actors. It’s about a computer programmer who meets and falls in love with a weirdo, she’s called the Great Bum, a sort of an android, a cyber-girl that teases him with surrealist music that she plays. She’s a Singer in the nightclub where they meet.
The world is trying to cope with the apocalypse (cosmic objects are approaching Earth, and the atmosphere is very dark and poisonous, but also very aphrodisiac - people feel the urge to have sex in such a dangerous space-time)
The nightclub is very much like a bunker - it’s safe for the party animals. But how do you think it would look like (in a detailed version)?
Thank you,
Monica | 2021/09/13 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/213347",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/90156/"
] | From the inside it would probably just look like a regular nightclub. In times of stress of stress people like to be reminded of the good old days. So From the outside The place might be a reinforced concrete bunker with with armed guards patrolling, But from the inside it probably looked very similar if not identical to what we would see at 21 St. Century night club, Just with a little bit more technology And a little bit more cybernetic customers.
As the other answer said you can con find examples of night clubs like this all over sience fiction. | The flash of another impact.. large holes in the ceiling allow dust and smoke pouring in
Below, young people dance and party, to the end of times..
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Wic76.png)
KHAOS festival in Tessaloniki 2012. |
24,038 | **Why is *Gravity’s Rainbow* considered postmodern, yet *Finnegans Wake* is not?**
>
> Thomas Pynchon’s Gravity’s Rainbow (1973) has been received as a canonical instance of postmodernism.
>
>
>
See
[Pynchon, postmodernism and quantification: an empirical content analysis of Thomas Pynchon’s Gravity’s Rainbow](https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/10.1177/096394700301200102#:%7E:text=Thomas%20Pynchon%27s%20Gravity%27s%20Rainbow%201973,order%20underneath%20the%20represented%20chaos.)
The abstract continues:
>
> The novel appears to **subvert traditional definitions of plot and characterization**, yet the narrative retains **a nagging sense of order underneath the represented chaos**. Simultaneously **evoking and undoing patterns on all levels of its narrative structure**, Gravity’s Rainbow surreptitiously evokes **the presence of a night journey** (Martindale, 1979).
>
>
>
To one who loves both novels, the above sure sounds a lot like *Finnegans Wake*.
If it helps answer, *Finnegans Wake* does assert an overarching narrative:
>
> [18.19] It is the same told of all. Many.
> Miscegenations on miscegenations. Tieckle. They lived und laughed ant loved end left. Forsin. Thy thingdome is
> given to the Meades and Porsons.
>
>
>
BTW: Joyce *must* have been aware of the term "post-modern":
>
> But it has been only during the later decades of the modern era —
> during that time interval that might fairly be called the post-modern
> era — that this mechanistic conception of things has begun seriously
> to affect the current system of knowledge and belief; and it has not
> hitherto seriously taken effect except in technology and in the
> material sciences. [Thorstein Veblen, "The Vested Interests and the
> Common Man," 1919]
> [etymology post-modern](https://www.etymonline.com/word/post-modern)
>
>
>
>
> So much for the misapplied theory which has helped
> set the artist's nerves a-quiver and incited him to the extremes of
> post modern art, literary and other. [Wilson Follett, "Literature and
> Bad Nerves," Harper's, June 1921]
> [etymology post-modern](https://www.etymonline.com/word/post-modern)
>
>
> | 2023/02/06 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/24038",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/2397/"
] | The premise of your question is unjustified. It is a very widespread view that *Finnegans Wake* is precisely a postmodernist work. Take a look, for instance, at [this answer on here](https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/3106/what-does-postmodernism-mean-in-terms-of-literature), which states:
>
> Perhaps the earliest great postmodern author was James Joyce. His
> novel *Finnegan's Wake* [*sic*], for example, cannot be read as a typical
> narrative as it makes little sense. It is, instead, a multi-layered
> piece of work relying on puns, polyphony and an extreme stream of
> consciousness technique to create a literary landscape that the reader
> is free to interpret as they choose. Ulysses is less extreme, but can
> also be considered postmodern.
>
>
>
A little googling will reveal many similar examples.
***Edit (2023-02-07):***
Matt Thrower already has a much better answer, which I encourage you to upvote. This answer, however, has received criticism for not using an authoritative reference and for suggesting that “a little googling” might help. My intention was merely to point out that many people do indeed consider *Finnegans Wake* to be postmodernist, and so the premise of the question is wrong. Since this is a discussion on StackExchange it seemed appropriate to refer to an answer from that forum.
The comments did make me think about who would qualify as being an authoritative source on this. As an author of *Postmodernist Fiction* (1987), *Constructing Postmodernism* (1992), *Introduction to Postmodernism* (2015), and (with others, ed.) *The Cambridge Companion to Thomas Pynchon* (2012), I believe Brian McHale fits the bill.
In *Postmodernist Fiction*, McHale discusses *Finnegans Wake* at length, contrasting it with *Ulysses*. At the end of the book he compares the endings of four of Joyce’s prose fictions and writes:
>
> In “The Dead” and Ulysses, the simulation of death has been passed
> through the medium of an individual consciousness, “an ordinary mind
> on an ordinary day”—Gabriel Conroy’s mind, Molly Bloom’s mind. These
> texts are, in the first place, representations of minds, and only
> secondarily representations of the onset of sleep and, by extension,
> of death. The formal technique is, in one case, free indirect
> discourse (“The Dead”), in the other direct interior monologue
> (Ulysses). But in both cases, it is through the represented
> consciousness of the character that the represented world—whether
> immediately present, remembered, or anticipated—is filtered to us. And
> this world is stable and reconstructable, forming an ontologically
> unproblematic backdrop against which the movements of the characters’
> minds may be displayed.
>
> Modernist fiction, in short.
>
> The end of
> Finnegans Wake, too, represents an interior discourse, that of Anna Li
> via Plurabelle. But hers is not a consciousness like Gabriel Conroy’s
> or Molly Bloom’s, not “an ordinary mind on an ordinary day,” but more
> like a collective consciousness—“Allgearls is wea”—or even the
> collective unconscious located in language itself. Molly Bloom’s
> soliloquy notoriously represents the “stream of consciousness,” but
> Anna Livia is the thing itself: the personification of the River
> Liffey, she literalizes the metaphor “stream of consciousness.” Just
> as her discourse seems to sweep up all language in its stream, so it
> also sweeps up the projected world of this text: there is no stable
> world behind this consciousness, but only a flux of discourse in which
> fragments of different, incompatible realities flicker into existence
> and out of existence again, overwhelmed by the competing reality of
> language.
>
> Postmodernist fiction, in short.
>
>
>
Taken together with McHale’s other arguments, this is perhaps sufficient to show that Joyce’s writing in *Finnegans Wake* can reasonably be seen as postmodernist, and is indeed considered as such by prominent writers on the subject. | The answer to this is very simply one of time frames. Modernism is the name given to a series of linked movements across the arts that spans from the late 19th century to roughly the Second World War. Postmodernism began with a movement in architecture in 1949 but rapidly spread, like its predecessor, across all the arts. So the straightforward answer is that *Finnegans Wake* is modernist because it was written in the modernist period, while *Gravity's Rainbow* is postmodern because it was written in the postmodernist period.
There's nothing wrong with this if you're using art movements as historical bookends, as many writers and commentators do. However, art movements are also stylistic and philosophical in nature. Most people know Surrealism when they see it, for example, and there are still Surrealist artists working today. But most of its great works, and most of its influential thinking, took place between 1920-1950. Modern Surrealists may still produce fine paintings but they're no longer evolving the ideas associated with the movement.
In stylistic terms, *Finnegans Wake* is undoubtedly postmodern. Postmodernism is characterised by a rejection of absolute meaning, preferring instead the concept that different viewpoints are equally valid. This would seem an excellent way to describe a novel which has no clear plot or characters and in which wordplay and rhythm take centre stage. This lack of clarity continues to promote discussion and critical thought today: validating exactly the kind of different but equal viewpoints that postmodernism promotes. The fact that it is frequently compared to the unquestionably postmodern *Gravity's Rainbow* also offers a strong clue that it is postmodern in style.
Whether *Finnegans Wake* is postmodern in a philosophical sense is a fascinating and slightly circular question. The ideas underpinning postmodern philosophy and its spread through the arts simply did not exist in the early 20th century when Joyce was writing. They began to bear literary fruit in the 50s with authors such as William Burroughs, Samuel Beckett and John Hawkes. A pivotal moment in bringing postmodernism into literature, however, was Jacques Derrida's 1966 essay *Structure, Sign, and Play in the Discourse of the Human Sciences*. Derrida had read *Finnegan's Wake* and cited it as a key inspiration in developing his ideas, something he develops further in his 1982 essay *Two Words for Joyce*. So in that sense, it is certainly a forerunner of postmodernism, even though it didn't develop postmodernist ideas in the strictest sense.
The wider question of whether *Finnegans Wake* is modernist or postmodernist continues to attract lively debate, as you'll see if you search or read around the subject. My casting of it as postmodern isn't merely a personal opinion. In the 1971 postmodernist manifesto entitled POSTmodernISM, for example, literary theorist Ihab Hassan claimed that:
>
> without a doubt, the crucial text is Finnegans Wake.
>
>
>
And he's hardly a lone voice, merely an early one. But perhaps these discussions are to be expected: as a highly innovative and influential work that sits both historically and stylistically between the two major art movements of the 20th century, it should be difficult to classify. And perhaps that says more about the limits of the human obsession with putting things in boxes than it does about the book itself. |
3,238 | I've been doing it lately, assuming it will reduce the amount of crap I have to filter out after the boil, and it seems to reduce the amount of head I get during the boil (less chance of a boil over).
Does anybody else do this or does anybody have any insight as to whether or not I should be doing it and why? | 2011/01/22 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/3238",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/113/"
] | I don't. Mostly because I'm lazy, but I think it also serves as some extra nutrients for the yeast. | Palmer recommends throwing a couple of copper pennies into the pot to prevent boilover.
<http://www.howtobrew.com/section1/chapter1-1.html> |
3,238 | I've been doing it lately, assuming it will reduce the amount of crap I have to filter out after the boil, and it seems to reduce the amount of head I get during the boil (less chance of a boil over).
Does anybody else do this or does anybody have any insight as to whether or not I should be doing it and why? | 2011/01/22 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/3238",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/113/"
] | I tried doing it for a couple years. I found it made no difference whatsoever to the beer quality so now I don't bother. The only valid reason I've heard for doing it is to help prevent boilovers on small kettles, but I find Fermcap far more effective for that. | Palmer recommends throwing a couple of copper pennies into the pot to prevent boilover.
<http://www.howtobrew.com/section1/chapter1-1.html> |
361,488 | Where is the experimental proof that observers travelling toward or away from a light source, will always find that light from that source measures the same speed, regardless of their own speed? | 2017/10/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/361488",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/171368/"
] | It is claimed that on the earths surface the existence of an Äther would be observed with the [Michelson-Morley experimen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michelson%E2%80%93Morley_experiment).
>
> Michelson expected that the Earth's motion would produce a fringe shift equal to 0.04 fringes—that is, of the separation between areas of the same intensity. He did not observe the expected shift; the greatest average deviation that he measured (in the northwest direction) was only 0.018 fringes; most of his measurements were much less. ([Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michelson%E2%80%93Morley_experiment#1881_and_1887_experiments))
>
>
>
By this the quite possible assumption that the velocity of EM radiation depends from some property or conditions of space (Äther) was declined. Instead it was claimed that the speed of light is independent from the observers velocity.
Later Einstein introduced **an observer in a point of space with different gravitational potential** should observe a smaller value of c in a point of space with higher gravitational potential [like for example near a Black hole). The Äther was banned but isn’t the gravitational potential a condition or property of space?
>
> Where is the experimental proof that observers travelling toward or away from a light source, will always find that light from that source measures the same speed, regardless of their own speed?
>
>
>
Reproducing the MM experiment on a satellite with its vanishing gravitation in relation to the earths field, with its high velocity in relation to the earth and it acceleration-free behavior your question will be answered better than with MM experiments on earth. But this experiment is not necessary because we are sure to reach the right answer for all time.
The point is that in our daily life we could live with the constancy of light independent from the observers speed or with the constancy of light due to the gravitational potential. More interesting is the question, would this two different points of view change something in calculations for real physical processes, say for particle accelerators. | First, the constancy of the speed of light and its isotropy in a vacuum does indeed have strong theoretic descriptions and proofs, such as those provided by Albert Einstein and Hendrik Lorentz.
Our everyday experience that there is no limit to how fast an object can move if you keep accelerating it is actually incorrect. Both position (in the direction of motion) and time measurements are slightly nonlinear (and given by the Lorentz "boost", see [What is a Lorentz boost and how to calculate it?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/30166/what-is-a-lorentz-boost-and-how-to-calculate-it) and <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_transformation>), getting increasingly inaccurate with increased speed. So the conventional fixed maximum speed of any object, which is the speed of light in a vacuum, is actually an infinite speed when properly measured. Obviously, it is impossible to reach an infinite speed, no matter how much we try to accelerate, because the energy required for acceleration to true infinite speed would be infinite. The conventional idea that the speed of light is fixed is only correct due to our mistaken way of measuring speed. If we did measurements according to how Nature actually works (see the Lorentz references above), the speed of light would be infinite. You can't go faster than infinite speed!
Second, one-way measurements of the speed of electromagnetic radiation from a near-point radioactive source to a spherical radius show no anisotropy.
Third, photons have been slowed down dramatically through laser refrigeration and other techniques, but measurements of the one-way (slower) speed of light show isotropy to within the fairly good accuracy possible in the experiments.
Fourth, the Global Positioning System relies on accurate timing to compute a location and elevation of any GPS receiver. The time values transmitted by the 24 current satellites are corrected by software separately for the special and general theories of relativity. If there were any error in either theory such as an anisotropic speed of light, the GPS would not work to the phenomenal and repeatable precision that it demonstrates every day, all over the world. |
361,488 | Where is the experimental proof that observers travelling toward or away from a light source, will always find that light from that source measures the same speed, regardless of their own speed? | 2017/10/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/361488",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/171368/"
] | There have been very many tests of the constancy of the speed of light. You can readily find lists and descriptions of them on the Internet. For example, see <https://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/Relativity/SR/experiments.html> | It is claimed that on the earths surface the existence of an Äther would be observed with the [Michelson-Morley experimen](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michelson%E2%80%93Morley_experiment).
>
> Michelson expected that the Earth's motion would produce a fringe shift equal to 0.04 fringes—that is, of the separation between areas of the same intensity. He did not observe the expected shift; the greatest average deviation that he measured (in the northwest direction) was only 0.018 fringes; most of his measurements were much less. ([Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michelson%E2%80%93Morley_experiment#1881_and_1887_experiments))
>
>
>
By this the quite possible assumption that the velocity of EM radiation depends from some property or conditions of space (Äther) was declined. Instead it was claimed that the speed of light is independent from the observers velocity.
Later Einstein introduced **an observer in a point of space with different gravitational potential** should observe a smaller value of c in a point of space with higher gravitational potential [like for example near a Black hole). The Äther was banned but isn’t the gravitational potential a condition or property of space?
>
> Where is the experimental proof that observers travelling toward or away from a light source, will always find that light from that source measures the same speed, regardless of their own speed?
>
>
>
Reproducing the MM experiment on a satellite with its vanishing gravitation in relation to the earths field, with its high velocity in relation to the earth and it acceleration-free behavior your question will be answered better than with MM experiments on earth. But this experiment is not necessary because we are sure to reach the right answer for all time.
The point is that in our daily life we could live with the constancy of light independent from the observers speed or with the constancy of light due to the gravitational potential. More interesting is the question, would this two different points of view change something in calculations for real physical processes, say for particle accelerators. |
361,488 | Where is the experimental proof that observers travelling toward or away from a light source, will always find that light from that source measures the same speed, regardless of their own speed? | 2017/10/07 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/361488",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/171368/"
] | There have been very many tests of the constancy of the speed of light. You can readily find lists and descriptions of them on the Internet. For example, see <https://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/Relativity/SR/experiments.html> | First, the constancy of the speed of light and its isotropy in a vacuum does indeed have strong theoretic descriptions and proofs, such as those provided by Albert Einstein and Hendrik Lorentz.
Our everyday experience that there is no limit to how fast an object can move if you keep accelerating it is actually incorrect. Both position (in the direction of motion) and time measurements are slightly nonlinear (and given by the Lorentz "boost", see [What is a Lorentz boost and how to calculate it?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/30166/what-is-a-lorentz-boost-and-how-to-calculate-it) and <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_transformation>), getting increasingly inaccurate with increased speed. So the conventional fixed maximum speed of any object, which is the speed of light in a vacuum, is actually an infinite speed when properly measured. Obviously, it is impossible to reach an infinite speed, no matter how much we try to accelerate, because the energy required for acceleration to true infinite speed would be infinite. The conventional idea that the speed of light is fixed is only correct due to our mistaken way of measuring speed. If we did measurements according to how Nature actually works (see the Lorentz references above), the speed of light would be infinite. You can't go faster than infinite speed!
Second, one-way measurements of the speed of electromagnetic radiation from a near-point radioactive source to a spherical radius show no anisotropy.
Third, photons have been slowed down dramatically through laser refrigeration and other techniques, but measurements of the one-way (slower) speed of light show isotropy to within the fairly good accuracy possible in the experiments.
Fourth, the Global Positioning System relies on accurate timing to compute a location and elevation of any GPS receiver. The time values transmitted by the 24 current satellites are corrected by software separately for the special and general theories of relativity. If there were any error in either theory such as an anisotropic speed of light, the GPS would not work to the phenomenal and repeatable precision that it demonstrates every day, all over the world. |
40,874 | I've a Sony DSC-F828 and when I shoot in raw it takes a lot of time to write to the card. Is this only because the file has much more data?
Will connecting the camera to a PC reduce the time it takes to write one photo to disk? Or using a buffer? | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/40874",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/20351/"
] | RAW files contain more data than JPEGs so saving/moving the files takes more time. The RAW and JPEG files should be the same resolution, but per pixel there is more data.
Connecting to a PC isn't going to make it take less time; it may actually take longer because the speed of writing to the SD or CF card is probably faster than the USB connection to the PC. | This F828 is a very old camera and at the time these were limited in I/O bandwidth to the memory card, so the larger file-size causes very long access time. You will notice that if you set your camera to output TIFF, which also produces large files, it takes about the same amount of time.
Of course, even then, there were cameras which shot RAW faster but they cost much more because they has much faster processors and bandwidth to the memory card. As with product design, part of limitations is dictated by the desired feature set and target price. |
40,874 | I've a Sony DSC-F828 and when I shoot in raw it takes a lot of time to write to the card. Is this only because the file has much more data?
Will connecting the camera to a PC reduce the time it takes to write one photo to disk? Or using a buffer? | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/40874",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/20351/"
] | There are three factors that determine how long it takes to save a photo to the memory card:
1. The time it takes to compress the data into a file.
2. The size of file.
3. The I/O speed.
The time to compress to JPEG and to compress to RAW should be roughly the same, and it's the smaller part of the process, so it's the file size and I/O speed that are the main factors for the time to save the photo.
An USB connection is generally slower than the memory card, so it's not likely that downloading directly to a PC would be faster.
One thing that could speed up the process would be to get a faster memory card, but that would depend on whether the camera could actually make any use of the faster card. Different cameras and different memory cards gives varying performance, so you would look for testemonials of what other users of your exact camera model experience with different memory cards. | This F828 is a very old camera and at the time these were limited in I/O bandwidth to the memory card, so the larger file-size causes very long access time. You will notice that if you set your camera to output TIFF, which also produces large files, it takes about the same amount of time.
Of course, even then, there were cameras which shot RAW faster but they cost much more because they has much faster processors and bandwidth to the memory card. As with product design, part of limitations is dictated by the desired feature set and target price. |
160,355 | I have a logo that is a process color and I need to change it to a pantone colour. The only way I could change the colour was if I live traced it but I lost some detail. So I was wondering if there is another way I can do this in any of the adobe software programs without losing any of the quality. | 2010/07/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/160355",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | It's a raster image. You can lasso, feather, whatever... but you aren't going to have the same quality as you would have with a vector image. | If your logo is *just one color* (you did say "*a* process color") then you can do it like this:
1. Open it in Photoshop, note the DPI/pixels per inch resolution (Image menu>Image Size...) for later
2. Change color mode to grayscale (Image>Mode>Grayscale), save
3. Open in Illustrator
4. Change the fill color to the Pantone color you want to recolorize it
5. Export back out to PNG. When exporting from Illustrator make sure to set the resolution to the exact same dpi as your original PNG. |
160,355 | I have a logo that is a process color and I need to change it to a pantone colour. The only way I could change the colour was if I live traced it but I lost some detail. So I was wondering if there is another way I can do this in any of the adobe software programs without losing any of the quality. | 2010/07/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/160355",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | It's a raster image. You can lasso, feather, whatever... but you aren't going to have the same quality as you would have with a vector image. | It worked for me when i was searching answer for the same question and was hit and trying.
1. Select the png image in illustrator
2. Image Trace
3. Expand
It will now change into vector and you can see the anchor points.
4. select magic wand tool.
5. select the image you want to change the color.
6. change the color using fill in appearances.
7. select magic wand again.
8. delete the background of image. |
329,763 | To follow up [this](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329462/contribution-to-documentation-low-engagement-levels-high-approval-turn-aroun) question. The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out *crap*. Not just the UX but also the content itself. It's basically "just in it for the rep" that make small edits to chip in on the reputation gain.
What if we change the documentation contribution requirements to only allow people with a bronze, silver or gold tag badge of that particular tag to edit or create a new topic? This *should* increase the quality of the documentation topics and remove the possibility to edit a lot of different topics with small edits to rep farm but still allows the rep gain from documentation. | 2016/07/27 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329763",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1870760/"
] | I agree that it would be preferable if only subject matter experts are allowed to contribute to the docs… the whole "*in an ideal world*" and so on.
However, I am not sure limiting by badges is the right way forward.
**Regarding "rep farming":**
I am a member for 5+ years and seen a fair share of gold badgers rep farm, including me. There is no guarantee people will not use docs "for teh reps". Having an entry barrier will obviously lower that amount, even if it just meant that the rich get richer, but it will not prevent it *altogether*. You never claimed that though to be fair.
**Regarding contributions:**
You say
>
> The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out crap. Not just the UX but also the content itself.
>
>
>
Even if they rebooted the docs, fixed the bugs, UX and structural shortcomings and allowed only badgers to contribute, I cannot be bothered to contribute. **I just don't see utility of that whole project**. I don't see why I should replicate a good portion of my 2602 answers on Q&A over there. It feels wrong. I fought years against duplicates on Q&A and now I am invited to duplicate my stuff there? Why?
As I have pointed elsewhere on MSO, the scope of this docs project is unclear to me. It still is. Replicating my answers cannot be its purpose. Duplicating existing official documentations cannot be its purpose either. And no one needs a bucket of random examples. If you want to contribute a random example, just provide them as self-answered Q&A.
IMO, Docs is competing with Q&A and official documentations for no good reason. The idea to provide docs for otherwise poorly documented projects is laudable, but *The One True SO Documentation* is a wasteful and arrogant effort. Stack Overflow should not attempt to replace an authoritative documentation made by project maintainers elsewhere on the web. I will not participate in that.
The beauty of Stack Overflow for me always was that it gives me quality Q&A *and* links to authoritative outside sources for further digging. As such, it was a peaceful coexistence. I'd like that to continue. I don't want a Stack Overflow silo, where every answer links to some SO.docs instead of official docs. And I don't want the first ten pages of Google SERPs to be to SO only. Diversity is good and needed. SO docs is not. | Hypothetical:
I rarely post Stackoverflow answers, because I believe it's the "just in it for the rep users" diving on the questions. And because of that I won't get Bronze/Silver/Gold badges. So now only they can edit documentation.
Something you explicitly want to avoid? |
329,763 | To follow up [this](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329462/contribution-to-documentation-low-engagement-levels-high-approval-turn-aroun) question. The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out *crap*. Not just the UX but also the content itself. It's basically "just in it for the rep" that make small edits to chip in on the reputation gain.
What if we change the documentation contribution requirements to only allow people with a bronze, silver or gold tag badge of that particular tag to edit or create a new topic? This *should* increase the quality of the documentation topics and remove the possibility to edit a lot of different topics with small edits to rep farm but still allows the rep gain from documentation. | 2016/07/27 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329763",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1870760/"
] | I'm going to address another side of things: there are plenty of good ways to contribute to docs without being an expert. Well, two that I've found so far.
**Versioning**. While being an expert might help, *anyone* can go out, find the information, and format it in a table. The version chart needs to be in place before version comments work elsewhere, so it's important to have.
**Plagiarism Detection.** Indisputably, we don't want plagiarism. I have been looking through suggestions and running them through plagiarism checkers (although I'm not too impressed with these tools, so I might start doing it by hand) and rejecting any I catch as copied. You do not need to be a programmer at all to do this (English teachers would have an advantage, though). | Hypothetical:
I rarely post Stackoverflow answers, because I believe it's the "just in it for the rep users" diving on the questions. And because of that I won't get Bronze/Silver/Gold badges. So now only they can edit documentation.
Something you explicitly want to avoid? |
329,763 | To follow up [this](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329462/contribution-to-documentation-low-engagement-levels-high-approval-turn-aroun) question. The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out *crap*. Not just the UX but also the content itself. It's basically "just in it for the rep" that make small edits to chip in on the reputation gain.
What if we change the documentation contribution requirements to only allow people with a bronze, silver or gold tag badge of that particular tag to edit or create a new topic? This *should* increase the quality of the documentation topics and remove the possibility to edit a lot of different topics with small edits to rep farm but still allows the rep gain from documentation. | 2016/07/27 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329763",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1870760/"
] | I know for myself, I don't have a tag badge in anything (Currently working towards Java and IntelliJ IDEA), but am looking to contribute documentation in those areas, and also topics such as Android.
I will admit I am motivated by the rep, but it is nice to see what I can share with the community.
I think docs would benefit from more "experienced" users, but I think tag badges are maybe a bit too high of a bar to clear. What if a user just started using a new technology, found a tutorial/something in the official docs, and wanted to share it? They wouldn't be able to.
I think (and I admit this is quite vague and ambiguous) that the bar to clear should be an **overall positive question score**, maybe even required to have a few positive-scoring answers in the tag. This would open up to at least knowledgeable users, who don't need to get the 100 score necessary to contribute to docs | Hypothetical:
I rarely post Stackoverflow answers, because I believe it's the "just in it for the rep users" diving on the questions. And because of that I won't get Bronze/Silver/Gold badges. So now only they can edit documentation.
Something you explicitly want to avoid? |
329,763 | To follow up [this](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329462/contribution-to-documentation-low-engagement-levels-high-approval-turn-aroun) question. The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out *crap*. Not just the UX but also the content itself. It's basically "just in it for the rep" that make small edits to chip in on the reputation gain.
What if we change the documentation contribution requirements to only allow people with a bronze, silver or gold tag badge of that particular tag to edit or create a new topic? This *should* increase the quality of the documentation topics and remove the possibility to edit a lot of different topics with small edits to rep farm but still allows the rep gain from documentation. | 2016/07/27 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329763",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1870760/"
] | I agree that it would be preferable if only subject matter experts are allowed to contribute to the docs… the whole "*in an ideal world*" and so on.
However, I am not sure limiting by badges is the right way forward.
**Regarding "rep farming":**
I am a member for 5+ years and seen a fair share of gold badgers rep farm, including me. There is no guarantee people will not use docs "for teh reps". Having an entry barrier will obviously lower that amount, even if it just meant that the rich get richer, but it will not prevent it *altogether*. You never claimed that though to be fair.
**Regarding contributions:**
You say
>
> The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out crap. Not just the UX but also the content itself.
>
>
>
Even if they rebooted the docs, fixed the bugs, UX and structural shortcomings and allowed only badgers to contribute, I cannot be bothered to contribute. **I just don't see utility of that whole project**. I don't see why I should replicate a good portion of my 2602 answers on Q&A over there. It feels wrong. I fought years against duplicates on Q&A and now I am invited to duplicate my stuff there? Why?
As I have pointed elsewhere on MSO, the scope of this docs project is unclear to me. It still is. Replicating my answers cannot be its purpose. Duplicating existing official documentations cannot be its purpose either. And no one needs a bucket of random examples. If you want to contribute a random example, just provide them as self-answered Q&A.
IMO, Docs is competing with Q&A and official documentations for no good reason. The idea to provide docs for otherwise poorly documented projects is laudable, but *The One True SO Documentation* is a wasteful and arrogant effort. Stack Overflow should not attempt to replace an authoritative documentation made by project maintainers elsewhere on the web. I will not participate in that.
The beauty of Stack Overflow for me always was that it gives me quality Q&A *and* links to authoritative outside sources for further digging. As such, it was a peaceful coexistence. I'd like that to continue. I don't want a Stack Overflow silo, where every answer links to some SO.docs instead of official docs. And I don't want the first ten pages of Google SERPs to be to SO only. Diversity is good and needed. SO docs is not. | I'm going to address another side of things: there are plenty of good ways to contribute to docs without being an expert. Well, two that I've found so far.
**Versioning**. While being an expert might help, *anyone* can go out, find the information, and format it in a table. The version chart needs to be in place before version comments work elsewhere, so it's important to have.
**Plagiarism Detection.** Indisputably, we don't want plagiarism. I have been looking through suggestions and running them through plagiarism checkers (although I'm not too impressed with these tools, so I might start doing it by hand) and rejecting any I catch as copied. You do not need to be a programmer at all to do this (English teachers would have an advantage, though). |
329,763 | To follow up [this](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329462/contribution-to-documentation-low-engagement-levels-high-approval-turn-aroun) question. The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out *crap*. Not just the UX but also the content itself. It's basically "just in it for the rep" that make small edits to chip in on the reputation gain.
What if we change the documentation contribution requirements to only allow people with a bronze, silver or gold tag badge of that particular tag to edit or create a new topic? This *should* increase the quality of the documentation topics and remove the possibility to edit a lot of different topics with small edits to rep farm but still allows the rep gain from documentation. | 2016/07/27 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329763",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1870760/"
] | I agree that it would be preferable if only subject matter experts are allowed to contribute to the docs… the whole "*in an ideal world*" and so on.
However, I am not sure limiting by badges is the right way forward.
**Regarding "rep farming":**
I am a member for 5+ years and seen a fair share of gold badgers rep farm, including me. There is no guarantee people will not use docs "for teh reps". Having an entry barrier will obviously lower that amount, even if it just meant that the rich get richer, but it will not prevent it *altogether*. You never claimed that though to be fair.
**Regarding contributions:**
You say
>
> The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out crap. Not just the UX but also the content itself.
>
>
>
Even if they rebooted the docs, fixed the bugs, UX and structural shortcomings and allowed only badgers to contribute, I cannot be bothered to contribute. **I just don't see utility of that whole project**. I don't see why I should replicate a good portion of my 2602 answers on Q&A over there. It feels wrong. I fought years against duplicates on Q&A and now I am invited to duplicate my stuff there? Why?
As I have pointed elsewhere on MSO, the scope of this docs project is unclear to me. It still is. Replicating my answers cannot be its purpose. Duplicating existing official documentations cannot be its purpose either. And no one needs a bucket of random examples. If you want to contribute a random example, just provide them as self-answered Q&A.
IMO, Docs is competing with Q&A and official documentations for no good reason. The idea to provide docs for otherwise poorly documented projects is laudable, but *The One True SO Documentation* is a wasteful and arrogant effort. Stack Overflow should not attempt to replace an authoritative documentation made by project maintainers elsewhere on the web. I will not participate in that.
The beauty of Stack Overflow for me always was that it gives me quality Q&A *and* links to authoritative outside sources for further digging. As such, it was a peaceful coexistence. I'd like that to continue. I don't want a Stack Overflow silo, where every answer links to some SO.docs instead of official docs. And I don't want the first ten pages of Google SERPs to be to SO only. Diversity is good and needed. SO docs is not. | I know for myself, I don't have a tag badge in anything (Currently working towards Java and IntelliJ IDEA), but am looking to contribute documentation in those areas, and also topics such as Android.
I will admit I am motivated by the rep, but it is nice to see what I can share with the community.
I think docs would benefit from more "experienced" users, but I think tag badges are maybe a bit too high of a bar to clear. What if a user just started using a new technology, found a tutorial/something in the official docs, and wanted to share it? They wouldn't be able to.
I think (and I admit this is quite vague and ambiguous) that the bar to clear should be an **overall positive question score**, maybe even required to have a few positive-scoring answers in the tag. This would open up to at least knowledgeable users, who don't need to get the 100 score necessary to contribute to docs |
329,763 | To follow up [this](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329462/contribution-to-documentation-low-engagement-levels-high-approval-turn-aroun) question. The main reason experts don't want to contribute to documentation because at it's current state documentation is flat out *crap*. Not just the UX but also the content itself. It's basically "just in it for the rep" that make small edits to chip in on the reputation gain.
What if we change the documentation contribution requirements to only allow people with a bronze, silver or gold tag badge of that particular tag to edit or create a new topic? This *should* increase the quality of the documentation topics and remove the possibility to edit a lot of different topics with small edits to rep farm but still allows the rep gain from documentation. | 2016/07/27 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/329763",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1870760/"
] | I'm going to address another side of things: there are plenty of good ways to contribute to docs without being an expert. Well, two that I've found so far.
**Versioning**. While being an expert might help, *anyone* can go out, find the information, and format it in a table. The version chart needs to be in place before version comments work elsewhere, so it's important to have.
**Plagiarism Detection.** Indisputably, we don't want plagiarism. I have been looking through suggestions and running them through plagiarism checkers (although I'm not too impressed with these tools, so I might start doing it by hand) and rejecting any I catch as copied. You do not need to be a programmer at all to do this (English teachers would have an advantage, though). | I know for myself, I don't have a tag badge in anything (Currently working towards Java and IntelliJ IDEA), but am looking to contribute documentation in those areas, and also topics such as Android.
I will admit I am motivated by the rep, but it is nice to see what I can share with the community.
I think docs would benefit from more "experienced" users, but I think tag badges are maybe a bit too high of a bar to clear. What if a user just started using a new technology, found a tutorial/something in the official docs, and wanted to share it? They wouldn't be able to.
I think (and I admit this is quite vague and ambiguous) that the bar to clear should be an **overall positive question score**, maybe even required to have a few positive-scoring answers in the tag. This would open up to at least knowledgeable users, who don't need to get the 100 score necessary to contribute to docs |
620,610 | Can I use two relays to increase current rating? I have requirement of 12 A, 240 VAC load, but I have 7 A, 250 VAC relays. Can I add two relays to make 7 A + 7 A, relay which is driven by single input signal?
TLDR; Can we add relay to increase current for inductive load / (mono-motor of 1hp = 0.75kW)?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Q12kM.png) | 2022/05/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/620610",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/159628/"
] | The relays will not operate at exactly the same speed so one set of contacts will take the brunt of the switching, and when closed they may not share current equally. In both cases, beyond specifications so they may weld or die very prematurely.
Sometimes contacts on the *same* device are allowed to be paralleled for increased current, and that will be specified in the datasheet.
TL;DR: No | No.
The first contact to make and the last to break has to switch all the current. |
620,610 | Can I use two relays to increase current rating? I have requirement of 12 A, 240 VAC load, but I have 7 A, 250 VAC relays. Can I add two relays to make 7 A + 7 A, relay which is driven by single input signal?
TLDR; Can we add relay to increase current for inductive load / (mono-motor of 1hp = 0.75kW)?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Q12kM.png) | 2022/05/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/620610",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/159628/"
] | There are 3 states in relay switching a motor.
1. Making contact. Inductance starts at 0 current. No stress, just start caps.
2. During surge currents 5 to 8x rated current. Derate relay from resistive max current to 30% of rated current depending on datasheet. Add a snubber to extinguish some arc energy that raises contact surface to > 5000 'K (white light)
3. Break contacts. V=LdI/dt big arc energy stored in motor. E=1/2L^2 is converted to arc energy
N**ot only can you not double** **up on contacts** during switching but you need 3.3x (min) rated motor current in most power relays 2.2x rated in others depending on motor duty factor and relay. (absolute MAX)
Ionization time is required for opening contacts to detonate air into a burning hot gas. 1~3 few us The faster the relay contacts move the long it takes as the breakdown voltage 2kV/mm increases. Then the voltage collapses and the arc can then stretch until the motor current drops below holding current for the contact gap and current rating. DC requires a bigger gap.
Once air ionizes like lightning but in a short path, it conducts in 10's on nanoseconds or less.
The stress on a relay contacts depends on the electrical time constant as well as current and spring force (loud click) Every coil has a V/I spec or a coil DCR resistance. Some also give inductance but they tend to be in the Henry range.
Thus Tau=L/R can be large and the spring force a=F/m. You can increase R greatly on opening by adding a diode and Zener well below transistor Vceo or simply use V=IR and use that R in series with the diode and add a small EMI RF cap across R for RC=10 us. Thus you can improve Relay reliability in the contacts by speeding up the coil but beware of EMI both from the contact arc which spans > xx MHz and coil f-3dB =~ 0.2/Tau or f-3dB = 0.35 / 10~90%T
Reason
------
Synchronizing these events is highly uncertain even with identical relays as the voltage collapses on the 1 relay to open 1st thus reducing stress on the 2nd.
Read a good OMRON RELAY spec under DURABILITY. Learn every detail.
<https://omronfs.omron.com/en_US/ecb/products/pdf/en-g6b.pdf> | No.
The first contact to make and the last to break has to switch all the current. |
620,610 | Can I use two relays to increase current rating? I have requirement of 12 A, 240 VAC load, but I have 7 A, 250 VAC relays. Can I add two relays to make 7 A + 7 A, relay which is driven by single input signal?
TLDR; Can we add relay to increase current for inductive load / (mono-motor of 1hp = 0.75kW)?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Q12kM.png) | 2022/05/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/620610",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/159628/"
] | No.
The first contact to make and the last to break has to switch all the current. | Not with 240VAC, no. Paralleling isn't allowed in AC mains power unless the amps and wire size are quite large and certain protection is provided.
Further, to manipulate AC power you need equipment which is listed for the task. The equipment will have a variety of ratings, and you need to conform with the rating that fits your equipment. For instance motors have a different rating than resistive loads, due to the need to interrupt inductive kick.
Just buy the right thing, don't improvise. |
620,610 | Can I use two relays to increase current rating? I have requirement of 12 A, 240 VAC load, but I have 7 A, 250 VAC relays. Can I add two relays to make 7 A + 7 A, relay which is driven by single input signal?
TLDR; Can we add relay to increase current for inductive load / (mono-motor of 1hp = 0.75kW)?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Q12kM.png) | 2022/05/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/620610",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/159628/"
] | The relays will not operate at exactly the same speed so one set of contacts will take the brunt of the switching, and when closed they may not share current equally. In both cases, beyond specifications so they may weld or die very prematurely.
Sometimes contacts on the *same* device are allowed to be paralleled for increased current, and that will be specified in the datasheet.
TL;DR: No | There are 3 states in relay switching a motor.
1. Making contact. Inductance starts at 0 current. No stress, just start caps.
2. During surge currents 5 to 8x rated current. Derate relay from resistive max current to 30% of rated current depending on datasheet. Add a snubber to extinguish some arc energy that raises contact surface to > 5000 'K (white light)
3. Break contacts. V=LdI/dt big arc energy stored in motor. E=1/2L^2 is converted to arc energy
N**ot only can you not double** **up on contacts** during switching but you need 3.3x (min) rated motor current in most power relays 2.2x rated in others depending on motor duty factor and relay. (absolute MAX)
Ionization time is required for opening contacts to detonate air into a burning hot gas. 1~3 few us The faster the relay contacts move the long it takes as the breakdown voltage 2kV/mm increases. Then the voltage collapses and the arc can then stretch until the motor current drops below holding current for the contact gap and current rating. DC requires a bigger gap.
Once air ionizes like lightning but in a short path, it conducts in 10's on nanoseconds or less.
The stress on a relay contacts depends on the electrical time constant as well as current and spring force (loud click) Every coil has a V/I spec or a coil DCR resistance. Some also give inductance but they tend to be in the Henry range.
Thus Tau=L/R can be large and the spring force a=F/m. You can increase R greatly on opening by adding a diode and Zener well below transistor Vceo or simply use V=IR and use that R in series with the diode and add a small EMI RF cap across R for RC=10 us. Thus you can improve Relay reliability in the contacts by speeding up the coil but beware of EMI both from the contact arc which spans > xx MHz and coil f-3dB =~ 0.2/Tau or f-3dB = 0.35 / 10~90%T
Reason
------
Synchronizing these events is highly uncertain even with identical relays as the voltage collapses on the 1 relay to open 1st thus reducing stress on the 2nd.
Read a good OMRON RELAY spec under DURABILITY. Learn every detail.
<https://omronfs.omron.com/en_US/ecb/products/pdf/en-g6b.pdf> |
620,610 | Can I use two relays to increase current rating? I have requirement of 12 A, 240 VAC load, but I have 7 A, 250 VAC relays. Can I add two relays to make 7 A + 7 A, relay which is driven by single input signal?
TLDR; Can we add relay to increase current for inductive load / (mono-motor of 1hp = 0.75kW)?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Q12kM.png) | 2022/05/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/620610",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/159628/"
] | The relays will not operate at exactly the same speed so one set of contacts will take the brunt of the switching, and when closed they may not share current equally. In both cases, beyond specifications so they may weld or die very prematurely.
Sometimes contacts on the *same* device are allowed to be paralleled for increased current, and that will be specified in the datasheet.
TL;DR: No | Not with 240VAC, no. Paralleling isn't allowed in AC mains power unless the amps and wire size are quite large and certain protection is provided.
Further, to manipulate AC power you need equipment which is listed for the task. The equipment will have a variety of ratings, and you need to conform with the rating that fits your equipment. For instance motors have a different rating than resistive loads, due to the need to interrupt inductive kick.
Just buy the right thing, don't improvise. |
620,610 | Can I use two relays to increase current rating? I have requirement of 12 A, 240 VAC load, but I have 7 A, 250 VAC relays. Can I add two relays to make 7 A + 7 A, relay which is driven by single input signal?
TLDR; Can we add relay to increase current for inductive load / (mono-motor of 1hp = 0.75kW)?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Q12kM.png) | 2022/05/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/620610",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/159628/"
] | There are 3 states in relay switching a motor.
1. Making contact. Inductance starts at 0 current. No stress, just start caps.
2. During surge currents 5 to 8x rated current. Derate relay from resistive max current to 30% of rated current depending on datasheet. Add a snubber to extinguish some arc energy that raises contact surface to > 5000 'K (white light)
3. Break contacts. V=LdI/dt big arc energy stored in motor. E=1/2L^2 is converted to arc energy
N**ot only can you not double** **up on contacts** during switching but you need 3.3x (min) rated motor current in most power relays 2.2x rated in others depending on motor duty factor and relay. (absolute MAX)
Ionization time is required for opening contacts to detonate air into a burning hot gas. 1~3 few us The faster the relay contacts move the long it takes as the breakdown voltage 2kV/mm increases. Then the voltage collapses and the arc can then stretch until the motor current drops below holding current for the contact gap and current rating. DC requires a bigger gap.
Once air ionizes like lightning but in a short path, it conducts in 10's on nanoseconds or less.
The stress on a relay contacts depends on the electrical time constant as well as current and spring force (loud click) Every coil has a V/I spec or a coil DCR resistance. Some also give inductance but they tend to be in the Henry range.
Thus Tau=L/R can be large and the spring force a=F/m. You can increase R greatly on opening by adding a diode and Zener well below transistor Vceo or simply use V=IR and use that R in series with the diode and add a small EMI RF cap across R for RC=10 us. Thus you can improve Relay reliability in the contacts by speeding up the coil but beware of EMI both from the contact arc which spans > xx MHz and coil f-3dB =~ 0.2/Tau or f-3dB = 0.35 / 10~90%T
Reason
------
Synchronizing these events is highly uncertain even with identical relays as the voltage collapses on the 1 relay to open 1st thus reducing stress on the 2nd.
Read a good OMRON RELAY spec under DURABILITY. Learn every detail.
<https://omronfs.omron.com/en_US/ecb/products/pdf/en-g6b.pdf> | Not with 240VAC, no. Paralleling isn't allowed in AC mains power unless the amps and wire size are quite large and certain protection is provided.
Further, to manipulate AC power you need equipment which is listed for the task. The equipment will have a variety of ratings, and you need to conform with the rating that fits your equipment. For instance motors have a different rating than resistive loads, due to the need to interrupt inductive kick.
Just buy the right thing, don't improvise. |
4,546 | Searching for good textbooks on math related to Computer Science I bought two german books yet, but found them not to be easily understandable and not suitable for self-study . German textbooks are always very academic and extremely based on cryptic formula. They're maybe good, if you want a reference, supplementary to your courses in college, but as pointed out above, I'm trying the self-teaching approach a.t.m. .
I am very interested in theoretical Computer Science, but I lack the needed math knowledge to dig further into the subject . Could you recommend me a book, best in english, which would provide me with the basics of discrete math and every other mathematical subject related to CompSci and is easily understandable ? If the book covers more topics, maybe not so essential for CompSci, but is nevertheless good for self-study, I would like to hear about it too. | 2011/01/25 | [
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/4546",
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com",
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/users/3447/"
] | >
> I am not only searching for a book, but also an approach of how to learn matc without pain on my own.
>
>
>
If you learn best from and/or enjoy a good lecture, your best bet is probably the MIT open courseware lectures. They have Calculus, multiple versions of Linear Algebra
>
> I am still going to "Gymnasium", the german counterpart to the high school
>
>
>
Unsurprising, MIT open courseware also has an excellent collection of canonical CS courses that will be helpful for gaining background in CS theory for the high schooler. I worked through the Structure and Interpretation lectures my Junior year of high school, and that was definitely worth the time. There is also an Introduction to Algorithms course.
Of course, there is also a course on exactly what you want -- Math for CS -- but there are no video lectures.
See here: <http://ocw.mit.edu/courses/#electrical-engineering-and-computer-science> | A good introductory book would have a title such as:
* [Discrete Mathematics for Computer Science](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0131377108)
Many such titles are available.
Another option is to find suitable material online: a good starting point, which has lots of links, is <http://en.wikiversity.org/wiki/Introductory_Discrete_Mathematics_for_Computer_Science>.
The other option is to google "Discrete mathematics" and such like, find .pdf files and skim through them to see whether they are at your level. Also the notes of many first year university courses covering discrete mathematics and such topics are available online. Again, google is your friend. |
2,006 | Due to the new pagination of the [/sites](http://api.stackoverflow.com/1.1/usage/stackauth-methods/sites) method in [v1.1](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2011/02/stack-exchange-api-1-1-and-improved-app-gallery/) of the API, we have to go through all the pages of sites to check whether a site exists, or allow the user to search for a site.
Would it be possible to provide a way to search the list instead? | 2011/02/12 | [
"https://stackapps.com/questions/2006",
"https://stackapps.com",
"https://stackapps.com/users/1177/"
] | For now, as we have only ~80 sites, you can set `pagesize` to 100 and get them all.
But in general, I think pagination here makes no sense at all. Because there're no search parameters or ordering, I can't think of a situation where app can fetch only first page and be satisfied.
*Would it be possible to provide a way to search the list instead?*
I would propose just getting the whole list of sites, caching it (as documentation recommends) and searching locally. | Pagination on /sites is solely so [app]s don't have to pull down any unknown, large, and constantly growing chunk of a data in a single request.
It is expected that every consumer would grab all sites in a series of sequential (or concurrent, if they're comfortable with that) requests for each page. |
35,364 | Once my public wallet address is known, is there anyway to deny payments to that wallet?
For example, if I want an external authority to regulate who can pay into a wallet, is that possible?
I guess a related question is can I turn a wallet 'off' once it is in the block chain and known. | 2015/01/08 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/35364",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/22805/"
] | No. At present this is not possible. Any one can create a transaction to transfer currency to any valid address. The transaction will be accepted by the network as long as it is valid.
It could be achieved by a collusion of the majority of the hashing power in the network, if the colluders allow/deny transactions that meet criteria of their choosing, which can include transfers to specific addresses. | No, you can't prevent people from paying any particular address even if you control that address. This is a known problem: it would be very nice to have an address that can only be paid once.
Something like [P2SH^2](http://comments.gmane.org/gmane.comp.bitcoin.devel/1996) could help with this, although it would not provide a perfect one-time-only property. |
35,364 | Once my public wallet address is known, is there anyway to deny payments to that wallet?
For example, if I want an external authority to regulate who can pay into a wallet, is that possible?
I guess a related question is can I turn a wallet 'off' once it is in the block chain and known. | 2015/01/08 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/35364",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/22805/"
] | No, you can't prevent people from paying any particular address even if you control that address. This is a known problem: it would be very nice to have an address that can only be paid once.
Something like [P2SH^2](http://comments.gmane.org/gmane.comp.bitcoin.devel/1996) could help with this, although it would not provide a perfect one-time-only property. | No, you cannot do that. The wallet doesn't really hold the coins, it is a structure that contains some private keys which in turn can digitally prove that you are the owner of their public hash, also known as a bitcoin address. As long as a bitcoin address is valid, anyone can send any sort of payments to it and none can prevent this from happening. |
35,364 | Once my public wallet address is known, is there anyway to deny payments to that wallet?
For example, if I want an external authority to regulate who can pay into a wallet, is that possible?
I guess a related question is can I turn a wallet 'off' once it is in the block chain and known. | 2015/01/08 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/35364",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/22805/"
] | No. At present this is not possible. Any one can create a transaction to transfer currency to any valid address. The transaction will be accepted by the network as long as it is valid.
It could be achieved by a collusion of the majority of the hashing power in the network, if the colluders allow/deny transactions that meet criteria of their choosing, which can include transfers to specific addresses. | No, you cannot do that. The wallet doesn't really hold the coins, it is a structure that contains some private keys which in turn can digitally prove that you are the owner of their public hash, also known as a bitcoin address. As long as a bitcoin address is valid, anyone can send any sort of payments to it and none can prevent this from happening. |
462,638 | So long story short, i got some speakers from an old music player and they are huge (around 2.5 inches diameter and 1.5 inches high), i gave them new wires to use with a breadboard so i used a headphone jack to connect it to my computer. But it was too quiet, even with both youtube and my computer at max volume, so i made a simple transistor amplifier, but for some reason the outputed audio is flickering, i can tell that the audio data from the jack is getting through correctly because you can still sortof hear the melody of the test music, 3.3v is going through the transistor to the speaker, with the flow controlled by the current coming from the jack. I have also noticed that the speaker clicks more frequently with chiptune (or similar).[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/f0oJj.png) | 2019/10/12 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/462638",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/233965/"
] | The transistor is used as an emitter-follower (look it up) that has a voltage gain of only 1. So the output volume will be low level like for headphones.
The transistor is not biased so it behaves as a rectifier producing severe distortion (flickering?).
Your very simple circuit feeds DC through the speaker that a real amplifier never does. | consider something like this
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fcFarT.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) |
531,199 | I am using .net 1.1. I have a session class in which I have stored many static variables that hold some data to be used by many classes.
I want to find a simple way of destroying this class instead of resetting every variable one by one. For example if there is a static class MyStatic, I would have liked to destroy/remove this class from the memory by writing MyStatic = null, which is not currently possible,
Additional question.
--------------------
The idea of singleton is good, but I have the following questions:
If singleton is implemented, the 'single' object will still remain in the memory. In singleton, we are only checking if an instance is already existing. how can i make sure that this instance variable also gets destroyed.
I have a main class which initializes the variable in the static class. Even if I plan to implement a Rest() method, I need to call it from a method, for eg, the destructor in the main class. But this destructor gets called only when GC collects this main class object in the memory, which means the Reset() gets called very late
thanks
pradeep | 2009/02/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/531199",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/20933/"
] | There's no way to destroy a static unless it resides in a separate AppDomain in which case you can get rid of it by unloading the AppDomain. However it is usually better to avoid statics.
EDIT: Additional question
When the singleton is no longer referenced it will be collected just as everything else. In other words, if you want it collected you must make sure that there are no references to it. It goes without saying that if you store a static reference to your singleton, you will have the same problem as before. | You destroy objects, not classes. There's nothing wrong with static classes--C# provides them for a reason. Singletons are just extra overhead, unless you actually need an object, e.g. when you have to pass the object as a parameter.
Static classes contain only static variables. These variables tend to last for the lifetime of the app, in which case you don't have to worry about disposing referenced objects, unless you have a mild case of OCD. That just leaves the case where your static class allocates and releases resources throughout its lifetime. Dispose of these objects in due course as you usually would (e.g., "using..."). |
531,199 | I am using .net 1.1. I have a session class in which I have stored many static variables that hold some data to be used by many classes.
I want to find a simple way of destroying this class instead of resetting every variable one by one. For example if there is a static class MyStatic, I would have liked to destroy/remove this class from the memory by writing MyStatic = null, which is not currently possible,
Additional question.
--------------------
The idea of singleton is good, but I have the following questions:
If singleton is implemented, the 'single' object will still remain in the memory. In singleton, we are only checking if an instance is already existing. how can i make sure that this instance variable also gets destroyed.
I have a main class which initializes the variable in the static class. Even if I plan to implement a Rest() method, I need to call it from a method, for eg, the destructor in the main class. But this destructor gets called only when GC collects this main class object in the memory, which means the Reset() gets called very late
thanks
pradeep | 2009/02/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/531199",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/20933/"
] | You destroy objects, not classes. There's nothing wrong with static classes--C# provides them for a reason. Singletons are just extra overhead, unless you actually need an object, e.g. when you have to pass the object as a parameter.
Static classes contain only static variables. These variables tend to last for the lifetime of the app, in which case you don't have to worry about disposing referenced objects, unless you have a mild case of OCD. That just leaves the case where your static class allocates and releases resources throughout its lifetime. Dispose of these objects in due course as you usually would (e.g., "using..."). | The best way in your condition is to have an Reset() method built-in as well, which can reset the values of the class. |
531,199 | I am using .net 1.1. I have a session class in which I have stored many static variables that hold some data to be used by many classes.
I want to find a simple way of destroying this class instead of resetting every variable one by one. For example if there is a static class MyStatic, I would have liked to destroy/remove this class from the memory by writing MyStatic = null, which is not currently possible,
Additional question.
--------------------
The idea of singleton is good, but I have the following questions:
If singleton is implemented, the 'single' object will still remain in the memory. In singleton, we are only checking if an instance is already existing. how can i make sure that this instance variable also gets destroyed.
I have a main class which initializes the variable in the static class. Even if I plan to implement a Rest() method, I need to call it from a method, for eg, the destructor in the main class. But this destructor gets called only when GC collects this main class object in the memory, which means the Reset() gets called very late
thanks
pradeep | 2009/02/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/531199",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/20933/"
] | Don't use a static class to store your variables. Use an instance (and make it a singleton if you only want one instance at any given time.) You can then implement IDisposible, and just call Dispose() when you want to destroy it.
For more information check out this site: <http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/General/Singleton.aspx>
**EDIT**
The object is still subject to garbage collection, so unless you are using lots of unmanaged resources, you should be fine. You can implement IDisposible to clean up any resources that need to be cleaned up as well. | You destroy objects, not classes. There's nothing wrong with static classes--C# provides them for a reason. Singletons are just extra overhead, unless you actually need an object, e.g. when you have to pass the object as a parameter.
Static classes contain only static variables. These variables tend to last for the lifetime of the app, in which case you don't have to worry about disposing referenced objects, unless you have a mild case of OCD. That just leaves the case where your static class allocates and releases resources throughout its lifetime. Dispose of these objects in due course as you usually would (e.g., "using..."). |
531,199 | I am using .net 1.1. I have a session class in which I have stored many static variables that hold some data to be used by many classes.
I want to find a simple way of destroying this class instead of resetting every variable one by one. For example if there is a static class MyStatic, I would have liked to destroy/remove this class from the memory by writing MyStatic = null, which is not currently possible,
Additional question.
--------------------
The idea of singleton is good, but I have the following questions:
If singleton is implemented, the 'single' object will still remain in the memory. In singleton, we are only checking if an instance is already existing. how can i make sure that this instance variable also gets destroyed.
I have a main class which initializes the variable in the static class. Even if I plan to implement a Rest() method, I need to call it from a method, for eg, the destructor in the main class. But this destructor gets called only when GC collects this main class object in the memory, which means the Reset() gets called very late
thanks
pradeep | 2009/02/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/531199",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/20933/"
] | There's no way to destroy a static unless it resides in a separate AppDomain in which case you can get rid of it by unloading the AppDomain. However it is usually better to avoid statics.
EDIT: Additional question
When the singleton is no longer referenced it will be collected just as everything else. In other words, if you want it collected you must make sure that there are no references to it. It goes without saying that if you store a static reference to your singleton, you will have the same problem as before. | The best way in your condition is to have an Reset() method built-in as well, which can reset the values of the class. |
5,121,032 | In my process I'm attempting to launch appB from appA using startActivityForResult and pass some data back and forth.
I'm probably not using it correctly because when appB launches (which it does correctly) its savedInstanceState (the onCreate param) is null.
Is that not the Bundle that the intent that I create in appA (prior to calling the appB) populates? If not where do I get that bundle?
Also, when I finish() appB which bundle do I pack with the data I want to hand back to appA in its onActivityResult handler? | 2011/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5121032",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/59947/"
] | Use [Activity.getIntent()](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/app/Activity.html#getIntent%28%29). | Dr. D. There are actually at least four sets of state in your app. 1) The non view state of activity one (parent) which can be lost on a soft kill (phone rotation). 2) The non view state of activity two (child) which can be lost on a soft kill (phone rotation). 3) The state of data being passed from Activity 1 to 2 and back from activity 2 to 1. 4) The non view and view state of Activity 1 on a hard kill (user hit back button while Activity 1 has the focus.
I have sample code on 3) [here](http://sites.google.com/site/jalcomputing/home/mac-osx-android-programming-tutorial/dialog-as-activity), demonstrating pushing data using intent put extra and retrieving data using setResult and on 1), 2) [here](http://sites.google.com/site/jalcomputing/home/mac-osx-android-programming-tutorial/saving-instance-state) saving state using onSaveInstanceState.
Finally, I have some code [here](http://sites.google.com/site/jalcomputing/home/mac-osx-android-programming-tutorial/sending-serializable-as-extra) demonstrating how to encapsulate data using serializble objects and methods such as putSerializable and getSerializable.
I hope that helps,
Dr. JAL |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | I'm not an editor, so I don't have the first-hand perspective you're asking for. Anyway, according to Publon's Global State of Peer Review 2018 report, ~10% of reviewers are responsible for ~50% of peer reviews ([Nature News summary](https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-018-06602-y), [full report](https://publons.com/static/Publons-Global-State-Of-Peer-Review-2018.pdf)), so some reviewers probably do get "milked". The report also discusses if there's a rising "reviewer fatigue", where review invitation acceptance rates are going down. That might make an editor more likely to repeatedly invite their more reliable referees.
Since your profile mentions you have a physics background, I'll mention something I've heard from APS editors. They try (across the journal family) to limit review requests a bit. First, they try to avoid asking a reviewer review multiple manuscripts at the same time, but do make exceptions for e.g. resubmissions. Second, they have a stated aim to give reviewers a two-week break between submission of the last report and the next invitation to review. | An editor should and normally does keep a database of reviewers. It contains more than just their email addresses. There is no particular reason why it can't contain preferences for frequency as well as the other information. So, an editor can and should ask, and try (hard) to honor those requests. Then the frequency is determined individually and need not be the same for all.
It would be fairly easy to write an application that will move potential reviewers forward or backward in a queue so that the process is automated, more or less.
Another system is to provide a list of papers to a set of reviewers and let them bid on them. This is harder to automate since editor judgement is probably needed to match papers with reviewing skills, history, and preferences. But a fairly large subset of the needed reviews can be handled purely via reviewer requests. Some CS conferences use this method. Then, fewer specific requests need to be made.
You are getting a lot of requests because (a) you accept them and (b) you do a good job apparently. You will keep getting them unless you ask for a pause or a slower or faster request rate. Accepting one two weeks after completing the previous one feels like service above and beyond the call of duty to me, actually. If it is burdensome in any way, or interferes with your own work, speak up. |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | I'm not an editor, so I don't have the first-hand perspective you're asking for. Anyway, according to Publon's Global State of Peer Review 2018 report, ~10% of reviewers are responsible for ~50% of peer reviews ([Nature News summary](https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-018-06602-y), [full report](https://publons.com/static/Publons-Global-State-Of-Peer-Review-2018.pdf)), so some reviewers probably do get "milked". The report also discusses if there's a rising "reviewer fatigue", where review invitation acceptance rates are going down. That might make an editor more likely to repeatedly invite their more reliable referees.
Since your profile mentions you have a physics background, I'll mention something I've heard from APS editors. They try (across the journal family) to limit review requests a bit. First, they try to avoid asking a reviewer review multiple manuscripts at the same time, but do make exceptions for e.g. resubmissions. Second, they have a stated aim to give reviewers a two-week break between submission of the last report and the next invitation to review. | The last time I handled a journal which had a standard review deadline of ~28 days, I had a personal limit of once every two months. It's not a strict rule, and if e.g. a paper is revised within two months I will still invite the same reviewer. This limit is also not based on any statistics or data - it's simply something I intuited. It was also rather rare for me to actually run into the limit since we don't usually get that many papers in only that single reviewer's expertise.
If you are getting too many reviewer invitations, absolutely feel free to decline. Editors see so many declined invitations that they are probably not going to bat their eye at yet another declined invitation. Just say you don't have time (which is true as well). There's a good chance you can also indicate in the journal's editorial management system periods for which you aren't available.
You don't have to feel bad about declining - there are thousands upon thousands of researchers in the world, and there is always someone else who can review the paper. If you can suggest someone else, it's not even that inconvenient for the journal to invite them. |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | Even for reviewers I know well (and probably have worked with), I will try not to ask the same person to review journal submissions more often than every 4-6 months. I certainly wouldn't say "good job on that last one, here's the next one for you!"
But it all comes down to how people respond. If someone declines, I'm more likely to wait a long while before asking again, but if they agree whenever I ask, I can imagine that window narrowing. Especially when it often takes asking 8-10 people just to get 3 reviewers. | An editor should and normally does keep a database of reviewers. It contains more than just their email addresses. There is no particular reason why it can't contain preferences for frequency as well as the other information. So, an editor can and should ask, and try (hard) to honor those requests. Then the frequency is determined individually and need not be the same for all.
It would be fairly easy to write an application that will move potential reviewers forward or backward in a queue so that the process is automated, more or less.
Another system is to provide a list of papers to a set of reviewers and let them bid on them. This is harder to automate since editor judgement is probably needed to match papers with reviewing skills, history, and preferences. But a fairly large subset of the needed reviews can be handled purely via reviewer requests. Some CS conferences use this method. Then, fewer specific requests need to be made.
You are getting a lot of requests because (a) you accept them and (b) you do a good job apparently. You will keep getting them unless you ask for a pause or a slower or faster request rate. Accepting one two weeks after completing the previous one feels like service above and beyond the call of duty to me, actually. If it is burdensome in any way, or interferes with your own work, speak up. |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | From my experience as an editor, it is not unusual for referees to ask for "time off" from being assigned reviews and give bounds for the frequency of requests. As Buffy suggested, some editorial systems allow referees to enter this information and the editor sees it before sending out review invitations. I was glad to honor such requests from reviewers---I wanted them to feel satisfied & respected so that they would write more helpful reports in the future.
Similar to Fred Douglis, I tried not to ask anyone (other than editorial board members!) to review more than twice a year. However, we aren't mind readers. If your pattern is to submit a helpful report and then say yes to another request soon afterwards, then maybe you have the time, really enjoy reviewing, etc. What editor wouldn't follow up on such enthusiasm? My advice is that it's up to you to speak up about what you have time for, how often you're comfortable reviewing, etc. I think there's very little risk of getting on the editor's bad side by setting up those kind of parameters. | An editor should and normally does keep a database of reviewers. It contains more than just their email addresses. There is no particular reason why it can't contain preferences for frequency as well as the other information. So, an editor can and should ask, and try (hard) to honor those requests. Then the frequency is determined individually and need not be the same for all.
It would be fairly easy to write an application that will move potential reviewers forward or backward in a queue so that the process is automated, more or less.
Another system is to provide a list of papers to a set of reviewers and let them bid on them. This is harder to automate since editor judgement is probably needed to match papers with reviewing skills, history, and preferences. But a fairly large subset of the needed reviews can be handled purely via reviewer requests. Some CS conferences use this method. Then, fewer specific requests need to be made.
You are getting a lot of requests because (a) you accept them and (b) you do a good job apparently. You will keep getting them unless you ask for a pause or a slower or faster request rate. Accepting one two weeks after completing the previous one feels like service above and beyond the call of duty to me, actually. If it is burdensome in any way, or interferes with your own work, speak up. |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | An editor should and normally does keep a database of reviewers. It contains more than just their email addresses. There is no particular reason why it can't contain preferences for frequency as well as the other information. So, an editor can and should ask, and try (hard) to honor those requests. Then the frequency is determined individually and need not be the same for all.
It would be fairly easy to write an application that will move potential reviewers forward or backward in a queue so that the process is automated, more or less.
Another system is to provide a list of papers to a set of reviewers and let them bid on them. This is harder to automate since editor judgement is probably needed to match papers with reviewing skills, history, and preferences. But a fairly large subset of the needed reviews can be handled purely via reviewer requests. Some CS conferences use this method. Then, fewer specific requests need to be made.
You are getting a lot of requests because (a) you accept them and (b) you do a good job apparently. You will keep getting them unless you ask for a pause or a slower or faster request rate. Accepting one two weeks after completing the previous one feels like service above and beyond the call of duty to me, actually. If it is burdensome in any way, or interferes with your own work, speak up. | The last time I handled a journal which had a standard review deadline of ~28 days, I had a personal limit of once every two months. It's not a strict rule, and if e.g. a paper is revised within two months I will still invite the same reviewer. This limit is also not based on any statistics or data - it's simply something I intuited. It was also rather rare for me to actually run into the limit since we don't usually get that many papers in only that single reviewer's expertise.
If you are getting too many reviewer invitations, absolutely feel free to decline. Editors see so many declined invitations that they are probably not going to bat their eye at yet another declined invitation. Just say you don't have time (which is true as well). There's a good chance you can also indicate in the journal's editorial management system periods for which you aren't available.
You don't have to feel bad about declining - there are thousands upon thousands of researchers in the world, and there is always someone else who can review the paper. If you can suggest someone else, it's not even that inconvenient for the journal to invite them. |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | Even for reviewers I know well (and probably have worked with), I will try not to ask the same person to review journal submissions more often than every 4-6 months. I certainly wouldn't say "good job on that last one, here's the next one for you!"
But it all comes down to how people respond. If someone declines, I'm more likely to wait a long while before asking again, but if they agree whenever I ask, I can imagine that window narrowing. Especially when it often takes asking 8-10 people just to get 3 reviewers. | The last time I handled a journal which had a standard review deadline of ~28 days, I had a personal limit of once every two months. It's not a strict rule, and if e.g. a paper is revised within two months I will still invite the same reviewer. This limit is also not based on any statistics or data - it's simply something I intuited. It was also rather rare for me to actually run into the limit since we don't usually get that many papers in only that single reviewer's expertise.
If you are getting too many reviewer invitations, absolutely feel free to decline. Editors see so many declined invitations that they are probably not going to bat their eye at yet another declined invitation. Just say you don't have time (which is true as well). There's a good chance you can also indicate in the journal's editorial management system periods for which you aren't available.
You don't have to feel bad about declining - there are thousands upon thousands of researchers in the world, and there is always someone else who can review the paper. If you can suggest someone else, it's not even that inconvenient for the journal to invite them. |
166,127 | There is a journal editor who keeps sending me review requests. He sends a new one shortly (a couple of weeks) after I return the previous one. I tend to accept because they align quite well with my expertise and I want to stay in good terms with this editor, who is a prominent figure in the field. I am a slow reviewer, but tend to give quite detailed and comprehensive reviews (compared with what I usually get for my own papers), and I guess the editor is happy with the quality of my reports, otherwise he wouldn't keep asking. However, I wouldn't mind if he asked less often. After all, this is only one journal and I also get review requests from other journals.
I have no experience as editor, and I am wondering if there are any best practices from that side. Is it common for an editor to keep "milking" that reliable reviewer? For those of you who have editorial duties, do you have any limit on how often to ask? Once a month, once every two months?
My intuition tells me there's a risk the reviewer gets tired of getting so many review requests from the same editor and the editor may end up losing that valuable resource. | 2021/04/10 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/166127",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/14695/"
] | From my experience as an editor, it is not unusual for referees to ask for "time off" from being assigned reviews and give bounds for the frequency of requests. As Buffy suggested, some editorial systems allow referees to enter this information and the editor sees it before sending out review invitations. I was glad to honor such requests from reviewers---I wanted them to feel satisfied & respected so that they would write more helpful reports in the future.
Similar to Fred Douglis, I tried not to ask anyone (other than editorial board members!) to review more than twice a year. However, we aren't mind readers. If your pattern is to submit a helpful report and then say yes to another request soon afterwards, then maybe you have the time, really enjoy reviewing, etc. What editor wouldn't follow up on such enthusiasm? My advice is that it's up to you to speak up about what you have time for, how often you're comfortable reviewing, etc. I think there's very little risk of getting on the editor's bad side by setting up those kind of parameters. | The last time I handled a journal which had a standard review deadline of ~28 days, I had a personal limit of once every two months. It's not a strict rule, and if e.g. a paper is revised within two months I will still invite the same reviewer. This limit is also not based on any statistics or data - it's simply something I intuited. It was also rather rare for me to actually run into the limit since we don't usually get that many papers in only that single reviewer's expertise.
If you are getting too many reviewer invitations, absolutely feel free to decline. Editors see so many declined invitations that they are probably not going to bat their eye at yet another declined invitation. Just say you don't have time (which is true as well). There's a good chance you can also indicate in the journal's editorial management system periods for which you aren't available.
You don't have to feel bad about declining - there are thousands upon thousands of researchers in the world, and there is always someone else who can review the paper. If you can suggest someone else, it's not even that inconvenient for the journal to invite them. |
26,400 | Which is correct to use in a sentence, 10 US$ or US$ 10. Perhaps USD should be used instead or even something else? | 2011/05/21 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/26400",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8751/"
] | If you are trying to make it clear that these are United States dollars (rather than the mighty Canadian version)
"$10 US" or in a more formal economics text possibly, "10 USD" | I work in a law office and this is how we are doing it now (lately) (US)$10,000.00! |
2,162,646 | I've searched the internet for this but couldn't find anything useable, I was just wondering if there exists a C/C++ project similar to [portablepython](http://portablepython.com)?
**EDIT**
I guess the question becomes: is there a portable C/C++ compiler I can stick onto a usb key? | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2162646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/104071/"
] | Python is an interpreter that can run "scripts" (`.py` files). Therefore portablepython makes sense - if you don't want to install Python everywhere, but still want to run the small Python files. This helps if the target PC doesn't have Python installed (or you can't even do it because of privileges).
For C/C++ this doesn't make much sense as these are compiled languages. Just compile them to executables and you have your "portability".
If you need to "program C/C++ anywhere", just place your favorite compiler and code editor on a USB stick, and you're done. [portableapps](http://portableapps.com) is a nice place to find portable (as in "USB carry-able" applications), and it has [this link](http://portableapps.com/node/219) for a portable C++ IDE/Compiler.
P.S. Python programs can also be bundled into (rather large) executables using tools like py2exe and PyInstaller. | PortablePython is a python interpreter, and as Eli Bendersky pointed out, you don't need an interpreter to run programs written in C or C++ once it is compiled. OTOH, if what you are looking for is a *compiler* that does not need installation, you can have a look at [Dev-C++ portable](http://sourceforge.net/projects/devcpp-portable/) . (I am assuming you need this to run on windows as most Unix-like OSes have gcc anyway). |
2,162,646 | I've searched the internet for this but couldn't find anything useable, I was just wondering if there exists a C/C++ project similar to [portablepython](http://portablepython.com)?
**EDIT**
I guess the question becomes: is there a portable C/C++ compiler I can stick onto a usb key? | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2162646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/104071/"
] | Python is an interpreter that can run "scripts" (`.py` files). Therefore portablepython makes sense - if you don't want to install Python everywhere, but still want to run the small Python files. This helps if the target PC doesn't have Python installed (or you can't even do it because of privileges).
For C/C++ this doesn't make much sense as these are compiled languages. Just compile them to executables and you have your "portability".
If you need to "program C/C++ anywhere", just place your favorite compiler and code editor on a USB stick, and you're done. [portableapps](http://portableapps.com) is a nice place to find portable (as in "USB carry-able" applications), and it has [this link](http://portableapps.com/node/219) for a portable C++ IDE/Compiler.
P.S. Python programs can also be bundled into (rather large) executables using tools like py2exe and PyInstaller. | There is [tcc](http://bellard.org/tcc/) which has precompiled binaries for windows which you can use from your usb stick. tcc has no support for c++ though. |
32,378,103 | Developing an android app that needs tasks from outlook.office365.com, where the client's work account is connected with AD, I used ADAL library for authentication and don't find API to access the Tasks. Is there any way to get this done?.Kindly update me. | 2015/09/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32378103",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2459623/"
] | Finally, I have found out a way to access the "Tasks" from outlook.office365.com, Please make sure you read the guide here:
<https://docs.google.com/document/d/1iqY_tdyJFbVZ2UR0_rGznSvbamDTdm6gNoltfQZghrQ/edit?usp=sharing>
It is working, but I had to get the trial license from the developers, still I'm working on the same by using [ews-java-api](https://github.com/OfficeDev/ews-java-api), once if I find it working, I'll update my answer | Sorry, the API doesn't support interacting with Outlook tasks. You can find all of the Office 365 API documentation on [MSDN](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/office/office365/api/api-catalog). |
7,783,144 | I have built an extensive 2-tier application in D2010, using ADO and devexpress. I want to upgrade this to using Datasnap mainly to provide HTTPS communication instead of just TCP/IP to the vulnerable SQL server. I have followed all the Datasnap tutorials I could find. I have Cary Jensen's Delphi In Depth: ClientDatasets. All good and well, but the examples are pretty useless because in a REAL database application, grids are populated from joining multiple tables together and almost never from a single table. This obviates the "autoresolve" capability of clientdatasets right off the bat. Even the proposed beforeupdateevent handlers won't work in a datasnap application because the DB is only accessible to the datasnap server. So it seems to me I have to create a method on the datasnap server for EACH insert/update I am going to need, then expose those methods to the client and call them from the client as required to request the datasnap server to perform the required update/inserts. This seems like a lot of work!
Is there an easier way to implement https comms to a SQL Server?
Oh in case you're wondering, the application is already pseudo 3-tier in that grids are wired to TdxMemData, and never directly to TADOQueries. I handle all insert/updates myself in the same way that I would have needed to if I had used TClientdatasets. | 2011/10/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7783144",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/381084/"
] | If you think your database is vulnerable think twice about using D2010 Datasnap. It is very, very vulnerable. Don't be fooled by HTTPS, there are still lot of pieces missing to fully protect the channel. For example once you use Datasnap, SQL server Windows integrated authentication (kerberos based...), is gone.
For a full explanation see: [Why Datasnap 2010 is a toy library](http://www.sandon.it/?q=node/57). It's of course my *personal opinion*, but is is based on my experience using Midas/Datasnap since Delphi 3, and my current work about IT security.
Anyway you're wrong about insert/updates/deletes. You have to use providers' events to control them on the datasnao server side. It's a bit more complex than handling them in a two-tier application, but you don't need ad-hoc methods for each operation. | [2016 Update: DataSnap in 2016 is even more woefully behind in terms of security and features now than it was when this question was written. I do not recommend its use in any new designs at all, ever.]
DataSnap is a solution to the problem of building multi-tier (Three or more) applications. Directly connecting to SQL over the internet from a thick client that contains all the business logic in the client has many well-understood problems, including the fact that business logic changes then require that you update ALL your clients at once. A middle tier improvement (business logic change) that is inside your data-snap (or other) middle tier logic, is not distributed to each client. The clients are thinner, and contain less of the business logic. Secondly, a well designed data-snap "API" that you build yourself only exposes you to the risks that you create yourself, rather than exposing you to the entire set of MS SQL vulnerabilities.
Frankly, losing Kerberos authentication from your thick client, is not a reason to abandon the idea of a middle tier. I don't understand ldsandon's point at all here. Is he advocating a two-tier application architecture that connects to internet or LAN clients, and that contains all the business logic, as "more secure" than a multi-tier application?
The implicit question suggested by your title is unanswerable, and undefined. What does "real" mean? Many industries deploy two-tier thick clients inside their own corporate LANs. Many have found it beneficial to use a middle tier inside their own LAN, and many have found that external applications that run over the internet should definitely NOT be surfacing the SQL connectivity to thick clients, and so they provide some kind of "web method" (SOAP, REST+JSON, etc) architecture. It has been carefully pointed out that Data-Snap is not a Purely "RESTful" architecture, but it does use JSON, and is in many ways REST-ful in design, although not fully.
If you don't understand the problem that DataSnap was created to solve, it is easy to think DataSnap is worthless, or (alternatively, and equally wrong) some kind of silver bullet. It exists for a particular purpose, one that many people find useful for their development needs. If you intend to take on the work of making a middle tier, DataSnap makes it easier than to do it 100% as a "roll your own middle tier", but it is more work than not having a middle tier. |
820,088 | We have two windows forests with a one-direction trust.
I noticed, that a password/group-membership change informs the other DC just in time.
This also happens, when I create a new user in forest A for accessing on a DB in forest B.
Normally it takes about 30 minutes for forest A and B for balancing their database.
Why does this happen just in time? | 2016/12/11 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/820088",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/390095/"
] | First thing to note is that in an AD Trust, objects don't replicate from one forest to the other. A request for an AD object is fulfilled through the trusted forest. This means that a change in Forest A doesn't have to replicate to Forest B. If a user in Forest A tries to log into an account in Forest B, they would be authenticating to Forest B's DCs through the trust.
That being stated, here's some background on replication.
Certain AD items are flagged as "Urgent Replication" and replicate immediately [How the Active Directory Replication Model Works - Urgent Replication](https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772726%28v=ws.10%29.aspx?f=255&MSPPError=-2147217396#w2k3tr_repup_how_huzs).
Password changes are replicated differently than normal and urgent and are directly replicated to the PDC emulator role DC. This results in logging in with a new password not causing an error if the DC hasn't received the new replicated password.
Groups are now (2003 AD and newer) replicated with attribute deltas rather than full attribute replication. This is called linked-value replication and results in much better handling of group membership lists. | I think everything looks normal here it's definitely normal to sync at the same moment unless there's something making it take up to 30 minutes other than that you shouldn't be worried you should be happy . |
18,997,635 | 1.How to programmatically connect with QuickBooks Online using .NET? We followed the below article but this needs manual intervention to connect.
<http://ippdocs.intuit.com/0025_QuickBooksAPI/0010_Getting_Started/0020_Connect/0010_From_Within_Your_App/Test_the_In-App_Connect_Flow>
Initially we developed the sample application using the code:
<https://github.com/IntuitDeveloperRelations/IPP_Sample_Code/tree/master/QuickbooksAPI/DotNet/WebForms%20application>
2.Which type of integration method we have to use Json or .NET SDK library? Most of the Json examples are code fragment only, Where we can download the sample application using Json with .NET | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18997635",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2813890/"
] | You cannot connect to Quickbooks APIs without manual intervention as it is a part of the 3 legged OAUTH flow.
The .Net SDK supports XML and JSON. There is no separate JSON library. The sample app for Dotnet in v3 is not yet available. Please refer to the docs for generating the JSON requests.
<https://developer.intuit.com> | If you want to create SaaS application and want to publish it in Appcenter then you need to implement OAuth flow which needs user's input for authorization. In the dev env, using the above sample app, you can get the OAuth tokens(consumer key, consumer secret, access key and access token) which you can use in your app to call all API endpoints.
<https://developer.intuit.com/docs/0025_quickbooksapi/0055_devkits/0150_ipp_.net_devkit_3.0/0002_synchronous_calls/0001_data_service_apis#Step_3:_Build_the_ServiceContext>
FAQ - <https://developer.intuit.com/docs/0025_quickbooksapi/0058_faq>
.Net V3 Link - <https://developer.intuit.com/docs/0025_quickbooksapi/0055_devkits/0150_ipp_.net_devkit_3.0>
But Intuit Quickbooks API(V2/V3) are only for SaaS app. If you want to create some custom solution for one company then you should use QBSDK.
Ref -<https://developer.intuit.com/docs/0025_quickbooksapi/0055_devkits/0250_qb>
Thanks |
20,283 | In JIRA, we have a task for standups and meetings, obviously this task does not need an estimate, but it is useful to have time tracking on it.
However, when I log time on this issue, the remaining estimate either becomes N/A (first time I log time; cannot submit the time log) or it becomes minus however long I logged (also cannot submit the time log).
Is there a way I can create tasks that have no time estimate? Or do I need to adjust the remaining to 0 each time I log time on a meeting or standup? | 2016/10/12 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20283",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/21337/"
] | >
> Is there a way I can create tasks that have no time estimate?
>
>
>
Yes, it just depends on your Jira configuration. However, as you stated, once you have logged time on it, Jira deducts you're a time tracker... and thus, assume you are interested to know by when you *no longer need* to log time on it (i.e. you want to know your remaining).
Either you should not be logging time at all at these tasks or they should have an initial, ballpark estimation that will be decreasing every time you log time on it.
>
> need to adjust the remaining to 0 each time I log time on a meeting or
> standup?
>
>
>
Is there any **specific purpose on logging time on a task and still keeping the remaining fixed on zero if you know that tomorrow you're likely to be logging time on it again**? In our project, we have such tasks just to have transparency on how much time such meetings absorbs from the team. They're never added into the iteration, but we can forecast our work more accurately and (have evidences to) say to any user that's not realistic to expect anyone to work 8h / day (sometimes, appeal to the common sense doesn't work).
Having that said, the answer for your question should be **'stop fighting something that's trying to help you'** (or else, make it clear in your question why it must be always zero).
Cheers | I am fairly certain the answer is no, unfortunately. After researching it, it seems you cannot adjust the "Remaining estimate" automatically, or manually set it to not update.
That being the case I looked into a way to remove that value from your task, while leaving the ability to log time. My thought was you could create a new project, modify the fields to show what you want, create that task, and then port it into your board so it would have slightly different behavior.
The problem is that when adding or removing fields, both of the fields are added and removed concurrently under the "Time Tracking" field. There is no way to separate them, therefore also no way to have them function independently of each other.
See: <https://confluence.atlassian.com/agile/jira-agile-user-s-guide/configuring-a-board/configuring-estimation-and-tracking> for overall time tracking.
Adding or removing the fields is discussed here: <https://answers.atlassian.com/questions/11439406/the-original-estimate-field-is-missing-when-creating-stories-and-sub-tasks>
I don't use time tracking on my boards right now so it's possible there is some out of the box method I am missing, but given that the fields are added together I am not seeing any other way to accomplish it. |
58,274 | The title says it all really. I just want to find out whether I need to know web code to be a good graphic designer. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/58274",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/48542/"
] | A graphic designer creates graphics.
A web designer builds web sites.
They aren't the same job. It's very cool if a web designer can create his own graphics, or a graphic designer can prototype web pages, but in my experience of working in organisations, the 'graphics department' and the 'web team' are usually different teams with different skill sets. I'm sure there are individual freelancers who combine both skills, but most web designers I've met are NOT Photoshop experts, and most graphic designers don't know Bootstrap and jQuery.
As @joojaa says in the comments, it doesn't hurt if someone can do both. But it's not usually a necessity. | If you're going to be designing graphics intended for web use it would be good to understand what makes your work user friendly to the web developer that needs to use it, but beyond that, NO!!!... There's a quirk to being an Artist where a lot of people look at us as the "grunts" of the workplace simply because they underestimate the value of our trade. When you encounter people like that RUUUUUN!!!!... idk how many fellow Artists and Designers I've known who worked for a place who used them as a secretary, janitor and errand boy/girl. The whole place could be slow and EVERYBODY could be standing around chit chatting watching youtube, but it's the Artists who have to go clean toilets and wipe sinks for the sake of being useful and earning their keep.
With that being said, a lot of times when you see job ads asking for an Artist who knows alllllll these other professions, that's usually the frame of mind they're thinking from and it sucks because they pass it off as something realistic when it's really not. |
58,274 | The title says it all really. I just want to find out whether I need to know web code to be a good graphic designer. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/58274",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/48542/"
] | A graphic designer creates graphics.
A web designer builds web sites.
They aren't the same job. It's very cool if a web designer can create his own graphics, or a graphic designer can prototype web pages, but in my experience of working in organisations, the 'graphics department' and the 'web team' are usually different teams with different skill sets. I'm sure there are individual freelancers who combine both skills, but most web designers I've met are NOT Photoshop experts, and most graphic designers don't know Bootstrap and jQuery.
As @joojaa says in the comments, it doesn't hurt if someone can do both. But it's not usually a necessity. | It does not hurt. Knowing how to do X is not really a part of design. Designing means that you put thought behind your task, plan it, and make sure the plan is executable. So for great designers it wold be enough to communicate the idea to others. Note not really talking of graphic design just design in general.
Now for practical purposes the designer usually needs to make at least a mock-up of what he is designing. Partly because its hard to know how things will come out, without doing so. Partly because its not possible to ensure that the design works otherwise, thus is not executable. In reality nobody is going to pay for a design that can not be shown to work.
Graphic designers also are understandably required to be able to do the graphic part of the story. Usually that means to put together a layout, choose typography colors and arrange them in a somewhat final digital form. It does not necessitate the skills of an illustrator for example but that too can help. Anyway one problem is to find somebody willing to pay for your work.
As a result it is extremely valuable to know how to do things. As ultimately it makes for better designs. So at minimum you should be able to pick up a skill or two on nearly anything. The more you know the better, sometimes that means being able to pick up a new skill faster.
PS: It is also not possible to jump directly to late career greatness. The world will change before you get there. So be prepared to change with it. |
58,274 | The title says it all really. I just want to find out whether I need to know web code to be a good graphic designer. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/58274",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/48542/"
] | It never hurts to know both and I think that knowing both puts you above the rest. I think that if you like this line of work you learn both. I personally do both and I cannot honestly tell you which one I enjoy the most. Both are awesome in their different ways. | If you're going to be designing graphics intended for web use it would be good to understand what makes your work user friendly to the web developer that needs to use it, but beyond that, NO!!!... There's a quirk to being an Artist where a lot of people look at us as the "grunts" of the workplace simply because they underestimate the value of our trade. When you encounter people like that RUUUUUN!!!!... idk how many fellow Artists and Designers I've known who worked for a place who used them as a secretary, janitor and errand boy/girl. The whole place could be slow and EVERYBODY could be standing around chit chatting watching youtube, but it's the Artists who have to go clean toilets and wipe sinks for the sake of being useful and earning their keep.
With that being said, a lot of times when you see job ads asking for an Artist who knows alllllll these other professions, that's usually the frame of mind they're thinking from and it sucks because they pass it off as something realistic when it's really not. |
58,274 | The title says it all really. I just want to find out whether I need to know web code to be a good graphic designer. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/58274",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/48542/"
] | It never hurts to know both and I think that knowing both puts you above the rest. I think that if you like this line of work you learn both. I personally do both and I cannot honestly tell you which one I enjoy the most. Both are awesome in their different ways. | It does not hurt. Knowing how to do X is not really a part of design. Designing means that you put thought behind your task, plan it, and make sure the plan is executable. So for great designers it wold be enough to communicate the idea to others. Note not really talking of graphic design just design in general.
Now for practical purposes the designer usually needs to make at least a mock-up of what he is designing. Partly because its hard to know how things will come out, without doing so. Partly because its not possible to ensure that the design works otherwise, thus is not executable. In reality nobody is going to pay for a design that can not be shown to work.
Graphic designers also are understandably required to be able to do the graphic part of the story. Usually that means to put together a layout, choose typography colors and arrange them in a somewhat final digital form. It does not necessitate the skills of an illustrator for example but that too can help. Anyway one problem is to find somebody willing to pay for your work.
As a result it is extremely valuable to know how to do things. As ultimately it makes for better designs. So at minimum you should be able to pick up a skill or two on nearly anything. The more you know the better, sometimes that means being able to pick up a new skill faster.
PS: It is also not possible to jump directly to late career greatness. The world will change before you get there. So be prepared to change with it. |
58,274 | The title says it all really. I just want to find out whether I need to know web code to be a good graphic designer. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/58274",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/48542/"
] | Define "web code".
That can mean a whole lot of things.
Do you need to be a great coder to be a great graphic designer? No. Of course not.
Does having a good understanding of *front end presentation layer* code make you a better *web/UI* designer? Absolutely.
As with any medium, the more you understand the medium and the tools used within it, the more you can bend it to your desires. | If you're going to be designing graphics intended for web use it would be good to understand what makes your work user friendly to the web developer that needs to use it, but beyond that, NO!!!... There's a quirk to being an Artist where a lot of people look at us as the "grunts" of the workplace simply because they underestimate the value of our trade. When you encounter people like that RUUUUUN!!!!... idk how many fellow Artists and Designers I've known who worked for a place who used them as a secretary, janitor and errand boy/girl. The whole place could be slow and EVERYBODY could be standing around chit chatting watching youtube, but it's the Artists who have to go clean toilets and wipe sinks for the sake of being useful and earning their keep.
With that being said, a lot of times when you see job ads asking for an Artist who knows alllllll these other professions, that's usually the frame of mind they're thinking from and it sucks because they pass it off as something realistic when it's really not. |
58,274 | The title says it all really. I just want to find out whether I need to know web code to be a good graphic designer. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/58274",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/48542/"
] | Define "web code".
That can mean a whole lot of things.
Do you need to be a great coder to be a great graphic designer? No. Of course not.
Does having a good understanding of *front end presentation layer* code make you a better *web/UI* designer? Absolutely.
As with any medium, the more you understand the medium and the tools used within it, the more you can bend it to your desires. | It does not hurt. Knowing how to do X is not really a part of design. Designing means that you put thought behind your task, plan it, and make sure the plan is executable. So for great designers it wold be enough to communicate the idea to others. Note not really talking of graphic design just design in general.
Now for practical purposes the designer usually needs to make at least a mock-up of what he is designing. Partly because its hard to know how things will come out, without doing so. Partly because its not possible to ensure that the design works otherwise, thus is not executable. In reality nobody is going to pay for a design that can not be shown to work.
Graphic designers also are understandably required to be able to do the graphic part of the story. Usually that means to put together a layout, choose typography colors and arrange them in a somewhat final digital form. It does not necessitate the skills of an illustrator for example but that too can help. Anyway one problem is to find somebody willing to pay for your work.
As a result it is extremely valuable to know how to do things. As ultimately it makes for better designs. So at minimum you should be able to pick up a skill or two on nearly anything. The more you know the better, sometimes that means being able to pick up a new skill faster.
PS: It is also not possible to jump directly to late career greatness. The world will change before you get there. So be prepared to change with it. |
80,935 | I'm using Google Inbox with Google Apps for Work and unfortunately the .ics attachments sent by meetup.com are not added to my calender. But when I switch to Gmail then there is a button to add the Appointment to my calendar.
Is there a way to get the same behavior in Google Inbox? | 2015/07/30 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/80935",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/98939/"
] | According to [this thread on Google Forums](https://productforums.google.com/forum/#!topic/gmail/RuRRTr8gDgc), this is a known limitation and they have it on the slate for future implementation. I expect that the more people tell Google they want this, the more likely Google will implement it and sooner.
**EDIT**
I've noticed that Google Inbox has started automatically adding events to your Calendar when you accept the invitation. This isn't identical to the functionality you're requesting, but it addresses most cases. | This is not always convenient, but if you use the Google Inbox application on Android there is an option to add events to your google Calendar. I generally get my phone out and add events from there. |
43,384 | Which one is grammatical?
>
> "Wow! Nice! I smelled **you baking cake**!"
>
> "Wow! Nice! I smelled **your baking cake**!"
>
>
>
Both of them are acceptable, maybe? | 2014/12/18 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/43384",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3281/"
] | These are idiomatic:
>
> I smelled you smoking out in the tool shed, you little twerp. I'm going to tell Dad on you. An eight-year-old shouldn't be smoking.
>
>
> Did I smell you burning dead leaves last night? The breeze brought the scent in our window.
>
>
> I smelled you frying fish.
>
>
>
I would not use "your" with any of those actions. But I'm not sure why. Because the transitive verb *smell* demands a *smellable* object? A noun phrase like "your frying fish" is, as a kind of possessive abstraction, inherently unsmellable, whereas "you frying" is closer to "raw" reality? Just a half-baked conjecture. | Both of them are grammatically sound.
>
> "Wow! Nice! I smelled **you baking cake**!"
>
>
>
Here you're referring to the whole action. For this reason, this is what would normally be said. The action of cake baking generates an aroma that fills the whole kitchen and that's what is being smelled.
If it wasn't cake baking but something else, it's possible that it would be interpreted as "I smelled *you*, whilst you were [doing action]". However, it's clear from context here that it's the cake baking that's being smelled.
>
> "Wow! Nice! I smelled **your baking cake**!"
>
>
>
Here you're referring to the cake specifically. You might say it, for example, if the chef was out of the kitchen, you came in and smelled the cake, and then the chef came back in and you told them about it.
However, in general, the first form is more usual. |
79,852 | I bought a brand new Renault duster 2021 4x4, and today after 10 days of buying my new car, I noticed a rusty components around my back wheels, as follow:-
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Cn0jg.jpg)
so is this normal? | 2020/09/23 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/79852",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/54621/"
] | Its light rust on components that were not painted from the factory, this is normal for unpainted parts. | I used to work in a steel mill that made various parts and thicknesses. a lot of the plate that parts like that get cut from are rusty and dirty from just sitting in the warehouse waiting to be cut. Most likely is the parts didn't get shipped to a powder coating factory just straight to the manufacturer. |
79,852 | I bought a brand new Renault duster 2021 4x4, and today after 10 days of buying my new car, I noticed a rusty components around my back wheels, as follow:-
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Cn0jg.jpg)
so is this normal? | 2020/09/23 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/79852",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/54621/"
] | Rust on these parts is rarely a concern. They are not a sheet metal to be perforated by the rust and the rust cannot make them weak enough to fail before the warranty expires (and in the general case, they are one of the last to need replacement).
That's why they leave them unpainted.
p.s. painting them is not really going to help. These are made of cast iron and are not trivial to paint, the usual result when some entusiast goes on and paints them is the paint forming tiny pockets where water and salt accumulate and accelerate the corrosion. And after a while, the paint flakes off anyway. | Its light rust on components that were not painted from the factory, this is normal for unpainted parts. |
79,852 | I bought a brand new Renault duster 2021 4x4, and today after 10 days of buying my new car, I noticed a rusty components around my back wheels, as follow:-
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Cn0jg.jpg)
so is this normal? | 2020/09/23 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/79852",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/54621/"
] | Rust on these parts is rarely a concern. They are not a sheet metal to be perforated by the rust and the rust cannot make them weak enough to fail before the warranty expires (and in the general case, they are one of the last to need replacement).
That's why they leave them unpainted.
p.s. painting them is not really going to help. These are made of cast iron and are not trivial to paint, the usual result when some entusiast goes on and paints them is the paint forming tiny pockets where water and salt accumulate and accelerate the corrosion. And after a while, the paint flakes off anyway. | I used to work in a steel mill that made various parts and thicknesses. a lot of the plate that parts like that get cut from are rusty and dirty from just sitting in the warehouse waiting to be cut. Most likely is the parts didn't get shipped to a powder coating factory just straight to the manufacturer. |
107,893 | Whenever I log into my LastPass vault, I see a generic user icon in the top right corner next to my email address:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z8f5Q.jpg)
I want to replace the nondescript icon with my usual avatar, but I don't see a way to change my profile picture in account settings.
Is it possible to change my LastPass profile icon? | 2017/07/20 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/107893",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/60818/"
] | Judging by [this LastPass forum thread](https://forums.lastpass.com/viewtopic.php?f=12&t=224775&p=756325&hilit=avatar#p756325) from February 2017, as well as having personally scoured every inch of the LastPass Account Settings, I don't believe so.
I'll let you know if and when I see this feature become available. | I will go one step further on this. I contacted LastPass support, and they confirm that it is not possible to replace the generic user icon with anything else. |
491,479 | I recently froze some tap water in plastic bottles and I later made the ice melt completely (the idea was keeping ice bottles nearby me to fight the heat). When the water returned to liquid a lot of tiny white dust/crystal flakes were visible. These were heavier than water and tended to sink.
At the beginning I thought they were little chunks of plastic that got detached from the walls of the bottle due to the severe changes in temperature, but then by comparing the state of the bottles (seemingly unaltered wrt the beginning) with the quantity of flakes I concluded it had to be something else.
The second hypothesis was that the flakes were actually crystals from the minerals that are in the tap water (I hear that in my region tap water is full of calcium for instance). However I do not understand how would these crystals form:
* how could it be possible? and why don't they return/remain diluted in the water?
* do they form during the freezing or the melting phase?
I would say that during the freezing phase the fact that the solution freezes at lower temperatures than pure water could isolate portions of liquid with higher and higher concentration of minerals as the freezing goes on. These will remain mobile till the very end of the freezing process. In the final stage the space for the liquid part to move around will be very limited, giving chance to form crystals. But maybe I am wrong and there is something I am missing.
So any hypothesis on how these crystals form? Maybe they are not even crystals like I am trying to say? | 2019/07/13 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/491479",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/226311/"
] | The box with interior walls painted in black **is not** the blackbody. The realization of the surface of a black body is the surface of a small hole (small with respect to the size of the box) on the wall of such a box.
As clearly stated in [wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_body) page:
>
> Any light entering the hole is reflected or absorbed at the internal surfaces of the body and is unlikely to re-emerge, making the hole a nearly perfect absorber. When the radiation confined in such an enclosure is in thermal equilibrium, the radiation emitted from the hole will be as great as from any body at that equilibrium temperature.
>
>
>
When modeling the set of electromagnetic (em) waves in the cavity, there are a couple of points which allow significant simplifications:
1. provided the cavity is large enough, details of the em radiation inside become less important. In a more technical words, the density of states at thermodynamic limit becomes independent on the shape of the cavity and on the boundary conditions. Therefore, one is enabled to chose the simplest case, without loss of generality.
2. When interested in equilibrium properties, the precise mechanism at the basis of thermal equilibrium becomes irrelevant, thus one has not to take into account explicitly the real absorption/emission by the atoms on the wall. The final effect of thermal equilibrium (whatever is the underlying mechanism) is taken into account by the equilibrium probability function for the em modes. Interestingly, a similar approach is used when dealing with the equilibrium properties of the perfect gas. Strictly speaking the perfect gas does not have a mechanism for thermalization (no collision between molecules). What is implicitly done in the usual statistical mechanics treatment is to take for granted that an unspecified mechanism exists allowing the system to reach thermal equilibrium, even if it is not explicitly present in the Hamiltonian. It is enough to make the hypothesis that the mechanism exists and is effective in establishing thermal equilibrium. At that point it can be switched off. | For thermal radiation inside a cavity the waves do not need to have, and usually do not have, nodes at the walls of the box.
There is a widely-used picture in simple presentations of the theory which suggests the waves have nodes at the walls. In fact this picture is just offering a way to count how many linearly independent modes of the field there can be. Standing-wave boundary conditions is one way to do it; periodic boundary conditions is another way. In the latter method the waves do not have nodes at the walls. But in either case what one gets from this part of the analysis is the density of states. The actual waves in the box do not need to have nodes at the walls, but you can imagine forming them by first using the waves you have counted (by whichever argument) and then adjusting the phases to move the nodes along. When one adjusts the phase of the waves like this, the number of states, and therefore the density of states, does not change. |
71,434 | I saw kind of "digital" geometrical shapes drawing on some websites.
I'm interested in creating some by myself (for wallpaper or logo purpose) and are looking for some inspiration.
Do you have any idea of what can i search in Google to find more of piece of art/digital drawing like this one?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OaMuE.png)
**How is this kind of digital drawing named**? I though it could be fractal but it's not exactly the same... Abstract? It seems to be close of Origami... It's all about drawing something using only simple shapes.
It seems Guild Wars 2 artwork use kind of similar drawing method/style: we can see all picture is built only using some blurred and "raw" superposed shapes.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I7h7c.jpg) | 2016/05/20 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/71434",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/67088/"
] | The top image could be considered an [abstract low polygon design](https://www.google.com/search?q=abstract%20low%20polygon%20design&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi4_qbD4-jMAhXGNz4KHUk1A_gQ_AUIBygB&biw=2560&bih=1258). I don't think the second image can be considered 1 style. | Do you mean what kind of software was used to make it? For example, raster images (made by pixels with software such as Photoshop), vector images (made by mathematical equations to create lines with software such as Illustrator), or perhaps in your examples, 3D modelling/animation?
The images you showed would likely be 3D modelling/animation where a 3D model is made and then rendered (coloured and lighted scenes). There are many free 3D modeling and rendering softwares available, one of them is Blender. Blender has many users and many free tutorials on the internet. |
502,173 | I was going through *[Leviathan](http://www.gutenberg.org/files/3207/3207-h/3207-h.htm#link2H_4_0256)* of Hobbes today and I think I spotted an error.
"*and every Citizen bringing his Oystershell into the market place, written with the name of him he desired should be banished, without actuall accusing him, sometimes banished **an** Aristides, for his reputation of Justice;*"
Would leaving out the article preceding *Aristides* be a correct way to rewrite this passage? Like so:
*and every Citizen bringing his Oystershell into the market place, written with the name of him he desired should be banished, without actuall accusing him, sometimes banished Aristides, for his reputation of Justice;*
Aristides was an Athenian statesman, more of him [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aristides) | 2019/06/18 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/502173",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/349354/"
] | From [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aristides)
>
> Aristides (/ˌærəˈstaɪdiːz/; Greek: Ἀριστείδης, Aristeides; 530–468 BC)
> was an ancient Athenian statesman. Nicknamed "the Just", he flourished
> in the early quarter of Athens' Classical period and is remembered for
> his generalship in the Persian War. The ancient historian Herodotus cited him as "the best and most honourable man in Athens", and he
> received similarly reverent treatment in Plato's Socratic dialogues (...)
>
> According to Plutarch, the rivalry between Aristides and Themistocles began in their youth, when they competed for the love of a beautiful boy called Stesilaüs from Ceos.The conflict between the two leaders ended in the ostracism of Aristides at a date variously given between 485 and 482.
>
>
>
Hobbes's passage is referring to a generic Aristides, i.e. a person who is known for being just.
In a similar way you might say of someone you considered a bit dictatorial:
>
> *He's a bit of a Machiavelli.*
>
>
> | No, in this context *"an Aristides"* is an example of someone who probably should not have been ostracised. It could have been written "\_ ... sometimes banished an unfortunate person, for his reputation of Justice;\_".
In your alternative version *"sometimes banished Aristides*" means that they repeatedly banished Aristides. |
1,331 | Following this: <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1066411/good-eclipse-rcp-tutorial>
It seems to me that there has to be a way to more easily allow people to share things like this. Sure, Digg and Reddit exist for this kind of thing, too, but there has to be some way to leverage Stack Overflow as a link-sharing community, especially since (IMO) it totally beats the other social bookmarking sites when it comes to comments. | 2009/06/30 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1331",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/572/"
] | StackOverflow is a Q&A site. And it's designed around that.
I think it's working fine as is, you are going to have edge cases like this, but it's not something you need to change the design over. | Lead by example.
Just edit their question to match a 'jeopardy' format.
See my edits as an example:
>
> <https://stackoverflow.com/revisions/1066411/list>
>
>
> |
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