qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
142,650 | I have an svg image generated by another program (for visualisation of molecules) that is super complex, and I'd like to try and automatically simplify it. For example, a simple sphere with a gradient is drawn with 576 triangles. Is there a program (I have Inkscape and Illustrator, but I can download another free program if needed) capable to automatically convert these objects in simpler ones (e.g. a sphere with a gradient)? Just so you understand what I'm talking about, here's an example image: <https://cloud.iacchi.casa/s/criQNyKNHaRpWMx>
The idea is to get a 200 KB image instead of a 7 MB one, considering that I have to add more similar images together in a single final image, which shouldn't weigh 50 MB or so! | 2020/10/27 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/142650",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/157566/"
] | Might be easier to just recreate these totally from scratch to be honest. I just tried using the shape builder to try and merge some shapes and Illustrator just sits there doing nothing.
The whole thing is only made up of a few individual shapes with gradients.
Here's an example showing the pieces (on the right), and recreated artwork from these pieces (on the left).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rct7A.png) | Somebody has created a puzzle by exporting a 3D model as 2D vector which contains thousands of separate relatively simple shapes like triangles. Inkscape and illustrator struggle with it, but open it with GIMP. You can set the generated bitmap image to be say 6000 px for good resolution (there's WIDE empty areas at the edges).
**Reject** GIMP's offer to include also all paths. With them the image would be as complex as the SVG.
Crop the empty edges off. Then export the image as JPG if you can allow white background or as PNG if you need transparent background. The generated PNG had so much redundant parts that the image size was only about 216 kilobytes. Here's a zoomed snippet to show how sharp it is:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uSAZH.png)
This is the uncropped image imported to GIMP; as you see more than 50% of the width is transparent emptiness.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YgEbP.jpg)
The job needs practically zero graphic software skills and it really worked fast with free software. The drawback is that PNG is bitmap. But that's nothing if you have enough resolution and you are not going to make edits.
NOTE: The file size is 216 kilobytes, but the actual memory need when loaded into programs is tens of megabytes. If you have several images like this open at the same time for making a compilation your program can become sluggish. Programs which are intended for making layouts like InDesign can use linked images. They stay responsive by showing only a low res version during the composing work.
If you do not prepare printings, but files for onscreen watching only the pixel dimensions of the images can be reduced 70%. That reduces the memory need 90%.
Not asked: The construction principle "planar faces" can be faded in GIMP to some degree without making the image blurry by applying tresholded blur. It fades only borders which have less contrast than the given treshold:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ryRBP.png)
This increases the PNG file size easily +100% because the redundancy inside the image decreases. |
3,578,587 | I have to deal with a lot of multithreaded programming at work. Specifically, I want to know how the ARM memory model differs from IA64. Both are very weak models, but are there any specific differences that I should know about? I'm familiar with ia64, not with arm. | 2010/08/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3578587",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/175796/"
] | I have the same question, and while I haven't completely found the answer, this paper might be useful: [Reasoning about the ARM weakly consistent memory model](http://portal.acm.org/citation.cfm?id=1353528)
In the Further Work section, it seems to imply that no one (even at ARM, since they wrote the paper) has answered the question formally:
>
> ... there are several completeness
> questions we need to answer. How does
> the axiomatic model fit in with the
> operational one? ... And what is the
> precise embedding of the ARM model
> into Alpha, Intel, JMM?
>
>
>
**Update:** Also look at [Memory Barriers: a Hardware View for Software Hackers](http://www.rdrop.com/users/paulmck/scalability/paper/whymb.2010.07.23a.pdf) by Paul McKenney. It discusses the types of memory access reordering that various processors do and what instructions are available to fence the accesses. In particular, note Table 5 on page 16 that summarizes the allowed reorderings for each architecture. ARMv7, IA64, POWER, and SPARC RMO all share the same characteristics, namely, that without a barrier, anything except dependent loads can be reordered. | <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Memory_ordering> might answer your question. From the table it shows, it seems ARMv7 has the same as IA64. |
136,917 | The newly created packages which are created on 15/08/2016 cannot be installed in other dev orgs after waiting for almost 24 hours.
The error is :
Package Not Found
The requested package does not exist or has been deleted. Please contact the package publisher for assistance. If this is a recently uploaded package, please try again soon.
The org where the packages were created is on NA9. The orgs where the packages were installed are on AP1 and AP2.
But the packages were created before 15/08 are still working. | 2016/08/16 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/136917",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/35033/"
] | After waiting for two days, those packages can be installed now. | Other than using Salesforce support, creating a new package version (with no changes) would probably be the fastest way to get your package deployed. |
96,882 | >
> Galileo was forced to **recant** his assertion that the earth orbited the
> sun (Oxford Dictionary)
>
>
> Can one **recant on** an absence of belief? (The Secret Intensity of
> Everyday Life)
>
>
>
The first “recant” is a transitive verb. And [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User%3aMichaelrundell) says the second “recant on” is a transitive particle verb. Can any transitive verb be accompanied by a preposition to add the preposition’s meaning? | 2013/01/06 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/96882",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/30551/"
] | "A transitive particle verb" is also called a "transitive phrasal verb" or a "transitive two-word verb". It's the kind talked about in the Q about "looked at". Wikipedia says: "A transitive particle verb has a nominal object in addition to the particle. If the object is an ordinary noun phrase, it can usually appear on either side of the particle, although very long noun phrases tend to come after the particle". So, when it's possible to say something like *Switch the light off*, "*the light*" **appears to function** as the direct object of "*switch*". And when you say "say something like *Switch off the light*," "*the light*" **appears to function** as the direct object of "*switch off*".
I use **appears to function** because I don't want to make an authoritative claim here. This requires the expertise of a professional linguist because it's a small technical point, not something that seems to have any effect on how we civilians (including "lapsed linguists" [like me], as one user here calls himself) use the language. All we need to know is whether we can separate the verb form *switch* and the *particle/preposition* (whichever your theoretical position says the term should be) by putting *the light* in between them.
I'd say the answer to your question is **"No"**. But there are other verbs of this type, e.g., *hand in* as in *{**Hand in** your homework / **Hand** your homework **in**} before the test*. | There are several types of English constructions that get called "phrasal verbs". I can only speak authoritatively about my own usage of the term, and what I understand about others' usages.
I use the term [*phrasal verb*](http://www.umich.edu/~jlawler/EnglishPhrasalVerbs.pdf) specifically to cover what I originally learned to call "two-word verbs" (aka "Verb Plus Particle Construction") when I was teaching ESL in the 1960s. I learned then how troublesome they were to English learners; when we got to the chapter in our textbook about them, they would always insist I explain the meaning of each one, since they're so idiosyncratic.
>
> (The link in the first sentence above goes to a freshman grammar homework problem about phrasal verbs in the sense I intend; the name of (one of) the rule(s) involved in the data is [Particle Shift](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shifting_%28linguistics%29). 1p max)
>
>
>
I also learned how plentiful and variable phrasal verbs are in English, since my predecessor and mentor in that ESL job was George A. Meyer, who'd compiled [a dictionary of them](http://books.google.com/books?id=YrkDn8HtQNAC).
There are many more two-word verbs than one-word verbs in English, because just about every one-word verb appears in more than one two-word verb. And they're all idiomatic, though there are so many of them that many useful (but not completely reliable) patterns can be discerned.
There are also transitivizing prepositions, like the ones associated with the intransitive volitional sense verbs *look* and *listen*. It's usually desirable to indicate the focus of looking or listening, so the verbs' intransitivity is inconvenient.
English provides its usual sloppy syntactic solution --
* use a prepositional phrase to mark the object NP
* always use the same preposition
* never stress the preposition -- stress the object NP instead
* attach the preposition as tightly as possible to the verb in speech
* shift the boundaries to make [verb + preposition] a constituent
* treat the former prepositional object as the direct object of [verb + preposition]
The result is that *look at* and *listen to* are effectively transitive verbs. They are so transitive that they can be passivized.
* *This has been looked at before, but nothing ever came of it.*
* *Will he really be listened to when he puts the proposal before them?*
There is even an eye dialect spelling "lookit", as in *Lookit that patina!*. These constructions are also called "phrasal verbs" by some linguists in some contexts, and -- provided examples are given to nail down the phenomenon; data and context are crucial, always -- other linguists will understand what they mean. They differ from the first kind in that they don't undergo Particle Shift, and there is no semantic content to the preposition, even though it is [cliticized](http://www.sil.org/linguistics/GlossaryOfLinguisticTerms/WhatIsACliticGrammar.htm) to the verb like the first type.
There are others, too. But this is already too long. |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | **Glassfish Community Edition is free** and powerful (Full Java EE 6 platform support).
**GlassFish Server Open Source Edition**
* Free community-supported application server
* Full Java EE 6 platform support
* The best open source application server in the industry today
* Next-generation modular and extensible architecture (OSGi)
* Enterprise reliability and performance with full clustering
---
**JBoss Community Server is also free** but JBoss Enterprise is not.
It is free for commercial use. You can develop your applications and deploy them in production environment on top of JBoss without having to pay anything.
**Here is the feature differences of two edition:**
---
**Both of this solutions offer enterprise level support with a fee.** | JBoss is free too (we are using it). |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | **Glassfish Community Edition is free** and powerful (Full Java EE 6 platform support).
**GlassFish Server Open Source Edition**
* Free community-supported application server
* Full Java EE 6 platform support
* The best open source application server in the industry today
* Next-generation modular and extensible architecture (OSGi)
* Enterprise reliability and performance with full clustering
---
**JBoss Community Server is also free** but JBoss Enterprise is not.
It is free for commercial use. You can develop your applications and deploy them in production environment on top of JBoss without having to pay anything.
**Here is the feature differences of two edition:**
---
**Both of this solutions offer enterprise level support with a fee.** | If it is free, then why Jboss clearly states that "[downloads are for development use only](https://www.jboss.org/products/eap.html)"?!
 |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | **Glassfish Community Edition is free** and powerful (Full Java EE 6 platform support).
**GlassFish Server Open Source Edition**
* Free community-supported application server
* Full Java EE 6 platform support
* The best open source application server in the industry today
* Next-generation modular and extensible architecture (OSGi)
* Enterprise reliability and performance with full clustering
---
**JBoss Community Server is also free** but JBoss Enterprise is not.
It is free for commercial use. You can develop your applications and deploy them in production environment on top of JBoss without having to pay anything.
**Here is the feature differences of two edition:**
---
**Both of this solutions offer enterprise level support with a fee.** | WebSphere Liberty Profile starting from 8.5.5.6 is fully Java EE 7 application server. It is free for development and for production usage with certain restrictions (2GB RAM per using organization). For more details check [websphere-application-server-everyone](https://developer.ibm.com/wasdev/docs/websphere-application-server-everyone/) |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | Jboss and Glassfish are great examples of application servers free for commercial use, you have to distinguish the difference between free use and support, both of them are free to use but if you want to get same support (not talking here about forums etc) you would have to probably pay for it. | JBoss is free too (we are using it). |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | If it is free, then why Jboss clearly states that "[downloads are for development use only](https://www.jboss.org/products/eap.html)"?!
 | JBoss is free too (we are using it). |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | WebSphere Liberty Profile starting from 8.5.5.6 is fully Java EE 7 application server. It is free for development and for production usage with certain restrictions (2GB RAM per using organization). For more details check [websphere-application-server-everyone](https://developer.ibm.com/wasdev/docs/websphere-application-server-everyone/) | JBoss is free too (we are using it). |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | Jboss and Glassfish are great examples of application servers free for commercial use, you have to distinguish the difference between free use and support, both of them are free to use but if you want to get same support (not talking here about forums etc) you would have to probably pay for it. | If it is free, then why Jboss clearly states that "[downloads are for development use only](https://www.jboss.org/products/eap.html)"?!
 |
6,135,809 | Is there a free Commercial-Use Application-Server ?
I found a chart on Wikipedia("Comparison of application servers"), which says that JSAS (now GlassFish) and IBM WebSphere are free.
I am not sure about this, but it seems that:
* GlassFish is [no longer free](http://www.oracle.com/us/corporate/pricing/technology-price-list-070617.pdf).
* WebSphere is [not totally free, because of socket pricing(?)](http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=ca&infotype=an&appname=iSource&supplier=897&letternum=ENUS210-310).
Am I correct?
Is Apache Geronimo is free for commercial use? | 2011/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6135809",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/704967/"
] | Jboss and Glassfish are great examples of application servers free for commercial use, you have to distinguish the difference between free use and support, both of them are free to use but if you want to get same support (not talking here about forums etc) you would have to probably pay for it. | WebSphere Liberty Profile starting from 8.5.5.6 is fully Java EE 7 application server. It is free for development and for production usage with certain restrictions (2GB RAM per using organization). For more details check [websphere-application-server-everyone](https://developer.ibm.com/wasdev/docs/websphere-application-server-everyone/) |
109,917 | One of my coworkers has this problem for some of the files stored in a document library. If he clicks on the link, from the document library, the dialog has these two options: "Read-only" and "Edit" - once excel opens the file there is no "Check out" button at the top, nor is there an option to check it back in on the backstage view. For other files he gets the normal options: "Read-only" and "Check out and edit". This only happens when clicking on the link; if he clicks the arrow for the drop-down menu and selects "Check out" from Sharepoint before clicking the link he can then edit any document and can check it back in after.
Why does that happen for some of the files? I looked for similar problems (looks like they're quite common, despite the lack of solutions) and the only answer was to check whether he's using Internet Explorer 64-bit.
He is using Office 2010, Sharepoint 2010 and Internet Explorer 32 bit. All the files are .xlsx files. | 2014/07/25 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/109917",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/31900/"
] | TL;DR - Stay under 5,000 items for the entire library to get 100% of functionality
In addition to the 30 million documents per library you also need to be aware of the limit of 5,000 items per "view".
<http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc262787(v=office.15).aspx#ListLibrary>
This particular limit can be changed in on-premise but in SharePoint Online it cannot. This means that Microsoft does not recommend having more than 5,000 folders or documents within a single folder. You can continue to nest folders but any single folder should not have more than 5,000 direct children (items or folders).
That being said... you will find there are limitations putting more than 5,000 documents into a single library no matter how efficient your foldering structure. This is because certain operations will apply to all items below a certain level and those operations (if they affect more than 5,000 items) will be throttled.
In my experience this includes:
* Adding a indexed property to the library that contains more than 5,000
* Changing permissions on t he library and or folder that contains more than 5,000 | A document Library can hold more than 30,000,000 denouements but catch is MSFT support upto 30,000,000 and if you exceed you will be out of support. That's mean MSFT will tell you delete the documents stay in limit.
So, 30 Million is upper limit, whatever folder structure you have and number of folder you have....all together should not exceed 30 Million. |
309,932 | I am having trouble getting connected to my Linksys wireless router. I have it set up with a specific SSID -- which it is **not** broadcasting -- and wireless security turned off. I'm sure you could lecture me about how this is bad practice, but I'm not interested in that; I need to know how to get this working.
I experimented by turning the SSID broadcast *on*, and then immediately my computer could connect with no issue. But when I subsequently (manually) disconnected my computer, disabled SSID broadcasting on the router, and then tried to reconnect with the computer, I run into trouble.
Here's where I'm getting stuck:
1. My network **does not** show up in the list (which is expected), so I click Network and Sharing Center
2. I click on "Set up a new connection or network"
3. I choose "Manually connect to a wireless network"
4. I type in the SSID, choose "No authentication" from the security drop down, and check the checkboxes labeled "Start this connection automatically" and "Connect even if the network is not broadcasting"
5. I click Next
6. Immediately, it tells me **A network called *[SSID]* already exists**
7. It presents me with only two options: "Use the existing network" or "Choose a different name." The former option takes me back to step 1, because even though it says "the network already exists," it doesn't show it anywhere in the list. The latter option takes me back to step 4.
As you can see I end up in a real-life infinite loop. It's telling me "the network already exists," but it's nowhere to be found in the list of existing networks. What do I do? | 2011/07/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/309932",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/12507/"
] | Looks like you found it, but the lecture is still needed here because this is dangerous.
Hidden SSIDs are actually WORSE than security through obscurity. Not only is there the obvious problem, that someone with wireless sniffing software will still get the SSID, there's also the not so obvious problem - in turning off the SSID broadcast on the router, the client has to do a form of SSID broadcast instead, and this happens no matter where the computer is being used - any time the computer isn't connected to a more preferred network, it will be broadcasting looking for the hidden SSID.
This gives an attacker a tool that they can leverage to trick your computer into connecting to a hostile network. Now not only is your wireless network not safe at home, your computer isn't safe anywhere either.
Use the strongest possible encryption (sorry, WEP doesn't count anymore), and don't make the problem worse by shifting the SSID broadcast from the AP to the client. | Wait... I feel silly; I just figured it out. I need to click "Manage wireless networks" on the left in the Network and Sharing Center, locate my old profile, and click "Remove." *After doing that*, the steps I described above worked like a charm. |
25,719,153 | I can get the Window handle using "GetForegroundWindow" of "user32.dll" and by matching its class name with "#32770", I can check that it is a dialog.
Now my question is how do I know that this dialog is and alert, confirm or prompt dialog?
Please note I am working outside the Internet Explorer process using VB.Net. | 2014/09/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/25719153",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | There are a *lot* of possible dialogs. Standard ones are MessageBox and the shell dialogs like OpenFileDialog, PrintDialog, ColorDialog, etcetera. A lots and lots of non-standard ones, the kind that a programmer that uses native code to write a Windows program creates with the resource editor. Displayed by the DialogBox() winapi function.
You'll need to find out more about the dialog window, use the [Spy++ utility](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd460760.aspx). If it is a common dialog then you'll see that every control on the window has an ID. You find these back at runtime by pinvoking GetDlgItem(). Possibly needing EnumChildWindows() if they are nested inside another child window. If the function fails, returns IntPtr.Zero, then you know you don't have the dialog that you are looking for. You should also pinvoke GetClassName() to double-check that it is the kind of control you hope to find.
Beware that it can never be 100% accurate, programmers tend to pick IDs that are very common. Like simply numbering them consecutively, starting at 1. Doing this at the right time, when it is very likely that a *particular* dialog is shown, is very important.
And beware that Microsoft can easily break your code. They don't promise to keep dialogs the same in the next version of Internet Explorer.
And beware, last but not least, that programmers tend to be interested in this because they want to tinker with the file download confirmation prompt. Poking the path name and clicking the OK button automatically. A *very* attractive target for malware of course, they've built in counter-measures to defeat this easy target. Enhanced protected mode, enabled in later IE versions, is another counter-measure that will give you a throbbing headache. | You can enumerate the window elements with EnumChildWindow, and count the buttons and which ones open, as well as check the icon. There are 6 button configurations, and 9 different icons, assuming it is a standard messagebox. |
114,596 | I am learning game design, and wanted to know how one can automatically generate spiky terrain (something like this: [Cavernaut](http://www.cavernaut.com/), notice, the terrain at the sides?). I have heard about midpoint displacement algorithm. But How can I apply that to my problem, given that I would also like to increase/decrease the randomness of the terrain.
Also, Is there any helpful library for this in libgdx?[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xqNuJ.png) | 2016/01/10 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/114596",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/77347/"
] | A good, though not particularly fast, algorithm for this is called "midpoint displacement."
In midpoint displacement, you start with a flat terrain, then find the midpoint between the edges and move the midpoint up or down by a random amount. You then repeat this process, taking the midpoints on either side of the previous midpoint, and move it up or down again, repeating until you have reached some maximum number of iterations. The problem with this approach is it scales very poorly, it's O(n^3), however it is easy to implement and understand.
It's important to play with the amount of jitter each midpoint is allowed at each step in the iteration. Early on you want larger swings, but as you get smaller and smaller segments in the higher iterations you probably want to have smaller swings. The amount that the midpoint is allowed to vary at each iteration controls how "spiky" the final product is. | One (not very good way) would be to generate lots of random y coords, increase the x by, say, 50px every y coord and generate a polygon from that. Hard to explain but if you want I could do a picture. |
136,825 | First of all, I can't boot my Windows 7. I get a black screen with a cursor up in the left corner.
So, I tried using Windows 7 installation which I've put on my flash drive.
To boot from the drive, I've changed the boot order to boot from the drive first.
It boots but does not find any HDD to install Windows on (which is pretty logical, I don't boot the HDD soon enough for the installer).
But if I put the HDD in front of the flash drive in the boot order, it will just try to load Windows 7 and I will get the black screen again.
I've tried putting the HDD first and clicking `F8` a lot. All I've got is an error. Something about some software change. I don't know.
Help me please, I can't do anything with my laptop until then. | 2010/05/02 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/136825",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/35832/"
] | I get this behaviour (black screen, flashing cursor) if I have certain brands of USB flash drives plugged in during boot, regardless of the boot order. When I remove all flash drives and reboot, Windows starts normally. | Not being able to boot with USB flash attached could also be a problem with motherboard BIOS.Especially on older motherboards.For example my ASUS A8N32 SLI-Deluxe recieved an updated BIOS that fixes a problem of this nature.
And if you are still not able to boot then i would be better to disconnect all unnessesary drives/devices during install and optionally load driver for SATA/IDE controller.
Also make sure Win7 is original.I dont really trust 3rd party manufacturer disks or ones downloaded from torrent and dubious sources. |
92,480 | I am a beginner to android programming and I want to use my personal phone that I use daily to test my programs, but I am not sure if that is a good idea.
Is it possible to somehow corrupt my phone by trying out my programs on it? In what ways might this be possible?
The phone is unrooted; would it be possible in a rooted phone? | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/92480",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/37436/"
] | No, you can't. As you surmise, if you root your phone and write programs that use root to change system files or settings that you can't normally change, then you can break the phone that way. The risk is not really any different to running root programs that other people have written.
If you don't root the phone, or don't use root in the apps you're writing, then you can only do what any other app might do. You might run the battery down extra quickly, or (if your app has the appropriate permissions) delete pictures, contacts, &c., but debugging your own app won't cause any kind of system corruption or random problems. | You can use your Android for development. In fact, *you should* use your Android device for development. The emulators are OK for very little things, but it's far from being enough.
You can't break your phone if you're doing beginner development and you're not touching system files on the device. In the *wooooorst case* you would need to format it.
You said you'd work with Java NDK and that doesn't exist. Is Java or NDK. Java it's, well... Java (High level language used by Android). And NDK is the Native Development Kit and that's C and C++ languages (mainly used for game development).
A beginner programmer should start with Java inside Android because of its goodies and development tools.
What are you going to do with the device? The listviews, arrays, images, buttons or anything else you'd use in the development can't break it. |
92,480 | I am a beginner to android programming and I want to use my personal phone that I use daily to test my programs, but I am not sure if that is a good idea.
Is it possible to somehow corrupt my phone by trying out my programs on it? In what ways might this be possible?
The phone is unrooted; would it be possible in a rooted phone? | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/92480",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/37436/"
] | No, you can't. As you surmise, if you root your phone and write programs that use root to change system files or settings that you can't normally change, then you can break the phone that way. The risk is not really any different to running root programs that other people have written.
If you don't root the phone, or don't use root in the apps you're writing, then you can only do what any other app might do. You might run the battery down extra quickly, or (if your app has the appropriate permissions) delete pictures, contacts, &c., but debugging your own app won't cause any kind of system corruption or random problems. | There is only one potential risk - I was using several phones to test my apps and I noticed that battery health suffers a lot, especially in older devices.
You should use real phone instead of emulator if you have the chance. Emulators are good, but require a lot of RAM and hardly emulates all the cases you will get on real device. |
5,707,549 | I have a list and in each list element, I need some details.
What will be more efficient to use the list in the list
[['brown', 'wood', 2], ['red', 'box', 3 ],...]
Or create a new class for the parameters(details) of color, type, etc.. and creating objects from this class in every element of the list.
[object1,object2,...]
Or any other solution? | 2011/04/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5707549",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1360400/"
] | List of lists will be more efficient(as in less overhead for function calls, object creation, object destruction etc and take up less space in memory), however creating a new class might be better for readability, writability, and maintainability.
My opinion is that you shouldn't worry about these micro optimizations unless you need to. | Lists-in-lists are typically more efficient (builtin types), but you shouldn't care about efficiency until you have to; it will be more maintainable and easier to work with if you use objects. There's the old adage:
>
> "Never optimize until you need to."
>
>
> |
25,123,274 | How do I make my UIScrollview big enough in storyboard so that I can adda all the content I need to it? The amount of content I am adding is longer vertically than an iPhone screen, but storyboard will not let me detach the scroll view from the view controller so that I can extend it vertically and add all my required content.
How do I extend the scrollview vertically in storyboard so that I can add all the content I need to add to it?
Rephrasing: I want to put a lot of things in my scrollview, using interface builder, The interface builder iPhone rectangles do not allow me to add things below the end of the virtual screen, I am using a scroll view because I need to add things below the end of a regular iPhone screen. For example, in Android development, when you run out of vertical space on a scroll view in the layout.xml, the scroll view gets longer so yo can add more things, is there a way to do a similar thing in storyboard? | 2014/08/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/25123274",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3273344/"
] | @AlexFritz: This is happening because you're not setting contentSize of the scrollView. When you are done putting your subviews in UIScrollView you can put the UIViewController's frame back to its original size. And use this following screen shot to set you ScrollView's contentSize.
Keep in mind to select the scrollview before setting this property from interface builder.
Cheers. | You don't need to make your scrollview size big, Keep your scroll view Size as it is with repect to the view, Only add a label as a subview to the ScrollView then make its height big enough to contain all your text and just set the content offset of the scrollview big enough to accommodate the label |
25,123,274 | How do I make my UIScrollview big enough in storyboard so that I can adda all the content I need to it? The amount of content I am adding is longer vertically than an iPhone screen, but storyboard will not let me detach the scroll view from the view controller so that I can extend it vertically and add all my required content.
How do I extend the scrollview vertically in storyboard so that I can add all the content I need to add to it?
Rephrasing: I want to put a lot of things in my scrollview, using interface builder, The interface builder iPhone rectangles do not allow me to add things below the end of the virtual screen, I am using a scroll view because I need to add things below the end of a regular iPhone screen. For example, in Android development, when you run out of vertical space on a scroll view in the layout.xml, the scroll view gets longer so yo can add more things, is there a way to do a similar thing in storyboard? | 2014/08/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/25123274",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3273344/"
] | I had the same problem in the Xcode 10 storyboard. I was able to solve the problem by selecting the ViewController in Storyboard, and then selecting the Size Inspector. It shows the Simulated Size...
I changed the Simulated Size to Freeform, and then changed the Height to 1000 (or whatever size you need it to be) to elongate the View Controller displayed in the Storyboard.
Don't know about runtime issues. I'm assuming I might need to change the Simulated Size back to Fixed with the original size. | You don't need to make your scrollview size big, Keep your scroll view Size as it is with repect to the view, Only add a label as a subview to the ScrollView then make its height big enough to contain all your text and just set the content offset of the scrollview big enough to accommodate the label |
25,123,274 | How do I make my UIScrollview big enough in storyboard so that I can adda all the content I need to it? The amount of content I am adding is longer vertically than an iPhone screen, but storyboard will not let me detach the scroll view from the view controller so that I can extend it vertically and add all my required content.
How do I extend the scrollview vertically in storyboard so that I can add all the content I need to add to it?
Rephrasing: I want to put a lot of things in my scrollview, using interface builder, The interface builder iPhone rectangles do not allow me to add things below the end of the virtual screen, I am using a scroll view because I need to add things below the end of a regular iPhone screen. For example, in Android development, when you run out of vertical space on a scroll view in the layout.xml, the scroll view gets longer so yo can add more things, is there a way to do a similar thing in storyboard? | 2014/08/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/25123274",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3273344/"
] | I had the same problem in the Xcode 10 storyboard. I was able to solve the problem by selecting the ViewController in Storyboard, and then selecting the Size Inspector. It shows the Simulated Size...
I changed the Simulated Size to Freeform, and then changed the Height to 1000 (or whatever size you need it to be) to elongate the View Controller displayed in the Storyboard.
Don't know about runtime issues. I'm assuming I might need to change the Simulated Size back to Fixed with the original size. | @AlexFritz: This is happening because you're not setting contentSize of the scrollView. When you are done putting your subviews in UIScrollView you can put the UIViewController's frame back to its original size. And use this following screen shot to set you ScrollView's contentSize.
Keep in mind to select the scrollview before setting this property from interface builder.
Cheers. |
34,952 | If you were going to write a chess game engine, what programming paradigm would you use (OOP, procedural, etc) and why whould you choose it ? By chess engine, I mean the portion of a program that evaluates the current board and decides the computer's next move.
I'm asking because I thought it might be fun to write a chess engine. Then it occured to me that I could use it as a project for learning functional programming. Then it occured to me that some problems aren't well suited to the functional paradigm. Then it occured to me that this might be good discussion fodder. | 2011/01/08 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34952",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9830/"
] | Evaluation isn't a parallelizable problem as far as I know but evaluating different chains is , so I definitively would write it to make use of multiple cores and multithreading.
Whether you go functional or semi-functional is a matter of taste. Personally i'd go OOP and use the support for functional programming and parallelization that exists in for instance C#
On a sidenote, if I were to write a chess engine I'd try to make one that really can "think" about chess. Using board evaluation to brute force all possible combinations has been done to death and extremely well, but there hasn't been much progress afaik in doing a more thinking/fuzzy chess engine. That'd be a challenge! :)
Find some games with really tricky position play and strong moves (they're marked ! or !!) and use them to train and test your engine. | I guess it depends upon your goals, which I take are strictly didactic. If you were trying to write a competitive product, you would want maximum efficiency in the lowest level evaluators. Lots of opportunity for bit level parallelism here. Also lots of opportunities for hash tables. Also opportunities to exploit parallelism. Then at the higher levels, you probably want a system good for AI, so that probably means a functional programming languauge. Obviously you don't want to do all of these things, pick one or two of them, and be content with the fact that your project will not be competitive with the better programs. |
34,952 | If you were going to write a chess game engine, what programming paradigm would you use (OOP, procedural, etc) and why whould you choose it ? By chess engine, I mean the portion of a program that evaluates the current board and decides the computer's next move.
I'm asking because I thought it might be fun to write a chess engine. Then it occured to me that I could use it as a project for learning functional programming. Then it occured to me that some problems aren't well suited to the functional paradigm. Then it occured to me that this might be good discussion fodder. | 2011/01/08 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34952",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9830/"
] | Evaluation isn't a parallelizable problem as far as I know but evaluating different chains is , so I definitively would write it to make use of multiple cores and multithreading.
Whether you go functional or semi-functional is a matter of taste. Personally i'd go OOP and use the support for functional programming and parallelization that exists in for instance C#
On a sidenote, if I were to write a chess engine I'd try to make one that really can "think" about chess. Using board evaluation to brute force all possible combinations has been done to death and extremely well, but there hasn't been much progress afaik in doing a more thinking/fuzzy chess engine. That'd be a challenge! :)
Find some games with really tricky position play and strong moves (they're marked ! or !!) and use them to train and test your engine. | I have choosen OOP paradigm in my chess engine named [The Turk](http://theturk.codeplex.com/). First version of my chess engine was written more procedural rather than OOP.Then i found so hard to improve my chess engine because of long code blocks and poor design.
It depends on what you want to achieve while writing chess engine.If you want to create a chess engine which is too strong so it even not possible to do this in OOP languages because of slow late bindings. If you just want to learn programming and also get fun by writing chess engine so managed languages and OOP will be your friend. I can suggest you to choose C# because it is also possible to write chess engine in more procedural way with it. |
34,952 | If you were going to write a chess game engine, what programming paradigm would you use (OOP, procedural, etc) and why whould you choose it ? By chess engine, I mean the portion of a program that evaluates the current board and decides the computer's next move.
I'm asking because I thought it might be fun to write a chess engine. Then it occured to me that I could use it as a project for learning functional programming. Then it occured to me that some problems aren't well suited to the functional paradigm. Then it occured to me that this might be good discussion fodder. | 2011/01/08 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34952",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9830/"
] | Evaluation isn't a parallelizable problem as far as I know but evaluating different chains is , so I definitively would write it to make use of multiple cores and multithreading.
Whether you go functional or semi-functional is a matter of taste. Personally i'd go OOP and use the support for functional programming and parallelization that exists in for instance C#
On a sidenote, if I were to write a chess engine I'd try to make one that really can "think" about chess. Using board evaluation to brute force all possible combinations has been done to death and extremely well, but there hasn't been much progress afaik in doing a more thinking/fuzzy chess engine. That'd be a challenge! :)
Find some games with really tricky position play and strong moves (they're marked ! or !!) and use them to train and test your engine. | I ported a simple chess program as a means of learning the Forth language. It turned out to be a great fit to this very imperative problem, and I learned a lot. The open stack allowed me to implement alpha-beta search in a unique fashion which gave me greater insight into the algorithm.
One would think that functional programming would be great for chess programs, since the core algorithms (alpha-beta depth-first search, evaluation) are recursive and functionally strict. However, a chess program lives and dies on efficiency and none of the current crop of functional languages have that aim. The top one hundred state-of-the-art engines all use imperative languages (mostly C/C++, then Delphi) in order to have maximum control over memory usage, multi-threading, global state, and code generation. All functional languages use dynamic memory allocation for core data structures, which is death for a chess program.
I'd still like to see someone make an attempt to break into the top 100 chess engines using a functional language. |
292,076 | I've only administered rather small networks (<=25 nodes). Usually I put the gateway .1, dns/proxy as .10, mail at .20, printers at .30-39 and so on and so forth. I never directly use IP addresses as DNS hostnames are clearly the better way, but I like to have a clear pattern/layout/design when building a network from scratch.
My DNS mapping also has a simple naming pattern/layout as well. For example, all of my devices have two names; one formal name based on role (dc01, mail02, etc.) and an informal name. Nothing fancy, but real simple and manageable.
I'm trying to figure out a more intuitive/creative IP/Subnet/DNS scheme (if there is something better). I'm sure others have more intuitive schemes depending on the network objectives and such. My network that I'm working on is still small, but I have numerous devices to contend with.
I'm looking for a general pattern or methodology to assign IP address (ranges/classes), dns names and subnet networks that encompasses 4-5 major points:
1. Network services (mail, file, proxy, etc.)
2. Software development (environments - dev/staging/prod,
3. Media (streaming, large file transfers, archiving)
4. Virtual servers/desktops
5. VoIP
I've never worked directly with VoIP but it's something to take into consideration for the future.
---
Overall I got some really good ideas from everyone. Wish I could give out more votes/accepted answers. Thanks for the responses! | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/292076",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/13422/"
] | Keep it simple. As simple as possible, but still allowing for security and flexibility. Design abstraction into things, which sounds like it's not simple, but in fact is the pathway to simplicity itself.
As for subnets, this is fairly common:
* Users on one subnet
* Guests on another
* Servers on their own subnet
* VOIP on its own too.
Filter traffic through each subnet as necessary. Possibly use VLANs. I hope you are intimately familiar with the CLI of your network device vendor of choice.
As for DNS, you're not going to like this but... use whatever works for you. Personally, I like to give servers a totally abstract hostname with no ties to its services. I then CNAME services to the hostname. That way migrating services don't cause DNS change headaches. Or at least, not as many. I also prefer to name virtual servers with a v prepended to the hostname.
Examples:
* New Database server is named Athena. It will be named Athena forever.
* Athena is CNAMED for what it does: SQL08ENT-CRM, SQL08ENT-AEGIS (the security system), SQL08ENT-DOCMAN. Perhaps also CNAMED based on geography. Or perhaps the hostname will have geography in it. Athena-ATL. Athena-Sydney. Whatever works.
* The server is on the server subnet that has a default deny policy. It has the proper traffic included to it from the proper subnets.
**Keep. It. Simple.** (but functional) | I worked at an organisation of a similar size (we had a /26), that for reasons beyond me, the powers-that-be felt that a finely grained IP allocation scheme was paramount to operational integrity. The gateway *had* to be .1, the printers *had* to be between .2 and .12, the servers between .13 and .20 and so on. We even kept documentation on individual hosts.
This is a huge pain in the ass. No matter how diligent I was I could never seem to keep any documentation current. It didn't help that we did not have any DNS services, so using this IP allocation scheme documentation was the only "naming" services we had (which in a strange way, made it seem more indispensable than it really was).
For a network of your size I would recommend a few things (most of which you have already done):
* **Simple** - You're not managing hundreds of hosts. The complexity of your solution should reflect the complexity of environment. Resist the temptation to be overly clever. You will thank yourself later.
1. Take your available IP space and give 60% to your clients via DHCP. Setup up some kind Dynamic DNS services so you never have to look at a damn IP address again. Forget about keeping track of them. Profit.
2. Reserve the other 30% for IP addresses *you* manage: servers, printers, network devices, testing services. etc. USE DNS TO DOCUMENT THIS. In my opinion, there is no bigger waste of time than studiously keeping track of all these "administrator-managed" IP addresses (as opposed to DHCP managed IP addresses) by using an Excel spreadsheet (which you have to constantly refer to and maintain), when you could be putting that effort into supporting a self documenting and far more useful DNS solution.
3. Keep the last 10% of your address at the top of your IP addressing space unused. A little reserve never hurts.
4. Adjust the ratios as you see fit for your environment. Some environments will have more clients, some will be "server" (i.e., "administrator-managed") heavy.
---
* Network services (mail, file, proxy, etc.)
* Software development (environments - dev/staging/prod,
These both fall into the category of "administrator-managed" IP space.
* Media (streaming, large file transfers, archiving)
In my opinion this has little to do with subnetting and everything to do with network monitoring.
* Virtual servers/desktops
Servers are "administrator-managed", desktops (i.e. client machines) should be "DHCP-managed".
* VoIP
A physically discrete network would be ideal... *but* that's unrealistic. The next best thing would be a separate VLAN and subnet. This is about the only point in small network where I'd really feel the need to segregate traffic (except for things that are publically accessible). |
1,412,477 | recently i have downloaded a backup of my Instagram account ...
and the zip file contained a lot of ".json" files and i have no idea how to view
it like... the way that Instagram did
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5xQkq.png)
thanks | 2019/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1412477",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/908099/"
] | Windows comes preinstalled with loads of generic drivers, or your existing drivers might be a close enough match for the hardware that they are included in the same driver. When windows starts it redetectes its hardware and loads the most suitable driver it can find. Either way it's best you download and install latest drivers for your new hardware, you could be using ancient generic drivers out of the box!
Given the hardware change you need to reactivate windows or insert a new key (I recently bought a w10 pro key £3.49 off ebay!). If you need to reactivate it might fail from the computer, but ringing the automated activation line generally works.
So long as your windows is activated, windows updates work and you install all drivers it'll probably work fine, albeit with some registry and windows folder bloat.
As a random side note you can inject drivers into windows before moving the disk between computers using PNPUtil. That way windows starts with the latest drivers. It also means you can install storage drivers and such that would otherwise prevent windows booting on different hardware. | You can run Windows on different motherboards than originally installed on in many cases. I've successfully transplanted motherboards of different types when repairing failures. |
1,412,477 | recently i have downloaded a backup of my Instagram account ...
and the zip file contained a lot of ".json" files and i have no idea how to view
it like... the way that Instagram did
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5xQkq.png)
thanks | 2019/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1412477",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/908099/"
] | If Windows comes up as activated, then you apparently have a
*retail version* of Windows, also called "full version".
If you have purchased a retail copy of Windows 10, then you're entitled to transfer the license to another device multiple times. The same is true when upgrading a retail copy of Windows 8.x or Windows 7 to Windows 10, and you want to move the product key to another device.
After you move your license several times, Windows may give you an activation error and ask you to call Microsoft to activate your computer. Microsoft’s representatives will allow it, they just want to make sure you aren’t installing the same license on multiple PCs at a time.
On the other hand, when purchasing a new computer with Windows 10 pre-installed, you're getting an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) license. This means that you're not allowed to transfer the product key to another device (under the Microsoft rules). The same will be true when upgrading a device that came with Windows 8.x or Windows 7 pre-installed.
As you will never boot this disk again on the old computer, the Microsoft
servers will not signal a possible activation abuse, so no problems
for you and you are completely legit.. | You can run Windows on different motherboards than originally installed on in many cases. I've successfully transplanted motherboards of different types when repairing failures. |
1,412,477 | recently i have downloaded a backup of my Instagram account ...
and the zip file contained a lot of ".json" files and i have no idea how to view
it like... the way that Instagram did
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5xQkq.png)
thanks | 2019/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1412477",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/908099/"
] | Windows comes preinstalled with loads of generic drivers, or your existing drivers might be a close enough match for the hardware that they are included in the same driver. When windows starts it redetectes its hardware and loads the most suitable driver it can find. Either way it's best you download and install latest drivers for your new hardware, you could be using ancient generic drivers out of the box!
Given the hardware change you need to reactivate windows or insert a new key (I recently bought a w10 pro key £3.49 off ebay!). If you need to reactivate it might fail from the computer, but ringing the automated activation line generally works.
So long as your windows is activated, windows updates work and you install all drivers it'll probably work fine, albeit with some registry and windows folder bloat.
As a random side note you can inject drivers into windows before moving the disk between computers using PNPUtil. That way windows starts with the latest drivers. It also means you can install storage drivers and such that would otherwise prevent windows booting on different hardware. | Windows normally barfs if the motherboard changes because if driver issues. If the hardware is similar enough, it can continue to work think, of a basic system using all Intel chipsets.
I postulate that the systems had enough common hardware for windows to start and get a network connection after which it can update/tweak itself with drivers it can download. |
1,412,477 | recently i have downloaded a backup of my Instagram account ...
and the zip file contained a lot of ".json" files and i have no idea how to view
it like... the way that Instagram did
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5xQkq.png)
thanks | 2019/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1412477",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/908099/"
] | If Windows comes up as activated, then you apparently have a
*retail version* of Windows, also called "full version".
If you have purchased a retail copy of Windows 10, then you're entitled to transfer the license to another device multiple times. The same is true when upgrading a retail copy of Windows 8.x or Windows 7 to Windows 10, and you want to move the product key to another device.
After you move your license several times, Windows may give you an activation error and ask you to call Microsoft to activate your computer. Microsoft’s representatives will allow it, they just want to make sure you aren’t installing the same license on multiple PCs at a time.
On the other hand, when purchasing a new computer with Windows 10 pre-installed, you're getting an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) license. This means that you're not allowed to transfer the product key to another device (under the Microsoft rules). The same will be true when upgrading a device that came with Windows 8.x or Windows 7 pre-installed.
As you will never boot this disk again on the old computer, the Microsoft
servers will not signal a possible activation abuse, so no problems
for you and you are completely legit.. | Windows normally barfs if the motherboard changes because if driver issues. If the hardware is similar enough, it can continue to work think, of a basic system using all Intel chipsets.
I postulate that the systems had enough common hardware for windows to start and get a network connection after which it can update/tweak itself with drivers it can download. |
28,523,476 | I just had a fresh re-installation of **Mac OS X Yosemite** before I install **Xcode** and then **CommandlineTools**.
It seems I have two versions of gcc and g++ in the following two directories:
1. **/usr/bin** (both files are 14kb) and
2. **/Library/Developer/CommandLineTools/usr/bin** (g++ is just an alias and gcc is 19kb)
Type "which gcc" in the Terminal gives me "/usr/bin/gcc", so did "which g++" which gives me "/usr/bin/g++", and this means the system will only use the gcc and g++ in /usr/bin
So, my questions are:
**1. why do I have two versions of gcc and g++?**
**2. why the gcc and g++ installed with CommandLineTools is not specified as the default ones?**
**3. How do I ask the Mac OS X to point to the gcc and g++ in the directory "/Library/Developer/CommandLineTools/usr/bin"?**
BTW, i installed CommandlineTools according to the following:
<http://railsapps.github.io/xcode-command-line-tools.html>
However, I got a different output by typing "gcc --version" (difference hightlighted):
Configured with: --prefix=**/Application/Xcode.app/Contents/Developer/usr** --with-gxx-include-dir=/usr/include/c++/4.2.1
Apple LLVM version 6.0 (clang-600.0.54) (based on LLVM 3.5svn)
Target: x86\_64-apple-darwin14.0.0
Thread model: posix
... rather than **/Library/Developer/CommandLineTools/usr** as shown in the web page above ...
I'm quite confused about which gcc/g++ is actually being used by Mac OSX currently ... | 2015/02/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28523476",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3776170/"
] | Mac OSX doesn't use gcc (g++). It defaults to Clang since Mac OSX 10.7. So when you type gcc or g++ to compile it actually uses Clang (cc) | Basically when you call 'cc' or 'cxx' or 'c++' you are calling clang. Read here for more information about the state of Apple clang (<https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/documentation/CompilerTools/Conceptual/LLVMCompilerOverview/>)
Adding to what @adnan-kamili said, you may wonder why Apple did that. So here is a short answer from Llia Lebedev (<https://www.quora.com/Compilers-Why-did-Apple-create-Clang>)
>
> A factor in their decision may certainly have been GCC's license. GPL
> is highly restrictive when it comes to non-free software.
> Specifically, GPL requires derivative projects to be provided with
> their full and open source, also licensed under GPL.
>
>
> While a reasonable course of action available to Apple would be to
> dedicate a handful of smart engineers to beef up GCC's support for
> everything Apple, the license would require their work to be to be
> released under GPL as well - a tricky proposition within a large
> corporation, as it would likely force significant amounts of Apple
> software hooking into GCC to be released under GPL also.
>
>
> Clang was open-sourced under the much more permissive University of
> Illinois License, which allows Apple to develop private branches of
> Clang without releasing full source code.
>
>
> |
3,128,836 | I have created a process similar to Shazam that creates a [Spectrogram](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spectrogram) of a given sound clip. I am trying to figure out a way in which to store this data into a database so that I can run comparisons on it. **(I dont need actual code, just conceptual help on the process)**.
For those unfamiliar with a spectrogram, its a graph of time on the x-axis and frequency on the y-axis. I need a way of saving this data in a way that i can run comparisons. Also, I can't simply create a long of the frequency values from left to right because that becomes a time complexity issue when trying to search against it with large data sets (basically an N^2 substring comparison).
Essentially I was thinking about creating some sort of hash on the sound clip and saving the data as a trie or suffix tree of the hash but I'm not sure how I could do a comparison for it then.
Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. | 2010/06/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3128836",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/345611/"
] | This is a 2D array. Possibly a *sparse* one if most of the data is 0.0.
I'd use a [ROOT](http://root.cern.ch/) histogram (say [`TH2F`](http://root.cern.ch/root/html/TH2F.html)) to avoid having to manage all the edge cases and so on, though almost any scientific library should support an appropriate data structure. ROOT supports at least two histogram similarity measures ([Chi squared](http://root.cern.ch/root/html/TH1.html#TH1:Chi2Test) and [Kolmogorov](http://root.cern.ch/root/html/TH2.html#TH2:KolmogorovTest)) which will allow you to make quantitative comparisons. | You can either store it as a raw 2D array, or else you will need to do some higher level feature extraction (track pitch contours etc) to extract the significant features which you can then use for comparison purposes. |
3,128,836 | I have created a process similar to Shazam that creates a [Spectrogram](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spectrogram) of a given sound clip. I am trying to figure out a way in which to store this data into a database so that I can run comparisons on it. **(I dont need actual code, just conceptual help on the process)**.
For those unfamiliar with a spectrogram, its a graph of time on the x-axis and frequency on the y-axis. I need a way of saving this data in a way that i can run comparisons. Also, I can't simply create a long of the frequency values from left to right because that becomes a time complexity issue when trying to search against it with large data sets (basically an N^2 substring comparison).
Essentially I was thinking about creating some sort of hash on the sound clip and saving the data as a trie or suffix tree of the hash but I'm not sure how I could do a comparison for it then.
Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. | 2010/06/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3128836",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/345611/"
] | This is a 2D array. Possibly a *sparse* one if most of the data is 0.0.
I'd use a [ROOT](http://root.cern.ch/) histogram (say [`TH2F`](http://root.cern.ch/root/html/TH2F.html)) to avoid having to manage all the edge cases and so on, though almost any scientific library should support an appropriate data structure. ROOT supports at least two histogram similarity measures ([Chi squared](http://root.cern.ch/root/html/TH1.html#TH1:Chi2Test) and [Kolmogorov](http://root.cern.ch/root/html/TH2.html#TH2:KolmogorovTest)) which will allow you to make quantitative comparisons. | The problem with a hash is that you need close matches, not exact matches - I was thinking of something along the lines of extracting the (time, freq) tuples of local peaks in the spectrogram and then putting those in a <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spatial_database> .
To search you could extract n highest peaks (4 - 8?) and then search for the closest peaks in the spatial database and find the best fitting match. |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | What you've described may be perfectly sensible, but you really need to say a little bit more about your project before the community can comment on your approach.
What's the pattern of access? Is it always read-only for the user, editable only by site administrator for example?
You shouldn't worry about performance early on. Worry more about ease of development, maintenance and reliability, you can always optimise afterwards.
You may want to look at <http://www.mongodb.org/>. **MongoDB** is a document-centric store that uses JSON as its storage format. | JSON in combination with Jquery is a great fast web page smooth updating option but ultimately it still will come down to the same database query.
Just make sure your query is efficient. Use a stored proc.
JSON is just the way the data is sent from the server (Web controller in MVC or code behind in standind c#) to the client (JQuery or JavaScript)
Ultimately the database will be queried the same way. |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | JSON is typically used as a way to format the data for the purpose of transporting it somewhere. Databases are typically used for storing data. | JSON in combination with Jquery is a great fast web page smooth updating option but ultimately it still will come down to the same database query.
Just make sure your query is efficient. Use a stored proc.
JSON is just the way the data is sent from the server (Web controller in MVC or code behind in standind c#) to the client (JQuery or JavaScript)
Ultimately the database will be queried the same way. |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | What you've described may be perfectly sensible, but you really need to say a little bit more about your project before the community can comment on your approach.
What's the pattern of access? Is it always read-only for the user, editable only by site administrator for example?
You shouldn't worry about performance early on. Worry more about ease of development, maintenance and reliability, you can always optimise afterwards.
You may want to look at <http://www.mongodb.org/>. **MongoDB** is a document-centric store that uses JSON as its storage format. | You should stick with the classic method (database), because you'll face many problems with concurrency and with having too many files to handle. |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | JSON is typically used as a way to format the data for the purpose of transporting it somewhere. Databases are typically used for storing data. | You should stick with the classic method (database), because you'll face many problems with concurrency and with having too many files to handle. |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | What you've described may be perfectly sensible, but you really need to say a little bit more about your project before the community can comment on your approach.
What's the pattern of access? Is it always read-only for the user, editable only by site administrator for example?
You shouldn't worry about performance early on. Worry more about ease of development, maintenance and reliability, you can always optimise afterwards.
You may want to look at <http://www.mongodb.org/>. **MongoDB** is a document-centric store that uses JSON as its storage format. | I think you should go with usual database query.
If you use JSON file you'll have to sync JSON files with the DB (That's mean an extra work is need) and face I/O problems (if your site super busy). |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | JSON is typically used as a way to format the data for the purpose of transporting it somewhere. Databases are typically used for storing data. | I think you should go with usual database query.
If you use JSON file you'll have to sync JSON files with the DB (That's mean an extra work is need) and face I/O problems (if your site super busy). |
9,034,725 | For my new project I'm looking forward to use JSON data as a text file rather then fetching data from database. My concept is to save a JSON file on the server whenever admin creates a new entry in the database.
As there is no issue of security, will this approach will make user access to data faster or shall I go with the usual database queries. | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9034725",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1150614/"
] | JSON is typically used as a way to format the data for the purpose of transporting it somewhere. Databases are typically used for storing data. | What you've described may be perfectly sensible, but you really need to say a little bit more about your project before the community can comment on your approach.
What's the pattern of access? Is it always read-only for the user, editable only by site administrator for example?
You shouldn't worry about performance early on. Worry more about ease of development, maintenance and reliability, you can always optimise afterwards.
You may want to look at <http://www.mongodb.org/>. **MongoDB** is a document-centric store that uses JSON as its storage format. |
23,204,421 | I have a barcode I'm trying to parse via built-in regular expression in our document imaging software which I believe is in .net. These are barcodes on loan documents that include an account number and sub-account number delimited by a dash (-). The most difficult part of this is that as the sub-account number shrinks, the account number is the one that is zero-filled to compensate. Some examples below showing the account/sub-account number starts at position 11 and goes on for 15 characters (including the dash). I need two different regex patterns (one to match the account number before the dash and the other to match the one after). The first 10 zeroes in all examples are actually another field not currently being used. So matching everything before the - will work in the short term but if they decide to begin using that field, it will no longer work. I need some way to parse it that will give me position 11-25 split on the dash. I can include the dash on the sub account number and zeroes on the account number because I have an option to "Remove all leading occurrences of the \_\_ character" within the software. I can automatically remove leading zeroes in the account and the leading dash in the sub account.
0000000000123456789-12345133304302014
account=123456789
sub=12345
00000000000123456789-1234133304302014
account=0123456789
sub=1234
000000000000123456789-123133304302014
account=00123456789
sub=123
0000000000000123456789-12133304302014
account=000123456789
sub=12
00000000000000123456789-1133304302014
account=0000123456789
sub=1
**EDIT:**
The final working regex syntax is as follows:
account number = *[1-9].*(?=.*-)*
sub-account number = *(?<=-).*(?=(............$))\* | 2014/04/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/23204421",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3208272/"
] | What i would advise you is:
1) Upload the file on server without full filepath (as passing filepath could be a security issue).
2) Then save the file in your server at a temporary folder (maybe `temp`).
3) Use the path of temp location on your server to upload file to dropbox.
4) Remove file from temp folder if no longer required | I'm pretty sure you're misunderstanding the security issue. Having a full path is not just an *upload* security issue, it's a complete *javascript* security issue. If I could get the full path of the file, I could upload it using Ajax, or any number of ways ([http://mywebsite.com/pixel.gif?path=[encodedFilePath]](http://mywebsite.com/pixel.gif?path=%5bencodedFilePath%5d)) in addition to uploading the file. So trying to get the filename on the local side should always fail in javascript.
Your *only* option is to have clients change security settings, or not use javascript. |
23,204,421 | I have a barcode I'm trying to parse via built-in regular expression in our document imaging software which I believe is in .net. These are barcodes on loan documents that include an account number and sub-account number delimited by a dash (-). The most difficult part of this is that as the sub-account number shrinks, the account number is the one that is zero-filled to compensate. Some examples below showing the account/sub-account number starts at position 11 and goes on for 15 characters (including the dash). I need two different regex patterns (one to match the account number before the dash and the other to match the one after). The first 10 zeroes in all examples are actually another field not currently being used. So matching everything before the - will work in the short term but if they decide to begin using that field, it will no longer work. I need some way to parse it that will give me position 11-25 split on the dash. I can include the dash on the sub account number and zeroes on the account number because I have an option to "Remove all leading occurrences of the \_\_ character" within the software. I can automatically remove leading zeroes in the account and the leading dash in the sub account.
0000000000123456789-12345133304302014
account=123456789
sub=12345
00000000000123456789-1234133304302014
account=0123456789
sub=1234
000000000000123456789-123133304302014
account=00123456789
sub=123
0000000000000123456789-12133304302014
account=000123456789
sub=12
00000000000000123456789-1133304302014
account=0000123456789
sub=1
**EDIT:**
The final working regex syntax is as follows:
account number = *[1-9].*(?=.*-)*
sub-account number = *(?<=-).*(?=(............$))\* | 2014/04/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/23204421",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3208272/"
] | I took a different route and here's my workaround:
- I upload the file(s) temporary to my server (I created a folder called Uploads)
- After successful upload , I can get the file path (The one on my server) servername\uploads\filename
- Then i pass this path to the dropbox API function dropBoxStorage.UploadFile(srcFile, remoteDirName);
- After a succeful upload to DropBox, i delete the temporary file from my server.
I am not sure if it's the best thing to do but it fixed my problem for now. | I'm pretty sure you're misunderstanding the security issue. Having a full path is not just an *upload* security issue, it's a complete *javascript* security issue. If I could get the full path of the file, I could upload it using Ajax, or any number of ways ([http://mywebsite.com/pixel.gif?path=[encodedFilePath]](http://mywebsite.com/pixel.gif?path=%5bencodedFilePath%5d)) in addition to uploading the file. So trying to get the filename on the local side should always fail in javascript.
Your *only* option is to have clients change security settings, or not use javascript. |
157,583 | I’m hoping someone can give me some tips on the test I have in mind for my data. I have data which is samples of Americans from various zip codes throughout the US. In my data I assume if someone has the same first name, last name, date of birth, sex, and zip code then they are the same person, but the records in my data don’t have a unique identifiers so I can’t be certain. I plan to compare my sample data to the US population in general.
My thought is to calculate the rate of unique people with those matching demographics in the general population and compare it to my assumed rate of 0 in my sample data using a hypothesis test, maybe like t-test and see if the p-value indicates I should reject the null hypothesis that the rate of unique people with those matching demographics in the general US population is 0.
Does my logic sound correct or can anyone suggest a better test for the data. | 2015/06/18 | [
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/157583",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/42992/"
] | I believe that you must think if going to all this trouble is worth it -- i.e. would the violation of your uniqueness assumption drastically affect your end result? This obviously depends highly on what you are using the data for. A little background on uniqueness of personal identification data can be found here: <http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3032399/>, but in general it is thought that about 80% of adults in the US can be uniquely identified based on date of birth, sex, and zip code alone. I think it is fairly safe to assume that based on that number, the chances of having the same name and other demographic info is highly unlikely. But again, if there is a small violation, will this affect your end result? | Something that may help to allay your fears is to consider standard policies for [data de-identification](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De-identification). That is, when a dataset (e.g., a medical dataset with patient records, tests, disease states, treatments, etc.) is going to be made publicly available, it first has to be de-identified so that protected health information cannot be connected to a person. People often assume that if you remove things like the patient's name, social security number, etc., that will be adequate to de-identify data, but that is not true. A standard policy is that data are identifiable if they include, e.g., full birth date, sex, and zip code. The probability of two people with the same sex and birthday living in the same zip code is sufficiently small that you can safely assume the record and the person are the same1. I note that you have all of that, in addition to first and last name, so you certainly have enough information now.
1. Sweeney, Latanya. Simple demographics often identify people uniquely. Carnegie Mellon University, 2000. <http://dataprivacylab.org/projects/identifiability/paper1.pdf>
(copied from Wikipedia: [*Quasi-identifier*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quasi-identifier), footnote 2.) |
37,109 | I am working as an intern for a GIS (Map) Team. The team is relatively new and small with about 6 people. As an intern I am working on some very back-end stuff. These are things I have never done before and have proven VERY difficult for me. The past month or so can be described as two words: 'Road Blocks'.
I consistently have to stop and do research and consult my boss/manager on different issues I feel that I can't solve. Because he is almost always busy, I feel as though I am asking too many questions when debugging. For example, recently he had to go out of town for work. I had to e-mail him about three or four times in one day about different errors. It feels worse because he and I are the only programmers on the team. Even in our immediate area/floor.
So my question is: Am I asking for too much help as an intern? If so, how much is too much?
This is necessary for me going forward into the work world. | 2014/12/04 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/37109",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/30238/"
] | You should ask your boss this question, except phrase slightly differently.
>
> Sir, I was thinking recently about how often I ask you for help on my tasks. I am seeking to strike the correct balance between solving problems on my own (and thus learning how to help myself) and completing work swiftly enough (which sometimes necessitates asking for help). I wanted to know whether you think I am striking that balance properly, or if I ask you for help too often, and you'd prefer me to try to work things out for myself more?
>
>
>
It's very hard for us to tell you here, both because you can't really communicate to us *how* frequently you're asking questions (and what your firm's culture is like), nor can we read your boss's mind - he may like that you ask questions, or prefer you not to; unless he's told you to stop bothering him (or given you nonverbal clues), he probably doesn't mind - but again, *asking him* is the best way to find out. If you approach it as a career development type of question, it's really a very appropriate one and should reflect well on your own abilities (both of self reflection, and understanding the different issues at hand).
It's also hard to tell (both for us and for you!) what the expectations are for an intern at your firm. Some places give legitimate work to an intern that they need accomplished in a timely manner; some places are more figuring out how useful you are and how quick you learn, and are going to prefer you learn on your own more (but not entirely) because they don't have the time pressure for the work. I guess you're more doing legitimate work given your description of the firm (I can't imagine a 6 person firm having a non-working intern) but who knows.
Secondly, perhaps partly off topic but hopefully relevant, some tips for asking for help in a *useful* way that might lessen how often you ask for help.
* Make sure you're asking complete questions, not throwing four or five questions at him about one issue. As much as possible, fewer interactions with more content is better. This means you need to do more research before asking questions, but that's not a bad thing.
* In asking the question, provide all of the information you've obtained in researching it. In addition to showing that you're not just asking him every five seconds, it also gives him some information about *how* you research problems; you benefit more from learning better ways to research questions in your field rather than simply having your problems answered.
* If you find you are stuck in a particular section and it's a major area of your field, consider asking either for an hour or two overview of the section, or asking to go to an offsite training in the subject. Sometimes you are stuck because you're missing something fundamental. Imagine learning to multiply but not knowing how to do addition: you would be lost, and have to keep asking questions, until someone realized you were missing the basics.
If you're doing these things, you probably aren't bothering your boss too much - or at least you're hopefully showing your boss where you need more training. | You should ask for as much help as you need. Sure, you should put an honest effort in to learn (or experiment) on your own to solve the problem. But in the end, your alternative to asking is for the work not to get done - and that is *always* worse. |
37,109 | I am working as an intern for a GIS (Map) Team. The team is relatively new and small with about 6 people. As an intern I am working on some very back-end stuff. These are things I have never done before and have proven VERY difficult for me. The past month or so can be described as two words: 'Road Blocks'.
I consistently have to stop and do research and consult my boss/manager on different issues I feel that I can't solve. Because he is almost always busy, I feel as though I am asking too many questions when debugging. For example, recently he had to go out of town for work. I had to e-mail him about three or four times in one day about different errors. It feels worse because he and I are the only programmers on the team. Even in our immediate area/floor.
So my question is: Am I asking for too much help as an intern? If so, how much is too much?
This is necessary for me going forward into the work world. | 2014/12/04 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/37109",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/30238/"
] | You should ask your boss this question, except phrase slightly differently.
>
> Sir, I was thinking recently about how often I ask you for help on my tasks. I am seeking to strike the correct balance between solving problems on my own (and thus learning how to help myself) and completing work swiftly enough (which sometimes necessitates asking for help). I wanted to know whether you think I am striking that balance properly, or if I ask you for help too often, and you'd prefer me to try to work things out for myself more?
>
>
>
It's very hard for us to tell you here, both because you can't really communicate to us *how* frequently you're asking questions (and what your firm's culture is like), nor can we read your boss's mind - he may like that you ask questions, or prefer you not to; unless he's told you to stop bothering him (or given you nonverbal clues), he probably doesn't mind - but again, *asking him* is the best way to find out. If you approach it as a career development type of question, it's really a very appropriate one and should reflect well on your own abilities (both of self reflection, and understanding the different issues at hand).
It's also hard to tell (both for us and for you!) what the expectations are for an intern at your firm. Some places give legitimate work to an intern that they need accomplished in a timely manner; some places are more figuring out how useful you are and how quick you learn, and are going to prefer you learn on your own more (but not entirely) because they don't have the time pressure for the work. I guess you're more doing legitimate work given your description of the firm (I can't imagine a 6 person firm having a non-working intern) but who knows.
Secondly, perhaps partly off topic but hopefully relevant, some tips for asking for help in a *useful* way that might lessen how often you ask for help.
* Make sure you're asking complete questions, not throwing four or five questions at him about one issue. As much as possible, fewer interactions with more content is better. This means you need to do more research before asking questions, but that's not a bad thing.
* In asking the question, provide all of the information you've obtained in researching it. In addition to showing that you're not just asking him every five seconds, it also gives him some information about *how* you research problems; you benefit more from learning better ways to research questions in your field rather than simply having your problems answered.
* If you find you are stuck in a particular section and it's a major area of your field, consider asking either for an hour or two overview of the section, or asking to go to an offsite training in the subject. Sometimes you are stuck because you're missing something fundamental. Imagine learning to multiply but not knowing how to do addition: you would be lost, and have to keep asking questions, until someone realized you were missing the basics.
If you're doing these things, you probably aren't bothering your boss too much - or at least you're hopefully showing your boss where you need more training. | In addition to Joe's excellent answer - here's an insight into your boss (I'm in a similar position to him with some junior developers):
It's all about balance - yes, your boss is busy on numerous jobs and responsibilities, but you are one of those responsibilities. Part of his role is to guide and assist you - hopefully, you will learn as you go, and you will be able to rely on him less in the future. That is why good organisations take on entry and junior level staff - to train them up (bad organisations take them on as cheap labour).
Even experienced senior staff need guidance from time to time - and at the end of the day, it is infinitely better for your boss to spend 5 minutes of his time pointing his staff in the right direction than for his staff to spend hours floundering under the guise of "research".
From what I can see in your post - I think you're getting the balance about right. You seem to be doing research on your own first, and then asking questions. Just don't spend too long "researching". |
27,911 | I'm very new to the stackoverflow community, so I apologize if this is a duplicate or inappropriate question (I tried to search for answers beforehand but couldn't find them).
I noticed that, on stackoverflow.com, I have 4 up votes on one question and 1 up vote on another, but my reputation is only 43. Is this because I have sustained some kind of penalty I am not aware of? Or does the reputation just take time to calculate sometimes?
<https://stackoverflow.com/users/130427/credford>
---
### Update
So it looks like the fact that I edited the Trace Table question more than 6 times caused it to become CW, negating any reputation I might receive on up-votes to it. I'll be sure not to do this in the future! | 2009/10/30 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/27911",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/137972/"
] | The one question became [Community Wiki](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/11740/what-are-community-wiki-posts-on-stack-overflow) after the last edit, so you no longer get rep for up-votes on it. | Your question [Trace Table for Python Programs](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1645028/trace-table-for-python-programs) became [Community Wiki](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/11740/what-are-community-wiki-posts-on-stack-overflow), so it could be that you gained 1 upvote after that point. And CW does not award reputation. |
23,727 | Will we be able to see our galaxy if we travel far enough? When we leave earth far enough, we'll be able to see Earth from distant, is it same with the galaxy? if we travel far enough, will we see the shape of our galaxy with naked eye?
Do we have to travel really far to see our galaxy like a dot? or just far enough to realize the size and shape of our galaxy? | 2017/11/28 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/23727",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/19904/"
] | In theory, yes; in practice probably not ...
i) It's perhaps helpful to take the Andromeda galaxy as a first working example. It is somewhat bigger than our own Milky Way galaxy but not so big as to be a problem.
When we look at Andromeda, it appears to occupies an area about 3 degrees by 1 degree. By comparison, the Moon appear about 0.5 degree across. Andromeda is a good target to see, a little faint but it is just about visible with the naked eye on a good night.
Andromeda is about 2.5 million light years away so, even travelling at the speed of light, it would take 2.5 million years to get far away enough from the Milky Way so we could look back and see our galaxy like we see Andromeda today.
*( In Star Trek, the writers seemed broadly to limit themselves to adventures within our galaxy for the same reason: within the realms of sci-fi, perhaps they could justify getting around the Milky Way within a reasonable period of time - not so to travel between the galaxies )*
ii) To reduce the apparent size of our galaxy to a dot would require travelling at least 10x further or probably more - depending on how you are observing. 50 million light years, anyone? | Yes you can but it depends partly on the direction you travel relative to the galactic plane and the strength of your telescope. As you might guess, if we moved away along the galactic plane from our current position, we may see our galaxy looking like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FSBrZ.jpg)
It would be very hard to actually discern the shape from this view. If you move from the present location perpendicular to the galactic plane, you may, after many millions of light years, get a view closer to this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hEZ7e.jpg)
Much easier to tell the shape of a galaxy. |
23,727 | Will we be able to see our galaxy if we travel far enough? When we leave earth far enough, we'll be able to see Earth from distant, is it same with the galaxy? if we travel far enough, will we see the shape of our galaxy with naked eye?
Do we have to travel really far to see our galaxy like a dot? or just far enough to realize the size and shape of our galaxy? | 2017/11/28 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/23727",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/19904/"
] | In theory, yes; in practice probably not ...
i) It's perhaps helpful to take the Andromeda galaxy as a first working example. It is somewhat bigger than our own Milky Way galaxy but not so big as to be a problem.
When we look at Andromeda, it appears to occupies an area about 3 degrees by 1 degree. By comparison, the Moon appear about 0.5 degree across. Andromeda is a good target to see, a little faint but it is just about visible with the naked eye on a good night.
Andromeda is about 2.5 million light years away so, even travelling at the speed of light, it would take 2.5 million years to get far away enough from the Milky Way so we could look back and see our galaxy like we see Andromeda today.
*( In Star Trek, the writers seemed broadly to limit themselves to adventures within our galaxy for the same reason: within the realms of sci-fi, perhaps they could justify getting around the Milky Way within a reasonable period of time - not so to travel between the galaxies )*
ii) To reduce the apparent size of our galaxy to a dot would require travelling at least 10x further or probably more - depending on how you are observing. 50 million light years, anyone? | Theoretically it is completely feasible. In practice...just don't. In order to get there in a few thousand years, you would have to travel well beyond the speed of light (which is impossible if you didn't know). Once you got to a point where the entire galacy was within your vision, the entire galaxy would look distorted, since our galaxy is 100,000 light years accross, the light from the edges of the Galaxy would be thousands of years old, and would not match up with how the spiral should appear. If you were able to look at the earth through the most powerful telescope ever created, you would see things as they were well before you left (that is assuming you did travel faster than the speed if light to get to the point where you currently are). |
23,727 | Will we be able to see our galaxy if we travel far enough? When we leave earth far enough, we'll be able to see Earth from distant, is it same with the galaxy? if we travel far enough, will we see the shape of our galaxy with naked eye?
Do we have to travel really far to see our galaxy like a dot? or just far enough to realize the size and shape of our galaxy? | 2017/11/28 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/23727",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/19904/"
] | Yes you can but it depends partly on the direction you travel relative to the galactic plane and the strength of your telescope. As you might guess, if we moved away along the galactic plane from our current position, we may see our galaxy looking like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FSBrZ.jpg)
It would be very hard to actually discern the shape from this view. If you move from the present location perpendicular to the galactic plane, you may, after many millions of light years, get a view closer to this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hEZ7e.jpg)
Much easier to tell the shape of a galaxy. | Theoretically it is completely feasible. In practice...just don't. In order to get there in a few thousand years, you would have to travel well beyond the speed of light (which is impossible if you didn't know). Once you got to a point where the entire galacy was within your vision, the entire galaxy would look distorted, since our galaxy is 100,000 light years accross, the light from the edges of the Galaxy would be thousands of years old, and would not match up with how the spiral should appear. If you were able to look at the earth through the most powerful telescope ever created, you would see things as they were well before you left (that is assuming you did travel faster than the speed if light to get to the point where you currently are). |
1,645,663 | Eventually, I'm creating a website on three languages: english, russian and chinese. I hope that if I use UTF-8 in application and database, there won't be any problems with input-output (will there?)
But the most frightening part of it is a search. It should be cool enough. It should be full-text, it should index, etc. I hope it will understand morfology, use stemming, etc.
First, I've looked at Zend\_Search\_Lucene, but as I realised from <http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF/component/10021> it has problems with Chinese. :(
Now I'm thinking about Sphinx. It supports both English and Russian stemming. I'm not sure how good is it with Chinese and I have no idea how hard will it be for me to add support for it. <http://www.sphinxsearch.com/forum/view.html?id=1554> is a silver lining but, as not experienced Sphinx user, I don't think I understand what is said there.
---
So,
does anyone have any experience in such 'language-agnostic' search and can share it with me, please?
and can you give me something to test the search. As a native Russian speaker with some basic knowledge of English I can test both Russian and English searches by myself, but I don't even know about which parts of this Chinese *pics* are words. Please, give me some Chinese strings to put them into index and some queries with expected results! | 2009/10/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1645663",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/145357/"
] | Ideographic characters in languages such as Chinese or Japanese require two terminal character positions, so **you *will* have problems with UTF8 and you should use UTF16 instead**.
Apart from that, any search engine supporting UTF16 and your requirements (e.g. stemming) should work fine - that is, if you like Sphinx, go for it! | From Xapian docs :
Xapian uses the Snowball Stemming Algorithms. At present, these support Danish, Dutch, English, Finnish, French, German, Hungarian, Italian, Norwegian, Portuguese, Romanian, Russian, Spanish, Swedish, and Turkish. There are also implementations of Lovins' English stemmer, Porter's original English stemmer, the Kraaij-Pohlmann Dutch stemmer, and a variation of the German stemmer which normalises umlauts.
or some of the world's languages, Chinese for example, the concept of stemming is not applicable, but it is certainly meaningful for the many languages of the Indo-European group.
<http://xapian.org/docs/stemming.html> |
1,645,663 | Eventually, I'm creating a website on three languages: english, russian and chinese. I hope that if I use UTF-8 in application and database, there won't be any problems with input-output (will there?)
But the most frightening part of it is a search. It should be cool enough. It should be full-text, it should index, etc. I hope it will understand morfology, use stemming, etc.
First, I've looked at Zend\_Search\_Lucene, but as I realised from <http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF/component/10021> it has problems with Chinese. :(
Now I'm thinking about Sphinx. It supports both English and Russian stemming. I'm not sure how good is it with Chinese and I have no idea how hard will it be for me to add support for it. <http://www.sphinxsearch.com/forum/view.html?id=1554> is a silver lining but, as not experienced Sphinx user, I don't think I understand what is said there.
---
So,
does anyone have any experience in such 'language-agnostic' search and can share it with me, please?
and can you give me something to test the search. As a native Russian speaker with some basic knowledge of English I can test both Russian and English searches by myself, but I don't even know about which parts of this Chinese *pics* are words. Please, give me some Chinese strings to put them into index and some queries with expected results! | 2009/10/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1645663",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/145357/"
] | Ideographic characters in languages such as Chinese or Japanese require two terminal character positions, so **you *will* have problems with UTF8 and you should use UTF16 instead**.
Apart from that, any search engine supporting UTF16 and your requirements (e.g. stemming) should work fine - that is, if you like Sphinx, go for it! | Isn't Google User Search enough for your needs? What exactly don't you like in it? |
1,645,663 | Eventually, I'm creating a website on three languages: english, russian and chinese. I hope that if I use UTF-8 in application and database, there won't be any problems with input-output (will there?)
But the most frightening part of it is a search. It should be cool enough. It should be full-text, it should index, etc. I hope it will understand morfology, use stemming, etc.
First, I've looked at Zend\_Search\_Lucene, but as I realised from <http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF/component/10021> it has problems with Chinese. :(
Now I'm thinking about Sphinx. It supports both English and Russian stemming. I'm not sure how good is it with Chinese and I have no idea how hard will it be for me to add support for it. <http://www.sphinxsearch.com/forum/view.html?id=1554> is a silver lining but, as not experienced Sphinx user, I don't think I understand what is said there.
---
So,
does anyone have any experience in such 'language-agnostic' search and can share it with me, please?
and can you give me something to test the search. As a native Russian speaker with some basic knowledge of English I can test both Russian and English searches by myself, but I don't even know about which parts of this Chinese *pics* are words. Please, give me some Chinese strings to put them into index and some queries with expected results! | 2009/10/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1645663",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/145357/"
] | Ideographic characters in languages such as Chinese or Japanese require two terminal character positions, so **you *will* have problems with UTF8 and you should use UTF16 instead**.
Apart from that, any search engine supporting UTF16 and your requirements (e.g. stemming) should work fine - that is, if you like Sphinx, go for it! | I am maintaining an open source project based on sphinx to provide better Chinese support. You can take a look at <http://code.google.com/p/sphinx-for-chinese/> . I don't know much about Russian, but it would be no problem if Russian words are space separated. Just leave me messages if you have any problems |
79,619 | Here's some easy points for someone:
If I issue a command like copy \* /destination in a folder containing a file that is being written to, will the partially written file be copied? Will it be ignored? Will copy throw an error?
Basically I have a script that copies files from a folder to a new location on a schedule, and there could be a case in which a new file is being written to the source folder when the script runs. I'm wondering what precautions I might need to take.
Edit: I should mention that the file will be coming in via SMB to a shared folder. | 2009/10/29 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/79619",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2189/"
] | Sounds to me like this is a web server issue - you're probably using name-based virtual hosts, but only have a server name directive for the main domain.
Assuming you're using Apache, you probably just have a "ServerName 1.com" directive. You'll also need to add "ServerAlias 2.com" and "ServerAlias 3.com" directives. | Your question is a little confusing but it sounds to me like you need to set up host headers on your web site to match the CNAME records you've created. |
35,626 | **I plan to use my predictions as ground truth to continue training my model. These predictions are of course reviewed during this process. Is there an argument against that (reinforcement of slight mistakes/overfitting etc.)?**
---
Here my specific use case described:
I am using detectron's faster R-CNN implementation to train a (pretrained) model to find defects of a machine part in images.
The goal is to find bounding boxes around these defects and to label them.
A colleague labeled some of the images (1500 images, making up 20% of the whole set) and I used those to train my model. Then I had the model predict defects on all 7500 images. My colleague asked me if he can review the predictions (and adjust/add if necessary) so he doesn't have to label the remaining images from scratch, and then I would like to continue the training with all the images. | 2022/05/23 | [
"https://ai.stackexchange.com/questions/35626",
"https://ai.stackexchange.com",
"https://ai.stackexchange.com/users/26437/"
] | Using the (unchecked) predictions of the model as training data is an approach known as "pseudo-labeling". It can help in certain situations, depending on the underlying structure of your dataset, but you have to be a bit careful about how you use it (e.g. only using high-confidence predictions as your pseudo-labels) and you always want to keep your pseudo-labels separate from your true labels, so you can potentially update them as your model changes.
---
But it sounds like you're not using the raw predictions as labels, but rather using the predictions of the models as a pointer to (currently unlabeled) examples which you then will manually label.
"Training on errors" is recognized mode of augmenting your training dataset, especially for "on-line" style systems where you're getting a continuous stream of new examples. The concept is to identify those examples which are predicted either inaccurately or with low confidence, identify the accurate labels for these instances, and then include them with the rest of the training set to help improve the predictions for similar sorts of examples in the future.
In contrast to pseudo-labeling, you're looking to correct the *low* confidence examples or the incorrectly predicted. Adding in high-confidence examples doesn't gain you much, as your current training set is already sufficient to correctly predict these. And with an on-line model where you're continually getting new examples, adding the well-predicted examples to your training set does potentially cause issues with subclass imbalance issues, as "normal" examples are expected to swamp out the rare outliers.
---
But it sounds like you have a fixed-size training set. In that case, the standard recommendation for the best course of action of dealing with unlabeled data applies: "pay someone to label it for you". What you're looking for is *accurate* labeling. How you get that is left somewhat nebulous, so long as the labeling is accurate. Using model results as a starting point is perfectly valid, assuming that whoever is doing the checking/correction is willing to actually do all the corrections (to the same quality level as a "from scratch" prediction) and won't wave through the model predictions as "ehh, good enough".
In addition to label accuracy, another issue may be selection bias (that is, the model may have certain subsets of examples which it performs worse/better on, and picking which examples to include in labeling on that basis may bias future training). But if you have a pre-determined, fixed-size training set this is not really an issue if you label all of them (or a model-independent random subset). The selection bias comes not from the initial model predictions/selection, but instead the (model-independent) selection of the examples to be labeled. | The answer is: It depends.
What you describe is a strategy often used to save time and costs for labelling data. It is important that the data you have already labelled (the 20%) is representative of the rest of data (the 80%). At the very least, you must have all classes in those 20%.
It is also important that you select a good detection model to have reliable predictions. Faster RCNN should be a good choice.
However, whether 20% labelled data is enough is difficult to tell. It depends on your data.
Your strategy itself is common. I'd just try whether 20% labelled data is enough. You can also fine-tune your faster RCNN model in between, say after 40% of the data is labelled to improve predictions further. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | If you really go heavy, one of the most import things to do in a squat or dead lift is to keep your weight on your heels.
Running shoes tend to have a thick sole and thin toe which in effect pitches you forward.
Bare feet keep you the most connected to the ground, and gives you the best base to control your position. | Flat, non-compressible soles work best for weight-lifting. Chuck Taylors are better than any running shoe. If that isn't trendy enough for you, something like the Vibram FiveFingers or other "free" running shoe will work.
As for what the other people in the gym are doing, that's a terrible gauge for proper behavior. It'd be like learning to drive by watching cab drivers. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | If you really go heavy, one of the most import things to do in a squat or dead lift is to keep your weight on your heels.
Running shoes tend to have a thick sole and thin toe which in effect pitches you forward.
Bare feet keep you the most connected to the ground, and gives you the best base to control your position. | **Short answer**: barefoot is better than running shoes.
**Long Answer**:
Running shoes are designed for providing a cushion to your feet. In essence, they absorb the impact of your foot hitting the ground by compressing the sole and springing back. This is not the behavior you want when you have more than a couple hundred pounds on your back. With that much weight, the soles will start to compress and as you push with your feet you lose stability. That's really bad.
I recommend reading this article by Dr. Lon Kilgore on [weightlifting shoes 101](http://www.exrx.net/WeightTraining/WeightliftingShoes.html).
Now to answer your question:
* You don't have to have weightlifting shoes, but you won't be able to lift as much with running shoes
* Even a pair of dress shoes are better than running shoes (I had one of my best lifting sessions in these)
* Even kicking the shoes off is better than lifting in running shoes.
There are people who believe that the lift in the heel on most weightlifting shoes helps, even with the squat and deadlift. Others say it gets in the way. The most important thing is a stable base. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | If you really go heavy, one of the most import things to do in a squat or dead lift is to keep your weight on your heels.
Running shoes tend to have a thick sole and thin toe which in effect pitches you forward.
Bare feet keep you the most connected to the ground, and gives you the best base to control your position. | If I may, I'd like to supplement the answers by @rerun and @Berin.
They both speak to the same concept, that running shoes might not provide you the most stable platform (since they can be squishy). I am not arguing that point, although I feel it's a generalization and should be treated as such - but it's a generalization that seems reasonable.
So, let's assume the shoes do make you more unstable.
This "instability" isn't necessarily a bad thing. All it means is that you will need to invoke some extra muscle power to counteract the effect. Your muscles are already working to "stabilize" you, but now they have to work a bit harder because you've chosen to increase the challenge to your stability. You could add even more instability by doing a squat on a say, a wobble board.
If you are aware of and **prepare** for that effect - perhaps by lowering the weight significantly until you are rock-solid in your lift - that instability may be something you want to add to your lift because it can give you a new challenge (resistance training is all about progression, right?).
It depends on what you are trying to achieve.
If your goal doesn't involve controlling the instability the shoes might be providing, then remove the instability. But if your goal is simply to lift as much weight as you can lift, without regard to the rest of your body, then the instability is an extra variable you don't need.
Just like guns don't kill people, shoes don't harm bodies by themselves, but how a person uses them in a given situation can certainly cause unexpected and unwanted results. This is true for ANY piece of gear or equipment.
You need to think about what you are trying to accomplish, and adapt your squat accordingly.
One more comment related to the shoes tilting you forward that @rerun mentioned...
The range of motion in a squat varies depending on the person doing the squat. My range of motion isn't necessarily the same as your range of motion. The bones in your body have a lot do to with your range of motion and at what point your hips start to rotate as you descend (which means you've exceeded your range of motion).
One way to counteract this - for people with a very short tibia compared to the length of their trunk and femur - is to put a small wedge under the heels. This has as similar effect that @rerun is describing, but it's really about increasing your range of motion during the squat artificially. Someone who isn't built this way physically might find that this causes more problems than it corrects.
I am certainly not recommending you do this, but I do point out that there are times when extra room under the heels can be beneficial. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | If you really go heavy, one of the most import things to do in a squat or dead lift is to keep your weight on your heels.
Running shoes tend to have a thick sole and thin toe which in effect pitches you forward.
Bare feet keep you the most connected to the ground, and gives you the best base to control your position. | Kicking off the running shoes would be a viable alternative, but I'd actually go one step further. Don't wear running shoes for the cardio portion either. Better proprioception is better proprioception. Just like the elevated heel affects your lifting technique, it also affects your running technique, and once again, not in a good way. A thick heel encourages heel striking while running. Technically you can go for a forefoot or midfoot strike with normal running shoes, but it's easier with zero drop shoes (shoes without a difference in sole thickness at the front and rear). Also, running with thin soled shoes encourages a change in running technique with less impact that is overall much better for your joints. Use VFFs for your cardio and your lifting, you have no need to change shoes and you get benefits for both. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Flat, non-compressible soles work best for weight-lifting. Chuck Taylors are better than any running shoe. If that isn't trendy enough for you, something like the Vibram FiveFingers or other "free" running shoe will work.
As for what the other people in the gym are doing, that's a terrible gauge for proper behavior. It'd be like learning to drive by watching cab drivers. | If I may, I'd like to supplement the answers by @rerun and @Berin.
They both speak to the same concept, that running shoes might not provide you the most stable platform (since they can be squishy). I am not arguing that point, although I feel it's a generalization and should be treated as such - but it's a generalization that seems reasonable.
So, let's assume the shoes do make you more unstable.
This "instability" isn't necessarily a bad thing. All it means is that you will need to invoke some extra muscle power to counteract the effect. Your muscles are already working to "stabilize" you, but now they have to work a bit harder because you've chosen to increase the challenge to your stability. You could add even more instability by doing a squat on a say, a wobble board.
If you are aware of and **prepare** for that effect - perhaps by lowering the weight significantly until you are rock-solid in your lift - that instability may be something you want to add to your lift because it can give you a new challenge (resistance training is all about progression, right?).
It depends on what you are trying to achieve.
If your goal doesn't involve controlling the instability the shoes might be providing, then remove the instability. But if your goal is simply to lift as much weight as you can lift, without regard to the rest of your body, then the instability is an extra variable you don't need.
Just like guns don't kill people, shoes don't harm bodies by themselves, but how a person uses them in a given situation can certainly cause unexpected and unwanted results. This is true for ANY piece of gear or equipment.
You need to think about what you are trying to accomplish, and adapt your squat accordingly.
One more comment related to the shoes tilting you forward that @rerun mentioned...
The range of motion in a squat varies depending on the person doing the squat. My range of motion isn't necessarily the same as your range of motion. The bones in your body have a lot do to with your range of motion and at what point your hips start to rotate as you descend (which means you've exceeded your range of motion).
One way to counteract this - for people with a very short tibia compared to the length of their trunk and femur - is to put a small wedge under the heels. This has as similar effect that @rerun is describing, but it's really about increasing your range of motion during the squat artificially. Someone who isn't built this way physically might find that this causes more problems than it corrects.
I am certainly not recommending you do this, but I do point out that there are times when extra room under the heels can be beneficial. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Flat, non-compressible soles work best for weight-lifting. Chuck Taylors are better than any running shoe. If that isn't trendy enough for you, something like the Vibram FiveFingers or other "free" running shoe will work.
As for what the other people in the gym are doing, that's a terrible gauge for proper behavior. It'd be like learning to drive by watching cab drivers. | Kicking off the running shoes would be a viable alternative, but I'd actually go one step further. Don't wear running shoes for the cardio portion either. Better proprioception is better proprioception. Just like the elevated heel affects your lifting technique, it also affects your running technique, and once again, not in a good way. A thick heel encourages heel striking while running. Technically you can go for a forefoot or midfoot strike with normal running shoes, but it's easier with zero drop shoes (shoes without a difference in sole thickness at the front and rear). Also, running with thin soled shoes encourages a change in running technique with less impact that is overall much better for your joints. Use VFFs for your cardio and your lifting, you have no need to change shoes and you get benefits for both. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **Short answer**: barefoot is better than running shoes.
**Long Answer**:
Running shoes are designed for providing a cushion to your feet. In essence, they absorb the impact of your foot hitting the ground by compressing the sole and springing back. This is not the behavior you want when you have more than a couple hundred pounds on your back. With that much weight, the soles will start to compress and as you push with your feet you lose stability. That's really bad.
I recommend reading this article by Dr. Lon Kilgore on [weightlifting shoes 101](http://www.exrx.net/WeightTraining/WeightliftingShoes.html).
Now to answer your question:
* You don't have to have weightlifting shoes, but you won't be able to lift as much with running shoes
* Even a pair of dress shoes are better than running shoes (I had one of my best lifting sessions in these)
* Even kicking the shoes off is better than lifting in running shoes.
There are people who believe that the lift in the heel on most weightlifting shoes helps, even with the squat and deadlift. Others say it gets in the way. The most important thing is a stable base. | If I may, I'd like to supplement the answers by @rerun and @Berin.
They both speak to the same concept, that running shoes might not provide you the most stable platform (since they can be squishy). I am not arguing that point, although I feel it's a generalization and should be treated as such - but it's a generalization that seems reasonable.
So, let's assume the shoes do make you more unstable.
This "instability" isn't necessarily a bad thing. All it means is that you will need to invoke some extra muscle power to counteract the effect. Your muscles are already working to "stabilize" you, but now they have to work a bit harder because you've chosen to increase the challenge to your stability. You could add even more instability by doing a squat on a say, a wobble board.
If you are aware of and **prepare** for that effect - perhaps by lowering the weight significantly until you are rock-solid in your lift - that instability may be something you want to add to your lift because it can give you a new challenge (resistance training is all about progression, right?).
It depends on what you are trying to achieve.
If your goal doesn't involve controlling the instability the shoes might be providing, then remove the instability. But if your goal is simply to lift as much weight as you can lift, without regard to the rest of your body, then the instability is an extra variable you don't need.
Just like guns don't kill people, shoes don't harm bodies by themselves, but how a person uses them in a given situation can certainly cause unexpected and unwanted results. This is true for ANY piece of gear or equipment.
You need to think about what you are trying to accomplish, and adapt your squat accordingly.
One more comment related to the shoes tilting you forward that @rerun mentioned...
The range of motion in a squat varies depending on the person doing the squat. My range of motion isn't necessarily the same as your range of motion. The bones in your body have a lot do to with your range of motion and at what point your hips start to rotate as you descend (which means you've exceeded your range of motion).
One way to counteract this - for people with a very short tibia compared to the length of their trunk and femur - is to put a small wedge under the heels. This has as similar effect that @rerun is describing, but it's really about increasing your range of motion during the squat artificially. Someone who isn't built this way physically might find that this causes more problems than it corrects.
I am certainly not recommending you do this, but I do point out that there are times when extra room under the heels can be beneficial. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **Short answer**: barefoot is better than running shoes.
**Long Answer**:
Running shoes are designed for providing a cushion to your feet. In essence, they absorb the impact of your foot hitting the ground by compressing the sole and springing back. This is not the behavior you want when you have more than a couple hundred pounds on your back. With that much weight, the soles will start to compress and as you push with your feet you lose stability. That's really bad.
I recommend reading this article by Dr. Lon Kilgore on [weightlifting shoes 101](http://www.exrx.net/WeightTraining/WeightliftingShoes.html).
Now to answer your question:
* You don't have to have weightlifting shoes, but you won't be able to lift as much with running shoes
* Even a pair of dress shoes are better than running shoes (I had one of my best lifting sessions in these)
* Even kicking the shoes off is better than lifting in running shoes.
There are people who believe that the lift in the heel on most weightlifting shoes helps, even with the squat and deadlift. Others say it gets in the way. The most important thing is a stable base. | Kicking off the running shoes would be a viable alternative, but I'd actually go one step further. Don't wear running shoes for the cardio portion either. Better proprioception is better proprioception. Just like the elevated heel affects your lifting technique, it also affects your running technique, and once again, not in a good way. A thick heel encourages heel striking while running. Technically you can go for a forefoot or midfoot strike with normal running shoes, but it's easier with zero drop shoes (shoes without a difference in sole thickness at the front and rear). Also, running with thin soled shoes encourages a change in running technique with less impact that is overall much better for your joints. Use VFFs for your cardio and your lifting, you have no need to change shoes and you get benefits for both. |
3,000 | This [answer](https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2975/dangerous-to-use-barbell-squat-without-padding/2979#2979) mentions that you shouldn't do squat exercises in running shoes. Why is that?
I don't feel like performing squats and dead lifts with running shoes are creating any issues for me, but it's also less than half a year ago since I added weightlifting to my gym routine. I don't remember ever seeing other people at the gym switch footwear between weight lift and cardio routines, but maybe I didn't pay notice.
Would kicking off the running shoes be a viable alternative, or given the choice between that and running shoes, would keeping the running shoes on be better? | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3000",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Kicking off the running shoes would be a viable alternative, but I'd actually go one step further. Don't wear running shoes for the cardio portion either. Better proprioception is better proprioception. Just like the elevated heel affects your lifting technique, it also affects your running technique, and once again, not in a good way. A thick heel encourages heel striking while running. Technically you can go for a forefoot or midfoot strike with normal running shoes, but it's easier with zero drop shoes (shoes without a difference in sole thickness at the front and rear). Also, running with thin soled shoes encourages a change in running technique with less impact that is overall much better for your joints. Use VFFs for your cardio and your lifting, you have no need to change shoes and you get benefits for both. | If I may, I'd like to supplement the answers by @rerun and @Berin.
They both speak to the same concept, that running shoes might not provide you the most stable platform (since they can be squishy). I am not arguing that point, although I feel it's a generalization and should be treated as such - but it's a generalization that seems reasonable.
So, let's assume the shoes do make you more unstable.
This "instability" isn't necessarily a bad thing. All it means is that you will need to invoke some extra muscle power to counteract the effect. Your muscles are already working to "stabilize" you, but now they have to work a bit harder because you've chosen to increase the challenge to your stability. You could add even more instability by doing a squat on a say, a wobble board.
If you are aware of and **prepare** for that effect - perhaps by lowering the weight significantly until you are rock-solid in your lift - that instability may be something you want to add to your lift because it can give you a new challenge (resistance training is all about progression, right?).
It depends on what you are trying to achieve.
If your goal doesn't involve controlling the instability the shoes might be providing, then remove the instability. But if your goal is simply to lift as much weight as you can lift, without regard to the rest of your body, then the instability is an extra variable you don't need.
Just like guns don't kill people, shoes don't harm bodies by themselves, but how a person uses them in a given situation can certainly cause unexpected and unwanted results. This is true for ANY piece of gear or equipment.
You need to think about what you are trying to accomplish, and adapt your squat accordingly.
One more comment related to the shoes tilting you forward that @rerun mentioned...
The range of motion in a squat varies depending on the person doing the squat. My range of motion isn't necessarily the same as your range of motion. The bones in your body have a lot do to with your range of motion and at what point your hips start to rotate as you descend (which means you've exceeded your range of motion).
One way to counteract this - for people with a very short tibia compared to the length of their trunk and femur - is to put a small wedge under the heels. This has as similar effect that @rerun is describing, but it's really about increasing your range of motion during the squat artificially. Someone who isn't built this way physically might find that this causes more problems than it corrects.
I am certainly not recommending you do this, but I do point out that there are times when extra room under the heels can be beneficial. |
58,727 | I am attempting a project with USB OTG functionality. I've read quite a number of documents already but there is some contradicting information out there, so I want to find out if anyone can shed some light on a couple of things.
First some background on what I aim to achieve. I want to design a low cost device that needs some form of diagnostics interface. At the moment the idea is to have a microAB USB port which can be used to either connect to a PC, or to a custom bluetooth module(powered by the device) to connect to a smartphone for instance, the device acting as the OTG host in the latter case.
My questions are:
Is this the right type of application for USB OTG?
What is the maximum amount of current a OTG host may supply, and/or a OTG peripheral may consume? I've read a couple of places that this is only 8mA, but the USB OTG supplement to the USB2.0 spec states 8mA to 5000mA. I am more inclined to believe this spec, but I just want to make sure I am not misunderstanding something.
Lastly, can any USB pheripheral only device be connected to a OTG host provided that the driver is available, or do I need a OTG specific device. | 2013/02/21 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/58727",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/19272/"
] | The situation you're describing is not true OTG. True OTG is when you connect two OTG devices together and they negotiate which one becomes the host. But OTG controllers do allow switching between host and device modes at run-time, so you're on the right track. An OTG host will work normally with non-OTG devices.
8mA is the minimum current that an OTG host must support on VBus. I don't see 5000 mA in the OTG spec tables. Are you sure you're not looking at battery charging? Regardless, you should check the specs for the Bluetooth device to see what current it needs, then design to meet that. | You don't actually describe a usb OTG situation. The first option, connecting to a PC would be normal usb slave. The second option, using bluetooth to connect to a smartphone doesn't include usb in any way.
And yes, USB OTG allows for any peripheral to act as a usb slave without change, as long as the USB OTG Host knows what to do with it. This is why 12 year old (Like 32mb) usb flash drives still work on OTG Hosts. That's the point of OTG Hosts, they act as a regular host when needed, the only limitation is the manufacturer's support for different devices. |
31,870 | Trying to work out how speakers which are silent from the rear work -- I.e. they have no bass spill out the back. I have recalled someone saying something about some clever technology, but I'm unable to find it. | 2014/12/03 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/31870",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/11155/"
] | Since you are interested in composing and presumably not recording, one option is to use a simple 1/8" to dual 1/4" TS adapter cable to connect to your monitor speakers ([Example](http://www.sweetwater.com/store/detail/IPMB2Q2?adpos=1o1&creative=54989267161&device=c&matchtype=&network=g&gclid=CjwKEAiA4_WjBRCNgf7A_KeE9jwSJADtegYdSPt579Mn4Y5kCOoAam38a4yIrXDl4sxEo4WTc7kcXRoCV-Dw_wcB), Note: Your monitors will accept unbalanced TS connectors as well - [User manual (Input Connections)](http://www.alesis.de/sites/default/files/downloads/m1active_mkii___reference_manual.pdf): "A conventional 1/4” patch cord mono TS-type plug will also work for unbalanced sources which automatically ground the minus
input.").
Recent Macbooks sport 1/8" TRRS connectors in place of the usual Headphone-Out & Line-in jacks, so you can effectively use this to connect a very basic rig with a few simple adapters. If you use [something like this](http://www.monoprice.com/Product?c_id=115&cp_id=11509&cs_id=1150908&p_id=601030&seq=1&format=2) then you can even have a mic input
Otherwise: USB 2.0 audio interfaces have come a long way (unfortunately I'm not familiar with anything using USB 3.0 or Thunderbolt yet). Focusrite & M-Audio make some of the best simple yet powerful mid-range priced interfaces (In my experience), and they are probably on display at your local Guitar Center (or possibly a Best Buy with a Music Section).
I recommend going and trying them out in person and deciding on what works in your price range with a control panel software that you feel comfortable with.
For more specific recommendation, let us know what you would like to do. | I've been very happy with the Stienberg UR28M. I love having a big volume knob as well as separate volume knobs for 2 sets of headphones, and it's nice to have dedicated mute, dim and mono buttons.
It doesn't have a ton of inputs/outputs, but I never record more than a couple of live sources at once so I don't miss them.
It's got balanced outputs for your speakers. I use a pair of powered KRK monitors and it works very well. |
24,067 | I currently have an HTC Desire handset. I am just about to upgrade to a new HTC handset and would like to be able to pass this phone on to my wife.
What’s the best way of changing the account setup n the phone to reflect the new ownership. I intend on using my existing Google account on the new handset to transfer my own settings over.
I would like to keep using the same Google Play account to retain the installed apps, but I would like my wifes telephone contacts to be kept separate and sync independently to my own as well as preventing Gmail emails on my address from pinging up this old handset.
Is this doable?
My current plan is to create her a Gmail account. On the existing Gmail account within the phone turn off syncing of Contacts, Calendar and Gmail. Add the new Google account and turn on syncing of the same.
This /sounds/ like it will work ok, but never having done this before I’m not sure how things will work in practice. | 2012/06/11 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/24067",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/15718/"
] | Yes, adding a second account and disabling sync on the original one will work as you are expecting. You'll retain the ability to install and use apps you purchase with the original account, while having the sync enabled only on your wife's account will ensure the data from your own account is not present on her phone. | I'd do a factory reset, and then add both your account, and your wife's. This isn't much different than Chahk's answer, but might be a tad safer -- who knows what weird customizations you might have made to your phone that will surprise your wife? |
164,095 | In 5th Edition, the DMG says in the Divine Rank sidebar that:
>
> Some gods are worshiped on multiple worlds and have a different rank on each world, depending on their influence there.
>
>
>
The greater deities are described as beyond mortal understanding and that they have no physical manifestation (though can make an avatar), whereas lesser gods are physically embodied, can be encountered, and can be killed.
So if a God has a greater deity rank in one world in the multiverse, and lesser in another, what are the implications of this? I have the following questions:
* Is that god embodied and can be encountered?
* Are these ranks only defined in the actual worlds, in the outer planes these ranks don’t matter/exist?
* Are there multiple different entities of the same god?
* In the multiverse is the Lolth worshiped in Greyhawk settings, the same being as the Forgotten Realms worshiped Lolth?
* If Tiamat as a lesser goddess is slain in the Forgotten Realms, in another world where she is worshiped is she still able to hear/grant prayers and spells? What if she has a greater deity rank on another world?
Looking for as close to possible to “official” answers, or anything that conforms to the official 5E cosmology. | 2020/02/01 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/164095",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/61761/"
] | ### Short summary: Multispheric powers can be at different levels of power in multiple spheres, with corresponding consequences.
Below you will find a long answer, mainly because you are asking multiple connected questions in one go. The short summary is that deities can be worshipped in multiple spheres, and depending on the number of worshippers and the nature of those spheres, they might have different levels of power and understanding. Belief is the core point here, if a large portion of inhabitants of Toril believe that Mystra knows everything regarding magic, she can be (almost) omniscient on Toril. While on, say Krynn, magic has nothing to do with her. If she were to attempt spreading to other spheres, she will have to start at the bottom of the power ladder.
---
### Long answer: Official discussions of the topic from relevant 2e sources
The 5e view of deities is quite similar to that of 2e, particularly the one presented in the *Planescape* (PS) setting, which was essentially an over-setting bridging and collecting together every D&D world. The accessory *On Hallowed Ground* is *the* source on powers and pantheons in PS, and you can see the similarity of the text in the following paragraph:
>
> Greater powers are beyond unfathomable and ineffable; their motives transcend all mortal ken.
>
>
>
Your question is about multi-sphere powers, ie. those who are worshipped in multiple crystal spheres (like Krynnspace, Realmspace, etc.):
>
> Some deities manifest themselves in several pantheons. Chant is they do it because they're seeking more power for themselves, or because the rest of their pantheon is dying and they want to make sure they survive the passing of their fellows. In a worst-case scenario, it's a last-ditch attempt to stay relevant in a changing multiverse.
>
>
>
By the way, Toril is singled out as a particularly nice destination for this. (On a meta-game level, it would make sense: it is the most famous campaign setting of TSR/Wizards, so if I were a power, I would like to be in FR. :-))
>
> Interestingly, many gods who give themselves over to two pantheons seek worshippers on the prime-material world of Toril (where they take on different aspects). But they expand for different reasons. ... Loviatar and Miellikki of the Finns saw their brethren losing interest in life, and decided they were too young to give up so easily.
>
>
>
Please note that a power does not need to be at the same rank of power in multiple spheres. They don't even need to be the exact same aspect or carry the same portfolio, or even be the same alignment, as long as the main philosophy is consistent. For example, Oghma The Binder, is a NG intermediate power in the Celtic pantheon, while he is a N greater power on Toril.
Having mentioned Toril, *the* 2e source on the Faerûnian pantheon is *Faiths and Avatars*, which also has a section with a title directly addressing your question: "Multispheric Powers, or Is Tiamat Dead or Not?" (page 14)
>
> Some powers of the Realms share the same names as powers generally considered to be from other spheres of existence. ... For purpose of travel to other crystal spheres and other planes, these Realms powers are the same deities as those not associated with the Realms. ... In other spheres, they are perceived differently, depending on their influence, their concerns, and the natures of those spheres. Incident that occur on one crystal sphere are not relevant to the dealings of that deity on another. ... beings who are multispheric who die in the Realms have merely involuntarily or voluntarily severed their divine connection to Realmspace. They are not dead, but they might as well be as far as the inhabitants of the Realms are concerned.
>
>
> | I don’t believe a deity can be a “greater god” in one world and anything else in another—that is, I believe that when the 5e *Dungeon Master’s Guide* refers to “greater god,” it refers to what previous editions called an “overdeity.” However, it is difficult to back this up from within 5e—as far as I am aware, nothing goes into more detail on the questions you ask in that edition.
Previous editions go into far more detail; sometimes deities even received actual statblocks (though these were usually later ret-conned as statblocks of various avatars, since of course it would be problematic to really pin down a god’s stats). In particular, more different divine ranks were recognized—in 3e, [*Deities & Demigods* defined divine rank as a number from 0 to 21+, and named tiers of them](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/divine/divineRanksAndPowers.htm#divineRanks), for example. Even just the named tiers had more granularity—3e recognizes “quasi-deity,” “demigod,” “lesser deities,” “intermediate deities,” “greater deities,” and then 21+ were described as follows:
>
> ### Rank 21+
>
>
> These entities are beyond the ken of mortals and care nothing for worshipers. They do not grant spells, do not answer prayers, and do not respond to queries. If they are known at all, it is to a handful of scholars on the Material Plane. They are called overdeities. In some pantheistic systems, the consent of an overdeity is required to become a god.
>
>
>
This matches the 5e description of “greater gods” pretty well, and it’s certainly true that overdeities—such as Ao, who sets the rules in the Forgotten Realms—are not found anywhere in the planes, and do not trouble themselves much with the scheming and meddling of the gods beneath them.
Under the same rules, “greater deities” certainly were physically incarnated within their own divine realms, could theoretically be killed if you went to those realms and defeated them there (but even a considerably-stronger god would have an extremely hard time invading and destroying a god within their own divine realm, and usually a god’s death was the result of a great deal of scheming to weaken them first).
But 5e doesn’t use those terms. There aren’t 21+ divine ranks, there aren’t “intermediate deities” or “overdeities,” there’s just three ranks, quasi, lesser, and greater.
In general, it’s often not clear how much 5e means to ret-con, and how much 5e is just simplifying its explanations in products that are not directly devoted to the nature of some particular piece of the lore. The 5e description more or less matches the previous description, just with less granularity, but it’s not necessarily certain that’s what’s going on.
So too with “greater gods.” The description seems to match that of overdeities, to be sure. The *Dungeon Master’s Guide* doesn’t name any of these greater gods, though, so it’s hard to be certain. Lolth—mentioned as a lesser god—was a greater deity in the past, but that was in 4e, which makes it difficult to consider much. Prior to that, she was an intermediate deity, a level that 5e doesn’t even recognize.
And then there is the claim that deities have different ranks in different worlds—which is certainly consistent with previous editions—but then only defines three tiers, one of which is, maybe, that of an overdeity who certainly *aren’t* found at another rank on another world. As you say, that would be a contradiction in terms, since the definition of “greater god” has them without a physical body and lesser ranks have them. So perhaps it meant only that gods could shift between lesser deity status on one world and quasi-deity status on another, but it’s strange to say that.
What makes the most sense is to take that line as referring to greater granularity in divine rank, as was found in previous editions. That “lesser deities” are, in fact, broken down into multiple, say, “sub-ranks,” and it is among these, and demigod, that a god may have different on different worlds.
As to your specific questions, then, under this understanding:
>
> So if a God has a greater deity rank in one world in the multiverse, and lesser in another, what are the implications of this?
>
>
>
Under my understanding of things, this is not actually possible. Ao is only relevant to the Forgotten Realms, where they are the overdeity. In the Forgotten Realms, Ao sets all the rules for gods and mortals alike. Outside the Forgotten Realms, they are a non-entity. In many ways, overdeities aren’t really that much like deities—it’s perhaps more helpful to think of them as something else entirely, “over” deities certainly, but not actually deities themselves.
This makes your first question moot. Onward then
>
> Are these ranks only defined in the actual worlds, in the outer planes these ranks don’t matter/exist?
>
>
>
In past editions, they certainly exist, and matter a great deal, but the rank that a deity has in the Outer Planes depends on their rank across many worlds—the greatest gods found only in one world are minor players in the Outer Planes, quite possibly less than a minor deity found on many worlds.
To be frank, though, I’m not sure *any* edition of D&D has ever really gotten into the details of how this works. The 2e Planescape setting—which dealt most directly with the multiverse—certainly described which gods were the biggest players in planar politics, but political power in the planes is not *necessarily* directly correlated with personal divine rank (especially since some non-deities are dramatically more influential than many deities).
>
> Are there multiple different entities of the same god?
>
>
>
Sometimes! Usually not, but it has happened. In particular, if a foreign deity is introduced to a world, it is not unheard of for a native deity to take on the guise and name of the foreign deity as one of their aspects, so that the faith devoted to the foreign deity actually goes to the native one. This is, as I understand it, basically a question of who notices what’s happening and takes initiative first. In a case such as this, the being worshiped under the foreign god’s name is not actually that god, and is a separate being from the foreign god.
Note that this also has happened with gods within one world. In particular, Shar, from the Forgotten Realms, has masqueraded as, and swiped the belief in, several gods; it’s something of a signature move for her. This would be the sort of scheming that weakens a god and makes it possible that another might kill them—another Shar signature move.
>
> In the multiverse is the Lolth worshiped in Greyhawk settings, the same being as the Forgotten Realms worshiped Lolth?
>
>
>
Yes, at least in prior editions, they were very much the same. Unless things have changed dramatically, it’s very unlikely that any deity is going to try to pretend to being Lolth. Even Shar would likely think twice before crossing the Demon Queen.
>
> If Tiamat as a lesser goddess is slain in the Forgotten Realms, in another world where she is worshiped is she still able to hear/grant prayers and spells?
>
>
>
“Tiamat” cannot be slain “in the Forgotten Realms.” Tiamat’s avatar, definitely, but not Tiamat herself. Gods don’t show up on the Material Plane in person, basically ever. In fact, they don’t usually leave their own divine realms much at all, and doing so—except in the cases of a few deities *of wandering* who have no fixed realm—is a good way to piss off pretty much everyone. This is what avatars are *for*. (Actually, after the “Avatar Crisis,” even sending an avatar to the Forgotten Realms is pretty frowned upon, including by Ao.)
So if you want to kill the true Tiamat, you have to go to Hell and kill her within her lair. If you do that, then yes, it’s for everyone. Her clerics will no longer be able to prepare spells (though dragons rarely bother with being actual clerics even if they’re devout).
If you want it to *stick*, though, that’s harder. Upon her death, Tiamat’s divine essence is still going to exist. The belief of her faithful is still going to exist. So long as both exist, Tiamat may well come back, death or no. Someone could claim her divine essence, whether that’s another god swooping in and taking it (see Shar), or a mortal using it for apotheosis (many examples), and that would certainly put a damper on things for Tiamat, but if the belief in *Tiamat*—not whoever took the essence—still exists, Tiamat may yet still return to reclaim her essence. This happened with the Forgotten Realms god Bane, who was killed and whose essence was claimed by his son Iyachtu Xvim. Bane’s followers begrudgingly worshiped Iyachtu Xvim, but basically all of them preferred Bane and wished they could have him again. That was enough for Bane to reclaim his essence and return from the dead (killing Iyachtu Xvim, but that wasn’t much of a concern for Bane).
The real thing that kills a god is for people to stop believing in their divinity. So long as that persists, a god can always come back. Coming back will take time, and cost them dearly, and it’s a risky proposition—because while they’re gone, their worshipers aren’t getting divine intervention in the form of miracles and divine spells, which will erode their faith, and there will always be another god ready to step up and fill in.
>
> What if she has a greater deity rank on another world?
>
>
>
Overdeities don’t really exist in any fashion that can be killed, but it’s conceivable for one to “die” if their world dies. Planescape, and even more so another 2e setting, Spelljammer, have hinted as worlds that have died. There’s even, if I remember correctly, a broken crystal sphere (without getting into too much detail, a crystal sphere is what an overdeity actually has control over). If that happens, the overdeity in question may well be dead.
---
Also, for the record, as a big fan of the original *Tome of Magic* supplement that first described vestiges, defining them as deities, quasi- or otherwise, is incredibly misleading and unhelpful, in my opinion. They are not the same as dead gods, though a dead god might well be a candidate for becoming one (e.g. Amon, Tenebrous, though the first is uncertain and the second is a *very* special case). But again, is this ret-con or oversimplification? Hard to say. |
506,529 | Intel Pentium Processor E5700 (2M Cache, 3.00 GHz, 800 MHz FSB) does not have hyper-threading but it has has 2 cores so I am assuming it has 2 threads
Now if I write a heavy number crunching program that runs 4 threads simultaneously how will this E5700 processor handle 4 threads simultaneously using its 2 cores and 2 threads,
compared to a processor like the Intel Core i3-3110M Processor (3M Cache, 2.40 GHz) with hyper-threading which has 2 cores but 4 threads?
Will the E5700 be slower and have bottlenecks than the i3 3110m with 2 cores but 4 threads with hyperthreading, or will everything be smooth sailing and fast on both processors without noticing anything different?
Also, can a program written with four or more threads run efficiently on a 2 core 2 thread processor or will there be errors or slowdowns?
#
ok thanks for answering the questions
later I visited this site and shorter score is better for processors
<http://www.cpu-world.com/benchmarks/socket_1155_multi.html>
Benchmark wPrime v1.55 (32M)
wPrime benchmark measures time taken to calculate square roots of numbers from 1 to 33554431. The program uses Newton's method for estimating functions.
CPU features that have big influence on results: CPU frequency, Floating-Point performance, the number of cores / threads.
CPU features that have small influence on results: memory speed, the size of internal caches.
Part number Shorter is better
Result
Intel® Core™ i7-3770K Processor (8M Cache, up to 3.90 GHz) 4 cores 8 threads yes HT
6.87
Intel® Core™ i7-2600k Processor (8M Cache, up to 3.80 GHz) 4 cores 8 threads yes HT
7.57
Intel® Core™ i5-2500K Processor (6M Cache, up to 3.70 GHz) 4 cores 4 threads no HT
9.8
Intel® Core™ i3-2310 Processor (3M Cache, 2.10 GHz) 2 cores 2 threads yes HT
15.37
Intel® G860 (3M Cache, 3.00 GHz) 2 cores 2 threads no HT
22.09
# | 2012/11/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/506529",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/173878/"
] | For some background knowledge on threading, CPU cores, and hyperthreading, you may want to read the question **[What are threads, and what do they do in the processor?](https://superuser.com/questions/329904/what-are-threads-and-what-do-they-do-in-the-processor)**
---
>
> Now if i write a heavy number crunching program that runs 4 threads
> simultaneously how will this E5700 processor handle 4 threads
> simultaneously using its 2 cores and 2 threads
>
>
>
The number of threads your application requires is irrelevant - I can write a program that starts 1000 threads, and they all run at the "same" time. The key here is your [operating system's scheduler](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scheduling_%28computing%29), which runs each thread on a particular CPU core for a particular unit of time (the order in which the threads are run, and on what core, depends on the scheduling algorithm).
>
> Compared to a processor like the Intel® Core™ i3-3110M Processor (3M
> Cache, 2.40 GHz) with hyperthreading which has 2 cores but 4 threads
>
>
>
It's impossible to compare the application performance with a similar processor, albeit with hyperthreading. Applications need to be specifically optimized for it (since there are still only half the number of physical cores as there are logical). In some various cases, applications may run faster with hyperthreading *disabled* (although many applications **do** benefit from it). Regardless of hyperthreading, an increase in the number of *physical* cores will **always** benefit *multithreaded* applications.
---
Lastly, you're comparing an E5700 and an i3 3110m. These are two different (not completely, but they are different) processor architectures; they have different features, and unequal pipeline lengths 1 2. There is more to consider here than just the raw number of processor cores, but for the purposes of this discussion, you can ignore them and just read what I've written above.
1. [J. De Gelas, "The Bulldozer Aftermath: Delving Even Deeper." AnandTech](http://www.anandtech.com/show/5057/the-bulldozer-aftermath-delving-even-deeper/2), pp.2.
2. [Intel® 64 and IA-32 Architectures Software Developer Manuals](http://www.intel.com/content/www/us/en/processors/architectures-software-developer-manuals.html), Vol. 1, Ch. 2, Sec.2.3 - Intel® Core™ Microarchitecture | The other answers are correct that for compute bound tasks running with 4 threads on 2 cores will be slower than 2 threads. There is overhead in scheduling the threads, as well as the context switch in the cpu when the register state is switched. The one thing that does not seem to be pointed out however is that this does not hold if there is blocking I/O in those threads. In such a case it is likely that having more threads than cores will run faster, since threads will block on the slow I/O operations and allow other cpu bound portions of code to still run. |
50,557 | The [Zimmermann telegram](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zimmermann_Telegram) to the embassy in Mexico outright suggests that German Empire is trying to court Mexico as an ally in the Great War:
>
> We intend to begin on the first of February unrestricted submarine warfare. We shall endeavor in spite of this to keep the United States of America neutral. In the event of this not succeeding, **we make Mexico a proposal of alliance on the following basis: make war together, make peace together, generous financial support and an understanding on our part that Mexico is to reconquer the lost territory** in Texas, New Mexico, and Arizona. The settlement in detail is left to you. You will inform the President of the above most secretly as soon as the outbreak of war with the United States of America is certain and add the suggestion that he should, on his own initiative, invite Japan to immediate adherence and at the same time mediate between Japan and ourselves. Please call the President's attention to the fact that the ruthless employment of our submarines now offers the prospect of compelling England in a few months to make peace.
> Signed, ZIMMERMANN
>
>
>
Were there other countries that the Central Powers approached outright in the hope of an alliance? Maybe Spain or Sweden in the Europe? Countries in South America?
Just a note: I'm asking about approached independent at that time countries, not promising independence to various cultural regions under Allies occupation (i.e. Russian-occupied Poland and Ukraine). | 2019/01/10 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/50557",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/36136/"
] | (Presumably the question rules out the many co-belligerents of the Central Powers, for which [Wikipedia has a detailed article](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Central_Powers#Co-belligerents).)
---
**The [Kingdom of Romania](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Romania_during_World_War_I)** is possibly the best example. In fact, the Romanians technically *were* allied to the Central Powers - they were a secret party to the [Triple Alliance](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Triple_Alliance_(1882)). At the start of the Great War, [King Carol I](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carol_I_of_Romania) wanted to honour his treaty ties, but his government followed the Italian lead and declared neutrality instead.
Subsequently, there was some diplomatic activity aimed at enticing Romanian entry on the Austro-German side:
>
> Marghiloman attempted to bring about a revival of the alliance with the Central Powers, but on different premises. Romania should receive Bucovina as a compensation for her intervention on the side of Austria-Hungary, and Transylvania should be either given to Romania, or at least should be made independent from Hungary.
>
>
> Szász, Zoltán. "The Transylvanian Question: Romania and the Belligerents, July-October 1914". *Journal of Central European Affairs*, vol 13.2 (1953).
>
>
>
However, the Central Powers did not want Romania as an ally bad enough to offer up their own land as payment:
>
> The Central Powers offered Romania Bessarabia, but none of Transylvania. The Hungarians, led by their premier, Count Istvan Tisza, had a great deal of influence in Vienna and were naturally reluctant to cede any Hungarian territory . . . he [believed] that the Romanians were opportunistic aggressors who, therefore, would be influenced by the course of the war rather than by territorial concessions.
>
>
>
Ultimately, the Romanian Prime Minister [Ionel Brătianu](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ion_I._C._Br%C4%83tianu) sought to be on the winning side, and the winds never blew Germany's way long enough for him to overlook the deficient territorial offers. Eventually Romania defected to the [Triple Entente](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Triple_Entente) over the promise of taking Transylvania from Austria-Hungary, though they turned out to have been too clever by half and the premature declaration ended in catastrophe.
---
**[Sweden](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sweden_during_World_War_I)** would be another top contender. Though there was no treaty ties here, strong pro-German sympathies among Swedish elites, coupled with historical [Russo-Swedish animosity](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_wars_between_Russia_and_Sweden), made Sweden an "obvious" potential ally for the Central Powers from the start. In fact, the Swedish government even leveraged this perception to their benefit in negotiations with the Entente:
>
> [B]ecause the traditional ruling circles were in sympathy with the Central Powers, the government made a major political issue of the protection of neutral trading interests . . . In the face of Allied economic pressures, the Swedish government could bank on the fact that an appreciable proportion of Allied shipments to Russia passed through Swedish territory. Hence the Russians repeatedly urged caution upon their allies, fearing that trans-shipments might be held up and perhaps even that Sweden might ultimately enter the war on the side of the Central Powers.
>
>
> Hardach, Gerd. *The First World War, 1914–1918.* University of California Press, 1981.
>
>
>
By 1915, encouraged by signs such as Sweden's attempt to prevent the Italian entry on the side of the Entente, the Central Powers began to make overtures towards Sweden, led by none other than [Zimmermann](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arthur_Zimmermann) of the Mexican telegram.
>
> Attention shifted to Sweden partly as a result of ill-considered Swedish diplomatic initiatives . . . On each occasion Sweden seemed to be less an impartial go-between than an agent of the Central Powers . . .
>
>
> The first moves were made by Arthur Zimmermann [who offered] the prospect of Swedish leadership of a future Nordic bloc.
>
>
> Salmon, Patrick. *Scandinavia and the Great Powers, 1890–1940*. Cambridge University Press, 2002.
>
>
>
Nonetheless, unlike Italy or Romania, Sweden ultimately adhered to their declaration of neutrality and stayed out of the war.
---
There were several other prospects such as Persia, Ethiopia, or Greece, but they were neither particularly realistic nor all that potentially helpful. | 'Naturally' Germany, Austria-Hungary and Turkey would be interested in anyone joining their cause.
This is not about who ended up in 1918 being at war with Germany, Austria-Hungary, Bulgaria and Ottomans. This is about all those considered by one side or the other as potentially siding with "them" from 1914–1918. And this list of attempts is surprisingly long as is the list of successes in that direction short.
Besides Mexico, this includes Italy, Switzerland, Norway, Netherlands, Luxemburg, Romania, Greece, Venezuela, Afghanistan, Abyssinia, Sweden, Japan.
Given the German initiatives in the far East, the "offering" of German colonial possessions might also indicate that the United States would have to be included (however theoretical and unsuccessful that turned out). That view of dreadful potentialities was initially shared by the British, as they were quite keen to restrict some of their naval blockade tactics so as not to anger the Americans, who preferred trading with all sides involved at the beginning.
The German plans and ambitions were fulfilled with Bulgaria's entry into he Central Powers alliance.
Wooing [Romania](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Romania_during_World_War_I) was a constant throughout the war. Not really successful.
Hampered by tactical considerations potential allies like Sweden, Netherlands or Switzerland were seen as much more useful if they stayed 'neutral' so as to continue trade. In the case of [Switzerland](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Switzerland_during_the_World_Wars) the neutrality was at times called into question: with the [Grimm–Hoffmann affair.](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grimm%E2%80%93Hoffmann_affair) Sweden was equally sympathising with Germany, for the most part, and the busy man [Zimmerman did offer a few perks](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sweden_during_World_War_I#Germany_offers_an_alliance) as well.
In the wider picture of the globe German hopes were directed at Mexico, Venzuela in South-America, at [Abyssinia](https://journals.openedition.org/cy/3099) [and](https://www.afghanistan-analysts.org/afghanistan-in-world-war-i-1-afghans-in-the-kaisers-jihad/) [Afghanistan](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Niedermayer%E2%80%93Hentig_Expedition) in Africa and Asia.
In the height of colonialism, not really many independent countries were left on the map, that did not clearly see more strategic value in staying neutral or siding with the Entente.
Although not explicitly independent countries for this purpose it just has to be noted that just like all those nationalities in the Russian Empire (as excluded from the question) every Muslim was considered a potential ally and the Germans tried to [explicitly](https://www.mwme.eu/essays/german-ottoman/_Krug_GermanyJihad/index.html) call them to [Jihad](https://www.aljazeera.com/indepth/features/2017/04/germany-islam-world-war-170410070627588.html) against their Western oppressors. This hoped-for alliance from Morocco to Pakistan would then have to be expanded to India, as the [Hindu–German Conspiracy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hindu%E2%80%93German_Conspiracy) falls into a similar league.
Perhaps tangential to the aim of the question: but with [Japan](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Japan_during_World_War_I#Events_of_1915%E2%80%9316) Germany really hoped to come to an early end of official hostilities and negotiated in earnest what was mere tactics for "offering peace" in Europe.
As this was not "promised independence" one might also consider the fact that the Ottoman Empire engaged in a frenzy of diplomatic activity, mainly after the Russian Revolution and attempted to gain allies against the [British and Russians.](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_Ottoman_Empire_during_World_War_I#Diplomacy_with_new_states,_1918)
And depending on viewing angles, the Germans also offered [Greece](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greece_during_World_War_I#German_demands_and_encroachments_of_Greek_sovereignty_by_the_Allies) assistance against the allies forcing them into their camp, albeit with some imperial Prussian elegance and decorum:
>
> On the Central Powers' side, on 29 November 1915 Falkenhayn had publicly threatened that if Greece could not neutralize the Allied and Serbian forces in its soil, the Germans and their allies would cross the border and do it for them, and on 10 December, the German Foreign Ministry reacted to the new agreement between Greece and the Allies regarding their armies in Macedonia by demanding the same rights of free movement in Greek territory. To these demands, the Greek government answered on 22 December that it would not actively oppose a Central Powers invasion of its territory, provided that the Bulgarians did not participate, or at least stayed out of the cities, and the command of the operations was in German hands; that Bulgaria issued no territorial demands, and that the Central Powers forces would withdraw once their objectives were met; and that the Greek authorities remain in place.
>
>
>
- Holger H. Herwig: "German Visions of Empire in Venezela 1871–1914", Princeton University Press: Princeton, 1986. |
38,556 | I just wanted to know what are ports. Can someone explain to me what a port is? | 2013/07/07 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/38556",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/28015/"
] | In network computing, a *port* is a sub-address. It is like a room number in an hotel: the hotel has an address (e.g. 42 Washington Street, Austin, Texas) and is itself subdivided into rooms, each having its own number (e.g. room 317). If you want to reach a specific room, you have to know both the address (so that you may find the hotel at all) and then the room number (because the hotel has several rooms).
Similarly, when a machine A on the Internet wants to talk to another machine B on the Internet, it tries to open a [TCP](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transmission_Control_Protocol) connection to B *on a specific port*: the connection is marked with both the [IP address](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address) of B, and a port number. Ports allow such a "B" machine to maintain several distinct services simultaneously: for instance, B will be both a Web server, expecting connections on port 80, and an email server, expecting connections on port 25. When some client opens a connection to B, B will know to which service the connection is targeted thanks to the port: if the connection is for port 80, it is Web; if it is for port 25, it is Email. | Ports are a concept, expressed as a number, that allow a service (program) on one computer to connect and exchange traffic with a particular service on another computer.
Many services conventionally use well defined port numbers, for example a web server would use and listen on port 80 for http traffic and port 443 for https traffic. Port numbers below 1024 are considered "special" in that a program requires elevated permissions to use them. Any port that a service is listening on is potentially vulnerable to attack if the service listening for traffic on the port is not designed with some care.
For example, the service may misbehave if receiving too many connections and/or traffic at a rate greater than it can handle. Services often expect traffic to conform to a restricted set of data, and may misbehave if sent data that they do not know how to handle. Flooding with traffic can result in a denial of service, where no further connections can be received, and potentially cause the machine to become unresponsive and require a reboot or power cycle.
Depending on what privileges the service enjoys, misbehaving may also mean that an attacker can perform operations on the computer that they should not be able to do, which could pose a security risk.
In an attempt at security, some services may be started to use non-conventional port numbers on the basis that a hacker would not immediately know what service was listening on the port, however as services often identify what they are when connected to, and others can be identified by behaviour when sent data, this is weak. Better security practice requires that access to ports is restricted only to those computers that need access to those services. |
38,556 | I just wanted to know what are ports. Can someone explain to me what a port is? | 2013/07/07 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/38556",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/28015/"
] | In network computing, a *port* is a sub-address. It is like a room number in an hotel: the hotel has an address (e.g. 42 Washington Street, Austin, Texas) and is itself subdivided into rooms, each having its own number (e.g. room 317). If you want to reach a specific room, you have to know both the address (so that you may find the hotel at all) and then the room number (because the hotel has several rooms).
Similarly, when a machine A on the Internet wants to talk to another machine B on the Internet, it tries to open a [TCP](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transmission_Control_Protocol) connection to B *on a specific port*: the connection is marked with both the [IP address](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address) of B, and a port number. Ports allow such a "B" machine to maintain several distinct services simultaneously: for instance, B will be both a Web server, expecting connections on port 80, and an email server, expecting connections on port 25. When some client opens a connection to B, B will know to which service the connection is targeted thanks to the port: if the connection is for port 80, it is Web; if it is for port 25, it is Email. | There are both Phyiscal and Virtual ports.
Physical network ports allow connecting cables to computers for instance:
* Serial
* Ethernet
* Fibre
* ...
There is also the concept of virtual ports,about which you are probably thinking. If found a nice [tutorial](http://www.bleepingcomputer.com/tutorials/tcp-and-udp-ports-explained/) here detailing the basic concepts of networking.
>
> As you know every computer or device on the Internet must have a
> unique number assigned to it called the IP address. This IP address is
> used to recognize your particular computer out of the millions of
> other computers connected to the Internet. When information is sent
> over the Internet to your computer how does your computer accept that
> information? It accepts that information by using TCP or UDP ports.
>
>
> An easy way to understand ports is to imagine your IP address is a
> cable box and the ports are the different channels on that cable box.
> The cable company knows how to send cable to your cable box based upon
> a unique serial number associated with that box (IP Address), and then
> you receive the individual shows on different channels (Ports).
>
>
> Ports work the same way. You have an IP address, and then many ports
> on that IP address. When I say many, I mean many. You can have a total
> of 65,535 TCP Ports and another 65,535 UDP ports. When a program on
> your computer sends or receives data over the Internet it sends that
> data to an ip address and a specific port on the remote computer, and
> receives the data on a usually random port on its own computer. If it
> uses the TCP protocol to send and receive the data then it will
> connect and bind itself to a TCP port. If it uses the UDP protocol to
> send and receive data, it will use a UDP port. Figure 1, below, is a
> represenation of an IP address split into its many TCP and UDP ports.
> Note that once an application binds itself to a particular port, that
> port can not be used by any other application. It is first come, first
> served.
>
>
> This all probably still feels confusing to you, and there is nothing
> wrong with that, as this is a complicated concept to grasp. Therefore,
> I will give you an example of how this works in real life so you can
> have a better understanding. We will use web servers in our example as
> you all know that a web server is a computer running an application
> that allows other computers to connect to it and retrieve the web
> pages stored there.
>
>
> In order for a web server to accept connections from remote computers,
> such as yourself, it must bind the web server application to a local
> port. It will then use this port to listen for and accept connections
> from remote computers. Web servers typically bind to the TCP port 80,
> which is what the http protocol uses by default, and then will wait
> and listen for connections from remote devices. Once a device is
> connected, it will send the requested web pages to the remote device,
> and when done disconnect the connection.
>
>
> On the other hand, if you are the remote user connecting to a web
> server it would work in reverse. Your web browser would pick a random
> TCP port from a certain range of port numbers, and attempt to connect
> to port 80 on the IP address of the web server. When the connection is
> established, the web browser will send the request for a particular
> web page and receive it from the web server. Then both computers will
> disconnect the connection.
>
>
> Now, what if you wanted to run an FTP server, which is a server that
> allows you to transfer and receive files from remote computers, on the
> same web server. FTP servers use TCP ports 20 and 21 to send and
> receive information, so you won't have any conflicts with the web
> server running on TCP port 80. Therefore, the FTP server application
> when it starts will bind itself to TCP ports 20 and 21, and wait for
> connections in order to send and receive data.
>
>
> Most major applications have a specific port that they listen on and
> they register this information with an organization called IANA. You
> can see a list of applications and the ports they use at the IANA
> Registry. With developers registering the ports their applications use
> with IANA, the chances of two programs attempting to use the same
> port, and therefore causing a conflict, will be diminished.
>
>
> |
159,915 | I am an undergraduate student and earn money by giving private lessons as well as by writing and translating texts, and recently I lost a potential customer because we couldn't agree on the price. The case is a bit too complex to describe here, and I also don't really want to reveal some details on the Internet, but, in short, the culprit was that there was a huge gap between his BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement) and my BATNA. The job he wanted me to do was pretty unusual and highly specialized, and he knew me personally and knew that I happened to have the rare knowledge and skills to do that particular job, so he offered me that job and offered paying me somewhat more than the rate I usually earn money at. He knew that rate. But I knew that if he failed to reach an agreement with me, he would have a hard time looking for specialists capable of doing the job, and end up paying at a rate at least a few times higher than what he offered me. So I made a counteroffer, in which I frankly told him how I saw our BATNAs, and offered a price at the midpoint between our BATNAs to make our benefits equal. He rejected the very idea of bringing his BATNA into the equation, and then we spent a lot of time and effort trying to persuade each other as to whose offer is fair, with him even comparing me to a shopkeeper who tells different customers different prices, and eventually broke the negotiations altogether.
I don't really regret rejecting his offer, because I didn't lose much with respect to what I can earn otherwise by spending the same amount of time or effort, and I would definitely hate doing a job knowing I'm being taken advantage of, but I regret that we were unable to reach a fair deal and missed such an opportunity for a great mutual benefit. He rejected my offer because he didn't want to lose face by accepting what he believed was unfair, even despite my offer being actually much better than what he could get elsewhere.
I am at a loss as to what I should learn from that experience, and I'm especially curious because I know I will face many negotiations in my future professional career - salary negotiations, price negotiations, etc. - and I guess some of them will be, likewise, with a large gap between the BATNAs, so I'm posting my question here in order to learn how to professionally deal with such situations. For instance, what if I have unique knowledge and skills of great value for a particular employer, and that employer offers me a salary just slightly above what I can get elsewhere, and much below what he will have to pay to employ someone else?
So my question is: In general, how should I negotiate the price/salary with a potential customer/employer if there's a large gap between our BATNAs and we both know them? Are there any established theories or practical methods about that? In particular, what is the fair price/salary is such a situation, and how do I convince my negotiation partner to accept it? | 2020/07/01 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/159915",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/119309/"
] | >
> how should I negotiate the price/salary with a potential customer/employer if there's a large gap between our BATNAs and we both know them?
>
>
>
Don't negotiate, give a price and stick to it. It saves time and grief. You're basically quoting for the task, just like anyone else. Not doing retail with someone elses product. | I think what you should consider here is that **BATNA is not solely about monetary value**, it's about the total value of the option as perceived by the person receiving the offer.
For example, in future salary negotiations you won't only be negotiating salary but rather a full package of benefits - holidays, flexible working, special privileges or assignments, training costs, higher pension contributions, healthcare, etc... And you'll be negotiating on the total value of that package to you and the business, some of which is hard to directly convert into a cash equivalent value.
The main problem you had with your potential client was that **your analysis of his BATNA didn't include his perception of the value of not losing face**. Apparently, he would rather spend that extra time and money finding someone else who could do the work rather than feel he was being taken advantage of or treated unfairly.
The other thing that's probably worth mentioning is that not every interaction should be treated as a one-off negotiation. You may have lost the opportunity to build a strong business relationship that could have provided repeat business (the value of this should have been considered as part of your BATNA).
Also as mentioned by Killsi in his answer, not all things carry an expectation of negotiation and in some contexts it's considered unusual. Many 'off the shelf' goods and services are not usually negotiated. Although expectations about which things are appropriate to negotiate will depend on the local culture. |
159,915 | I am an undergraduate student and earn money by giving private lessons as well as by writing and translating texts, and recently I lost a potential customer because we couldn't agree on the price. The case is a bit too complex to describe here, and I also don't really want to reveal some details on the Internet, but, in short, the culprit was that there was a huge gap between his BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement) and my BATNA. The job he wanted me to do was pretty unusual and highly specialized, and he knew me personally and knew that I happened to have the rare knowledge and skills to do that particular job, so he offered me that job and offered paying me somewhat more than the rate I usually earn money at. He knew that rate. But I knew that if he failed to reach an agreement with me, he would have a hard time looking for specialists capable of doing the job, and end up paying at a rate at least a few times higher than what he offered me. So I made a counteroffer, in which I frankly told him how I saw our BATNAs, and offered a price at the midpoint between our BATNAs to make our benefits equal. He rejected the very idea of bringing his BATNA into the equation, and then we spent a lot of time and effort trying to persuade each other as to whose offer is fair, with him even comparing me to a shopkeeper who tells different customers different prices, and eventually broke the negotiations altogether.
I don't really regret rejecting his offer, because I didn't lose much with respect to what I can earn otherwise by spending the same amount of time or effort, and I would definitely hate doing a job knowing I'm being taken advantage of, but I regret that we were unable to reach a fair deal and missed such an opportunity for a great mutual benefit. He rejected my offer because he didn't want to lose face by accepting what he believed was unfair, even despite my offer being actually much better than what he could get elsewhere.
I am at a loss as to what I should learn from that experience, and I'm especially curious because I know I will face many negotiations in my future professional career - salary negotiations, price negotiations, etc. - and I guess some of them will be, likewise, with a large gap between the BATNAs, so I'm posting my question here in order to learn how to professionally deal with such situations. For instance, what if I have unique knowledge and skills of great value for a particular employer, and that employer offers me a salary just slightly above what I can get elsewhere, and much below what he will have to pay to employ someone else?
So my question is: In general, how should I negotiate the price/salary with a potential customer/employer if there's a large gap between our BATNAs and we both know them? Are there any established theories or practical methods about that? In particular, what is the fair price/salary is such a situation, and how do I convince my negotiation partner to accept it? | 2020/07/01 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/159915",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/119309/"
] | >
> how should I negotiate the price/salary with a potential customer/employer if there's a large gap between our BATNAs and we both know them?
>
>
>
Don't negotiate, give a price and stick to it. It saves time and grief. You're basically quoting for the task, just like anyone else. Not doing retail with someone elses product. | Taking their BATNA into account sounds unethical, shady and probably illegal in some jurisdictions.
Just imagine some scenarios:
* You and your buddy go buy a pizza. Your buddy pays 5. You get charged 10 for the same pizza. Because your buddy, if charged 10, would just go over and get a burger for 5, but you hate burgers and the pizza shop owner knows that.
* A cure is found for a virus. Everybody can be cured with one dosage and you can make as much as you want. However, since those that are affected more seriously have a higher BATNA, you charge accordingly. People with mild symptoms pay 10, people in hospitals pay 1000. People already on a respirator are charged 100.000. It's all about their BATNA, obviously people that would otherwise die should pay more, right?
This does not look very professional to me.
You should charge what you think your work is generally worth, not how much you can possibly extort from a specific victim. |
159,915 | I am an undergraduate student and earn money by giving private lessons as well as by writing and translating texts, and recently I lost a potential customer because we couldn't agree on the price. The case is a bit too complex to describe here, and I also don't really want to reveal some details on the Internet, but, in short, the culprit was that there was a huge gap between his BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement) and my BATNA. The job he wanted me to do was pretty unusual and highly specialized, and he knew me personally and knew that I happened to have the rare knowledge and skills to do that particular job, so he offered me that job and offered paying me somewhat more than the rate I usually earn money at. He knew that rate. But I knew that if he failed to reach an agreement with me, he would have a hard time looking for specialists capable of doing the job, and end up paying at a rate at least a few times higher than what he offered me. So I made a counteroffer, in which I frankly told him how I saw our BATNAs, and offered a price at the midpoint between our BATNAs to make our benefits equal. He rejected the very idea of bringing his BATNA into the equation, and then we spent a lot of time and effort trying to persuade each other as to whose offer is fair, with him even comparing me to a shopkeeper who tells different customers different prices, and eventually broke the negotiations altogether.
I don't really regret rejecting his offer, because I didn't lose much with respect to what I can earn otherwise by spending the same amount of time or effort, and I would definitely hate doing a job knowing I'm being taken advantage of, but I regret that we were unable to reach a fair deal and missed such an opportunity for a great mutual benefit. He rejected my offer because he didn't want to lose face by accepting what he believed was unfair, even despite my offer being actually much better than what he could get elsewhere.
I am at a loss as to what I should learn from that experience, and I'm especially curious because I know I will face many negotiations in my future professional career - salary negotiations, price negotiations, etc. - and I guess some of them will be, likewise, with a large gap between the BATNAs, so I'm posting my question here in order to learn how to professionally deal with such situations. For instance, what if I have unique knowledge and skills of great value for a particular employer, and that employer offers me a salary just slightly above what I can get elsewhere, and much below what he will have to pay to employ someone else?
So my question is: In general, how should I negotiate the price/salary with a potential customer/employer if there's a large gap between our BATNAs and we both know them? Are there any established theories or practical methods about that? In particular, what is the fair price/salary is such a situation, and how do I convince my negotiation partner to accept it? | 2020/07/01 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/159915",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/119309/"
] | Your mistake was how you presented it. Saying "I know I normally charge X, but I also know you can't find someone else to do this for less than Y, so I'll do it for halfway between the two," isn't *wrong*, but it can feel unfair, whether it actually is or not. It focuses on what you can extract from the customer because they have no better choice, not on providing a reasonable value for the money they pay.
Instead I would focus on what makes the task different from your typical tasks. "I know I typically charge X, but this task is more complicated and requires specialized skills, so I'm going to charge you Z instead. That's still considerably lower than what most people charge for this type of work." You're essentially saying the same thing, but the focus is in a different place. Tasks that require more specialized skills typically cost more, there's nothing controversial about that. They're not just paying for your time spent on the task, but also for all the time and effort you spent learning your trade. Putting it in that light may help the customer feel like they're getting an appropriate value for their money rather than being extorted. | I think what you should consider here is that **BATNA is not solely about monetary value**, it's about the total value of the option as perceived by the person receiving the offer.
For example, in future salary negotiations you won't only be negotiating salary but rather a full package of benefits - holidays, flexible working, special privileges or assignments, training costs, higher pension contributions, healthcare, etc... And you'll be negotiating on the total value of that package to you and the business, some of which is hard to directly convert into a cash equivalent value.
The main problem you had with your potential client was that **your analysis of his BATNA didn't include his perception of the value of not losing face**. Apparently, he would rather spend that extra time and money finding someone else who could do the work rather than feel he was being taken advantage of or treated unfairly.
The other thing that's probably worth mentioning is that not every interaction should be treated as a one-off negotiation. You may have lost the opportunity to build a strong business relationship that could have provided repeat business (the value of this should have been considered as part of your BATNA).
Also as mentioned by Killsi in his answer, not all things carry an expectation of negotiation and in some contexts it's considered unusual. Many 'off the shelf' goods and services are not usually negotiated. Although expectations about which things are appropriate to negotiate will depend on the local culture. |
159,915 | I am an undergraduate student and earn money by giving private lessons as well as by writing and translating texts, and recently I lost a potential customer because we couldn't agree on the price. The case is a bit too complex to describe here, and I also don't really want to reveal some details on the Internet, but, in short, the culprit was that there was a huge gap between his BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement) and my BATNA. The job he wanted me to do was pretty unusual and highly specialized, and he knew me personally and knew that I happened to have the rare knowledge and skills to do that particular job, so he offered me that job and offered paying me somewhat more than the rate I usually earn money at. He knew that rate. But I knew that if he failed to reach an agreement with me, he would have a hard time looking for specialists capable of doing the job, and end up paying at a rate at least a few times higher than what he offered me. So I made a counteroffer, in which I frankly told him how I saw our BATNAs, and offered a price at the midpoint between our BATNAs to make our benefits equal. He rejected the very idea of bringing his BATNA into the equation, and then we spent a lot of time and effort trying to persuade each other as to whose offer is fair, with him even comparing me to a shopkeeper who tells different customers different prices, and eventually broke the negotiations altogether.
I don't really regret rejecting his offer, because I didn't lose much with respect to what I can earn otherwise by spending the same amount of time or effort, and I would definitely hate doing a job knowing I'm being taken advantage of, but I regret that we were unable to reach a fair deal and missed such an opportunity for a great mutual benefit. He rejected my offer because he didn't want to lose face by accepting what he believed was unfair, even despite my offer being actually much better than what he could get elsewhere.
I am at a loss as to what I should learn from that experience, and I'm especially curious because I know I will face many negotiations in my future professional career - salary negotiations, price negotiations, etc. - and I guess some of them will be, likewise, with a large gap between the BATNAs, so I'm posting my question here in order to learn how to professionally deal with such situations. For instance, what if I have unique knowledge and skills of great value for a particular employer, and that employer offers me a salary just slightly above what I can get elsewhere, and much below what he will have to pay to employ someone else?
So my question is: In general, how should I negotiate the price/salary with a potential customer/employer if there's a large gap between our BATNAs and we both know them? Are there any established theories or practical methods about that? In particular, what is the fair price/salary is such a situation, and how do I convince my negotiation partner to accept it? | 2020/07/01 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/159915",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/119309/"
] | Your mistake was how you presented it. Saying "I know I normally charge X, but I also know you can't find someone else to do this for less than Y, so I'll do it for halfway between the two," isn't *wrong*, but it can feel unfair, whether it actually is or not. It focuses on what you can extract from the customer because they have no better choice, not on providing a reasonable value for the money they pay.
Instead I would focus on what makes the task different from your typical tasks. "I know I typically charge X, but this task is more complicated and requires specialized skills, so I'm going to charge you Z instead. That's still considerably lower than what most people charge for this type of work." You're essentially saying the same thing, but the focus is in a different place. Tasks that require more specialized skills typically cost more, there's nothing controversial about that. They're not just paying for your time spent on the task, but also for all the time and effort you spent learning your trade. Putting it in that light may help the customer feel like they're getting an appropriate value for their money rather than being extorted. | Taking their BATNA into account sounds unethical, shady and probably illegal in some jurisdictions.
Just imagine some scenarios:
* You and your buddy go buy a pizza. Your buddy pays 5. You get charged 10 for the same pizza. Because your buddy, if charged 10, would just go over and get a burger for 5, but you hate burgers and the pizza shop owner knows that.
* A cure is found for a virus. Everybody can be cured with one dosage and you can make as much as you want. However, since those that are affected more seriously have a higher BATNA, you charge accordingly. People with mild symptoms pay 10, people in hospitals pay 1000. People already on a respirator are charged 100.000. It's all about their BATNA, obviously people that would otherwise die should pay more, right?
This does not look very professional to me.
You should charge what you think your work is generally worth, not how much you can possibly extort from a specific victim. |
41,993 | There is a tax border between Northern Ireland and Ireland for excise.
By "tax border" I mean a border across which tax is due.
Although there has been a harmonisation effort within the EU for excise, it is is incomplete and only minimum rates are set for member states ([Directive 2008/118/EC](https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX:32008L0118&from=EN)).
From the [EU's website](https://ec.europa.eu/taxation_customs/business/excise-duties-alcohol-tobacco-energy_en):
>
> EU countries agreed on common EU rules to make sure that excise duties
> are applied in the same way and to the same products everywhere in the
> Union. For example, by applying at least a minimum rate of excise
> duty.
>
>
>
How is this managed currently on the island of Ireland? | 2019/06/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/41993",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/6116/"
] | The UK and Ireland are both part of the EU [Single Market](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Single_European_Act) and the [Common Travel Area](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_Travel_Area). Hence there is no excise duty on goods crossing the border between Northern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland, and citizens of UK and the Republic are free to cross the border [without stopping](https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-northern-ireland-40941393).
**Update:**
There is a difference in fuel duty between NI and the Republic, and smugglers have exploited this by buying fuel in the Republic and selling it in NI. There is no restriction on fuel for personal use so it is legal for a resident of NI to drive over the border, fill their tank and drive back. However transporting the fuel and then selling it is a crime.
The UK and the Republic have cooperated on the introduction of a fuel marker so that such smuggled fuel can be identified. As a result the proportion of illicit diesel in Northern Ireland dropped from 26% in 2002/2003 to 8% in 2013/2014. See [Section 5.3 of this document](https://www.octf.gov.uk/OCTF/media/OCTF/images/publications/Cross%20Border%20Organised%20Crime%20Assessment/Threat-Assessment-Report_Layout-1.pdf?ext=.pdf) for details (thanks to @origimbo for locating it). | There is currently a tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland.
The tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland has two components: VAT and excise.
@Peteris asks in a comment below this answer:
>
> WTF [sic] is a tax border?
>
>
>
A tax border is a border across which tax become due.
The border between Ireland and Northern Ireland is a tax border because it is a border across which tax (VAT and excise) becomes due in [specific](https://www.avalara.com/vatlive/en/eu-vat-rules/distance-selling/internet-and-ecommerce-vat.html) [circumstances](https://app.croneri.co.uk/topics/dealing-excise-imports/indepth).
Note that for excise, under some circumstances duty only becomes due at some later time *after* crossing the border. In the intervening period the excise goods are treated as being in a "duty suspension" state. In these circumstances the movement of the excise goods across the border is registered with the government (described later) pending eventual duty payments.
From the [UK Government](https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/uk-trade-tariff-excise-duties-reliefs-drawbacks-and-allowances/uk-trade-tariff-excise-duties-reliefs-drawbacks-and-allowances):
>
> The duty falls due at the time when the goods leave any duty
> suspension arrangements, that is when:
>
>
> * they are released for consumption or otherwise made available for
> consumption (generally via the warehouse system) registered trader
> (REDS) or occasional importer receives them in the UK
> * a vendor makes a delivery under distance selling arrangements
> * missing consignments and other dutiable shortages are discovered
> * goods imported for personal use are then sold or put to commercial use
>
>
>
There is no *customs* tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland while the UK remains a member of the European Union because membership of the European Union involves membership of a customs union: the European Union Customs Union with its Common External Tariff.
Excise is the application of a duty (a tax) usually levied at the point of production on goods that are widely available. Excise rates are published [online](https://www.gov.uk/trade-tariff).
Goods that commonly incur excise duty are tobacco, fuel and alcohol.
To avoid border movements whose purpose are to illegally circumvent duty, an excise border is necessary between Ireland and Northern Ireland.
On the island of Ireland this tax border is managed without physical infrastructure for reasons of political tension. "Hardening" the border to mitigate fraud on the Ireland/Northern Ireland tax border is not possible.
**For legal movements of goods** the online [Excise Movement Control System](https://www.gov.uk/guidance/excise-movement-and-control-system-how-to-register-and-use) (EMCS) is used and duty revenue is collected via online payment system. For the UK this is the [Excise Payment Security System](https://www.gov.uk/guidance/pay-excise-duty-without-a-guarantee) (EPSS).
Note that excise goods [do not incur](https://www.gov.uk/duty-free-goods/arrivals-from-eu-countries) additional duty charges when crossing the Irish border if:
* you transport them yourself
* you will use them yourself or give them away as a gift
* have paid duty and tax in the country where you bought them
So if you buy a barrel of petrol and move it yourself over the border for personal consumption or for gifting then no additional duty is payable.
If you buy a barrel of petrol and have it moved *for you* over the border - for whatever reason - then duty is payable via EPSS.
If you buy a barrel of petrol *for resale* and move it over the border then duty is payable when the fuel exits a duty-suspension regime. eg. it is resold. The taxable import can be declared using EMCS.
Another answer here highlighted the loss of revenue to the UK exchequer of up to [£200 million](https://www.belfasttelegraph.co.uk/news/northern-ireland/buying-fuel-in-republic-costs-uk-government-200m-35528011.html) each year due to fuel meeting these criteria crossing the border. Despite the headline it is *perfectly legal* for residents on one side of the border to fill up their vehicles on the other. The respective exchequers have no legal right to demand additional duty.
The focus for the tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland is therefore the movement of excise goods sold under distance selling arrangements (eg. someone buys some cigarettes over the internet from a vendor across the border), or movements for resale (eg. the owner of a petrol station purchases a tanker consignment of petrol from a vendor across the border).
**For illegal movements of goods** the tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland is managed through North/South police service cooperation: the PSNI in the North and the Garda Síochána in the South.
Intelligence is shared and [coordinated cross-border operations](https://www.octf.gov.uk/OCTF/media/OCTF/images/publications/Cross%20Border%20Organised%20Crime%20Assessment/Threat-Assessment-Report_Layout-1.pdf?ext=.pdf) (document found by @origimbo) are conducted, including but not limited to:
* interdiction of illegal shipments/transhipments of excise goods
* targeting of persons involved in such operations
* use of marker systems to assist detection (eg. [Accutrace S10](https://www.azom.com/article.aspx?ArticleID=13244) for fuel)
An important argument for having a customs partnership "backstop" if the UK leaves the European Union is that a tax border (in that case for customs) on the island of Ireland would necessitate a hard border and exacerbate political tensions.
There is currently a tax border on the island. |
41,993 | There is a tax border between Northern Ireland and Ireland for excise.
By "tax border" I mean a border across which tax is due.
Although there has been a harmonisation effort within the EU for excise, it is is incomplete and only minimum rates are set for member states ([Directive 2008/118/EC](https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX:32008L0118&from=EN)).
From the [EU's website](https://ec.europa.eu/taxation_customs/business/excise-duties-alcohol-tobacco-energy_en):
>
> EU countries agreed on common EU rules to make sure that excise duties
> are applied in the same way and to the same products everywhere in the
> Union. For example, by applying at least a minimum rate of excise
> duty.
>
>
>
How is this managed currently on the island of Ireland? | 2019/06/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/41993",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/6116/"
] | Fuel is cheaper in Ireland than in Northern Ireland. So Ireland doesn't have to do anything about it. Northern Ireland would have to do something about it, but currently seems to do nothing, even though the estimates are that it (and/or the UK) lose(s) [200 million pounds a year](https://www.belfasttelegraph.co.uk/news/northern-ireland/buying-fuel-in-republic-costs-uk-government-200m-35528011.html) because of the cross-border refueling of private vehicles. And yes, there is a difference in excise; the EU stuff that amatita pointed to sets the *minimum* excise; member countries can impose more. And they do; data for 2017:
>
> the excise rate in the Republic was 13% lower than in Northern Ireland for petrol and almost 30% lower for diesel.
>
>
> Forecourt prices in the Republic for petrol averaged £1.13 per litre last year, 9.5p cheaper than in Northern Ireland, and diesel averaged 95p in the south, 27p lower.
>
>
>
Also this cross-border excise difference is [not unique](https://mpra.ub.uni-muenchen.de/76961/1/MPRA_paper_76961.pdf) to Ireland vs Northern Ireland:
>
> While the EU sets
> minimum excise duties under the Energy Taxation Directive, which avoids aggressive tax competition, there
> are no maximum rates. A comparison of excise rates across EU member states in July 2016 reveals that the
> highest excise rate rates for both petrol and diesel are just over twice as high as the lowest rates. The
> minimum diesel rate is 8.1% lower than that for petrol and the average rate across the EU is 19.5% lower than
> the average for petrol resulting in lower retail prices for diesel than petrol (European Commission, 2016).
>
>
> | There is currently a tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland.
The tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland has two components: VAT and excise.
@Peteris asks in a comment below this answer:
>
> WTF [sic] is a tax border?
>
>
>
A tax border is a border across which tax become due.
The border between Ireland and Northern Ireland is a tax border because it is a border across which tax (VAT and excise) becomes due in [specific](https://www.avalara.com/vatlive/en/eu-vat-rules/distance-selling/internet-and-ecommerce-vat.html) [circumstances](https://app.croneri.co.uk/topics/dealing-excise-imports/indepth).
Note that for excise, under some circumstances duty only becomes due at some later time *after* crossing the border. In the intervening period the excise goods are treated as being in a "duty suspension" state. In these circumstances the movement of the excise goods across the border is registered with the government (described later) pending eventual duty payments.
From the [UK Government](https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/uk-trade-tariff-excise-duties-reliefs-drawbacks-and-allowances/uk-trade-tariff-excise-duties-reliefs-drawbacks-and-allowances):
>
> The duty falls due at the time when the goods leave any duty
> suspension arrangements, that is when:
>
>
> * they are released for consumption or otherwise made available for
> consumption (generally via the warehouse system) registered trader
> (REDS) or occasional importer receives them in the UK
> * a vendor makes a delivery under distance selling arrangements
> * missing consignments and other dutiable shortages are discovered
> * goods imported for personal use are then sold or put to commercial use
>
>
>
There is no *customs* tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland while the UK remains a member of the European Union because membership of the European Union involves membership of a customs union: the European Union Customs Union with its Common External Tariff.
Excise is the application of a duty (a tax) usually levied at the point of production on goods that are widely available. Excise rates are published [online](https://www.gov.uk/trade-tariff).
Goods that commonly incur excise duty are tobacco, fuel and alcohol.
To avoid border movements whose purpose are to illegally circumvent duty, an excise border is necessary between Ireland and Northern Ireland.
On the island of Ireland this tax border is managed without physical infrastructure for reasons of political tension. "Hardening" the border to mitigate fraud on the Ireland/Northern Ireland tax border is not possible.
**For legal movements of goods** the online [Excise Movement Control System](https://www.gov.uk/guidance/excise-movement-and-control-system-how-to-register-and-use) (EMCS) is used and duty revenue is collected via online payment system. For the UK this is the [Excise Payment Security System](https://www.gov.uk/guidance/pay-excise-duty-without-a-guarantee) (EPSS).
Note that excise goods [do not incur](https://www.gov.uk/duty-free-goods/arrivals-from-eu-countries) additional duty charges when crossing the Irish border if:
* you transport them yourself
* you will use them yourself or give them away as a gift
* have paid duty and tax in the country where you bought them
So if you buy a barrel of petrol and move it yourself over the border for personal consumption or for gifting then no additional duty is payable.
If you buy a barrel of petrol and have it moved *for you* over the border - for whatever reason - then duty is payable via EPSS.
If you buy a barrel of petrol *for resale* and move it over the border then duty is payable when the fuel exits a duty-suspension regime. eg. it is resold. The taxable import can be declared using EMCS.
Another answer here highlighted the loss of revenue to the UK exchequer of up to [£200 million](https://www.belfasttelegraph.co.uk/news/northern-ireland/buying-fuel-in-republic-costs-uk-government-200m-35528011.html) each year due to fuel meeting these criteria crossing the border. Despite the headline it is *perfectly legal* for residents on one side of the border to fill up their vehicles on the other. The respective exchequers have no legal right to demand additional duty.
The focus for the tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland is therefore the movement of excise goods sold under distance selling arrangements (eg. someone buys some cigarettes over the internet from a vendor across the border), or movements for resale (eg. the owner of a petrol station purchases a tanker consignment of petrol from a vendor across the border).
**For illegal movements of goods** the tax border between Ireland and Northern Ireland is managed through North/South police service cooperation: the PSNI in the North and the Garda Síochána in the South.
Intelligence is shared and [coordinated cross-border operations](https://www.octf.gov.uk/OCTF/media/OCTF/images/publications/Cross%20Border%20Organised%20Crime%20Assessment/Threat-Assessment-Report_Layout-1.pdf?ext=.pdf) (document found by @origimbo) are conducted, including but not limited to:
* interdiction of illegal shipments/transhipments of excise goods
* targeting of persons involved in such operations
* use of marker systems to assist detection (eg. [Accutrace S10](https://www.azom.com/article.aspx?ArticleID=13244) for fuel)
An important argument for having a customs partnership "backstop" if the UK leaves the European Union is that a tax border (in that case for customs) on the island of Ireland would necessitate a hard border and exacerbate political tensions.
There is currently a tax border on the island. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | Tell your professor. I don't know whether Canvas keeps logs such as you describe, but it doesn't make any difference. Your feeling of moral obligation is correct. You are obligated to tell your professor.
Here is some general advice. Author John D. MacDonald has one of his characters say, approximately, "In the case of any ethical decision, the thing you least want to do is probably the right choice." (Quoted from memory, which is why it's approximate. I think Benedict De Spinoza wrote something similar.) | Two things to add to the excellent answer of Bob:
Not only should you tell the prof, but you are in the right to request anonymity.
Your fellow students will likely not be happy and, be aware, that, despite you doing the right thing, there is a high likelihood that will feel that you cheated them. Unfortunately, that's not the desired thing, but that's what typically happens.
You may need to ensure that your post is anonymous if you do not trust faculty to keep your identity as whistleblower confidential.
And, of course, do request that the paper is invalidated, so that students that were not informed about it do not end with a disadvantage. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | Tell your professor. I don't know whether Canvas keeps logs such as you describe, but it doesn't make any difference. Your feeling of moral obligation is correct. You are obligated to tell your professor.
Here is some general advice. Author John D. MacDonald has one of his characters say, approximately, "In the case of any ethical decision, the thing you least want to do is probably the right choice." (Quoted from memory, which is why it's approximate. I think Benedict De Spinoza wrote something similar.) | It is your unequivocal ethical duty to let the professor know about discovering the exam file. If you knowingly take an exam whose contents you know in advance even though you are not supposed to know them, then you are guilty of cheating, plain and simple. There isn’t any way to make such an action appear morally justified.
Second, your professor also has an ethical duty to act in a way that minimizes the damage from this incident. They must rewrite the exam. And they must announce to the class that the exam has been rewritten so as not to leave students with the false idea that they know the contents of the exam, leading them to not prepare well for a genuine exam. (Some might argue that that would be their problem if they chose not to prepare; however, deliberately leaving them with such an idea is a form of entrapment in my opinion, and itself unethical). So in your email to the professor it might be reasonable to express your concern about the classmates not being told, and suggest that the professor make such an announcement. It should be the professor who announces it, not you, to avoid jeopardizing your relationships with your classmates. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | Tell your professor. I don't know whether Canvas keeps logs such as you describe, but it doesn't make any difference. Your feeling of moral obligation is correct. You are obligated to tell your professor.
Here is some general advice. Author John D. MacDonald has one of his characters say, approximately, "In the case of any ethical decision, the thing you least want to do is probably the right choice." (Quoted from memory, which is why it's approximate. I think Benedict De Spinoza wrote something similar.) | Many academic ethics problems are reasonably well addressed by the "Golden rule", i.e. treat other people the way you would like to be treated if roles were reversed (sadly, this is sometimes exactly what the maxim in Bob's answer suggests).
If you were the prof. you would probably want to be informed *immediately*. They would probably not want you to share it with all of your friends as that may well invalidate the whole assessment for every student (meaning you may all have to sit a second exam).
You may want to check whether this violates your universities plagiarism and collusion regulations. Giving material to other students that is likely to improve their performance is likely to be regarded as collusion.
I would recommend letting the prof know exactly what happened *immediately* so they can do what they can to salvage the situation. Whether you do this anonymously or not is up to you, but next time I would think about the ethics of the situation before acting. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | Tell your professor. I don't know whether Canvas keeps logs such as you describe, but it doesn't make any difference. Your feeling of moral obligation is correct. You are obligated to tell your professor.
Here is some general advice. Author John D. MacDonald has one of his characters say, approximately, "In the case of any ethical decision, the thing you least want to do is probably the right choice." (Quoted from memory, which is why it's approximate. I think Benedict De Spinoza wrote something similar.) | The mainstream opinion here does not generalize well. I agree that it's ethical to tell the professor, and it seems from your words you are not afraid of repercussions.
But for the people in different situations, remember that often **no good deed goes unpunished**. You can derail your academic career or even *get in legal trouble* just for discovering security issues.
Do not ever, in any circumstances, access files you shouldn't have access to, even if you just want to help. They can blame you and accuse you of hacking.
It is very risky to help people. If you can report something anonymously, you will avoid lots of potential trouble - but take care that you actually left no identifying trace. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | Two things to add to the excellent answer of Bob:
Not only should you tell the prof, but you are in the right to request anonymity.
Your fellow students will likely not be happy and, be aware, that, despite you doing the right thing, there is a high likelihood that will feel that you cheated them. Unfortunately, that's not the desired thing, but that's what typically happens.
You may need to ensure that your post is anonymous if you do not trust faculty to keep your identity as whistleblower confidential.
And, of course, do request that the paper is invalidated, so that students that were not informed about it do not end with a disadvantage. | Many academic ethics problems are reasonably well addressed by the "Golden rule", i.e. treat other people the way you would like to be treated if roles were reversed (sadly, this is sometimes exactly what the maxim in Bob's answer suggests).
If you were the prof. you would probably want to be informed *immediately*. They would probably not want you to share it with all of your friends as that may well invalidate the whole assessment for every student (meaning you may all have to sit a second exam).
You may want to check whether this violates your universities plagiarism and collusion regulations. Giving material to other students that is likely to improve their performance is likely to be regarded as collusion.
I would recommend letting the prof know exactly what happened *immediately* so they can do what they can to salvage the situation. Whether you do this anonymously or not is up to you, but next time I would think about the ethics of the situation before acting. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | Two things to add to the excellent answer of Bob:
Not only should you tell the prof, but you are in the right to request anonymity.
Your fellow students will likely not be happy and, be aware, that, despite you doing the right thing, there is a high likelihood that will feel that you cheated them. Unfortunately, that's not the desired thing, but that's what typically happens.
You may need to ensure that your post is anonymous if you do not trust faculty to keep your identity as whistleblower confidential.
And, of course, do request that the paper is invalidated, so that students that were not informed about it do not end with a disadvantage. | The mainstream opinion here does not generalize well. I agree that it's ethical to tell the professor, and it seems from your words you are not afraid of repercussions.
But for the people in different situations, remember that often **no good deed goes unpunished**. You can derail your academic career or even *get in legal trouble* just for discovering security issues.
Do not ever, in any circumstances, access files you shouldn't have access to, even if you just want to help. They can blame you and accuse you of hacking.
It is very risky to help people. If you can report something anonymously, you will avoid lots of potential trouble - but take care that you actually left no identifying trace. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | It is your unequivocal ethical duty to let the professor know about discovering the exam file. If you knowingly take an exam whose contents you know in advance even though you are not supposed to know them, then you are guilty of cheating, plain and simple. There isn’t any way to make such an action appear morally justified.
Second, your professor also has an ethical duty to act in a way that minimizes the damage from this incident. They must rewrite the exam. And they must announce to the class that the exam has been rewritten so as not to leave students with the false idea that they know the contents of the exam, leading them to not prepare well for a genuine exam. (Some might argue that that would be their problem if they chose not to prepare; however, deliberately leaving them with such an idea is a form of entrapment in my opinion, and itself unethical). So in your email to the professor it might be reasonable to express your concern about the classmates not being told, and suggest that the professor make such an announcement. It should be the professor who announces it, not you, to avoid jeopardizing your relationships with your classmates. | Many academic ethics problems are reasonably well addressed by the "Golden rule", i.e. treat other people the way you would like to be treated if roles were reversed (sadly, this is sometimes exactly what the maxim in Bob's answer suggests).
If you were the prof. you would probably want to be informed *immediately*. They would probably not want you to share it with all of your friends as that may well invalidate the whole assessment for every student (meaning you may all have to sit a second exam).
You may want to check whether this violates your universities plagiarism and collusion regulations. Giving material to other students that is likely to improve their performance is likely to be regarded as collusion.
I would recommend letting the prof know exactly what happened *immediately* so they can do what they can to salvage the situation. Whether you do this anonymously or not is up to you, but next time I would think about the ethics of the situation before acting. |
168,220 | I was going through the files on canvas of my course, then I saw a file called like Examination\_(coursename)\_2021 and was like "it's probably the practice". I opened it and it seemed like the actual exam, so I sent a message to course group like is this the actual exam? It seems like it is and they asked me to share it with them, which I did. Then I started thinking I should tell my professor that I have access to the questions. I also checked if other people in my class could find the file which they did. So now I'm kind of lost, obviously, I want to do well on the exam but also I don't feel good about it. Although the exam is tomorrow and it is an open book exam, I feel like I should tell my professor just because now my mind isn't focused on the exam at all, I feel I am morally obligated to tell them. Though I would have to tell everyone in my group that I told the professor which I don't think they would be happy about because I asked them if I should tell the professor and they already said no. Another reason I'm worried is that the professor might be able to see when I first viewed the questions, which was a day before, I'm just so lost about what I should do.
Edit:
I think I will tell my professor. However, now I don't know if I should tell the people in my class or just keep it anonymous. I'm worried that if I don't tell my class, some people will only have prepared for the questions and not for the actual course. I definitely regret sharing the exam with the people in my class now, it would've been much easier to have told my professor, if I hadn't shared the questions with the people in my class.
Edit 2:
So I did send an email yesterday and apparently, it was just a past exam from another year. So it's all good. I just completed the actual exam today and feel quite good about it. Thank you to everyone who helped give advice!! | 2021/05/26 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168220",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/140069/"
] | It is your unequivocal ethical duty to let the professor know about discovering the exam file. If you knowingly take an exam whose contents you know in advance even though you are not supposed to know them, then you are guilty of cheating, plain and simple. There isn’t any way to make such an action appear morally justified.
Second, your professor also has an ethical duty to act in a way that minimizes the damage from this incident. They must rewrite the exam. And they must announce to the class that the exam has been rewritten so as not to leave students with the false idea that they know the contents of the exam, leading them to not prepare well for a genuine exam. (Some might argue that that would be their problem if they chose not to prepare; however, deliberately leaving them with such an idea is a form of entrapment in my opinion, and itself unethical). So in your email to the professor it might be reasonable to express your concern about the classmates not being told, and suggest that the professor make such an announcement. It should be the professor who announces it, not you, to avoid jeopardizing your relationships with your classmates. | The mainstream opinion here does not generalize well. I agree that it's ethical to tell the professor, and it seems from your words you are not afraid of repercussions.
But for the people in different situations, remember that often **no good deed goes unpunished**. You can derail your academic career or even *get in legal trouble* just for discovering security issues.
Do not ever, in any circumstances, access files you shouldn't have access to, even if you just want to help. They can blame you and accuse you of hacking.
It is very risky to help people. If you can report something anonymously, you will avoid lots of potential trouble - but take care that you actually left no identifying trace. |
107,105 | I like the idea that the players of my campaign are meddlers. Creatures who have came upon knowledge only by accident or putting their noses where those noses don't belong. The idea that the adventurers are only really along for the ride (until they aren't).
What methods of information delivery work well for this? | 2017/09/19 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/107105",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/29904/"
] | Give them quests and sidequests that are not about your main plotline or quest, but somehow are related to them.
While they're going about their adventurer business in the normal fashion, making cash, earning their reputation, they keep finding small hints. They seem like arbitrary pieces of fluff, until a player links them somehow ("Oh shit… crap… *this* is what's happening?") or the plot forces it and they get a surprise aha-moment.
Example plot line;
* After routing the weapon smugglers, the party goes through the crates and finds a smaller box containing some very nice, intricate gems. Little do they know the smugglers got a job on the side to deliver these to a mage who needs them for a ritual. Bonus points if they sell them and have to track down the gems later.
* After dealing with some enraged owl bears in the woods, at nightfall they find a bandit camping ground. The party overhears them mentioning being able to take it easy for awhile, now that they delivered 'those silly jars of dust to *that* guy'. Actually the same mage that needed his ritual components.
* While rescuing some kidnapped children from goblins, they come across another corpse in their lair. While the corpse has little of interest, he carries a small notebook with seemingly boring delivery notes. Actually it's a coded ritual book with instruction said mage needs for his ritual.
* While searching in the library for the lineage of a notorious noble they need leverage on, they come across a paragraph that mentions an ancestor that performed some kind of evil ritual using a trio of gems and the ashes of a dragon.
* While they're negotiating some kind of unrelated mission, the party feels a prickly feeling in their neck. They turn around and see a scrying eye close quickly. The mage found something of theirs while looking for the note or gems and is scrying them now.
* If they haven't figured it out at this point and start investigating more, let the mage catch them at some inopportune moment. They might be defending a duchess on the road from an orc attack, when suddenly the mage appears and demands the notes or gems from them, and takes the duchess hostage. Of course, before the mage takes off, nothing like a fireball in their face to let the party know he's serious. | Acquisition of information itself cannot be accidental. You instinctively observe your surroundings and try to make sense of it. (The only exception I can think of is planting information in someone directly via *modify memory*.)
What would fit the style you are going for is putting the sources of information in ordinary places, but put the characters in the unique position of being able to acquire it "by happenstance". Either they are in just the right place at the right time ("You go to the outhouse behind the inn and notice through the window of one of the rooms the smith confessing to the noble's daughter. Ooh!") or they are the only ones able to deduce the information based on existing knowledge ("Horrible! People started disappearing from the town. Last week our smith, now the noble's daughter is missing too!").
The point is that the information acquired and their reason to enter the scene should not have much in common. You can even add scenes that you would skip otherwise (like going to the outhouse).
There are two routes possible: it is either truly random or you define an underlying structure. If it is random, you practically roll on a random encounter table whenever it seems appropriate, usually when they enter a new scene (maybe with two tables for abandoned and densely populated places). The other is much harder to pull off. Instead of rolling, the choice of information to give should make sense to *you*: "if they go up to the rooms in the inn during dinner, they see...". It can help in designing the adventure by forcing you to make sense of it and fill all possible gaps in logic. The problem is that the players *by design* will not know the difference. So if you are fine with a more narrativist approach, I recommend making the random tables. Going the other way only is much more work, even for seemingly simple plots. Of course a mix of the two approaches is possible too and is what you will end up with most likely. |
107,105 | I like the idea that the players of my campaign are meddlers. Creatures who have came upon knowledge only by accident or putting their noses where those noses don't belong. The idea that the adventurers are only really along for the ride (until they aren't).
What methods of information delivery work well for this? | 2017/09/19 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/107105",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/29904/"
] | Use the Three Clue Rule
-----------------------
Let them gather pieces of information naturally, while exploring locations you've prepared.
To make sure they'll found at least one, use the Three Clue rule of thumb:
<http://thealexandrian.net/wordpress/1118/roleplaying-games/three-clue-rule>
For instance, they could get a hint while eavesdropping a conversation, *or* snooping a document, *or* asking the right man, *or* finding some kind of artifact (a quest item they are supposed to search anyways). If they are meddlers, they'll probably put their noses to at least one of these clues. | Acquisition of information itself cannot be accidental. You instinctively observe your surroundings and try to make sense of it. (The only exception I can think of is planting information in someone directly via *modify memory*.)
What would fit the style you are going for is putting the sources of information in ordinary places, but put the characters in the unique position of being able to acquire it "by happenstance". Either they are in just the right place at the right time ("You go to the outhouse behind the inn and notice through the window of one of the rooms the smith confessing to the noble's daughter. Ooh!") or they are the only ones able to deduce the information based on existing knowledge ("Horrible! People started disappearing from the town. Last week our smith, now the noble's daughter is missing too!").
The point is that the information acquired and their reason to enter the scene should not have much in common. You can even add scenes that you would skip otherwise (like going to the outhouse).
There are two routes possible: it is either truly random or you define an underlying structure. If it is random, you practically roll on a random encounter table whenever it seems appropriate, usually when they enter a new scene (maybe with two tables for abandoned and densely populated places). The other is much harder to pull off. Instead of rolling, the choice of information to give should make sense to *you*: "if they go up to the rooms in the inn during dinner, they see...". It can help in designing the adventure by forcing you to make sense of it and fill all possible gaps in logic. The problem is that the players *by design* will not know the difference. So if you are fine with a more narrativist approach, I recommend making the random tables. Going the other way only is much more work, even for seemingly simple plots. Of course a mix of the two approaches is possible too and is what you will end up with most likely. |
107,105 | I like the idea that the players of my campaign are meddlers. Creatures who have came upon knowledge only by accident or putting their noses where those noses don't belong. The idea that the adventurers are only really along for the ride (until they aren't).
What methods of information delivery work well for this? | 2017/09/19 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/107105",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/29904/"
] | Give them quests and sidequests that are not about your main plotline or quest, but somehow are related to them.
While they're going about their adventurer business in the normal fashion, making cash, earning their reputation, they keep finding small hints. They seem like arbitrary pieces of fluff, until a player links them somehow ("Oh shit… crap… *this* is what's happening?") or the plot forces it and they get a surprise aha-moment.
Example plot line;
* After routing the weapon smugglers, the party goes through the crates and finds a smaller box containing some very nice, intricate gems. Little do they know the smugglers got a job on the side to deliver these to a mage who needs them for a ritual. Bonus points if they sell them and have to track down the gems later.
* After dealing with some enraged owl bears in the woods, at nightfall they find a bandit camping ground. The party overhears them mentioning being able to take it easy for awhile, now that they delivered 'those silly jars of dust to *that* guy'. Actually the same mage that needed his ritual components.
* While rescuing some kidnapped children from goblins, they come across another corpse in their lair. While the corpse has little of interest, he carries a small notebook with seemingly boring delivery notes. Actually it's a coded ritual book with instruction said mage needs for his ritual.
* While searching in the library for the lineage of a notorious noble they need leverage on, they come across a paragraph that mentions an ancestor that performed some kind of evil ritual using a trio of gems and the ashes of a dragon.
* While they're negotiating some kind of unrelated mission, the party feels a prickly feeling in their neck. They turn around and see a scrying eye close quickly. The mage found something of theirs while looking for the note or gems and is scrying them now.
* If they haven't figured it out at this point and start investigating more, let the mage catch them at some inopportune moment. They might be defending a duchess on the road from an orc attack, when suddenly the mage appears and demands the notes or gems from them, and takes the duchess hostage. Of course, before the mage takes off, nothing like a fireball in their face to let the party know he's serious. | Use the Three Clue Rule
-----------------------
Let them gather pieces of information naturally, while exploring locations you've prepared.
To make sure they'll found at least one, use the Three Clue rule of thumb:
<http://thealexandrian.net/wordpress/1118/roleplaying-games/three-clue-rule>
For instance, they could get a hint while eavesdropping a conversation, *or* snooping a document, *or* asking the right man, *or* finding some kind of artifact (a quest item they are supposed to search anyways). If they are meddlers, they'll probably put their noses to at least one of these clues. |
15,556 | As a sort of disclaimer, "diagnosis" is a much stronger word than what is meant.
ADD seems to be an umbrella term. Where does one start with self-diagnosis? Or what macro-level categories are there (to further observe oneself for certain characteristics or traits). An outline is probably the best way.
I do not mean "disability" as an excuse for lazy university students who do not try. Furthermore, please assume that 'study skills' (organization, time management, note taking, etc) are average or above average (since this also factors into academic performance).
EDIT: This question applies to many people. Labeling something is not the same thing as "self-help." The question is specifically phrased to not ask for opinion based answers. Furthermore, noting the Hawthorne effect does not necessarily cause altered behavior. | 2016/07/29 | [
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15556",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/4116/"
] | Attempting to diagnose your self is likely to result in a diagnosis riddled with confirmation bias, and therefore incorrect. However, if you insist on diagnosing yourself I would recommend starting with the DSM-V (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual - 5). This is a psychiatrist's bible, and strictly outlines the set of symptoms that are required for a particular diagnosis.
A caveat before reading - read the entire chapter, not just the symptom list. The supporting information discusses the symptomology in depth, and will provide a much more accurate diagnosis.
The Manual can be found here:
[Diagnostic and Statistical Manual V](https://psicovalero.files.wordpress.com/2014/11/dsm-v-ingles-manual-diagnc3b3stico-y-estadc3adstico-de-los-trastornos-mentales.pdf) | As a precursor, there are common pitfalls of self diagnosis. If already diagnosed as ADD/ADHD or slow processing speed, it may be a lack of understanding or knowledge of the causes of this disorder rather than a different disability:
* [Is there a difference between ADD and ADHD?](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/12485/is-there-a-difference-between-add-and-adhd)
* [Why ADHD instead of ADD? / Why predominantly hyperactive-impulsive instead of predominantly-impulsive?](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/12314/why-adhd-instead-of-add-why-predominantly-hyperactive-impulsive-instead-of-pr)
* [How well defined is ADD/ADHD?](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/1886/how-well-defined-is-add-adhd)
* [How does one respond to an ADD/ADHD diagnosis of one's self or one's child?](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/10823/how-does-one-respond-to-an-add-adhd-diagnosis-of-ones-self-or-ones-child)
On the other hand, there are obvious hindrances that probably would have been identified already: Dyslexia (significantly observable reading issue), dysgraphia (incoherent writing), dyscalculia (calculating), dyspraxia (coordination), [etc](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Specific_developmental_disorder#Comparison_and_conditions). Again, for these you will know right away and describe with unspecialized language.
As for an outline of these specific learning disorders, they are broken up as simple as this:
1. Reading
2. Writing
3. Math
A more detailed overview of subcategories is [here](http://www.naset.org/fileadmin/user_upload/LD_Report/Issue__3_LD_Report_Characteristic_of_LD.pdf). |
424,848 | It seems that both "theism" and "deism" take their roots in Classical words for "god." Is there an etymological explanation for why they have such different meanings?
I wasn't able to find anything beyond the fact that "theism" is an earlier word whereas "deism," according to [Wiktionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/deism#English), comes from French. | 2018/01/03 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/424848",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/47081/"
] | I don't think there is any etymological explanation of the difference in meaning and usage between "deism" and "theism". If there is one, it doesn't seem to be very obvious, as you have already noticed.
Different words often naturally develop different connotations, and when they don't, people often put them to use for different concepts or try to figure out some way to distinguish them (or sometimes, one of them just falls out of common use). I think this is probably the main reason why "theism" and "deism" have distinct meanings in present-day English.
Basic etymological facts
------------------------
"Deism" and "theism" both seem to have been coined sometime in the second half of the 2nd millenium. The Oxford English Dictionary (OED)'s earliest example of *deism* in English is from 1682; the OED further indicates that the word was taken from French. The French [CNRTL](http://www.cnrtl.fr/definition/d%C3%A9isme) indicates the earliest source where the French *déisme* is known to have been used is "1662 (Pasc., *Pens.,* part. II, art. 4 ds Littré)". The French word for "God", *dieu/Dieu,* is related to the Latin stem used in *déisme.*
The OED's earliest example of *theism* in English is from 1678. It says *théisme* was used in French by Voltaire (who lived 1694–1778), but it doesn't say in what context. The French [CNRTL](http://www.cnrtl.fr/definition/th%C3%A9isme) says *théisme* was actually taken into French from English, and gives "1745 (Diderot, *Principes de la philosophie morale, ou essai de M. S\*\* A. Cooper Comte de [Shaftesbury] sur le mérite et la vertu, avec réflexions,* Amsterdam, p. 12, note)" as the earliest known example in French.
My thoughts and conjectures
---------------------------
*Theism* and *deism* are fairly "jargon"-y words. Jargon doesn't have to have a logical etymology; the point is to have any kind of label at all. E.g. the prefixes "a" and "im-" usually mean the same thing, but people have come up with a special distinction between "amoral" and "immoral".
So I would say there is no etymological explanation. The Oxford English Dictionary entry for "deism" cites a source that says that:
>
> 1877 E. R. Conder *Basis of Faith* i. 25 Deism should etymologically have the same sense with *Theism,* but it is commonly taken to carry with it the denial of what is called revealed religion. Theism conveys no such implication.
>
>
> | Deism is the understanding that a collection of natural laws govern existance. But either rejects the existence of supernatural beings, or simply rejects that God or gods take physical form to interact with humans, or that they interfere with the affairs of humans in a manner that causes a favorable or unfavorable outcome. Basically God is a collection of natural laws that govern everything.
Theology deals with gods and goddesses and includes monotheism (one God) which is distinctly different than a force or natural law but a being.
Deism proposed that an omnipotent being, if one existed, would be much too busy to be bothered by our petty daily complaints and desires, and furthormore, would be much too wise than to interfere on anyone's account; for one man's gain is another's loss. Mortal problems should be worked out amongst other mortals using reason, justice, and natural laws as a measure. For a God to intervene would break the law of free will.
Many of the founding fathers of the United States of America were deists and knew exactly the monumental thing they were trying to achieve. They wanted the declaration of Independence and later the Constitution and bill of eights to reflect the deist principles. "All men are created equal" directly challenges anyone who would decide to declare themselves a god, which happened all throughout history.
Early deists included many founding fathers and scientists, and deism was key to the development of modern science. If forces in nature govern the universe, it would make since to find out just what those forces are. Like Voltaire influenced the then Queen of Russia into funding science and allowing more free expression which caused Russia's golden era. In contrast, at the same time in Europe, deist thoughts had to be kept hidden in knights templar, Rosicrucian, and other secret orders.
Many deists find the Bible, Quran, Bhagavad-Gita, and other texts to be allegorical stories that teach society about natural law.
Much could be argued that ancients who were educated knew that the gods were in fact allegory describing the forces in natural law. The Egyptians believed strongly in "as above, so below" which was derived from observation of repeating patterns in nature. Not saying they weren't superstitious, but deism was around long before religions as we know it today.
Thomas Jefferson, George washington, Voltaire, many rebound early scientists. I mean it's the anyone who was anyone list. |
424,848 | It seems that both "theism" and "deism" take their roots in Classical words for "god." Is there an etymological explanation for why they have such different meanings?
I wasn't able to find anything beyond the fact that "theism" is an earlier word whereas "deism," according to [Wiktionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/deism#English), comes from French. | 2018/01/03 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/424848",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/47081/"
] | Simplistically, *deist* (and hence *deism*) derives from *Zeus* while *theist* (and hence *theism*) derives from the more generic *theos*, both terms of Greek extraction:
>
> **deist (n.)**
> 1620s, from French déiste, from Latin deus (see Zeus). Related: Deistic (1795). Also see deism.
> [- etymonline](https://www.etymonline.com/word/deist)
>
>
> **theist (n.)**
> 1660s, from Greek theos "god" (from PIE root \*dhes-, forming words for religious concepts) + -ist. The original senses was that later reserved to deist: "one who believes in a transcendent god but denies revelation." Later in 18c. theist was contrasted with deist, as believing in a personal God and allowing the possibility of revelation.
> [- etymonline](https://www.etymonline.com/word/theist)
>
>
>
The term *deism* goes back to the name [*Zeus*](https://www.etymonline.com/word/zeus), which [in turn](https://www.etymonline.com/word/*dyeu-) goes back to a PIE root meaning *to shine*. Further:
>
> However, the word "deism", as it is understood today, is generally used to refer to the movement toward natural theology or freethinking that occurred in 17th-century Europe, and specifically in Britain.
> [- wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deism#Historical_background)
>
>
>
It might be that 'theologians' (using that term loosely, given the distinction deists made with respect to *theism*) of the [*enlightenment*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Age_of_Enlightenment) movement (which championed reasoning) picked the term *deism* for its link to the notion of 'light' embedded in the movement's name *The Enlightenment*. There is also some (very slight) circumstantial support in the "father of lights" term attributed to someone said to be a deist:
>
> Deist authors – and 17th- and 18th-century theologians in general – referred to God using a variety of vivid circumlocutions such as ... Father of Lights. Benjamin Franklin used this terminology when proposing that meetings of the Constitutional Convention begin with prayers
> [- wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deism#Terminology)
>
>
>
The term *theist* has a broader scope:
>
> The term theism was first used by Ralph Cudworth (1617–1688).[8](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deism#cite_note-14) In Cudworth's definition, they are "strictly and properly called Theists, who affirm, that a perfectly conscious understanding being, or mind, existing of itself from eternity, was the cause of all other things".
> [- wikipedia, citing Cudworth, Ralph (1678). The True Intellectual System of the Universe, Vol. I. New York: Gould & Newman, 1837, p. 267.](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theism#Etymology)
>
>
>
It would make sense that the distinction between *deism* and *theism* solidified due to the philosophical polarisation between the concepts of an involved God and that of one uninvolved:
>
> Prior to the 17th Century the terms ["deism" and "deist"] were used interchangeably with the terms "theism" and "theist", respectively. ... Theologians and philosophers of the 17th Century began to give a different signification to the words... Both [theists and deists] asserted belief in one supreme God, the Creator... . But the theist taught that God remained actively interested in and operative in the world which he had made, whereas the Deist maintained that God endowed the world at creation with self-sustaining and self-acting powers and then surrendered it wholly to the operation of these powers acting as second causes.
> [- wikipedia, citing: Orr, John (1934). English Deism: Its Roots and Its Fruits. Eerdmans. p. 13.](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deism#cite_note-14)
>
>
> | Deism is the understanding that a collection of natural laws govern existance. But either rejects the existence of supernatural beings, or simply rejects that God or gods take physical form to interact with humans, or that they interfere with the affairs of humans in a manner that causes a favorable or unfavorable outcome. Basically God is a collection of natural laws that govern everything.
Theology deals with gods and goddesses and includes monotheism (one God) which is distinctly different than a force or natural law but a being.
Deism proposed that an omnipotent being, if one existed, would be much too busy to be bothered by our petty daily complaints and desires, and furthormore, would be much too wise than to interfere on anyone's account; for one man's gain is another's loss. Mortal problems should be worked out amongst other mortals using reason, justice, and natural laws as a measure. For a God to intervene would break the law of free will.
Many of the founding fathers of the United States of America were deists and knew exactly the monumental thing they were trying to achieve. They wanted the declaration of Independence and later the Constitution and bill of eights to reflect the deist principles. "All men are created equal" directly challenges anyone who would decide to declare themselves a god, which happened all throughout history.
Early deists included many founding fathers and scientists, and deism was key to the development of modern science. If forces in nature govern the universe, it would make since to find out just what those forces are. Like Voltaire influenced the then Queen of Russia into funding science and allowing more free expression which caused Russia's golden era. In contrast, at the same time in Europe, deist thoughts had to be kept hidden in knights templar, Rosicrucian, and other secret orders.
Many deists find the Bible, Quran, Bhagavad-Gita, and other texts to be allegorical stories that teach society about natural law.
Much could be argued that ancients who were educated knew that the gods were in fact allegory describing the forces in natural law. The Egyptians believed strongly in "as above, so below" which was derived from observation of repeating patterns in nature. Not saying they weren't superstitious, but deism was around long before religions as we know it today.
Thomas Jefferson, George washington, Voltaire, many rebound early scientists. I mean it's the anyone who was anyone list. |
1,108,355 | I looked at some demos but did not find any articles that explain the concept.
[Demo link](http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&ct=res&cd=1&url=http%3A%2F%2Fjava.sun.com%2Fproducts%2Fjfc%2Fjws%2FSwingSet2.jnlp&ei=Y-xWSsOSD5T7tgex6PndCg&usg=AFQjCNGWki9C_BLV5fUkYdxhFyB0-zmXxg&sig2=9olvfcuWLHu8t-fQ46Lb3A) | 2009/07/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1108355",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26788/"
] | Swingset is a java demonstration of the swing feature in java which is a set of cross platform gui options. It was made to showcase swing. Its somewhat useful in that you can see the code of the gui with the swingset. | SwingSet are some free libraries for improve some elements from Swing. Fro example it has a Grid which you can connect to a ResultSet and Combos etc. |
32,519 | I will do my best and try to self study Diestel's Graph Theory during the next few years. This will obviously result me asking help/proof checking in this forum, so I would like to be on the same page with everyone else in terms of the format used for, say proof checking. Is a format of "Seeking proof checking for {Bookname} {problem number/title} considered appropriate? I do not think I have the same "misconfusion" when asking help for finishing up problems, as you usually know what you do not understand (and can use that as the title). | 2020/09/09 | [
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32519",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/820472/"
] | I would recommend that you describe the mathematical content of your question in a self-contained way in the title - bibliographic information is certainly important and useful to some (and absolutely should be included in the body of the question for context), but it's not as broadly accessible as a brief description of the mathematical content; I would suggest that a title like:
>
> Is this proof that every tree has a leaf correct? (Diestel's Graph Theory Exercise 2.15)
>
>
>
would be good - the title is easy for other people to come across either by searching for a particular question from the book or by searching for the general graph theoretic terms (possibly coming from other sources). This also allows answerers to see the content of the question immediately and to determine easily whether it's relevant to them. In case this title would be too long, you would be better off just using "Is this proof that every tree has a leaf correct?" and putting the source in the body of the post. | That title would be OK. Better: put the problem number in the body, use the title to provide information about the theorem being proved. |
135,539 | Working on a system that has a TON of data - and trying to optimize it since so much data comes out of it. There are a lot of filters in this system and all data was returned, bad I know. In any event, I recommended to the team to have a new filter called "Requires My Action" and default it to `checked` so that when the user logs in they only see their records.
This worked out pretty good and has drastically reduced the amount of data...
However, on the form the original developers have a button to "Clear All Filters" and upon clicking that is now clearing this new defaulted filter.
I recommended to the team that this button clear everything except this field otherwise there was no reason why we defaulted it from the beginning. For instance, a user logs in and this filter "Requires My Action" is set giving them 5k records say. He / She then filters on additional fields like a site or plant name and they get 2500 records. Imagine if this same user thought ok wait I didn't want to filter by site/plant I wanted to filter by status so they click "Clear All Filters" and suddenly now they are seeing 50k records instead of 5k records since the "Requires My Action" is cleared as well.
To me users are not going to go to each filter (for instance we have multi selection checkboxes) and uncheck or unfilter each field - its too much work. Most users are going to simply click a button that "Clears All Filters", but I truly think that the checkbox "Requires My Action" should not be cleared as it clearly changes the amount of data. It happened to me several times and I am a power user.
Your thoughts? Should this button clear ALL filters including this new filter?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/E7Jo9.png)
In the image above when a user logs in we default the requires my action (or use their session values to set this checkbox). If they start picking on other filters and then want to clear these filters - should this important filter be cleared - my experience and my thought is NO it should not clear, but wanted to get your feedback.
**please note i am not asking whether the button name should be changed i can easily do that. I am asking does it make sense that clear or filter reset keep my important checkbox checked??** | 2020/11/13 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/135539",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/7154/"
] | There are certainly other solutions, but probably the simplest would be to **change the button text from "Clear All" to "Reset Filters".**
Now, instead of "emptying all filters", the button indicates that it's "resetting all filters to the default value" and the checkbox can remain checked. | If you have a button that says it will clear all filters it should do that.
Without knowing the full set of use cases I can only guess if a button doing that is useful or not. I would imagine it would be very useful for someone looking at the data for a different purpose than the one you are focused on. Perhaps a person who wants to see all activities for all actors for a time period.
You need to collect a good set of use cases and provide a response to each of them.
Strangers on the internet can’t guess at what the use cases are, only User Research can tell you that. |
4,368 | The lock side is great, however, shoes does not stay on the platform side. Your leg always slip out from the pedals during pedaling. Any solution to improve it? | 2011/06/21 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4368",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1676/"
] | Some people have modded the pedals to add set-screws which provide better grip. Typically this involves drilling a hole, tapping it for threads, and adding a set screw of the desired length.
For example, here's an a530 with 2x set screws added:
 | I would pay a visit to your local skateboard shop and get some 'skateboard grip tape'.
This should be inexpensive and it can be applied in such a way that your pedals are not permanently damaged. The glue on the stuff is pretty good and it is pretty much totally designed for keeping feet in place.
Your pedals might look a bit naff with bits of tape wrapped around them, a further consideration is that you could go away from the normal black and get hi-viz tape. |
4,368 | The lock side is great, however, shoes does not stay on the platform side. Your leg always slip out from the pedals during pedaling. Any solution to improve it? | 2011/06/21 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4368",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1676/"
] | I'm not sure there is a good answer to this question. It probably depends most on what type of shoes you wear. Have you tried using trainers/sneakers with a rubber sole? I wouldn't want to try and modify the pedals as you may risk damaging them.
If you want a really good reliable pedal connection on the platform side, I reckon the [Shimano M324 pedals](http://www.wiggle.co.uk/shimano-m324-combination-pedals/) are more likely to suit. | Perhaps you need to change your pedalling style when you're riding without clips: push (only) down onto the pedal, instead of spinning.
That's why you *have* clips. |
4,368 | The lock side is great, however, shoes does not stay on the platform side. Your leg always slip out from the pedals during pedaling. Any solution to improve it? | 2011/06/21 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4368",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1676/"
] | I wired a piece of rubber tubing around the front and back beams on mine and it helped a lot. I like the skateboard tape idea and will try it. These pedals are beautifully finished but the edges of all the lugs are rounded over and then hardcoat anodized resulting in a really slippery pedal; your feet tend to slide sideways and go off the outside edge periodically. Wearing SPD MTB shoes on the flat side is the worst, especially when the cleat reaches the outside edge. Running shoes are definitely better. None of this has anything to do with technique; I have old style metal and rubber pedals that you slide off of if you hit a large bump, otherwise you're fine, but these are slippery enough that you can nail your ankle pretty easily. There are a bunch of pedals like the mentioned Shimano M 324 that I think should be better, mostly at the expense of increaded wieght. | This seems an easy solution pretty easy to take on and off:
 |
4,368 | The lock side is great, however, shoes does not stay on the platform side. Your leg always slip out from the pedals during pedaling. Any solution to improve it? | 2011/06/21 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4368",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1676/"
] | I would pay a visit to your local skateboard shop and get some 'skateboard grip tape'.
This should be inexpensive and it can be applied in such a way that your pedals are not permanently damaged. The glue on the stuff is pretty good and it is pretty much totally designed for keeping feet in place.
Your pedals might look a bit naff with bits of tape wrapped around them, a further consideration is that you could go away from the normal black and get hi-viz tape. | This seems an easy solution pretty easy to take on and off:
 |
4,368 | The lock side is great, however, shoes does not stay on the platform side. Your leg always slip out from the pedals during pedaling. Any solution to improve it? | 2011/06/21 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4368",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/1676/"
] | I would pay a visit to your local skateboard shop and get some 'skateboard grip tape'.
This should be inexpensive and it can be applied in such a way that your pedals are not permanently damaged. The glue on the stuff is pretty good and it is pretty much totally designed for keeping feet in place.
Your pedals might look a bit naff with bits of tape wrapped around them, a further consideration is that you could go away from the normal black and get hi-viz tape. | Perhaps you need to change your pedalling style when you're riding without clips: push (only) down onto the pedal, instead of spinning.
That's why you *have* clips. |
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