qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
153,980 | From my textbook:
>
> I wish the earthquake never happened.
>
>
>
>
> Answer key: I wish the earthquake had never happened.
>
>
>
Can I say the following sentence?
>
> I wish (that) the earthquake didn't happen.
>
>
>
If I could, what's the difference between them?
>
> I wish (that) the earthquake hadn't happened.
>
>
>
>
> I wish (that) the earthquake didn't happen.
>
>
> | 2018/01/18 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/153980",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/66859/"
] | "I wish the earthquake didn't happen" will sound incorrect to native speakers of English, because *did/do* is not used as a subjunctive verb in English, but *had* is very commonly used for subjunctive statements. This may be confusing, because *had* is also used for non-subjunctive statements (the past tense of *have*): "I had not considered leaving before the earthquake hit." which could also correctly be said as: "I did not consider leaving before the earthquake hit."
"I'm glad the earthquake didn't happen" is valid, because it would express a matter of fact (if that were true). But since the earthquake DID happen, then any reference to it not happening is hypothetical or unreal, which is what the subjunctive mood conveys: what *might* have been.
One might also correctly say:
* "I wish I had left town before the earthquake" - because one did NOT in fact leave
* "I'm glad I did leave town before the earthquake" - because one DID in fact leave
* "I wish I hadn't stayed in town on that day"
* "It's good that I didn't stay in town"
* "I wish the earthquake would not have happened" - using a modal verb *would* to say the same thing
Notice the pattern: "I wish..." always employs the subjunctive mood, because it is speaking of a hypothetical or imaginary situation that is not real or true right now, especially speaking of the past.
In summary: *did/didn't* refers to actual, real events or matters of fact, and *had/hadn't* often refers to potential but unreal events which are desired or hypothetical. | In ***I wish the earthquake did not happen***, you imply that the earthquake happens regularly, which would be incorrect. Again, in ***I wish the earthquake never happened***, you say the same thing.
However, ***I wish the earthquake had not/never happened*** is different because it means:
* Once, an earthquake happened.
* You wish for something impossible: that the earthquake had never happened.
The latter is the correct answer. |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | >
> Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
>
>
>
If a 100% understanding is not achieved graphically, at least it should have a hint of the meaning.
>
> Do my potential customers need to recognize my logo?
>
>
>
100% yes.
As in everything, I think it's about reaching a balance, if it turns in favor of one of the two options, much better for you, your company and your costumers.
---
Now:
I don't think it's very positive to disadvantage this balance towards a negative point. In the case of your logo, beyond formal errors, which has them, there's a quite important conceptual controversy that leads any potential customer not to immediately interpret its meaning.
The company is called “**TWO**-Bit Studios” and the main image perceived is a “**1**”.
Beyond the meanings, there is formally a **two** represented with a **one**.
A few years ago, quite a few, there was a stylistic tendency derived from deconstructivism that favored this type of interpretation to catch the public attention. There are examples in advertising, fashion, architecture and also in graphic design where for example a logo had some error in kerning, or alignment, or also some conceptual ambivalences. If in your case you talk about *2* and the image represents a *1* (and a 0), you are generating an ambiguity that can affect an effective result of your logo, which can be remembered for the “*pseudo*” error, but I don't think it will be interpreted.
Imagine your logo with the name below:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/m4vNv.png)
There's a graphic representation of **four** elements: the **two**, the **one**, the **0** and the **bit** b:
* **4** – **2** – **1** – **0** – **b**
Maybe for a developer it might be something immediate, for a general public I don't think so.
---
I'm not a developer, but I know that among the main visual characteristics of the binary code are:
* Items repetition
* Equal distance between each component
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yXZaT.jpg)
Neither of these two features is represented to favor the shape of the letter b. Another point to increase the non-immediate interpretation.
---
Personally I think there are too many elements for something so simple. Perhaps a cleaning in the conceptual argument favors both points raised in the question:
* Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
* Do my potential customers need to recognize the logo? | Yes, customers need to understand a logo, especially with a new first-contact, never-seen-this-before logo. They will — in time — recognize it after seeing it repeatedly, but it still needs to make sense for anyone looking at it for the first time. Some possible reactions looking at your "idea":
* is this really a "b"?
* does it look like a "ten"?
* where's the "2"?
* why different shades of white?
* why semi-transparent?
* why red?
It just looks more complicated then it should be, but good to hear you're sending this off to a professional who may be able to give you a new perspective. As a designer, i think there's definitely a better way to look at this. |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | Your customers don't have to understand your name. Your customers don't have to understand your logo. Your customers do have to remember both. To make it easier to remember you'll typically make a logo that relates to the name.
The most important thing though is that its memorable. Any reasoning behind it quite honestly doesn't matter.
A mentor of mine many years ago named his company 540 Interactive. The 540 was the number of times a bird he owned flapped its wings in a minute. His logo was the text 540 Interactive with a little bird perched atop it. Did anyone ever get why the bird was related? Nope! Did it matter? Nope!
The fact is if the logo makes sense to you, don't worry about whether or not anyone else gets all of the nuance behind it. If someone asks you can explain it. Making it memorable and putting it in front of customers is far more important. | >
> Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
>
>
>
If a 100% understanding is not achieved graphically, at least it should have a hint of the meaning.
>
> Do my potential customers need to recognize my logo?
>
>
>
100% yes.
As in everything, I think it's about reaching a balance, if it turns in favor of one of the two options, much better for you, your company and your costumers.
---
Now:
I don't think it's very positive to disadvantage this balance towards a negative point. In the case of your logo, beyond formal errors, which has them, there's a quite important conceptual controversy that leads any potential customer not to immediately interpret its meaning.
The company is called “**TWO**-Bit Studios” and the main image perceived is a “**1**”.
Beyond the meanings, there is formally a **two** represented with a **one**.
A few years ago, quite a few, there was a stylistic tendency derived from deconstructivism that favored this type of interpretation to catch the public attention. There are examples in advertising, fashion, architecture and also in graphic design where for example a logo had some error in kerning, or alignment, or also some conceptual ambivalences. If in your case you talk about *2* and the image represents a *1* (and a 0), you are generating an ambiguity that can affect an effective result of your logo, which can be remembered for the “*pseudo*” error, but I don't think it will be interpreted.
Imagine your logo with the name below:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/m4vNv.png)
There's a graphic representation of **four** elements: the **two**, the **one**, the **0** and the **bit** b:
* **4** – **2** – **1** – **0** – **b**
Maybe for a developer it might be something immediate, for a general public I don't think so.
---
I'm not a developer, but I know that among the main visual characteristics of the binary code are:
* Items repetition
* Equal distance between each component
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yXZaT.jpg)
Neither of these two features is represented to favor the shape of the letter b. Another point to increase the non-immediate interpretation.
---
Personally I think there are too many elements for something so simple. Perhaps a cleaning in the conceptual argument favors both points raised in the question:
* Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
* Do my potential customers need to recognize the logo? |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | >
> Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
>
>
>
If a 100% understanding is not achieved graphically, at least it should have a hint of the meaning.
>
> Do my potential customers need to recognize my logo?
>
>
>
100% yes.
As in everything, I think it's about reaching a balance, if it turns in favor of one of the two options, much better for you, your company and your costumers.
---
Now:
I don't think it's very positive to disadvantage this balance towards a negative point. In the case of your logo, beyond formal errors, which has them, there's a quite important conceptual controversy that leads any potential customer not to immediately interpret its meaning.
The company is called “**TWO**-Bit Studios” and the main image perceived is a “**1**”.
Beyond the meanings, there is formally a **two** represented with a **one**.
A few years ago, quite a few, there was a stylistic tendency derived from deconstructivism that favored this type of interpretation to catch the public attention. There are examples in advertising, fashion, architecture and also in graphic design where for example a logo had some error in kerning, or alignment, or also some conceptual ambivalences. If in your case you talk about *2* and the image represents a *1* (and a 0), you are generating an ambiguity that can affect an effective result of your logo, which can be remembered for the “*pseudo*” error, but I don't think it will be interpreted.
Imagine your logo with the name below:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/m4vNv.png)
There's a graphic representation of **four** elements: the **two**, the **one**, the **0** and the **bit** b:
* **4** – **2** – **1** – **0** – **b**
Maybe for a developer it might be something immediate, for a general public I don't think so.
---
I'm not a developer, but I know that among the main visual characteristics of the binary code are:
* Items repetition
* Equal distance between each component
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yXZaT.jpg)
Neither of these two features is represented to favor the shape of the letter b. Another point to increase the non-immediate interpretation.
---
Personally I think there are too many elements for something so simple. Perhaps a cleaning in the conceptual argument favors both points raised in the question:
* Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
* Do my potential customers need to recognize the logo? | You're making a common novice mistake. Trying to be clever and not having the execution skills to follow through. You also don't need a symbol for such a short name, and the 1 in the symbol for a company which actually has a 2 in the name is begging for confusion.
A word mark would be the best approach, so just spell out 2-bit in Helvetica XBold and be done with it.
As a professional agency designer for 15+ years, the approach i would take is: make the brand elements representative of bits and not binary numbers. They are effectively 'on' and 'off'... so you can get creative with that idea (filled/stroked. Square/circle. Red/blue etc etc). By displaying the name clearly you'd be facilitating the viewer to be able understand any subsequent bit/binary visual references. When designers say "keep it simple" we mean minimal, legible and to the point. |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | >
> Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
>
>
>
If a 100% understanding is not achieved graphically, at least it should have a hint of the meaning.
>
> Do my potential customers need to recognize my logo?
>
>
>
100% yes.
As in everything, I think it's about reaching a balance, if it turns in favor of one of the two options, much better for you, your company and your costumers.
---
Now:
I don't think it's very positive to disadvantage this balance towards a negative point. In the case of your logo, beyond formal errors, which has them, there's a quite important conceptual controversy that leads any potential customer not to immediately interpret its meaning.
The company is called “**TWO**-Bit Studios” and the main image perceived is a “**1**”.
Beyond the meanings, there is formally a **two** represented with a **one**.
A few years ago, quite a few, there was a stylistic tendency derived from deconstructivism that favored this type of interpretation to catch the public attention. There are examples in advertising, fashion, architecture and also in graphic design where for example a logo had some error in kerning, or alignment, or also some conceptual ambivalences. If in your case you talk about *2* and the image represents a *1* (and a 0), you are generating an ambiguity that can affect an effective result of your logo, which can be remembered for the “*pseudo*” error, but I don't think it will be interpreted.
Imagine your logo with the name below:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/m4vNv.png)
There's a graphic representation of **four** elements: the **two**, the **one**, the **0** and the **bit** b:
* **4** – **2** – **1** – **0** – **b**
Maybe for a developer it might be something immediate, for a general public I don't think so.
---
I'm not a developer, but I know that among the main visual characteristics of the binary code are:
* Items repetition
* Equal distance between each component
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yXZaT.jpg)
Neither of these two features is represented to favor the shape of the letter b. Another point to increase the non-immediate interpretation.
---
Personally I think there are too many elements for something so simple. Perhaps a cleaning in the conceptual argument favors both points raised in the question:
* Do my potential customers need to understand the “meaning” of a logo?
* Do my potential customers need to recognize the logo? | Okay I'll supply my short, image free, answer ... :)
No, it is not *inherently* bad if the underlying meaning of any logo is not picked up on in a conscious manner.
Logos don't have to consciously convey *anything*... it's all about subconscious interpretation. As long as the impression the logo makes is **favorable**, it makes absolutely no difference that viewers understand the representation of bits or that it's intended to convey some sort of "code" structure. None of that matters.
---
You *can't* tell me the meaning behind logo symbology such as Adidas, Pepsi, Motorola, Triple A, or even Adobe is readily apparent. It's not. People simply remember the mark and aren't typically concerned with *why* the mark is how it is. |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | Your customers don't have to understand your name. Your customers don't have to understand your logo. Your customers do have to remember both. To make it easier to remember you'll typically make a logo that relates to the name.
The most important thing though is that its memorable. Any reasoning behind it quite honestly doesn't matter.
A mentor of mine many years ago named his company 540 Interactive. The 540 was the number of times a bird he owned flapped its wings in a minute. His logo was the text 540 Interactive with a little bird perched atop it. Did anyone ever get why the bird was related? Nope! Did it matter? Nope!
The fact is if the logo makes sense to you, don't worry about whether or not anyone else gets all of the nuance behind it. If someone asks you can explain it. Making it memorable and putting it in front of customers is far more important. | Yes, customers need to understand a logo, especially with a new first-contact, never-seen-this-before logo. They will — in time — recognize it after seeing it repeatedly, but it still needs to make sense for anyone looking at it for the first time. Some possible reactions looking at your "idea":
* is this really a "b"?
* does it look like a "ten"?
* where's the "2"?
* why different shades of white?
* why semi-transparent?
* why red?
It just looks more complicated then it should be, but good to hear you're sending this off to a professional who may be able to give you a new perspective. As a designer, i think there's definitely a better way to look at this. |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | Your customers don't have to understand your name. Your customers don't have to understand your logo. Your customers do have to remember both. To make it easier to remember you'll typically make a logo that relates to the name.
The most important thing though is that its memorable. Any reasoning behind it quite honestly doesn't matter.
A mentor of mine many years ago named his company 540 Interactive. The 540 was the number of times a bird he owned flapped its wings in a minute. His logo was the text 540 Interactive with a little bird perched atop it. Did anyone ever get why the bird was related? Nope! Did it matter? Nope!
The fact is if the logo makes sense to you, don't worry about whether or not anyone else gets all of the nuance behind it. If someone asks you can explain it. Making it memorable and putting it in front of customers is far more important. | You're making a common novice mistake. Trying to be clever and not having the execution skills to follow through. You also don't need a symbol for such a short name, and the 1 in the symbol for a company which actually has a 2 in the name is begging for confusion.
A word mark would be the best approach, so just spell out 2-bit in Helvetica XBold and be done with it.
As a professional agency designer for 15+ years, the approach i would take is: make the brand elements representative of bits and not binary numbers. They are effectively 'on' and 'off'... so you can get creative with that idea (filled/stroked. Square/circle. Red/blue etc etc). By displaying the name clearly you'd be facilitating the viewer to be able understand any subsequent bit/binary visual references. When designers say "keep it simple" we mean minimal, legible and to the point. |
129,794 | I'm trying to come up with a logo for a web devlopment freelance company called Two-Bit Studios. The logo concept that I came up with involves a 1 and 0 combined to make a lowercase 'b'.
To me as a developer, this makes sense in many ways.
1. "bits" are just binary digits with the only options of 1 or 0.
2. The binary representation for two is '10'
3. The 1 and 0 makes a lowercase 'b' which is the symbol for 'bit' (as well as the first letter, for extra clarity).
However, most of the people I'd be doing development work probably wouldn't know any of that, they'll probably just see a stylized 'b' which is a pretty insignificant part of "two-bit". Would this lead to a lot of misunderstanding or is the recognition of the logo more important.
(**Note:** I'm not a designer I'll be sending off my concept to someone more talented to greatly refine it, I'm just supplying the idea, this question is just about the concept of the logo).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1X8KI.png) | 2019/09/24 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/129794",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/143818/"
] | Your customers don't have to understand your name. Your customers don't have to understand your logo. Your customers do have to remember both. To make it easier to remember you'll typically make a logo that relates to the name.
The most important thing though is that its memorable. Any reasoning behind it quite honestly doesn't matter.
A mentor of mine many years ago named his company 540 Interactive. The 540 was the number of times a bird he owned flapped its wings in a minute. His logo was the text 540 Interactive with a little bird perched atop it. Did anyone ever get why the bird was related? Nope! Did it matter? Nope!
The fact is if the logo makes sense to you, don't worry about whether or not anyone else gets all of the nuance behind it. If someone asks you can explain it. Making it memorable and putting it in front of customers is far more important. | Okay I'll supply my short, image free, answer ... :)
No, it is not *inherently* bad if the underlying meaning of any logo is not picked up on in a conscious manner.
Logos don't have to consciously convey *anything*... it's all about subconscious interpretation. As long as the impression the logo makes is **favorable**, it makes absolutely no difference that viewers understand the representation of bits or that it's intended to convey some sort of "code" structure. None of that matters.
---
You *can't* tell me the meaning behind logo symbology such as Adidas, Pepsi, Motorola, Triple A, or even Adobe is readily apparent. It's not. People simply remember the mark and aren't typically concerned with *why* the mark is how it is. |
592,269 | There is only one example I can think of, but I am looking for an alternative.
Scene is a character deciding that a discussion isn’t going towards the conclusion he is looking for, so he suddenly decides to “switch gears.”
“Change tactics” could also apply but it is not what I’m looking for. | 2022/07/21 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/592269",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/457998/"
] | Some suggestions:
* "*[Change tack](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/change-tack)*": to try a different method to deal with the same problem
* "*[Try a different tack](https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/to-change-tack)*": see above
* "*[Switch up](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/switch-up)*": to change, usually in a way that brings an improvement | You appear to be looking for a Path metaphor. "Changing the subject" is usually interpreted as changing the direction of a conversation. So any term that indicates motion along a designated Path will be interpreted that way.
You see it in *taking a tack*, which means altering the direction of a ship by maneuvering the sails, *switching/shifting gears,* which means altering the speed of a machine, often preparatory to altering direction, and in *deflecting,* which usually refers to the conversation as moving along a channel or road.
Get the metaphor set up in your mind and then use phrases that it suggests.
Maybe reading [Lakoff and Johnson](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metaphors_We_Live_By) would be a good idea, too. |
592,269 | There is only one example I can think of, but I am looking for an alternative.
Scene is a character deciding that a discussion isn’t going towards the conclusion he is looking for, so he suddenly decides to “switch gears.”
“Change tactics” could also apply but it is not what I’m looking for. | 2022/07/21 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/592269",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/457998/"
] | Some suggestions:
* "*[Change tack](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/change-tack)*": to try a different method to deal with the same problem
* "*[Try a different tack](https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/to-change-tack)*": see above
* "*[Switch up](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/switch-up)*": to change, usually in a way that brings an improvement | **Pivot** works well in this context. From [Merriam Webster](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/pivot)
>
> 4: **a usually marked change**
>
>
> especially : **an adjustment or modification made (as to a product, service, or strategy) in order to adapt or improve**
>
>
> |
1,173,234 | I was just wondering about the considerations to be followed while packing items (int, float, unions, etc) in a C structure (C struct definition ) that would allow the compiler to further optimize it.
I would like to know whether there are any guidelines that one should follow e.g. adding items to the structure in an order that would allow alignments to the word boundaries. etc. ?
details would be appreciated.
Regards,
-J
The question also entails the optimization strategies towards cross compiling such C structures. | 2009/07/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1173234",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/143897/"
] | If you can compile your code under gcc, you might be able to use [pahole](http://git.kernel.org/?p=linux/kernel/git/acme/pahole.git;a=summary) to find structures that can be improved, and automatically repack them.
Here are a couple of articles about pahole that might help you:
* <http://lwn.net/Articles/206805/>
* <https://twiki.cern.ch/twiki/bin/view/Atlas/UsingPahole>
* <http://everburning.com/news/stuffing-my-pahole/> | If you really want to minimize space, order things from largest alignment to smallest. That should guarantee that you will get minimal padding. |
1,173,234 | I was just wondering about the considerations to be followed while packing items (int, float, unions, etc) in a C structure (C struct definition ) that would allow the compiler to further optimize it.
I would like to know whether there are any guidelines that one should follow e.g. adding items to the structure in an order that would allow alignments to the word boundaries. etc. ?
details would be appreciated.
Regards,
-J
The question also entails the optimization strategies towards cross compiling such C structures. | 2009/07/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1173234",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/143897/"
] | If you really want to minimize space, order things from largest alignment to smallest. That should guarantee that you will get minimal padding. | What are the requirements for your program? How many elements would you have? What kind of structures?
For example, if you have struct with several elements, and you need to traverse the array of such elements searching for something, then it is better to do not array of structs, but to do struct of arrays. That's because frequently used members will be located side-by-side, so cache memory will work fine.
If you would like to exploit SIMD (vector) operations, you should align all members by some boundaries.
It's hardly to suggest something correctly, because I don't know what do you expect from your data. |
1,173,234 | I was just wondering about the considerations to be followed while packing items (int, float, unions, etc) in a C structure (C struct definition ) that would allow the compiler to further optimize it.
I would like to know whether there are any guidelines that one should follow e.g. adding items to the structure in an order that would allow alignments to the word boundaries. etc. ?
details would be appreciated.
Regards,
-J
The question also entails the optimization strategies towards cross compiling such C structures. | 2009/07/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1173234",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/143897/"
] | If you can compile your code under gcc, you might be able to use [pahole](http://git.kernel.org/?p=linux/kernel/git/acme/pahole.git;a=summary) to find structures that can be improved, and automatically repack them.
Here are a couple of articles about pahole that might help you:
* <http://lwn.net/Articles/206805/>
* <https://twiki.cern.ch/twiki/bin/view/Atlas/UsingPahole>
* <http://everburning.com/news/stuffing-my-pahole/> | What are the requirements for your program? How many elements would you have? What kind of structures?
For example, if you have struct with several elements, and you need to traverse the array of such elements searching for something, then it is better to do not array of structs, but to do struct of arrays. That's because frequently used members will be located side-by-side, so cache memory will work fine.
If you would like to exploit SIMD (vector) operations, you should align all members by some boundaries.
It's hardly to suggest something correctly, because I don't know what do you expect from your data. |
5,966 | I have black-white image which I use to generate particles and now I want to make particle colors similar to the original image (3). So in the end where should be some particles in color blue, some in green etc.. Is it possible to do this?
 | 2014/01/03 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/5966",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/1751/"
] | Yes, but only using the Blender Internal renderer.
(Cycles doesn't render halos, and when rendering particles as an object, the particles take on the material of the original mesh, rather than the material of the emitter.)
That being said, this is how you can do it with the BI renderer:
Add a new material to the emitter, set its type to Halo and its colour to black
Go to the texture panel and add the texture as appropriate (Including the mapping)
Set its blending to add
Set the appropriate material slot in the particle system's properties.
Admire the beauty, because yours will probably be prettier than mine:
 | You can do this in cycles also, when using the UV coordinate texture node, make sure to click 'from dupli' |
85,270 | I am currently planning a thesis that involve scanning fingerprints and storing the data in a database. The problem is that I do not know if it is possible for me/us to get the fingerprint data or variables scanned by the fingerprint scanner.
I tried searching on google, of course, but I don't see any information on how to display the data in a form such as binary. I'm not sure if I can extract the data from the Arduino then store it in a website/database (---which to be fair, since fingerprints can be confidential, I understand if some articles don't provide a sample.)
Is it possible to get and extract the fingerprint scan data? For example, converting the scanned data in to a binary representation (011010101 etc.) | 2021/07/22 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/85270",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/78374/"
] | There is a discussion thread on [Quora](https://www.quora.com/Are-there-any-fingerprint-scanners-that-provide-raw-images-as-output) discussing finger print scanners that provide raw output. The Quora author recommends a [Futronic](https://www.futronic-tech.com/pro-detail.php?pro_id=1535) device which comes with an API for raw image collection. They also discussed [NeuroTechnology](https://www.neurotechnology.com/verifinger.html) which apparently also has a downloadable image database. Looking at the neurotechnology website they also have some interesting SDK options. These of course all give you an image not the binary output you described.
It strikes me that a binary encoded output would likely be the result of a recognition algorithm, or a resultant / generated security key. Not sure that is what you intended by your question?
There are a [mass](https://scholar.google.com.au/scholar?hl=en&as_sdt=0%2C5&q=open%20fingerprint%20scanning%20algorithm&btnG=) of academic papers on open finger print scanning algorithms.
I did a bit of google searching for people capturing raw data from Arduino compatible devices. Didn’t find anyone saying it was easy. Please post back here if you make progress.
Hope this helps get you started. | Echoing my comment on SO with more information:
Commercial fingerprint sensors like [this one](https://www.aliexpress.com/item/32847055230.html) do local store and compare and do not expose the actual image or binary signature. What they transmit to the microcontroller are ID's and match success.
If you need the binary data of the image itself you may be able to write your own image processing algorithm, perhaps using machine learning, and use a simple video camera connected to a microcontroller that in turn will send the captured image to your web server for processing.
Arduino can be programmed to capture still images and transfer a bitmap file to a server, such devices (microcontroller and cameras) are widely available. |
85,270 | I am currently planning a thesis that involve scanning fingerprints and storing the data in a database. The problem is that I do not know if it is possible for me/us to get the fingerprint data or variables scanned by the fingerprint scanner.
I tried searching on google, of course, but I don't see any information on how to display the data in a form such as binary. I'm not sure if I can extract the data from the Arduino then store it in a website/database (---which to be fair, since fingerprints can be confidential, I understand if some articles don't provide a sample.)
Is it possible to get and extract the fingerprint scan data? For example, converting the scanned data in to a binary representation (011010101 etc.) | 2021/07/22 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/85270",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/78374/"
] | I'm a software engineer that works with biometric sensors. The answer is, it will vary **greatly** depending on the scanner you've chosen. Some hardware solutions have built-in subject enrollment and database matching; some simply collect an image and return it in an appropriate format- sometimes an image file (e.g. PNG), or a template file (a binary representation of a subject and/or their fingerprint(s)).
For you, I **highly** recommend avoiding the pain of interfacing with an Arduino at such a low level, and use a Raspberry Pi or other full computer to write a collection program with your vendor's SDK. Linux is supported by all the major players I've worked with, and that will drastically ease integration with whatever database or website you have in mind. Many vendors have built-in enrollment, storage, and matching examples as part of their SDKs that will help you get up and going in short order
**EDIT**: As this is an Arduino SE, I realize **I should give a microcontroller-friendly answer as well**. There are indeed [scanners like this](https://www.adafruit.com/product/4690). It does templating and matching on board if I understand correctly, and the provided library does indeed allow you to transfer those templates over serial. Granted, you still have to get that data from your Arduino to a computer of some sort, so I still think a Pi is the shorter putt ;) | Echoing my comment on SO with more information:
Commercial fingerprint sensors like [this one](https://www.aliexpress.com/item/32847055230.html) do local store and compare and do not expose the actual image or binary signature. What they transmit to the microcontroller are ID's and match success.
If you need the binary data of the image itself you may be able to write your own image processing algorithm, perhaps using machine learning, and use a simple video camera connected to a microcontroller that in turn will send the captured image to your web server for processing.
Arduino can be programmed to capture still images and transfer a bitmap file to a server, such devices (microcontroller and cameras) are widely available. |
85,270 | I am currently planning a thesis that involve scanning fingerprints and storing the data in a database. The problem is that I do not know if it is possible for me/us to get the fingerprint data or variables scanned by the fingerprint scanner.
I tried searching on google, of course, but I don't see any information on how to display the data in a form such as binary. I'm not sure if I can extract the data from the Arduino then store it in a website/database (---which to be fair, since fingerprints can be confidential, I understand if some articles don't provide a sample.)
Is it possible to get and extract the fingerprint scan data? For example, converting the scanned data in to a binary representation (011010101 etc.) | 2021/07/22 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/85270",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/78374/"
] | I'm a software engineer that works with biometric sensors. The answer is, it will vary **greatly** depending on the scanner you've chosen. Some hardware solutions have built-in subject enrollment and database matching; some simply collect an image and return it in an appropriate format- sometimes an image file (e.g. PNG), or a template file (a binary representation of a subject and/or their fingerprint(s)).
For you, I **highly** recommend avoiding the pain of interfacing with an Arduino at such a low level, and use a Raspberry Pi or other full computer to write a collection program with your vendor's SDK. Linux is supported by all the major players I've worked with, and that will drastically ease integration with whatever database or website you have in mind. Many vendors have built-in enrollment, storage, and matching examples as part of their SDKs that will help you get up and going in short order
**EDIT**: As this is an Arduino SE, I realize **I should give a microcontroller-friendly answer as well**. There are indeed [scanners like this](https://www.adafruit.com/product/4690). It does templating and matching on board if I understand correctly, and the provided library does indeed allow you to transfer those templates over serial. Granted, you still have to get that data from your Arduino to a computer of some sort, so I still think a Pi is the shorter putt ;) | There is a discussion thread on [Quora](https://www.quora.com/Are-there-any-fingerprint-scanners-that-provide-raw-images-as-output) discussing finger print scanners that provide raw output. The Quora author recommends a [Futronic](https://www.futronic-tech.com/pro-detail.php?pro_id=1535) device which comes with an API for raw image collection. They also discussed [NeuroTechnology](https://www.neurotechnology.com/verifinger.html) which apparently also has a downloadable image database. Looking at the neurotechnology website they also have some interesting SDK options. These of course all give you an image not the binary output you described.
It strikes me that a binary encoded output would likely be the result of a recognition algorithm, or a resultant / generated security key. Not sure that is what you intended by your question?
There are a [mass](https://scholar.google.com.au/scholar?hl=en&as_sdt=0%2C5&q=open%20fingerprint%20scanning%20algorithm&btnG=) of academic papers on open finger print scanning algorithms.
I did a bit of google searching for people capturing raw data from Arduino compatible devices. Didn’t find anyone saying it was easy. Please post back here if you make progress.
Hope this helps get you started. |
13,270,037 | I'm using JAXBContext to unmarshall a XML string. But my code is failing if the string contains '&' character inside a tag. But I need to preserve the value as such.
How can I do this? | 2012/11/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13270037",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/970397/"
] | You may find useful the following link:
<http://supportforums.blackberry.com/t5/tkb/articleprintpage/tkb-id/java_dev@tkb/article-id/656> | BlackBerry 10 has excellent support for NFC. I would start by [taking at the look at the documentation](http://developer.blackberry.com/native/documentation/cascades/device_comm/nfc/):
Also, there is a 6 part series of articles on the BlackBerry Developer Blog which goes through all the main aspects of developing an NFC app. [The first part is here.](http://devblog.blackberry.com/2013/09/porting-blackberry-java-nfc-applications-to-blackberry-10-part-1-reading-nfc-tags/)
Specifically you probably want to take a look at [part 5 which talks about virtual card emulation](http://devblog.blackberry.com/2013/10/porting-blackberry-java-nfc-applications-to-blackberry-10-part-5-virtual-tag-and-card-emulation/) |
19,952 | I'm wondering what the Buddha said about **spiritual friendship with the Buddha himself**. From [SN 45.2](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn45.2):
>
> By the following method too, Ānanda, it may be understood how the
> entire holy life is good friendship, good companionship, good
> comradeship: by relying upon me as a good friend, Ānanda, beings
> subject to birth are freed from birth; beings subject to aging are
> freed from aging; beings subject to death are freed from death; beings
> subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair are
> freed from sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair. By
> this method, Ānanda, it may be understood how the entire holy life is
> good friendship, good companionship, good comradeship.
>
>
>
**Are there any other texts that bring up this subject? What have later Buddhist teachers said about this?**
References (from Sutras or otherwise) are welcome!
Grateful for help and with kind regards,
Tord
---
***UPDATE to make the question more clear:*** **The question is specifically about friendship with the Buddha himself (not general friendship on the path).** I have chosen to call this friendship "spiritual" but maybe "virtual" or another word would be better, or another word that describes that the friendship is different from a person alive in the typical sense | 2017/04/04 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/19952",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4836/"
] | Kalyana-Mitta, ‘Noble or Good Friend’, is called a person who is fully established in this Dhamma Path, and who walks the Noble Eightfold Path, and who is the mentor and friend of his friend, or associate, or fellow traveler in this Path, ‘wishing for her/his welfare and concerned with her/his progress.
Ananda, one of many principal disciples of the Buddha, once asked the Buddha if half of the reason for the spiritual life was friendship with others. The Buddha turned to Ananda, rebuking him mildly with the words, “Don’t say that, Ananda. The whole of the spiritual life is THIS.” From this, it shows that the association with a Kalyana Mitta is the WHOLE of the Holy Life. As for you and I, being a ‘Kalyana-mitta’ (noble friend) to others is the one way that we could show our gratitude for what we have gained.
This is especially important as our minds are very deceptive. We are all hard-wired to never be able to get out of this never ending ‘samsara’. So for example if your mind says one thing and for instance a noble friend says another, you’ll have to do weigh very carefully what the noble friend advices you before going forth with what your own mind tells you.
Majjhima Nikaya Suttas [84 Madhurā Sutta - At Madhurā](http://www.yellowrobe.com/component/content/article/120-majjhima-nikaya/339-mn-84-madhur-sutta-at-madhur.html) and [94 Gotamukha Sutta -To the Brahmin Gotamukha](http://mahindaramatemple.com/e-tipitaka/Majjhima-Nikaya/mn-94.htm) show how a Kalyana Mitta would act. These two suttas describe how a person approached an arahant who was renowned for the strength and clarity of his teachings. This person requested that he be allowed to take refuge in the arahant, but the arahant replied that refuge could not be taken in him but only in the Buddha, the Dhamma and the Sangha.
The Noble One (Ariya) in this sutta(s) was an arahant. Still he made it clear that the Buddha-Dhamma must be our guide, and that the Sangha can only assist us to do this for ourselves. Such is the advice of a Kalyana Mitta. In the Buddha’s words, as recorded in the Anguttara Nikaya Sutta 5.88, it is possible that even a world renowned monk, who has a large following of lay and monastic disciples and who is very learned in the scriptures, can have wrong views.
In the Anguttara Nikaya (Sutta 4.180), the Buddha told us that when any bhikku told us that such and such were the teachings of the Buddha, we should, without scorning or welcoming his words, compare the words of the monk with the Suttas and the Vinaya (the texts containing the code of monastic discipline). If they are not in accordance with the Sutta-Vinaya, we should reject them. It is only in this way that we will be able to distinguish between a teacher who teaches the true Dhamma and another who has wrong views. | I believe "spiritual friendship" is a translation from Pali "Kalyāṇa-mittatā". Kalyāṇa could also mean beautiful, graceful. ( Lady Visaka was said to possess pañca-kalyani (five physical beauties, beautiful hair, teeth , etc.). Most obvious text I can think of is from number 1 and 2 from 38 blessings. Good friends will have good influence on your way of life. |
19,952 | I'm wondering what the Buddha said about **spiritual friendship with the Buddha himself**. From [SN 45.2](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn45.2):
>
> By the following method too, Ānanda, it may be understood how the
> entire holy life is good friendship, good companionship, good
> comradeship: by relying upon me as a good friend, Ānanda, beings
> subject to birth are freed from birth; beings subject to aging are
> freed from aging; beings subject to death are freed from death; beings
> subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair are
> freed from sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair. By
> this method, Ānanda, it may be understood how the entire holy life is
> good friendship, good companionship, good comradeship.
>
>
>
**Are there any other texts that bring up this subject? What have later Buddhist teachers said about this?**
References (from Sutras or otherwise) are welcome!
Grateful for help and with kind regards,
Tord
---
***UPDATE to make the question more clear:*** **The question is specifically about friendship with the Buddha himself (not general friendship on the path).** I have chosen to call this friendship "spiritual" but maybe "virtual" or another word would be better, or another word that describes that the friendship is different from a person alive in the typical sense | 2017/04/04 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/19952",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4836/"
] | I believe "spiritual friendship" is a translation from Pali "Kalyāṇa-mittatā". Kalyāṇa could also mean beautiful, graceful. ( Lady Visaka was said to possess pañca-kalyani (five physical beauties, beautiful hair, teeth , etc.). Most obvious text I can think of is from number 1 and 2 from 38 blessings. Good friends will have good influence on your way of life. | The important sentence in SN 45.2 is:
>
> *When a bhikkhu has a good friend, a good companion, a good comrade, it is to be **expected that he will develop and cultivate the Noble
> Eightfold Path**.*
>
>
>
rather than:
>
> *It is in dependence on me (the Buddha) as an admirable friend that beings*
>
>
>
which, without reference to the Noble Eightfold Path, sounds like Christianity, which believes:
>
> *Never been a sinner I never sinned*
>
>
> *I got a friend in Jesus*
>
>
> *So you know that when I die*
>
>
> *He's gonna set me up with*
>
>
> *The spirit in the sky*
>
>
> *Oh set me up with the spirit in the sky*
>
>
> *That's where I'm gonna go when I die*
>
>
> *When I die and they lay me to rest*
>
>
> *I'm gonna go to the place that's the best*
>
>
> |
19,952 | I'm wondering what the Buddha said about **spiritual friendship with the Buddha himself**. From [SN 45.2](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn45.2):
>
> By the following method too, Ānanda, it may be understood how the
> entire holy life is good friendship, good companionship, good
> comradeship: by relying upon me as a good friend, Ānanda, beings
> subject to birth are freed from birth; beings subject to aging are
> freed from aging; beings subject to death are freed from death; beings
> subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair are
> freed from sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair. By
> this method, Ānanda, it may be understood how the entire holy life is
> good friendship, good companionship, good comradeship.
>
>
>
**Are there any other texts that bring up this subject? What have later Buddhist teachers said about this?**
References (from Sutras or otherwise) are welcome!
Grateful for help and with kind regards,
Tord
---
***UPDATE to make the question more clear:*** **The question is specifically about friendship with the Buddha himself (not general friendship on the path).** I have chosen to call this friendship "spiritual" but maybe "virtual" or another word would be better, or another word that describes that the friendship is different from a person alive in the typical sense | 2017/04/04 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/19952",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4836/"
] | Kalyana-Mitta, ‘Noble or Good Friend’, is called a person who is fully established in this Dhamma Path, and who walks the Noble Eightfold Path, and who is the mentor and friend of his friend, or associate, or fellow traveler in this Path, ‘wishing for her/his welfare and concerned with her/his progress.
Ananda, one of many principal disciples of the Buddha, once asked the Buddha if half of the reason for the spiritual life was friendship with others. The Buddha turned to Ananda, rebuking him mildly with the words, “Don’t say that, Ananda. The whole of the spiritual life is THIS.” From this, it shows that the association with a Kalyana Mitta is the WHOLE of the Holy Life. As for you and I, being a ‘Kalyana-mitta’ (noble friend) to others is the one way that we could show our gratitude for what we have gained.
This is especially important as our minds are very deceptive. We are all hard-wired to never be able to get out of this never ending ‘samsara’. So for example if your mind says one thing and for instance a noble friend says another, you’ll have to do weigh very carefully what the noble friend advices you before going forth with what your own mind tells you.
Majjhima Nikaya Suttas [84 Madhurā Sutta - At Madhurā](http://www.yellowrobe.com/component/content/article/120-majjhima-nikaya/339-mn-84-madhur-sutta-at-madhur.html) and [94 Gotamukha Sutta -To the Brahmin Gotamukha](http://mahindaramatemple.com/e-tipitaka/Majjhima-Nikaya/mn-94.htm) show how a Kalyana Mitta would act. These two suttas describe how a person approached an arahant who was renowned for the strength and clarity of his teachings. This person requested that he be allowed to take refuge in the arahant, but the arahant replied that refuge could not be taken in him but only in the Buddha, the Dhamma and the Sangha.
The Noble One (Ariya) in this sutta(s) was an arahant. Still he made it clear that the Buddha-Dhamma must be our guide, and that the Sangha can only assist us to do this for ourselves. Such is the advice of a Kalyana Mitta. In the Buddha’s words, as recorded in the Anguttara Nikaya Sutta 5.88, it is possible that even a world renowned monk, who has a large following of lay and monastic disciples and who is very learned in the scriptures, can have wrong views.
In the Anguttara Nikaya (Sutta 4.180), the Buddha told us that when any bhikku told us that such and such were the teachings of the Buddha, we should, without scorning or welcoming his words, compare the words of the monk with the Suttas and the Vinaya (the texts containing the code of monastic discipline). If they are not in accordance with the Sutta-Vinaya, we should reject them. It is only in this way that we will be able to distinguish between a teacher who teaches the true Dhamma and another who has wrong views. | One would find the answer in the quoted sutta [SN 45.2](http://zugangzureinsicht.org/html/tipitaka/sn/sn45/sn45.002.than_en.html) it self, in the case it was not seen:
>
> "And through this line of reasoning one may know how admirable friendship, admirable companionship, admirable camaraderie is actually the whole of the holy life: **It is in dependence on *me (the Buddha) as an admirable friend* that beings** subject to birth have gained release from birth, that beings subject to aging have gained release from aging, that beings subject to death have gained release from death, that beings subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, distress, & despair have gained release from sorrow, lamentation, pain, distress, & despair. It is through this line of reasoning that one may know how admirable friendship, admirable companionship, admirable camaraderie is actually the whole of the holy life."
>
>
>
*Note: this is a gift of Dhamma and not thought for any commercial purpose or other worldy gains.* |
19,952 | I'm wondering what the Buddha said about **spiritual friendship with the Buddha himself**. From [SN 45.2](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn45.2):
>
> By the following method too, Ānanda, it may be understood how the
> entire holy life is good friendship, good companionship, good
> comradeship: by relying upon me as a good friend, Ānanda, beings
> subject to birth are freed from birth; beings subject to aging are
> freed from aging; beings subject to death are freed from death; beings
> subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair are
> freed from sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair. By
> this method, Ānanda, it may be understood how the entire holy life is
> good friendship, good companionship, good comradeship.
>
>
>
**Are there any other texts that bring up this subject? What have later Buddhist teachers said about this?**
References (from Sutras or otherwise) are welcome!
Grateful for help and with kind regards,
Tord
---
***UPDATE to make the question more clear:*** **The question is specifically about friendship with the Buddha himself (not general friendship on the path).** I have chosen to call this friendship "spiritual" but maybe "virtual" or another word would be better, or another word that describes that the friendship is different from a person alive in the typical sense | 2017/04/04 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/19952",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4836/"
] | Kalyana-Mitta, ‘Noble or Good Friend’, is called a person who is fully established in this Dhamma Path, and who walks the Noble Eightfold Path, and who is the mentor and friend of his friend, or associate, or fellow traveler in this Path, ‘wishing for her/his welfare and concerned with her/his progress.
Ananda, one of many principal disciples of the Buddha, once asked the Buddha if half of the reason for the spiritual life was friendship with others. The Buddha turned to Ananda, rebuking him mildly with the words, “Don’t say that, Ananda. The whole of the spiritual life is THIS.” From this, it shows that the association with a Kalyana Mitta is the WHOLE of the Holy Life. As for you and I, being a ‘Kalyana-mitta’ (noble friend) to others is the one way that we could show our gratitude for what we have gained.
This is especially important as our minds are very deceptive. We are all hard-wired to never be able to get out of this never ending ‘samsara’. So for example if your mind says one thing and for instance a noble friend says another, you’ll have to do weigh very carefully what the noble friend advices you before going forth with what your own mind tells you.
Majjhima Nikaya Suttas [84 Madhurā Sutta - At Madhurā](http://www.yellowrobe.com/component/content/article/120-majjhima-nikaya/339-mn-84-madhur-sutta-at-madhur.html) and [94 Gotamukha Sutta -To the Brahmin Gotamukha](http://mahindaramatemple.com/e-tipitaka/Majjhima-Nikaya/mn-94.htm) show how a Kalyana Mitta would act. These two suttas describe how a person approached an arahant who was renowned for the strength and clarity of his teachings. This person requested that he be allowed to take refuge in the arahant, but the arahant replied that refuge could not be taken in him but only in the Buddha, the Dhamma and the Sangha.
The Noble One (Ariya) in this sutta(s) was an arahant. Still he made it clear that the Buddha-Dhamma must be our guide, and that the Sangha can only assist us to do this for ourselves. Such is the advice of a Kalyana Mitta. In the Buddha’s words, as recorded in the Anguttara Nikaya Sutta 5.88, it is possible that even a world renowned monk, who has a large following of lay and monastic disciples and who is very learned in the scriptures, can have wrong views.
In the Anguttara Nikaya (Sutta 4.180), the Buddha told us that when any bhikku told us that such and such were the teachings of the Buddha, we should, without scorning or welcoming his words, compare the words of the monk with the Suttas and the Vinaya (the texts containing the code of monastic discipline). If they are not in accordance with the Sutta-Vinaya, we should reject them. It is only in this way that we will be able to distinguish between a teacher who teaches the true Dhamma and another who has wrong views. | The important sentence in SN 45.2 is:
>
> *When a bhikkhu has a good friend, a good companion, a good comrade, it is to be **expected that he will develop and cultivate the Noble
> Eightfold Path**.*
>
>
>
rather than:
>
> *It is in dependence on me (the Buddha) as an admirable friend that beings*
>
>
>
which, without reference to the Noble Eightfold Path, sounds like Christianity, which believes:
>
> *Never been a sinner I never sinned*
>
>
> *I got a friend in Jesus*
>
>
> *So you know that when I die*
>
>
> *He's gonna set me up with*
>
>
> *The spirit in the sky*
>
>
> *Oh set me up with the spirit in the sky*
>
>
> *That's where I'm gonna go when I die*
>
>
> *When I die and they lay me to rest*
>
>
> *I'm gonna go to the place that's the best*
>
>
> |
19,952 | I'm wondering what the Buddha said about **spiritual friendship with the Buddha himself**. From [SN 45.2](https://suttacentral.net/en/sn45.2):
>
> By the following method too, Ānanda, it may be understood how the
> entire holy life is good friendship, good companionship, good
> comradeship: by relying upon me as a good friend, Ānanda, beings
> subject to birth are freed from birth; beings subject to aging are
> freed from aging; beings subject to death are freed from death; beings
> subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair are
> freed from sorrow, lamentation, pain, displeasure, and despair. By
> this method, Ānanda, it may be understood how the entire holy life is
> good friendship, good companionship, good comradeship.
>
>
>
**Are there any other texts that bring up this subject? What have later Buddhist teachers said about this?**
References (from Sutras or otherwise) are welcome!
Grateful for help and with kind regards,
Tord
---
***UPDATE to make the question more clear:*** **The question is specifically about friendship with the Buddha himself (not general friendship on the path).** I have chosen to call this friendship "spiritual" but maybe "virtual" or another word would be better, or another word that describes that the friendship is different from a person alive in the typical sense | 2017/04/04 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/19952",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/4836/"
] | One would find the answer in the quoted sutta [SN 45.2](http://zugangzureinsicht.org/html/tipitaka/sn/sn45/sn45.002.than_en.html) it self, in the case it was not seen:
>
> "And through this line of reasoning one may know how admirable friendship, admirable companionship, admirable camaraderie is actually the whole of the holy life: **It is in dependence on *me (the Buddha) as an admirable friend* that beings** subject to birth have gained release from birth, that beings subject to aging have gained release from aging, that beings subject to death have gained release from death, that beings subject to sorrow, lamentation, pain, distress, & despair have gained release from sorrow, lamentation, pain, distress, & despair. It is through this line of reasoning that one may know how admirable friendship, admirable companionship, admirable camaraderie is actually the whole of the holy life."
>
>
>
*Note: this is a gift of Dhamma and not thought for any commercial purpose or other worldy gains.* | The important sentence in SN 45.2 is:
>
> *When a bhikkhu has a good friend, a good companion, a good comrade, it is to be **expected that he will develop and cultivate the Noble
> Eightfold Path**.*
>
>
>
rather than:
>
> *It is in dependence on me (the Buddha) as an admirable friend that beings*
>
>
>
which, without reference to the Noble Eightfold Path, sounds like Christianity, which believes:
>
> *Never been a sinner I never sinned*
>
>
> *I got a friend in Jesus*
>
>
> *So you know that when I die*
>
>
> *He's gonna set me up with*
>
>
> *The spirit in the sky*
>
>
> *Oh set me up with the spirit in the sky*
>
>
> *That's where I'm gonna go when I die*
>
>
> *When I die and they lay me to rest*
>
>
> *I'm gonna go to the place that's the best*
>
>
> |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | Local here, have lived in Amsterdam for just over a year and a half, through the cold wet winter. I'm not a Dutchie, but have embraced the fiets lifestyle here.
Let me just say that the jeans you get in Amsterdam are the same as what you would buy anywhere else. I ride in Levis 511 jeans every day and have no problems. People here more or less ride in all sorts of clothing (that includes suits, dresses and high heels). You never really go that fast here in the city and you're always kind of stopping and starting, so regular clothes are fine.
When it rains (which happens a lot) most people either catch public transport or wear rainproof gear over their regular clothes. Some even use storm umbrellas. The philosophy here amongst the Dutchies is that there's no bad weather only bad clothing.
The bikes themselves are set up a bit differently here too:
- Every bike, almost without exception has mud guards or "fenders"
- The chain is almost always sealed inside a chainguard to avoid it getting too dirty, as well as the rider
- The vast majority of bikes are upright riding position, as you don't really tend to go that fast in Amsterdam with the cobblestones and narrow streets
In terms of type of bike, lightweight performance bikes don't last very long here and are not practical. What you mostly see are Omafiets, Papafiets, Mamafiets, Bakfiets and various heavy duty city commuter bikes. Powered bikes are also very popular here and often used to cut down travel times for longer distances.
Bikes here tend to be heavy duty so they don't get smashed up at the bike racks, low maintenance as they usually sit outside all the time and focused on comfort as it's not really an "activity" you plan for with specialised clothing but a primary way to get around, with most journeys not being longer than 20 minutes or so.
Outside of the cities you'll see plenty of lycra clad cyclists on their lightweight performance bikes cycling more for recreation on weekends etc. | It's just working. I do have proper biking pants, but I found that especially on more rough terrain (MTB, Enduro, Trail...) I often simply wear my Levis 501, both uphill and downhill, to avoid problems with twigs slashing either the trousers or my skin. No problems, so far, it feels perfectly fine. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | Local here, have lived in Amsterdam for just over a year and a half, through the cold wet winter. I'm not a Dutchie, but have embraced the fiets lifestyle here.
Let me just say that the jeans you get in Amsterdam are the same as what you would buy anywhere else. I ride in Levis 511 jeans every day and have no problems. People here more or less ride in all sorts of clothing (that includes suits, dresses and high heels). You never really go that fast here in the city and you're always kind of stopping and starting, so regular clothes are fine.
When it rains (which happens a lot) most people either catch public transport or wear rainproof gear over their regular clothes. Some even use storm umbrellas. The philosophy here amongst the Dutchies is that there's no bad weather only bad clothing.
The bikes themselves are set up a bit differently here too:
- Every bike, almost without exception has mud guards or "fenders"
- The chain is almost always sealed inside a chainguard to avoid it getting too dirty, as well as the rider
- The vast majority of bikes are upright riding position, as you don't really tend to go that fast in Amsterdam with the cobblestones and narrow streets
In terms of type of bike, lightweight performance bikes don't last very long here and are not practical. What you mostly see are Omafiets, Papafiets, Mamafiets, Bakfiets and various heavy duty city commuter bikes. Powered bikes are also very popular here and often used to cut down travel times for longer distances.
Bikes here tend to be heavy duty so they don't get smashed up at the bike racks, low maintenance as they usually sit outside all the time and focused on comfort as it's not really an "activity" you plan for with specialised clothing but a primary way to get around, with most journeys not being longer than 20 minutes or so.
Outside of the cities you'll see plenty of lycra clad cyclists on their lightweight performance bikes cycling more for recreation on weekends etc. | There are sometimes heavy rains but most often it is only drizzling. Furthermore, there is no such thing as a whole day rain. It can rain several times half an hour per day and in between your cloth can dry out. Last but not least you can sit high (your foot is almost straight when pedalling) and you hold the handle by leaning forward (cover).
If it is heavy rain then even the Dutch bike in additional raincoats and trousers or with umbrellas or they do not bike. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | I've never been to Amsterdam, but I do remember reading a comment by someone from there once about what it was like. He said that people there tend to ride at a more leisurely pace, and everyone from all walks of life ride bikes. It's just ordinary people riding around to get to places.
In contrast, in non-cycle-friendly cities, cyclists ride hard to keep up with the traffic, and since there is some danger, it's mostly the more hardcore athletic types who ride.
If you are riding at a moderate pace and the weather is cool enough, then riding in jeans is fine. | I will take the liberty to interpret the question slightly more broadly, on how bicycles are adapted for riding in ordinary clothes. Apart from raingear, I've never changed clothes for cycling in my life (not when I went on a 700 km bike tour either).
Skirt guard / coat guard
========================
You don't really need fenders for cycling with jeans. All fenders do is stop you from getting wet and dirty, so you should want them with any type of clothing. However, people not only ride bicycles with jeans, but also with skirts (starting yearly on [rokjesdag](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rokjesdag)). With a skirt, dress, or long (over)coat, a [skirt guard/coat guard](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skirt_guard) prevents clothes from ending up in the spokes, which not only damages the clothes but may well lead to accidents.
~~Skirt~~Coat guard. [Source: Wikimedia Commons](https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Brosen_city_bicycle.jpg)
If you are commuting by bicycle and commuting in your normal clothes, as you should, and your normal clothes include anything that may get stuck in the spokes, a skirt guard / coat guard is recommended. As pointed out in the comments, the guard on the bicycle in the photo is unlikely to be intended for protection of long dresses, as a traditional "ladies bicycle" would have a lowered top tube to assist with the same. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | Local here, have lived in Amsterdam for just over a year and a half, through the cold wet winter. I'm not a Dutchie, but have embraced the fiets lifestyle here.
Let me just say that the jeans you get in Amsterdam are the same as what you would buy anywhere else. I ride in Levis 511 jeans every day and have no problems. People here more or less ride in all sorts of clothing (that includes suits, dresses and high heels). You never really go that fast here in the city and you're always kind of stopping and starting, so regular clothes are fine.
When it rains (which happens a lot) most people either catch public transport or wear rainproof gear over their regular clothes. Some even use storm umbrellas. The philosophy here amongst the Dutchies is that there's no bad weather only bad clothing.
The bikes themselves are set up a bit differently here too:
- Every bike, almost without exception has mud guards or "fenders"
- The chain is almost always sealed inside a chainguard to avoid it getting too dirty, as well as the rider
- The vast majority of bikes are upright riding position, as you don't really tend to go that fast in Amsterdam with the cobblestones and narrow streets
In terms of type of bike, lightweight performance bikes don't last very long here and are not practical. What you mostly see are Omafiets, Papafiets, Mamafiets, Bakfiets and various heavy duty city commuter bikes. Powered bikes are also very popular here and often used to cut down travel times for longer distances.
Bikes here tend to be heavy duty so they don't get smashed up at the bike racks, low maintenance as they usually sit outside all the time and focused on comfort as it's not really an "activity" you plan for with specialised clothing but a primary way to get around, with most journeys not being longer than 20 minutes or so.
Outside of the cities you'll see plenty of lycra clad cyclists on their lightweight performance bikes cycling more for recreation on weekends etc. | In Australia it has seeped into our culture, unfortunately, that riding a bike is a sporting activity, which should be done in appropriate cycling attire, preferably in packs, and with some aggression. I'm exaggerating of course, but it is "a thing". The question is probably coming from a similar perspective. Even though I have recently started commuting to work, which is a 60km round trip (note my good old bike is now a pedelec), I refuse to wear cycling specific clothes, and I also refuse to wear a helmet\*. Cotton shorts and t-shirt are fine most of the time, and there is no need of a helmet as I am largely on bike trails or paths, and I feel I must have some Dutch DNA, as riding is as natural to me as walking, skipping and jumping - I have a very strong tendency to remain upright and on my bike.
I think the upright riding position is a key ingredient for a comfortable and safe ride, even at 35km/h, and particularly when riding in jeans, in the rain, holding an umbrella.
We have a lot yet to learn from the Dutch about bikes, riding and urban design.
\* see [freestylecyclists.org](https://www.freestylecyclists.org/)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VJWuc.jpg) |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | In places where there are lots of bikes, most people who are riding them are making short journeys purely for transport. For a short ride of a few kilometers, it really doesn't matter what you're wearing. Any clothes that are comfortable to wear in general will be comfortable to wear on a bike for fifteen minutes.
People who are riding longer distances, pushing harder and aiming for fitness rather than just getting from A to B will start to consider clothing that's more oriented towards exercising and people who are going even farther and pushing even harder will start to wear cycling-specific clothing.
I see this exact thing when I cycle at home in Oxford. If I cycle directly into town, most of the people I see on bikes are just wearing whatever clothes will be appropriate at their destination. If I take a more circuitous route around the outskirts of town before heading into the centre through an area where not many people live, I see a lot of people wearing "general exercise" clothing. If I head away from town, out into the countryside, most of the cyclists I see are wearing clothing designed specifically for cycling. | There are sometimes heavy rains but most often it is only drizzling. Furthermore, there is no such thing as a whole day rain. It can rain several times half an hour per day and in between your cloth can dry out. Last but not least you can sit high (your foot is almost straight when pedalling) and you hold the handle by leaning forward (cover).
If it is heavy rain then even the Dutch bike in additional raincoats and trousers or with umbrellas or they do not bike. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | I will take the liberty to interpret the question slightly more broadly, on how bicycles are adapted for riding in ordinary clothes. Apart from raingear, I've never changed clothes for cycling in my life (not when I went on a 700 km bike tour either).
Skirt guard / coat guard
========================
You don't really need fenders for cycling with jeans. All fenders do is stop you from getting wet and dirty, so you should want them with any type of clothing. However, people not only ride bicycles with jeans, but also with skirts (starting yearly on [rokjesdag](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rokjesdag)). With a skirt, dress, or long (over)coat, a [skirt guard/coat guard](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skirt_guard) prevents clothes from ending up in the spokes, which not only damages the clothes but may well lead to accidents.
~~Skirt~~Coat guard. [Source: Wikimedia Commons](https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Brosen_city_bicycle.jpg)
If you are commuting by bicycle and commuting in your normal clothes, as you should, and your normal clothes include anything that may get stuck in the spokes, a skirt guard / coat guard is recommended. As pointed out in the comments, the guard on the bicycle in the photo is unlikely to be intended for protection of long dresses, as a traditional "ladies bicycle" would have a lowered top tube to assist with the same. | In Australia it has seeped into our culture, unfortunately, that riding a bike is a sporting activity, which should be done in appropriate cycling attire, preferably in packs, and with some aggression. I'm exaggerating of course, but it is "a thing". The question is probably coming from a similar perspective. Even though I have recently started commuting to work, which is a 60km round trip (note my good old bike is now a pedelec), I refuse to wear cycling specific clothes, and I also refuse to wear a helmet\*. Cotton shorts and t-shirt are fine most of the time, and there is no need of a helmet as I am largely on bike trails or paths, and I feel I must have some Dutch DNA, as riding is as natural to me as walking, skipping and jumping - I have a very strong tendency to remain upright and on my bike.
I think the upright riding position is a key ingredient for a comfortable and safe ride, even at 35km/h, and particularly when riding in jeans, in the rain, holding an umbrella.
We have a lot yet to learn from the Dutch about bikes, riding and urban design.
\* see [freestylecyclists.org](https://www.freestylecyclists.org/)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VJWuc.jpg) |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | I've never been to Amsterdam, but I do remember reading a comment by someone from there once about what it was like. He said that people there tend to ride at a more leisurely pace, and everyone from all walks of life ride bikes. It's just ordinary people riding around to get to places.
In contrast, in non-cycle-friendly cities, cyclists ride hard to keep up with the traffic, and since there is some danger, it's mostly the more hardcore athletic types who ride.
If you are riding at a moderate pace and the weather is cool enough, then riding in jeans is fine. | One of the more significant differences between a dutch city bike and a performance-focused road bike is the saddle.
Saddles for transport tend to be larger and softer. That way not having padding isn't nearly as bad because the padding is built into the saddle.
The chain is always protected by a guard to avoid loose pants getting caught in it and mangled.
Fenders and mudflaps are also a constant fixture to deal with rain.
On women's bikes there will sometimes be a skirt guard to protect said garment.
The tires are on the chunkier side with lower pressure. This makes for a much more comfortable ride in general. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | In places where there are lots of bikes, most people who are riding them are making short journeys purely for transport. For a short ride of a few kilometers, it really doesn't matter what you're wearing. Any clothes that are comfortable to wear in general will be comfortable to wear on a bike for fifteen minutes.
People who are riding longer distances, pushing harder and aiming for fitness rather than just getting from A to B will start to consider clothing that's more oriented towards exercising and people who are going even farther and pushing even harder will start to wear cycling-specific clothing.
I see this exact thing when I cycle at home in Oxford. If I cycle directly into town, most of the people I see on bikes are just wearing whatever clothes will be appropriate at their destination. If I take a more circuitous route around the outskirts of town before heading into the centre through an area where not many people live, I see a lot of people wearing "general exercise" clothing. If I head away from town, out into the countryside, most of the cyclists I see are wearing clothing designed specifically for cycling. | It's just working. I do have proper biking pants, but I found that especially on more rough terrain (MTB, Enduro, Trail...) I often simply wear my Levis 501, both uphill and downhill, to avoid problems with twigs slashing either the trousers or my skin. No problems, so far, it feels perfectly fine. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | Local here, have lived in Amsterdam for just over a year and a half, through the cold wet winter. I'm not a Dutchie, but have embraced the fiets lifestyle here.
Let me just say that the jeans you get in Amsterdam are the same as what you would buy anywhere else. I ride in Levis 511 jeans every day and have no problems. People here more or less ride in all sorts of clothing (that includes suits, dresses and high heels). You never really go that fast here in the city and you're always kind of stopping and starting, so regular clothes are fine.
When it rains (which happens a lot) most people either catch public transport or wear rainproof gear over their regular clothes. Some even use storm umbrellas. The philosophy here amongst the Dutchies is that there's no bad weather only bad clothing.
The bikes themselves are set up a bit differently here too:
- Every bike, almost without exception has mud guards or "fenders"
- The chain is almost always sealed inside a chainguard to avoid it getting too dirty, as well as the rider
- The vast majority of bikes are upright riding position, as you don't really tend to go that fast in Amsterdam with the cobblestones and narrow streets
In terms of type of bike, lightweight performance bikes don't last very long here and are not practical. What you mostly see are Omafiets, Papafiets, Mamafiets, Bakfiets and various heavy duty city commuter bikes. Powered bikes are also very popular here and often used to cut down travel times for longer distances.
Bikes here tend to be heavy duty so they don't get smashed up at the bike racks, low maintenance as they usually sit outside all the time and focused on comfort as it's not really an "activity" you plan for with specialised clothing but a primary way to get around, with most journeys not being longer than 20 minutes or so.
Outside of the cities you'll see plenty of lycra clad cyclists on their lightweight performance bikes cycling more for recreation on weekends etc. | You are surely aware that there is an industry out there that tries to sell you things you only marginally 'need' - *special clothing for any sport* is not unaffected by that.
There is certainly a gain by wearing special cloth (and shoes) while biking, but unless you are seriously exercising or training for a competition, the difference is marginal.
Of course, in the respective forums you will find lots of people that are convinced otherwise, and will tell you (and themselves) it makes a world of difference.
Just try yourself with an open mind. |
58,111 | What makes the bicycles in Amsterdam suitable for riding with jeans on?
The Dutch are known to wear regular clothes while cycling rather than cycling specific clothing.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Eu4L5.png)
In cycling forums, people often say that jeans are uncomfortable for cycling especially in the rain. When jeans are wet, friction increases which can cause chafing and increase the wear and tear on the jeans and the saddle. The Dutch must have a way of wearing jeans comfortably since regular clothes include jeans. Cycling friendly pants tend to be silkier and thinner so that friction decreases, and more flexible so that there's less pressure on our perineum. Even with a saddle cutout, the seams on jeans can put too much pressure there.
I'm thinking that these are the possible factors:
* Saddle height
* Saddle setback
* Upright posture
* Cadence
* Power
* Coasting percentage
* Saddle shape
* Pants sold in the Netherlands tend to be more cycling friendly such as
jeans with softer seams
* The commuting times are too short for the discomfort to develop
Also, can you have a fast or powerful human powered bike that's jeans friendly? Like hybrid, cyclocross, MTB, and road bikes.
Someone who's into fitness and speed, bikes to work, and wouldn't want to carry an extra pair of pants would be interested in getting that answer. | 2018/11/17 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/58111",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/26265/"
] | You are surely aware that there is an industry out there that tries to sell you things you only marginally 'need' - *special clothing for any sport* is not unaffected by that.
There is certainly a gain by wearing special cloth (and shoes) while biking, but unless you are seriously exercising or training for a competition, the difference is marginal.
Of course, in the respective forums you will find lots of people that are convinced otherwise, and will tell you (and themselves) it makes a world of difference.
Just try yourself with an open mind. | One of the more significant differences between a dutch city bike and a performance-focused road bike is the saddle.
Saddles for transport tend to be larger and softer. That way not having padding isn't nearly as bad because the padding is built into the saddle.
The chain is always protected by a guard to avoid loose pants getting caught in it and mangled.
Fenders and mudflaps are also a constant fixture to deal with rain.
On women's bikes there will sometimes be a skirt guard to protect said garment.
The tires are on the chunkier side with lower pressure. This makes for a much more comfortable ride in general. |
4,091 | I know a lot of users don't like them, but that's quite absurd and disrespectful to the users who do. And it's more absurd to change the rules retrospectively, deleting an entire (helpful) archive of id questions.
Because some say won't delete them, here's what was said in that regard
>
> Closing all existing questions (starting 15 days from now):
>
>
> We will ask SE for help in automatically closing all existing identification questions and, for the time being, applying a historical lock to them (which makes them unvotable and uneditable by non-moderator users, as well as removing them from normal question lists).
>
>
> Together with that, we will blacklist the identification tags (again with help from SE), which makes them unusable on any new or existing questions. The tag will remain on existing questions that have it (which will be locked for editing, though), making it useful for finding those questions for any further cleanup.[We are discontinuing support for identification questions!](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4087/we-are-discontinuing-support-for-identification-questions)
>
>
> | 2018/01/04 | [
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4091",
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/users/24398/"
] | >
> I didn't see that since I don't check Meta
>
>
>
Sorry if this is harsh to hear but that's your fault.
* the Meta Question *["Check in on Identification questions"](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/q/4054/4297)* was posted Nov 27 '17 at 16:57
+ the first answer was posted Nov 28 '17 at 15:26 by iandotkelly ♦
+ the last answer was posted answered Nov 29 '17 at 15:11 by Paulie\_D.
+ **None of the posted answers were for keeping Identification Requests**
+ the question's score was +17/-3 having a total score of +14
* the highest scoring answer was posted answered Nov 28 '17 at 22:20 by Napoleon Wilson ♦
+ this was the longest post
+ it's score was +19/-2 having a total score of +17
* *["We are discontinuing support for identification questions!"](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/q/4087/4297)* was posted asked Jan 03 '18 at 16:56 by Napoleon Wilson ♦
+ in 17 hours it has score +17/-3 having a total score of +14
+ this was quicker than [the original question](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/posts/4054/timeline)
With that information down, it wasn't that the Meta Question was hidden from users. First of all, it was featured in the "Featured on Meta" section on the main site inside that yellow-ish box on the right.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DMmFX.jpg)
Also in the chat room it was posted by the Meta Question Feed Bot and I even predicted this question that I am currently answering coming on the [3rd of December](https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/41513400#41513400), almost a month before this.
>
> the Meta Question was up for [INSERT TIME] and that entire time the question was displayed to on the main site as such it was visible to anyone on the site, including "regular" users. if you wanted to keep id requests why didn't you post an answer? you as just as capable as anyone else to
>
>
>
You only need [5 rep to post on Meta](https://movies.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/participate-in-meta) and [125 rep to vote down](https://movies.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/vote-down) ([15 to vote up](https://movies.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/vote-up)) as such just as my premonition on chat says, you could have posted an answer for keeping them and giving your opinion why they should be kept. People could have voted for this. This happened [in 2016](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/a/2252/4297) when **Ankit Sharma posted for not banning them** and they were kept
---
Meta is where the community comes together to discuss how to manage the main site from how to deal with tags, how to improve questions/answer or how one moderates and what is on and off topic.
Now I may sound harsh in saying this and I am not just saying this to you Madmada, but to the other users who have the same or similar thoughts in their minds that they didn't get a say in this but didn't even vote on any of the answers, but to put it bluntly
Meta is there to help build the site and improve it's moderation by the community. you don't get a say if you don't participate, just like you don't get a say in an country's election if you don't vote (No Vote != A Protest Vote)
=====================================================================================================================================================================================================================================
The question was open for over a month, it's not like you didn't have time. | I was reading up on this topic and also asked an Id question myself. I contribute to several groups. My intention is not stride but an objective view.
First: Meta stands for objectiveness looking from a different angle. In the answer above one states that it’s about voting. But it is not it is merely a method of allowing people to speak their mind.
Second. I am new to this group. And yes I am a movie enthusiast. What I see is a relatively high frequency of down voting —- like every 3rd 4th post. I’ve not come across this before. Maybe these questions are real and wanted by the enthusiasts?
I hope it helps |
27,016 | While I was reading the paper "[*Grounded Action Transformation for Robot Learning in Simulation*](https://www.cs.utexas.edu/%7Epstone/Papers/bib2html/b2hd-AAAI17-Hanna.html)", I came across the term "policy". Could someone explain to me what that actually is (in general and in the particular context of the paper)? | 2018/01/25 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/27016",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/45147/"
] | A policy is a state-action mapping. A 'state' is a formalism used in AI that represents the state of the world, i.e. what the agent's idea of the world is. The action is, naturally, what action it should take in that state. A policy just maps states to actions.
One of the basic problems in AI is how to maximize reward over time at some task.
One strategy for the agent is to try to understand the system and predict the results of their actions, and the reward that would follow. Another strategy is for the agent to try lots of things and record the results. Either of these (eventually) allow the agent to calculate a good policy - and once it's calculated, the difficult computational work is done and the agent just has to 'look up' what action to take in each state. | A policy is a mapping from "states" (images, joint angles, robot position) to "actions" (joint positions, joint torques, options). In that paper, the parameterized policy used is a mapping from states (robot state, joint angles and joint velocities from a state observer) to actions (target joint positions) of the robot. |
27,016 | While I was reading the paper "[*Grounded Action Transformation for Robot Learning in Simulation*](https://www.cs.utexas.edu/%7Epstone/Papers/bib2html/b2hd-AAAI17-Hanna.html)", I came across the term "policy". Could someone explain to me what that actually is (in general and in the particular context of the paper)? | 2018/01/25 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/27016",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/45147/"
] | It's not so much a machine learning term as it is a *control theory* term. A "control policy" is a heuristic that suggests a particular set of actions in response to the current state of the agent (in your case, a robot) and the environment. In the case of reinforcement learning, a policy is parameterized by the network weights. Changing the weights changes the policy, so the distribution of weights comprises a distribution over policies, hence why fitting models in this context is often referred to as "policy search". It's not uncommon to use an ensemble for these kinds of problems, in which case each component of the ensemble comprises a different policy which recommends some action, and then the ensemblification mechanism selects an action from one of these distinct policies (e.g. by vote or highest score) or combines their recommendations into an action (e.g. by taking an average). The whole ensemble can also be described as representing a policy. | A policy is a mapping from "states" (images, joint angles, robot position) to "actions" (joint positions, joint torques, options). In that paper, the parameterized policy used is a mapping from states (robot state, joint angles and joint velocities from a state observer) to actions (target joint positions) of the robot. |
43,252 | A friend and I were discussing this situation:
Player A attacks with all creatures, opponent (player B) have no blockers and gonna be lethal. Before damage step, player B plays Opt, resolves, and draw a Terminus. He reveals it, so miracle triggers go to stack. In response, before the miracle triggers resolve, player A activates an Aether Vial with two counters, resolves, and put a Kitesail Freebooter in the battlefield. Kitesail Freebooter triggered ability triggers, and player B decides that it resolves, so player A removes the Terminus from his hand. Now, while the miracle trigger is still on the stack, player B casts Path to Exile, exiling the Kitesail Freebooter. Terminus returns to his hand.
The question here is: when the miracle-triggered ability resolves, will player B be able to cast Terminus for its miracle cost, or is it considered another different card, like when you blink a permanent to save it from being a target?
(NOTE: We know already that player B could respond to the Kitesail Freebooter with the Path to Exile, so player A sees the hand and discards nothing, as the Kitesail Freebooter is not on the battlefield, but this is not the question we have). | 2018/08/22 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/43252",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/23002/"
] | **No, Terminus could not be played here**
As you already suspect, that the Terminus is a new object at the end of the sequence of plays you describe. It's still in playerB's hand where the miracle trigger would expect it, but it's a new object regardless, because it changed zones.
>
> 400.7. An object that moves from one zone to another becomes a new object with no memory of, or relation to, its previous existence. [..]
>
>
>
The complete rules for miracle also mention what happens when the Terminus in this case leaves the hand:
>
> 702.93a Miracle is a static ability linked to a triggered ability (see rule 603.11). “Miracle [cost]” means “You may reveal this card from your hand as you draw it if it’s the first card you’ve drawn this turn. When you reveal this card this way, you may cast it by paying [cost] rather than its mana cost.”
>
>
> 702.93b If a player chooses to reveal a card using its miracle ability, they play with that card revealed until that card leaves their hand, that ability resolves, or that ability otherwise leaves the stack.
>
>
> | According to an [older thread](https://www.mtgsalvation.com/forums/magic-fundamentals/magic-rulings/magic-rulings-archives/304060-judge-ruling-on-miracle?comment=22) in the mtg-salvations forum (posting #22 and #23) player B can't cast it after it was exiled, since it changed zones and therefore is considered a new object. |
102,608 | I tried loggin into an SSH server via Nautilus' "Connect to Server" feature by just leaving the password blank, but that didn't work.
How do I connect to my server using the key I have on my system? | 2012/02/08 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/102608",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/1067/"
] | Instead of entering the username in the fields below, you'll have to prepend `user@` to the server address and leave both username and password blank:
 | I had this issue when I stopped using Unity and switched to Gnome3 as my machine crawled along despite being way above spec with Unity.
Anyway, I first removed my ~/.ssh/known\_hosts file to ensure it wasn't a fingerprint issue. It was not so I don't think this step was necessary.
I then tried (just for the hell of it as I'd tried everything else by now) **entering my passPHRASE where it asked for my password**. Lo and behold it worked. |
602,714 | In Self-Reliance by Emerson, the online texts I have found say:
>
> He will then see prayer in all action. The prayer of the farmer
> kneeling in his field to weed it, the prayer of the rower kneeling
> with the stroke of his oar, are true prayers heard throughout nature,
> though for cheap ends. Caratach, in Fletcher's Bonduca, when
> admonished to inquire the mind of the god Audate, replies, --
>
>
> "His hidden meaning lies in our endeavours; Our valors are our best
> gods."
>
>
>
Is Audate the name of a mythical god, a fictional god in Fletcher's Bonduca, or some kind of label for the Christian god , like "the holy ghost", or something else? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/602714",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/472934/"
] | >
> [Andraste, also known as Andrasta](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Andraste#:%7E:text=Andraste%2C%20also%20known%20as%20Andrasta,of%20Britain%20in%20AD%2060.), was, according to the Roman historian Dio Cassius, an Icenic war goddess invoked by Boudica in her fight against the Roman occupation of Britain in AD 60.
>
>
>
Audate is a misprint in the first folio of "Bonduca" by Fletcher, corrected in the second to Andate. <https://www.gutenberg.org/files/45781/45781-h/45781-h.htm#Page_112>
Andraste = Andrasta = Andate | From Google search:
[UChicgago journals](https://www.journals.uchicago.edu/doi/full/10.1086/691606)
"In John Fletcher’s dramatization of ancient Britain’s martial struggle against Roman conquest, Caratach, the British general, invokes **Andate** before a decisive battle."
I think that "Audate" may be a misspelling.
I guess the British gods of the time are prechristian, and there may have been a few. |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | The second definition in dictionary.reference.com is a "cultural reference":
>
> salt of the earth in Culture
>
>
> ### salt of the Earth definition
>
>
> Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
>
>
> The American Heritage® New Dictionary of Cultural Literacy, Third Edition
> Copyright © 2005 by Houghton Mifflin Company.
> Published by Houghton Mifflin Company. All rights reserved.
>
>
>
This has a date of 2005, which might make it surprising if *simple* were to mean "simple-minded, stupid, feeble-minded", although it's possible that an earlier edition might have used the word in that sense. I would propose that *simple* here does not mean that; rather it means "uncomplicated, straightforward, not disingenuous". | It is important here to separate the meaning of the phrase, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, from the meaning, in a broad sense of that word, that it gets from the social setting in which it is used. The phrase *salt of the earth* metaphorically denotes somebody who embodies the values that were alluded to in the biblical passage in which it originated. There is nothing more to its meaning, in the narrow sense.
Whether that will be perceived by one's audience as laudatory or critical (and, perhaps, potentially insulting), depends on whether the audience agrees with these values. That is not a matter of meaning in the narrow sense, but of substantive moral views.
The same phenomenon can be observed with respect to many other terms. For example, *virgin* means somebody who hasn't had sexual intercourse. There is nothing more to the meaning, in the narrow sense, of that term. In some social circles, the term carries praise; in others it is likely to be perceived as mocking, when applied to a person beyond a certain age. Whether the term will be commendatory or mocking depends on how its meaning interacts with the moral views of the audience; it is not a matter of its meaning alone.
Or consider the term *eccentric*. Some people frown upon eccentricity, and among them the term expresses criticism, while others find it charming and interesting. Even something like 'he drives a Prius', can be laudatory in some social circles, and an expression of dismissive mockery in others.
In using such terms, one thus has to be attuned to the assumptions and outlooks of the audience; knowing the meaning of the terms, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, is not enough to ensure that one's use of the terms will have the effect one intends. |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | The second definition in dictionary.reference.com is a "cultural reference":
>
> salt of the earth in Culture
>
>
> ### salt of the Earth definition
>
>
> Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
>
>
> The American Heritage® New Dictionary of Cultural Literacy, Third Edition
> Copyright © 2005 by Houghton Mifflin Company.
> Published by Houghton Mifflin Company. All rights reserved.
>
>
>
This has a date of 2005, which might make it surprising if *simple* were to mean "simple-minded, stupid, feeble-minded", although it's possible that an earlier edition might have used the word in that sense. I would propose that *simple* here does not mean that; rather it means "uncomplicated, straightforward, not disingenuous". | The only thing that distinguishes the two definitions (really just one definition there, think again!) is the definite article.
*He is a nice person, salt of the earth!* --> stating the quality of the person. (def. 2)
On the other hand,
*He is a nice person, **the** salt of the earth!* --> denoting the person as a significant example/ paragon/ only case of the class. (def. 1) |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | The only thing that distinguishes the two definitions (really just one definition there, think again!) is the definite article.
*He is a nice person, salt of the earth!* --> stating the quality of the person. (def. 2)
On the other hand,
*He is a nice person, **the** salt of the earth!* --> denoting the person as a significant example/ paragon/ only case of the class. (def. 1) | It is important here to separate the meaning of the phrase, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, from the meaning, in a broad sense of that word, that it gets from the social setting in which it is used. The phrase *salt of the earth* metaphorically denotes somebody who embodies the values that were alluded to in the biblical passage in which it originated. There is nothing more to its meaning, in the narrow sense.
Whether that will be perceived by one's audience as laudatory or critical (and, perhaps, potentially insulting), depends on whether the audience agrees with these values. That is not a matter of meaning in the narrow sense, but of substantive moral views.
The same phenomenon can be observed with respect to many other terms. For example, *virgin* means somebody who hasn't had sexual intercourse. There is nothing more to the meaning, in the narrow sense, of that term. In some social circles, the term carries praise; in others it is likely to be perceived as mocking, when applied to a person beyond a certain age. Whether the term will be commendatory or mocking depends on how its meaning interacts with the moral views of the audience; it is not a matter of its meaning alone.
Or consider the term *eccentric*. Some people frown upon eccentricity, and among them the term expresses criticism, while others find it charming and interesting. Even something like 'he drives a Prius', can be laudatory in some social circles, and an expression of dismissive mockery in others.
In using such terms, one thus has to be attuned to the assumptions and outlooks of the audience; knowing the meaning of the terms, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, is not enough to ensure that one's use of the terms will have the effect one intends. |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | It is important here to separate the meaning of the phrase, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, from the meaning, in a broad sense of that word, that it gets from the social setting in which it is used. The phrase *salt of the earth* metaphorically denotes somebody who embodies the values that were alluded to in the biblical passage in which it originated. There is nothing more to its meaning, in the narrow sense.
Whether that will be perceived by one's audience as laudatory or critical (and, perhaps, potentially insulting), depends on whether the audience agrees with these values. That is not a matter of meaning in the narrow sense, but of substantive moral views.
The same phenomenon can be observed with respect to many other terms. For example, *virgin* means somebody who hasn't had sexual intercourse. There is nothing more to the meaning, in the narrow sense, of that term. In some social circles, the term carries praise; in others it is likely to be perceived as mocking, when applied to a person beyond a certain age. Whether the term will be commendatory or mocking depends on how its meaning interacts with the moral views of the audience; it is not a matter of its meaning alone.
Or consider the term *eccentric*. Some people frown upon eccentricity, and among them the term expresses criticism, while others find it charming and interesting. Even something like 'he drives a Prius', can be laudatory in some social circles, and an expression of dismissive mockery in others.
In using such terms, one thus has to be attuned to the assumptions and outlooks of the audience; knowing the meaning of the terms, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, is not enough to ensure that one's use of the terms will have the effect one intends. | Whoa, when did everyone start worrying that being described as a simple, good person was not a compliment?? Would you rather be called complicated and bad? Being called the salt of the earth is one of the highest compliments you will ever receive. It was used in the Bible to connote the value the person, (as in very valuable) since salt had a lot of value at the time for preserving food without refrigeration. Of course, it also enhanced the flavor of food, then and now. |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | If a word or expression can be taken one of two ways, but you meant it as a compliment, chances are it will be interepreted as a compliment. If someone called me *the salt of the earth,* I probably wouldn't stay up at night tossing and turning, wondering if I had just been called a simpleton, and fretting because I should have been able to devise a clever, on-the-spot retort (such as, *"Thanks – and you're the fertilizer of the earth"*).
Given that the phrase is usually used in a complimentary fashion (provided one has not ["lost his saltiness"](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%205:13&version=CEB)), I don't think you have to worry about an inadvertant insult. It might be worth mentioning that one author opined:
>
> *To call a person “the salt of the earth” remains one of the highest compliments that can be paid*.
>
> Source: Wick Allison, *That's in the Bible?: The Ultimate Learn-As-You-Play Bible Quiz Book*, 2009.
>
>
>
However, I'd say that the phrase is more old-fashioned than contemporary, and it might strike a secular scientist as rather quaint.
Although I don't think you've insulted anyone, I'm not sure I can give a full-fledged recommendation to employ the compliment often. | Yes, "salt of the earth" would refer to one's moral goodness - but it's also a phrase that has class connotations: I think we are far more likely to compliment a hardworking labourer as "salt of the earth" than a well-educated white-collar professional. "Salt of the earth" had class connotations in Jesus's day (he was referring to fishermen), and I think that this survives in current usage. |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | Yes, "salt of the earth" would refer to one's moral goodness - but it's also a phrase that has class connotations: I think we are far more likely to compliment a hardworking labourer as "salt of the earth" than a well-educated white-collar professional. "Salt of the earth" had class connotations in Jesus's day (he was referring to fishermen), and I think that this survives in current usage. | It is important here to separate the meaning of the phrase, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, from the meaning, in a broad sense of that word, that it gets from the social setting in which it is used. The phrase *salt of the earth* metaphorically denotes somebody who embodies the values that were alluded to in the biblical passage in which it originated. There is nothing more to its meaning, in the narrow sense.
Whether that will be perceived by one's audience as laudatory or critical (and, perhaps, potentially insulting), depends on whether the audience agrees with these values. That is not a matter of meaning in the narrow sense, but of substantive moral views.
The same phenomenon can be observed with respect to many other terms. For example, *virgin* means somebody who hasn't had sexual intercourse. There is nothing more to the meaning, in the narrow sense, of that term. In some social circles, the term carries praise; in others it is likely to be perceived as mocking, when applied to a person beyond a certain age. Whether the term will be commendatory or mocking depends on how its meaning interacts with the moral views of the audience; it is not a matter of its meaning alone.
Or consider the term *eccentric*. Some people frown upon eccentricity, and among them the term expresses criticism, while others find it charming and interesting. Even something like 'he drives a Prius', can be laudatory in some social circles, and an expression of dismissive mockery in others.
In using such terms, one thus has to be attuned to the assumptions and outlooks of the audience; knowing the meaning of the terms, in the narrow sense of *meaning*, is not enough to ensure that one's use of the terms will have the effect one intends. |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | Yes, "salt of the earth" would refer to one's moral goodness - but it's also a phrase that has class connotations: I think we are far more likely to compliment a hardworking labourer as "salt of the earth" than a well-educated white-collar professional. "Salt of the earth" had class connotations in Jesus's day (he was referring to fishermen), and I think that this survives in current usage. | The only thing that distinguishes the two definitions (really just one definition there, think again!) is the definite article.
*He is a nice person, salt of the earth!* --> stating the quality of the person. (def. 2)
On the other hand,
*He is a nice person, **the** salt of the earth!* --> denoting the person as a significant example/ paragon/ only case of the class. (def. 1) |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | Yes, "salt of the earth" would refer to one's moral goodness - but it's also a phrase that has class connotations: I think we are far more likely to compliment a hardworking labourer as "salt of the earth" than a well-educated white-collar professional. "Salt of the earth" had class connotations in Jesus's day (he was referring to fishermen), and I think that this survives in current usage. | The second definition in dictionary.reference.com is a "cultural reference":
>
> salt of the earth in Culture
>
>
> ### salt of the Earth definition
>
>
> Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
>
>
> The American Heritage® New Dictionary of Cultural Literacy, Third Edition
> Copyright © 2005 by Houghton Mifflin Company.
> Published by Houghton Mifflin Company. All rights reserved.
>
>
>
This has a date of 2005, which might make it surprising if *simple* were to mean "simple-minded, stupid, feeble-minded", although it's possible that an earlier edition might have used the word in that sense. I would propose that *simple* here does not mean that; rather it means "uncomplicated, straightforward, not disingenuous". |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | If a word or expression can be taken one of two ways, but you meant it as a compliment, chances are it will be interepreted as a compliment. If someone called me *the salt of the earth,* I probably wouldn't stay up at night tossing and turning, wondering if I had just been called a simpleton, and fretting because I should have been able to devise a clever, on-the-spot retort (such as, *"Thanks – and you're the fertilizer of the earth"*).
Given that the phrase is usually used in a complimentary fashion (provided one has not ["lost his saltiness"](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%205:13&version=CEB)), I don't think you have to worry about an inadvertant insult. It might be worth mentioning that one author opined:
>
> *To call a person “the salt of the earth” remains one of the highest compliments that can be paid*.
>
> Source: Wick Allison, *That's in the Bible?: The Ultimate Learn-As-You-Play Bible Quiz Book*, 2009.
>
>
>
However, I'd say that the phrase is more old-fashioned than contemporary, and it might strike a secular scientist as rather quaint.
Although I don't think you've insulted anyone, I'm not sure I can give a full-fledged recommendation to employ the compliment often. | The second definition in dictionary.reference.com is a "cultural reference":
>
> salt of the earth in Culture
>
>
> ### salt of the Earth definition
>
>
> Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
>
>
> The American Heritage® New Dictionary of Cultural Literacy, Third Edition
> Copyright © 2005 by Houghton Mifflin Company.
> Published by Houghton Mifflin Company. All rights reserved.
>
>
>
This has a date of 2005, which might make it surprising if *simple* were to mean "simple-minded, stupid, feeble-minded", although it's possible that an earlier edition might have used the word in that sense. I would propose that *simple* here does not mean that; rather it means "uncomplicated, straightforward, not disingenuous". |
216,443 | I called my friend "salt of the earth" recently. I meant it in the best way possible - he is representative of moral goodness.
But when I looked up the definition, I became a bit uncertain of my usage. I found two definitions:
---
1. an individual or group considered as representative of the best or noblest elements of society.
2. Basic, fundamental goodness; the phrase can be used to describe any simple, good person: “I like Mary: she's reliable, trustworthy, and straightforward; she's the salt of the Earth.” In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus tells his followers, who are mainly fishermen and other simple people, “Ye are the salt of the Earth.”
<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/salt+of+the+earth>
---
The first definition fits my compliment very well. "Representative of the best or noblest elements of society". But I dislike the second definition. I surely DID NOT mean to call my friend simple, since, after all, he is a very sophisticated scientist.
I want to know whether the connotation of "simple goodness" or "goodness in being simple" is common with this expression? Is that what people understand it to mean? Or did I use it in the right way?
---
Update: So there seem to be two types of responses - 1. whether I insulted my friend 2. whether there actually is an implication of being unsophisticated in the phrase.
I'm actually not interested in question (1), I'm only interested in question (2). | 2014/12/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216443",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/39407/"
] | If a word or expression can be taken one of two ways, but you meant it as a compliment, chances are it will be interepreted as a compliment. If someone called me *the salt of the earth,* I probably wouldn't stay up at night tossing and turning, wondering if I had just been called a simpleton, and fretting because I should have been able to devise a clever, on-the-spot retort (such as, *"Thanks – and you're the fertilizer of the earth"*).
Given that the phrase is usually used in a complimentary fashion (provided one has not ["lost his saltiness"](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%205:13&version=CEB)), I don't think you have to worry about an inadvertant insult. It might be worth mentioning that one author opined:
>
> *To call a person “the salt of the earth” remains one of the highest compliments that can be paid*.
>
> Source: Wick Allison, *That's in the Bible?: The Ultimate Learn-As-You-Play Bible Quiz Book*, 2009.
>
>
>
However, I'd say that the phrase is more old-fashioned than contemporary, and it might strike a secular scientist as rather quaint.
Although I don't think you've insulted anyone, I'm not sure I can give a full-fledged recommendation to employ the compliment often. | The only thing that distinguishes the two definitions (really just one definition there, think again!) is the definite article.
*He is a nice person, salt of the earth!* --> stating the quality of the person. (def. 2)
On the other hand,
*He is a nice person, **the** salt of the earth!* --> denoting the person as a significant example/ paragon/ only case of the class. (def. 1) |
94,005 | I noticed in several movies and video games (from the top of my head - The Last of Us, Beyond: Two Souls) that when a guy tells a girl "You are special" it actually means that he likes her.
Do I right understand that it's some sort of magic phrase specially for such cases? Do people in all countries understand it or say only in USA? Are there any other double meaning phrases like this I should be aware of? | 2016/06/17 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/94005",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/27765/"
] | This isn't a particular phrase at all. It just means what it means, that she is **different** (in a good or a bad way, depending on the context).
It can very well mean that he likes her, or that she's plain retarded, depending on the sentences before that one and after.
You can even say:
>
> You are special to me.
>
>
>
Which is even stronger and means that she matters to you in some way. | Yes,You understood its right meaning..it don't have any double meaning.
I think people in almost all countries use this sentence to convey someone(Not necessary to girl you like only) their feelings.to let them know about their importance.
I think this magical phrase could be easily understand by that person also even if he/she not that much good in English :) |
306,845 | This is related to [this question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/34862/are-noise-cancelling-headsets-safe) on Aviation.SE about noise cancelling headsets.
We know that soundwaves can be superimposed on each other. Therefore, by taking an existing sound wave and producing a second wave which is exactly its inverse, the two will sum up to zero. This is how active noise cancelling headset works - by "listening" to the exterior sound with a microphone, then reverting it in its speaker.
The problem is, where does the energy go? The noise sound is an energy source. Generating an inverted sound on the drums of the speaker is also an energy source (from the electricity which powers the speaker). So the total energy output cannot be zero. But we hear silence! Where does that energy go?
---
EDIT: I'm more interested in a theoretical answer, assuming a perfect world with no energy loss in converters / out-of-sync waves. Although an answer giving real world converter efficiencies is also useful. | 2017/01/22 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/306845",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/73453/"
] | The speaker mimics a black body radiator/absorber. If the speaker were 100% efficient and the impedance between the diaphragm and air perfectly matched, then no power need be sent to the speaker and all the sound power would return to the circuit driving the speakers, where its up to the design of the circuit what to do with it (for example, some class D drivers would return the power to the supply, while typically linear circuits would waste the power in a resistor). However, not only are speakers intrinsically inefficient, the diaphragm is horribly matched to the air. So to make the speaker behave as if its a perfect absorber, power must be sent to the speaker, where most is wasted as heat in the coils and magnet. The vast majority of original air power that was to be cancelled is also wasted as heat in the speaker, but a tiny fraction makes its way back to the driving circuit, and then its up to the circuit. But because the efficiency is far below 50%, far more power is spent than regained. | The sum will be zero (in the ideal case) on the side of the listener only. What happens in every other directions is a different story.
Sound waves will be reflected by the casing of the headphones in many directions. The energy is ultimately dissipated as heat as the wave travels through the viscous air.
Some is lost in friction amongst the mechanical components and dissipation in the electronics, although the majority of that comes from whatever source powers the headphones. |
306,845 | This is related to [this question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/34862/are-noise-cancelling-headsets-safe) on Aviation.SE about noise cancelling headsets.
We know that soundwaves can be superimposed on each other. Therefore, by taking an existing sound wave and producing a second wave which is exactly its inverse, the two will sum up to zero. This is how active noise cancelling headset works - by "listening" to the exterior sound with a microphone, then reverting it in its speaker.
The problem is, where does the energy go? The noise sound is an energy source. Generating an inverted sound on the drums of the speaker is also an energy source (from the electricity which powers the speaker). So the total energy output cannot be zero. But we hear silence! Where does that energy go?
---
EDIT: I'm more interested in a theoretical answer, assuming a perfect world with no energy loss in converters / out-of-sync waves. Although an answer giving real world converter efficiencies is also useful. | 2017/01/22 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/306845",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/73453/"
] | The speaker mimics a black body radiator/absorber. If the speaker were 100% efficient and the impedance between the diaphragm and air perfectly matched, then no power need be sent to the speaker and all the sound power would return to the circuit driving the speakers, where its up to the design of the circuit what to do with it (for example, some class D drivers would return the power to the supply, while typically linear circuits would waste the power in a resistor). However, not only are speakers intrinsically inefficient, the diaphragm is horribly matched to the air. So to make the speaker behave as if its a perfect absorber, power must be sent to the speaker, where most is wasted as heat in the coils and magnet. The vast majority of original air power that was to be cancelled is also wasted as heat in the speaker, but a tiny fraction makes its way back to the driving circuit, and then its up to the circuit. But because the efficiency is far below 50%, far more power is spent than regained. | Sound waves are by their nature longitudinal so they can be visualised as invisible springs in the gaps of each individual air molecule that carries the energy signature along its direction of travel and ultimately at the end of its journey through the passage of air is acoustically converted into an electric signal by the inner ear that is spontaneously experienced as a sonic sensation by somebody in the way. If you collided two opposing waves in one of those large slinky springs you get they would merge together and ultimately annihilate each other, but wave energy wouldn't just disappear but it would be rendered into micro vibrations that would dissipate as sound waves and heat - as the energy "had to go somewhere" as it can't just "vanish" and likewise the sound wave that for example is cancelled when you put on background cancellation headphones ultimately gets released as a tiny increase in heat energy into the environment. |
33,089 | Can I redirect the audio output of a mixer track to another mixer track ?
There is send to Insert XX. But it also sends the sound to Master. I want to route the sound completely to an insert track I choose.
I expected the "Out" select dropdown to have a list of mixer tracks where to route the audio, but it only shows "none"... | 2014/12/24 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/33089",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/12620/"
] | If you're using FL12, you can right click on the upward facing arrow on what channel you want to send it to, at the bottom of each mixer strip, and choose "Route to this track only" or "Sidechain to this track only".
<https://gyazo.com/c0e86bc9654fbb37742349429560a5d6> | You can, turn off the arrow under the main channel. this will stop routing the output to the main track. |
33,089 | Can I redirect the audio output of a mixer track to another mixer track ?
There is send to Insert XX. But it also sends the sound to Master. I want to route the sound completely to an insert track I choose.
I expected the "Out" select dropdown to have a list of mixer tracks where to route the audio, but it only shows "none"... | 2014/12/24 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/33089",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/12620/"
] | If you're using FL12, you can right click on the upward facing arrow on what channel you want to send it to, at the bottom of each mixer strip, and choose "Route to this track only" or "Sidechain to this track only".
<https://gyazo.com/c0e86bc9654fbb37742349429560a5d6> | **Remove from master**
Select a track like insert 1 in the picture. You will see that a Send Indicator is lit below the master track and insert 1. Click on the Send Indicator on the master track to remove the routing between insert 1 and the master track.
**Route to custom track**
Simply select a track like insert 1 and press the Send Indicator below an other track. Press the Send Indicator below insert 2 for example and insert 1 will be routed to insert 2.
**Picture**
 |
3,356,255 | I know there are ways to automate SQL Server "unit tests." But my question is slightly different.
When validating requirements we write a series of SQL Scripts that basically return nothing if success.
So basically its like
1. Execute Query
2. Execute another Query
3. Run SSIS Package
4. Run Query.
And example with a little more context
Requirement #1 Description: Show SO my issue
1. Query to check if target table exists and is empty
2. Query to check if source table exist and has data
3. Run ETL SSIS package
4. Query Check that data transfered correctly
5. Query to assert business rules
We have found a way to automate this process by writing a custom program to parse through execute SQL Queries, load necessary data, run SSIS packages, etc and then report if we have a result (which shows test failure).
This seems like a wheel reinventing... but I haven't been able to find anything like it. Especially one that integrates with SSIS.
EDIT:
Someone suggested SSISunit, and there is little to no documentation on it. If we were to use SSIS unit is it more like the setup process would *assert* that the required conditions exist, steps 1 & 2 above? I always thought setup processes do not do validation? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3356255",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/256793/"
] | Its unclear to me whether your question is about unit testing ssis the business rules inside an ssis package or if that is just a means to an end perhaps this is useful:
<http://ssisunit.codeplex.com/>
Most xUnit frameworks support setup and teardown structure. I think what you would want is to use the setup portion of the test to execute the ssis package and the teardown step to reset database state.
I would look at this as a starting point, since it is built-in to visual studio.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb381703(VS.80).aspx>
So to answer your question yes, I think you are reinventing the wheel; but maybe the existing wheel isn't a good fit for your problem ;) | You could write an SSIS package that executes all these steps.
Create a variable called myResult. View >> Other windows >> variables. Be sure you are at the control flow level of the package and not clicked into some task/step. You want this variable scoped to the package level. Give it Int32 data type and set the default value as your error code.
Execute SQL Task, Set the resultset property to 'Single Row'. Put result into a variable with the Result Set pane. Set Result Name = 0 and Variable Name = User::myResult.
Check Result by doubleclicking the line between these two SQL Tasks. Set to evaluate an expression and set expressions like this: @myResult == 0
Execute next SQL Task putting result into same variable
Check Result as before
Execute Package Task (execute your SSIS)
Continue as needed...
You can execute SSIS packages with the [DTEXEC.exe runtime](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms162810.aspx). Return codes are listed there, so you can perhaps integrate into another process.
---
--Additional stuff--
Since you want this to be generic for many cases, you could either write some code which would pull a test case and it's individual steps from a table or you could do the same thing in SSIS (maybe!).
In SSIS you could create a Foreach Loop Container which would operate on an ADO result set stored in a variable. Depending on the 'step type' - SQLCMD or SSIS package, you could branch to execute a package or execute a SQL statement using expressions to change the relevant info such as package path or sql statement. You would need a field for the server, sqlcmd and packagename for each step for simplicity's sake - SQL task doesn't need the packagename and ssis task doesn't need sqlcmd. |
3,356,255 | I know there are ways to automate SQL Server "unit tests." But my question is slightly different.
When validating requirements we write a series of SQL Scripts that basically return nothing if success.
So basically its like
1. Execute Query
2. Execute another Query
3. Run SSIS Package
4. Run Query.
And example with a little more context
Requirement #1 Description: Show SO my issue
1. Query to check if target table exists and is empty
2. Query to check if source table exist and has data
3. Run ETL SSIS package
4. Query Check that data transfered correctly
5. Query to assert business rules
We have found a way to automate this process by writing a custom program to parse through execute SQL Queries, load necessary data, run SSIS packages, etc and then report if we have a result (which shows test failure).
This seems like a wheel reinventing... but I haven't been able to find anything like it. Especially one that integrates with SSIS.
EDIT:
Someone suggested SSISunit, and there is little to no documentation on it. If we were to use SSIS unit is it more like the setup process would *assert* that the required conditions exist, steps 1 & 2 above? I always thought setup processes do not do validation? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3356255",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/256793/"
] | Its unclear to me whether your question is about unit testing ssis the business rules inside an ssis package or if that is just a means to an end perhaps this is useful:
<http://ssisunit.codeplex.com/>
Most xUnit frameworks support setup and teardown structure. I think what you would want is to use the setup portion of the test to execute the ssis package and the teardown step to reset database state.
I would look at this as a starting point, since it is built-in to visual studio.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb381703(VS.80).aspx>
So to answer your question yes, I think you are reinventing the wheel; but maybe the existing wheel isn't a good fit for your problem ;) | After about a months worth of research there is no OTS program out there that does what this question asks about.
We were looking for a tool set that allows for you to define how to validate a requirement. In our case we needed a generic routine to execute SQL Scripts, Load Data, and Run SSIS packages and the only way to do it currently is to write your own orchestration tool.
We used .NET to orchestrate but @Sam did provide a useful way to do it with SSIS. Thanks to @JasonHorner advice we are now looking at making it look and feel more like SSISUnit but at a more organized level. |
116,783 | Barry has already proven that he can run fast enough to open a time portal, and he can grab or carry people/large items while running.
In *The Reverse-Flash Returns* (S02E11), Barry and
>
> The Reverse-Flash
>
>
>
need to open a time portal for Barry to throw him through.
Why do *both* of them run around in circles to build up speed instead of Barry just grabbing him at the end to throw him through the portal? | 2016/01/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/116783",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5184/"
] | In the episode, it's stated that Flash and the other speedster must work together, adding Barry's speed to the other's, in order to open a time portal.
As you noted, Barry's been able to open time portals on his own before; however, as the earlier respondent stated, this was never something that he'd done on purpose (or, at least not until another few episodes, when he goes back in time to get Season 1 Harrison Wells to help him increase his speed).
So, it's not terribly clear why both their efforts were required to send the other speedster back through time.
A couple of possibilities:
* They're basing their theory on what the other speedster has stated; that information may not be correct (whether by mistake, or by design).
* The other speedster needed the additional speed to get the time portal open for some reason: he's just a little slower than Flash, or the distance he must traverse, or due to the presence of the Time Wraiths we learn of later.
NOTE: there's another questionable element here. It's not at all clear how the two speedsters, running at roughly the same rate, can have one push the other and thereby double his rate of speed. In the comics, speedsters have sometimes managed to use the Speed Force to temporarily give others super-speed. Perhaps that's what actually happened. | The times when Barry ran fast enough to go backwards in time was when he was running away from or trying to prevent a catastrophic event which would kill thousands of people.
Not only did he have to open a stable portal into the future, he also had to do so without being full of adrenaline.
There's also nothing to hint that he can do it on demand, but
>
> Eobard Thawne
>
>
>
has a bit more experience with timetravel.
I also feel like The Flash grabbing onto him at such a high speed might cause him an injury like
>
> a snapped neck.
>
>
> |
116,783 | Barry has already proven that he can run fast enough to open a time portal, and he can grab or carry people/large items while running.
In *The Reverse-Flash Returns* (S02E11), Barry and
>
> The Reverse-Flash
>
>
>
need to open a time portal for Barry to throw him through.
Why do *both* of them run around in circles to build up speed instead of Barry just grabbing him at the end to throw him through the portal? | 2016/01/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/116783",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5184/"
] | Barry, by himself, only has the ability to run into the past. He needs the help of another speedster to run into the future. In the show it is not explained why or how it works. It might be that he cannot create enough speed force to make a portal to the future.
>
> In season 3 we see Barry run into the future, with the help of Wally.
>
>
>
Update: After rewatching the episode when Barry travels to the future. It is the force from the speed that Barry needs.
Wally: You sure this is going to work?
Barry: I calculated the force from the explosion that propelled me into the future the last time. At your fastest speed, you can create 3 times the force. That's more than enough to get me to where I want to go.
The last time he went into the future was by accident. This was from him throwing the stone into the speed force creating the force to travel him to the future. | The times when Barry ran fast enough to go backwards in time was when he was running away from or trying to prevent a catastrophic event which would kill thousands of people.
Not only did he have to open a stable portal into the future, he also had to do so without being full of adrenaline.
There's also nothing to hint that he can do it on demand, but
>
> Eobard Thawne
>
>
>
has a bit more experience with timetravel.
I also feel like The Flash grabbing onto him at such a high speed might cause him an injury like
>
> a snapped neck.
>
>
> |
331 | **TLDR: What sources of legislation are valid in Shia Islam?** Given that Shia Islam varies greatly (asharis vs. rafidees). I will explain by an analogy in Sunni Islam what I'm looking for.
In Sunni Islam, there is consensus that you derive rulings from the following sources (in order, because of their strength of the higher level over the lower level):
* Ayaat (verses) of Qur'an
* Hadith (narrations) of Rasulullah
* Ijmaa (consensus) of the scholars
* Qiyaas (analogy)
After this, there's difference of opinion about what to use next. Each madhab, for example, differs after #4 about what source to use.
What's the equivalent in Shia Islam?
*Also, I have heard that Shia Islam has its own "hadith" (narrations) attributed to Ali ibn Ali Talib (radiallahu anhu), the fourth Khalifah in Sunni Islam. Please weave that into your answer.* | 2012/06/21 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/331",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/7/"
] | For [Twelver Shia or the Ithnā'ashariyyah'](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shia#Twelver), it is:
1. [Qur'an](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quran)
2. [Hadith](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadith)
3. [Aql](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%27Aql) (intellect)
4. [Ijma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ijma)
As for the difference between Sunni hadith and Shi'a, it includes ahadith (narrations) of ريا Rasulullah and [Twelvers imams](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Imam). Some of popular hadith books are [Nahj al-Balagha](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nahj_al-Balagha) of Ali ibn abitalib (A.S.) and [Sahife Sajjadiya](http://www.tebyan.net/index.aspx?pid=70162) of the fourth Imam. | Most of Shia scholars:
Quran, Sunnah, Ijma, Aql (Logic and reasoning)
In Shia the Qiyas is not accepted and Imam Sadiq S.A said the first who did Qiyas was Satan when he said to God: you created Adam from soil and created me from fire SO I am better than him.
There are many interesting arguments between Imam Sadiq (S.A) and Abu Hanifa about Qiyas.
About Hadith book of Imam Ali S.A:
When Gabriel delivered verses of Quran to prophet memorized them and all know prophet did not wrote anything all his life. Imam Ali S.A came to home of prophet every night and said Salam behind door. If the Prophet replied he entered home an unless returned. At nights prophet dictated the verses of Quran and also the comments said by Gabriel (but not as part of Quran) to Ali S.A and Ali S.A wrote them on skis of animals and bones of animals. Until all Quran was written in this method. The volume of this Quran with its comments was 3 times of Quran only. Also any of Sahaba wrote his/her own Quran. They were called in the name of the sahaba who wrote it. For example Quran of Aisha, Quran of Ali (in fact Quran of the Prophet) ,...
Before the Prophet die said to Ali S.A.:
>
> O! Ali when I died stay at your home and do not come out until collect
> and sort my pieces of Quran and form it as one united Book. (The
> animal skins were separate).
>
>
>
So after the death of the Prophet Ali S.A stayed at home until 4 days and worked on Quran. When finished came to mosque and said to Sahaba: this is Quran of prophet. Abubakr who was aware that in that Quran some things is written about Caliphate of Ali S.A (in comments parts) after prophet said to Ali S.A.: we have our own Quran and we do not need it. Ali S.A. said: you will never see this Quran and taken it to his home. That Quran was passed to next Imam (Imam Hasan S.A) and so on to next Imam of 12 infallible Imams and now it is with Imam Mahdi S.A.
Imams of Shia always quoted to their students from that Quran and students noted them. Until 400 hand-writings were formed out of that Quran during years and those 400 later formed the base of Shia Fiqh (Jafari Fiqh).
---
Ref:
[www.al-islam.org](http://www.al-islam.org/al-tawhid/sects/3.htm)
[www.tebyan.net](http://www.tebyan.net/index.aspx?pid=208826) |
331 | **TLDR: What sources of legislation are valid in Shia Islam?** Given that Shia Islam varies greatly (asharis vs. rafidees). I will explain by an analogy in Sunni Islam what I'm looking for.
In Sunni Islam, there is consensus that you derive rulings from the following sources (in order, because of their strength of the higher level over the lower level):
* Ayaat (verses) of Qur'an
* Hadith (narrations) of Rasulullah
* Ijmaa (consensus) of the scholars
* Qiyaas (analogy)
After this, there's difference of opinion about what to use next. Each madhab, for example, differs after #4 about what source to use.
What's the equivalent in Shia Islam?
*Also, I have heard that Shia Islam has its own "hadith" (narrations) attributed to Ali ibn Ali Talib (radiallahu anhu), the fourth Khalifah in Sunni Islam. Please weave that into your answer.* | 2012/06/21 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/331",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/7/"
] | Most of Shia scholars:
Quran, Sunnah, Ijma, Aql (Logic and reasoning)
In Shia the Qiyas is not accepted and Imam Sadiq S.A said the first who did Qiyas was Satan when he said to God: you created Adam from soil and created me from fire SO I am better than him.
There are many interesting arguments between Imam Sadiq (S.A) and Abu Hanifa about Qiyas.
About Hadith book of Imam Ali S.A:
When Gabriel delivered verses of Quran to prophet memorized them and all know prophet did not wrote anything all his life. Imam Ali S.A came to home of prophet every night and said Salam behind door. If the Prophet replied he entered home an unless returned. At nights prophet dictated the verses of Quran and also the comments said by Gabriel (but not as part of Quran) to Ali S.A and Ali S.A wrote them on skis of animals and bones of animals. Until all Quran was written in this method. The volume of this Quran with its comments was 3 times of Quran only. Also any of Sahaba wrote his/her own Quran. They were called in the name of the sahaba who wrote it. For example Quran of Aisha, Quran of Ali (in fact Quran of the Prophet) ,...
Before the Prophet die said to Ali S.A.:
>
> O! Ali when I died stay at your home and do not come out until collect
> and sort my pieces of Quran and form it as one united Book. (The
> animal skins were separate).
>
>
>
So after the death of the Prophet Ali S.A stayed at home until 4 days and worked on Quran. When finished came to mosque and said to Sahaba: this is Quran of prophet. Abubakr who was aware that in that Quran some things is written about Caliphate of Ali S.A (in comments parts) after prophet said to Ali S.A.: we have our own Quran and we do not need it. Ali S.A. said: you will never see this Quran and taken it to his home. That Quran was passed to next Imam (Imam Hasan S.A) and so on to next Imam of 12 infallible Imams and now it is with Imam Mahdi S.A.
Imams of Shia always quoted to their students from that Quran and students noted them. Until 400 hand-writings were formed out of that Quran during years and those 400 later formed the base of Shia Fiqh (Jafari Fiqh).
---
Ref:
[www.al-islam.org](http://www.al-islam.org/al-tawhid/sects/3.htm)
[www.tebyan.net](http://www.tebyan.net/index.aspx?pid=208826) | The primary Sources of Shia Islamic Law are:
1. **The Qur'an** (the word of Allah). From the authenticity and credibility view point the Qur'an is at the highest level, but the problem implies the meaning and interpretation of the Qur'an.
2. **Sunnah (the sayings and actions of Prophet Muhammad and the infallible Imams**; including their “Satisfactory Silence toward an act” ). Unlike the Qur'an, the authenticity and credibility of Sunnah is not certain. (According a Hadith from Imam Sadeq (a) all their sayings is reported from the earlier Imams and finally from Imam Ali and Imam Ali is reported from the prophet. So the chain of all the Hadiths in Shiah finally reach the prophet Mohammad (mpbuph).
3. **Ijma of Fuqaha**: every consensus among the Fuqaha is not authentic and acceptable. Those consensus which discover the word of the infallibles is valid only.
4. **Aql** (Reason).
5. **Qiyas and Ray** (Analogical Deduction) is a personal opinion of a person so it is not authentic and valid).
6. **Urf** (Custom): It is valid but just as an instrument to clear an issue. It is not an independent source.
---
**All schools agree on the Quran and Hadith as the primary sources, but regarding other sources:**
* Maliki and Hanbali try to limit the use of other sources.
* Shafi'i school is a moderate (compare to Maliki, Hanbali and Hanafi) in using the other sources.
* Hanafi invokes to Qiyas, Ray, and Urf more than any other schools of Fiqh. |
331 | **TLDR: What sources of legislation are valid in Shia Islam?** Given that Shia Islam varies greatly (asharis vs. rafidees). I will explain by an analogy in Sunni Islam what I'm looking for.
In Sunni Islam, there is consensus that you derive rulings from the following sources (in order, because of their strength of the higher level over the lower level):
* Ayaat (verses) of Qur'an
* Hadith (narrations) of Rasulullah
* Ijmaa (consensus) of the scholars
* Qiyaas (analogy)
After this, there's difference of opinion about what to use next. Each madhab, for example, differs after #4 about what source to use.
What's the equivalent in Shia Islam?
*Also, I have heard that Shia Islam has its own "hadith" (narrations) attributed to Ali ibn Ali Talib (radiallahu anhu), the fourth Khalifah in Sunni Islam. Please weave that into your answer.* | 2012/06/21 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/331",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/7/"
] | For [Twelver Shia or the Ithnā'ashariyyah'](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shia#Twelver), it is:
1. [Qur'an](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quran)
2. [Hadith](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadith)
3. [Aql](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%27Aql) (intellect)
4. [Ijma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ijma)
As for the difference between Sunni hadith and Shi'a, it includes ahadith (narrations) of ريا Rasulullah and [Twelvers imams](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Imam). Some of popular hadith books are [Nahj al-Balagha](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nahj_al-Balagha) of Ali ibn abitalib (A.S.) and [Sahife Sajjadiya](http://www.tebyan.net/index.aspx?pid=70162) of the fourth Imam. | In Shi'ite Islam Qiyaas (making analogy) is forbidden, and instead Aghl (intellect) is substituted and also Ahadith are also provided from all the 14 infallibles A.S., as already stated by the other members.
Note that Qiyaas and Aghl are both devolved to Muslims not being infallible. These are required as to find the answer for new questions in different times (so that Islam is alive), and on the hand should be used only with ultimate care not to let personal ideas enter the Ash-Shari'ah.
According to Shia Islam Aghl is permitted to be used as Quran declares that for example after stating a rule:
>
> كَذَٰلِكَ يُبَيِّنُ ٱللَّهُ لَكُمْ ءَايَـٰتِهِۦ لَعَلَّكُمْ
> تَعْقِلُونَ
>
>
> Thus doth Allah Make clear His Signs to you: In order that ye may
> understand. (Al-Baghareh:242)
>
>
>
Or after complaining those who do not use their intellect about what rule is the rule of Allah and what is not, invented as a lie against Allah:
>
> مَا جَعَلَ ٱللَّهُ مِنۢ بَحِيرَةٍۢ وَلَا سَآئِبَةٍۢ وَلَا وَصِيلَةٍۢ
> وَلَا حَامٍۢ ۙ وَلَـٰكِنَّ ٱلَّذِينَ كَفَرُوا۟ يَفْتَرُونَ عَلَى
> ٱللَّهِ ٱلْكَذِبَ ۖ وَأَكْثَرُهُمْ لَا يَعْقِلُونَ
>
>
> It was not Allah who instituted (superstitions like those of) a
> slit-ear she-camel, or a she-camel let loose for free pasture, or idol
> sacrifices for twin-births in animals, or stallion-camels freed from
> work: It is blasphemers who invent a lie against Allah; but most of
> them lack wisdom. (Al-Maa'edeh:103)
>
>
>
And also there is famous Hadith in Shia Islam that everything commanded by Aghl (not personal feelings) is also approved by Shar' and everything commanded by Shar' is also approved by Aghl (کلما امر به العقل امر به الشرع، و کلما امر به الشرع امر به العقل).
However, there are evidences that Qiyaas is not permitted in Islam, e.g., once there was a debate between Imam Sadiq AS and one of the Sunni Imams, Imam Sadiq AS asked him if he exploit Qiyas and he answered yes, then Imam A.S. Asked him three questions in this regard one of them is this: Which sin is bigger, murder or adultery (Zinaa')? He answered back Murder. Imam AS asked him then why does Allah states in his book that proof of murder needs 2 witnesses whereas the proof of adultery needs 4 person as witness? Not all the underlying wisdoms of a rule is clear to us so that Qiyaas (making analogy between different rules) is forbidden in Shia Islam.
The rest of sources of legislation is common in Shi'ite and Sunnah, *except for them having different authentic Ahadith*, as you already know. |
331 | **TLDR: What sources of legislation are valid in Shia Islam?** Given that Shia Islam varies greatly (asharis vs. rafidees). I will explain by an analogy in Sunni Islam what I'm looking for.
In Sunni Islam, there is consensus that you derive rulings from the following sources (in order, because of their strength of the higher level over the lower level):
* Ayaat (verses) of Qur'an
* Hadith (narrations) of Rasulullah
* Ijmaa (consensus) of the scholars
* Qiyaas (analogy)
After this, there's difference of opinion about what to use next. Each madhab, for example, differs after #4 about what source to use.
What's the equivalent in Shia Islam?
*Also, I have heard that Shia Islam has its own "hadith" (narrations) attributed to Ali ibn Ali Talib (radiallahu anhu), the fourth Khalifah in Sunni Islam. Please weave that into your answer.* | 2012/06/21 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/331",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/7/"
] | For [Twelver Shia or the Ithnā'ashariyyah'](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shia#Twelver), it is:
1. [Qur'an](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quran)
2. [Hadith](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadith)
3. [Aql](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%27Aql) (intellect)
4. [Ijma](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ijma)
As for the difference between Sunni hadith and Shi'a, it includes ahadith (narrations) of ريا Rasulullah and [Twelvers imams](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Imam). Some of popular hadith books are [Nahj al-Balagha](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nahj_al-Balagha) of Ali ibn abitalib (A.S.) and [Sahife Sajjadiya](http://www.tebyan.net/index.aspx?pid=70162) of the fourth Imam. | The primary Sources of Shia Islamic Law are:
1. **The Qur'an** (the word of Allah). From the authenticity and credibility view point the Qur'an is at the highest level, but the problem implies the meaning and interpretation of the Qur'an.
2. **Sunnah (the sayings and actions of Prophet Muhammad and the infallible Imams**; including their “Satisfactory Silence toward an act” ). Unlike the Qur'an, the authenticity and credibility of Sunnah is not certain. (According a Hadith from Imam Sadeq (a) all their sayings is reported from the earlier Imams and finally from Imam Ali and Imam Ali is reported from the prophet. So the chain of all the Hadiths in Shiah finally reach the prophet Mohammad (mpbuph).
3. **Ijma of Fuqaha**: every consensus among the Fuqaha is not authentic and acceptable. Those consensus which discover the word of the infallibles is valid only.
4. **Aql** (Reason).
5. **Qiyas and Ray** (Analogical Deduction) is a personal opinion of a person so it is not authentic and valid).
6. **Urf** (Custom): It is valid but just as an instrument to clear an issue. It is not an independent source.
---
**All schools agree on the Quran and Hadith as the primary sources, but regarding other sources:**
* Maliki and Hanbali try to limit the use of other sources.
* Shafi'i school is a moderate (compare to Maliki, Hanbali and Hanafi) in using the other sources.
* Hanafi invokes to Qiyas, Ray, and Urf more than any other schools of Fiqh. |
331 | **TLDR: What sources of legislation are valid in Shia Islam?** Given that Shia Islam varies greatly (asharis vs. rafidees). I will explain by an analogy in Sunni Islam what I'm looking for.
In Sunni Islam, there is consensus that you derive rulings from the following sources (in order, because of their strength of the higher level over the lower level):
* Ayaat (verses) of Qur'an
* Hadith (narrations) of Rasulullah
* Ijmaa (consensus) of the scholars
* Qiyaas (analogy)
After this, there's difference of opinion about what to use next. Each madhab, for example, differs after #4 about what source to use.
What's the equivalent in Shia Islam?
*Also, I have heard that Shia Islam has its own "hadith" (narrations) attributed to Ali ibn Ali Talib (radiallahu anhu), the fourth Khalifah in Sunni Islam. Please weave that into your answer.* | 2012/06/21 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/331",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/7/"
] | In Shi'ite Islam Qiyaas (making analogy) is forbidden, and instead Aghl (intellect) is substituted and also Ahadith are also provided from all the 14 infallibles A.S., as already stated by the other members.
Note that Qiyaas and Aghl are both devolved to Muslims not being infallible. These are required as to find the answer for new questions in different times (so that Islam is alive), and on the hand should be used only with ultimate care not to let personal ideas enter the Ash-Shari'ah.
According to Shia Islam Aghl is permitted to be used as Quran declares that for example after stating a rule:
>
> كَذَٰلِكَ يُبَيِّنُ ٱللَّهُ لَكُمْ ءَايَـٰتِهِۦ لَعَلَّكُمْ
> تَعْقِلُونَ
>
>
> Thus doth Allah Make clear His Signs to you: In order that ye may
> understand. (Al-Baghareh:242)
>
>
>
Or after complaining those who do not use their intellect about what rule is the rule of Allah and what is not, invented as a lie against Allah:
>
> مَا جَعَلَ ٱللَّهُ مِنۢ بَحِيرَةٍۢ وَلَا سَآئِبَةٍۢ وَلَا وَصِيلَةٍۢ
> وَلَا حَامٍۢ ۙ وَلَـٰكِنَّ ٱلَّذِينَ كَفَرُوا۟ يَفْتَرُونَ عَلَى
> ٱللَّهِ ٱلْكَذِبَ ۖ وَأَكْثَرُهُمْ لَا يَعْقِلُونَ
>
>
> It was not Allah who instituted (superstitions like those of) a
> slit-ear she-camel, or a she-camel let loose for free pasture, or idol
> sacrifices for twin-births in animals, or stallion-camels freed from
> work: It is blasphemers who invent a lie against Allah; but most of
> them lack wisdom. (Al-Maa'edeh:103)
>
>
>
And also there is famous Hadith in Shia Islam that everything commanded by Aghl (not personal feelings) is also approved by Shar' and everything commanded by Shar' is also approved by Aghl (کلما امر به العقل امر به الشرع، و کلما امر به الشرع امر به العقل).
However, there are evidences that Qiyaas is not permitted in Islam, e.g., once there was a debate between Imam Sadiq AS and one of the Sunni Imams, Imam Sadiq AS asked him if he exploit Qiyas and he answered yes, then Imam A.S. Asked him three questions in this regard one of them is this: Which sin is bigger, murder or adultery (Zinaa')? He answered back Murder. Imam AS asked him then why does Allah states in his book that proof of murder needs 2 witnesses whereas the proof of adultery needs 4 person as witness? Not all the underlying wisdoms of a rule is clear to us so that Qiyaas (making analogy between different rules) is forbidden in Shia Islam.
The rest of sources of legislation is common in Shi'ite and Sunnah, *except for them having different authentic Ahadith*, as you already know. | The primary Sources of Shia Islamic Law are:
1. **The Qur'an** (the word of Allah). From the authenticity and credibility view point the Qur'an is at the highest level, but the problem implies the meaning and interpretation of the Qur'an.
2. **Sunnah (the sayings and actions of Prophet Muhammad and the infallible Imams**; including their “Satisfactory Silence toward an act” ). Unlike the Qur'an, the authenticity and credibility of Sunnah is not certain. (According a Hadith from Imam Sadeq (a) all their sayings is reported from the earlier Imams and finally from Imam Ali and Imam Ali is reported from the prophet. So the chain of all the Hadiths in Shiah finally reach the prophet Mohammad (mpbuph).
3. **Ijma of Fuqaha**: every consensus among the Fuqaha is not authentic and acceptable. Those consensus which discover the word of the infallibles is valid only.
4. **Aql** (Reason).
5. **Qiyas and Ray** (Analogical Deduction) is a personal opinion of a person so it is not authentic and valid).
6. **Urf** (Custom): It is valid but just as an instrument to clear an issue. It is not an independent source.
---
**All schools agree on the Quran and Hadith as the primary sources, but regarding other sources:**
* Maliki and Hanbali try to limit the use of other sources.
* Shafi'i school is a moderate (compare to Maliki, Hanbali and Hanafi) in using the other sources.
* Hanafi invokes to Qiyas, Ray, and Urf more than any other schools of Fiqh. |
181,619 | Some services (for instance ProtonMail) claim to store *hashes of* phone numbers, instead of phone numbers themselves (while they don't say how they hash it). Now, given that the number of potentially valid phone numbers is very small (about 26 bits worth of information in an 8-digit phone numbers), it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash.
So what's the point? | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/181619",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/143975/"
] | ProtonMail may request your phone number to perform a human check:
* ProtonMail detects that you're attempting to create several accounts.
* It requests you a phone number, to send you a token via SMS.
* You must send that token to ProtonMail to prove you're the phone number owner.
Then, ProtonMail doesn't need your phone number anymore, but it still need to use it to prevent spammers to create multiple accounts.
Hashing the phone number allows it to not store the original number and to prevent someone to use the same number twice.
From [their FAQ](https://protonmail.com/support/knowledge-base/human-verification/):
>
> However, using the same phone number will result in obtaining the same cryptographic hash, so by comparing hashes, we can detect re-use of phone number or email addresses for human verification.
>
>
>
Thus ProtonMail doesn't seem to use unique salts.
We also know thanks to [a tweet from Bart Butler](https://twitter.com/BartCButler/status/904887675727044609) (ProtonMail CTO) that:
* ProtonMail regularly flushes stored hashes.
* Stored hashes aren't linked to any account.
[Bart Butler also tweeted](https://twitter.com/BartCButler/status/974325904884183042):
>
> We use a slow password hash (With a salt) and flush the list and rotate the salt at irregular intervals.
>
>
>
In conclusion: brute-forcing them is possible, but it's neither practical nor useful. | There are two reasons for storing hashed phone numbers, one is useful the other one is not:
1) Allow to verify the user. Here a salted slow hash is useful. While brute-forcing a phone number is faster than a password, it still provides added security.
2) Pretend to provide a more safe lookup (i.e. in several of whatsapp competitors). Here you cannot salt the hash, because you would not be able to search for the hash when only knowing the phone number. This means a rainbow table is easy to create as the search space of unsalted hashes is really small.
Note that 1) still provides an easy proof of existence when you have the database. Hash your phone number with all the salts used in the database and look it up. If it is stored in there, you will find it. |
181,619 | Some services (for instance ProtonMail) claim to store *hashes of* phone numbers, instead of phone numbers themselves (while they don't say how they hash it). Now, given that the number of potentially valid phone numbers is very small (about 26 bits worth of information in an 8-digit phone numbers), it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash.
So what's the point? | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/181619",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/143975/"
] | ProtonMail may request your phone number to perform a human check:
* ProtonMail detects that you're attempting to create several accounts.
* It requests you a phone number, to send you a token via SMS.
* You must send that token to ProtonMail to prove you're the phone number owner.
Then, ProtonMail doesn't need your phone number anymore, but it still need to use it to prevent spammers to create multiple accounts.
Hashing the phone number allows it to not store the original number and to prevent someone to use the same number twice.
From [their FAQ](https://protonmail.com/support/knowledge-base/human-verification/):
>
> However, using the same phone number will result in obtaining the same cryptographic hash, so by comparing hashes, we can detect re-use of phone number or email addresses for human verification.
>
>
>
Thus ProtonMail doesn't seem to use unique salts.
We also know thanks to [a tweet from Bart Butler](https://twitter.com/BartCButler/status/904887675727044609) (ProtonMail CTO) that:
* ProtonMail regularly flushes stored hashes.
* Stored hashes aren't linked to any account.
[Bart Butler also tweeted](https://twitter.com/BartCButler/status/974325904884183042):
>
> We use a slow password hash (With a salt) and flush the list and rotate the salt at irregular intervals.
>
>
>
In conclusion: brute-forcing them is possible, but it's neither practical nor useful. | The point is to not store them in plaintext.
That is probably pretty much it. As D.W. pointed out in his comments, that Benoit's answer, tells you their reason *why* they store phone numbers and *that* they hash them. ProtonMail does not tell you *why* they hash them. We all can only speculate about this, until an employee of ProtonMail tells us the exact reason.
The most probable reason is (in my opinion) is the following:
ProtonMail is a company whose whole business model is founded on secure products and protecting a customer's privacy. If they told you, that they saved phone numbers in plaintext, that would be pretty weird. Hashing them makes much more sense in that regard, don't you think?
On the other hand, ProtonMail doesn't link phone number hashes to user profiles, they flush the hashes regularly and as you stated yourself, there's not much to gain from a phone number.
Hashing phone numbers *if they have to store them* is better than not hashing them. That's why they do it.
Does it strengthen security much? No.
Is it better than storing them in plaintext? Yes. |
181,619 | Some services (for instance ProtonMail) claim to store *hashes of* phone numbers, instead of phone numbers themselves (while they don't say how they hash it). Now, given that the number of potentially valid phone numbers is very small (about 26 bits worth of information in an 8-digit phone numbers), it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash.
So what's the point? | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/181619",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/143975/"
] | ProtonMail may request your phone number to perform a human check:
* ProtonMail detects that you're attempting to create several accounts.
* It requests you a phone number, to send you a token via SMS.
* You must send that token to ProtonMail to prove you're the phone number owner.
Then, ProtonMail doesn't need your phone number anymore, but it still need to use it to prevent spammers to create multiple accounts.
Hashing the phone number allows it to not store the original number and to prevent someone to use the same number twice.
From [their FAQ](https://protonmail.com/support/knowledge-base/human-verification/):
>
> However, using the same phone number will result in obtaining the same cryptographic hash, so by comparing hashes, we can detect re-use of phone number or email addresses for human verification.
>
>
>
Thus ProtonMail doesn't seem to use unique salts.
We also know thanks to [a tweet from Bart Butler](https://twitter.com/BartCButler/status/904887675727044609) (ProtonMail CTO) that:
* ProtonMail regularly flushes stored hashes.
* Stored hashes aren't linked to any account.
[Bart Butler also tweeted](https://twitter.com/BartCButler/status/974325904884183042):
>
> We use a slow password hash (With a salt) and flush the list and rotate the salt at irregular intervals.
>
>
>
In conclusion: brute-forcing them is possible, but it's neither practical nor useful. | The hash is useful as an indirect map, even if it's not as secure as a typical hashing setup. One of the biggest benefits is purely social. Hashing (even a weak hash) draws a clear line in the sand for an employee about what is acceptable to view. Putting up any barriers to viewing the real phone number will help **keep honest people honest**.
>
> it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash
>
>
>
Easy is a relative term. True, this hashing setup may not help much against a determined attacker who is willing to perform hash cracking. But you also have to think of the 99% of other employees with access to the data who don't even know what a hash really is, let alone how to crack them. |
181,619 | Some services (for instance ProtonMail) claim to store *hashes of* phone numbers, instead of phone numbers themselves (while they don't say how they hash it). Now, given that the number of potentially valid phone numbers is very small (about 26 bits worth of information in an 8-digit phone numbers), it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash.
So what's the point? | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/181619",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/143975/"
] | The point is to not store them in plaintext.
That is probably pretty much it. As D.W. pointed out in his comments, that Benoit's answer, tells you their reason *why* they store phone numbers and *that* they hash them. ProtonMail does not tell you *why* they hash them. We all can only speculate about this, until an employee of ProtonMail tells us the exact reason.
The most probable reason is (in my opinion) is the following:
ProtonMail is a company whose whole business model is founded on secure products and protecting a customer's privacy. If they told you, that they saved phone numbers in plaintext, that would be pretty weird. Hashing them makes much more sense in that regard, don't you think?
On the other hand, ProtonMail doesn't link phone number hashes to user profiles, they flush the hashes regularly and as you stated yourself, there's not much to gain from a phone number.
Hashing phone numbers *if they have to store them* is better than not hashing them. That's why they do it.
Does it strengthen security much? No.
Is it better than storing them in plaintext? Yes. | There are two reasons for storing hashed phone numbers, one is useful the other one is not:
1) Allow to verify the user. Here a salted slow hash is useful. While brute-forcing a phone number is faster than a password, it still provides added security.
2) Pretend to provide a more safe lookup (i.e. in several of whatsapp competitors). Here you cannot salt the hash, because you would not be able to search for the hash when only knowing the phone number. This means a rainbow table is easy to create as the search space of unsalted hashes is really small.
Note that 1) still provides an easy proof of existence when you have the database. Hash your phone number with all the salts used in the database and look it up. If it is stored in there, you will find it. |
181,619 | Some services (for instance ProtonMail) claim to store *hashes of* phone numbers, instead of phone numbers themselves (while they don't say how they hash it). Now, given that the number of potentially valid phone numbers is very small (about 26 bits worth of information in an 8-digit phone numbers), it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash.
So what's the point? | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/181619",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/143975/"
] | The hash is useful as an indirect map, even if it's not as secure as a typical hashing setup. One of the biggest benefits is purely social. Hashing (even a weak hash) draws a clear line in the sand for an employee about what is acceptable to view. Putting up any barriers to viewing the real phone number will help **keep honest people honest**.
>
> it should be quite easy to recover a phone number from its hash
>
>
>
Easy is a relative term. True, this hashing setup may not help much against a determined attacker who is willing to perform hash cracking. But you also have to think of the 99% of other employees with access to the data who don't even know what a hash really is, let alone how to crack them. | There are two reasons for storing hashed phone numbers, one is useful the other one is not:
1) Allow to verify the user. Here a salted slow hash is useful. While brute-forcing a phone number is faster than a password, it still provides added security.
2) Pretend to provide a more safe lookup (i.e. in several of whatsapp competitors). Here you cannot salt the hash, because you would not be able to search for the hash when only knowing the phone number. This means a rainbow table is easy to create as the search space of unsalted hashes is really small.
Note that 1) still provides an easy proof of existence when you have the database. Hash your phone number with all the salts used in the database and look it up. If it is stored in there, you will find it. |
88,221 | Most advice on cast iron pan care says that most of the time you shouldn't use soap when washing a pan. However, that may leave some residual fat/grease from your cooking on the pan.
It can be fat/oil with a low smoke point which is going to smoke then next time you heat the pan.
Would it be safe to cook in such smoking pan? Should you burn it till it stops smoking? Is this smoke in the kitchen safe for your lungs? | 2018/03/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/88221",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/65639/"
] | That residual fat is leftover from what you cooked in there before, so it would only be an issue after cooking something with a very low smoke point, washing the pan, then cooking something with a high smoke point.
Wiping the pan with a paper towel will get rid of the vast majority of this, and if you dry it over heat you can carry on to cook off the last little bit, like a sort of half-baked or top-up seasoning. Doing this before storage gives the smoke smell time to clear before you next use it, but this should be minimal if you cook it off gently. I recommend turning on the cooker hood extractor if you have one.
I like the heat-retention of cast iron but I've gone over to enamelled (le Creuset). I still use a carbon steel wok that needs reseasoning after using the traditional metal spatula, so I actually rinse, dry with heat, wipe over with oil and heat. | Never put soap in or on a well seasoned cast iron pot or pan. Scrape them out rinse them with water. Then wipe out with a course towel or paper towel. Heat on burner till warm to remove water. It removes the oil to use soap in them. Every now & then wipe or scrub them out with a old rag with salt in it & oil on it. A old sock works well for this. course salt. |
88,221 | Most advice on cast iron pan care says that most of the time you shouldn't use soap when washing a pan. However, that may leave some residual fat/grease from your cooking on the pan.
It can be fat/oil with a low smoke point which is going to smoke then next time you heat the pan.
Would it be safe to cook in such smoking pan? Should you burn it till it stops smoking? Is this smoke in the kitchen safe for your lungs? | 2018/03/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/88221",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/65639/"
] | Once your cast iron is seasoned. It is perfectly fine to use soap to clean it. Soap will not remove the polymerized oil. I often soak my cast iron in soapy water, particularly after roasting a chicken, for example. If you are not going to use soap, you can pour in a layer of kosher salt, heat the pan, and scrape up the residue with a wooden spatula. Then wipe out with paper towel. In either case, there is no need to leave any residue. | Never put soap in or on a well seasoned cast iron pot or pan. Scrape them out rinse them with water. Then wipe out with a course towel or paper towel. Heat on burner till warm to remove water. It removes the oil to use soap in them. Every now & then wipe or scrub them out with a old rag with salt in it & oil on it. A old sock works well for this. course salt. |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | [RStudio Server](http://www.rstudio.com/products/rstudio/#Server) is definately one of the options, meant exactly for this. I've thought about using it with a cloud virtual machine, but haven't had the need yet. But when I (probably) need to prepare an intro data analysis class for the fall semester, then Rstudio Server is the first option I'll be trying out. | Try out AirXcell : [AirXcell calculation software](http://airxcell.com).
See documentation [Use AirXCell as an r Console](http://www.airxcell.com/doc/howTo/useConsole.html) |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | You can easily have an RStudio server installed in Digital Ocean using [this](https://github.com/sckott/analogsea) package. | Azure Notebooks should allow you to use multiple languages (R included). Unfortunately they are free only up to some (limited) amount of RAM. Still better than nothing. |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | While I have only had a brief look at it, I think [CoCalc](https://cocalc.com/) (formerly [SageMathCloud](https://cloud.sagemath.com/)) looks quite promising. I have recommended it to at least one person previously, and they seemed to be quite happy with it. Beyond R support, you also get access to Python, SAGE (as the name indicates), and a few other things.
EDIT: Make sure to check the [documentation](https://github.com/sagemath/cloud/wiki/FAQ#useR) on how to get an R (as opposed to a Python) session in a worksheet. | Try out AirXcell : [AirXcell calculation software](http://airxcell.com).
See documentation [Use AirXCell as an r Console](http://www.airxcell.com/doc/howTo/useConsole.html) |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | You can easily have an RStudio server installed in Digital Ocean using [this](https://github.com/sckott/analogsea) package. | Try out AirXcell : [AirXcell calculation software](http://airxcell.com).
See documentation [Use AirXCell as an r Console](http://www.airxcell.com/doc/howTo/useConsole.html) |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | I am using this one, so far so good.
Online terminals: <http://www.tutorialspoint.com/codingground.htm>
Also, [R-Fiddle](http://www.r-fiddle.org/#/) is an option. | Azure Notebooks should allow you to use multiple languages (R included). Unfortunately they are free only up to some (limited) amount of RAM. Still better than nothing. |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Yes. I believe [this](http://www.compileonline.com/execute_r_online.php) is what you are looking for. | <https://www.codeschool.com/> is very similar to <https://www.datacamp.com/>
when I tried it I fell in love with R and then found datacamp.
www.codecademy.com is also console-based but R is not yet available. |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | * [R On Cloud](http://roncloud.com) provides a browser-embedded R-console.
* [Jupyter.org](https://jupyter.org/) evolved from the [IPython Project](http://ipython.org/) (the language-agnostic parts of IPython); supports Python 3, Julia, R, Haskell, Ruby, etc.
 | [RStudio Cloud](https://rstudio.cloud/) is the best I've used.
It offers the total R-Studio experience online. Most other sandboxes from this list either didn't work, were permanently closed, or required monthly fees.
RStudio Cloud is free, but does require a login, but you can sign in with your Google account, and it saves your progress (History and such) so you can access it from any computer.
Here's a screenshot from my first project, you can see it's the same as the R-Studio you can download. I haven't tried to hit it with anything heavy yet, but I assume it's probably not as nimble as a local instance - and most likely depends on how many people are using it at the same time.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dNFSF.png) |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Yes. I believe [this](http://www.compileonline.com/execute_r_online.php) is what you are looking for. | Azure Notebooks should allow you to use multiple languages (R included). Unfortunately they are free only up to some (limited) amount of RAM. Still better than nothing. |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Try out AirXcell : [AirXcell calculation software](http://airxcell.com).
See documentation [Use AirXCell as an r Console](http://www.airxcell.com/doc/howTo/useConsole.html) | <https://www.codeschool.com/> is very similar to <https://www.datacamp.com/>
when I tried it I fell in love with R and then found datacamp.
www.codecademy.com is also console-based but R is not yet available. |
2,269 | I am looking for an online console for the language R. Like I write the code and the server should execute and provide me with the output.
Similar to the website Datacamp. | 2014/10/13 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/2269",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | * [R On Cloud](http://roncloud.com) provides a browser-embedded R-console.
* [Jupyter.org](https://jupyter.org/) evolved from the [IPython Project](http://ipython.org/) (the language-agnostic parts of IPython); supports Python 3, Julia, R, Haskell, Ruby, etc.
 | [RStudio Server](http://www.rstudio.com/products/rstudio/#Server) is definately one of the options, meant exactly for this. I've thought about using it with a cloud virtual machine, but haven't had the need yet. But when I (probably) need to prepare an intro data analysis class for the fall semester, then Rstudio Server is the first option I'll be trying out. |
238,441 | If I have a bag of dice, and ask, "Is it possible to roll a 7?" what is the answer? I understand that, if I ask if I dump dice out of a bag, it's possible, but once I pick the bag, and don't know if there are 8 or 15, or 2 dice in it...is it possible, or just could be possible, since it could be impossible based on my information? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238441",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116573/"
] | I suggest "might or might not be possible [depending on whether.....] | It is possible that the bag contains a die with 7 pips on each face. Then, you may roll a 7.
Lewis Carroll poses a problem in **Pillow Problems** that would amuse you. There are 3 balls in a bag, each ball being either white or black. Problem: ascertain the colors of the 3 balls without taking them out of the bag. Surprisingly, there is a solution, based on probability theory, which Carroll gives.
While I have some difficulty finding any grammatical principle that bears on your question, there is an issue in modal logic whether it is different to say something is possibly possible than it is to say it is possible. |
238,441 | If I have a bag of dice, and ask, "Is it possible to roll a 7?" what is the answer? I understand that, if I ask if I dump dice out of a bag, it's possible, but once I pick the bag, and don't know if there are 8 or 15, or 2 dice in it...is it possible, or just could be possible, since it could be impossible based on my information? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238441",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116573/"
] | I suggest "might or might not be possible [depending on whether.....] | There is a difference. If it's "possible" to build a house out of sugar cubes that means that one could do it if they had the will and resources. (Note that this is using "possible" in a different sense from the probability sense.) If it "could be possible" that simply means that there's no known "roadblock" to accomplishing the task -- whether it can really be done remains to be proven. (Eg, it could work out that the weight of so many sugar cubes would cause the ones on the bottom to fracture, but the calculations to determine that have not been done.)
In the rigorous probability sense, if something is "possible" that means there's a non-zero probability that it will occur. If it "could be possible", that means that the probability is unknown, but there's no known reason for the probability to be zero.
And in informal use the meaning roughly parallels the sugar cube example -- if I say it's "possible" that I can come to your party tomorrow then (if I'm being honest) that means that if the day works out tomorrow I can come, whereas if it "could be possible" then I'm saying that I know there are potential conflicts (eg, girlfriend may have other plans) but I haven't worked them out yet. Or something roughly along those lines. |
238,441 | If I have a bag of dice, and ask, "Is it possible to roll a 7?" what is the answer? I understand that, if I ask if I dump dice out of a bag, it's possible, but once I pick the bag, and don't know if there are 8 or 15, or 2 dice in it...is it possible, or just could be possible, since it could be impossible based on my information? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238441",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116573/"
] | I suggest "might or might not be possible [depending on whether.....] | ‘Possible’ is ambiguous. It can be understood in an epistemic possibility or in an alethic sense. Suppose there are in fact 8 dice in the bag—as you only discover later when you dump the out. Even before you made that discovery, it was not possible in the alethic sense to roll 7 with those dice. But it was possible in the epistemic sense, that it it was *for all you **knew*** possible.
The issue isn’t probability but ambiguity between alethic or straight-up possibility and epistemic or for-all-you-know possibility. Consider a cleaner example: you’re taking a multiple choice math test (as in SAT). Before doing the calculation you know the answer has to be positive, so you rule out options D and E which are negative and say to yourself, ‘It *could* be A, B or C’—those answers are possible in the epistemic sense. They’re plausible answers. But one of those answers, the correct answer, has a probability of 1 while the other two have probabilities of zero. |
3,047 | I'm always wondering when I want to write a sentence with *provide*. What is the correct way to say/write:
* to provide someone with something
* to provide someone something
* to provide something to someone
Or another?
Is there any difference in usage between American and UK English? | 2010/09/15 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/3047",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/41/"
] | All three are actually correct in English usage, ambiguous as that seems. No matter how you word it, the thing you are providing is the actual, functional direct object, while the person or thing you're providing it to is the indirect, even though the words might not make that obvious.
This would be less ambiguous in a language that had a separate dative case (like Latin or, I believe, Russian), where the thing or person you were giving something to would always be suffixed differently than the thing you were providing (which would be in the accusative case), and the word order wouldn't matter because noun cases would tell you which was which. | >
> I'm always wondering when I want to
> write a sentence with provide. What is
> the correct way to say/write
>
>
> 1. to provide someone with something
> 2. to provide someone something
> 3. to provide something to someone
>
>
>
I'm dubious about 2. only, 1. and 3. seem OK to me. |
1,409,733 | I'm looking for ways to generate pdfs on-the-fly preferably using a command line tool as this will be done from a web-based system.
My requirements include must work on Windows and Linux, should be able to convert Microsoft Word, Excel and HTML into PDF.
Also the ability to concatenate or merge various documents into one PDF output file would be good.
Any suggestions? I would prefer to avoid applications that work as "printer drivers".
many thanks | 2009/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1409733",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/120603/"
] | [Calibre](http://calibre-ebook.com) runs on Linux, Windows, and Mac OS X and has [command line tools](http://calibre-ebook.com/user_manual/cli/cli-index.html "Command Line Interface") on all three. It can translate [a great many document types](http://calibre-ebook.com/user_manual/faq.html#e-book-format-conversion "What formats does calibre support conversion to/from?") to PDF and other formats.
(Disclaimer: I'm a heavy user, help out on Calibre's IRC channel, and have been poking at development, so I'm just a bit biased.) | I think this has a command line utility, but not sure. Check this
[PDF Creator](http://sourceforge.net/projects/pdfcreator/) |
1,409,733 | I'm looking for ways to generate pdfs on-the-fly preferably using a command line tool as this will be done from a web-based system.
My requirements include must work on Windows and Linux, should be able to convert Microsoft Word, Excel and HTML into PDF.
Also the ability to concatenate or merge various documents into one PDF output file would be good.
Any suggestions? I would prefer to avoid applications that work as "printer drivers".
many thanks | 2009/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1409733",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/120603/"
] | After doing some research, the best solution I found in the end that could handle all the file formats we needed converting, plus which ran on Linux and Windows was a beautifully elegant lightweight Python script called PyODConverter. This uses OpenOffice (which itself runs in server mode) to do the actual conversions, and it really works beautifully. I used a separate tool called PDFTK to do the PDF concatenation, as I found that ImageMagick loses a lot of information (and creates huge file sizes).
If you find PyODConverter too limited, there is also a more powerful heavyweight option written by the same guy called JODConverter. | I think this has a command line utility, but not sure. Check this
[PDF Creator](http://sourceforge.net/projects/pdfcreator/) |
1,409,733 | I'm looking for ways to generate pdfs on-the-fly preferably using a command line tool as this will be done from a web-based system.
My requirements include must work on Windows and Linux, should be able to convert Microsoft Word, Excel and HTML into PDF.
Also the ability to concatenate or merge various documents into one PDF output file would be good.
Any suggestions? I would prefer to avoid applications that work as "printer drivers".
many thanks | 2009/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1409733",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/120603/"
] | [Calibre](http://calibre-ebook.com) runs on Linux, Windows, and Mac OS X and has [command line tools](http://calibre-ebook.com/user_manual/cli/cli-index.html "Command Line Interface") on all three. It can translate [a great many document types](http://calibre-ebook.com/user_manual/faq.html#e-book-format-conversion "What formats does calibre support conversion to/from?") to PDF and other formats.
(Disclaimer: I'm a heavy user, help out on Calibre's IRC channel, and have been poking at development, so I'm just a bit biased.) | Have a look at [biopdf](http://www.biopdf.com/guide/index.php), and a PDF printer that uses it called [Bullzip PDF](http://www.bullzip.com/products/pdf/info.php). Check the documentation for Bullzip PDF for examples on how it can be automated. It has an API interface as well as the GUI. |
1,409,733 | I'm looking for ways to generate pdfs on-the-fly preferably using a command line tool as this will be done from a web-based system.
My requirements include must work on Windows and Linux, should be able to convert Microsoft Word, Excel and HTML into PDF.
Also the ability to concatenate or merge various documents into one PDF output file would be good.
Any suggestions? I would prefer to avoid applications that work as "printer drivers".
many thanks | 2009/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1409733",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/120603/"
] | After doing some research, the best solution I found in the end that could handle all the file formats we needed converting, plus which ran on Linux and Windows was a beautifully elegant lightweight Python script called PyODConverter. This uses OpenOffice (which itself runs in server mode) to do the actual conversions, and it really works beautifully. I used a separate tool called PDFTK to do the PDF concatenation, as I found that ImageMagick loses a lot of information (and creates huge file sizes).
If you find PyODConverter too limited, there is also a more powerful heavyweight option written by the same guy called JODConverter. | Have a look at [biopdf](http://www.biopdf.com/guide/index.php), and a PDF printer that uses it called [Bullzip PDF](http://www.bullzip.com/products/pdf/info.php). Check the documentation for Bullzip PDF for examples on how it can be automated. It has an API interface as well as the GUI. |
1,409,733 | I'm looking for ways to generate pdfs on-the-fly preferably using a command line tool as this will be done from a web-based system.
My requirements include must work on Windows and Linux, should be able to convert Microsoft Word, Excel and HTML into PDF.
Also the ability to concatenate or merge various documents into one PDF output file would be good.
Any suggestions? I would prefer to avoid applications that work as "printer drivers".
many thanks | 2009/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1409733",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/120603/"
] | After doing some research, the best solution I found in the end that could handle all the file formats we needed converting, plus which ran on Linux and Windows was a beautifully elegant lightweight Python script called PyODConverter. This uses OpenOffice (which itself runs in server mode) to do the actual conversions, and it really works beautifully. I used a separate tool called PDFTK to do the PDF concatenation, as I found that ImageMagick loses a lot of information (and creates huge file sizes).
If you find PyODConverter too limited, there is also a more powerful heavyweight option written by the same guy called JODConverter. | [Calibre](http://calibre-ebook.com) runs on Linux, Windows, and Mac OS X and has [command line tools](http://calibre-ebook.com/user_manual/cli/cli-index.html "Command Line Interface") on all three. It can translate [a great many document types](http://calibre-ebook.com/user_manual/faq.html#e-book-format-conversion "What formats does calibre support conversion to/from?") to PDF and other formats.
(Disclaimer: I'm a heavy user, help out on Calibre's IRC channel, and have been poking at development, so I'm just a bit biased.) |
243,011 | Is there a word in English that refers to the closest relatives (usually the ones who lived with the dead person under one roof) of a recently (approximately no more than 1 month) dead person? Other friends and relatives usually come to such a group of people to comfort them of their loss of someone very precious to them. | 2015/05/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/243011",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/46533/"
] | The *[bereaved](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english-thesaurus/bereaved?searchDictCode=english)*:
>
> verb
>
>
> (be bereaved)
>
> Be deprived of a close relation or friend through
> their death:
>
> *she had recently been bereaved*
>
>
> (as adjective bereaved) *bereaved families*
>
>
> (as noun the bereaved) *those who counsel the bereaved*
>
>
> *ODO*
>
>
> | People attending a funeral are known as ***mourners***.
The closest relative(s) of the deceased can be said to be ***the chief mourner(s)***.
Members of the deceased's family might also be designated as *close family mourners*.
I am not sure that these descriptions extend beyond the time of the funeral and its wake, however. A week later they might be known simply as ***the bereaved***. |
32,516 | Ideally, when roasting beets, the skins should just come right off once they're done and cool. I don't seem to be good at this, though: sometimes they're great, and sometimes the skins are pretty clingy. What should I do to guarantee easy peeling? | 2013/03/08 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/32516",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1672/"
] | The trick that works for me consistently is to put the beets in a sealed container while still hot and let them cool down that way, they continue to cook a bit and the steam from them keeps the skins loose. Also, peel them while they are still warm, if they cool too much the skins may adhere again. | **Blanch them first** to remove the skin, then roast them. This method works for tomatoes as well.
Here's an example from [ForkBytes](http://forkbytes.com/2008/04/01/roasted-spring-beets/)
>
> Blockquote Bring a pot of water to a boil. Add the beets and blanch briefly, until skins are loose, 3 to 5 minutes. Remove the beets and immediately plunge them into a bowl of ice water. Peel and cut into bite-sized pieces.
>
>
>
Obviously, you don't have to cut into bite-sized (I recommend not, to keep them from bleeding) and can proceed with your usual roasting method.
Some pro recipes just say cool them slightly at the end of the roast and peel. Again, this keeps the bleeding to minimum. So the above answer is assuming you want the easiest peel. |
3,173,977 | What would be the best way to execute shell commands on remote servers and get output without actually logging in.
Maybe with shh keys. Preferably with python. | 2010/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3173977",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/347039/"
] | You mean without logging in *manually*? Because a server that actually let you execute commands without logging in at all would be a humongous security risk.
It looks like in the area of Python interfaces to SSH, Paramiko is what everybody's using these days. Here's a nice introductory article I found through Google:
<http://jessenoller.com/2009/02/05/ssh-programming-with-paramiko-completely-different/>
In order to avoid entering a password every time you log in, you would indeed want to set up an SSH key pair on your computer and send the public key to the server. The method of doing so depends on what SSH client you use and what SSH server software the server uses. | I'm assuming you want to streamline your usage of SSH for application deployment or systems administration tasks.
In that case I suggest [Fabric](http://docs.fabfile.org/0.9.1/). |
3,173,977 | What would be the best way to execute shell commands on remote servers and get output without actually logging in.
Maybe with shh keys. Preferably with python. | 2010/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3173977",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/347039/"
] | You mean without logging in *manually*? Because a server that actually let you execute commands without logging in at all would be a humongous security risk.
It looks like in the area of Python interfaces to SSH, Paramiko is what everybody's using these days. Here's a nice introductory article I found through Google:
<http://jessenoller.com/2009/02/05/ssh-programming-with-paramiko-completely-different/>
In order to avoid entering a password every time you log in, you would indeed want to set up an SSH key pair on your computer and send the public key to the server. The method of doing so depends on what SSH client you use and what SSH server software the server uses. | [Paramico](http://www.lag.net/paramiko/) is the most convenient way to use SSH with Python that I've found so far.
Good luck! |
3,173,977 | What would be the best way to execute shell commands on remote servers and get output without actually logging in.
Maybe with shh keys. Preferably with python. | 2010/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3173977",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/347039/"
] | You mean without logging in *manually*? Because a server that actually let you execute commands without logging in at all would be a humongous security risk.
It looks like in the area of Python interfaces to SSH, Paramiko is what everybody's using these days. Here's a nice introductory article I found through Google:
<http://jessenoller.com/2009/02/05/ssh-programming-with-paramiko-completely-different/>
In order to avoid entering a password every time you log in, you would indeed want to set up an SSH key pair on your computer and send the public key to the server. The method of doing so depends on what SSH client you use and what SSH server software the server uses. | **Paramiko** is really good and convenient for transferring files and executing commands in remote server.
But, the problem is that we won't be able to *catch the output* of the command. It will be difficult to understand whether the command executed properly or not. |
3,173,977 | What would be the best way to execute shell commands on remote servers and get output without actually logging in.
Maybe with shh keys. Preferably with python. | 2010/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3173977",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/347039/"
] | I'm assuming you want to streamline your usage of SSH for application deployment or systems administration tasks.
In that case I suggest [Fabric](http://docs.fabfile.org/0.9.1/). | [Paramico](http://www.lag.net/paramiko/) is the most convenient way to use SSH with Python that I've found so far.
Good luck! |
3,173,977 | What would be the best way to execute shell commands on remote servers and get output without actually logging in.
Maybe with shh keys. Preferably with python. | 2010/07/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3173977",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/347039/"
] | I'm assuming you want to streamline your usage of SSH for application deployment or systems administration tasks.
In that case I suggest [Fabric](http://docs.fabfile.org/0.9.1/). | **Paramiko** is really good and convenient for transferring files and executing commands in remote server.
But, the problem is that we won't be able to *catch the output* of the command. It will be difficult to understand whether the command executed properly or not. |
57,510 | I was trying to reorganize my desktop and had a folder dragging into another folder.
When I did this, the folder just got stuck in the toolbar and didn't copy over to the new location...
It's not a clickable button as if it were a favorites in the toolbar itself.
When I try to drag and drop it away from the toolbar, it doesn't work.
I then right clicked and went into "Customize Toolbar" and it wasn't in any of the lists for me to take it off.
Obviously its a 'favorites' feature, but how do I get the thing to get off all my finder toolbars now? | 2012/07/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/57510",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4178/"
] | Well I don't know if this is what you mean, but I accidentally dragged a folder into the Finder, and when I removed it a question mark appeared.
How to delete an accidentally-dragged-in folder in the Finder toolbar:
Just hold `Command ⌘` and drag the folder out of the Finder window and whoosh it's gone. | If dragging and dropping while holding down `Command` nor dragging the folder out after selecting *Configure Toolbar* works you can:
1. Open **~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist**
2. Go to **NSToolbar Configuration Browser / TB Item Identifiers**, identify the problematic folder. If it's the only folder in the toolbar, will be the only **com.apple.finder.loc** item. If not, identifying it is pretty straightforward.
3. Delete that item, log out and then log back in. |
57,510 | I was trying to reorganize my desktop and had a folder dragging into another folder.
When I did this, the folder just got stuck in the toolbar and didn't copy over to the new location...
It's not a clickable button as if it were a favorites in the toolbar itself.
When I try to drag and drop it away from the toolbar, it doesn't work.
I then right clicked and went into "Customize Toolbar" and it wasn't in any of the lists for me to take it off.
Obviously its a 'favorites' feature, but how do I get the thing to get off all my finder toolbars now? | 2012/07/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/57510",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4178/"
] | If dragging and dropping while holding down `Command` nor dragging the folder out after selecting *Configure Toolbar* works you can:
1. Open **~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist**
2. Go to **NSToolbar Configuration Browser / TB Item Identifiers**, identify the problematic folder. If it's the only folder in the toolbar, will be the only **com.apple.finder.loc** item. If not, identifying it is pretty straightforward.
3. Delete that item, log out and then log back in. | Had the same issue with a folder that got stuck in my sidebar, with no right-click option displaying. I tried removing preference files, etc.
Hold `⌘ cmd` and click and drag the icon away from the toolbar. |
57,510 | I was trying to reorganize my desktop and had a folder dragging into another folder.
When I did this, the folder just got stuck in the toolbar and didn't copy over to the new location...
It's not a clickable button as if it were a favorites in the toolbar itself.
When I try to drag and drop it away from the toolbar, it doesn't work.
I then right clicked and went into "Customize Toolbar" and it wasn't in any of the lists for me to take it off.
Obviously its a 'favorites' feature, but how do I get the thing to get off all my finder toolbars now? | 2012/07/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/57510",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4178/"
] | If dragging and dropping while holding down `Command` nor dragging the folder out after selecting *Configure Toolbar* works you can:
1. Open **~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist**
2. Go to **NSToolbar Configuration Browser / TB Item Identifiers**, identify the problematic folder. If it's the only folder in the toolbar, will be the only **com.apple.finder.loc** item. If not, identifying it is pretty straightforward.
3. Delete that item, log out and then log back in. | right click on the item and remove from sidebar is there. |
57,510 | I was trying to reorganize my desktop and had a folder dragging into another folder.
When I did this, the folder just got stuck in the toolbar and didn't copy over to the new location...
It's not a clickable button as if it were a favorites in the toolbar itself.
When I try to drag and drop it away from the toolbar, it doesn't work.
I then right clicked and went into "Customize Toolbar" and it wasn't in any of the lists for me to take it off.
Obviously its a 'favorites' feature, but how do I get the thing to get off all my finder toolbars now? | 2012/07/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/57510",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/4178/"
] | Well I don't know if this is what you mean, but I accidentally dragged a folder into the Finder, and when I removed it a question mark appeared.
How to delete an accidentally-dragged-in folder in the Finder toolbar:
Just hold `Command ⌘` and drag the folder out of the Finder window and whoosh it's gone. | Had the same issue with a folder that got stuck in my sidebar, with no right-click option displaying. I tried removing preference files, etc.
Hold `⌘ cmd` and click and drag the icon away from the toolbar. |
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