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169,801 | A [halfling](https://www.dndbeyond.com/races/halfling) and a [human](https://www.dndbeyond.com/races/human) are blocking a group of [winter wolves](https://www.dndbeyond.com/monsters/winter-wolf) (size Large) on a 10-foot-wide ledge. Can the wolf move past the blockers by squeezing or overrunning:
* Can the wolves just squeeze through the halfling's space since it is
two sizes smaller? Could they do this at 1/2 speed or 1/4 speed?
* Do the wolves need/get to overrun both at advantage, since they only
take up 2 squares and winter wolves take up 4?
(We're playing G2, ["The Glacial Rift of the Frost Giant Jarl"](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/tftyp/a6/against-the-giants#TheGlacialRiftoftheFrostGiantJarl), the second module in *Against the Giants* from the *Tales from the Yawning Portal* book.) | 2020/06/01 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/169801",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/64175/"
] | It's not moving past, it's moving through at 3 feet for every 1 foot
====================================================================
It's a bit weird to imagine, but you've basically described that there is a Small and Medium creature 'blocking' a 10' wide space.
The rules around moving through other creatures are found in [Chapter 9 of the PHB under Movement and Position](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/combat#MovingAroundOtherCreatures)
>
> You can move through a nonhostile creature's space. In contrast, you can move through a hostile creature's space only if the creature is at least two sizes larger or smaller than you. Remember that another creature's space is difficult terrain for you.
>
>
>
So, while each creature controls a 5' space, there are specific rules about moving through. And if the space that a creature wants to get to means you have to go into another creature's space, then the above rules apply.
In your case, you've got a medium and a small creature holding the line. As they are hostile to the winter wolves, the spaces can not be moved through unless there is a size different of two sizes.
The medium creature does not allow movement through, as they are just one size larger. But the small creature *does* allow movement through, as they are two sizes smaller.
Passing through the line
------------------------
If the winter wolf wants to get 'through' the line, they must pass through the space of the small creature and treat the movement as difficult terrain. However, that space is too small for them, so now the squeezing rules come in. Those are found in the [same section and state](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/combat#SqueezingintoaSmallerSpace):
>
> A creature can squeeze through a space that is large enough for a creature one size smaller than it. Thus, a Large creature can squeeze through a passage that's only 5 feet wide. While squeezing through a space, a creature must spend 1 extra foot for every foot it moves there, and it has disadvantage on attack rolls and Dexterity saving throws. Attack rolls against the creature have advantage while it's in the smaller space.
>
>
>
This means that the winter wolf must treat passing through the space as [difficult terrain](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/combat#DifficultTerrain) and are being squeezed. So each foot of movement actually costs 3 feet of movement (an extra foot for difficult terrain and an extra foot for squeezing through.)
Also note that if they leave the reach of either creature, the winter wolves will also trigger an opportunity attack.
A second option is in the DMG: Overrun
======================================
[Chapter 9 of the DMG](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/dmg/dungeon-masters-workshop#ActionOptions) also covers some additional optional actions. If the table/DM decides, there is another option for moving through hostile creatures which opens it up beyond the above and ignores the size differential requirements in exchange for additional mechanics:
>
> **Overrun**
>
>
> When a creature tries to move through a hostile creature’s space, the mover can try to force its way through by overrunning the hostile creature. As an action or a bonus action, the mover makes a Strength (Athletics) check contested by the hostile creature’s Strength (Athletics) check. The creature attempting the overrun has advantage on this check if it is larger than the hostile creature, or disadvantage if it is smaller. If the mover wins the contest, it can move through the hostile creature’s space once this turn.
>
>
> | **It a question of Interpretation of the Squeezing rules**
Concerning your first question, the rules are very clear, see PHB, p.191, if you don't use squeezing:
>
> A creature's space is the area in feet that it effectively controls in combat, not an expression of its physical dimensions.
>
>
> If a medium hobgoblin stands in a 5-foot-wide doorway, other creatures can't get through unless the hobgoblins lets them.
>
>
>
These rules suggest that two halflings/humans can control a 10 foot ledge and that the wolf cannot pass without a special strategy unless the blockers let it. The wolf could pass through the halfling's space but not the human's.
The rules on squeezing (PHB p. 192) state:
>
> Thus , a Large creature can squeeze through a passage that's only 5 feet wide.
>
>
>
It is not entirely clear if this applies only to actual physical width of spaces or if the wolf can willingly squeeze itself together to avoid the human's zone of control. This is up to the GM.
**The speed for moving through would be 1/3.**
Moving through another creature's space always counts as difficult terrain. Both the rules on difficult terrain and on squeezing state that the movement costs one foot extra per foot moved. Therefore, each foot would cost two feet extra and the total would be three feet,making speed one third of the normal.
**The human needs to be overrun, which has advantage.**
As stated above, the wolf would need to move through the space of both defenders. Successfully overrunning a creature (DMG p. 272) allows moving through that creature's space once on the same turn. Since the wolf is allowed to move through the halfling's space anyway, only the human needs to be overrun to be allowed to move through their space as well. Doing so has advantage since a human is Medium which is smaller than Large. Moving through the defenders works at half speed. Their spaces are still difficult (even if the wolf would also overrun the halfling which is unnecessary), but squeezing is not necessary in this case. |
27,825,659 | I've been given a Java API for my personal project. This means that all of the method calls and functions to utilize the API are in the Java programming language. However, I want to use Apple's new Swift language to create an iOS application that uses the API. So my question is as follows:
How can I get Apple's Swift language to interact with Java within XCode? In short, I want a button press in the Swift app to use the Java methods within the given API which will then create a file on a remote server and send it back to the device.
Any help would be greatly appreciated. | 2015/01/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/27825659",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3777376/"
] | You can always write web services in Java and let Swift UI invoke them via HTTP. The separates the services from your UI and keeps that functionality available for others to use as well.
This means that the web services are deployed separately. Your UI will send a request via HTTP and send it back to the device. All the details about files or databases or how the data is derived are hidden from the client. | Another way, depending on circumstances, would be to use TCP/IP sockets. So you write a socket listener on your java server side, which would "wrap" the APIs, and you open and use the socket from your Swift App.
Or... you could use something like MQTT, a lightweight message-based protocol, with good iOS support.
There are many ways to do what you want. Perhaps you could supply some more detail about the actual topology involved. |
28,370 | Consider this new card from Oath of the Gatewatch -- Crush of Tentacles.
I realize the first part -- *"Return all nonland permanents to their owners' hands"* -- happens when the spell resolves, but what about the second part of the card text -- *"If Crush of Tentacles surge cost was paid, put an 8/8 blue Octopus creature token onto the battlefield."*
Does that trigger when the card is cast or when the spell resolves?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qUVlB.png) | 2016/01/12 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/28370",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/7007/"
] | The effect that checks whether the Surge cost was paid resolves when the spell resolves. This is because abilities of Instants and Sorceries are by default "spell abilities", and resolve when the spell resolves. [Rule 112.3a](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Abilities) says
>
> Spell abilities are abilities that are followed as instructions while an instant or sorcery spell is resolving. **Any text on an instant or sorcery spell is a spell ability unless it’s an activated ability, a triggered ability, or a static ability that fits the criteria described in rule 112.6.**
>
>
>
None of those exceptions apply here. It's not an activated ability, because it doesn't have the form "[cost]: [effect]" [CR 112.3b]. It's not a triggered ability because it doesn't start with the word "At", "When", or "Whenever" [CR 112.3c]. And it's not a static ability, because it's written as an instruction, not a statement [CR 112.3d].
When you are resolving the spell, [rule 608.2c](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Resolving_spells_and_abilities) says
>
> The controller of the spell or ability follows its instructions in the order written. [...]
>
>
>
so the Octopus token enters the battlefield immediately after the other creatures return to their owners' hands, and it does not itself get returned. | The Surge effect will occur when the Card resolves, since it is in the same paragraph as the spell's effect, per 112.2c.
>
> 112.2c An object may have multiple abilities. If the object is represented by a card, then aside from certain defined abilities that may be strung together on a single line (see rule 702, “Keyword Abilities”), each paragraph break in a card’s text marks a separate ability. If the object is not represented by a card, the effect that created it may have given it multiple abilities. An object may also be granted additional abilities by a spell or ability. If an object has multiple instances of the same ability, each instance functions independently. This may or may not produce more effects than a single instance; refer to the specific ability for more information.
>
>
>
If it were to happen when you cast the spell with Surge, it would be worded more like [Genesis Hydra](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=Genesis%20Hydra):
>
> When you cast XX for its surge cost, *do this thing.*
>
>
> |
28,370 | Consider this new card from Oath of the Gatewatch -- Crush of Tentacles.
I realize the first part -- *"Return all nonland permanents to their owners' hands"* -- happens when the spell resolves, but what about the second part of the card text -- *"If Crush of Tentacles surge cost was paid, put an 8/8 blue Octopus creature token onto the battlefield."*
Does that trigger when the card is cast or when the spell resolves?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qUVlB.png) | 2016/01/12 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/28370",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/7007/"
] | The effect that checks whether the Surge cost was paid resolves when the spell resolves. This is because abilities of Instants and Sorceries are by default "spell abilities", and resolve when the spell resolves. [Rule 112.3a](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Abilities) says
>
> Spell abilities are abilities that are followed as instructions while an instant or sorcery spell is resolving. **Any text on an instant or sorcery spell is a spell ability unless it’s an activated ability, a triggered ability, or a static ability that fits the criteria described in rule 112.6.**
>
>
>
None of those exceptions apply here. It's not an activated ability, because it doesn't have the form "[cost]: [effect]" [CR 112.3b]. It's not a triggered ability because it doesn't start with the word "At", "When", or "Whenever" [CR 112.3c]. And it's not a static ability, because it's written as an instruction, not a statement [CR 112.3d].
When you are resolving the spell, [rule 608.2c](http://mtgsalvation.gamepedia.com/Resolving_spells_and_abilities) says
>
> The controller of the spell or ability follows its instructions in the order written. [...]
>
>
>
so the Octopus token enters the battlefield immediately after the other creatures return to their owners' hands, and it does not itself get returned. | CR 603.1:
>
> 603.1. Triggered abilities have a trigger condition and an effect. They are written as “[Trigger condition], [effect],” and begin with the word “when,” “whenever,” or “at.” They can also be expressed as “[When/Whenever/At] [trigger event], [effect].”
>
>
>
Crush of Tentacles doesn't say “when,” “whenever,” or “at,” it says "if". Thus it can't have a trigger. Consequentially it must do it's thing when it resolves. |
171,595 | The spectrum of the Sun as seen at sea level can be seen at <https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Solar_Spectrum.png> so we can see that wavelengths around green to yellow are the ones that are the most present.
The human eye seems to be more sensitive to green wavelengths (around 555 nm which is plain green) compared to others: see <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision#/media/File:Eyesensitivity.svg>.
However the Sun appears mostly white/yellowish.
I don't understand why. The human eye sensitivity for orange/yellow/blue is lesser than for green. Much lesser in case of red wavelength. So even though the spectrum is a continum of all these wavelengths why is the eye fooled toward white?
And why more toward yellow than green?
Thanks. | 2015/03/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/171595",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/75916/"
] | Note the vertical scale on the two graphs you gave: The solar spectrum at sea level is given as an intensity (power per area), and it is very nearly flat over most of the visual range. The eye sensitivity is given as a percentage, which [the wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision) where it is used does not explain beyond calling it "normalized" and "relative brightness sensitivity." If this percentage is akin to a quantum efficiency, the probability that any one photon gets detected, there is a very natural possible explanation for this effect: If rather than a power-based intensity we use a photon number based intensity for the solar spectrum, its maximum will be at lower photon energies (redder colors) where the same power corresponds to more photons.
Perceptions are always tricky: Neither our eyes or our brains tend to function quite the way one might naively expect, in lots of ways. Hence much of the full explanation might not depend much on (photon) physics at all. | >
> And why more toward yellow than green?
>
>
>
Human vision and perception of colors is a complex process. It is safe to say humans are not very good at determining the actual spectral distribution of light they see. The sunlight may very well have frequency distribution that has maximum in green and humans may still see it as having different coloration. That is because the frequency distribution characterizes square of the Fourier component of electric field of the sunlight and this need not have necessarily any simple relation to how humans perceive colors for light that is not monochromatic, like sunlight.
Human perception of color depends in a non-trivial way on the whole spectrum of the light, not just the part where the maximum is.
Well-known daily example of this is perceiving color of light emitted by the RGB pixels of a TV / computer monitor. When you look on the bright bar above, you probably see bright yellow, but in fact the Fourier component of the electric field of the light coming from this rectangle has almost negligible component at frequency corresponding to yellow monochromatic light. The perception of yellow is accomplished with combination of red, green and blue light regulated to appropriate intensities. |
171,595 | The spectrum of the Sun as seen at sea level can be seen at <https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Solar_Spectrum.png> so we can see that wavelengths around green to yellow are the ones that are the most present.
The human eye seems to be more sensitive to green wavelengths (around 555 nm which is plain green) compared to others: see <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision#/media/File:Eyesensitivity.svg>.
However the Sun appears mostly white/yellowish.
I don't understand why. The human eye sensitivity for orange/yellow/blue is lesser than for green. Much lesser in case of red wavelength. So even though the spectrum is a continum of all these wavelengths why is the eye fooled toward white?
And why more toward yellow than green?
Thanks. | 2015/03/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/171595",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/75916/"
] | Note the vertical scale on the two graphs you gave: The solar spectrum at sea level is given as an intensity (power per area), and it is very nearly flat over most of the visual range. The eye sensitivity is given as a percentage, which [the wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision) where it is used does not explain beyond calling it "normalized" and "relative brightness sensitivity." If this percentage is akin to a quantum efficiency, the probability that any one photon gets detected, there is a very natural possible explanation for this effect: If rather than a power-based intensity we use a photon number based intensity for the solar spectrum, its maximum will be at lower photon energies (redder colors) where the same power corresponds to more photons.
Perceptions are always tricky: Neither our eyes or our brains tend to function quite the way one might naively expect, in lots of ways. Hence much of the full explanation might not depend much on (photon) physics at all. | I am just rewriting what I wrote in a comment to make it more visible, since I think I found out the answer: the solar spectrum as seen on Earth's surface has much less violet and blue than both green and red according to the first link I posted. So mixing all colors should be slightly like mixing mostly green and red (and yellow/orange) than mixing blue/green/red, hence the yellowish color we see instead of greenish or white. |
171,595 | The spectrum of the Sun as seen at sea level can be seen at <https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Solar_Spectrum.png> so we can see that wavelengths around green to yellow are the ones that are the most present.
The human eye seems to be more sensitive to green wavelengths (around 555 nm which is plain green) compared to others: see <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision#/media/File:Eyesensitivity.svg>.
However the Sun appears mostly white/yellowish.
I don't understand why. The human eye sensitivity for orange/yellow/blue is lesser than for green. Much lesser in case of red wavelength. So even though the spectrum is a continum of all these wavelengths why is the eye fooled toward white?
And why more toward yellow than green?
Thanks. | 2015/03/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/171595",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/75916/"
] | Note the vertical scale on the two graphs you gave: The solar spectrum at sea level is given as an intensity (power per area), and it is very nearly flat over most of the visual range. The eye sensitivity is given as a percentage, which [the wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision) where it is used does not explain beyond calling it "normalized" and "relative brightness sensitivity." If this percentage is akin to a quantum efficiency, the probability that any one photon gets detected, there is a very natural possible explanation for this effect: If rather than a power-based intensity we use a photon number based intensity for the solar spectrum, its maximum will be at lower photon energies (redder colors) where the same power corresponds to more photons.
Perceptions are always tricky: Neither our eyes or our brains tend to function quite the way one might naively expect, in lots of ways. Hence much of the full explanation might not depend much on (photon) physics at all. | Mostly working off this [wikipedia article](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cone_cell), so information would best be further confirmed.
From the article, "The color yellow, for example, is perceived when the L cones are stimulated slightly more than the M cones...." (Further questions here probably is best asked in the Biology StackExchange) Very much as Ján Lalinský says, colour perception in humans has many non-trivial behaviors - single-wavelength response is not generalizable to broad-spectrum response.
Looking at the Normalized responsivity spectra, the L and M cones both have very broad responses, extending out over 100 nm in either direction. L cells also seem to have a broader response, which might cause them to activate stronger in even-intensity-broad-spectrum light.
Aside from that, based off [the spectrum of sunlight at Earth's surface](https://reefll.com/index.php?route=information/theory&theo_id=28) (taken at one point, but should be roughly similar everywhere), while there is a slow drop-off going from green towards red, there is a very sharp drop-off going from cyan to purple. Therefore, since M cells respond more to blue-purple than L cells do, this probably overwhelms the weaker intensity drop-off on the overall shift of L cell response range towards the red range of sunlight.
Either effect, or perhaps a combination, would produce the slightly stronger stimulation of L cones than M cones necessary to produce the sensation of Yellow light. |
171,595 | The spectrum of the Sun as seen at sea level can be seen at <https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Solar_Spectrum.png> so we can see that wavelengths around green to yellow are the ones that are the most present.
The human eye seems to be more sensitive to green wavelengths (around 555 nm which is plain green) compared to others: see <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision#/media/File:Eyesensitivity.svg>.
However the Sun appears mostly white/yellowish.
I don't understand why. The human eye sensitivity for orange/yellow/blue is lesser than for green. Much lesser in case of red wavelength. So even though the spectrum is a continum of all these wavelengths why is the eye fooled toward white?
And why more toward yellow than green?
Thanks. | 2015/03/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/171595",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/75916/"
] | >
> And why more toward yellow than green?
>
>
>
Human vision and perception of colors is a complex process. It is safe to say humans are not very good at determining the actual spectral distribution of light they see. The sunlight may very well have frequency distribution that has maximum in green and humans may still see it as having different coloration. That is because the frequency distribution characterizes square of the Fourier component of electric field of the sunlight and this need not have necessarily any simple relation to how humans perceive colors for light that is not monochromatic, like sunlight.
Human perception of color depends in a non-trivial way on the whole spectrum of the light, not just the part where the maximum is.
Well-known daily example of this is perceiving color of light emitted by the RGB pixels of a TV / computer monitor. When you look on the bright bar above, you probably see bright yellow, but in fact the Fourier component of the electric field of the light coming from this rectangle has almost negligible component at frequency corresponding to yellow monochromatic light. The perception of yellow is accomplished with combination of red, green and blue light regulated to appropriate intensities. | I am just rewriting what I wrote in a comment to make it more visible, since I think I found out the answer: the solar spectrum as seen on Earth's surface has much less violet and blue than both green and red according to the first link I posted. So mixing all colors should be slightly like mixing mostly green and red (and yellow/orange) than mixing blue/green/red, hence the yellowish color we see instead of greenish or white. |
171,595 | The spectrum of the Sun as seen at sea level can be seen at <https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Solar_Spectrum.png> so we can see that wavelengths around green to yellow are the ones that are the most present.
The human eye seems to be more sensitive to green wavelengths (around 555 nm which is plain green) compared to others: see <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_vision#/media/File:Eyesensitivity.svg>.
However the Sun appears mostly white/yellowish.
I don't understand why. The human eye sensitivity for orange/yellow/blue is lesser than for green. Much lesser in case of red wavelength. So even though the spectrum is a continum of all these wavelengths why is the eye fooled toward white?
And why more toward yellow than green?
Thanks. | 2015/03/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/171595",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/75916/"
] | Mostly working off this [wikipedia article](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cone_cell), so information would best be further confirmed.
From the article, "The color yellow, for example, is perceived when the L cones are stimulated slightly more than the M cones...." (Further questions here probably is best asked in the Biology StackExchange) Very much as Ján Lalinský says, colour perception in humans has many non-trivial behaviors - single-wavelength response is not generalizable to broad-spectrum response.
Looking at the Normalized responsivity spectra, the L and M cones both have very broad responses, extending out over 100 nm in either direction. L cells also seem to have a broader response, which might cause them to activate stronger in even-intensity-broad-spectrum light.
Aside from that, based off [the spectrum of sunlight at Earth's surface](https://reefll.com/index.php?route=information/theory&theo_id=28) (taken at one point, but should be roughly similar everywhere), while there is a slow drop-off going from green towards red, there is a very sharp drop-off going from cyan to purple. Therefore, since M cells respond more to blue-purple than L cells do, this probably overwhelms the weaker intensity drop-off on the overall shift of L cell response range towards the red range of sunlight.
Either effect, or perhaps a combination, would produce the slightly stronger stimulation of L cones than M cones necessary to produce the sensation of Yellow light. | I am just rewriting what I wrote in a comment to make it more visible, since I think I found out the answer: the solar spectrum as seen on Earth's surface has much less violet and blue than both green and red according to the first link I posted. So mixing all colors should be slightly like mixing mostly green and red (and yellow/orange) than mixing blue/green/red, hence the yellowish color we see instead of greenish or white. |
363,507 | As we know the term 'et al 'is used frequently to denote a team along with a specific person,how is it actually pronounced?
For eg.Sir William Brown et al have conducted extensive studies on black holes.
I have heard the pronunciation as 'et al' itself and usages like 'and others'.How should it be correctly pronounced? | 2016/12/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/363507",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192790/"
] | The way to pronouce 'et al.' is given in many dictionaries. For instance [Cambridge](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/pronunciation/english/et-al).
If you are asking whether you should actually say 'et al.' or something different, that is up to you. Academia has a close question: ['et al' in presentation speech](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/61951/et-al-in-presentation-speech), and the remarks there suggest 'and others', 'and coauthors', and the accepted answer suggests 'and his/her group/coauthors/colleagues'.
You could say: "Sir William Brown and (his) coauthors'. However, you can just say "Sir William Brown et al." | If you must pronounce it, it is quite straightforward: ‘et’ as in ‘etiquette’, ‘al’ as in ‘Alexander’.
But I always discouraged my students from speaking Latin, and suggested they said “and coworkers” instead. In the context of quoting a paper, then “and co-authors”, as @JanusBahsJacquet suggested, would be better. |
363,507 | As we know the term 'et al 'is used frequently to denote a team along with a specific person,how is it actually pronounced?
For eg.Sir William Brown et al have conducted extensive studies on black holes.
I have heard the pronunciation as 'et al' itself and usages like 'and others'.How should it be correctly pronounced? | 2016/12/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/363507",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192790/"
] | "*et al.*" is an abbreviation. When read aloud, you pronounce the full term "*et alii*" (or "*et alia*") - same as you would say "*et cetera*" when reading aloud the "*etc.*" abbreviation.
Alternatively, you could say "*and others*" - same as you would say "*for example*" when reading aloud the "*e.g.*" abbreviation. | If you must pronounce it, it is quite straightforward: ‘et’ as in ‘etiquette’, ‘al’ as in ‘Alexander’.
But I always discouraged my students from speaking Latin, and suggested they said “and coworkers” instead. In the context of quoting a paper, then “and co-authors”, as @JanusBahsJacquet suggested, would be better. |
363,507 | As we know the term 'et al 'is used frequently to denote a team along with a specific person,how is it actually pronounced?
For eg.Sir William Brown et al have conducted extensive studies on black holes.
I have heard the pronunciation as 'et al' itself and usages like 'and others'.How should it be correctly pronounced? | 2016/12/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/363507",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192790/"
] | The way to pronouce 'et al.' is given in many dictionaries. For instance [Cambridge](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/pronunciation/english/et-al).
If you are asking whether you should actually say 'et al.' or something different, that is up to you. Academia has a close question: ['et al' in presentation speech](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/61951/et-al-in-presentation-speech), and the remarks there suggest 'and others', 'and coauthors', and the accepted answer suggests 'and his/her group/coauthors/colleagues'.
You could say: "Sir William Brown and (his) coauthors'. However, you can just say "Sir William Brown et al." | "*et al.*" is an abbreviation. When read aloud, you pronounce the full term "*et alii*" (or "*et alia*") - same as you would say "*et cetera*" when reading aloud the "*etc.*" abbreviation.
Alternatively, you could say "*and others*" - same as you would say "*for example*" when reading aloud the "*e.g.*" abbreviation. |
11,282,690 | For an app in English, how can I get a list of where it can be sold? I've found lot's of information about how to internationalize, how to get a list of all countries in English, etc. but not a list of English speaking countries.
This is an XNA game and I'd love to make it available to the entire world, but I can't imagine creating a separate set of pngs for every language and wouldn't even know how to do the translation... so English it is for now. | 2012/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11282690",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/187099/"
] | Until you have Facebook/Twitter integration or link there, you can sell it on all markets.
It, for sure, depends on the content, but there is no general restrictions
Twitter/Facebook is prohibited in China and maybe in some arabic countries | Try [this](http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=countries%20speaking%20english) `Wolfram` answer. It has the amount of English speakers per country. |
47,613,508 | In my Apache Ignite 2.3 cluster I want to run one node (probably two in the future for a backup) that has my replicated cache persistent on disk. I need to make sure this node is always up while other cache nodes don't have the persistent configuration and therefore access the cache only in memory. These non-persistent nodes can come and go frequently on demand as they are for computing but not for storing data.
When a non-persistent node is connected, what happens when the persistent node goes down? Ideally the cache should go away for the whole cluster but it doesn't. All nodes continue using the cache in memory it seems. But this means the new data will never be on disk and gone after cluster restart.
Is my configuration with mixed persistent/non-persistent nodes not common? How would I keep this type of cluster consistant?
Any background help appreciated. | 2017/12/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/47613508",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7980234/"
] | You can set node filter for you cache configuration and exclude compute nodes:
<https://ignite.apache.org/releases/latest/javadoc/org/apache/ignite/configuration/CacheConfiguration.html#setNodeFilter(org.apache.ignite.lang.IgnitePredicate)>
so the cache will be stored only on the particular set of nodes that you defined.
To distinct ignite instances, you can use user attributes in ignite configurations:
<https://apacheignite.readme.io/docs/cluster#section-cluster-node-attributes> | This is not possible; persistence is enabled on cache level and therefore all nodes where this cache is deployed will persist data to disk.
Moreover, I don't think you would benefit from such deployment. If it's a replicated cache and you start a new node, you need to copy the data to this new node before it's available in memory. Before rebalancing is not finished, you will do remote calls for this data. Loading it from disk instead will not be slower, likely much faster. |
47,613,508 | In my Apache Ignite 2.3 cluster I want to run one node (probably two in the future for a backup) that has my replicated cache persistent on disk. I need to make sure this node is always up while other cache nodes don't have the persistent configuration and therefore access the cache only in memory. These non-persistent nodes can come and go frequently on demand as they are for computing but not for storing data.
When a non-persistent node is connected, what happens when the persistent node goes down? Ideally the cache should go away for the whole cluster but it doesn't. All nodes continue using the cache in memory it seems. But this means the new data will never be on disk and gone after cluster restart.
Is my configuration with mixed persistent/non-persistent nodes not common? How would I keep this type of cluster consistant?
Any background help appreciated. | 2017/12/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/47613508",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7980234/"
] | You can configure your cache to be stored on a single node only. So, when it goes down, the cache stops functioning. It can be done by using [node attributes](https://apacheignite.readme.io/docs/cluster#section-cluster-node-attributes) and a [node filter](https://ignite.apache.org/releases/latest/javadoc/org/apache/ignite/configuration/CacheConfiguration.html#setNodeFilter(org.apache.ignite.lang.IgnitePredicate)).
But in this configuration every request will be sent to a single node, making work of additional nodes slower. If you want to avoid it, consider using a [near cache](https://apacheignite.readme.io/docs/near-caches). | This is not possible; persistence is enabled on cache level and therefore all nodes where this cache is deployed will persist data to disk.
Moreover, I don't think you would benefit from such deployment. If it's a replicated cache and you start a new node, you need to copy the data to this new node before it's available in memory. Before rebalancing is not finished, you will do remote calls for this data. Loading it from disk instead will not be slower, likely much faster. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | The employee has every right to be upset with you. You need to apologize IMMEDIATELY. What concerns me is that you are posting here to justify your poor management. I don't know if you noticed, but no one here has berated you for your incompetence. Think about it: We're trying to help you just like you should be helping your employee (regardless if he was late or not). As a manager, you're in charge of managing people and work. You're supposed to be a leader who sets examples. If there is something malfunctioning, you look for solutions to make things work again. Managers who lose their cool and resort to emotional embarrassment are not leaders, they are seen as someone who can't control their emotions.
Your employees are not robots, they are real people with families, hopes and dreams. I've been berated all my life at every workplace I've been in because a lot of managers feel justified in doing so because they were once treated that way. Whether or not that's the case for you, it's a wrong outlook. At this point, you need to consider if you can handle the management position.
Take note of every single response everyone has provided you so far. It will be selfish to ask a question to justify your actions and decide to not do anything to improve the situation. We're not here to tell you want to hear. We're all trying to help you be better. | >
> However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that
> this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him
> again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the
> problem, which is so minor?
>
>
>
You didn't make a simple mistake. You *berated* an employee. Showed him who the boss is, didn't you? Made you feel good, shouting at an underling? That's not a simple mistake. You behaved in a despicable way, and you did it fully intentional. You also started berating him *without getting your facts right*. That's not a little mistake. That is reckless. The fact that you were wrong, that's a harmless mistake, but berating him, without knowing the facts, that's far beyond a simple mistake.
If you want *any* respect as a manager, you go to him and seriously apologise. Say "I'm very sorry to shout at you, and that will never happen again. I'm also sorry about not checking the facts first, and I'll try to improve on that". And you better mean it. That's what an adult would do who wants to be respected.
Meanwhile, take action to do something about being overworked and overstretched. This HUGE mistake that you made and that you absolutely need to fix, it might not have happened with a bit less stress. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | The mistake here was not so much that you forgot about the scheduling adjustments, nor that you were unaware of the employee's presence in the building before you saw him (though those, too, were mistakes). It's that you *berated* the employee, which would not be minor in any case, and the justification you claimed was also wrong.
So you laid into this employee for *no reason*, and seem to be minimizing/excusing/justifying your behavior *even after* it's become clear that you were totally wrong even according to the line of reasoning you describe here. Your employee is 100% justified in being upset over this. Even if you feel it's minor, your employee now cannot trust arrangements they've explicitly made with you, cannot trust you to be aware of facts (definitely available to you) before committing to inappropriate office behavior, and can be fairly certain that you'll try to dodge accountability for your behavior. Those aren't minor for someone that works for you and is vulnerable to your caprice.
You *should* talk to the employee again, *provided that* you can do the following during that exchange:
* Take responsibility for your mistakes and inappropriate behavior
* Refrain from minimizing the incident or justifying why you "deserve"
a free pass for what happened
* Offer a sincere apology
* Provide some sort of assurance that the employee won't be subject to
this sort of bad behavior from you in the future | Berating someone when they did nothing wrong creates in their head a work environment going forward where they can *expect* to be subjected to that treatment in a completely capricious manner.
Apology is a good first step, but honestly this should never have happened in the first place. Even if you abjectly apologize for your mistake, the damage is still done. You could still make a similar mistake in the future, and seem to be reserving for yourself the right to behave that way at (from the employee's perspective) any random moment.
Better would be to never ever "berate" an employee unless you are 100% sure what's going on. Best would be to never ever "berate" an employee period. Every company I've ever worked for has policies and procedures for dealing with tardiness issues. If you aren't able to deal with subordinate issues in a professional manner, perhaps that shouldn't be part of your job portfolio. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | Pull him aside and apologize if you believe you were out of line. I have tended to respect managers in the past that were willing to see that they overreacted or jumped to conclusions. It doesn't have to be a long drawn-out discussion, but a simple, "Hey...didn't realize the circumstances of...." | **Yes, you should speak to him again.**
Apologize for your mistake.
**Understand your mistake.**
You already accept that you made a mistake, but it's not clear that you understand exactly what the mistake was. It wasn't just misunderstanding or forgetting about his previously agreed start time, or even that you berated him - it's that you did not give him the opportunity to explain until *after* you started berating him. *You acted without full information*. In a position of authority, you must not do that.
**Avoid similar mistakes in future.**
As a manager, there will be a time and a place when you may have to discipline your staff or correct them over behavioural matters (I'm not sure I'd call it "berating", but that's beside the point). You must *never* do that without full information. *Always* ask for an explanation *before* launching into that kind of conversation. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | The coworker is *reasonably* upset. People don't like to be berated. People especially don't like to be berated for doing what they are told. Now you need to 100% own your mistake. Your mistake isn't just getting the facts wrong, it also includes how you handled yourself. | >
> However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that
> this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him
> again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the
> problem, which is so minor?
>
>
>
You didn't make a simple mistake. You *berated* an employee. Showed him who the boss is, didn't you? Made you feel good, shouting at an underling? That's not a simple mistake. You behaved in a despicable way, and you did it fully intentional. You also started berating him *without getting your facts right*. That's not a little mistake. That is reckless. The fact that you were wrong, that's a harmless mistake, but berating him, without knowing the facts, that's far beyond a simple mistake.
If you want *any* respect as a manager, you go to him and seriously apologise. Say "I'm very sorry to shout at you, and that will never happen again. I'm also sorry about not checking the facts first, and I'll try to improve on that". And you better mean it. That's what an adult would do who wants to be respected.
Meanwhile, take action to do something about being overworked and overstretched. This HUGE mistake that you made and that you absolutely need to fix, it might not have happened with a bit less stress. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | **Yes, you should speak to him again.**
Apologize for your mistake.
**Understand your mistake.**
You already accept that you made a mistake, but it's not clear that you understand exactly what the mistake was. It wasn't just misunderstanding or forgetting about his previously agreed start time, or even that you berated him - it's that you did not give him the opportunity to explain until *after* you started berating him. *You acted without full information*. In a position of authority, you must not do that.
**Avoid similar mistakes in future.**
As a manager, there will be a time and a place when you may have to discipline your staff or correct them over behavioural matters (I'm not sure I'd call it "berating", but that's beside the point). You must *never* do that without full information. *Always* ask for an explanation *before* launching into that kind of conversation. | The issue here is *not* the particular incident.
Common sense and real-life experience suggests that anyone who is a competent manager or administrator behaves in a generally consistent manner.
You have just demonstrated to your employee what *your* "consistent manner" of dealing with this sort of incident is. As such, it is perfectly reasonable for the employee to assume that if something similar occurs again, you will behave in the same way.
The employee is probably quite well aware that you are "overworked and overstretched" - and real-life experience suggests that overworked and overstretched people are the *least* likely to suddenly change their behaviour, at least until the root cause of the overwork goes away.
If that means your employee is now looking for another job, it's too late to change the situation now. Consider that he/she has probably told all his/her co-workers what happened, as well.
(Of course if the employee has the opinion that in fact you *don't* operate in a consistent manner, that does nothing to improve the situation from his/her point of view.)
To quote an old saying, you made your own bed - now lie in it. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | The employee has every right to be upset with you. You need to apologize IMMEDIATELY. What concerns me is that you are posting here to justify your poor management. I don't know if you noticed, but no one here has berated you for your incompetence. Think about it: We're trying to help you just like you should be helping your employee (regardless if he was late or not). As a manager, you're in charge of managing people and work. You're supposed to be a leader who sets examples. If there is something malfunctioning, you look for solutions to make things work again. Managers who lose their cool and resort to emotional embarrassment are not leaders, they are seen as someone who can't control their emotions.
Your employees are not robots, they are real people with families, hopes and dreams. I've been berated all my life at every workplace I've been in because a lot of managers feel justified in doing so because they were once treated that way. Whether or not that's the case for you, it's a wrong outlook. At this point, you need to consider if you can handle the management position.
Take note of every single response everyone has provided you so far. It will be selfish to ask a question to justify your actions and decide to not do anything to improve the situation. We're not here to tell you want to hear. We're all trying to help you be better. | **Yes, you should speak to him again.**
Apologize for your mistake.
**Understand your mistake.**
You already accept that you made a mistake, but it's not clear that you understand exactly what the mistake was. It wasn't just misunderstanding or forgetting about his previously agreed start time, or even that you berated him - it's that you did not give him the opportunity to explain until *after* you started berating him. *You acted without full information*. In a position of authority, you must not do that.
**Avoid similar mistakes in future.**
As a manager, there will be a time and a place when you may have to discipline your staff or correct them over behavioural matters (I'm not sure I'd call it "berating", but that's beside the point). You must *never* do that without full information. *Always* ask for an explanation *before* launching into that kind of conversation. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | ### It isn't unreasonable.
The problem is that you were disrespectful to an employee. They rightfully were upset by that. Even now you are continuing to disrespect them by stating that they are overreacting and implying that they should just move on, since you have. But this wasn't yours to move on from. **You weren't the aggrieved.**
You made the mistake, own up to it. Stop trying to minimize what you did and start treating the employee with respect. They just completed overtime for you and in return you berated them. I'd be angry too. I can't imagine you smoothed things over very sincerely considering the dismissive language in your question. Go back. Do it right. In the future don't invalidate the way people feel, it will make you a less effective leader. Everyone feels the way they do for a reason and if you understand that you can better understand them. | >
> However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that
> this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him
> again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the
> problem, which is so minor?
>
>
>
You didn't make a simple mistake. You *berated* an employee. Showed him who the boss is, didn't you? Made you feel good, shouting at an underling? That's not a simple mistake. You behaved in a despicable way, and you did it fully intentional. You also started berating him *without getting your facts right*. That's not a little mistake. That is reckless. The fact that you were wrong, that's a harmless mistake, but berating him, without knowing the facts, that's far beyond a simple mistake.
If you want *any* respect as a manager, you go to him and seriously apologise. Say "I'm very sorry to shout at you, and that will never happen again. I'm also sorry about not checking the facts first, and I'll try to improve on that". And you better mean it. That's what an adult would do who wants to be respected.
Meanwhile, take action to do something about being overworked and overstretched. This HUGE mistake that you made and that you absolutely need to fix, it might not have happened with a bit less stress. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | The employee has every right to be upset with you. You need to apologize IMMEDIATELY. What concerns me is that you are posting here to justify your poor management. I don't know if you noticed, but no one here has berated you for your incompetence. Think about it: We're trying to help you just like you should be helping your employee (regardless if he was late or not). As a manager, you're in charge of managing people and work. You're supposed to be a leader who sets examples. If there is something malfunctioning, you look for solutions to make things work again. Managers who lose their cool and resort to emotional embarrassment are not leaders, they are seen as someone who can't control their emotions.
Your employees are not robots, they are real people with families, hopes and dreams. I've been berated all my life at every workplace I've been in because a lot of managers feel justified in doing so because they were once treated that way. Whether or not that's the case for you, it's a wrong outlook. At this point, you need to consider if you can handle the management position.
Take note of every single response everyone has provided you so far. It will be selfish to ask a question to justify your actions and decide to not do anything to improve the situation. We're not here to tell you want to hear. We're all trying to help you be better. | The coworker is *reasonably* upset. People don't like to be berated. People especially don't like to be berated for doing what they are told. Now you need to 100% own your mistake. Your mistake isn't just getting the facts wrong, it also includes how you handled yourself. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | You overreacted to a perceived "mistake" that wasn't actually the employee's mistake at all, but was your own, and when it was made known to you that it was your mistake and not his, you brushed it off like "a simple mistake". The employee is therefore rightfully upset; would it have been "a simple mistake" if it was actually the employee's fault, and if the employee brushed it off lightly, as you did to him, what would you have done?
There's not a heck of a lot you can do at this point, you've already made an ass of yourself to your subordinate. Expect that subordinate to henceforth be extremely resistant to working overtime when you ask him to, as he should be (he should be resistant to overtime anyway, but he will be extra resistant now). I would avoid asking him for any overtime for at least a month, possibly more.
The employee may be afraid that this incident may show up on a formal review; I have had cases in the past where I had an issue, that issue turned out to be my manager's fault, I "resolved" it with my manager, and then my manager raised the issue again during a performance review and pegged it as my fault again. You should present a **written** apology to your employee, that he can present back to you if this issue ever comes up again, and that he can bring to HR in the event he is terminated on a matter related to this, as proof that this issue was not his fault. It is possible the employee will use this written apology to raise this issue to HR as you being an incompetent manager. He'd be right to do so, and that's your problem, not his.
EDIT: To expand upon the above point, this is an issue of trust. If I was your employee, what would be going through my mind now is, "What this company is asking me to do is to give of myself freely to the company, and in exchange I get a promise that the company will give back. However, when I try to get back what the company has promised to me, they reneg on their promise. Therefore, why should I give more to the company than they deserve/pay me for?"
This is why your employee should be very resistant to doing overtime; presumably they were not paid for it in this case, as they were promised time-in-lieu, and when they attempted to cash in their time-in-lieu they were berated for it, so essentially they were given nothing (whether or not you realized your mistake after the fact is irrelevant). In most locales this is illegal, first of all (to neither be paid for your overtime nor given time-in-lieu), but even aside from that, this paints the picture of an organization which does not respect work-life balance. Furthermore, even if you change the relationship, and say "rather than time-in-lieu, you will be paid for your overtime", what is the guarantee to this employee that their overtime pay request will be acknowledged by you, the manager who has already disrespected their time-in-lieu previously?
The way to deal with this is, again, to present a written statement of apology to the employee, so they know their time-in-lieu was, in fact, respected. This will not completely repair the damage done, however. If I was your employee, I would already be searching for another job; in terms of team leadership, this is a capital offense for me, in the sense that if this was done to me once, I'm actively looking for a way out immediately. If I receive a written apology, I will only passively look for a way off the team (whereas if this situation had never happened at all, I wouldn't be looking at all). | Apologize immediately and sincerely
===================================
You wronged your employee and need to sincerely apologize immediately if you want to salvage the relationship. Put yourself in their shoes: their boss asked them to work overtime in exchange for coming in late the next day. But then the boss made them run an errand that effectively negated the time off. And then yelled at them for coming in late. What would you think of that boss if you were the employee? How would you feel if your boss did that to you? You need to apologize.
Don't take advantage of your employees
======================================
Your employee was doing a presumably mandatory work errand before work. That's work--unpaid work, after having done paid overtime the day before, and on a day the employee was promised to be able to come in late to compensate for overtime the previous day. This is taking advantage of your employee. You need to do some soul searching here: are you viewing your employees as resources to be used, or as people with lives who deserve to be treated fairly and with respect?
Is the employee a "gopher"? I realize there is a culture that says it's ok to mistreat them, but really it's not. Abuse is abuse no matter the context.
Try to achieve a good work life balance for everyone
====================================================
You're overworked. Clearly so is your employee. That makes everyone stressed and snappy and less forgiving. To achieve good long-term interoffice relationships, you need to create a culture that fosters a healthy work-life balance. That means letting your employees have lives outside of work, and yourself too. |
134,157 | To keep it short, I am an overworked and overstretched manager. Today my employee appeared to show up to work an hour late, having only had one simple work-related task to complete before arrival - which shouldn’t take more than 25 minutes or so.
I began to berate him for this as I believed he had slept in or was being lazy. He reminded me that due to other overtime I’d ask him to start half an hour later today. Which meant that he was only 30 minutes ‘late’ and I found out later had been in the building for 10 minutes before I saw him and started work. Therefore it was my error. I quickly moved on, realizing this.
However, I sense now that the employee is disgruntled. I feel that this is an overreaction to a simple mistake. Should I speak to him again about this, knowing that it might magnify his perception of the problem, which is so minor?
Edit: As there are too many comments to reply individually, may I say thank you for your advice. Although I didn’t shout, I was certainly antagonistic and critical, so ‘berate’ seemed appropriate as description. In the face of multiple incidents and issues (not connected to this employee) confronting me daily, I didn’t see things from his perspective. And yes, he was five minutes early once everything was calculated. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/134157",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/102897/"
] | The employee has every right to be upset with you. You need to apologize IMMEDIATELY. What concerns me is that you are posting here to justify your poor management. I don't know if you noticed, but no one here has berated you for your incompetence. Think about it: We're trying to help you just like you should be helping your employee (regardless if he was late or not). As a manager, you're in charge of managing people and work. You're supposed to be a leader who sets examples. If there is something malfunctioning, you look for solutions to make things work again. Managers who lose their cool and resort to emotional embarrassment are not leaders, they are seen as someone who can't control their emotions.
Your employees are not robots, they are real people with families, hopes and dreams. I've been berated all my life at every workplace I've been in because a lot of managers feel justified in doing so because they were once treated that way. Whether or not that's the case for you, it's a wrong outlook. At this point, you need to consider if you can handle the management position.
Take note of every single response everyone has provided you so far. It will be selfish to ask a question to justify your actions and decide to not do anything to improve the situation. We're not here to tell you want to hear. We're all trying to help you be better. | Berating someone when they did nothing wrong creates in their head a work environment going forward where they can *expect* to be subjected to that treatment in a completely capricious manner.
Apology is a good first step, but honestly this should never have happened in the first place. Even if you abjectly apologize for your mistake, the damage is still done. You could still make a similar mistake in the future, and seem to be reserving for yourself the right to behave that way at (from the employee's perspective) any random moment.
Better would be to never ever "berate" an employee unless you are 100% sure what's going on. Best would be to never ever "berate" an employee period. Every company I've ever worked for has policies and procedures for dealing with tardiness issues. If you aren't able to deal with subordinate issues in a professional manner, perhaps that shouldn't be part of your job portfolio. |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | You need areas of the brain to be wired for specific senses.
------------------------------------------------------------
There's no way to get around this. Why? **Memory.**
Pay attention to your senses for a minute. Look around you. Listen. How many things can you see? How many things can you feel? How many things can you hear? Unless you lack all of those senses, the answer is most likely "a lot of things." Do you recognize them? Unless you were recently kidnapped and put into an alien zoo, chances are you recognize most of the things you currently sense.
How do you recognize them? Your brain has experienced them before, and is currently storing the information you need to let you recognize them.
However, the information you need is different for each sense. For example, I currently have a plastic cup on my desk. In order for me to recognize that, my brain needs to readily access a number of key pieces of information - knowledge about color, reflectivity, transparency, what shapes look like, etc. Additionally, my brain has to know how to interpret the signals that are coming from my eyes. What about trying to identify it by touch? I have to know about smoothness, flexibility, hardness, what shapes feel like, etc.
All of this information has to be stored somewhere. And it is, *in the areas of your brain wired for specific senses.*
The reason why a person who loses a sense can devote more brainpower to their other senses is that the area of their brain devoted to the lost sense is no longer needed. If, after the brainpower gets devoted to other senses, the person were to have surgery restore that sense, they would have to relearn how to use that sense.
So what about if you had an extra area of your brain that was devoted to interpreting senses, but not any specific one? This still wouldn't work very well unless you were to use it for a particular sense for a long time - it would be like an amateur coming up to a nuclear physicist and saying "I would like to help you, what can I do?" Now, there might be "go get me water" kinds of tasks that would be sufficiently common between the different senses, but for the most part it would be waiting around being useless. It is would be far more useful divide that area up between the senses for them to use permanently.
One last thing to consider: what if your brain somehow duplicated the section of your brain for a particular sense? This isn't going to work either - if both copies receive the same signals, they'll both get the same result. What about if the signal was divided between the two copies? Well, how would your brain know how to divide the signal before it's been processed? Also, your brain isn't used to processing only a portion of the signal, so you'd likely get confused. Even if the signal was divided reasonably and then processed, the results would then have to be combined. Again, this will require a lot of extra brainpower that would have been better off being divided among your senses in the first place.
In summary, it doesn't make sense for your brain to try to reserve power for flexible use of your senses - the significant overhead required isn't worth the small benefit you *might* gain from it. | Do you mean to divert the brain's "processing power" to whichever sense you want? I don't know if it's possible right now (but if you step into sci-fi everything changes), but I think you'd hit a resolution problem. What I mean is, using more power for the ears you could follow two or more conversations at once, but you couldn't modify the ears' sensitivity or frequency range. As for the eyes, you could notice more things and improve visual memory, but not zoom or see infrared. And so on. It could be an interesting "super-power", though, with the possible weakness of the weakened other senses. |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | Do you mean to divert the brain's "processing power" to whichever sense you want? I don't know if it's possible right now (but if you step into sci-fi everything changes), but I think you'd hit a resolution problem. What I mean is, using more power for the ears you could follow two or more conversations at once, but you couldn't modify the ears' sensitivity or frequency range. As for the eyes, you could notice more things and improve visual memory, but not zoom or see infrared. And so on. It could be an interesting "super-power", though, with the possible weakness of the weakened other senses. | Think of the brain as if it is your computer. That computer doesn't just have hardware (processing power) it has software. The brain too has 'software'.
For instance your brain has a visual cortex, specialised in interpreting visual data from your optic nerves. Inherent in the way it does that is 'software' which knows it is dealing with light, has algorithms to calculate speed and distance of moving objects, etc.
If you switched around the wiring to send the data from your ears to your visual cortex, it would balls it up monumentally. It would interpret your dog's bark as a solid object. It would tell you that Ethel's voice is red and Fred's is purple. You'd walk into traffic because it told you the vehicles were 200 yards away and slow moving.
At best you'd end up with the world's worst case of [synaesthesia](http://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/synaesthesia/Pages/Introduction.aspx). |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | I'm not entirely sure what your concept really is, so this will be an answer in two parts. Part one, selective enhanced sensory perception. Part two, generalized sensor processing, where more brain power could, for example, be dedicated to the business of processing primary visual signals. .
First, unfortunately, I think there is insufficient evidence to support the proposition in your question that loosing a sense makes other senses stronger, if by stronger we mean a deaf person can see farther or at a finer resolution, or a blind person can here high or lower pitched sounds at lower amplitudes than a sighted person. This is what i'm calling sensory enhancement.
There does appear to be evidence that the loss of one sense can make you more effective at using your other senses, even though the baseline physical performance of the sensory organs or the structures immediately processing the signals from the organs have not changed. A blind person may be able to discern more notes in a orchestral piece, or a deaf person may be able to more rapidly find hidden images in a drawing. This I will call perceptual enhancement.
If your question is concerning perceptual enhancement, then it may be easy to imagine a brain organization where all perceptual processing can be turned over to the output from only one sensory center in the brain. Crudely, we might consider a savant who can play any piece of music after a single hearing as having a massive amount of perceptual processing power turned over to the auditory centers and the motor centers controlling his hands. The creatures we are imagining here would be "volitional savants", capable of operating in what we would consider normal mode, or turning over massive amounts of processing power to a specific sensory process, making them far more perceptive in that area, but essentially blind in other areas (both sensory and areas involving brain processing power not committed elsewhere). You could imagine such a savant who had focused on finding a clue in a complex visual pattern, being unable to speak or even sit in a chair straight while most of his right brain was churning through stimuli from the visual cortex.
On to ideas about generalized senses. If your question was not about this concept, quit now! I'm going to continue on from a previous answer, using synaesthesia as my proof of concept. Synaesthesia, while clearly a brain disorder, shows that it is possible for nerve impulses collected by one sensory organ to be received and interpreted by a brain structure not normally associated with that organ. Tongue to visual cortex, touch to auditory center of the brain.
Further, research seems to indicate that we should not think of visual signals as being transmitted to the visual center and ending there. The analogy of circuits wired to computer chips only goes so far and breaks down in this case. Signals picked up by your optic nerve and sent to the brain arrive at the visual center, but leak out and those signals are "seen" by many other areas of the brain.
For an example right on the nose, consider an experiment where the researchers created an electrode array 140x140 connected to a camera. The electrode is placed on the tongue of a blind subject. The image seen by the camera is transmitted to the electrode array. The result after some training is sight! Albeit shadowy and low (140x140) resolution, subjects were indeed able to see using their taste organ.
Now, however, is where my concept breaks down. Human sight, as noted above, is really much more about image processing in real time, and that work is done, not by a general purpose "computer" but by a purpose built processor. It does not appear that we see by running the "sight" software in our general purpose computer brain. Rather, we see with the "hard wired graphics card" visual center of our brain and even the signals received via the tongue in the above experiment must be received by and processed by the visual center for us to see an image. and that center is a physical structure that cannot, apparently, be augmented in any way other than physical rewiring.
So, I think I must agree with others and say, its not possible to dedicate more processing power to the actual brain apparatus of 'seeing' or 'hearing' or 'touching'. These structures are too highly specialized to be amenable to enhancement by the addition of more generalized "processing power". You will see only as well as your visual structure in your brain will allow, and allocating part of your visual structure to process taste will only make you blind, it will not make you a connoisseur of fine cuisine, although kale may now 'taste' blue. | Do you mean to divert the brain's "processing power" to whichever sense you want? I don't know if it's possible right now (but if you step into sci-fi everything changes), but I think you'd hit a resolution problem. What I mean is, using more power for the ears you could follow two or more conversations at once, but you couldn't modify the ears' sensitivity or frequency range. As for the eyes, you could notice more things and improve visual memory, but not zoom or see infrared. And so on. It could be an interesting "super-power", though, with the possible weakness of the weakened other senses. |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | You need areas of the brain to be wired for specific senses.
------------------------------------------------------------
There's no way to get around this. Why? **Memory.**
Pay attention to your senses for a minute. Look around you. Listen. How many things can you see? How many things can you feel? How many things can you hear? Unless you lack all of those senses, the answer is most likely "a lot of things." Do you recognize them? Unless you were recently kidnapped and put into an alien zoo, chances are you recognize most of the things you currently sense.
How do you recognize them? Your brain has experienced them before, and is currently storing the information you need to let you recognize them.
However, the information you need is different for each sense. For example, I currently have a plastic cup on my desk. In order for me to recognize that, my brain needs to readily access a number of key pieces of information - knowledge about color, reflectivity, transparency, what shapes look like, etc. Additionally, my brain has to know how to interpret the signals that are coming from my eyes. What about trying to identify it by touch? I have to know about smoothness, flexibility, hardness, what shapes feel like, etc.
All of this information has to be stored somewhere. And it is, *in the areas of your brain wired for specific senses.*
The reason why a person who loses a sense can devote more brainpower to their other senses is that the area of their brain devoted to the lost sense is no longer needed. If, after the brainpower gets devoted to other senses, the person were to have surgery restore that sense, they would have to relearn how to use that sense.
So what about if you had an extra area of your brain that was devoted to interpreting senses, but not any specific one? This still wouldn't work very well unless you were to use it for a particular sense for a long time - it would be like an amateur coming up to a nuclear physicist and saying "I would like to help you, what can I do?" Now, there might be "go get me water" kinds of tasks that would be sufficiently common between the different senses, but for the most part it would be waiting around being useless. It is would be far more useful divide that area up between the senses for them to use permanently.
One last thing to consider: what if your brain somehow duplicated the section of your brain for a particular sense? This isn't going to work either - if both copies receive the same signals, they'll both get the same result. What about if the signal was divided between the two copies? Well, how would your brain know how to divide the signal before it's been processed? Also, your brain isn't used to processing only a portion of the signal, so you'd likely get confused. Even if the signal was divided reasonably and then processed, the results would then have to be combined. Again, this will require a lot of extra brainpower that would have been better off being divided among your senses in the first place.
In summary, it doesn't make sense for your brain to try to reserve power for flexible use of your senses - the significant overhead required isn't worth the small benefit you *might* gain from it. | Think of the brain as if it is your computer. That computer doesn't just have hardware (processing power) it has software. The brain too has 'software'.
For instance your brain has a visual cortex, specialised in interpreting visual data from your optic nerves. Inherent in the way it does that is 'software' which knows it is dealing with light, has algorithms to calculate speed and distance of moving objects, etc.
If you switched around the wiring to send the data from your ears to your visual cortex, it would balls it up monumentally. It would interpret your dog's bark as a solid object. It would tell you that Ethel's voice is red and Fred's is purple. You'd walk into traffic because it told you the vehicles were 200 yards away and slow moving.
At best you'd end up with the world's worst case of [synaesthesia](http://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/synaesthesia/Pages/Introduction.aspx). |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | You need areas of the brain to be wired for specific senses.
------------------------------------------------------------
There's no way to get around this. Why? **Memory.**
Pay attention to your senses for a minute. Look around you. Listen. How many things can you see? How many things can you feel? How many things can you hear? Unless you lack all of those senses, the answer is most likely "a lot of things." Do you recognize them? Unless you were recently kidnapped and put into an alien zoo, chances are you recognize most of the things you currently sense.
How do you recognize them? Your brain has experienced them before, and is currently storing the information you need to let you recognize them.
However, the information you need is different for each sense. For example, I currently have a plastic cup on my desk. In order for me to recognize that, my brain needs to readily access a number of key pieces of information - knowledge about color, reflectivity, transparency, what shapes look like, etc. Additionally, my brain has to know how to interpret the signals that are coming from my eyes. What about trying to identify it by touch? I have to know about smoothness, flexibility, hardness, what shapes feel like, etc.
All of this information has to be stored somewhere. And it is, *in the areas of your brain wired for specific senses.*
The reason why a person who loses a sense can devote more brainpower to their other senses is that the area of their brain devoted to the lost sense is no longer needed. If, after the brainpower gets devoted to other senses, the person were to have surgery restore that sense, they would have to relearn how to use that sense.
So what about if you had an extra area of your brain that was devoted to interpreting senses, but not any specific one? This still wouldn't work very well unless you were to use it for a particular sense for a long time - it would be like an amateur coming up to a nuclear physicist and saying "I would like to help you, what can I do?" Now, there might be "go get me water" kinds of tasks that would be sufficiently common between the different senses, but for the most part it would be waiting around being useless. It is would be far more useful divide that area up between the senses for them to use permanently.
One last thing to consider: what if your brain somehow duplicated the section of your brain for a particular sense? This isn't going to work either - if both copies receive the same signals, they'll both get the same result. What about if the signal was divided between the two copies? Well, how would your brain know how to divide the signal before it's been processed? Also, your brain isn't used to processing only a portion of the signal, so you'd likely get confused. Even if the signal was divided reasonably and then processed, the results would then have to be combined. Again, this will require a lot of extra brainpower that would have been better off being divided among your senses in the first place.
In summary, it doesn't make sense for your brain to try to reserve power for flexible use of your senses - the significant overhead required isn't worth the small benefit you *might* gain from it. | **Non-fiction: "On Intelligence" by Jeff Hawkins.** Hawkins and his team are doing some marvelous work in AI, and this fairly short book lays out their deconstruction of the human brain that guides their goal of simulating it.
From that book, strong evidence exists that human brains do not have set regions that must be for any given sense. The US military has been testing pilots -- they put a chip on the tongue of the pilot that gives an electrical shock in different places on the contact surface depending on the position of other aircraft around them. After a couple months of this, pilots report that they feel like they can "see" the craft. MRI shows some rewiring occurs if this is done young enough (i.e. under age 25). Babies with brain damage to some sensory regions sometimes develop just fine as long as the sensory organ has connection to another region of the brain. And those born blind really do see the visual area re-appropriated for processing whatever input is available. Finally, synesthesia is a real effect, where on region starts processing another sensor's input... the results are generally coherent, if confusing. |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | **Non-fiction: "On Intelligence" by Jeff Hawkins.** Hawkins and his team are doing some marvelous work in AI, and this fairly short book lays out their deconstruction of the human brain that guides their goal of simulating it.
From that book, strong evidence exists that human brains do not have set regions that must be for any given sense. The US military has been testing pilots -- they put a chip on the tongue of the pilot that gives an electrical shock in different places on the contact surface depending on the position of other aircraft around them. After a couple months of this, pilots report that they feel like they can "see" the craft. MRI shows some rewiring occurs if this is done young enough (i.e. under age 25). Babies with brain damage to some sensory regions sometimes develop just fine as long as the sensory organ has connection to another region of the brain. And those born blind really do see the visual area re-appropriated for processing whatever input is available. Finally, synesthesia is a real effect, where on region starts processing another sensor's input... the results are generally coherent, if confusing. | Think of the brain as if it is your computer. That computer doesn't just have hardware (processing power) it has software. The brain too has 'software'.
For instance your brain has a visual cortex, specialised in interpreting visual data from your optic nerves. Inherent in the way it does that is 'software' which knows it is dealing with light, has algorithms to calculate speed and distance of moving objects, etc.
If you switched around the wiring to send the data from your ears to your visual cortex, it would balls it up monumentally. It would interpret your dog's bark as a solid object. It would tell you that Ethel's voice is red and Fred's is purple. You'd walk into traffic because it told you the vehicles were 200 yards away and slow moving.
At best you'd end up with the world's worst case of [synaesthesia](http://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/synaesthesia/Pages/Introduction.aspx). |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | I'm not entirely sure what your concept really is, so this will be an answer in two parts. Part one, selective enhanced sensory perception. Part two, generalized sensor processing, where more brain power could, for example, be dedicated to the business of processing primary visual signals. .
First, unfortunately, I think there is insufficient evidence to support the proposition in your question that loosing a sense makes other senses stronger, if by stronger we mean a deaf person can see farther or at a finer resolution, or a blind person can here high or lower pitched sounds at lower amplitudes than a sighted person. This is what i'm calling sensory enhancement.
There does appear to be evidence that the loss of one sense can make you more effective at using your other senses, even though the baseline physical performance of the sensory organs or the structures immediately processing the signals from the organs have not changed. A blind person may be able to discern more notes in a orchestral piece, or a deaf person may be able to more rapidly find hidden images in a drawing. This I will call perceptual enhancement.
If your question is concerning perceptual enhancement, then it may be easy to imagine a brain organization where all perceptual processing can be turned over to the output from only one sensory center in the brain. Crudely, we might consider a savant who can play any piece of music after a single hearing as having a massive amount of perceptual processing power turned over to the auditory centers and the motor centers controlling his hands. The creatures we are imagining here would be "volitional savants", capable of operating in what we would consider normal mode, or turning over massive amounts of processing power to a specific sensory process, making them far more perceptive in that area, but essentially blind in other areas (both sensory and areas involving brain processing power not committed elsewhere). You could imagine such a savant who had focused on finding a clue in a complex visual pattern, being unable to speak or even sit in a chair straight while most of his right brain was churning through stimuli from the visual cortex.
On to ideas about generalized senses. If your question was not about this concept, quit now! I'm going to continue on from a previous answer, using synaesthesia as my proof of concept. Synaesthesia, while clearly a brain disorder, shows that it is possible for nerve impulses collected by one sensory organ to be received and interpreted by a brain structure not normally associated with that organ. Tongue to visual cortex, touch to auditory center of the brain.
Further, research seems to indicate that we should not think of visual signals as being transmitted to the visual center and ending there. The analogy of circuits wired to computer chips only goes so far and breaks down in this case. Signals picked up by your optic nerve and sent to the brain arrive at the visual center, but leak out and those signals are "seen" by many other areas of the brain.
For an example right on the nose, consider an experiment where the researchers created an electrode array 140x140 connected to a camera. The electrode is placed on the tongue of a blind subject. The image seen by the camera is transmitted to the electrode array. The result after some training is sight! Albeit shadowy and low (140x140) resolution, subjects were indeed able to see using their taste organ.
Now, however, is where my concept breaks down. Human sight, as noted above, is really much more about image processing in real time, and that work is done, not by a general purpose "computer" but by a purpose built processor. It does not appear that we see by running the "sight" software in our general purpose computer brain. Rather, we see with the "hard wired graphics card" visual center of our brain and even the signals received via the tongue in the above experiment must be received by and processed by the visual center for us to see an image. and that center is a physical structure that cannot, apparently, be augmented in any way other than physical rewiring.
So, I think I must agree with others and say, its not possible to dedicate more processing power to the actual brain apparatus of 'seeing' or 'hearing' or 'touching'. These structures are too highly specialized to be amenable to enhancement by the addition of more generalized "processing power". You will see only as well as your visual structure in your brain will allow, and allocating part of your visual structure to process taste will only make you blind, it will not make you a connoisseur of fine cuisine, although kale may now 'taste' blue. | Think of the brain as if it is your computer. That computer doesn't just have hardware (processing power) it has software. The brain too has 'software'.
For instance your brain has a visual cortex, specialised in interpreting visual data from your optic nerves. Inherent in the way it does that is 'software' which knows it is dealing with light, has algorithms to calculate speed and distance of moving objects, etc.
If you switched around the wiring to send the data from your ears to your visual cortex, it would balls it up monumentally. It would interpret your dog's bark as a solid object. It would tell you that Ethel's voice is red and Fred's is purple. You'd walk into traffic because it told you the vehicles were 200 yards away and slow moving.
At best you'd end up with the world's worst case of [synaesthesia](http://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/synaesthesia/Pages/Introduction.aspx). |
53,333 | So everyone has different sections of their brain wired to specific senses. A sections for sight, touch, smell etc.
Now if someone loses a sense their brain will rewire itself to allocate more brain power to the other senses.
What I'm asking is this: Is it possible to have a brain wired in a way that did not have specific regions for specific senses. Thus allowing the person to use whichever senses with however much strength (up to a certain point of course) they desire or need.
**Edit:**
After several answers and comments, I realized I need to clarify what I mean when I say strength. By strength, I do not mean the actual power, or ability of the sense (i.e seeing farther, or hearing at superhuman frequencies). Instead I am talking about the enhancement of these senses perception. | 2016/08/29 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/53333",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/26245/"
] | I'm not entirely sure what your concept really is, so this will be an answer in two parts. Part one, selective enhanced sensory perception. Part two, generalized sensor processing, where more brain power could, for example, be dedicated to the business of processing primary visual signals. .
First, unfortunately, I think there is insufficient evidence to support the proposition in your question that loosing a sense makes other senses stronger, if by stronger we mean a deaf person can see farther or at a finer resolution, or a blind person can here high or lower pitched sounds at lower amplitudes than a sighted person. This is what i'm calling sensory enhancement.
There does appear to be evidence that the loss of one sense can make you more effective at using your other senses, even though the baseline physical performance of the sensory organs or the structures immediately processing the signals from the organs have not changed. A blind person may be able to discern more notes in a orchestral piece, or a deaf person may be able to more rapidly find hidden images in a drawing. This I will call perceptual enhancement.
If your question is concerning perceptual enhancement, then it may be easy to imagine a brain organization where all perceptual processing can be turned over to the output from only one sensory center in the brain. Crudely, we might consider a savant who can play any piece of music after a single hearing as having a massive amount of perceptual processing power turned over to the auditory centers and the motor centers controlling his hands. The creatures we are imagining here would be "volitional savants", capable of operating in what we would consider normal mode, or turning over massive amounts of processing power to a specific sensory process, making them far more perceptive in that area, but essentially blind in other areas (both sensory and areas involving brain processing power not committed elsewhere). You could imagine such a savant who had focused on finding a clue in a complex visual pattern, being unable to speak or even sit in a chair straight while most of his right brain was churning through stimuli from the visual cortex.
On to ideas about generalized senses. If your question was not about this concept, quit now! I'm going to continue on from a previous answer, using synaesthesia as my proof of concept. Synaesthesia, while clearly a brain disorder, shows that it is possible for nerve impulses collected by one sensory organ to be received and interpreted by a brain structure not normally associated with that organ. Tongue to visual cortex, touch to auditory center of the brain.
Further, research seems to indicate that we should not think of visual signals as being transmitted to the visual center and ending there. The analogy of circuits wired to computer chips only goes so far and breaks down in this case. Signals picked up by your optic nerve and sent to the brain arrive at the visual center, but leak out and those signals are "seen" by many other areas of the brain.
For an example right on the nose, consider an experiment where the researchers created an electrode array 140x140 connected to a camera. The electrode is placed on the tongue of a blind subject. The image seen by the camera is transmitted to the electrode array. The result after some training is sight! Albeit shadowy and low (140x140) resolution, subjects were indeed able to see using their taste organ.
Now, however, is where my concept breaks down. Human sight, as noted above, is really much more about image processing in real time, and that work is done, not by a general purpose "computer" but by a purpose built processor. It does not appear that we see by running the "sight" software in our general purpose computer brain. Rather, we see with the "hard wired graphics card" visual center of our brain and even the signals received via the tongue in the above experiment must be received by and processed by the visual center for us to see an image. and that center is a physical structure that cannot, apparently, be augmented in any way other than physical rewiring.
So, I think I must agree with others and say, its not possible to dedicate more processing power to the actual brain apparatus of 'seeing' or 'hearing' or 'touching'. These structures are too highly specialized to be amenable to enhancement by the addition of more generalized "processing power". You will see only as well as your visual structure in your brain will allow, and allocating part of your visual structure to process taste will only make you blind, it will not make you a connoisseur of fine cuisine, although kale may now 'taste' blue. | **Non-fiction: "On Intelligence" by Jeff Hawkins.** Hawkins and his team are doing some marvelous work in AI, and this fairly short book lays out their deconstruction of the human brain that guides their goal of simulating it.
From that book, strong evidence exists that human brains do not have set regions that must be for any given sense. The US military has been testing pilots -- they put a chip on the tongue of the pilot that gives an electrical shock in different places on the contact surface depending on the position of other aircraft around them. After a couple months of this, pilots report that they feel like they can "see" the craft. MRI shows some rewiring occurs if this is done young enough (i.e. under age 25). Babies with brain damage to some sensory regions sometimes develop just fine as long as the sensory organ has connection to another region of the brain. And those born blind really do see the visual area re-appropriated for processing whatever input is available. Finally, synesthesia is a real effect, where on region starts processing another sensor's input... the results are generally coherent, if confusing. |
148,322 | I have a scenario where I need to upload a file from one web application and use it in another one. My setup is the following.
* One server, hosting two web applications in IIS - both are ASP.NET
* One of the applications is used to administer the other one + a bunch more stuff
* I need to upload a file from this admin app, save the path in DB through the DAL and then access the file from the other web app, which would provide the file for download
* I keep files on disk, only the path in DB
So where and how can I upload the file so that it can be accessed from both web applications? Should I use a service or is there some other way?
Here are some related questions I found, but I don't think they cover my particular scenario:
[How to handle file uploads to a dedicated image server?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/63146/how-to-handle-file-uploads-to-a-dedicated-image-server)
[How to upload a file to a WCF Service?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/51256/how-to-upload-a-file-to-a-wcf-service) | 2008/09/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/148322",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1801/"
] | You could setup a new virtual directory in each application that points to the same folder on your server where you would upload the files to. Lets say you created a new folder on your c: drive called "uploads" i.e. c:\uploads. Then in IIS setup a new virtual directory called "uploads" that points to c:\uploads for each web application. That should give both sites access to the files. | Can I ask why you are not keeping the file in the DB? This would make passing it around much easier. |
148,322 | I have a scenario where I need to upload a file from one web application and use it in another one. My setup is the following.
* One server, hosting two web applications in IIS - both are ASP.NET
* One of the applications is used to administer the other one + a bunch more stuff
* I need to upload a file from this admin app, save the path in DB through the DAL and then access the file from the other web app, which would provide the file for download
* I keep files on disk, only the path in DB
So where and how can I upload the file so that it can be accessed from both web applications? Should I use a service or is there some other way?
Here are some related questions I found, but I don't think they cover my particular scenario:
[How to handle file uploads to a dedicated image server?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/63146/how-to-handle-file-uploads-to-a-dedicated-image-server)
[How to upload a file to a WCF Service?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/51256/how-to-upload-a-file-to-a-wcf-service) | 2008/09/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/148322",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1801/"
] | Since both applications are on the same server this should be straightforward:
* Save the uploaded file somewhere on
the server.
* Create a virtual directory in any
application needing to expose the
files pointing to the physical path.
* Save the virtual path in the db for flexibility | Can I ask why you are not keeping the file in the DB? This would make passing it around much easier. |
148,322 | I have a scenario where I need to upload a file from one web application and use it in another one. My setup is the following.
* One server, hosting two web applications in IIS - both are ASP.NET
* One of the applications is used to administer the other one + a bunch more stuff
* I need to upload a file from this admin app, save the path in DB through the DAL and then access the file from the other web app, which would provide the file for download
* I keep files on disk, only the path in DB
So where and how can I upload the file so that it can be accessed from both web applications? Should I use a service or is there some other way?
Here are some related questions I found, but I don't think they cover my particular scenario:
[How to handle file uploads to a dedicated image server?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/63146/how-to-handle-file-uploads-to-a-dedicated-image-server)
[How to upload a file to a WCF Service?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/51256/how-to-upload-a-file-to-a-wcf-service) | 2008/09/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/148322",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1801/"
] | You could setup a new virtual directory in each application that points to the same folder on your server where you would upload the files to. Lets say you created a new folder on your c: drive called "uploads" i.e. c:\uploads. Then in IIS setup a new virtual directory called "uploads" that points to c:\uploads for each web application. That should give both sites access to the files. | Assuming the file path you put in the DB is accessible from the non-admin web app (which it sounds like it is), the file just needs to go somewhere that both applications have access rights to. Only the admin app would need to have write access.
You can configure what user account an IIS web site will run under Website properties > Directory Security in the IIS management console. Then just make sure to set appropriate directory permissions. |
148,322 | I have a scenario where I need to upload a file from one web application and use it in another one. My setup is the following.
* One server, hosting two web applications in IIS - both are ASP.NET
* One of the applications is used to administer the other one + a bunch more stuff
* I need to upload a file from this admin app, save the path in DB through the DAL and then access the file from the other web app, which would provide the file for download
* I keep files on disk, only the path in DB
So where and how can I upload the file so that it can be accessed from both web applications? Should I use a service or is there some other way?
Here are some related questions I found, but I don't think they cover my particular scenario:
[How to handle file uploads to a dedicated image server?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/63146/how-to-handle-file-uploads-to-a-dedicated-image-server)
[How to upload a file to a WCF Service?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/51256/how-to-upload-a-file-to-a-wcf-service) | 2008/09/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/148322",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1801/"
] | Since both applications are on the same server this should be straightforward:
* Save the uploaded file somewhere on
the server.
* Create a virtual directory in any
application needing to expose the
files pointing to the physical path.
* Save the virtual path in the db for flexibility | You could setup a new virtual directory in each application that points to the same folder on your server where you would upload the files to. Lets say you created a new folder on your c: drive called "uploads" i.e. c:\uploads. Then in IIS setup a new virtual directory called "uploads" that points to c:\uploads for each web application. That should give both sites access to the files. |
148,322 | I have a scenario where I need to upload a file from one web application and use it in another one. My setup is the following.
* One server, hosting two web applications in IIS - both are ASP.NET
* One of the applications is used to administer the other one + a bunch more stuff
* I need to upload a file from this admin app, save the path in DB through the DAL and then access the file from the other web app, which would provide the file for download
* I keep files on disk, only the path in DB
So where and how can I upload the file so that it can be accessed from both web applications? Should I use a service or is there some other way?
Here are some related questions I found, but I don't think they cover my particular scenario:
[How to handle file uploads to a dedicated image server?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/63146/how-to-handle-file-uploads-to-a-dedicated-image-server)
[How to upload a file to a WCF Service?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/51256/how-to-upload-a-file-to-a-wcf-service) | 2008/09/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/148322",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1801/"
] | Since both applications are on the same server this should be straightforward:
* Save the uploaded file somewhere on
the server.
* Create a virtual directory in any
application needing to expose the
files pointing to the physical path.
* Save the virtual path in the db for flexibility | Assuming the file path you put in the DB is accessible from the non-admin web app (which it sounds like it is), the file just needs to go somewhere that both applications have access rights to. Only the admin app would need to have write access.
You can configure what user account an IIS web site will run under Website properties > Directory Security in the IIS management console. Then just make sure to set appropriate directory permissions. |
51,627 | In one of the later episodes of *House Of Cards* Season 3, Remy got pulled over by a police officer for speeding, and when asked for his ID he says he forgot it in his office.
Things get intense between the police officer and Remy and he gets cuffed. When the superior officer arrives, he apologizes to Remy for cuffing him and lets him go without any ticket, but Remy demands that the speeding ticket be issued even though the officer insists.
Any reason why he got worked-up and demanded the ticket? Is it because he seeks revenge on the officer for cuffing him? (Assuming the officer's name is mentioned in the ticket.) Or is he too upset and doesn't want any special treatment?
Note: In the later episodes, the ticket got never mentioned. | 2016/04/12 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/51627",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/8228/"
] | This is a case of two extremes. Remy Danton gets pulled over for speeding but doesn't have his license or registration on him. He asks the cop for a break but becomes a victim of racial profiling and is slammed on the hood of the car. After he tells the officers to "google" him to verify his identity, we see the opposite extreme and he is given special treatment due to his position by being let off the hook. He doesn't want to be judged or given particular treatment be it good or bad. He simply wants to be treated like a normal person like everyone else.
Note this is my own analysis of the scene, I don't have any sources indicating that was the intended purpose of the scene but I think it was simply there for character arc development. | There is a chance he did it for legal purposes. With the speeding ticket written, there has to be a paper trail including the officers names. This can come in useful in case he ever has to raise an issue about racism in the police force or something.
It may actually be a case of an automatic reaction by a lawyer. Remember, Remy is (IIRC correctly) a lawyer. Covering your back like this is something I would consider a reflex for him.
Own assumption - maybe there was a story here that cot scrapped later in editing. The scene itself is not clear. |
51,627 | In one of the later episodes of *House Of Cards* Season 3, Remy got pulled over by a police officer for speeding, and when asked for his ID he says he forgot it in his office.
Things get intense between the police officer and Remy and he gets cuffed. When the superior officer arrives, he apologizes to Remy for cuffing him and lets him go without any ticket, but Remy demands that the speeding ticket be issued even though the officer insists.
Any reason why he got worked-up and demanded the ticket? Is it because he seeks revenge on the officer for cuffing him? (Assuming the officer's name is mentioned in the ticket.) Or is he too upset and doesn't want any special treatment?
Note: In the later episodes, the ticket got never mentioned. | 2016/04/12 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/51627",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/8228/"
] | This is a case of two extremes. Remy Danton gets pulled over for speeding but doesn't have his license or registration on him. He asks the cop for a break but becomes a victim of racial profiling and is slammed on the hood of the car. After he tells the officers to "google" him to verify his identity, we see the opposite extreme and he is given special treatment due to his position by being let off the hook. He doesn't want to be judged or given particular treatment be it good or bad. He simply wants to be treated like a normal person like everyone else.
Note this is my own analysis of the scene, I don't have any sources indicating that was the intended purpose of the scene but I think it was simply there for character arc development. | Peter Russo got in deep with Francis Underwood due to Frank "handling" his problems with the law. My interpretation of the scene was that Remy didn't want someone showing up later telling him he owes Frank or anyone else a favor now. |
51,627 | In one of the later episodes of *House Of Cards* Season 3, Remy got pulled over by a police officer for speeding, and when asked for his ID he says he forgot it in his office.
Things get intense between the police officer and Remy and he gets cuffed. When the superior officer arrives, he apologizes to Remy for cuffing him and lets him go without any ticket, but Remy demands that the speeding ticket be issued even though the officer insists.
Any reason why he got worked-up and demanded the ticket? Is it because he seeks revenge on the officer for cuffing him? (Assuming the officer's name is mentioned in the ticket.) Or is he too upset and doesn't want any special treatment?
Note: In the later episodes, the ticket got never mentioned. | 2016/04/12 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/51627",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/8228/"
] | This is a case of two extremes. Remy Danton gets pulled over for speeding but doesn't have his license or registration on him. He asks the cop for a break but becomes a victim of racial profiling and is slammed on the hood of the car. After he tells the officers to "google" him to verify his identity, we see the opposite extreme and he is given special treatment due to his position by being let off the hook. He doesn't want to be judged or given particular treatment be it good or bad. He simply wants to be treated like a normal person like everyone else.
Note this is my own analysis of the scene, I don't have any sources indicating that was the intended purpose of the scene but I think it was simply there for character arc development. | He most likely plans on getting revenge on the police officer who decided he would abuse and racially profile someone. Unfortunately for the officer, it was the wrong someone and he wants the ticket so he can have the officer's information and can take proper action against him.
This is my opinion as someone who's not naive of racism. |
51,627 | In one of the later episodes of *House Of Cards* Season 3, Remy got pulled over by a police officer for speeding, and when asked for his ID he says he forgot it in his office.
Things get intense between the police officer and Remy and he gets cuffed. When the superior officer arrives, he apologizes to Remy for cuffing him and lets him go without any ticket, but Remy demands that the speeding ticket be issued even though the officer insists.
Any reason why he got worked-up and demanded the ticket? Is it because he seeks revenge on the officer for cuffing him? (Assuming the officer's name is mentioned in the ticket.) Or is he too upset and doesn't want any special treatment?
Note: In the later episodes, the ticket got never mentioned. | 2016/04/12 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/51627",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/8228/"
] | There is a chance he did it for legal purposes. With the speeding ticket written, there has to be a paper trail including the officers names. This can come in useful in case he ever has to raise an issue about racism in the police force or something.
It may actually be a case of an automatic reaction by a lawyer. Remember, Remy is (IIRC correctly) a lawyer. Covering your back like this is something I would consider a reflex for him.
Own assumption - maybe there was a story here that cot scrapped later in editing. The scene itself is not clear. | Peter Russo got in deep with Francis Underwood due to Frank "handling" his problems with the law. My interpretation of the scene was that Remy didn't want someone showing up later telling him he owes Frank or anyone else a favor now. |
51,627 | In one of the later episodes of *House Of Cards* Season 3, Remy got pulled over by a police officer for speeding, and when asked for his ID he says he forgot it in his office.
Things get intense between the police officer and Remy and he gets cuffed. When the superior officer arrives, he apologizes to Remy for cuffing him and lets him go without any ticket, but Remy demands that the speeding ticket be issued even though the officer insists.
Any reason why he got worked-up and demanded the ticket? Is it because he seeks revenge on the officer for cuffing him? (Assuming the officer's name is mentioned in the ticket.) Or is he too upset and doesn't want any special treatment?
Note: In the later episodes, the ticket got never mentioned. | 2016/04/12 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/51627",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/8228/"
] | There is a chance he did it for legal purposes. With the speeding ticket written, there has to be a paper trail including the officers names. This can come in useful in case he ever has to raise an issue about racism in the police force or something.
It may actually be a case of an automatic reaction by a lawyer. Remember, Remy is (IIRC correctly) a lawyer. Covering your back like this is something I would consider a reflex for him.
Own assumption - maybe there was a story here that cot scrapped later in editing. The scene itself is not clear. | He most likely plans on getting revenge on the police officer who decided he would abuse and racially profile someone. Unfortunately for the officer, it was the wrong someone and he wants the ticket so he can have the officer's information and can take proper action against him.
This is my opinion as someone who's not naive of racism. |
51,627 | In one of the later episodes of *House Of Cards* Season 3, Remy got pulled over by a police officer for speeding, and when asked for his ID he says he forgot it in his office.
Things get intense between the police officer and Remy and he gets cuffed. When the superior officer arrives, he apologizes to Remy for cuffing him and lets him go without any ticket, but Remy demands that the speeding ticket be issued even though the officer insists.
Any reason why he got worked-up and demanded the ticket? Is it because he seeks revenge on the officer for cuffing him? (Assuming the officer's name is mentioned in the ticket.) Or is he too upset and doesn't want any special treatment?
Note: In the later episodes, the ticket got never mentioned. | 2016/04/12 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/51627",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/8228/"
] | Peter Russo got in deep with Francis Underwood due to Frank "handling" his problems with the law. My interpretation of the scene was that Remy didn't want someone showing up later telling him he owes Frank or anyone else a favor now. | He most likely plans on getting revenge on the police officer who decided he would abuse and racially profile someone. Unfortunately for the officer, it was the wrong someone and he wants the ticket so he can have the officer's information and can take proper action against him.
This is my opinion as someone who's not naive of racism. |
77,417 | In Matthew 24 there are two themes that run throughout the narrative one is the destruction of Jerusalem/Temple and the other is the coming of the son of man
Matthew 24:1-2
Destruction of Jerusalem/Temple(A)
Matthew 24:3-14
The coming of the son of man (B)
Matthew 24:15-22
Destruction of Jerusalem/Temple (A)
Matthew 24:23-33
Coming of the son of man(B)
Matthew 24:34
Destruction of Jerusalem/Temple(A)
Matthew 24:35-51
Coming of the son of man(B)
Could the above layout be a chiasm or a parallel structure? | 2022/07/16 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/77417",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/16527/"
] | Yes, this is not an uncommon view: Jesus is speaking prophetically of two events, at different points in time, which have some common features between them.
**Parallelism**
Although this would not be a chiasmus (an inverted parallelism), it is a form of parallelism. As noted by Victor Ludlow:
>
> Parallelism is the most distinctive quality of Hebrew poetry...In parallelism, a thought, idea, grammar pattern, or key word of the first line is repeated or continued in the second line. There are two basic types of parallelism, grammatical and semantic (Isaiah: Prophet, Seer, And Poet p. 32)
>
>
>
The parallels here are not grammatical (although there remains the possibility that there were such parallels in the original language), but parallels in meaning. (note that the delineations between which verses in this chapter apply to one event, which apply to the other, and which apply to both, is a matter on which not all readers will agree).
I suggest verse 15 is a good example of a statement that could readily be applied to both the destruction of the temple & the coming of the Son of Man. As noted in the OP, many see in this verse a clear application to Jesus coming in glory & power. However, Daniel's prophecy of the abomination of desolation can also be applied to the cessation of temple ordinances and the destruction of the temple by Titus in AD 70.
--
**Dual Prophecy**
Matthew is employing a technique common in Jewish literature. Hebrew writing frequently makes a "dual prophecy" - that is, the prophet states something that will have a temporal fulfilment and a spiritual fulfilment, or an application in his day and an application at one (or both) comings of the Messiah. Another good example from Ludlow.
>
> Isaiah spoke in such a manner that his words find application and fulfillment in many different ages or events in world history. (see Ludlow Isaiah - Prophet, Seer, and Poet p. 54)
>
>
>
--
**Conclusion**
Although I do not see that this chapter exhibits the characteristic, inverted structure of a chiasmus (e.g. A-B-C-C'-B'-A'), it does appear to make parallels between the Jewish-Roman War which would occur AD 66-73, and the second coming of Christ, which most (but not all) who believe the New Testament see as a still future event. | I tend to say that it is not a chiasm or a parallel structure.
Concernig your thesis:
15-22 may well be linked to the destruction of the Temple because it mentions Judea. However, I do not see a clear reference to the destruction of the Temple in verse 34.
Parting from the hypothesis that the Gospel according to Mark preceeds the presently known edition of the Gospel according to Matthew, Mt is already a composite drawing from different sources.
A 1-2 with Mk/Lk
B 3-8 with Mk/Lk
B 9-14 Mt only
A 15-22 with Mk/Lk
B 23-25 with Mk
B 26+27 Mt only
B 27-28 with Lk
B 29-31 with Mk/Lk (one insert in Mt)
B 32-36 with Mk/Lk
B 37-39 with Lk
B 40-41 with Lk
B 42 with Mk/Lk and Mt25:13
B 43-51 with Lk
Both, the destruction of the Temple and the Coming of Christ is already exposed in Mark. But Mark, after the prophecy of the destruction of the Temple, continues with a passage (13:9-13) that is parallel to Mt 10:17-22, giving advice not to be anxious under prosecution in the near future. This passage ends
>
> But he who endures to the end will be saved.
>
>
>
which in Mk makes the link to the End of time and the final salvation that Jesus (knowing that he does not know) as well as his followers thought to be a near future.
In contrast to Luke, the author of Mt omits this original link and constructs a direct link between the destruction of the Tempel and the coming of Jesus. Some authors see in this a sign that Mt was written shortly after the destruction of the Temple, estimating this would be the first sign of the escatological vision revealed by Jesus. The version of Mk makes much more sense knowing what really happened and that the Temple has been destroyed 1950 years ago but the rest of the prophecy has not been fulfilled so far. |
77,417 | In Matthew 24 there are two themes that run throughout the narrative one is the destruction of Jerusalem/Temple and the other is the coming of the son of man
Matthew 24:1-2
Destruction of Jerusalem/Temple(A)
Matthew 24:3-14
The coming of the son of man (B)
Matthew 24:15-22
Destruction of Jerusalem/Temple (A)
Matthew 24:23-33
Coming of the son of man(B)
Matthew 24:34
Destruction of Jerusalem/Temple(A)
Matthew 24:35-51
Coming of the son of man(B)
Could the above layout be a chiasm or a parallel structure? | 2022/07/16 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/77417",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/16527/"
] | Yes, this is not an uncommon view: Jesus is speaking prophetically of two events, at different points in time, which have some common features between them.
**Parallelism**
Although this would not be a chiasmus (an inverted parallelism), it is a form of parallelism. As noted by Victor Ludlow:
>
> Parallelism is the most distinctive quality of Hebrew poetry...In parallelism, a thought, idea, grammar pattern, or key word of the first line is repeated or continued in the second line. There are two basic types of parallelism, grammatical and semantic (Isaiah: Prophet, Seer, And Poet p. 32)
>
>
>
The parallels here are not grammatical (although there remains the possibility that there were such parallels in the original language), but parallels in meaning. (note that the delineations between which verses in this chapter apply to one event, which apply to the other, and which apply to both, is a matter on which not all readers will agree).
I suggest verse 15 is a good example of a statement that could readily be applied to both the destruction of the temple & the coming of the Son of Man. As noted in the OP, many see in this verse a clear application to Jesus coming in glory & power. However, Daniel's prophecy of the abomination of desolation can also be applied to the cessation of temple ordinances and the destruction of the temple by Titus in AD 70.
--
**Dual Prophecy**
Matthew is employing a technique common in Jewish literature. Hebrew writing frequently makes a "dual prophecy" - that is, the prophet states something that will have a temporal fulfilment and a spiritual fulfilment, or an application in his day and an application at one (or both) comings of the Messiah. Another good example from Ludlow.
>
> Isaiah spoke in such a manner that his words find application and fulfillment in many different ages or events in world history. (see Ludlow Isaiah - Prophet, Seer, and Poet p. 54)
>
>
>
--
**Conclusion**
Although I do not see that this chapter exhibits the characteristic, inverted structure of a chiasmus (e.g. A-B-C-C'-B'-A'), it does appear to make parallels between the Jewish-Roman War which would occur AD 66-73, and the second coming of Christ, which most (but not all) who believe the New Testament see as a still future event. | The OP's proposed analysis of Jesus' sermon in Matt 24 is problematic for two main reasons:
1. It is based on one interpretation, assuming the predictions in Matt 24 are distinct. However, many see most (not all) the predictions as being dual, ie, applying to BOTH the coming of the Son of Man/Messiah AND the destruction of Jerusalem. It is better to analyze a passage based on the language and not the interpretation.
* For example, there were many false christs and false messiahs between Jesus' sermon and the destruction of Jerusalem (V4-13). Therefore, this prediction about false christs, wars, and deceptions applies to both the destruction of Jerusalem and Jesus second coming.
2. It is incomplete because Jesus' sermon actually extends over two chapters of Matt 24, 25.
**Linguistic Analysis of Matt 24:**
* V4-5: Deception
* V6-8: War, Disasters,
* V9, 10:Tribulation,
* V11: Deception, Apostasy, Lawlessness
* V14.:. Gospel Preaching
* V15-20: Abomination of desolation
* V21-23: Tribulation
* V24-26: Deception
* V27-31: Signs of the Coming of the Son of Man
* V32-34: Parable of Fig Tree
* V36-41: Parable/Metaphor of Noah
* V42-44: Parable of the Thief
* V45-51: Parable of the two servants
**APPENDIX - Another Analysis of the Synoptic Apocalypse**
* Introduction: Matt 24:1-3, Mark 13:1, 2, Luke 21:5-7
* Sign #1: False Christs and False prophets, Matt 24:5, 23-28 & Luke 21:28)
* Sign #2: Wars and Rumors of Wars, Matt 24:3-8
* Sign #3: Persecution of the Saints, Luke 21:12-19, Matt 24:9-13
* Sign #4: Worldwide Gospel preaching, Matt 24:14
* Sign #5: Abomination of Desolation, Matt 24:15-22
* Sign #6: Times of the Gentiles, Luke 21:28
* Sign #7: Sun, Moon and Stars, Matt 24:29-31
* Warning Parable #1: Fig Tree, Matt 24:32-35
* Warning Parable #2: Noah & Flood, Matt 24:36-41
* Warning Parable #3: Thief, Matt 24:42-44
* Warning Parable #4: Servant, Matt 24:45-51
* Warning Parable #5: Ten Virgins, Matt 25:1-13
* Warning Parable #6: Talents, Matt 25:14-30
* Warning Parable #7: Sheep and Goats, Matt 25:31-46 |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | There's also the Apache commons Math library:
<http://commons.apache.org/math/>
which has matrices and SVD algorithms. And lots of other useful stuff! | See also Apache Mahout's implementation(s) - <https://cwiki.apache.org/confluence/display/MAHOUT/Dimensional+Reduction> |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | You can use the [Java Native Interface](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Java_Native_Interface) (JNI) to call native code from your java program. It's not too difficult to get set up. | Back when I had to do matrix operations in Java I used [JAMA: A Java Matrix Package](http://math.nist.gov/javanumerics/jama/)
I know it has SVD, but I can't vouch for the efficiency or current status of the package. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | [Colt](http://acs.lbl.gov/~hoschek/colt/) is another Java maths library with matrices and SVD. | Adrian Kuhn and David Erni recently released [SVDLIBJ](http://bender.unibe.ch/svn/codemap/Archive/svdlibj/), which is a pure Java port of SVDLIBC. If you're looking to do a thin SVD (where you only need a few of the most singular values or vectors), this is probably best bet. JAMA, COLT and the Apache Commons Math packages all perform the full SVD.
If you're wanting to use the SVD as a stand-alone program, the S-Space Package also has a command-line tool for using SVDLIBJ just like SVDLIBC, with supports for more matrix formats as well. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | If it's straight C, you could look at [JNA](https://github.com/twall/jna/), which will allow you to call C from java relatively easily.
There's also [JNI](http://docs.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/technotes/guides/jni/) and/or [SWIG](http://www.swig.org/), but they're more involved. | See also Apache Mahout's implementation(s) - <https://cwiki.apache.org/confluence/display/MAHOUT/Dimensional+Reduction> |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | If it's straight C, you could look at [JNA](https://github.com/twall/jna/), which will allow you to call C from java relatively easily.
There's also [JNI](http://docs.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/technotes/guides/jni/) and/or [SWIG](http://www.swig.org/), but they're more involved. | [Colt](http://acs.lbl.gov/~hoschek/colt/) is another Java maths library with matrices and SVD. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | There's also the Apache commons Math library:
<http://commons.apache.org/math/>
which has matrices and SVD algorithms. And lots of other useful stuff! | [Colt](http://acs.lbl.gov/~hoschek/colt/) is another Java maths library with matrices and SVD. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | If it's straight C, you could look at [JNA](https://github.com/twall/jna/), which will allow you to call C from java relatively easily.
There's also [JNI](http://docs.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/technotes/guides/jni/) and/or [SWIG](http://www.swig.org/), but they're more involved. | Back when I had to do matrix operations in Java I used [JAMA: A Java Matrix Package](http://math.nist.gov/javanumerics/jama/)
I know it has SVD, but I can't vouch for the efficiency or current status of the package. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | If it's straight C, you could look at [JNA](https://github.com/twall/jna/), which will allow you to call C from java relatively easily.
There's also [JNI](http://docs.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/technotes/guides/jni/) and/or [SWIG](http://www.swig.org/), but they're more involved. | Adrian Kuhn and David Erni recently released [SVDLIBJ](http://bender.unibe.ch/svn/codemap/Archive/svdlibj/), which is a pure Java port of SVDLIBC. If you're looking to do a thin SVD (where you only need a few of the most singular values or vectors), this is probably best bet. JAMA, COLT and the Apache Commons Math packages all perform the full SVD.
If you're wanting to use the SVD as a stand-alone program, the S-Space Package also has a command-line tool for using SVDLIBJ just like SVDLIBC, with supports for more matrix formats as well. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | There's also the Apache commons Math library:
<http://commons.apache.org/math/>
which has matrices and SVD algorithms. And lots of other useful stuff! | Adrian Kuhn and David Erni recently released [SVDLIBJ](http://bender.unibe.ch/svn/codemap/Archive/svdlibj/), which is a pure Java port of SVDLIBC. If you're looking to do a thin SVD (where you only need a few of the most singular values or vectors), this is probably best bet. JAMA, COLT and the Apache Commons Math packages all perform the full SVD.
If you're wanting to use the SVD as a stand-alone program, the S-Space Package also has a command-line tool for using SVDLIBJ just like SVDLIBC, with supports for more matrix formats as well. |
1,750,463 | I have a SVD library implemented in C. But I want to call its functions in a Java program. Is there a easy way to do that? Or someone please suggest a link for a SVD implementation in Java. | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1750463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/213099/"
] | There's also the Apache commons Math library:
<http://commons.apache.org/math/>
which has matrices and SVD algorithms. And lots of other useful stuff! | You can use the [Java Native Interface](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Java_Native_Interface) (JNI) to call native code from your java program. It's not too difficult to get set up. |
287,871 | I updated to 13.04 from a wubi install 12.04 updated to 12.10 a few days ago but something failed 75% of the way through.
I was able to cancel as I didn't understand the prompt. It said I was running 13.04 but articles like the user accounts were missing.
Upon reboot and now every time I get dual boot option. But hangs with ubuntu and won't boot.
What are my options?
How do I uninstall it or fix it?
I don't need anything saving from ubuntu. I'm happy to wipe everything/ uninstall and try again. I just need Windows untouched as its not my laptop. | 2013/04/29 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/287871",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/153646/"
] | **Summary of the comments as solution**
You have a WUBI installation that was initially 12.04. It was upgraded from within WUBI to 12.10. However, while upgrade to 13.04 the upgrade failed. Now Ubuntu is unbootable. Windows is bootable. There is no valuable data in the Ubuntu.
**Note:** The way WUBI works is cumbersome and prone to breakage. It was meant for short term use to try out Ubuntu. It does not work with newer computers. So it was taken out of 13.04. That is, one cannot do a fresh WUBI install with 13.04. I am not sure if that is the reason your upgrade failed or not. In any case, upgrading WUBI install fails sometimes.
**First,** backup all the important (and not so important) files in Windows. To be safe, make a recovery disk for Windows as well. Even though, nothing should happen, mistakes do happen, power goes off, a cat walks over the keyboard...
**Second,** Uninstall the WUBI version of Ubuntu. Boot Windows and delete the WUBI installation using Add-Remove in the Control Panel. This will remove almost all of Ubuntu except the boot menu choices. The space that you allocated to Ubuntu during WUBI install should be returned to Windows. If after the uninstall disk space is not freed, remove the contents of C:\Ubuntu. See [How do I uninstall Ubuntu Wubi?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/144237/how-do-i-uninstall-ubuntu-wubi) for full description.
**Third,** Install Ubuntu in its own partition as dual-boot with Windows. [See the official documentation on how to install](http://www.ubuntu.com/download/desktop/install-desktop-latest). Make sure in Step 4, you choose "Install Ubuntu alongside Windows." This will keep your Windows installation and all the data in it. This will also make next step (partitioning the hard disk) easy. Also see [How do I install Ubuntu?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/6328/how-do-i-install-ubuntu)
**Finally,** Some of the things may not work in a new install of 13.04 (chrome, Skype). [See 7 things to do after installing Ubuntu 13.4.](http://www.webupd8.org/2013/04/7-things-to-do-after-installing-ubuntu.html) for some help with those.
Best of luck. | I don't know what failed, but easiest way is to boot using LiveDVD or LiveUSB, copy your important files from Ubuntu partition to a safe place and make a clean install (overwriting the current Ubuntu).
But better wait a bit, maybe someone with better ideas will come here and help you. |
31,110,432 | All the objects of a class share the static variable.
But when is the memory allocated for the static variable? Is it when the first object is created for the class? Or does it happen even before any instance for the class is created?
Also instance variable is allocated memory at runtime. The memory for static variable is allocated at runtime or compile time? | 2015/06/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31110432",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2769527/"
] | When the class is loaded, at runtime. You can find the details [here](https://docs.oracle.com/javase/specs/jvms/se7/html/jvms-5.html). | when class loader loads the class, memeory for all static variables will be allocated and this will be done only once |
1,692,241 | I've been assigned to do a project on the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and in particular discuss it's proofs and applications. I was wondering if anyone could recommend books that would aid me in my research? I've searched online and while Wikipedia and other websites are helpful, I feel books would be more helpful in my understanding and research?
Thanks | 2016/03/10 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692241",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/306147/"
] | Stein & Shakarchi's Complex Analysis has a proof of the FTA as a consequence of Liouville's Theorem. | The lovely book [Numbers](http://www.springer.com/gb/book/9780387974972) by Ebbinghaus et al. may be of interest to you. It has a chapter dedicated to the fundamental theorem of algebra. Among many other interesting things, the chapter has an appendix giving Laplace's proof that was vilified by Gauss, but is quite acceptable by modern standards. |
1,692,241 | I've been assigned to do a project on the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and in particular discuss it's proofs and applications. I was wondering if anyone could recommend books that would aid me in my research? I've searched online and while Wikipedia and other websites are helpful, I feel books would be more helpful in my understanding and research?
Thanks | 2016/03/10 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692241",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/306147/"
] | Stein & Shakarchi's Complex Analysis has a proof of the FTA as a consequence of Liouville's Theorem. | Lang's Algebra book has a nice proof using Galois theory, which he attributes to Artin. |
1,692,241 | I've been assigned to do a project on the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and in particular discuss it's proofs and applications. I was wondering if anyone could recommend books that would aid me in my research? I've searched online and while Wikipedia and other websites are helpful, I feel books would be more helpful in my understanding and research?
Thanks | 2016/03/10 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692241",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/306147/"
] | The book [The Fundamental Theorem of Algebra](http://www.springer.com/br/book/9780387946573) by Fine and Rosenberger contains eight proofs with an exposition of the mathematics needed for each proof. Very nice and instructive. | The lovely book [Numbers](http://www.springer.com/gb/book/9780387974972) by Ebbinghaus et al. may be of interest to you. It has a chapter dedicated to the fundamental theorem of algebra. Among many other interesting things, the chapter has an appendix giving Laplace's proof that was vilified by Gauss, but is quite acceptable by modern standards. |
1,692,241 | I've been assigned to do a project on the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and in particular discuss it's proofs and applications. I was wondering if anyone could recommend books that would aid me in my research? I've searched online and while Wikipedia and other websites are helpful, I feel books would be more helpful in my understanding and research?
Thanks | 2016/03/10 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692241",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/306147/"
] | Do watch this 15 minute video. I don't think it is a self standing proof but does offer a somewhat different perspective on things.
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=shEk8sz1oOw>
(P.S. I'd be interested in a reference that does complete a rigorous proof along these lines: I'd anticipate something topological concerning the shrinking of a complex contour). | The lovely book [Numbers](http://www.springer.com/gb/book/9780387974972) by Ebbinghaus et al. may be of interest to you. It has a chapter dedicated to the fundamental theorem of algebra. Among many other interesting things, the chapter has an appendix giving Laplace's proof that was vilified by Gauss, but is quite acceptable by modern standards. |
1,692,241 | I've been assigned to do a project on the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and in particular discuss it's proofs and applications. I was wondering if anyone could recommend books that would aid me in my research? I've searched online and while Wikipedia and other websites are helpful, I feel books would be more helpful in my understanding and research?
Thanks | 2016/03/10 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692241",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/306147/"
] | The book [The Fundamental Theorem of Algebra](http://www.springer.com/br/book/9780387946573) by Fine and Rosenberger contains eight proofs with an exposition of the mathematics needed for each proof. Very nice and instructive. | Lang's Algebra book has a nice proof using Galois theory, which he attributes to Artin. |
1,692,241 | I've been assigned to do a project on the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and in particular discuss it's proofs and applications. I was wondering if anyone could recommend books that would aid me in my research? I've searched online and while Wikipedia and other websites are helpful, I feel books would be more helpful in my understanding and research?
Thanks | 2016/03/10 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1692241",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/306147/"
] | Do watch this 15 minute video. I don't think it is a self standing proof but does offer a somewhat different perspective on things.
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=shEk8sz1oOw>
(P.S. I'd be interested in a reference that does complete a rigorous proof along these lines: I'd anticipate something topological concerning the shrinking of a complex contour). | Lang's Algebra book has a nice proof using Galois theory, which he attributes to Artin. |
38,819 | >
> When Tom won the talent contest, his friends cheered for him.
>
>
>
In this sentence, what is the pronoun that matches the antecedent *Tom*? I suspect it is "him", but can it also be "his" in this case? | 2014/11/07 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/38819",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/11757/"
] | This sentence could be expanded into:
>
> When Tom won the talent contest, Tom's friends cheered for Tom.
>
>
>
Thus both "his" and "him" ultimately refer to "Tom". | The referent of *his* is the implied *Tom's*. |
1,629 | The older Android versions are called "cupcake" and "eclair". Where does 2.2 get it's name from? | 2010/09/27 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/1629",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/483/"
] | It's short for *Fro* zen *Yo* ghurt. I have no idea who came up with the idea to name it after frozen yoghurt though. | They'd all be desserts or sugary goods.
After Gingerbread (2.3) and Honeycomb (3.x) it's rumoured to be Ice Cream - see the pattern? |
1,761,193 | **Hi,**
For my project I m using jquery bulit in photo slide show,jquery code is taking images from array and displaying the images..The problem is I have a lot of images which I don't want to put it in Array(because it need manual effort) instead of that I want to read each image from the folder and display the images. the advantage of doing so is whenever you want to add more images you need to drop it in folder since you are reading images from folder so need not to do any thing in code level.so it makes your work easier and simpler.. so is there any way to achieve the same using javascript?.
Thanks in Adavance. | 2009/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1761193",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/117519/"
] | Javascript being client-side, it's possible to list the content of a server directory with it. You'll need some server side scripting to do that, like PHP.
see [this SO question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1711715/php-script-to-parse-directory-list-all-images-and-add-classlast-to-the-last-i) for an example | I think you should add an `Ajax` request to get the names of file in the directory.
After you can just pass along the array and show only those images in the slideshow. |
120,184 | I am writing my statement of purpose for my Ph.D. and I want to work in a specific field with a specific professor in the department that I am going to apply for and I have a very good experience in this field. I sent an email for that professor asking if he/she is accepting Ph.D. students and he/she did not respond. I built my whole statement of purpose based on my previous achievements and future plan for that specific area. I also mentioned that I am willing to work with that professor. My statement of purpose tells that I am very passionate about this field and I am only willing to work with that professor (if there were more than one professor working on the same area, I would mention all of them). if that professor doesn't accept new Ph.D. students, will I risk my admission to that school?
Will the committee response be something like this: "the applicant really knows what he/she is going to do and there is a specific future plan and he/she also got a good experience in this field, but he/she sounds very strict to his plan and doesn't show any flexibility...REJECTED"? | 2018/11/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/120184",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/13614/"
] | Stating specific professors you want to work with can be a good idea usually I feel. It shows that you have researched the school individually and are not just sending out blanket applications. It also allows for the admissions committee to see a developed idea of what you plan on studying. Whenever I review applications for graduate school, I always like to see that an applicant has given some thought to *what* they actually want to specifically study. Even if their listed topic is not what they end up studying, I can at least see that they are capable of determining a specific research direction.
All of this being said, it can be a bit risky as an applicant to base your entire application on a single professor and topic. You ask the following question:
>
> If that professor doesn't accept new Ph.D. students, will I risk my admission to that school?
>
>
>
The answer to that question is unequivocally "yes." An admissions committee is not likely to accept a student who is extremely rigid in their proposed plan of study if said plan of study will not be feasible. (E.g. saying "I will only work with Dr. McDonald because she is the expert in the field of rubber chickens. This is only topic I am interested in." when Dr. McDonald is not available to take on more students). Departments on the whole do not like students (or professors) who are inflexible in their research (and teaching) goals.
My advice would be to present your first choice professor as just that, your leading choice. I would then also present one or two other options as backup plans of sort.
>
> I am quite interested in doing research on polymer composition of imitation foliage with Dr. Thomas York. His latest paper on the subject is exactly the type of project for which I want to develop a greater ability. Fake plastic trees is a field that I foresee myself enjoying immensely and I believe Dr. York to be one of the principal leaders on the topic. I am also intrigued by the work of Dr. Linda Petrovic and Dr. Ron Bobb on kettle drums. I have taken several classes using kettle drums and would enjoy pursuing research on the sociological implications of taking kettle drums to funerals. Dr Petrovic's work on the topic introduced me to several questions I had never considered before.
>
>
>
You will ultimately need to decide whether it would be better to be admitted to the school of your choice and potentially not study your chosen topic, or to be rejected from the school of your choice and maybe study your chosen topic elsewhere. | If you tell a department that you only want to work with a specific individual professor and, for some reason, that opportunity does not present itself—perhaps the professor does not have funding for you, or is not looking to take on new students, or will be on sabbatical—then it is unlikely that you are going to gain admission, since you've already stated you only want to work with one individual in the program.
You have the right to be limited in what you want to work on—if that's all that you want to do as a graduate student, then make that clear. But you also have to accept that instituting limitations on what you want will have consequences on your ability to gain acceptance to do it. |
91,626 | Would toasting a croissant safe/ by accident with a person no paying attention would the croissant catch fire or would it just burn? | 2018/08/12 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/91626",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/68647/"
] | It's not uncommon for them to catch fire in the conveyor belt toasters common in hotel breakfast buffets. This is because they toast faster than bread, and the process is self-accelerating: the dark (hottest) bits absorb more heat, meaning that they then get very hot, which can ignite the fat, of which there is much more than in bread.
It doesn't help that in those toasters, there's no instant way to stop the process - the element takes a while to cool down after power is removed, and you can't easily extract the scorched bread in time. That's why there are often stern warnings about using them to heat croissants, even though it's perfectly possible to do so with care.
At home, with familiar equipment and your undivided attention, it shouldn't be much trouble, though warming gives a nicer result. | Both.
Croissants have a large amount of fat in it (butter) and lot of thin layers, the external layers will flame up a little bit before burning. |
300,160 | We have 1 TB disk which is almost full(85%). We're going to free up disk space without any impact on application availability with below approach. Please suggest if this approach looks good or there is any other better approach?
1. Create new Drive(H) with new capacity
2. Create new APP\_DB\_NEW database
3. Create tables, stored procedures, indexes etc. in APP\_DB\_NEW database
4. Give all required access to APP\_DB\_NEW database similar to APP\_DB database
5. Stop IIS
6. Rename APP\_DB to APP\_DB\_ARCHIVE and then APP\_DB\_NEW to APP\_DB
7. Start IIS
At #6 application will start writing data to new blank database. Also any idea how much time #6 take to complete. Every month around 200 GB data is being added in database.
We're also looking for suggestion to avoid step #5 | 2021/09/25 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/300160",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/3339/"
] | Just [add another data file](https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/databases/add-data-or-log-files-to-a-database) to the database's primary filegroup on the new drive. SQL Server will write a majority of new data to that file until the two files become equally full. | One option with almost no downtime:
* Mirror the drives using a Windows Dynamic Disk, where the second drive is larger than the original
* Wait for full synchronization
* Detach the original, and delete its volume marked `Missing`
* Extend the volume to fill the whole drive
* Ideally replace the original with a new drive of the same size as your other new one |
341,209 | Even **after** I logout, Facebook still sets 9 cookies, 2 out of those 9 are set to expire 2 years ahead, while the rest expire when I close the browser. I don't like that. I'm using chrome. When I click logout, I want it to clear every cookie belonging to Facebook? How can I achieve this with chrome? | 2011/09/29 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/341209",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/94195/"
] | Go to Preferences, Click 'Under the Hood', Click on 'Content Settings', check the checkbox for 'Clear cookies and other site and plug-in data when I quit my browser'
You'll have to close Chrome after logout though. | One way to do this is with [CCleaner](http://www.piriform.com/CCLEANER). CCleaner is a popular app that deletes temporary files, cookies, browser histories and other junk from your computer. It has an option to whitelist cookies. CCleaner will look in every browser and remove all cookies NOT on this whitelist. I find this feature very useful because my whitelist only includes websites I'm normally logged into (Google, SuperUser, reddit et al). |
341,209 | Even **after** I logout, Facebook still sets 9 cookies, 2 out of those 9 are set to expire 2 years ahead, while the rest expire when I close the browser. I don't like that. I'm using chrome. When I click logout, I want it to clear every cookie belonging to Facebook? How can I achieve this with chrome? | 2011/09/29 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/341209",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/94195/"
] | I suggest using "Incognito Mode" (<http://www.google.com/support/chrome/bin/answer.py?answer=95464>) in Google Chrome. All cookies will be deleted when ending the incognito session that way. | One way to do this is with [CCleaner](http://www.piriform.com/CCLEANER). CCleaner is a popular app that deletes temporary files, cookies, browser histories and other junk from your computer. It has an option to whitelist cookies. CCleaner will look in every browser and remove all cookies NOT on this whitelist. I find this feature very useful because my whitelist only includes websites I'm normally logged into (Google, SuperUser, reddit et al). |
75,953 | When I process pictures in LightRoom (newest, CC 2015.4), I often would like to move the sliders over the maximum (or under the minimum) offered.
This question is specifically about the 'Distortion', which is under 'Lens Correction'/'Manual'. When I compose several shots with 'Photo/Photo Merge/Panorama', the result could use a lot more 'Distortion' correction to get into a good representation, but the slider goes only to +100.
I tried to export into JPG, and then import the resulting JPG as a new shot, and that gives me another +100 to go; but the question is - is there a better way to do that?
I have attached an example that has already +100 'Distortion' and could use another +250 to look good.
with already +100 Distortion:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/T4CMc.jpg)
.
with now +200 Distortion (saved and re-imported)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3Jceh.jpg)
.
You can see that at maybe 350 'Distortion' correction it would look straight. | 2016/03/27 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/75953",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46784/"
] | The way around the limit is to export the image and apply correction to it again. You can do this any number of times to reach 200 or 1000 or more cummalatively. If you use a lossless format such TIFF or DNG (Not sure how Lightroom stores PSDs, most likely that too is lossless) then there should not be any artifacts due to multiple cycles of processing.
Note that it will not correct your image because you are not removing the right type of distortion. What you have is not barrel or pincushion distortion. What you need to do instead is go back and merge the panorma using a perspective projection which for mathematical reasons has a limit on the potential angle-of-view below 180 degrees. Even free tools like MS ICE can do it but also advanced panorama software like Autopano Giga. | Elaborating on your initial approach to export into JPG and continuing with the copy, please note that this will lead to a loss in image quality due to the 8-bit nature of the JPG format – especially if you do this several times in a row.
If you choose to go down this road (and I can't think of any other options for doing this strictly in LR only, since the sliders pretty much stop at 100), I'd suggest to export to a 16-bit format to preserve more of the image quality. Which means exporting to either TIFF or PSD format. |
75,953 | When I process pictures in LightRoom (newest, CC 2015.4), I often would like to move the sliders over the maximum (or under the minimum) offered.
This question is specifically about the 'Distortion', which is under 'Lens Correction'/'Manual'. When I compose several shots with 'Photo/Photo Merge/Panorama', the result could use a lot more 'Distortion' correction to get into a good representation, but the slider goes only to +100.
I tried to export into JPG, and then import the resulting JPG as a new shot, and that gives me another +100 to go; but the question is - is there a better way to do that?
I have attached an example that has already +100 'Distortion' and could use another +250 to look good.
with already +100 Distortion:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/T4CMc.jpg)
.
with now +200 Distortion (saved and re-imported)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3Jceh.jpg)
.
You can see that at maybe 350 'Distortion' correction it would look straight. | 2016/03/27 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/75953",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46784/"
] | You're using the wrong tool to get what you want. The distortion settings in Lightroom are assuming you're using a physical lens, not a virtual one, like you do when shooting a panorama. You've basically blown past the limits of that that setting is meant to do.
What you need is a more sophisticated panorama stitching program that allows for different projections and for perspective correction control points, neither of which the relatively primitive panorama stitcher in Lr/PS can handle.
The main issue you have is that your field of view angle is possibly larger than can necessarily be "mapped flat" without distortion. Only certain projections can deal with some of these much wider angles, and you may have to live with some bending of horizontal lines.
But a panorama stitcher like [Hugin](http://hugin.sourceforge.net) or PTGui can allow you to [set vertical and horizontal control points in the member images](http://hugin.sourceforge.net/tutorials/architectural/en.shtml) to define what should remain vertical or horizontal in the final mapping. And you can use [a number of different mappings](http://hugin.sourceforge.net/docs/manual/Projections.html), such as [Panini](http://hugin.sourceforge.net/docs/manual/The_General_Panini_Projection.html), which can help look less distorted, if a straight-up rectilinear remapping won't work.
For possible shooting technique issues, also see the question: [Correct way to shoot a panorama of large buildings?](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/72444/) | Elaborating on your initial approach to export into JPG and continuing with the copy, please note that this will lead to a loss in image quality due to the 8-bit nature of the JPG format – especially if you do this several times in a row.
If you choose to go down this road (and I can't think of any other options for doing this strictly in LR only, since the sliders pretty much stop at 100), I'd suggest to export to a 16-bit format to preserve more of the image quality. Which means exporting to either TIFF or PSD format. |
619,130 | I have a simple WinCE network application (in C, Win32 APIs). I find that networking doesn't seem to work unless I launch IE (or another network app) first. I assume that IE is setting up my network interface in some way.
How can I do this for myself?
Might I need to display a list of available interfaces to the user (eg. WiFi/Ethernet/3G)?
Thanks. | 2009/03/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/619130",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/74487/"
] | All I know is that Internet Explorer uses [WinInet](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa383630(VS.85).aspx) (wininet.dll) for its networking, and you can too. WinInet is a MS API for working with http and ftp protocols. Many of the settings on the "Internet Options" control panel applet are actually WinInet settings (e.g. for dealing with cookies, setting up proxies on LANs, and autodial on dial-up networks). I'm 99% sure that anything that IE can do, you can do yourself using the API. | If by "network application" you mean sockets, then WinCE definitely does not require IE to launch for that to work. You'll need to provide more specifics about what you're trying to do for a better answer than that. |
619,130 | I have a simple WinCE network application (in C, Win32 APIs). I find that networking doesn't seem to work unless I launch IE (or another network app) first. I assume that IE is setting up my network interface in some way.
How can I do this for myself?
Might I need to display a list of available interfaces to the user (eg. WiFi/Ethernet/3G)?
Thanks. | 2009/03/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/619130",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/74487/"
] | All I know is that Internet Explorer uses [WinInet](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa383630(VS.85).aspx) (wininet.dll) for its networking, and you can too. WinInet is a MS API for working with http and ftp protocols. Many of the settings on the "Internet Options" control panel applet are actually WinInet settings (e.g. for dealing with cookies, setting up proxies on LANs, and autodial on dial-up networks). I'm 99% sure that anything that IE can do, you can do yourself using the API. | You need to establish a network connection first. You can automate the process using the connection manager API:
[Connection Manager](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb840031.aspx)
The user can also raise a data connection manually. |
619,130 | I have a simple WinCE network application (in C, Win32 APIs). I find that networking doesn't seem to work unless I launch IE (or another network app) first. I assume that IE is setting up my network interface in some way.
How can I do this for myself?
Might I need to display a list of available interfaces to the user (eg. WiFi/Ethernet/3G)?
Thanks. | 2009/03/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/619130",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/74487/"
] | If by "network application" you mean sockets, then WinCE definitely does not require IE to launch for that to work. You'll need to provide more specifics about what you're trying to do for a better answer than that. | You need to establish a network connection first. You can automate the process using the connection manager API:
[Connection Manager](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb840031.aspx)
The user can also raise a data connection manually. |
24,852,089 | I'm new to Android development. I'v developed an android application which needs to store the connection/data even after 1 hour. Currently I have all the data and the connections(chromecast mediaplayer) in a singleton class. But, when the user puts the app into the background for about an hour, the activity is destroyed so the connections,data etc are lost causing my app to crash when re-launched.
I've read up on the android services, Can I use these services to hold the singletons so even when the activities are destroyed I can have data binded back to the views when re-launched?
Or is there a way to make sure that the activities are not destroyed when android decides to do a cleanup?
Please advise
Thanks. | 2014/07/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24852089",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/258741/"
] | I think you might misunderstand what an Android application is.
Your application is a bunch of components that run in a single Linux process. Components come and go, within that process. You have absolutely no control over the lifecycle of the process itself.
The answer to part of your question is that "yes" a Service will stick around after an invisible activity is destroyed.
When an Activity becomes invisible, it gets destroyed. If your process is not doing anything else, then the process is likely to be killed too.
If your process is also running a Service, it is less likely that it will be killed. It is just less likely, though. The process *will* eventually get killed. When it does, your singletons will be gone. There is nothing you can do to prevent that. So the answer to the second part of your question is "no". You cannot depend on singletons in your service to be around when the process is relaunched
You might look into using the Application object. Its lifecycle is roughly the same as that of your process. It will not live forever but it will be around whenever any other component of your application is around (except ContentProviders). | Android O.S can destroy any activity , when it is low at resources it destroys any activities to make more space for other apps.
But you can use background service to hold your singleton
[You can use this link to create your background service](http://techblogon.com/simple-android-service-example-code-description-start-stop-service/) |
24,852,089 | I'm new to Android development. I'v developed an android application which needs to store the connection/data even after 1 hour. Currently I have all the data and the connections(chromecast mediaplayer) in a singleton class. But, when the user puts the app into the background for about an hour, the activity is destroyed so the connections,data etc are lost causing my app to crash when re-launched.
I've read up on the android services, Can I use these services to hold the singletons so even when the activities are destroyed I can have data binded back to the views when re-launched?
Or is there a way to make sure that the activities are not destroyed when android decides to do a cleanup?
Please advise
Thanks. | 2014/07/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24852089",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/258741/"
] | It sounds like you want to keep connectivity to a chromecast device around when your application is in the background. Obviously services can be helpful but I have a few comments that may come handy:
* Services can be killed by system but based on how you have set them up (e.g. the return value of onStartCommand()), they can be restarted by the system. When that happens, you cannot expect that your dynamic data is still there (for example your singleton). You need to include logic to recreate what you need again (for example, rebuild your singleton)
* Phone can go to sleep when left for a little while (or user can lock his/her phone), so when phone goes to sleep, wifi may drop after a little while, based on the phone settings and the build on your phone; some do this more aggressively and some not (even if you hold a lock, it can still happen). The point is that you have to assume that it may happen. Even if you have a service, your Cast connection will go down due to wifi loss, so the proper way to handle things is not to try to keep the connection up all the time (since you can't) but is to have logic to re-establish connection when circumstances is right. In order to do that, you need to preserve enough information to be able to bring things to the state that they were. Your logic should also be intelligent enough not to reconnect if it shouldn't. | Android O.S can destroy any activity , when it is low at resources it destroys any activities to make more space for other apps.
But you can use background service to hold your singleton
[You can use this link to create your background service](http://techblogon.com/simple-android-service-example-code-description-start-stop-service/) |
24,852,089 | I'm new to Android development. I'v developed an android application which needs to store the connection/data even after 1 hour. Currently I have all the data and the connections(chromecast mediaplayer) in a singleton class. But, when the user puts the app into the background for about an hour, the activity is destroyed so the connections,data etc are lost causing my app to crash when re-launched.
I've read up on the android services, Can I use these services to hold the singletons so even when the activities are destroyed I can have data binded back to the views when re-launched?
Or is there a way to make sure that the activities are not destroyed when android decides to do a cleanup?
Please advise
Thanks. | 2014/07/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24852089",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/258741/"
] | I think you might misunderstand what an Android application is.
Your application is a bunch of components that run in a single Linux process. Components come and go, within that process. You have absolutely no control over the lifecycle of the process itself.
The answer to part of your question is that "yes" a Service will stick around after an invisible activity is destroyed.
When an Activity becomes invisible, it gets destroyed. If your process is not doing anything else, then the process is likely to be killed too.
If your process is also running a Service, it is less likely that it will be killed. It is just less likely, though. The process *will* eventually get killed. When it does, your singletons will be gone. There is nothing you can do to prevent that. So the answer to the second part of your question is "no". You cannot depend on singletons in your service to be around when the process is relaunched
You might look into using the Application object. Its lifecycle is roughly the same as that of your process. It will not live forever but it will be around whenever any other component of your application is around (except ContentProviders). | It sounds like you want to keep connectivity to a chromecast device around when your application is in the background. Obviously services can be helpful but I have a few comments that may come handy:
* Services can be killed by system but based on how you have set them up (e.g. the return value of onStartCommand()), they can be restarted by the system. When that happens, you cannot expect that your dynamic data is still there (for example your singleton). You need to include logic to recreate what you need again (for example, rebuild your singleton)
* Phone can go to sleep when left for a little while (or user can lock his/her phone), so when phone goes to sleep, wifi may drop after a little while, based on the phone settings and the build on your phone; some do this more aggressively and some not (even if you hold a lock, it can still happen). The point is that you have to assume that it may happen. Even if you have a service, your Cast connection will go down due to wifi loss, so the proper way to handle things is not to try to keep the connection up all the time (since you can't) but is to have logic to re-establish connection when circumstances is right. In order to do that, you need to preserve enough information to be able to bring things to the state that they were. Your logic should also be intelligent enough not to reconnect if it shouldn't. |
74,688 | I'm working on a research project regarding the Bell XS-1, which used the NACA 65-110 airfoil. I haven't been able to find any data on this airfoil, and I'm wondering if anyone knows where I could? | 2020/02/19 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/74688",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46111/"
] | Google "NACA 65-110" and the first entry is [airfoiltools](http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=n64110-il).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ANcCf.jpg) | The NACA airfoils are all designated by a math formula, pop in the variables (65-110) and out comes the shape. 4-digit series 5-digit series and the "6" series are the most popular.(all with standard or modified versions) So all you need is the 6 series formula and a spreadsheet.
The 6 series formula produces what are commonly called laminar-flow or critical-flow designs, they tend to avoid sharp changes in pressure. Laminar flow is only achievable with very smooth construction(no rivets or seams) and good clean flight conditions(bugs and dirt cause much more turbulent flow) However the same basic design due to the mild changes in pressure also have mild changes in local flow speed and so they also work well at increasing the critical mach number which is useful for high-speed subsonic aircraft like the 747-8. (as well as controlling the position of the shockwave when it does form) |
74,688 | I'm working on a research project regarding the Bell XS-1, which used the NACA 65-110 airfoil. I haven't been able to find any data on this airfoil, and I'm wondering if anyone knows where I could? | 2020/02/19 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/74688",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46111/"
] | Google "NACA 65-110" and the first entry is [airfoiltools](http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=n64110-il).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ANcCf.jpg) | **strong text**[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EEHKV.jpg)At this webpage you can find the information about the Naca 65-110 airfoil.
- <http://www.pdas.com/sections6.html> |
92,494 | I'm new to NWoD, I've played a bit of VTM and VTR, but my group is looking to play Werewolf the forsaken, I've read through the book a bit and the shape-shifting section, but didn't find an answer to this. what happens if say, a werewolf is handcuffed, or chained up, or is buried alive, or in a car... and they transform into gauru form and pack on 250 pounds and grow a few feet? Is there some check to see if whatever is restricting them is destroyed? is it destroyed automatically within reason? if its not reasonable, are they unable to transform? or if say, they are wrapped in chain do they attempt to grow, but the chains win and they just turn into werewolf jelly, squeeze through the links of chain before dying and reverting back to human jelly? I know they destroy clothing, but what if they are wearing some type of rigid tough armor?
I ask because I've got some players who love to try and break any system they take part in... if i say they can break out of chains etc... you can bet they'll run off the rails trying exploit this every chance they get. I can see them huddling in doorways or closets and all transforming at once to try and do structure damage.... stick halfway out a man hole and transform to destroy a road, crap like that. | 2017/01/01 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/92494",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/33189/"
] | Use the rules for breaking objects, using the Strength of the new form (+3 for Gauru).
An object with low durability (wooden door with 1 Durability) would break or bend to accomodate the new form of the player, but a object with high durability (reinforced concrete or steel) may not.
Instead of using 'damage to object' (as seem in World of Darkness Core p135), I'd use a simpler rule:
* If the new form Strength is higher than 2 \* (object durability), the object breaks or bends or "makes way" for the Uratha;
* Otherwise, the Uratha takes crushing damage for the difference between the Strength vs Object Durability \* 2. | I'd say it depends on the surrounding material. Obviously a thin rope will simply snap, whereas a 1ft thick solid steel wall on both sides shouldn't budge. As a general rule of thumb I'd say anything the character's strength check is unable to overcome will not budge. The transformation may continue but you'd end up misshapen or crippled, with various implications on movement speed, constitution, strength and dexterity. I'd probably have them take crushing or bludgeoning damage as well, but allow them to shape back to normal without permanent disabilities. That should be enough of a deterrent while still allowing it to be used in legitimate and cool ways. |
92,494 | I'm new to NWoD, I've played a bit of VTM and VTR, but my group is looking to play Werewolf the forsaken, I've read through the book a bit and the shape-shifting section, but didn't find an answer to this. what happens if say, a werewolf is handcuffed, or chained up, or is buried alive, or in a car... and they transform into gauru form and pack on 250 pounds and grow a few feet? Is there some check to see if whatever is restricting them is destroyed? is it destroyed automatically within reason? if its not reasonable, are they unable to transform? or if say, they are wrapped in chain do they attempt to grow, but the chains win and they just turn into werewolf jelly, squeeze through the links of chain before dying and reverting back to human jelly? I know they destroy clothing, but what if they are wearing some type of rigid tough armor?
I ask because I've got some players who love to try and break any system they take part in... if i say they can break out of chains etc... you can bet they'll run off the rails trying exploit this every chance they get. I can see them huddling in doorways or closets and all transforming at once to try and do structure damage.... stick halfway out a man hole and transform to destroy a road, crap like that. | 2017/01/01 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/92494",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/33189/"
] | Use the rules for breaking objects, using the Strength of the new form (+3 for Gauru).
An object with low durability (wooden door with 1 Durability) would break or bend to accomodate the new form of the player, but a object with high durability (reinforced concrete or steel) may not.
Instead of using 'damage to object' (as seem in World of Darkness Core p135), I'd use a simpler rule:
* If the new form Strength is higher than 2 \* (object durability), the object breaks or bends or "makes way" for the Uratha;
* Otherwise, the Uratha takes crushing damage for the difference between the Strength vs Object Durability \* 2. | Considering the transformation in NWoD is a fast process, the surge of physical size and strength would be able to get your players out of tight ropes and maybe weak chains, possibly break a closet door apart. However, if your werewolf doesn't have the physical strength to destroy a road while transformed, it won't be able to "explosively transform" into it. You must also take intent and movement when considering what can or can't be damaged during a transformation. If your PC is trying to break out of confinement while transforming, it adds its strength to the innate property of transforming but a band of werewolves standing transforming into a doorway simply to stand around may just push each other around into a suddenly confined space.
Transforming in exceedingly tight spaces may be painful, lethal or simply impossible but I believe this is left to the narrator's discretion and not ruled anywhere. |
5,074 | What are the preferred use cases for the following sets of terms:
1. Log in / Log out
2. Log on / Log off
3. Sign in / Sign out
4. Sign on / Sign off
From what I can guess, "Logging in" should be used for a long-lived session (like a website), whereas "Sign in" should be for something that you will be attending to (like IM or a financial transaction).
I'm a little fuzzy here... | 2010/09/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/5074",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/2544/"
] | I've always used Login/Logout without the space. I notice that Microsoft is preferential to Sign in/Sign out. | There *isn't* a "proper use." It's all preference. They're all synonyms, as far as the Web At Large is concerned. |
5,074 | What are the preferred use cases for the following sets of terms:
1. Log in / Log out
2. Log on / Log off
3. Sign in / Sign out
4. Sign on / Sign off
From what I can guess, "Logging in" should be used for a long-lived session (like a website), whereas "Sign in" should be for something that you will be attending to (like IM or a financial transaction).
I'm a little fuzzy here... | 2010/09/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/5074",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/2544/"
] | I've always used Login/Logout without the space. I notice that Microsoft is preferential to Sign in/Sign out. | They are all similar, occasionally you might even see Enter / Exit or Start / Stop or ... |
5,074 | What are the preferred use cases for the following sets of terms:
1. Log in / Log out
2. Log on / Log off
3. Sign in / Sign out
4. Sign on / Sign off
From what I can guess, "Logging in" should be used for a long-lived session (like a website), whereas "Sign in" should be for something that you will be attending to (like IM or a financial transaction).
I'm a little fuzzy here... | 2010/09/18 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/5074",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/2544/"
] | I forget where I read it, I think it was the Rails company **Thoughtbot** but the basic idea was to use "Sign" for everything so that there are three actions always:
1. Sign In
2. Sign Out
3. Sign Up
This nomenclature makes sense because the basis for authentication is a logbook, so you "sign in" when you enter and "sign out" when you leave. | They are all similar, occasionally you might even see Enter / Exit or Start / Stop or ... |
50,918 | I want to re-create this **white (metallic)** looking skin.
I've seen some tutorials in a magazine on this. If I remember it correctly, the first step is to adjust the curve to a "W" shape. I don't remember the remaining steps.
I would like the highlights and dark reflections to be as realistic as possible.
Photo By Denis Kushnarenko
---
---
this is my work but its not perfect.
Here’s the original unretouched shot, which you can download in the Chapter 7 archive on the [kelbytraining.com](http://www.kelbytraining.com/books/retouching/) site. | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/50918",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/40478/"
] | Here is a very simple approach. But we need to consider some things first.
**a)** You need to start from a good image from the beginning, which in my opinion must have some characteristics similar to the ones you want in the final image. Highlights and hi key tone.
**b)** Try to work with 16-bit images because it has strong manipulation.
Sayed that here is my approach.
### 1. Starting image
Here is the starting point. It has a little oily or wet skin. This is very important because will be the highlights. If your photo does not have them use some painting and dodge to come to the basic highlights you need.
**If you need a hi key image your source image will need to be like that**.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Y4KKb.png)
### 2. Smooth the skin
I used a simple "smart defocus" on Photopaint. The point is to make the face "over smooth" But use the technique you want.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SzctW.png)
### 3. Black and white
Not much to say here.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HMQMJ.png)
### 4. The curves
Here is the trick. The highlights on a metallic surface is blown up (B).
I added some extra nodes just to anchor the rest of the tone curve to make it look similar to the original look (A).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ll3vm.png)
That is it.
### 5. Extra step
This is just an extra to get closer to your example.
Again. I'm starting from the idea that your original photo should be high key already. But you can play with the curves.
Try to maintain a straight line to maintain the relationship with the highlights and the image (C).
Keep some dark areas to maintain some realistic shadows (D).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zdRbb.png)
This are just rough ideas to understand the metallic texture of objects (Not polished). But of course you need to do a more detailed work starting with the makeup, illumination, exposure, post, etc.
**RGB Channels**
You Can use this command for better result in step 2 : **Ctrl+3** (Red Channel)
---
Edited some time later.
An alternative technique
------------------------
As some people want the metallic skin look on color images I am updating a similar technique, which I turned to like more, because you now can control the amount of "reflection" independently of the image.
**A)** Make a new layer on top and desaturate it.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RO8js.png)
**B)** Change the blending mode to "Screen".
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DYJb1.png)
**C)** Now play with the curves. The idea is to make almost everything black on that layer, so you do not modify the overall image, but you suddenly blow the light parts of the image. (D)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0pQxO.png)
You could play with different blending modes and opacities. In Corel Draw, that blending mode is Add.
Also, you can mask the parts you do not need to be metallic. | As Ryan mentioned in his comment, this would take a step by step tutorial and it will be very specific for the image you are using but here are some things to consider.
Take a look at these swatches for 3D materials.
[original source](http://james-havoc.deviantart.com/art/Vray-metal-test-materials-71607510)
You will notice that the more defined the highlights are the more metallic the sphere looks. The third one on the top would be the beginning of the spectrum, where it is sort of polished, bit still quite rough. You can see a lot of the colour of the sphere and the volume shadows but the environment is reflected in sort of a blurry way. The one that looks like polished chrome (bottom right) will be the end of the spectrum, being extremely polished. You almost can't see the colour or the sphere itself but only the reflected environment.
Bottom line, what tells our brain that the object is metallic is that
* It reflects the environment
* The highlights (or any reflection) are extremely defined
The whole idea of manipulating a photograph to make the skin look metallic would be to imitate this. You can try to achieve this effects with curves alone on a single layer, but that, depending on the image, takes a lot of fine tweaking.
What I would suggest is that, after you are done the general curve work and the image looks sort of on the metallic side, you do this.
1. Duplicate the layer. Make sure it sits on top of your original
layer.
2. Play with levels and curves on the new layer to make it lighter and with more contrast so the highlights look like they have more
definition. How much you exaggerate this will indicate how "shiny"
and "smooth" the skin will look.
3. Add a mask filled with black to cover the layer completely.
4. Using a soft brush and painting in white over the mask start adding highlights to your original image. The softer the brush, the
less smooth it will look.
Now, if you are looking for an extreme chrome look you will have to add also dark reflections, like in the bottom right sphere. You can follow the same steps but instead of using curves to over expose the highlights, focus on defining the dark areas of the image. Or you could draw dark shapes that follow the volume of the shapes in the photograph suggesting reflections of objects in front of the image.
Sometimes, depending on the image, you can achieve the highlights and dark reflections in one single layer, just playing with the curves. I find that making them two different layers, though (one for highlights and one for dark reflections) gives me extra control. |
104,191 | Recently, a recruiter from my dream company reached out for an interview.
I showed my interest and he responded with two emails 3 days back, one with an online programming test and the other asking for things like the reason for the change, current salary, and expected salary etc.
I attempted the online interview test and it didn't go well. I did it half correct. I haven't replied to the other email yet.
What can I do to salvage the situation after that bad test attempt? Is it professional to write an email with salary expectations (asked in the other mail), which are in the upper range of the company, when I was not able to perform well in the test? | 2017/12/16 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/104191",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/25146/"
] | The recruiter made two requests of you: take this test, and answer these questions. The poor test result might doom your application, but you have an opportunity left to make a positive impression regardless. If you don't respond you won't get the job -- not only did you do poorly on the test but you failed to follow through on the other part. It sounds like you want this job, so why not spend a little time on a response instead?
Answer his questions. Acknowledge the test score and, if you can do it without making excuses or lying, say in a sentence or two why you hope he'll still consider your application. Maybe you have some specialized skill that is interesting to them, for example.
Don't burn bridges with someone who can affect your prospects (not just now but if you should re-apply in a year or two). Not answering his questions is burning bridges. As long as you're answering anyway, do any *credible* damage-control that you can. It can't hurt and it might help. | >
> Should I revert back to the interviewer with the details asked in
> other email or wait for the interviewer to come back or forget about
> the company?
>
>
>
If you blew the programming test, then *I would consider this position dead and buried.* If you're actively looking for other work, I would continue to apply for other positions as you see them.
The best piece of advice I can give you is that it is almost always easier to find a job **while you're employed** and to keep applying for positions that interest you until you have a written offer and have met all the conditions included in it. |
82,559 | This is more of a history of science question, but I hope it's on-topic here.
I've read that Thomas Bayes only managed to discover Bayes' theorem for the special case of a uniform prior, and even then he struggled with it, apparently.
Considering how trivial the general Bayes' theorem is in modern treatment, why did it present a challenge for Bayes and other mathematicians at the time? For comparison, Isaac Newton's Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica was published 36 years before Bayes' main work, which was published posthumously. | 2014/01/17 | [
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/82559",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/35791/"
] | Bayes' paper† begins:–
>
> *Given* the number of times in which an unknown event has happened and failed: *Required* the chance that the probability of its happening in a single trial lies somewhere between any two degrees of probability that can be named.
>
>
>
Coming up with the theorem that now bears his name may not have been the most challenging part, nor his primary concern; rather he struggled with applying it to the problem of inference, & especially with justifying the assumption of a particular prior probability distribution. Argumentation on these issues continues into the 21st Century.
† [Bayes (1763), "An Essay towards solving a Problem in the Doctrine
of Chances", *Philosophical Transactions of the Royal Society of London* **53**, pp370–418.](https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/abs/10.1098/rstl.1763.0053) | Because everything is better understood now after great efforts by many people. As a result of that, it is much easier to teach these concepts in an understandable, intuitive manner. Imagine that you only know what was known at that time, instead of everything you've learnt now.
You can think of it as a puzzle: the more pieces are in place the easier it is to solve the remainder. The comparison may be a stretch, but discovering fire was no trivial matter either at the time it happened even if it may seem like one now. |
200,876 | So basically I have a tethered reboot iOS 6.1.4 on my iPhone 4. Recently the Home button broke and now I'm unable to put it into DFU Mode to turn it on. Is there a way I can put it in DFU Mode, or maybe get iTunes to install the latest iOS on it? I just need it to turn on again so I can listen to music. | 2015/08/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/200876",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/141995/"
] | If the home button is non-functional, and the device requires a working home button to even power up, then it seems you're in a chicken-egg situation. There is of course software that lets you remap some other button or UI action to correspond to the home button, but if you can't get the thing turned on you're out of that realm.
I suppose you could open it up and try shorting the contacts of the home button assembly, but once you're that far into it you may as well just replace the home button or the front panel. The home button replacement part is only a few bucks, and the whole front panel is under $20 [in the US]. | Repair the home button seems the cheapest solution.
With the digitizer working, OS working and you have accessibility enabled, you could use software to simulate a home button press.
With root ssh access, you might have other avenues due to being jailbroken, but for most people, needing DFU and a broken home button is game over - get a new device time. |
47,845,602 | I know that by sending a http post request to <http://host:port/shutdown>, we can shutdown a Springboot application. Is it possible to restart the whole springboot application by sending a http request in a production environment? So we don't need to login in the server to do that. Thank you. | 2017/12/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/47845602",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6215819/"
] | I don't think such a thing exists, I'll be glad to be proven otherwise:
Spring boot doesn't do any assumptions about the environment it runs in. So when spring boot process gets shut down, re-starting it again is "out of competence" of spring boot infrastructure which is just a bunch of java classes running inside a JVM process.
You can find [Here](https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/production-ready-endpoints.html) a list of endpoints exposed by the spring boot. There is a "shutdown" method that you've mentioned there, but there is no "restart" functionality exposed.
Now there are other techniques that probably can help:
If the application gets shut down because of some illegal state of some spring bean, maybe it makes sense to expose some endpoint that will "clean up" the state and make application operational again. If the application has to be restarted due to changes in configuration files or something, then you might want to consider using spring cloud's [Refresh Scope for Beans](http://cloud.spring.io/spring-cloud-static/docs/1.0.x/spring-cloud.html#_refresh_scope). It's kind of hard to provide more information here, because you haven't mentioned the reason for shutting down the application, but I guess you've got the direction.
Having said that, there are probably some different ways to achieve what you want depending on the environment your application runs in:
* If you're running in AWS for example, you can take advantage of their autoscaling policies, shut down the application remotely and AWS will run another instance for you. I'm not an expert in AWS, but I saw this working in ECS for example.
* If you're running "java -jar" just on some server and want to make sure that when your process ends (by using 'shutdown') it should be started again, its possible to use some kind of wrapper that would wrap the process in service and track the service availability. There are even ready solutions for this, like [Tanuki wrapper](https://wrapper.tanukisoftware.com/doc/english/download.jsp) (I'm not affiliated with this product but used once its free version and it served us great)
* If you're using Docker infrastructure you can change the policy and restart the container automatically when it gets shut down, I haven't used this by myself, but according to [This excellent blog post](https://blog.codeship.com/ensuring-containers-are-always-running-with-dockers-restart-policy/) is perfectly doable. | You should look at [Spring boot jenkins](https://github.com/rcoli/spring-boot-jenkins/blob/master/README.md) You will also find a small article explaining how to configure the project on jenkins. |
67,816 | Both books came out in the last 10-15 years or so (late 90's early 2000's) and both were written by the same female author (this is why I've listed both here under a single question).
The first book (told in first person) is about **Gilgamesh** (the name Gilgamesh is not in the book title) and he tells his story from when he was a child far in the past and continues to the present day and then into the far future when the earth has been swallowed by the sun and he is just a disembodied mind.
The second is about **Lilith** (name Lilith is again not in the book title) and on this one I'm much more vague on the overall story, sorry. I believe that this one is also told in the first person.
From what I remember, the books aren't connected as part of a series, they are both single self contained novels.
I got both books from the library (I read the Gilgamesh one first and liked it, so I looked for more by that author and found the Lilith one) in the past 10 years and neither book was very old when I got them. A search online just gets me books with Gilgamesh and Lilith in the titles. | 2014/09/16 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/67816",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/11952/"
] | This answer only fits some parts of your question, but Janet Morris had a multi-author series involving a bunch of heroes, including Gilgamesh. The series was called *[Heroes in Hell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heroes_in_Hell)*. It included the Hugo Award winning story [Gilgamesh in the Outback](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gilgamesh_in_the_Outback) by Robert Silverberg.
So..female author, about Gilgamesh, came out in 1986. I can't confirm that Lilith is in there though. Also, you said non-series, which does not fit my answer. | Not sure about Gilgamesh, but the English author Tanith Lee certainly wrote a book called "Lilith" |
67,816 | Both books came out in the last 10-15 years or so (late 90's early 2000's) and both were written by the same female author (this is why I've listed both here under a single question).
The first book (told in first person) is about **Gilgamesh** (the name Gilgamesh is not in the book title) and he tells his story from when he was a child far in the past and continues to the present day and then into the far future when the earth has been swallowed by the sun and he is just a disembodied mind.
The second is about **Lilith** (name Lilith is again not in the book title) and on this one I'm much more vague on the overall story, sorry. I believe that this one is also told in the first person.
From what I remember, the books aren't connected as part of a series, they are both single self contained novels.
I got both books from the library (I read the Gilgamesh one first and liked it, so I looked for more by that author and found the Lilith one) in the past 10 years and neither book was very old when I got them. A search online just gets me books with Gilgamesh and Lilith in the titles. | 2014/09/16 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/67816",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/11952/"
] | Well Organic Marble has guided in the right track. The answer is Janet Morris's (writer and or editor) books.
Janet Morris' s [Heroes In Hell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heroes_in_Hell) project is a shared world premise of all mythical heroes and heroines. Gilgamesh is one of the many important characters in it. So is Lilith.
>
> Gilgamesh stars in - **"Rebels in Hell"** anthology. As showcased by Organic
> Marble, **Gilgamesh in the Outback** by **Robert Silverberg**. Reference link of [wiki](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gilgamesh_in_the_Outback) for your reference.
>
>
> Lilith stars in - **"Poets in Hell"** anthology. **When You Gaze Into an Abyss** by **Matthew
> Kirshenblatt**. You can refer to the authors page [here](https://matthewkirshenblatt.wordpress.com/tag/when-you-gaze-into-an-abyss/).
>
>
>
So in reality it is a multi author project headed by Janet Morris, who in fact is the editor. So the books have her name as titled *"Created By"*. All the books are self contained, separate novels and anthologies, just sharing the same universe.
The cover of the book Poets in Hell is given below --  | Not sure about Gilgamesh, but the English author Tanith Lee certainly wrote a book called "Lilith" |
62,440 | I'm about at the point where I need my clutch replaced. From what I've seen, a performance clutch has a more aggressive, synthetic friction material which can handle the higher temperatures of high performance driving.
I understand a performance clutch will be more difficult to use, and I'm not afraid of the learning curve involved in doing so, that's a disadvantage I'm willing to live with.
Will I realistically be able to get a longer life out of a clutch if I go with a performance (six-puck/four puck) over a standard OEM part?
Vehicle is a toyota matrix (base) with 150km on it. I would like this to be the last clutch (I think I'm replacing the original) and I'd like to push the car to ~300km | 2019/01/03 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/62440",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/41005/"
] | I had the same problem with an Oldsmobile long ago. It would run all day at 55 mph , but would overheat quickly at 60+. It was a bad seal on the water pump . At high speed it leaked behind the fan and atomized the water so there was no sign of a leak except the radiator was low. I replaced the pump and it ran fine for years. | This won't fit in the comments, so:
A cracked radiator absolutely needs to be replaced, but it won't cause overheating until you're *very* low on coolant. BUT, that - losing a lot of coolant - can happen very quickly. I once trashed an engine due to a slightly-oversized hose clamp. It was probably leaking less than a cracked radiator would.
Now, on to cooling:
When you are at idle - say, sitting at a traffic light - the fans blow air through the radiator. Through the magic of heat exchange, the air flowing through the radiator absorbs heat from the engine coolant in the radiator, and your engine stays at a sane temperature.
At speed, the fan is ineffective for many reasons. The front end (and bottom of the front of the car) typically have big plastic pieces that act like a sort of funnel, sending air through the radiator. Since the fans aren't effective, you need this funnel / deflector / shroud system to keep things from overheating. Depending on the car, this may or may not involve shrouding and baffles that send air in the correct direction.
OR:
At higher RPMs, for an extended period of time, the engine is (duh) working harder and small internal leaks that might not otherwise present symptoms can become an issue.
I would:
* Look under the front end of the car and see if anything is missing. Google for images of the front and bottom of your car for comparison.
* Drain the oil, and look for coolant. If the oil isn't amber / honey-colored, brown or black, you have an internal leak that MUST be fixed IMMEDIATELY, or you're going to buy a new engine or a new car. If you see anything that looks greenish, you're looking at a bad head gasket or a cracked head or block.
* Make sure that you have the AC off when doing a test drive. A problematic AC system can put a severe load on the engine, and lead to other issues - especially on a 23 year old car.
I might also do a coolant system pressure test and check for leaks, and a compression test. |
198,576 | Which preposition should below sentence use and why?
In the given chart, we can observe cellular phone sales for four companies OR
In the given chart, we can observe cellular phone sales of four companies. | 2019/02/28 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/198576",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/90572/"
] | Both sentences are correct, but the second sentence has a mistake in it. If you want to use "of", you need to add "the":
>
> In the given chart, we can observe **the** cellular phone sales of four companies.
>
>
>
If you want to improve these sentences further in terms of style, you might want to change "In the given chart, we can observe ..." to "The given chart shows ...." This is less wordy and therefore stronger.
Also, stylistically, "The given chart" sounds slightly awkward to my ear. "The chart below," "The chart above," or "The attached chart" would be better. I would therefore recommend:
>
> The chart below shows cellular phone sales for four companies.
>
>
>
or:
>
> The chart below shows the cellular phone sales of four companies.
>
>
>
I have a slight preference for the latter, since there is some ambiguity in the former as to who is doing the selling. | Your first example is acceptable and quite common, with 'for' meaning 'with respect to' or 'concerning'.
Your second example is more correct, with 'of' meaning 'relating to' or 'belonging to'. |
8,564 | The base question of the problem is [here](https://crafts.stackexchange.com/questions/8563/strong-thin-rope-for-kite). Another related question [here](https://crafts.stackexchange.com/questions/8565/how-to-make-kite-line-more-visible).
Additional to the material of the rope, I also need to be able to deal with the said rope when lowering the kite, when the fun gets to an end.
Rolling a few tens or hundreds of meters by hand, might be doable. Rolling a few kilometers of rope by hand, should be a serious physical challenge, I guess.
Additional to the rolling itself, some actual force might be needed to lower the kite, as it might not want to come down. Which complicates the problem even more.
Of course, one solution is to have an entire team of people on the problem - which is far from what I have in mind.
The other solution is to have some kind of help (mechanism?) to help me deal with the problem.
---
I had an idea about using the wheel of the car for this purpose (actually, one of the powered wheels, still attached to the car), but it has several drawbacks. The main con reason is safety related - it is plain dangerous. Also, the car might not be allowed at the site of fun.
I also amused myself trying to find a way to use an accumulator-powered electric screw-driver. The main issue is that it is asymmetrical, the screwdriver being on only one side. And will the accumulator have enough energy? It seems that at least 2 people would be needed in this case also.
---
Having an entire setup with combustion engines and gears is cool (and more suitable for the Engineering site), but I had in mind something more like "crafting hack". That is why I added the question here. It also does not really fit in the Lifehacks site, unfortunately. | 2020/09/23 | [
"https://crafts.stackexchange.com/questions/8564",
"https://crafts.stackexchange.com",
"https://crafts.stackexchange.com/users/6715/"
] | It appears from your question development that you are considering something other than the typical "children's" kite in your project.
Your additional information indicates that the aforementioned Spectra line would be a good choice. Light weight, low volume.
My use of the line was for a tow system to launch paraglider and pilot to about two thousand feet AGL. 700 pound test was sufficient to do so and about five thousand feet of line was needed, as the winch pulled in line as the paraglider and pilot climbed.
The winch was constructed from a Yamaha motor scooter, one with an automatic transmission, which adjusted for the load by reducing the internal gear ratio. The rear wheel was removed and flanges were added to convert it to a winch drum. This is not too far off from your thought of using an automobile, although it was easier to move a trailer with the scooter mounted.
Critical to the design was a fairlead to ensure that the line was pulled straight from the drum and returned in a straight line during retrieval.
You will want to consider the winch drum as your start point and build from there. Bearings, axle, support members all will attend to the one-sided aspect of power. If the magnitude of your project is as great as it seems, you will not have sufficient power to retract a kite by using an electric screw driver.
There are many electric bike kits on the market and you may be able to use a higher powered motor from one of those. A number of benefits also apply in that you'd have a controller plus the bearings and axle incorporated in the design. A sturdy frame, perhaps more sturdy than a conventional bicycle would provide the support members.
The rim could be supplemented by flanges turning it into a winch drum of substantial diameter. It may be necessary to use a gearing system from a motor in order to get sufficient torque to retrieve a kite under some high wind conditions.
Note also that wind gradient is a factor for high flying kites. You may have light to moderate wind at ground level, but as altitude is gained, the kite will experience much higher levels of wind. This is caused by the reduction of friction with the ground as one gains altitude. | Maybe add info about how big "kite" you have in mind to your question.
As it might come like kid's version, less then 1 square meter and single thin rope or fishing line would be enough as it's power would not be enough to lift you off the ground.
Or it could be something like wing glider where there 4 ropes to fully control it, few square meters of the "sail"/surface and so it can drag or lift you with no problem. That's what came to my mind when you mentioned car wheel and I realized your idea of "kite" might be significantly different from mine.
Therefore solutions will differ for various sizes.
For smaller kites I had in mind mentioned fishing lines, and they come on spool, so use that, make a U shaped holder for it on central axel protruding from holder. Then on bottom of the U you can add anchor point so you might use "panic" carabiner (those for horses) to attach the rope to your belt or use rock climbing harness. So you'll have it hands free, but in case of strong wind you'll not get dragged by kite and can disengage quickly via that panic-carabiner.
then both sides of the axel might have cranking handles to roll the spool by both of your hands, or the axel might be hex for better grip and you can use some help from aku drill or similar tool to speed up rope/kite retrieval.
That's the setup I have in mind for my next big kite. At the moment I'm rolling those fishing nylon lines manually and hold them in hand, but kites are small so I can handle them.
Unfortunately I have no idea about kite size where I would need to use wheel of my car to pull it back. |
13,584 | The title says it all. We have a [Corian countertop](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corian). One of the selling points of this type of counter is that it is supposedly easy to fix minor flaws in it, but there seems to be [little information on the net](https://www.google.com/search?q=refinishing+a+corian+countertop) about how to go about it.
A few years back my wife put a hot pan on it and discolored the surface. I have tried sanding the surface down with sandpaper (start rough and then moving on to finer grits), but it only slightly improves the look. Are their any tricks that I am missing? | 2012/04/12 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/13584",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/141/"
] | Some serious buffing is required. Not just of the burn area.. but you'll need to buff the nearby surrounding areas as well.
Two options:
1. do it yourself cautious: experiment with automobile "rubbing compound" on it.. if it works on a small area, expand to the entire area.
2. do it yourself confident: sand with 800 to 1000 grit sand paper.. if it works on a small area, expand to the entire area.
3. hire someone: a corian professional
I do #3 in good times, #2 in bad. Good luck. | I used pledge for the minor abrasions and it did help |
46,611 | Another question but slightly different than the one [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/46563/case-of-a-prophet-revered-person-in-the-quran-that-says-alhamdullillah/46570?noredirect=1#comment78103_46570)
Is there any case (narration) in the Quran of a Revered (Real) Person / Prophet who essentially is thanking Allah SWT ( or Alhamdulillah) for protecting him / her or for his protection against any kind of harm?
Note: it doesn't matter here whether is immediately after an incident or not. | 2018/03/15 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/46611",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/24427/"
] | First your new question has a smooth transition to your last one therefore some of my quotes may more apply to your earlier question and some may apply to both and some may more likely be a good answer on your actual question.
I think there's also a smooth transition to supplication, as thanking Allah or doing suplication are both a kind of remembrance of Allah.
Secondly note that thanking can be expressed by many things for example the mother of Mariam () expressed her thankfulness for the birth of her -female- child by seeking refuge for her (daughter) in Allah from the Shaytan:
>
> But when she delivered her, she said, "My Lord, I have delivered a female." And Allah was most knowing of what she delivered, "And the male is not like the female. And I have named her Mary, and I seek refuge for her in You and [for] her descendants from Satan, the expelled [from the mercy of Allah ]." ([3:36](http://legacy.quran.com/3/36))
>
>
>
One could say that she thanked Allah for her child and asked Allah to protect it from any harm, as he protected her during the pregnancy.
The Qur'an also invites us to be thankful for having parents (etc.) in ([31:14](http://legacy.quran.com/31/12)) and being born ([16:78](http://legacy.quran.com/16/78)).
Allah () also asked our Prophet () and his companions () to be thankful after the battle of badr:
>
> And already had Allah given you victory at [the battle of] Badr while you were few in number. Then fear Allah ; perhaps you will be grateful. ([3:123](http://legacy.quran.com/3/123))
>
>
>
One could say the same about the battle of Hunain ([9:25-27](http://legacy.quran.com/9/25-27)).
Thankfulness can be expressed by a prostration or maybe generally by a worship or good deed like in the story of Dawod() ([38:21-25](http://legacy.quran.com/38/21-25)) (this could also be used as an example for [Case of a Prophet / Revered Person in the Quran that says Alhamdullillah](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/46563/case-of-a-prophet-revered-person-in-the-quran-that-says-alhamdullillah)?)
One could here add parts of the story of Yusuf () who has been saved from the well, then saved (or guided by Allah) from committing the sin of zina and therefore preferred to be arrested instead (And asked Allah to protect him from zina by imprisonment ([12:33](http://legacy.quran.com/12/33)) and after all Allah brought him together with his family and they expressed their thankfulness in ([12:100-101](http://legacy.quran.com/12/100-101)) because of Allah's protection and gifts over them.
One could also add Ayyub ().
>
> And [mention] Job, when he called to his Lord, "Indeed, adversity has touched me, and you are the Most Merciful of the merciful." ([21:83](http://legacy.quran.com/21/83))
>
>
>
And Nuh ([23:28](http://legacy.quran.com/23/28))
Some other possible evidences is the reaction of Shu'aib and those who believed him who sought refuge by Allah when the eminent ones wanted to expulse them ([7:85-93](http://legacy.quran.com/7/85-93)).
And Musa () who fled from Pharaoh to Madyan in first place asked Allah to forgive him for having kiled a soul, then refused to assist criminals (Pharaoh), the to save him (from Pharaoh), then to guide him (once in Madyan) then after witnessing what happened at the well he expressed his need of Allah's gift (this final supplication is recommended for those people who seek marriage) ([28:14-24](http://legacy.quran.com/28/14-24)). | There is an implied mention of Noah ﷺ saying so after mounting his vessel prior to the flooding as commanded by Allah:
>
> فَإِذَا اسْتَوَيْتَ أَنتَ وَمَن مَّعَكَ عَلَى الْفُلْكِ فَقُلِ الْحَمْدُ لِلَّهِ الَّذِي نَجَّانَا مِنَ الْقَوْمِ الظَّالِمِينَ
>
>
> And when you have boarded the ship, you and those with you, then say, 'Praise to Allah who has saved us from the wrongdoing people.'
>
>
> — [Surat Al-Mu'minun [23:28]](https://quran.com/23/28)
>
>
>
The verse does not say explicitly that he did, but it is implied as Noah ﷺ obeyed Allah's commands. He obeyed Him building a ship in the middle of the desert and obeyed Him in all the preparations leading to this perilous journey. It is thus implied that as Noah ﷺ saw Allah's promise of the flooding with his own eyes that he would have followed His command in saying "Praise to Allah ...". |
26,836 | What would be the necessary steps to make Jerusalem an independent country like the Vatican City State? And is this even feasible? | 2017/12/13 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/26836",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/7653/"
] | For a country to be considered an Independent State it should
1. Start acting like an independent state.
2. Get other countries to treat it like an independent state.
The history of the Vatican state is complex. Throughout the Medieval and Early Modern period, the Pope was "king" over quite a large part of Italy. So there had been a "State" ruled by the Pope for a long time. These lands were seized by Italian Nationalists in the 19th century, but the Italians agreed to allow the Pope to control a small amount of land around the Vatican. The Pope continued to be ruler of this parcel of land. The Vatican acted like an independent state, and the Italians, and other nations treated it like one. It's status is recognized by the International community.
For Jerusalem to become an independent state, the various groups that claim it would have to agree, since an Independent Jerusalem would be too small to defend itself against its neighbours.
However this does not seem feasible. When Italy agreed to allow the Pope to keep an independent city-state, it was in the context of a single Catholic country. For both Israel and the Palestinean Authority to choose to give up what they both claim as their capital seems far-fetched. While it *could* happen in the context of a wider peace agreement, there is no sign that either side is currently willing to give up its capital city. | I have to admit that the idea is somewhat intriguing.
The main problem I can see rightaway is that who will "own" it ? The Jews, the Christians, the Muslims, all 3 of them ? have a Triumvirate or have it under international (UN) jurisdiction?
And how will that solve the Israel/Palestine problem ?
They will continue to fight over territories (among other stuff). |
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