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164,613 | For a long time I was thinking about a quite abstract game design problem, to which I didn't see a good solution yet. In abstract: How can a player have owned bases, units and infrastructure in a persistent multiplayer world, which can be interacted or attacked by other players, all the while the owning player may be offline and unable to give his input?
As a concrete example:
Assume you have a very large 2D world, in which you can build bases and have units guarding them. The bases can be visited or used by other players as automated trading stations, in which you represent the vendors. But the bases should also be able to be contested by hostile players - be it plundering or outright destruction.
How can I solve the issue that the owner of the base may be offline during an attack? Or that a player attacks at times where people are usually not online (sleeping, working, school)? Or that a player may actively go or stay offline in order to exploit potential protection mechanisms? How can I avoid forcing players to go online for a certain time at certain time ranges in order to maintain such protection?
Ideas (which are not satisfactory though):
1. Bases cannot be attacked in normal ways. People can send "troops" with a delay hopefully long enough to ensure the other player can give his optional input. The outcome of these battles is an automatically calculated result. Such sieges may go over multiple days.
2. Bases can only be attacked while their owners are online - or have been offline for too long. The explanation why those cannot be attacked is severely lacking though - given that trading should still be possible.
3. When a player intends to attack, both players somehow have to make an appointment in order for both to be online and to start the battle. This is a bad solution for obvious reasons.
4. Bases are inactive and invulnerable while their owners are offline or setting it inactive, and trading/other activities continue only temporarily based on the previous online/active time. This raises issues with visible bases and ongoing infrastructure, as they'd essentially need to be hidden or hideable, and other players may get bothered by it becoming inaccessible.
What other methodology does exist or could be employed in order to tackle this online-offline issue with persistent elements? I am also open for mathematical or systematic solutions. Be reminded that other players should be able to assist either side as well, and that their online/offline times would require some consideration as well. | 2018/10/17 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/164613",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/117840/"
] | Players have lives outside of the game, so you can not expect them to protect their property 24/7. You can be a bit more cruel about this when properties are not owned by individual players but collectively by large groups of players, because if the group is large enough then at least someone will be online most of the time. But this still creates a lot of unnecessary pressure for players to play more than they want to.
So if you want online PvP battles for the control of property, then you have to balance some conflicting interests against each other:
* The interest of the defender to defend the property when it is convenient for them and not lose property because their life outside of the game came in the way.
* The interest of the attacker to be able to conquer any property they want as long as they are strong enough to do so.
* The interest of the game to have both attacker and defender present for the battle, so you have a fair contest of skills.
* The interest of everyone to play your game when they want to and not neglect their life outside of the game.
In order to balance these interests, you need some game mechanic which allows players to **negotiate a date for when the battle is going to take place**. The negotiation mechanic must be designed in a way that it is in the interest of both parties to have the battle as soon as possible (so no party can win or grief by biding time), but still allows both parties some degree of control in order to find a time window where both parties are present.
---
A good subject for a case study in this regard might be **Eve Online**. Disclaimer: I read a lot about Eve Online, but I never played the game myself. So please write a comment if I misunderstood something.
Players can own stations, which still exist while the player is offline. Other players can attack these stations. But as soon as the station drops to 25% shield strength, it enters what is called [Reinforced Mode](http://eve-wiki.net/index.php?title=Reinforced_mode).
While the station is in reinforced mode, other players can not damage it anymore, but the station also loses functionality and starts to consume a resource which can not be replenished while in this mode. When there is enough of that resource in stock, then it can last for more than a day.
So when the attacker wants to take the station, they either need to wait until the station runs out of resources or until the owner shows up to defend it.
The effect of this game mechanic is that the defender decides when to fight for the station. The attacker is the one who needs to stay online and prevent the defender from refueling. But it is still in the interest of the defender to react early, because while the station is reinforced, the station consumes resources without doing anything productive.
---
A mechanic I have seen in another MMO game (unfortunately I don't remember the name) was that the owner of a base can explicitly **set time windows in which they are vulnerable to attacks**. So the player can make sure that they are only attacked during times where they are usually online. | Perhaps, to make the first option less unsatisfactory, you could have your deterministic battles play out in real time to the attacker (and to the defender if they're on), with the means by which the battles are decided being some manner of tactical 'programming' done by the players that gives both sides small scale agency without requiring active participation. Possibly also restrict battles to, say, one per day to make it more difficult to exploit flaws in a defender's strategy once it has been observed without giving them the opportunity to remedy them. |
164,613 | For a long time I was thinking about a quite abstract game design problem, to which I didn't see a good solution yet. In abstract: How can a player have owned bases, units and infrastructure in a persistent multiplayer world, which can be interacted or attacked by other players, all the while the owning player may be offline and unable to give his input?
As a concrete example:
Assume you have a very large 2D world, in which you can build bases and have units guarding them. The bases can be visited or used by other players as automated trading stations, in which you represent the vendors. But the bases should also be able to be contested by hostile players - be it plundering or outright destruction.
How can I solve the issue that the owner of the base may be offline during an attack? Or that a player attacks at times where people are usually not online (sleeping, working, school)? Or that a player may actively go or stay offline in order to exploit potential protection mechanisms? How can I avoid forcing players to go online for a certain time at certain time ranges in order to maintain such protection?
Ideas (which are not satisfactory though):
1. Bases cannot be attacked in normal ways. People can send "troops" with a delay hopefully long enough to ensure the other player can give his optional input. The outcome of these battles is an automatically calculated result. Such sieges may go over multiple days.
2. Bases can only be attacked while their owners are online - or have been offline for too long. The explanation why those cannot be attacked is severely lacking though - given that trading should still be possible.
3. When a player intends to attack, both players somehow have to make an appointment in order for both to be online and to start the battle. This is a bad solution for obvious reasons.
4. Bases are inactive and invulnerable while their owners are offline or setting it inactive, and trading/other activities continue only temporarily based on the previous online/active time. This raises issues with visible bases and ongoing infrastructure, as they'd essentially need to be hidden or hideable, and other players may get bothered by it becoming inaccessible.
What other methodology does exist or could be employed in order to tackle this online-offline issue with persistent elements? I am also open for mathematical or systematic solutions. Be reminded that other players should be able to assist either side as well, and that their online/offline times would require some consideration as well. | 2018/10/17 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/164613",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/117840/"
] | The text-based game [1000AD](http://www.new1000ad.com/) handles this by letting players be attacked as normal. The way the game works, you obtain one "turn" every 15-30 minutes (depending on game speed), and one turn lets you execute one month's worth of orders.
Thus, players tend to log in every few days with 500-1500 turns available, and spend the first few pulling down their defenses, the bulk of them handling research, expansion, or attack, and the last few setting up defenses (towers, siege weaponry, armies of various compositions).
In fact, this setup has lead (over the years) to a meta where it's considered very rude to attack someone while they're online!
You could thus possibly build mechanics in order to enforce that structure, something like for the first 30 minutes of each 24-hour period that you're logged in, you're invulnerable from attack, and *center* the game around attacking offline foes (or at least foes that have depleted their 30-minute window). | Many MMO RTS games delay attacks based on distance, and limit the size of the attack based on supply lines. They also tend to grant defense bonuses to defenders that are not available to attackers. For example, attackers may be limited from sending only X troops, but defenders might have unlimited troops (e.g. as many troops as they can build), walls, traps, and so on, which can be upgraded.
Make it more difficult for attackers to succeed, and they'll consider their choices carefully, especially if there's also a real-time attack delay (e.g. an attack will take one hour to reach a target, and you'll lose those troops for defense during the duration). If practical, allow an option to send a push notification or some other means to alert offline users of an imminent attack. Attacks should also probably be rate-limited so that throwing a large number of smaller waves won't wear down an opponent that can't respond readily.
As mentioned elsewhere, reaching some critical threshold should trigger a protective mechanism of some type. For example, attacks become less effective, no further resources can be farmed from the target, auto-build troops or allow "wounded" troops to return to battle at some time. A defeated player should still have a decent chance of rebuilding after a severe attack. |
164,613 | For a long time I was thinking about a quite abstract game design problem, to which I didn't see a good solution yet. In abstract: How can a player have owned bases, units and infrastructure in a persistent multiplayer world, which can be interacted or attacked by other players, all the while the owning player may be offline and unable to give his input?
As a concrete example:
Assume you have a very large 2D world, in which you can build bases and have units guarding them. The bases can be visited or used by other players as automated trading stations, in which you represent the vendors. But the bases should also be able to be contested by hostile players - be it plundering or outright destruction.
How can I solve the issue that the owner of the base may be offline during an attack? Or that a player attacks at times where people are usually not online (sleeping, working, school)? Or that a player may actively go or stay offline in order to exploit potential protection mechanisms? How can I avoid forcing players to go online for a certain time at certain time ranges in order to maintain such protection?
Ideas (which are not satisfactory though):
1. Bases cannot be attacked in normal ways. People can send "troops" with a delay hopefully long enough to ensure the other player can give his optional input. The outcome of these battles is an automatically calculated result. Such sieges may go over multiple days.
2. Bases can only be attacked while their owners are online - or have been offline for too long. The explanation why those cannot be attacked is severely lacking though - given that trading should still be possible.
3. When a player intends to attack, both players somehow have to make an appointment in order for both to be online and to start the battle. This is a bad solution for obvious reasons.
4. Bases are inactive and invulnerable while their owners are offline or setting it inactive, and trading/other activities continue only temporarily based on the previous online/active time. This raises issues with visible bases and ongoing infrastructure, as they'd essentially need to be hidden or hideable, and other players may get bothered by it becoming inaccessible.
What other methodology does exist or could be employed in order to tackle this online-offline issue with persistent elements? I am also open for mathematical or systematic solutions. Be reminded that other players should be able to assist either side as well, and that their online/offline times would require some consideration as well. | 2018/10/17 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/164613",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/117840/"
] | Players have lives outside of the game, so you can not expect them to protect their property 24/7. You can be a bit more cruel about this when properties are not owned by individual players but collectively by large groups of players, because if the group is large enough then at least someone will be online most of the time. But this still creates a lot of unnecessary pressure for players to play more than they want to.
So if you want online PvP battles for the control of property, then you have to balance some conflicting interests against each other:
* The interest of the defender to defend the property when it is convenient for them and not lose property because their life outside of the game came in the way.
* The interest of the attacker to be able to conquer any property they want as long as they are strong enough to do so.
* The interest of the game to have both attacker and defender present for the battle, so you have a fair contest of skills.
* The interest of everyone to play your game when they want to and not neglect their life outside of the game.
In order to balance these interests, you need some game mechanic which allows players to **negotiate a date for when the battle is going to take place**. The negotiation mechanic must be designed in a way that it is in the interest of both parties to have the battle as soon as possible (so no party can win or grief by biding time), but still allows both parties some degree of control in order to find a time window where both parties are present.
---
A good subject for a case study in this regard might be **Eve Online**. Disclaimer: I read a lot about Eve Online, but I never played the game myself. So please write a comment if I misunderstood something.
Players can own stations, which still exist while the player is offline. Other players can attack these stations. But as soon as the station drops to 25% shield strength, it enters what is called [Reinforced Mode](http://eve-wiki.net/index.php?title=Reinforced_mode).
While the station is in reinforced mode, other players can not damage it anymore, but the station also loses functionality and starts to consume a resource which can not be replenished while in this mode. When there is enough of that resource in stock, then it can last for more than a day.
So when the attacker wants to take the station, they either need to wait until the station runs out of resources or until the owner shows up to defend it.
The effect of this game mechanic is that the defender decides when to fight for the station. The attacker is the one who needs to stay online and prevent the defender from refueling. But it is still in the interest of the defender to react early, because while the station is reinforced, the station consumes resources without doing anything productive.
---
A mechanic I have seen in another MMO game (unfortunately I don't remember the name) was that the owner of a base can explicitly **set time windows in which they are vulnerable to attacks**. So the player can make sure that they are only attacked during times where they are usually online. | **From a player perspective**
A pet peeve of mine, as a game player, is when a game tries to hard to get me to play more, so much so that the games advertise themselves as "addictive" are the ones I stay away from the most.
However, I realize that a game that doesn't get played is of no benefit to anyone, so games should provide some draw to continue playing, and play somewhat regularly.
Having said that, I would propose a combination of 2 elements:
First, an automatically adjusting difficulty on the AI for the offline player and, second, something like a "difficulty" setting manually selected by the players themselves, but related to how often they expect to be online.
Some examples:
If an offline player selected an "Easy" difficulty, then their base might be invulnerable for 24 hours after their last login. After that, their base can be attacked, but their are given a defending AI with a 99% success rate (or whatever number is reasonable for the specific game mechanics) at defending the base. That percentage then slowly decreases over time, for as long as the player doesn't log in, until it reaches 1% (or other applicable pre-set minimum). Logging in takes it back to halfway between the min and max AI levels, and slowly increases from there for each consecutive day they log in or for the length of each gameplay session, etc.
If an offline player selected a "Hard" difficulty, then their base might not have the 24 hour invulnerable period after their last login. Instead, the defending AI starts at 99% success rate (or whatever number is reasonable for the specific game mechanics) at defending the base, as soon as they log off. That percentage then slowly decreases over time, for as long as the player doesn't log in, until it reaches 1% (or other applicable pre-set minimum). Logging in doesn't take it back to halfway, but immediately starts slowly increasing for each consecutive day they log in or for the length of each gameplay session, etc.
Add intermediary "difficulty levels" and fine tune the numbers and concept as needed for the specific game mechanics and application. |
164,613 | For a long time I was thinking about a quite abstract game design problem, to which I didn't see a good solution yet. In abstract: How can a player have owned bases, units and infrastructure in a persistent multiplayer world, which can be interacted or attacked by other players, all the while the owning player may be offline and unable to give his input?
As a concrete example:
Assume you have a very large 2D world, in which you can build bases and have units guarding them. The bases can be visited or used by other players as automated trading stations, in which you represent the vendors. But the bases should also be able to be contested by hostile players - be it plundering or outright destruction.
How can I solve the issue that the owner of the base may be offline during an attack? Or that a player attacks at times where people are usually not online (sleeping, working, school)? Or that a player may actively go or stay offline in order to exploit potential protection mechanisms? How can I avoid forcing players to go online for a certain time at certain time ranges in order to maintain such protection?
Ideas (which are not satisfactory though):
1. Bases cannot be attacked in normal ways. People can send "troops" with a delay hopefully long enough to ensure the other player can give his optional input. The outcome of these battles is an automatically calculated result. Such sieges may go over multiple days.
2. Bases can only be attacked while their owners are online - or have been offline for too long. The explanation why those cannot be attacked is severely lacking though - given that trading should still be possible.
3. When a player intends to attack, both players somehow have to make an appointment in order for both to be online and to start the battle. This is a bad solution for obvious reasons.
4. Bases are inactive and invulnerable while their owners are offline or setting it inactive, and trading/other activities continue only temporarily based on the previous online/active time. This raises issues with visible bases and ongoing infrastructure, as they'd essentially need to be hidden or hideable, and other players may get bothered by it becoming inaccessible.
What other methodology does exist or could be employed in order to tackle this online-offline issue with persistent elements? I am also open for mathematical or systematic solutions. Be reminded that other players should be able to assist either side as well, and that their online/offline times would require some consideration as well. | 2018/10/17 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/164613",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/117840/"
] | Have you considered how it was done historically?
=================================================
In most games that work similar to the type of game you seem to be developing (I've thinking Travian, Goodgame Empire and another one that got me so salty I can't be bothered trying to remember the name (but I remember that it had a shitty marketing technique)) combat is just a slow movement of troops, instant maths to resolve the combat and then a slow returning of troops. This is not how combat works! This is not how you would take a base historically! Conquering a fortified position is a very significant and time consuming task. Fortifications are much harder nuts to crack than game developers either realize or care to properly emulate.
My suggestion is going to make attacking another player a much larger investment of time and resources and it's also going to make defence more costly. However, it will also open up a whole lot more options for both sides. So much so that it might become a different game than you had originally intended.
Besiege them!
-------------
Assuming that the defenders have any kind of wall protecting their base, then instead of instantly resolving combat when the attackers arrive, the attackers should set up camp around their target. In other words, they should besiege them.
The siege can be strengthened by adding more troops to it. This is one way to work together with your allies. However, this goes for the defender's allies as well who can send a force to relieve them.
Supply issues will be the main driving factor
---------------------------------------------
While the siege is in place the defender should be unable to gather resources as their access to the surrounding lands are cut off. Instead they start eating into their food and water\* stores until they are depleted as well as burning all their wood, coal and oil for heat, light and cooking. Once the food has run out the castle surrenders unconditionally.
Of course, the attackers also need to eat and feeding an army away from their home is no small task. Their choices for this is...
**1. Supply caravans.** This will be the main way to resupply your troops. You can provide it yourself, rely on an ally to provide it or negotiate for it with third parties (perhaps on the threat of besieging them next if they don't).
**2. Scavenge.** This will only be able to provide a little bit of food. It's not enough for a large force for a long time, but it works as a stop gap if you're having trouble with supply lines.
**3. Raiding.** This is more effective than scavenging, but it causes significant collateral damage to the surrounding land, which is bad if you intend to conquer the land for yourself. It also puts a limit to how much you can raid. Raiding can however be an end goal in and of itself as you weaken your enemy and then leave without actually trying to take their base.
Both scavenging and raiding the countryside requires the besieger to disperse some of their troops for some time, which is a perfect opportunity for the defender and their allies to sally out of the base to strike at the besieger's main camp or for allies outside the siege to pick off these smaller scavenging/raiding parties.
Supply caravans might seem like the superior choice now, and they should be, but you might want to make them vulnerable to interception in some way.
Lots of choices!
----------------
You now have a siege in progress. This gives both sides a number of options to consider.
**Defender:**
**1. Wait...** Hope that the attacker will leave or that an ally will come and relieve you. If nothing happens your base's inhabitants will begin to starve when supplies run out and eventually surrender unconditionally. However, it takes two to have a siege and your besieger's troops are locked in their position unless they want to abandon the siege.
**2. Sallying out** is an option for the confident defender faced with an attacker who tries to bite off more than they can chew. End the siege early by defeating the besiegers while they are at their weakest.
**Attackers:**
**1. Wait...** As long as you have a steady stream of supplies to keep your troops from starving and disbanding you can win by just waiting out the enemy to consume theirs.
**2. Raid the countryside** to spite the enemy into attacking you or just to weaken them for future engagements.
**3. Assail the walls** to try to take the castle with overwhelming force. This is very difficult as a well-built fortification can be defended by a handful of men in the face of a many times larger foe.
**Both:**
**Negotiate!** You want to take the castle for yourself? Save yourself time and resources by offering the defender safe passage for their troops to leave. Your attacker wants resources? Offer to pay them off to break the siege. Maybe you and your allies can make an offer juicy enough that one besieger abandons his allies who then become easy pickings.
Maybe the besieger has some other purpose with the siege? Just about anything can be negotiated! Just make sure that there's no penalties for breaking a siege and going home or at least that they are much lower than the penalties for continuing the siege. You don't have to develop for all the possible outcomes from negotiation. Let the players resolve matters by sending each other messages and they will find ways to achieve the outcome within the game mechanics.
The siege mechanics should open up a lot of strategical options as well. Consider that the A-Alliance wants to conquer the B-Base of the C-Coalition. A-A will send their main forces to B-B. But they also send smaller forces to besiege some nearby bases. These forces aren't large enough to take those bases, but they are large enough to prevent the enemies in those bases from sallying out and coming to the aid of B-B. C-C has the option of sending forces from further away to relieve B-B or they could start dislodging the enemies around the surrounding bases to free up more troops and supply sources in preparation to finally relieve B-B. However, doing so may cause them to arrive too late. Choices are fun. Making the right choice is a challenge in and of itself and it turns warfare into more than just a contest of who can amass the most troops and throw them at sleeping players.\*\*
Combat
------
Here's the crux of the matter. This is the part which the question focused on. This suggestion has so far lessened the problem by reducing the amount of combat by instead implementing a war on resources and time. This makes it more historically accurate, but combat is still an important aspect of the game and perhaps the most fun part for some players. How we deal with it depends how you intend for combat to work in your game. I will explore those options further down, but first we deal with the issue of players being overwhelmed by enemies they are not prepared for.
The siege mechanics deal with this by forcing an attacking enemy to first besiege the base. However, this is pointless if the enemy can just attack and overwhelm the defender right away. Sieges take time. Therefore, after arriving there should be a cooldown before the besiegers can attack. This time represents the time it takes to build ladders and siege engines\*\*\* and preparing your forces for an attack. The cooldown should be longer the better fortified their enemy is and the timer should reset after every attempted attack. The defender might have a good view of the surrounding area and thus be able to tell how long it will take before their besiegers' cooldowns finish. Though the besieger doesn't have to attack as soon as the cooldown runs out. They can take their merry time just sitting about if they wish.
Also remember to give the defender a significant advantage! Attacking a fortified base is difficult and costly, which is why sieges were the overwhelmingly most common form of warfare historically (if you have a fortress then why not use it, you know?). This needs to be true in your game too or the whole siege mechanic becomes pointless. If the attackers doesn't need to commit a lot of forces to win a siege without waiting it out then it becomes too hard to defend against even an alliance of equal strength. You want your players to be able to stand a decent chance of defending against a superior enemy alliance or whomever attacks first will simply steamroll their enemies.
**Instantly resolved combat**
If you want the Travian style battles which are instantly resolved mathematically rather than having the players play the actual combat, then we're done here. The siege mechanics and attack cooldowns will give the defender and their allies plenty of time to react to the attacker. You don't need to be present for the actual battle, you just need to know ahead of time when a battle might happen so that you can prepare in time.
The movement of enemy troops and the attack cooldown should give enough time to make you aware of the threat unless you stay offline for a long period of time, like over 24 hours. As long as you check in once a day that should be enough, so that an entire alliance doesn't just decide to gang up on you while you're sleeping so that you wake up to having lost your strongest castle without any warning.\*\*
**RTS/TBS**
If you want combat that requires the players to move pieces on a field to actually play out the combat, then there's no way around it, your players *must* negotiate for a time to play out the combat. You should build a system around it and you may have to do some time jumping to achieve it.
For example, if the attacker suggests one time to fight and the defender suggests a later time then you shouldn't allow allies of the defender coming to relieve the siege in between those two times to take part in the combat, as that would be unfair to the attacker who wanted to fight before the arrival of more enemies. If the relieving ally tries to negotiate for combat with the attacker upon arriving, then that combat should not be allowed to be held before the combat which the attacker tries to negotiate a time for with the defender, because that would screw up the timeline and make the attacker fight with a weakened force in a battle that was supposed to take place before he was weakened.
In other words: the timeline of the battles, and thus the order in which they should be fought, should be determined by the initial time suggested even if that did not become the agreed upon time. Which players that can participate in the battle should also be determined by who was at the siege at the initially suggested time. Cooldown effects should only take the initially suggested time into account. Name the battles using the in-game time of the initially suggested time to make it more clear to the players.
If the sides have trouble organizing a time on which to fight and there are multiple fights being queued then that could lead to a series of fights which -according to in-game time- only takes a few days end up spanning a whole week or two IRL. This is fine though. By implementing the suggested siege mechanics you've already determined that your game will be the long con kind of game where things elapse more slow and steady.
After a battle the attacking or relieving force should get the option of retreating back home and thus cancelling their participation in upcoming battles. Or course, the defenders who are trapped in their base don't get a choice. If any player doesn't show up for battle at the predetermined time then their forces will be played by an AI. If no one shows up then the battle will be auto-resolved mathematically. This is so that upcoming battles can continue as expected. To prevent decimation of anyone's forces because they weren't there to cancel their upcoming battles you could implement a moral mechanic which causes troops to automatically retreat back home if they are poorly supplied and/or losing too many battles.
Downsides?
----------
If you implement the siege mechanic as suggested then you are probably going to end up with a game that works very differently than you had originally imagined. The overarching strategical part of the game has to become more slow paced for the siege mechanic to work and the players needs to put more consideration into their strategical actions. This will appeal to some players and it will turn other players off, just like with any major design decision. However, the important part of the question -how to prevent players who are sleeping or otherwise pre-occupied with real life from being curb-stomped by alliances of opportunistic hyenas\*\*- has been solved. Because you now have a game where players are fine if they just check in once a day or so due to the slower pace.
---
\*Water is an essential resource which is consumed in large amounts. If your base doesn't have a well then it will need to store a massive amount of water. Normally a base *would* have a well, but if you choose to build your base on an easily defensible mountain top then it might not be possible to find water.
\*\*Yes, I'm salty.
\*\*\*Unlike what most strategy games suggest, you don't actually drag siege towers and trebuchets with you from home. You build them at the siege with locally sourced lumber. | Perhaps, to make the first option less unsatisfactory, you could have your deterministic battles play out in real time to the attacker (and to the defender if they're on), with the means by which the battles are decided being some manner of tactical 'programming' done by the players that gives both sides small scale agency without requiring active participation. Possibly also restrict battles to, say, one per day to make it more difficult to exploit flaws in a defender's strategy once it has been observed without giving them the opportunity to remedy them. |
164,613 | For a long time I was thinking about a quite abstract game design problem, to which I didn't see a good solution yet. In abstract: How can a player have owned bases, units and infrastructure in a persistent multiplayer world, which can be interacted or attacked by other players, all the while the owning player may be offline and unable to give his input?
As a concrete example:
Assume you have a very large 2D world, in which you can build bases and have units guarding them. The bases can be visited or used by other players as automated trading stations, in which you represent the vendors. But the bases should also be able to be contested by hostile players - be it plundering or outright destruction.
How can I solve the issue that the owner of the base may be offline during an attack? Or that a player attacks at times where people are usually not online (sleeping, working, school)? Or that a player may actively go or stay offline in order to exploit potential protection mechanisms? How can I avoid forcing players to go online for a certain time at certain time ranges in order to maintain such protection?
Ideas (which are not satisfactory though):
1. Bases cannot be attacked in normal ways. People can send "troops" with a delay hopefully long enough to ensure the other player can give his optional input. The outcome of these battles is an automatically calculated result. Such sieges may go over multiple days.
2. Bases can only be attacked while their owners are online - or have been offline for too long. The explanation why those cannot be attacked is severely lacking though - given that trading should still be possible.
3. When a player intends to attack, both players somehow have to make an appointment in order for both to be online and to start the battle. This is a bad solution for obvious reasons.
4. Bases are inactive and invulnerable while their owners are offline or setting it inactive, and trading/other activities continue only temporarily based on the previous online/active time. This raises issues with visible bases and ongoing infrastructure, as they'd essentially need to be hidden or hideable, and other players may get bothered by it becoming inaccessible.
What other methodology does exist or could be employed in order to tackle this online-offline issue with persistent elements? I am also open for mathematical or systematic solutions. Be reminded that other players should be able to assist either side as well, and that their online/offline times would require some consideration as well. | 2018/10/17 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/164613",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/117840/"
] | **Give allied players an incentive to defend on behalf of offline players.**
The MMO Dark Age of Camelot featured three warring player factions. A faction could gain advantages by capturing and holding bases in the PvP area. These bases were not owned by individual players; they gave their bonus to an entire faction and could be "claimed" by a guild for prestige.
You could come up with some variation on that for individually owned bases. For example, individual control of a base could give some bonus to a player's guild or faction, or players could be awarded XP for defending the base of an offline friendly player. Even just alerting online players that a friendly player's base is under attack could attract them there for PvP action. | Perhaps, to make the first option less unsatisfactory, you could have your deterministic battles play out in real time to the attacker (and to the defender if they're on), with the means by which the battles are decided being some manner of tactical 'programming' done by the players that gives both sides small scale agency without requiring active participation. Possibly also restrict battles to, say, one per day to make it more difficult to exploit flaws in a defender's strategy once it has been observed without giving them the opportunity to remedy them. |
182,678 | Planning to build a wardrobe out of OSB plates, however, I fear clothes might get stuck on the material and tear up. What's a simple and cost-effective way to get this smooth? Coating or sanding maybe? Does anyone have some experience with this and can offer some advice? | 2020/01/17 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/182678",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/109029/"
] | Straightforward enough job. We stabilize wood like that all the time.
I'd start by painting the piece with a thin coat of either Amercote or West System Epoxy, just to freeze the splinters so they won't keep redeveloping as you prep. Then a very thorough sanding with a jitterbug sander until there are no high spots whatsoever. Then one more shot with the West System, then a sand-down just to knock the high spots off, if any. Then prep & paint.
How much money did you say you'd be saving by using OSB instead of finish plywood? | Paper it!
It doesn't need to be wall paper, you could use old news paper then paint over the paper. |
182,678 | Planning to build a wardrobe out of OSB plates, however, I fear clothes might get stuck on the material and tear up. What's a simple and cost-effective way to get this smooth? Coating or sanding maybe? Does anyone have some experience with this and can offer some advice? | 2020/01/17 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/182678",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/109029/"
] | Straightforward enough job. We stabilize wood like that all the time.
I'd start by painting the piece with a thin coat of either Amercote or West System Epoxy, just to freeze the splinters so they won't keep redeveloping as you prep. Then a very thorough sanding with a jitterbug sander until there are no high spots whatsoever. Then one more shot with the West System, then a sand-down just to knock the high spots off, if any. Then prep & paint.
How much money did you say you'd be saving by using OSB instead of finish plywood? | OSB comes in various grades. Often the two sides are different grades.
* 7/16 and 1/2 inch are used as sheathing. The inside face isn't as solid as the outside face, but doesn't have inked stuff all over it.
* 5/8 and 3/4 are often used for subfloors and subroof. They are sanded flat on the top face, and are tight on the bottom face. They make an acceptable living space floor with an optional coat of stain and a coat of varnish.
Given how much time even making a wooden crate takes, I wouldn't use OSB for furniture, but instead would either do it right, and make it out of baltic birch. Catch it on sale.
OR I would make it from dimension lumber throughout. 2x2 framing, 1x4 or 1x6 sides. Dimension lumber will look nicer, is easier to sand. If you go with a wood stain, read up on staining softwoods first. There are tricks to getting it even. |
14,841,385 | I'm just doing some research into how the Wordpress admin panel might be completely redesigned into a different layout altogether, and wondered if anyone here has experimented with this before?
I'm aware that you can inject a custom stylesheet which can be used to override current styles and move certain things around, but I wondered how it might be possible to use different HTML markup as well?
Any insight or links to articles about it would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks! | 2013/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14841385",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2066186/"
] | I'm afraid you can't easily change the HTML of wp-admin. Unlike the front which separates logic from visualization, wp-admin scripts contain both HTML and executed code, as you can see in [wp-admin/users.php](https://github.com/WordPress/WordPress/blob/master/wp-admin/users.php).
You can get pretty far changing the CSS and other reused items like the menu and header/footer. A good number of things you can change is describe in the article [How To Customize The WordPress Admin Easily](http://wp.smashingmagazine.com/2012/05/17/customize-wordpress-admin-easily/). | Within the Wordpress files you have all of the code so you can do with it as you wish. Take a look at the files in the wp-admin folder when you download Wordpress. And try [searching on Google](http://www.google.co.uk/search?q=develop%20wordpress%20admin%20ui&sourceid=ie7&rls=com.microsoft%3aen-GB%3a%7Breferrer%3asource%7D&ie=UTF-8&oe=&rlz=1I7SUNC_en&redir_esc=&ei=5agaUYOvJsjQ0QWK-oDQCQ#hl=en&tbo=d&rls=com.microsoft%3aen-GB%3a%7Breferrer%3asource%7D&rlz=1I7SUNC_en&sclient=psy-ab&q=redesign%20wordpress%20admin%20ui&oq=redesign%20wordpress%20admin%20ui&gs_l=serp.3...4361.5378.0.5621.8.8.0.0.0.4.232.1125.1j6j1.8.0.les;..0.0...1c.1.2.serp.iPGghYo3eo8&pbx=1&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.r_qf.&bvm=bv.42261806,d.d2k&fp=686385675783a4fd&biw=1366&bih=600). Or go the [plugin route](http://www.1stwebdesigner.com/wordpress/awesome-wordpress-plugin-your-dashboard/).
But, why redesign the Wordpress admin UI when it's the functionality on the admin side that matters. When you can create custom post types and use great plugins like custom fields, do you really need to redesign the ui? |
33,084 | I'm trying to grow some shade grass, but heavy rains washed my first attempt partially away. I've read that using straw is not the best idea because the straw had weed seeds nad needs to be racked afterward. I've also read about something called green mulch, that is a combination of newspaper and other stuff that you can just add and forget. I can't seem to find it at anyplace locally, was thinking maybe its possible to make it myself by shredding newspaper and maybe adding food coloring or something? Has anyone used something similar to start grass? | 2017/05/07 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/33084",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/11239/"
] | What you are probably thinking about it called hydroseeding. It's typically a blend of grass seed, some kind of wood fiber/cellulose and fertilizer. It is typically used in large scale seeding jobs because of the ease of application and the moisture retention of the media. You can buy spray bottles of it at many hardware stores. It will be liquid and will probably be called a hyrdroseed solution or something like that.
I don't think that is necessary though. Most straw shouldn't have seeds in it. Don't worry too much about that. Even if there were some wheat seeds, they will look a lot like your grass, and will die out after being repeatedly mowed. Straw does not need to be raked out after, it will just decompose. I'm not a huge fan of using straw though.
What I like to do is the spread the seed on well raked/scratched up soil. Then I lightly rake the seed into the soil. Ideally, if you have a roller this would be when you use it to establish good soil to seed contact. I never use a roller though. =] Then after that I apply a very light, about a quarter inch layer of compost, which essentially functions as the straw would, but has the added benefit of organic material, microbes, better moisture retention, and nutrients for your grass. As an added benefit, you don't have to look at straw which I find ugly. | Green mulch in MY experience means an annual cover crop to be dug in when spring comes around. Newspaper decomposes after a year or two. I've tried using this for experiments on weed suppression. Not impressed. As a mulch for grass seed, I am unable to see any benefit.
You said SHADE grass. The two words are an oxymoron? Grass should never be planted in shade...when it says 'for shade' it means that particular mix of lawn grasses are more *able* to survive in shade than other grass mixes. It does not mean these grasses will thrive.
The worst thing people try to do is fertilize their shaded lawns. That just makes the photosynthetic growth larger when there is little sunlight with which to use to make food for the plant/grass. More stress, too much nitrogen promotes more vegetative growth but without enough light that growth is pure stress on the plant to support.
If I were you I would NOT try to grow lawn in shade. It will always be wimpy and discouraging. I would use gravel over landscape fabric or a true shade ground cover such as MONDO GRASS, Pachysandra terminalis, or Candy Tuff (Iberis). Delineate the margins with 2X4 edging or 6"X6" trenches. There are lots of beautiful ground covers that THRIVE in shade. Grass is just never going to work.
Without full sun, I would never try to grow a lawn 'crop'. |
254,257 | I created my own anti-adblock system, that does something similar to services like [BlockAdblock](https://blockadblock.com/) except mine goes about Adblocker detection in a different manner (and so far cannot be bypassed like ones such as BlockAdblock).
If you go to [my Anti-Adblocker's page](https://pigeonburger.xyz/antiadblock/) and generate some example anti-adblock code you'll notice it's all obfuscated (BlockAdblock also does this) which I've done to make it harder for filters and bypassing methods to be developed for it. The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
Each generation of this obfuscated anti-adblock code is unique, but they all perform the same action.
I can see that some potential users of my tool may not trust it, as they can't determine exactly how it works - Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious without revealing the actual unobfuscated source? (because if I were to reveal the unobfuscated source code it would defeat the whole purpose of obfuscating in the first place) | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/254257",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/244539/"
] | You'll need to define "malicious" first. Perhaps you could claim that ONLY omitting,not modifying, http(s) display streams, performing no i/o including not storing any state information, makes it non-malicious.
Proving code claims is an extremely expensive and complex issue. A good first step would to to expose (unobfuscated) all browser call-backs and library entries. If the remainder is purely algorithmic (no i/o) and the interface is clear, you are close. | The only reasonable way to achieve your goal is by building the reputation. Otherwise, even if the today's version is safe, it is always possible to say the malware is coming in the next version.
One approach is to use something like Wayback machine to prove that our site is online (an your product is being offered) for quite a long time. It is problematic to keep a malware site online for five years as if nothing. Also, register the official company and provide the real identity. |
254,257 | I created my own anti-adblock system, that does something similar to services like [BlockAdblock](https://blockadblock.com/) except mine goes about Adblocker detection in a different manner (and so far cannot be bypassed like ones such as BlockAdblock).
If you go to [my Anti-Adblocker's page](https://pigeonburger.xyz/antiadblock/) and generate some example anti-adblock code you'll notice it's all obfuscated (BlockAdblock also does this) which I've done to make it harder for filters and bypassing methods to be developed for it. The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
Each generation of this obfuscated anti-adblock code is unique, but they all perform the same action.
I can see that some potential users of my tool may not trust it, as they can't determine exactly how it works - Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious without revealing the actual unobfuscated source? (because if I were to reveal the unobfuscated source code it would defeat the whole purpose of obfuscating in the first place) | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/254257",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/244539/"
] | You'll need to define "malicious" first. Perhaps you could claim that ONLY omitting,not modifying, http(s) display streams, performing no i/o including not storing any state information, makes it non-malicious.
Proving code claims is an extremely expensive and complex issue. A good first step would to to expose (unobfuscated) all browser call-backs and library entries. If the remainder is purely algorithmic (no i/o) and the interface is clear, you are close. | Put some serious money in an escrow account controlled by a trusted third party with worldwide trustworthy reputation. Then if someone can prove that your code is malicious, then he/she/party will get that money. |
254,257 | I created my own anti-adblock system, that does something similar to services like [BlockAdblock](https://blockadblock.com/) except mine goes about Adblocker detection in a different manner (and so far cannot be bypassed like ones such as BlockAdblock).
If you go to [my Anti-Adblocker's page](https://pigeonburger.xyz/antiadblock/) and generate some example anti-adblock code you'll notice it's all obfuscated (BlockAdblock also does this) which I've done to make it harder for filters and bypassing methods to be developed for it. The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
Each generation of this obfuscated anti-adblock code is unique, but they all perform the same action.
I can see that some potential users of my tool may not trust it, as they can't determine exactly how it works - Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious without revealing the actual unobfuscated source? (because if I were to reveal the unobfuscated source code it would defeat the whole purpose of obfuscating in the first place) | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/254257",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/244539/"
] | Put it in a box with limited permissions. Prove that, even if the code inside the box were malicious, it could do no harm. | >
> The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
>
>
>
Um, the CPU that executes said code would like to have a word about the fundamentals.
I have no idea what you'd mean by "the code cannot be unobfuscated": either the thing runs on some platform (presumably the user's browser), or not. If it runs, and if you're not using some DRM black-box channel to send the real code for execution to a trusted enclave deep within the user's machine, then unofuscating it is just a matter of time. There's no unobfuscatable obfuscation. The code simply wouldn't work.
Now, yeah, you may be leveraging some platform introspection to ensure that most blatant attempts at modification at runtime will be detected. But that goes out of the window as soon as you're dealing with someone who doesn't run an unmodified platform. It's not very hard to let the JS introspection and DOM see the unmodified code while the VM actually runs something else :) |
254,257 | I created my own anti-adblock system, that does something similar to services like [BlockAdblock](https://blockadblock.com/) except mine goes about Adblocker detection in a different manner (and so far cannot be bypassed like ones such as BlockAdblock).
If you go to [my Anti-Adblocker's page](https://pigeonburger.xyz/antiadblock/) and generate some example anti-adblock code you'll notice it's all obfuscated (BlockAdblock also does this) which I've done to make it harder for filters and bypassing methods to be developed for it. The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
Each generation of this obfuscated anti-adblock code is unique, but they all perform the same action.
I can see that some potential users of my tool may not trust it, as they can't determine exactly how it works - Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious without revealing the actual unobfuscated source? (because if I were to reveal the unobfuscated source code it would defeat the whole purpose of obfuscating in the first place) | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/254257",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/244539/"
] | >
> Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious ...
>
>
>
Probably not. Proving that some specific black box (your code) has a specific behavior and only this behavior is not possible without fully describing the intended behavior first - which basically means providing some form of code.
Just providing some sample input and let users generate sample output for example is not sufficient, since it can still be that some specific "magic" input will trigger a backdoor or similar. | Basically, you cannot prove negative.
This includes, but is not limited, to proving absence of intended malicious functions or vulnerabilities that can be used in malicious way.
Obfuscation is not related to this fundamental problem.
What's worse, your obfuscation tool may (both intentionally and by mistake) introduce vulnerabilities that don't exist in your original code. This way your obfuscated code may be malicious without you knowing that fact.
What can be done, then?
You may ask a trusted (by both parties) third party to audit your (unobfuscated) code.
You may as well ask someone to audit your obfuscation tool.
You may be unlucky because no such trusted third party exists or you may not afford their services.
You may as well fail the audit. It happens.
---
The best tool you may use to build trust is your reputation. |
254,257 | I created my own anti-adblock system, that does something similar to services like [BlockAdblock](https://blockadblock.com/) except mine goes about Adblocker detection in a different manner (and so far cannot be bypassed like ones such as BlockAdblock).
If you go to [my Anti-Adblocker's page](https://pigeonburger.xyz/antiadblock/) and generate some example anti-adblock code you'll notice it's all obfuscated (BlockAdblock also does this) which I've done to make it harder for filters and bypassing methods to be developed for it. The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
Each generation of this obfuscated anti-adblock code is unique, but they all perform the same action.
I can see that some potential users of my tool may not trust it, as they can't determine exactly how it works - Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious without revealing the actual unobfuscated source? (because if I were to reveal the unobfuscated source code it would defeat the whole purpose of obfuscating in the first place) | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/254257",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/244539/"
] | Depending on your customer and their capabilities, you might be able to rely on a [Zero Knowledge Proof](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-knowledge_proof). These are typically (always?) interactive proofs, where any given customer can develop a given statistical level of confidence.
The classic example would be a scenario where you know a path through a cave that has two entrances, and you wish to prove that you know this to someone else. Of course, if you just let them follow you through the cave, then they'd know the secret.
The solution to this classic example is for them to close their eyes, and you go into the tunnel. They then shout out "left" or "right," and you appear from the named entrance. If you know a path, you can do it 100% of the time. If you don't, you can only do so 50% of the time. But no information was released, so you can just repeat the experiment until the other party is sufficiently convinced.
There are several approaches which pull this sort of thing off by breaking up an operation into two steps, and then revealing the step requested by the verifier.
Of course, you'll still have to solve the issue of "how can I trust any arbitrary code." You'll have to deal with [Rice's theorem](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rice%27s_theorem). This is where approaches like the one supercat mentions in their [answer](https://security.stackexchange.com/a/254277/40258). There are constructs, such as virtual machines and containers which can prove that no bad operation can occur with a syntactic proof. You just have to choose a technology which puts your particular verifier's definition of "a bad operation" into a bucket that can be captured syntactically.
One that I personally enjoyed was NaCl by Google. Native Client (NaCl) was a clever little sandbox based on process boundaries. It did some clever tricks with controlling jumps to ensure the client code could never access the "kernel" code in an unintended way.
In such a system, the sandboxing technology you use would become part of what could be quickly detcted, and thus needs to be obsfucated. You could give them a sandbox, and they could do one of two things with it:
* Request that you de-obfuscate the sandbox to prove it behaves as promised
* Request a copy of your software that can be run within the obsfucated sandbox.
With a lot of care (ZKP are hard), you can set it up so that the only way they can un-obsfucate your code is to request the sandbox be de-obfuscated *and* the code to install in the sandbox be delivered. | You can have an external, reputable company audit your code, **build it**, and distribute the dynamic binaries from their own infrastructure.
This way people getting the obfuscated code could trust someone else than you.
The key point here is that you hand over the distribution of audited code (well, the output of audited code) to someone that will provide more trust than yourself. |
254,257 | I created my own anti-adblock system, that does something similar to services like [BlockAdblock](https://blockadblock.com/) except mine goes about Adblocker detection in a different manner (and so far cannot be bypassed like ones such as BlockAdblock).
If you go to [my Anti-Adblocker's page](https://pigeonburger.xyz/antiadblock/) and generate some example anti-adblock code you'll notice it's all obfuscated (BlockAdblock also does this) which I've done to make it harder for filters and bypassing methods to be developed for it. The code cannot be unobfuscated or tampered with/edited (doing so will cause it to not work).
Each generation of this obfuscated anti-adblock code is unique, but they all perform the same action.
I can see that some potential users of my tool may not trust it, as they can't determine exactly how it works - Am I able to prove to my users that the generated code is not malicious without revealing the actual unobfuscated source? (because if I were to reveal the unobfuscated source code it would defeat the whole purpose of obfuscating in the first place) | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/254257",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/244539/"
] | Put it in a box with limited permissions. Prove that, even if the code inside the box were malicious, it could do no harm. | It may be possible to arrange to have the program contain a virtual machine that is written in an easily-understandable fashion, and which can be readily proven not to be capable of causing any intolerable side effects. Alternatively, it may be possible to write the program in such a way that it can be run from within an existing virtual machine that would meet such requirements (e.g. a web browser).
This would not preclude the possibility that a program which has access to certain confidential data and can deliver outputs to certain untrustworthy entities might steganographically conceal the confidential data within the outputs that are given to untrustworthy entities, but such smuggling data in such fashion would be impossible if all entities that are entitled to receive output from the program would also be entitled to receive any of the inputs which are fed to it. |
188,607 | Yet another odd question. Now, in one of my worlds, I am creating cultures for cats with human intelligence, but this question applies to essentially all quadrupeds. I wanted to introduce dancing into their culture, but this brought up the question, how would quadrupeds dance? Perhaps spinning little circles or intertwining tails, but I want more than that. I'm asking specifically for cats, who don't have much of a physical difference from cats in our world (Except mildly opposable thumbs, their shoulders are a bit more mobile, and they can stand on their haunches like bears), but feel free to broaden it for people asking this or similar in the future.
And, if you need the definition of dance, either "A series of movements that match the speed and rhythm of a piece of music." or, even better, "Dance, the movement of the body in a rhythmic way, usually to music and within a given space, for the purpose of expressing an idea or emotion, releasing energy, or simply taking delight in the movement itself."
We are not acknowledging the fact that real cats cannot 'sing' or make music, this is fiction, they can sing in any style they want and play instruments by my rules. It'd be off-topic anyway. | 2020/10/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188607",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/79555/"
] | First, let's examine some dances that humans do but that cats probably can't:
* Body percussion: due to paw structure, cats likely can't clap or snap. Furthermore, their fur prevents using parts of their bodies as percussion instruments and their light weight makes stomping rather noiseless too unless they're on a prepared surface or wearing shoes. This lack of innate percussion rules out many beat/rhythm dances.
* Contract partner dancing: unless you anthropomorphize hard, cats walk on four limbs meaning they can't hold on to another partner while they dance. I don't think cats would find it comfortable to dance on two legs and hold on to a partner.
Now, let's look at some advantages cats have:
* A tail. I'm not sure how consciously cats can control their tails but it's definitely an extra appendage to work with
* Very flexible body: cat spines can make contortionists green with envy and allow many poses
* Good in-air control: Cats always land on their feet and can perform some pretty cool acrobatics. Maybe dancing involves leaping?
Finally, with advantages and disadvantages in mind, here are some dance scenarios I can think of:
* Group pattern dancing: Similar to what you'd see on a Broadway show stage, this style would involve many dancers (over 12) moving in synchronized movements. Cats would weave in and out of each other, form circular patterns, etc. This is typically a performance that cats go to see professionals perform.
* Classic dancing: One or more participants move smoothly and sinuously with carefully planned steps to smooth jazz-like music. Occasionally, explosive movements are included, but mostly this style is about graceful and purposeful movement. This is what cats might do for fun at a party.
* Romantic partner dancing: With a romantic partner, this dance is performed as a pair, often in courtship rituals. Individuals start far apart but slowly move closer to each other, eventually escalating to brushing past each other lightly. Maybe there's some "predator/prey" action thrown in where the dominant partner "pursues" the other, hearkening to the natural hunting instinct cats have. | They would be able to do social dancing like Scottish Country Dancing, Ceilidh dancing or Reels.
<https://youtu.be/eh3sFNPwafA>
Using their tails to connect with the other cats instead of taking hands would work perfectly well. |
188,607 | Yet another odd question. Now, in one of my worlds, I am creating cultures for cats with human intelligence, but this question applies to essentially all quadrupeds. I wanted to introduce dancing into their culture, but this brought up the question, how would quadrupeds dance? Perhaps spinning little circles or intertwining tails, but I want more than that. I'm asking specifically for cats, who don't have much of a physical difference from cats in our world (Except mildly opposable thumbs, their shoulders are a bit more mobile, and they can stand on their haunches like bears), but feel free to broaden it for people asking this or similar in the future.
And, if you need the definition of dance, either "A series of movements that match the speed and rhythm of a piece of music." or, even better, "Dance, the movement of the body in a rhythmic way, usually to music and within a given space, for the purpose of expressing an idea or emotion, releasing energy, or simply taking delight in the movement itself."
We are not acknowledging the fact that real cats cannot 'sing' or make music, this is fiction, they can sing in any style they want and play instruments by my rules. It'd be off-topic anyway. | 2020/10/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188607",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/79555/"
] | First, let's examine some dances that humans do but that cats probably can't:
* Body percussion: due to paw structure, cats likely can't clap or snap. Furthermore, their fur prevents using parts of their bodies as percussion instruments and their light weight makes stomping rather noiseless too unless they're on a prepared surface or wearing shoes. This lack of innate percussion rules out many beat/rhythm dances.
* Contract partner dancing: unless you anthropomorphize hard, cats walk on four limbs meaning they can't hold on to another partner while they dance. I don't think cats would find it comfortable to dance on two legs and hold on to a partner.
Now, let's look at some advantages cats have:
* A tail. I'm not sure how consciously cats can control their tails but it's definitely an extra appendage to work with
* Very flexible body: cat spines can make contortionists green with envy and allow many poses
* Good in-air control: Cats always land on their feet and can perform some pretty cool acrobatics. Maybe dancing involves leaping?
Finally, with advantages and disadvantages in mind, here are some dance scenarios I can think of:
* Group pattern dancing: Similar to what you'd see on a Broadway show stage, this style would involve many dancers (over 12) moving in synchronized movements. Cats would weave in and out of each other, form circular patterns, etc. This is typically a performance that cats go to see professionals perform.
* Classic dancing: One or more participants move smoothly and sinuously with carefully planned steps to smooth jazz-like music. Occasionally, explosive movements are included, but mostly this style is about graceful and purposeful movement. This is what cats might do for fun at a party.
* Romantic partner dancing: With a romantic partner, this dance is performed as a pair, often in courtship rituals. Individuals start far apart but slowly move closer to each other, eventually escalating to brushing past each other lightly. Maybe there's some "predator/prey" action thrown in where the dominant partner "pursues" the other, hearkening to the natural hunting instinct cats have. | [Cats already can dance](https://images.app.goo.gl/uB81sU8NdrWSZMuJ9)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TWc0x.png)
---
P.S. For more inspiration, search images for [*cat dance gif*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=cat+dance+gif&tbm=isch&ved=2ahUKEwjYh7jPucrsAhUO_IUKHQ_OBl0Q2-cCegQIABAA&oq=cat+dance+gif&gs_lcp=CgNpbWcQDFAAWABg-NFQaABwAHgAgAEAiAEAkgEAmAEAqgELZ3dzLXdpei1pbWc&sclient=img&ei=6qiSX9jqBY74lwSPnJvoBQ&bih=821&biw=1707&hl=en_GB) |
188,607 | Yet another odd question. Now, in one of my worlds, I am creating cultures for cats with human intelligence, but this question applies to essentially all quadrupeds. I wanted to introduce dancing into their culture, but this brought up the question, how would quadrupeds dance? Perhaps spinning little circles or intertwining tails, but I want more than that. I'm asking specifically for cats, who don't have much of a physical difference from cats in our world (Except mildly opposable thumbs, their shoulders are a bit more mobile, and they can stand on their haunches like bears), but feel free to broaden it for people asking this or similar in the future.
And, if you need the definition of dance, either "A series of movements that match the speed and rhythm of a piece of music." or, even better, "Dance, the movement of the body in a rhythmic way, usually to music and within a given space, for the purpose of expressing an idea or emotion, releasing energy, or simply taking delight in the movement itself."
We are not acknowledging the fact that real cats cannot 'sing' or make music, this is fiction, they can sing in any style they want and play instruments by my rules. It'd be off-topic anyway. | 2020/10/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/188607",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/79555/"
] | [Cats already can dance](https://images.app.goo.gl/uB81sU8NdrWSZMuJ9)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TWc0x.png)
---
P.S. For more inspiration, search images for [*cat dance gif*](https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=cat+dance+gif&tbm=isch&ved=2ahUKEwjYh7jPucrsAhUO_IUKHQ_OBl0Q2-cCegQIABAA&oq=cat+dance+gif&gs_lcp=CgNpbWcQDFAAWABg-NFQaABwAHgAgAEAiAEAkgEAmAEAqgELZ3dzLXdpei1pbWc&sclient=img&ei=6qiSX9jqBY74lwSPnJvoBQ&bih=821&biw=1707&hl=en_GB) | They would be able to do social dancing like Scottish Country Dancing, Ceilidh dancing or Reels.
<https://youtu.be/eh3sFNPwafA>
Using their tails to connect with the other cats instead of taking hands would work perfectly well. |
58,237 | I came across couple of questions in exam dumps of 70 - 667 but bit confused if someone can explain me difference between output cache and object cache in few lines and possible scenarios we use them in please. | 2013/01/29 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/58237",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/6183/"
] | **Object cache:**
What Object cache does is stores metadata about SharePoint Server objects (like SPWeb, SPSite, SPList, etc.) on the WFEs. When a page is rendered, if there is data that needs to be retrieved through these objects, the SQL Server will not be hit. Features of SharePoint that uses Object cache are publishing, content query web part, navigation, search query box and metadata navigation.
There are only few things you can do about this type of cache - set size.
**Content cache:**
* BLOB cache - used to cache JavaScript, CSS, images files, and large rich media files. Should be used when pages are visited frequently
* Page output cache - can be used only with publishing pages
**Summary**
Object cache is something what is done automatically. You have to handle content cache manually.
source:
<http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/Forums/Thread/182474/caching-in-sharepoint-2010.aspx>
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa622758.aspx>
[Link](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/archive/blogs/kunal_mukherjee/caching-in-share-point-2010-best-practice) | Object cache - metadata, WP queries of external sources, search boxes, quick launch, breadcrumb
Default is on
Configurable through GUI or web.config per each SC
BLOB cache - binary large objects like images or CSS files, stored on WFE disks
Default is off
Configurable through GUI or web.config
Page (output) cache - for whole pages to load them faster for next user with the same rights
Default (for publishing pages) is on
Configurable through GUI (page atributes) or web.config
Office web app cache - XAML queries, images inside documents and so on
Default is on
Configurable through PowerSell, has its own SC (one per web app)
... luccio is right, I just like images :o) |
9,629,770 | Can i have an example "SELECT" query which consist of all where, orderby, having and groupby clauses....
the explanation will be helpful. | 2012/03/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9629770",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097802/"
] | I have found some examples such as [here](http://drdobbs.com/cpp/222900697), [here](http://www.velocityreviews.com/forums/t279534-communication-between-a-c-and-java-program.html) and [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1209406/interprocess-communication-between-c-app-and-java-app-in-windows-os-environmen) which recommend you either used a shared memory structure or else use sockets.
I think that in this case, letting your programs communicate through sockets would be the best idea since your applications will not be that tightly coupled, so you just need to expose an IP, a port and a set of commands.
According to [this](http://kinect.dashhacks.com/kinect-news/2011/01/14/blitz-c-socket-server-kinect-output-flash-silverlight-html-and-unity) it seems possible to create a C++ server on the Kinect, but other than that I can't say much since I have never worked on Kinect related projects. | JNI (Java Native Interface) allows the java application to call c/c++
methods.
All this requires that we have a means of communicating (Integrating Java
with C++) between Java and C++. This is provided by the JNI (Java Native
Interface).
For a practical example of using the JNI and calling native methods from Java, see [this InfoWorld article](https://www.infoworld.com/article/2077513/java-tip-17--integrating-java-with-c--.html). |
9,629,770 | Can i have an example "SELECT" query which consist of all where, orderby, having and groupby clauses....
the explanation will be helpful. | 2012/03/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9629770",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097802/"
] | May be you should have a look at google's [Protocol Buffers](https://developers.google.com/protocol-buffers/docs/overview).
Since you are considering [JNI](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Java_Native_Interface).
I'd suggest you refer to this [IBM tutorial](http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/java/tutorials/j-jni/).
JNI allows the java application to call c/c++ methods and vice-versa.
Also have a look at this
[question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/992836/how-to-access-the-java-method-in-a-c-application/13486890), if you are calling java from c++. | JNI (Java Native Interface) allows the java application to call c/c++
methods.
All this requires that we have a means of communicating (Integrating Java
with C++) between Java and C++. This is provided by the JNI (Java Native
Interface).
For a practical example of using the JNI and calling native methods from Java, see [this InfoWorld article](https://www.infoworld.com/article/2077513/java-tip-17--integrating-java-with-c--.html). |
178,558 | Due to electrostatic induction, when a charged object gets closer to a neutral object, sides of the neutral object can get charged. Thus, a charged object can attract a neutral object. However, is there a way to determine how strong would that attraction be? Can all the free electrons of a neutral object can gather on a side? If so, how many Coulombs of charge can gather?
Let's say we have a charged plate with 2 Coulombs of negative charge on it and a neutral object 2 meters away from the charged plate. How can we find the electrostatic force on the neutral object due to the charged object? I think while the one side of the neutral object attracts the charged object, the other side repels so the net force wouldn't be so much if the neutral object distance between the one side to the other is not so great.
Moreover, what would be the effect of the charged plate on a handheld electronic device or human body? Would these devices or our body get affected differently than a normal neutral object? | 2015/04/26 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/178558",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/52949/"
] | Too many questions inside one question!!! And from your questions it's not even clear how much of the mathematics you will understand, no offence. So I won't be giving you any rigorous answer, I'll just point out where you might get answers.
Yes there is a way to determine these things. It's given by a combination of [Electric Displacement Field](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electric_displacement_field), [Polarization Densities](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polarization_density) and [Electric Fields.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electric_field) But first of all you need to understand [electric dipole moment](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electric_dipole_moment), [dielectric](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dielectric) and [permittivity](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Permittivity) and the difference between dielectrics and conductors.
Good Luck. | Suppose we have a positively charged sphere in vacuum and another neutral sphere. The charged sphere creates an electric field. This field will be identical with that of a point charge. The field varies as inverse square of distance. The neutral sphere feels like it is placed in a uniform electric field that has a value same as that at the point due to the charged sphere. This electric field presence induces some charge on the left side of neutral sphere. The negative charges are pushed to the left side. This induces an electric field on the neutral sphere. But the electric field cannot penetrate through the sphere as it will violate Gauss's law. So the neutral sphere becomes oppositely charged that will produce an electric field that could counterbalance the incoming electric field at that point. This is to maintain an electrostatic equilibrium between the two spheres.
Whether positive or negative the charge, it will attract a neutral object.
Now if you need to find the induced charge on the neutral sphere, find the electric field due to charged sphere at the distance where the neutral sphere is located. We assume that the radius of the neutral sphere is very less compared to the distance of separation between the two spheres. Then you will get the electric field acting on the neutral sphere. Let's assume that our spheres are in vacuum. Then this electric field will be equal to the electric field developed by the neutral sphere as required by electrostatic equilibrium condition. The induced electric field will be opposite to the field at that point. From that value, and by using the electric field equation of a charged sphere, you can determine the charge on the neutral sphere.
When a charged object is placed near human, he will feel goosebumps. It is because, say, a positive charge is place near you. You are grounded. So since human body is a conductor, it carries negative charge from the ground to counteract that electric field. If you make contact with the charged object, the entire charge floes to the ground and the object becomes neutral. |
1,688,844 | I am using a Windows 10 (1909) PC and I don’t want to update to Windows 11 (since my PC is unsupported).
Is there a way to center the start button or the entire menu to center of the taskbar. I have searched the Internet and the articles just shows how to align the icons to the center of the screen. If this is possible, how can I do this? | 2021/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1688844",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1515035/"
] | As far as I know, there is no method for centering the Start button.
Centering the taskbar icons is easy, where normally the method is to
add an empty toolbar on the left, in order to "push" the icons to the
right.
However, no easy solution exists for the Start button, except perhaps
by its replacement by a third-party product.
An example is
[Start11](https://www.stardock.com/products/start11/)
(commercial with trial), which (at least according to its screenshots)
can recreate it in the middle of the taskbar. | The Windows 11 concept is called a Launcher, and the start menu and taskbar were written in a completely new way (from what I have read).
The Windows 11 taskbar is pretty much fixed in way it works: does not support right click context or toolbars and does not split across display screens very well.
Windows 10 does not natively support the Windows 11 taskbar concept and you cannot natively move icons to the center.
There are 3rd party tools you can try. One of the most popular is Start11 (as Harry noted).
You are probably best advised to use Windows 10 as it is until time to replace the computer. I replaced my desktop computer with a Windows 11 computer but I have not replaced my laptop computer which will not run Windows 11. |
1,688,844 | I am using a Windows 10 (1909) PC and I don’t want to update to Windows 11 (since my PC is unsupported).
Is there a way to center the start button or the entire menu to center of the taskbar. I have searched the Internet and the articles just shows how to align the icons to the center of the screen. If this is possible, how can I do this? | 2021/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1688844",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1515035/"
] | As far as I know, there is no method for centering the Start button.
Centering the taskbar icons is easy, where normally the method is to
add an empty toolbar on the left, in order to "push" the icons to the
right.
However, no easy solution exists for the Start button, except perhaps
by its replacement by a third-party product.
An example is
[Start11](https://www.stardock.com/products/start11/)
(commercial with trial), which (at least according to its screenshots)
can recreate it in the middle of the taskbar. | There is no native method in Windows 10 to center taskbar icons. You will need to use a third-party tool (or perform a few manual modifications to system files, which I don't recommend).
One such third-party tool is [TaskbarX](https://chrisandriessen.nl/taskbarx) ([source code](https://github.com/ChrisAnd1998/TaskbarX)). You can download the software free of charge through its website/GitHub or pay if you download via the [Microsoft store](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/p/taskbarx/9pcmz6bxk8gh?activetab=pivot:overviewtab). |
1,688,844 | I am using a Windows 10 (1909) PC and I don’t want to update to Windows 11 (since my PC is unsupported).
Is there a way to center the start button or the entire menu to center of the taskbar. I have searched the Internet and the articles just shows how to align the icons to the center of the screen. If this is possible, how can I do this? | 2021/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1688844",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1515035/"
] | The Windows 11 concept is called a Launcher, and the start menu and taskbar were written in a completely new way (from what I have read).
The Windows 11 taskbar is pretty much fixed in way it works: does not support right click context or toolbars and does not split across display screens very well.
Windows 10 does not natively support the Windows 11 taskbar concept and you cannot natively move icons to the center.
There are 3rd party tools you can try. One of the most popular is Start11 (as Harry noted).
You are probably best advised to use Windows 10 as it is until time to replace the computer. I replaced my desktop computer with a Windows 11 computer but I have not replaced my laptop computer which will not run Windows 11. | There is no native method in Windows 10 to center taskbar icons. You will need to use a third-party tool (or perform a few manual modifications to system files, which I don't recommend).
One such third-party tool is [TaskbarX](https://chrisandriessen.nl/taskbarx) ([source code](https://github.com/ChrisAnd1998/TaskbarX)). You can download the software free of charge through its website/GitHub or pay if you download via the [Microsoft store](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/p/taskbarx/9pcmz6bxk8gh?activetab=pivot:overviewtab). |
61,096,377 | I have few concerns when using ngrx in mobile app with Ionic 5:
1. Performance issues on mobile devices. = ngrx is state management so all data from API will be stored in memory and accessible all the time. Could this effect some older devices(e.g. android 4.4)?
2. Too much ngrx boilerplate can increase app bundle size.
3. Can't use ngrx/data due to a lot of [limitations](https://github.com/johnpapa/angular-ngrx-data/blob/master/docs/limitations.md)..
4. ngrx is 3rd party library. Is it 100% compatible with Ionic Angular?
Is there anyone out there who has faced the similar issues? | 2020/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/61096377",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/909290/"
] | I've used Ionic, I'm using NgRx in Angular projects but never needed to use them together.
Yet, I believe it is a good choice (quite recommended) to use NgRx for state management in an Ionic-Angular project.
1. Nowadays, devices have enough resources to handle an NgRx store state management just as React Native apps use Redux, so I wouldn't worry about that.
2. Depending on the complexity of your app it can increase the bundle size, but not in a critical manner, especially if the build is treeshakeable
3. can't share an opinion over this
4. yes it is. You can check this [article](https://www.joshmorony.com/using-ngrx-for-state-management-in-an-ionic-angular-application/) to get an insight | The answer is:
Do you actually need it?
According to [NgRx documentation](https://ngrx.io/docs) the base requirements should meet the SHARI principle. I would ignore the performance issues that seems to be null couse obviously an Ionic App runs in what is barely a normal browser (you can check it [here](https://ionicframework.com/docs/v1/guide/preface.html)).
If your app requirements share the SHARI principle why not to use NgRx |
97,135 | I'm trying to understand the workings of flash memory, at the transistor level. After quite some research, I've acquired good intuitions about floating-gate transistors and how one injects electrons or removes them from the cell. I'm from a CS background, so my understanding of physical phenomena like tunneling or hot electron injection are probably quite shaky, but still I'm comfortable with it. I also got myself an idea about how one reads from either NOR or NAND memory layouts.
But I read everywhere that flash memory can only be erased in block units and can only be written to in page units. However, I found no justification for this limitation and I'm trying to get an intuition about why it is so. | 2014/01/21 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/97135",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/17048/"
] | It's by definition. A flash memory that allows writing individual bits is called [EEPROM](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EEPROM).
Flash differs from EEPROM in that erasures are done in blocks, rather than individual bits. Because erasing is a relatively slow operation, and must be done before writing, performing the erase in a large block makes large write operations faster, by virtue of erasing a large number of bits in parallel.
Erasing in blocks also allows simplifications to the IC, reducing cost. Economies of scale further reduce cost of flash over EEPROM, as flash is used in great quantities these days for solid-state drives, while EEPROM is used in much smaller quantities. | The best answer I've found to your question is covered at [How Flash Memory Works](http://computer.howstuffworks.com/flash-memory1.htm) where it says:
>
> The electrons in the cells of a flash-memory chip can be returned to normal ("1") by the application of an electric field, a higher-voltage charge. Flash memory uses in-circuit wiring to apply the electric field either to the entire chip or to predetermined sections known as blocks. This erases the targeted area of the chip, which can then be rewritten. Flash memory works much faster than traditional EEPROMs because instead of erasing one byte at a time, it erases a block or the entire chip, and then rewrites it.
>
>
>
I don't understand why the "in-circuit wiring" allow for bit level programming (switching from 1 to 0) but it might be related to the different way the transitions 1 to 0 is performed (programming via hot injection) compared to 0 to 1 transition (erasing via Fowler-Nordheim tunnelling). |
97,135 | I'm trying to understand the workings of flash memory, at the transistor level. After quite some research, I've acquired good intuitions about floating-gate transistors and how one injects electrons or removes them from the cell. I'm from a CS background, so my understanding of physical phenomena like tunneling or hot electron injection are probably quite shaky, but still I'm comfortable with it. I also got myself an idea about how one reads from either NOR or NAND memory layouts.
But I read everywhere that flash memory can only be erased in block units and can only be written to in page units. However, I found no justification for this limitation and I'm trying to get an intuition about why it is so. | 2014/01/21 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/97135",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/17048/"
] | You are right in the fact that there's no physical justification for having to erase in block units.
Programming a cell is done by creating an electric field between the bulk and the control gate like shown in fig1, and the same idea is valid for erasing the cell, an electric field in the opposite direction would do the job as shown in fig2.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hnRvK.png)
However, for constructive reasons, it's relatively complex to generate and use the negative voltage, so the strategy used is the one shown in fig3, by setting a high voltage at the bulk (which is the logic ground reference in the sector).
Selection transistors can't be used anymore, only the control gates can be driven low, and this forces a full sector erase. | The best answer I've found to your question is covered at [How Flash Memory Works](http://computer.howstuffworks.com/flash-memory1.htm) where it says:
>
> The electrons in the cells of a flash-memory chip can be returned to normal ("1") by the application of an electric field, a higher-voltage charge. Flash memory uses in-circuit wiring to apply the electric field either to the entire chip or to predetermined sections known as blocks. This erases the targeted area of the chip, which can then be rewritten. Flash memory works much faster than traditional EEPROMs because instead of erasing one byte at a time, it erases a block or the entire chip, and then rewrites it.
>
>
>
I don't understand why the "in-circuit wiring" allow for bit level programming (switching from 1 to 0) but it might be related to the different way the transitions 1 to 0 is performed (programming via hot injection) compared to 0 to 1 transition (erasing via Fowler-Nordheim tunnelling). |
27,009,078 | I am having problem with USPS shipping API
Here is my XML
<https://secure.shippingapis.com/ShippingAPI.dll?API=DelivConfirmCertifyV4&XML=%3C?xml%20version=%221.0%22%20encoding=%22UTF-8%22%20?%3E%3CDelivConfirmCertifyV4.0Request%20USERID=%22228OURBA2607%22%20PASSWORD=%22728ZK94KL112%22%3E%3CRevision%3E2%3C/Revision%3E%3CImageParameters%20/%3E%3CFromName%3EJohn%3C/FromName%3E%3CFromFirm%3E%20%3C/FromFirm%3E%3CFromAddress1%3EFlat%201%3C/FromAddress1%3E%3CFromAddress2%3ERoad%201%3C/FromAddress2%3E%3CFromCity%3ENY%3C/FromCity%3E%3CFromState%3ENY%3C/FromState%3E%3CFromZip5%3E12345%20%3C/FromZip5%3E%3CFromZip4/%3E%3CToName%3E%20Mozilla%20Foundation%20%3C/ToName%3E%3CToFirm%3E%20%3C/ToFirm%3E%3CToAddress1%3E%20Building%20K%20%3C/ToAddress1%3E%3CToAddress2%3E%201981%20Landings%20Drive%20%3C/ToAddress2%3E%3CToCity%3E%20Mountain%20View%3C/ToCity%3E%3CToState%3E%20CA%20%3C/ToState%3E%3CToZip5%3E%20%20%2094043%20%3C/ToZip5%3E%3CToZip4%20/%3E%3CWeightInOunces%3E%203%20%3C/WeightInOunces%3E%3CServiceType%3EPriority%3C/ServiceType%3E%3CImageType%3ETIF%3C/ImageType%3E%3C/DelivConfirmCertifyV4.0Request%3E>
It return the correct image but on top of it it is written SAMPLE DO NOT MAIL. How to remove that? | 2014/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/27009078",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3158021/"
] | I assume that you have already registered for USPS Web Tools here:
<https://secure.shippingapis.com/registration/>
And have received confirmation from USPS that your account is active:
If you need to set up USPS or your customers are receiving this error on check out (See below) you should confirm the following
1. Confirm that our USPS API access is approved
2. Confirm that it is not in test mode and is in production mode
* If USPS says your account is active, this does not mean it is in production mode, - you need to call USPS and specifically request that it be moved to production mode after your account has been approved. A good idea is to perform this quick test:
Insert the following into your browser with your own USERID in place of the XXXX in the URL of any browser:
<https://secure.shippingapis.com/ShippingAPITest.dll?API=CarrierPick>... USERID="XXXX">ABC Corp.Suite 7771390 Market StreetHoustonTX770581234
If your USPS account is active, it should accept the username.
3. Confirm that your username and password is for this site only. USPS only allows 1 domain per account.
<http://production.shippingapis.com/ShippingAPI.dll>
The problem is that by default, you don’t have access to USPS’s production API. They have to approve you first. Keep in mind that they only allow you to use it on one web site per account, so if you’re setting Magento up for a client, customer, or other business entity other than your own you should set up a separate USPS account for them.
That's why you're receiving this text - "Sample Do Not Mail" over the generated shipping label.
You can set up your USPS WebTools account here:
<http://www.usps.com/webtools/>
Once you have set up your account, they will give you access to the testing environment.
The URL for the USPS test API is:
<http://testing.shippingapis.com/ShippingAPITest.dll>
I recommend asking USPS to turn on production mode. When you are approved by USPS for the production API, you should use the following URLs:
<http://production.shippingapis.com/ShippingAPI.dll>
<https://secure.shippingapis.com/ShippingAPI.dll>
When you have completed your testing, email the USPS Internet Customer Care Center (ICCC). They will switch your profile to allow you access to the production server and will provide you with the production URLs.
The ICCC is staffed as follows:
Monday through Friday from 8:00AM to 8:30PM Eastern Time
Saturday from 8:00AM to 6:00PM Eastern Time
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E-mail: uspstechsupport@esecurecare.net
Telephone: 1-800-344-7779
But remember, it’s very important that you set up a separate USPS account for each web site (or at least one per domain). USPS will disable your access to their production server if you are caught using your account on multiple web sites.
To request access to the USPS production API, fill out the form here:
<http://www.usps.com/webtools/webtoolsapirequestform.htm>
USPS doesn’t allow you to use their API for batch processing or data cleansing, so be sure to NOT check these boxes on the request form.
Once USPS gives you access to their production API server, everything should work corresponding to all USPS shipping options. If you are still having trouble, again check that you have access to USPS’s production API server. | From <https://www.usps.com/business/web-tools-apis/webtools-faqs.pdf>
>
> The API containing "Certify" is our testing API which will only print
> labels with the sample watermark. In order to generate actual labels,
> you must remove "Certify" from your Web Tools XML requests.
>
>
>
Additionally:
>
> See below 2.3 for additional details. Integrators should note that our
> “Certify” test APIs are intended for limited functional verification
> of API requests/responses. Any secondary processes, s uch as creation
> of a SCAN Form or Shipping Services File, are not supported with
> “Certify” APIs. For expanded functional testing support of Web Tools
> APIs, users should contact the USPS IT HelpDesk at
> <https://usps.force.com/emailus/s/> Select (Web Tools) and describe your
> testing needs in detail.
>
>
> |
20,820 | Who runs the Bitcoin network, and how do they adjust the rate at which the coins are created? | 2014/01/20 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/20820",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/12432/"
] | TL;DR: **The Bitcoin protocol runs the Bitcoin network and the rate at which coins are created cannot be adjusted manually, but follows a pre-defined reward schedule.**
The money supply in Bitcoin is governed by the rules defined in the Bitcoin protocol. The protocol defines a reward schedule, i.e. how many Bitcoins may be created with each block, and the rules by which valid blocks may be created.
Reward schedule
---------------
The Bitcoin protocol allows a miner that finds a valid block to create a specific amount of new Bitcoins and sent them to an address of the miner's choosing. To do so, the miner includes the mandatory *coinbase transaction* in the block which doesn't have an input, but only outputs the newly generated coins.
For Bitcoin, this *block reward* started out to be 50 BTC per block. It is halved every 210,000 blocks, so that it is currently 25 BTC per block (as we are currently at block 281,535).
Block interval and difficulty
-----------------------------
The protocol defines that any block which doesn't fulfill the current *difficulty* criteria should not be accepted by the network. The *difficulty* is adjusted every 2016 blocks (approx. every 14 days). By the rules defined in the protocol, the new difficulty is calculated such that there would be approximately one block every ten minutes, if the amount of the work available to the network remained like it was for the previous difficulty period. | Via difficulty: <https://en.bitcoin.it/wiki/Difficulty>
Simply put, the network tries its best to make sure a block of 25 BTC (reward will change in the future) is found every 10 minutes. |
200,620 | I often hear people say
>
> I will do it when I reach to home
>
>
>
While it does not make sense and I urge the people correct themselves, I often fail to give them the logic.
What suggestions may you have for me? | 2014/10/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/200620",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/93952/"
] | In "to go home" "home" is neither a preposition nor "a direct object" but an adverb indicating the destination of the verb to go. The expression is to go home and "to go to home" is simply wrong, maybe used by people who have not learnt proper English. If you need an argument for the correct expression of "to go home" you simply can say it is in the dictionaries in this form.
Nevertheless poster Tiwari is correct in saying there are people who use "to home". Beside a steep graph line for "to go home" Google Ngram Viewer has a graph line for "to go to home", although it is incorrect. I think "to home" can only be heard in AmE by speakers whose English is a bit wobbly. But I would like to learn more about the mysterious Ngram line of "to go to home".
Thinking about "to go to home" it is possible that some speakers take "home" as the noun as in "my home" and construct "I'm going to (my) home". But "home" is not only a noun but also an adverb (a where-to indication). English "I'm going home" is parallel to German "Ich gehe heim". | *I will do it when I reach to home* is possibly a hypercorrection, using "to" in a way that seems awkward to native English speakers.
*When I reach home* is smoother. "Home" in this instance is the direct object of the verb "reach". The speaker is trying to make a prepositional phrase "to home" when that is not necessary for the meaning. |
200,620 | I often hear people say
>
> I will do it when I reach to home
>
>
>
While it does not make sense and I urge the people correct themselves, I often fail to give them the logic.
What suggestions may you have for me? | 2014/10/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/200620",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/93952/"
] | *I will do it when I reach to home* is possibly a hypercorrection, using "to" in a way that seems awkward to native English speakers.
*When I reach home* is smoother. "Home" in this instance is the direct object of the verb "reach". The speaker is trying to make a prepositional phrase "to home" when that is not necessary for the meaning. | When we say "go home", we must know that it is, in fact, "go to home". In this context, the world " home" is an object of the implicit preposition "To" , and "To home" is a prepositional adverbial phrase indicating the direction and modifying the verb "Go". In general, " Go home" is originally "Go to home", and it's function is Adverb. |
200,620 | I often hear people say
>
> I will do it when I reach to home
>
>
>
While it does not make sense and I urge the people correct themselves, I often fail to give them the logic.
What suggestions may you have for me? | 2014/10/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/200620",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/93952/"
] | In "to go home" "home" is neither a preposition nor "a direct object" but an adverb indicating the destination of the verb to go. The expression is to go home and "to go to home" is simply wrong, maybe used by people who have not learnt proper English. If you need an argument for the correct expression of "to go home" you simply can say it is in the dictionaries in this form.
Nevertheless poster Tiwari is correct in saying there are people who use "to home". Beside a steep graph line for "to go home" Google Ngram Viewer has a graph line for "to go to home", although it is incorrect. I think "to home" can only be heard in AmE by speakers whose English is a bit wobbly. But I would like to learn more about the mysterious Ngram line of "to go to home".
Thinking about "to go to home" it is possible that some speakers take "home" as the noun as in "my home" and construct "I'm going to (my) home". But "home" is not only a noun but also an adverb (a where-to indication). English "I'm going home" is parallel to German "Ich gehe heim". | When we say "go home", we must know that it is, in fact, "go to home". In this context, the world " home" is an object of the implicit preposition "To" , and "To home" is a prepositional adverbial phrase indicating the direction and modifying the verb "Go". In general, " Go home" is originally "Go to home", and it's function is Adverb. |
113,394 | Basically I want to end-up with kind of a fresh or newly purchased game wherein none of the missions are unlocked.
This may seem an odd question but I want to play WC3 again and having all those missions readily exposed or available ruins the experience for me. | 2013/04/09 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/113394",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/46637/"
] | It's easiest to create a new single player profile in the single-player menu above the campaign button. You can also delete the save-games for your chosen profile on the hard-drive. The save games with profiles should be located in the save folder in your game directory. | Installing it again would work but takes time and is absolutely not needed. Warcraft III and Warcraft III:TFT both being games that were able to be played offline, they have **local** campaign content and save. Which means they don't have cloud-like data such as Starcraft 2. With this in mind you can assume there is, somewhere in your installation, those saved games you want to get rid of. You can delete (or maybe just backup for latter) them. Find your Warcraft 3 profile, your in-game local name for your campain, and delete it! Also, you can just start another one. Being binded to directories, the game wont let you have the same name.
Have fun playing this super game again! |
113,394 | Basically I want to end-up with kind of a fresh or newly purchased game wherein none of the missions are unlocked.
This may seem an odd question but I want to play WC3 again and having all those missions readily exposed or available ruins the experience for me. | 2013/04/09 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/113394",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/46637/"
] | It's easiest to create a new single player profile in the single-player menu above the campaign button. You can also delete the save-games for your chosen profile on the hard-drive. The save games with profiles should be located in the save folder in your game directory. | You just need to **create new player profile**.
You do so by going to "single player" menu and clicking on magnifying glass next to your current player name. |
113,394 | Basically I want to end-up with kind of a fresh or newly purchased game wherein none of the missions are unlocked.
This may seem an odd question but I want to play WC3 again and having all those missions readily exposed or available ruins the experience for me. | 2013/04/09 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/113394",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/46637/"
] | Installing it again would work but takes time and is absolutely not needed. Warcraft III and Warcraft III:TFT both being games that were able to be played offline, they have **local** campaign content and save. Which means they don't have cloud-like data such as Starcraft 2. With this in mind you can assume there is, somewhere in your installation, those saved games you want to get rid of. You can delete (or maybe just backup for latter) them. Find your Warcraft 3 profile, your in-game local name for your campain, and delete it! Also, you can just start another one. Being binded to directories, the game wont let you have the same name.
Have fun playing this super game again! | You just need to **create new player profile**.
You do so by going to "single player" menu and clicking on magnifying glass next to your current player name. |
114,440 | The questions are in the title, picture is below, but here are the (TL/DR) details.
About 9 months ago, I bought an electric guitar "kit" and assembled it (fun, highly recommended). This included fret leveling, crowning, and polishing. A guitarist friend of mine acted like I might as well go over Einstein's Theory of Relativity and see if I could find some mistakes—it's that difficult! But it went well, in my opinion.
I got the intonation pretty close at the 12th fret through normal saddle adjustment, but ran out of travel on the 2nd and 3rd strings, and had to reverse the individual saddles to get them spot-on. The only problem I still have is the intonation on the first few frets, not so much on strings 4-6, but it's pretty bad on G(3rd), somewhat bad on B(2nd) and merely noticeable on E(1st). They sound sharp, bad on the 1st fret, better as you go up until about the 5th fret is again spot-on. Google tells me that this is pretty common (though I have no explanation as to why G is an especially fickle string!).
I've come to appreciate that if you squeeze the crap out of (example) the G string on second fret that this causes A to become *really* sharp, and if you just barely touch the fret, it's not so bad, but even when I'm barely touching the fret, which is not gonna happen in normal play, it's still almost 25 cents sharp.
Some of the advice on the internet tells me to flatten the entire string slightly so that the G is slightly flat and the A is only slightly sharp, but, like, I mean, what the hell???? Other advice I've seen is that I'm probably being too critical; nobody else will hear the difference. Trouble is, I don't believe it. Barre chords sound fine, and when I'm playing at or above 5th fret, even perfect. In this case, every string is fretted, and any slight sharpness due to squeezing the string against the fret is equal across the board, probably unnoticeable. ***But***, when playing open chords (especially, for instance, "D", as 1st - 3rd strings all are fretted at 2nd or 3rd fret, yet 4th string is open), it [sounds bad](https://static.sciencelearn.org.nz/images/images/000/004/105/embed/PHYSICS_SOUND_ART_04_Sound_wave_interference_Sine_wave_interference_Wave_addition_v3.jpg?1568602562). Even open chord "E" has a big problem of the G string fretted at 1st fret (worst string, worst fret, followed by two open strings).
I've been considering trying to shape the individual frets under 3rd string frets 1-3 slightly back (toward the nut), but this seems really scary (worse than the Einstein thing!), especially seeing as how I'm pretty close now.
***THEN!***
(cue dramatic orchestra hit)
I was changing the strings on my Ibanez Acoustic I've had for about a year and a half. While cleaning the fretboard, the light caught the frets in such a way that I could see slight dents(?) under the 1st, 2nd and 3rd strings. Heaviest (dark red circles) on the 1st fret and getting lighter on higher frets until they seemed to completely dissapear on the 6th fret (green circles):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MmUyB.jpg)
(click to enlarge)
The flash obscured the similar dents under the 3rd string, but they're there.
Now the wheels are turning again: Are those indentations there on purpose for intonation? Can I apply this same technique to my electric, relatively\* easily? Any other thoughts/methods I could try to help this?
Or is it more likely that I am completely, irreversibly *insane*?
\* thanks, Einstein! | 2021/05/14 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/114440",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27957/"
] | That's fret wear. The strings have slowly eroded away some of the fret material, leaving those dents. Over a long enough time, they become deep enough to cause problems.
When the fret wear is bad enough, you can have your frets "leveled", which means sanding down the tops of the frets so that the dents are sanded out. Then the frets a re-crowned and dressed and polished and they will be good for a while. Eventually frets wear enough that they have to be replaced, which is called a "refret".
All guitars have compromises on intonation - it's a consequence of the construction and mechanics of the guitar. One thing you can investigate is a *compensating nut*, which is a nut which has tiny extensions so that the nut side of the strings has intonation adjustments made kind of like the saddle side of an adjustable saddle bridge.
Another factor in the intonation of guitars is the ideal placement of the frets, adjustment of the saddles, **and** the overall action.
Personally, I do like your friend suggested and I deliberately tune the open strings of my guitars slightly off from where the tuner would have me tune them in order to make a tradeoff for better intonation around the 7th - 9th frets, where I like to play the most. I don't do this on my acoustic guitars, but I do it on my electrics.
Another thing I agree with is that mainly listeners don't notice the intonation quirks of guitars, but in some ways they do but it doesn't matter because that's a part of how guitars sound. It's one of the little details that synths and sample libraries don't quite get right when they try to imitate guitars. | Those fret indentations are wear caused by playing. No manufactures would put them in on purpose.
My first move would be to consider that the neck is actually too close to the bridge. Maybe it could be moved, making it longer, by a few millimetres. Measure the distance between nut and 12th fret. It should be, give or take a couple of mm, the same as 12th fret to saddle on the 3rd/4th string. If that is short, then 'elongating' the neck should improve things, and the saddles can be adjusted accordingly.
I can't see how changing the nut will improve matters - all that will do is make the 1st fret longer, not adjust the neck or other frets.
If the action is high, then pressing the strings down will effectively sharpen them too much. |
114,440 | The questions are in the title, picture is below, but here are the (TL/DR) details.
About 9 months ago, I bought an electric guitar "kit" and assembled it (fun, highly recommended). This included fret leveling, crowning, and polishing. A guitarist friend of mine acted like I might as well go over Einstein's Theory of Relativity and see if I could find some mistakes—it's that difficult! But it went well, in my opinion.
I got the intonation pretty close at the 12th fret through normal saddle adjustment, but ran out of travel on the 2nd and 3rd strings, and had to reverse the individual saddles to get them spot-on. The only problem I still have is the intonation on the first few frets, not so much on strings 4-6, but it's pretty bad on G(3rd), somewhat bad on B(2nd) and merely noticeable on E(1st). They sound sharp, bad on the 1st fret, better as you go up until about the 5th fret is again spot-on. Google tells me that this is pretty common (though I have no explanation as to why G is an especially fickle string!).
I've come to appreciate that if you squeeze the crap out of (example) the G string on second fret that this causes A to become *really* sharp, and if you just barely touch the fret, it's not so bad, but even when I'm barely touching the fret, which is not gonna happen in normal play, it's still almost 25 cents sharp.
Some of the advice on the internet tells me to flatten the entire string slightly so that the G is slightly flat and the A is only slightly sharp, but, like, I mean, what the hell???? Other advice I've seen is that I'm probably being too critical; nobody else will hear the difference. Trouble is, I don't believe it. Barre chords sound fine, and when I'm playing at or above 5th fret, even perfect. In this case, every string is fretted, and any slight sharpness due to squeezing the string against the fret is equal across the board, probably unnoticeable. ***But***, when playing open chords (especially, for instance, "D", as 1st - 3rd strings all are fretted at 2nd or 3rd fret, yet 4th string is open), it [sounds bad](https://static.sciencelearn.org.nz/images/images/000/004/105/embed/PHYSICS_SOUND_ART_04_Sound_wave_interference_Sine_wave_interference_Wave_addition_v3.jpg?1568602562). Even open chord "E" has a big problem of the G string fretted at 1st fret (worst string, worst fret, followed by two open strings).
I've been considering trying to shape the individual frets under 3rd string frets 1-3 slightly back (toward the nut), but this seems really scary (worse than the Einstein thing!), especially seeing as how I'm pretty close now.
***THEN!***
(cue dramatic orchestra hit)
I was changing the strings on my Ibanez Acoustic I've had for about a year and a half. While cleaning the fretboard, the light caught the frets in such a way that I could see slight dents(?) under the 1st, 2nd and 3rd strings. Heaviest (dark red circles) on the 1st fret and getting lighter on higher frets until they seemed to completely dissapear on the 6th fret (green circles):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MmUyB.jpg)
(click to enlarge)
The flash obscured the similar dents under the 3rd string, but they're there.
Now the wheels are turning again: Are those indentations there on purpose for intonation? Can I apply this same technique to my electric, relatively\* easily? Any other thoughts/methods I could try to help this?
Or is it more likely that I am completely, irreversibly *insane*?
\* thanks, Einstein! | 2021/05/14 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/114440",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27957/"
] | That's fret wear. The strings have slowly eroded away some of the fret material, leaving those dents. Over a long enough time, they become deep enough to cause problems.
When the fret wear is bad enough, you can have your frets "leveled", which means sanding down the tops of the frets so that the dents are sanded out. Then the frets a re-crowned and dressed and polished and they will be good for a while. Eventually frets wear enough that they have to be replaced, which is called a "refret".
All guitars have compromises on intonation - it's a consequence of the construction and mechanics of the guitar. One thing you can investigate is a *compensating nut*, which is a nut which has tiny extensions so that the nut side of the strings has intonation adjustments made kind of like the saddle side of an adjustable saddle bridge.
Another factor in the intonation of guitars is the ideal placement of the frets, adjustment of the saddles, **and** the overall action.
Personally, I do like your friend suggested and I deliberately tune the open strings of my guitars slightly off from where the tuner would have me tune them in order to make a tradeoff for better intonation around the 7th - 9th frets, where I like to play the most. I don't do this on my acoustic guitars, but I do it on my electrics.
Another thing I agree with is that mainly listeners don't notice the intonation quirks of guitars, but in some ways they do but it doesn't matter because that's a part of how guitars sound. It's one of the little details that synths and sample libraries don't quite get right when they try to imitate guitars. | Since the intonation is correct using bar chords but not with open chords I would check the height of the nut string slots. If a couple strings are riding higher they will go sharper than the others and this problem will be more pronounced as you get closer to the nut. For example, you’ll likely find playing an open E chord more out out tune than an open G. Bar chords rest evenly on frets which have very even heights but even lower played bar chords ( such as an F) would also be adversely affected by the varying string heights of an uneven nut slot issue.
You’ll need specialized nut files to do this correctly. Stewart McDonald luthier supplies is a great source.
Cheers,
Thelowedown |
114,440 | The questions are in the title, picture is below, but here are the (TL/DR) details.
About 9 months ago, I bought an electric guitar "kit" and assembled it (fun, highly recommended). This included fret leveling, crowning, and polishing. A guitarist friend of mine acted like I might as well go over Einstein's Theory of Relativity and see if I could find some mistakes—it's that difficult! But it went well, in my opinion.
I got the intonation pretty close at the 12th fret through normal saddle adjustment, but ran out of travel on the 2nd and 3rd strings, and had to reverse the individual saddles to get them spot-on. The only problem I still have is the intonation on the first few frets, not so much on strings 4-6, but it's pretty bad on G(3rd), somewhat bad on B(2nd) and merely noticeable on E(1st). They sound sharp, bad on the 1st fret, better as you go up until about the 5th fret is again spot-on. Google tells me that this is pretty common (though I have no explanation as to why G is an especially fickle string!).
I've come to appreciate that if you squeeze the crap out of (example) the G string on second fret that this causes A to become *really* sharp, and if you just barely touch the fret, it's not so bad, but even when I'm barely touching the fret, which is not gonna happen in normal play, it's still almost 25 cents sharp.
Some of the advice on the internet tells me to flatten the entire string slightly so that the G is slightly flat and the A is only slightly sharp, but, like, I mean, what the hell???? Other advice I've seen is that I'm probably being too critical; nobody else will hear the difference. Trouble is, I don't believe it. Barre chords sound fine, and when I'm playing at or above 5th fret, even perfect. In this case, every string is fretted, and any slight sharpness due to squeezing the string against the fret is equal across the board, probably unnoticeable. ***But***, when playing open chords (especially, for instance, "D", as 1st - 3rd strings all are fretted at 2nd or 3rd fret, yet 4th string is open), it [sounds bad](https://static.sciencelearn.org.nz/images/images/000/004/105/embed/PHYSICS_SOUND_ART_04_Sound_wave_interference_Sine_wave_interference_Wave_addition_v3.jpg?1568602562). Even open chord "E" has a big problem of the G string fretted at 1st fret (worst string, worst fret, followed by two open strings).
I've been considering trying to shape the individual frets under 3rd string frets 1-3 slightly back (toward the nut), but this seems really scary (worse than the Einstein thing!), especially seeing as how I'm pretty close now.
***THEN!***
(cue dramatic orchestra hit)
I was changing the strings on my Ibanez Acoustic I've had for about a year and a half. While cleaning the fretboard, the light caught the frets in such a way that I could see slight dents(?) under the 1st, 2nd and 3rd strings. Heaviest (dark red circles) on the 1st fret and getting lighter on higher frets until they seemed to completely dissapear on the 6th fret (green circles):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MmUyB.jpg)
(click to enlarge)
The flash obscured the similar dents under the 3rd string, but they're there.
Now the wheels are turning again: Are those indentations there on purpose for intonation? Can I apply this same technique to my electric, relatively\* easily? Any other thoughts/methods I could try to help this?
Or is it more likely that I am completely, irreversibly *insane*?
\* thanks, Einstein! | 2021/05/14 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/114440",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27957/"
] | Those fret indentations are wear caused by playing. No manufactures would put them in on purpose.
My first move would be to consider that the neck is actually too close to the bridge. Maybe it could be moved, making it longer, by a few millimetres. Measure the distance between nut and 12th fret. It should be, give or take a couple of mm, the same as 12th fret to saddle on the 3rd/4th string. If that is short, then 'elongating' the neck should improve things, and the saddles can be adjusted accordingly.
I can't see how changing the nut will improve matters - all that will do is make the 1st fret longer, not adjust the neck or other frets.
If the action is high, then pressing the strings down will effectively sharpen them too much. | Since the intonation is correct using bar chords but not with open chords I would check the height of the nut string slots. If a couple strings are riding higher they will go sharper than the others and this problem will be more pronounced as you get closer to the nut. For example, you’ll likely find playing an open E chord more out out tune than an open G. Bar chords rest evenly on frets which have very even heights but even lower played bar chords ( such as an F) would also be adversely affected by the varying string heights of an uneven nut slot issue.
You’ll need specialized nut files to do this correctly. Stewart McDonald luthier supplies is a great source.
Cheers,
Thelowedown |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | I had this trouble, and after checking the usual suspects (Replaced chain, cassette, cables, housing, and derailleur), it turned out my frame was failing near the bottom bracket.
Although it's the most expensive to fix: before you start replacing components, do a quick visual inspection of the frame. Look for cracks/separations around the rear triangle. This is a rare problem, but could be the most serious.
If you determine your frame is fine:
1. Make sure your drivetrain is in good shape (not overly worn)
2. Your cables move with ease and don't need replaced
3. Your derailleur hanger is straight.
4. your cassette is tight | As an addendum to other answers, this was happening to me (not ghost shifting but the chain jumping forward). This started on a new chain, so I changed the cassette. It still happened. A test ride demonstrated that it only jumped in the middle chainring (by far the most used) even though it didn't look much more worn than the other rings. So in this case changing the crankset was the solution. |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | In order of least expensive to most expensive, you either have
1. a misadjusted derailleur,
2. a very worn out cassette, or
3. a crack in your frame.
If you're not noticing any problems shifting under normal circumstances, I'd odds are good that your cassette is worn out and your chain no longer meshes with the cogs correctly. | I had this trouble, and after checking the usual suspects (Replaced chain, cassette, cables, housing, and derailleur), it turned out my frame was failing near the bottom bracket.
Although it's the most expensive to fix: before you start replacing components, do a quick visual inspection of the frame. Look for cracks/separations around the rear triangle. This is a rare problem, but could be the most serious.
If you determine your frame is fine:
1. Make sure your drivetrain is in good shape (not overly worn)
2. Your cables move with ease and don't need replaced
3. Your derailleur hanger is straight.
4. your cassette is tight |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | In order of least expensive to most expensive, you either have
1. a misadjusted derailleur,
2. a very worn out cassette, or
3. a crack in your frame.
If you're not noticing any problems shifting under normal circumstances, I'd odds are good that your cassette is worn out and your chain no longer meshes with the cogs correctly. | **Change the chain, cassette and/or chain rings**
If your shifting works perfectly on a bike stand, and only slips when pedaling strongly, these components being worn out are overwhelmingly likely the cause of the problem.
When you start riding bicycles you think: hey, the chain/cassette/chain ring are made of metal, they will last as long as my frame, right?
But no, wrong. Those parts are basically disposable components of the bicycle. For example, I have to change chains more often than I change brake pads!
The chain stretches with usage. And the chain always eats away the metal of the cassette/chain ring. And if the chain is overstreched, it very quickly eats away those parts. More precisely, the cassette/chain ring are eaten up to adjust to your stretched chain, and then when you put a new chain on, they start to slip.
You can then often very clearly notice that the gears you use the most are the only ones that are slipping. E.g. on my 8 rear + 3 front gear bike, the 6th on the rear and the 2nd on the front are the most used ones by far.
When you start to notice this, you also start to more consciously try to use the gears more evenly to try and increase the lifespan of those components.
What you have to do is to learn how to identify which of those three parts need to be changed, here's how.
**Is the chain worn out?**
This one is easy: you MUST buy and a chain stretch checker and use it regularly
This tool is a must because out of the three parts, the chain is the one that goes bad first. And once over-stretched, it very quickly destroys the other two parts, which are more expensive and harder to replace.
I got myself a [Park Tool CC-2 CHAIN CHECKER](https://www.parktool.com/product/chain-checker-cc-2) for example, and it is definitely worth it.
Here's me measuring a new chain with it to test it out. It reads 0.25, so the chain is new.
When you measure the chain and it reads 0.75 or more, you rebuy it. It is mathematical.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KdLHV.jpg)
Another thing is that you start to learn the frequency at which you normally need to change your chain.
For example, this is my cadence for my Shimano HG40 8 speed chain according to Strava kilometrage:
* replace 2021-07 after 3000km
* replace 2021-04 after 2000km
If you don't have the checker tool, which you must obtain sooner or later, you can try to check the chain by simply pulling on it on the large chainring with your hand. If a visible space appears, the chain is worn. Here is an extreme example of when I started riding and didn't maintain my chain. A well maintained drivetrain should never reach this point:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oDJJf.jpg)
**Are the cassette and chainring worn out?**
These are a bit harder.
There are a few options:
* visual inspection of the teeth
* sync with the chain replacement
* the chain is new, but some gears are skipping
By visual inspection, you can look out for two tell signs:
* symmetry of the teeth. New teeth are symmetric, old teeth are worn out in the direction of pull.
* width of the teeth. Old teeth are narrower/pointier than newer teeth.
Since those are not so easy to measure, once you reach a steady state of bicycle usage and maintenance, it might be easier to just replace them in sync with the chain. [Do I really have to replace the cassette when I replace the chain, or is this a scam?](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/52592/do-i-really-have-to-replace-the-cassette-when-i-replace-the-chain-or-is-this-a) says one cassette every two chains, and it sound reasonable according to my experience. TODO chain ring, possibly one every two or three cassettes.
Another more lazy approach that I'm de-facto using is to just inspect the chainring and cassette on every chain swap. If they look fine, give it a try. If the chain skips a bit, buy a new one whichever one of the two seems worse. This can be determined by feeling in which gears the slip happens. With this approach, you will have a few days of slippage, but you will use your parts closer to their limit.
Here are some side-by-side of identical models of new vs old Shimano CS-HG50-8 cassette and a Shimano Shimano FC-M311 chainring that I wore to oblivion before I knew about any of this. The chainring was especially worn on the 2nd gear. My bike cleaning skills also improve a bit since.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Olhno.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vb299.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YPXHy.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CvlLz.jpg)
Related: [While pedaling standing up, bike crank gives in as if shifting, what is causing this?](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7420/while-pedaling-standing-up-bike-crank-gives-in-as-if-shifting-what-is-causing) |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | I had this trouble, and after checking the usual suspects (Replaced chain, cassette, cables, housing, and derailleur), it turned out my frame was failing near the bottom bracket.
Although it's the most expensive to fix: before you start replacing components, do a quick visual inspection of the frame. Look for cracks/separations around the rear triangle. This is a rare problem, but could be the most serious.
If you determine your frame is fine:
1. Make sure your drivetrain is in good shape (not overly worn)
2. Your cables move with ease and don't need replaced
3. Your derailleur hanger is straight.
4. your cassette is tight | I had this problem on an old mountain bike.
I changed the derailleur and it doesn't do it now.
I noticed the old one was not screwed in very tightly when swapping out so this could have caused it.
I had a broken spoke and thought this caused it, re-spoked wheel with all new spokes.
I also swapped out the freewheel as I thought maybe the pawls had worn out.
Finally changed the derailleur and it worked. |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | I'd go with the following hypotheses, beyond that already proposed:
1. Your derailer is a bit misadjusted, so the gear is already almost shifting down. When you pedal hard, your frame flexes, thus releasing some cable, and the gear shifts "automatically". This is specially true if you have a brazeon on front part of downtube, then the cable runs outside of the housings, probably passing through an under-bottom-bracket guide, and then enters housing again in a braze-on close to the rear shifter (I'm doing some paranormal guess, here, but you got the idea);
2. You have friction shifter, and the shifter is slowly slipping down, so that when you pedal hard it actually shifts.
Two hypotheses are wild guesses, but maybe one of them is true (tell me if so ;o) | As an addendum to other answers, this was happening to me (not ghost shifting but the chain jumping forward). This started on a new chain, so I changed the cassette. It still happened. A test ride demonstrated that it only jumped in the middle chainring (by far the most used) even though it didn't look much more worn than the other rings. So in this case changing the crankset was the solution. |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | In order of least expensive to most expensive, you either have
1. a misadjusted derailleur,
2. a very worn out cassette, or
3. a crack in your frame.
If you're not noticing any problems shifting under normal circumstances, I'd odds are good that your cassette is worn out and your chain no longer meshes with the cogs correctly. | I'd go with the following hypotheses, beyond that already proposed:
1. Your derailer is a bit misadjusted, so the gear is already almost shifting down. When you pedal hard, your frame flexes, thus releasing some cable, and the gear shifts "automatically". This is specially true if you have a brazeon on front part of downtube, then the cable runs outside of the housings, probably passing through an under-bottom-bracket guide, and then enters housing again in a braze-on close to the rear shifter (I'm doing some paranormal guess, here, but you got the idea);
2. You have friction shifter, and the shifter is slowly slipping down, so that when you pedal hard it actually shifts.
Two hypotheses are wild guesses, but maybe one of them is true (tell me if so ;o) |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | I'd go with the following hypotheses, beyond that already proposed:
1. Your derailer is a bit misadjusted, so the gear is already almost shifting down. When you pedal hard, your frame flexes, thus releasing some cable, and the gear shifts "automatically". This is specially true if you have a brazeon on front part of downtube, then the cable runs outside of the housings, probably passing through an under-bottom-bracket guide, and then enters housing again in a braze-on close to the rear shifter (I'm doing some paranormal guess, here, but you got the idea);
2. You have friction shifter, and the shifter is slowly slipping down, so that when you pedal hard it actually shifts.
Two hypotheses are wild guesses, but maybe one of them is true (tell me if so ;o) | I had this trouble, and after checking the usual suspects (Replaced chain, cassette, cables, housing, and derailleur), it turned out my frame was failing near the bottom bracket.
Although it's the most expensive to fix: before you start replacing components, do a quick visual inspection of the frame. Look for cracks/separations around the rear triangle. This is a rare problem, but could be the most serious.
If you determine your frame is fine:
1. Make sure your drivetrain is in good shape (not overly worn)
2. Your cables move with ease and don't need replaced
3. Your derailleur hanger is straight.
4. your cassette is tight |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | I had this trouble, and after checking the usual suspects (Replaced chain, cassette, cables, housing, and derailleur), it turned out my frame was failing near the bottom bracket.
Although it's the most expensive to fix: before you start replacing components, do a quick visual inspection of the frame. Look for cracks/separations around the rear triangle. This is a rare problem, but could be the most serious.
If you determine your frame is fine:
1. Make sure your drivetrain is in good shape (not overly worn)
2. Your cables move with ease and don't need replaced
3. Your derailleur hanger is straight.
4. your cassette is tight | **Change the chain, cassette and/or chain rings**
If your shifting works perfectly on a bike stand, and only slips when pedaling strongly, these components being worn out are overwhelmingly likely the cause of the problem.
When you start riding bicycles you think: hey, the chain/cassette/chain ring are made of metal, they will last as long as my frame, right?
But no, wrong. Those parts are basically disposable components of the bicycle. For example, I have to change chains more often than I change brake pads!
The chain stretches with usage. And the chain always eats away the metal of the cassette/chain ring. And if the chain is overstreched, it very quickly eats away those parts. More precisely, the cassette/chain ring are eaten up to adjust to your stretched chain, and then when you put a new chain on, they start to slip.
You can then often very clearly notice that the gears you use the most are the only ones that are slipping. E.g. on my 8 rear + 3 front gear bike, the 6th on the rear and the 2nd on the front are the most used ones by far.
When you start to notice this, you also start to more consciously try to use the gears more evenly to try and increase the lifespan of those components.
What you have to do is to learn how to identify which of those three parts need to be changed, here's how.
**Is the chain worn out?**
This one is easy: you MUST buy and a chain stretch checker and use it regularly
This tool is a must because out of the three parts, the chain is the one that goes bad first. And once over-stretched, it very quickly destroys the other two parts, which are more expensive and harder to replace.
I got myself a [Park Tool CC-2 CHAIN CHECKER](https://www.parktool.com/product/chain-checker-cc-2) for example, and it is definitely worth it.
Here's me measuring a new chain with it to test it out. It reads 0.25, so the chain is new.
When you measure the chain and it reads 0.75 or more, you rebuy it. It is mathematical.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KdLHV.jpg)
Another thing is that you start to learn the frequency at which you normally need to change your chain.
For example, this is my cadence for my Shimano HG40 8 speed chain according to Strava kilometrage:
* replace 2021-07 after 3000km
* replace 2021-04 after 2000km
If you don't have the checker tool, which you must obtain sooner or later, you can try to check the chain by simply pulling on it on the large chainring with your hand. If a visible space appears, the chain is worn. Here is an extreme example of when I started riding and didn't maintain my chain. A well maintained drivetrain should never reach this point:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oDJJf.jpg)
**Are the cassette and chainring worn out?**
These are a bit harder.
There are a few options:
* visual inspection of the teeth
* sync with the chain replacement
* the chain is new, but some gears are skipping
By visual inspection, you can look out for two tell signs:
* symmetry of the teeth. New teeth are symmetric, old teeth are worn out in the direction of pull.
* width of the teeth. Old teeth are narrower/pointier than newer teeth.
Since those are not so easy to measure, once you reach a steady state of bicycle usage and maintenance, it might be easier to just replace them in sync with the chain. [Do I really have to replace the cassette when I replace the chain, or is this a scam?](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/52592/do-i-really-have-to-replace-the-cassette-when-i-replace-the-chain-or-is-this-a) says one cassette every two chains, and it sound reasonable according to my experience. TODO chain ring, possibly one every two or three cassettes.
Another more lazy approach that I'm de-facto using is to just inspect the chainring and cassette on every chain swap. If they look fine, give it a try. If the chain skips a bit, buy a new one whichever one of the two seems worse. This can be determined by feeling in which gears the slip happens. With this approach, you will have a few days of slippage, but you will use your parts closer to their limit.
Here are some side-by-side of identical models of new vs old Shimano CS-HG50-8 cassette and a Shimano Shimano FC-M311 chainring that I wore to oblivion before I knew about any of this. The chainring was especially worn on the 2nd gear. My bike cleaning skills also improve a bit since.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Olhno.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vb299.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YPXHy.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CvlLz.jpg)
Related: [While pedaling standing up, bike crank gives in as if shifting, what is causing this?](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7420/while-pedaling-standing-up-bike-crank-gives-in-as-if-shifting-what-is-causing) |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | In order of least expensive to most expensive, you either have
1. a misadjusted derailleur,
2. a very worn out cassette, or
3. a crack in your frame.
If you're not noticing any problems shifting under normal circumstances, I'd odds are good that your cassette is worn out and your chain no longer meshes with the cogs correctly. | As an addendum to other answers, this was happening to me (not ghost shifting but the chain jumping forward). This started on a new chain, so I changed the cassette. It still happened. A test ride demonstrated that it only jumped in the middle chainring (by far the most used) even though it didn't look much more worn than the other rings. So in this case changing the crankset was the solution. |
7,928 | I have a road bike that I use to commute ~6 miles to work every day. Some of the portions of the ride are at a steep incline, and I've noticed that when I get up to stand on some of these hills, my gear slips.
I'm not sure if "gear slips" is the right term, but basically after I stand up my gear switches without me triggering it. It's very annoying and sometimes painful when I completely lose control of pedaling for half a second, not to mention the different gear setting.
What could be the cause of this? | 2012/01/31 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7928",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/3183/"
] | I'd go with the following hypotheses, beyond that already proposed:
1. Your derailer is a bit misadjusted, so the gear is already almost shifting down. When you pedal hard, your frame flexes, thus releasing some cable, and the gear shifts "automatically". This is specially true if you have a brazeon on front part of downtube, then the cable runs outside of the housings, probably passing through an under-bottom-bracket guide, and then enters housing again in a braze-on close to the rear shifter (I'm doing some paranormal guess, here, but you got the idea);
2. You have friction shifter, and the shifter is slowly slipping down, so that when you pedal hard it actually shifts.
Two hypotheses are wild guesses, but maybe one of them is true (tell me if so ;o) | **Change the chain, cassette and/or chain rings**
If your shifting works perfectly on a bike stand, and only slips when pedaling strongly, these components being worn out are overwhelmingly likely the cause of the problem.
When you start riding bicycles you think: hey, the chain/cassette/chain ring are made of metal, they will last as long as my frame, right?
But no, wrong. Those parts are basically disposable components of the bicycle. For example, I have to change chains more often than I change brake pads!
The chain stretches with usage. And the chain always eats away the metal of the cassette/chain ring. And if the chain is overstreched, it very quickly eats away those parts. More precisely, the cassette/chain ring are eaten up to adjust to your stretched chain, and then when you put a new chain on, they start to slip.
You can then often very clearly notice that the gears you use the most are the only ones that are slipping. E.g. on my 8 rear + 3 front gear bike, the 6th on the rear and the 2nd on the front are the most used ones by far.
When you start to notice this, you also start to more consciously try to use the gears more evenly to try and increase the lifespan of those components.
What you have to do is to learn how to identify which of those three parts need to be changed, here's how.
**Is the chain worn out?**
This one is easy: you MUST buy and a chain stretch checker and use it regularly
This tool is a must because out of the three parts, the chain is the one that goes bad first. And once over-stretched, it very quickly destroys the other two parts, which are more expensive and harder to replace.
I got myself a [Park Tool CC-2 CHAIN CHECKER](https://www.parktool.com/product/chain-checker-cc-2) for example, and it is definitely worth it.
Here's me measuring a new chain with it to test it out. It reads 0.25, so the chain is new.
When you measure the chain and it reads 0.75 or more, you rebuy it. It is mathematical.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KdLHV.jpg)
Another thing is that you start to learn the frequency at which you normally need to change your chain.
For example, this is my cadence for my Shimano HG40 8 speed chain according to Strava kilometrage:
* replace 2021-07 after 3000km
* replace 2021-04 after 2000km
If you don't have the checker tool, which you must obtain sooner or later, you can try to check the chain by simply pulling on it on the large chainring with your hand. If a visible space appears, the chain is worn. Here is an extreme example of when I started riding and didn't maintain my chain. A well maintained drivetrain should never reach this point:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oDJJf.jpg)
**Are the cassette and chainring worn out?**
These are a bit harder.
There are a few options:
* visual inspection of the teeth
* sync with the chain replacement
* the chain is new, but some gears are skipping
By visual inspection, you can look out for two tell signs:
* symmetry of the teeth. New teeth are symmetric, old teeth are worn out in the direction of pull.
* width of the teeth. Old teeth are narrower/pointier than newer teeth.
Since those are not so easy to measure, once you reach a steady state of bicycle usage and maintenance, it might be easier to just replace them in sync with the chain. [Do I really have to replace the cassette when I replace the chain, or is this a scam?](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/52592/do-i-really-have-to-replace-the-cassette-when-i-replace-the-chain-or-is-this-a) says one cassette every two chains, and it sound reasonable according to my experience. TODO chain ring, possibly one every two or three cassettes.
Another more lazy approach that I'm de-facto using is to just inspect the chainring and cassette on every chain swap. If they look fine, give it a try. If the chain skips a bit, buy a new one whichever one of the two seems worse. This can be determined by feeling in which gears the slip happens. With this approach, you will have a few days of slippage, but you will use your parts closer to their limit.
Here are some side-by-side of identical models of new vs old Shimano CS-HG50-8 cassette and a Shimano Shimano FC-M311 chainring that I wore to oblivion before I knew about any of this. The chainring was especially worn on the 2nd gear. My bike cleaning skills also improve a bit since.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Olhno.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vb299.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YPXHy.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CvlLz.jpg)
Related: [While pedaling standing up, bike crank gives in as if shifting, what is causing this?](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/7420/while-pedaling-standing-up-bike-crank-gives-in-as-if-shifting-what-is-causing) |
18,576 | >
> For the upright will live in the land,
>
> and the blameless will remain in it;
>
> but the wicked will be cut off from the land,
>
> and the unfaithful will be torn from it."
>
>
> [Proverbs 2:21-22 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Proverbs+2&version=NIV)
>
>
>
"The land" seems like it is the land of God, which might symbolize heaven. So how is the eternal security doctrine defended in light of these verses? Does it have something to do with the fact that they are in the Old Testament? | 2013/08/22 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/18576",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/4691/"
] | It is problematic to spiritualize verses too quickly. Recall that the Proverbs were written by Jewish people living in the Jewish homeland of Israel under the Mosaic Covenant--not the New Covenant spoken of by Ezekiel and identified by Jesus at the Last Supper.
This proverb is speaking about upright and wicked people living in the land of Israel at that time. Proverbs are general wisdom also--not incontrovertible truths. Some upright people died young, and some wicked people live to be quite old.
So, again, this is a general proverb that identifies that those who live righteously are often rewarded with long life. The wicked, however, often receive God's judgment in various forms or are just exposed to greater risks for various reasons.
This has nothing to do with the New Covenant. | It depends what you mean by "once saved, always saved" (OSAS).
That is usually a catch phrase of the Free Grace brand of evangelicals (Zane Hodges, Charles Stanley, et al.). That sort of doctrine is refuted better with regard to a James 2-type argument that true faith necessarily results in good works.
The other brand of evangelicals that OSAS might apply to is Calvinists, but their doctrine is that God himself keeps his elect from falling away or being unfaithful and that any final apostasy implies the person wasn't truly saved to begin with.
See the Wikipedia's [perseverance of the saints](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perseverance_of_the_saints) for a discussion of both types.
As for the passage in Proverbs, Narnian nailed it -- you're applying it in spiritualized way to OSAS without much warrant. There are plenty of real problem passages for OSAS such that you don't need to bend this one into service. |
18,576 | >
> For the upright will live in the land,
>
> and the blameless will remain in it;
>
> but the wicked will be cut off from the land,
>
> and the unfaithful will be torn from it."
>
>
> [Proverbs 2:21-22 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Proverbs+2&version=NIV)
>
>
>
"The land" seems like it is the land of God, which might symbolize heaven. So how is the eternal security doctrine defended in light of these verses? Does it have something to do with the fact that they are in the Old Testament? | 2013/08/22 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/18576",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/4691/"
] | It is problematic to spiritualize verses too quickly. Recall that the Proverbs were written by Jewish people living in the Jewish homeland of Israel under the Mosaic Covenant--not the New Covenant spoken of by Ezekiel and identified by Jesus at the Last Supper.
This proverb is speaking about upright and wicked people living in the land of Israel at that time. Proverbs are general wisdom also--not incontrovertible truths. Some upright people died young, and some wicked people live to be quite old.
So, again, this is a general proverb that identifies that those who live righteously are often rewarded with long life. The wicked, however, often receive God's judgment in various forms or are just exposed to greater risks for various reasons.
This has nothing to do with the New Covenant. | **Doesn't Proverbs 2: 21-22 disprove “once saved, always saved”?**
>
> Proverbs 2:21-22 For the upright shall dwell in the land, and the
> perfect shall remain in it. But the wicked shall be cut off from the
> earth, and the transgressors shall be rooted out of it.
>
>
>
I see three ways to look at these verses.
1. Practical. In context the preceding verses talk about the dangers of visiting the local prostitute specifically and fornication generally. Here the penalty might be seen as immediate in terms of Levitical consequences.
>
> Leviticus 19:20 And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that is a
> bondmaid, betrothed to an husband, and not at all redeemed, nor
> freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to
> death, because she was not free.
>
>
>
2. Kingdom. In this perspective "dwelling in the land" could refer to entrance into the Kingdom. Here the pursuit of unrighteousness could be seen as a bar to entrance into the Kingdom of Heaven.
>
> Matthew 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall
> exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no
> case enter into the kingdom of heaven.
>
>
>
3. Heaven. If one takes "the land" to mean heaven, being "cut off" as a result of wickedness seems to support a loss of access to heaven. However, it also opens the salvation by works can of worms.
What can complicate the interpretation of verses that use the word righteousness or perfect in particular with regard to the Old Testament is that righteousness was imputed by faith.
>
> Romans 4:21-22 And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised,
> he was able also to perform. And therefore it was imputed to him for
> righteousness.
>
>
>
I see the wickedness that is cut off as unbelief. Those that do not trust in God can often be identified by their preoccupation with fornication. To me these verses do not speak so much to the issue of salvation, but rather to the issue of living by faith.
>
> Romans 1:17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from
> faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
>
>
> |
18,576 | >
> For the upright will live in the land,
>
> and the blameless will remain in it;
>
> but the wicked will be cut off from the land,
>
> and the unfaithful will be torn from it."
>
>
> [Proverbs 2:21-22 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Proverbs+2&version=NIV)
>
>
>
"The land" seems like it is the land of God, which might symbolize heaven. So how is the eternal security doctrine defended in light of these verses? Does it have something to do with the fact that they are in the Old Testament? | 2013/08/22 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/18576",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/4691/"
] | It depends what you mean by "once saved, always saved" (OSAS).
That is usually a catch phrase of the Free Grace brand of evangelicals (Zane Hodges, Charles Stanley, et al.). That sort of doctrine is refuted better with regard to a James 2-type argument that true faith necessarily results in good works.
The other brand of evangelicals that OSAS might apply to is Calvinists, but their doctrine is that God himself keeps his elect from falling away or being unfaithful and that any final apostasy implies the person wasn't truly saved to begin with.
See the Wikipedia's [perseverance of the saints](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perseverance_of_the_saints) for a discussion of both types.
As for the passage in Proverbs, Narnian nailed it -- you're applying it in spiritualized way to OSAS without much warrant. There are plenty of real problem passages for OSAS such that you don't need to bend this one into service. | **Doesn't Proverbs 2: 21-22 disprove “once saved, always saved”?**
>
> Proverbs 2:21-22 For the upright shall dwell in the land, and the
> perfect shall remain in it. But the wicked shall be cut off from the
> earth, and the transgressors shall be rooted out of it.
>
>
>
I see three ways to look at these verses.
1. Practical. In context the preceding verses talk about the dangers of visiting the local prostitute specifically and fornication generally. Here the penalty might be seen as immediate in terms of Levitical consequences.
>
> Leviticus 19:20 And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that is a
> bondmaid, betrothed to an husband, and not at all redeemed, nor
> freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to
> death, because she was not free.
>
>
>
2. Kingdom. In this perspective "dwelling in the land" could refer to entrance into the Kingdom. Here the pursuit of unrighteousness could be seen as a bar to entrance into the Kingdom of Heaven.
>
> Matthew 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall
> exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no
> case enter into the kingdom of heaven.
>
>
>
3. Heaven. If one takes "the land" to mean heaven, being "cut off" as a result of wickedness seems to support a loss of access to heaven. However, it also opens the salvation by works can of worms.
What can complicate the interpretation of verses that use the word righteousness or perfect in particular with regard to the Old Testament is that righteousness was imputed by faith.
>
> Romans 4:21-22 And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised,
> he was able also to perform. And therefore it was imputed to him for
> righteousness.
>
>
>
I see the wickedness that is cut off as unbelief. Those that do not trust in God can often be identified by their preoccupation with fornication. To me these verses do not speak so much to the issue of salvation, but rather to the issue of living by faith.
>
> Romans 1:17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from
> faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
>
>
> |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | It's really pretty simple. Just take the ethernet frames that you get from pcap and extract the IP packets from them, reassembling any that were fragmented. Then, reorder the TCP segments from the IP packets, according to the sequence numbers, paying attention that you discard any duplicate data. Then, process the stream as an HTTP stream. Of course, HTTP doesn't come in packets; it is an application layer protocol, but I'm sure this will be obvious once you've done all this other work. Pay attention as you do all these things to checksum the IP headers and TCP segments, to ensure that your data is correct. Also, if pcap happens to miss any packets, make sure you deal with this appropriately.
To help you along the [Linux TCP stack](http://lxr.linux.no/#linux+v2.6.34/net/ipv4/) should provide a concise reference to this process as it occurs in the kernel. | Rather than reassemble the streams youself, you can use [tcptrace](http://tcptrace.org/) to reassemble the pcap file. I believe `-e` will do it.
Once you have the application-layer data in one piece, you can apply simple HTTP header parsing.... Perhps from a library such as <http://github.com/ry/http-parser> |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | It's really pretty simple. Just take the ethernet frames that you get from pcap and extract the IP packets from them, reassembling any that were fragmented. Then, reorder the TCP segments from the IP packets, according to the sequence numbers, paying attention that you discard any duplicate data. Then, process the stream as an HTTP stream. Of course, HTTP doesn't come in packets; it is an application layer protocol, but I'm sure this will be obvious once you've done all this other work. Pay attention as you do all these things to checksum the IP headers and TCP segments, to ensure that your data is correct. Also, if pcap happens to miss any packets, make sure you deal with this appropriately.
To help you along the [Linux TCP stack](http://lxr.linux.no/#linux+v2.6.34/net/ipv4/) should provide a concise reference to this process as it occurs in the kernel. | To reconstruct the data contained in a pcap file a wonderful tool is Xplico: <http://www.xplico.org> |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | It's really pretty simple. Just take the ethernet frames that you get from pcap and extract the IP packets from them, reassembling any that were fragmented. Then, reorder the TCP segments from the IP packets, according to the sequence numbers, paying attention that you discard any duplicate data. Then, process the stream as an HTTP stream. Of course, HTTP doesn't come in packets; it is an application layer protocol, but I'm sure this will be obvious once you've done all this other work. Pay attention as you do all these things to checksum the IP headers and TCP segments, to ensure that your data is correct. Also, if pcap happens to miss any packets, make sure you deal with this appropriately.
To help you along the [Linux TCP stack](http://lxr.linux.no/#linux+v2.6.34/net/ipv4/) should provide a concise reference to this process as it occurs in the kernel. | The best tool to recostruct http content from pcap files is [justniffer](http://justniffer.sourceforge.net/). It uses prtion of linux kernel for IP fragmentation e tcp packet reordeiring. |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | It's really pretty simple. Just take the ethernet frames that you get from pcap and extract the IP packets from them, reassembling any that were fragmented. Then, reorder the TCP segments from the IP packets, according to the sequence numbers, paying attention that you discard any duplicate data. Then, process the stream as an HTTP stream. Of course, HTTP doesn't come in packets; it is an application layer protocol, but I'm sure this will be obvious once you've done all this other work. Pay attention as you do all these things to checksum the IP headers and TCP segments, to ensure that your data is correct. Also, if pcap happens to miss any packets, make sure you deal with this appropriately.
To help you along the [Linux TCP stack](http://lxr.linux.no/#linux+v2.6.34/net/ipv4/) should provide a concise reference to this process as it occurs in the kernel. | [PCapPlusPlus](https://pcapplusplus.github.io/) includes an example console program [TCPReassembly](https://github.com/seladb/PcapPlusPlus/tree/master/Examples/TcpReassembly) which sniffs traffic and outputs each stream to a separate text file. You can instruct which stream to listen to, amongst many options.
The documentation also mentions a linux app [tcpflow](https://linux.die.net/man/1/tcpflow) with even more options. |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | Rather than reassemble the streams youself, you can use [tcptrace](http://tcptrace.org/) to reassemble the pcap file. I believe `-e` will do it.
Once you have the application-layer data in one piece, you can apply simple HTTP header parsing.... Perhps from a library such as <http://github.com/ry/http-parser> | To reconstruct the data contained in a pcap file a wonderful tool is Xplico: <http://www.xplico.org> |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | Rather than reassemble the streams youself, you can use [tcptrace](http://tcptrace.org/) to reassemble the pcap file. I believe `-e` will do it.
Once you have the application-layer data in one piece, you can apply simple HTTP header parsing.... Perhps from a library such as <http://github.com/ry/http-parser> | The best tool to recostruct http content from pcap files is [justniffer](http://justniffer.sourceforge.net/). It uses prtion of linux kernel for IP fragmentation e tcp packet reordeiring. |
2,916,612 | I am trying to sniff HTTP data through libpcap and get all the http contents (header+payload) after processing the TCP payload.
As per my discussion at [Writing an http sniffer (or any other application level sniffer)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2905430/writing-an-http-sniffer-or-any-other-application-level-sniffer) , I am facing problems due to fragmentation - I need to reconstruct the whole stream (or defragment it) to get a complete HTTP packet, and this is where I need some help.
Thanks in anticipation !! | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2916612",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/349991/"
] | Rather than reassemble the streams youself, you can use [tcptrace](http://tcptrace.org/) to reassemble the pcap file. I believe `-e` will do it.
Once you have the application-layer data in one piece, you can apply simple HTTP header parsing.... Perhps from a library such as <http://github.com/ry/http-parser> | [PCapPlusPlus](https://pcapplusplus.github.io/) includes an example console program [TCPReassembly](https://github.com/seladb/PcapPlusPlus/tree/master/Examples/TcpReassembly) which sniffs traffic and outputs each stream to a separate text file. You can instruct which stream to listen to, amongst many options.
The documentation also mentions a linux app [tcpflow](https://linux.die.net/man/1/tcpflow) with even more options. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | In the scientific community, doing such a thing is frowned upon. In short, one can do it, but the negatives clearly outweigh the positives.
If you're appealing to the scientific community with evidence, scientists like to vet the supporting evidence by reading the citations. If your appealing to non-scientists, your evidence can quickly get mistaken for opinion if not presented as supporting evidence.
Journalists sometimes hide their sources with the hackney phrase, "an anonymous source says". Even in journalistic circles, this is poor practice as it basically advertises that you can't find a person who's willing to say it with a proper citation. That, or you made up the statement and the fake source.
If you are concerned that the citation will break up the flow of the writing, then work the citation into the writing.
>
> In 1996, Prof. John Doe at the University of Elbonia found that flatworms dance to the tune of a polka best.
>
>
> | When you quote something exactly, turn it into a quotation and include a citation next to the quote. You're using words somebody else went to the effort to create, and you need to give the credit to them. A references list at the end is not specific enough to give the specific credit where it is due for the quotes you're including.
As someone who has written scientific papers, I would think it very unethical, fraudulent, and disingenuous to find text that I had written copy-pasted onto a website without a note that is was a direct quote and an attribution back to my paper. And as others have pointed out, it's illegal. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | You must quote copied text and cite it where it is quoted.
Citations at the end are vague and can be misleadingly general. Specifically, it can give the impression that the cited works support all of the text on the page as a whole. Specific citations are honest in that they clearly delimit what is being cited from the rest of the content of the page. | When you quote something exactly, turn it into a quotation and include a citation next to the quote. You're using words somebody else went to the effort to create, and you need to give the credit to them. A references list at the end is not specific enough to give the specific credit where it is due for the quotes you're including.
As someone who has written scientific papers, I would think it very unethical, fraudulent, and disingenuous to find text that I had written copy-pasted onto a website without a note that is was a direct quote and an attribution back to my paper. And as others have pointed out, it's illegal. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | It is both unethical and *illegal* to copy text if you don't acknowledge the source. If the amount of text is substantial, copying usually is illegal even you do acknowledge the source.
If your operation is small, and you don't care about your reputation, you may be able to fly under the radar and not get caught. But first ask yourself the Dirty Harry question. | [As suggested in a comment, I am adding a note that the following response is based on standards in the United States as far as I understand them. My experience is as an academic who has had to understand these issues in the course of my work. Much of this may be common throughout the world, but please confirm for the relevant jurisdictions.]
The question asks if it is legal "to copy **the** text" (emphasis mine). By that, I assume the questioner wants to copy the full (or nearly full) text of the original article.
No, you can't do this, even if you cite the source. Unless the source explicitly puts the article into the public domain (most journals do not do so).
You can quote (if you cite) parts of the article under [Fair Use](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_use), but you cannot quote it substantially. Journals usually make money by charging a subscription or per-article access fees. To preserve this revenue stream, they do not want their articles to be available on the internet. In fact, even the original authors are usually barred from publishing their own articles on their web sites (depending on the journal and practices of the particular branch of academia), though they can share those articles with individuals if requested.
In the questioner's case, the content is probably from a clinical or biological journal. It's not likely these articles would be in the public domain (Math and Physics are more lenient), and since this would be using the text for commercial gain, you are in a poor spot. Large publishers would likely be pretty aggressive in enforcing copyright in such cases.
I can understand how coming from outside academia it is tempting to think that science is a free-for-all of information to benefit the public domain. There are indeed efforts to move in this direction. But in reality, academia is a pretty big business, and journals are often (not always) commercial ventures. A notable counterexample to all of this is [PLOS](https://www.plos.org/terms-of-use). If your article happens to come from this journal, you might be in luck. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | The effort you spent writing this question exceeds the effort you would spend citing your source.
So just cite it more clearly and don't bother to worry about whether you can avoid it or not. There's no downside to citation. If you're worried about the space this would take up, then link to the bottom of your text instead of citing in some long form. | You can eather use Edwin Buck format or put the name of author and publication year in parantesies at the and of the sentence. or you can put a number at the end of the sentence that coinsides with the number on your reference list. in this way people can look where you are taking the sentence from and check it. as sessej said only references is vary vaigue and I just might want to check where a particular sentence or idea come from. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | You must quote copied text and cite it where it is quoted.
Citations at the end are vague and can be misleadingly general. Specifically, it can give the impression that the cited works support all of the text on the page as a whole. Specific citations are honest in that they clearly delimit what is being cited from the rest of the content of the page. | [As suggested in a comment, I am adding a note that the following response is based on standards in the United States as far as I understand them. My experience is as an academic who has had to understand these issues in the course of my work. Much of this may be common throughout the world, but please confirm for the relevant jurisdictions.]
The question asks if it is legal "to copy **the** text" (emphasis mine). By that, I assume the questioner wants to copy the full (or nearly full) text of the original article.
No, you can't do this, even if you cite the source. Unless the source explicitly puts the article into the public domain (most journals do not do so).
You can quote (if you cite) parts of the article under [Fair Use](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_use), but you cannot quote it substantially. Journals usually make money by charging a subscription or per-article access fees. To preserve this revenue stream, they do not want their articles to be available on the internet. In fact, even the original authors are usually barred from publishing their own articles on their web sites (depending on the journal and practices of the particular branch of academia), though they can share those articles with individuals if requested.
In the questioner's case, the content is probably from a clinical or biological journal. It's not likely these articles would be in the public domain (Math and Physics are more lenient), and since this would be using the text for commercial gain, you are in a poor spot. Large publishers would likely be pretty aggressive in enforcing copyright in such cases.
I can understand how coming from outside academia it is tempting to think that science is a free-for-all of information to benefit the public domain. There are indeed efforts to move in this direction. But in reality, academia is a pretty big business, and journals are often (not always) commercial ventures. A notable counterexample to all of this is [PLOS](https://www.plos.org/terms-of-use). If your article happens to come from this journal, you might be in luck. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | The effort you spent writing this question exceeds the effort you would spend citing your source.
So just cite it more clearly and don't bother to worry about whether you can avoid it or not. There's no downside to citation. If you're worried about the space this would take up, then link to the bottom of your text instead of citing in some long form. | [As suggested in a comment, I am adding a note that the following response is based on standards in the United States as far as I understand them. My experience is as an academic who has had to understand these issues in the course of my work. Much of this may be common throughout the world, but please confirm for the relevant jurisdictions.]
The question asks if it is legal "to copy **the** text" (emphasis mine). By that, I assume the questioner wants to copy the full (or nearly full) text of the original article.
No, you can't do this, even if you cite the source. Unless the source explicitly puts the article into the public domain (most journals do not do so).
You can quote (if you cite) parts of the article under [Fair Use](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_use), but you cannot quote it substantially. Journals usually make money by charging a subscription or per-article access fees. To preserve this revenue stream, they do not want their articles to be available on the internet. In fact, even the original authors are usually barred from publishing their own articles on their web sites (depending on the journal and practices of the particular branch of academia), though they can share those articles with individuals if requested.
In the questioner's case, the content is probably from a clinical or biological journal. It's not likely these articles would be in the public domain (Math and Physics are more lenient), and since this would be using the text for commercial gain, you are in a poor spot. Large publishers would likely be pretty aggressive in enforcing copyright in such cases.
I can understand how coming from outside academia it is tempting to think that science is a free-for-all of information to benefit the public domain. There are indeed efforts to move in this direction. But in reality, academia is a pretty big business, and journals are often (not always) commercial ventures. A notable counterexample to all of this is [PLOS](https://www.plos.org/terms-of-use). If your article happens to come from this journal, you might be in luck. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | You must quote copied text and cite it where it is quoted.
Citations at the end are vague and can be misleadingly general. Specifically, it can give the impression that the cited works support all of the text on the page as a whole. Specific citations are honest in that they clearly delimit what is being cited from the rest of the content of the page. | You can eather use Edwin Buck format or put the name of author and publication year in parantesies at the and of the sentence. or you can put a number at the end of the sentence that coinsides with the number on your reference list. in this way people can look where you are taking the sentence from and check it. as sessej said only references is vary vaigue and I just might want to check where a particular sentence or idea come from. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | It is both unethical and *illegal* to copy text if you don't acknowledge the source. If the amount of text is substantial, copying usually is illegal even you do acknowledge the source.
If your operation is small, and you don't care about your reputation, you may be able to fly under the radar and not get caught. But first ask yourself the Dirty Harry question. | When you quote something exactly, turn it into a quotation and include a citation next to the quote. You're using words somebody else went to the effort to create, and you need to give the credit to them. A references list at the end is not specific enough to give the specific credit where it is due for the quotes you're including.
As someone who has written scientific papers, I would think it very unethical, fraudulent, and disingenuous to find text that I had written copy-pasted onto a website without a note that is was a direct quote and an attribution back to my paper. And as others have pointed out, it's illegal. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | In the scientific community, doing such a thing is frowned upon. In short, one can do it, but the negatives clearly outweigh the positives.
If you're appealing to the scientific community with evidence, scientists like to vet the supporting evidence by reading the citations. If your appealing to non-scientists, your evidence can quickly get mistaken for opinion if not presented as supporting evidence.
Journalists sometimes hide their sources with the hackney phrase, "an anonymous source says". Even in journalistic circles, this is poor practice as it basically advertises that you can't find a person who's willing to say it with a proper citation. That, or you made up the statement and the fake source.
If you are concerned that the citation will break up the flow of the writing, then work the citation into the writing.
>
> In 1996, Prof. John Doe at the University of Elbonia found that flatworms dance to the tune of a polka best.
>
>
> | [As suggested in a comment, I am adding a note that the following response is based on standards in the United States as far as I understand them. My experience is as an academic who has had to understand these issues in the course of my work. Much of this may be common throughout the world, but please confirm for the relevant jurisdictions.]
The question asks if it is legal "to copy **the** text" (emphasis mine). By that, I assume the questioner wants to copy the full (or nearly full) text of the original article.
No, you can't do this, even if you cite the source. Unless the source explicitly puts the article into the public domain (most journals do not do so).
You can quote (if you cite) parts of the article under [Fair Use](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_use), but you cannot quote it substantially. Journals usually make money by charging a subscription or per-article access fees. To preserve this revenue stream, they do not want their articles to be available on the internet. In fact, even the original authors are usually barred from publishing their own articles on their web sites (depending on the journal and practices of the particular branch of academia), though they can share those articles with individuals if requested.
In the questioner's case, the content is probably from a clinical or biological journal. It's not likely these articles would be in the public domain (Math and Physics are more lenient), and since this would be using the text for commercial gain, you are in a poor spot. Large publishers would likely be pretty aggressive in enforcing copyright in such cases.
I can understand how coming from outside academia it is tempting to think that science is a free-for-all of information to benefit the public domain. There are indeed efforts to move in this direction. But in reality, academia is a pretty big business, and journals are often (not always) commercial ventures. A notable counterexample to all of this is [PLOS](https://www.plos.org/terms-of-use). If your article happens to come from this journal, you might be in luck. |
109,996 | I am writing a text for a website where I'm going to sell nootropics.
I was wondering if it is illegal/fraudulent to copy the text directly from the scientific papers onto my website without directly referencing the papers? (I will reference the papers at the end of the text). | 2018/05/19 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/109996",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/92985/"
] | You must quote copied text and cite it where it is quoted.
Citations at the end are vague and can be misleadingly general. Specifically, it can give the impression that the cited works support all of the text on the page as a whole. Specific citations are honest in that they clearly delimit what is being cited from the rest of the content of the page. | In the scientific community, doing such a thing is frowned upon. In short, one can do it, but the negatives clearly outweigh the positives.
If you're appealing to the scientific community with evidence, scientists like to vet the supporting evidence by reading the citations. If your appealing to non-scientists, your evidence can quickly get mistaken for opinion if not presented as supporting evidence.
Journalists sometimes hide their sources with the hackney phrase, "an anonymous source says". Even in journalistic circles, this is poor practice as it basically advertises that you can't find a person who's willing to say it with a proper citation. That, or you made up the statement and the fake source.
If you are concerned that the citation will break up the flow of the writing, then work the citation into the writing.
>
> In 1996, Prof. John Doe at the University of Elbonia found that flatworms dance to the tune of a polka best.
>
>
> |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | No. While in a wine tasting it's acceptable to spit out the wine, in beer tasting you actually have to drink the beer. I don't remember the exact reasoning since it's been a few years since my Beers of the World class, but I think it had something to do with the carbonation affecting the after taste if you don't swallow the beer. Keep in mind that while judging beers at a tasting you only get ~2 ounces, so it's easier to pace yourself and dump out anything past what you need to get your impression. Half of beer judge training is learning to quickly assess flavor. | As far as I've seen, no. The reason has nothing to do with alcohol content or getting drunk (some beers like Belgian tripels, imperial stouts, or barley wines can easily clock in at a higher ABV than wines). It's got more to do with the human tongue itself and how taste buds are organized on the tongue. Essentially, beer is a much more complex drink; beer tasters use all of their taste buds while wine drinkers may only use a select few. So when you drink beer, you're not going to be overwhelming any set of taste buds unevenly while you run that risk when drinking wine. Generally when drinking wine, you're only using your sweet and sour sets of taste buds. For instance, I don't know about you, but I've never really had a bitter wine. I've had sweet or sour wines, but never bitter or salty wines. On the other hand, I've had all of that with beer.
If you look at the diagram of the tongue below, you'll notice that the bitter taste bud receptors are on the back of the tongue. In order to reach these receptors and taste the beer to its fullest, you must swallow the beer.
If you're curious, see page 3-4 of this article. It goes into much more detail:
<http://www.gabc-boston.org/_Newsl/2012_11.pdf> |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | **Not generally.**
The aftertaste of beer is more important than it is in wine, and much of the aftertaste comes from swallowing.
Also, beer isn't generally as alcoholic as wine, so the risk of getting drunk on a taste is lower. Although some beers can be in the 10-12% range, the average abv is much lower.
Further, although the idea of a [tongue map](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tongue_map) has been relatively discredited in scientific circles, it was taught in schools for a long time. As such, many people (including beer judges) incorrectly believe you taste bitterness with the back of your tongue. Since bitterness is a much larger part of beer than wine, many believe you need to swallow to properly taste it. | No. While in a wine tasting it's acceptable to spit out the wine, in beer tasting you actually have to drink the beer. I don't remember the exact reasoning since it's been a few years since my Beers of the World class, but I think it had something to do with the carbonation affecting the after taste if you don't swallow the beer. Keep in mind that while judging beers at a tasting you only get ~2 ounces, so it's easier to pace yourself and dump out anything past what you need to get your impression. Half of beer judge training is learning to quickly assess flavor. |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | To my knowledge, the answer is always **no**.
To fully experience the flavor of beer, one must swallow it. This is because, unlike the vast majority of wine, beer is carbonated (albeit to varying degrees). When you swallow beer, some of the carbonation escapes the liquid as gas, and actually rises up from your throat into your nose (or, at least, into your nasal passages), carrying with it some of the flavor molecules of the beer. Thus your sense of smell combines with your sense of taste to produce an overall sense of flavor in a manner that is different from what occurs when you drink (uncarbonated) wine.
If you spit out your beer, you're ruining the experience.
(This explanation is based on one that I heard years ago from a brewmaster at Anheuser-Busch. I can't remember his exact words, but you get the gist.)
On a side note, regarding the important relationship between taste and smell, I'm sure you will see tasters at both beer tastings and especially wine tastings swirl their drink a bit to smell it from the glass before tasting it. The difference is that carbonated beverages pack a smell double-whammy coming at you after you swallow. | No. While in a wine tasting it's acceptable to spit out the wine, in beer tasting you actually have to drink the beer. I don't remember the exact reasoning since it's been a few years since my Beers of the World class, but I think it had something to do with the carbonation affecting the after taste if you don't swallow the beer. Keep in mind that while judging beers at a tasting you only get ~2 ounces, so it's easier to pace yourself and dump out anything past what you need to get your impression. Half of beer judge training is learning to quickly assess flavor. |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | **Not generally.**
The aftertaste of beer is more important than it is in wine, and much of the aftertaste comes from swallowing.
Also, beer isn't generally as alcoholic as wine, so the risk of getting drunk on a taste is lower. Although some beers can be in the 10-12% range, the average abv is much lower.
Further, although the idea of a [tongue map](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tongue_map) has been relatively discredited in scientific circles, it was taught in schools for a long time. As such, many people (including beer judges) incorrectly believe you taste bitterness with the back of your tongue. Since bitterness is a much larger part of beer than wine, many believe you need to swallow to properly taste it. | As far as I've seen, no. The reason has nothing to do with alcohol content or getting drunk (some beers like Belgian tripels, imperial stouts, or barley wines can easily clock in at a higher ABV than wines). It's got more to do with the human tongue itself and how taste buds are organized on the tongue. Essentially, beer is a much more complex drink; beer tasters use all of their taste buds while wine drinkers may only use a select few. So when you drink beer, you're not going to be overwhelming any set of taste buds unevenly while you run that risk when drinking wine. Generally when drinking wine, you're only using your sweet and sour sets of taste buds. For instance, I don't know about you, but I've never really had a bitter wine. I've had sweet or sour wines, but never bitter or salty wines. On the other hand, I've had all of that with beer.
If you look at the diagram of the tongue below, you'll notice that the bitter taste bud receptors are on the back of the tongue. In order to reach these receptors and taste the beer to its fullest, you must swallow the beer.
If you're curious, see page 3-4 of this article. It goes into much more detail:
<http://www.gabc-boston.org/_Newsl/2012_11.pdf> |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | To my knowledge, the answer is always **no**.
To fully experience the flavor of beer, one must swallow it. This is because, unlike the vast majority of wine, beer is carbonated (albeit to varying degrees). When you swallow beer, some of the carbonation escapes the liquid as gas, and actually rises up from your throat into your nose (or, at least, into your nasal passages), carrying with it some of the flavor molecules of the beer. Thus your sense of smell combines with your sense of taste to produce an overall sense of flavor in a manner that is different from what occurs when you drink (uncarbonated) wine.
If you spit out your beer, you're ruining the experience.
(This explanation is based on one that I heard years ago from a brewmaster at Anheuser-Busch. I can't remember his exact words, but you get the gist.)
On a side note, regarding the important relationship between taste and smell, I'm sure you will see tasters at both beer tastings and especially wine tastings swirl their drink a bit to smell it from the glass before tasting it. The difference is that carbonated beverages pack a smell double-whammy coming at you after you swallow. | As far as I've seen, no. The reason has nothing to do with alcohol content or getting drunk (some beers like Belgian tripels, imperial stouts, or barley wines can easily clock in at a higher ABV than wines). It's got more to do with the human tongue itself and how taste buds are organized on the tongue. Essentially, beer is a much more complex drink; beer tasters use all of their taste buds while wine drinkers may only use a select few. So when you drink beer, you're not going to be overwhelming any set of taste buds unevenly while you run that risk when drinking wine. Generally when drinking wine, you're only using your sweet and sour sets of taste buds. For instance, I don't know about you, but I've never really had a bitter wine. I've had sweet or sour wines, but never bitter or salty wines. On the other hand, I've had all of that with beer.
If you look at the diagram of the tongue below, you'll notice that the bitter taste bud receptors are on the back of the tongue. In order to reach these receptors and taste the beer to its fullest, you must swallow the beer.
If you're curious, see page 3-4 of this article. It goes into much more detail:
<http://www.gabc-boston.org/_Newsl/2012_11.pdf> |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | Spitoon? No. Bucket for dumping the remainder? Yes. I agree with the other posters, with the addition that in the ONE competition I've judged in as a Novice, as Sloleam points out, we typically did not finish the 2-3 oz or so that was poured, and the remainder was dumped in a bucket. According to the [BJCP guidelines](http://www.bjcp.org/docs/How_to_Judge_Beer.pdf),
>
> you sniff it, look at it, taste it (allowing it to linger before swallowing).
>
>
>
That's it. After that, you typically dump the rest in a bucket, especially if you are going to be judging several categories :) However, unlike a wine competition, you swallow what you taste. | As far as I've seen, no. The reason has nothing to do with alcohol content or getting drunk (some beers like Belgian tripels, imperial stouts, or barley wines can easily clock in at a higher ABV than wines). It's got more to do with the human tongue itself and how taste buds are organized on the tongue. Essentially, beer is a much more complex drink; beer tasters use all of their taste buds while wine drinkers may only use a select few. So when you drink beer, you're not going to be overwhelming any set of taste buds unevenly while you run that risk when drinking wine. Generally when drinking wine, you're only using your sweet and sour sets of taste buds. For instance, I don't know about you, but I've never really had a bitter wine. I've had sweet or sour wines, but never bitter or salty wines. On the other hand, I've had all of that with beer.
If you look at the diagram of the tongue below, you'll notice that the bitter taste bud receptors are on the back of the tongue. In order to reach these receptors and taste the beer to its fullest, you must swallow the beer.
If you're curious, see page 3-4 of this article. It goes into much more detail:
<http://www.gabc-boston.org/_Newsl/2012_11.pdf> |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | To my knowledge, the answer is always **no**.
To fully experience the flavor of beer, one must swallow it. This is because, unlike the vast majority of wine, beer is carbonated (albeit to varying degrees). When you swallow beer, some of the carbonation escapes the liquid as gas, and actually rises up from your throat into your nose (or, at least, into your nasal passages), carrying with it some of the flavor molecules of the beer. Thus your sense of smell combines with your sense of taste to produce an overall sense of flavor in a manner that is different from what occurs when you drink (uncarbonated) wine.
If you spit out your beer, you're ruining the experience.
(This explanation is based on one that I heard years ago from a brewmaster at Anheuser-Busch. I can't remember his exact words, but you get the gist.)
On a side note, regarding the important relationship between taste and smell, I'm sure you will see tasters at both beer tastings and especially wine tastings swirl their drink a bit to smell it from the glass before tasting it. The difference is that carbonated beverages pack a smell double-whammy coming at you after you swallow. | **Not generally.**
The aftertaste of beer is more important than it is in wine, and much of the aftertaste comes from swallowing.
Also, beer isn't generally as alcoholic as wine, so the risk of getting drunk on a taste is lower. Although some beers can be in the 10-12% range, the average abv is much lower.
Further, although the idea of a [tongue map](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tongue_map) has been relatively discredited in scientific circles, it was taught in schools for a long time. As such, many people (including beer judges) incorrectly believe you taste bitterness with the back of your tongue. Since bitterness is a much larger part of beer than wine, many believe you need to swallow to properly taste it. |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | **Not generally.**
The aftertaste of beer is more important than it is in wine, and much of the aftertaste comes from swallowing.
Also, beer isn't generally as alcoholic as wine, so the risk of getting drunk on a taste is lower. Although some beers can be in the 10-12% range, the average abv is much lower.
Further, although the idea of a [tongue map](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tongue_map) has been relatively discredited in scientific circles, it was taught in schools for a long time. As such, many people (including beer judges) incorrectly believe you taste bitterness with the back of your tongue. Since bitterness is a much larger part of beer than wine, many believe you need to swallow to properly taste it. | Spitoon? No. Bucket for dumping the remainder? Yes. I agree with the other posters, with the addition that in the ONE competition I've judged in as a Novice, as Sloleam points out, we typically did not finish the 2-3 oz or so that was poured, and the remainder was dumped in a bucket. According to the [BJCP guidelines](http://www.bjcp.org/docs/How_to_Judge_Beer.pdf),
>
> you sniff it, look at it, taste it (allowing it to linger before swallowing).
>
>
>
That's it. After that, you typically dump the rest in a bucket, especially if you are going to be judging several categories :) However, unlike a wine competition, you swallow what you taste. |
536 | I love drinking beer after a run. It's also good to drink electrolytes after a run.
Is it possible to add electrolytes to beer? How would you do it? | 2014/02/05 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/536",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/87/"
] | To my knowledge, the answer is always **no**.
To fully experience the flavor of beer, one must swallow it. This is because, unlike the vast majority of wine, beer is carbonated (albeit to varying degrees). When you swallow beer, some of the carbonation escapes the liquid as gas, and actually rises up from your throat into your nose (or, at least, into your nasal passages), carrying with it some of the flavor molecules of the beer. Thus your sense of smell combines with your sense of taste to produce an overall sense of flavor in a manner that is different from what occurs when you drink (uncarbonated) wine.
If you spit out your beer, you're ruining the experience.
(This explanation is based on one that I heard years ago from a brewmaster at Anheuser-Busch. I can't remember his exact words, but you get the gist.)
On a side note, regarding the important relationship between taste and smell, I'm sure you will see tasters at both beer tastings and especially wine tastings swirl their drink a bit to smell it from the glass before tasting it. The difference is that carbonated beverages pack a smell double-whammy coming at you after you swallow. | Spitoon? No. Bucket for dumping the remainder? Yes. I agree with the other posters, with the addition that in the ONE competition I've judged in as a Novice, as Sloleam points out, we typically did not finish the 2-3 oz or so that was poured, and the remainder was dumped in a bucket. According to the [BJCP guidelines](http://www.bjcp.org/docs/How_to_Judge_Beer.pdf),
>
> you sniff it, look at it, taste it (allowing it to linger before swallowing).
>
>
>
That's it. After that, you typically dump the rest in a bucket, especially if you are going to be judging several categories :) However, unlike a wine competition, you swallow what you taste. |
272,226 | I have always worked on projects where caching was done on DAL, basically just when you are about to make the call to database, it checks if data is already there in the cache and if it is, it just doesn't make the call and instead returns that data.
I just recently read about caching at business layer, so basically caching the entire business objects. One advantage I can see straight away is much better response times.
When would you prefer one over the other? and Is caching at Business Layer a common practice? | 2015/02/05 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/272226",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/166270/"
] | This is probably too broad for a definitive answer.
Personally, I feel that a data access layer is the better place for caching, simply because it is supposed to be very simple - records go in and out and that's it.
A business layer implements many additional rules of higher complexity, so it's better if it doesn't *also* have to manage per-object availability concerns in addition to multiple-object consistency concerns in the same class(or even the same method) - that would be a blatant violation of the SRP.
(Of course, I only reached that insight after my service classes had grown to unmanageable complexity when they tried to do both caching and configuration simultaneously. There is no better teacher than experience, but the price sure is steep.) | **Caching on the DAL is straightforward and simple**
Your DAL is the central data access layer, which means that any and all data access can be controlled through the classes there. As both reading and persisting happens on those layers it is equally easy to clear or update cache entries as changes happen.
**Caching in the business is flexible**
Caching on the business gives developers the flexibility to determine if the concrete usage of an object will benefit from caching. Depending on the structure of the application back-end services or automated processes might change data that is cached in other parts. With caching in the business a developer can determine if a certain business object will have possible stale data and gain performance, or have the most up-to-date state of a business object at the expense of performance. |
272,226 | I have always worked on projects where caching was done on DAL, basically just when you are about to make the call to database, it checks if data is already there in the cache and if it is, it just doesn't make the call and instead returns that data.
I just recently read about caching at business layer, so basically caching the entire business objects. One advantage I can see straight away is much better response times.
When would you prefer one over the other? and Is caching at Business Layer a common practice? | 2015/02/05 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/272226",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/166270/"
] | This is probably too broad for a definitive answer.
Personally, I feel that a data access layer is the better place for caching, simply because it is supposed to be very simple - records go in and out and that's it.
A business layer implements many additional rules of higher complexity, so it's better if it doesn't *also* have to manage per-object availability concerns in addition to multiple-object consistency concerns in the same class(or even the same method) - that would be a blatant violation of the SRP.
(Of course, I only reached that insight after my service classes had grown to unmanageable complexity when they tried to do both caching and configuration simultaneously. There is no better teacher than experience, but the price sure is steep.) | Data access and persistence/storage layers are irresistibly natural places for caching. They're doing the I/Os, making them handy, easy place to insert caching. I daresay that almost every DAL or persistence layer will, as it matures, be given a caching function--if it isn't designed that way from the very start.
The problem is **intent**. DAL and persistence layers deal with relatively low-level constructs--for example, records, tables, rows, and blocks. They don't see the "business" or application-layer objects, or have much insight into how they're being used at higher levels. When they see a handful of rows or a dozen blocks being read or written, it's not clear that they represent. "The Jones account we're currently analyzing" doesn't look much different from "some basic taxation rate reference data the app needs just once, and to which it won't refer again." At this layer, data is data is data.
Caching at the DAL/persistence layer risk having the "cold" tax reference data sitting there, pointlessly occupying 12.2MB of cache and displacing some account information that will, in fact, be intensively used in just a minute. Even the best cache managers are dealing with scant knowledge of the higher level data structures and connections, and little insight as to what operations are coming soon, so they fall back to [guesstimation algorithms](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cache_algorithms).
In contrast, application- or business-layer caching isn't nearly so neat. It requires inserting cache management operations or hints in the middle of other business logic, which makes the business code more complex. But the tradeoff is: Having more knowledge of how macro-level data is structured and what operations are coming up, it has a much better opportunity to approximate optimal ("clairvoyant" or "Bélády Min") caching efficiency.
Whether inserting cache management responsibility into business/application code makes sense is a judgment call, and will vary by applications. In many cases, while it's known that DAL/persistence layers won't get it "perfectly right," the tradeoff is that they can do a pretty good job, that they do so in an architecturally "clean" and much more intensively testable way, and that low-level catching avoids increasing the complexity of business/app code.
Lower complexity encourages higher correctness and reliability, and faster time-to-market. That is often considered a great tradeoff--less perfect caching, but better-quality, more timely business code. |
272,226 | I have always worked on projects where caching was done on DAL, basically just when you are about to make the call to database, it checks if data is already there in the cache and if it is, it just doesn't make the call and instead returns that data.
I just recently read about caching at business layer, so basically caching the entire business objects. One advantage I can see straight away is much better response times.
When would you prefer one over the other? and Is caching at Business Layer a common practice? | 2015/02/05 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/272226",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/166270/"
] | Data access and persistence/storage layers are irresistibly natural places for caching. They're doing the I/Os, making them handy, easy place to insert caching. I daresay that almost every DAL or persistence layer will, as it matures, be given a caching function--if it isn't designed that way from the very start.
The problem is **intent**. DAL and persistence layers deal with relatively low-level constructs--for example, records, tables, rows, and blocks. They don't see the "business" or application-layer objects, or have much insight into how they're being used at higher levels. When they see a handful of rows or a dozen blocks being read or written, it's not clear that they represent. "The Jones account we're currently analyzing" doesn't look much different from "some basic taxation rate reference data the app needs just once, and to which it won't refer again." At this layer, data is data is data.
Caching at the DAL/persistence layer risk having the "cold" tax reference data sitting there, pointlessly occupying 12.2MB of cache and displacing some account information that will, in fact, be intensively used in just a minute. Even the best cache managers are dealing with scant knowledge of the higher level data structures and connections, and little insight as to what operations are coming soon, so they fall back to [guesstimation algorithms](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cache_algorithms).
In contrast, application- or business-layer caching isn't nearly so neat. It requires inserting cache management operations or hints in the middle of other business logic, which makes the business code more complex. But the tradeoff is: Having more knowledge of how macro-level data is structured and what operations are coming up, it has a much better opportunity to approximate optimal ("clairvoyant" or "Bélády Min") caching efficiency.
Whether inserting cache management responsibility into business/application code makes sense is a judgment call, and will vary by applications. In many cases, while it's known that DAL/persistence layers won't get it "perfectly right," the tradeoff is that they can do a pretty good job, that they do so in an architecturally "clean" and much more intensively testable way, and that low-level catching avoids increasing the complexity of business/app code.
Lower complexity encourages higher correctness and reliability, and faster time-to-market. That is often considered a great tradeoff--less perfect caching, but better-quality, more timely business code. | **Caching on the DAL is straightforward and simple**
Your DAL is the central data access layer, which means that any and all data access can be controlled through the classes there. As both reading and persisting happens on those layers it is equally easy to clear or update cache entries as changes happen.
**Caching in the business is flexible**
Caching on the business gives developers the flexibility to determine if the concrete usage of an object will benefit from caching. Depending on the structure of the application back-end services or automated processes might change data that is cached in other parts. With caching in the business a developer can determine if a certain business object will have possible stale data and gain performance, or have the most up-to-date state of a business object at the expense of performance. |
1,516 | In Russian, we have mnemonical phrases for memorizing things like grammatical cases, conjugations of verbs, detecting adverbs, etc. They are somewhat similar to [Roy G. Biv](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROYGBIV) mnemonic, but most often are rhymed in a manner of songs for little children. You can find examples here: <http://www.gramota.ru/class/memos/> - I don't know if there are equivalents of these in English, sorry.
Are there any similar phrases/verses/songs in Japanese? I'm specifically interested in ones related to grammar, e.g. memorizing counter suffixes (助数詞). | 2016/01/28 | [
"https://japanese.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1516",
"https://japanese.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://japanese.meta.stackexchange.com/users/9222/"
] | Yes! Here is one I know for U VERB て form. It's sung to the Battle Hymn of the Republic. Here's a link for reference: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-s0ZRSpZMWI>
あう、あって
まつ、まって
とる、とって
読む、読んで
遊ぶ、遊んで
死ぬ、死んで
かく、かいて
消す、消して
急ぐ、急いで
みんな U VERB て フォーム！ | There is the [[伊呂波]{い・ろ・は}](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iroha) if you can memorize it, but it's not for grammar. It's mostly used to remember the kana and for ["ordering" things](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iroha#Current_Uses).
Not sure if that really helps you though. |
2,911,537 | My team implemented a UI to assign/revoke permission levels to users on a certain SharePoint list. The UI supplies an "**undo**" feature to restore the rights the user had before they were changed through our UI.
Now there is a problem if the user had the "**Limited Access**" permission level: This permission level is removed when you do a change over the UI. When trying to Undo, the permission level should be added again, which leads to a
>
> You cannot grant a user the limited access permission level.
>
>
>
SharePoint grants that permission level automatically when a user gets access to some entity beneath the site. It cannot be granted manually. This permission level is then inherited by all lists in the site. However, after breaking inheritance on a list, I can revoke the right manually, only, I cannot re-grant it afterwards.
So SharePoint treats that permission level quite particularly and I'm wondering how to work around that in our undo feature.
My questions:
* Did I get it right that this "limited access" is granted by SharePoint on the ***site*** level only, and all the lists beneath only contain that accidentally through inheritance?
* Does that permission level have any effect at all on a list, or does it only apply to the site itself?
* So, would it be save to just remove it from a list and ***do not*** add it anymore when the user clicks "undo", since it has no effect anyway? | 2010/05/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2911537",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/55787/"
] | I dare to answer my own question just for reference for future readers:
According to Microsoft's article [Permission levels and permissions](http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-sharepoint-services-help/permission-levels-and-permissions-HA010100149.aspx),
>
> The Limited Access permission level
> cannot be customized or deleted.
>
>
>
and
>
> (...) Windows SharePoint Services 3.0
> automatically assigns this permission
> level to users and SharePoint groups
> when you grant them access to an
> object on your site that requires that
> they have access to a higher level
> object on which they do not have
> permissions. For example, if you grant
> users access to an item in a list and
> they do not have access to the list
> itself, Windows SharePoint Services
> 3.0 automatically grants them Limited Access on the list, and also the site,
> if needed.
>
>
>
In practice this means that:
* If you can delete it, that's only because it has been inherited and has no meaning on that certain list.
* If later on a user is granted some permissions to a certain list item, so that he needs the Limited Access on the list, SharePoint will take care of adding it again.
* Summarized: No concerns to remove and not re-add that access level. | Removing a user with Limited access on the top level site should not actually remove their explicit access on the list or library below (with broken permissions) but MS do say in the above mentioned article:
>
> However, to access a list or library, for example, a user must have permission to open the parent Web site and read shared data such as the theme and navigation bars of the Web site. The Limited Access permission level cannot be customized or deleted.
>
>
>
This suggests that the user's Limited access should be declared on the site permissions. I think its always best to do a test on your site first before making any assumptions. |
343,861 | What is the name given to a path between to points that is of length equal to the distance from those two pints. Sorry to bother you but the definition was on a book I no longer have. | 2013/03/27 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/343861",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/33907/"
] | I believe you mean the [Graph Geodesic](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GraphGeodesic.html) | We generally just say "the shortest path". |
17,388,600 | I'm encountering the errors:
>
> No matching provisioning profiles found: No provisioning profiles with a valid signing identity (i.e. certificate and private key pair) were found.
>
>
>
and:
>
> CodeSign error: code signing is required for product type 'Application' in SDK 'iOS 7.0'
>
>
>
XCode isn't giving me any option other than "Automatic iOS Developer and Distribution" options in the 'Code Signing' area of the 'Build Settings'.
I've tried changing the bundle id to match the certificates exactly, as well as a more generic com.domain.appname ID, I've deleted and recreated the provisioning profiles - I'm really lost, it feels like it should be something really simply but I can't get my certificates to show in the settings.
 | 2013/06/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17388600",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/360967/"
] | The first thing I would check is that your Cert in Keychain Access is present and is married up to your private key. If it's listed but your private key isn't paired with it you've likely changed your Mac's password recently and instead of pressing "Update Keychain" you may have clicked on "New Keychain". This will require performing the CSR process again and adding that new cert from the portal to the existing prov profiles. (A screenshot here may help).
Next I would make sure that XCode's Organizer is showing your provisioning profiles as valid with a green checkmark. If they aren't valid XCode will tell you why. This could be anything from the missing private key to your cert wasn't added to the profile in the dev portal. (Another screenshot here may help).
If all of that looks good restart XCode. I've had problems with XCode not properly importing prov profiles until I give it a swift kick in the pants via restart. | What worked for me was to create a new iOS Provisioning Profile in apple portal then download and add it to the Organizer in XCode , my scenario was that I was importing the project from another user account and when Titanium was compiling the project had the iOS Provisioning Profile associated from the other user account therefore was crashing, so when I was ready to compile in the Run on iOS Device dialog I changed the Provisioning profile to the new one.
As it has been stated before, you need to see the green button (valid profile) in the Provisioning Profiles for your device .
Good luck! it took me two days to fix this!
Ren@ud |
17,388,600 | I'm encountering the errors:
>
> No matching provisioning profiles found: No provisioning profiles with a valid signing identity (i.e. certificate and private key pair) were found.
>
>
>
and:
>
> CodeSign error: code signing is required for product type 'Application' in SDK 'iOS 7.0'
>
>
>
XCode isn't giving me any option other than "Automatic iOS Developer and Distribution" options in the 'Code Signing' area of the 'Build Settings'.
I've tried changing the bundle id to match the certificates exactly, as well as a more generic com.domain.appname ID, I've deleted and recreated the provisioning profiles - I'm really lost, it feels like it should be something really simply but I can't get my certificates to show in the settings.
 | 2013/06/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17388600",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/360967/"
] | I was shocked when having the same problem and reading some answers here, too complicated. But I solved this much much simpler.
* Open Keychain Access. Delete iPhone Developer and iPhone Distribution certificates, although they are still valid.
* Open Apple Developer Centre. Download iOS Development and iOS Distribution certificates again. Yes, I download them again as they are written as XXXX-1.cer
* Drag them to Keychain Access to reimport them.
* Rerun XCode. Problem solved. | What worked for me was to create a new iOS Provisioning Profile in apple portal then download and add it to the Organizer in XCode , my scenario was that I was importing the project from another user account and when Titanium was compiling the project had the iOS Provisioning Profile associated from the other user account therefore was crashing, so when I was ready to compile in the Run on iOS Device dialog I changed the Provisioning profile to the new one.
As it has been stated before, you need to see the green button (valid profile) in the Provisioning Profiles for your device .
Good luck! it took me two days to fix this!
Ren@ud |
6,715,332 | After some months of using Django, I feel the need to create the first my Django application. In this way I can really take the advantages of the Django's power.
Someone can give me hints and directions for learning well about it?
How Django's apps system works? And how can I create my first reusable app?
I think Django's is one of the best framework ever created and I want to learn it very well for using it in various contexts.
And now I would to take my Django's experience and skills to the next level. | 2011/07/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6715332",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/719127/"
] | In addition to the official Django documentation and tutorial, which are excellent, I would recommend two books you should check out:
Ayman Hourieh's Django Web Development 1.0:
[http://www.amazon.com/gp/aw/d/1847196780/ref=redir\_mdp\_mobile/191-3941588-1909500](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1847196780)
An awesome book that will take you step by step through creating your first Django app, and that touches on several of Django's features and functionality.
The Definitive Guide to Django:
[http://www.amazon.com/gp/aw/d/1847196780/ref=redir\_mdp\_mobile/191-3941588-1909500](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1847196780)
The title says it all, written by Django's creator and lead developer. | Try here for starters:
<https://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.3/intro/tutorial01/>
>
> This document describes Django 1.3.
> Writing your first Django app, part 1...
>
>
>
And I suggest you go to Amazon.com, look through Django books and read a lot of the reviews until you find something that sounds appropriate for you.
HTH |
6,715,332 | After some months of using Django, I feel the need to create the first my Django application. In this way I can really take the advantages of the Django's power.
Someone can give me hints and directions for learning well about it?
How Django's apps system works? And how can I create my first reusable app?
I think Django's is one of the best framework ever created and I want to learn it very well for using it in various contexts.
And now I would to take my Django's experience and skills to the next level. | 2011/07/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6715332",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/719127/"
] | Don't miss a great talk about reusable apps by James Bennet: <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A-S0tqpPga4> . | Try here for starters:
<https://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.3/intro/tutorial01/>
>
> This document describes Django 1.3.
> Writing your first Django app, part 1...
>
>
>
And I suggest you go to Amazon.com, look through Django books and read a lot of the reviews until you find something that sounds appropriate for you.
HTH |
6,715,332 | After some months of using Django, I feel the need to create the first my Django application. In this way I can really take the advantages of the Django's power.
Someone can give me hints and directions for learning well about it?
How Django's apps system works? And how can I create my first reusable app?
I think Django's is one of the best framework ever created and I want to learn it very well for using it in various contexts.
And now I would to take my Django's experience and skills to the next level. | 2011/07/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6715332",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/719127/"
] | In addition to the official Django documentation and tutorial, which are excellent, I would recommend two books you should check out:
Ayman Hourieh's Django Web Development 1.0:
[http://www.amazon.com/gp/aw/d/1847196780/ref=redir\_mdp\_mobile/191-3941588-1909500](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1847196780)
An awesome book that will take you step by step through creating your first Django app, and that touches on several of Django's features and functionality.
The Definitive Guide to Django:
[http://www.amazon.com/gp/aw/d/1847196780/ref=redir\_mdp\_mobile/191-3941588-1909500](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/1847196780)
The title says it all, written by Django's creator and lead developer. | Don't miss a great talk about reusable apps by James Bennet: <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A-S0tqpPga4> . |
1,747,130 | I have two separate files, first with black line, second with blue line.
This is how I intend to print. First I print the black line then I load paper into printer again and print over it with blue.
Click for full size
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fSqVG.jpg)
However, when I look on the paper I am getting results like this with black line being on top of the blue.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rGJ8q.jpg)
Is this problem because of particular type of printer e.g. ink-jet? | 2022/10/12 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1747130",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1106486/"
] | This is mostly an artifact of how the light behaves in regard to pigments and much less related to the particular printing technology.
If you mix a good black ink with a comparable amount of whatever other ink, you will get black ink.
The reason is simple:
While the blue ink absorbs some of the light, but allows the constituents of the blue color to pass or reflect, the black is expected to absorb all of the visible light.
Mixing the inks, you are summing their absorptive capabilities.
If you add a very tiny amount of black to the blue, you can get some tone of dark blue.
If you mix some other colors (e.g. magenta and yellow inks) either on paper or in a liquid form, you will get some composite color (e.g. red with the proper amount of magenta and yellow).
In fact, this is how the printer creates its diverse color palette with just 4 basic colors. In theory, one could go with even only 3 inks - magenta, yellow and cyan, but black is added to improve the contrast because the other 3 are not perfect light filters (black is usually really good). Black is also used for printing black and white images because it is also cheaper.
---
p.s. contrast this when you paint some high-opacity paint over an already dried out different paint.
In this case, paints don't mix (or at least are not expected to mix) and it is the paint who reflects the light (and not the substrate under the paint like it happens in printing).
One can get whatever new color wants by just covering the old paint with the new one.
Maybe this is what you expect in your exercise, but printing works differently from painting. | I'm going to assume this is a conceptual drawing rather than an actual picture of the results, because it doesn't look like what I see when I examine inkjet prints.
Inkjet sprays the ink on the paper with some control of droplet size to correspond with density of the color being sprayed. As such, it may not actually get complete coverage, and an oversprayed ink may not cover completely what is under it. Also, the ink may be somewhat transparent, especially the colored rather than black. If the ink is not completely dry, there may also be mixing of the oversprayed ink droplets into the underneath layer or into the paper. Also, typically inkjet ink is water soluble, so the second layer of ink may actually reactivate and mix into the first layer even if it was completely dry.
All of these factors together likely result in what you are seeing, and a microscopic photo may clear up which of these factors is dominant. |
1,747,130 | I have two separate files, first with black line, second with blue line.
This is how I intend to print. First I print the black line then I load paper into printer again and print over it with blue.
Click for full size
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fSqVG.jpg)
However, when I look on the paper I am getting results like this with black line being on top of the blue.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rGJ8q.jpg)
Is this problem because of particular type of printer e.g. ink-jet? | 2022/10/12 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1747130",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1106486/"
] | **You cannot overprint with ink-jet printers.**
You can only do what you want using a laser printer.
With ink-jet printers, the color is a dye that is absorbed into the paper. A second pass of printing will blend the new print into the existing dyed paper. When you print blue over yellow you will notice that it might turn green.
With laser printers, the "ink" is actually "toner" which is placed *on top of the paper* and then fused in place using heat. Whether that toner is carbon, or wax, or other materials - this does not matter. What matters is that the print is a layer **on** the paper, not **in** the paper. And a second print on the same paper can place a new layer on top. The final result depends on the opacity of the toner. | I'm going to assume this is a conceptual drawing rather than an actual picture of the results, because it doesn't look like what I see when I examine inkjet prints.
Inkjet sprays the ink on the paper with some control of droplet size to correspond with density of the color being sprayed. As such, it may not actually get complete coverage, and an oversprayed ink may not cover completely what is under it. Also, the ink may be somewhat transparent, especially the colored rather than black. If the ink is not completely dry, there may also be mixing of the oversprayed ink droplets into the underneath layer or into the paper. Also, typically inkjet ink is water soluble, so the second layer of ink may actually reactivate and mix into the first layer even if it was completely dry.
All of these factors together likely result in what you are seeing, and a microscopic photo may clear up which of these factors is dominant. |
7,844,927 | As we know that we can call any function of Javascript
to control's event like onblur() or onclick() etc.
but ,, i don't want to use javascript...is there another way to call php function
actually i want to check password strength whater it is weak, average or strong..using PHP. | 2011/10/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7844927",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1006421/"
] | What you probably want is Assembly Binding Redirection.
When a Visual Studio Tools for Office solution that references a Microsoft Office 2003 primary interop assembly runs on a computer that has the 2007 Microsoft Office version of the same primary interop assembly, the binding redirect assembly instructs the .NET Framework runtime to load the 2007 Microsoft Office version of the primary interop assembly.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/2fc472t2(v=vs.80).aspx>
However, if you want to develop specifically using the old 2003 version of the assembly, it's highly likely that you will need Excel 2003 installed on your computer to do it.
It goes without saying that the license agreements probably require you to have a full copy of Excel to develop programs with the primary interop assembly. | The Primary Interop Assembly is using Excel in the background - thus you need Excel installed locally.
[EPPlus](http://epplus.codeplex.com/releases/view/42439) is a free alternative if you just need reading and writing of Excel files - it is also a magnitudes faster than using the C# Microsoft Excel 11.0 Object Library.
Check if this fits to your requirements. |
7,844,927 | As we know that we can call any function of Javascript
to control's event like onblur() or onclick() etc.
but ,, i don't want to use javascript...is there another way to call php function
actually i want to check password strength whater it is weak, average or strong..using PHP. | 2011/10/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7844927",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1006421/"
] | What you probably want is Assembly Binding Redirection.
When a Visual Studio Tools for Office solution that references a Microsoft Office 2003 primary interop assembly runs on a computer that has the 2007 Microsoft Office version of the same primary interop assembly, the binding redirect assembly instructs the .NET Framework runtime to load the 2007 Microsoft Office version of the primary interop assembly.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/2fc472t2(v=vs.80).aspx>
However, if you want to develop specifically using the old 2003 version of the assembly, it's highly likely that you will need Excel 2003 installed on your computer to do it.
It goes without saying that the license agreements probably require you to have a full copy of Excel to develop programs with the primary interop assembly. | "How can I add Microsoft.Office.Interop or Microsoft Excel Object Library to my project without purchasing and installing the old 11 version of excel?" There is no way. |
32,246,866 | I am new to P6 reporting and I am facing an issue with writing a query to fetch all the activities under the wbs. Consider the following wbs hierachy
WBS LEVEL1
* WBS LEVEL 2A
ACTIVITY1
ACTIVITY2
* WBSLEVEL 2B
ACTIVITY3
ACTIVITY4
WBS LEVEL2
..........................................
and so on.. A WBS can have any number of child wbs. In my reporting if i pass wbslevel 1 as a parameter value then all the activities under the wbs should be listed. Kindly help in achieving this. Thanks in advance | 2015/08/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32246866",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5234028/"
] | If you can run the filter in the report for the specific WBS you are looking for activities it should work.
Regards, | Are you writing a query on database?
If you are using Oracle than you can use connect by prior or Common Table Expression
If you are using the MS-SQL than CTE.
It should return all the activities from the WBS |
21,802,956 | I'm programming a 2D game in SDL, and in this game, I want to create a 'bird' class, which will animate a simple bird on the screen. The way I've thought this would best work is by having a base class which draws stuff I want it to, then have subclasses ('bird' class, a 'player' class, and eventually classes for bullets, etc). The draw member function of the base class will call member functions of the subclasses to draw themselves (using functions from the base class), so firstly, is this a reasonable way to structure my game?
Secondly, when I call the draw function of, for example, my 'bird' class, the function needs to know which frame of the animation it's up to, and return the appropriate image. Would it be better to increment the frame number every time the function is called, or to have the function run on a separate thread, such that at any arbitrary time that the function is called it will return the correct frame, but this would mean I'd need a separate thread for every animated sprite on the screen.
The reason I'd consider doing the second, is that in the first method, different computers running the same program will run at different speeds, and hence so will the animation, so my only option would be to fix the number of times per second the render function is called. In the second method, with the frame counter running in a separate thread, I could set a specific time delay before the function is allowed to display the next frame, meaning the speed of the overall animation is totally unaffected by the number of times the render function is called.
One last quick question - for my 'bird' class, would it be better if each instance of the class is an individual bird, or have a single instance which controls X many birds? Does it make any difference? | 2014/02/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/21802956",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2946932/"
] | You should ask this type of question on <https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/>
But to answer your questions anyway, there are a LOT of ways you can structure it. For a small game, you'd likely be better off using some sort of basic OOP structure that tends toward *composition over inheritance*. ([wikipedia entry](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Composition_over_inheritance), and [an SO question on this topic](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/49002/prefer-composition-over-inheritance)). That should give you some amount of flexibility and reusability and help ward off spaghetti.
Typically you want your frame updates to occur on the main thread. No need to completely obliterate determinism in a coding project that's already going to have elements of randomness to deal with! Although it is not unheard of to execute object updates across multiple threads, this is something you may want to hold off on until you absolutely need it. Avoid [premature optimization](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/516160/planning-for-efficiency-early-vs-premature-optimization).
You'll want to look into timing mechanisms and managing FPS & game clock. There are accessible, simple techniques out there that don't require multi-threaded programming.
Another thing to think about is sometimes the game experience doesn't become more enjoyable just because your programming concepts are fancy. You might find that players get frustrated when animation and FPS slow downs don't sync up nicely with movement.
There are so many variables relating to efficiency of your game that it's hard to answer this - but these days I would less concerned about slow machines than I would be about first making a cool game with fun mechanics and *cool enough* graphics and shaders that it's visually stimulating without feeling like I need to compete with John Carmack.
>
> Secondly, when I call the draw function of, for example, my 'bird' class, the function needs to know which frame of the animation it's up to, and *return the appropriate image.*
>
>
>
This raises red flags to me. I may be assuming the worst, but rather than glossing over it let's talk about it. In a "game" with a small number of sprites, you could potentially get away with loading separate images into memory and displaying them as needed. But that can get ugly in a hurry as time goes by in development and you start to add objects to your application. For every image you want to display, the hardware (the thing that implements the whatever GL specification you're targeting) will need to reserve some memory for these images. Not a horrible thing in and of itself. The sticky, bottlenecky part of this is when the graphics hardware wants to actually draw stuff. It has to take what's sitting in general memory on the hardware and stick it in video memory. Hence, sprite sheets (or texture atlases) become very useful - rather than saying "hey draw this other image" you just say "hey draw a different part of the same big image" (and those different "parts" would be the frames of your animations; multiple animations can live inside a texture atlas; texture atlases are generally sized by powers of 2 which is optimal for the GPU). [Side note on powers of 2](https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/26187/why-are-textures-always-square-powers-of-two-what-if-they-arent).
From [this SO question](https://stackoverflow.com/a/5265808/420594):
>
> The holy rule of GPU programming is that less you talk to GPU, the more she loves you.
>
>
>
Of course you'd then need to balance this against managing shaders, but that's something you can look into and experiment with as you get into this.
Another avenue, which actually is like composition on crack, is an [Entity-Based Component System](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entity_component_system). This allows you to add behaviors and properties to objects (like the ability to react to input commands from the controller/keyboard, or the ability to draw to the screen, or the ability to take damage or modify 'health' or be invincible, the ability to react to physics/gravity).
For a small game, I would advise you not to do that, unless you're treating this like a massive learning exercise. But even then, it's probably a good idea to break some of these concepts into bite-sized chunks and approach them one game at a time.
I hope that helps, good luck. | A general rule of thumb is to have a container of things to animate.
Since objects have different animation rules, you may want to have an "animate" function and pass the object's location information (such a frame; x, y, and z ordinates, etc.).
Another view is to have the objects remember their location. This may simplify the coding of the frame. The frame would tell all the objects to animate, and the objects would change their position with the frame caring about their positions. |
70,839 | Say I wanted to create (and sell) an original design of the D&D 5e Player's Handbook, Dungeon Master's Guide, and some original cartography of Forgotten Realms locations. This would mostly be a reprint but original form and artwork. I understand that OGL doesn't cover this because the published books are under standard copyright law; [Source](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/45024/is-there-a-ogl-or-gsl-license-for-dd-5e) and [Source - Section 18-g](https://company.wizards.com/policies/web/tou)
If this is correct on this, based on [this](http://wizards.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/88), I need to submit a request to them and get permission before producing anything.
Does this sound right? Am I missing something that makes this ok via OGL? Has anyone ever done this that knows the process which should be followed? | 2015/11/08 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70839",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23126/"
] | You're right that you can't reproduce the D&D 5e edition rules, Forgotten Realms maps, etcetera, because they are fully copyrighted and no open/free license exists for any of their content. You would need to get permission from Hasbro (not Wizards of the Coast), and Hasbro's lawyers wouldn't even give it a moment's consideration.
Making a “retroclone” instead would be legal, but also financial suicide
========================================================================
The only way you can “reproduce” D&D 5e rules is to follow the example of the [retroclones](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dungeons_%26_Dragons_retro-clones): rebuilding the rules by altering the d20 SRD's text until it effectively explains the target game's rules in a new way.
However, doing this is a non-trivial amount of work — to do it effectively you have to recreate the rules from memory or via [clean room reverse engineering](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clean_room_design), otherwise what you produce isn't a retroclone, it's a derivative work that's just plain violating copyright. Having attempted a retroclone, I can tell you that it's at least ten times more work than expected, and about three times harder to resist referring to the original when writing than you expect. And any hint of copying-then-editing (either literally, or mentally) left in the structure of your project would be legal doom.
In the end, the calculus isn't worth it for something like this when you intend to sell it: the amount of time spent rewriting the rules and then going over it with a fine-toothed comb to make sure none of it is going to open you to legal liability is so much that by the end, you'd have to charge hundreds for each copy to just break even in a reasonable amount of time.
Not to mention that, being WotC's current in-print edition of D&D 5e, you'd be nearly-instantly buried in Cease & Desist letters and maybe full lawsuits, regardless of how careful and within the law you actually are, and you probably can't afford the legal fees to prove it even if the project was completely above-board. | There is no open license for D&D 5e therefore you may not reprint, in part or on whole, any of the 5e materials without facing legal action for copyright violation. Only a specific agreement from WotC would allow you to do that, and I see no reason why they would agree to one. |
70,839 | Say I wanted to create (and sell) an original design of the D&D 5e Player's Handbook, Dungeon Master's Guide, and some original cartography of Forgotten Realms locations. This would mostly be a reprint but original form and artwork. I understand that OGL doesn't cover this because the published books are under standard copyright law; [Source](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/45024/is-there-a-ogl-or-gsl-license-for-dd-5e) and [Source - Section 18-g](https://company.wizards.com/policies/web/tou)
If this is correct on this, based on [this](http://wizards.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/88), I need to submit a request to them and get permission before producing anything.
Does this sound right? Am I missing something that makes this ok via OGL? Has anyone ever done this that knows the process which should be followed? | 2015/11/08 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70839",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23126/"
] | There is no open license for D&D 5e therefore you may not reprint, in part or on whole, any of the 5e materials without facing legal action for copyright violation. Only a specific agreement from WotC would allow you to do that, and I see no reason why they would agree to one. | Here's the process I would recommend: Get a job working for them; pitch your ideas to management. (Or, I suppose, pitch it to them as a contractor.)
<https://company.wizards.com/about/careers>
It's a really long shot, but it may well be your only shot -- I can't see another legal way of doing it. They're never going to simply allow you to reproduce their properties, but they *might* be willing to pay you to do it *for* them.
One in a million, but it might just work? |
70,839 | Say I wanted to create (and sell) an original design of the D&D 5e Player's Handbook, Dungeon Master's Guide, and some original cartography of Forgotten Realms locations. This would mostly be a reprint but original form and artwork. I understand that OGL doesn't cover this because the published books are under standard copyright law; [Source](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/45024/is-there-a-ogl-or-gsl-license-for-dd-5e) and [Source - Section 18-g](https://company.wizards.com/policies/web/tou)
If this is correct on this, based on [this](http://wizards.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/88), I need to submit a request to them and get permission before producing anything.
Does this sound right? Am I missing something that makes this ok via OGL? Has anyone ever done this that knows the process which should be followed? | 2015/11/08 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70839",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23126/"
] | There is no open license for D&D 5e therefore you may not reprint, in part or on whole, any of the 5e materials without facing legal action for copyright violation. Only a specific agreement from WotC would allow you to do that, and I see no reason why they would agree to one. | The other answers are correct, you cannot do this without their permission and they are virtually certain not to give that permission.
**I am not a lawyer. Get legal advice before you try this.**
Having said that there is one thing you could do, which is to create a "mod kit". Create your original artwork and everything else in a way that allows it to be applied to the actual WoTC rule book.
In other words people could take your artwork and other changes and apply it to the rule book. So long as you didn't use any copyrighted material in your mod that should be fine.
In addition as a second step you could take the books and apply your changes and then sell the results. I'm not sure quite how that would fly legally as you are into selling derived works but since you are buying a rule book and then making changes to it you aren't at any point copying and copyrighted material. |
70,839 | Say I wanted to create (and sell) an original design of the D&D 5e Player's Handbook, Dungeon Master's Guide, and some original cartography of Forgotten Realms locations. This would mostly be a reprint but original form and artwork. I understand that OGL doesn't cover this because the published books are under standard copyright law; [Source](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/45024/is-there-a-ogl-or-gsl-license-for-dd-5e) and [Source - Section 18-g](https://company.wizards.com/policies/web/tou)
If this is correct on this, based on [this](http://wizards.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/88), I need to submit a request to them and get permission before producing anything.
Does this sound right? Am I missing something that makes this ok via OGL? Has anyone ever done this that knows the process which should be followed? | 2015/11/08 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70839",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23126/"
] | You're right that you can't reproduce the D&D 5e edition rules, Forgotten Realms maps, etcetera, because they are fully copyrighted and no open/free license exists for any of their content. You would need to get permission from Hasbro (not Wizards of the Coast), and Hasbro's lawyers wouldn't even give it a moment's consideration.
Making a “retroclone” instead would be legal, but also financial suicide
========================================================================
The only way you can “reproduce” D&D 5e rules is to follow the example of the [retroclones](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dungeons_%26_Dragons_retro-clones): rebuilding the rules by altering the d20 SRD's text until it effectively explains the target game's rules in a new way.
However, doing this is a non-trivial amount of work — to do it effectively you have to recreate the rules from memory or via [clean room reverse engineering](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clean_room_design), otherwise what you produce isn't a retroclone, it's a derivative work that's just plain violating copyright. Having attempted a retroclone, I can tell you that it's at least ten times more work than expected, and about three times harder to resist referring to the original when writing than you expect. And any hint of copying-then-editing (either literally, or mentally) left in the structure of your project would be legal doom.
In the end, the calculus isn't worth it for something like this when you intend to sell it: the amount of time spent rewriting the rules and then going over it with a fine-toothed comb to make sure none of it is going to open you to legal liability is so much that by the end, you'd have to charge hundreds for each copy to just break even in a reasonable amount of time.
Not to mention that, being WotC's current in-print edition of D&D 5e, you'd be nearly-instantly buried in Cease & Desist letters and maybe full lawsuits, regardless of how careful and within the law you actually are, and you probably can't afford the legal fees to prove it even if the project was completely above-board. | Here's the process I would recommend: Get a job working for them; pitch your ideas to management. (Or, I suppose, pitch it to them as a contractor.)
<https://company.wizards.com/about/careers>
It's a really long shot, but it may well be your only shot -- I can't see another legal way of doing it. They're never going to simply allow you to reproduce their properties, but they *might* be willing to pay you to do it *for* them.
One in a million, but it might just work? |
70,839 | Say I wanted to create (and sell) an original design of the D&D 5e Player's Handbook, Dungeon Master's Guide, and some original cartography of Forgotten Realms locations. This would mostly be a reprint but original form and artwork. I understand that OGL doesn't cover this because the published books are under standard copyright law; [Source](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/45024/is-there-a-ogl-or-gsl-license-for-dd-5e) and [Source - Section 18-g](https://company.wizards.com/policies/web/tou)
If this is correct on this, based on [this](http://wizards.custhelp.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/88), I need to submit a request to them and get permission before producing anything.
Does this sound right? Am I missing something that makes this ok via OGL? Has anyone ever done this that knows the process which should be followed? | 2015/11/08 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/70839",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23126/"
] | You're right that you can't reproduce the D&D 5e edition rules, Forgotten Realms maps, etcetera, because they are fully copyrighted and no open/free license exists for any of their content. You would need to get permission from Hasbro (not Wizards of the Coast), and Hasbro's lawyers wouldn't even give it a moment's consideration.
Making a “retroclone” instead would be legal, but also financial suicide
========================================================================
The only way you can “reproduce” D&D 5e rules is to follow the example of the [retroclones](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dungeons_%26_Dragons_retro-clones): rebuilding the rules by altering the d20 SRD's text until it effectively explains the target game's rules in a new way.
However, doing this is a non-trivial amount of work — to do it effectively you have to recreate the rules from memory or via [clean room reverse engineering](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clean_room_design), otherwise what you produce isn't a retroclone, it's a derivative work that's just plain violating copyright. Having attempted a retroclone, I can tell you that it's at least ten times more work than expected, and about three times harder to resist referring to the original when writing than you expect. And any hint of copying-then-editing (either literally, or mentally) left in the structure of your project would be legal doom.
In the end, the calculus isn't worth it for something like this when you intend to sell it: the amount of time spent rewriting the rules and then going over it with a fine-toothed comb to make sure none of it is going to open you to legal liability is so much that by the end, you'd have to charge hundreds for each copy to just break even in a reasonable amount of time.
Not to mention that, being WotC's current in-print edition of D&D 5e, you'd be nearly-instantly buried in Cease & Desist letters and maybe full lawsuits, regardless of how careful and within the law you actually are, and you probably can't afford the legal fees to prove it even if the project was completely above-board. | The other answers are correct, you cannot do this without their permission and they are virtually certain not to give that permission.
**I am not a lawyer. Get legal advice before you try this.**
Having said that there is one thing you could do, which is to create a "mod kit". Create your original artwork and everything else in a way that allows it to be applied to the actual WoTC rule book.
In other words people could take your artwork and other changes and apply it to the rule book. So long as you didn't use any copyrighted material in your mod that should be fine.
In addition as a second step you could take the books and apply your changes and then sell the results. I'm not sure quite how that would fly legally as you are into selling derived works but since you are buying a rule book and then making changes to it you aren't at any point copying and copyrighted material. |
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