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121,905 | I cannot tell the difference regarding definition between compound nouns and nouns preceded by an adjective.
For example:
>
> River pollution is a serious environmental issue.
>
>
> River pollution is a serious environment issue.
>
>
>
or
>
> What is the molecular structure of water?
>
>
> what is the molecule structure of water?
>
>
> | 2017/03/09 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/121905",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/32527/"
] | >
> *River pollution is a serious environmental issue.*
>
>
> *River pollution is a serious environment issue.*
>
>
>
These are not compound nouns, but syntactic constructions where the noun "issue" is modified by the noun "environment" and the adjective "environmental". The resultant nominals are in turn modified by the adjective "serious" to form the noun phrase "a serious environment(al) issue.
>
> *What is the molecular structure of water?*
>
>
> *What is the molecule structure of water?*
>
>
>
Similarly with this pair: the noun "structure" is modified by the adjective "molecular" or the noun "molecule" to form the noun phrases "molecular structure" and "molecule structure".
By contrast, compounds, or more precisely "morphological compounds" are written as single words such as "newspaper", "cowshed", "pillow-case", "life-guard", "chewing-gum", "pub-crawl", "record-player" and so on.
Note that compounds exclude modification of the first component, for example "a dark greenhouse" means a greenhouse that is dark", not a greenhouse that is painted dark green. Composites on the other hand can allow a wide range of modification, for example "a bright green car" is a car that is painted bright green. | I'm a native speaker (USA) and I can say that very few people would be able to recognize the difference in meaning in these two examples. Let's take the first example,
>
> River pollution is a serious environmental issue.
>
> River pollution is a serious environment issue.
>
>
>
Only the first sentence makes sense. In the first sentence,the adjective, "serious," modifies the noun phrase, "environmental issue." In the second sentence, the adjective only modifies "environment." The two sentences might be reworded,
>
> One **serious environmental issue** is river polution
> "One issue for the **serious environment** is river pollution."
>
>
>
Again, only someone we lovingly refer to as a "grammar nerd" would recognize the error, though it is important to get it correct. |
394,431 | I downloaded this [SASS syntax highlighting files](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) and done the four steps instructed (as a Mac user). But I don't know how to run it so that my .sass file is converted to .css
Can you suggest me anything? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/394431",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/120270/"
] | It looks like that uses Sublime's Build system to do the conversion. In Sublime, open "Tools > Build System" and choose Automatic, then try building (Cmd+B, F7, or Tools>Build.) If it still doesn't work, try changing the Build System from Automatic to SASS. | I'm not sure how different things will be on Mac, but I use Sublime Text 2 on both Windows and Linux without any issues regarding Sass. I haven't used the plugin [sublime-text-haml-sass](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) though.
I would say:
1. Make sure Sass is installed on your system. The instructions for that plugin don't cover that. *Make sure that Sass works outside Sublime*. This has been a requirement for the plugins I've used for Sass processing.
2. Select the correct **Build System**. For me, sometimes the **Automatic**
option does not work. I would advise you to select it manually. The
[Compass](https://sublime.wbond.net/packages/Compass) and [SASS Build](https://sublime.wbond.net/packages/SASS%20Build) plugins add Compass and SASS
options respectively, to that **Tools >> Build System** menu. I would
guess that [sublime-text-haml-sass](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) does the same.
3. Remember to run the build (via **Tools >> Build** manually). |
394,431 | I downloaded this [SASS syntax highlighting files](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) and done the four steps instructed (as a Mac user). But I don't know how to run it so that my .sass file is converted to .css
Can you suggest me anything? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/394431",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/120270/"
] | It looks like that uses Sublime's Build system to do the conversion. In Sublime, open "Tools > Build System" and choose Automatic, then try building (Cmd+B, F7, or Tools>Build.) If it still doesn't work, try changing the Build System from Automatic to SASS. | I use [hammer for mac](http://hammerformac.com/ "hammer for mac") which has built in support for compiling SASS, coffeescript, HAML among others, as well as loads of other great features such as non-PHP includes, clever paths, variables etc.
Highly recommend it. |
394,431 | I downloaded this [SASS syntax highlighting files](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) and done the four steps instructed (as a Mac user). But I don't know how to run it so that my .sass file is converted to .css
Can you suggest me anything? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/394431",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/120270/"
] | I've been using Edge with Sublime Text 2 to live edit Sass & Compass files. Check it out here <http://getedge.io> | It looks like that uses Sublime's Build system to do the conversion. In Sublime, open "Tools > Build System" and choose Automatic, then try building (Cmd+B, F7, or Tools>Build.) If it still doesn't work, try changing the Build System from Automatic to SASS. |
394,431 | I downloaded this [SASS syntax highlighting files](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) and done the four steps instructed (as a Mac user). But I don't know how to run it so that my .sass file is converted to .css
Can you suggest me anything? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/394431",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/120270/"
] | I've been using Edge with Sublime Text 2 to live edit Sass & Compass files. Check it out here <http://getedge.io> | I use [hammer for mac](http://hammerformac.com/ "hammer for mac") which has built in support for compiling SASS, coffeescript, HAML among others, as well as loads of other great features such as non-PHP includes, clever paths, variables etc.
Highly recommend it. |
394,431 | I downloaded this [SASS syntax highlighting files](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) and done the four steps instructed (as a Mac user). But I don't know how to run it so that my .sass file is converted to .css
Can you suggest me anything? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/394431",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/120270/"
] | I've been using Edge with Sublime Text 2 to live edit Sass & Compass files. Check it out here <http://getedge.io> | I'm not sure how different things will be on Mac, but I use Sublime Text 2 on both Windows and Linux without any issues regarding Sass. I haven't used the plugin [sublime-text-haml-sass](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) though.
I would say:
1. Make sure Sass is installed on your system. The instructions for that plugin don't cover that. *Make sure that Sass works outside Sublime*. This has been a requirement for the plugins I've used for Sass processing.
2. Select the correct **Build System**. For me, sometimes the **Automatic**
option does not work. I would advise you to select it manually. The
[Compass](https://sublime.wbond.net/packages/Compass) and [SASS Build](https://sublime.wbond.net/packages/SASS%20Build) plugins add Compass and SASS
options respectively, to that **Tools >> Build System** menu. I would
guess that [sublime-text-haml-sass](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) does the same.
3. Remember to run the build (via **Tools >> Build** manually). |
394,431 | I downloaded this [SASS syntax highlighting files](https://github.com/n00ge/sublime-text-haml-sass) and done the four steps instructed (as a Mac user). But I don't know how to run it so that my .sass file is converted to .css
Can you suggest me anything? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/394431",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/120270/"
] | I've been using Edge with Sublime Text 2 to live edit Sass & Compass files. Check it out here <http://getedge.io> | [CodeKit](https://incident57.com/codekit/) works like a charm;
Simply open up your Sass/HTML/JS in Sublime Text, then run CodeKit.
Drag and drop your source folder into CodeKit, hit Preview and voila – it compiles and update all changes while giving you a live preview. |
63,650 | I wouldn't have a gripe if the banner area was stationary, but often times the page will load and I'll target something with my mouse and then the banner will suddenly appear and shift the entire UI down.
I like the notification concept, but I'm often frustrated by the UI.
Just my 2 cents. | 2010/09/07 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/63650",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/148961/"
] | I just wish that clicking it would consistently take me to the "recent activity" page. Because that's usually where I'm headed anyway once I see it, and it makes a much more inviting click-target than that tiny little envelope... (or the tiny little X on the right) | The top notification bar used to be blocking. It used to hover on top of the SE navigation area. Now, I still have a number of issues with the top notification bar.
* Asynchronous. After the page loads and you start reading, the page adjusts for the notification bar. This is a minor annoyance.
* Other notification mechanisms exist. For instance the global inbox, but also the 'error' pages for important notifications like downtime.
* The importance of the notifications is low. The last three notifications I received were two for comments and one for a badge. I already saw the comments in the inbox, so that's redundant. Earning a badge is not important. |
116,933 | If a player with great cleave kills a creature while grappling it, can that player then make a grapple attempt against an adjacent creature and continue the carnage across the entire group of enemies?
Scenario:
Bob the Grappler is currently affected by enlarge person, fearsome grapple, and balor nimbus.
He grapples goblin 1.
With his grapple, he moves into goblin square.
He annihilates goblin.
He now wants to use his cleave attack to grapple goblin 2 and repeat the process until all 15 goblins are un-alived.
Does that work? | 2018/03/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/116933",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/33213/"
] | Generally, yes, you can Grapple as a Melee Attack off of Cleave/Great Cleave, if you defeated the previous enemy with a Grapple check.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
[Great Cleave](http://www.dandwiki.com/wiki/SRD:Great_Cleave)
>
> Works like Cleave...
>
>
>
[Cleave](http://www.dandwiki.com/wiki/SRD:Cleave) (emphasis added)
>
> If you deal a creature enough damage to make it drop (typically by dropping it to below 0 hit points or killing it), you get an immediate, extra **melee attack** against another creature within reach. You cannot take a 5-foot step before making this extra attack. **The extra attack is with the same weapon** and at the same bonus as the attack that dropped the previous creature. You can use this ability once per round.
>
>
>
From [Grapple](http://www.dandwiki.com/wiki/Grapple#Grapple)
>
> A grapple check is like a melee attack roll.
>
> ...
>
> To start a grapple, you need to grab and hold your target. Starting a grapple requires a successful melee attack roll.
>
>
>
It's important to note, though, that this can only be done on your turn, also from Grapple:
>
> Step 3
>
> Hold. Make an opposed grapple check as a *free action*.
>
>
>
The end result is, as long as your Grapple check(s) defeat an enemy, you are able to Cleave to another, adjacent, enemy.
However, many GM's may prevent you from using this with Great Cleave.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
A GM has open range to restrict Free Actions (here, Maintaining the Grapple/making the Grapple check) you can perform per round. Because of this, they could say you can only Cleave Grapple once per 6 second round (or twice, or however many sounds appropriate to the GM). | **Yes, this works.**
[Cleave](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/feats.htm#cleave) (and, by extension, Great Cleave) grants you:
>
> ...an immediate, extra melee attack against another creature within reach.
>
>
>
It doesn't say it must be a "normal" melee attack or anything along those lines.
Initiating a [grapple](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm#grapple) is a melee attack:
* It's listed under "[Special Attacks](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm)."
* It requires a melee touch attack.
* It can take the place of one of your iterative attacks.
* [Skip Williams thinks](http://archive.wizards.com/default.asp?x=dnd/rg/20041102a) that it's a melee attack, to the point that you can initiate a grapple as an attack of opportunity. Note that [all the usual disclaimers](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/60044/what-is-wrong-with-the-dd-3-5-faq) about the 3.5 FAQ and Rules of the Game articles apply, but in this case I agree with Skip's ruling.
In other words, initiating a grapple behaves in all ways as a special case of making a melee attack.
---
While I can't find anything that explicitly says "yes, you can use your Cleave attack to make a special attack such as a grapple attempt," I see no reason to think that a grapple attempt shouldn't count as a "melee attack" here, as it does in all other cases where the question comes up. |
116,933 | If a player with great cleave kills a creature while grappling it, can that player then make a grapple attempt against an adjacent creature and continue the carnage across the entire group of enemies?
Scenario:
Bob the Grappler is currently affected by enlarge person, fearsome grapple, and balor nimbus.
He grapples goblin 1.
With his grapple, he moves into goblin square.
He annihilates goblin.
He now wants to use his cleave attack to grapple goblin 2 and repeat the process until all 15 goblins are un-alived.
Does that work? | 2018/03/07 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/116933",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/33213/"
] | So the first issue here is that Cleave (and thus Great Cleave) requires that your free attack follow up an attack that fells an opponent, and that the free attack be with the same weapon as the first attack. Per [the rules](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm#grappleChecks), “A grapple check is like a melee attack roll,” but how much *like* an attack roll it is could be up for debate. If it isn’t sufficiently *like* an attack roll to make the grapple check count as an attack, the damage from [starting a grapple](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm#startingaGrapple) step 3, as well as the [damage your opponent](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm#damageYourOpponent) option, won’t trigger Cleave or Great Cleave.
In your favor, those say that you “deal damage to the target as if with an unarmed strike,” or “you deal nonlethal damage as normal for your unarmed strike,” respectively, and those are weapons, and dealing damage with a weapon is a pretty strong sign of an attack—but it’s not clear. Those lines are more definitively useful if we accept that grappling is sufficiently attack-like for Cleave and Great Cleave, as they make a strong case for considering the “weapon” used for that attack to be the unarmed strike, which you can go ahead and use to start a new grapple on the bonus attack.
There is a similar problem if you have constrict—or *balor nimbus*. That extra damage comes from those effects, not any attack. Constrict’s damage might be considered part of the original grapple check—which might be considered an attack—but *balor nimbus* is definitely separate. And separate effects, not part of an attack, will not trigger Cleave or Great Cleave.
Regardless of all this, the [attack your opponent](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm#attackYourOpponent) option will. And if you use your unarmed strike for that attack, you use it again for your free attack. And you can grapple with your unarmed strike, and grappling can replace any melee attack roll, like the free one from Cleave. So that works.
The problem is that if you are required to use the separate attack your opponent option, your bonus attack from Great Cleave only lets you start the grapple, and you have to use a separate attack to actually drop him if you want to use Great Cleave again. Only if the initial check can trigger Great Cleave can you use all these free attacks to go through all your enemies. (Note also that your DM may well decide enough is enough and say you are out of free actions if you are truly trying to chain this to a particularly large number of enemies.) | **Yes, this works.**
[Cleave](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/feats.htm#cleave) (and, by extension, Great Cleave) grants you:
>
> ...an immediate, extra melee attack against another creature within reach.
>
>
>
It doesn't say it must be a "normal" melee attack or anything along those lines.
Initiating a [grapple](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm#grapple) is a melee attack:
* It's listed under "[Special Attacks](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/specialAttacks.htm)."
* It requires a melee touch attack.
* It can take the place of one of your iterative attacks.
* [Skip Williams thinks](http://archive.wizards.com/default.asp?x=dnd/rg/20041102a) that it's a melee attack, to the point that you can initiate a grapple as an attack of opportunity. Note that [all the usual disclaimers](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/60044/what-is-wrong-with-the-dd-3-5-faq) about the 3.5 FAQ and Rules of the Game articles apply, but in this case I agree with Skip's ruling.
In other words, initiating a grapple behaves in all ways as a special case of making a melee attack.
---
While I can't find anything that explicitly says "yes, you can use your Cleave attack to make a special attack such as a grapple attempt," I see no reason to think that a grapple attempt shouldn't count as a "melee attack" here, as it does in all other cases where the question comes up. |
155,651 | My Outlook is already full of rules and I want my exchange server to do some rules for me. I don't know where to start inside the MS Exchange. Any ideas?
-Thank you for that. Scenario here is that I need to receive all the emails from outside and I auto-forward it to my agents. every agents have 1 rule and we are expanding so my capacity, w/c is 32kb is not enough. What do you think is the best way I can do? | 2010/06/28 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/155651",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/46929/"
] | Outlook rules are created strictly in the outlook client. Rules may be stored on the client (client side rules) or on the server (server side rules) depending on what they do. Also, there's a 32KB limit to the rules on anything prior to Exchange 2007, if I'm not mistaken. | Not sure what type of rules you are creating, but by default Outlook **will** store and process some of its rules on the exchange server depending on what types of rules you create.
Ref: <http://www.slipstick.com/rules/serverbased.htm> and <http://msexchangeteam.com/archive/2007/12/10/447717.aspx> |
14,878 | Ever since Junior year of college, Geology has had a [special place](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/6064/how-can-i-tell-which-layers-there-are-in-an-in-progress-fortress-in-dwarf-fortres/6079#6079) in my heart, so when I was recently faced with the following problem I felt a tug on the old heart strings:
**How much Ore do I need to obtain 525 Jewel Crafting?**
Unlike obtaining 525 Mining or Blacksmithing, this isn't a straight forward question. Not every 5 ore prospected yield the correct gems, not every gem cut gives you a skill up. So a proper answer to this question requires more than a single list, it requires... [Maths](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Pj2NOTanzWI).
I want to know:
1. Minimum amount of ore required (easy)
2. Statistically Average amount of ore required (more difficult)
3. 90% percentile amount of ore required ([FUN](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eWsFw.png)!)
I consider an answer which provide numbers for all 3: correct. | 2011/01/18 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/14878",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/102/"
] | Just for the sake of completeness, I'm going to take Chris' [profession guide link](http://www.wow-professions.com/wowguides/wow_jewelcrafting_leveling_guide.html) and reduce it to ore amounts. That'll at least give you the "minimum" amount.
### Absolute Minimum
The technical absolute minimum is 0 ore, as you'd just buy all the bars/gems you need from the auction house and you'd never deal with ore at all.
### Minimim w/ Mining
This answer will include the minimum figured assuming you only mine for bars and dust and that all gems come from the auction house.
* 160 Copper Ore
* 60 Tin Ore
* 140 Mithril Ore
* 15 Truesilver Ore
* 50 Thorium Bar
* 200 Adamantite Ore
* 10 Titanium Ore
### Minimum w/ Mining & Prospecting
This answer assumes that you'd obtain each gem from the *common* ore most likely to drop it via prospecting based on figures on [Wowhead](http://www.wowhead.com/). However, I also assumed no gems dropped during mining, which means these values won't be the absolute minimum.
* 160 Copper Ore
* 310 Tin Ore
+ add 150 more for Horde characters
+ add 200 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Small Illustrious Pearls
* 125 Iron Ore
* 215 Mithril Ore
* 15 Truesilver Ore
* 250 Thorium Ore
+ add 50 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Powerful Mojos
* 200 Fel Iron Ore or Adamantite Ore
+ add 75 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Black Diamonds
* 220 Adamantite Ore
* 350 Cobalt Ore
* 25 Saronite Ore
* 10 Titanium Ore
* 3205 Obsidium Ore (500 + 2700 from Shadowspirit Diamond and Fire Prism transmutes)
### Quick Average: Mining & Prospecting
For the purposes of this answer, I assume that everything you do will skill you a point in Jewelcrafting, but I incorporate the average percentage drop of gems from the ore that is most likely to drop that gem.
For obsidium ore, the figure is the same as the minimum. Assuming each gem has an equal chance to drop, you'll be obtaining the gems in equal numbers. Since you need 3 of each of them for the transmutes, the percentage that you'll get a gem you need is 100% until you've gotten enough of that gem for all the transmutes you'd need.
* 160 Copper Ore
* 755 Tin Ore
+ add 400 more for Horde characters
+ add 535 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Small Illustrious Pearls
* 420 Iron Ore
* 390 Mithril Ore
* 15 Truesilver Ore
* 1155 Thorium Ore
+ add 170 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Powerful Mojos
* 1180 Fel Iron Ore or Adamantite Ore
+ add 445 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Black Diamonds
* 310 Adamantite Ore
* 1400 Cobalt Ore
* 140 Saronite Ore
* 10 Titanium Ore
* 3205 Obsidium Ore (500 + 2700 from Shadowspirit Diamond and Fire Prism transmutes)
### Quick 90th Percentile
With the absence of data points from actual instances or simulations, I cheated on this one. My calculation for the 90th percentile was (([AVG]-[MIN])+[AVG]\*.9)+[BAR], where
* **AVG** - Average ore needed to prospect gems based on drop rate
* **MIN** - Minimum ore needed to prospect gems
* **BAR** - Ore needed for bars
It's not perfect, and it also assumes that you always skill when crafting things with jewelcrafting. The same caveat applies to Obsidium in this answer as it does in the quick average.
* 160 Copper Ore
* 1120 Tin Ore
+ add 610 more for Horde characters
+ add 815 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Small Illustrious Pearls
* 670 Iron Ore
* 540 Mithril Ore
* 15 Truesilver Ore
* 1950 Thorium Ore
+ add 550 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Powerful Mojos
* 2245 Fel Iron Ore or Adamantite Ore
+ add 765 more if you'd rather not farm/buy Black Diamonds
* 385 Adamantite Ore
* 2310 Cobalt Ore
* 240 Saronite Ore
* 10 Titanium Ore
* 3205 Obsidium Ore (500 + 2700 from Shadowspirit Diamond and Fire Prism transmutes)
### True Average & 90th Percentile
It quickly gets too complicated for me to want to bother attempting this in a completely legitimate fashion. One would have to make sure they had enough base inventory to accomplish both feats which results in a trickle-back effect where you have to go back and make older stuff again at times. That's best left for either a simulation program or someone with free time and a burning desire to snag your bounty. :)
For anyone interested in doing that, good luck. Also, so it doesn't get missed, Raven Dreamer posted the skill up formula he found for the percent chance you will skill up on a yellow or green recipe as a comment to the original question:
>
> [chance of gaining skill point] = (grey skill - current skill) / (grey skill - yellow skill)
>
>
>
"Grey skill" and "yellow skill" are the numbers at which the recipe turns grey or yellow respectively. | This isn't an answer by your criteria but this guide contains the materials required to level to 525, some people may find it useful: <http://www.wow-professions.com/wowguides/wow_jewelcrafting_leveling_guide.html> |
80,090 | I want to create a 2D side scrolling game in a similar style as the game "Castle Crashers". (Go to: <http://store.steampowered.com/app/204360/> to see some pics of the game).
I have experience creating 2D games which use an array of tiles (a tilemap), to see if the player/enemies/bullets are moving to a blocked or unblocked tile by referencing the entities x and y coordinates with the tile in the corresponding location.
My question is: How do I implement collision with the "game map", in a game that doesn't use tiles, but instead shapes.
For instance: if the current "map" was a circle, the p[layer could move freely around the inside of the circle, but could not leave the circle.
Sorry if this question is long-winded and confusing, but I would really appreciate some help with this!
Thanks! | 2014/07/11 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/80090",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/49216/"
] | I'm assuming you're either using some sort of entity-component system, or else you have in-game classes that represent your objects.
Either way, you have some reference to your in-game objects (players, walls, enemies, etc.) At a minimum, these objects should have:
* A position
* A sprite (display)
* A collision primitive (axis-aligned bounding box?)
All you need to do, then, for collisions, is check the collision primitives against each other. (Mentally, you can imagine this box that moves when your player/objects move.)
Of course, this solution has O(n^2) complexity (check every primitive against every other primitive), so you may need to use something like a quadtree for performance (to limit which objects are checked -- only against near neighbors). | You can use a raycasting (or linecasting) based collision detection system. At a very high level, you cast rays from your player (preferably from the edges of it's collider box) into the game map. When the ray hits something, you can check to see what its hit, and if it's a collidable surface, resolve the collision and adjust player movement as appropriate. This method is pretty agnostic to how your game map is built (tilemap, models, geometric shapes, etc).
For more technical details, you can view my own [question](https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/71308/platformer-raycast-collision-detection) on a similar topic. While the code presented is C# (and for Unity), you could easily adapt it for any language.
Here's an image to help visualize the system
Some resources:
* <http://www.gamasutra.com/blogs/YoannPignole/20131010/202080/The_hobbyist_coder_1_2D_platformer_controller.php>
* <http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/15604/Ray-casting-in-a-D-tile-based-environment> |
80,090 | I want to create a 2D side scrolling game in a similar style as the game "Castle Crashers". (Go to: <http://store.steampowered.com/app/204360/> to see some pics of the game).
I have experience creating 2D games which use an array of tiles (a tilemap), to see if the player/enemies/bullets are moving to a blocked or unblocked tile by referencing the entities x and y coordinates with the tile in the corresponding location.
My question is: How do I implement collision with the "game map", in a game that doesn't use tiles, but instead shapes.
For instance: if the current "map" was a circle, the p[layer could move freely around the inside of the circle, but could not leave the circle.
Sorry if this question is long-winded and confusing, but I would really appreciate some help with this!
Thanks! | 2014/07/11 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/80090",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/49216/"
] | I'm assuming you're either using some sort of entity-component system, or else you have in-game classes that represent your objects.
Either way, you have some reference to your in-game objects (players, walls, enemies, etc.) At a minimum, these objects should have:
* A position
* A sprite (display)
* A collision primitive (axis-aligned bounding box?)
All you need to do, then, for collisions, is check the collision primitives against each other. (Mentally, you can imagine this box that moves when your player/objects move.)
Of course, this solution has O(n^2) complexity (check every primitive against every other primitive), so you may need to use something like a quadtree for performance (to limit which objects are checked -- only against near neighbors). | Simply use shapes and AABB collisions.
Keep a tiled map. Create an approximation of a circle using tiles and create a rectangle for each of the unwalkable tiles.
Next, when you create a player or any movable entity, simply create a Rectangle around them too. Before moving, look whether or not the player's rectangle would collide with any of the wall's rectangle and allow the movement accordingly.
Here are some resources to read about AABB collisions:
<https://stackoverflow.com/questions/22512319/what-is-aabb-collision-detection>
<http://www.gamedev.net/page/resources/_/technical/game-programming/swept-aabb-collision-detection-and-response-r3084>
<http://www.gamefromscratch.com/post/2012/11/26/GameDev-math-recipes-Collision-detection-using-an-axis-aligned-bounding-box.aspx> |
110,922 | **Not the same as** [Why I can't scan the WhatsApp QR?](https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/96546/why-i-cant-scan-the-whatsapp-qr) **because the problem there was the "OK Got It" was not visible due to the screen being too small, but that's not the problem here**
I have the latest version of WhatsApp
I restarted the phone
I have the WhatsApp Web option
The QR code loads perfectly in my chrome browser
**I have the "OK Got It" option**
It starts scanning the code....
.....and keeps scanning and scanning and scanning.....
I waited over 15 minutes and nothing happened! **It just keeps scanning the code**, no matter how many times I reload it, and nothing happens :(
I tested my internet and wifi connections, so I know it's not that.
Anyone else have this problem? Or know how to fix this?
I have a galaxy s3 | 2015/05/31 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/110922",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/110846/"
] | I found that a Chrome extension I had was causing the built in scanner to fail. DarkReader modified the background of the page to a dark colour, which apparently caused the WhatsApp QR scanner to fail.
If you are using dark mode plugin, ensure it's off when scanning the QR code. | Mine wouldn't scan when phone was on wifi; turned off wifi and it worked perfectly. |
147,971 | I'm looking to build a [Roy Mustang](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roy_Mustang) (from [FMA](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fullmetal_Alchemist)) style character, whose primary method attack is a fiery explosion. While there are many Fire-based spells and cantrips I can use, I'm focused on the interaction of the Kiss of Mephistopheles eldritch invocation (see [Unearthed Arcana: Warlock & Wizard](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/20170213_Wizrd_Wrlck_UAv2_i48nf.pdf#page=4)) and the [*eldritch blast*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/eldritch-blast) cantrip. For this character, it would make more sense for him to launch a flame, rather than a beam of force, that explodes into a fireball.
Is there a RAW way to adjust the damage type of *eldritch blast* to fire? I would be happy with a partial damage split, as long as there is fire damage being dealt.
Conditions:
* He has to be Warlock 5, but multi-classing is allowed
* We are allowed to use the official material, plus UA material (after running it by the GM)
* Magic items will work, but they will need to be somewhat easy to get ahold of.
Note: The GM would likely be fine with allowing me to change the damage type, but I'd prefer using existing content that allows this instead. There have been cases of "You changed a rule for them, so you should change a rule for me" and I want to avoid this. | 2019/05/13 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/147971",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/55388/"
] | There currently is no method for this
=====================================
While the [Unearthed Arcana Lore Wizard](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/20170213_Wizrd_Wrlck_UAv2_i48nf.pdf) created a method to change spell damage types, it only included spells that cost a spell slot, so cantrips like Eldritch Blast were not included.
In terms of changing a damage type for any spell, that was your only option.
However, even if you did utilize that, you really have to be careful in multiclassing Unearthed Arcana classes - those weren't tuned for multiclassing and combining a UA class with a UA invocation is treading into risky waters.
DM's choice to change it
------------------------
A DM could provide EB as fire instead of force. Ultimately, it's not a big deal, but it may become a decision you regret because there are many monsters with fire resistance/immunity and very few force resistant/immune.
Changing for flavor
-------------------
While Mustang does use actual fire here, you could just 'flavor' the look of your eldritch blast to be a fire-looking effect - but that it does just deal force damage. If you don't change the actual mechanics (damage type), then you can change your narration for it - and maybe just for when you use the invocation.
A build challenge
-----------------
Instead of going with your current build, you could do a [Sorcerer](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/classes#Sorcerer) build that has *fire bolt* and the Metamagic Quickened Spell so that you can cast the cantrip *fire bolt* and follow it with a quickened *fireball* bonus action.
If you want to minimize risk here with fire being often resisted, you could also take the **[Elemental Adept](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/elemental-adept-fire)** feat (PHB, p. 166) and bypass fire resistance.
>
> * Spells you cast ignore resistance to fire damage. In addition, when you roll damage for a spell you cast that deals fire damage, you can treat any 1 on a damage die as a 2.
> * You can select this feat multiple times. Each time you do so, you must choose a different damage type.
>
>
> | There isn't really a way to do that officially, but I wouldn't worry too much about having the DM do it by fiat -- changing Force damage into Fire damage is actually a serious *downgrade*, as fire is the second most commonly reduced1 damage type (after poison), while almost nothing reduces pure force.
If the DM gets assailed by requests to alter other rules, there's an easy response of "Okay, that's fine, as long as you're intentionally weakening yourself." (But to be honest, that is really *not your problem*; let the DM refuse your request if he feels it sets a problematic precedent, and if he doesn't feel it's a problem, you don't need to protect him.)
---
1 When I say "reduced", I'm collectively referring to both immunity and resistance. |
147,971 | I'm looking to build a [Roy Mustang](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roy_Mustang) (from [FMA](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fullmetal_Alchemist)) style character, whose primary method attack is a fiery explosion. While there are many Fire-based spells and cantrips I can use, I'm focused on the interaction of the Kiss of Mephistopheles eldritch invocation (see [Unearthed Arcana: Warlock & Wizard](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/20170213_Wizrd_Wrlck_UAv2_i48nf.pdf#page=4)) and the [*eldritch blast*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/eldritch-blast) cantrip. For this character, it would make more sense for him to launch a flame, rather than a beam of force, that explodes into a fireball.
Is there a RAW way to adjust the damage type of *eldritch blast* to fire? I would be happy with a partial damage split, as long as there is fire damage being dealt.
Conditions:
* He has to be Warlock 5, but multi-classing is allowed
* We are allowed to use the official material, plus UA material (after running it by the GM)
* Magic items will work, but they will need to be somewhat easy to get ahold of.
Note: The GM would likely be fine with allowing me to change the damage type, but I'd prefer using existing content that allows this instead. There have been cases of "You changed a rule for them, so you should change a rule for me" and I want to avoid this. | 2019/05/13 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/147971",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/55388/"
] | There currently is no method for this
=====================================
While the [Unearthed Arcana Lore Wizard](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/20170213_Wizrd_Wrlck_UAv2_i48nf.pdf) created a method to change spell damage types, it only included spells that cost a spell slot, so cantrips like Eldritch Blast were not included.
In terms of changing a damage type for any spell, that was your only option.
However, even if you did utilize that, you really have to be careful in multiclassing Unearthed Arcana classes - those weren't tuned for multiclassing and combining a UA class with a UA invocation is treading into risky waters.
DM's choice to change it
------------------------
A DM could provide EB as fire instead of force. Ultimately, it's not a big deal, but it may become a decision you regret because there are many monsters with fire resistance/immunity and very few force resistant/immune.
Changing for flavor
-------------------
While Mustang does use actual fire here, you could just 'flavor' the look of your eldritch blast to be a fire-looking effect - but that it does just deal force damage. If you don't change the actual mechanics (damage type), then you can change your narration for it - and maybe just for when you use the invocation.
A build challenge
-----------------
Instead of going with your current build, you could do a [Sorcerer](https://www.dndbeyond.com/sources/basic-rules/classes#Sorcerer) build that has *fire bolt* and the Metamagic Quickened Spell so that you can cast the cantrip *fire bolt* and follow it with a quickened *fireball* bonus action.
If you want to minimize risk here with fire being often resisted, you could also take the **[Elemental Adept](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/elemental-adept-fire)** feat (PHB, p. 166) and bypass fire resistance.
>
> * Spells you cast ignore resistance to fire damage. In addition, when you roll damage for a spell you cast that deals fire damage, you can treat any 1 on a damage die as a 2.
> * You can select this feat multiple times. Each time you do so, you must choose a different damage type.
>
>
> | There will likely never be a RAW way to do this. In your own game, though, it shouldn't be unbalanced, with a few caveats.
==========================================================================================================================
Currently, there is no way to change the element of [Eldritch Blast](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/eldritch-blast), and that's important, as there is also no way to specifically buff force spells. Eldritch Blast can be very easily made into the most powerful cantrip in the game by a wide margin, making Eldritch Blast optimization a significant area of endeavor. Being able to cast it as fire rather than force would unlock a number of things.
* [Celestial warlocks](https://www.dndbeyond.com/classes/warlock#TheCelestial) at 6th level can add Cha mod to damage on one damage roll per cast of a fire spell.
* [Draconic Bloodline sorcerers](https://www.dndbeyond.com/classes/sorcerer#DraconicBloodline) at 6th level can add Cha mod to damage on one damage roll per cast of their favored element (and also get temporary resistance to that element at the same time). Fire is a permissable element.
* Tieflings can take the [Flames of Phlegethos](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/flames-of-phlegethos) half-feat (Int/Cha) that allows rerolls of 1s on fire damage from spells, and also provides a temporary aura that deals small amounts of fire damage to attackers.
* Technically, [Elemental Adept](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/elemental-adept) (available for fire, but not for force) lets you turn rolled 1s on damage dice into 2s, but that's admittedly pretty weak for a d10 damage die.
Now, admittedly, these are all pretty low-intensity. None of them is going to give you overwhelming power, and the costs are nontrivial. Still, Eldritch Blast is already pushing the outer bound of what's possible for at-will damage for primary spellcasters. It appears that the fact that you cannot change the element is by design.
More importantly, it may well not apply to your character specifically. If you want Kiss of Mephistopheles, then you're not a Celestial warlock. You may well not want to spend 6 levels learning how to be a dragon sorcerer. If you're not a tiefling, then no Flames of Phlethegos... and Elemental Adept probably isn't worth taking regardless. If you're willing to agree to not use the various boosters for fire spells, it should be no problem... but there is not now and will likely never be a way to do it. That's the sort of 4e optimization that the 5e authors have systematically suppressed. |
147,971 | I'm looking to build a [Roy Mustang](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roy_Mustang) (from [FMA](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fullmetal_Alchemist)) style character, whose primary method attack is a fiery explosion. While there are many Fire-based spells and cantrips I can use, I'm focused on the interaction of the Kiss of Mephistopheles eldritch invocation (see [Unearthed Arcana: Warlock & Wizard](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/20170213_Wizrd_Wrlck_UAv2_i48nf.pdf#page=4)) and the [*eldritch blast*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/eldritch-blast) cantrip. For this character, it would make more sense for him to launch a flame, rather than a beam of force, that explodes into a fireball.
Is there a RAW way to adjust the damage type of *eldritch blast* to fire? I would be happy with a partial damage split, as long as there is fire damage being dealt.
Conditions:
* He has to be Warlock 5, but multi-classing is allowed
* We are allowed to use the official material, plus UA material (after running it by the GM)
* Magic items will work, but they will need to be somewhat easy to get ahold of.
Note: The GM would likely be fine with allowing me to change the damage type, but I'd prefer using existing content that allows this instead. There have been cases of "You changed a rule for them, so you should change a rule for me" and I want to avoid this. | 2019/05/13 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/147971",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/55388/"
] | There isn't really a way to do that officially, but I wouldn't worry too much about having the DM do it by fiat -- changing Force damage into Fire damage is actually a serious *downgrade*, as fire is the second most commonly reduced1 damage type (after poison), while almost nothing reduces pure force.
If the DM gets assailed by requests to alter other rules, there's an easy response of "Okay, that's fine, as long as you're intentionally weakening yourself." (But to be honest, that is really *not your problem*; let the DM refuse your request if he feels it sets a problematic precedent, and if he doesn't feel it's a problem, you don't need to protect him.)
---
1 When I say "reduced", I'm collectively referring to both immunity and resistance. | There will likely never be a RAW way to do this. In your own game, though, it shouldn't be unbalanced, with a few caveats.
==========================================================================================================================
Currently, there is no way to change the element of [Eldritch Blast](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/eldritch-blast), and that's important, as there is also no way to specifically buff force spells. Eldritch Blast can be very easily made into the most powerful cantrip in the game by a wide margin, making Eldritch Blast optimization a significant area of endeavor. Being able to cast it as fire rather than force would unlock a number of things.
* [Celestial warlocks](https://www.dndbeyond.com/classes/warlock#TheCelestial) at 6th level can add Cha mod to damage on one damage roll per cast of a fire spell.
* [Draconic Bloodline sorcerers](https://www.dndbeyond.com/classes/sorcerer#DraconicBloodline) at 6th level can add Cha mod to damage on one damage roll per cast of their favored element (and also get temporary resistance to that element at the same time). Fire is a permissable element.
* Tieflings can take the [Flames of Phlegethos](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/flames-of-phlegethos) half-feat (Int/Cha) that allows rerolls of 1s on fire damage from spells, and also provides a temporary aura that deals small amounts of fire damage to attackers.
* Technically, [Elemental Adept](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/elemental-adept) (available for fire, but not for force) lets you turn rolled 1s on damage dice into 2s, but that's admittedly pretty weak for a d10 damage die.
Now, admittedly, these are all pretty low-intensity. None of them is going to give you overwhelming power, and the costs are nontrivial. Still, Eldritch Blast is already pushing the outer bound of what's possible for at-will damage for primary spellcasters. It appears that the fact that you cannot change the element is by design.
More importantly, it may well not apply to your character specifically. If you want Kiss of Mephistopheles, then you're not a Celestial warlock. You may well not want to spend 6 levels learning how to be a dragon sorcerer. If you're not a tiefling, then no Flames of Phlethegos... and Elemental Adept probably isn't worth taking regardless. If you're willing to agree to not use the various boosters for fire spells, it should be no problem... but there is not now and will likely never be a way to do it. That's the sort of 4e optimization that the 5e authors have systematically suppressed. |
12,677,905 | We need CI on Heroku for our RoR app.
We want to use an add-on. I don't mind paying a few bucks to avoid complexity / distraction.
I see its basically Railsonfire vs. Tddium
What are the factors that we should consider in choosing to use one vs. the other?
A similar question was asked at the link below, but it appears that this was before the add-ons above were created.
[Proper continuous integration and continuous deployment with Git and Heroku](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/3127194/proper-continuous-integration-and-continuous-deployment-with-git-and-heroku) | 2012/10/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12677905",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1232686/"
] | Another option is [CircleCi](https://circleci.com), which makes it incredibly easy, though it isn't yet in the Heroku add-on marketplace.
I personally believe speed is the major consideration. The speed at which your team moves is tied to how quickly you can get notifications, and a platform optimized for speed is going to make a major difference.
In addition, on slow platforms, tests may fail randomly (for example, Cucumber might fail if a button doesn't appear in 3 seconds, which may not happen soon enough on a slow platform).
I'm a founder of [CircleCi](https://circleci.com), and we make an incredibly fast CI solution (faster than both services you mentioned). It's really easy to set up (one-click), though it's not in the Heroku marketplace (yet). | One consideration I'd give you to… uh… consider is support. I don't know anything about the Tddium team, but I do know that a couple months ago I tried Rails On Fire was blown away by the support. I asked some crazy questions (I do crazy things) and Florian responded in email and on Twitter right away with both help and suggestions.
Then, when I decided not to use the service because it couldn't support one edge-case feature, he implemented the feature! I hadn't been using it for a couple weeks and he wrote back to me personally to say "Hey, we finally got that feature you thought would be helpful."
I've used Hudson/Jenkins for years and know what you mean about complexity. But I also think that having someone on the other end is pretty key, and the RailsOnFire team, for now at least, do that quite well. |
163,029 | Are these sentences natural?
>
> 1. Members of my family have their weddings on Saturdays.
> 2. Pete pays a visit to his grandmother once a month. He does it on Saturdays.
> 3. I celebrate my birthday on Saturdays.
>
>
>
It is obvious that 'Saturdays' doesn't mean 'every Saturday' or 'almost every Saturday'. But are the sentences natural? Would you consider them incorrect? Or awkward? | 2018/04/08 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/163029",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/32659/"
] | *Promise* takes *to*-infinitival clauses as complements:
>
> 1. My father *promised* **never to smoke**.
>
>
>
But it doesn't take *V-ing* clauses as complements:
>
> 2. \*My father *promised* **never smoking**. *(ungrammatical)*
>
>
>
Unfortunately, you just have to memorize which kinds of complements each verb can take. In the case of *promise*, it takes one and not the other.
With a different verb, the opposite might be true:
>
> 3. \*My father never *enjoyed* **to smoke**. *(ungrammatical)*
> 4. My father never *enjoyed* **smoking**.
>
>
>
*Promise* can also take a noun phrase as a complement, and in English it is possible to derive nouns from the *-ing* form of a verb:
>
> 5. One of Mr. Mbeki's first trips was to Mali, where he *promised* **funding and training** for conservators like Traore at South Africa's national libraries in Cape Town and Tshwane.
>
>
>
In this example, *promise* takes the long noun phrase starting with *funding and training* as a complement. You might think that your example with *smoking* could work in the same way. However, it can't because *never* forces us to interpret *smoking* as a verb:
>
> 6. My father *promised* **smoking**. *(grammatical with smoking as a derived noun)*
> 7. \*My father *promised* **never smoking**. *(ungrammatical)*
>
>
>
Example 6, however, requires a specific context to make sense:
Imagine that I told you that I was opening a club, and in defiance of California law, my club would definitely have smoking. And then when the club finally opened and you came to visit, you found out I couldn't have smoking there after all, and you were quite upset. "You promised me there would be smoking," you'd say. "**You promised smoking!** There's no smoking here!"
In that sort of context, *smoking* as a derived noun makes sense. We can tell by the phrase *no smoking* that *smoking* is a noun; this is different from the clause *never smoking*, in which *smoking* is a verb. | Remove **never** from the examples for a moment.
It's possible to promise (something to) a person.
Who did he promise?
>
> He promised Jane.
>
>
>
And it's possible to promise some *things*
>
> He promised fidelity/love.
>
>
>
You can also promise to do certain things.
>
> He promised to marry.
>
>
> He promised to return.
>
>
>
But you can't promise *smoking* any more than you can promise sitting or standing or swimming. It simply makes no sense.
In the same way you can't promise **never smoking**.
But you can promise **never to smoke**. |
3,986 | I visualize a shape-layer in the mapserver. Now I want to make some requests for only some classes of this layer. I want for example one request for only the water-classes and later for only the wood-classes. Can I realise this with the mapserver? | 2010/11/30 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/3986",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/1225/"
] | You should in your case have two layers, one for wood and one for water.
You can have two layers using the same shapefile..
Then you canchoose what layers to visualize directly in the request by the LAYERS parameter.
The classes only represent different parts of the data (e.g. how data in that layers should be rendered). | If you really, really need them all in one layer, you can used Named Styles to achieve this. See [here](http://mapserver.org/development/rfc/ms-rfc-39.html) for more details. Peter's suggestion of multiple layers is in many ways a much simpler approach, however. |
20,231 | I'm in need of finding a data source that I can use to create a heat map showing varying water hardness in the U.S.
I've tried the usual, i.e. usgs, epa, and I'm not able to find what I need.
I'd like to make something similar to this (I can't find the original creator so I have to make my own
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WbGxk.png) | 2022/01/28 | [
"https://opendata.stackexchange.com/questions/20231",
"https://opendata.stackexchange.com",
"https://opendata.stackexchange.com/users/30934/"
] | Your question is quite open ended and answers may be quite subjective, but here are some resources and pointers.
There are in fact many different domain specific standard data models and exchange formats. You can find some of these in standards registries like [fairsharing](https://fairsharing.org/), which may have a bias towards scientific and clinical standards, where there may be more incentives towards producing standards.
I can imagine producing a single standard for election results might be hard. For some applications, some aspects such as location may be captured in existing standards like GEOJson. It may be hard to include multiple different countries voting schemes and rules in one standard.
One strategy here is to standardize at the level of metadata elements or vocabulary terms. The [ISO 11179](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISO/IEC_11179) seeks to do this, and linked data standards also seek to make it easier to make data self describing, with data described in RDF or JSON-LD, using one or more standard vocabularies. However, after two decades, uptake of these approaches is patchy, and variable across communities, for reasons that are complex and widely debated.
Newer general purpose standards like frictionless, [LinkML](https://linkml.io) (disclaimer: I am involved with this effort) seek to address these but having a one size fits all answer is hard, even agreeing on the base substrate is impossible. For some communities CSV plus standard data dictionary elements may be the answer, for others, dedicated JSON schemas or SQL databases, others with high volume data may need HDF5 based substrates. | There are many different domain-specific standard for open data. There are also general metadata frameworks which maybe are what you are thinking about: see for example [frictionless](https://frictionlessdata.io/) which provides a framework & and a standard for writing metadata (in json format) describing tabular data (e.g. csv files). |
226,041 | I met a childhood friend after over 15 years. It was myself, my spouse (who had never met the friend), and this friend.
Would I use *reunion* for this situation, as it always makes me feel it's for a group of people, and LDOCE says:
>
> **1** a social meeting of people who have not met for a long time, especially people who were at school or college together
>
>
> **2** when people are brought together again after a period of being separated
>
>
>
> >
> > **reunion with**
> >
> >
> > *Joseph's eventual reunion with his brother*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The example for the second definition seems to suit what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure yet.
Is it really odd to use the word for meeting only one person, or is it just my false assumption?
(From Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English: <http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/reunion>) | 2015/02/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/226041",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16040/"
] | There is nothing wrong with using the word *reunion* for as few as two people, although it is more commonly associated with groups. For instance, consider Paul Simon's song *[Mother and Child Reunion](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7Pa5H_4lBXs)*.
If you feel that the term makes it sound like a bigger event than it really was, try recasting it as "I *reunited* with an old friend" instead. | It is perfectly correct to say you are having a *reunion* with an old friend. Indeed you could even say ***I was reunited with my old friend of 15 years ago***. |
226,041 | I met a childhood friend after over 15 years. It was myself, my spouse (who had never met the friend), and this friend.
Would I use *reunion* for this situation, as it always makes me feel it's for a group of people, and LDOCE says:
>
> **1** a social meeting of people who have not met for a long time, especially people who were at school or college together
>
>
> **2** when people are brought together again after a period of being separated
>
>
>
> >
> > **reunion with**
> >
> >
> > *Joseph's eventual reunion with his brother*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The example for the second definition seems to suit what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure yet.
Is it really odd to use the word for meeting only one person, or is it just my false assumption?
(From Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English: <http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/reunion>) | 2015/02/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/226041",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16040/"
] | There is nothing wrong with using the word *reunion* for as few as two people, although it is more commonly associated with groups. For instance, consider Paul Simon's song *[Mother and Child Reunion](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7Pa5H_4lBXs)*.
If you feel that the term makes it sound like a bigger event than it really was, try recasting it as "I *reunited* with an old friend" instead. | I would not use 'reunion' to refer to two persons meeting each other again after a long time period had passed. If you need an alternative, you could consider *reunitement*. Although it too can refer to a group >2 meeting, still it's unique.
**reunitement**
The OED lists
1611 R. Cotgrave Dict. French & Eng. Tongues Reunion, a reunion, reunitement, reconcilement.
1897 Public Opinion 22 15/2 The poet always looked to a reunitement beyond death.
1951 L. Bertrand tr. S. Bolivar Sel. Writings I. 261 You must be profuse to demonstrate: first, the reunitement of Colombia; second, its military glory; third, the enumeration of its free provinces.
2005 W. Walling Mind Games xxx. 220 The longer Klavik resisted ‘guidance’, the longer would be the protracted wait until reunitement with his companions. |
226,041 | I met a childhood friend after over 15 years. It was myself, my spouse (who had never met the friend), and this friend.
Would I use *reunion* for this situation, as it always makes me feel it's for a group of people, and LDOCE says:
>
> **1** a social meeting of people who have not met for a long time, especially people who were at school or college together
>
>
> **2** when people are brought together again after a period of being separated
>
>
>
> >
> > **reunion with**
> >
> >
> > *Joseph's eventual reunion with his brother*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The example for the second definition seems to suit what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure yet.
Is it really odd to use the word for meeting only one person, or is it just my false assumption?
(From Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English: <http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/reunion>) | 2015/02/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/226041",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16040/"
] | There is nothing wrong with using the word *reunion* for as few as two people, although it is more commonly associated with groups. For instance, consider Paul Simon's song *[Mother and Child Reunion](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7Pa5H_4lBXs)*.
If you feel that the term makes it sound like a bigger event than it really was, try recasting it as "I *reunited* with an old friend" instead. | Nothing wrong with using *reunion* in your case, I recognize. But if you are not comfortable with it, as you were only three people dare I say the following might help:
>
> *I had a [get together](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/get-together) with a childhood friend.*
>
>
>
Get-together:an informal and usually small social gathering |
226,041 | I met a childhood friend after over 15 years. It was myself, my spouse (who had never met the friend), and this friend.
Would I use *reunion* for this situation, as it always makes me feel it's for a group of people, and LDOCE says:
>
> **1** a social meeting of people who have not met for a long time, especially people who were at school or college together
>
>
> **2** when people are brought together again after a period of being separated
>
>
>
> >
> > **reunion with**
> >
> >
> > *Joseph's eventual reunion with his brother*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The example for the second definition seems to suit what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure yet.
Is it really odd to use the word for meeting only one person, or is it just my false assumption?
(From Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English: <http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/reunion>) | 2015/02/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/226041",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16040/"
] | It is perfectly correct to say you are having a *reunion* with an old friend. Indeed you could even say ***I was reunited with my old friend of 15 years ago***. | I would not use 'reunion' to refer to two persons meeting each other again after a long time period had passed. If you need an alternative, you could consider *reunitement*. Although it too can refer to a group >2 meeting, still it's unique.
**reunitement**
The OED lists
1611 R. Cotgrave Dict. French & Eng. Tongues Reunion, a reunion, reunitement, reconcilement.
1897 Public Opinion 22 15/2 The poet always looked to a reunitement beyond death.
1951 L. Bertrand tr. S. Bolivar Sel. Writings I. 261 You must be profuse to demonstrate: first, the reunitement of Colombia; second, its military glory; third, the enumeration of its free provinces.
2005 W. Walling Mind Games xxx. 220 The longer Klavik resisted ‘guidance’, the longer would be the protracted wait until reunitement with his companions. |
226,041 | I met a childhood friend after over 15 years. It was myself, my spouse (who had never met the friend), and this friend.
Would I use *reunion* for this situation, as it always makes me feel it's for a group of people, and LDOCE says:
>
> **1** a social meeting of people who have not met for a long time, especially people who were at school or college together
>
>
> **2** when people are brought together again after a period of being separated
>
>
>
> >
> > **reunion with**
> >
> >
> > *Joseph's eventual reunion with his brother*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The example for the second definition seems to suit what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure yet.
Is it really odd to use the word for meeting only one person, or is it just my false assumption?
(From Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English: <http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/reunion>) | 2015/02/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/226041",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16040/"
] | It is perfectly correct to say you are having a *reunion* with an old friend. Indeed you could even say ***I was reunited with my old friend of 15 years ago***. | Nothing wrong with using *reunion* in your case, I recognize. But if you are not comfortable with it, as you were only three people dare I say the following might help:
>
> *I had a [get together](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/get-together) with a childhood friend.*
>
>
>
Get-together:an informal and usually small social gathering |
226,041 | I met a childhood friend after over 15 years. It was myself, my spouse (who had never met the friend), and this friend.
Would I use *reunion* for this situation, as it always makes me feel it's for a group of people, and LDOCE says:
>
> **1** a social meeting of people who have not met for a long time, especially people who were at school or college together
>
>
> **2** when people are brought together again after a period of being separated
>
>
>
> >
> > **reunion with**
> >
> >
> > *Joseph's eventual reunion with his brother*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The example for the second definition seems to suit what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure yet.
Is it really odd to use the word for meeting only one person, or is it just my false assumption?
(From Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English: <http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/reunion>) | 2015/02/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/226041",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16040/"
] | Nothing wrong with using *reunion* in your case, I recognize. But if you are not comfortable with it, as you were only three people dare I say the following might help:
>
> *I had a [get together](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/get-together) with a childhood friend.*
>
>
>
Get-together:an informal and usually small social gathering | I would not use 'reunion' to refer to two persons meeting each other again after a long time period had passed. If you need an alternative, you could consider *reunitement*. Although it too can refer to a group >2 meeting, still it's unique.
**reunitement**
The OED lists
1611 R. Cotgrave Dict. French & Eng. Tongues Reunion, a reunion, reunitement, reconcilement.
1897 Public Opinion 22 15/2 The poet always looked to a reunitement beyond death.
1951 L. Bertrand tr. S. Bolivar Sel. Writings I. 261 You must be profuse to demonstrate: first, the reunitement of Colombia; second, its military glory; third, the enumeration of its free provinces.
2005 W. Walling Mind Games xxx. 220 The longer Klavik resisted ‘guidance’, the longer would be the protracted wait until reunitement with his companions. |
197,297 | I'm of the opinion that Witch Bolt kinda sucks. A hot take, to be sure. So I have two possible alternate versions. Which one is better at
1. Actually being a spell someone would want to take and use
2. While still being in line with other 1st level combat-type spells on the sorcerer/wizard/warlock list
>
> **Witch Bolt v2r1:**
>
> *1st level evocation
>
> Casting time: 1 action
>
> Components: VSM (a twig from a tree that has been struck by lightning)
>
> Range: 30ft
>
> Duration: Concentration, up to 1 minute*
>
>
> A beam of crackling, blue energy lances out towards a creature within range, forming a sustained arc of lightning between you and the target. Make a ranged spell attack against that creature. On a hit, the target takes 1d12 lightning damage, and on each of your turns for the duration, you can use your bonus action to deal 2d6 lightning damage to the target automatically. The spell ends if the target has total cover from you at the end of your turn or if the target is further away than 120 ft at the end of your turn.
>
>
> **At higher levels**. When you cast this spell using a spell slot of 2nd level or higher, the initial damage increases by 1d12 and the additional damage increases by 1d6 for each slot level above 1st.
>
>
>
*Intent*: This is a "fix the numbers and make it a bit more flexible" version. No changes other than being a bonus action to re-up the damage, giving scaling re-up'd damage, and relaxing the "the spell ends if" conditions.
>
> **Witch Bolt v2r2:**
>
> *1st level evocation
>
> Casting time: 1 action
>
> Components: VSM (a twig from a tree that has been struck by lightning)
>
> Range: 30ft
>
> Duration: Concentration, up to 1 minute*
>
>
> A beam of crackling, blue energy lances out towards a creature within range, forming a sustained arc of lightning between you and the target. Make a ranged spell attack against that creature. On a hit, the target takes 1d12 lightning damage, and on each of your turns for the duration, you can use your bonus action to deal 1d6 lightning damage to the target automatically. The target must make a Constitution saving throw each time it takes damage from this spell. On a failed save, the target’s speed is reduced to zero until the end of its next turn. On a success, the target’s speed is reduced by 10 ft until the end of its next turn. The spell ends if the target is ever outside the spell’s range or if it has total cover from you.
>
>
> **At higher levels**. When you cast this spell using a spell slot of 2nd level or higher, the initial damage increases by 1d12 and the additional damage increases by 1d6 for each slot level above 1st.
>
>
>
*Intent*: This one drops the additional damage, but makes it a bonus action to re-up, while adding a movement debuff. Potential issue with multiple rolls. Goal here is less of "dealing damage" but adding in a control option. | 2022/03/30 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/197297",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/64542/"
] | Both succeed at #1 and fail at #2
---------------------------------
Both would be very strong for a first level damage spell.
Witch Bolt sucks because it takes your action every turn. At the early levels in the game, you do not have that many useful options for using bonus actions proactively. Changing this to a bonus action in both cases essentially makes it free to use the extra damage. (The first reliable alternative I can think of is Spiritual Weapon on spell level 2, which is at least at my table a much used spell, but most classes with Witch Bolt would not have that on their list).
If unopposed, this will on a failed save deal up to 70 (or over 40 in version 2) expected damage over the duration. Even in a normal fight that only takes 4 rounds, it will deal 27 (or 16) damage. (The game aims for figths to [end in 3-4 rounds](https://dmdavid.com/tag/monsters-of-the-multiverse-should-have-given-foes-a-boost-but-it-didnt-next-chance-2024/), although in my own experience, many fights go longer, which is supported by empirical data in [this answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/93183/how-many-rounds-does-the-average-combat-encounter-last/93190#93190), which indicates the average combat takes 5 rounds).
Compare this to other first level damage spells and how much they deal: Inflict Wounds with 11 expected damage, Magic Missile or Chromatic Orb with 10. No existing single target ones can deal that much to a creature.
(Area spells like Burning Hands with 12 expected damage, Arms of Hadar with 11 can get more damage with multiple targets, but that is situational; which bolt works reliably, no need for several targets close-by. Moreover, it can be cast at distance which for classes like wizards that often are not strong in melee may be a plus).
There are two balancing factors: one, the spell consumes your concentation, which is a very real opportunity cost. Two it delivers its damage only over time, instead of up-front; a point now is worth more than a point in the future. Both lessen the impact of the higher damage output, but quantifying this systematically is very difficult.
Which of the two is worse is hard to say as it is circumstantial. If you catch a strong melee opponent like an Ogre with version 2, pinning them down even for a round outside of melee range may be better than 1d6 more damage. For a kobold either might kill them dead so it won't matter. I think as the damage on both is broken already, version two which gives you more tactial options might be even stronger.
For the title of your question, I think it might be number one for this reason, but I think both are not balanced at one and a half to seven times the damage yield of other level one options. As these aspects, as well as the impact of concentration are hard to gauge, if you really want to know how players react and how good it is in practice, test the version you prefer in game. | Both have issues
----------------
*Witch bolt* is a considered a "trap" because it uses your whole action every round to sustain. Whereas a lot of other spells that sustain are either a Bonus Action, or you can pick and choose whether to "use" the spell or not (such as *compelled duel* and *dragon's breath*).
At 1st level, (and usually for a number of levels after) there are not a lot of actions a player can do repeatedly as a Bonus Action, so by changing it to a BA you free up a lot of resources that the caster can do on their action; more spells, Helping another party member, watching through your familiar's eyes (which we'll get to in a moment), stabilizing a comrade, etc. So that one switch makes both of these options much more powerful--for a 1st level spell.
### R1
I see a problem, in that, the target needs total cover, or be out of range, "at the end of **your** turn". Meaning, they can run and hide, but it doesn't make a difference if you do something on your turn to find the target again. So they move, but you just move to see them again and it didn't matter. All you need is to reduce their cover to 3/4 and the spell keeps going. And because the spell is now a Bonus Action, you can use the Dash action to make up a lot of lost ground each turn to make sure you can see the target while keeping yourself safe. You know what else you can use your Action for? Seeing through your familiar's senses. So you can position your familiar (especially ones that have flight) in such a way that they can always find the target and prevent them from ever having "total cover".
### R2
A little too powerful with the movement reduction. Pinning a creature in place makes it very easy for the rest of your party to gang up on your target. Also, you are removing the only methods to stop the damage (short of breaking your concentration); they can no longer move out of spell range and will find it near impossible to gain "total cover" once movement is impossible (without someone else carrying them away, or creating some box to hide them in).
By moving the continuation of the spell to a BA, but at only half damage (1d6 instead of 1d12), I see this as a good compromise. |
30,332 | I'm curious if the physics allow a company to build such a lens of course with good IQ, minimal color aberration, maximum sharpness, and little to none lens vignetting or edge softness | 2012/12/08 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/30332",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/6222/"
] | Your question raises an interesting point as there are some lenses you really *can't* make, for example you'll never have a 50 f/0.2 as physics simply wont allow it.
However a 300 f/1.2 is merely an engineering problem (building a barrel to hold and move the giant lens elements required), after all a 300 f/2.0 lens was made and sold commercially by Nikon, there have been other extreme fast telephotos, for example Zeiss custom made a 1700mm f/4.0 *medium format* lens for a private customer, which dwarfs the Canon 1200 f/5.6L.
The zoom complicates things, a lot, as telephotos are pretty simple designs, but to get to 17mm requires a [retrofocal](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/4487/why-are-wide-angle-lenses-so-much-more-expensive) design.
You almost certainly wouldn't want to have one of these lenses, except to put on display as the performance wouldn't be great and the weight would be enormous. Here's a mock up of what it would look like (made by splicing the Nikon 6mm f/2.8 fisheye on the front of the Nikon 300mm f/2.0):
[](https://web.archive.org/web/20150906215124/http://mattgrum.com/photo_se/nikon_17_300_f1_4.png) | I'm not convinced it's possible to make something covering such a wide zoom range, with a fast aperture, and of high quality. mattdm makes many good points and has a solid analysis, but one thing I notice that makes me question whether this is possible: The wide-angle and mid-range f2.8 zooms (from any manufacturer) have consistently improved with each generation. For example, Nikon went from a 35-70 to a 28-70 to a 24-70. Why didn't they initially create a 24-70 2.8? Surely there would have been solid demand for it in the 80s and 90s; I can't imagine any reason it would be considered "unstylish" to have such a range at the time -- I think it would have been a popular lens then, just as it is now. Similarly, wide angles have evolved from 20-35 to 17-35 to 14-24; note also that an wide-angle zoom didn't exist from Nikon until '93.
The 24-70 optical formula is more complex than the 35-70, but the math in creating optical formulas hasn't changed over the years. In other words, a 24-70 *could* have been designed in the 90s. Nikon's ED glass has seen more and more use and other advances like their Nano coating further help to improve image quality. So, *my* guess is that with the technology of the 90s, a 24-70 f2.8 couldn't be created with the required level of quality (whether the problem be in distortion, color, sharpness, etc, or any combination).
No doubt, a 17-300 f1.4 would be a giant, heavy lens with a very complex optical formula and a variety of elements moving to make everything focus and zoom. So it *could* be built, yes. But what would the quality be? Based on the wide-angle and mid-range zoom evolution, I suspect that today it could not be made. |
609,028 | How Can I sort a text file by line length in notepad++? Is there any plugin available for the mentioned task?
In case that there is no plugin, What is the first and maybe second tutorial to read, In order to write the plugin Myself? | 2013/06/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/609028",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/219129/"
] | No I don't think there is. The closest is TextFx plugin but that's an character based sort not line length based. Your best bet is to throw the text into a spreadsheet and sort it there (using a separate computed column using the `LEN()` function). | Paste the data into a MS Access database - into a table with one text and one integer. Paste the text lines from the source file into the Access text field (set up a quesry with the one field and it pastes in from the top). Any line longer than 255 characters will be redirected to the Error file, as a "memo" field - which is now called "long text"
Update the integer field with the length of the text in the text field - an Update query
Sort by length and text fields - cut/paste the text column back in your source file
I do this all the time with lists of directories or URLs, and it takes longer to read the instructions than it does to paste the data, run the update to get a length, etc. I am experimenting with encapsulating the whole process with an Access script
I am using Notepad++ as my editor. |
15,461,066 | Working on a Japanese forum web app done in Yii. The problem is we are starting to get some english-language spamming since the captcha is in English characters and anyone who can read it can basically spam. I'd like to have the captcha in Japanese kanji, which is of multibyte string type. Anyone do a multibyte-captcha in Yii before? Any advice or links would help.
\**It would also be cool if I could pre-define the characters that are displayed but that is bonus.* | 2013/03/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15461066",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1082041/"
] | I have found the solution (at least for Japanese-language uses). Check out Yii veteran [softark](http://www.yiiframework.com/user/13986/)'s awesome CCaptcha extension ***jcaptcha***: <http://www.yiiframework.com/extension/jcaptcha/> | You could try this extension:
<https://subversion.assembla.com/svn/ghd/trunk/protected/extensions/captchaExtended/CaptchaExtendedAction.php> |
50,558,994 | I just installed Jupyter Lab and tried it, however it doesn't showup properly. I tried reinstalling and installing but it show the same bug.
I am using dell xps 13, I tried installing it using:
* 'pip install jupyterlab', and
* 'conda install -c conda-forge jupyterlab'
Both gave same error. Is there a solution to this? The Jupyter Notebook is working just fine.
[Jupyter Lab Error](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KxWMz.png) | 2018/05/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/50558994",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7932472/"
] | I had a similar issue using the pip-installed jupyter lab (Using Win64 with Python 3.6 in a virtualenv). Finally, I managed to run it by uninstalling the pip installer version and using the conda installer version:
* "pip uninstall jupyterlab"
* "conda install jupyterlab" | I had the same issue with jupyterlab-3.4.5 on firefox 104.0.
When I refreshed the browser (Alt R) it fixed the display. |
195,035 | why MAC address can not be used as session identifier instead of session ID?
why the physical address (MAC address) cannot be used as a session identifier during the communications between servers and client? | 2018/10/04 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/195035",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/188080/"
] | The MAC address is an identification of the specific network card at layer 2 (data-link layer). It stays only constant within the local network where no routers are involved. Once the traffic crosses a router the original MAC address is lost, i.e. the packets now have the source MAC address of the router. And if the packet is transferred by another router the MAC address is replaced again.
Given that in typical setups server and client are not within the same local network, the server has thus no knowledge of the clients MAC address at all and thus cannot use it as an identifier for the client. | In addition to what Steffen Ullrich said about the server not being able to see the MAC address if the client and server are not on the same network, there's another problem: there's no way to guarantee that MAC addresses are unique. On most systems, the MAC address for a network interface is easy to configure, so you it would be trivial to change your session ID.
Lastly, you would want something that is unique to the visitor, not something that is unique to the machine he's using. There are plenty of virtual desktop infrastructures (like Citrix) where people run their applications (like a webbrowser) on a central server. In these cases you wouldn't be able to distinguish different users. |
54,521 | When/why would one use "vanilla sugar" instead of just plain sugar *along with* vanilla extract and/or beans/pods, particularly in recipes and baking? Is it just a matter of convenience?
I understand that some people might actually like to have vanilla sugar for direct use, such as sprinkling on things (as people also do with things like cinnamon sugar). I could imagine other "direct" uses, like flavoring coffee or tea with sugar that has a hint of vanilla. Besides convenience, in these cases having the vanilla already mixed in could allow quantities much smaller than would typically be measured otherwise in extract or whatever.
However, I've also seen an increasing number of recipes listing, for example, a cup of "vanilla sugar" in something to be baked. I can perhaps imagine a few cases where even the small amount of moisture or alcohol from extract would be undesirable (or something like that).
But aside from such unusual situations, **when baking or making a recipe that has a decent quantity of sugar, are there advantages to the vanilla-infused sugar version compared to extracts or vanilla beans? Are there significant flavor differences/advantages to vanilla sugar?**
Or is there some other reason it is popular? | 2015/02/08 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/54521",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/15018/"
] | >
> is there some other reason it is popular?
>
>
>
Yes: Vanilla beans are expensive, and once you've extracted the seeds, the husk, which still contains good vanilla flavor, is often discarded. Putting the empty husk in sugar allows you to extract some vanilla flavor that might otherwise be wasted. I usually save my empty vanilla bean pods and use them for making vanilla ice cream or some other dessert that involves hot liquids, steeping the pods in warm milk extracts the remaining flavor better than putting it in a container of sugar. | There is a product called Original VANILLA Sugar made by oetker. This product has been around for at least 20 years if not 30. It is artifically flavoured, a product of Canada, and comes in packages of 2 or 3, 9g (0.32oz). It smells delightful. It is made of dextrose, and artifical flavour. It is used in baking cakes, cookies, pastries, pies, deserts, sprinkled on fresh fruit, cereals, stirred into coffee, tea, milk, used as sugar, added to whipping cream. One package (pouch) is equivalent to 1-2 tsp vanilla and one pouch good for 4 cups flour or 4 cups liquid. Now, why use this? It's easy to store, pretty cheap and has a good long expiration date. 20-40 years ago, my Mother used to get this powder at the local pharmacy, unbelievable. Today, it's a new fad to make vanilla sugar at home with vanilla bean pods and sugar, just like 20-30 years ago my friends and I made containers of cinnamon sugar. It was convenient, it was good, and we used it on everything from pancakes, sprinkled it on cookies, french toast, whip cream, fresh fruit, think of it and I am it will be very delicious. People would use the "vanilla sugar" for convenience, also the dept of flavor develops after time in the container with the bean/pod after time so it is more deeper in flavor. This way you use less bean/pods in your receipes/baking and also using for other things as I described above as after touches for cookies, whip cream, coffee, etch. You may also add vanilla to your receipe plus the vanilla sugar to make the flavor bolder. It is that extra touch that some people won't figure out what was done and much easier than adding a liquid to sugar that will clump up. |
35,395 | I have harvested seeds from Zinnia elegans and Dahlia variabilis and I don't know how to easily separate the seeds from the chaff. I have put them in a bag and shaked it hoping that the seeds will fall at the bottom, but only a few did.
What else can I try?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/UfXie.jpg) | 2017/09/07 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/35395",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/16253/"
] | Personally I would start by picking out the large debris with my hand. From there, I've seen people take the seeds and place them in a shallow dish, tilt the dish, and gentle blow the chaff away - this is called winnowing. There are also commercial seed sives that can the separating for you purchase, but I believe they are expensive. The are usually a series of mesh screens with openings decreasing in size.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/prZrc.jpg) | I'll post this as an answer because it is more of an answer than an update.
The easiest way of separating the seeds was rubbing them when dry in order to grind the chaff (as Bamboo says in her comment), then winnowing (as in Ben's answer that I will mark as accepted). For more round-ish seeds it worked well by improvising a sive from window screen (as in Wayfaring Stranger's comment).
The result looks like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/67XQx.jpg) |
10,075 | I have a line-of-business tablet application that is used outdoors day and night in a vehicle. One of the users recently provided feedback that they find it difficult to read the screen when wearing sunglasses in bright daylight.
The current color scheme is similar to Microsoft Office (2007).
Would switching to a black-text on white background (like this site) work better in your experience? My main-problem with using BW color scheme is that I am not sure how other colors (ie red for important task, or table row alternation) will work. | 2011/08/16 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/10075",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/7413/"
] | Yes, bright ambient light reduces contrast, so going with a black and white display will be the best you can do. Increasing font size and weight may also help. Hue differences also tend to wash out in bright light so your color codes are probably performing poorly anyway. Tinted sunglasses probably don’t help either. If the color codes are very important, then you should [crank up the color contrast](http://www.zuschlogin.com/?p=194) by maxing out the saturation for outdoor use, rather than use the relatively muted colors found in Office 2007.
However, perhaps a better solution is to supplement your color codes with other graphic codes like weight, shape (e.g., icons), and density/number (e.g., dashed versus solid lines). For example, a border of high-contrast diagonal line segments suggests urgency for many users. Distinguishing multiple levels of shading is also more difficult in bright light, so I wouldn’t rely on that. Using redundant graphics in addition to color will maximize you apps accessibility as a side benefit (and your case just goes to show we’re all disabled under the right circumstances).
Any chance your user is using polarized sunglasses? Since LCD screens use polarizers, such sunglasses can make your screen very [difficult to read](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=78GdcXCM9nk&feature=related) in any kind of light. You could advise the user to try different sunglasses.
To make it easier to read across rows of the table when the sun washes out your zebra striping, you could insert a half-high empty row every 4 or 5 rows. Or you can try a horizontal rule every 3 to 5 rows. | If said tablet is an iPad, there is an accessibility setting that toggles the display into a high contrast mode. It's not black and white, but it might let you test out a high contrast solution without having to make any changes right away.
If you do decide to go with a high contrast solution, looking for screenshots of older monochrome applications can give some inspiration for how to handle those scenarios like alternating table rows. |
24,860 | I just stumbled across an [old question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1143640/aliasing-resources-wpf) of mine, realising it didn't yet have any accepted answer. However, when I viewed the page, I noticed that the tick marks for accepting answers had all disappeared. Is this by design - if not, what's up here? | 2009/10/07 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/24860",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/130256/"
] | Did you previously set up a bounty on that question? Questions that have a [bounty](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1413/1414#1414) expire without an accepted answer can never have an accepted answer. In your reputation history you have a -50 for that question, which almost always suggests a bounty was offered. | The existing accepted answer to this question — *this* MSO question, not the SO question that it's asking about — is wrong, although it was correct at the time that it was written.
On June 18, 2010, [the bounty system changed](https://blog.stackoverflow.com/2010/06/improvements-to-bounty-system/). Bounties and accepted answers are now completely independent creatures. A happy side effect of the change is that **it is now possible to accept old answers such as these**.
This answer is just for future reference; you can clearly see that the OP already went back and [awarded that richly deserved green checkmark](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1143640/aliasing-resources-wpf/1144057#1144057). |
64,792,597 | Currently, I created a ASP.NET Core Web app using VS2019, came across that 'Add Areas' option is missing from Context menu.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KDhwB.png)
I tried [this solution](https://stackoverflow.com/a/59783296/7013518) and Add New Scaffolded Item but there is no MVC Area option in below window:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dfwJA.png) | 2020/11/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/64792597",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7013518/"
] | Just right click on the project name and add a New Folder named Areas. Be sure that the name is exactly Areas. After that, you can right click on area Folder and add a new area.
Good luck | Apparently this option has not been deleted and has only been moved to the Common section
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CtAvE.png) |
64,792,597 | Currently, I created a ASP.NET Core Web app using VS2019, came across that 'Add Areas' option is missing from Context menu.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KDhwB.png)
I tried [this solution](https://stackoverflow.com/a/59783296/7013518) and Add New Scaffolded Item but there is no MVC Area option in below window:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dfwJA.png) | 2020/11/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/64792597",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7013518/"
] | Just right click on the project name and add a New Folder named Areas. Be sure that the name is exactly Areas. After that, you can right click on area Folder and add a new area.
Good luck | To add a new Area, Right Click on application name from solution explorer -> Select Add -> Select New Scaffolded Item -> select MVC Area from middle pane of dialog box -> Enter Name -> Click Ok. |
64,792,597 | Currently, I created a ASP.NET Core Web app using VS2019, came across that 'Add Areas' option is missing from Context menu.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KDhwB.png)
I tried [this solution](https://stackoverflow.com/a/59783296/7013518) and Add New Scaffolded Item but there is no MVC Area option in below window:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dfwJA.png) | 2020/11/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/64792597",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7013518/"
] | Apparently this option has not been deleted and has only been moved to the Common section
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CtAvE.png) | To add a new Area, Right Click on application name from solution explorer -> Select Add -> Select New Scaffolded Item -> select MVC Area from middle pane of dialog box -> Enter Name -> Click Ok. |
69,447 | In general computer science there are modeling "languages" (read: standardized diagramming techniques) such as UML [1](http://www.uml.org/),[2](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unified_Modeling_Language), in databases there are things like ERD[3](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entity%E2%80%93relationship_model), in business there are other types such as BPMN[4](http://www.bpmn.org/),[5](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Business_Process_Model_and_Notation). Is there anything like these that are Game Design specific? | 2014/01/28 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/69447",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/41439/"
] | There's no industry standard, but most high-profile studios do create a [game design document.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Game_design_document)
Game development, after all, encompasses quite a number of fields, so there will often be a combination of storyboarding, UML for the programming side, a script for dialogue, and so on.
That being said, the number one "modelling language" I've encountered: flow charts.
But that's hardly specific to game design! | One of the actual models that I know about in game design is the MDA framework. This is the closest thing to your question that I can think of, as MDA gives you a reference to think and talk in (thus a language). And you can visualize it in a diagram if necessary.
A proper definition is given in [this paper by Hunicke et al](http://www.zubek.net/robert/publications/MDA.pdf), and I'll give a short description below.
The MDA framework
-----------------
In MDA **mechanics** are the things that you define in a game as a designer. An example of a mechanic could be - *"A timer starting at 60 and counting down by one every second. If it reaches zero the game is over."*
A **dynamic** describes the actual behaviour of a mechanic. Or in other words: the influence of a mechanic on your game. The timer mechanic would add a *time pressure* dynamic to your game.
The **aesthetics** of a game describe the overal feel and types of play in a game. The 8 basic aesthetics are:
1. Sensation (pleasure of the senses)
2. Fantasy (make believe)
3. Narrative (drama)
4. Challenge (obstacles to overcome)
5. Fellowship (social interaction)
6. Discovery (uncharted territory)
7. Expression (self-discovery)
8. Submission (pastime)
The aesthetic generated by a timer is challenge, because the time pressure is an obstacle. Note that you can add any new (sub-)aesthetics if necessary.
---
MDA allows you to reason about your game design both bottom-up and top-down. If there's some aesthetic in your game that you feel is not represented strongly enough, you can add more mechanics to support it. You could also model your game in a diagram using MDA by connecting the mechanics that support specific dynamics, and so on.
I learned about it in a game design course, but you can probably find some further reading on the web too. I hope this is what you were looking for, good luck! |
63,740 | I have 20 observations labeled for each class.
The number of classes is 5, so I have a total of 100 observations.
I want to classify one class vs. other classes (one vs. all).
For this, I first labeled '1' for one of five classes (= 20 observations), and '2' for the other classes (= 80 observations). After that, I spiltted the whole data into training data set and test data set for each class ('1' or '2'). Since I used 10-fold cross-validation method, 20 observations for class '1' were separated into 18 and 2 for training data set and test data set, respectively (62 training data and 18 test data for class '2'). I trained a LDA classifier for '1' or '2' labeled observations using training data set, and estimated classification accuracy using test data set.
My question is that isn't there any bias problem when using different number of observations to train a classifier. In my case, the difference is quite big (20 vs 80). I am worrying about this issue. If so, please tell me a proper solution (e.g., a specific classifier) and reference paper to overcome this problem. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/63740",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/27795/"
] | It is answered by Bayesian statistics. The training sample signal to background ratio 20/80 is your prior probability. The classifier is your likelihood and doesn't depend on the signal to backround ratio. This is easily understandable: the predicted numbers for the signal samples are the same if you calculate them for the whole prediction sample (with background) or only for the signal subsample.
So the a posteriory probability (the predicted signal probability) does only depend on the prior ratio.
In your example, the ratio is the same with or without X-validation, so you are safe.
In addition it would be possible to correct the posterior probability even if you trained with a different ratio using Bayes theorem.
EDIT:
Be carefull with the interpretation of the results of the classification. Sensitivity and specificity (otherwise often called purity and efficiency, or type I type II errors) heavily depend on the prior distribution. The classification purity efficiency in your training mixture of signal and backround is meaningless. It only makes sense to compare the classification power with the mixture in your testsample (e.g. compare two classificators with the same testsample)! Imagine your testsample wouldn't contain a single signal sample but of course your training sample did. What would be the Sensitivity and specificity of your classifier.
In addition, the purity efficiency is furthermore a function of the cut value where you classify a sample as signal or background. Depending on the ratio in your testsample you can just choose a different cut-value and get back to the Sensitivity and specificity in your training. Have you tried different values? | I had the same problematic with LDA: discrimination worked a lot better when the number of observations in each class were matching.
I ended up artificially growing the numbers by adding more observations to the classes through [boosting](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boosting_%28machine_learning%29). There are several ways to do that, the easiest (and probably worst) being duplicating existing observations, a better one would create random observations according to the covariance matrix. |
74,767 | I am curious about tilt-rotor feasibility (such as [AW609](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AgustaWestland_AW609)) against fixed-wing and rotor-blade aircraft (conventional helicopters).
One important issue that immediately arises in my mind is that both propellers must be highly robust against failures. This is translated in a significant disadvantage against traditional aircraft designs since:
* Fixed-wing which are equipped with more than one engine have redundancy, or at least they can glide long enoughg if only equipped with one engine
* Rotor-blade can still perform an emergency landing in the event of a main engine or tail-rotor failure, as [this question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/21289/if-a-helicopters-tail-rotor-fails-is-it-possible-to-perform-an-emergency-landi) points.
So the big question is: **Can a tilt-rotor fly safely (or at least perform an emergency landing) with a faulty engine?**
*P.D.: For the sake of the question let's presume that the engine has not blown up or has suffered from structural integrity failure (e.g. one blade is missing).* | 2020/02/21 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/74767",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46126/"
] | This concern was one of the major design challenges in the development of tilt-rotor VTOL craft. In every flying example I'm aware of, it was solved one of two ways: either the engines were embedded in the fuselage and power was transmitted through a common gearbox (much like a twin engine helicopter), or the engines in the wingtip pods were connected with a shaft that ran through the fuselage from one engine's gearbox to the other, including overrun clutches, so either engine could drive both rotors.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cWO63.jpg)
V-22 as an example tilt rotor. You can see the shafts that go from the engines to the central gear box; either engine can drive both prop-rotors.
Of course, there's still the question of whether a single engine has the power to perform a hover landing. From reading, I gather than there are "autorotate" options for these craft -- forward speed being used to store momentum in the prop-rotor system, which can then be tilted to provide lift and clear the blades from the ground for landing. This option will be improved if there is still power from a single engine; partial tilt can be used to add lift and slow landing speed. | Short Answer: yes. If they could not, they'd likely not get certified
---------------------------------------------------------------------
One engine can drive both prop rotors.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cWO63.jpg)
After digging into an old version of the V-22 flight manual, I find a whole pile of tables in the chapter that cover single engine flight. Gross weight and DA and flight configuration informs what the "best" airspeed is for single engine flight.
The general approach for single engine flight to a safe landing is to fly at a particular configuration and airspeed, and then to set up the aircraft for an approach to a run-on-landing "between 55 and 65 knots." As I understand the procedures, that final approach will have the nacelles tilted up far enough to prevent the tips of the prop-rotors from striking the ground once the aircraft is on the ground.
Flight Safety Note: I am not going to replicate (cut and paste) these procedures here for a number of reasons, one of which is that I am referring to an out-of-date manual, and some of the details may have changed. I suspect that the current procedures are similar.
Note on the source:
An old version in the A1-V22-NFM-000 series; Part V/Chapter 12; Emergency Procedures. (There will be a similar section in the Dash Ten for USAF CV-22's).
Where a run-on-landing is not achievable, the manual calls for an approach to ...
>
> ... maintain the highest suitable air speed until deceleration is required for a no-hover touch down.
>
>
>
This general method is very similar to the single engine procedures that we had in the SH-2F and the SH-60B helicopters that I flew from ships in the Navy. The aircraft's Gross Weight and the Density Altitude of the day will lead to some variations in the "best" airspeed for this; there are tables in the manual (and usually in the pocket checklist) to determine the best airspeed to fly.
Then ...
>
> A shallow approach into the wind maintaining 30 KCAS until right before landing is recommended.
>
>
>
This is a little bit different from how we did this, and taught this, in those two helicopter models; we would try for a constant angle of descent approach (not a shallow approach) to a spot if we, as was usually the case, did not have single engine hover capability. The resulting landing would be fairly firm, but that was by design.
### Bottom Line
Not only is single engine flight possible, as well as single engine approach and landing in a tilt rotor, it's a well known flight characteristic that has well established procedures to accomplish. (At least for the V-22. The AW-609 doubtless has similar procedures in its flight manual). |
8,923,180 | I need to know whether the "crypt" Command Unix/Solaris 10 support 128bit encryption/decryption. | 2012/01/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8923180",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/834104/"
] | A [Blog Post](http://blogs.oracle.com/darren/entry/encrypting_files_in_solaris_10) shows that crypt on Solaris 10 does not use anything like DES, RSA, AES etc (wich are typically involved when speaking of "128 Bit encryption"). It uses a weak function that can be broken by many tools, one mentioned in that very article. Use the openssl library or tools when you need up-to-date cryptography. | Use the encrypt and decrypt commands which are always installed on Solaris 10. Openssl provides similar functionalities but might be missing from a standard installation. |
46 | Только что [задал вопрос](https://rus.stackexchange.com/q/416914/177015) о том, как выразить определенный смысл одним словом. Пытался найти соответствующую метку, а её нет. При этом, [вопросов об этом](https://rus.stackexchange.com/search?q=%D0%BE%D0%B4%D0%BD%D0%B8%D0%BC%20%D1%81%D0%BB%D0%BE%D0%B2%D0%BE%D0%BC%20is%3Aq) достаточно много: 317 из 7863 в целом, то есть 4%.
На English Language & Usage такая метка есть и она вторая по популярности: [[single-word-requests]](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/single-word-requests). (Кстати, есть еще и [[phrase-requests]](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/phrase-requests), и [[idiom-requests]](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/idiom-requests))
Предлагаю ввести такую и на этом сайте.
В ответах - варианты выбора названия метки или аргументы о том, почему она не нужна. | 2015/07/14 | [
"https://rus.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/46",
"https://rus.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://rus.meta.stackexchange.com/users/177015/"
] | Ввести метку [одним-словом](https://rus.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/%d0%be%d0%b4%d0%bd%d0%b8%d0%bc-%d1%81%d0%bb%d0%be%d0%b2%d0%be%d0%bc "показать вопросы с меткой [одним-словом]")
Краткое описание:
>
> Обозначает вопросы о том, как выразить определенное значение одним словом.
>
>
>
Полное описание:
>
> Отмечайте этой меткой вопросы, касающиеся поиска одного слова, выражающего определенное значение. Задвавая такой вопрос, обязательно укажите:
>
>
> * Требуемое значение
> * Коннотации (дополнительные оттенки смысла)
> * Контекст использования
>
>
> Примеры вопросов по этой метке:
>
>
> * ["Та, мимо которой они проходили". Одним словом.](https://rus.stackexchange.com/q/43223/177015)
> * [Окрасить в пепельный цвет. Одним словом.](https://rus.stackexchange.com/q/44931/177015)
> * [Одно слово для значения "свернулся в клубок"](https://rus.stackexchange.com/q/39284/177015)
>
>
> | Предложение интересное, и, как видно, метка успешно используется на других сайтах.
Однако сейчас вопросы, для которых она была бы полезной, задаются редко, и острой необходимости в ней нет. *(Также стоит обратить внимание на результаты голосования: +1 / -2.)* |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In general it is not a good idea to be sharing personal information. In particular I'd advise against sharing financial information unless there is a good reason behind it such as asking an expert for advice.
Work friendships can be fairly shallow (as can non work ones). You never know when something you said can come back to bite you. I would never let anyone know if I'm soon to get a windfall of money, some places it may be OK, but here it would be asking for trouble with people begging loans or worse. | It really depends on your specific office. Generally, your financial situations are your personal business and therefore nobody else really needs to know about them. However, if someone asks about them and you are comfortable talking to them about it, go right ahead.
If your work-environment is something like a large company and is more of a corporate setting, I wouldn't. However, if you work in a small startup where everyone is just pals, go right ahead. Again, it greatly depends on where you work and who you're working with. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You didn't mention the country... In most countries, the company pays you a salary, and deducts some amount of tax off the salary, sending that money to the tax office. This should more or less reflect what taxes you owe, but will always be a bit inaccurate. And at the end of the year, you fill out your tax return, where the tax office calculates *exactly* what you owe, and then you pay the difference or get a return. That is absolutely normal.
So a large tax return doesn't actually mean you get money. It means the company sent too much money to the tax office through the year, and the difference gets returned to you. It doesn't affect your financial circumstances (it may affect what you *thought* were your circumstances), so it is not really business related or sensitive information. It's personal, there is no need to discuss it at work, but there is no particular reason not to discuss it. It's like nobody can force you to discuss how your children are doing at school, but if you like talking about it in your lunch break, few people will be stopping you.
If you regularly get huge tax returns, then the company isn't calculating your taxes right, and you might complain to their payroll. (At one place, what I paid through the year was always correct within less than £3). This should never happen at a big company; at a small company where they don't have anyone doing payroll full time it might happen. | It really depends on your specific office. Generally, your financial situations are your personal business and therefore nobody else really needs to know about them. However, if someone asks about them and you are comfortable talking to them about it, go right ahead.
If your work-environment is something like a large company and is more of a corporate setting, I wouldn't. However, if you work in a small startup where everyone is just pals, go right ahead. Again, it greatly depends on where you work and who you're working with. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | It really depends on your specific office. Generally, your financial situations are your personal business and therefore nobody else really needs to know about them. However, if someone asks about them and you are comfortable talking to them about it, go right ahead.
If your work-environment is something like a large company and is more of a corporate setting, I wouldn't. However, if you work in a small startup where everyone is just pals, go right ahead. Again, it greatly depends on where you work and who you're working with. | You should avoid any specific talk. The underlying issue is that your tax refund gives others an idea of your salary, and that can cause resentment. It doesn't give specific information, but it gives people a rough idea.
I have heard people complain about due dates, and administrative nightmares caused by ridiculously low amounts (e.g., a colleague who spent many hours over a discrepancy less than $5), but being more specific is asking for trouble. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I agree with gnasher729. Furthermore, you can if you're talking to payroll/HR/management (if they're the ones you negotiated your salary with) and it is a tax issue. Otherwise, if your just bragging about how you managed to deduct a large amount by maxing out an IRA or something like that, you're best off keeping it to yourself. And if it's a matter of you needing tax info, again, if it isn't payroll/HR/management (if they're the ones you negotiated your salary with) then don't talk about it. | It really depends on your specific office. Generally, your financial situations are your personal business and therefore nobody else really needs to know about them. However, if someone asks about them and you are comfortable talking to them about it, go right ahead.
If your work-environment is something like a large company and is more of a corporate setting, I wouldn't. However, if you work in a small startup where everyone is just pals, go right ahead. Again, it greatly depends on where you work and who you're working with. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You didn't mention the country... In most countries, the company pays you a salary, and deducts some amount of tax off the salary, sending that money to the tax office. This should more or less reflect what taxes you owe, but will always be a bit inaccurate. And at the end of the year, you fill out your tax return, where the tax office calculates *exactly* what you owe, and then you pay the difference or get a return. That is absolutely normal.
So a large tax return doesn't actually mean you get money. It means the company sent too much money to the tax office through the year, and the difference gets returned to you. It doesn't affect your financial circumstances (it may affect what you *thought* were your circumstances), so it is not really business related or sensitive information. It's personal, there is no need to discuss it at work, but there is no particular reason not to discuss it. It's like nobody can force you to discuss how your children are doing at school, but if you like talking about it in your lunch break, few people will be stopping you.
If you regularly get huge tax returns, then the company isn't calculating your taxes right, and you might complain to their payroll. (At one place, what I paid through the year was always correct within less than £3). This should never happen at a big company; at a small company where they don't have anyone doing payroll full time it might happen. | In general it is not a good idea to be sharing personal information. In particular I'd advise against sharing financial information unless there is a good reason behind it such as asking an expert for advice.
Work friendships can be fairly shallow (as can non work ones). You never know when something you said can come back to bite you. I would never let anyone know if I'm soon to get a windfall of money, some places it may be OK, but here it would be asking for trouble with people begging loans or worse. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | In general it is not a good idea to be sharing personal information. In particular I'd advise against sharing financial information unless there is a good reason behind it such as asking an expert for advice.
Work friendships can be fairly shallow (as can non work ones). You never know when something you said can come back to bite you. I would never let anyone know if I'm soon to get a windfall of money, some places it may be OK, but here it would be asking for trouble with people begging loans or worse. | You should avoid any specific talk. The underlying issue is that your tax refund gives others an idea of your salary, and that can cause resentment. It doesn't give specific information, but it gives people a rough idea.
I have heard people complain about due dates, and administrative nightmares caused by ridiculously low amounts (e.g., a colleague who spent many hours over a discrepancy less than $5), but being more specific is asking for trouble. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I agree with gnasher729. Furthermore, you can if you're talking to payroll/HR/management (if they're the ones you negotiated your salary with) and it is a tax issue. Otherwise, if your just bragging about how you managed to deduct a large amount by maxing out an IRA or something like that, you're best off keeping it to yourself. And if it's a matter of you needing tax info, again, if it isn't payroll/HR/management (if they're the ones you negotiated your salary with) then don't talk about it. | In general it is not a good idea to be sharing personal information. In particular I'd advise against sharing financial information unless there is a good reason behind it such as asking an expert for advice.
Work friendships can be fairly shallow (as can non work ones). You never know when something you said can come back to bite you. I would never let anyone know if I'm soon to get a windfall of money, some places it may be OK, but here it would be asking for trouble with people begging loans or worse. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You didn't mention the country... In most countries, the company pays you a salary, and deducts some amount of tax off the salary, sending that money to the tax office. This should more or less reflect what taxes you owe, but will always be a bit inaccurate. And at the end of the year, you fill out your tax return, where the tax office calculates *exactly* what you owe, and then you pay the difference or get a return. That is absolutely normal.
So a large tax return doesn't actually mean you get money. It means the company sent too much money to the tax office through the year, and the difference gets returned to you. It doesn't affect your financial circumstances (it may affect what you *thought* were your circumstances), so it is not really business related or sensitive information. It's personal, there is no need to discuss it at work, but there is no particular reason not to discuss it. It's like nobody can force you to discuss how your children are doing at school, but if you like talking about it in your lunch break, few people will be stopping you.
If you regularly get huge tax returns, then the company isn't calculating your taxes right, and you might complain to their payroll. (At one place, what I paid through the year was always correct within less than £3). This should never happen at a big company; at a small company where they don't have anyone doing payroll full time it might happen. | You should avoid any specific talk. The underlying issue is that your tax refund gives others an idea of your salary, and that can cause resentment. It doesn't give specific information, but it gives people a rough idea.
I have heard people complain about due dates, and administrative nightmares caused by ridiculously low amounts (e.g., a colleague who spent many hours over a discrepancy less than $5), but being more specific is asking for trouble. |
65,259 | Figure the title is pretty self-explanatory. But if need be, if I were to mention I'm getting a large refund this year, or getting audited, or anything in between, am I walking on thin ice talking about this? | 2016/04/15 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/65259",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I agree with gnasher729. Furthermore, you can if you're talking to payroll/HR/management (if they're the ones you negotiated your salary with) and it is a tax issue. Otherwise, if your just bragging about how you managed to deduct a large amount by maxing out an IRA or something like that, you're best off keeping it to yourself. And if it's a matter of you needing tax info, again, if it isn't payroll/HR/management (if they're the ones you negotiated your salary with) then don't talk about it. | You should avoid any specific talk. The underlying issue is that your tax refund gives others an idea of your salary, and that can cause resentment. It doesn't give specific information, but it gives people a rough idea.
I have heard people complain about due dates, and administrative nightmares caused by ridiculously low amounts (e.g., a colleague who spent many hours over a discrepancy less than $5), but being more specific is asking for trouble. |
69,058 | Does the random walk theory assume a simple symmetric random walk? In other words: does the random walk theory assume that the price rises as often as it falls? I've been looking for an answer for a while but I'm still not sure. Maybe this question is very simple, but I think that it will then be easier for other people to find an answer to this question.
Note: I‘m an undergraduate economics student. | 2021/12/11 | [
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/69058",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/users/59863/"
] | Yes. In fact one way to test if the CAPM is true is to apply the Gibbons-Ross-Shanken or GRS test.
See for example [how to interpret the GRS F test values?](https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/35781/how-to-interpret-the-grs-f-test-values) and the answer by M. Gunn
How does GRS work? This is a statistical test of whether all alphas are equal to zero. If they are not, we conclude that the CAPM does not hold. | Yes, assuming liquidity is infinite or information acquisition is frictionless. |
69,058 | Does the random walk theory assume a simple symmetric random walk? In other words: does the random walk theory assume that the price rises as often as it falls? I've been looking for an answer for a while but I'm still not sure. Maybe this question is very simple, but I think that it will then be easier for other people to find an answer to this question.
Note: I‘m an undergraduate economics student. | 2021/12/11 | [
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/69058",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/users/59863/"
] | Yes. In fact one way to test if the CAPM is true is to apply the Gibbons-Ross-Shanken or GRS test.
See for example [how to interpret the GRS F test values?](https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/35781/how-to-interpret-the-grs-f-test-values) and the answer by M. Gunn
How does GRS work? This is a statistical test of whether all alphas are equal to zero. If they are not, we conclude that the CAPM does not hold. | This is a belt-and-braces reformulation of the "No" argument. And the "NNNNOOOO NNNOOO NNOO NO" still holds.
Let's assume that CAPM does indeed work. This just defines a company's cost of capital, ie its ex-ante expected return ASSUMING THAT MARKET EXPECTATIONS ARE CORRECT. This can indeed then be precisely defined.
But there will be surprises whereby these expectations prove incorrect. There will be news, some of this security-specific, some of this market-wide, that causes outcomes to realise differently from expectations.
This means that there will be ex-post variations from these ex-ante expectations, and associated pricing. This will cause realised deviations from CAPM-projected returns. So there will be a random residual, that is "alpha" not "beta".
Sorry, but I'm not backing down here ;-) And thanks @BobJansen and @RichardHardy for the discipline of having to re-consider and re-state this one (less im)properly. Much appreciated.
best, DEM |
69,058 | Does the random walk theory assume a simple symmetric random walk? In other words: does the random walk theory assume that the price rises as often as it falls? I've been looking for an answer for a while but I'm still not sure. Maybe this question is very simple, but I think that it will then be easier for other people to find an answer to this question.
Note: I‘m an undergraduate economics student. | 2021/12/11 | [
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/69058",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/users/59863/"
] | This is a belt-and-braces reformulation of the "No" argument. And the "NNNNOOOO NNNOOO NNOO NO" still holds.
Let's assume that CAPM does indeed work. This just defines a company's cost of capital, ie its ex-ante expected return ASSUMING THAT MARKET EXPECTATIONS ARE CORRECT. This can indeed then be precisely defined.
But there will be surprises whereby these expectations prove incorrect. There will be news, some of this security-specific, some of this market-wide, that causes outcomes to realise differently from expectations.
This means that there will be ex-post variations from these ex-ante expectations, and associated pricing. This will cause realised deviations from CAPM-projected returns. So there will be a random residual, that is "alpha" not "beta".
Sorry, but I'm not backing down here ;-) And thanks @BobJansen and @RichardHardy for the discipline of having to re-consider and re-state this one (less im)properly. Much appreciated.
best, DEM | Yes, assuming liquidity is infinite or information acquisition is frictionless. |
371,973 | I am having an issue with Windows 7 fonts. Someone messed up the default fonts and it is causing an issue with reports and websites where the font is different than what it is supposed to be.
This is causing reports to cut the title off and websites to display links and paragraphs in the wrong areas or being cut off. This issue is only happening on one computer in the entire office. I was wondering if there was any fix or a way to reload the default fonts for Windows 7 even after they have been changed.
I have tried restoring the default fonts through the control panel and that did not fix the problem. I have also ran system file checker to see if there was any issues there that may be causing this to happen. | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/371973",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/111110/"
] | The fonts used by the system are different from the fonts used by the web browser. Try changing the web browser's fonts. I think the default font for IE on our machines is Times Roman 16. | Here is how to restore you fonts to default in Windows 7;
1. Open Fonts by clicking the Start button, clicking Control Panel, clicking Appearance and Personalization, and then clicking Fonts.
2. In the left pane, click Font settings.
3. Click Restore default font settings. |
284,559 | Sort of like onomatopoeia, where the word sounds like that which it describes, but where saying the word makes one feel like that which it describes.
Sorry for the terrible explanation.
EDIT: This came up during a conversation with a friend who described something as 'scuzzy'. Saying scuzzy makes me feel scuzzy and here we are... | 2015/11/03 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/284559",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/145646/"
] | [**Ideophone**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ideophone)
>
> 'A vivid representation of an idea in sound. A word, often
> onomatopoeic, which describes a predicate, qualificative or adverb in
> respect to manner, color, sound, smell, action, state or intensity.’
>
>
> Ideophones evoke sensory events.
>
>
>
Example: "**twinkle**: the glow of something sparkling or shiny."
We say, *her eyes twinkled merrily* or we say *wow!* and our mere saying it makes us express admiration or surprise. | This is subjective, but I submit the word "Cacophonous", which describes anything that involves or produces a harsh or discordant mixture of sounds.
EDIT: It seems like you were looking for something more general. Per one of the other posts, "cacophony" is but one example of "ideophone". |
284,559 | Sort of like onomatopoeia, where the word sounds like that which it describes, but where saying the word makes one feel like that which it describes.
Sorry for the terrible explanation.
EDIT: This came up during a conversation with a friend who described something as 'scuzzy'. Saying scuzzy makes me feel scuzzy and here we are... | 2015/11/03 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/284559",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/145646/"
] | [**Ideophone**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ideophone)
>
> 'A vivid representation of an idea in sound. A word, often
> onomatopoeic, which describes a predicate, qualificative or adverb in
> respect to manner, color, sound, smell, action, state or intensity.’
>
>
> Ideophones evoke sensory events.
>
>
>
Example: "**twinkle**: the glow of something sparkling or shiny."
We say, *her eyes twinkled merrily* or we say *wow!* and our mere saying it makes us express admiration or surprise. | >
> Mood: In literature, mood is a literary element that evokes certain feelings or vibes in readers through words and descriptions. Usually, mood is referred to as the atmosphere of a literary piece, as it creates an emotional setting that surrounds the readers.
>
> [Literary Devices: Mood](https://literarydevices.net/mood/)
>
>
> |
649,651 | We have a certain piece of software which is on a machine which is going to *die* any time soon. Very soon, by our estimates.
The problem is that that is the only machine on which a certain specialist software works. It is installed locally, but also takes some data from a network partition (which is on an office server, so that is safe - server is a new machine) - licence, some system and shared databases and some other files.
This is a temporary try to solve a problem, but since we currently have some licencing issues with that software ( :-) before you ask, no it is not pirated, but our company changed its name, and the software vendor is still in the process of handling that along with the software update to a new version, and still hasn't provided us with new license files *that work* ... the mailing back and forth is currently in progress ... it should be handled within a two week period or so) the idea has sprung up that we copy the contents of all partitions from that machine, and try to find a compatible (hardware wise) and then copy the partition contents to that one. Would that work in your opinion?
It has already been two days that it isn't working, and everyone is getting nervous about it.
What would be a good way to copy entire partitions to external HDD? | 2013/09/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/649651",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2127/"
] | * [CloneZilla](http://clonezilla.org/).
* [Acronis TrueImage](http://www.acronis.com/homecomputing/transfer-pc-files/)
* [Ghost](http://www.symantec-norton.com/Ghost%E2%80%8E)
* [dd](http://linux.die.net/man/1/dd). E.g. used [like this](https://superuser.com/questions/557193/can-i-clone-a-root-file-system-of-a-running-server-via-ssh).
* Windows backup. (Boot from DVD, then choose the from backup option).
* [Disk to VHD](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/ee656415.aspx)
* ...
So many options. And so hard to define what is *best*. | >
> What would be a good way to copy entire partitions to external HDD?
>
>
>
Use [Acronis® True Image™ 2014 Premium](http://www.acronis.com/homecomputing/transfer-pc-files/) to create an image of the hdd and restore the image on new hardware. This will require a new license in an ideal world. There are several other alternatives that can do this some free some paid.
Clearly the issue with the license isn't something we can help you with. This would transfer Windows, if the software works on the new hardware, is an entirely different question ( one we cannot answer ). |
649,651 | We have a certain piece of software which is on a machine which is going to *die* any time soon. Very soon, by our estimates.
The problem is that that is the only machine on which a certain specialist software works. It is installed locally, but also takes some data from a network partition (which is on an office server, so that is safe - server is a new machine) - licence, some system and shared databases and some other files.
This is a temporary try to solve a problem, but since we currently have some licencing issues with that software ( :-) before you ask, no it is not pirated, but our company changed its name, and the software vendor is still in the process of handling that along with the software update to a new version, and still hasn't provided us with new license files *that work* ... the mailing back and forth is currently in progress ... it should be handled within a two week period or so) the idea has sprung up that we copy the contents of all partitions from that machine, and try to find a compatible (hardware wise) and then copy the partition contents to that one. Would that work in your opinion?
It has already been two days that it isn't working, and everyone is getting nervous about it.
What would be a good way to copy entire partitions to external HDD? | 2013/09/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/649651",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2127/"
] | >
> What would be a good way to copy entire partitions to external HDD?
>
>
>
Use [Acronis® True Image™ 2014 Premium](http://www.acronis.com/homecomputing/transfer-pc-files/) to create an image of the hdd and restore the image on new hardware. This will require a new license in an ideal world. There are several other alternatives that can do this some free some paid.
Clearly the issue with the license isn't something we can help you with. This would transfer Windows, if the software works on the new hardware, is an entirely different question ( one we cannot answer ). | You really just need two things.
VMWare Converter and VMware Player
Both are Free Downloads!
Install the converter on another machine and capture an image of said workstation. Install the player on a different machine and fire up that image you captured. This isn't the most "professional" solution out there but I've used it to capture images of old systems that had software which basically had no chance of working on new operating systems. Give it a go! I've had plenty of success using this method. |
649,651 | We have a certain piece of software which is on a machine which is going to *die* any time soon. Very soon, by our estimates.
The problem is that that is the only machine on which a certain specialist software works. It is installed locally, but also takes some data from a network partition (which is on an office server, so that is safe - server is a new machine) - licence, some system and shared databases and some other files.
This is a temporary try to solve a problem, but since we currently have some licencing issues with that software ( :-) before you ask, no it is not pirated, but our company changed its name, and the software vendor is still in the process of handling that along with the software update to a new version, and still hasn't provided us with new license files *that work* ... the mailing back and forth is currently in progress ... it should be handled within a two week period or so) the idea has sprung up that we copy the contents of all partitions from that machine, and try to find a compatible (hardware wise) and then copy the partition contents to that one. Would that work in your opinion?
It has already been two days that it isn't working, and everyone is getting nervous about it.
What would be a good way to copy entire partitions to external HDD? | 2013/09/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/649651",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/2127/"
] | * [CloneZilla](http://clonezilla.org/).
* [Acronis TrueImage](http://www.acronis.com/homecomputing/transfer-pc-files/)
* [Ghost](http://www.symantec-norton.com/Ghost%E2%80%8E)
* [dd](http://linux.die.net/man/1/dd). E.g. used [like this](https://superuser.com/questions/557193/can-i-clone-a-root-file-system-of-a-running-server-via-ssh).
* Windows backup. (Boot from DVD, then choose the from backup option).
* [Disk to VHD](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/ee656415.aspx)
* ...
So many options. And so hard to define what is *best*. | You really just need two things.
VMWare Converter and VMware Player
Both are Free Downloads!
Install the converter on another machine and capture an image of said workstation. Install the player on a different machine and fire up that image you captured. This isn't the most "professional" solution out there but I've used it to capture images of old systems that had software which basically had no chance of working on new operating systems. Give it a go! I've had plenty of success using this method. |
1,019,370 | If I have a site (e.g. foo.com) and on the home page of foo.com, there is an image request where the src=bar.com..., will the cookies on the bar.com domain be sent to the bar.com servers? | 2009/06/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1019370",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | The cookie will typically be included in any type of request, but the scenario you describe is what's known as a *third-party cookie* (that is, the cookie is set on a domain that is different than the domain of the loaded page) and most browsers offer a privacy setting to block third-party cookies.
A third-party cookie allows the owners of bar.com to place an image (say a banner ad) on foo.com and track the users of foo.com even though those users have never visited bar.com. This is a privacy concern and many users elect to block such cookies. | This question is old, but was the first result on Google for me, so I think it's worth clarifying how this works nowadays (2021).
When bar.com sets the cookie, they can specify a `SameSite` attribute.
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=Lax** (or the SameSite attribute is not specified), then the cookie **will not be sent for requests for images**/iframes/etc hosted on bar.com, but **will** be sent if the user clicks a link on your foo.com homepage that takes them to bar.com
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=Strict**, the cookie **will not** be included in requests to bar.com that originate from another webiste, including if the user clicks a bar.com link on foo.com.
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=None**, the cookie **will** be sent to bar.com, including requests for images. |
1,019,370 | If I have a site (e.g. foo.com) and on the home page of foo.com, there is an image request where the src=bar.com..., will the cookies on the bar.com domain be sent to the bar.com servers? | 2009/06/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1019370",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | The cookie will typically be included in any type of request, but the scenario you describe is what's known as a *third-party cookie* (that is, the cookie is set on a domain that is different than the domain of the loaded page) and most browsers offer a privacy setting to block third-party cookies.
A third-party cookie allows the owners of bar.com to place an image (say a banner ad) on foo.com and track the users of foo.com even though those users have never visited bar.com. This is a privacy concern and many users elect to block such cookies. | Yes cookies are sent on all requests.
This includes "img" and "script" as well as XMLHttpRquest calls from javascript and can be a security issue on script tags as scripts loaded by one website can load scripts from another site and will send their authentication cookies too. This can be exploited to steal data. |
1,019,370 | If I have a site (e.g. foo.com) and on the home page of foo.com, there is an image request where the src=bar.com..., will the cookies on the bar.com domain be sent to the bar.com servers? | 2009/06/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1019370",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | This question is old, but was the first result on Google for me, so I think it's worth clarifying how this works nowadays (2021).
When bar.com sets the cookie, they can specify a `SameSite` attribute.
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=Lax** (or the SameSite attribute is not specified), then the cookie **will not be sent for requests for images**/iframes/etc hosted on bar.com, but **will** be sent if the user clicks a link on your foo.com homepage that takes them to bar.com
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=Strict**, the cookie **will not** be included in requests to bar.com that originate from another webiste, including if the user clicks a bar.com link on foo.com.
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=None**, the cookie **will** be sent to bar.com, including requests for images. | Yes cookies are sent on all requests.
This includes "img" and "script" as well as XMLHttpRquest calls from javascript and can be a security issue on script tags as scripts loaded by one website can load scripts from another site and will send their authentication cookies too. This can be exploited to steal data. |
1,019,370 | If I have a site (e.g. foo.com) and on the home page of foo.com, there is an image request where the src=bar.com..., will the cookies on the bar.com domain be sent to the bar.com servers? | 2009/06/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1019370",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | If third-party-cookies are not blocked by the user then most modern browsers will set or send cookies of the third party domain when a request is made to the third party web site. IE 6 has a different kind of blocking mechanism called leashing. wiki: A leashed cookie is a third-party cookie that is sent by the browser only when accessing a third-party document via the same first-party. | Yes cookies are sent on all requests.
This includes "img" and "script" as well as XMLHttpRquest calls from javascript and can be a security issue on script tags as scripts loaded by one website can load scripts from another site and will send their authentication cookies too. This can be exploited to steal data. |
1,019,370 | If I have a site (e.g. foo.com) and on the home page of foo.com, there is an image request where the src=bar.com..., will the cookies on the bar.com domain be sent to the bar.com servers? | 2009/06/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1019370",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Yes. HTTP doesn't distinguish between one kind of resource or another (image vs html). | This question is old, but was the first result on Google for me, so I think it's worth clarifying how this works nowadays (2021).
When bar.com sets the cookie, they can specify a `SameSite` attribute.
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=Lax** (or the SameSite attribute is not specified), then the cookie **will not be sent for requests for images**/iframes/etc hosted on bar.com, but **will** be sent if the user clicks a link on your foo.com homepage that takes them to bar.com
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=Strict**, the cookie **will not** be included in requests to bar.com that originate from another webiste, including if the user clicks a bar.com link on foo.com.
If the cookie is set with **SameSite=None**, the cookie **will** be sent to bar.com, including requests for images. |
1,019,370 | If I have a site (e.g. foo.com) and on the home page of foo.com, there is an image request where the src=bar.com..., will the cookies on the bar.com domain be sent to the bar.com servers? | 2009/06/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1019370",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Yes. HTTP doesn't distinguish between one kind of resource or another (image vs html). | The cookie will typically be included in any type of request, but the scenario you describe is what's known as a *third-party cookie* (that is, the cookie is set on a domain that is different than the domain of the loaded page) and most browsers offer a privacy setting to block third-party cookies.
A third-party cookie allows the owners of bar.com to place an image (say a banner ad) on foo.com and track the users of foo.com even though those users have never visited bar.com. This is a privacy concern and many users elect to block such cookies. |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | The way I always understood it growing up as a USA-sian, "skipping rope" is just one particular way of using a jump rope. In particular, its generally done solo with the user employing a skipping cadence.
"Jump rope" can refer to the rope itself, or to the activity of using a jump rope. If you are hopping up when it comes around, rather than using a skipping gait, you are jumping rope, not skipping rope.
Also there is double-dutch jump rope (usually shortened to just "double-dutch"), where two jump ropes are employed by dedicated swingers, typcially with some kind of chant added in. This is serious business. Good double-dutch teams are really impressive atheletes. | Here is a guess at the "skipping" etymology. This is probably because skipping (which we can take to be light, or small jumping) is all that is necessary to use the rope as it is intended. Only a small amount of clearance is required for the rope to pass under the feet. It is not necessary to jump, and doing so will only reduce your endurance. People who are skilled at skipping rope do not jump very high. This is something beginners do, to mitigate their bad timing which causes the rope to catch their feet.
Skip also means to get over something by jumping. While you can skip intransitively, you can also skip objects: for instance, skip every other stair. (And of course skip also means to bypass something in general. Skip a meeting, skip breakfast, ...)
Skip, a verb which takes a direct object, expresses the idea of getting over/past the rope.
By contrast, "jumping rope" (the verb phrase) is basically ungrammatical (i.e. accepted as an idiom) because "jump", in the sense of "leap", is a verb which does not take an object. You can jump, jump off something, jump into/over something, but you can't jump something. |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | Here in America, ***jump rope*** is the only noun we use. At my gym we warm up by *jumping rope* so I own my own *jump rope* of just the right length and thickness. As an adult wanting to exercise, I *jump rope* (doing *single unders* and *double unders*) at my gym.
Young girls at play might *jump rope* or *skip rope* or even *play jump rope*. *Skip rope* implies (at least to me) a lazy, fun activity one can do while daydreaming, while even young girls might *jump rope* with a sense of competition. But even girls who *skip rope* do so with a *jump rope*.
Before I read this question I don't think I'd ever heard the term *skipping rope* used as a noun to mean the rope.
[This](http://www.bodybuilding.com/fun/rossboxing4.htm) is an article on using a jump rope as part of an athletic training regimen that is written in American English with an attempt to include British English terms as alternates. I can't speak to the British, but the American seems natural and correct to me. | To throw some more oddness into the mix - as an Aus English speaker - I've heard both but by far and away, it's a *skipping rope* in Aus.
I *do*, however, have memories of participating in [Jump Rope For Heart](http://www.bhf.org.uk/get-involved/events/schools-and-youth-groups/jump-rope-for-heart.aspx) (organised by the BHF in the UK, and the Heart Foundation in Aus) as a little tacker at school, so I wouldn't be overly suprised to see the term 'jump rope' bleeding through at some stage to describe the activity, however, it doesn't appear to be the case yet. If you go through the BHF Jump Rope For Heart page, it refers to the tools as *skipping ropes* throughout, and seems to call the activity skipping, but the *event* a 'Jump', for example:
>
> When the children have mastered the basic skipping skills a Jump Off (a sponsored skip) is held, which can involve one class or the whole school, teachers and parents!
>
>
> |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | I imagine some of the hits for *jump rope* in your Ngram may refer to the noun form.
The *jump rope* is the rope used for skipping rope. Put another way, you might say:
>
> *I need to lose some weight, so I'm going to start skipping rope. Time to buy a new jump rope.*
>
>
>
Which term is most common? In most of the US, I believe *jumping rope* is more common, particularly when the term is used competitively or for serious exercise. (I have a neice who jumped competitively in high school; I will try to interview her today and report my findings if I learn differently.)
---
**EDIT**: I couldn't get hold of my niece, but her dad told me that her team was named the *Skippers*, no doubt a pun, not just on jumping rope/skipping rope, but also because the team was based in a coastal town with a relatively large seafaring population. | To throw some more oddness into the mix - as an Aus English speaker - I've heard both but by far and away, it's a *skipping rope* in Aus.
I *do*, however, have memories of participating in [Jump Rope For Heart](http://www.bhf.org.uk/get-involved/events/schools-and-youth-groups/jump-rope-for-heart.aspx) (organised by the BHF in the UK, and the Heart Foundation in Aus) as a little tacker at school, so I wouldn't be overly suprised to see the term 'jump rope' bleeding through at some stage to describe the activity, however, it doesn't appear to be the case yet. If you go through the BHF Jump Rope For Heart page, it refers to the tools as *skipping ropes* throughout, and seems to call the activity skipping, but the *event* a 'Jump', for example:
>
> When the children have mastered the basic skipping skills a Jump Off (a sponsored skip) is held, which can involve one class or the whole school, teachers and parents!
>
>
> |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | >
> Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen
> the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on
> some information I have asked myself a few questions:
>
>
> Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England ? Do they call
> it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope
> Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope
> Federation (USAJRF). What is the etymology of skipping rope as you are
> jumping not skipping ? What is most common to use nowadays as I have
> heard both ?
>
>
>
First of all, this is relevant to more than just England. In England and the rest of the UK, it is known as a skipping rope.
The only times that I ever heard anyone say "jump rope", was on American television programmes. Nobody uses the words "jump rope", in the UK. This seems to be an Americanism.
This page makes it clear: <http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/british/skipping-rope?q=skipping+rope> | The way I always understood it growing up as a USA-sian, "skipping rope" is just one particular way of using a jump rope. In particular, its generally done solo with the user employing a skipping cadence.
"Jump rope" can refer to the rope itself, or to the activity of using a jump rope. If you are hopping up when it comes around, rather than using a skipping gait, you are jumping rope, not skipping rope.
Also there is double-dutch jump rope (usually shortened to just "double-dutch"), where two jump ropes are employed by dedicated swingers, typcially with some kind of chant added in. This is serious business. Good double-dutch teams are really impressive atheletes. |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | >
> Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen
> the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on
> some information I have asked myself a few questions:
>
>
> Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England ? Do they call
> it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope
> Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope
> Federation (USAJRF). What is the etymology of skipping rope as you are
> jumping not skipping ? What is most common to use nowadays as I have
> heard both ?
>
>
>
First of all, this is relevant to more than just England. In England and the rest of the UK, it is known as a skipping rope.
The only times that I ever heard anyone say "jump rope", was on American television programmes. Nobody uses the words "jump rope", in the UK. This seems to be an Americanism.
This page makes it clear: <http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/british/skipping-rope?q=skipping+rope> | *Skipping rope* is defined as follows <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/skipping-rope>
>
> skipping-rope
> n
> (Group Games / Games, other than specified) Brit a cord, usually having handles at each end, that is held in the hands and swung round and down so that the holder or others can jump over it
>
>
>
I've added a term to [this n-gram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope,skipping%20rope,%20jumping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3) to include jumping rope.
I've heard *jump rope* as the item used as well as the game, so that could weigh heavily since the usage is both a noun and verb. *Skipping rope* seems to be used the same way however.
From <http://www.skip-hop.co.uk/jump-rope-c76.html>
>
> Jump Rope is simply the term used in America and some other parts of the world used for the actual rope you jump when you are skipping . The term is now used to describe the activity as well. So particularly in the states you might jump rope using a jump rope!. The term is also used more now in the UK particularly because of the exchange of skills and equipment between the UK and the United States.
>
>
>
The use of the term *skipping rope* includes the activity as well in [this example](http://www.medimanage.com/my-worries/articles/-the-benefits-of-rope-skipping.aspx)
Perhaps the usage of the terms viewed separately in American and British English will help as seen in these n-grams of the American usage [here](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=skipping%20rope,jumping%20rope,jump%20rope,%20jump%20roping&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=5&smoothing=3) (where I added in jump roping just for fun) and the British usage [here](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=skipping%20rope,jumping%20rope,jump%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=6&smoothing=3).
According to [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skipping_rope), the tool is called a *jump rope* or *skipping rope*, used for the game of *skipping*. As you can read in the article, there are many ways of jumping/skipping rope, and I grew up skipping in place over the rope in the USA as it was easier to keep going with less energy for competitions of duration rather than number of jumps.
[Online Etymology Dictionary](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=skipping%20rope&searchmode=none) says about skip:
>
> skip (v.)
> c.1300, "to spring lightly," also "to jump over," probably from O.N. skopa "to skip, run," from P.Gmc. \*skupanan (cf. M.Swed. skuppa, dialectal Swed. skopa "to skip, leap"). Meaning "omit intervening parts" first recorded late 14c. Meaning "fail to attend" is from 1905. The noun is attested from mid-15c. The custom of skipping rope has been traced to 17c.; it was commonly done by boys as well as
> girls until late 19c. Related: Skipped; skipping.
>
>
>
Notice that *skipping rope* has been traced to 17c.
Look here for a more recent history of the [International Rope Skipping Federation (FISAC-IRSF)](http://www.fisac-irsf.org/about-fisac/fisac-history) |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | The way I always understood it growing up as a USA-sian, "skipping rope" is just one particular way of using a jump rope. In particular, its generally done solo with the user employing a skipping cadence.
"Jump rope" can refer to the rope itself, or to the activity of using a jump rope. If you are hopping up when it comes around, rather than using a skipping gait, you are jumping rope, not skipping rope.
Also there is double-dutch jump rope (usually shortened to just "double-dutch"), where two jump ropes are employed by dedicated swingers, typcially with some kind of chant added in. This is serious business. Good double-dutch teams are really impressive atheletes. | To throw some more oddness into the mix - as an Aus English speaker - I've heard both but by far and away, it's a *skipping rope* in Aus.
I *do*, however, have memories of participating in [Jump Rope For Heart](http://www.bhf.org.uk/get-involved/events/schools-and-youth-groups/jump-rope-for-heart.aspx) (organised by the BHF in the UK, and the Heart Foundation in Aus) as a little tacker at school, so I wouldn't be overly suprised to see the term 'jump rope' bleeding through at some stage to describe the activity, however, it doesn't appear to be the case yet. If you go through the BHF Jump Rope For Heart page, it refers to the tools as *skipping ropes* throughout, and seems to call the activity skipping, but the *event* a 'Jump', for example:
>
> When the children have mastered the basic skipping skills a Jump Off (a sponsored skip) is held, which can involve one class or the whole school, teachers and parents!
>
>
> |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | I imagine some of the hits for *jump rope* in your Ngram may refer to the noun form.
The *jump rope* is the rope used for skipping rope. Put another way, you might say:
>
> *I need to lose some weight, so I'm going to start skipping rope. Time to buy a new jump rope.*
>
>
>
Which term is most common? In most of the US, I believe *jumping rope* is more common, particularly when the term is used competitively or for serious exercise. (I have a neice who jumped competitively in high school; I will try to interview her today and report my findings if I learn differently.)
---
**EDIT**: I couldn't get hold of my niece, but her dad told me that her team was named the *Skippers*, no doubt a pun, not just on jumping rope/skipping rope, but also because the team was based in a coastal town with a relatively large seafaring population. | Here is a guess at the "skipping" etymology. This is probably because skipping (which we can take to be light, or small jumping) is all that is necessary to use the rope as it is intended. Only a small amount of clearance is required for the rope to pass under the feet. It is not necessary to jump, and doing so will only reduce your endurance. People who are skilled at skipping rope do not jump very high. This is something beginners do, to mitigate their bad timing which causes the rope to catch their feet.
Skip also means to get over something by jumping. While you can skip intransitively, you can also skip objects: for instance, skip every other stair. (And of course skip also means to bypass something in general. Skip a meeting, skip breakfast, ...)
Skip, a verb which takes a direct object, expresses the idea of getting over/past the rope.
By contrast, "jumping rope" (the verb phrase) is basically ungrammatical (i.e. accepted as an idiom) because "jump", in the sense of "leap", is a verb which does not take an object. You can jump, jump off something, jump into/over something, but you can't jump something. |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | *Skipping rope* is defined as follows <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/skipping-rope>
>
> skipping-rope
> n
> (Group Games / Games, other than specified) Brit a cord, usually having handles at each end, that is held in the hands and swung round and down so that the holder or others can jump over it
>
>
>
I've added a term to [this n-gram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope,skipping%20rope,%20jumping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3) to include jumping rope.
I've heard *jump rope* as the item used as well as the game, so that could weigh heavily since the usage is both a noun and verb. *Skipping rope* seems to be used the same way however.
From <http://www.skip-hop.co.uk/jump-rope-c76.html>
>
> Jump Rope is simply the term used in America and some other parts of the world used for the actual rope you jump when you are skipping . The term is now used to describe the activity as well. So particularly in the states you might jump rope using a jump rope!. The term is also used more now in the UK particularly because of the exchange of skills and equipment between the UK and the United States.
>
>
>
The use of the term *skipping rope* includes the activity as well in [this example](http://www.medimanage.com/my-worries/articles/-the-benefits-of-rope-skipping.aspx)
Perhaps the usage of the terms viewed separately in American and British English will help as seen in these n-grams of the American usage [here](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=skipping%20rope,jumping%20rope,jump%20rope,%20jump%20roping&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=5&smoothing=3) (where I added in jump roping just for fun) and the British usage [here](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=skipping%20rope,jumping%20rope,jump%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=6&smoothing=3).
According to [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skipping_rope), the tool is called a *jump rope* or *skipping rope*, used for the game of *skipping*. As you can read in the article, there are many ways of jumping/skipping rope, and I grew up skipping in place over the rope in the USA as it was easier to keep going with less energy for competitions of duration rather than number of jumps.
[Online Etymology Dictionary](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=skipping%20rope&searchmode=none) says about skip:
>
> skip (v.)
> c.1300, "to spring lightly," also "to jump over," probably from O.N. skopa "to skip, run," from P.Gmc. \*skupanan (cf. M.Swed. skuppa, dialectal Swed. skopa "to skip, leap"). Meaning "omit intervening parts" first recorded late 14c. Meaning "fail to attend" is from 1905. The noun is attested from mid-15c. The custom of skipping rope has been traced to 17c.; it was commonly done by boys as well as
> girls until late 19c. Related: Skipped; skipping.
>
>
>
Notice that *skipping rope* has been traced to 17c.
Look here for a more recent history of the [International Rope Skipping Federation (FISAC-IRSF)](http://www.fisac-irsf.org/about-fisac/fisac-history) | Here is a guess at the "skipping" etymology. This is probably because skipping (which we can take to be light, or small jumping) is all that is necessary to use the rope as it is intended. Only a small amount of clearance is required for the rope to pass under the feet. It is not necessary to jump, and doing so will only reduce your endurance. People who are skilled at skipping rope do not jump very high. This is something beginners do, to mitigate their bad timing which causes the rope to catch their feet.
Skip also means to get over something by jumping. While you can skip intransitively, you can also skip objects: for instance, skip every other stair. (And of course skip also means to bypass something in general. Skip a meeting, skip breakfast, ...)
Skip, a verb which takes a direct object, expresses the idea of getting over/past the rope.
By contrast, "jumping rope" (the verb phrase) is basically ungrammatical (i.e. accepted as an idiom) because "jump", in the sense of "leap", is a verb which does not take an object. You can jump, jump off something, jump into/over something, but you can't jump something. |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | The way I always understood it growing up as a USA-sian, "skipping rope" is just one particular way of using a jump rope. In particular, its generally done solo with the user employing a skipping cadence.
"Jump rope" can refer to the rope itself, or to the activity of using a jump rope. If you are hopping up when it comes around, rather than using a skipping gait, you are jumping rope, not skipping rope.
Also there is double-dutch jump rope (usually shortened to just "double-dutch"), where two jump ropes are employed by dedicated swingers, typcially with some kind of chant added in. This is serious business. Good double-dutch teams are really impressive atheletes. | I think that the title reflects the action. Especially if two others are holding the rope or in some cases two counter rotating ropes.
When skipping you do not jump, raising your whole body,unless you only want to do it for a short time. Instead as the rope approaches your feet you lift your feet, or foot if your are hopping, let the rope pass and then quickly put your feet down again. In effect you have skipped, i.e. missed the rope. The upper body above the hips has hardly moved. In this way minimum energy is used and the game can go on for a long time.
Skipping, as in sort of running, is so called because it is running with every other step skipped, or missed. Marchers do the same thing once if they are out of step and want to get back into step synchronism. |
65,766 | Well it is summer time and I have to lose some weight so I have chosen the cardiovascular activity to do that jumping rope. While digging on some information I have asked myself a few questions:
Why do they call the jump rope skipping rope in England? Do they call it skipping rope or jump rope in the States as there are World Rope Skipping Federation (WRSF) and The United States Amateur Jump Rope Federation (USAJRF)? What is the etymology of "skipping rope" as you are jumping not skipping? What is most common to use nowadays as I have heard both? See [this NGram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope%20,skipping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3). | 2012/04/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/65766",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/16138/"
] | *Skipping rope* is defined as follows <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/skipping-rope>
>
> skipping-rope
> n
> (Group Games / Games, other than specified) Brit a cord, usually having handles at each end, that is held in the hands and swung round and down so that the holder or others can jump over it
>
>
>
I've added a term to [this n-gram](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=jump%20rope,skipping%20rope,%20jumping%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=3) to include jumping rope.
I've heard *jump rope* as the item used as well as the game, so that could weigh heavily since the usage is both a noun and verb. *Skipping rope* seems to be used the same way however.
From <http://www.skip-hop.co.uk/jump-rope-c76.html>
>
> Jump Rope is simply the term used in America and some other parts of the world used for the actual rope you jump when you are skipping . The term is now used to describe the activity as well. So particularly in the states you might jump rope using a jump rope!. The term is also used more now in the UK particularly because of the exchange of skills and equipment between the UK and the United States.
>
>
>
The use of the term *skipping rope* includes the activity as well in [this example](http://www.medimanage.com/my-worries/articles/-the-benefits-of-rope-skipping.aspx)
Perhaps the usage of the terms viewed separately in American and British English will help as seen in these n-grams of the American usage [here](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=skipping%20rope,jumping%20rope,jump%20rope,%20jump%20roping&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=5&smoothing=3) (where I added in jump roping just for fun) and the British usage [here](http://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=skipping%20rope,jumping%20rope,jump%20rope&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=6&smoothing=3).
According to [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skipping_rope), the tool is called a *jump rope* or *skipping rope*, used for the game of *skipping*. As you can read in the article, there are many ways of jumping/skipping rope, and I grew up skipping in place over the rope in the USA as it was easier to keep going with less energy for competitions of duration rather than number of jumps.
[Online Etymology Dictionary](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=skipping%20rope&searchmode=none) says about skip:
>
> skip (v.)
> c.1300, "to spring lightly," also "to jump over," probably from O.N. skopa "to skip, run," from P.Gmc. \*skupanan (cf. M.Swed. skuppa, dialectal Swed. skopa "to skip, leap"). Meaning "omit intervening parts" first recorded late 14c. Meaning "fail to attend" is from 1905. The noun is attested from mid-15c. The custom of skipping rope has been traced to 17c.; it was commonly done by boys as well as
> girls until late 19c. Related: Skipped; skipping.
>
>
>
Notice that *skipping rope* has been traced to 17c.
Look here for a more recent history of the [International Rope Skipping Federation (FISAC-IRSF)](http://www.fisac-irsf.org/about-fisac/fisac-history) | To throw some more oddness into the mix - as an Aus English speaker - I've heard both but by far and away, it's a *skipping rope* in Aus.
I *do*, however, have memories of participating in [Jump Rope For Heart](http://www.bhf.org.uk/get-involved/events/schools-and-youth-groups/jump-rope-for-heart.aspx) (organised by the BHF in the UK, and the Heart Foundation in Aus) as a little tacker at school, so I wouldn't be overly suprised to see the term 'jump rope' bleeding through at some stage to describe the activity, however, it doesn't appear to be the case yet. If you go through the BHF Jump Rope For Heart page, it refers to the tools as *skipping ropes* throughout, and seems to call the activity skipping, but the *event* a 'Jump', for example:
>
> When the children have mastered the basic skipping skills a Jump Off (a sponsored skip) is held, which can involve one class or the whole school, teachers and parents!
>
>
> |
2,972,824 | SSIS (SQL 2005) packages that have a script task that invoke custom .NET dlls throw the following error when run in a 64 bit environment
*The task cannot execute in 64-bit environment because the script is not pre-compiled. Please turn on the option to pre-compile the script in the task editor.*
The script tasks are set to PreCompile=false because the referenced dll is generated by the build process.
The suggested workaround is:
Option 1. With precompiled=True, Open, save and close the package in BIDS after the build is complete
. This will recompile the reference and generate the embedded 64 bit binary in the SSIS package and will cause the above mentioned error to go away. However, this also means that someone has to manually open the SSIS packages after the build is complete.
Option 2. Stick to 32 bit mode.
Option 1 is the feasible one of the two, but impractical. With 200 SSIS packages - we are short of hands to finish this task every time we generate the build.
Option 2 is out of the question because 32 bit just doesn't scale for us.
Now the questions:
1. Do you folks have a build process for your SSIS packages? If yes, can you share your practices
2. How do you manage script tasks? Are you comfortable bundling the developer version of the referenced dll in your scripts? | 2010/06/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2972824",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/163468/"
] | This is probably not what you want to hear,but i would suggest exploring the idea of replacing some of your script tasks with custom components. There are plently of samples on codeplex. This would allow easy updates because you would just drop new component builds and the referenced assemblies into GAC.
HTH | Pragmatic Works has something (I have never used) called BI xPress which has [something](http://www.pragmaticworks.com/help/bixpress/scr/Compile%20Scripts.htm) which might help. |
434,693 | I just came across this article ([noun modifiers](https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/en/english-grammar/adjectives/noun-modifiers)), and I'm surprised that these two nouns mean different things:
>
> The kitchen’s window
>
>
> The kitchen window
>
>
>
The [Ngram](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=The%20kitchen%20window%2CThe%20kitchen%E2%80%99s%20window&year_start=1970&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2CThe%20kitchen%20window%3B%2Cc0) shows zero usage of the first one even though it's very common .
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aY8Ij.png)
Here are some articles using the first one ( The kitchen’s window ):
[The New York Times Making a New House Look Old](http://www.nytimes.com/slideshow/2012/05/18/greathomesanddestinations/18iht-redutch18-slideshow/s/18iht-redutch18-slideshow-slide-BOLP.html)
>
> **The kitchen’s window** and door combination has an arch similar to that
> of the brick-in arch elsewhere in the facade.
>
>
>
[One biotech gasps for breath](https://www.the-scientist.com/?articles.view/articleNo/27582/title/One-biotech-gasps-for-breath/)
>
> [...] and an assortment of sweets soon cover a long table by **the**
> **kitchen's window** .
>
>
>
How come?
Thanks.
**Update :**
Thanks to @Lawrence, I've noticed that there is an Ngram apostrophe issue, and that's why it shows **zero usage** of **kitchen's window** . To workaround this issue, I used a **wildcard** and here is the result of [the kitchen \* window](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=the%20kitchen%20*%20window&year_start=1970&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t2%3B%2Cthe%20kitchen%20%2A%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20door%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20%27s%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20bay%20window%3B%2Cc0)
( Please, click on search lots of books to see the result ):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3Ge20.png) | 2018/03/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/434693",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/250862/"
] | They only vary slightly.
The village church: The church which is located in the village.
The village's church: The church which belongs to the village.
In the first sentence it's used a bit like "the town drunk" or "city hall" where it functions more like an adjective than a noun. | A kitchen does not possess things, one or more windows are *in* a kitchen, a window is a feature. The term *kitchen* is a **[noun adjunct](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/218058/parts-of-speech-and-functions-bob-made-a-book-collector-happy-the-other-day/219971#219971)**, it tells us what sort of window we are talking about. We can go further and add adjectives or other nouns: “a *large soundproof frosted-glass kitchen window*” for example. Saying a “large soundproof frosted-glass kitchen's\* window” would sound odd, and frankly very wrong.
Wikipedia has an article which supports this grammar detail
>
> [**Noun adjuncts**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct#English) **can also be strung together in a longer sequence preceding the final noun, with each added noun modifying the noun which follows it**, in effect creating a multiple-word noun adjunct which modifies the following noun (e.g. "chicken soup bowl", in which "chicken" modifies "soup" and "chicken soup" modifies "bowl"). There is no theoretical limit to the number of noun adjuncts which can be added before a noun, and very long constructions are occasionally seen, for example "Dawlish pub car park cliff plunge man rescued", in which "Dawlish", "pub", "car park", "cliff", and "plunge" are all noun adjuncts. They could each be removed successively (starting at the beginning of the sentence) without changing the grammar of the sentence. This type of construction is not uncommon in headlinese, the condensed grammar used in newspaper headlines.
>
>
>
However, the "possessive" apostrophe can be used with inanimate things e.g.
>
> [The University's mission and core values](https://www.cam.ac.uk/about-the-university/how-the-university-and-colleges-work/the-universitys-mission-and-core-values)
>
>
>
Here *University* is used as a metonymy, as representing the people who run the institution. We can use the "possessive" apostrophe with objects, when the thing possessed is inseparable from its owner
>
> 1. The **bottle's neck** is cracked
> 2. The **neck of the bottle** is cracked
> 3. The **bottleneck** is cracked
>
>
>
Many native speakers would opt to say the first or the third sentence but the meaning of all three is the same. Note that *bottleneck* is a compound word, no longer made up of two words, *bottle* and *neck*; the narrow section of the bottle which makes it easier to pour, has its own proper "name". |
434,693 | I just came across this article ([noun modifiers](https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/en/english-grammar/adjectives/noun-modifiers)), and I'm surprised that these two nouns mean different things:
>
> The kitchen’s window
>
>
> The kitchen window
>
>
>
The [Ngram](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=The%20kitchen%20window%2CThe%20kitchen%E2%80%99s%20window&year_start=1970&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2CThe%20kitchen%20window%3B%2Cc0) shows zero usage of the first one even though it's very common .
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aY8Ij.png)
Here are some articles using the first one ( The kitchen’s window ):
[The New York Times Making a New House Look Old](http://www.nytimes.com/slideshow/2012/05/18/greathomesanddestinations/18iht-redutch18-slideshow/s/18iht-redutch18-slideshow-slide-BOLP.html)
>
> **The kitchen’s window** and door combination has an arch similar to that
> of the brick-in arch elsewhere in the facade.
>
>
>
[One biotech gasps for breath](https://www.the-scientist.com/?articles.view/articleNo/27582/title/One-biotech-gasps-for-breath/)
>
> [...] and an assortment of sweets soon cover a long table by **the**
> **kitchen's window** .
>
>
>
How come?
Thanks.
**Update :**
Thanks to @Lawrence, I've noticed that there is an Ngram apostrophe issue, and that's why it shows **zero usage** of **kitchen's window** . To workaround this issue, I used a **wildcard** and here is the result of [the kitchen \* window](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=the%20kitchen%20*%20window&year_start=1970&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t2%3B%2Cthe%20kitchen%20%2A%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20door%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20%27s%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20bay%20window%3B%2Cc0)
( Please, click on search lots of books to see the result ):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3Ge20.png) | 2018/03/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/434693",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/250862/"
] | First off, in the source sentence:
>
> The kitchen’s window and door combination has an arch similar to that
> of the brick-in arch elsewhere in the facade.
>
>
>
**The possessive "kitchen's" does not modify "window", but rather "window and door combination".** If one did use "kitchen" in this context the reader might well be led down the garden path to concluding that the reference was to a door/window combo similar to that that might be used in a kitchen (even though, in this case you could be talking about a bedroom).
And in the second source sentence:
>
> [...] and an assortment of sweets soon cover a long table by the
> kitchen's window .
>
>
>
What's being described is the layout of the kitchen. Thus a specific window is being referred to, and window is not so much a feature of the kitchen but rather a **"landmark"**.
**As with most things English, the rules are mushy, but the non-possessive use of "kitchen" to modify "window" implies a window of the type used in a kitchen, while the possessive implies a window which is "owned" by the kitchen.**
There is plenty of room for both forms to be used, depending on context. | They only vary slightly.
The village church: The church which is located in the village.
The village's church: The church which belongs to the village.
In the first sentence it's used a bit like "the town drunk" or "city hall" where it functions more like an adjective than a noun. |
434,693 | I just came across this article ([noun modifiers](https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/en/english-grammar/adjectives/noun-modifiers)), and I'm surprised that these two nouns mean different things:
>
> The kitchen’s window
>
>
> The kitchen window
>
>
>
The [Ngram](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=The%20kitchen%20window%2CThe%20kitchen%E2%80%99s%20window&year_start=1970&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2CThe%20kitchen%20window%3B%2Cc0) shows zero usage of the first one even though it's very common .
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aY8Ij.png)
Here are some articles using the first one ( The kitchen’s window ):
[The New York Times Making a New House Look Old](http://www.nytimes.com/slideshow/2012/05/18/greathomesanddestinations/18iht-redutch18-slideshow/s/18iht-redutch18-slideshow-slide-BOLP.html)
>
> **The kitchen’s window** and door combination has an arch similar to that
> of the brick-in arch elsewhere in the facade.
>
>
>
[One biotech gasps for breath](https://www.the-scientist.com/?articles.view/articleNo/27582/title/One-biotech-gasps-for-breath/)
>
> [...] and an assortment of sweets soon cover a long table by **the**
> **kitchen's window** .
>
>
>
How come?
Thanks.
**Update :**
Thanks to @Lawrence, I've noticed that there is an Ngram apostrophe issue, and that's why it shows **zero usage** of **kitchen's window** . To workaround this issue, I used a **wildcard** and here is the result of [the kitchen \* window](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=the%20kitchen%20*%20window&year_start=1970&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t2%3B%2Cthe%20kitchen%20%2A%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20door%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20%27s%20window%3B%2Cc0%3B%3Bthe%20kitchen%20bay%20window%3B%2Cc0)
( Please, click on search lots of books to see the result ):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3Ge20.png) | 2018/03/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/434693",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/250862/"
] | First off, in the source sentence:
>
> The kitchen’s window and door combination has an arch similar to that
> of the brick-in arch elsewhere in the facade.
>
>
>
**The possessive "kitchen's" does not modify "window", but rather "window and door combination".** If one did use "kitchen" in this context the reader might well be led down the garden path to concluding that the reference was to a door/window combo similar to that that might be used in a kitchen (even though, in this case you could be talking about a bedroom).
And in the second source sentence:
>
> [...] and an assortment of sweets soon cover a long table by the
> kitchen's window .
>
>
>
What's being described is the layout of the kitchen. Thus a specific window is being referred to, and window is not so much a feature of the kitchen but rather a **"landmark"**.
**As with most things English, the rules are mushy, but the non-possessive use of "kitchen" to modify "window" implies a window of the type used in a kitchen, while the possessive implies a window which is "owned" by the kitchen.**
There is plenty of room for both forms to be used, depending on context. | A kitchen does not possess things, one or more windows are *in* a kitchen, a window is a feature. The term *kitchen* is a **[noun adjunct](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/218058/parts-of-speech-and-functions-bob-made-a-book-collector-happy-the-other-day/219971#219971)**, it tells us what sort of window we are talking about. We can go further and add adjectives or other nouns: “a *large soundproof frosted-glass kitchen window*” for example. Saying a “large soundproof frosted-glass kitchen's\* window” would sound odd, and frankly very wrong.
Wikipedia has an article which supports this grammar detail
>
> [**Noun adjuncts**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct#English) **can also be strung together in a longer sequence preceding the final noun, with each added noun modifying the noun which follows it**, in effect creating a multiple-word noun adjunct which modifies the following noun (e.g. "chicken soup bowl", in which "chicken" modifies "soup" and "chicken soup" modifies "bowl"). There is no theoretical limit to the number of noun adjuncts which can be added before a noun, and very long constructions are occasionally seen, for example "Dawlish pub car park cliff plunge man rescued", in which "Dawlish", "pub", "car park", "cliff", and "plunge" are all noun adjuncts. They could each be removed successively (starting at the beginning of the sentence) without changing the grammar of the sentence. This type of construction is not uncommon in headlinese, the condensed grammar used in newspaper headlines.
>
>
>
However, the "possessive" apostrophe can be used with inanimate things e.g.
>
> [The University's mission and core values](https://www.cam.ac.uk/about-the-university/how-the-university-and-colleges-work/the-universitys-mission-and-core-values)
>
>
>
Here *University* is used as a metonymy, as representing the people who run the institution. We can use the "possessive" apostrophe with objects, when the thing possessed is inseparable from its owner
>
> 1. The **bottle's neck** is cracked
> 2. The **neck of the bottle** is cracked
> 3. The **bottleneck** is cracked
>
>
>
Many native speakers would opt to say the first or the third sentence but the meaning of all three is the same. Note that *bottleneck* is a compound word, no longer made up of two words, *bottle* and *neck*; the narrow section of the bottle which makes it easier to pour, has its own proper "name". |
87,365 | I have been thinking about this question for quiet a long time but, couldn't make up an answer myself. Usually when someone asks about why a system is the way it is we answer it by saying that it is the most stable lowest energy state(to know about why a system should be at its lowest energy state for its stability click [here](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/87371/why-a-system-should-be-at-its-lowest-energy-state-for-its-stability)). But, what about the uncertainty principle? What benefit does the universe/nature get by following this principle? | 2013/11/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/87365",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/23742/"
] | The answer depends on the interpretation of quantum mechanics you like the most. As they are mathematically equivalent, the question is metaphysical rather than scientific.
Some of the ways to explain:
* There is no uncertainty in the system. The uncertainty is in the observer. By making the measurement the observer introduces the uncertainty because he cannot for sure know his own state due to self-reference. (Bohm interpretation)
* There is no uncertainty in the system, because the measured value actually does not exist. What is real is the wave function, which is always certain (MWI, von Neumann etc)
* The uncertainty is introduced by vacuum fluctuations. Virtual particles of vacuum bombard all real particles so they conduct chaotic motion within certain limits. Vacuum thus can be seen as a medium having lowest possible, but non-zero energy.
* The measured values are densely packed: two or more variables can be stored in 1 bit of information in nature (each carrying less than a bit). As our brain (and most instruments we use) cannot manipulate with amounts of information less than 1 bit, we can measure in one experiment only 1 value for which we use the whole bit while the other part becomes lost.
There are multiple other explanations as well. | Physics isn't entitled in answering the question "why" but rather "how". The question "why" is always diverted to philosophy, and some liars use it to make religions. |
87,365 | I have been thinking about this question for quiet a long time but, couldn't make up an answer myself. Usually when someone asks about why a system is the way it is we answer it by saying that it is the most stable lowest energy state(to know about why a system should be at its lowest energy state for its stability click [here](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/87371/why-a-system-should-be-at-its-lowest-energy-state-for-its-stability)). But, what about the uncertainty principle? What benefit does the universe/nature get by following this principle? | 2013/11/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/87365",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/23742/"
] | The answer depends on the interpretation of quantum mechanics you like the most. As they are mathematically equivalent, the question is metaphysical rather than scientific.
Some of the ways to explain:
* There is no uncertainty in the system. The uncertainty is in the observer. By making the measurement the observer introduces the uncertainty because he cannot for sure know his own state due to self-reference. (Bohm interpretation)
* There is no uncertainty in the system, because the measured value actually does not exist. What is real is the wave function, which is always certain (MWI, von Neumann etc)
* The uncertainty is introduced by vacuum fluctuations. Virtual particles of vacuum bombard all real particles so they conduct chaotic motion within certain limits. Vacuum thus can be seen as a medium having lowest possible, but non-zero energy.
* The measured values are densely packed: two or more variables can be stored in 1 bit of information in nature (each carrying less than a bit). As our brain (and most instruments we use) cannot manipulate with amounts of information less than 1 bit, we can measure in one experiment only 1 value for which we use the whole bit while the other part becomes lost.
There are multiple other explanations as well. | >
> Usually when someone asks about
> why a system is the way it is we
> answer it by saying that it is the
> most stable lowest energy state.
>
>
>
That's a lousy explanation. A system doesn't have to be in the lowest energy state (in that case the Universe would be very boring). In fact, some systems don't even have a definite energy.
To visualize what I've said, you can think of an object which is in a minimum energy state, hence it will be in equilibrium. This is not the case in QM, where an object will experience strange effects like [going through walls](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tunnel_effect) and [bouncing back when it's going to fall off a cliff](http://www.scientificamerican.com/article.cfm?id=new-quantum-weirdness).
>
> But,
> what about the uncertainty
> principle? What benefit does the
> universe/nature get by following this
> principle?
>
>
>
I think no benefit. You can derive the HUP from the postulates of QM. Physics is more complicated than the lowest energy principle.
The HUP is an experimental fact which can be deduced from the non-commutativity of QM observables. See [How does non-commutativity lead to uncertainty?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/10362/how-does-non-commutativity-lead-to-uncertainty) and [Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle scientific proof](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/24116/heisenberg-uncertainty-principle-scientific-proof/).
TIP: *Why* questions in Physics are usually useless. |
87,365 | I have been thinking about this question for quiet a long time but, couldn't make up an answer myself. Usually when someone asks about why a system is the way it is we answer it by saying that it is the most stable lowest energy state(to know about why a system should be at its lowest energy state for its stability click [here](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/87371/why-a-system-should-be-at-its-lowest-energy-state-for-its-stability)). But, what about the uncertainty principle? What benefit does the universe/nature get by following this principle? | 2013/11/21 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/87365",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/23742/"
] | The answer depends on the interpretation of quantum mechanics you like the most. As they are mathematically equivalent, the question is metaphysical rather than scientific.
Some of the ways to explain:
* There is no uncertainty in the system. The uncertainty is in the observer. By making the measurement the observer introduces the uncertainty because he cannot for sure know his own state due to self-reference. (Bohm interpretation)
* There is no uncertainty in the system, because the measured value actually does not exist. What is real is the wave function, which is always certain (MWI, von Neumann etc)
* The uncertainty is introduced by vacuum fluctuations. Virtual particles of vacuum bombard all real particles so they conduct chaotic motion within certain limits. Vacuum thus can be seen as a medium having lowest possible, but non-zero energy.
* The measured values are densely packed: two or more variables can be stored in 1 bit of information in nature (each carrying less than a bit). As our brain (and most instruments we use) cannot manipulate with amounts of information less than 1 bit, we can measure in one experiment only 1 value for which we use the whole bit while the other part becomes lost.
There are multiple other explanations as well. | This reply probably would be more suitable as comment, but i'm unable to comment yet, so:
First of all we can't really describe universe as a system that even close to entropy which actually would be a lowest energy and most stable state for universe. So, following from that: universe is unstable, and as it's unstable there is no really a problem for Universe to follow uncertainty. |
32,616 | This question seems to be all over various forms, but i haven't yet found an answer.
On my Android phone, the stock web browser offers to sign in to my Google account when i visit Google websites. At the top of the screen appears a yellow pop-up listing all my Google account in a drop-down, and two buttons: "hide" and "sign in". Simply selecting an account and tapping "sign in" gives unchallenged access to my account via the web; no password is required.
This bothers me, since any malicious person who picks up my phone when I'm not looking can access my email, Google Drive, etc without knowing my password.
Let's assume that my screen-lock hasn't had time to kick in.... or we could assume it's easy to circumvent.
Enabling 2-stage sign in wouldn't help, since if someone has unauthorised access to my phone, they's receive the one-time token.
I've tried looking through all phone and browser settings to no avail. I've hunted through Google Dashboard, and cannot see how to disable this. I've signed out, but the yellow pop-up always appears, always giving unchallenged access.
An app-lock app might be an option, but is inconvenient, especially since friends often use each other's mobile browsers.
Installing a different browser may be an option, although again that's inconvenient, and would mean disabling the stock browser, which my come with other issues.
I'd really like to disable the yellow pop-up permanently, but i cannot seem to find out how to do this. Apologies if this has been answered already.
I'm running Android 4.0.4 Cyanogen mod 9.1.0 on a rooted Samsung Galaxy S GT-i9000.
---
I'm specifically looking for a way to prevent the yellow authentication pop-up in the stock web browser. I'm not bothered about other apps. I'm also not really bothered about why Google has chosen to do this. The lock screen isn't an issue either.
One scenario might be: an acquaintance asks to borrow my phone to use the web browser. Being a little cheeky, they go to Google and sign in, without a password being required. I wish to prevent this. If they were using a web browser on my laptop, they'd need a password. I'm not happy that they don't require it on my phone.
Other apps can be trivially protected by an app-lock. I prefer not to use an app-lock for the web browser. And anyway, unlocking it for a friend to use just leaves the same problem. | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/32616",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/23043/"
] | The only solution I am aware of (besides hacking the code itself) is blocking permissions:
* [Permissions denied](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.stericson.permissions.donate)
* [PDroid](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.privacy.pdroid) privacy extension
Regarding PDroid: Currently, only Gingerbread is supported officially but you may find a working patcher for your CM9.1 firmware on [XDA](http://www.xda-developers.com/android/auto-patcher-receives-huge-update-gets-many-new-features/). Its Google Play description says: *PDroid allows you to block access to the following private data for any application regardless of its permissions: [...] **Account auth tokens**, [...]*
EDIT:
Tried PDroid and found it to work great.
You need a compatible ROM (CM, AOKP, PA,...) and [AutoPatcher](http://forum.xda-developers.com/showthread.php?t=1719408) (download [here](http://techerrata.com/browse/mateorod/pastime1971)) plus either the original [PDroid](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.privacy.pdroid) or the [PDroid2.0](http://forum.xda-developers.com/showthread.php?t=1923576) app (see 1st post/attachment). Note: v2.0 needs JellyBean, use the old one for ICS and below (the original author hasn't updated the app for some time and hasn't ported the original Gingerbread patches. Autopatcher includes both ported **original** PDroid patches and the v2.0 fork for JellyBean) | I had the same problem. I downloaded a separate browser (Skyfire) for "guests" to use and used an app lock to lock my main browser. The authentication option did not drop down in the second browser. |
32,616 | This question seems to be all over various forms, but i haven't yet found an answer.
On my Android phone, the stock web browser offers to sign in to my Google account when i visit Google websites. At the top of the screen appears a yellow pop-up listing all my Google account in a drop-down, and two buttons: "hide" and "sign in". Simply selecting an account and tapping "sign in" gives unchallenged access to my account via the web; no password is required.
This bothers me, since any malicious person who picks up my phone when I'm not looking can access my email, Google Drive, etc without knowing my password.
Let's assume that my screen-lock hasn't had time to kick in.... or we could assume it's easy to circumvent.
Enabling 2-stage sign in wouldn't help, since if someone has unauthorised access to my phone, they's receive the one-time token.
I've tried looking through all phone and browser settings to no avail. I've hunted through Google Dashboard, and cannot see how to disable this. I've signed out, but the yellow pop-up always appears, always giving unchallenged access.
An app-lock app might be an option, but is inconvenient, especially since friends often use each other's mobile browsers.
Installing a different browser may be an option, although again that's inconvenient, and would mean disabling the stock browser, which my come with other issues.
I'd really like to disable the yellow pop-up permanently, but i cannot seem to find out how to do this. Apologies if this has been answered already.
I'm running Android 4.0.4 Cyanogen mod 9.1.0 on a rooted Samsung Galaxy S GT-i9000.
---
I'm specifically looking for a way to prevent the yellow authentication pop-up in the stock web browser. I'm not bothered about other apps. I'm also not really bothered about why Google has chosen to do this. The lock screen isn't an issue either.
One scenario might be: an acquaintance asks to borrow my phone to use the web browser. Being a little cheeky, they go to Google and sign in, without a password being required. I wish to prevent this. If they were using a web browser on my laptop, they'd need a password. I'm not happy that they don't require it on my phone.
Other apps can be trivially protected by an app-lock. I prefer not to use an app-lock for the web browser. And anyway, unlocking it for a friend to use just leaves the same problem. | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/32616",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/23043/"
] | The only solution I am aware of (besides hacking the code itself) is blocking permissions:
* [Permissions denied](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.stericson.permissions.donate)
* [PDroid](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.privacy.pdroid) privacy extension
Regarding PDroid: Currently, only Gingerbread is supported officially but you may find a working patcher for your CM9.1 firmware on [XDA](http://www.xda-developers.com/android/auto-patcher-receives-huge-update-gets-many-new-features/). Its Google Play description says: *PDroid allows you to block access to the following private data for any application regardless of its permissions: [...] **Account auth tokens**, [...]*
EDIT:
Tried PDroid and found it to work great.
You need a compatible ROM (CM, AOKP, PA,...) and [AutoPatcher](http://forum.xda-developers.com/showthread.php?t=1719408) (download [here](http://techerrata.com/browse/mateorod/pastime1971)) plus either the original [PDroid](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.privacy.pdroid) or the [PDroid2.0](http://forum.xda-developers.com/showthread.php?t=1923576) app (see 1st post/attachment). Note: v2.0 needs JellyBean, use the old one for ICS and below (the original author hasn't updated the app for some time and hasn't ported the original Gingerbread patches. Autopatcher includes both ported **original** PDroid patches and the v2.0 fork for JellyBean) | Change your homepage to www.google.com or similar |
32,616 | This question seems to be all over various forms, but i haven't yet found an answer.
On my Android phone, the stock web browser offers to sign in to my Google account when i visit Google websites. At the top of the screen appears a yellow pop-up listing all my Google account in a drop-down, and two buttons: "hide" and "sign in". Simply selecting an account and tapping "sign in" gives unchallenged access to my account via the web; no password is required.
This bothers me, since any malicious person who picks up my phone when I'm not looking can access my email, Google Drive, etc without knowing my password.
Let's assume that my screen-lock hasn't had time to kick in.... or we could assume it's easy to circumvent.
Enabling 2-stage sign in wouldn't help, since if someone has unauthorised access to my phone, they's receive the one-time token.
I've tried looking through all phone and browser settings to no avail. I've hunted through Google Dashboard, and cannot see how to disable this. I've signed out, but the yellow pop-up always appears, always giving unchallenged access.
An app-lock app might be an option, but is inconvenient, especially since friends often use each other's mobile browsers.
Installing a different browser may be an option, although again that's inconvenient, and would mean disabling the stock browser, which my come with other issues.
I'd really like to disable the yellow pop-up permanently, but i cannot seem to find out how to do this. Apologies if this has been answered already.
I'm running Android 4.0.4 Cyanogen mod 9.1.0 on a rooted Samsung Galaxy S GT-i9000.
---
I'm specifically looking for a way to prevent the yellow authentication pop-up in the stock web browser. I'm not bothered about other apps. I'm also not really bothered about why Google has chosen to do this. The lock screen isn't an issue either.
One scenario might be: an acquaintance asks to borrow my phone to use the web browser. Being a little cheeky, they go to Google and sign in, without a password being required. I wish to prevent this. If they were using a web browser on my laptop, they'd need a password. I'm not happy that they don't require it on my phone.
Other apps can be trivially protected by an app-lock. I prefer not to use an app-lock for the web browser. And anyway, unlocking it for a friend to use just leaves the same problem. | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/32616",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/23043/"
] | The only solution I am aware of (besides hacking the code itself) is blocking permissions:
* [Permissions denied](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.stericson.permissions.donate)
* [PDroid](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.privacy.pdroid) privacy extension
Regarding PDroid: Currently, only Gingerbread is supported officially but you may find a working patcher for your CM9.1 firmware on [XDA](http://www.xda-developers.com/android/auto-patcher-receives-huge-update-gets-many-new-features/). Its Google Play description says: *PDroid allows you to block access to the following private data for any application regardless of its permissions: [...] **Account auth tokens**, [...]*
EDIT:
Tried PDroid and found it to work great.
You need a compatible ROM (CM, AOKP, PA,...) and [AutoPatcher](http://forum.xda-developers.com/showthread.php?t=1719408) (download [here](http://techerrata.com/browse/mateorod/pastime1971)) plus either the original [PDroid](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.privacy.pdroid) or the [PDroid2.0](http://forum.xda-developers.com/showthread.php?t=1923576) app (see 1st post/attachment). Note: v2.0 needs JellyBean, use the old one for ICS and below (the original author hasn't updated the app for some time and hasn't ported the original Gingerbread patches. Autopatcher includes both ported **original** PDroid patches and the v2.0 fork for JellyBean) | Disable "Google Account sign-in prompts," which allow Google to offer a faster way to sign in with your Google Account on supported third-party sites
<https://myaccount.google.com/permissions?pli=1> |
32,616 | This question seems to be all over various forms, but i haven't yet found an answer.
On my Android phone, the stock web browser offers to sign in to my Google account when i visit Google websites. At the top of the screen appears a yellow pop-up listing all my Google account in a drop-down, and two buttons: "hide" and "sign in". Simply selecting an account and tapping "sign in" gives unchallenged access to my account via the web; no password is required.
This bothers me, since any malicious person who picks up my phone when I'm not looking can access my email, Google Drive, etc without knowing my password.
Let's assume that my screen-lock hasn't had time to kick in.... or we could assume it's easy to circumvent.
Enabling 2-stage sign in wouldn't help, since if someone has unauthorised access to my phone, they's receive the one-time token.
I've tried looking through all phone and browser settings to no avail. I've hunted through Google Dashboard, and cannot see how to disable this. I've signed out, but the yellow pop-up always appears, always giving unchallenged access.
An app-lock app might be an option, but is inconvenient, especially since friends often use each other's mobile browsers.
Installing a different browser may be an option, although again that's inconvenient, and would mean disabling the stock browser, which my come with other issues.
I'd really like to disable the yellow pop-up permanently, but i cannot seem to find out how to do this. Apologies if this has been answered already.
I'm running Android 4.0.4 Cyanogen mod 9.1.0 on a rooted Samsung Galaxy S GT-i9000.
---
I'm specifically looking for a way to prevent the yellow authentication pop-up in the stock web browser. I'm not bothered about other apps. I'm also not really bothered about why Google has chosen to do this. The lock screen isn't an issue either.
One scenario might be: an acquaintance asks to borrow my phone to use the web browser. Being a little cheeky, they go to Google and sign in, without a password being required. I wish to prevent this. If they were using a web browser on my laptop, they'd need a password. I'm not happy that they don't require it on my phone.
Other apps can be trivially protected by an app-lock. I prefer not to use an app-lock for the web browser. And anyway, unlocking it for a friend to use just leaves the same problem. | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/32616",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/23043/"
] | I had the same problem. I downloaded a separate browser (Skyfire) for "guests" to use and used an app lock to lock my main browser. The authentication option did not drop down in the second browser. | Change your homepage to www.google.com or similar |
32,616 | This question seems to be all over various forms, but i haven't yet found an answer.
On my Android phone, the stock web browser offers to sign in to my Google account when i visit Google websites. At the top of the screen appears a yellow pop-up listing all my Google account in a drop-down, and two buttons: "hide" and "sign in". Simply selecting an account and tapping "sign in" gives unchallenged access to my account via the web; no password is required.
This bothers me, since any malicious person who picks up my phone when I'm not looking can access my email, Google Drive, etc without knowing my password.
Let's assume that my screen-lock hasn't had time to kick in.... or we could assume it's easy to circumvent.
Enabling 2-stage sign in wouldn't help, since if someone has unauthorised access to my phone, they's receive the one-time token.
I've tried looking through all phone and browser settings to no avail. I've hunted through Google Dashboard, and cannot see how to disable this. I've signed out, but the yellow pop-up always appears, always giving unchallenged access.
An app-lock app might be an option, but is inconvenient, especially since friends often use each other's mobile browsers.
Installing a different browser may be an option, although again that's inconvenient, and would mean disabling the stock browser, which my come with other issues.
I'd really like to disable the yellow pop-up permanently, but i cannot seem to find out how to do this. Apologies if this has been answered already.
I'm running Android 4.0.4 Cyanogen mod 9.1.0 on a rooted Samsung Galaxy S GT-i9000.
---
I'm specifically looking for a way to prevent the yellow authentication pop-up in the stock web browser. I'm not bothered about other apps. I'm also not really bothered about why Google has chosen to do this. The lock screen isn't an issue either.
One scenario might be: an acquaintance asks to borrow my phone to use the web browser. Being a little cheeky, they go to Google and sign in, without a password being required. I wish to prevent this. If they were using a web browser on my laptop, they'd need a password. I'm not happy that they don't require it on my phone.
Other apps can be trivially protected by an app-lock. I prefer not to use an app-lock for the web browser. And anyway, unlocking it for a friend to use just leaves the same problem. | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/32616",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/23043/"
] | Disable "Google Account sign-in prompts," which allow Google to offer a faster way to sign in with your Google Account on supported third-party sites
<https://myaccount.google.com/permissions?pli=1> | I had the same problem. I downloaded a separate browser (Skyfire) for "guests" to use and used an app lock to lock my main browser. The authentication option did not drop down in the second browser. |
32,616 | This question seems to be all over various forms, but i haven't yet found an answer.
On my Android phone, the stock web browser offers to sign in to my Google account when i visit Google websites. At the top of the screen appears a yellow pop-up listing all my Google account in a drop-down, and two buttons: "hide" and "sign in". Simply selecting an account and tapping "sign in" gives unchallenged access to my account via the web; no password is required.
This bothers me, since any malicious person who picks up my phone when I'm not looking can access my email, Google Drive, etc without knowing my password.
Let's assume that my screen-lock hasn't had time to kick in.... or we could assume it's easy to circumvent.
Enabling 2-stage sign in wouldn't help, since if someone has unauthorised access to my phone, they's receive the one-time token.
I've tried looking through all phone and browser settings to no avail. I've hunted through Google Dashboard, and cannot see how to disable this. I've signed out, but the yellow pop-up always appears, always giving unchallenged access.
An app-lock app might be an option, but is inconvenient, especially since friends often use each other's mobile browsers.
Installing a different browser may be an option, although again that's inconvenient, and would mean disabling the stock browser, which my come with other issues.
I'd really like to disable the yellow pop-up permanently, but i cannot seem to find out how to do this. Apologies if this has been answered already.
I'm running Android 4.0.4 Cyanogen mod 9.1.0 on a rooted Samsung Galaxy S GT-i9000.
---
I'm specifically looking for a way to prevent the yellow authentication pop-up in the stock web browser. I'm not bothered about other apps. I'm also not really bothered about why Google has chosen to do this. The lock screen isn't an issue either.
One scenario might be: an acquaintance asks to borrow my phone to use the web browser. Being a little cheeky, they go to Google and sign in, without a password being required. I wish to prevent this. If they were using a web browser on my laptop, they'd need a password. I'm not happy that they don't require it on my phone.
Other apps can be trivially protected by an app-lock. I prefer not to use an app-lock for the web browser. And anyway, unlocking it for a friend to use just leaves the same problem. | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/32616",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/23043/"
] | Disable "Google Account sign-in prompts," which allow Google to offer a faster way to sign in with your Google Account on supported third-party sites
<https://myaccount.google.com/permissions?pli=1> | Change your homepage to www.google.com or similar |
153,544 | I want to install a light distro on my netbook. (It currently has an out of date distro which is not upgradeable.) Here are the specs:
* eEE pc 4g GLAXY, LINUX 4g SSD, 512MB DDR2
* Intel Mobile cpu & Chipset
* WI-FI 802, 11B/G 10/100MBPS ETHERNET, 0.3 m CAMERA
Which Lubuntu should I use please?
Will everything work--including wireless? | 2012/06/20 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/153544",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/71980/"
] | Lubuntu 12.04 32-bit
====================
The latest version of lubuntu will support in your hardware. [Download it right now.](http://cdimages.ubuntu.com/lubuntu/releases/precise/release/lubuntu-12.04-desktop-i386.iso) :-) | Precise Pangolin of course.
Download it from [here](http://cdimage.ubuntu.com/lubuntu/releases/12.04/release/).
[Here](http://www.pendrivelinux.com/) you have USB Pendrive, it would help to install from usb stick. |
153,544 | I want to install a light distro on my netbook. (It currently has an out of date distro which is not upgradeable.) Here are the specs:
* eEE pc 4g GLAXY, LINUX 4g SSD, 512MB DDR2
* Intel Mobile cpu & Chipset
* WI-FI 802, 11B/G 10/100MBPS ETHERNET, 0.3 m CAMERA
Which Lubuntu should I use please?
Will everything work--including wireless? | 2012/06/20 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/153544",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/71980/"
] | Lubuntu 12.04 32-bit
====================
The latest version of lubuntu will support in your hardware. [Download it right now.](http://cdimages.ubuntu.com/lubuntu/releases/precise/release/lubuntu-12.04-desktop-i386.iso) :-) | You will need to be sure to install the 32-bit version of Lubuntu.
Your hardware should work completely without issue, but the install size of Lubuntu will come close to consuming your whole SSD. This is dangerous because Lubuntu is not as light as you might think it is. Once you open a couple of tabs with the default installed Chromium, you will be swapping to disk.
By default, the installer will partition a 512MB swap partition, leaving you with less than 3.2 GB hard drive space after being formatted.
It's gonna be a hard road. Good luck. :) |
153,544 | I want to install a light distro on my netbook. (It currently has an out of date distro which is not upgradeable.) Here are the specs:
* eEE pc 4g GLAXY, LINUX 4g SSD, 512MB DDR2
* Intel Mobile cpu & Chipset
* WI-FI 802, 11B/G 10/100MBPS ETHERNET, 0.3 m CAMERA
Which Lubuntu should I use please?
Will everything work--including wireless? | 2012/06/20 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/153544",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/71980/"
] | Precise Pangolin of course.
Download it from [here](http://cdimage.ubuntu.com/lubuntu/releases/12.04/release/).
[Here](http://www.pendrivelinux.com/) you have USB Pendrive, it would help to install from usb stick. | You will need to be sure to install the 32-bit version of Lubuntu.
Your hardware should work completely without issue, but the install size of Lubuntu will come close to consuming your whole SSD. This is dangerous because Lubuntu is not as light as you might think it is. Once you open a couple of tabs with the default installed Chromium, you will be swapping to disk.
By default, the installer will partition a 512MB swap partition, leaving you with less than 3.2 GB hard drive space after being formatted.
It's gonna be a hard road. Good luck. :) |
1,312,525 | I know about using Alt+Enter to add carriage returns to a cell, and they display fine at the top editing panel, but not within the cell itself.
If I turn on wrapping, it shows as multi line, but each line in the multi-line doesn't 'bleed' into the next column.
However, if I turn wrapping off, it stupidly becomes a single line of text. I want the best of both worlds, for it to display as multiline AND for the text to bleed over into the next column.
Is there a way to fix this? | 2018/04/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1312525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/112234/"
] | >
> However, if I turn wrapping off, it stupidly becomes a single line of
> text. I want the best of both worlds, for it to display as multiline
> AND for the text to bleed over into the next column.
>
>
> Is there a way to fix this?
>
>
>
**NO**, there is no way to fix that.
You play around with merging cells and text wrapping together, however it'll never be an optimal solution.
Please keep in mind that Excel is a spreadsheet application designed to manage tabular data; and it is not a document editor. | i had a text (of say 300 charcters) in a1 which came across a1..i10
to spread to multiple rows (a1,a2...10) this is what i did.
highlight the area (for example a2…c4, assuming your data is in single cell but extended upto a1 to i10)
home --> fill -->justify-->ok |
1,312,525 | I know about using Alt+Enter to add carriage returns to a cell, and they display fine at the top editing panel, but not within the cell itself.
If I turn on wrapping, it shows as multi line, but each line in the multi-line doesn't 'bleed' into the next column.
However, if I turn wrapping off, it stupidly becomes a single line of text. I want the best of both worlds, for it to display as multiline AND for the text to bleed over into the next column.
Is there a way to fix this? | 2018/04/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1312525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/112234/"
] | >
> However, if I turn wrapping off, it stupidly becomes a single line of
> text. I want the best of both worlds, for it to display as multiline
> AND for the text to bleed over into the next column.
>
>
> Is there a way to fix this?
>
>
>
**NO**, there is no way to fix that.
You play around with merging cells and text wrapping together, however it'll never be an optimal solution.
Please keep in mind that Excel is a spreadsheet application designed to manage tabular data; and it is not a document editor. | Adjust the row height to make all wrapped text visible
Select the cell or range for which you want to adjust the row height.
On the Home tab, in the Cells group, click Format.
Under Cell Size, do one of the following:
To automatically adjust the row height, click AutoFit Row Height.
To specify a row height, click Row Height, and then type the row height that you want in the Row height box. |
1,312,525 | I know about using Alt+Enter to add carriage returns to a cell, and they display fine at the top editing panel, but not within the cell itself.
If I turn on wrapping, it shows as multi line, but each line in the multi-line doesn't 'bleed' into the next column.
However, if I turn wrapping off, it stupidly becomes a single line of text. I want the best of both worlds, for it to display as multiline AND for the text to bleed over into the next column.
Is there a way to fix this? | 2018/04/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1312525",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/112234/"
] | Adjust the row height to make all wrapped text visible
Select the cell or range for which you want to adjust the row height.
On the Home tab, in the Cells group, click Format.
Under Cell Size, do one of the following:
To automatically adjust the row height, click AutoFit Row Height.
To specify a row height, click Row Height, and then type the row height that you want in the Row height box. | i had a text (of say 300 charcters) in a1 which came across a1..i10
to spread to multiple rows (a1,a2...10) this is what i did.
highlight the area (for example a2…c4, assuming your data is in single cell but extended upto a1 to i10)
home --> fill -->justify-->ok |
1,688 | Working with 19th-century deeds, I often find the wife has executed the deed in what is described as an act of relinquishing her "right of Dower." (Corrections to the way I have described that execution are welcome.)
Below is an example of one such deed, ca1830. The relevant clause reads, "And I Asenath Preston wife of the said William Preston in consideration aforesaid do hereby relinquish my right of Dower in the before mentioned premises."
1. I'm interested both in what Asenath was "relinquishing" and why.
2. The deed obviously calls Asenath his wife, but is there any other meaning can be drawn from the wife's act to "relinquish her right of Dower."
As to the second part of the question, some context/back story. For ten years, we could not find evidence about *how* William Preston of Defiance, Ohio, had acquired the subject property interest in Rumney, New Hampshire.[1](https://familysearch.org/pal:/MM9.3.1/TH-1-17962-8699-92?cc=1614804&wc=MMYS-513:850153432) Knowing that [William and Asenath had married in 1820](https://familysearch.org/pal:/MM9.3.1/TH-1-17962-8699-92?cc=1614804&wc=MMYS-513:850153432), at one time I hoped Asenath's release of dower might provide a clue about *when* and/or in *what hame* the interest had been acquired.[2](https://picasaweb.google.com/111699334742146831497/GfhSe?authkey=Gv1sRgCP-uq8uMzZW02wE#5802458231415450706)
Graphic follows; click [HERE](https://picasaweb.google.com/111699334742146831497/GfhSe?authkey=Gv1sRgCP-uq8uMzZW02wE#5802458231415450706) to view a resizable version of the deed.
[1](https://familysearch.org/pal:/MM9.3.1/TH-1-17962-8699-92?cc=1614804&wc=MMYS-513:850153432) The 1829 sale (this deed) identified the underlying property only as "the lands which Jabes H. Weld & Oliver F. Weld conveyed to Daniel Easton by their deed dated 21st Nov A.D. 1803 & recorded in the Register of Deeds for [Grafton County book 37, p. 557]. Even intense research in the Grafton deed books did not provide any related transaction between William Preston and either the Welds, their business or Daniel Eaton.
[2](https://picasaweb.google.com/111699334742146831497/GfhSe?authkey=Gv1sRgCP-uq8uMzZW02wE#5802458231415450706) At the time, I asked myself questions like this:
* The entry for this deed in the registry book does not carry the wife's name (it reads, "William Preston to Collins Preston"). Is my understanding correct that she was not a "grantor" of the deed, even though her signature (or mark) appears? (Including that when I cite this source, the deed is described as "William Preston to Collins Preston," not "William and Asenath Preston to Collins Preston.")
* Does "Dower" attach regardless of when the property was acquired (before or during a marriage), or would it only attached if the property had been acquired before the marriage? Only if acquired during the marriage?
* If a wife releases her Dower, does that mean the property had been held by the husband as his "sole and separate" asset? Would the wife have had a right of Dower if she had been a co-owner? What if the couple had held the property as joint tenants (joint tenancy)?
* What if the property had been held by the wife? Would the husband have been required to release his "dower?" | 2012/10/23 | [
"https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/1688",
"https://genealogy.stackexchange.com",
"https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/users/7/"
] | A Dower means that a Husband's estate or a portion thereof, could be assumed by a Wife and that she may be entitled to the use of said estate for her lifetime after the Husbands death. Generally, considered restitution for services rendered; such as, nurture and rearing of children. The amount of the Dower, or whether a Wife was entitled to it or not, was set by state statute.
The link provided below gives a broader legal perspective concerning a "Right of Dower."
<http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/dower>
A release of Dower would be considered a waiver of this right or claim, expediting an alternate plan for the said estate. | As US law was derived from English law, I suspect that in the 1830s New Hampshire/Ohio, married women could not be the legal owners of property. However, a married woman could still have interests in property such as dower, freebench, and widow's part. People other than the legal owner could also have interests in the property such as mortgage holders and trustees for minors. A purchaser would require a clear title to the property, so all parties with interests in the property as well as the legal owner would need to relinquish thier rights. That is why Asenath Preston relinquishes her right to dower in the deed. |
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