qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
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48,620 | I would like to build a small robot and was wondering if a particular configuration of steering would even be possible and stable.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Jy8hw.jpg)
What I would like is to have the two rigid axles mounted on a pivoting point like the image. The pivoting points would be free to move on their axes without restrain. Steering should be achieved via the different speed of the 4 wheels (one motor on each wheel).
Problem is, if I start accelerating the outer wheels, to me it looks like it would start going in a diagonal direction, with both axles keeping parallel to each other rather than achieving something like the picture, even though the outer wheels on a corner should go faster than the inner wheels. Is this configuration even possible? | 2021/12/06 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/48620",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/36082/"
] | You have too many degrees of freedom to use it effectively without feedback. If you add a couple of potentiometers to detect the angles of the pivots, you should be able to compensate appropriately for it. Essentially the robot needs to know which way each wheel is pointing to determine which way and how much to try to turn it. The rest of "stable" steering (relative to the robot) will depend on whether or not you can process the feedback loop fast enough and your feedback algorithm.
In theory one person could try to learn how to process all 4 wheels at once while observing the robot for feedback, but to make it easy enough to call stable for the average person, it would involve creative controls. Humans tend to have 2 eyes and 2 hands. Steering wheel, gas pedal for car. Left, Right for tank drive. Are the twos a coincidence? I dare say I'm not cut out to be a puppeteer. | You can use 3 gears in series - steering in the middle that rotates the gears on the axles in opposite directions by the force couple. |
24,949 | We are using Civi 5.0.1 on Wordpress 4.9.1
Recently I asked if anyone is using Payflow as your payment processor. Not a single person could answer. So I don't believe anyone is using Payflow on their civi install. Also after a lot of troubleshooting, I have come to the conclusion that Payflow is no longer compatible with Civi.
OUr organization needs a reliable payment processor that can process credit cards and recurring payments. We are a U.S. based non-profit. Can anyone tell me what is the most popular processor to use with Civi? I looked into IATS Payments. Are they a reliable options?
Thank you. | 2018/05/15 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/24949",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/4956/"
] | There likely isn't one clear winner here.
But authorize.net has been my go-to recently. That and PayPal Pro are built-in to Civi out of the box.
The Stripe payment processor extension is operating on 855 installs. iATS Payments is on 602 installs.
Here is a very helpful review from Gingko Street Labs which also addresses the 4 aforementioned processors: <https://ginkgostreet.com/content/evaluating-payment-processor-options>.
I'm on WP as well. | The key to selecting a Payment Processor is the functionality you’re looking for.
The iATS extension is probably the single-most sophisticated payment-processing integration (for US/CA) - especially re: recurring contribution functionality and the abilty to control/edit/update/schedule recurring contributions from the CiviCRM side.
And finally please note that the iATS Payments Extension now also ships with CiviCRM Core. |
24,949 | We are using Civi 5.0.1 on Wordpress 4.9.1
Recently I asked if anyone is using Payflow as your payment processor. Not a single person could answer. So I don't believe anyone is using Payflow on their civi install. Also after a lot of troubleshooting, I have come to the conclusion that Payflow is no longer compatible with Civi.
OUr organization needs a reliable payment processor that can process credit cards and recurring payments. We are a U.S. based non-profit. Can anyone tell me what is the most popular processor to use with Civi? I looked into IATS Payments. Are they a reliable options?
Thank you. | 2018/05/15 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/24949",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/4956/"
] | There likely isn't one clear winner here.
But authorize.net has been my go-to recently. That and PayPal Pro are built-in to Civi out of the box.
The Stripe payment processor extension is operating on 855 installs. iATS Payments is on 602 installs.
Here is a very helpful review from Gingko Street Labs which also addresses the 4 aforementioned processors: <https://ginkgostreet.com/content/evaluating-payment-processor-options>.
I'm on WP as well. | I totally agree with the answers given and want to emphasize to the choice of payment processor is context dependent.
It does not only depend on the given functionality but also on the costs.
Some charge a fee per transaction, some a monthly fee, some a combination. So the total cost for a payment processor could differ from organisation to organisation.
So it is a decission you have to make. And implementing a payment processor is not difficult (from a developers perspective) so if you found a payment processor you can probably aslo find a developer to implement it in CiviCRM.
ps. the Omnipay extension contains quite a bit of payment processor implementations: <https://github.com/eileenmcnaughton/nz.co.fuzion.omnipaymultiprocessor> |
24,949 | We are using Civi 5.0.1 on Wordpress 4.9.1
Recently I asked if anyone is using Payflow as your payment processor. Not a single person could answer. So I don't believe anyone is using Payflow on their civi install. Also after a lot of troubleshooting, I have come to the conclusion that Payflow is no longer compatible with Civi.
OUr organization needs a reliable payment processor that can process credit cards and recurring payments. We are a U.S. based non-profit. Can anyone tell me what is the most popular processor to use with Civi? I looked into IATS Payments. Are they a reliable options?
Thank you. | 2018/05/15 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/24949",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/4956/"
] | There likely isn't one clear winner here.
But authorize.net has been my go-to recently. That and PayPal Pro are built-in to Civi out of the box.
The Stripe payment processor extension is operating on 855 installs. iATS Payments is on 602 installs.
Here is a very helpful review from Gingko Street Labs which also addresses the 4 aforementioned processors: <https://ginkgostreet.com/content/evaluating-payment-processor-options>.
I'm on WP as well. | We use Stripe Extension (com.drastikbydesign.stripe), which is very easy to implement (to open an account, you just have to provide de Bank IBAN) |
24,949 | We are using Civi 5.0.1 on Wordpress 4.9.1
Recently I asked if anyone is using Payflow as your payment processor. Not a single person could answer. So I don't believe anyone is using Payflow on their civi install. Also after a lot of troubleshooting, I have come to the conclusion that Payflow is no longer compatible with Civi.
OUr organization needs a reliable payment processor that can process credit cards and recurring payments. We are a U.S. based non-profit. Can anyone tell me what is the most popular processor to use with Civi? I looked into IATS Payments. Are they a reliable options?
Thank you. | 2018/05/15 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/24949",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/4956/"
] | The key to selecting a Payment Processor is the functionality you’re looking for.
The iATS extension is probably the single-most sophisticated payment-processing integration (for US/CA) - especially re: recurring contribution functionality and the abilty to control/edit/update/schedule recurring contributions from the CiviCRM side.
And finally please note that the iATS Payments Extension now also ships with CiviCRM Core. | I totally agree with the answers given and want to emphasize to the choice of payment processor is context dependent.
It does not only depend on the given functionality but also on the costs.
Some charge a fee per transaction, some a monthly fee, some a combination. So the total cost for a payment processor could differ from organisation to organisation.
So it is a decission you have to make. And implementing a payment processor is not difficult (from a developers perspective) so if you found a payment processor you can probably aslo find a developer to implement it in CiviCRM.
ps. the Omnipay extension contains quite a bit of payment processor implementations: <https://github.com/eileenmcnaughton/nz.co.fuzion.omnipaymultiprocessor> |
24,949 | We are using Civi 5.0.1 on Wordpress 4.9.1
Recently I asked if anyone is using Payflow as your payment processor. Not a single person could answer. So I don't believe anyone is using Payflow on their civi install. Also after a lot of troubleshooting, I have come to the conclusion that Payflow is no longer compatible with Civi.
OUr organization needs a reliable payment processor that can process credit cards and recurring payments. We are a U.S. based non-profit. Can anyone tell me what is the most popular processor to use with Civi? I looked into IATS Payments. Are they a reliable options?
Thank you. | 2018/05/15 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/24949",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/4956/"
] | We use Stripe Extension (com.drastikbydesign.stripe), which is very easy to implement (to open an account, you just have to provide de Bank IBAN) | I totally agree with the answers given and want to emphasize to the choice of payment processor is context dependent.
It does not only depend on the given functionality but also on the costs.
Some charge a fee per transaction, some a monthly fee, some a combination. So the total cost for a payment processor could differ from organisation to organisation.
So it is a decission you have to make. And implementing a payment processor is not difficult (from a developers perspective) so if you found a payment processor you can probably aslo find a developer to implement it in CiviCRM.
ps. the Omnipay extension contains quite a bit of payment processor implementations: <https://github.com/eileenmcnaughton/nz.co.fuzion.omnipaymultiprocessor> |
654,084 | I have a working VM accessed through Workstation 10. I have imported the files to ESXI 5.5, then "Add[ed it] to Inventory" through the Datastore Browser. When I try to Power On the imported VM, I get the following error:
>
> Failed to start the virtual machine.
> Module DiskEarly power on failed.
>
>
> Cannot open the disk '/vmfs/volumes/549538b8-a387b068-348e-001b21ab99b8/Docuware/Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 (DW)-000002.vmdk' or one of the snapshot disks it depends on.
>
>
> The system cannot find the file specified
>
>
> VMware ESX cannot find the virtual disk "/vmfs/volumes/549538b8-a387b068-348e-001b21ab99b8/Docuware/Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 (DW)-000002.vmdk". Verify the path is valid and try again.
>
>
>
I have verified the filename and it exists in the referenced path. I do not know how to verify the GUID, but I assume it is correct.
Any thoughts on this?? | 2014/12/21 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/654084",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/260774/"
] | That's not the best way to migrate from W10 to ESXi, export the VM as an OVF/OVA and import it - basically, as I'm sure you've figured out, the file paths are wrong doing it the way you have. Alternatively just edit the .vmx file but to be honest it's just quicker to export/import. | This is probably caused by the issue described in <http://kb.vmware.com/kb/2036572>: ESXi does no longer support virtual disks of hosted formats (basically the Workstation format) by default.
See the KB article for help and workaround. |
1,001,459 | After some tests I have found that the BIOS is broken.
I have tried to make sure it is the BIOS that's broken. And after unplugging everything unnecessary the same result remains.
And now I would like to replace the broken motherboard with a new one without a direct reinstallation of the operative system. Is this possible?
On the hard drive windows 8.1 is installed and on the motherboard a AMD chip is found.
Is the installation on the hard drive possible to use again? Can the motherboard be upgraded without a reinstallation beeing necessarily? | 2015/11/16 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1001459",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/522660/"
] | Until now I have transferred HDDs with installed Windows 8.1 between different hardware platforms many time and without a single problem. Especially it is very smooth when you are exchanging the platform for the same one (Intel for Intel, AMD for AMD), but actually I have not experienced any issues until now whatsoever.
It was the era of Windows XP where changing the platform was a matter of luck, but with Windows 8.1 (even with Windows 7) I didn't have any issues... and I'm running my own computer service, meaning that things like this happens daily
Until now, I didn't have any issue with Windows 10 as well
And I am very grateful to Microsoft for this, as this saved my life (time and money) | No. Windows is really picky about drivers and hardware changes like that and, even if you manage to make it boot with a new motherboard, you'll likely have stability problems. Save yourself the headaches. Get your data off the hard drive and reinstall Windows. |
36,389 | According to Mormon Doctrine, Adam and Eve lived in [Adam-ondi-Ahman](https://www.lds.org/scriptures/gs/adam-ondi-ahman?lang=eng&letter=a). Which was revealed to Joseph Smith to be located in Missouri (see [D&C 116:1](https://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/116?lang=eng)).
This would mean that unless Adam's posterity went on some epic intercontinental journey between Adam and Noah's time, that Noah likely built the ark not too far from Missouri, and sailed it from America all the way to the Eastern Continent.
Do Mormons believe the ark was built on the American continent? And that everyone who lived before Noah dwelt in America? | 2015/01/14 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/36389",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/14272/"
] | Yes
===
The answer to this question can be found in the LDS Institute Old Testament student manual (the textbook for REL 301 at BYU), it is believed that Noah and his family lived somewhere in North America:
>
> Genesis 8:4. Where Did Noah Land When the Ark Came to Rest?
> ===========================================================
>
>
> **It should be remembered that the Garden of Eden was in the land now
> known as *North America*** (see Reading [2-17](https://www.lds.org/manual/old-testament-student-manual-genesis-2-samuel/genesis-1-2-the-creation?lang=eng)). **Although it is not known
> how far men had moved from that general location in the sixteen
> hundred years between the fall of Adam and the Flood, it is likely
> that Noah and his family lived *somewhere in the general area.*** The
> Bible says that they landed on Mount Ararat when the ark finally came
> to rest. No location for Mount Ararat is given in the scriptures. The
> traditional site is a mountain found in northeastern Turkey near the
> border of Russia. Commenting on the distance traveled, Elder Joseph
> Fielding Smith said:
>
>
> “We read that it was in the seventeenth day of the second month when
> the great deep was broken up, and the rain was forty days. The Ark
> landed at Ararat on the seventeenth day of the seventh month,
> therefore there were five full months of travel when the Lord drove
> the Ark to its final destiny. Without any question a considerable
> distance separated the point where the Ark commenced the journey and
> where it landed. There can be no question to contradict the fact that
> during the flood great changes were made on the face of the earth. The
> land surface was in the process of division into continents. The
> rivers mentioned in Genesis were rivers that existed in the garden of
> Eden long before the land was divided into continents and islands.
> [Genesis 2:11.]” (Answers to Gospel Questions, 2:94.)
>
>
>
---
Source: [Genesis 4–11: The Patriarchs](https://www.lds.org/manual/old-testament-student-manual-genesis-2-samuel/genesis-4-11-the-patriarchs?lang=eng). Old Testament Student Manual Genesis-2 Samuel, (1980), 50–59 | The belief that the Ark could have been "made in America" isn't restricted to the LDS. Not that a claim is typically made that Noah was "mericun", but from a strict reading of Genesis, there is no hard and fast place where the ark would have been constructed, because for many strict creationists, the flood irrevocably altered the earth's entire geography, under a theory known as "[catastrophic plate tectonics](http://www.globalflood.org/)."
A hard-core creationist, such as Ken Hamm or the Institute for Creation Research, would have very little problem with the notion of the Ark being built in Missouri.
Genesis 7:11 describes the beginning of the flood this way:
>
> 11 In the six hundredth year of Noah's life, in the second month, on the seventeenth day of the month, on that day all the fountains of the great deep burst forth, and the windows of the heavens were opened.
>
>
>
Traditionally many young-earthers like to ascribe great violence to these fountains. Both [Answers In Genesis](https://answersingenesis.org/geology/plate-tectonics/can-catastrophic-plate-tectonics-explain-flood-geology/) and the [ICR](http://www.icr.org/article/catastrophic-plate-tectonics-flood-model/) have written papers reconciling plate tectonics with the flood, suggesting that the flood completely rearranged the planet.
To wit:
>
> In 1859 Antonio Snider proposed that rapid, horizontal divergence of crustal plates occurred during Noah’s Flood. Modern plate tectonics theory is now conflated with assumptions of uniformity of rate and ideas of continental “drift.” Catastrophic plate tectonics theories, such as Snider proposed more than a century ago, appear capable of explaining a wide variety of data—including biblical and geologic data which the slow tectonics theories are incapable of explaining. We would like to propose a catastrophic plate tectonics theory as a framework for Earth history. ... The Flood was initiated as slabs of oceanic floor broke loose and subducted along thousands of kilometers of pre-Flood continental margins
>
>
>
and
>
> Because of the scientific community’s commitment to the uniformitarian assumptions and framework for earth history, most geologists take for granted that the movement of the earth’s plates has been slow and gradual over long eons. ... On the other hand, many other observations are incompatible with slow-and-gradual plate tectonics. While the seafloor surface is relatively smooth, zebra-stripe magnetic patterns are obtained when the ship-towed instrument (magnetometer) observations average over mile-sized patches
>
>
>
While the ark is believed to have rested on Mount Ararat in Turkey, its beginning point is never pointed out in the text. A pre-Flood [Pangaea](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pangaea) would, for the above groups, be rather irrelevant to the modern globe. (In particular, Snider pointed to the fact in Genesis 1:9-10 that the dry land was gathered into a single place.)
Under a "fast-tectonic action," where Noah lived before the Flood could have been Missouri or Madras just as easily as Mount Ararat. |
410,032 | Presently my RAM is 2GB. I heard that in linux we can get extra memory to RAM from the harddisk by using swap partition. What is the procedure for that?
 here in the pics i'm giving my system info.
 | 2014/01/24 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/410032",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/229898/"
] | In a default Ubuntu installation you will always have a swap partition which will be created by the installer. In your setup it is the partition `/sda5` but this location may change from system to system.
This partition will obviously not be able to increase the physical RAM but it is storage memory on your hard disk reserved for the kernel to use whenever we run short of physical RAM. This may never happen on a system with 2 GB of RAM unless we perform very memory demanding tasks (e.g.
video processing, huge image processing) or have many applications running simultaneously.
Note that memory usage on swap is extremely slow, so we do not really want to have that other than in emergency situations.
In case you need a larger swap you can do so after installation either by creating a larger swap partition:
* [How do I add a swap partition after system installation?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/33697/adding-swap-partition-after-system-installation)
or by adding a swap on a file (which can not be used for hibernation):
* [Adding a new swap file. How to edit fstab to enable swap after reboot?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/126018/adding-a-new-swap-file-how-to-edit-fstab-to-enable-swap-after-reboot)
More about swap can also be found here:
* [Why is swap being used even though I have plenty of free RAM?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/157793/why-is-swap-being-used-even-though-i-have-plenty-of-free-ram)
* [How do I configure swappiness?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/103915/how-do-i-configure-swappiness)
* [I have 16GB RAM. Do I need 32GB swap?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/49109/i-have-16gb-ram-do-i-need-32gb-swap) | You've piece of (hardware) RAM of 2GB and you can't 'create' more RAM with software. But I think I know what you've heard of.
From [Linux.com](https://www.linux.com/news/software/applications/8208-all-about-linux-swap-space)
>
> When the system requires more memory than is physically available, the kernel swaps out less used pages and gives memory to the current application (process) that needs the memory immediately.
>
>
>
So when you have a SWAP space that is twice as big as your memory (in your case a swap space of 4 GB) your system will be able to putt the entire memory on swap space, and read the other 2 GB in on the memory. In other words, it is able to swap the entire content of your memory with the 2GB data on the swap disk. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Because it is rude
------------------
There is a concept of 'true names' and that to know someones name is to hold power over them. This would mean they still have names, but avoid using them out of social pressure / religious fear. This would mean that asking them their name would be considered extremely rude to them, and telling them your name might be mistaken as a confession of love (or to a group, make you harder to trust, as they may believe your mind may no longer be your own if you give your name freely, or feel compelled to offer a false name). A society like this might also give people superfluous titles like "The Doctor" or "The Master" or "The Head of Cabbage" | Each individual in the city has a unique purpose, a strict and unchangeable role given by the society. I.e there is one doctor, one postman, one teacher, and so on. So each individual is described only by their function and nothing else. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Individualism is disincentivised
================================
I once read a book where it was forbidden to say "I" in order that people might be less self-centered. Banning names could serve a similar idea - each individual *only has meaning* as part of a political unit of some sort. "Head of the Smith family" if you want to preserve last names, "Cobbler from Main St," "Sergeant of the 9th Guards Batallion."
Names are power
===============
The idea of "true names" is common - know someone's name and you have power over them. While people do have names, they never use them, for letting another person know their name would open them up to magical control. | The city is named **Iagerf** and is in fact a military base, every resident there is a soldier.
The base location isn't secret, you could easily find it in maps and drive to there by car. However, it's purpose is very secret. Only authorized people are allowed to enter.
If you ask to any random resident there, what is his name, he will promptly answer "John Smith". Get another random resident, and the answer will be "John Smith". A third one, and his name is "John Smith".
Oh, you found a woman there, her name is "Susan". There is another woman over there, she's called "Susan". The girl in the other street is also called "Susan".
So, what is its purpose afterall? Human genetic engineering! The purpose is to create a perfect loyal army, made of clones. Those people are severely trained and brainwashed since their birth, so they don't have any sense of identity and won't trust nor socialize with outsiders. By the way, this is the reason why the city is called **Iagerf** - **I**deal **A**rmy **G**enetic **E**ngineering **R**esearch **F**acility.
Iagerfians do occasionally have some contact with outsiders, either because insiders will ocasionally leave the city for some days or because the city is visited by authorized outsiders. Outsiders, however, will be puzzled observing that those people all have the same names, have very similar looking faces and don't speak too much about their own lives. If they have a question to solve with some of them, it would be really hard to tell which one.
Since insiders rarely go outside and outsiders rarely come inside the city, it will be hard to tell that what is going on. Outside of the city, you will never be able to spot a large number of insiders together, they were trained to avoid being closer one to the other when outside so people will not perceive that there is something fishy going on. This way, most of the outsiders will become unaware that they are all very similar in appearance.
Those people may also possess identification cards, driving licenses, banking accounts, etc, all with the same names. However, they are always exchanging those between theirselves, with the purpose of making them as collective and as non-identifiable as possible. To make things worse, they all have a health condition that make them have really weak digital imprints. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Because names cause corruption.
-------------------------------
Names have the ability to hold immense amounts of power. I bet most people who read this know of some famous celebrities, or their leaders. If Barack Obama was simply known as 'Leader', then in a few months, Donald trump was known as 'Leader', people would be much more inclined to judge people based on how well they perform, rather than hold a sentiment to them. This is because both of the people are known as 'Leader', but may perform differently.
you wouldn't buy a product because 'Basket Ball Player' told you to. However, you may purchase that product if Lebron James told you to.
The fact is, names hold too much power in society, and it would fix many performing issues if people were known by their titles.
This would also mean that anyone unemployed would probably be referred to as vagabond, encouraging a working-class society.
it would also be hard to distinguish children, as they don't have titles. people would have to say something like "get over here, kid with the curly hair" | The city is named **Iagerf** and is in fact a military base, every resident there is a soldier.
The base location isn't secret, you could easily find it in maps and drive to there by car. However, it's purpose is very secret. Only authorized people are allowed to enter.
If you ask to any random resident there, what is his name, he will promptly answer "John Smith". Get another random resident, and the answer will be "John Smith". A third one, and his name is "John Smith".
Oh, you found a woman there, her name is "Susan". There is another woman over there, she's called "Susan". The girl in the other street is also called "Susan".
So, what is its purpose afterall? Human genetic engineering! The purpose is to create a perfect loyal army, made of clones. Those people are severely trained and brainwashed since their birth, so they don't have any sense of identity and won't trust nor socialize with outsiders. By the way, this is the reason why the city is called **Iagerf** - **I**deal **A**rmy **G**enetic **E**ngineering **R**esearch **F**acility.
Iagerfians do occasionally have some contact with outsiders, either because insiders will ocasionally leave the city for some days or because the city is visited by authorized outsiders. Outsiders, however, will be puzzled observing that those people all have the same names, have very similar looking faces and don't speak too much about their own lives. If they have a question to solve with some of them, it would be really hard to tell which one.
Since insiders rarely go outside and outsiders rarely come inside the city, it will be hard to tell that what is going on. Outside of the city, you will never be able to spot a large number of insiders together, they were trained to avoid being closer one to the other when outside so people will not perceive that there is something fishy going on. This way, most of the outsiders will become unaware that they are all very similar in appearance.
Those people may also possess identification cards, driving licenses, banking accounts, etc, all with the same names. However, they are always exchanging those between theirselves, with the purpose of making them as collective and as non-identifiable as possible. To make things worse, they all have a health condition that make them have really weak digital imprints. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Because it is rude
------------------
There is a concept of 'true names' and that to know someones name is to hold power over them. This would mean they still have names, but avoid using them out of social pressure / religious fear. This would mean that asking them their name would be considered extremely rude to them, and telling them your name might be mistaken as a confession of love (or to a group, make you harder to trust, as they may believe your mind may no longer be your own if you give your name freely, or feel compelled to offer a false name). A society like this might also give people superfluous titles like "The Doctor" or "The Master" or "The Head of Cabbage" | Using a true name could be bad luck, think of the many books where people find out a **true name** (in some old/true language). Of course here the language has some kind of magical property (see the Eragon cycle by Paolini, or The Name of the Wind by Patrick Rothfuss, and I'm sure I'm forgetting a few here, feel free to add in the comments).
In George RR Martin's A Song of Ice and Fire, the Unsullied do not use their original names because they got caught by slavers while they used their original name. Instead, **they choose a new name each day**. Grey Worm keeps the name 'Grey Worm' in the end because it is the name he had when Daenerys freed him, and it is therefore a lucky name. Also in ASOIAF, Missandei refers to herself as **'this one'**, instead of 'I', we don't know why. Arya and the Faceless Men refer to Arya as 'a girl', because she needs to let go of her old identity and become **'no one'**. Gilly refuses to give her son a name because he is too young and could die (in the TV series, he's called 'Little Sam'). The Night's Watch members give up their family names and titles (though not their first names). These examples, except for the baby, all indicate that the collective is more important than the individual.
**Names are strongly tied to identity**. If you have a society with a strong collective feel, where individual accomplishments only count toward the greater good, there might be no need for a strong individual identity. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | **Old-fashioned family naming fusing with modern street-naming.**
In Europe, many family names were tied to either a profession or a place of residence. John Smith was a blacksmith, Benny Hill had a farm on a hill. Today, in many American cities, there is a numbering system for streets that replaces actual street names. For instance, the "3200 block" denoting a block in the Chicago street system or "corner of E 42nd Street and 2nd Avenue" in New York.
Now if John Smith sets up shop in 3200 block, he is known to all as "the smith on 3200 block". As profession + precise location is enough to distinguish him, there's no need for "John", which was just causing people to confuse him with the 83 other Johns in that little town.
Benny Hill meanwhile, for whom surnames and location is one and the same, changes his surname to 3215, that being his house number. (Note that prior to naming reforms in the 20th century, it was common for farmers that moved onto a new farm to take that farmname as their new surname) So he's Benny 3215, but he is only referred to as "the bachelor on 3215" or "clerk 3215" or even "3215" in his working life and official documents. The city's administration treats the houses as the basic unit of the city and do not tax people, but households. They talk about "the annual income of 3392" and the number of people living there is just a property of household 3392. Benny may still call himself "Benny", but there will be no record of that for posterity. | Using a true name could be bad luck, think of the many books where people find out a **true name** (in some old/true language). Of course here the language has some kind of magical property (see the Eragon cycle by Paolini, or The Name of the Wind by Patrick Rothfuss, and I'm sure I'm forgetting a few here, feel free to add in the comments).
In George RR Martin's A Song of Ice and Fire, the Unsullied do not use their original names because they got caught by slavers while they used their original name. Instead, **they choose a new name each day**. Grey Worm keeps the name 'Grey Worm' in the end because it is the name he had when Daenerys freed him, and it is therefore a lucky name. Also in ASOIAF, Missandei refers to herself as **'this one'**, instead of 'I', we don't know why. Arya and the Faceless Men refer to Arya as 'a girl', because she needs to let go of her old identity and become **'no one'**. Gilly refuses to give her son a name because he is too young and could die (in the TV series, he's called 'Little Sam'). The Night's Watch members give up their family names and titles (though not their first names). These examples, except for the baby, all indicate that the collective is more important than the individual.
**Names are strongly tied to identity**. If you have a society with a strong collective feel, where individual accomplishments only count toward the greater good, there might be no need for a strong individual identity. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Because names cause corruption.
-------------------------------
Names have the ability to hold immense amounts of power. I bet most people who read this know of some famous celebrities, or their leaders. If Barack Obama was simply known as 'Leader', then in a few months, Donald trump was known as 'Leader', people would be much more inclined to judge people based on how well they perform, rather than hold a sentiment to them. This is because both of the people are known as 'Leader', but may perform differently.
you wouldn't buy a product because 'Basket Ball Player' told you to. However, you may purchase that product if Lebron James told you to.
The fact is, names hold too much power in society, and it would fix many performing issues if people were known by their titles.
This would also mean that anyone unemployed would probably be referred to as vagabond, encouraging a working-class society.
it would also be hard to distinguish children, as they don't have titles. people would have to say something like "get over here, kid with the curly hair" | **Old-fashioned family naming fusing with modern street-naming.**
In Europe, many family names were tied to either a profession or a place of residence. John Smith was a blacksmith, Benny Hill had a farm on a hill. Today, in many American cities, there is a numbering system for streets that replaces actual street names. For instance, the "3200 block" denoting a block in the Chicago street system or "corner of E 42nd Street and 2nd Avenue" in New York.
Now if John Smith sets up shop in 3200 block, he is known to all as "the smith on 3200 block". As profession + precise location is enough to distinguish him, there's no need for "John", which was just causing people to confuse him with the 83 other Johns in that little town.
Benny Hill meanwhile, for whom surnames and location is one and the same, changes his surname to 3215, that being his house number. (Note that prior to naming reforms in the 20th century, it was common for farmers that moved onto a new farm to take that farmname as their new surname) So he's Benny 3215, but he is only referred to as "the bachelor on 3215" or "clerk 3215" or even "3215" in his working life and official documents. The city's administration treats the houses as the basic unit of the city and do not tax people, but households. They talk about "the annual income of 3392" and the number of people living there is just a property of household 3392. Benny may still call himself "Benny", but there will be no record of that for posterity. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Because it is rude
------------------
There is a concept of 'true names' and that to know someones name is to hold power over them. This would mean they still have names, but avoid using them out of social pressure / religious fear. This would mean that asking them their name would be considered extremely rude to them, and telling them your name might be mistaken as a confession of love (or to a group, make you harder to trust, as they may believe your mind may no longer be your own if you give your name freely, or feel compelled to offer a false name). A society like this might also give people superfluous titles like "The Doctor" or "The Master" or "The Head of Cabbage" | Your 'name' is what you do
==========================
Every doctor is called "doctor". Every blacksmith is called "smith". And so on. Society works with the assumption that every doctor and smith work the same as all the others. It's the ultimate utilitarian state. Without individuality, there's not much need for distinctions between individuals such as names. Such a society is probably not possible for humans given the way we think; sentient ants might have better luck with it.
Anonymous city
==============
The people of the city suffer from amnesia or literally [cannot tell each other apart](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prosopagnosia). An individual might stand up proclaiming to be a doctor, but after treating his fellow citizens blends into the crowd, becoming yet another anonymous face. All relationships are ephemereal at best, what good is a name if you'll never see that person again as far as you know? |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Your 'name' is what you do
==========================
Every doctor is called "doctor". Every blacksmith is called "smith". And so on. Society works with the assumption that every doctor and smith work the same as all the others. It's the ultimate utilitarian state. Without individuality, there's not much need for distinctions between individuals such as names. Such a society is probably not possible for humans given the way we think; sentient ants might have better luck with it.
Anonymous city
==============
The people of the city suffer from amnesia or literally [cannot tell each other apart](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prosopagnosia). An individual might stand up proclaiming to be a doctor, but after treating his fellow citizens blends into the crowd, becoming yet another anonymous face. All relationships are ephemereal at best, what good is a name if you'll never see that person again as far as you know? | You might simply say that the city rejected individualism in favor of collectivism. Who a person is (their name) doesn't matter; all that matters is what they contribute to the community as a whole (their title). At that point you could essentially refer to every adult by their job title (plus some modifier if distinguishing between, say, teachers becomes important), and then children by "[descriptive] child of [parent]". |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | **Old-fashioned family naming fusing with modern street-naming.**
In Europe, many family names were tied to either a profession or a place of residence. John Smith was a blacksmith, Benny Hill had a farm on a hill. Today, in many American cities, there is a numbering system for streets that replaces actual street names. For instance, the "3200 block" denoting a block in the Chicago street system or "corner of E 42nd Street and 2nd Avenue" in New York.
Now if John Smith sets up shop in 3200 block, he is known to all as "the smith on 3200 block". As profession + precise location is enough to distinguish him, there's no need for "John", which was just causing people to confuse him with the 83 other Johns in that little town.
Benny Hill meanwhile, for whom surnames and location is one and the same, changes his surname to 3215, that being his house number. (Note that prior to naming reforms in the 20th century, it was common for farmers that moved onto a new farm to take that farmname as their new surname) So he's Benny 3215, but he is only referred to as "the bachelor on 3215" or "clerk 3215" or even "3215" in his working life and official documents. The city's administration treats the houses as the basic unit of the city and do not tax people, but households. They talk about "the annual income of 3392" and the number of people living there is just a property of household 3392. Benny may still call himself "Benny", but there will be no record of that for posterity. | This has been given multiple times as the answer, but breaking individuality. Not using the name strips the glory from performing a task. Nobody can link the work and the person that did it. This would create a hive mind. Taking a name would be a taboo, because it would break the singularity and thus the harmonic status quo. There could be some really nasty dreadful history with the individualism, that would make people really disgusted with egoism.
I think that this is a problematic concept, because even the computers give names for the memory locations. |
62,648 | Assume this is a small city of about 5,000 residents, in a modern day time period. This city isn't geographically or culturally isolated from its surroundings, and it trades often within neighboring areas (where all residents have names). I just need some sort of rationale for why the residents of this particular city have no use for names (regardless of whether the names are one word or longer).
To be clear, titles like *the doctor*, *our leader*, and *my father* are all still in use, but actual names, like *Dr. James* or *King George*, are not. In addition, this only applies to the names of *people*; the city itself still has a commonly used name. In most cases, when referring to someone without a title, the residents of the city used pronouns like *he* or *she*.
**Why would a city not use names?** | 2016/11/28 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/62648",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/17179/"
] | Your 'name' is what you do
==========================
Every doctor is called "doctor". Every blacksmith is called "smith". And so on. Society works with the assumption that every doctor and smith work the same as all the others. It's the ultimate utilitarian state. Without individuality, there's not much need for distinctions between individuals such as names. Such a society is probably not possible for humans given the way we think; sentient ants might have better luck with it.
Anonymous city
==============
The people of the city suffer from amnesia or literally [cannot tell each other apart](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prosopagnosia). An individual might stand up proclaiming to be a doctor, but after treating his fellow citizens blends into the crowd, becoming yet another anonymous face. All relationships are ephemereal at best, what good is a name if you'll never see that person again as far as you know? | Using a true name could be bad luck, think of the many books where people find out a **true name** (in some old/true language). Of course here the language has some kind of magical property (see the Eragon cycle by Paolini, or The Name of the Wind by Patrick Rothfuss, and I'm sure I'm forgetting a few here, feel free to add in the comments).
In George RR Martin's A Song of Ice and Fire, the Unsullied do not use their original names because they got caught by slavers while they used their original name. Instead, **they choose a new name each day**. Grey Worm keeps the name 'Grey Worm' in the end because it is the name he had when Daenerys freed him, and it is therefore a lucky name. Also in ASOIAF, Missandei refers to herself as **'this one'**, instead of 'I', we don't know why. Arya and the Faceless Men refer to Arya as 'a girl', because she needs to let go of her old identity and become **'no one'**. Gilly refuses to give her son a name because he is too young and could die (in the TV series, he's called 'Little Sam'). The Night's Watch members give up their family names and titles (though not their first names). These examples, except for the baby, all indicate that the collective is more important than the individual.
**Names are strongly tied to identity**. If you have a society with a strong collective feel, where individual accomplishments only count toward the greater good, there might be no need for a strong individual identity. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | If decision is for a problem, you can take team to room and list down root-cause of the problem. That will help team to concentrate on root cause and come to conclusion for the problem, which will be one set of decision.
If it is for an approach, you can go with 'Management by Objectives' and make team to explain objective for sitting together to come-up. Decision is to be made to achieve some 'x'. Make to be clear on 'X', ask them to come-up with different possible ways to achieve, list down pros & cons of each approach, weigh them in terms of time/effort, cost and quality. Then, make them to decide on what is the approach. Basically, you would be driving them towards decision tree approach with some kind of Delphi method (I assume your team is kind of SME for taking a decision)
Try with 6 thinking Hats with the team is also another approach. But, you have to educate them and moderate. | 'The Team' should not be making decisions unless you are a cooperative, a political party or a board of directors. In which case, consult your articles of encorporation or whatever to see the prescribed method.
In all other cases there will be someone who holds the budget for the project and thus has the responsiblity of making the call.
'The Team' should make recommendations. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | It somewhat depends on the decision needed to be made.
[As I wrote on my blog](http://expertpjm.blogspot.co.il/2011/08/any-decision-is-better-than-no-decision.html), often *any decision is better than no decision*.
**If we're talking about GUI elements** or similar
If the team (or whoever has a vote) cannot make up its mind (for whatever reason) and the decision is holding up the schedule, then simply make a decision. Any decision. Flip a coin, if needed.
It will probably be quicker to change the decision at a later date than to have the team spend time on the decision.
**If we're talking about design**
You don't want to change design - so you need to make a wise decision. The people deciding (voting) need to understand the item being decided and its implications.
Once you have removed all those who don't qualify to make the decision (e.g. lack of technical skills) then you need an open discussion with people presenting the reasons for their decisions.
Then they need to persuade each other why one decision is better than another.
The person chairing the meeting should probably not be a stakeholder; only making sure that the discussion remains technical, and doesn't become a shouting match. ("I say so" and *having a louder voice* are not reasons to win the arguments.)
If need be, the team may need/want to consult with experts in the field, in order to make the wisest decision.
If nobody really cares what the decision will be, then it becomes like a GUI-type decision. Just make some decision, and go back to work. | 'The Team' should not be making decisions unless you are a cooperative, a political party or a board of directors. In which case, consult your articles of encorporation or whatever to see the prescribed method.
In all other cases there will be someone who holds the budget for the project and thus has the responsiblity of making the call.
'The Team' should make recommendations. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | Making a decision and taking action, even if it is not the best choice, is more productive than doing nothing. This is something that the team should understand.
What is the root cause of this decision paralysis? Is there fear of repercussions for making the "wrong" choice? Is there apathy? Without finding it, the problem (or others which are related) may continue.
If this is a reoccurring issue, perhaps asking the team to come to an agreement about how these situations might be resolved in the future; the agreement can always be changed if needed. Perhaps a vote: blind or open. | If decision is for a problem, you can take team to room and list down root-cause of the problem. That will help team to concentrate on root cause and come to conclusion for the problem, which will be one set of decision.
If it is for an approach, you can go with 'Management by Objectives' and make team to explain objective for sitting together to come-up. Decision is to be made to achieve some 'x'. Make to be clear on 'X', ask them to come-up with different possible ways to achieve, list down pros & cons of each approach, weigh them in terms of time/effort, cost and quality. Then, make them to decide on what is the approach. Basically, you would be driving them towards decision tree approach with some kind of Delphi method (I assume your team is kind of SME for taking a decision)
Try with 6 thinking Hats with the team is also another approach. But, you have to educate them and moderate. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | Here's a technique that **will** push things forward. I'll leave you to judge whether it's appropriate given your team/company/culture.
Talk to the most senior person in your group 1-on-1 and get their opinion. Tell them you're going to present that opinion to the group as the default--and if no one else has any ideas, their plan will be the final decision.
Give the team a deadline to counter this decision, come up with a new plan, object, etc... If no one speaks up or objects, move forward with most senior leader's plan, and take personal responsibility for it. If things go awry, the senior leader can back you up--it was their idea.
Again, this is situational, but it's **a technique** you can use, and it will move the project forward with a reasonable decision in place, and with backing from someone in senior management. | 'The Team' should not be making decisions unless you are a cooperative, a political party or a board of directors. In which case, consult your articles of encorporation or whatever to see the prescribed method.
In all other cases there will be someone who holds the budget for the project and thus has the responsiblity of making the call.
'The Team' should make recommendations. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | It somewhat depends on the decision needed to be made.
[As I wrote on my blog](http://expertpjm.blogspot.co.il/2011/08/any-decision-is-better-than-no-decision.html), often *any decision is better than no decision*.
**If we're talking about GUI elements** or similar
If the team (or whoever has a vote) cannot make up its mind (for whatever reason) and the decision is holding up the schedule, then simply make a decision. Any decision. Flip a coin, if needed.
It will probably be quicker to change the decision at a later date than to have the team spend time on the decision.
**If we're talking about design**
You don't want to change design - so you need to make a wise decision. The people deciding (voting) need to understand the item being decided and its implications.
Once you have removed all those who don't qualify to make the decision (e.g. lack of technical skills) then you need an open discussion with people presenting the reasons for their decisions.
Then they need to persuade each other why one decision is better than another.
The person chairing the meeting should probably not be a stakeholder; only making sure that the discussion remains technical, and doesn't become a shouting match. ("I say so" and *having a louder voice* are not reasons to win the arguments.)
If need be, the team may need/want to consult with experts in the field, in order to make the wisest decision.
If nobody really cares what the decision will be, then it becomes like a GUI-type decision. Just make some decision, and go back to work. | Here's a technique that **will** push things forward. I'll leave you to judge whether it's appropriate given your team/company/culture.
Talk to the most senior person in your group 1-on-1 and get their opinion. Tell them you're going to present that opinion to the group as the default--and if no one else has any ideas, their plan will be the final decision.
Give the team a deadline to counter this decision, come up with a new plan, object, etc... If no one speaks up or objects, move forward with most senior leader's plan, and take personal responsibility for it. If things go awry, the senior leader can back you up--it was their idea.
Again, this is situational, but it's **a technique** you can use, and it will move the project forward with a reasonable decision in place, and with backing from someone in senior management. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | Assuming you're in a scrum or kanban team setting or some group of up to 10ish people...
Decider protocol is great, you can google it. Thumbs Up = "yes", flat hand in the middle = "I'm neutral and can go either way", thumbs down = "no, and I have a alternative idea"
Its a nice one because its drives towards an outcome, it doesn't allow people to say no and avoid making the decision outright. | 'The Team' should not be making decisions unless you are a cooperative, a political party or a board of directors. In which case, consult your articles of encorporation or whatever to see the prescribed method.
In all other cases there will be someone who holds the budget for the project and thus has the responsiblity of making the call.
'The Team' should make recommendations. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | It somewhat depends on the decision needed to be made.
[As I wrote on my blog](http://expertpjm.blogspot.co.il/2011/08/any-decision-is-better-than-no-decision.html), often *any decision is better than no decision*.
**If we're talking about GUI elements** or similar
If the team (or whoever has a vote) cannot make up its mind (for whatever reason) and the decision is holding up the schedule, then simply make a decision. Any decision. Flip a coin, if needed.
It will probably be quicker to change the decision at a later date than to have the team spend time on the decision.
**If we're talking about design**
You don't want to change design - so you need to make a wise decision. The people deciding (voting) need to understand the item being decided and its implications.
Once you have removed all those who don't qualify to make the decision (e.g. lack of technical skills) then you need an open discussion with people presenting the reasons for their decisions.
Then they need to persuade each other why one decision is better than another.
The person chairing the meeting should probably not be a stakeholder; only making sure that the discussion remains technical, and doesn't become a shouting match. ("I say so" and *having a louder voice* are not reasons to win the arguments.)
If need be, the team may need/want to consult with experts in the field, in order to make the wisest decision.
If nobody really cares what the decision will be, then it becomes like a GUI-type decision. Just make some decision, and go back to work. | If decision is for a problem, you can take team to room and list down root-cause of the problem. That will help team to concentrate on root cause and come to conclusion for the problem, which will be one set of decision.
If it is for an approach, you can go with 'Management by Objectives' and make team to explain objective for sitting together to come-up. Decision is to be made to achieve some 'x'. Make to be clear on 'X', ask them to come-up with different possible ways to achieve, list down pros & cons of each approach, weigh them in terms of time/effort, cost and quality. Then, make them to decide on what is the approach. Basically, you would be driving them towards decision tree approach with some kind of Delphi method (I assume your team is kind of SME for taking a decision)
Try with 6 thinking Hats with the team is also another approach. But, you have to educate them and moderate. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | Making a decision and taking action, even if it is not the best choice, is more productive than doing nothing. This is something that the team should understand.
What is the root cause of this decision paralysis? Is there fear of repercussions for making the "wrong" choice? Is there apathy? Without finding it, the problem (or others which are related) may continue.
If this is a reoccurring issue, perhaps asking the team to come to an agreement about how these situations might be resolved in the future; the agreement can always be changed if needed. Perhaps a vote: blind or open. | Assuming you're in a scrum or kanban team setting or some group of up to 10ish people...
Decider protocol is great, you can google it. Thumbs Up = "yes", flat hand in the middle = "I'm neutral and can go either way", thumbs down = "no, and I have a alternative idea"
Its a nice one because its drives towards an outcome, it doesn't allow people to say no and avoid making the decision outright. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | Here's a technique that **will** push things forward. I'll leave you to judge whether it's appropriate given your team/company/culture.
Talk to the most senior person in your group 1-on-1 and get their opinion. Tell them you're going to present that opinion to the group as the default--and if no one else has any ideas, their plan will be the final decision.
Give the team a deadline to counter this decision, come up with a new plan, object, etc... If no one speaks up or objects, move forward with most senior leader's plan, and take personal responsibility for it. If things go awry, the senior leader can back you up--it was their idea.
Again, this is situational, but it's **a technique** you can use, and it will move the project forward with a reasonable decision in place, and with backing from someone in senior management. | If decision is for a problem, you can take team to room and list down root-cause of the problem. That will help team to concentrate on root cause and come to conclusion for the problem, which will be one set of decision.
If it is for an approach, you can go with 'Management by Objectives' and make team to explain objective for sitting together to come-up. Decision is to be made to achieve some 'x'. Make to be clear on 'X', ask them to come-up with different possible ways to achieve, list down pros & cons of each approach, weigh them in terms of time/effort, cost and quality. Then, make them to decide on what is the approach. Basically, you would be driving them towards decision tree approach with some kind of Delphi method (I assume your team is kind of SME for taking a decision)
Try with 6 thinking Hats with the team is also another approach. But, you have to educate them and moderate. |
20,067 | Let's say you have a small team 3-10 people and some kind of decision needs to be made. What are some techniques for encouraging a decision to be made and/or accepted?
I'm not sure I can pick a good concrete example as the answer might be different depending on the type of decision.
Maybe describing a situation first: The team needs to make a decision about something but no one is actually making the decision. The manager, or PM, might then say, "okay, how about we do X" but gets no feedback from the team on if it's the right decision, or a decision they agree with.
What techniques exist for encouraging consensus? Is this a problem of leadership that that PM isn't leading well so no one is following? What techniques could help solve that, whether it's getting the team to make the decision or, for them to at least follow if they're not going to choose? | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/20067",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/25853/"
] | Making a decision and taking action, even if it is not the best choice, is more productive than doing nothing. This is something that the team should understand.
What is the root cause of this decision paralysis? Is there fear of repercussions for making the "wrong" choice? Is there apathy? Without finding it, the problem (or others which are related) may continue.
If this is a reoccurring issue, perhaps asking the team to come to an agreement about how these situations might be resolved in the future; the agreement can always be changed if needed. Perhaps a vote: blind or open. | Here's a technique that **will** push things forward. I'll leave you to judge whether it's appropriate given your team/company/culture.
Talk to the most senior person in your group 1-on-1 and get their opinion. Tell them you're going to present that opinion to the group as the default--and if no one else has any ideas, their plan will be the final decision.
Give the team a deadline to counter this decision, come up with a new plan, object, etc... If no one speaks up or objects, move forward with most senior leader's plan, and take personal responsibility for it. If things go awry, the senior leader can back you up--it was their idea.
Again, this is situational, but it's **a technique** you can use, and it will move the project forward with a reasonable decision in place, and with backing from someone in senior management. |
176,140 | We all know Snape was a double agent (Death Eater and working with Dumbledore), but in the *Sorcerer's Stone*, he had no idea that Voldemort had latched himself onto Quirrell. This is evidenced in that that Snape is suspicious about some of the actions that he linked to Quirrell, and also confronts him about. But in the scenes that we see them talking privately, they never talk about Death Eater stuff.
I have not read the books and maybe there are talks of it in there, somewhere. But I think it would ruin the whole 'Snape is actually a good guy' plot line, so is that the only reason Voldemort did not expose himself to Snape?
Snape was also one of Voldemort's 'trusted' followers, because he let him get the teaching job at Hogwarts to spy on Voldemort (according to my sources).
It just did not make sense to me after looking a little into the Harry Potter series and re-watching the movies and this was the first thing that struck me as odd.
**Why didn't Quirrell tell Snape about Voldemort?** | 2017/12/13 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/176140",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/93567/"
] | The scene in *The Half-Blood Prince* in which Bellatrix and Narcissa turn up at Snape's house and he "reveals himself to be a Death Eater" and makes the Unbreakable Vow is greatly expanded in the books.
In it, Snape gives us the explanation for Voldemort's (who was controlling Quirrell at the time of course) lack of trust:
>
> 'I think you next wanted to know,' he pressed on, a little more loudly, for Bellatrix showed every sign of interrupting, 'why I stood between the Dark Lord and the Philosopher's Stone. That is easily answered. He did not know whether he could trust me. He thought, like you, that I had turned from faithful Death Eater to Dumbledore's stooge. He was in a pitiable condition, very weak, sharing the body of a mediocre wizard. He did not dare reveal himself to a former ally if that ally might turn him over to Dumbledore or the Ministry.'
>
>
> *Harry Potter and the Half-Blood Prince* - p.33 - Bloomsbury - Chapter 2, *Spinner's End*
>
>
> | At that point, the Dark Lord likely doubted Snape’s loyalty.
============================================================
It’s unlikely that the Dark Lord would have allowed Quirrell to seek out anyone who he had doubts about the true loyalty of. Before his resurrection, at least, the Dark Lord certainly seemed to doubt Snape was loyal to him. We don’t have any information about what the Dark Lord was thinking at the time he tried to steal the Sorcerer’s Stone, but we do find out he’s doubting Snape when he’s returned to a body.
>
> “And here we have six missing Death Eaters… three dead in my service. One, too cowardly to return… he will pay. One, who I believe has left me forever… he will be killed, of course… and one, who remains my most faithful servant, and who has already reentered my service."
> *- Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire, Chapter 33 (The Death Eaters)*
>
>
>
The three living and absent Death Eaters are, in order, Karkaroff (the cowardly one), Snape (the one who’s probably left him forever) and Barty Crouch Jr. (the one who’s already returned to his service).
If the Dark Lord had any doubt at all who Snape would be truly loyal to, he’d likely not allow Quirrell to approach him. He was trying to keep his continued existence and plan to return to power as secret as possible - it’s unlikely he’d allow Quirrell to approach Snape even if he wanted to.
Also, Quirrell might not know Snape worked for the Dark Lord.
=============================================================
The Dark Lord found Quirrell in a forest in Albania as a lucky chance - before that, Quirrell was simply a teacher with no connections to the Dark Lord. As such, he might not know that Snape was once a Death Eater, as this didn’t seem to be common knowledge to most of the wizarding world. Without inside knowledge, he mightn’t even have considered the possibility of approaching Snape for help. However, more important is the Dark Lord’s desire for secrecy - Quirrell couldn’t do it without approval. |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | What would stop a user from lying about their age? I'm not saying doing something on the user's birthday, since the information is collected, is a bad idea. But I wouldn't go for rep based on age. Additionally, you'd need to stop user's from changing their b-day daily, so receive the rep every day. | What about all those 82-year olds I've seen listed here? Why give them more rep? And why not give rep to the few 8 year olds? |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | What about those who are born on February 29?
And I think it is bad idea on other reasons. SO is not a supermarket with birthday gifts. I believe that it is professional community and reputation points is a measure of professionalism. | What about all those 82-year olds I've seen listed here? Why give them more rep? And why not give rep to the few 8 year olds? |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I think this is a fine idea. | What about all those 82-year olds I've seen listed here? Why give them more rep? And why not give rep to the few 8 year olds? |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | What's to stop a user from continuously changing their birthday on their profile so that they got "gifts" every day?
I don't think this is a very good or workable idea. That said, I won't argue if anyone feels overly compelled to give me 33 upvotes next year. ;) | Knowing a person's birthday is a potential security risk. Many sites use that information for user authentication. Knowing the birthdate and age (age is already available) would be bad. You could easily scrape the site looking for increases of reputation equal to a persons age, thus getting their birthday. |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I agree most heartily with this recommendation, and it should be implemented *right now!* | I agree that awarding reputation points just based on age is a bad idea. How about some kind of notification to all users that "These people are celebrating their birthdays on Stack Overflow", and list down people who have their birthday today and logged into Stack Overflow and are answering questions. This way, other people can just wish them happy birthday. |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Um...not cool. My birthday was the 10th (3 days ago), and I got nothing :) | What about all those 82-year olds I've seen listed here? Why give them more rep? And why not give rep to the few 8 year olds? |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I agree most heartily with this recommendation, and it should be implemented *right now!* | I think everybody should get a set amount of rep on their birthday (no difference between age) as there is no way to confirm age. *Or*, maybe you get more rep the longer you've been a member (every birthday that you're a member, you get more rep). |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I think this is a fine idea. | What's to stop a user from continuously changing their birthday on their profile so that they got "gifts" every day?
I don't think this is a very good or workable idea. That said, I won't argue if anyone feels overly compelled to give me 33 upvotes next year. ;) |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | What would stop a user from lying about their age? I'm not saying doing something on the user's birthday, since the information is collected, is a bad idea. But I wouldn't go for rep based on age. Additionally, you'd need to stop user's from changing their b-day daily, so receive the rep every day. | What's to stop a user from continuously changing their birthday on their profile so that they got "gifts" every day?
I don't think this is a very good or workable idea. That said, I won't argue if anyone feels overly compelled to give me 33 upvotes next year. ;) |
4,963 | Since Stack Overflow asked for my birth date, I am expecting a gift. I would like Stack Overflow to award reputation to a user annually on their birthday in the amount of their age. To qualify, a user has to have achieved a minimum level of reputation points, say 1000. This gift will acknowledge the wisdom gained by aging. | 2009/07/13 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4963",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | What's to stop a user from continuously changing their birthday on their profile so that they got "gifts" every day?
I don't think this is a very good or workable idea. That said, I won't argue if anyone feels overly compelled to give me 33 upvotes next year. ;) | It's not a *bad* idea. What if these were the rules:
1. User cannot edit their birthday (who would need to afterall?)
2. User must have 100+ rep already.
3. User is awarded 20 points on birthday that is subject to the cap. |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | When the bill comes at dinner, tell her that you've had a lovely time spending the evening with her, that you wish the conversation didn't have end, and that also, you would be overjoyed to be privileged enough to continue to spend time with her the remainder of the night. If she is on the same page, she may suggest that the night need not end now. Then you offer to share a cab back to your hotel room so that you can keep the conversation going.
Making a reference to coffee is unwise and unneeded at this point as it directly implies sex; you should allow things to go that direction naturally as opposed to forcing the issue. In my opinion, women generally do not appreciate the assumption that sex is expected, even if they are attracted to you; and to be clear *you should **not** be expecting anything*.
The next part of the transition need not be overly awkward, but rather a part of foreplay. That is to say, on the taxi ride to the hotel, if she consents, try kissing her. Start on the lips, then slowly move up and down her neck.
Another thing you could try, would be to, if she consents, hold her hand; however, this might be a bit trickier. Some people will not feel comfortable with this if they don't see the possibility of a long-term romantic relationship. But this approach might be more acceptable to you if you are not comfortable with PDA. Another variation of this would be to gently rub the fingers of your spare hand up and down her arm.
Light affection such as the above, will not only reduce awkwardness, but also may make the overall encounter much more enjoyable for her as well.
Have fun, just make sure you are both on the same page! | Among the other answers I haven't seen the obvious thing:
**Make an open and honest proposition.** At some time, maybe after some nice exchange over the desert, tell her that you enjoy her company so much and you feel for her so much and you have been sad every time when you parted ways the other times you spent together. Tell her exactly what it is you feel: You would like to invite her to spend the night together.
That will *still* be awkward to some degree, mostly because there is a looming possibility that you misread her and she'll be surprised and taken aback and say no.
To deal with that awkwardness you could make it explicit as well, starting with: "You know, I feel like on my first date but there is something I really have been wanting to tell you for a while ...". If she's on the same page she'll be touched because you are actually blushing and you are sincere and you *dared.* Chances are she'll say "I thought you'd never ask."
Being sincere and honest is a good start into a relationship which is why I would not try to be manipulative or clever about it.
Good luck :-). |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | Many years ago, a partner and I (still extremely good friends), used to have fun playing the hell out of this aspect of an evening. Typical conversation:
* "Can we have sex yet?"
* *"Nooo! You've got to invite me in for coffee!"*
* "Okay. Would you like to come back to my place for coffee then?"
* *"Of course!"*
(Arrive, door opens, door closes, coffee brewed)
* "Okay, done making coffee, can we do sex now?"
* *Nooo! You have to tell me you love me, and make me feel special!"*
* "Is it okay to lie?"
* *"Maybe?"*
* "Okay. I love you, you're special, and **now** can we do the bed thing?"
* *"Noo... I have to resist, it says so in allll the movies... (etc etc)"*
I know this isn't quite the situation you're in, but laugh, love and enjoy, and maybe this will give you a smile, and some ideas! | For what it is worth as another 40 year old but NOT in the scene, I'd really simply suggest the honest approach. If you feel there is 'sexual tension', the 'hard to get' game isn't so fun.
I may have missed this, but is she local with a house/kids? Reasons not to go that way?
You could say during the last 15 minutes of dinner, ordering dessert, simply- "I'd really like to get dessert but there's nothing here that strikes my fancy. Do you know anywhere else?" That opens up the option for her to invite.
You could also say "I really don't want the evening to end, but I understand you've got to get to work tomorrow. If you don't think you'd be too tired tomorrow, would you like to get a bottle of (beverage) and watch some sort of lousy movie at my hotel? I guarantee it'll be at least 4 years old and with very bad special effects"
OK, more my style on the last one. And you've provided multiple ways for her to say NO without hurting your feelings or implying she owes anything to you.
And you've got to seriously consider that she can say 'no' (And so can you!) at any point. There's nothing that's owed at any point. Even "I really love seeing you on my trips, and would just love to spend more time with you somehow". (careful using the L-word, ya know?).
Good luck. I wish you well and hope that you can find happiness- and that she can too. |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | From personal experiences, it's always going to be sort of awkward, because very few can act like a suave George Clooney-esque character from a movie, so **just embrace the awkwardness and have fun with it**. Even in movies they usually cut from the bar lounge to the bedroom. Hell, even living with a significant other for 10+ years and moving from the living room to the bedroom is still awkward in the sense that it's just like "uh let's go to the bedroom", rather than something from a steamy novel or whatever.
You most likely won't be able to make a smooth transition from a restaurant to a hotel room, but it can be made fun by being happy about the situation, giggling, initiating some light intimate contacts etc on your way there. | I'm probably late to the party here, but i'll give you my view on this, which isn't really an answer but depending on how you take it, it might be for you.
In my personal experience and my development through teenage years into adulthood, i went from having 0 sucess with women to having alot of it. Awkwardness was a HUGE battle as i was a bit awkward in this transition. What I figured out was that awkwardness is a choice. **It's your choice to define a situation as awkward and trust me, once you do, it is.** If you never feel awkward you tend to influence the people around you to feel the same as you, ofc this goes both ways so as soon as you feel awkward she also feels, at least, that you are making things awkward.
It's not about the exact situation or what was said and done, it's about how you and her react to these things. Ofc this is what confidence is called, being on top of the situation w.e. happens and never letting things get awkward. But what i'm trying to get across with my answer is that **awkwardness is contagious and you are in control of it**.
With that said, i understand it doesn't quite answer your question and it's just my personal experience and not fact. I hope it can help you in the future tho :)
Ps: sorry for any typos, not primary language and writing a bit fast as i'm short on time! |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | When the bill comes at dinner, tell her that you've had a lovely time spending the evening with her, that you wish the conversation didn't have end, and that also, you would be overjoyed to be privileged enough to continue to spend time with her the remainder of the night. If she is on the same page, she may suggest that the night need not end now. Then you offer to share a cab back to your hotel room so that you can keep the conversation going.
Making a reference to coffee is unwise and unneeded at this point as it directly implies sex; you should allow things to go that direction naturally as opposed to forcing the issue. In my opinion, women generally do not appreciate the assumption that sex is expected, even if they are attracted to you; and to be clear *you should **not** be expecting anything*.
The next part of the transition need not be overly awkward, but rather a part of foreplay. That is to say, on the taxi ride to the hotel, if she consents, try kissing her. Start on the lips, then slowly move up and down her neck.
Another thing you could try, would be to, if she consents, hold her hand; however, this might be a bit trickier. Some people will not feel comfortable with this if they don't see the possibility of a long-term romantic relationship. But this approach might be more acceptable to you if you are not comfortable with PDA. Another variation of this would be to gently rub the fingers of your spare hand up and down her arm.
Light affection such as the above, will not only reduce awkwardness, but also may make the overall encounter much more enjoyable for her as well.
Have fun, just make sure you are both on the same page! | As this is more like answer to OP and others, than just comment to @VISQL / @avazula :
I will put it a little bluntly (sorry):
OP say, that he regullary meeats his friend at dinner (every few months or so) and that they enjoy it and that his wish is to end in bed with her sometime in future, and he feels, that it may be possible (so she may feel like that too), but it is AWKWARD to make steps from dinner to bed.
They both are adults, they respect each other and are friends. It is really possible, that it may result in the bed - would not be first or last time in world.
The pure fast, that she meets him on dinner each time possible and they both enjoy the time and are sad, when it ends suggest, that there may be more, if situation will came right way.
So I read VISQL comment in the way, that OP SHOULD expect, it will happen and so BE PREPARED for it (that means not run away in panic, if they happens one night in his hotel room in romantic mood). He does not say to FORCE her into it against her will, but he say to keep in mind, that it is possible (and desired) result and that OP should be positivly thinking toward it. (If I expect, that I MAY end in hotel room with my friend, I would make sure the room is tidy, there are like two wine glases and wine bottle somwhere, as well as there are two cups and coffie maker with coffie and suggar ready, also some chips or something like that, BEFORE I leave the room for dinner (and also be sure, that I have condom or two, just in case, but not in clean display). (If my expectation came true, then it would help, if not, it does not hurt.)
On the dinner I would keep in mind, that I want this nice end and I expect it to eventually happen. So I would invite her over the dinner to (say) see movie with me in sure way and with positive thinking about that, like " ... BTW I got recently this movie I enojeyd it and was thinking, you would also enjoy it, so I took it with me, would you like to see it with mee today?" (expecting her to say something like "hmm, why not" or so and take it as yes. Also if the reaply is "Shoud I do it? Would not be that inapropriate?" I would say "Yes, sure you should. I would be really glad, if you do." - but if she say "Sorry, I cannot today I have to go there and there and ... and ..." then I would reply like "Ok, maybe next time?" (maybe she really does not so much time today) and finish the dinner happy as usual and offer it next time too. But if she say "Sorry, I am happyly maried, I would feel that like cheating" or "Sorry, I do not want to go that far", then I would say "Oh, no problem, anyway, I like to have dinners with you and talk about so much things" and left it be as it is)
Yes, if she take all my offers positively and we end in bed and are happy next morning, it is like the expected 6 on a dice - does not happen each time, but MAY happen. And all went well as I expected. If she turn it down for today, it like 4-5 on a dice, happens, no reason to expect I will get 6 next time I try. If she turn it down totally, its like 1-3 on dice, not what I hoped for, but if I take it right, we will be still friends, who does to "just dinner" every few months.
---
On the other hand if I would expect, that there is no way for positive result (I would even not try at all, but if I would), that it would sound more like "I have that movie on my room, but I suppose, you will not go with me to hotel anyway" (and she will turn it down for sure - or nearly for sure, depends, how much she wants that result). So better EXPECT the best, but be not discouraged if not everything will go the best possible way. Just avoid the worst way and be nice and fair all time.
---
Also try to think about how it looks from other side - she meets you regullary, she feels good with you, but she is not the one, who should offer spending night together - you are not Prince on White Horse and she is not 16 anymore to faint, if you just smile on her - so the common sense is, that you would say her nice words, you would suggest to do next small step, then another, until you are there, where you want to be, while she is expected to accept it, if she is comfort with it, or even "little defend, but not so much, that she would succeed with defence" to make her more valuable price and "not so easy to get" - its a game and while you both enjoy playing, it is ok to play it. If she would like to stop, if would be told in different tone ("I am not sure, if I should accept such invitation"/"Yes, such beautiful lady really should do"/"You talked me into it" versus "Sorry, I do not want to"/"Sorry, did not want to press you"/"Anyway, will we have dinner again next time?"/"Yes, we will")
---
Any way, if it goes well, you are expected to do a lot of "small steps", each little far, then previous and let her decide, if she want to accept it, or stop it just there. You can bet, she takes care about her, she knows it, you know it, it is common sense for mature woman to dress good, have some nice earings/bracelet/parfume/clothes/shoes/whatever, when she goes to dinner with old friend. But still it is good to compliment her on that, on dinner about bigger visuals (that color really suits you and makes you hair even more beautiful), in cab, when you sit near each other, than in restaurant (you smell really sweet), in the hole room (yous skin is so soft and warm) - yes she knows, but it makes her happy anyway - and it is true, so nothing to be ashamed to say.
You tell her about the video in course of dinner, let her some time and ask here to go see it near the end of dinner (if she react immediately like "I would like to see it" - if basically mean "I just want you to make me offers for each next step, so I can agree, as I cannot say it beforehand, just ask me and let me to say YES"), talk about it and about her in the cab, offer her some wine/coffe, run the video, put the chips in bowel and sit near her to share it, then touch her, put hand around shouldes, touch her hends and more ... still expect, that if she went so far, she would go even another step, until she say to stop. If she does, then stop (ofcourse), but then you know, that next time you can safely go so far and maybe one or more steps too. It is not problem, if she is not ready continue today, maybe next time. But expect, that she would like to continue, until she state otherwise, as it is you, who should do these steps.
Your intent to sleep with here is like 100% (if she would agree), but there is a lot of awkwardness around the way. It is possible, that just now her intent to sleep with you is also high, but the awkwardness totally stops her, from saying so. But she may agree to do a lot of small steps, with are not so awkward and could be seen as logical, you just present them as "totally normal for adults as us" and she is required to not reject it (it is much much easier, that to initiate it).
Imagine, what would happen with awkwardness, if she would next time invite you for a little walk, then some hot tea at her home, run some movie, while talking about something else, then put out two glases and bottle of wine on table and sit near you, just sipping the wine, head on your shoulder, looking at the movie. And on titles she would excuse herself, went in bathroom, return in towel and offer you to use the bathroom too. Where it would end. And how muchj it would be awkward to you to "just agree" with each of these steps, if presented like something "normal and expected".
(Yes, would be little awkward, but not so much and I bet, you would just follow, even if you would on the start on dinner had intent only like 30% to sleep with her - it there would be no contradiction.)
So this is, what I think, that VISQL meant with EXPECT the positive result as you would EXPECT 6 on the dice you just throw. It may happen, it may not, be cool, if it does not happen, but EXPECTING it you make it more probably to happen it and lot less awkward at all. |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | I don't think that it is possible to make a completely non-awkward transition from the dinner table to the bedroom if the sole purpose is sex. Of course, you can make it less so, by applying humour and both being able to laugh about the situation. This is something I often do and helped me in general in awkward situations.
My advice albeit would be to not only set the goal to sex but set the goal to a cozy evening together, maybe watch a movie you talked about etc. If everything goes well, you understand each other and have fun, lying in bed, most certainly cuddling will automatically lead to intercourse in most cases (if no one is super shy and both don't like taking the first step).
**Advice:**
So my advice would be to rather than for sex, meet up afterwards for an occupation you both like, aka watching a movie, and you will see what happens. This IMHO is way less "awkward" because you can talk about topics like the movie, or other things while no being so nervous as "what should I do next" because during a movie you have loads of time to go step by step.
**EDIT:**
If you are unsure how to set up the transition you might ask when the dinner is concluding: "As you are also fan of X would you care to watch X together at my room i rented for my stay here? :)"
If there is attraction on both sides this is a no brainer :D Actually thats exactly the way i got together with my current girlfriend after a very very extended coffee. In our case it was Harry Potter ;D | For what it is worth as another 40 year old but NOT in the scene, I'd really simply suggest the honest approach. If you feel there is 'sexual tension', the 'hard to get' game isn't so fun.
I may have missed this, but is she local with a house/kids? Reasons not to go that way?
You could say during the last 15 minutes of dinner, ordering dessert, simply- "I'd really like to get dessert but there's nothing here that strikes my fancy. Do you know anywhere else?" That opens up the option for her to invite.
You could also say "I really don't want the evening to end, but I understand you've got to get to work tomorrow. If you don't think you'd be too tired tomorrow, would you like to get a bottle of (beverage) and watch some sort of lousy movie at my hotel? I guarantee it'll be at least 4 years old and with very bad special effects"
OK, more my style on the last one. And you've provided multiple ways for her to say NO without hurting your feelings or implying she owes anything to you.
And you've got to seriously consider that she can say 'no' (And so can you!) at any point. There's nothing that's owed at any point. Even "I really love seeing you on my trips, and would just love to spend more time with you somehow". (careful using the L-word, ya know?).
Good luck. I wish you well and hope that you can find happiness- and that she can too. |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | Many years ago, a partner and I (still extremely good friends), used to have fun playing the hell out of this aspect of an evening. Typical conversation:
* "Can we have sex yet?"
* *"Nooo! You've got to invite me in for coffee!"*
* "Okay. Would you like to come back to my place for coffee then?"
* *"Of course!"*
(Arrive, door opens, door closes, coffee brewed)
* "Okay, done making coffee, can we do sex now?"
* *Nooo! You have to tell me you love me, and make me feel special!"*
* "Is it okay to lie?"
* *"Maybe?"*
* "Okay. I love you, you're special, and **now** can we do the bed thing?"
* *"Noo... I have to resist, it says so in allll the movies... (etc etc)"*
I know this isn't quite the situation you're in, but laugh, love and enjoy, and maybe this will give you a smile, and some ideas! | The awkwardness is there to fill a space the same way that there is awkward silence when a conversation stops and nobody knows what to say just then.
To remove or avoid the awkwardness, do not leave an empty space. Instead of going from dinner to sex, make the transition smoother with more steps. Pick your places at the dinner so that you can start with light, playful touches. Then go for a walk or some other activity where more touching is possible. The walk can "coincidentally" lead towards the hotel. Touching becomes kissing, kissing becomes more sexual touching, and this you can easily continue well into the room.
Plus it's more fun this way.
Don't see the space between dinner and bed as awkward. See it as foreplay. |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | For what it is worth as another 40 year old but NOT in the scene, I'd really simply suggest the honest approach. If you feel there is 'sexual tension', the 'hard to get' game isn't so fun.
I may have missed this, but is she local with a house/kids? Reasons not to go that way?
You could say during the last 15 minutes of dinner, ordering dessert, simply- "I'd really like to get dessert but there's nothing here that strikes my fancy. Do you know anywhere else?" That opens up the option for her to invite.
You could also say "I really don't want the evening to end, but I understand you've got to get to work tomorrow. If you don't think you'd be too tired tomorrow, would you like to get a bottle of (beverage) and watch some sort of lousy movie at my hotel? I guarantee it'll be at least 4 years old and with very bad special effects"
OK, more my style on the last one. And you've provided multiple ways for her to say NO without hurting your feelings or implying she owes anything to you.
And you've got to seriously consider that she can say 'no' (And so can you!) at any point. There's nothing that's owed at any point. Even "I really love seeing you on my trips, and would just love to spend more time with you somehow". (careful using the L-word, ya know?).
Good luck. I wish you well and hope that you can find happiness- and that she can too. | It could help to suggest going back to either person's place before dinner ends. If dinner is one hour, then say 15-20 minutes before, you say something a bit more refined than
>
> "Don't let me forget, but I also want to tell you (more) about topic N. I have this-food and that-drink at my place. When we finish dinner we can head there, but for now let's continue with topic K. You were saying ..."
>
>
>
If you are interrupted with a strong objection (not a question) to where you two will go next, then that's a no. Questions are not objections. So don't flake or get timid if asked stuff like "how far away are you", or something teasing like "is that the best place to discuss it".
Then you continue with topic K. Dinner ends: "Let's get a cab/ride-share back for this-food/that-drink." Add a line about it, like "I first had this in..." "can you believe it costs less than the water they leave for you on the counter?"
All the awkwardness comes from waiting until the end to suggest the next location. You suggest mid to 2/3 through the first location, and reference it a 2nd or 3rd time when things end.
Also, it is absolutely OKAY for you so EXPECT sex at some point during the night. The same way I can expect a 6 on the next roll of a dice. It's just and expectation, and there is a 6 on the dice.
It's **not** okay to act inappropriately should the reality not line up with your expectations at some point during the night. I hope that makes sense. (Too many people saying not to expect it. Could the expectation mess with how you interact with her? Yes. It it wrong for you to expect it - i.e. should you not be allowed to think whatever you want? No. Think what you will). |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | I don't think that it is possible to make a completely non-awkward transition from the dinner table to the bedroom if the sole purpose is sex. Of course, you can make it less so, by applying humour and both being able to laugh about the situation. This is something I often do and helped me in general in awkward situations.
My advice albeit would be to not only set the goal to sex but set the goal to a cozy evening together, maybe watch a movie you talked about etc. If everything goes well, you understand each other and have fun, lying in bed, most certainly cuddling will automatically lead to intercourse in most cases (if no one is super shy and both don't like taking the first step).
**Advice:**
So my advice would be to rather than for sex, meet up afterwards for an occupation you both like, aka watching a movie, and you will see what happens. This IMHO is way less "awkward" because you can talk about topics like the movie, or other things while no being so nervous as "what should I do next" because during a movie you have loads of time to go step by step.
**EDIT:**
If you are unsure how to set up the transition you might ask when the dinner is concluding: "As you are also fan of X would you care to watch X together at my room i rented for my stay here? :)"
If there is attraction on both sides this is a no brainer :D Actually thats exactly the way i got together with my current girlfriend after a very very extended coffee. In our case it was Harry Potter ;D | Many years ago, a partner and I (still extremely good friends), used to have fun playing the hell out of this aspect of an evening. Typical conversation:
* "Can we have sex yet?"
* *"Nooo! You've got to invite me in for coffee!"*
* "Okay. Would you like to come back to my place for coffee then?"
* *"Of course!"*
(Arrive, door opens, door closes, coffee brewed)
* "Okay, done making coffee, can we do sex now?"
* *Nooo! You have to tell me you love me, and make me feel special!"*
* "Is it okay to lie?"
* *"Maybe?"*
* "Okay. I love you, you're special, and **now** can we do the bed thing?"
* *"Noo... I have to resist, it says so in allll the movies... (etc etc)"*
I know this isn't quite the situation you're in, but laugh, love and enjoy, and maybe this will give you a smile, and some ideas! |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | [As @JCJ suggests](https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283/how-to-reduce-the-awkwardness-on-the-way-to-the-bedroom/19285#19285), it's unlikely you will eliminate the awkwardness entirely. But one thing you can do is prepare a flimsy reason to invite her to your hotel. For example, "want to get a bottle of wine and drink it in my hotel room?" Most likely, she'll understand what you're really asking, and then the cat will be out of the bag (whether or not either of you acknowledges it verbally). If she accepts the invitation but misses the subtext, that's fine too--you'll have solved the problem of getting to the hotel, and escalation should be easy from there, if she's as interested in you as you say. (Needless to say, you should make sure she's comfortable at every stage of the process, and if she's not, de-escalate things politely.) | I don't think that it is possible to make a completely non-awkward transition from the dinner table to the bedroom if the sole purpose is sex. Of course, you can make it less so, by applying humour and both being able to laugh about the situation. This is something I often do and helped me in general in awkward situations.
My advice albeit would be to not only set the goal to sex but set the goal to a cozy evening together, maybe watch a movie you talked about etc. If everything goes well, you understand each other and have fun, lying in bed, most certainly cuddling will automatically lead to intercourse in most cases (if no one is super shy and both don't like taking the first step).
**Advice:**
So my advice would be to rather than for sex, meet up afterwards for an occupation you both like, aka watching a movie, and you will see what happens. This IMHO is way less "awkward" because you can talk about topics like the movie, or other things while no being so nervous as "what should I do next" because during a movie you have loads of time to go step by step.
**EDIT:**
If you are unsure how to set up the transition you might ask when the dinner is concluding: "As you are also fan of X would you care to watch X together at my room i rented for my stay here? :)"
If there is attraction on both sides this is a no brainer :D Actually thats exactly the way i got together with my current girlfriend after a very very extended coffee. In our case it was Harry Potter ;D |
19,283 | I am a man in my mid-40's and met some time ago an old friend (woman, mid-40's as well) when travelling (to her city). I traveled there again a few times (every few months) and it is obvious that a (very positive) sexual tension between us is raising.
I usually have a dinner with her, then we part ways but there is always this untold sadness that it did not go further (on both sides). Long story short, it is extremely likely that we will end at my hotel over one my next travels.
**My problem (and hers as well) is that we are very much grown ups but also very much inexperienced in how to deal with the transition between the dinner table at a restaurant and the bed in the hotel.**
I would like to make it as "natural" and non-awkward as possible but I honestly do not know how to handle the transition.
To be clear: this is not strictly a dating advice, in the sense that we will be fine during the dinner and (hopefully) fine when in bed - it is really that way in between that is complicated.
Also the fact that we both want it to happen is clear for all kind of reasons.
This will be in a large city, in Europe, the hotel has a restaurant but we will likely have dinner somewhere downtown. | 2018/10/12 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/19283",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/22510/"
] | I don't think that it is possible to make a completely non-awkward transition from the dinner table to the bedroom if the sole purpose is sex. Of course, you can make it less so, by applying humour and both being able to laugh about the situation. This is something I often do and helped me in general in awkward situations.
My advice albeit would be to not only set the goal to sex but set the goal to a cozy evening together, maybe watch a movie you talked about etc. If everything goes well, you understand each other and have fun, lying in bed, most certainly cuddling will automatically lead to intercourse in most cases (if no one is super shy and both don't like taking the first step).
**Advice:**
So my advice would be to rather than for sex, meet up afterwards for an occupation you both like, aka watching a movie, and you will see what happens. This IMHO is way less "awkward" because you can talk about topics like the movie, or other things while no being so nervous as "what should I do next" because during a movie you have loads of time to go step by step.
**EDIT:**
If you are unsure how to set up the transition you might ask when the dinner is concluding: "As you are also fan of X would you care to watch X together at my room i rented for my stay here? :)"
If there is attraction on both sides this is a no brainer :D Actually thats exactly the way i got together with my current girlfriend after a very very extended coffee. In our case it was Harry Potter ;D | As this is more like answer to OP and others, than just comment to @VISQL / @avazula :
I will put it a little bluntly (sorry):
OP say, that he regullary meeats his friend at dinner (every few months or so) and that they enjoy it and that his wish is to end in bed with her sometime in future, and he feels, that it may be possible (so she may feel like that too), but it is AWKWARD to make steps from dinner to bed.
They both are adults, they respect each other and are friends. It is really possible, that it may result in the bed - would not be first or last time in world.
The pure fast, that she meets him on dinner each time possible and they both enjoy the time and are sad, when it ends suggest, that there may be more, if situation will came right way.
So I read VISQL comment in the way, that OP SHOULD expect, it will happen and so BE PREPARED for it (that means not run away in panic, if they happens one night in his hotel room in romantic mood). He does not say to FORCE her into it against her will, but he say to keep in mind, that it is possible (and desired) result and that OP should be positivly thinking toward it. (If I expect, that I MAY end in hotel room with my friend, I would make sure the room is tidy, there are like two wine glases and wine bottle somwhere, as well as there are two cups and coffie maker with coffie and suggar ready, also some chips or something like that, BEFORE I leave the room for dinner (and also be sure, that I have condom or two, just in case, but not in clean display). (If my expectation came true, then it would help, if not, it does not hurt.)
On the dinner I would keep in mind, that I want this nice end and I expect it to eventually happen. So I would invite her over the dinner to (say) see movie with me in sure way and with positive thinking about that, like " ... BTW I got recently this movie I enojeyd it and was thinking, you would also enjoy it, so I took it with me, would you like to see it with mee today?" (expecting her to say something like "hmm, why not" or so and take it as yes. Also if the reaply is "Shoud I do it? Would not be that inapropriate?" I would say "Yes, sure you should. I would be really glad, if you do." - but if she say "Sorry, I cannot today I have to go there and there and ... and ..." then I would reply like "Ok, maybe next time?" (maybe she really does not so much time today) and finish the dinner happy as usual and offer it next time too. But if she say "Sorry, I am happyly maried, I would feel that like cheating" or "Sorry, I do not want to go that far", then I would say "Oh, no problem, anyway, I like to have dinners with you and talk about so much things" and left it be as it is)
Yes, if she take all my offers positively and we end in bed and are happy next morning, it is like the expected 6 on a dice - does not happen each time, but MAY happen. And all went well as I expected. If she turn it down for today, it like 4-5 on a dice, happens, no reason to expect I will get 6 next time I try. If she turn it down totally, its like 1-3 on dice, not what I hoped for, but if I take it right, we will be still friends, who does to "just dinner" every few months.
---
On the other hand if I would expect, that there is no way for positive result (I would even not try at all, but if I would), that it would sound more like "I have that movie on my room, but I suppose, you will not go with me to hotel anyway" (and she will turn it down for sure - or nearly for sure, depends, how much she wants that result). So better EXPECT the best, but be not discouraged if not everything will go the best possible way. Just avoid the worst way and be nice and fair all time.
---
Also try to think about how it looks from other side - she meets you regullary, she feels good with you, but she is not the one, who should offer spending night together - you are not Prince on White Horse and she is not 16 anymore to faint, if you just smile on her - so the common sense is, that you would say her nice words, you would suggest to do next small step, then another, until you are there, where you want to be, while she is expected to accept it, if she is comfort with it, or even "little defend, but not so much, that she would succeed with defence" to make her more valuable price and "not so easy to get" - its a game and while you both enjoy playing, it is ok to play it. If she would like to stop, if would be told in different tone ("I am not sure, if I should accept such invitation"/"Yes, such beautiful lady really should do"/"You talked me into it" versus "Sorry, I do not want to"/"Sorry, did not want to press you"/"Anyway, will we have dinner again next time?"/"Yes, we will")
---
Any way, if it goes well, you are expected to do a lot of "small steps", each little far, then previous and let her decide, if she want to accept it, or stop it just there. You can bet, she takes care about her, she knows it, you know it, it is common sense for mature woman to dress good, have some nice earings/bracelet/parfume/clothes/shoes/whatever, when she goes to dinner with old friend. But still it is good to compliment her on that, on dinner about bigger visuals (that color really suits you and makes you hair even more beautiful), in cab, when you sit near each other, than in restaurant (you smell really sweet), in the hole room (yous skin is so soft and warm) - yes she knows, but it makes her happy anyway - and it is true, so nothing to be ashamed to say.
You tell her about the video in course of dinner, let her some time and ask here to go see it near the end of dinner (if she react immediately like "I would like to see it" - if basically mean "I just want you to make me offers for each next step, so I can agree, as I cannot say it beforehand, just ask me and let me to say YES"), talk about it and about her in the cab, offer her some wine/coffe, run the video, put the chips in bowel and sit near her to share it, then touch her, put hand around shouldes, touch her hends and more ... still expect, that if she went so far, she would go even another step, until she say to stop. If she does, then stop (ofcourse), but then you know, that next time you can safely go so far and maybe one or more steps too. It is not problem, if she is not ready continue today, maybe next time. But expect, that she would like to continue, until she state otherwise, as it is you, who should do these steps.
Your intent to sleep with here is like 100% (if she would agree), but there is a lot of awkwardness around the way. It is possible, that just now her intent to sleep with you is also high, but the awkwardness totally stops her, from saying so. But she may agree to do a lot of small steps, with are not so awkward and could be seen as logical, you just present them as "totally normal for adults as us" and she is required to not reject it (it is much much easier, that to initiate it).
Imagine, what would happen with awkwardness, if she would next time invite you for a little walk, then some hot tea at her home, run some movie, while talking about something else, then put out two glases and bottle of wine on table and sit near you, just sipping the wine, head on your shoulder, looking at the movie. And on titles she would excuse herself, went in bathroom, return in towel and offer you to use the bathroom too. Where it would end. And how muchj it would be awkward to you to "just agree" with each of these steps, if presented like something "normal and expected".
(Yes, would be little awkward, but not so much and I bet, you would just follow, even if you would on the start on dinner had intent only like 30% to sleep with her - it there would be no contradiction.)
So this is, what I think, that VISQL meant with EXPECT the positive result as you would EXPECT 6 on the dice you just throw. It may happen, it may not, be cool, if it does not happen, but EXPECTING it you make it more probably to happen it and lot less awkward at all. |
288,011 | Recently we migrated few sites from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint online. The source site had few managed metadata columns. For each of these columns, SP2010 had created a Single line of text column with a `_0` suffix. For example, if the managed metadata column name is Location, then it also had a location\_0 column.
In the source this column is hidden and it is not showing up in the Edit form, but in the destination, these columns are showing up in the edit form for the same content type
Is there a way to edit the Edit form? I can see these column only in SharePoint designer but I don't have any option to make them hidden | 2020/12/16 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/288011",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/41560/"
] | The green tick icon means it is locally available (stored on your device) and can be opened when offline but if you have Storage Sense enabled these files will become online only again after an amount of time that you have set.
The solid green circle with a white tick means the file will always will be available on your device if you are offline (stored locally). The Storage Sense policy would not make this file online only after a certain period of time.
More information can be found here:
<https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/save-disk-space-with-onedrive-files-on-demand-for-windows-10-0e6860d3-d9f3-4971-b321-7092438fb38e> | As is referred to the [document](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/save-disk-space-with-onedrive-files-on-demand-for-windows-10-0e6860d3-d9f3-4971-b321-7092438fb38e) mentioned:
If you right click on the file and select “**Always keep on this device**”, you get the second icon for the synced file. It takes up space on local drive of your machine and will be available via this folder under all circumstances.
If you do not select this option, then you get the first icon. The file works more like temporary files and will be automatically free from this device when you have **[Storage Sense](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/use-onedrive-and-storage-sense-in-windows-10-to-manage-disk-space-de5faa9a-6108-4be1-87a6-d90688d08a48)** configured.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5kkv4.png) |
31,429 | We're hosting a LAN party (several computers, 50+) and I had some questions about power draw; I hope this is the right place to ask.
Currently, we're assuming each PC will draw an average of 3.5 amps. We have several 20amp circuits, so we're putting 5 PCs on each 20amp circuit.
How concerned should we be with extension cord quality? Our plan is to run two 16/3 cables from each circuit, and run about 3 PCs per cord. Should there be any issues with this? Would going with 14/3 cables really be any better?
We considered going with single 12/3 cables and running all 5/6 PCs from that single cord... but given that the max listed amperage on these is 15A, that doesn't give us the amount of power consumption we're going to require. | 2013/09/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/31429",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/14927/"
] | Extension cords need to be chosen according to the length and load. The following chart will guide you to the correct gauge to choose for any one extension cord. You might choose several different gauges in order to save money, properly configured you won't need to put 12awg wire everywhere:
To carry 20 amps any distance, you'll need 12awg cable. You could use one 50 foot 12awg cable to carry the current to a table, then three 16awg cables to carry the current to one or two computers each.
You might find it cheaper, however, to run two 14awg wires in parallel from one outlet than to run one 12awg wire.
Keep in mind that while some cable calculators and tables will indicate that 16awg can handle 20A, the cable will heat up, and if you've properly secured it to the floor using tape or channels with other cables running parallel, the heat buildup can be significant and dangerous. Particularly with long runs.
You should also consult with the hotel - many of them have requirements for extension cord use in conference areas, and in some cases you will be required to use their cables and installers in order to meet their safety and load planning requirements.
If you pay attention to the chart you'll note that each cable size and load include a voltage drop. You'll also realize that due to the wiring at the venue you'll see a voltage drop at the outlet as well. This will result in a lower voltage at each computer than 120V. However, as long as you keep your voltage drop below 10%, and the venue is wired correctly producing a less than 10% drop to the outlet under load, then it is unlikely that your computers will experience any problems. Most computing equipment that uses AC power has a universal power supply that accepts a wide range of voltage, often down to 90VAC. It will be a rare computer or peripheral that will have problems with the voltage drop presented by a suitably rated cable. | I seriously advise against attempting this in what, is assumed to be, a domestic residence on single phase power. Very few dwellings have an incoming capacity over 100A. I agree with the post re current draw per computer, it seems a very low estimate.
Do consult your local utility provider.
The issue of extension leads is secondary to the current demands on the in house installation. |
31,429 | We're hosting a LAN party (several computers, 50+) and I had some questions about power draw; I hope this is the right place to ask.
Currently, we're assuming each PC will draw an average of 3.5 amps. We have several 20amp circuits, so we're putting 5 PCs on each 20amp circuit.
How concerned should we be with extension cord quality? Our plan is to run two 16/3 cables from each circuit, and run about 3 PCs per cord. Should there be any issues with this? Would going with 14/3 cables really be any better?
We considered going with single 12/3 cables and running all 5/6 PCs from that single cord... but given that the max listed amperage on these is 15A, that doesn't give us the amount of power consumption we're going to require. | 2013/09/04 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/31429",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/14927/"
] | Extension cords need to be chosen according to the length and load. The following chart will guide you to the correct gauge to choose for any one extension cord. You might choose several different gauges in order to save money, properly configured you won't need to put 12awg wire everywhere:
To carry 20 amps any distance, you'll need 12awg cable. You could use one 50 foot 12awg cable to carry the current to a table, then three 16awg cables to carry the current to one or two computers each.
You might find it cheaper, however, to run two 14awg wires in parallel from one outlet than to run one 12awg wire.
Keep in mind that while some cable calculators and tables will indicate that 16awg can handle 20A, the cable will heat up, and if you've properly secured it to the floor using tape or channels with other cables running parallel, the heat buildup can be significant and dangerous. Particularly with long runs.
You should also consult with the hotel - many of them have requirements for extension cord use in conference areas, and in some cases you will be required to use their cables and installers in order to meet their safety and load planning requirements.
If you pay attention to the chart you'll note that each cable size and load include a voltage drop. You'll also realize that due to the wiring at the venue you'll see a voltage drop at the outlet as well. This will result in a lower voltage at each computer than 120V. However, as long as you keep your voltage drop below 10%, and the venue is wired correctly producing a less than 10% drop to the outlet under load, then it is unlikely that your computers will experience any problems. Most computing equipment that uses AC power has a universal power supply that accepts a wide range of voltage, often down to 90VAC. It will be a rare computer or peripheral that will have problems with the voltage drop presented by a suitably rated cable. | You could try first to load up the sockets/receptacles you intend to use with appliances that overall will demand the same power all your computers will need. Make them as equal as possible.
See if breakers trip. As someone else has said it may be that all or a number of your 20 amp sockets are using the same breaker. In which case it won't work.
If you have 50 computers drawing 3.5 amps each that is 50 x 3.5 amps = 175 amps.
175 Amps @120 volts is 21 KWatts. Quite a lot of power. So plug appliances into the sockets you have available equally.
If you have 10 sockets try to load them up with 2.1 KWatt loads. This is equivalent to 2100W/120V = 17.5 amps load each.
I really expect you will get trouble- they will most likely cause tripping because some sockets will be using the same breaker.
At least you'll know.
If all should be well use the excellent chart given elsewhere on current carrying capacity and voltage drop. |
356,419 | I'm confused regarding what options I have to be able to keep working on my work computer.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xwQxT.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/rcl7H.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/y2mwD.png)
According to DiskSweeper, this is how my 500GB disk space is used:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/01ipo.png)
Besides from things that cannot be backed up (applications, library, system...) most of the data is my working files.
In my workflow as a designer, I often open old projects for insight or to reuse previous assets.
If I made a **hard drive** copy and then deleted it from my laptop, I'd have to plug the hard drive in every time I need to consult an old project or do a search, and I'd have to know exactly what I recently modified each time I want to do a backup.
If I made a **Cloud** copy and then deleted from my laptop, I'd often have to download very large files just to get previews of large files or videos (for example Backblaze doesn't offer file thumbnails).
If I used **Time Machine**, then got rid of the files on my HD, some of the oldest versions would disappear after a while when Time Machine runs out of space or notices I deleted them from my HD.
***Are there other options out there that are not too complicated, and would allow me to have a full copy of my work as accessible as possible, but not hosted on my computer's HD?*** | 2019/04/09 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/356419",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/132532/"
] | First step would be to go through your files and get rid of things you no longer need. An app like GrandPerspective can make it easy to locate files that are taking up a lot of space.
If you’ve cleaned your drive of all unwanted files and you still don’t have enough space, then you should consider replacing your internal drive with a larger capacity drive. Just make sure to get one big enough that you won’t fill it up for quite a while.
If you don’t want to replace your internal drive, then the next best option is an external drive. As for the caveats you mention, you could just leave the drive mounted all the time. That way the files are always available to you when you need them. And for keeping track of files that need to be backed up, just get a good backup app, like ChronoSync. They are designed to keep track of modified files and back them up on whatever schedule you designate. | Also, you probably should read [this information about the ideosyncracies of APFS.](https://eclecticlight.co/2019/04/04/quantum-computing-and-apfs-free-and-used-space/)
I'm not sure I like it, but it's good to know. |
129,970 | Is there a word to describe a person who makes up nice quotations? | 2013/10/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/129970",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/51503/"
] | Someone who makes something up isn't quoting anything, but they might coin a particularly quotable phrase.
Such a phrase can be called an **epigram**,
>
> a pithy saying or remark expressing an idea in a clever and amusing way
>
>
> [[ODO]](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/epigram)
>
>
>
...and the person who concocts it is called an **epigrammatist**. | Depending on usage, perhaps you should coin a new word that fits with what you are writing. Sometimes the best usage of words is to create new words that others will understand even if they aren't part of the common vernacular.
The person is a quotemaster.
They are very quotiferous.
They are double plus quotable. (I love and hate Newspeak) |
36,437,727 | I have been doing some profiling of a physics application I wrote, and I've noticed when I profile it, it runs faster and perhaps smoother than without the profiler. Note that I am NOT running the program in the debug configuration or with the debugger attached.
I measured the difference, and I found program runs ~50% faster under the profiler. I don't consider this a duplicate because the other question doesn't make it clear whether he/she was running it with the debugger attached, and the top answer assumes that's the case (And the 20x speedup strongly indicates it would be the correct answer in most cases).
Another answer suggests a "heisenburg" bug, but that's kind of a catchall hypothesis (I'm still going to investigate down this line).
Is it possible that Visual Studio does something that prevents other applications from interfering with my application's compute or memory resources (in order to get a "fairer" result)? | 2016/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36437727",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2345397/"
] | Visual Studio's "CPU Usage" profiler appears to disregard laptop power usage settings, so if you run an application on a laptop that is trying to conserve battery power, it will run slower than if you run the profiler on it.
I discovered this when I got home from work- I noticed the speed difference had disappeared. On a hunch, I unplugged my laptop and tried the test several more times. The speed difference returned. What's more, under the profiler, the application runs at about the same speed plugged in or not.
I was not able to find any sources on this, but I'll be happy to edit them in if someone can find some. | If you use threading in your code, this can be caused due to the System Timer Resolution in Windows.
>
> Default windows timer resolution is 15.6ms
>
>
>
When you are running the profiler, this is reduced to 1ms and your program run fast.
Checkout this [answer](https://stackoverflow.com/a/38404066/4353760) |
187,254 | I'm in the USA. I relocated across the state for a new job before the pandemic because my employer had a no remote work policy when I was originally hired, but most of our department, myself included, have been working 100% remote since COVID and don't even have physical offices anymore. In fact, about a fifth of our staff have relocated outside the area, some to other states or even the other side of the country.
I love my job, but my wife and I aren't happy living in this city. The cost of living is just too high for us to meet our life goals, despite downgrading our living standards. We want to move back to our hometown (same state) but it may be awhile before my wife can find work there. I love my job and just want to change the location from which I work remotely, as many of my coworkers have recently.
When should I talk to my boss about this? How should I broach the subject? What details should I make sure to include, and what is irrelevant?
Note: I work for the government and it has historically taken a year or more to hire for my position. On top of that our office is only about 60% staffed and has had trouble hiring anyone at all for the past two years. So I don't think mentioning this to my boss will be an instant "fire and forget" scenario. I just want to make it as easy as possible for everyone. | 2022/09/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/187254",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/136568/"
] | >
> I love my job and just want to change the location from which I work remotely, as many of my coworkers have recently.
>
>
>
If many of your coworkers have already worked remotely from outside the city where your company is located, then you can use them as examples and ask your boss if you are allowed to do the same. This should make it easier for you to justify your reason to move.
In addition, you can also mention the high cost of living in the city of your company as another good reason.
---
At the very least, I don't think your boss would get mad when you approach him about this subject as he already allows many of your coworkers to work remotely. | >
> When should I talk to my boss about this?
>
>
>
Now. Ask your boss if they have a few minutes to chat.
>
> How should I broach the subject?
>
>
>
Keep it simple. Something like 'What's the chance I could go 100% remote?" would work.
This assumes you have a decent, non-contentious, relationship with your boss. |
187,254 | I'm in the USA. I relocated across the state for a new job before the pandemic because my employer had a no remote work policy when I was originally hired, but most of our department, myself included, have been working 100% remote since COVID and don't even have physical offices anymore. In fact, about a fifth of our staff have relocated outside the area, some to other states or even the other side of the country.
I love my job, but my wife and I aren't happy living in this city. The cost of living is just too high for us to meet our life goals, despite downgrading our living standards. We want to move back to our hometown (same state) but it may be awhile before my wife can find work there. I love my job and just want to change the location from which I work remotely, as many of my coworkers have recently.
When should I talk to my boss about this? How should I broach the subject? What details should I make sure to include, and what is irrelevant?
Note: I work for the government and it has historically taken a year or more to hire for my position. On top of that our office is only about 60% staffed and has had trouble hiring anyone at all for the past two years. So I don't think mentioning this to my boss will be an instant "fire and forget" scenario. I just want to make it as easy as possible for everyone. | 2022/09/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/187254",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/136568/"
] | >
> I love my job and just want to change the location from which I work remotely, as many of my coworkers have recently.
>
>
>
If many of your coworkers have already worked remotely from outside the city where your company is located, then you can use them as examples and ask your boss if you are allowed to do the same. This should make it easier for you to justify your reason to move.
In addition, you can also mention the high cost of living in the city of your company as another good reason.
---
At the very least, I don't think your boss would get mad when you approach him about this subject as he already allows many of your coworkers to work remotely. | This should be a pretty straight-forward conversation with your boss. It can even be as simple as a quick message over your company's preferred service (Teams, Slack, whatever), rather than a big 1-1 meeting. It seems relatively commonplace for your peers to move elsewhere, and I can imagine that it will be just as easy for you to do so. If you have been 100% remote, logic dictates that you can be remote from anywhere.
Keep in mind that you are also not asking to move out of state. Some/most companies will have restrictions on which states you can move to,for tax and other reasons, but this isn't an issue for you, and I believe you won't have much pushback on this ask. |
187,254 | I'm in the USA. I relocated across the state for a new job before the pandemic because my employer had a no remote work policy when I was originally hired, but most of our department, myself included, have been working 100% remote since COVID and don't even have physical offices anymore. In fact, about a fifth of our staff have relocated outside the area, some to other states or even the other side of the country.
I love my job, but my wife and I aren't happy living in this city. The cost of living is just too high for us to meet our life goals, despite downgrading our living standards. We want to move back to our hometown (same state) but it may be awhile before my wife can find work there. I love my job and just want to change the location from which I work remotely, as many of my coworkers have recently.
When should I talk to my boss about this? How should I broach the subject? What details should I make sure to include, and what is irrelevant?
Note: I work for the government and it has historically taken a year or more to hire for my position. On top of that our office is only about 60% staffed and has had trouble hiring anyone at all for the past two years. So I don't think mentioning this to my boss will be an instant "fire and forget" scenario. I just want to make it as easy as possible for everyone. | 2022/09/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/187254",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/136568/"
] | This should be a pretty straight-forward conversation with your boss. It can even be as simple as a quick message over your company's preferred service (Teams, Slack, whatever), rather than a big 1-1 meeting. It seems relatively commonplace for your peers to move elsewhere, and I can imagine that it will be just as easy for you to do so. If you have been 100% remote, logic dictates that you can be remote from anywhere.
Keep in mind that you are also not asking to move out of state. Some/most companies will have restrictions on which states you can move to,for tax and other reasons, but this isn't an issue for you, and I believe you won't have much pushback on this ask. | >
> When should I talk to my boss about this?
>
>
>
Now. Ask your boss if they have a few minutes to chat.
>
> How should I broach the subject?
>
>
>
Keep it simple. Something like 'What's the chance I could go 100% remote?" would work.
This assumes you have a decent, non-contentious, relationship with your boss. |
499,029 | I am a bit confused as to how to use the default VLAN on a 3Com 4210.
The switch is configured out of the box with all ports on a default VLAN 1. I need 4 VLANs on this switch:
* 100 - Internal WIFI
* 101 - Internal LAN
* 200 - Guest WIFI
* 999 - Management LAN for my wireless access points (also for switch ??)
So my question is around the default VLAN 1. I don't want this VLAN, but I can't remove it (web GUI says VLAN 1 cant be modified). So what risks does this impose? If **all** my ports ends up in this VLAN then don't this go against what VLANs are all about? I don't want this broadcast domain between all ports. I want to cut this switch up and have 4 ports for wireless access points (these are trunks - WAP's will be untagged VALN 999; Internal WIFI 100; Guest WIFI 200), 20 ports for internal LAN and the two trunks that connect the switch to the pfSense router (Alix 2D13).
 | 2013/04/13 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/499029",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/149802/"
] | You don't need to get rid of the VLAN, just don't assign any ports/MACs etc. to it, then it's just sat around doing nothing, no more or less risky than creating a new VLAN and not assigning it.
By the way, what's doing your routing? | I agree with the response of Chopper3.
If you assign a port to a vlan, say 200 ( untagged and put the port in access mode ), then he will not be part of vlan1. Access port can only contain 1 untagged vlan. So no worry about those ports.
Put your uplink ports in mode trunk. Trunk ports can only contain tagged traffic. Vlan1 is default untagged ( aka there wont be a vlan tag on your traffic ), hence the traffic of vlan1 won't go through your upstream ports.
So looking at your image, there won't be a problem if you put your "access" ports in a vlan different from 1 and you 2 uplink as "trunk" ports.
Security tip for unused ports
-----------------------------
What we do in our company is, we let all the unused (ports with no cable/destination) ports in vlan1 ( aka the default vlan ). But put add vlan 1 to the forbidden vlan list on the uplink port ( even not needed if you put your uplink port in "trunk" mode ). This way if somebody connects its device to a port that was not assigned a known vlan ( aka 100,101,200,999 ) then he can do no harm. He can talk to other devices connected on that switch in vlan 1 but can't leave the switch and go further on to your network.
You can go further, on most managed switch set the port disabled. But have complains of colleagues who seek 30min for a working cable ( one that show's link ) to then just find out his port is disabled and the cable is just fine... |
499,029 | I am a bit confused as to how to use the default VLAN on a 3Com 4210.
The switch is configured out of the box with all ports on a default VLAN 1. I need 4 VLANs on this switch:
* 100 - Internal WIFI
* 101 - Internal LAN
* 200 - Guest WIFI
* 999 - Management LAN for my wireless access points (also for switch ??)
So my question is around the default VLAN 1. I don't want this VLAN, but I can't remove it (web GUI says VLAN 1 cant be modified). So what risks does this impose? If **all** my ports ends up in this VLAN then don't this go against what VLANs are all about? I don't want this broadcast domain between all ports. I want to cut this switch up and have 4 ports for wireless access points (these are trunks - WAP's will be untagged VALN 999; Internal WIFI 100; Guest WIFI 200), 20 ports for internal LAN and the two trunks that connect the switch to the pfSense router (Alix 2D13).
 | 2013/04/13 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/499029",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/149802/"
] | You don't need to get rid of the VLAN, just don't assign any ports/MACs etc. to it, then it's just sat around doing nothing, no more or less risky than creating a new VLAN and not assigning it.
By the way, what's doing your routing? | The issue with 3com switches saying "the vlan N cannot be modified" is caused by the port's mode not being set (access, hybrid, trunk, fabric).
I just wanted to clarify this since it's not apparent.
The cli command "display this" in the specific interface you're editing is your friend ;-) |
86,639 | Let us assume that we are given a connected, undirected graph. Under the assumption that no three points are collinear, such a graph is uniquely realizable in the plane iff we can certify that it is generically globally rigid. A graph is generically globally rigid iff it is (i) generically redundantly rigid, and (ii) 3-connected (Laman, Hendrikson, Jackson and Jordan).
The graph below is 3-connected and generically rigid in the plane. However, it is not redundantly rigid (the removal of edge [4,3] permits nodes [1,2,5,6] to shear). Therefore, by definition it cannot be generically globally rigid. However, I cannot see any local or global degrees of freedom in this graph. A lack of generic rigidity would introduce an obvious flex, while a lack of 3-connectivity would introduce cut vertex pairs that form an axis of reflection. What degree of freedom does redundant rigidity constrain? Am I missing something? I apologise if this is painfully obvious.
[alt text http://www.freeimagehosting.net/newuploads/2bl75.png](http://www.freeimagehosting.net/newuploads/2bl75.png) | 2012/01/25 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/86639",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/20085/"
] | 
Image created using [Cinderella](https://cinderella.de/tiki-index.php). | The graph is generically globally flexible in the plane (see Joe's example). But even for such a graph, there can be special (non-generic) drawings that are globally rigid. Yours is one such drawing. Violations in this direction can only occur when the drawing itself becomes infinitesimally flexible (ie. its rigidity matrix drops its rank). |
86,639 | Let us assume that we are given a connected, undirected graph. Under the assumption that no three points are collinear, such a graph is uniquely realizable in the plane iff we can certify that it is generically globally rigid. A graph is generically globally rigid iff it is (i) generically redundantly rigid, and (ii) 3-connected (Laman, Hendrikson, Jackson and Jordan).
The graph below is 3-connected and generically rigid in the plane. However, it is not redundantly rigid (the removal of edge [4,3] permits nodes [1,2,5,6] to shear). Therefore, by definition it cannot be generically globally rigid. However, I cannot see any local or global degrees of freedom in this graph. A lack of generic rigidity would introduce an obvious flex, while a lack of 3-connectivity would introduce cut vertex pairs that form an axis of reflection. What degree of freedom does redundant rigidity constrain? Am I missing something? I apologise if this is painfully obvious.
[alt text http://www.freeimagehosting.net/newuploads/2bl75.png](http://www.freeimagehosting.net/newuploads/2bl75.png) | 2012/01/25 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/86639",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/20085/"
] | 
Image created using [Cinderella](https://cinderella.de/tiki-index.php). | As per your question of what degree of freedom redundant rigidity constrains, my understanding is this: if the graph is not redundantly rigid, then the removal of an edge (here 3-4), introduces an internal degree of freedom. As you move along that degree of freedom, the 3-4 distance is guaranteed (for some realizations), as I understand, to revert to its original value before the graph reverts to its original configuration, and therefore a second embedding of the original graph is produced. |
54,302 | I was curious if I could cheat my way around having to focus stack an object by using different lenses. Playing with the [Depth of Field calculator](http://www.dofmaster.com/dofjs.html) I noticed something interesting: No matter what focal length I select the depth of field for the same angle of view (at the subject) is constant.
For example, fixing sensor format at APS-C, aparture at f/22, and a supposing I need a distance from subject of 2m for a 300mm lens I get a depth of field of 3cm. I get the same DoF with a 600mm lens at 4m, 150mm at 1m, and 75mm at 0.5m.
Is this a quirk of practical lenses (or of that calculator), or is there a theoretical constraint here, and if the latter can someone show the math and theory?
**Update:** To clarify some potential confusion in the first paragraph, the question may be restated as follows: *Given a fixed sensor, object, aperture, and magnification, is it possible to vary Depth of Field by varying lens focal length?* | 2014/09/16 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/54302",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/27832/"
] | You are simply making the wrong assumptions. Just "playing around" and thinking you see a correlation doesn't mean that it actually exists. You've just fixed the sensor format at APS-C, aperture at f/22 and tried varying the focal length and subject distance a bit and thought that you saw a correlation.
However if you try these settings for example: f/2.8, Canon 1ds mk II, 12 mm and 0.5 m. You will get a total DOF of 0.31 meters. Change the settings to f/2.8, Canon 1ds mk II, 1200 mm and 50 m and you will get a total DOF of 0.29 meters.
The presumption that the DoF doesn't depend on the subject distance divided by the focal length isn't correct. You can further convince yourself of this by looking at this [excellent answer by jrista](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/9626), by looking at the [Wikipedia article about DoF](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Depth_of_field#DOF_formulas) or by simply look at the [formulas used by the Depth of Field calculator](http://www.dofmaster.com/equations.html) to calculate the DoF. They all cover or derive from the same formula albeit to different degrees of approximation:
See the various sources cited above for its explanation. | Firstly, focus stacking is generally used for macro photography. So, you'll want to keep the camera in the same position to have consistent framing.
As mattdm has commented, you get different background compressions. The same thing [when you use the same focal length, but different sensor sizes and subject distance.](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/39191/do-crop-sensors-on-slrs-changes-the-depth-and-flatness-of-the-objects-as-well/47322#47322)
**Invariants in subject size and depth of field?**
So, you have the an object of proportionally different sizes and you want to keep the *subject distance* the same?
So, a smaller object for a longer focal length and a bigger object for a shorter focal length? Yes, I guess this could work. Again, I think there would be background compression issues here.
Depends of the object, really. And you would want to keep things pretty consistent if you wanted to focus stack.
EDIT: Yes. The DoF would be more on a longer focal length and less on a shorter focal length, keeping the aperture and subject distance constance. But it would be hard work to get an object of different sizes to look proportionally the same size in each frame. |
199,729 | I need to pass credit card information for a travel reservation, and I am thinking of splitting it over email and text. The credit card number itself would be send over text, while expiration date and verification number would be send over email. How would you evaluate this technique in terms of security? | 2018/12/14 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/199729",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/170792/"
] | Technically not secure, although as a result of a push by Google in the last couple of years, most (90 % ish) server-to-server email relays now use an encrypted connection, but it's still clear text on each server.
If you're going to provide the info, doing so by a voice call is probably as practical as possible.
Since you're already considering email for a piece, I suggest simply encrypting the email.
Ideally all parties would be familiar with using PGP/GPG for encryption, but unfortunately this is unlikely. Instead, put it in a file and ZIP it with a password. Most people know how to handle ZIP files. You still need to deliver the password out-of-band but you can do that with a voice call or depending upon the relationship with a cryptic reference common to you both. | Both SMS and email don't use encryption and aren't authenticated, so technically they are not secure. However, in practice it is unlikely that your credit card number will be compromised.
Assuming you know this other person well, a slightly better way would be to pass information by phone. This way, you at least know that the recipient is who you think it is.
Normally, credit card companies have protection against abuse and are quite lenient in giving you your money back if your card is abused. However, if you willingly give your number and verification number to another party this may change things. |
313,166 | For a particular design, I need to take an unregulated voltage from a battery and regulate 5 different DC voltages from it. What's worse is that I need step-up and step-down converters. What's *even worse* is that some voltages need more current than others.
*Note: To clarify the question, I've given the specific voltages that I need. However, keep in mind that I'm wondering what to do **in general**, not just this specific case.*
The battery voltage is 11.1 V, which drops as it discharges. I need to create:
* 15 V
* 12 V
* 5.5 V
* 5.0 V
* 3.3 V
The 12 V level needs to run at least 1 A, and the three lowest need to run about 200 mA each. The 15 V level doesn't use more than 50 mA.
So this is my question: would it be better to go from the battery to 15 V to 12 V to 5.5 V to 5.0 V to 3.3 V, or would it be better to just connect all 5 regulators directly to the battery? | 2017/06/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/313166",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/36229/"
] | I have often wondered this myself, and each time what I come down to is a trade-off. The most obvious trade-off is the following:
Pro: Cascading them generally causes the lower-voltage regulators to stay cooler (you're not dropping as much voltage with them, so you're wasting less power in the form of heat).
Con: Your first regulator would need to be able to supply enough current for all of the circuitry running off each of the other regulators (and this is the case all the way down the chain). This means that your top-level regulator would have to be big and beefy compared to the regulators that are fed from it.
Sometimes the pro wins (for example, all of the circuitry on each of the power rails only draws milliamps of current, so you don't need a powerful regulator at the top), and sometimes the con wins (you can't find a top-level regulator that can supply enough current, so you opt for large heat sinks and extensive cooling systems).
You, as the designer, will need to analyze all potential cases and make sure the circuitry can handle any stress that it might see during normal operation. | You should also take care about making your system failsafe. I will go in a details by explaining what I've done in a recent project.
I've had battery pack and DC/DC to 5V/6A and in a need of 24V/2A supply. There were 2 options, use one DC/DC to to 24V/2A and the cascade that with 5V DC/DC supply or take Vpack->5V and Vpack->24V opton. Just to be clear, no LDO/Linear regulators were able to do that.
The end solution used another DC/DC from battery pack to make 24V/2A.
**Pro's:**
In case of hazard at 24V, only that part of circuit is being damaged.
Only one type of IC is avaiable.
**Con's:**
Increased PCB footprint of solution.
Now back to your question, everything is a tradeoff - without knowing anything about how much you are willing to pay for efficiency of power supply, no detailed answer is possible. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | In Star Trek (2009), when Spock retrieves future Spock's ship from Nero's ship, the computer recognizes young Spock via a facial recognition feature.
The computer can't seem to tell the difference between the two Spock faces, which would suggest that canon-wise, the faces haven't changed. | I discuss a similar matter in post # 409 here:
<https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830>[1](https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830)
>
> Did you ever hear of a frame story? That is an almost totally obsolete storytelling technique used in old time stories like, for example, *Frankenstein: or, The Modern Prometheus* (1818), a short story that explains how the writer learned of the events in the main story.
>
>
> When we read or watch a work of fiction, we suspend our disbelief and sort of kind of believe that the fiction is, in some sense, sort of real. But we don't forget about the real world. If the fictional setting of the story is too different from what we know of the real world there is a degree of need for an explanation for the differences.
>
>
> If a story is set in the distant past, the frame story could be that an ancient manuscript telling the story has been discovered, or maybe that the writers read a bunch of history books written in ancient times that told the story. So if a story is set in the past, we can easily imagine a rather simple frame story that explains how the events are known in the present.
>
>
> But if a science fiction story is set in the future, then the frame story that explains how events in the future became known in the past is itself a science fiction story involving time travel.
>
>
> Since frame stories are rarely ever used, readers or viewers of science fiction stories set in the future are free to make up their own frame stories about how the future data became known in the present.
>
>
> And such possible frame stories vary greatly in how much of what we see is "actually" true future data and how much is "actually" contemporary attempts to depict the future based on incomplete data.
>
>
> On one extreme *Star Trek* episodes could be actual record tapes made in the future and edited in the present into episode or movie length. That would make them very accurate. On another extreme, *Star Trek* episodes might be based on mission reports from the future that were used to write teleplays, and all the visual and sound aspects of the episodes are contemporary attempts to depict the future and not really canon.
>
>
>
If *Star Trek* episodes and movies are record tapes of future events somehow sent back in time to our era and edited into episode and movie lengths, then the look of everything is 100 percent accurate and the differences between the appearances of the two sets of actors is a real problem to be investigated.
On the other hand, if *Star Trek* episodes and movies were produced in the ordinary 20th and 21st century way, but were based on future mission reports sent back in time to the present somehow, only the plot elements dictated by those 23rd century mission reports would be accurate and canonical and the looks of everything, including the appearance of the characters, would be due to 20th century TV and movie production and not canonical data.
For example, every stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is based on Shakespeare's play, and many of them have the exact same plot and dialog if they are totally faithful to the source play. But the actors, costumes, landscape, sets, and other visual aspects look different from production to production. One might say that the look of a particular stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of that particular production, but none of the visual looks of any production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of Shakespeare's *MacBeth* as a written script for a play.
(And of course Shakespeare's play *MacBeth* is based on various history books available in his time, which were based on earlier history books, and so on back for five hundred years to the actual historical events which inspired *MacBeth*, though it would be possible to write a play that was far closer to the real history than *MacBeth* is.)
And it is perfectly possible to imagine a frame story for *Star Trek* in which many Starfleet mission reports and logs have been sent from the future into the present and are used as the scripts for filming episodes and movies based on the future history in those reports. So the *Star Trek* plots might be almost 100 percent accurate, just as the plots of most productions of *MacBeth* are faithful to Shakespeare's play, but the visual details - including the faces of the characters - would be more or less arbitrarily chosen by the 20th and 21st century movie and TV creators and not really part of the canon, any more than the appearances of the actors in a particular production of *MacBeth* are canonical to Shakespeare's play *MacBeth*.
The fact that there doesn't seem to be a discussion of the different faces of the characters in the reboot Trek indicates that the faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
The fact that the computer on Old Spock's ship seems to use facial recognition and voice print to accept new Spock, as pointed out by Kevin Laity, indicates that they have identical genes, including the genes that control voice and appearance, and thus their faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
Until and unless an example is found of a comment about different faces in New Trek and Old Trek the default assumption should be that the faces are the same in the story, and that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | In Star Trek (2009), when Spock retrieves future Spock's ship from Nero's ship, the computer recognizes young Spock via a facial recognition feature.
The computer can't seem to tell the difference between the two Spock faces, which would suggest that canon-wise, the faces haven't changed. | Clearly you're expected to suspend disbelief.
There are ***many*** examples of this in cinema and TV. James Bond is probably the most famous example - not only are we expected to believe this is the same person, but we are expected to do this in spite of the recasting being a significant news event. It's easy to find more examples, but that would just be a long, pointless list.
More than that, it is so standard as to be a dramatic convention which audiences are expected to accept. The very fact of remarking on it could only be done by someone who does not understand the basic dramatic conventions of film and TV. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | In Star Trek (2009), when Spock retrieves future Spock's ship from Nero's ship, the computer recognizes young Spock via a facial recognition feature.
The computer can't seem to tell the difference between the two Spock faces, which would suggest that canon-wise, the faces haven't changed. | There are no physical differences.
We do not see that universe as it appears to its inhabitants; [we see an *interpretation* of that universe as translated for the audience by a camera lens and soundtrack](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/141370/1167).
In-universe, James T Kirk does not resemble either William Shatner or Chris Pine. Or, if he does, it's by extreme co-incidence and only to one of them.
That being said, the premise of the new "alternate universe" is that the introduction of Ambassador Spock and Nero altered the timeline enough to cause a ripple effect forwards (and, according to the producers to explain the apparent change in technology, Enterprise construction history etc, this effect also rippled back in time somehow); there is sufficient scope in this explanation to claim that the DNA of our main characters isn't exactly what it was in the prime universe. However, if you're looking for this to be stated explicitly, you're going to be disappointed. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | In Star Trek (2009), when Spock retrieves future Spock's ship from Nero's ship, the computer recognizes young Spock via a facial recognition feature.
The computer can't seem to tell the difference between the two Spock faces, which would suggest that canon-wise, the faces haven't changed. | Let's see.
* The ships looks different, inside and out.
* The uniforms look different.
* The scenery looks different.
* The special effects look different.
* The voices sound different.
* Character behaviors are different.
* There are even extra characters that never appeared before.
... and so on.
What impact would there be on [suspension of disbelief](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suspension_of_disbelief) if the movie spent it's time explaining every difference between the movie, any previous movie and any previous TV series associated with Star Trek where there could be a potential conflict ?
I for one wouldn't have bought a ticket because I for one would have found that an extremely boring two hours.
As a fan of most of the Star Trek series and movies, I was not particularly enchanted by the many changes. But they were done to entertain a different and younger audience, and I accept that because that's all it is : entertainment. It requires suspension of disbelief to work and there would be none if it spent it's time mired in explanations to fans of previous series.
This would be rather like having e.g. the script writers for *Elementary* constantly explain why their Sherlock and Watson and everything else is not the same as Basil Rathbone et al (and a hundred other interpretations of the stories, not to say the stories themselves).
You are the audience. You can accept or reject differences, but expecting them to be "justified" would break suspension of disbelief.
The only show I ever saw try this was a comedy crime show called "[Due South](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0108756/)" where the main character pointedly kept saying that his partner was not his partner because he was different (when they replaced the actor). But that was a comedy - it was done in an offbeat way and worked OK. Doing it in something that was supposed to be serious would be a disaster.
So TV and Movie Production 101 - Thou Shalt Not Break The Suspension Of Disbelief By Pointing At It.
Ever. On Fear of Cancellation. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | I discuss a similar matter in post # 409 here:
<https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830>[1](https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830)
>
> Did you ever hear of a frame story? That is an almost totally obsolete storytelling technique used in old time stories like, for example, *Frankenstein: or, The Modern Prometheus* (1818), a short story that explains how the writer learned of the events in the main story.
>
>
> When we read or watch a work of fiction, we suspend our disbelief and sort of kind of believe that the fiction is, in some sense, sort of real. But we don't forget about the real world. If the fictional setting of the story is too different from what we know of the real world there is a degree of need for an explanation for the differences.
>
>
> If a story is set in the distant past, the frame story could be that an ancient manuscript telling the story has been discovered, or maybe that the writers read a bunch of history books written in ancient times that told the story. So if a story is set in the past, we can easily imagine a rather simple frame story that explains how the events are known in the present.
>
>
> But if a science fiction story is set in the future, then the frame story that explains how events in the future became known in the past is itself a science fiction story involving time travel.
>
>
> Since frame stories are rarely ever used, readers or viewers of science fiction stories set in the future are free to make up their own frame stories about how the future data became known in the present.
>
>
> And such possible frame stories vary greatly in how much of what we see is "actually" true future data and how much is "actually" contemporary attempts to depict the future based on incomplete data.
>
>
> On one extreme *Star Trek* episodes could be actual record tapes made in the future and edited in the present into episode or movie length. That would make them very accurate. On another extreme, *Star Trek* episodes might be based on mission reports from the future that were used to write teleplays, and all the visual and sound aspects of the episodes are contemporary attempts to depict the future and not really canon.
>
>
>
If *Star Trek* episodes and movies are record tapes of future events somehow sent back in time to our era and edited into episode and movie lengths, then the look of everything is 100 percent accurate and the differences between the appearances of the two sets of actors is a real problem to be investigated.
On the other hand, if *Star Trek* episodes and movies were produced in the ordinary 20th and 21st century way, but were based on future mission reports sent back in time to the present somehow, only the plot elements dictated by those 23rd century mission reports would be accurate and canonical and the looks of everything, including the appearance of the characters, would be due to 20th century TV and movie production and not canonical data.
For example, every stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is based on Shakespeare's play, and many of them have the exact same plot and dialog if they are totally faithful to the source play. But the actors, costumes, landscape, sets, and other visual aspects look different from production to production. One might say that the look of a particular stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of that particular production, but none of the visual looks of any production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of Shakespeare's *MacBeth* as a written script for a play.
(And of course Shakespeare's play *MacBeth* is based on various history books available in his time, which were based on earlier history books, and so on back for five hundred years to the actual historical events which inspired *MacBeth*, though it would be possible to write a play that was far closer to the real history than *MacBeth* is.)
And it is perfectly possible to imagine a frame story for *Star Trek* in which many Starfleet mission reports and logs have been sent from the future into the present and are used as the scripts for filming episodes and movies based on the future history in those reports. So the *Star Trek* plots might be almost 100 percent accurate, just as the plots of most productions of *MacBeth* are faithful to Shakespeare's play, but the visual details - including the faces of the characters - would be more or less arbitrarily chosen by the 20th and 21st century movie and TV creators and not really part of the canon, any more than the appearances of the actors in a particular production of *MacBeth* are canonical to Shakespeare's play *MacBeth*.
The fact that there doesn't seem to be a discussion of the different faces of the characters in the reboot Trek indicates that the faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
The fact that the computer on Old Spock's ship seems to use facial recognition and voice print to accept new Spock, as pointed out by Kevin Laity, indicates that they have identical genes, including the genes that control voice and appearance, and thus their faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
Until and unless an example is found of a comment about different faces in New Trek and Old Trek the default assumption should be that the faces are the same in the story, and that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes. | Clearly you're expected to suspend disbelief.
There are ***many*** examples of this in cinema and TV. James Bond is probably the most famous example - not only are we expected to believe this is the same person, but we are expected to do this in spite of the recasting being a significant news event. It's easy to find more examples, but that would just be a long, pointless list.
More than that, it is so standard as to be a dramatic convention which audiences are expected to accept. The very fact of remarking on it could only be done by someone who does not understand the basic dramatic conventions of film and TV. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | I discuss a similar matter in post # 409 here:
<https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830>[1](https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830)
>
> Did you ever hear of a frame story? That is an almost totally obsolete storytelling technique used in old time stories like, for example, *Frankenstein: or, The Modern Prometheus* (1818), a short story that explains how the writer learned of the events in the main story.
>
>
> When we read or watch a work of fiction, we suspend our disbelief and sort of kind of believe that the fiction is, in some sense, sort of real. But we don't forget about the real world. If the fictional setting of the story is too different from what we know of the real world there is a degree of need for an explanation for the differences.
>
>
> If a story is set in the distant past, the frame story could be that an ancient manuscript telling the story has been discovered, or maybe that the writers read a bunch of history books written in ancient times that told the story. So if a story is set in the past, we can easily imagine a rather simple frame story that explains how the events are known in the present.
>
>
> But if a science fiction story is set in the future, then the frame story that explains how events in the future became known in the past is itself a science fiction story involving time travel.
>
>
> Since frame stories are rarely ever used, readers or viewers of science fiction stories set in the future are free to make up their own frame stories about how the future data became known in the present.
>
>
> And such possible frame stories vary greatly in how much of what we see is "actually" true future data and how much is "actually" contemporary attempts to depict the future based on incomplete data.
>
>
> On one extreme *Star Trek* episodes could be actual record tapes made in the future and edited in the present into episode or movie length. That would make them very accurate. On another extreme, *Star Trek* episodes might be based on mission reports from the future that were used to write teleplays, and all the visual and sound aspects of the episodes are contemporary attempts to depict the future and not really canon.
>
>
>
If *Star Trek* episodes and movies are record tapes of future events somehow sent back in time to our era and edited into episode and movie lengths, then the look of everything is 100 percent accurate and the differences between the appearances of the two sets of actors is a real problem to be investigated.
On the other hand, if *Star Trek* episodes and movies were produced in the ordinary 20th and 21st century way, but were based on future mission reports sent back in time to the present somehow, only the plot elements dictated by those 23rd century mission reports would be accurate and canonical and the looks of everything, including the appearance of the characters, would be due to 20th century TV and movie production and not canonical data.
For example, every stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is based on Shakespeare's play, and many of them have the exact same plot and dialog if they are totally faithful to the source play. But the actors, costumes, landscape, sets, and other visual aspects look different from production to production. One might say that the look of a particular stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of that particular production, but none of the visual looks of any production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of Shakespeare's *MacBeth* as a written script for a play.
(And of course Shakespeare's play *MacBeth* is based on various history books available in his time, which were based on earlier history books, and so on back for five hundred years to the actual historical events which inspired *MacBeth*, though it would be possible to write a play that was far closer to the real history than *MacBeth* is.)
And it is perfectly possible to imagine a frame story for *Star Trek* in which many Starfleet mission reports and logs have been sent from the future into the present and are used as the scripts for filming episodes and movies based on the future history in those reports. So the *Star Trek* plots might be almost 100 percent accurate, just as the plots of most productions of *MacBeth* are faithful to Shakespeare's play, but the visual details - including the faces of the characters - would be more or less arbitrarily chosen by the 20th and 21st century movie and TV creators and not really part of the canon, any more than the appearances of the actors in a particular production of *MacBeth* are canonical to Shakespeare's play *MacBeth*.
The fact that there doesn't seem to be a discussion of the different faces of the characters in the reboot Trek indicates that the faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
The fact that the computer on Old Spock's ship seems to use facial recognition and voice print to accept new Spock, as pointed out by Kevin Laity, indicates that they have identical genes, including the genes that control voice and appearance, and thus their faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
Until and unless an example is found of a comment about different faces in New Trek and Old Trek the default assumption should be that the faces are the same in the story, and that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes. | There are no physical differences.
We do not see that universe as it appears to its inhabitants; [we see an *interpretation* of that universe as translated for the audience by a camera lens and soundtrack](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/141370/1167).
In-universe, James T Kirk does not resemble either William Shatner or Chris Pine. Or, if he does, it's by extreme co-incidence and only to one of them.
That being said, the premise of the new "alternate universe" is that the introduction of Ambassador Spock and Nero altered the timeline enough to cause a ripple effect forwards (and, according to the producers to explain the apparent change in technology, Enterprise construction history etc, this effect also rippled back in time somehow); there is sufficient scope in this explanation to claim that the DNA of our main characters isn't exactly what it was in the prime universe. However, if you're looking for this to be stated explicitly, you're going to be disappointed. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | I discuss a similar matter in post # 409 here:
<https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830>[1](https://www.trekbbs.com/threads/enterprise-too-advanced-for-22nd-century.287179/page-21#post-12311830)
>
> Did you ever hear of a frame story? That is an almost totally obsolete storytelling technique used in old time stories like, for example, *Frankenstein: or, The Modern Prometheus* (1818), a short story that explains how the writer learned of the events in the main story.
>
>
> When we read or watch a work of fiction, we suspend our disbelief and sort of kind of believe that the fiction is, in some sense, sort of real. But we don't forget about the real world. If the fictional setting of the story is too different from what we know of the real world there is a degree of need for an explanation for the differences.
>
>
> If a story is set in the distant past, the frame story could be that an ancient manuscript telling the story has been discovered, or maybe that the writers read a bunch of history books written in ancient times that told the story. So if a story is set in the past, we can easily imagine a rather simple frame story that explains how the events are known in the present.
>
>
> But if a science fiction story is set in the future, then the frame story that explains how events in the future became known in the past is itself a science fiction story involving time travel.
>
>
> Since frame stories are rarely ever used, readers or viewers of science fiction stories set in the future are free to make up their own frame stories about how the future data became known in the present.
>
>
> And such possible frame stories vary greatly in how much of what we see is "actually" true future data and how much is "actually" contemporary attempts to depict the future based on incomplete data.
>
>
> On one extreme *Star Trek* episodes could be actual record tapes made in the future and edited in the present into episode or movie length. That would make them very accurate. On another extreme, *Star Trek* episodes might be based on mission reports from the future that were used to write teleplays, and all the visual and sound aspects of the episodes are contemporary attempts to depict the future and not really canon.
>
>
>
If *Star Trek* episodes and movies are record tapes of future events somehow sent back in time to our era and edited into episode and movie lengths, then the look of everything is 100 percent accurate and the differences between the appearances of the two sets of actors is a real problem to be investigated.
On the other hand, if *Star Trek* episodes and movies were produced in the ordinary 20th and 21st century way, but were based on future mission reports sent back in time to the present somehow, only the plot elements dictated by those 23rd century mission reports would be accurate and canonical and the looks of everything, including the appearance of the characters, would be due to 20th century TV and movie production and not canonical data.
For example, every stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is based on Shakespeare's play, and many of them have the exact same plot and dialog if they are totally faithful to the source play. But the actors, costumes, landscape, sets, and other visual aspects look different from production to production. One might say that the look of a particular stage, movie, or TV production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of that particular production, but none of the visual looks of any production of *MacBeth* is canonical in the universe of Shakespeare's *MacBeth* as a written script for a play.
(And of course Shakespeare's play *MacBeth* is based on various history books available in his time, which were based on earlier history books, and so on back for five hundred years to the actual historical events which inspired *MacBeth*, though it would be possible to write a play that was far closer to the real history than *MacBeth* is.)
And it is perfectly possible to imagine a frame story for *Star Trek* in which many Starfleet mission reports and logs have been sent from the future into the present and are used as the scripts for filming episodes and movies based on the future history in those reports. So the *Star Trek* plots might be almost 100 percent accurate, just as the plots of most productions of *MacBeth* are faithful to Shakespeare's play, but the visual details - including the faces of the characters - would be more or less arbitrarily chosen by the 20th and 21st century movie and TV creators and not really part of the canon, any more than the appearances of the actors in a particular production of *MacBeth* are canonical to Shakespeare's play *MacBeth*.
The fact that there doesn't seem to be a discussion of the different faces of the characters in the reboot Trek indicates that the faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
The fact that the computer on Old Spock's ship seems to use facial recognition and voice print to accept new Spock, as pointed out by Kevin Laity, indicates that they have identical genes, including the genes that control voice and appearance, and thus their faces are supposed to be same and that visual details like the faces of the characters are not canon, and thus that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes.
Until and unless an example is found of a comment about different faces in New Trek and Old Trek the default assumption should be that the faces are the same in the story, and that the frame story of *Star Trek* is that reports were sent into the past, not actual visual record tapes. | Let's see.
* The ships looks different, inside and out.
* The uniforms look different.
* The scenery looks different.
* The special effects look different.
* The voices sound different.
* Character behaviors are different.
* There are even extra characters that never appeared before.
... and so on.
What impact would there be on [suspension of disbelief](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suspension_of_disbelief) if the movie spent it's time explaining every difference between the movie, any previous movie and any previous TV series associated with Star Trek where there could be a potential conflict ?
I for one wouldn't have bought a ticket because I for one would have found that an extremely boring two hours.
As a fan of most of the Star Trek series and movies, I was not particularly enchanted by the many changes. But they were done to entertain a different and younger audience, and I accept that because that's all it is : entertainment. It requires suspension of disbelief to work and there would be none if it spent it's time mired in explanations to fans of previous series.
This would be rather like having e.g. the script writers for *Elementary* constantly explain why their Sherlock and Watson and everything else is not the same as Basil Rathbone et al (and a hundred other interpretations of the stories, not to say the stories themselves).
You are the audience. You can accept or reject differences, but expecting them to be "justified" would break suspension of disbelief.
The only show I ever saw try this was a comedy crime show called "[Due South](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0108756/)" where the main character pointedly kept saying that his partner was not his partner because he was different (when they replaced the actor). But that was a comedy - it was done in an offbeat way and worked OK. Doing it in something that was supposed to be serious would be a disaster.
So TV and Movie Production 101 - Thou Shalt Not Break The Suspension Of Disbelief By Pointing At It.
Ever. On Fear of Cancellation. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | There are no physical differences.
We do not see that universe as it appears to its inhabitants; [we see an *interpretation* of that universe as translated for the audience by a camera lens and soundtrack](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/141370/1167).
In-universe, James T Kirk does not resemble either William Shatner or Chris Pine. Or, if he does, it's by extreme co-incidence and only to one of them.
That being said, the premise of the new "alternate universe" is that the introduction of Ambassador Spock and Nero altered the timeline enough to cause a ripple effect forwards (and, according to the producers to explain the apparent change in technology, Enterprise construction history etc, this effect also rippled back in time somehow); there is sufficient scope in this explanation to claim that the DNA of our main characters isn't exactly what it was in the prime universe. However, if you're looking for this to be stated explicitly, you're going to be disappointed. | Clearly you're expected to suspend disbelief.
There are ***many*** examples of this in cinema and TV. James Bond is probably the most famous example - not only are we expected to believe this is the same person, but we are expected to do this in spite of the recasting being a significant news event. It's easy to find more examples, but that would just be a long, pointless list.
More than that, it is so standard as to be a dramatic convention which audiences are expected to accept. The very fact of remarking on it could only be done by someone who does not understand the basic dramatic conventions of film and TV. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | Let's see.
* The ships looks different, inside and out.
* The uniforms look different.
* The scenery looks different.
* The special effects look different.
* The voices sound different.
* Character behaviors are different.
* There are even extra characters that never appeared before.
... and so on.
What impact would there be on [suspension of disbelief](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suspension_of_disbelief) if the movie spent it's time explaining every difference between the movie, any previous movie and any previous TV series associated with Star Trek where there could be a potential conflict ?
I for one wouldn't have bought a ticket because I for one would have found that an extremely boring two hours.
As a fan of most of the Star Trek series and movies, I was not particularly enchanted by the many changes. But they were done to entertain a different and younger audience, and I accept that because that's all it is : entertainment. It requires suspension of disbelief to work and there would be none if it spent it's time mired in explanations to fans of previous series.
This would be rather like having e.g. the script writers for *Elementary* constantly explain why their Sherlock and Watson and everything else is not the same as Basil Rathbone et al (and a hundred other interpretations of the stories, not to say the stories themselves).
You are the audience. You can accept or reject differences, but expecting them to be "justified" would break suspension of disbelief.
The only show I ever saw try this was a comedy crime show called "[Due South](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0108756/)" where the main character pointedly kept saying that his partner was not his partner because he was different (when they replaced the actor). But that was a comedy - it was done in an offbeat way and worked OK. Doing it in something that was supposed to be serious would be a disaster.
So TV and Movie Production 101 - Thou Shalt Not Break The Suspension Of Disbelief By Pointing At It.
Ever. On Fear of Cancellation. | Clearly you're expected to suspend disbelief.
There are ***many*** examples of this in cinema and TV. James Bond is probably the most famous example - not only are we expected to believe this is the same person, but we are expected to do this in spite of the recasting being a significant news event. It's easy to find more examples, but that would just be a long, pointless list.
More than that, it is so standard as to be a dramatic convention which audiences are expected to accept. The very fact of remarking on it could only be done by someone who does not understand the basic dramatic conventions of film and TV. |
179,028 | In **Star Trek** (2009), original Spock meets alternate timeline Spock, Kirk, and Scott who look nothing like the Prime characters at that age. Later, in **Star Trek Beyond** (2016) , Spock views an image of Spock Prime and the Prime universe crew.
The in-real-life cast members in TOS obviously look different from the alternate timeline.
*Given that Star Trek has explained away the out of universe difference in appearance of the Klingons from the 1960's vs the 1980s+ (in multiple series I might add) - it isn't unreasonable to ask if there is a similar explaination for the difference in the alternate universe (which already has technological differences that are also explained in-universe)*
Has the irl difference ever been addressed, explained away in universe (comic or film) in a technobabble manner? "DNA randomness in the parallel universes, etc..." or ***are we, as the viewer, intended to suspend belief and assume the characters are actually visually the same*** (like in the Mirror Universe)?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2NbtT.png) | 2018/01/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/179028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/55637/"
] | There are no physical differences.
We do not see that universe as it appears to its inhabitants; [we see an *interpretation* of that universe as translated for the audience by a camera lens and soundtrack](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/141370/1167).
In-universe, James T Kirk does not resemble either William Shatner or Chris Pine. Or, if he does, it's by extreme co-incidence and only to one of them.
That being said, the premise of the new "alternate universe" is that the introduction of Ambassador Spock and Nero altered the timeline enough to cause a ripple effect forwards (and, according to the producers to explain the apparent change in technology, Enterprise construction history etc, this effect also rippled back in time somehow); there is sufficient scope in this explanation to claim that the DNA of our main characters isn't exactly what it was in the prime universe. However, if you're looking for this to be stated explicitly, you're going to be disappointed. | Let's see.
* The ships looks different, inside and out.
* The uniforms look different.
* The scenery looks different.
* The special effects look different.
* The voices sound different.
* Character behaviors are different.
* There are even extra characters that never appeared before.
... and so on.
What impact would there be on [suspension of disbelief](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suspension_of_disbelief) if the movie spent it's time explaining every difference between the movie, any previous movie and any previous TV series associated with Star Trek where there could be a potential conflict ?
I for one wouldn't have bought a ticket because I for one would have found that an extremely boring two hours.
As a fan of most of the Star Trek series and movies, I was not particularly enchanted by the many changes. But they were done to entertain a different and younger audience, and I accept that because that's all it is : entertainment. It requires suspension of disbelief to work and there would be none if it spent it's time mired in explanations to fans of previous series.
This would be rather like having e.g. the script writers for *Elementary* constantly explain why their Sherlock and Watson and everything else is not the same as Basil Rathbone et al (and a hundred other interpretations of the stories, not to say the stories themselves).
You are the audience. You can accept or reject differences, but expecting them to be "justified" would break suspension of disbelief.
The only show I ever saw try this was a comedy crime show called "[Due South](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0108756/)" where the main character pointedly kept saying that his partner was not his partner because he was different (when they replaced the actor). But that was a comedy - it was done in an offbeat way and worked OK. Doing it in something that was supposed to be serious would be a disaster.
So TV and Movie Production 101 - Thou Shalt Not Break The Suspension Of Disbelief By Pointing At It.
Ever. On Fear of Cancellation. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | The bias is the operating point.
For a bipolar transistor (BJT) the bias resistor will maintain enough current into
the base so that the transistor is neither saturated (fully on) or cut-off (fully off).
Some BJTs come with an internal bias resistor to reduce
the parts count in a design. If you are switching BJTs on or off you don't
need a "bias" resistor but you may need a resistor to limit
the current into the base. | Biasing resistors are also used in RS485 interface.
There are two signals in the RS485 - A and B (some people call these TRX+ and TRX-). And the RS485 transceiver outputs signal to the UART controller according to the difference between A and B as followed:
* A-B > 150mV: outputs High
* A-B < -150mV: outputs Low
If the A-B is between -150mV and +150mV, the output state is unpredictable.
So the biasing resistors are required in RS485 circuit.
The biasing resistors in the RS485 circuit keep the A and B signal line a High or Low level in RS485 idle state.
(See the below.)
* A: should stays high state
* B: should stays low in idle state |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | In analogue working, transistors (and before that, valves (or vacuum tube devices)) do not have a fully linear response, ie the output is not exactly proportional to the input over the full operating range. If you are wanting a linear response, you move the input signal into the middle of the linear part of the operating range by using bias resistors (and you restrict the input signal such that it does not go outside the linear range). | Biasing resistors are also used in RS485 interface.
There are two signals in the RS485 - A and B (some people call these TRX+ and TRX-). And the RS485 transceiver outputs signal to the UART controller according to the difference between A and B as followed:
* A-B > 150mV: outputs High
* A-B < -150mV: outputs Low
If the A-B is between -150mV and +150mV, the output state is unpredictable.
So the biasing resistors are required in RS485 circuit.
The biasing resistors in the RS485 circuit keep the A and B signal line a High or Low level in RS485 idle state.
(See the below.)
* A: should stays high state
* B: should stays low in idle state |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | The bias is the operating point.
For a bipolar transistor (BJT) the bias resistor will maintain enough current into
the base so that the transistor is neither saturated (fully on) or cut-off (fully off).
Some BJTs come with an internal bias resistor to reduce
the parts count in a design. If you are switching BJTs on or off you don't
need a "bias" resistor but you may need a resistor to limit
the current into the base. | Summary
=======
If the driving stage output is of 'relatively low' impedance (and is thus more of a voltage source in actuality) the series resistor must be present to convert it to a current source, just like in any other case of driving a diode or generalized low-impedance target. Quite often for instance, current is set through an LED to meet its specifications in exactly this way.
---
Whatever source or sink of current (output) is driving the transistor (an open collector / level shifter, a CMOS output, what have you) is ultimately to be driving such current to a silicon diode (or two in the Darlington case), for all it knows of the base-emitter junction(s) of the transistor(s) in question. Speaking of which [plural case], when power transistors are to be paralleled, it may be more important to degenerate their emitters to prevent fallen hero syndrome, a.k.a. thermal runaway.
Barring excessive resistance values and low current gains, it has little do with current gain, as any such design case would fundamentally tend to include transistor saturation on the real-time operational menu (i.e., using as a switch or other high-gain or logic-drive scenario rather than a linear amplifier) and the principal pitfall would be excessive resistance which could choke the transistor at an unreliable threshold, short of saturation (generally non-applicable in Darlington case), and this would be load-dependent (as a consequence of hFE), probably thermally adverse, and not CMOS-input-compliant. Analog or mixed (ADC) detection could probably make sense of it though, but now I'm headed out on a tangent based on random and frivolous guesses about your application.
The series resistance can also provide a certain meaning to Miller capacitance (collector-base) in the same way (or reveal the parasitic Miller cap) via the impedance increase, which could be good or bad but sort of brings linear amplification into the realm of inclusion of a series base resistor, particularly where interstage/open-loop gains are high and a slew-rate limitation must be imposed to avoid spontaneous oscillation. An editorial here might open by stating a firm belief that one has not applied a particularly linear discipline of spectral amplification if this is proven necessary, but that's for another time, and there are those who feel differently. It should suffice to say that in linear circuits this series resistance could reduce the gain-bandwidth product by giving more potency to Miller capacitance, as in any case where [parasitic] capacitances lurk in an increased-impedance environment. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | The bias is the operating point.
For a bipolar transistor (BJT) the bias resistor will maintain enough current into
the base so that the transistor is neither saturated (fully on) or cut-off (fully off).
Some BJTs come with an internal bias resistor to reduce
the parts count in a design. If you are switching BJTs on or off you don't
need a "bias" resistor but you may need a resistor to limit
the current into the base. | In analogue working, transistors (and before that, valves (or vacuum tube devices)) do not have a fully linear response, ie the output is not exactly proportional to the input over the full operating range. If you are wanting a linear response, you move the input signal into the middle of the linear part of the operating range by using bias resistors (and you restrict the input signal such that it does not go outside the linear range). |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | For the AC input signal to be amplified correctly by the transistor,so that there is proper flow of zero signal collector current and the maintaince of proper collector-emmitter voltage during the passage of signal. | The answer is no, no one who understands electronics well enough to design, build, or manipulate circuits can answer an easy, common question in layman's terms. Example of biasing: A Fender guitar amp uses biasing on their dual power output tubes. The reason is that, many times you can build 2 items that seem or look identical but when you put them into operation they vary from one another. The "biasing" is like an adjustment to pair them into similarity so they both operate at the same degree or position as they move throughout their linear ranges together. Be advised that an O2 sensor ahead or behind an automotive catalytic converter that becomes "biased" rich or lean means that it is "stuck". A different deal. In this case a lower voltage reading, .9V would be rich meaning the brain is telling the injectors to stay open a few milliseconds too long, while a higher voltage, 9V indicates biased lean, where the injectors don't open long enough. Correct would be a varying voltage between .9V and 9V, flip-flop every second or two. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | In analogue working, transistors (and before that, valves (or vacuum tube devices)) do not have a fully linear response, ie the output is not exactly proportional to the input over the full operating range. If you are wanting a linear response, you move the input signal into the middle of the linear part of the operating range by using bias resistors (and you restrict the input signal such that it does not go outside the linear range). | For the AC input signal to be amplified correctly by the transistor,so that there is proper flow of zero signal collector current and the maintaince of proper collector-emmitter voltage during the passage of signal. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | Biasing resistors are also used in RS485 interface.
There are two signals in the RS485 - A and B (some people call these TRX+ and TRX-). And the RS485 transceiver outputs signal to the UART controller according to the difference between A and B as followed:
* A-B > 150mV: outputs High
* A-B < -150mV: outputs Low
If the A-B is between -150mV and +150mV, the output state is unpredictable.
So the biasing resistors are required in RS485 circuit.
The biasing resistors in the RS485 circuit keep the A and B signal line a High or Low level in RS485 idle state.
(See the below.)
* A: should stays high state
* B: should stays low in idle state | The answer is no, no one who understands electronics well enough to design, build, or manipulate circuits can answer an easy, common question in layman's terms. Example of biasing: A Fender guitar amp uses biasing on their dual power output tubes. The reason is that, many times you can build 2 items that seem or look identical but when you put them into operation they vary from one another. The "biasing" is like an adjustment to pair them into similarity so they both operate at the same degree or position as they move throughout their linear ranges together. Be advised that an O2 sensor ahead or behind an automotive catalytic converter that becomes "biased" rich or lean means that it is "stuck". A different deal. In this case a lower voltage reading, .9V would be rich meaning the brain is telling the injectors to stay open a few milliseconds too long, while a higher voltage, 9V indicates biased lean, where the injectors don't open long enough. Correct would be a varying voltage between .9V and 9V, flip-flop every second or two. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | In analogue working, transistors (and before that, valves (or vacuum tube devices)) do not have a fully linear response, ie the output is not exactly proportional to the input over the full operating range. If you are wanting a linear response, you move the input signal into the middle of the linear part of the operating range by using bias resistors (and you restrict the input signal such that it does not go outside the linear range). | The answer is no, no one who understands electronics well enough to design, build, or manipulate circuits can answer an easy, common question in layman's terms. Example of biasing: A Fender guitar amp uses biasing on their dual power output tubes. The reason is that, many times you can build 2 items that seem or look identical but when you put them into operation they vary from one another. The "biasing" is like an adjustment to pair them into similarity so they both operate at the same degree or position as they move throughout their linear ranges together. Be advised that an O2 sensor ahead or behind an automotive catalytic converter that becomes "biased" rich or lean means that it is "stuck". A different deal. In this case a lower voltage reading, .9V would be rich meaning the brain is telling the injectors to stay open a few milliseconds too long, while a higher voltage, 9V indicates biased lean, where the injectors don't open long enough. Correct would be a varying voltage between .9V and 9V, flip-flop every second or two. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | The bias is the operating point.
For a bipolar transistor (BJT) the bias resistor will maintain enough current into
the base so that the transistor is neither saturated (fully on) or cut-off (fully off).
Some BJTs come with an internal bias resistor to reduce
the parts count in a design. If you are switching BJTs on or off you don't
need a "bias" resistor but you may need a resistor to limit
the current into the base. | For the AC input signal to be amplified correctly by the transistor,so that there is proper flow of zero signal collector current and the maintaince of proper collector-emmitter voltage during the passage of signal. |
2,021 | Could someone explain what "bias" is.
And why do some devices need an external bias resistor? | 2010/03/24 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2021",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/566/"
] | If your device is powered from a single voltage and ground, it can't output anything below ground. In order to reproduce a signal that varies between +V and -V, you need to shift it upwards so that it varies from 0 to +2V instead. The DC offset is the bias.
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biasing> | The bias is the operating point.
For a bipolar transistor (BJT) the bias resistor will maintain enough current into
the base so that the transistor is neither saturated (fully on) or cut-off (fully off).
Some BJTs come with an internal bias resistor to reduce
the parts count in a design. If you are switching BJTs on or off you don't
need a "bias" resistor but you may need a resistor to limit
the current into the base. |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | You can do this easily with no additional software. Just follow the steps [outlined here on Google's site](http://www.google.com/support/mobile/bin/answer.py?answer=138740&topic=14252). I use this to sync my Google Contacts and Calendar. It works very well!
**Edit:**
Please note that this currently only works for Contacts and Calendar and does not sync your email. You will have to set up your email separately. | Google Sync will give you seamless and transparent contact syncing between the iPhone's native Contacts app and your contacts in Google - it will even sync photos you've linked with your contacts.
It will pull down all the contacts in the "My Contacts" section of Google Contacts, so it's best to make sure you've got that exactly how you want it before syncing. |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | You can do this easily with no additional software. Just follow the steps [outlined here on Google's site](http://www.google.com/support/mobile/bin/answer.py?answer=138740&topic=14252). I use this to sync my Google Contacts and Calendar. It works very well!
**Edit:**
Please note that this currently only works for Contacts and Calendar and does not sync your email. You will have to set up your email separately. | I have been using the free service of [Nuevasync](http://nuevasync.com) for both Google Calendar and Contacts for almost a year now, and I can recommend it. Works like a charm, better than Google native stuff. |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | Google actually uses the Microsoft Active Sync Protocol that essentially turns your GMail account into a Microsoft Exchange type of account.
Check out:
<http://www.google.com/mobile/products/sync.html#p=apple> | Check out either [Google Sync](http://www.google.com/mobile/products/sync.html#p=default) or [NuevaSync](http://www.nuevasync.com), both work in a similar way to MobileMe, but using the Exchange ActiveSync protocol |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | Google actually uses the Microsoft Active Sync Protocol that essentially turns your GMail account into a Microsoft Exchange type of account.
Check out:
<http://www.google.com/mobile/products/sync.html#p=apple> | I have used [OggSync](http://oggsync.com/) to do this before Google offered support directly. I have been very pleased with Oggsync.
Regards |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | There's an option in iTunes to do this. It's where you set contacts, you can select Google contacts, and provide your login/password. This works fine on a PC, most likely Mac too.
It did throw in a ton of junk contacts for me too though; lots of one-off addresses that I used once showed up. Took a while to delete all that, but now it works great. | I have used [OggSync](http://oggsync.com/) to do this before Google offered support directly. I have been very pleased with Oggsync.
Regards |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | You can do this easily with no additional software. Just follow the steps [outlined here on Google's site](http://www.google.com/support/mobile/bin/answer.py?answer=138740&topic=14252). I use this to sync my Google Contacts and Calendar. It works very well!
**Edit:**
Please note that this currently only works for Contacts and Calendar and does not sync your email. You will have to set up your email separately. | I have used [OggSync](http://oggsync.com/) to do this before Google offered support directly. I have been very pleased with Oggsync.
Regards |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | Google actually uses the Microsoft Active Sync Protocol that essentially turns your GMail account into a Microsoft Exchange type of account.
Check out:
<http://www.google.com/mobile/products/sync.html#p=apple> | Google Sync will give you seamless and transparent contact syncing between the iPhone's native Contacts app and your contacts in Google - it will even sync photos you've linked with your contacts.
It will pull down all the contacts in the "My Contacts" section of Google Contacts, so it's best to make sure you've got that exactly how you want it before syncing. |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | You can do this easily with no additional software. Just follow the steps [outlined here on Google's site](http://www.google.com/support/mobile/bin/answer.py?answer=138740&topic=14252). I use this to sync my Google Contacts and Calendar. It works very well!
**Edit:**
Please note that this currently only works for Contacts and Calendar and does not sync your email. You will have to set up your email separately. | There's an option in iTunes to do this. It's where you set contacts, you can select Google contacts, and provide your login/password. This works fine on a PC, most likely Mac too.
It did throw in a ton of junk contacts for me too though; lots of one-off addresses that I used once showed up. Took a while to delete all that, but now it works great. |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | Google actually uses the Microsoft Active Sync Protocol that essentially turns your GMail account into a Microsoft Exchange type of account.
Check out:
<http://www.google.com/mobile/products/sync.html#p=apple> | There's an option in iTunes to do this. It's where you set contacts, you can select Google contacts, and provide your login/password. This works fine on a PC, most likely Mac too.
It did throw in a ton of junk contacts for me too though; lots of one-off addresses that I used once showed up. Took a while to delete all that, but now it works great. |
2,497 | Is this possible? and can it be as seamless and transparent as using MobileMe? | 2009/07/15 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/2497",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1467/"
] | There's an option in iTunes to do this. It's where you set contacts, you can select Google contacts, and provide your login/password. This works fine on a PC, most likely Mac too.
It did throw in a ton of junk contacts for me too though; lots of one-off addresses that I used once showed up. Took a while to delete all that, but now it works great. | I have been using the free service of [Nuevasync](http://nuevasync.com) for both Google Calendar and Contacts for almost a year now, and I can recommend it. Works like a charm, better than Google native stuff. |
120,867 | I recently acquired an ice cream maker, and successfully used it to make sone chocolate and coffee ice cream. The ice cream maker is actively cooled, but I doubt it makes a different.
Most ice cream recipes call for preparing some sort of mix of egg yolks, sugar, milk and cream - sometimes cooking it, sometimes not. To this base you then add the flavor, which can be almost anything.
My idea is the following:
* prep ahead a high quantity of base, 8 to 12 yolks worth
* freeze the base as it is, in 1 or 2 yolks portion
* when I want ice cream, fully thaw a portion, add flavor, then cream it in the ice cream maker
It seems to me that this process should theoretically work, as the big crystals that form during the first freeze are then fully melted before the creaming process starts, but I am wondering if there is some additional unwanted effect. As an example, freezing vegetables destroys the plant cells, so you can freeze vegetables to make a soup, but you cannot freeze celery and then expect it to be crunchy, as the texture is irreversibly affected. | 2022/06/20 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/120867",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/32770/"
] | The "batter" is typically called a "base" or "ice cream base." There is no problem freezing the base for storage purposes, thawing (in the refrigerator so as to stay out of the danger zone, but also to keep the base as cold as possible), then processing in your ice cream maker. There is no cell structure to worry about, like you point out with vegetables. Remember, a cold base freezes more quickly and produces smaller ice crystals creating a more creamy product. | There should be no problem with your approach from a safety perspective as long as the base doesn't spent too long in the danger zone. From a consistency standpoint you are fine as long as you use a stabilizer like guar gum. Pure cream and egg custards may not take kindly to an extra freeze-thaw cycle.
The issue you may get is getting your flavors mixed in a cold base. Chocolate will solidify at that temperature, so if you are adding chocolate you'll either have to re-heat the base to mix it in, or add some oil to the chocolate once it is melted to keep it from solidifying. Coffee, mint extract and other liquid flavorings should mix in fine, as should Nutella, although you'll need to use a stick blender to get it incorporated. Real mint ice cream needs the mint leaves to be steeped in a hot base to extract the flavor.
Re-heating the base shouldn't be a problem, just make sure you build in the time to chill it again. For me going through the steps to re-heat and cool the base again would defeat the purpose of what you are trying to achieve, so it would be best to stick to flavorings you can mix in cold. |
110,719 | it is said that Morgoth will destroy the Sun and Moon in the Prophecy of Mandos:
**"Thus spoke Mandos in prophecy, when the Valar sat in judgement in Valinor and the rumour of his word was whispered among all the Elves of the West. When the world is old and the Powers grow weary, then Morgoth, seeing that the guard sleepeth, shall come back through the Door of the Night out of the Timeless Void; and he shall blacken the Sun and the Moon."**
is there anything in the History of Middle Earth that would indicate a plan of doing this or is it just a factoid of a Judgement Day predestined? | 2015/12/16 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/110719",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/53038/"
] | I think this is more poetic than anything else, a metaphorical vessel to describe the impact of a one true embodiment of evil returning to Middle-earth.
Interesting to note that most of good and evil in Tolkien's universe is represented by light and dark. The light of the two trees of Valinor, the Star of Eärendil that blinded Shelob, the fact Orcs avoid sunlight, and Trolls downright *have* to avoid it for their own survival. The light of the Silmarils, which is actually from the same source as the two trees. The lamps (which are the Sun and Moon). All vessels for the representation of good and evil, and most of Morgoth's work is the undoing of the light. | The second prophecy of Mandos was written during the phase where Tolkien had the sun and moon as bright fruit from the two trees carried around Arda in vessels by the maiar. |
110,719 | it is said that Morgoth will destroy the Sun and Moon in the Prophecy of Mandos:
**"Thus spoke Mandos in prophecy, when the Valar sat in judgement in Valinor and the rumour of his word was whispered among all the Elves of the West. When the world is old and the Powers grow weary, then Morgoth, seeing that the guard sleepeth, shall come back through the Door of the Night out of the Timeless Void; and he shall blacken the Sun and the Moon."**
is there anything in the History of Middle Earth that would indicate a plan of doing this or is it just a factoid of a Judgement Day predestined? | 2015/12/16 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/110719",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/53038/"
] | [Primary Source](https://lotr.fandom.com/wiki/Dagor_Dagorath)
>
> "Thus spoke Mandos in prophecy, when the Valar sat in judgement in Valinor and the rumour of his word was whispered among all the Elves of the West. When the world is old and the Powers grow weary, then Morgoth, seeing that the guard sleepeth, shall come back through the Door of the Night out of the Timeless Void; and he shall blacken the Sun and the Moon. But Eärendil shall descend upon him as a white and searing flame and drive him from the airs. Then shall the Last Battle be gathered on the fields of Valinor. In that day, Tulkas shall strive with Morgoth, and on his right hand shall be Eönwë, and on his left Túrin Turambar, son of Húrin, coming from the halls of Mandos; and the black sword of Túrin shall deal unto Morgoth his death and final end; and so shall the Children of Húrin and all fallen Men be avenged.
>
>
>
The best I could find regarding the mechanism:
>
> According to the prophecy, Morgoth will discover how to break the Door of Night, and will blacken the Sun and the Moon. For the love of these, Eärendil will return from the sky and shall meet Tulkas, Manwë, Eönwë (with the old version of his name Fionwe) and Túrin Turambar on the plains of Valinor.
>
>
> There the forces of the Valar shall fight against Melkor and The Dark Powers. Tulkas will wrestle with Morgoth, but it will be by the hand of Túrin that finally death and destruction will be dealt to Melkor.
>
>
>
Break the door of Night and Blacken the Sun... But a battle will ensue meaning I think it's the effect of this combat (terrible war) that will blot out the Sun and Moon. Smoke, fire etc. will have that effect both at night and day.
Of note is that the prophesy itself is brought into question:
>
> It must be mentioned here that "Dagor Dagorath", the name properly said, was not used by Tolkien in *The Lost Road* or in *The Shaping of Middle-earth*. All the occurrences of the term in these books were in the editorial notes of his son. The canonical mentions of the name are only in *Unfinished Tales*. Christopher Tolkien included the name in *The Shaping of Middle-earth* because the first mention of the Second Prophecy of Mandos was placed there but Tolkien did not mention the existence of a Prophecy in the text published in *Unfinished Tales*. The manner with which the name appears in *Unfinished Tales* suggests that there are some kind of "foretelling" of The End but does not state that it comes from one of Mandos' prophecies.[source](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dagor_Dagorath)
>
>
> | I think this is more poetic than anything else, a metaphorical vessel to describe the impact of a one true embodiment of evil returning to Middle-earth.
Interesting to note that most of good and evil in Tolkien's universe is represented by light and dark. The light of the two trees of Valinor, the Star of Eärendil that blinded Shelob, the fact Orcs avoid sunlight, and Trolls downright *have* to avoid it for their own survival. The light of the Silmarils, which is actually from the same source as the two trees. The lamps (which are the Sun and Moon). All vessels for the representation of good and evil, and most of Morgoth's work is the undoing of the light. |
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