qid
int64
1
74.7M
question
stringlengths
12
33.8k
date
stringlengths
10
10
metadata
list
response_j
stringlengths
0
115k
response_k
stringlengths
2
98.3k
8,524,369
Often I hear people around me who like to discussion about writing in assembly language and which is one of those reasons I'm also want to learn to write it. Currently I'm learning assembly and C together. So, my question is when do you ever need to write assembly in real code? Is it just good to learn? Are there are any real uses of it when writing code in C? Any helpful comments or answers will be appreciated!
2011/12/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8524369", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1086635/" ]
Despite the fact that writing code in assembly became increasingly rare, it is still very good to learn assembly simply to understand how things work under the hood. Modern optimizing compilers of C/C++ let you write code in C that translates into assembly instructions of very high quality, often surpassing what you could write manually at the expense of making the result less readable (e.g by inserting empty instructions to optimize the use of CPU's pipeline). If you write a compiler for a new architecture, a very low-level library, or an embedded system with strict resource constraints, you may need to use assembly. For everything else, C and C++ will do as well or better.
I've done it twice in 2011 so far, and I mostly work on Java line of business apps. Came in handy for whipping up a quick setup.exe to wrap a JRE and app install. Could have done that in C, but it's quicker to grab and setup an assembler than a compiler and for such a simple app the write time is comparable either way... Also used it to work on a problem interfacing with a USB device. Was failing for unknown reasons via JNA, so I wrote it in assembly to make sure I knew where every bit was going and when.
26,549
Some say that ignored risks as part of an organization's behavior are much worse than accepted risks. I would like to test that axiom (in the eyes of some). When I am handling a risk and I choose to accept it, it means that I have done risk analysis and risk control, and have chosen to accept this risk and to live with it. When I am doing the same thing, only this time I choose to ignore that risk, am I not doing the same thing? I am living with that risk as part of my operational plan as an organization. Some would say that it is foolish to ignore risks. However I am seeing it this way - The only difference between an accepted risk and an ignored risk, is the mere fact that what I am accepting a risk, I am keeping myself and my organization self-aware to that risk. And if a risk is ignored, then I probably ignored it because it is a lightweight risk, the chance of it being leveraged is minimal, and the costs of the vulnerability associated with it being exploited is zero to none. So, is the difference so big?
2013/01/05
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/26549", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/6004/" ]
Despite the gigabytes written on risk management, I don't think there is a consistent, coherent terminology for risk management. So the answer to your question is local; unless you define "ignore" differently from "accept" within your risk management program, there is no difference. That said, I would suggest that if I were one of the decision makers, I would treat the two differently. Even if I were to accept a risk, I would continue to monitor that risk, periodically re-assess that risk, and consider assigning risk triggers and risk metrics. I'm accepting that risk today because of my evaluation of the risk likelihood and impact, the cost and efficacy of my potential responses, and my priorities. Next month those factors may change. In my mind "accepted" risks are still managed, but "ignored" risks are not.
In the context you have described, there is no such thing as an ignored risk. What you have outlined is risk acceptance. If you weigh up the risk and decide not to do anything, you are accepting that risk, not ignoring it.
26,549
Some say that ignored risks as part of an organization's behavior are much worse than accepted risks. I would like to test that axiom (in the eyes of some). When I am handling a risk and I choose to accept it, it means that I have done risk analysis and risk control, and have chosen to accept this risk and to live with it. When I am doing the same thing, only this time I choose to ignore that risk, am I not doing the same thing? I am living with that risk as part of my operational plan as an organization. Some would say that it is foolish to ignore risks. However I am seeing it this way - The only difference between an accepted risk and an ignored risk, is the mere fact that what I am accepting a risk, I am keeping myself and my organization self-aware to that risk. And if a risk is ignored, then I probably ignored it because it is a lightweight risk, the chance of it being leveraged is minimal, and the costs of the vulnerability associated with it being exploited is zero to none. So, is the difference so big?
2013/01/05
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/26549", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/6004/" ]
In the context you have described, there is no such thing as an ignored risk. What you have outlined is risk acceptance. If you weigh up the risk and decide not to do anything, you are accepting that risk, not ignoring it.
I accept the risk that I may die in a car accident. The convenience of the car is great enough that I continue to drive it. The risk of death is low enough that I have decided the existing measures (air bags, seat-belts) are good and no other measures (jump jets) are worth the cost they require. I will periodically check to see if any new measures are introduced. I would not describe this attitude as foolish because a reasonable evaluation of vulnerability was done. Mitigation costs and benefits were considered and rejected. And a commitment to periodic re-evaluation was made. I do not know about the asteroid that will impact and destroy my car. Have I made enough inquiries into threats and vulnerabilities and failed to detect the asteroid threat? Or was my research insufficient to uncover threats and vulnerabilities for which reasonable mitigations exist? I think the last question can help you decide if you are truly ignoring risk.
26,549
Some say that ignored risks as part of an organization's behavior are much worse than accepted risks. I would like to test that axiom (in the eyes of some). When I am handling a risk and I choose to accept it, it means that I have done risk analysis and risk control, and have chosen to accept this risk and to live with it. When I am doing the same thing, only this time I choose to ignore that risk, am I not doing the same thing? I am living with that risk as part of my operational plan as an organization. Some would say that it is foolish to ignore risks. However I am seeing it this way - The only difference between an accepted risk and an ignored risk, is the mere fact that what I am accepting a risk, I am keeping myself and my organization self-aware to that risk. And if a risk is ignored, then I probably ignored it because it is a lightweight risk, the chance of it being leveraged is minimal, and the costs of the vulnerability associated with it being exploited is zero to none. So, is the difference so big?
2013/01/05
[ "https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/26549", "https://security.stackexchange.com", "https://security.stackexchange.com/users/6004/" ]
Despite the gigabytes written on risk management, I don't think there is a consistent, coherent terminology for risk management. So the answer to your question is local; unless you define "ignore" differently from "accept" within your risk management program, there is no difference. That said, I would suggest that if I were one of the decision makers, I would treat the two differently. Even if I were to accept a risk, I would continue to monitor that risk, periodically re-assess that risk, and consider assigning risk triggers and risk metrics. I'm accepting that risk today because of my evaluation of the risk likelihood and impact, the cost and efficacy of my potential responses, and my priorities. Next month those factors may change. In my mind "accepted" risks are still managed, but "ignored" risks are not.
I accept the risk that I may die in a car accident. The convenience of the car is great enough that I continue to drive it. The risk of death is low enough that I have decided the existing measures (air bags, seat-belts) are good and no other measures (jump jets) are worth the cost they require. I will periodically check to see if any new measures are introduced. I would not describe this attitude as foolish because a reasonable evaluation of vulnerability was done. Mitigation costs and benefits were considered and rejected. And a commitment to periodic re-evaluation was made. I do not know about the asteroid that will impact and destroy my car. Have I made enough inquiries into threats and vulnerabilities and failed to detect the asteroid threat? Or was my research insufficient to uncover threats and vulnerabilities for which reasonable mitigations exist? I think the last question can help you decide if you are truly ignoring risk.
25,269
Background ---------- I'm not sure if this is a bit of a self-explanatory question to many people, but I just can't figure this out. *Tons* of blogs made for writers, magazines, and other forms of media state that a debut author should not try submitting a manuscript of more than 100,000 words (or about 110,000 for fantasy). I don't think I've never seen anyone deny this. Question -------- So, **Why do publishers not want to publish lengthy work from debut authors?** Personally, I think the story I'm writing would work best as a long, single book, about 150,000 words in total. I feel like if I were to start a second book in the series, I'd have too little to fill it with. My work would also work better if it were self-contained in a single book. **Would I be able to get away with what I just described, as a debut author who has never been published?** Thanks.
2016/11/18
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/25269", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/15545/" ]
I think I read this in the Sell Your Novel Toolkit, but I may have seen it elsewhere: Retail stores have limited space. Debut authors (except for a very limited few) have very limited shelf space. You might get 3 books on a shelf (300k words of paper). But you're only selling 2 books with 150k words, not 3. So all of a sudden the risk just went up for the retailer and publisher by quite a bit. One might argue that the readers themselves aren't willing to give a longer book a fair chance, but I'm unsure how true that is.
The reason why is economics. Why do I, as a publisher, want to take a risk on an an unknown author who has written a 150,000 word book? That's money we'll be spending without guarantee of a return, and less books we'll be able to stack on a bookshelf. I can take that risk if your work seems absolutely brilliant and destined for greatness, but that's not an easy thing to predict. Economically speaking, best to hedge my bets by taking shorter works for new authors and going big only with authors you know will give you a good return-on-investment.
4,280
What is it? How did I get it? I am assuming is spyware/malware and I should get rid of it. ![alt text](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RZRRG.jpg)
2009/07/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/4280", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/2103/" ]
It's Google Reader Notifier. The latest version has spam. [Source: Beware! Google Reader Notifier for Firefox Is Now Crapware](http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/2585/beware-google-reader-notifier-for-firefox-is-now-crapware/) (also contains instructions on how to remove it)
Did you look in Addon's from the Tools menu?
4,280
What is it? How did I get it? I am assuming is spyware/malware and I should get rid of it. ![alt text](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RZRRG.jpg)
2009/07/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/4280", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/2103/" ]
It's Google Reader Notifier. The latest version has spam. [Source: Beware! Google Reader Notifier for Firefox Is Now Crapware](http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/2585/beware-google-reader-notifier-for-firefox-is-now-crapware/) (also contains instructions on how to remove it)
My first guess is that this is an addon. Go to Tools > Add-Ons and look for any add-ons that you don't want installed. Try disabling any suspicious add-ons, then restarting to see if it fixes the problem. If it does, then you can go back to the add-ons window and uninstall that one. Otherwise, you can reenable the add-on. If you can be sure that it's not an add-on, you may have a bad copy of Firefox. Firefox is open source, so it's entirely possible that you downloaded a modified version from somewhere on the web. You may wish to delete your copy of Firefox and download a sure-to-be-valid copy from <http://www.getfirefox.com>. If you wish, you can make a backup of your firefox profile, to easily make your new copy seem like your old one (hopefully without the ad!). You can learn about this at [support.mozilla.com/kb/Profiles](http://support.mozilla.com/kb/Profiles).
4,280
What is it? How did I get it? I am assuming is spyware/malware and I should get rid of it. ![alt text](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RZRRG.jpg)
2009/07/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/4280", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/2103/" ]
It's Google Reader Notifier. The latest version has spam. [Source: Beware! Google Reader Notifier for Firefox Is Now Crapware](http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/2585/beware-google-reader-notifier-for-firefox-is-now-crapware/) (also contains instructions on how to remove it)
check if you have FireSaver installed as an addon, it has spam
273,657
I am using JWT tokens in HTTP headers to authenticate requests to a resource server. The resource server and auth server are two separate worker roles on Azure. I cannot makeup my mind as to whether I should store the claims in the token or attach them to the request/response some other way. The Claims list affects rendering of client-side UI elements as well as access to data on the server. For this reason I want to make sure that claims received by the server are authentic and validated before the request is processed. Examples of claims are: CanEditProductList, CanEditShopDescription, CanReadUserDetails. **The reasons I want to use the JWT token for them are:** * Better protection against client-side editing of claims (i.e. hacking claims list). * No need to look up the claims on every request. **The reasons I don't want to use the JWT token:** * The auth server then has to know the app-centric claims list. * The token becomes a single point of hack-entry. * I've read a few things saying that JWT tokens aren't intended for app-level data. It seems to me that both have drawbacks, but I am leaning towards the inclusion of these claims into the token and just want to run this by people who have dealt with this before. NOTE: I'll be using HTTPS for all API requests, so it seems to me that the token will be safe 'enough'. I'm using AngularJS, C#, Web API 2 and MVC5.
2015/02/18
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/273657", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/92352/" ]
I store identifier claims only (userid, etc.) (encrypted) in my jwt. Then when I get the token on the server (API) I can do a lookup server side (db,redis, or local network api call) and retrieve all the associations to the userid (apps,roles, etc.) However if you want to stuff more unencrypted claims into the jwt just be careful with the size since it will likely be sent on each request, but make sure to encrypt sensitive claim data.
It sounds like authentication (who the user is) and authorization (what the user is allowed to do) are not as clearly divided as you would like. If you don't want the authentication server to know what the user is entitled to then limit the claims in that JWT to the userid just like wchoward suggested. You could have another server known as the authorization server look up what the user is entitled to. The authorization step could be done by the resource server when first presented with an authentication token by the client. The resource server would then send a token to the client containing authorization claims. Note: Both JWTs should be signed by different keys. Pros: * Authentication and authorization are managed separately. * The resource server does not have to look up authorization on each request. * The UI has access to see authorization but not edit it. Con: * The client needs to handle two tokens instead of one. * Adding an authorization server adds another moving part to manage.
122,434
Let's say I play a necromancer and have raised some Skeletons or Zombies using Animate Dead and some Gouls, Ghasts, Wights or Mummies using Create Undead. When I use a bonus action to command them can I command all the undead I have with single bonus action even though they were created with different spells?
2018/05/12
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/122434", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/44513/" ]
No, you can only command the creatures created by one of the spells when you use your bonus action. =================================================================================================== While both spells state that they require a bonus action, both of them only allow you to command creatures you made with that particular spell. Here is the relevant rules text for *Animate Dead*: > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command **any creature you made with this spell** [...] > > > As well as the rules text for *Create Undead*: > > As a Bonus Action on each of your turns, you can mentally Command **any creature you animated with this spell** [...] > > >
No. --- Both spells have this phrasing (emphasis added): > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command any creature **you made with this spell** if the creature is within 60 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > While the parenthentical clause might make it seem like you can control everything, the first part of the sentence is clear that each use of a bonus action only applies to the creatures from a single spell, and not others. Therefore, if you have undead animated from two separate spells, you will have to control them on different turns, since you only have one bonus action per round.
122,434
Let's say I play a necromancer and have raised some Skeletons or Zombies using Animate Dead and some Gouls, Ghasts, Wights or Mummies using Create Undead. When I use a bonus action to command them can I command all the undead I have with single bonus action even though they were created with different spells?
2018/05/12
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/122434", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/44513/" ]
No. --- Both spells have this phrasing (emphasis added): > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command any creature **you made with this spell** if the creature is within 60 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > While the parenthentical clause might make it seem like you can control everything, the first part of the sentence is clear that each use of a bonus action only applies to the creatures from a single spell, and not others. Therefore, if you have undead animated from two separate spells, you will have to control them on different turns, since you only have one bonus action per round.
The spells have the following text: > > As a Bonus Action on each of your turns, you can mentally Command any creature you animated with this spell if the creature is within 120 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command any creature you made with this spell if the creature is within 60 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > Each permit you to spend a Bonus Action to Command any creature you [created/animated] with **this spell** if **condition**. They then let you control multiple creatures with the same command. It is ambiguous if this Bonus Action to mentally Command is the same kind of bonus action or a different one; they are both Bonus Actions to Command creatures. It is reasonable for them to be different kinds of Bonus Actions (qualified by spell), or the same Bonus Action (a mental Command Bonus Action), with possibly different effects. If we go with "the same kind of bonus action, just different effects" as the plain-English reading would indicate, then, it is ambiguous if the text in () applies across spells. If the text in () said "if you control multiple creatures animated with this spell" it would be clear, but the text in () doesn't explicitly restrict the "multiple creatures" to be ones animated/created with this spell. Any answer either way should be treated as suspect, barring a designer weighing in. It is even ambiguous if multiple casts of *this spell* count for the second clause or not (ie, is it *this spell* as in this instance of this spell, or *this spell* as in all castings of this spell? Or is the bonus action granted by the first cast of *this spell* a different bonus action than the one granted by the second cast of *this spell*? Ambiguous.) D&D 5e is written in English prose, and lots of things are ambiguous in English prose. You must work out what is reasonable with your DM. It would be reasonable for your DM to read the rules as stating that one command would work only on undead created by one cast of one of those spells, or it working on all undead created by multiple castings of one of those spells, or on all undead created by any number of castings of both spells. The text is simply not clear. And there are game fictions reasons for any of those 3 to be supported.
122,434
Let's say I play a necromancer and have raised some Skeletons or Zombies using Animate Dead and some Gouls, Ghasts, Wights or Mummies using Create Undead. When I use a bonus action to command them can I command all the undead I have with single bonus action even though they were created with different spells?
2018/05/12
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/122434", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/44513/" ]
No, you can only command the creatures created by one of the spells when you use your bonus action. =================================================================================================== While both spells state that they require a bonus action, both of them only allow you to command creatures you made with that particular spell. Here is the relevant rules text for *Animate Dead*: > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command **any creature you made with this spell** [...] > > > As well as the rules text for *Create Undead*: > > As a Bonus Action on each of your turns, you can mentally Command **any creature you animated with this spell** [...] > > >
No == The spells lists the option as follows (**emphasis** mine) > > On each of your turns, you can use a bonus action to mentally command any creature you made with **this spell**  > > > Since you can only command creatures created by the specific spell, any other creatures are not commanded, even though the spells are related.
122,434
Let's say I play a necromancer and have raised some Skeletons or Zombies using Animate Dead and some Gouls, Ghasts, Wights or Mummies using Create Undead. When I use a bonus action to command them can I command all the undead I have with single bonus action even though they were created with different spells?
2018/05/12
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/122434", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/44513/" ]
No, you can only command the creatures created by one of the spells when you use your bonus action. =================================================================================================== While both spells state that they require a bonus action, both of them only allow you to command creatures you made with that particular spell. Here is the relevant rules text for *Animate Dead*: > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command **any creature you made with this spell** [...] > > > As well as the rules text for *Create Undead*: > > As a Bonus Action on each of your turns, you can mentally Command **any creature you animated with this spell** [...] > > >
The spells have the following text: > > As a Bonus Action on each of your turns, you can mentally Command any creature you animated with this spell if the creature is within 120 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command any creature you made with this spell if the creature is within 60 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > Each permit you to spend a Bonus Action to Command any creature you [created/animated] with **this spell** if **condition**. They then let you control multiple creatures with the same command. It is ambiguous if this Bonus Action to mentally Command is the same kind of bonus action or a different one; they are both Bonus Actions to Command creatures. It is reasonable for them to be different kinds of Bonus Actions (qualified by spell), or the same Bonus Action (a mental Command Bonus Action), with possibly different effects. If we go with "the same kind of bonus action, just different effects" as the plain-English reading would indicate, then, it is ambiguous if the text in () applies across spells. If the text in () said "if you control multiple creatures animated with this spell" it would be clear, but the text in () doesn't explicitly restrict the "multiple creatures" to be ones animated/created with this spell. Any answer either way should be treated as suspect, barring a designer weighing in. It is even ambiguous if multiple casts of *this spell* count for the second clause or not (ie, is it *this spell* as in this instance of this spell, or *this spell* as in all castings of this spell? Or is the bonus action granted by the first cast of *this spell* a different bonus action than the one granted by the second cast of *this spell*? Ambiguous.) D&D 5e is written in English prose, and lots of things are ambiguous in English prose. You must work out what is reasonable with your DM. It would be reasonable for your DM to read the rules as stating that one command would work only on undead created by one cast of one of those spells, or it working on all undead created by multiple castings of one of those spells, or on all undead created by any number of castings of both spells. The text is simply not clear. And there are game fictions reasons for any of those 3 to be supported.
122,434
Let's say I play a necromancer and have raised some Skeletons or Zombies using Animate Dead and some Gouls, Ghasts, Wights or Mummies using Create Undead. When I use a bonus action to command them can I command all the undead I have with single bonus action even though they were created with different spells?
2018/05/12
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/122434", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/44513/" ]
No == The spells lists the option as follows (**emphasis** mine) > > On each of your turns, you can use a bonus action to mentally command any creature you made with **this spell**  > > > Since you can only command creatures created by the specific spell, any other creatures are not commanded, even though the spells are related.
The spells have the following text: > > As a Bonus Action on each of your turns, you can mentally Command any creature you animated with this spell if the creature is within 120 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > On each of your turns, you can use a Bonus Action to mentally Command any creature you made with this spell if the creature is within 60 feet of you (if you control multiple creatures, you can Command any or all of them at the same time, issuing the same Command to each one) > > > Each permit you to spend a Bonus Action to Command any creature you [created/animated] with **this spell** if **condition**. They then let you control multiple creatures with the same command. It is ambiguous if this Bonus Action to mentally Command is the same kind of bonus action or a different one; they are both Bonus Actions to Command creatures. It is reasonable for them to be different kinds of Bonus Actions (qualified by spell), or the same Bonus Action (a mental Command Bonus Action), with possibly different effects. If we go with "the same kind of bonus action, just different effects" as the plain-English reading would indicate, then, it is ambiguous if the text in () applies across spells. If the text in () said "if you control multiple creatures animated with this spell" it would be clear, but the text in () doesn't explicitly restrict the "multiple creatures" to be ones animated/created with this spell. Any answer either way should be treated as suspect, barring a designer weighing in. It is even ambiguous if multiple casts of *this spell* count for the second clause or not (ie, is it *this spell* as in this instance of this spell, or *this spell* as in all castings of this spell? Or is the bonus action granted by the first cast of *this spell* a different bonus action than the one granted by the second cast of *this spell*? Ambiguous.) D&D 5e is written in English prose, and lots of things are ambiguous in English prose. You must work out what is reasonable with your DM. It would be reasonable for your DM to read the rules as stating that one command would work only on undead created by one cast of one of those spells, or it working on all undead created by multiple castings of one of those spells, or on all undead created by any number of castings of both spells. The text is simply not clear. And there are game fictions reasons for any of those 3 to be supported.
74,428
If my detached garage has natural gas connection to the house via a buried black pipe and if the house got caught on fire, can that pipe, say 25' in length, conduct the flame to the garage so that it catches on fire with no other source of ignition? I was thinking that a buried pipe should not be able to do that because fire requires air, which is not available inside a buried pipe. Correct me if wrong.
2015/09/11
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/74428", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/9354/" ]
A gas pipe is filled with nearly 100% flammable gas—at least under normal conditions. Propane and natural gas need to be mixed with air (or oxygen) to be combustible. The [ideal combination](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stoichiometry#Stoichiometric_air-to-fuel_ratios_of_common_fuels) for natural gas is 1 part fuel (by volume) to 9.7 parts dry air. A mixture of more than 15% (1 to 6.67) natural gas is *not* combustible! So, no. Under normal conditions, a flame applied to one end of the gas pipe would not be conducted anywhere.
The possibility of the natural gas line transmitting the fire is extremely close to zero. Yes natural gas requires air, about 20% mixture of gas and air (more air than gas). Getting that mixture in a closed pipe, along the entire pipe, would near impossible without some pre-mixing first before the fire. Also if fires could be transmitted via the gas pipe lines, entire cities would be at risk if just one house caught fire.
74,428
If my detached garage has natural gas connection to the house via a buried black pipe and if the house got caught on fire, can that pipe, say 25' in length, conduct the flame to the garage so that it catches on fire with no other source of ignition? I was thinking that a buried pipe should not be able to do that because fire requires air, which is not available inside a buried pipe. Correct me if wrong.
2015/09/11
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/74428", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/9354/" ]
A gas pipe is filled with nearly 100% flammable gas—at least under normal conditions. Propane and natural gas need to be mixed with air (or oxygen) to be combustible. The [ideal combination](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stoichiometry#Stoichiometric_air-to-fuel_ratios_of_common_fuels) for natural gas is 1 part fuel (by volume) to 9.7 parts dry air. A mixture of more than 15% (1 to 6.67) natural gas is *not* combustible! So, no. Under normal conditions, a flame applied to one end of the gas pipe would not be conducted anywhere.
In normal circumstances no. **But.** If there should be any work done on pipework close to your connector pipe, it must be purged of all air. As mentioned, gas is not combustible in the way it's normally transmitted. But if the pipe has air in it because it was vented prior to some work, gas is turned back on, the air mixes with the gas to become combustible. Then maybe boom. This is why in the UK Gas Safe builders are trained about this risk. This is also why you sometimes hear on the news about a whole street exploding due to the gas main going up. This is how that happens. Just make sure all your pipework is purged subsequent to doing any diy on it.
74,428
If my detached garage has natural gas connection to the house via a buried black pipe and if the house got caught on fire, can that pipe, say 25' in length, conduct the flame to the garage so that it catches on fire with no other source of ignition? I was thinking that a buried pipe should not be able to do that because fire requires air, which is not available inside a buried pipe. Correct me if wrong.
2015/09/11
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/74428", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/9354/" ]
The possibility of the natural gas line transmitting the fire is extremely close to zero. Yes natural gas requires air, about 20% mixture of gas and air (more air than gas). Getting that mixture in a closed pipe, along the entire pipe, would near impossible without some pre-mixing first before the fire. Also if fires could be transmitted via the gas pipe lines, entire cities would be at risk if just one house caught fire.
In normal circumstances no. **But.** If there should be any work done on pipework close to your connector pipe, it must be purged of all air. As mentioned, gas is not combustible in the way it's normally transmitted. But if the pipe has air in it because it was vented prior to some work, gas is turned back on, the air mixes with the gas to become combustible. Then maybe boom. This is why in the UK Gas Safe builders are trained about this risk. This is also why you sometimes hear on the news about a whole street exploding due to the gas main going up. This is how that happens. Just make sure all your pipework is purged subsequent to doing any diy on it.
85,233
The passage of interest: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KVpre.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KVpre.png) This is specifically pertaining to the right hand, and the tempo I am provided is quarter note = 60-66. The fingering I am using is, starting with the C: 3-5 3 2 1 3 1 | 3 2 1 3 4 1 | 3 2 1 2 3 5 | 1 with vertical bars | indicating where leaps are occurring. I have no trouble with these runs, apart from the leaps. **Are there any tips for executing the "1 to 3" leaps faster?** Here's what I've tried: * I used to have an unfortunate habit of rotating my hand so as to "feel" for the next note when a leap occurs. My teacher corrected this and told me to simply do a sideways (but not upward) motion to go from one group of notes to another. * I've tried blocking. This helps with the groups themselves, but I can't do the leaps quickly enough. * I can get this down mostly accurately without looking at the keys, but the leaps are too slow. Due to circumstances, I haven't seen my teacher in a month, and I won't see my teacher either for another week or another month... Regardless, I would like to see if I can figure this out ahead of my next lesson with her. Another thing that could potentially be factoring to this is that I've only been practicing this on my Kawai CA67 (which has weighted keys). I wonder how different this will feel with the school's grand, but I don't expect this will make a huge difference...
2019/05/26
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/85233", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/10952/" ]
Keep in mind that, in several languages, solfège syllables are just the names of the notes themselves. In other words, "do mi sol" literally translates to "C E G." As such, solfège syllables only map to individual pitches. The only system that I can think of where "the entire chord is contained" is with a system that we already know well: by saying something like a major triad built on "mi." But even then, it's not always clear if "mi" means E or E♭. (I certainly hope it isn't E♯...) But as for monosyllabic solutions, there aren't any that I'm familiar with.
The purpose of solfege is that you practice to sing and mind the chords as long until you can imagine - or hear with your “inner ear” the entire chord by singing only the root tone or the bass note in case of inversions. This needs a lot of practice, but it is a big help in combination with the RNA.
85,233
The passage of interest: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KVpre.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KVpre.png) This is specifically pertaining to the right hand, and the tempo I am provided is quarter note = 60-66. The fingering I am using is, starting with the C: 3-5 3 2 1 3 1 | 3 2 1 3 4 1 | 3 2 1 2 3 5 | 1 with vertical bars | indicating where leaps are occurring. I have no trouble with these runs, apart from the leaps. **Are there any tips for executing the "1 to 3" leaps faster?** Here's what I've tried: * I used to have an unfortunate habit of rotating my hand so as to "feel" for the next note when a leap occurs. My teacher corrected this and told me to simply do a sideways (but not upward) motion to go from one group of notes to another. * I've tried blocking. This helps with the groups themselves, but I can't do the leaps quickly enough. * I can get this down mostly accurately without looking at the keys, but the leaps are too slow. Due to circumstances, I haven't seen my teacher in a month, and I won't see my teacher either for another week or another month... Regardless, I would like to see if I can figure this out ahead of my next lesson with her. Another thing that could potentially be factoring to this is that I've only been practicing this on my Kawai CA67 (which has weighted keys). I wonder how different this will feel with the school's grand, but I don't expect this will make a huge difference...
2019/05/26
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/85233", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/10952/" ]
Keep in mind that, in several languages, solfège syllables are just the names of the notes themselves. In other words, "do mi sol" literally translates to "C E G." As such, solfège syllables only map to individual pitches. The only system that I can think of where "the entire chord is contained" is with a system that we already know well: by saying something like a major triad built on "mi." But even then, it's not always clear if "mi" means E or E♭. (I certainly hope it isn't E♯...) But as for monosyllabic solutions, there aren't any that I'm familiar with.
That's the right way and probably the best way to learn chords. But you need to use movable-do solfege. There's this big reason behind it. Most of the songs aren't written with absolute scales in mind due to which we always use terms like 1,4,5 chords. These are nothing but do fa sol chords. These don't change with pitch as you're using movable-do. If you learn chords as solfege based chords, you'll know how the chord relates to the actual song again converted into solfege. You could have converted them into absolute notes but then again you would go about doing calculations of 1,4,5,6 etc. I use it and it's very powerful. I just sit and listen to the whole song. I don't even touch my instrument. I would have decoded all the chords in terms of do Major or re minor etc. And the song will be decoded in terms of do re mi.. The moment I take the instrument I know the chords to play given the pitch as i know what the solfege corresponds to in each pitch.
85,233
The passage of interest: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KVpre.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KVpre.png) This is specifically pertaining to the right hand, and the tempo I am provided is quarter note = 60-66. The fingering I am using is, starting with the C: 3-5 3 2 1 3 1 | 3 2 1 3 4 1 | 3 2 1 2 3 5 | 1 with vertical bars | indicating where leaps are occurring. I have no trouble with these runs, apart from the leaps. **Are there any tips for executing the "1 to 3" leaps faster?** Here's what I've tried: * I used to have an unfortunate habit of rotating my hand so as to "feel" for the next note when a leap occurs. My teacher corrected this and told me to simply do a sideways (but not upward) motion to go from one group of notes to another. * I've tried blocking. This helps with the groups themselves, but I can't do the leaps quickly enough. * I can get this down mostly accurately without looking at the keys, but the leaps are too slow. Due to circumstances, I haven't seen my teacher in a month, and I won't see my teacher either for another week or another month... Regardless, I would like to see if I can figure this out ahead of my next lesson with her. Another thing that could potentially be factoring to this is that I've only been practicing this on my Kawai CA67 (which has weighted keys). I wonder how different this will feel with the school's grand, but I don't expect this will make a huge difference...
2019/05/26
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/85233", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/10952/" ]
That's the right way and probably the best way to learn chords. But you need to use movable-do solfege. There's this big reason behind it. Most of the songs aren't written with absolute scales in mind due to which we always use terms like 1,4,5 chords. These are nothing but do fa sol chords. These don't change with pitch as you're using movable-do. If you learn chords as solfege based chords, you'll know how the chord relates to the actual song again converted into solfege. You could have converted them into absolute notes but then again you would go about doing calculations of 1,4,5,6 etc. I use it and it's very powerful. I just sit and listen to the whole song. I don't even touch my instrument. I would have decoded all the chords in terms of do Major or re minor etc. And the song will be decoded in terms of do re mi.. The moment I take the instrument I know the chords to play given the pitch as i know what the solfege corresponds to in each pitch.
The purpose of solfege is that you practice to sing and mind the chords as long until you can imagine - or hear with your “inner ear” the entire chord by singing only the root tone or the bass note in case of inversions. This needs a lot of practice, but it is a big help in combination with the RNA.
265,114
Is it possible to know if the email sent for a specific user was opened first from a mobile device?
2019/06/07
[ "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/265114", "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com", "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/61819/" ]
You can get device information but user-wise device information can't be obtained. So, which subscriber opened the email on which device can't be obtained as far as I know but how many subscribers opened or clicked on a particular mobile device or computer/laptop can be obtained from SFMC reports. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qFm1q.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qFm1q.png) This does not quite answer the question because the report does not specify 'email sent for a specific user' but 'Blank Template for Email sending performance' can be used to get a lot of user tracking information.
As far I know, this functionality doesn't exist in SFMC. We use third-party tools to track that.
11,951,625
An application is closed, with customizations for certain companies, where it should not be downloaded by people without a contract. I would like information if it is possible that users download the same is not the Apple Store or Play. Or it would create a specific version for each client in official stores. (Apple Store or Play)
2012/08/14
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11951625", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1417249/" ]
<http://www.apple.com/iphone/business/apps/in-house/>
On Android, you are welcome to distribute your apps outside of the Play Store by your own means. You will be responsible for distributing updates as well, and your users will need to check the "Unknown Sources" checkbox in Settings to allow for non-Play Store installs. I cannot speak for iOS.
10,562,165
I am building a project requiring high performance and scalability, entailing: * [Role-based authentication](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Role-based_access_control) with [API-key](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_programming_interface_key) licensing to access data of specific users * [API](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_programming_interface) exposed with [REST](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/REST) ([XML](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/XML), [JSON](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JSON)), [XMLRPC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/XMLRPC), [JSONRPC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JSONRPC) and [SOAP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SOAP) * "Easily" configurable [getters and setters](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mutator_method) to create APIs accessing the same data but with input/output in different [schemas](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Database_schema) A conservative estimate of the number of tables—often whose queries require joins—is: 20. Which database type—e.g.: [NoSQL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NoSQL) or [DBMS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Database_management_system)—[key-value data store](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Key-value_data_store) or [object-relational database](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Object-relational_database)—e.g.: [Redis](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redis) or [PostgreSQL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PostgreSQL)—and [web-framework](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Web_application_framework)—e.g. [Django](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Django_%28web_framework%29), [Web2Py](http://www.web2py.com/) or [Flask](http://flask.pocoo.org/)—would you recommend?
2012/05/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10562165", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/587021/" ]
The bullet point description you have provided would adequately describe just about any data-backed web site on the planet with an API. You haven't provided anywhere near enough detail to provide meaningful recommendations. Each of the technologies you have mentioned have strengths and weaknesses. However, those strengths and weaknesses are only relevant in the context of a specific problem. The choice of RDBMS over NoSQL solution depends on the type of data you're intending to store, and the relationship between those data. It depends on the read/write patterns that you're expecting to see. It depends on the volume of data you're expecting to be storing and retrieving. It depends on the specific set of features you need your data store to have. The choice of web framework depends on the complexity of what you're building, and the resources the community around those tools can provide to support you building your site. That means the community of libraries, and the community of developers who you can call on to support your development. In short, there is no silver bullet. Work out your requirements, and pick the tool or tools that suit those requirements. The answer won't always be the same.
The web frameworks you mention they all scale the same and with 20 tables they probably have similar performance. The bottle neck will always be the database. You mention joins. That means you need a relational database. I would not over-engineer it. Make it work. Polish it. Than make it scale but adding extensive caching.
7,792,473
I need to enter many text fields in this database and was looking to enter them through a form like you might create in MS Access or Open/LibreOffice's Database. Is there such a template-generating package for emacs that would talk to one of such databases (or possibly SQLite)?
2011/10/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7792473", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/143476/" ]
There is emacs widget. For example: <http://www.xemacs.org/Documentation/beta/html/widget_3.html>. Here is the user interface. <http://www.xemacs.org/Documentation/beta/html/widget_2.html#SEC2>. This also works with gnu-emacs. You might want to write some code that it can insert the data in your database, via SQL. Also look at <http://www.emacswiki.org/emacs/sql-transform.el>. I personally would like to have insert the data via org-mode tables.
Why don't you create a simple text file from the entered data which you then can convert to SQL format and import into the database?
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
Considering the fate of all the other things that end up in your niece's hair, I would suggest non-toxic gel if you do go that route. ;) Your question is very thorough: it seems that you've attempted (and given up on) every solution I would try myself. The only thing left might be to keep her hair trimmed until she's old enough to not eat her hair clips.
I made a natural Xanthan Gum hair gel, 1 tablespoons Xanthan gum to 4 oz water. Mix it in a jar, stays good it the fridge for a couple weeks.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
Why is at a concern? Do you really need to worry about it? I don't see that there is a safety or hygiene issue with hair hanging in front of the eyes. About the only thing I can think of appearance, which is fine, but not all that urgent. It sounds like you have exhausted all of the alternatives except the hair cut. If it really is necessary to control the hair, then you need to get it cut.
Why don't you take her with you and get her to select a nice colorful cloth elastic head band? In my experience it keeps the hair out of the eyes and gradually conditions it to grow or set in the other direction.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
If she won't stay still long enough to cut the hair do what my wife does, put the child to sleep on a towel then cut the hair slowly, holding onto it. You shouldn't get much hair on the bed and you can usually move a sleeping child enough to get the towel out, or move them back to the bed if you want to try putting them to sleep somewhere else first. Cutting is always temporary, but its a better solution if you don't want to worry about things in the hair getting put in the mouth later on.
I made a natural Xanthan Gum hair gel, 1 tablespoons Xanthan gum to 4 oz water. Mix it in a jar, stays good it the fridge for a couple weeks.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
Right now we are in the process of growing out my daughters bangs (She's 2). I usually do the same thing with her bangs everyday, which is basically a small ponytail with them, only with a pull-through. If I just put in a little rubber band (the non-pulling hair kind, usually comes in packages with lots of colors) it will fall out no matter how tight I pull it or how many times I twist the band around that part of her hair. However, if you put in the band, then make a hole in the middle of the hair, before you tighten it, and then pull the pony tail through, then pull the hair tight, it stays ALL DAY. It lays back on her head, so she doesn't see it in her peripheral vision, and it doesn't stick up so she can easily find the rubber band and pull it loose. This has been the best solution for us to keep the hair out, is pretty quick, especially the more you do it. And, can be done while they are laying down/sleeping as you are just gather the hair at the front. You can see a tutorial here: <http://babesinhairland.com/hairstyles/bang-pull-back-5-flipped-ponytails/> Now they do more then just the one ponytail here, but it will at least give some instructions and a picture as to what I'm referring to. Again, just do the part of hair that is in her face, what could be considered "bangs" no need to do all of it, unless you want to/she has that much hair.
Would she wear a hat or headscarf? Maybe if she is allowed to select one?
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
My 20 month old daughter also seems to *like* having her hair loose in her face (pulling out any clips or bands etc.). So usually we just allow her to choose. They do make "non-toxic" hairgel/mist for kids, but my preferred solution (temporary, but easy to do in a moment) is simply to brush her hair back toward her ears with plain water. She seems to like that, and her hair is very fine and mostly straight so it kind of sticks there for long enough to eat or play a game or take 'presentable' photos or whatever. (The baby hairspray does stick better but water has served our needs.) It has recently gotten long enough to reach behind her ears, so may get easier for you in a few months. Rubber bands that are *so tight* she can't pull them out did seem to work (I dislike them... pigtails near the temples... but when we occasionally use daycare someone there puts them in) and surprisingly she doesn't seem to persist on trying to get them out when she finds it's not easy.
I made a natural Xanthan Gum hair gel, 1 tablespoons Xanthan gum to 4 oz water. Mix it in a jar, stays good it the fridge for a couple weeks.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
Does she care if it is in her eyes? * If not, leave it - it will eventually get longer * If so, cut it - it is fine to cut hair regularly :-)
Right now we are in the process of growing out my daughters bangs (She's 2). I usually do the same thing with her bangs everyday, which is basically a small ponytail with them, only with a pull-through. If I just put in a little rubber band (the non-pulling hair kind, usually comes in packages with lots of colors) it will fall out no matter how tight I pull it or how many times I twist the band around that part of her hair. However, if you put in the band, then make a hole in the middle of the hair, before you tighten it, and then pull the pony tail through, then pull the hair tight, it stays ALL DAY. It lays back on her head, so she doesn't see it in her peripheral vision, and it doesn't stick up so she can easily find the rubber band and pull it loose. This has been the best solution for us to keep the hair out, is pretty quick, especially the more you do it. And, can be done while they are laying down/sleeping as you are just gather the hair at the front. You can see a tutorial here: <http://babesinhairland.com/hairstyles/bang-pull-back-5-flipped-ponytails/> Now they do more then just the one ponytail here, but it will at least give some instructions and a picture as to what I'm referring to. Again, just do the part of hair that is in her face, what could be considered "bangs" no need to do all of it, unless you want to/she has that much hair.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
If she won't stay still long enough to cut the hair do what my wife does, put the child to sleep on a towel then cut the hair slowly, holding onto it. You shouldn't get much hair on the bed and you can usually move a sleeping child enough to get the towel out, or move them back to the bed if you want to try putting them to sleep somewhere else first. Cutting is always temporary, but its a better solution if you don't want to worry about things in the hair getting put in the mouth later on.
My daughter is 2 and her hair grows "forward" as you described. My hair does not, but my husband's side of family has that trait. Her hair is always in her eyes, so we have to cut bangs. She sees an inexpensive stylist and I explain the issue. Yes, the bangs are fairly straight across and look "baby-ish", and even STILL, hair from the back of her head will fall forward into her eyes! Her daycare constantly loses any clips I put in. I suggest cutting bangs and baby gel/hairspray. Hopefully we won't have to deal with this for long! Eventually they will be grown up enough to keep their clips in their hair or ask for help putting them back in. An issue of age.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
Why is at a concern? Do you really need to worry about it? I don't see that there is a safety or hygiene issue with hair hanging in front of the eyes. About the only thing I can think of appearance, which is fine, but not all that urgent. It sounds like you have exhausted all of the alternatives except the hair cut. If it really is necessary to control the hair, then you need to get it cut.
Would she wear a hat or headscarf? Maybe if she is allowed to select one?
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
Does she care if it is in her eyes? * If not, leave it - it will eventually get longer * If so, cut it - it is fine to cut hair regularly :-)
Considering the fate of all the other things that end up in your niece's hair, I would suggest non-toxic gel if you do go that route. ;) Your question is very thorough: it seems that you've attempted (and given up on) every solution I would try myself. The only thing left might be to keep her hair trimmed until she's old enough to not eat her hair clips.
3,317
My niece is 15 months old, and has inherited a combination of the worst traits of her parent's hair: it's very very fine, like her mother's (and mine), and grows at all sorts of odd angles, like her father's. It's now gotten long enough to hang into her eyes, but it's not long enough to be tucked behind her ears. We fight a never ending (and losing) battle to brush it out of her face. * Cutting it seems like a temporary solution at best, because it'll just grow again. Plus, I can't imagine getting her to stay still long enough to even attempt a haircut. * Barrettes and clips slide right out. If gravity doesn't do the job on its own, the niece does her head shaking thing and out flies the clip. (Which she then promptly puts into her mouth, but I digress.) + Yes, we've tried the various "non-slip" barrettes with rubberized this or sticky that or whatever. They're obviously designed for way more hair than my niece possesses. * Rubber bands stay put only slightly better than clips. And as soon as she notices that there's something in her hair, she grabs it and takes it out. (And yes, puts it into her mouth.) * Headbands (either the plastic arc type or the large rubber band type) are a lovely toy, but are not to go anywhere near the head. At least according to my niece. I find myself wondering if they make hair gel for toddlers. Help?
2011/11/08
[ "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/3317", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com", "https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/984/" ]
If she won't stay still long enough to cut the hair do what my wife does, put the child to sleep on a towel then cut the hair slowly, holding onto it. You shouldn't get much hair on the bed and you can usually move a sleeping child enough to get the towel out, or move them back to the bed if you want to try putting them to sleep somewhere else first. Cutting is always temporary, but its a better solution if you don't want to worry about things in the hair getting put in the mouth later on.
Braid her fringe to the side. Wait until it gets long enought to put behind ear.
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
In OP's context, "commute" would normally include both journeys, but since "commuting" in this sense invariably implies "to and from **work**", the explicit mention of "to work" *could* mean only the outward journey. Having said that, I think it would be a perverse interpretation to automatically assume only the outward journey was intended. But I wouldn't think it was unusual if the utterance went on to *force* that interpretation... **...so I have something to do during my commute to work, but on the return journey I have a drink in the buffet car with colleagues.** [Here's](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=commute%20to%20and%20from,commute%20to&year_start=1950&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) an NGram showing over 110K instances of "commute to", with less than 5K for "commute to and from". By definition 50% of every commuter's journeys are coming home – I seriously doubt they're talking about the outward journey over 95% of the time!
No, it does not clearly refer to the trip both ways. I would understand it to be only the trip to work, or possibly to be unspecific about whether the return trip is included. If you need to be clear on this, you would have to specify that you actually mean both ways.
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
No, it does not clearly refer to the trip both ways. I would understand it to be only the trip to work, or possibly to be unspecific about whether the return trip is included. If you need to be clear on this, you would have to specify that you actually mean both ways.
"Commute" does have the meaning of [going and coming back:](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/commute) > > to travel regularly over some distance, *as from a suburb into a city and back*: He commutes to work by train. > > > However, it wouldn't be very clear. Not a lot of people know this. A better alternative is: > > I bring an e-reader with me everyday so that I can have something to do when I journey to work to and fro. > > >
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
Using the word 'to' adds a sense of direction (that being towards place of work). I would use: > > "my daily commute" > > > since the word [commute](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Commuting) already describes the travel between work.
No, it does not clearly refer to the trip both ways. I would understand it to be only the trip to work, or possibly to be unspecific about whether the return trip is included. If you need to be clear on this, you would have to specify that you actually mean both ways.
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
In OP's context, "commute" would normally include both journeys, but since "commuting" in this sense invariably implies "to and from **work**", the explicit mention of "to work" *could* mean only the outward journey. Having said that, I think it would be a perverse interpretation to automatically assume only the outward journey was intended. But I wouldn't think it was unusual if the utterance went on to *force* that interpretation... **...so I have something to do during my commute to work, but on the return journey I have a drink in the buffet car with colleagues.** [Here's](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=commute%20to%20and%20from,commute%20to&year_start=1950&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) an NGram showing over 110K instances of "commute to", with less than 5K for "commute to and from". By definition 50% of every commuter's journeys are coming home – I seriously doubt they're talking about the outward journey over 95% of the time!
"Commute to work" does imply, as you suggest, your morning trip in the direction towards work. It is not obvious that it refers to both directions. The first definition of ['to' in the OALD](http://www.oxfordadvancedlearnersdictionary.com/dictionary/to) is: > > (1) in the direction of something; towards something > > *I walked to the office.* > > > Many other meanings are similar: the word that follows "to" will usually be understood to be the second half of a comparison, or the item that an action is directed toward. So, you are correct that > > My commute to and from work > > > would be a clearer way to state this. You might also say, "my commute," if you don't mind a little ambiguity (a listener will have to determine from context whether you mean your commute in general or a specific direction), or "my morning and evening commute."
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
"Commute to work" does imply, as you suggest, your morning trip in the direction towards work. It is not obvious that it refers to both directions. The first definition of ['to' in the OALD](http://www.oxfordadvancedlearnersdictionary.com/dictionary/to) is: > > (1) in the direction of something; towards something > > *I walked to the office.* > > > Many other meanings are similar: the word that follows "to" will usually be understood to be the second half of a comparison, or the item that an action is directed toward. So, you are correct that > > My commute to and from work > > > would be a clearer way to state this. You might also say, "my commute," if you don't mind a little ambiguity (a listener will have to determine from context whether you mean your commute in general or a specific direction), or "my morning and evening commute."
"Commute" does have the meaning of [going and coming back:](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/commute) > > to travel regularly over some distance, *as from a suburb into a city and back*: He commutes to work by train. > > > However, it wouldn't be very clear. Not a lot of people know this. A better alternative is: > > I bring an e-reader with me everyday so that I can have something to do when I journey to work to and fro. > > >
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
Using the word 'to' adds a sense of direction (that being towards place of work). I would use: > > "my daily commute" > > > since the word [commute](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Commuting) already describes the travel between work.
"Commute to work" does imply, as you suggest, your morning trip in the direction towards work. It is not obvious that it refers to both directions. The first definition of ['to' in the OALD](http://www.oxfordadvancedlearnersdictionary.com/dictionary/to) is: > > (1) in the direction of something; towards something > > *I walked to the office.* > > > Many other meanings are similar: the word that follows "to" will usually be understood to be the second half of a comparison, or the item that an action is directed toward. So, you are correct that > > My commute to and from work > > > would be a clearer way to state this. You might also say, "my commute," if you don't mind a little ambiguity (a listener will have to determine from context whether you mean your commute in general or a specific direction), or "my morning and evening commute."
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
In OP's context, "commute" would normally include both journeys, but since "commuting" in this sense invariably implies "to and from **work**", the explicit mention of "to work" *could* mean only the outward journey. Having said that, I think it would be a perverse interpretation to automatically assume only the outward journey was intended. But I wouldn't think it was unusual if the utterance went on to *force* that interpretation... **...so I have something to do during my commute to work, but on the return journey I have a drink in the buffet car with colleagues.** [Here's](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=commute%20to%20and%20from,commute%20to&year_start=1950&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) an NGram showing over 110K instances of "commute to", with less than 5K for "commute to and from". By definition 50% of every commuter's journeys are coming home – I seriously doubt they're talking about the outward journey over 95% of the time!
"Commute" does have the meaning of [going and coming back:](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/commute) > > to travel regularly over some distance, *as from a suburb into a city and back*: He commutes to work by train. > > > However, it wouldn't be very clear. Not a lot of people know this. A better alternative is: > > I bring an e-reader with me everyday so that I can have something to do when I journey to work to and fro. > > >
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
Using the word 'to' adds a sense of direction (that being towards place of work). I would use: > > "my daily commute" > > > since the word [commute](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Commuting) already describes the travel between work.
In OP's context, "commute" would normally include both journeys, but since "commuting" in this sense invariably implies "to and from **work**", the explicit mention of "to work" *could* mean only the outward journey. Having said that, I think it would be a perverse interpretation to automatically assume only the outward journey was intended. But I wouldn't think it was unusual if the utterance went on to *force* that interpretation... **...so I have something to do during my commute to work, but on the return journey I have a drink in the buffet car with colleagues.** [Here's](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=commute%20to%20and%20from,commute%20to&year_start=1950&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) an NGram showing over 110K instances of "commute to", with less than 5K for "commute to and from". By definition 50% of every commuter's journeys are coming home – I seriously doubt they're talking about the outward journey over 95% of the time!
35,844
I want to tell someone the following: "I bring an e-reader with me on the bus every day so that I have something to do during my commute to work." Does the phrase "commute to work" clearly refer to the trip there **and** the trip back from work? Or is it more proper to say "commute to and from work" in order to ensure that it is clear that I mean both directions?
2011/07/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/35844", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/9085/" ]
Using the word 'to' adds a sense of direction (that being towards place of work). I would use: > > "my daily commute" > > > since the word [commute](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Commuting) already describes the travel between work.
"Commute" does have the meaning of [going and coming back:](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/commute) > > to travel regularly over some distance, *as from a suburb into a city and back*: He commutes to work by train. > > > However, it wouldn't be very clear. Not a lot of people know this. A better alternative is: > > I bring an e-reader with me everyday so that I can have something to do when I journey to work to and fro. > > >
46,512
iTunes match is on but I can't copy songs already downloaded to my PC to my iphone without redownloading them on my iphone from the cloud. Is this by design or am I missing something. Seems like an odd thing.
2012/03/28
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/46512", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/16019/" ]
It's by design. iTunes Match will upload (or *match*) your songs with your iCloud. They will show up on any other device (up to 10 devices) where you've enabled iTunes Match. But in order to play the song on your other device, it needs to be downloaded (or at least streamed). Which is kind of obvious, since you can't play a song out of nowhere. So your iPhone will stream (or download, depending on what you choose) the song and than play it. It will even start playing before it finished downloading the song. You can find more information about iTunes Match and the working process behind on [this website.](http://appculture.net/how-does-itunes-match-work/)
This is even more frustrating if you songs are more than 256k because when match gives them to your other devices, they are 256k
14,856,279
I'm using Basic4Android and the AudioRecord library that is based on [this](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/media/AudioRecord.html) I want to know how to retrieve a string from buffer In short, if you register with audiorecord a word (eg, "hello"), you can retrieve this from the buffer in order to have a string value "hello"? Thanks Alberto
2013/02/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14856279", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/622716/" ]
With just audiorecord library I don't think you can get a speech recognition, as far as I know you get raw sound wave from there, but try with [SpeechRecognizer](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/speech/SpeechRecognizer.html), a demo application tutorial [here](http://www.jameselsey.co.uk/blogs/techblog/android-how-to-implement-voice-recognition-a-nice-easy-tutorial/)
i am glad to see other use basic 4 android too you'll find several libraries here <https://www.b4x.com/android/forum/pages/results/?query=speech+recognizer> and here is what seems to be the answer: <https://www.b4x.com/android/forum/threads/another-speechrecognizer-library.37584/#content>
39,286,280
The text data I have for a column in database in an enterprise application (uses hibernate) is huge and after increasing varchar size to a specific number, I don't have any other choice but to change the datatype to text. Can anyone help me understand how it may affect my application. Do I need to take care of anything else or just changing the datatype works ?
2016/09/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/39286280", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4045018/" ]
You should use **TEXT.** Although, that's the same thing as **VARCHAR**: > > If the declared type of the column contains any of the strings "CHAR", > "CLOB", or "TEXT" then that column has TEXT affinity. Notice that the > type VARCHAR contains the string "CHAR" and is thus assigned TEXT > affinity > > > Also note > > Note that numeric arguments in parentheses that following the type > name (ex: "VARCHAR(255)") are ignored by SQLite - SQLite does not > impose any length restrictions (other than the large global > SQLITE\_MAX\_LENGTH limit) on the length of strings, BLOBs or numeric > values. > > > Your application work fine with datatype text.You don't need to take care of any thing
if you want to be sure, create backup database first just in case, or at least backup/duplicate table you were going to make changes for me I also prefer varchar than text because varchar used to be using smaller memory than text ex : address (100) , records only using 80 character, will be saved as 80 character in varchar while in text , will be saved as 100 character
262,894
I am working on a Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit virtual server hosted at GoDaddy. Whenever I change the time zone to Amman (UTC +2:00), and wait around 1 minute, a message appears in the clock fly-away indicating that the timezone is not recognized. And the time gets reset to its original value before changing the time zone. Message: Your current time zone is not recognized. Please select a valid time zone using the link below. Screen shot: <http://i53.tinypic.com/10n7zh5.jpg> I tried restarting the machine after changing the time zone but the message did not go away. I tried other time zones (e.g. Pacific Time UTC-8:00) and the same thing happens. Any suggestions?
2011/04/24
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/262894", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/79316/" ]
I have found a the answer from godaddy's support forum here: <http://community.godaddy.com/groups/go-daddy-customers/forum/topic/in-my-vps-windows-in-godaddy-i-cant-change-timezone/> All the VPSs automatically synchronize their time with the parent server. Changing the timezone is not allowed on the VPS level.
If this is a XenServer hosted virtual server, then try this: * Enable the following Citrix Policy: **Citrix Presentation Server Console** -> **User Workspace** -> **Time Zones** -> **Do not use Client’s local time** * And manually set a proper Time Zone via the Change date and time settings… GUI [Source](http://forums.citrix.com/message.jspa?messageID=1533775#1486654)
14,041
I would like to make [naked fatties on the barbeque](http://www.bbqaddicts.com/blog/recipes/sausage-recipe-smoking-fatties/) this weekend, but want to accomodate some vegan friends (and my on/off lacto-ovo wife). I can easily swap regular pork breakfast sausage for [Gimme Lean](http://www.lightlife.com/product_detail.jsp?p=gimmeleansausage), some other brand, or [homemade](http://www.food.com/recipe/vegan-breakfast-sausage-437126). Ideally, I would like to have a hearty protein/nutritional medium at the end that is full of smoky flavor and could be used in other dishes too (i.e. chili, soup, casseroles). I have lingering questions though: * Which brand (if I go with store bought, as I don't really see trying homemade breakfast sausage out for the first time as part of a meal for others) works the best? Not necessarily the 'meatiest'; which holds its texture and flavor through the cooking process without either breaking down? (Particularly with respect to long cooking, i.e. through smoking) * Would this work better with a quinoa chub instead of the vegan breakfast sausage? Or would the chub end up inedible? (Don't answer that if you think quinoa is already inedible.) * The recipe calls for using 1 lb sausage chubs (whole) with "indirect heat at 250 degrees until the internal temperature reaches 160 degrees, which will take about an hour"; how should I adjust cooking temps/times to account for it not being actual meat? (since veggie burgers, links, etc "cook" much faster than their meat counterparts.) * How can I ensure the range of effect in terms of the cooking process (smoking) imparting flavor is best preserved?
2011/04/14
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/14041", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/15/" ]
I've never tried [this recipe](http://aveganfordinner.blogspot.com/2008/11/soy-free-vegan-breakfast-sausage.html), but based on the herbs it looks like it would give a good imitation of a sausage flavor. When I lived in the US I remember [Boca Burger](http://www.bocaburger.com/) and [Morning Star Farms](http://www.morningstarfarms.com/products_veggie-sausage-links.aspx) having pretty good sausage links, but unfortunately it looks like they contain whey and egg which I believe would not be vegan. I've never tried them, but [Linda McCartney Foods](http://www.lindamccartneyfoods.co.uk/sausages.php) has a sausage they claim is vegan. Since sausage is mostly about the herbs, texture, and fat content, you can get pretty close with a suitably textured vegetable protein along with the right herbs and spices. Look primarily for sage along with possibly garlic, parsley, rosemary, and thyme. [This article](http://www.slashfood.com/2008/03/11/vegan-sausages-take-over-the-world/) with a collection of recipes could also be interesting.
There is **no such thing** as a vegan substitute for pork. You can make something that will be roughly the same shape and color, but it won't taste anything remotely like it, so don't even bother. There are many delicious vegan foods that don't pretend to be something they're not. Here's one idea: Take cooked black beans, rinse and drain well. Toss with halved cherry tomatoes, red onion, parsley, olive oil and lime juice. Add fresh chilies if you're so inclined. (This will be served cold.) Make a plain bread dough (flour, water, yeast, salt). Let it rise for an hour. (Or, skip the preceding steps and buy some raw pizza dough at the store). Divide into small pieces, roll them out flat, grill on medium heat for a couple minutes per side. (They won't stick, I promise.) After grilling the bread, grill some vegetables. Eggplant does well on the grill, so do zucchini, peppers and mushrooms. Top with olive oil and balsamic vinegar (I like to put the oil on after grilling, so it doesn't flare up).
14,041
I would like to make [naked fatties on the barbeque](http://www.bbqaddicts.com/blog/recipes/sausage-recipe-smoking-fatties/) this weekend, but want to accomodate some vegan friends (and my on/off lacto-ovo wife). I can easily swap regular pork breakfast sausage for [Gimme Lean](http://www.lightlife.com/product_detail.jsp?p=gimmeleansausage), some other brand, or [homemade](http://www.food.com/recipe/vegan-breakfast-sausage-437126). Ideally, I would like to have a hearty protein/nutritional medium at the end that is full of smoky flavor and could be used in other dishes too (i.e. chili, soup, casseroles). I have lingering questions though: * Which brand (if I go with store bought, as I don't really see trying homemade breakfast sausage out for the first time as part of a meal for others) works the best? Not necessarily the 'meatiest'; which holds its texture and flavor through the cooking process without either breaking down? (Particularly with respect to long cooking, i.e. through smoking) * Would this work better with a quinoa chub instead of the vegan breakfast sausage? Or would the chub end up inedible? (Don't answer that if you think quinoa is already inedible.) * The recipe calls for using 1 lb sausage chubs (whole) with "indirect heat at 250 degrees until the internal temperature reaches 160 degrees, which will take about an hour"; how should I adjust cooking temps/times to account for it not being actual meat? (since veggie burgers, links, etc "cook" much faster than their meat counterparts.) * How can I ensure the range of effect in terms of the cooking process (smoking) imparting flavor is best preserved?
2011/04/14
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/14041", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/15/" ]
So yesterday I tried out the experiment. I made the naked fatty per the normal recipe, and using the gimme lean breakfast sausage. The two primary concerns I had were (a) to ensure the sausage didn't come apart during the smoking process and (b) to ensure a good amount of smokiness was imparted. * With respect to (a), the heat I worried might denature the exterior sausage bits, so I rubbed my hands, cutting board, grill grate, and the sausage with some canola oil. The hope was to try to have a protectant layer on the outside that would be hydrophobic, and reduce stickiness. * With respect to (b), I assumed the smoke from the charcoal would sufficiently suffuse the pork sausage, but was concerned about the vegan one. To create more smoke I roasted peppers and tomatillos for the latter half of the cooking process. **Results**: Both ended up smoky and nicely textured. Neither was on the verge of crumbly bits, but rather tender on the inside and nicely glazed on the outside. The "meats" were very smoky, very well flavored (the rub was great, but my vegan bbq sauce from scratch not so good). When I incorporated it into chili I quartered the chubs lengthwise and put a quick sear on each edge. They were good short term, not so good long-term and became pretty soft and the flavor dimished. Next time I may try rolling it flat and smoking it that way so it can just be crumbled. **Takeaway**: Smoking vegan sausage pulls out some really good stuff. Obviously it's not pork sausage, but it is a tasty meat substitute and smoking it is worth the effort. It doesn't take well yet to stock; further searing/cooking might be required.
There is **no such thing** as a vegan substitute for pork. You can make something that will be roughly the same shape and color, but it won't taste anything remotely like it, so don't even bother. There are many delicious vegan foods that don't pretend to be something they're not. Here's one idea: Take cooked black beans, rinse and drain well. Toss with halved cherry tomatoes, red onion, parsley, olive oil and lime juice. Add fresh chilies if you're so inclined. (This will be served cold.) Make a plain bread dough (flour, water, yeast, salt). Let it rise for an hour. (Or, skip the preceding steps and buy some raw pizza dough at the store). Divide into small pieces, roll them out flat, grill on medium heat for a couple minutes per side. (They won't stick, I promise.) After grilling the bread, grill some vegetables. Eggplant does well on the grill, so do zucchini, peppers and mushrooms. Top with olive oil and balsamic vinegar (I like to put the oil on after grilling, so it doesn't flare up).
14,041
I would like to make [naked fatties on the barbeque](http://www.bbqaddicts.com/blog/recipes/sausage-recipe-smoking-fatties/) this weekend, but want to accomodate some vegan friends (and my on/off lacto-ovo wife). I can easily swap regular pork breakfast sausage for [Gimme Lean](http://www.lightlife.com/product_detail.jsp?p=gimmeleansausage), some other brand, or [homemade](http://www.food.com/recipe/vegan-breakfast-sausage-437126). Ideally, I would like to have a hearty protein/nutritional medium at the end that is full of smoky flavor and could be used in other dishes too (i.e. chili, soup, casseroles). I have lingering questions though: * Which brand (if I go with store bought, as I don't really see trying homemade breakfast sausage out for the first time as part of a meal for others) works the best? Not necessarily the 'meatiest'; which holds its texture and flavor through the cooking process without either breaking down? (Particularly with respect to long cooking, i.e. through smoking) * Would this work better with a quinoa chub instead of the vegan breakfast sausage? Or would the chub end up inedible? (Don't answer that if you think quinoa is already inedible.) * The recipe calls for using 1 lb sausage chubs (whole) with "indirect heat at 250 degrees until the internal temperature reaches 160 degrees, which will take about an hour"; how should I adjust cooking temps/times to account for it not being actual meat? (since veggie burgers, links, etc "cook" much faster than their meat counterparts.) * How can I ensure the range of effect in terms of the cooking process (smoking) imparting flavor is best preserved?
2011/04/14
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/14041", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/15/" ]
So yesterday I tried out the experiment. I made the naked fatty per the normal recipe, and using the gimme lean breakfast sausage. The two primary concerns I had were (a) to ensure the sausage didn't come apart during the smoking process and (b) to ensure a good amount of smokiness was imparted. * With respect to (a), the heat I worried might denature the exterior sausage bits, so I rubbed my hands, cutting board, grill grate, and the sausage with some canola oil. The hope was to try to have a protectant layer on the outside that would be hydrophobic, and reduce stickiness. * With respect to (b), I assumed the smoke from the charcoal would sufficiently suffuse the pork sausage, but was concerned about the vegan one. To create more smoke I roasted peppers and tomatillos for the latter half of the cooking process. **Results**: Both ended up smoky and nicely textured. Neither was on the verge of crumbly bits, but rather tender on the inside and nicely glazed on the outside. The "meats" were very smoky, very well flavored (the rub was great, but my vegan bbq sauce from scratch not so good). When I incorporated it into chili I quartered the chubs lengthwise and put a quick sear on each edge. They were good short term, not so good long-term and became pretty soft and the flavor dimished. Next time I may try rolling it flat and smoking it that way so it can just be crumbled. **Takeaway**: Smoking vegan sausage pulls out some really good stuff. Obviously it's not pork sausage, but it is a tasty meat substitute and smoking it is worth the effort. It doesn't take well yet to stock; further searing/cooking might be required.
I've never tried [this recipe](http://aveganfordinner.blogspot.com/2008/11/soy-free-vegan-breakfast-sausage.html), but based on the herbs it looks like it would give a good imitation of a sausage flavor. When I lived in the US I remember [Boca Burger](http://www.bocaburger.com/) and [Morning Star Farms](http://www.morningstarfarms.com/products_veggie-sausage-links.aspx) having pretty good sausage links, but unfortunately it looks like they contain whey and egg which I believe would not be vegan. I've never tried them, but [Linda McCartney Foods](http://www.lindamccartneyfoods.co.uk/sausages.php) has a sausage they claim is vegan. Since sausage is mostly about the herbs, texture, and fat content, you can get pretty close with a suitably textured vegetable protein along with the right herbs and spices. Look primarily for sage along with possibly garlic, parsley, rosemary, and thyme. [This article](http://www.slashfood.com/2008/03/11/vegan-sausages-take-over-the-world/) with a collection of recipes could also be interesting.
6,174
In the book "The Sociopath Next Door: The Ruthless vs. the Rest of Us" by Martha Stout Ph.D. (Broadway Books, New York, 2005, ISBN 0-7679-1581-X) the author claims that 1 in 25 people are sociopaths. ([It is referenced here](http://www.cix.co.uk/~klockstone/spath.htm)) I'm sure I've heard that statistic before, but I've never heard it explained or elaborated. How could anyone really know that? Is there a way to prove a person is a sociopath unless they are willing to provide honest answers? There are additional claims that sociopaths are disproportionately represented among the prison population. Again, how can anyone know that? Isn't it possible that some may not answer questions of remorse honestly? Basically, is there any objective test for [Antisocial Personality Disorder](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Antisocial_personality_disorder)?
2011/09/15
[ "https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/6174", "https://skeptics.stackexchange.com", "https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/4810/" ]
[The National Institute of Mental Health says it's 1 in 100](http://www.nimh.nih.gov/statistics/1Antisocial.shtml) and that it's more likely to find Antisocial Personality Disorder (the [DSM-IV](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diagnostic_and_Statistical_Manual_of_Mental_Disorders) term) in men. ![For some reason, they stuck the information in an image](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lgBVk.jpg) The link cites data from the National Comorbidity Survey, which you can find more about [here](http://www.hcp.med.harvard.edu/ncs/) and specifics regarding how they make dianoses [here](http://www.hcp.med.harvard.edu/ncs/diagnosis.php). [Here](http://www.hcp.med.harvard.edu/wmh/publishedpaper_kessler_design.pdf) is a PDF talking about how they select interviewees and do their interviews. To sum it up, 300 trained professionals went out and personally interviewed around 10000 people in the continental US once and then did follow-up interviews with around half of them. That does line up with what my professors were telling me in college, but I can't very well cite my old notes here. They were probably just quoting me figures from the NCS, too. [Here is a PDF](http://www.brainexplorer.org/factsheets/psychiatry%20diagnosis.pdf) that talks about the five axis diagnosis process, since that's also relevant to part of your question. The [MMPI](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minnesota_Multiphasic_Personality_Inventory) is supposed to be pretty good at picking out different disorders.
Dtander's answer is quite alright, but because you kept asking about the problem with self-report: First: There is hardly any incentive to pretend that you don't feel empathy, so an estimate that we get from self-report would be lower-bound (if the criteria are proper). Secondly, sociopath, psychopath, dissocial and antisocial personality disorder are not exactly the same [concepts](https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Antisocial_personality_disorder#Diagnosis) depending on who you ask. For example Hervey Cleckley has asserted that psychopaths are [immune to suicide](http://psycnet.apa.org/index.cfm?fa=search.displayRecord&uid=2001-07673-011) but there is differential evidence for two factors that Hare's [PCL-R](https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/PCL-R) comprises. So some argue that the deviancy/delinquency without lack of empathy/remorse is antisocial personality disorder, and the afflicted will sometimes seek help. I'm not on top of [the debate](http://www.dsm5.org/ProposedRevisions/Pages/proposedrevision.aspx?rid=16#), but I'd say it's likely that it will not come to an inherent endorsement of the term "psychopath" because it has a quite "evil" connotation (the Stout book sounds quite scaremongering as well) and the people Hare means wouldn't seek help anyway. Third, not all of the criteria in antisocial/dissocial personality disorder and even fewer in the PCL-R need to be based on self-reports. There are case files about activities like (juvenile) delinquency, many short-term marital relationships, promiscuity, etc. And not all think they have something to hide. A quote from Geoffrey Miller's Mating Mind: > > Very few psychopaths flaunt their lack of sympathy like Hannibal > Lecter, because very few of them are glamorous, urbane geniuses. > Mostly, they are just ordinary creeps who beat their girlfriends, stab > guys in bars for no reason, get caught, and then apply for parole four > times as often as non-psychopaths because they don't think they've > done anything wrong. > > > Fourth, I'd say the MMPI isn't good, it's just widespread. The SKID and the DIPS are supposed to be better. Many prefer the MMPI though for reasons such as sunk cost and the ability to fax your answer sheets in to get a score. Can't dig up an English reference now, sorry. Hank, P.,& Schwenkmezger, P. (2003). Das Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI). Testbesprechung im Auftrag des Testkuratoriums. Report Psychologie, 28(5), 294-303.
15,115
Can [Crypt Rats](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=Crypt%20Rats) be activated while in the graveyard? There is no tap, which is why it seems possible. If not, then why can cards like [Rot Farm Skeleton](https://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=Rot%20Farm%20Skeleton) have activated abilities that are usable only while they are in the graveyard, yet do not explicitly say that "use this ability only when XXX is in your graveyard"?
2014/03/30
[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/15115", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/7278/" ]
**You can only activate Crypt Rats on the battlefield. You can activate Rot Farm Skeleton from your graveyard because its ability specifies "from your graveyard."** As a rule of thumb, you can only activate an ability from the battlefield unless its text would only make sense in another zone. From the comp rules: > > 112.6. Abilities of an instant or sorcery spell usually function only while that object is on the stack. Abilities of all other objects usually function only while that object is on the battlefield. The exceptions are as follows:[...] > > > 112.6b An ability that states which zones it functions in functions only from those zones.[...] > > > 112.6k An ability whose cost or effect specifies that it moves the object it’s on out of a particular zone functions only in that zone, unless that ability’s trigger condition, or a previous part of that ability’s cost or effect, specifies that the object is put into that zone. > > > *Example: Reassembling Skeleton says “{1}{B}: Return Reassembling Skeleton from your graveyard to the battlefield tapped.” A player may activate this ability only if Reassembling Skeleton is in his or her graveyard.* > > >
You can't use it from your graveyard. Abilities usually only work when the card is on the battlefield. Cards that do work from the graveyard are exceptions. See following rules: 112.6. Abilities of an instant or sorcery spell usually function only while that object is on the stack. Abilities of all other objects usually function only while that object is on the battlefield. The exceptions are as follows: 112.6b An ability that states which zones it functions in functions only from those zones.
508,989
I've had [a cheap 18650 flashlight](https://de.aliexpress.com/item/4000396427849.html) for some time now - when turning it off and on, it cycles through five modes - full power, medium power, low power, strobe, SOS signal. I'd like to disable that feature and just use it in full power mode whenever I turn it on. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KnxtV.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KnxtV.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/c4xUu.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/c4xUu.jpg) I assume the "HL6S2" component controls those modes, but I couldn't find any useful information on that. Positive power comes through the via near the red lead. Ground is on the perimeter of the chip. The flashlight is turned on and off via a switch on its back, which connects the case to the battery ground, so the IC seems to have some sort of memory to retain its information for prolonged periods of time. I assume the IC switches the left leg (connected to the blue lead via two 500 Ohms resistors in parallel) to ground, which is on its middle leg. Does anyone have a datasheet for this chip? Searching for the markings wasn't very helpful. To mod it, I'd remove the IC and solder a bridge from the left to the middle port - does that sound reasonable?
2020/07/05
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/508989", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/201282/" ]
The IC is an ASIC with built-in power transistor. You can do nothing with it, but bypass it. Here is a similar part: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HPyTP.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HPyTP.png) That one has 3 functions plus off (100%, 25% and flash), as clearly described in the [datasheet](http://www.hmsemi.com/downfile/HM5101.PDF). It also reverts into a low power mode to save the LEDs when the temperature is too high, and is protected against reverse battery. Those resistors are 0.5 ohms, not 500 ohms, by the way. Presumably if you can **measure** the forward voltage at 100% power you can replace the chip with a resistor. It's possible they've got an amazing n-channel FET in there with negligible Rds(on), as your 'just short it out' comment suggests, but I would not count on it.
Since you are on this site, curious and inquisitive, I assume you'd much rather modify the design, rather than work 2 hours in a menial job to buy a different flashlight. So what you could do is use the push button to switch it on (100% was the first mode in the cycle?), and for switching OFF you could solder a second "normally closed" push button to cut off power from the battery. This would work if the flashlight powers up in OFF. Should it power up in ON, then you'd have to use a normal toggle button in replacement of the current one. But if it doesn't start with 100%, then you'd have to replace the whole control unit with a resistor to set the current, or use a regulated current source. The resultant joy and satisfaction from making your own mod can never be supplanted by any amount of cleaning or burger flipping. I also think this is the reason whay many of us are here, so you are in good company.
508,989
I've had [a cheap 18650 flashlight](https://de.aliexpress.com/item/4000396427849.html) for some time now - when turning it off and on, it cycles through five modes - full power, medium power, low power, strobe, SOS signal. I'd like to disable that feature and just use it in full power mode whenever I turn it on. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KnxtV.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KnxtV.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/c4xUu.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/c4xUu.jpg) I assume the "HL6S2" component controls those modes, but I couldn't find any useful information on that. Positive power comes through the via near the red lead. Ground is on the perimeter of the chip. The flashlight is turned on and off via a switch on its back, which connects the case to the battery ground, so the IC seems to have some sort of memory to retain its information for prolonged periods of time. I assume the IC switches the left leg (connected to the blue lead via two 500 Ohms resistors in parallel) to ground, which is on its middle leg. Does anyone have a datasheet for this chip? Searching for the markings wasn't very helpful. To mod it, I'd remove the IC and solder a bridge from the left to the middle port - does that sound reasonable?
2020/07/05
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/508989", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/201282/" ]
The IC is an ASIC with built-in power transistor. You can do nothing with it, but bypass it. Here is a similar part: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HPyTP.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HPyTP.png) That one has 3 functions plus off (100%, 25% and flash), as clearly described in the [datasheet](http://www.hmsemi.com/downfile/HM5101.PDF). It also reverts into a low power mode to save the LEDs when the temperature is too high, and is protected against reverse battery. Those resistors are 0.5 ohms, not 500 ohms, by the way. Presumably if you can **measure** the forward voltage at 100% power you can replace the chip with a resistor. It's possible they've got an amazing n-channel FET in there with negligible Rds(on), as your 'just short it out' comment suggests, but I would not count on it.
Here’s the problem. You need to actually see the data sheet of that ASIC to see **what else** it does. I polo mean, obviously, what annoys you is the multiple modes, and that’s what you want to change. But that target focus is making you and several others here to create a false narrative, *that the annoying mode select is the only thing that chip does*. That is highly improbable. After qaffgw. all, we’re dealing with a lights made in tens of millions quantity. T here are several other tasks that need to be done in a flashlight like this,and here are two: * battery protection for the LiPo * current limiting for the LED so it can be driven at peak performance. That little 3-pin chip is in a good location to do both those things. Given that these chips are made in million quantity, it would be completely insane to *not* include those functions in that chip (thus forcing flashlight builders to use 2 chips). You need to find this stuff out. And the problem with niche ASICS like this is, there *may not exist* well-detailed documentation on these chips. Why would there need to be, everyone in Shenzhen who makes cheap flashlights *knows each other*... and all they need to know is”follow the schematic”. To the extent they do document, it’ll be in Chinese, and they’re not going to do an English translation for something this niche. I get where there’s ”fun trying”, but that is a very time-expensive way to learn electronics. You’re not learning much, and it’s bad lessons.
508,989
I've had [a cheap 18650 flashlight](https://de.aliexpress.com/item/4000396427849.html) for some time now - when turning it off and on, it cycles through five modes - full power, medium power, low power, strobe, SOS signal. I'd like to disable that feature and just use it in full power mode whenever I turn it on. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KnxtV.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KnxtV.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/c4xUu.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/c4xUu.jpg) I assume the "HL6S2" component controls those modes, but I couldn't find any useful information on that. Positive power comes through the via near the red lead. Ground is on the perimeter of the chip. The flashlight is turned on and off via a switch on its back, which connects the case to the battery ground, so the IC seems to have some sort of memory to retain its information for prolonged periods of time. I assume the IC switches the left leg (connected to the blue lead via two 500 Ohms resistors in parallel) to ground, which is on its middle leg. Does anyone have a datasheet for this chip? Searching for the markings wasn't very helpful. To mod it, I'd remove the IC and solder a bridge from the left to the middle port - does that sound reasonable?
2020/07/05
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/508989", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/201282/" ]
Here’s the problem. You need to actually see the data sheet of that ASIC to see **what else** it does. I polo mean, obviously, what annoys you is the multiple modes, and that’s what you want to change. But that target focus is making you and several others here to create a false narrative, *that the annoying mode select is the only thing that chip does*. That is highly improbable. After qaffgw. all, we’re dealing with a lights made in tens of millions quantity. T here are several other tasks that need to be done in a flashlight like this,and here are two: * battery protection for the LiPo * current limiting for the LED so it can be driven at peak performance. That little 3-pin chip is in a good location to do both those things. Given that these chips are made in million quantity, it would be completely insane to *not* include those functions in that chip (thus forcing flashlight builders to use 2 chips). You need to find this stuff out. And the problem with niche ASICS like this is, there *may not exist* well-detailed documentation on these chips. Why would there need to be, everyone in Shenzhen who makes cheap flashlights *knows each other*... and all they need to know is”follow the schematic”. To the extent they do document, it’ll be in Chinese, and they’re not going to do an English translation for something this niche. I get where there’s ”fun trying”, but that is a very time-expensive way to learn electronics. You’re not learning much, and it’s bad lessons.
Since you are on this site, curious and inquisitive, I assume you'd much rather modify the design, rather than work 2 hours in a menial job to buy a different flashlight. So what you could do is use the push button to switch it on (100% was the first mode in the cycle?), and for switching OFF you could solder a second "normally closed" push button to cut off power from the battery. This would work if the flashlight powers up in OFF. Should it power up in ON, then you'd have to use a normal toggle button in replacement of the current one. But if it doesn't start with 100%, then you'd have to replace the whole control unit with a resistor to set the current, or use a regulated current source. The resultant joy and satisfaction from making your own mod can never be supplanted by any amount of cleaning or burger flipping. I also think this is the reason whay many of us are here, so you are in good company.
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Salam. Yeah it is a good question. Since you have asked it, I am pondering and searching about its answer. I could not get much references from Quran and Hadith but there is one Hadith in Sahih Bukhari as: > > Bukhari :: Book 9 :: Volume 93 :: Hadith 597 > > > Narrated Abu Huraira: > Allah's Apostle said, "A man who never did any good deed, said that if he died, his family should burn him and throw half the ashes of his burnt body in the earth and the other half in the sea, for by Allah, if Allah should get hold of him, He would inflict such punishment on him as He would not inflict on anybody among the people. But Allah ordered the sea to collect what was in it (of his ashes) and similarly ordered the earth to collect what was in it (of his ashes). Then Allah said (to the recreated man ), 'Why did you do so?' The man replied, 'For being afraid of You, and You know it (very well).' So Allah forgave him." > > > Here the situation is a bit same but it would not happen for all humans the same. In that situation, the islamic scholars have agreed that if a person dies and is not engraved, His spirit or rooh will be tortured if he were a bad man and will be furnished with joy if he were a good man. Along his spirit his body will also be treated accordingly where ever it is. > > The dead are to be questioned whether they are in their graves, or in any place; in the desert, the sea, or in the belly of a beast of prey. In all cases they will be questioned; their spirits will be questioned. They will be questioned and tortured if they are evildoers, and they will live in comfort and ease if they are pious. Their spirits will enjoy Paradise or suffer Hell. The remaining part of their body will go either to Paradise or to Hell in the way that Allah (Glorified and Exalted be He) Alone wills, but the spirit will suffer largely the torments in Barzakh (period between death and the Resurrection) whereas both the body and the spirit will suffer torment and pain or will feel happy and enjoy Paradise on the Day of Judgment. > > > More over, Allah knows the best as He is going to give comfort or punishment to the dead. Could I help you or do you have some more to ask?
As far as punishment for soul those who body is burnt seems to have some validity but what about questioning in grave and all the fear that mullah puts in your heart about grave. that does not seem to apply to those whose body is never buried in grave. Please only reply with sahi hadith with reference or from quran with reference do not just say what your little head think and understand
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Salam. Yeah it is a good question. Since you have asked it, I am pondering and searching about its answer. I could not get much references from Quran and Hadith but there is one Hadith in Sahih Bukhari as: > > Bukhari :: Book 9 :: Volume 93 :: Hadith 597 > > > Narrated Abu Huraira: > Allah's Apostle said, "A man who never did any good deed, said that if he died, his family should burn him and throw half the ashes of his burnt body in the earth and the other half in the sea, for by Allah, if Allah should get hold of him, He would inflict such punishment on him as He would not inflict on anybody among the people. But Allah ordered the sea to collect what was in it (of his ashes) and similarly ordered the earth to collect what was in it (of his ashes). Then Allah said (to the recreated man ), 'Why did you do so?' The man replied, 'For being afraid of You, and You know it (very well).' So Allah forgave him." > > > Here the situation is a bit same but it would not happen for all humans the same. In that situation, the islamic scholars have agreed that if a person dies and is not engraved, His spirit or rooh will be tortured if he were a bad man and will be furnished with joy if he were a good man. Along his spirit his body will also be treated accordingly where ever it is. > > The dead are to be questioned whether they are in their graves, or in any place; in the desert, the sea, or in the belly of a beast of prey. In all cases they will be questioned; their spirits will be questioned. They will be questioned and tortured if they are evildoers, and they will live in comfort and ease if they are pious. Their spirits will enjoy Paradise or suffer Hell. The remaining part of their body will go either to Paradise or to Hell in the way that Allah (Glorified and Exalted be He) Alone wills, but the spirit will suffer largely the torments in Barzakh (period between death and the Resurrection) whereas both the body and the spirit will suffer torment and pain or will feel happy and enjoy Paradise on the Day of Judgment. > > > More over, Allah knows the best as He is going to give comfort or punishment to the dead. Could I help you or do you have some more to ask?
I had the same question and many still have. You can read Surah Abasa(no.80) Quran 80:21 which says "Then He causes his death and provides a grave for him". Now we need a mind to ponder here it could be/not be what we think like a physical place on earth. Also not only grave, there are people eaten by animals and some other reasons can also be there for death. Also in Surah Saffat it is there "He would have tarried in its belly till the day when they are raised"; (37:144). Now all it needs a clear mind to think and reflect. Also please keep in mind that always answer cannot be exactly like what we expect or think. Allah knows best what does it mean. We can try our best to understand.
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Salam. Yeah it is a good question. Since you have asked it, I am pondering and searching about its answer. I could not get much references from Quran and Hadith but there is one Hadith in Sahih Bukhari as: > > Bukhari :: Book 9 :: Volume 93 :: Hadith 597 > > > Narrated Abu Huraira: > Allah's Apostle said, "A man who never did any good deed, said that if he died, his family should burn him and throw half the ashes of his burnt body in the earth and the other half in the sea, for by Allah, if Allah should get hold of him, He would inflict such punishment on him as He would not inflict on anybody among the people. But Allah ordered the sea to collect what was in it (of his ashes) and similarly ordered the earth to collect what was in it (of his ashes). Then Allah said (to the recreated man ), 'Why did you do so?' The man replied, 'For being afraid of You, and You know it (very well).' So Allah forgave him." > > > Here the situation is a bit same but it would not happen for all humans the same. In that situation, the islamic scholars have agreed that if a person dies and is not engraved, His spirit or rooh will be tortured if he were a bad man and will be furnished with joy if he were a good man. Along his spirit his body will also be treated accordingly where ever it is. > > The dead are to be questioned whether they are in their graves, or in any place; in the desert, the sea, or in the belly of a beast of prey. In all cases they will be questioned; their spirits will be questioned. They will be questioned and tortured if they are evildoers, and they will live in comfort and ease if they are pious. Their spirits will enjoy Paradise or suffer Hell. The remaining part of their body will go either to Paradise or to Hell in the way that Allah (Glorified and Exalted be He) Alone wills, but the spirit will suffer largely the torments in Barzakh (period between death and the Resurrection) whereas both the body and the spirit will suffer torment and pain or will feel happy and enjoy Paradise on the Day of Judgment. > > > More over, Allah knows the best as He is going to give comfort or punishment to the dead. Could I help you or do you have some more to ask?
Hi there is no grave punishment.. only soul punishment..thanks Times stops when you die..after death everthing happens in another dimension..Allah will put you straight away in to heaven or hell not in grave
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Salam. Yeah it is a good question. Since you have asked it, I am pondering and searching about its answer. I could not get much references from Quran and Hadith but there is one Hadith in Sahih Bukhari as: > > Bukhari :: Book 9 :: Volume 93 :: Hadith 597 > > > Narrated Abu Huraira: > Allah's Apostle said, "A man who never did any good deed, said that if he died, his family should burn him and throw half the ashes of his burnt body in the earth and the other half in the sea, for by Allah, if Allah should get hold of him, He would inflict such punishment on him as He would not inflict on anybody among the people. But Allah ordered the sea to collect what was in it (of his ashes) and similarly ordered the earth to collect what was in it (of his ashes). Then Allah said (to the recreated man ), 'Why did you do so?' The man replied, 'For being afraid of You, and You know it (very well).' So Allah forgave him." > > > Here the situation is a bit same but it would not happen for all humans the same. In that situation, the islamic scholars have agreed that if a person dies and is not engraved, His spirit or rooh will be tortured if he were a bad man and will be furnished with joy if he were a good man. Along his spirit his body will also be treated accordingly where ever it is. > > The dead are to be questioned whether they are in their graves, or in any place; in the desert, the sea, or in the belly of a beast of prey. In all cases they will be questioned; their spirits will be questioned. They will be questioned and tortured if they are evildoers, and they will live in comfort and ease if they are pious. Their spirits will enjoy Paradise or suffer Hell. The remaining part of their body will go either to Paradise or to Hell in the way that Allah (Glorified and Exalted be He) Alone wills, but the spirit will suffer largely the torments in Barzakh (period between death and the Resurrection) whereas both the body and the spirit will suffer torment and pain or will feel happy and enjoy Paradise on the Day of Judgment. > > > More over, Allah knows the best as He is going to give comfort or punishment to the dead. Could I help you or do you have some more to ask?
Qabar is name where body parts are found. It does not only mean a dig. So immidiately same procedure is applied.
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
I had the same question and many still have. You can read Surah Abasa(no.80) Quran 80:21 which says "Then He causes his death and provides a grave for him". Now we need a mind to ponder here it could be/not be what we think like a physical place on earth. Also not only grave, there are people eaten by animals and some other reasons can also be there for death. Also in Surah Saffat it is there "He would have tarried in its belly till the day when they are raised"; (37:144). Now all it needs a clear mind to think and reflect. Also please keep in mind that always answer cannot be exactly like what we expect or think. Allah knows best what does it mean. We can try our best to understand.
As far as punishment for soul those who body is burnt seems to have some validity but what about questioning in grave and all the fear that mullah puts in your heart about grave. that does not seem to apply to those whose body is never buried in grave. Please only reply with sahi hadith with reference or from quran with reference do not just say what your little head think and understand
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Qabar is name where body parts are found. It does not only mean a dig. So immidiately same procedure is applied.
As far as punishment for soul those who body is burnt seems to have some validity but what about questioning in grave and all the fear that mullah puts in your heart about grave. that does not seem to apply to those whose body is never buried in grave. Please only reply with sahi hadith with reference or from quran with reference do not just say what your little head think and understand
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
I had the same question and many still have. You can read Surah Abasa(no.80) Quran 80:21 which says "Then He causes his death and provides a grave for him". Now we need a mind to ponder here it could be/not be what we think like a physical place on earth. Also not only grave, there are people eaten by animals and some other reasons can also be there for death. Also in Surah Saffat it is there "He would have tarried in its belly till the day when they are raised"; (37:144). Now all it needs a clear mind to think and reflect. Also please keep in mind that always answer cannot be exactly like what we expect or think. Allah knows best what does it mean. We can try our best to understand.
Hi there is no grave punishment.. only soul punishment..thanks Times stops when you die..after death everthing happens in another dimension..Allah will put you straight away in to heaven or hell not in grave
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Qabar is name where body parts are found. It does not only mean a dig. So immidiately same procedure is applied.
I had the same question and many still have. You can read Surah Abasa(no.80) Quran 80:21 which says "Then He causes his death and provides a grave for him". Now we need a mind to ponder here it could be/not be what we think like a physical place on earth. Also not only grave, there are people eaten by animals and some other reasons can also be there for death. Also in Surah Saffat it is there "He would have tarried in its belly till the day when they are raised"; (37:144). Now all it needs a clear mind to think and reflect. Also please keep in mind that always answer cannot be exactly like what we expect or think. Allah knows best what does it mean. We can try our best to understand.
25,933
I want to ask that people who are not buried after death like if they died at sea or burnt but not buried, how they are answerable to munkar nakir and how they would go through their phases of grave?
2015/08/04
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/25933", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/13473/" ]
Qabar is name where body parts are found. It does not only mean a dig. So immidiately same procedure is applied.
Hi there is no grave punishment.. only soul punishment..thanks Times stops when you die..after death everthing happens in another dimension..Allah will put you straight away in to heaven or hell not in grave
723,363
I have an old PC of mine that I'm thinking of preparing for use by a school-going child. It's a decade old PC with a 40GB hard disk, Pentium 4 processor, and I believe 1GB of RAM. As of now, I have: * Installed Lubuntu and Windows XP on it (Vista and 7 don't have drivers for this hardware, and yes I've searched the manufacturer's site and other places) * Installed Avast and Outpost Security Suite on the XP * "Pinned" Khan Academy, Coursera, Udacity and Codecademy on the Firefox "new tab" page Other than this, what can I do to prepare this computer for this purpose? My knowledge of desktop software for education is lacking, in both Windows and Linux. I'm not sure if whoever buys this will have a good Internet connection (I'm in India), so desktop software will probably prove much more useful that the bookmarks above. I'm also looking at free parental control software to install on this, I'll make that a separate question. Edit: [The question is now at the Software Recommendations site](https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/1882/free-parental-control-software). (I wasn't sure where on StackExchange this would belong, but superuser seemed the closest candidate. If there's a better suited site, please do migrate, thanks.)
2014/03/01
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/723363", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/3200/" ]
The first thing I think is to eliminate Windows XP, [it is already obsolete](http://windows.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows/end-support-help). Because it is an old computer, I believe it is not feasible to install a system like Windows Vista, it requires better hardware to run properly. I would advise you to install any Linux distribution, such as the [`UberMix`](http://www.ubermix.org/index.html). > > The ubermix is an all-free, specially built, Linux-based operating > system designed from the ground up with the needs of education in > mind. Built by educators with an eye towards student and teacher > empowerment, ubermix takes all the complexity out of student devices > by making them as reliable and easy-to-use as a cell phone, without > sacrificing the power and capabilities of a full operating system. > With a turn-key, 5 minute installation, 20 second quick recovery > mechanism, and more than 60 free applications pre-installed, ubermix > turns whatever hardware you have into a powerful device for learning. > > >
The Ubuntu series is great if you're trying to teach someone how to use a computer. So is Windows XP at the presiding moment. If they are learners they need to probably have something around 1.7 Ghz with maybe 100-200 Gb and 2 GB of Ram and 32 Bit. Once they have mastered the two, I suggest buying a new laptop with amazing specs if they can take care of it right. Probably something with 2.4+ Ghz, 400+ Gb, An intel processor, and 4+ GB of RAM and probably 64 Bit. Regarding the Operating Systems when they've mastered, you should probably go with Arch Linux, Linux Mint, or Debian if they wish to pursue Linux more and want to begin programming or wish to play a lot of Java games like Minecraft. If they wish to pursue a more Sims/Professional Computing Experience, look into Windows 8/8.1. They have state-of-the-art technology (so does Linux as well).
20,392
Well since I'm waiting for an answer on my first hardwood floor question I might as well throw my second question out there too. I’m face nailing my new hardwood flooring (Tasmanian Blackwood 19mm x 130mm) then puttying the knot holes and nail holes. This will be done through the whole house. The subfloor is Particle Board (Brand name: Yellow Tongue) that has been glued and screwed down. Additional information: This is solid T&G timber flooring that was purchased direct from the saw miller. In the event nailing ***and*** gluing is recommended, there would be no moisture barrier. My question: Is there a benefit to ‘nail and gluing’ my hardwood flooring to the Particle Board subfloor or will this just interfere with the natural expansion and contraction of the hardwood?
2012/11/01
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/20392", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/8980/" ]
You said the subfloor is particle board, so if there's some kind of isolation under that you don't need more barriers. Attaching your floor to the subfloor depends on what kind of floor that is. If it's floating floor, it needs to float, so no gluing at all, and you need some kind of padding to level out the floor. Generally floating floors are tongue/groove or click install. And if it's kind of parquet you have to glue it to the subfloor, because the grip of nails to particle board is very weak.
Think of it this way - what other methods could you use? You have to somehow get the floor firmly attached to the subfloor, otherwise the seams between the planks will be loose and water gets in there and the floor is ruined in no time. So at least you have to glue it down and once you've done that nailing it will not make any real difference. I've seen a lot of hardwood floors that have been glued down, usually to concrete, and they serve just fine for dozens of years under reasonable humidity. However I once saw hardwood exposed to water for a long time - it expanded so much that planks were torn off the concrete base and I'm sure that no nails would prevent that. That part needed serious repair. Nailing hardwood floors is almost always useless, because if the glue is intact it will hold the planks but if it fails then nails won't help - stepping onto different parts of a plank that it not perfectly glued will make the plank bend slightly and pull the nails out and it gets loose over a course of month. If you want some metal fastening - at least use wood screws, they won't be pulled out.
20,392
Well since I'm waiting for an answer on my first hardwood floor question I might as well throw my second question out there too. I’m face nailing my new hardwood flooring (Tasmanian Blackwood 19mm x 130mm) then puttying the knot holes and nail holes. This will be done through the whole house. The subfloor is Particle Board (Brand name: Yellow Tongue) that has been glued and screwed down. Additional information: This is solid T&G timber flooring that was purchased direct from the saw miller. In the event nailing ***and*** gluing is recommended, there would be no moisture barrier. My question: Is there a benefit to ‘nail and gluing’ my hardwood flooring to the Particle Board subfloor or will this just interfere with the natural expansion and contraction of the hardwood?
2012/11/01
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/20392", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/8980/" ]
At 130 mm (5 inch), you're at the edge of the range for a nail only installation. Certainly most hardwood manufacturers recommend gluing for widths greater than this. You may be able to get away without gluing, but if you're in a high moisture area, the floor boards may cup. Gluing would help mitigate this. Talk to the the manufacturer's rep for the appropriate installation in your area. What I don't understand is why you would be face nailing the floor. T&G is typically installed using a special floor nailer which puts the nails in at an angle through the tongue, such that the nail is hidden in the groove of the next board. You should only need to face nail the final one or two courses of boards, where the nailer won't fit in against the wall. The savings in labour over face nailing and filling the holes is tremendous. In my experience, hardwood is HARD. Face nailing often requires drilling first, so the nail will actually penetrate the wood without bending. Rent an air compressor and a floor nailer. With it, you will be able to do about 300 sq ft. a day (25 sq m). Without it, you'll be able to do half that or less.
Think of it this way - what other methods could you use? You have to somehow get the floor firmly attached to the subfloor, otherwise the seams between the planks will be loose and water gets in there and the floor is ruined in no time. So at least you have to glue it down and once you've done that nailing it will not make any real difference. I've seen a lot of hardwood floors that have been glued down, usually to concrete, and they serve just fine for dozens of years under reasonable humidity. However I once saw hardwood exposed to water for a long time - it expanded so much that planks were torn off the concrete base and I'm sure that no nails would prevent that. That part needed serious repair. Nailing hardwood floors is almost always useless, because if the glue is intact it will hold the planks but if it fails then nails won't help - stepping onto different parts of a plank that it not perfectly glued will make the plank bend slightly and pull the nails out and it gets loose over a course of month. If you want some metal fastening - at least use wood screws, they won't be pulled out.
7,219
Opening the command prompt ("cmd") on Vista into full screen causes the application to take up 100% vertical space, but only about 50% horizontal. Is there not a way I can make this fullscreen? If it's simply not possible, what is a good replacement?
2009/07/17
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/7219", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/519/" ]
Found this trick somewhere on "The Internet". 1. Open cmd 2. type wmic. 3. Double click the bar to maximize the screen. 4. Type exit and press Enter.
It’s a graphics driver issue. Vista uses hardware acceleration for the desktop, which is why the graphic card cannot switch to text mode (the system would lose track of the desktop). If you have an older VGA that doesn’t support Direct X 10, you should be able to use fullscreen text mode.
7,219
Opening the command prompt ("cmd") on Vista into full screen causes the application to take up 100% vertical space, but only about 50% horizontal. Is there not a way I can make this fullscreen? If it's simply not possible, what is a good replacement?
2009/07/17
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/7219", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/519/" ]
Found this trick somewhere on "The Internet". 1. Open cmd 2. type wmic. 3. Double click the bar to maximize the screen. 4. Type exit and press Enter.
[This](http://www.walkernews.net/2007/06/03/how-to-maximize-vista-command-prompt-window/) article explains how to do it in Vista In short you need to specify the screen resolution manually in the Display Options. Replacement? [Powershell](http://www.microsoft.com/windowsserver2003/technologies/management/powershell/default.mspx) of course.
7,219
Opening the command prompt ("cmd") on Vista into full screen causes the application to take up 100% vertical space, but only about 50% horizontal. Is there not a way I can make this fullscreen? If it's simply not possible, what is a good replacement?
2009/07/17
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/7219", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/519/" ]
Found this trick somewhere on "The Internet". 1. Open cmd 2. type wmic. 3. Double click the bar to maximize the screen. 4. Type exit and press Enter.
Umm.. If you have Vista(i have 7) you could install the graphics driver for XP in XP compatiblity mode under Vista. Then, it will install the same - for XP, but you lose Aero interface. And then, you get the amazing Fullscreen mode in CMD! *PS:This will eventually work, i am responsible for any damage or poofs that crush your graphics. If such happens, please tell me. I will help you or if i don't know how to restore, you must stay in this poof or reinstall vista driver. Crushed.*
725
I have a custom Arduino ATMega328 board that generally runs at 5V @ 8MHz (using the Arduino Pro 3.3V 8MHz profile and bootloader). The main reason I'm using this setup is so that I can put the board to sleep when main power is disconnected and it starts being run off of battery power (3V from a coin cell). The 5V and 3V sources are diode OR'ed together and the 5V input is tied to INT0. In code, when it detects that INT0 has fallen low, it initializes sleep mode and everything powers down with the exception of the watchdog timer that keeps a 1Hz cycle to keep an internal count and check it the chip should be woken back up. This works *beautifully* when 5V power is applied first, then the battery is inserted, *then* 5V is disconnected. It goes to sleep and when 5V is brought back it wakes up and I can see it hasn't lost count. However, the problem comes when 3V is applied *first*. I'm honestly not sure if it's even booting. But what it is supposed to do is boot, check if INT0 (Digital 2) is low and, if so, go right to sleep. By watching the current draw I see that it powers up to a few mA for a couple seconds, then drops to about 0.3mA (still higher than it should be in sleep mode). But when I re-apply 5V, *nothing*. The power draw goes back up but it is unresponsive (over FTDI serial). Is there maybe something I'm missing that it can't be booted on 3V... in theory it should run just fine. **Update:** I dropped an LED onto D13 and tried the blink sketch. Works fine when starting from 3V or 5V. However, when I run my firmware and start it from 3V, the LED just starts flashing wildly. I have no idea what's causing it since I never even setup D13 as anything in my code. But it makes me thing it's something to do with the bootloader...
2014/03/13
[ "https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/725", "https://arduino.stackexchange.com", "https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/600/" ]
So... turned out what was happening was all in code. Turns out that I was initializing an interrupt on INT0, when it was low, at the very beginning of my code. Problem was that when it started up on 3V backup power, INT0 was always low because INT0 is tied to the 5V line (it's how it knows to go to sleep). Because INT0 was low and the interrupt was triggering on low it was causing a constant interrupt to occur, never giving the rest of the program any time to run. Switched to enabling that interrupt only once I've entered full waking mode and it works fine now.
I think the problem is with your bootloader, but not in the way you think. When an Arduino starts up, a bootloader profiting several tasks, such as looking for a serial host or loading program data from flash is going to take a lot more energy than a sleeping Arduino. I think the reason why your Arduino will not start is because the bootloader requires an accurate clock source, but applying 3v to it will mess up that clock and it will perhaps crash or wait for 3.3v to be applied for a stable source. Looking at the datasheet: ![copyright ATMEL](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NZAHA.jpg) We see that current draw while waking up (running the bootloader) is probably going to be around 2mA, while sleeping current is about *0.8 microamps*. This could certainly lead to a blackout on startup without the proper current. Perhaps you should only turn it on with 5v power, or maybe you need a higher current, higher voltage battery.
725
I have a custom Arduino ATMega328 board that generally runs at 5V @ 8MHz (using the Arduino Pro 3.3V 8MHz profile and bootloader). The main reason I'm using this setup is so that I can put the board to sleep when main power is disconnected and it starts being run off of battery power (3V from a coin cell). The 5V and 3V sources are diode OR'ed together and the 5V input is tied to INT0. In code, when it detects that INT0 has fallen low, it initializes sleep mode and everything powers down with the exception of the watchdog timer that keeps a 1Hz cycle to keep an internal count and check it the chip should be woken back up. This works *beautifully* when 5V power is applied first, then the battery is inserted, *then* 5V is disconnected. It goes to sleep and when 5V is brought back it wakes up and I can see it hasn't lost count. However, the problem comes when 3V is applied *first*. I'm honestly not sure if it's even booting. But what it is supposed to do is boot, check if INT0 (Digital 2) is low and, if so, go right to sleep. By watching the current draw I see that it powers up to a few mA for a couple seconds, then drops to about 0.3mA (still higher than it should be in sleep mode). But when I re-apply 5V, *nothing*. The power draw goes back up but it is unresponsive (over FTDI serial). Is there maybe something I'm missing that it can't be booted on 3V... in theory it should run just fine. **Update:** I dropped an LED onto D13 and tried the blink sketch. Works fine when starting from 3V or 5V. However, when I run my firmware and start it from 3V, the LED just starts flashing wildly. I have no idea what's causing it since I never even setup D13 as anything in my code. But it makes me thing it's something to do with the bootloader...
2014/03/13
[ "https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/725", "https://arduino.stackexchange.com", "https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/600/" ]
So... turned out what was happening was all in code. Turns out that I was initializing an interrupt on INT0, when it was low, at the very beginning of my code. Problem was that when it started up on 3V backup power, INT0 was always low because INT0 is tied to the 5V line (it's how it knows to go to sleep). Because INT0 was low and the interrupt was triggering on low it was causing a constant interrupt to occur, never giving the rest of the program any time to run. Switched to enabling that interrupt only once I've entered full waking mode and it works fine now.
Exactly what is happening and why cannot be determined based on the amount of info provided. However, I see at least one potential problem which would at least partially explain the symptoms described. You said that you are using diodes to select the voltage supply, and one supply is a 3V battery. If you are using standard diodes that drop ~0.6V then the supply voltage to the MCU is only ~2.4V. If you are using Schottky diodes with a voltage drop between 0.15-0.45, the supply voltage is potentially as low as 2.5V. You have the BOD voltage set to 2.7 volts, so in theory the MCU will never boot with the battery. As for why you can start it at 5v, drop to 3v, and bring it back up again- I'm not sure. You could be disabling the BOD in code...maybe… Not sure why it works, but it's likely not guaranteed to work. I setup a diode switch circuit with 5v and 3.3v to see what it looks like on my oscilloscope when the voltages switch. When at 3.3v switching up to 5v, the voltage oscillates quite a bit initially. This may potentially cause some problems when the MCU tries to come out of sleep. Putting a cap between VCC and GND smoothed the signal very nicely. When switching from 5v to 3.3v, there really wasn't any oscillating, just a clean drop. From this information, it seems that you should lower the BOD threshold or turn off the BOD, and put a decoupling cap between VCC and GND. You probably also should make sure you have a pull-down resistor on INT0, and read the MCU datasheet sections explaining the various sleep modes all the considerations for sleeping and waking – it’s pretty involved. Cheers
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
I've never seen anything. Really, C++ templates are the enabling technology for STL and much of boost, and C doesn't have them. I've seen many C-interface libraries for things like image processing, 3D graphics, networking, etc., but never a real general-purpose library like boost. You can find pieces though - threading libraries, string libraries, etc. - that are similar to sections of boost.
Glib does compensate it partially in form of various unicode, string types. If you add Gobject you could get some object programming even some garbage collection.
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
You can have a look at glib. It provides quite a few interesting things like containers, unicode support, threading... Have a look at [its documentation](http://library.gnome.org/devel/glib/stable/)
ACE (Adaptive Communication Environment) is sometimes mentioned. It's not quite an apples-to-apples comparison. Boost provides more "basic building blocks" whereas ACE provides more of an tightly integrated framework geared towards telco products. I have used both extensively and I find Boost vastly superior. One big advantage of Boost is that many of its features will show up in the STL extensions for the upcoming C++0x standard (see, for example, <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Technical_Report_1>).
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
You can have a look at glib. It provides quite a few interesting things like containers, unicode support, threading... Have a look at [its documentation](http://library.gnome.org/devel/glib/stable/)
Glib does compensate it partially in form of various unicode, string types. If you add Gobject you could get some object programming even some garbage collection.
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
You can have a look at glib. It provides quite a few interesting things like containers, unicode support, threading... Have a look at [its documentation](http://library.gnome.org/devel/glib/stable/)
or you can look at ccan <http://ccan.ozlabs.org/> but no, there really isn't any complete package, glib comes closest
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
Glib does compensate it partially in form of various unicode, string types. If you add Gobject you could get some object programming even some garbage collection.
ACE (Adaptive Communication Environment) is sometimes mentioned. It's not quite an apples-to-apples comparison. Boost provides more "basic building blocks" whereas ACE provides more of an tightly integrated framework geared towards telco products. I have used both extensively and I find Boost vastly superior. One big advantage of Boost is that many of its features will show up in the STL extensions for the upcoming C++0x standard (see, for example, <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Technical_Report_1>).
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
Depending on what exactly you're trying to do there is APR (The Apache Portable Runtime library) which is what the Apache http daemon is built on <http://apr.apache.org/> For GUI, there is wxWidgets (formerly wxWindows) <http://www.wxwidgets.org/>
ACE (Adaptive Communication Environment) is sometimes mentioned. It's not quite an apples-to-apples comparison. Boost provides more "basic building blocks" whereas ACE provides more of an tightly integrated framework geared towards telco products. I have used both extensively and I find Boost vastly superior. One big advantage of Boost is that many of its features will show up in the STL extensions for the upcoming C++0x standard (see, for example, <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Technical_Report_1>).
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
You can have a look at glib. It provides quite a few interesting things like containers, unicode support, threading... Have a look at [its documentation](http://library.gnome.org/devel/glib/stable/)
I've never seen anything. Really, C++ templates are the enabling technology for STL and much of boost, and C doesn't have them. I've seen many C-interface libraries for things like image processing, 3D graphics, networking, etc., but never a real general-purpose library like boost. You can find pieces though - threading libraries, string libraries, etc. - that are similar to sections of boost.
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
Glib does compensate it partially in form of various unicode, string types. If you add Gobject you could get some object programming even some garbage collection.
or you can look at ccan <http://ccan.ozlabs.org/> but no, there really isn't any complete package, glib comes closest
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
Depending on what exactly you're trying to do there is APR (The Apache Portable Runtime library) which is what the Apache http daemon is built on <http://apr.apache.org/> For GUI, there is wxWidgets (formerly wxWindows) <http://www.wxwidgets.org/>
Glib does compensate it partially in form of various unicode, string types. If you add Gobject you could get some object programming even some garbage collection.
52,445
I don't ever recall coming across anything for C that's as extensive as C++'s Boost library.
2008/09/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52445", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/572/" ]
You can have a look at glib. It provides quite a few interesting things like containers, unicode support, threading... Have a look at [its documentation](http://library.gnome.org/devel/glib/stable/)
Depending on what exactly you're trying to do there is APR (The Apache Portable Runtime library) which is what the Apache http daemon is built on <http://apr.apache.org/> For GUI, there is wxWidgets (formerly wxWindows) <http://www.wxwidgets.org/>
36,172,880
My wix installer has a custom action which runs only during upgrade and calls an exe to edit few conditions in the cached msi. This custom action runs before "Remove Existing Products". The installer runs successfully without errors on all windows environments except 2012 R2. On **Windows Server 2012 R2**, the installer fails at that particular custom action and throws error 110. I have tried running the installer as administrator but still it fails. I don't know the reason behind this failure. Any help is much appreciated.
2016/03/23
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36172880", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2520408/" ]
If the installed product is broken then the standard solution is to fix it with a patch (msp) or a update by reinstalling/re-caching the product using a fixed MSI. By "fix it" I obviously mean correct whatever is causing the upgrade to fail in those conditions. Otherwise the issue is that program, and finding out exactly where and why it is failing. We don't know if you're calling MsiOpenDabase, whether you're using C# P/Invoke and so on. It needs trace capability to say what's working and what isn't because the question is ultimately about why the code fails on a particular OS version. There are plenty of results for MsiOpenDatabase and 110, such as this: [Error 110 (open\_failed) MsiOpenDatabase - error in the loop](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/32371150/error-110-open-failed-msiopendatabase-error-in-the-loop)
It's highly unusual to have to edit a cached MSI. This basically means you messed up and shipped a product without thoroughly testing. I would release a stand alone utility to get customers to a happy state before running the upgrade. If you really want it to be 1 step I'd build a setup.exe for the MSI and wire the cleaner into that before launching your main MSI.
3,567,287
I am currently working on a system that's based around the concept of Digg where you have a button on an external site and a user who clicks that button gets to post / digg it. Anyway, I'm looking for some information on the types of spam that I should expect as time goes on. So far I have thought about a fair few factors, such as flag system, X rates by different users before frontage, Domain Monitoring, and some others. Any ideas on what money-hungry site owners would attempt?
2010/08/25
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3567287", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/353790/" ]
There is no point in sorting in the SQL or query on which the report is based. The report uses its own sorting and grouping which you will find on the ribbon (Access 2010) in design view for the report: Group & Sort. The record source can be found on the property sheet for the report.
From the report's design view, view the report's properties (I right-click on the box in the upper left corner under the window's title bar.) Then you can modify the report's recordSource property. You'll also want to look at the way the report is grouped and sorted. I'm pretty sure it's under the View menu, but they've uninstalled 2007 as of yesterday out here, so I'm still finding where stuff is in 2010. HTH
38,293,030
In a UML Sequence Diagram - If a flow should stop if a condition is met midway, how would it be best represented with alternate / optional fragments? i.e. - If the stop condition is not met then the flow is continued for several more steps. Should the alternate fragment cover all of the steps since the stop condition, making all steps past it part of the alternate fragment, or is there a notation to handle the stop inside a small alternate fragment (confined only to the condition)?
2016/07/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/38293030", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6571388/" ]
There are three options for this situation. Each of them I illustrate with a diagram showing how the respective combined fragment should be used. The actual behaviour is hidden with interaction references (normalFlow for a flow that should normally be executed and breakFlow for any flow that should happen in case of a required break). The first solution is the most convenient one - it exactly covers your case and you can also use the positive version of a break guard. However each of them provide you a valid possibility. 1. Break combined fragment When a break combined fragment is met and its guard condition is true, only this fragment is still executed and then the execution of the interaction (flow) stops. If the condition is not met, the combined fragment is omitted and the normal flow continues. This is exactly the case you describe. In this case you would put the messages that shouldn't be executed in case of a break condition after the break combined fragment. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vcqx2.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vcqx2.png) 2. Opt combined fragment When an opt combined fragment is met it executes only if a guard condition is true. The rest of a flow continues regardless of the condition. You can put the part of the flow that is continued only if the break condition is not met inside the opt combined fragment. The opt fragment should have a guard that is opposite to the condition at which the flow should stop. If any additional actions should happen in case of a break, they should be put after the opt combined fragment. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bmqzE.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bmqzE.png) 3. Alt combined fragment When an alt combined fragment is met its guard conditions are evaluated and only the eventual one fragment which guard evaluates to true is executed. There might be also a situation when none of the guards evaluate to true and no fragment is executed in such case. Whatever flow is after the combined fragment is executed normally anyway. In this case you would preferably put two fragments, one with the correct operation guard and the second one with a condition that should cause a break. Put the normal flow in the first fragment and whatever should happen in case of a break in the second fragment. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/B2stK.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/B2stK.png)
You could shortcut the whole thing by using an `opt` fragment: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0auns.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0auns.png) One could start arguing that this is syntactically incorrect, but it transports the message (I guess). And that is what counts. From my personal experience: use fragments as few as possible. Rather split your scenarios to focus on the certain important aspects. A SD is a snapshot of the system at a place where you want an overview over what's going on and not a detailed roadmap with each possible cat and dog trail.
310,916
I was recently playing with friends and noticed they had a contraption which would activate a redstone signal when they turned the item frame a certain way. How do you make a item frame turn activate a redstone signal?
2017/06/11
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/310916", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/188819/" ]
Item frame rotation based output. This is not my design. The item frame does not rotate, an item in the frame does. Some items have to be rotated fully twice(example: maps) in order to output full signal. If using more then one of these devices to form a combination lock, those double rotation items would make it very difficult to unlock. It is a simple device that uses a comparator to read the signal level of the item frame. If the signal level is too low or high (item rotated improperly) it will not output. It does this based on the length of the redstone dust after the comparator. The easiest way to use the rotation point you want is to rotate the item to the position you want. Continue to run redstone dust after the comparator until you no longer see the dust has signal. Place a torch on the side of the last block with signal. Leave one redstone dust after that block that feeds into a repeater. In this example a signal of 4 or the arrow pointed down will activate the redstone dust at the very end of the line. In the picture, the lower image is the device sending out a signal. [![Frame Lock](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PHnnC.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PHnnC.jpg) If you are interested in how it works, the comparator outputs the signal. If the signal is to low, the first torch outputs high(is lit) and this causes the not gate(second torch) to output low(off). If the signal is correct, the first torch turns off, the second torch turns on. If signal is too high, the repeater outputs high which causes the second torch to turn off. Edit: I located the video I originally saw this on. It's by SethBling.
Comparators can be used to detect a signal from a block (chest, item frame, lecture, etc.). Used to make locks, coders, selecters, I'm making up the names. There are many things to do with it. By placing it behind an item frame it will detect a signal when an item is in said item frame.
310,916
I was recently playing with friends and noticed they had a contraption which would activate a redstone signal when they turned the item frame a certain way. How do you make a item frame turn activate a redstone signal?
2017/06/11
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/310916", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/188819/" ]
Item frame rotation based output. This is not my design. The item frame does not rotate, an item in the frame does. Some items have to be rotated fully twice(example: maps) in order to output full signal. If using more then one of these devices to form a combination lock, those double rotation items would make it very difficult to unlock. It is a simple device that uses a comparator to read the signal level of the item frame. If the signal level is too low or high (item rotated improperly) it will not output. It does this based on the length of the redstone dust after the comparator. The easiest way to use the rotation point you want is to rotate the item to the position you want. Continue to run redstone dust after the comparator until you no longer see the dust has signal. Place a torch on the side of the last block with signal. Leave one redstone dust after that block that feeds into a repeater. In this example a signal of 4 or the arrow pointed down will activate the redstone dust at the very end of the line. In the picture, the lower image is the device sending out a signal. [![Frame Lock](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PHnnC.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PHnnC.jpg) If you are interested in how it works, the comparator outputs the signal. If the signal is to low, the first torch outputs high(is lit) and this causes the not gate(second torch) to output low(off). If the signal is correct, the first torch turns off, the second torch turns on. If signal is too high, the repeater outputs high which causes the second torch to turn off. Edit: I located the video I originally saw this on. It's by SethBling.
You can shorten the redstone length by adding a dropper and another comparator, and setting the first one to subtraction mode. Then, use items in the dropper to "offset" the value you are looking for, and set a repeater one redstone wire away from that length. [![Using a item frame to control redstone](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Hp6tS.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Hp6tS.png)
310,916
I was recently playing with friends and noticed they had a contraption which would activate a redstone signal when they turned the item frame a certain way. How do you make a item frame turn activate a redstone signal?
2017/06/11
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/310916", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/188819/" ]
Item frame rotation based output. This is not my design. The item frame does not rotate, an item in the frame does. Some items have to be rotated fully twice(example: maps) in order to output full signal. If using more then one of these devices to form a combination lock, those double rotation items would make it very difficult to unlock. It is a simple device that uses a comparator to read the signal level of the item frame. If the signal level is too low or high (item rotated improperly) it will not output. It does this based on the length of the redstone dust after the comparator. The easiest way to use the rotation point you want is to rotate the item to the position you want. Continue to run redstone dust after the comparator until you no longer see the dust has signal. Place a torch on the side of the last block with signal. Leave one redstone dust after that block that feeds into a repeater. In this example a signal of 4 or the arrow pointed down will activate the redstone dust at the very end of the line. In the picture, the lower image is the device sending out a signal. [![Frame Lock](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PHnnC.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PHnnC.jpg) If you are interested in how it works, the comparator outputs the signal. If the signal is to low, the first torch outputs high(is lit) and this causes the not gate(second torch) to output low(off). If the signal is correct, the first torch turns off, the second torch turns on. If signal is too high, the repeater outputs high which causes the second torch to turn off. Edit: I located the video I originally saw this on. It's by SethBling.
Here is a really compact circuit I've developed for item frame rotation. It's slightly based on one of Mumbo Jumbo's circuits.[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/sPe56.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/sPe56.jpg) It's also super easy to adjust to what output level you want. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TS2w5.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TS2w5.png)
105,664
My bathroom light switch is a switch loop. It only works light over medicine cabinet. Can I replace present single pole switch with combo switch. My box only has 1 black wire, 1 white wire, and ground. If so how.
2017/01/03
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/105664", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/64489/" ]
Yes, but *you're not going to like it*, as it involves a hunt for high-tech products which may not yet exist. We are not a product-reco site, so we can't be a whole lot of help there. 1. Currently the white and black in the switch loop are always-hot, and switched-hot. Re-designate them always-hot, and neutral. 2. The hard part. Find a "smart switch" product which allows you to have a master control at the switch location, and a remote module up in the lamp housing. Since there are no spare wires, the control and remote will need to communicate via either a) data-over-power-line, or b) a radio-based scheme like WiFi, bluetooth, or some proprietary method. If you have a 1-gang box at the switch, you'll have a real trick - trying to obtain a module which is *both* a smart-switch-controller *and also* a convenience outlet. If that wasn't complicated enough, since it's a bathroom, the convenience outlet must be behind a GFCI protector - either in an upstream receptacle, or the breaker in the service panel. The switch does not need to be wired. It could be battery powered and glued to the wall next to the old switch location. Then you can use a common duplex receptacle in the old switch box and done. Or, give up on a manual switch, and go with a *motion sensor* up in the lamp housing. That can be done with common off-the-shelf components. You may need to check if this is Code legal. Commercial bathrooms do it, though.
Assuming you mean an outlet/switch combination, no. You'd have to connect the outlet in series with the load (light bulb), resulting in reduced voltage and a potentially dangerous situation. Also, it would be switched.
88,108
I work pro-bono on a product that is in a beta phase. I'm doing that alongside my regular job and it's fair to say I'm stretching myself thin as it is. As such, there are naturally going to be some problems but I try to fix them as soon as possible. Recently, after figuring out one of the problems was due to a (pretty rookie) oversight by me, one of the more senior people who use the product sent me an email which I will translate here (names and unimportant details are changed, but I tried to capture the tone of the message to the best of my abilities) > > From: Peter Smith > > > P.S. My older son Robert Smith who will be 28 on May 17, 2017, and is > getting married on June 6, 2017 is an economist and a product manager > since he studied at [College A] and [College B], and is now a product > manager at [link to some foreign company's site/about/team subpage] > would never make such a trivial mistake. > > > I sent this mail only to you. Regards, Pete > > > For context: I'm in my thirties, graduated last year with the same degree as his son (it took me longer) and am single - all the details he knows. He doesn't know where I work now, but assumes it's not as good as his son's employer. I had problems starting my career for a long time due to health problems and only got my first serious job last year, which is also how we met - he sometimes collaborates with that organization. I have since started working at another company, mostly on recommendations from my former boss who didn't have it in his budget to keep me full-time. Even during those first meetings he couldn't stop talking about his son, but I figured that was just how he was trying to connect. I don't know what to do about this. While he is not my boss he is important for the organization and I am working on this project as a token of gratitude to the person leading the project. I want to stand up for myself and I am quite capable of that in my private life, but since I'm relatively new to the job market I'm not sure where and how to draw the line.
2017/03/29
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/88108", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66880/" ]
First, open a local copy of Notepad and write the following email or something very like it: > > I am sure that your son Robert would never make such a trivial > mistake, largely because he would never stoop to work on so trivial a > product -- especially for mere charitable reasons. People like your > Robert work only on huge, complex, > and vitally important products so they can make only huge, complex, and > vitally important mistakes. > > > Of course you are unlikely to realize that Robert ever makes any > mistakes at all because, unlike me, when he screws up he either hides > his errors or blames them on someone else. As you know, this is the > best path to advancement for someone with little charity and no > courage. > > > In any case, when Robert makes a mistake he never admits it to you, > because it would destroy your inordinately inflated opinion of him, > which is evidently vital to your emotional survival. > > > As an example of the grandiose nature of Robert's usual disasters, I > call your attention to the mistake he is about to make on June 6, > 2017. I know this woman and I can tell you that the best thing about their upcoming nuptual is that it will prevent the potential misery of > two other people that would obtain if they had each decided to marry > someone else. > > > ***Then don't send it.*** Don't even save it. Just edit it to your satisfaction, then delete it. Peter Smith has been courteous in insuring that his irritating email is known to only two people, and you should return the courtesy and go a step further by insuring that your email is known only to one. Peter Smith doesn't give a plugged fig whether you make silly mistakes; he just wants to brag about his son. Writing (and destroying) the above email will help you ignore the insult in Peter's message. It's impossible to tell whether Peter Smith intended to insult you or is just unaware of the effects of his public fatherly devotion. So, the next time you see Peter, ask about his son Robert. Appear genuinely interested and press for details. If the insult was deliberate, he will be left wondering what you are up to; if the insult was accidental, he will be gratified and enthralled by your attention.
Do not reply. The mistake is done and made and apologized for. You've admitted both to making a mistake and to it being a silly one. He's not calling you out in front of others, so his email changes nothing: it doesn't give you new information nor impose a new obligation on you. File it or delete it. Generally when someone tells me that their child or younger sibling or whatever wouldn't do such a thing as I did, I know they are **very** unhappy with me. I can't correct that by words, only by actions. "Standing up for yourself" won't change a thing. Let it go. Try to make less mistakes in the future.
88,108
I work pro-bono on a product that is in a beta phase. I'm doing that alongside my regular job and it's fair to say I'm stretching myself thin as it is. As such, there are naturally going to be some problems but I try to fix them as soon as possible. Recently, after figuring out one of the problems was due to a (pretty rookie) oversight by me, one of the more senior people who use the product sent me an email which I will translate here (names and unimportant details are changed, but I tried to capture the tone of the message to the best of my abilities) > > From: Peter Smith > > > P.S. My older son Robert Smith who will be 28 on May 17, 2017, and is > getting married on June 6, 2017 is an economist and a product manager > since he studied at [College A] and [College B], and is now a product > manager at [link to some foreign company's site/about/team subpage] > would never make such a trivial mistake. > > > I sent this mail only to you. Regards, Pete > > > For context: I'm in my thirties, graduated last year with the same degree as his son (it took me longer) and am single - all the details he knows. He doesn't know where I work now, but assumes it's not as good as his son's employer. I had problems starting my career for a long time due to health problems and only got my first serious job last year, which is also how we met - he sometimes collaborates with that organization. I have since started working at another company, mostly on recommendations from my former boss who didn't have it in his budget to keep me full-time. Even during those first meetings he couldn't stop talking about his son, but I figured that was just how he was trying to connect. I don't know what to do about this. While he is not my boss he is important for the organization and I am working on this project as a token of gratitude to the person leading the project. I want to stand up for myself and I am quite capable of that in my private life, but since I'm relatively new to the job market I'm not sure where and how to draw the line.
2017/03/29
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/88108", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66880/" ]
Do not reply. The mistake is done and made and apologized for. You've admitted both to making a mistake and to it being a silly one. He's not calling you out in front of others, so his email changes nothing: it doesn't give you new information nor impose a new obligation on you. File it or delete it. Generally when someone tells me that their child or younger sibling or whatever wouldn't do such a thing as I did, I know they are **very** unhappy with me. I can't correct that by words, only by actions. "Standing up for yourself" won't change a thing. Let it go. Try to make less mistakes in the future.
Fact 1: You are doing this work pro bono. Fact 2: Mr. Peter Smith's email is absolutely ridiculous. If this is an accurate translation of his email, then I'd assume that he is a first rate idiot, and most people would. It's something that can only be explained by generous use of alcohol, or by some stronger stuff. I'd reply: "Dear Peter Smith, if you believe that your son would be able to donate more time and talent to this project than I can, I will be more than happy to put forward his name to take over this important and rewarding work from me. "
88,108
I work pro-bono on a product that is in a beta phase. I'm doing that alongside my regular job and it's fair to say I'm stretching myself thin as it is. As such, there are naturally going to be some problems but I try to fix them as soon as possible. Recently, after figuring out one of the problems was due to a (pretty rookie) oversight by me, one of the more senior people who use the product sent me an email which I will translate here (names and unimportant details are changed, but I tried to capture the tone of the message to the best of my abilities) > > From: Peter Smith > > > P.S. My older son Robert Smith who will be 28 on May 17, 2017, and is > getting married on June 6, 2017 is an economist and a product manager > since he studied at [College A] and [College B], and is now a product > manager at [link to some foreign company's site/about/team subpage] > would never make such a trivial mistake. > > > I sent this mail only to you. Regards, Pete > > > For context: I'm in my thirties, graduated last year with the same degree as his son (it took me longer) and am single - all the details he knows. He doesn't know where I work now, but assumes it's not as good as his son's employer. I had problems starting my career for a long time due to health problems and only got my first serious job last year, which is also how we met - he sometimes collaborates with that organization. I have since started working at another company, mostly on recommendations from my former boss who didn't have it in his budget to keep me full-time. Even during those first meetings he couldn't stop talking about his son, but I figured that was just how he was trying to connect. I don't know what to do about this. While he is not my boss he is important for the organization and I am working on this project as a token of gratitude to the person leading the project. I want to stand up for myself and I am quite capable of that in my private life, but since I'm relatively new to the job market I'm not sure where and how to draw the line.
2017/03/29
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/88108", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66880/" ]
Do not reply. The mistake is done and made and apologized for. You've admitted both to making a mistake and to it being a silly one. He's not calling you out in front of others, so his email changes nothing: it doesn't give you new information nor impose a new obligation on you. File it or delete it. Generally when someone tells me that their child or younger sibling or whatever wouldn't do such a thing as I did, I know they are **very** unhappy with me. I can't correct that by words, only by actions. "Standing up for yourself" won't change a thing. Let it go. Try to make less mistakes in the future.
Serious Talk from a person who worked in HR for Govt. entities: This could be a trap to pull you off a project and showing this email (even if this is "private") to your project lead will only help you just in case the same person (or anyone other) decides to provoke you. By all means, DO NOT REPLY, but save it, print it, keep it as a physical document and start building that paper-trail. What he sent you (presumably over company email address, no?) is unprofessional, and hostile. Because you are doing this job as a favor and have favor with the project lead, your leader values you and showing this can only help your situation and shield you from any future problems that may arise from this person. You may be new, but as a project associate you deserve as much, if not more, respect for being within a team environment. Workplace hostility, especially by superiors should not be tolerated.
88,108
I work pro-bono on a product that is in a beta phase. I'm doing that alongside my regular job and it's fair to say I'm stretching myself thin as it is. As such, there are naturally going to be some problems but I try to fix them as soon as possible. Recently, after figuring out one of the problems was due to a (pretty rookie) oversight by me, one of the more senior people who use the product sent me an email which I will translate here (names and unimportant details are changed, but I tried to capture the tone of the message to the best of my abilities) > > From: Peter Smith > > > P.S. My older son Robert Smith who will be 28 on May 17, 2017, and is > getting married on June 6, 2017 is an economist and a product manager > since he studied at [College A] and [College B], and is now a product > manager at [link to some foreign company's site/about/team subpage] > would never make such a trivial mistake. > > > I sent this mail only to you. Regards, Pete > > > For context: I'm in my thirties, graduated last year with the same degree as his son (it took me longer) and am single - all the details he knows. He doesn't know where I work now, but assumes it's not as good as his son's employer. I had problems starting my career for a long time due to health problems and only got my first serious job last year, which is also how we met - he sometimes collaborates with that organization. I have since started working at another company, mostly on recommendations from my former boss who didn't have it in his budget to keep me full-time. Even during those first meetings he couldn't stop talking about his son, but I figured that was just how he was trying to connect. I don't know what to do about this. While he is not my boss he is important for the organization and I am working on this project as a token of gratitude to the person leading the project. I want to stand up for myself and I am quite capable of that in my private life, but since I'm relatively new to the job market I'm not sure where and how to draw the line.
2017/03/29
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/88108", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66880/" ]
First, open a local copy of Notepad and write the following email or something very like it: > > I am sure that your son Robert would never make such a trivial > mistake, largely because he would never stoop to work on so trivial a > product -- especially for mere charitable reasons. People like your > Robert work only on huge, complex, > and vitally important products so they can make only huge, complex, and > vitally important mistakes. > > > Of course you are unlikely to realize that Robert ever makes any > mistakes at all because, unlike me, when he screws up he either hides > his errors or blames them on someone else. As you know, this is the > best path to advancement for someone with little charity and no > courage. > > > In any case, when Robert makes a mistake he never admits it to you, > because it would destroy your inordinately inflated opinion of him, > which is evidently vital to your emotional survival. > > > As an example of the grandiose nature of Robert's usual disasters, I > call your attention to the mistake he is about to make on June 6, > 2017. I know this woman and I can tell you that the best thing about their upcoming nuptual is that it will prevent the potential misery of > two other people that would obtain if they had each decided to marry > someone else. > > > ***Then don't send it.*** Don't even save it. Just edit it to your satisfaction, then delete it. Peter Smith has been courteous in insuring that his irritating email is known to only two people, and you should return the courtesy and go a step further by insuring that your email is known only to one. Peter Smith doesn't give a plugged fig whether you make silly mistakes; he just wants to brag about his son. Writing (and destroying) the above email will help you ignore the insult in Peter's message. It's impossible to tell whether Peter Smith intended to insult you or is just unaware of the effects of his public fatherly devotion. So, the next time you see Peter, ask about his son Robert. Appear genuinely interested and press for details. If the insult was deliberate, he will be left wondering what you are up to; if the insult was accidental, he will be gratified and enthralled by your attention.
Fact 1: You are doing this work pro bono. Fact 2: Mr. Peter Smith's email is absolutely ridiculous. If this is an accurate translation of his email, then I'd assume that he is a first rate idiot, and most people would. It's something that can only be explained by generous use of alcohol, or by some stronger stuff. I'd reply: "Dear Peter Smith, if you believe that your son would be able to donate more time and talent to this project than I can, I will be more than happy to put forward his name to take over this important and rewarding work from me. "
88,108
I work pro-bono on a product that is in a beta phase. I'm doing that alongside my regular job and it's fair to say I'm stretching myself thin as it is. As such, there are naturally going to be some problems but I try to fix them as soon as possible. Recently, after figuring out one of the problems was due to a (pretty rookie) oversight by me, one of the more senior people who use the product sent me an email which I will translate here (names and unimportant details are changed, but I tried to capture the tone of the message to the best of my abilities) > > From: Peter Smith > > > P.S. My older son Robert Smith who will be 28 on May 17, 2017, and is > getting married on June 6, 2017 is an economist and a product manager > since he studied at [College A] and [College B], and is now a product > manager at [link to some foreign company's site/about/team subpage] > would never make such a trivial mistake. > > > I sent this mail only to you. Regards, Pete > > > For context: I'm in my thirties, graduated last year with the same degree as his son (it took me longer) and am single - all the details he knows. He doesn't know where I work now, but assumes it's not as good as his son's employer. I had problems starting my career for a long time due to health problems and only got my first serious job last year, which is also how we met - he sometimes collaborates with that organization. I have since started working at another company, mostly on recommendations from my former boss who didn't have it in his budget to keep me full-time. Even during those first meetings he couldn't stop talking about his son, but I figured that was just how he was trying to connect. I don't know what to do about this. While he is not my boss he is important for the organization and I am working on this project as a token of gratitude to the person leading the project. I want to stand up for myself and I am quite capable of that in my private life, but since I'm relatively new to the job market I'm not sure where and how to draw the line.
2017/03/29
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/88108", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66880/" ]
First, open a local copy of Notepad and write the following email or something very like it: > > I am sure that your son Robert would never make such a trivial > mistake, largely because he would never stoop to work on so trivial a > product -- especially for mere charitable reasons. People like your > Robert work only on huge, complex, > and vitally important products so they can make only huge, complex, and > vitally important mistakes. > > > Of course you are unlikely to realize that Robert ever makes any > mistakes at all because, unlike me, when he screws up he either hides > his errors or blames them on someone else. As you know, this is the > best path to advancement for someone with little charity and no > courage. > > > In any case, when Robert makes a mistake he never admits it to you, > because it would destroy your inordinately inflated opinion of him, > which is evidently vital to your emotional survival. > > > As an example of the grandiose nature of Robert's usual disasters, I > call your attention to the mistake he is about to make on June 6, > 2017. I know this woman and I can tell you that the best thing about their upcoming nuptual is that it will prevent the potential misery of > two other people that would obtain if they had each decided to marry > someone else. > > > ***Then don't send it.*** Don't even save it. Just edit it to your satisfaction, then delete it. Peter Smith has been courteous in insuring that his irritating email is known to only two people, and you should return the courtesy and go a step further by insuring that your email is known only to one. Peter Smith doesn't give a plugged fig whether you make silly mistakes; he just wants to brag about his son. Writing (and destroying) the above email will help you ignore the insult in Peter's message. It's impossible to tell whether Peter Smith intended to insult you or is just unaware of the effects of his public fatherly devotion. So, the next time you see Peter, ask about his son Robert. Appear genuinely interested and press for details. If the insult was deliberate, he will be left wondering what you are up to; if the insult was accidental, he will be gratified and enthralled by your attention.
Serious Talk from a person who worked in HR for Govt. entities: This could be a trap to pull you off a project and showing this email (even if this is "private") to your project lead will only help you just in case the same person (or anyone other) decides to provoke you. By all means, DO NOT REPLY, but save it, print it, keep it as a physical document and start building that paper-trail. What he sent you (presumably over company email address, no?) is unprofessional, and hostile. Because you are doing this job as a favor and have favor with the project lead, your leader values you and showing this can only help your situation and shield you from any future problems that may arise from this person. You may be new, but as a project associate you deserve as much, if not more, respect for being within a team environment. Workplace hostility, especially by superiors should not be tolerated.
88,108
I work pro-bono on a product that is in a beta phase. I'm doing that alongside my regular job and it's fair to say I'm stretching myself thin as it is. As such, there are naturally going to be some problems but I try to fix them as soon as possible. Recently, after figuring out one of the problems was due to a (pretty rookie) oversight by me, one of the more senior people who use the product sent me an email which I will translate here (names and unimportant details are changed, but I tried to capture the tone of the message to the best of my abilities) > > From: Peter Smith > > > P.S. My older son Robert Smith who will be 28 on May 17, 2017, and is > getting married on June 6, 2017 is an economist and a product manager > since he studied at [College A] and [College B], and is now a product > manager at [link to some foreign company's site/about/team subpage] > would never make such a trivial mistake. > > > I sent this mail only to you. Regards, Pete > > > For context: I'm in my thirties, graduated last year with the same degree as his son (it took me longer) and am single - all the details he knows. He doesn't know where I work now, but assumes it's not as good as his son's employer. I had problems starting my career for a long time due to health problems and only got my first serious job last year, which is also how we met - he sometimes collaborates with that organization. I have since started working at another company, mostly on recommendations from my former boss who didn't have it in his budget to keep me full-time. Even during those first meetings he couldn't stop talking about his son, but I figured that was just how he was trying to connect. I don't know what to do about this. While he is not my boss he is important for the organization and I am working on this project as a token of gratitude to the person leading the project. I want to stand up for myself and I am quite capable of that in my private life, but since I'm relatively new to the job market I'm not sure where and how to draw the line.
2017/03/29
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/88108", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66880/" ]
Fact 1: You are doing this work pro bono. Fact 2: Mr. Peter Smith's email is absolutely ridiculous. If this is an accurate translation of his email, then I'd assume that he is a first rate idiot, and most people would. It's something that can only be explained by generous use of alcohol, or by some stronger stuff. I'd reply: "Dear Peter Smith, if you believe that your son would be able to donate more time and talent to this project than I can, I will be more than happy to put forward his name to take over this important and rewarding work from me. "
Serious Talk from a person who worked in HR for Govt. entities: This could be a trap to pull you off a project and showing this email (even if this is "private") to your project lead will only help you just in case the same person (or anyone other) decides to provoke you. By all means, DO NOT REPLY, but save it, print it, keep it as a physical document and start building that paper-trail. What he sent you (presumably over company email address, no?) is unprofessional, and hostile. Because you are doing this job as a favor and have favor with the project lead, your leader values you and showing this can only help your situation and shield you from any future problems that may arise from this person. You may be new, but as a project associate you deserve as much, if not more, respect for being within a team environment. Workplace hostility, especially by superiors should not be tolerated.
62,580
This is something I have been thinking about for some time. What I study is pretty much on the edge between applied and pure math. Specifically, I am interested in stochastic dynamics including SPDEs. Thus I have been investing a lot of time into stochastic analysis, really enjoy the subject, and am looking into some new ideas in my "spare time". I say my spare time because right now I am really productive on the more applied side where I am looking at stochastic dynamics in developmental biology and numerical methods for stochastic systems (I have a few publications I will be able to push out before advancement). There is some trade-off here. My adviser strongly thinks I should drop all other activities because I am already building a solid foundation in the applied math / systems biology direction, and going 100% in it would make me have a higher chance of being a top candidate in the field come graduation. However, I kind of think that incorporating more "theoretical" stochastic analysis into my studies/research will lead to stronger results further down the line, but in the short term will inevitably be a hindrance. If I am thrown in the same pool as other applied mathematicians (who tend to publish more than pure math) and judged in the same manner for productivity, it seems that the extra time it takes for pure math results would most likely be detrimental to my chances of getting a post-doc. I assume I am not the only person in academia who has faced this kind of decision. Is this something to come back to as a post-doc, or tackle now? How did you handle it? How did your colleagues handle it? How did it turn out? Do you think you made the right decision? I do want to emphasize that right now I am doing quite well, and I think that matters a lot in this decision. However, since I will have a good amount of publications pre-advancement (based off of my own ideas), have fellowships, and will have a masters in both math and bio: does it make sense to take the time to diversify my personal portfolio? [Currently I am thinking of doing like 75% applied 25% pure, trying to spend less time optimizing code and using the down time as theory time.]
2016/02/01
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/62580", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/47971/" ]
(Sorry; though I'm a mathematician, I have no professional familiarity with stochastic anything.) "Even in mathematics," most postdocs are given because a particular faculty member wants to work with you or is at least interested in hearing what you are working on. Can you identify mathematicians who are working on both the pure and applied sides of SPDE? For them, your aspirations at breadth will be viewed as a positive. If there are no tenure track faculty members doing this, then trying to do this as a PhD student looks, from a purely strategic perspective, rather risky. In my experience -- though, beware, my mathematics is as pure as the driven snow -- graduate school is too early to "show breadth" in an advantageous way. Up until relatively recently, the most common number of pure papers a strong graduating pure math PhD student had was **zero**. (This was my situation, and I graduated from a top-three department.) Instead they had a letter from their advisor talking about how important their thesis work was (going to be). Things have changed a bit, but even now in pure math one great theorem is worth ten very good theorems. My feeling is that, except for a targeted audience as above, the applied math faculty is going to judge you for the applied math you've done, and the pure math faculty is going to judge you for the pure math you've done. These accomplishments will not be added together: rather, you need to be sufficiently impressive on either scale separately. If you're doing 25% pure math, then unless you have an amazing project it will be hard to compete with those who are doing 100% pure math. I have to say though that I have some misgivings in answering your question from a strategic viewpoint. I would really like to say that PhD students in math should study what interests them the most, and not worry about "selling themselves" until later in their career. Unfortunately in the current job market I think it is fair to warn you that you may be taking a hit for this -- but nevertheless it may well be what you want to do. Doing what you want to do is a powerful, wonderful thing and should not be underestimated. Finally, I wonder if you can escape the "all other things being equal" aspect of your question. There really is not a "fixed amount of productivity" possessed by every math PhD student: on the contrary, I have observed an almost limitless fungibility there. Maybe you could stay in your PhD program for an extra year. You would think that only weaker students do this...but you'd be wrong -- I've observed a positive correlation between both age of a newly minted PhD student and total time in school with the quality of their work. Maybe you could spend a semester or a year working with a faculty member who is more focused on the pure side of what you want to do: that could work out very positively. Maybe you could just vow to yourself to do the same amount of applied math you were doing before, do pure math on top and watch less TV. Or whatever. It's your life, and who the heck am I to tell you not to chase your dreams? Just chase them with your eyes open. (Hmm...) Good luck!
If you are able to publish in both pure and applied math and keep a leg in both worlds, I would say that can give you a very real advantage later when you are looking for a faculty position. E.g., you may be perceived as an applied guy since that's where 80% of your papers are, but the pure math people would much prefer hiring an applied guy that they can see themselves having fun talking to than one they can't, so if a department is hiring in applied math in a certain year, a candidate who can appeal to both groups can get more faculty to coalesce in support of them. I have seen specific cases where that kind of breadth has made a difference in hiring decisions. With that said, obviously there is a trade-off and an opportunity cost, and the time you will be spending developing the theory side will be time when you might have written an additional paper supporting your "main" line of research. In my opinion, each math researcher needs to consider for themselves how much diversity is optimal for them. Personally, I'm someone who favors more breadth and diversity (in my case, not in the sense of doing both pure and applied work but doing work in several areas of pure math), and have been able to build a good career doing that. But it's not something I'd recommend to everyone to try to do. Putting aside career concerns and the fact that there are only 24 hours in a day, in a utopian sense I think the best mathematicians (and the ones I personally respect the most) are the ones who have as broad of a background as possible, since such people are often able to draw surprising connections between unrelated areas that other, more narrow, people can't. Mathematics has a surprising unity to it, and it's often amazing how an idea in one area can inform developments in another seemingly completely unrelated area. But, as you yourself clearly recognize, it would be unwise to consider only such utopian, philosophical aspects of the question without considering the realities of the academic world and the limited time window one gets in which to launch one's math career. As Pete Clark said in his excellent answer - good luck!
5,881,031
From where can I get image processing libraries in C# .Net?
2011/05/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5881031", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/737628/" ]
There [emguCV](http://www.emgu.com/wiki/index.php/Main_Page) (for .NET) that is based on C++ OpenCV, which is very popular.
Beside the framework functions I like [Image\_Processing\_Lab](http://www.codeproject.com/KB/GDI-plus/Image_Processing_Lab.aspx).
5,881,031
From where can I get image processing libraries in C# .Net?
2011/05/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5881031", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/737628/" ]
**edit:** Check out the list here <https://github.com/quozd/awesome-dotnet/blob/master/README.md#image-processing>: * [ImageResizer](https://imageresizing.net/) - Add commands to image URLs to get altered versions in milliseconds. Resizing, editing etc of images in real-time. * [ImageProcessor](https://github.com/JimBobSquarePants/ImageProcessor) - Open-source .NET library to manipulate images on-the-fly. * [DynamicImage](http://dynamicimage.apphb.com/) - High-performance open-source image manipulation library for ASP.NET. * [MetadataExtractor](https://github.com/drewnoakes/metadata-extractor-dotnet) - Extracts Exif, IPTC, XMP, ICC and other metadata from image files. * [Emgu CV](http://www.emgu.com/wiki/index.php/Main_Page) - Cross-platform .NET wrapper for the OpenCV library. * [DotImaging](https://github.com/dajuric/dot-imaging) - Minimalistic .NET imaging portable platform * [Magick.NET](https://github.com/dlemstra/Magick.NET) - .NET wrapper for the ImageMagick library. * [OpenCvSharp](https://github.com/shimat/opencvsharp/) - Cross platform wrapper of OpenCV for .NET Framework. --- Check the [AForge](http://code.google.com/p/aforge/) library. It is a set of libraries in which you'll find an image processing and a vision library.
There [emguCV](http://www.emgu.com/wiki/index.php/Main_Page) (for .NET) that is based on C++ OpenCV, which is very popular.
5,881,031
From where can I get image processing libraries in C# .Net?
2011/05/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5881031", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/737628/" ]
There [emguCV](http://www.emgu.com/wiki/index.php/Main_Page) (for .NET) that is based on C++ OpenCV, which is very popular.
Have a look at Craig's Utility Library <http://cul.codeplex.com/> > > Image manipulation available: > > > * Cropping, resizing, rotating, flipping > * To black and white or sepia tone > * Threshold and edge detection (including Sobel and Laplace) > * Text drawing, watermarks, object drawing helpers > * Taking a screenshot which spans monitors > * RGB Histograms > * Various convolution filters such as sharpen, sobel emboss, etc. along > > with the ability to create your own > > easily > * Various other filters such as "jitter", pixelate, sin wave, median > > filter, and dilation, -red/green/blue > filters > * Multiple blurring techniques including box blur, Gaussian blur, > > Kuwahara, and Symmetric Nearest > > Neighbor blur > * Bump map and Normal map helpers > * ASCII art generator > * Adjust brightness, gamma, and contrast > > > Also you may like: [OpenCVSharp](http://code.google.com/p/opencvsharp) and [EmguCV](http://www.emgu.com) - by the way, EmguCV the most advanced one.
5,881,031
From where can I get image processing libraries in C# .Net?
2011/05/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5881031", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/737628/" ]
There [emguCV](http://www.emgu.com/wiki/index.php/Main_Page) (for .NET) that is based on C++ OpenCV, which is very popular.
I know a third-party toolkit named leadtools that provides many image processing functions. Also, it supports hundreds of image formats. You can find more information here: <http://www.leadtools.com/sdk/image-processing/default.htm>