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98,970 | Ok, I say *PC**s***... but I actually mean *PC*.
I am running a 1-player D&D 5e game for a friend (let's call her Jane), as a way of introducing them to the game. It was only meant to be a "non-canon", one-time-adventure that was supposed to peter out when the actual game started, (we are both PCs in the actual game, that is run by a different DM, with additional players). However, Jane spoke with the DM, and they decided that my game would be part of the characters' backstories.
I was fine with this at first, and I have a storyline to follow, that will eventually end in a way that doesn't affect the actual story of the main game.
For reference, the PC's name is "Cass".
So the story arc I made was:
* Cass' father (an "evil" king, from her backstory) wants to bring her back home after she ran away.
* Enter Big Bad Guy - objective: Bring Cass home. The party has a run-in, and only barely escape with their lives.
* Now the party need to turn the tables, find the Big Bad Guy before they find the party.
* Kill the Big Bad Guy.
Pretty simple, just to keep things short. However, Jane has decided to develop a love interest between the PC's (which I decided to entertain at first), after my PC saved hers, but it has now gotten out of hand, so much so that she has completely abandoned the storyline, to focus purely on the relationship.
It has arrived at the point where I no longer want to run the game, because it has turned into some kind of weird third-person sexting adventure more than anything.
Yes, I do have an interest in Jane, but I don't want to bring that into the game as well. The game is becoming a hassle, because I don't want this to be what it has become, and I'm not sure how I can bring the focus back to the storyline. I want to finish the game, and get back to the *actual* game that is being run for the larger group.
I have spoken to her about this issue more than once, and she does agree that it is taking away from the story development. I have then tried to continue the plot, but every time I do, she always brings it back to the love interest. Every time I have spoken to her about it, she has said that she agrees that the story is not developing, and she sounds like she's sincere about trying to restrain herself, but I have not seen any change in that direction. So I really don't feel she has any real issue with it.
(We do have something going on the outside the game romantically, so there's no need for it during the game that I can see.)
So my only real option seems to be to alter the story in some way to change her focus. How can I get this game back on track? What kind of simple plot hook, twist or in-game device can I introduce to bring Jane's focus back to the story? | 2017/04/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98970",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/12193/"
] | Do not introduce a twist. Just progress the plot
================================================
Your story structure is based on a villain hunting down the players. The benefit of having a villain is that they are people with dynamic plans. They will not wait until the players do something to thwart them, but they will carry out their own plans in the absence of the players.
So all you need to do is bring the villain's plan to fruition in a manner that will make it impossible to have her bring the story focus back to the relationship.
### Present a scene that challenges *her*
If the villain's plan was to abduct her, then if he were to come in and take Cass away, separating her from the party, she *must* respond. It becomes impossible for her to steer the story back into romance.
This is a little "railroad-y," but the fact is, if you find the relationship between Cass and your PC to be the problem, then you take the problem away by removing one of the people involved in that relationship.
But if you really want a twist...
=================================
### Kill your PC (temporarily)
In the villain's attempts to find and abduct Cass, maybe he also kills your PC while doing it. This again removes your PC. Now you can set up a bridge quest where she can find a scroll/potion of Raise Dead, which you can tie back into the main narrative. She must now pursue the quest or else lose her love.
(In the event that she fails this quest, you must also have a plan for reviving your PC. Write it in a way that it does not seem like Deus Ex Machina.)
Remember: as the DM, you must understand the motivations of your players so you can use it to your advantage in the story. Her motivation is her relationship with your PC, so use that as a plot hook.
### Introduce an alternative love interest for *her*
Once you have your PC out of the picture, introduce an NPC who does not appear in the main game, who can then take on the shoes of the love interest. If she goes with the plot hook, then you have successfully written your PC out of this game while simultaneously removing the love aspect from the larger game, where both of you play. It also gives you an NPC whose fate you have much more control over, because this one doesn't have plot armor, unlike Cass and your PC.
If she doesn't go with the plot hook, then you have a fantastic opportunity for a great story. Have the NPC follow her around, helping her selflessly when she needs it. Meanwhile, she is rejecting his advances in true "friendzone" fashion. Play on the emotions of love and rejection while using the NPC and villain to advance the plot you have designed.
Talk to her with your real feelings (of the non-romantic kind)
==============================================================
Let her know that you're finding the third-person sexting weird and uncomfortable. As the DM, you need to be on the same page as she is, and she needs to be on the same page as you are. While she seems sincere that she thinks she is hampering the main story, she doesn't look like she thinks it's a problem. And indeed, why is it a problem? She's still having fun.
Meanwhile, you have not told her that it is not fun for you when she veers away from the main story. Perhaps you've put hours of effort into preparing an adventure for her, and not going down that path feels bad for you since it makes you feel like you wasted your efforts. Let her know this with as much gentleness as you can.
Fade to black when it comes to scenes of that nature. When you sense that the scene is now moving to something like *that*, narrate over it immediately and go to the next day.
This might seem like you're pulling the rug from under her, but...
Does she really want to play the game you want to play?
=======================================================
Consider that the two of you may just be out of sync. Maybe she does not want to play the game you want to play, and vice versa. If there is no point of compatibility between your play styles in D&D, I recommend you stop the game altogether. Continuing to host a game you do not enjoy will only breed dissatisfaction and other negative feelings between the DM and the players, and it might leak out into your real world relationships.
So yes, while it might sting when you drop the game, it only hurts as much as pulling a band-aid. It might just be the best course of action for you in the long run. | I like [markovchain's answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/98976/33786). The bad guy can force the story to move forward, even if she isn't ready. In fact, a smart enemy would see that as the *perfect* time to advance their plots...
But I think there are a few things to add to that...
*If you're not the GM of the main story* **Don't kill off your own PC** without talking to the main GM first. They may want to have some warning if your PC is about to die out. And if you choose that path, have a Plan B for yourself. It is entirely possible that the party won't be able to rescue your body / find the resurrection spell / etc. How will that impact you and the game? Or it may take them a few sessions to do so. Will you be okay being "out of the picture" for that duration? ~~(Heh. maybe instead of resurrection, you just haunt her favorite magic weapon or something. Bad idea. Nevermind.)~~ This is sort of a nuclear option: it could blow up on you and her both.
Maybe talk to that GM about the idea of the big bad guy **kidnapping** your PC, and that's when she's forced to call on the full team to merge herself into the master story arc. Be willing to work with that GM to plan out the "off screen" events, and be willing to sit out some significant portion of at least one game session as the party tries to rescue you. But it forms a great segue between the private romantic "side-quest" to the main story line.
Maybe you can just agree to **"skip ahead"** rather than play through the entire sequence of events from the midst of your current romance to the "post-romance" phase where she joins the main group. If she as a player is ready for to do so, there's really no harm in skipping ahead. Just jump in with a short, agreed-upon, not-actually-roleplayed-out backstory to fill the gap from where you leave off to where the new game starts up. (If you've watched "Princess Bride," this is like the bits where Grandpa, as narrator, skips past the "kissing parts". They happened, but we didn't watch it happen; we just jumped to the next scene.)
Remember that the *other players* in the main group probably won't be excited about listening to you two roleplay the romance once she joins that group, either. She may not have thought that through yet.
Regardless, I think you need to have a **meta-game discussion** with Jane and work WITH her to plot out how to move the story back on track. This is where you, she, and the GM of the main group need to decide what defines a "fun" game for each of you, and especially what Jane wants from the game. If the awkward romance side-game is making you uncomfortable, then that should end. Maybe the two characters remain romantically involved, but you two agree to just "fade to black" on what, exactly, that romance looks like. |
98,970 | Ok, I say *PC**s***... but I actually mean *PC*.
I am running a 1-player D&D 5e game for a friend (let's call her Jane), as a way of introducing them to the game. It was only meant to be a "non-canon", one-time-adventure that was supposed to peter out when the actual game started, (we are both PCs in the actual game, that is run by a different DM, with additional players). However, Jane spoke with the DM, and they decided that my game would be part of the characters' backstories.
I was fine with this at first, and I have a storyline to follow, that will eventually end in a way that doesn't affect the actual story of the main game.
For reference, the PC's name is "Cass".
So the story arc I made was:
* Cass' father (an "evil" king, from her backstory) wants to bring her back home after she ran away.
* Enter Big Bad Guy - objective: Bring Cass home. The party has a run-in, and only barely escape with their lives.
* Now the party need to turn the tables, find the Big Bad Guy before they find the party.
* Kill the Big Bad Guy.
Pretty simple, just to keep things short. However, Jane has decided to develop a love interest between the PC's (which I decided to entertain at first), after my PC saved hers, but it has now gotten out of hand, so much so that she has completely abandoned the storyline, to focus purely on the relationship.
It has arrived at the point where I no longer want to run the game, because it has turned into some kind of weird third-person sexting adventure more than anything.
Yes, I do have an interest in Jane, but I don't want to bring that into the game as well. The game is becoming a hassle, because I don't want this to be what it has become, and I'm not sure how I can bring the focus back to the storyline. I want to finish the game, and get back to the *actual* game that is being run for the larger group.
I have spoken to her about this issue more than once, and she does agree that it is taking away from the story development. I have then tried to continue the plot, but every time I do, she always brings it back to the love interest. Every time I have spoken to her about it, she has said that she agrees that the story is not developing, and she sounds like she's sincere about trying to restrain herself, but I have not seen any change in that direction. So I really don't feel she has any real issue with it.
(We do have something going on the outside the game romantically, so there's no need for it during the game that I can see.)
So my only real option seems to be to alter the story in some way to change her focus. How can I get this game back on track? What kind of simple plot hook, twist or in-game device can I introduce to bring Jane's focus back to the story? | 2017/04/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98970",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/12193/"
] | Precis
------
The issue seems to be that you're playing two different games, or desire two different results from the game. You're playing 'cops and robbers' and she appears to be playing 'house.' (*Saying* that might be a *bit* impolitic, though. Just a touch (I recommend that you *don't*, in fact, say this or any permutation thereof.))
Additionally, if she's not new to role playing games in general, then she may have 'bad habits' from other games she's played. In many Computer Role Playing Games, for example, there can be a few 'love interest' side-plays or quest-lines (Neverwinter Nights (1 and 2), Knights of the Old Republic (1 and 2), Skyrim, Mass Effect (1, 2, and 3)...that's a lot of Bioware there). Perhaps those color her view.
A Fix
-----
Get your PC out of the picture. I'd strongly suggest capture; the Evil King might know, or suspect, the attachment.
The benefit of this capture to your introductory game has at least two forks that I can see, perhaps there are more. First, it gets your PC out of the picture; both you and she can then concentrate on the story you want without distractions. Second, her character has in-game motivation to go *do the quest*.
This feels much less 'railroad-y' to me than forcing direct confrontations or having *her* character captured; it doesn't remove her agency. Perhaps there was some meeting with a double dealing NPC who was supposed to capture you both, but only she manages to escape. Or perhaps you were separated trying to escape a squad of troops, and were to meet up, but you don't show. She might not even know how your character was captured initially and might have to use 'social' or investigatory skills in game.
This solution provides quite a few possibilities, and you can be released later if it becomes canon in the main game somehow, and she hasn't managed to effect your escape.
Good luck. | I like [markovchain's answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/98976/33786). The bad guy can force the story to move forward, even if she isn't ready. In fact, a smart enemy would see that as the *perfect* time to advance their plots...
But I think there are a few things to add to that...
*If you're not the GM of the main story* **Don't kill off your own PC** without talking to the main GM first. They may want to have some warning if your PC is about to die out. And if you choose that path, have a Plan B for yourself. It is entirely possible that the party won't be able to rescue your body / find the resurrection spell / etc. How will that impact you and the game? Or it may take them a few sessions to do so. Will you be okay being "out of the picture" for that duration? ~~(Heh. maybe instead of resurrection, you just haunt her favorite magic weapon or something. Bad idea. Nevermind.)~~ This is sort of a nuclear option: it could blow up on you and her both.
Maybe talk to that GM about the idea of the big bad guy **kidnapping** your PC, and that's when she's forced to call on the full team to merge herself into the master story arc. Be willing to work with that GM to plan out the "off screen" events, and be willing to sit out some significant portion of at least one game session as the party tries to rescue you. But it forms a great segue between the private romantic "side-quest" to the main story line.
Maybe you can just agree to **"skip ahead"** rather than play through the entire sequence of events from the midst of your current romance to the "post-romance" phase where she joins the main group. If she as a player is ready for to do so, there's really no harm in skipping ahead. Just jump in with a short, agreed-upon, not-actually-roleplayed-out backstory to fill the gap from where you leave off to where the new game starts up. (If you've watched "Princess Bride," this is like the bits where Grandpa, as narrator, skips past the "kissing parts". They happened, but we didn't watch it happen; we just jumped to the next scene.)
Remember that the *other players* in the main group probably won't be excited about listening to you two roleplay the romance once she joins that group, either. She may not have thought that through yet.
Regardless, I think you need to have a **meta-game discussion** with Jane and work WITH her to plot out how to move the story back on track. This is where you, she, and the GM of the main group need to decide what defines a "fun" game for each of you, and especially what Jane wants from the game. If the awkward romance side-game is making you uncomfortable, then that should end. Maybe the two characters remain romantically involved, but you two agree to just "fade to black" on what, exactly, that romance looks like. |
4,204,194 | I have read here <http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/en/details.aspx?FamilyID=5765d7a8-7722-4888-a970-ac39b33fd8ab> that to instal .NET 4.0 CP (client profile) you must have WinXP SP3 or above. This is somewhat worrying to me as there are many people on SP2 or below.
Is there any way I can run a .NET 4.0 app on any version of Windows xp and above? (without worrying about which service packs they have)?
If not, what about .NET 3.5, 3.0 or 2.0?
My questions are the following:
1. How low do I need to go in my .NET Framework version choice to ensure compatibility for WinXP SP2 or above?
2. How low do I need to go in my .NET Framework version choice to ensure compatibility for WinXP (no service packs) or above? | 2010/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4204194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/220064/"
] | * .NET 4.0 requires XP SP3, Win2k3 SP2, Vista, 7, or 2008(R2)
* .NET 3.5 requires XP SP2 or newer.
* .NET 2.0 requires Win2K SP(3?) or newer.
Incidentally, XP SP2 is no longer supported. (also; all versions of Win2K, and Vista XP1) | As far as I know, 3.5 was the last version to support WinXP SP2. |
4,204,194 | I have read here <http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/en/details.aspx?FamilyID=5765d7a8-7722-4888-a970-ac39b33fd8ab> that to instal .NET 4.0 CP (client profile) you must have WinXP SP3 or above. This is somewhat worrying to me as there are many people on SP2 or below.
Is there any way I can run a .NET 4.0 app on any version of Windows xp and above? (without worrying about which service packs they have)?
If not, what about .NET 3.5, 3.0 or 2.0?
My questions are the following:
1. How low do I need to go in my .NET Framework version choice to ensure compatibility for WinXP SP2 or above?
2. How low do I need to go in my .NET Framework version choice to ensure compatibility for WinXP (no service packs) or above? | 2010/11/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4204194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/220064/"
] | .NET 3.5 will give you compatibility with XP SP2. If you want compatibility with any level of XP, you need to go all the way back to .NET 2.0.
.NET 3.5 requirements can be found here:
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc160717(VS.90).aspx>
.NET 3.0 requirements can be found here:
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480198.aspx> | As far as I know, 3.5 was the last version to support WinXP SP2. |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | When you use linked servers for joins like this, it is important to have the server you are immediately connected to ("local") be the one with the most of the data, where the linked server is only providing a small part of the data, otherwise, yes, it will pull as much data as it needs to perform the join.
Alternatives include copying a subset of the data across to a temporary table with as much work done to slim down the results and any pre-processing that the linked server can perform, and then do the join on the "local" side.
You may find you can easily boost performance by reversing the way you do it, connecting to the server you have no control over (they'll need to make a linked server for you) and then connecting to your server over the link. If you need to do major work with the data where you would have to create sprocs - then push the data onto your server and use your sprocs there.
In some cases, I simply had the linked server perform a nightly creation of this kind of summary which it pushed to the local server, and then the local server performed its work with the join. | Its a very generous problem, which may have many solutions. But as we have witnessed so many user saying that they have tried everything.
What solved my problem is..
I upgraded sql server 2000 from sp2 to SP4 and if you already have sp4 on sql server 2000 then run Instcat.sql. As per my experience I can assure you this will work for sure, if you are exhausted with all the other workarounds.
Thanks,
Mithalesh
mithalesh.gupta@gmail.com |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | **Royal pain**
We used to have several linked servers at our shop and it turned out to be *such a PITA*.
First of all, there were severe performance problems similar to what you describe. I was shocked when i saw network I/O stats. Despite all efforts, we failed to hint SQL Server into reasonable behavior.
Another problem was that stored procs had these linked server names hardcoded everywhere, with no way to override them. So developers couldn't easily test on their development sandboxes any functionality that touched linked servers. This was a major obstacle for creating a universally usable unit-test suite.
In the end we ditched linked servers completely and moved data synchronization to web-services. | I would advise dynamic openqueries in a cursor loop instead of linked joins.
This is the only way i've been able to replicate MS Access' linked join performance (at least for single remote tables)
Regular linked joins in ms sql are too inefficient by pulling everything specially in humongous tables..
-- I would like to know what is so bad about openqueries inside cursor loops? if done correctly, there are no locking issues. |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | Queries involving semi-joins across a linked server tend not to be very efficient. You might be better off using [OPENQUERY](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa276848(SQL.80).aspx) to populate data into a local temporary table and then work on it from there. | I wrote a remote Linked Server application in SQL 2000 a couple of years ago and came across the same performance issues you describe. I ended up rewriting my stored procedures several times in order to obtain the best performance.
I used temporary tables extensively. I found that it was less expensive to retrieve large amounts of remote data into a temp table, then join to it, manipulate it, etc. Joining local to remote tables was very slow as you desribe.
Display Execution Plan and Display Estimated Execution Plan tended to help although I did not understand a lot of what I was looking at.
I don't know if there really is a efficient way to do these queries with a remote server because it seems like SQL Server cannot take advantage of its normal optimizations when going against a Linked Server. It may feel like you are transferring the entire table because in fact that is what is happening.
I am wondering if a replication scenario might work for you. By having the data on your local server, you should be able to write normal queries that will perform as desired.
I do not know of any good articles to point you towards. As I write more complicated SQL Server applications, I started to think that I needed a better understanding of how SQL Server worked underneath. To that end we bought the MS Press Inside Microsoft SQL Server 2005 series edited by Kalen Delaney here at work. Volume 1: The Storage Engine is definitely the place to start but I have not gotten that far into it. Since my last few projects have not involved SQL Server, my study of it has gotten lax. |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | **Royal pain**
We used to have several linked servers at our shop and it turned out to be *such a PITA*.
First of all, there were severe performance problems similar to what you describe. I was shocked when i saw network I/O stats. Despite all efforts, we failed to hint SQL Server into reasonable behavior.
Another problem was that stored procs had these linked server names hardcoded everywhere, with no way to override them. So developers couldn't easily test on their development sandboxes any functionality that touched linked servers. This was a major obstacle for creating a universally usable unit-test suite.
In the end we ditched linked servers completely and moved data synchronization to web-services. | Is there a possibility that you could set up a separate database on the server rather than using a linked server? |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | Queries involving semi-joins across a linked server tend not to be very efficient. You might be better off using [OPENQUERY](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa276848(SQL.80).aspx) to populate data into a local temporary table and then work on it from there. | Dynamic SQL and a function can be used to get around the hard-coded name question. For instance, I'm trying an implementation where function ufn\_linkedDatabase(@purpose nvarchar(255)) with input 'cpi.cpi' (purpose CPI, sub-purpose default) returns
'[SERVER-NAME.DOMAIN.LCL,2000].[CPI]' in the production environment (where we use alternate port number for SQL Server, I don't know why, including in linked server name). Then a SQL command is assembled in @template varchar(max) with the expression @{cpi.cpi} representing the linked server and database, and then
@workstring = REPLACE(@template, N'@{cpi.cpi}', ...) . How the function actually gets the database name is separate from the procedures - a lookup table is nice.
Issues - to do OPENQUERY(), which is probably still better at least unless the linked server option "collation compatible" is set "true" so that more of the task can be executed on the linked server - important even on a fast network, and our server room internal network is respectably fast - to do OPENQUERY() I probably need to handle 'cpi.cpi.server' and 'cpi.cpi.database' and 'cpi.cpi.server.database' separately. And, I may end up writing exactly one application using this design, in which case it's over-designed. Still, that means that the function itself doesn't have to be any kind of fancy work.
Throwing fast network hardware at the problem may be the cheaper answer, anyway. |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | Queries involving semi-joins across a linked server tend not to be very efficient. You might be better off using [OPENQUERY](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa276848(SQL.80).aspx) to populate data into a local temporary table and then work on it from there. | Is there a possibility that you could set up a separate database on the server rather than using a linked server? |
132,305 | At work we have two servers, one is running an application a lot of people use which has an SQL Server 2000 back end. I have been free to query this for a long time but can't add anything to it such as stored procedures or extra tables.
This has lead to us having a second SQL Server linked to the first one and me building up a library of stored procedures that query data from both sides using linked server. Some of these queries are taking longer than what I would like.
Can someone point me to some good articles about using linked servers? I am particularly interested in finding out what data is being transferred between the two as usually the majority of the sql statement could be performed remotely but I have the feeling it may be transferring the full tables, it is usually just a join to a small final table locally.
Also what do the linked server options do I currently have:
* Collation Compatible True
* Data Access True
* Rpc True
* Rpc Out True
* Use Remote Collation False
* Collation Name (Blank)
* Connection Timeout 0
* Query Timeout 0
**EDIT:**
Just thought I would update this post I used openqueries with dynamic parameters for a while to boost performance, thanks for the tip. However doing this can make queries more messy as you end up dealing with strings. finally this summer we upgraded SQL Server to 2008 and implemented live data mirroring. To be honest the open queries were approaching the speed of local queries for my tasks but the mirroring has certainly made the sql easier to deal with. | 2008/09/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/132305",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16989/"
] | I wrote a remote Linked Server application in SQL 2000 a couple of years ago and came across the same performance issues you describe. I ended up rewriting my stored procedures several times in order to obtain the best performance.
I used temporary tables extensively. I found that it was less expensive to retrieve large amounts of remote data into a temp table, then join to it, manipulate it, etc. Joining local to remote tables was very slow as you desribe.
Display Execution Plan and Display Estimated Execution Plan tended to help although I did not understand a lot of what I was looking at.
I don't know if there really is a efficient way to do these queries with a remote server because it seems like SQL Server cannot take advantage of its normal optimizations when going against a Linked Server. It may feel like you are transferring the entire table because in fact that is what is happening.
I am wondering if a replication scenario might work for you. By having the data on your local server, you should be able to write normal queries that will perform as desired.
I do not know of any good articles to point you towards. As I write more complicated SQL Server applications, I started to think that I needed a better understanding of how SQL Server worked underneath. To that end we bought the MS Press Inside Microsoft SQL Server 2005 series edited by Kalen Delaney here at work. Volume 1: The Storage Engine is definitely the place to start but I have not gotten that far into it. Since my last few projects have not involved SQL Server, my study of it has gotten lax. | Dynamic SQL and a function can be used to get around the hard-coded name question. For instance, I'm trying an implementation where function ufn\_linkedDatabase(@purpose nvarchar(255)) with input 'cpi.cpi' (purpose CPI, sub-purpose default) returns
'[SERVER-NAME.DOMAIN.LCL,2000].[CPI]' in the production environment (where we use alternate port number for SQL Server, I don't know why, including in linked server name). Then a SQL command is assembled in @template varchar(max) with the expression @{cpi.cpi} representing the linked server and database, and then
@workstring = REPLACE(@template, N'@{cpi.cpi}', ...) . How the function actually gets the database name is separate from the procedures - a lookup table is nice.
Issues - to do OPENQUERY(), which is probably still better at least unless the linked server option "collation compatible" is set "true" so that more of the task can be executed on the linked server - important even on a fast network, and our server room internal network is respectably fast - to do OPENQUERY() I probably need to handle 'cpi.cpi.server' and 'cpi.cpi.database' and 'cpi.cpi.server.database' separately. And, I may end up writing exactly one application using this design, in which case it's over-designed. Still, that means that the function itself doesn't have to be any kind of fancy work.
Throwing fast network hardware at the problem may be the cheaper answer, anyway. |
2,807 | I guess the title says it all. =) I'm planning to replace my kitchen sink faucet. What type of sealant should I use for the base of the new sink faucet? | 2010/11/14 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/2807",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/722/"
] | Many facuets come with a rubber gasket, so you don't need any sealant, just install the gasket. | the old standard is plumber's putty. this can be used on most surfaces and laminates. If your counter top is a natural stone, especially marble, plumber's putty could stain it. Check with the stone vendor to be sure to use the proper sealant that will not stain the counters. |
2,807 | I guess the title says it all. =) I'm planning to replace my kitchen sink faucet. What type of sealant should I use for the base of the new sink faucet? | 2010/11/14 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/2807",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/722/"
] | the old standard is plumber's putty. this can be used on most surfaces and laminates. If your counter top is a natural stone, especially marble, plumber's putty could stain it. Check with the stone vendor to be sure to use the proper sealant that will not stain the counters. | Plumber's Putty. Read the manufacturer's instructions just in case. Plumbers Putty is less than 2 dollars at Home Depot so get it just in case (you won't be out much money either way). |
2,807 | I guess the title says it all. =) I'm planning to replace my kitchen sink faucet. What type of sealant should I use for the base of the new sink faucet? | 2010/11/14 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/2807",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/722/"
] | Many facuets come with a rubber gasket, so you don't need any sealant, just install the gasket. | Plumber's Putty. Read the manufacturer's instructions just in case. Plumbers Putty is less than 2 dollars at Home Depot so get it just in case (you won't be out much money either way). |
49,125,503 | In developing a Java based backend using the Google App Engine, it occurred to me that since I end up paying by the number of instances created, it obviously makes sense to design the code in such a way as to minimize the memory usage. This has made me wonder whether it makes sense to use static methods as much as possible, the reasoning being that static methods only get created once in memory. Of course the methods would have to be immutable and thus not allow for the use of private static fields.
My assumption here is that calling a static method 1 million times is more efficient in memory usage that creating 1 million instances of the class that holds that method.
Does this reasoning make sense or am I possibly overlooking something about the use of static methods? | 2018/03/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49125503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/753632/"
] | Instance methods get created once only too. There is no clever optimization for you to do here, and basically you're deciding whether or not you'll be doing bad design by making everything static. There are no monetary savings to be had here.
You don't seem to quite understand how the internals work, so it's better that you don't worry too much about it. You're also comparing calling a static method 1 million times vs. creating 1 million instances. That's apples and oranges as they don't do the same thing at all. An equivalent comparison would be if you had 1 million data objects and you called a static method with one of those as a parameter.
Methods aren't what you need to care about, it's the data you're working with that uses memory. | Where you go wrong here is that "the amount of instances" is not the same as the "amount of data". Let's say you crawl and process Wikipedia. What is important is how much data is in memory at any given time, not so much how it is distributed across instances. Obviously, doing stuff wrong is always possible, but static methods won't save you from that ;-) |
187,685 | Suppose you're working on a lengthy text that you would like to publish as a book or a "research monograph". For example in mathematics stuff like Springer Lecture Notes, Memoirs of the AMS, or any other book series.
Then say you upload a preliminary version of the book somewhere, say arXiv (with the usual non-exclusive arXiv license), or to your personal website. Is there any issue with this, if later you want to submit to a publisher? I am wondering how common it would that a publisher would desk reject your book, if it is already on the arXiv. Most of the publishers do not seem to provide this kind of information very clearly.
And if later you publish, do the agreements with the publisher usually allow you to update your arXiv draft with corrections?
Of course it is best to confirm directly with the publisher that one wants to work with. But I would be interested in any general advice or anecdotes on these issues, especially in the fields of mathematics and physics. I have seen several authors who put all their papers on arXiv, but do not upload books/monographs. | 2022/08/11 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/187685",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/161545/"
] | I "published" versions of my textbook on my personal website (with an explicit copyright notice) so that students and some faculty elsewhere could use it when it was under development. The feedback was very valuable. No potential publisher objected to this, even after the book was under contract.
When the published book appeared the publisher naturally wanted those versions deleted. I still sometimes see them posted elsewhere, and ask for deletions (same for pirated copies of the actual published text).
I think arXiv would be a mistake. You can't simply "delete" there. Nor would it be the right place to post updates and corrections. That's your publisher's call. | Every publisher has its own standards on whether it will be willing to consider publishing something that has already appeared in some form, including ArXiv. You will need to check their websites and/or editors to see what is acceptable. I suspect that for books, they tend to be a bit more conservative than for articles, since they normally have a larger investment in the production process (copy editors, for example).
But you should also consider, as any publisher will, whether publishing the work, largely complete, will kill most (all?) future sales. I'd be especially careful about publishing complete exercise sets for any text books as those exercises are often the most important part, unless the topic is some advanced one that has few competitors. The latter may be your situation, of course.
But self publishing (ArXiv or other) will limit your choices, so ask before you jump. It is useful in any case to talk to one or more editors about your manuscript to explore their interest. |
7,463,694 | I am trying to create a chat application. The communication is based on RESTful web services(Jersey). The client communicates with the server sending HTTP requests. My problem is how to send messages from server to client without the client send a request first. I read about C2DM notifications, I suppose using this way, when the client receives the notification from the server then (the client) has to send a request to the server in order to receive the data. I also was thinking about using sockets but I don't know if it is possible as I am using Rest. I mean in the server side can I also use sockets(sockets run in lower level) with the REST code? The only thing I have though that could work using sockets is to create another server with socket(two servers RESTful and socket), but is this a good solution? Also could I put some server code in the client side and some client code in the server side. Would it be correct and effective? What do you think? Which solution would be the best? | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7463694",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/845529/"
] | C2DM has been officially deprecated as of June 26, 2012 by google. Existing C2DM developers are encouraged to migrate to the new version of C2DM, called Google Cloud Messaging for Android (GCM).
Check out this link for more info
<http://developer.android.com/guide/google/gcm/index.html> | The scenario you describe sounds ideal for C2DM. If you build your own sockets set up you will drain battery and CPU resources doing something the phone is already doing - maintaining an open socket to receive messages.
C2DM is relatively straightforward to set up, and in my experience is pretty reliable.
This is the best tutorial I have seen on it:
<http://www.vogella.de/articles/AndroidCloudToDeviceMessaging/article.html>
But you also need to read the official docs:
<http://code.google.com/android/c2dm/>
Your server-side code will need to send an HTTP request to the C2DM servers to send a message to a device. To tell it where to send the message, your server needs to specify the Registration ID (which represents your app running on one specific device) and so when your app sets up on the Android device, it registers with C2DM, and then needs to send its C2DM Registration ID to your server to be stored, ready to be used to send messages to. |
59,615 | In the usual aircraft configuration, the center of lift is located behind the CG producing negative pitch moment (the horizontal stabilizer counteracts it by producing downforce - positive pitching moment). If the aircraft rolls to one side the vertical component of lift on the wings would decrease, so by that logic the aircraft should pitch up.
Why does it pitch down? What am I missing? | 2019/01/30 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/59615",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/30119/"
] | The answer is that the aircraft doesn't actually *pitch down*. When banking (or rolling) into a turn, the angle of attack (or the angle between the center of the wing and the flight path of the aircraft) stays the same. Assuming no correction to maintain altitude is made, the aircraft will continue on the same angle of attack, just banked over by some amount. Due to the bank, the lift produced by the wing is no longer vertical, instead, it is directly perpendicular (at least for our purposes) to the wings. Therefore, if the airplane is in a 30 degree bank, then the lift vector will also be 30 degrees from vertical. Doing some vector analysis, then you can determine that if the angle of attack hasn't changed the new *vertical* component of lift will be about 86% of what it was in level flight. Therefore, the plane would begin losing altitude. This altitude loss is what you see as the airplane pitching down. | Darjan, first the basics. An aircraft in straight and level flight has the center of all lifts balanced with the center of gravity. A plane with the center of gravity set forward of the WING center of lift requires down force on the tail to balance it.
Now roll 45 degrees. Gravity vector is no longer aligned with elevator trim. If you roll 90 degrees the rudder is now you "elevator" relative to CG. Unless you apply opposite rudder, a
forward CG set nose will drop. This, among other reasons, is why aerobatic planes like their
CG further back.
Agree with @PilotDan that bank will also cause reduced vertical lift, but a forward set CG will also drop the nose. Many pilots will try to pull harder on the yoke to maintain altitude, adding power seemed to work better for steep turns, as well as reducing bank angle.
Bottom line, forward set CG is not a panacea of safety in all cases. Published forward CG
limit is best adhered too. |
59,615 | In the usual aircraft configuration, the center of lift is located behind the CG producing negative pitch moment (the horizontal stabilizer counteracts it by producing downforce - positive pitching moment). If the aircraft rolls to one side the vertical component of lift on the wings would decrease, so by that logic the aircraft should pitch up.
Why does it pitch down? What am I missing? | 2019/01/30 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/59615",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/30119/"
] | The answer is that the aircraft doesn't actually *pitch down*. When banking (or rolling) into a turn, the angle of attack (or the angle between the center of the wing and the flight path of the aircraft) stays the same. Assuming no correction to maintain altitude is made, the aircraft will continue on the same angle of attack, just banked over by some amount. Due to the bank, the lift produced by the wing is no longer vertical, instead, it is directly perpendicular (at least for our purposes) to the wings. Therefore, if the airplane is in a 30 degree bank, then the lift vector will also be 30 degrees from vertical. Doing some vector analysis, then you can determine that if the angle of attack hasn't changed the new *vertical* component of lift will be about 86% of what it was in level flight. Therefore, the plane would begin losing altitude. This altitude loss is what you see as the airplane pitching down. | But tail cannot produce pitch down moment as well. Now tail has to push agains centrifugal force. But gravity is still pulling nose if the flight is not coordinated so it will go down. |
9,183,870 | Is it possible in EE2 to have 2 URL's to map to a template group?
E.g: I have a template called "multi\_template" - Could I map multiple segment 1's to this like (/url1 , /url2...).
Thanks
James | 2012/02/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9183870",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/413436/"
] | You can use the Page module to do that. See the doc for details: <http://expressionengine.com/user_guide/modules/pages/index.html> | I build all my EE sites with Structure (www.buildwithstructure.com), and it allows you to map any URL to any template group and template.
I think there is similar capability in Pages, but I've never used it.
Another option, though it may drag performance, would be to make templategroup2/template2 contain an embed that loads templategroup1/template1. With cacheing, it may not impact performance. |
12,805,529 | I'm testing the new request access requirement for calendar (EventKit) integration in iOS 6. The problem in testing is that once the prompt occurs it will never occur again, not even in the iOS simulator or deleting the app from the device. There are other issues in the iOS simulator in that you never see an entry in Settings/Privacy/Calendars created so I can't verify the functionality in the sim.
Anyone know how to reset the access request system so I can view and test the prompt and various conditions?
Thank you. | 2012/10/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12805529",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/167451/"
] | I see where to reset them on the device (not sim) - go to Settings / General / Reset / Reset Location & Privacy and that works.
Thank you @poupou on the sim info. | You can try to reset the simulator itself. You can do so from the **iOS Simulator** menu and select **Reset Content and Settings...**
Note that will remove every application, data (and settings) for the currently executing version of the simulator.
OTOH that might not work as the privacy checks are incomplete on the simulator. From Apple [iOS6 SDK release notes](http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#releasenotes/General/RN-iOSSDK-6_0/_index.html#//apple_ref/doc/uid/TP40012166-CH1-SW19):
>
> Simulator
>
>
> * No privacy alerts are displayed in iOS Simulator for apps that access Photos, Contacts, Calendar, and Reminders.
>
>
> |
267,468 | I remember a story read to me as a child, but remember very few of the actual details. I remember that it involves some type of reaction that has to proceed once it is started, and the reaction involves something coming into contact with water. This means even if water isn't initially present when a scientist starts the reaction, water will somehow become present (ie. a pipe will burst or something). It ends with a major storm (hurricane?) that destroys the lab after the scientists try very hard to prevent water from reaching the experiment.
That's all I remember, and some of that may not even be correct. Can anyone identify this story? | 2022/09/06 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/267468",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/157597/"
] | This is likely one of Isaac Asimov's [Thiotimoline](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thiotimoline) stories.
They describe a chemical that dissolves slightly *before* it is added to water, with the consequences you describe if it ends up not getting added (because the universe acts to restore causality).
The particular story that was read to you was likely [Thiotimoline and the Space Age](https://www.isfdb.org/cgi-bin/title.cgi?58960) in which the course of a hurricane swerves to hit a college town where researchers had attempted to "fool" thiotimoline. A worried scientist opens the container and adds water, and the hurricane moves away.
The first story in the series is a parody of a scientific paper, and probably not one that would be read to a child, because it's kind of tough going.
User [PLL](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/475/pll) left a helpful comment locating three of the stories online:
>
> Three of the Thiotimoline stories can be read online at the Internet Archive: [*The Endochronic Properties of Resublimated Thiotimoline*](https://archive.org/details/Astounding_v41n01_1948-03_UnkSc-cape1736/page/n119/mode/2up?view=theater), [*The Micropsychiatric Applications of Thiotimoline*](https://archive.org/stream/Astounding_v52n04_1953-12_dtsg0318#page/n105/mode/2up), and [*Thiotimoline and the Space Age*](https://archive.org/details/sim_analog-science-fiction-fact_1960-10_66_2/page/154/mode/2up). (Links copied from Wikipedia.)
>
>
> | It remembers me Vonnegut's [Cat's Cradle](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cat%27s_Cradle), where the heirs of a scientist are given some ice-nine, which is a form of ice stable at room temperature.
When accidentally the fragment of ice-nine gets in touch with the water of the ocean, it turns all the water of the planet into ice-nine and causes massive storms hitting those who have not yet been turned into ice. |
16,366,331 | I'm trying to predict the sentiment of the next tweet posted by a twitter user. Right now I have the following steps (step 1 and 2 are already implemented in python):
1. Learn how to classify a tweet as postive (1), neutral (0), or negative (-1). I use a naive bayes classifier for this and it works pretty well.
2. Classify existing tweets from a user. This results in a series of numbers like this: [0, 1, -1, -1, -1, 0, 1, 1, ..] There's also information about the posting time.
Would it be possible to predict the sentiment (1, 0 or -1) for the next tweet?
What algorithm could I use for this?
I don't know how this one works yet, but are hidden markov models suitable or some kind of regression? | 2013/05/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16366331",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/855921/"
] | I think one appealing way to think about this is in terms prior and likelihood for sentiment. Naive Bayes is a likelihood model (how probable am I to see this exact tweet, given that it's positive?). You're asking about the prior probability of a the next tweet being positive, given that you've observed a certain sequence of sentiments so far. There are a few ways you could do this:
* The most naive way is the fraction of tweets the user has uttered which are positive is the probability that the next one will be positive
* However, this ignores recency. You could come up with a transition-based model: from each possible previous state, there's a probability of the next tweet being positive, negative or neutral. Thus you have a 3x3 transition matrix, and the conditional probability of the next tweet being positive given the last one was positive is the transition probability pos->pos. This can be estimated from counts, and is a Markovian process (previous state is all that matters, basically).
* You can get more and more complex with these transition models, for example the current 'state' could be the sentiments of the last two, or indeed last-n, tweets, meaning you get more specific predictions at the expense of more and more parameters in the model. You can overcome this with smoothing schemes, parameter tying etc. etc.
As a final point, I think @Anony-Mousse's point about the prior being weak evidence is going to be true: really, whatever your prior tells you, I think this is going to be dominated by the likelihood function (what's actually in the tweet in question). If you get to see the tweet as well, consider a CRF as @Neil McGuigan suggests. | On the machine learning side, you could consider sequential associations:
<http://web.mit.edu/rudin/www/RudinEtAlCOLT11.pdf>
This site has some java libraries:
<http://www.philippe-fournier-viger.com/spmf/>
A Hidden Markov Model should also work. An HMM is a special case of a Conditional Random Field, which lets you look at other factors such as say weather or news events.
I wonder if the next tweet of a person is also affected by the current tweets of a) everyone b) or those that they follow |
47,530 | According to [this webpage](http://lecdial.eklablog.com/lettre-de-madame-de-sevigne-a-madame-de-grignan-a186487990), Madame de Sévigné wrote the following letter to her daughter (Madame de Grignan).
>
> Surtout, ma chère enfant, ne venez point à Paris !
>
>
> Plus personne ne sort de peur de voir ce fléau s’abattre sur nous, il se propage comme un feu de bois sec. Le roi et Mazarin nous confinent tous dans nos appartements.
>
> Monsieur Vatel, qui reçoit ses charges de marée, pourvoie à nos repas qu'il nous fait livrer,
>
> Cela m’attriste, je me réjouissais d’aller assister aux prochaines représentations d’une comédie de Monsieur Corneille "Le Menteur", dont on dit le plus grand bien.
>
> Nous nous ennuyons un peu et je ne peux plus vous narrer les dernières intrigues à la Cour, ni les dernières tenues à la mode.
>
>
> Heureusement, je vois discrètement ma chère amie, Marie-Madeleine de Lafayette, nous nous régalons avec les Fables de Monsieur de La Fontaine, dont celle, très à propos, « Les animaux malades de la peste » ! « Ils ne mouraient pas tous, mais tous étaient frappés ».
>
>
> Je vous envoie deux drôles de masques ; c’est la grand'mode. tout le monde en porte à Versailles. C’est un joli air de propreté, qui empêche de se contaminer,
>
> Je vous embrasse, ma bonne, ainsi que Pauline.
>
>
>
which Google Translate translates as:
>
> Above all, my dear child, do not come to Paris!
>
>
> No one goes out for fear of seeing this plague fall on us, it spreads like a fire in dry wood. The king and Mazarin confine us all in our apartments.
>
> Mr. Vatel, who receives his tide loads, provides our meals which he has delivered to us,
>
> It saddens me, I was excited to attend the upcoming performances of a comedy by Monsieur Corneille "The Liar", of which they say the best things.
> We are bored a bit and I can no longer tell you about the latest court intrigues, or the latest fashionable outfits.
>
>
> Fortunately, I discreetly see my dear friend, Marie-Madeleine de Lafayette, we are enjoying the Fables of Monsieur de La Fontaine, including very aptly "The animals sick of the plague"! "Not all of them died, but all were struck."
>
>
> I send you two funny masks; this is the great fashion. Everyone wears them in Versailles. It’s a nice air of cleanliness, which prevents contamination.
>
> I kiss you, my dear, as well as Pauline.
>
>
>
The punctuation is incorrect, which makes me feel like the original letter might be different. Also, the letter is strangely similar to the lockdown measures in response to Covid-19 today. Is the letter real? Is the entire letter as written originally? | 2020/05/02 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/47530",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/16332/"
] | It's hard to prove a negative, but here are some points against its authenticity:
* [This 12-volume edition of Madame de Sévigné's letters](https://archive.org/details/lettresdemadamed08sv/page/n8/mode/2up) doesn't have any letter dated 30 April 1687 (the date given in the link). My French isn't so good, but I didn't immediately see any mention of plague in the letters around that date.
* [This shorter, searchable edition](http://www.gutenberg.org/files/43901/43901-h/43901-h.htm) doesn't have any letter of that date either. The only hit for the word "fléau" is in a letter of 19 May 1676, and it appears to be in reference to a plague affecting the region where her daughter lives. The only hits for the name Vatel are from two letters of 24 and 26 April, 1671, telling of a butler named Vatel (without the honorific Monsieur) who had recently died.
* The only prominent person named Mazarin associated with French royalty seems to have been [Cardinal Jules Mazarin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinal_Mazarin), chief minister to two kings of France - but he died in 1661, and so could not have been keeping people in their apartments in 1687. I couldn't find any mention of any other notable person by that name.
* The date in the link is given as "Jeudi, le 30ème d'avril de 1687" (Thursday, 30th of April 1687). But [30 April 1687 was a Wednesday](https://www.dayoftheweek.org/?m=April&d=30&y=1687&go=Go). (This is in the Gregorian calendar, which [France had been using since 1582](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gregorian_calendar#Adoption_of_the_Gregorian_Calendar); and anyway, in the Julian calendar it would have been Saturday.)
The other "dropped names" seem to be consistent as to dates. [*Le Menteur*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Liar_(Corneille_play)) was a real play by Corneille, first performed in 1644. ["The Animals Sick of the Plague"](https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/The_Original_Fables_of_La_Fontaine/The_Animals_Sick_of_the_Plague) was a real fable by La Fontaine; it seems to have been in Book VII of his Fables, which according to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_Fontaine%27s_Fables) was published in 1678. [Madame de La Fayette](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Madame_de_La_Fayette) lived from 1634 to 1693 and was indeed a friend of Madame de Sévigné. | A similar text was [published on Instagram](https://www.instagram.com/p/B_krMgLHLA8/) on April 29, 2020 by [Véronique de Bure](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/V%C3%A9ronique_de_Bure), a French author and one of the directors for [Flammarion](https://editions.flammarion.com/), a well-known French publishing house.
Un texte similaire a été [publié sur Instagram](https://www.instagram.com/p/B_krMgLHLA8/) le 29 avril 2020 par [Véronique de Bure](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/V%C3%A9ronique_de_Bure), une auteure française et directrice littéraire chez [Flammarion](https://editions.flammarion.com/).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/X5GIm.jpg)
Translation of the accompanying text by the author:
>
> “By all means, dear child, do not come to Paris!” Freely imagined in the style of Madame de Sévigné's letters to her daughter. #madamedesevigne #epidemic #imaginarycorrespondence
>
>
> |
47,530 | According to [this webpage](http://lecdial.eklablog.com/lettre-de-madame-de-sevigne-a-madame-de-grignan-a186487990), Madame de Sévigné wrote the following letter to her daughter (Madame de Grignan).
>
> Surtout, ma chère enfant, ne venez point à Paris !
>
>
> Plus personne ne sort de peur de voir ce fléau s’abattre sur nous, il se propage comme un feu de bois sec. Le roi et Mazarin nous confinent tous dans nos appartements.
>
> Monsieur Vatel, qui reçoit ses charges de marée, pourvoie à nos repas qu'il nous fait livrer,
>
> Cela m’attriste, je me réjouissais d’aller assister aux prochaines représentations d’une comédie de Monsieur Corneille "Le Menteur", dont on dit le plus grand bien.
>
> Nous nous ennuyons un peu et je ne peux plus vous narrer les dernières intrigues à la Cour, ni les dernières tenues à la mode.
>
>
> Heureusement, je vois discrètement ma chère amie, Marie-Madeleine de Lafayette, nous nous régalons avec les Fables de Monsieur de La Fontaine, dont celle, très à propos, « Les animaux malades de la peste » ! « Ils ne mouraient pas tous, mais tous étaient frappés ».
>
>
> Je vous envoie deux drôles de masques ; c’est la grand'mode. tout le monde en porte à Versailles. C’est un joli air de propreté, qui empêche de se contaminer,
>
> Je vous embrasse, ma bonne, ainsi que Pauline.
>
>
>
which Google Translate translates as:
>
> Above all, my dear child, do not come to Paris!
>
>
> No one goes out for fear of seeing this plague fall on us, it spreads like a fire in dry wood. The king and Mazarin confine us all in our apartments.
>
> Mr. Vatel, who receives his tide loads, provides our meals which he has delivered to us,
>
> It saddens me, I was excited to attend the upcoming performances of a comedy by Monsieur Corneille "The Liar", of which they say the best things.
> We are bored a bit and I can no longer tell you about the latest court intrigues, or the latest fashionable outfits.
>
>
> Fortunately, I discreetly see my dear friend, Marie-Madeleine de Lafayette, we are enjoying the Fables of Monsieur de La Fontaine, including very aptly "The animals sick of the plague"! "Not all of them died, but all were struck."
>
>
> I send you two funny masks; this is the great fashion. Everyone wears them in Versailles. It’s a nice air of cleanliness, which prevents contamination.
>
> I kiss you, my dear, as well as Pauline.
>
>
>
The punctuation is incorrect, which makes me feel like the original letter might be different. Also, the letter is strangely similar to the lockdown measures in response to Covid-19 today. Is the letter real? Is the entire letter as written originally? | 2020/05/02 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/47530",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/16332/"
] | It's hard to prove a negative, but here are some points against its authenticity:
* [This 12-volume edition of Madame de Sévigné's letters](https://archive.org/details/lettresdemadamed08sv/page/n8/mode/2up) doesn't have any letter dated 30 April 1687 (the date given in the link). My French isn't so good, but I didn't immediately see any mention of plague in the letters around that date.
* [This shorter, searchable edition](http://www.gutenberg.org/files/43901/43901-h/43901-h.htm) doesn't have any letter of that date either. The only hit for the word "fléau" is in a letter of 19 May 1676, and it appears to be in reference to a plague affecting the region where her daughter lives. The only hits for the name Vatel are from two letters of 24 and 26 April, 1671, telling of a butler named Vatel (without the honorific Monsieur) who had recently died.
* The only prominent person named Mazarin associated with French royalty seems to have been [Cardinal Jules Mazarin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinal_Mazarin), chief minister to two kings of France - but he died in 1661, and so could not have been keeping people in their apartments in 1687. I couldn't find any mention of any other notable person by that name.
* The date in the link is given as "Jeudi, le 30ème d'avril de 1687" (Thursday, 30th of April 1687). But [30 April 1687 was a Wednesday](https://www.dayoftheweek.org/?m=April&d=30&y=1687&go=Go). (This is in the Gregorian calendar, which [France had been using since 1582](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gregorian_calendar#Adoption_of_the_Gregorian_Calendar); and anyway, in the Julian calendar it would have been Saturday.)
The other "dropped names" seem to be consistent as to dates. [*Le Menteur*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Liar_(Corneille_play)) was a real play by Corneille, first performed in 1644. ["The Animals Sick of the Plague"](https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/The_Original_Fables_of_La_Fontaine/The_Animals_Sick_of_the_Plague) was a real fable by La Fontaine; it seems to have been in Book VII of his Fables, which according to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_Fontaine%27s_Fables) was published in 1678. [Madame de La Fayette](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Madame_de_La_Fayette) lived from 1634 to 1693 and was indeed a friend of Madame de Sévigné. | This is a hoax.
>
> In 1687, there was no epidemic in France. The only one recorded at that date was that of measles in the "Thirteen Colonies" which were the colonies of the British Empire in North America that gave birth to the United States of America.
>
>
>
*Translated from Belgium's [Hoax-Net](https://hoax-net.be/la-fausse-lettre-de-madame-de-sevigne-a-sa-fille/)*. |
47,530 | According to [this webpage](http://lecdial.eklablog.com/lettre-de-madame-de-sevigne-a-madame-de-grignan-a186487990), Madame de Sévigné wrote the following letter to her daughter (Madame de Grignan).
>
> Surtout, ma chère enfant, ne venez point à Paris !
>
>
> Plus personne ne sort de peur de voir ce fléau s’abattre sur nous, il se propage comme un feu de bois sec. Le roi et Mazarin nous confinent tous dans nos appartements.
>
> Monsieur Vatel, qui reçoit ses charges de marée, pourvoie à nos repas qu'il nous fait livrer,
>
> Cela m’attriste, je me réjouissais d’aller assister aux prochaines représentations d’une comédie de Monsieur Corneille "Le Menteur", dont on dit le plus grand bien.
>
> Nous nous ennuyons un peu et je ne peux plus vous narrer les dernières intrigues à la Cour, ni les dernières tenues à la mode.
>
>
> Heureusement, je vois discrètement ma chère amie, Marie-Madeleine de Lafayette, nous nous régalons avec les Fables de Monsieur de La Fontaine, dont celle, très à propos, « Les animaux malades de la peste » ! « Ils ne mouraient pas tous, mais tous étaient frappés ».
>
>
> Je vous envoie deux drôles de masques ; c’est la grand'mode. tout le monde en porte à Versailles. C’est un joli air de propreté, qui empêche de se contaminer,
>
> Je vous embrasse, ma bonne, ainsi que Pauline.
>
>
>
which Google Translate translates as:
>
> Above all, my dear child, do not come to Paris!
>
>
> No one goes out for fear of seeing this plague fall on us, it spreads like a fire in dry wood. The king and Mazarin confine us all in our apartments.
>
> Mr. Vatel, who receives his tide loads, provides our meals which he has delivered to us,
>
> It saddens me, I was excited to attend the upcoming performances of a comedy by Monsieur Corneille "The Liar", of which they say the best things.
> We are bored a bit and I can no longer tell you about the latest court intrigues, or the latest fashionable outfits.
>
>
> Fortunately, I discreetly see my dear friend, Marie-Madeleine de Lafayette, we are enjoying the Fables of Monsieur de La Fontaine, including very aptly "The animals sick of the plague"! "Not all of them died, but all were struck."
>
>
> I send you two funny masks; this is the great fashion. Everyone wears them in Versailles. It’s a nice air of cleanliness, which prevents contamination.
>
> I kiss you, my dear, as well as Pauline.
>
>
>
The punctuation is incorrect, which makes me feel like the original letter might be different. Also, the letter is strangely similar to the lockdown measures in response to Covid-19 today. Is the letter real? Is the entire letter as written originally? | 2020/05/02 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/47530",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/16332/"
] | A similar text was [published on Instagram](https://www.instagram.com/p/B_krMgLHLA8/) on April 29, 2020 by [Véronique de Bure](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/V%C3%A9ronique_de_Bure), a French author and one of the directors for [Flammarion](https://editions.flammarion.com/), a well-known French publishing house.
Un texte similaire a été [publié sur Instagram](https://www.instagram.com/p/B_krMgLHLA8/) le 29 avril 2020 par [Véronique de Bure](https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/V%C3%A9ronique_de_Bure), une auteure française et directrice littéraire chez [Flammarion](https://editions.flammarion.com/).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/X5GIm.jpg)
Translation of the accompanying text by the author:
>
> “By all means, dear child, do not come to Paris!” Freely imagined in the style of Madame de Sévigné's letters to her daughter. #madamedesevigne #epidemic #imaginarycorrespondence
>
>
> | This is a hoax.
>
> In 1687, there was no epidemic in France. The only one recorded at that date was that of measles in the "Thirteen Colonies" which were the colonies of the British Empire in North America that gave birth to the United States of America.
>
>
>
*Translated from Belgium's [Hoax-Net](https://hoax-net.be/la-fausse-lettre-de-madame-de-sevigne-a-sa-fille/)*. |
5,031 | One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?
EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one. | 2011/02/12 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/5031",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/1859/"
] | To begin with, there is a connected solution of 3+1 GR in which particles fall to the singularity in finite time. In particular, Gullstrand-Painleve coordinates do this. The big difference with Schwarzschild coordinates is that the speed of light depends on direction: light moves into a black hole faster than it moves out. See:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gullstrand%E2%80%93Painlev%C3%A9_coordinates>
For the formation of a black hole in these coordinates, see:
Phys.Rev.D79:101503,2009, J. Ziprick, G. Kunstatter, *Spherically Symmetric Black Hole Formation in Painlevé-Gullstrand Coordinates*
<http://arxiv.org/abs/0812.0993>
For the generalization of Gullstrand-Painleve coordinates to the rotating black hole, see the very readable paper that gives an intuitive explanation for what is going on, see:
Am.J.Phys.76:519-532,2008, Andrew J. S. Hamilton, Jason P. Lisle, *The river model of black holes*
<http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0411060>
Note: that the above paper is peer reviewed and shows that yes indeed, particles falling past the event horizon travel with speeds greater than the 1 (in GP coordinates). In GR, the speeds of objects depend on the choice of coordinates. Consequently, this exceeding of the speed 1 is not equivalent to exceeding the speed of light. In GP coordinates, a light beam moving towards the singularity inside the event horizon also moves at speed greater than 1. Consequently, there is no violation of special relativity. | I wouldn't know that any of the answers above has shown that, from an outsider's perspective, anything can ever reach the horizon, which was essentially the question of the OP. From an in-falling observer's point of view, there is no problem because kinematic time dilation and gravitational time contraction of the rest of the universe ("looking" in the rear view mirror of an in-falling observer's space ship, let's say) cancel each other out, exactly. But from an outsider's point of view, this is never the case.
Btw, that does not contradict any of the phenomena of black holes like jets and accretion disk-dependent events.
P.S. I suggest to not first think about e.g. light signals when we want to understand the nature of relativistic phenomena. The reality can always be "retro-engineered" from light signals, their arrival time and location and their redshifts, but that's very complicated and confusing to begin with. In order to understand things, we should first assume an instant information transfer. |
5,031 | One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?
EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one. | 2011/02/12 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/5031",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/1859/"
] | To begin with, there is a connected solution of 3+1 GR in which particles fall to the singularity in finite time. In particular, Gullstrand-Painleve coordinates do this. The big difference with Schwarzschild coordinates is that the speed of light depends on direction: light moves into a black hole faster than it moves out. See:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gullstrand%E2%80%93Painlev%C3%A9_coordinates>
For the formation of a black hole in these coordinates, see:
Phys.Rev.D79:101503,2009, J. Ziprick, G. Kunstatter, *Spherically Symmetric Black Hole Formation in Painlevé-Gullstrand Coordinates*
<http://arxiv.org/abs/0812.0993>
For the generalization of Gullstrand-Painleve coordinates to the rotating black hole, see the very readable paper that gives an intuitive explanation for what is going on, see:
Am.J.Phys.76:519-532,2008, Andrew J. S. Hamilton, Jason P. Lisle, *The river model of black holes*
<http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0411060>
Note: that the above paper is peer reviewed and shows that yes indeed, particles falling past the event horizon travel with speeds greater than the 1 (in GP coordinates). In GR, the speeds of objects depend on the choice of coordinates. Consequently, this exceeding of the speed 1 is not equivalent to exceeding the speed of light. In GP coordinates, a light beam moving towards the singularity inside the event horizon also moves at speed greater than 1. Consequently, there is no violation of special relativity. | Ben's answer did not show that black holes/event horizons can ever form from a distant observer's (e.g. our) perspective. In our frame of reference, strictly according to GR, no event horizon could ever have formed. For us, it doesn't matter what happens in the reference frame of collapsing matter of a star that went super nova, no matter how many Penrose diagrams one shows. |
5,031 | One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?
EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one. | 2011/02/12 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/5031",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/1859/"
] | What astronomers claim to be black holes are objects that "progressively make themselves more similar to [a black hole] without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon", *as they reckon*. That's assuming that GR is valid, since all such claims depend on GR's equations. Plenty of books on GR note that black holes are perhaps better named "frozen stars" from a distant observer's perspective. | It seems like, if there is a sufficient amount of matter localized during the Big Bang, then a Black Hole could form. But after that, a massive star, as seen by the rest of the universe could never shrink to the size of the event horizon.
In other words, a Black Hole would have to preexist in the universe to be an actual Black Hole. |
5,031 | One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?
EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one. | 2011/02/12 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/5031",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/1859/"
] | You are simply looking at it from an observer's viewpoint. Yes, looking from outside, matter tends to asymptotically approach but never reach the event horizon. If you were part of that matter spiraling into a black hole, there would be no problem reaching the horizon, crossing it, and going right down to the singularity. The event horizon is not a physical barrier.
You could be free falling, and your time would not be infinitely dilated. So the answer is yes they can form easily in a finite time. | Ben's answer did not show that black holes/event horizons can ever form from a distant observer's (e.g. our) perspective. In our frame of reference, strictly according to GR, no event horizon could ever have formed. For us, it doesn't matter what happens in the reference frame of collapsing matter of a star that went super nova, no matter how many Penrose diagrams one shows. |
5,031 | One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?
EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one. | 2011/02/12 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/5031",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/1859/"
] | To begin with, there is a connected solution of 3+1 GR in which particles fall to the singularity in finite time. In particular, Gullstrand-Painleve coordinates do this. The big difference with Schwarzschild coordinates is that the speed of light depends on direction: light moves into a black hole faster than it moves out. See:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gullstrand%E2%80%93Painlev%C3%A9_coordinates>
For the formation of a black hole in these coordinates, see:
Phys.Rev.D79:101503,2009, J. Ziprick, G. Kunstatter, *Spherically Symmetric Black Hole Formation in Painlevé-Gullstrand Coordinates*
<http://arxiv.org/abs/0812.0993>
For the generalization of Gullstrand-Painleve coordinates to the rotating black hole, see the very readable paper that gives an intuitive explanation for what is going on, see:
Am.J.Phys.76:519-532,2008, Andrew J. S. Hamilton, Jason P. Lisle, *The river model of black holes*
<http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0411060>
Note: that the above paper is peer reviewed and shows that yes indeed, particles falling past the event horizon travel with speeds greater than the 1 (in GP coordinates). In GR, the speeds of objects depend on the choice of coordinates. Consequently, this exceeding of the speed 1 is not equivalent to exceeding the speed of light. In GP coordinates, a light beam moving towards the singularity inside the event horizon also moves at speed greater than 1. Consequently, there is no violation of special relativity. | It seems like, if there is a sufficient amount of matter localized during the Big Bang, then a Black Hole could form. But after that, a massive star, as seen by the rest of the universe could never shrink to the size of the event horizon.
In other words, a Black Hole would have to preexist in the universe to be an actual Black Hole. |
559,857 | I plan a new fileserver with 20 concurrent users and 2 TB of online storage. I plan to divide this data volume over 3-4 separate disks. I plan to buy 10k rpm disks. Implementing RAID-1, this would mean that i need 6-8 diks.
Should i go for sas disks or would sata disks be sufficient? | 2013/12/07 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/559857",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/201675/"
] | SAS drives are your best approach. Use enterprise SAS disks for speed and nearline SAS disks for capacity.
There's no reason to buy SATA drives these days if you have a choice (unless they're SSDs). Can you elaborate on the server hardware make/model, RAID controller, etc. | SATA - no need to go SAS. Heck, if you have a decent Raid controller you do not even need 10k RPM discs - 5400 RPM discs are fine, with some SSD as caches.
This smells like you could use one of the SUperMicro storage cases - 24 x 2.5" front loaded SAS slots (+2 back loaded for the IS), a Adaptec 71605Q and 2 smaller SSD as cache - this is what I run now. Slow? Weeeellll..... Raid 6 over 8 discs and I am copying files around with 100+ mb/s - sometimes more than 500. THe SSD cache make a world of difference.
SATA generally is enough for that - remember, this is STILL low usage.
How do you arrive at the need to separate the volumes? Seriously? 2tb is small. |
55,934 | I looked around for NC symbols etc. and off course, leaving pins hanging will throw errors when doing a design rules check. So what would be the best practice for indicating NC pins in Eagle CAD? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/55934",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/15299/"
] | I asked the same question of Cadsoft support only last week. I mentioned that I prefer to have a symbol on the schematic so that I know that I've properly reviewed that the pin in question can be left unconnected, the response I received was:
>
> We don't have an equivalent 'X' symbol in EAGLE. You could create your
> own no-DRC symbol without a footprint, if you define it as an external
> device it won't raise an error for not having a footprint. So that's a
> feasible solution.
>
>
>
After finding that I couldn't add a schematic symbol without a package their follow-up was:
>
> See the HELP pages for the ATTRIBUTE and PACKAGE. The key to defining
> a device as an external device is to create an attribute called
> *EXTERNAL* in the device. This will allow you to create a part that doesn't need a package. This is handled in the library.
>
>
> | There is no need for a explicit not-connected symbol. Don't connect anything to it, and nothing will be connected to it, and that will be obvious in the schematic. There really is no need to do anything more.
No, the DRC (Design Rule Check) doesn't care at all whether pins are connected. The ERC (Electrial Rules Check) only complains about floating input pins, but then again those should be connected to something. |
55,934 | I looked around for NC symbols etc. and off course, leaving pins hanging will throw errors when doing a design rules check. So what would be the best practice for indicating NC pins in Eagle CAD? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/55934",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/15299/"
] | There is no need for a explicit not-connected symbol. Don't connect anything to it, and nothing will be connected to it, and that will be obvious in the schematic. There really is no need to do anything more.
No, the DRC (Design Rule Check) doesn't care at all whether pins are connected. The ERC (Electrial Rules Check) only complains about floating input pins, but then again those should be connected to something. | NC symbol can be very useful when Net classes are used. It is way how to create net with different net class (e.g. clearance matrix) for not-connected pin. General NC pin has default net class. |
55,934 | I looked around for NC symbols etc. and off course, leaving pins hanging will throw errors when doing a design rules check. So what would be the best practice for indicating NC pins in Eagle CAD? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/55934",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/15299/"
] | I asked the same question of Cadsoft support only last week. I mentioned that I prefer to have a symbol on the schematic so that I know that I've properly reviewed that the pin in question can be left unconnected, the response I received was:
>
> We don't have an equivalent 'X' symbol in EAGLE. You could create your
> own no-DRC symbol without a footprint, if you define it as an external
> device it won't raise an error for not having a footprint. So that's a
> feasible solution.
>
>
>
After finding that I couldn't add a schematic symbol without a package their follow-up was:
>
> See the HELP pages for the ATTRIBUTE and PACKAGE. The key to defining
> a device as an external device is to create an attribute called
> *EXTERNAL* in the device. This will allow you to create a part that doesn't need a package. This is handled in the library.
>
>
> | NC symbol can be very useful when Net classes are used. It is way how to create net with different net class (e.g. clearance matrix) for not-connected pin. General NC pin has default net class. |
526,530 | My sentence is:
"Cars kill people; a lot of people."
I'm keeping the language brutally simple for crude emphasis.
Do you guys think this is a good way to use the semicolon? | 2020/03/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/526530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/376421/"
] | To me, using a semicolon fails on many levels. It fails grammatically (which is already understood), it fails conceptually (the two clauses are not tied together closely enough to warrant a semicolon), and it fails to deliver the desired level of emphasis.
For emphasis, use a separate sentence (or, as the case may be, fragment):
>
> "Cars kill people. A lot of people."
>
>
> | While there are multitudinous proper uses
Of a semi-colon, its primary function is circumscribed by the type of punctuation the writer is assigning to the semi-colon. 1) the semi colon is a substitute for a period meaning that independent clauses must appear before and after the semi-colon. Hence your example may be acceptable and effective for prose, but it is grammatical incorrect as the second clause is dependent (a lot of people is the subject but a predicate (Verb) is lacking ... so no dice.
The other most common use of a semi-colon is as a surrogate comma, separating items in a list (following a colon). Typically the items in such a list are more complex than what can be expressed in a few words, hence they are more detailed and part of a program, process, components of an initiative or plan. The semicolon is a fancy comma or a learnéd period. Subtle, demure, and not common. |
526,530 | My sentence is:
"Cars kill people; a lot of people."
I'm keeping the language brutally simple for crude emphasis.
Do you guys think this is a good way to use the semicolon? | 2020/03/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/526530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/376421/"
] | To me, using a semicolon fails on many levels. It fails grammatically (which is already understood), it fails conceptually (the two clauses are not tied together closely enough to warrant a semicolon), and it fails to deliver the desired level of emphasis.
For emphasis, use a separate sentence (or, as the case may be, fragment):
>
> "Cars kill people. A lot of people."
>
>
> | If you mean how would I rephrase the clause you originally posited, it's simply a matter of profiler punctuation and economy of language, as you already employed. Although your subject doesn't make sense since Cars don't kill people, rather other people driving cars.
My edit: Cars don't kill people; people driving cars kill other people. People, preoccupied with something beyond the steering wheel or in the blind spots among their rearview and side mirrors, kill people while driving with reckless negligence. |
526,530 | My sentence is:
"Cars kill people; a lot of people."
I'm keeping the language brutally simple for crude emphasis.
Do you guys think this is a good way to use the semicolon? | 2020/03/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/526530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/376421/"
] | To me, using a semicolon fails on many levels. It fails grammatically (which is already understood), it fails conceptually (the two clauses are not tied together closely enough to warrant a semicolon), and it fails to deliver the desired level of emphasis.
For emphasis, use a separate sentence (or, as the case may be, fragment):
>
> "Cars kill people. A lot of people."
>
>
> | If you want to keep the original wording, I think an [em dash](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dash#Em_dash) is the most natural choice:
>
> **Cars kill people—a lot of people.**
>
>
>
Em dashes are a good general-purpose way to introduce a pause (like a colon) or offset a phrase (like parentheses) where no other punctuation mark is quite right. An em dash tends to indicate more *emphasis* than a colon, a semicolon, or parentheses, which is a good fit for this case.
Your example isn’t a standard use of a semicolon, because the second part isn’t a complete phrase. Another punctuation mark such as a comma or colon would also work here, but may require rephrasing:
* Restating the noun for emphasis
>
> Cars kill a lot of people.
>
>
> ↕︎
>
>
> Cars kill people, a lot of people.
>
>
>
* Stating the topic, then explaining with more detail
>
> Cars kill over 30,000 Americans per year.
>
>
> ↕︎
>
>
> Cars kill people: over 30,000 Americans per year.
>
>
>
(“A lot of” doesn’t fit in this case because it doesn’t add clarification, just emphasis.) |
42,267,604 | I am implementing DocuSign's OAuth flow by following their [OAuth2 doc](https://docs.docusign.com/esign/guide/authentication/auth_overview.html).
With demo developer account is it normal that only users specified in the Admin Dashboard are able to complete the OAuth flow?
I'm assuming so but no reference is made on the docs. | 2017/02/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/42267604",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3933324/"
] | Re:
>
> With demo developer account is it normal that only users specified in the Admin Dashboard are able to complete the OAuth flow?
>
>
>
Yes, that is normal. Perhaps you are thinking of Single Sign On (SSO). That feature uses OAuth too, and it includes dynamic account creation as needed.
The OAuth part is the same in either case. Without SSO, the users are first added via the web admin tool (or via the API). Then they can login.
If you want to use SSO, it must be set up by the DocuSign support team. Contact your sales rep to start the process. | I have a working integration with docusign, any docusign account should probably work. I have a demo app and I'm using a live docusign account to complete the Oauth flow. But anyway, have you done some test? |
69,985,236 | I feel comfortable working with 4-space indentation. However, most of my colleagues want 2 spaces. The linter is set up for 2 spaces.
Is there any way to make WebStorm displays 2 spaces the same size as 4 spaces? So when the code on my local machine would display the way I want and the way the others want on other machines. | 2021/11/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/69985236",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/16833961/"
] | Currently, there is no way to achieve that. Feel free to vote for "Virtual indents" feature on YouTrack: <https://youtrack.jetbrains.com/issue/IDEA-237957> | The [Elastic Indents plugin](https://plugins.jetbrains.com/plugin/14849-elastic-indents) seems to do what you want (I haven't tried it myself). |
230,177 | I would like to use Stack Overflow as a search engine in my browsers.
>
> 
>
>
>
Most of the time when I have a programming problem, I would like to search only on Stack Overflow, or Stack Exchange sites. So, I need to bookmark Stack Exchange sites, go there and type in my search query.
I would like to skip all these steps and enter my search terms directly in my browser's search bar. Is this possible (maybe with a plugin)? If not, could this feature be added? | 2014/04/22 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/230177",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/222928/"
] | We already insert OpenSearch metadata in every page. Since your screenshot looks like Firefox, and Firefox supports OpenSearch by default, all you have to do is go to <http://stackoverflow.com>, and then open the very popup that's in your screenshot – it will display the option *Add "Stack Overflow"*. | The query string for **Stack Overflow** is <https://stackoverflow.com/search?q=%s>
**How to set it:**
1. Open Google Chrome
2. Go to chrome://settings/searchEngines
3. On "Site search" section click "Add" button
4. Fill the form like on the picture with URL=https://stackoverflow.com/search?q=%s and click "Add"
5. Use "so something" in Address bar to search for "something" on Stack Overflow
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hJYzH.png) |
35,021,210 | I'm building an SDK to be used in a hosting app. This SDK includes working with DB using SQLite.
One of the requirements, is that the DB will be encrypted in order to prevent
pulling the SQLite database from the device and using the user private information.
I started to work with [SQLCipher](https://www.zetetic.net/sqlcipher/), but there is no support for 64bit architecture devices, which causing the application to crash.
I checked some other possibilities, but all of them causing other issues that I decided to try handle it by myself.
My questions:
1. Does Android have some encryption mechanism for DB files?
2. Can I encrypt the file when the application starts, and decrypt it again when the application is closing? I know that in iOS there is some kind of possibility called [NSFileProtection](https://developer.apple.com/library/ios/documentation/Cocoa/Reference/Foundation/Classes/NSFileManager_Class/)
3. Do you know other library that can handle the DB encryption, that supports 64bit devices?
4. Do you know if there is an Android solution for this, without using JNI([javax.crypto](http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/crypto/package-summary.html))?
I'll be happy to get any information or help. | 2016/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35021210",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/556011/"
] | >
> there is no support for 64bit architecture devices
>
>
>
SQLCipher works fine on the 64-bit devices that I have used it on. I seem to recall some issues with some apps that had multiple NDK libraries/code, where some had 64-bit libraries and some did not, where there were issues. I would suggest that you open separate Stack Overflow questions, or use other support resources (e.g., SQLCipher's support board), to get to the bottom of your difficulties.
>
> Does Android have some encryption mechanism for DB files?
>
>
>
No.
>
> Can I encrypt the file when the application starts, and decrypt it again when the application is closing?
>
>
>
No, for several reasons, not the least of which is that applications do not close on Android.
>
> Do you know other library that can handle the DB encryption, that supports 64bit devices?
>
>
>
No, and asking for off-site resources is considered to be off-topic for Stack Overflow, anyway.
>
> Do you know if there is an Android solution for this, without using JNI(javax.crypto)?
>
>
>
This is the same as the first and third questions. | You need to use the latest version of android-database-sqlcipher [here](https://github.com/sqlcipher/android-database-sqlcipher/releases). Am using 3.5.4 it solved "java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: dlopen failed: library "libutils.so" not found". Please check it [here](https://github.com/ResearchStack/ResearchStack/issues/371) |
1,036,981 | I am a user of [Programmer's Dvorak](http://www.kaufmann.no/roland/dvorak/) and had it installed on windows 8.1. I recently upgraded to Windows 10 and am unable to use the instructions on the site to install programmer's dvorak.
I install it (the installation runs) but it does not show up in the kepboards section afterwards.
Can anyone help me out with this? | 2016/02/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1036981",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/369459/"
] | I just took the layout and created it using the [Microsoft Keyboard Layout Creator](https://www.microsoft.com/en-in/download/details.aspx?id=22339) and following the instructions at [littletinyfish](http://littletinyfish.com/create-a-new-keyboard-layout-with-the-microsoft-keyboard-layout-creator/).
1. Go to File > Load Existing Keyboard…
2. Choose the keyboard you like. If you want to keep QWERTY, but add additional characters, you’ll want to load they keyboard called “US.”
3. select File > Save Source File As… and save
it wherever you want to save your keyboards.
4. go to Project > Properties
* Name can only be 8 characters
* Description is the name of the keyboard you will see most often
* Choose the language that makes the most sense.
* Click okay.
Then I configured the layout as described on the Programmer's Dvorak site:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/AimLN.png)
Once done:
1. Project > Validate Layout
2. Project > Test Keyboard Layout
3. Project > Build DLL and Setup Package
4. Optionally, you can File > Save As Image… to print out as a reminder.
5. It should ask you if you want to open the directory. If not, you have to navigate to where you initially saved your keyboard. You’ll find a folder with the Title of the keyboard (the 8 character title you selected earlier).
6. Click Setup.exe and follow the instructions. It’ll tell you your keyboard was installed successfully, but you won’t be able to use it until you restart.
7. Restart the machine.
8. Once the machine is restarted, you should be good to go.
On Windows 8 (and 10), you just have to hit WinKey + Space to switch between the two or more keyboard layouts.
I installed the resulting keyboard from the settings app and it works as expected. | One thing not mentioned by [Siamore's answer](https://superuser.com/a/1036982/86708) is how to get CAPS LOCK behavior to match Programmer Dvorak (e.g. for underscore and numbers) when using Keyboard Layout Creator. Here's how:
1. First, open the edit dialog for a key by clicking on it. In this case, I chose `[` to edit.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HqBNz.png)
2. Click *All*. to see all of the characters assigned to that key. Check *caps = shift*, so that CAPS LOCK will affect that key, in addition to all of the letter keys. Press *OK*.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HkdOH.png)
3. Preview the results by selecting *Show the Caps Lock*. Note that this view does not automatically refresh when you make changes, so you'll have to toggle it if it has already been selected.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ueCaK.png) |
1,036,981 | I am a user of [Programmer's Dvorak](http://www.kaufmann.no/roland/dvorak/) and had it installed on windows 8.1. I recently upgraded to Windows 10 and am unable to use the instructions on the site to install programmer's dvorak.
I install it (the installation runs) but it does not show up in the kepboards section afterwards.
Can anyone help me out with this? | 2016/02/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1036981",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/369459/"
] | I just took the layout and created it using the [Microsoft Keyboard Layout Creator](https://www.microsoft.com/en-in/download/details.aspx?id=22339) and following the instructions at [littletinyfish](http://littletinyfish.com/create-a-new-keyboard-layout-with-the-microsoft-keyboard-layout-creator/).
1. Go to File > Load Existing Keyboard…
2. Choose the keyboard you like. If you want to keep QWERTY, but add additional characters, you’ll want to load they keyboard called “US.”
3. select File > Save Source File As… and save
it wherever you want to save your keyboards.
4. go to Project > Properties
* Name can only be 8 characters
* Description is the name of the keyboard you will see most often
* Choose the language that makes the most sense.
* Click okay.
Then I configured the layout as described on the Programmer's Dvorak site:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/AimLN.png)
Once done:
1. Project > Validate Layout
2. Project > Test Keyboard Layout
3. Project > Build DLL and Setup Package
4. Optionally, you can File > Save As Image… to print out as a reminder.
5. It should ask you if you want to open the directory. If not, you have to navigate to where you initially saved your keyboard. You’ll find a folder with the Title of the keyboard (the 8 character title you selected earlier).
6. Click Setup.exe and follow the instructions. It’ll tell you your keyboard was installed successfully, but you won’t be able to use it until you restart.
7. Restart the machine.
8. Once the machine is restarted, you should be good to go.
On Windows 8 (and 10), you just have to hit WinKey + Space to switch between the two or more keyboard layouts.
I installed the resulting keyboard from the settings app and it works as expected. | Microsoft has a tool called [Power Toys](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/powertoys/) which supports key mapping.
1. Install [Power Toys](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/powertoys/)
2. Run it
3. Select "Keyboard Manager" on the nav bar on the left
4. Click "Remap a Key"
You'll get to a screen that is straight-forward to use. I could add screenshots but I'm sure the UI will change slightly over time. There is currently an accurate screenshot [here](https://zachrussell.net/blog/map-caps-lock-to-control-windows#powertoys) |
1,036,981 | I am a user of [Programmer's Dvorak](http://www.kaufmann.no/roland/dvorak/) and had it installed on windows 8.1. I recently upgraded to Windows 10 and am unable to use the instructions on the site to install programmer's dvorak.
I install it (the installation runs) but it does not show up in the kepboards section afterwards.
Can anyone help me out with this? | 2016/02/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1036981",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/369459/"
] | One thing not mentioned by [Siamore's answer](https://superuser.com/a/1036982/86708) is how to get CAPS LOCK behavior to match Programmer Dvorak (e.g. for underscore and numbers) when using Keyboard Layout Creator. Here's how:
1. First, open the edit dialog for a key by clicking on it. In this case, I chose `[` to edit.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HqBNz.png)
2. Click *All*. to see all of the characters assigned to that key. Check *caps = shift*, so that CAPS LOCK will affect that key, in addition to all of the letter keys. Press *OK*.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HkdOH.png)
3. Preview the results by selecting *Show the Caps Lock*. Note that this view does not automatically refresh when you make changes, so you'll have to toggle it if it has already been selected.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ueCaK.png) | Microsoft has a tool called [Power Toys](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/powertoys/) which supports key mapping.
1. Install [Power Toys](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/powertoys/)
2. Run it
3. Select "Keyboard Manager" on the nav bar on the left
4. Click "Remap a Key"
You'll get to a screen that is straight-forward to use. I could add screenshots but I'm sure the UI will change slightly over time. There is currently an accurate screenshot [here](https://zachrussell.net/blog/map-caps-lock-to-control-windows#powertoys) |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | I think I found an answer to my own question:
>
> **Pithy** adjective
>
>
> brief, forceful, and meaningful in expression; full of vigor,
> substance, or meaning
>
>
> | ***Epigram*** — [Dictionary.com](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/epigram)
>
> 1. any witty, ingenious, or pointed saying tersely expressed.
> 2. epigrammatic expression:
> *Oscar Wilde had a genius for epigram.*
> 3. a short, often satirical poem dealing concisely with a single subject and usually ending with a witty or ingenious turn of thought.
>
>
>
Or, ***pearls of wisdom*** perhaps. — [TFD](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/a+pearl+of+wisdom)
>
> an important piece of advice
>
>
> Usage notes: This phrase is usually used humorously to mean the opposite.
>
> *"Thank you for that pearl of wisdom, Jerry. Now do you think you could suggest something more useful?"*
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | Many good answers here. In some situations the word you might be looking for is:
***nuanced***
<https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/nuanced>
>
> Adjective[edit]
> nuanced (comparative more nuanced, superlative most nuanced)
>
>
> Having nuances;
>
>
> possessed of multiple layers of detail, pattern, or meaning
>
>
> The setting sunlight played through the gently waving branches, creating subtly nuanced transitions of color and tone as the shadows swept back and forth in the rosy glow.
>
>
> | ***Epigram*** — [Dictionary.com](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/epigram)
>
> 1. any witty, ingenious, or pointed saying tersely expressed.
> 2. epigrammatic expression:
> *Oscar Wilde had a genius for epigram.*
> 3. a short, often satirical poem dealing concisely with a single subject and usually ending with a witty or ingenious turn of thought.
>
>
>
Or, ***pearls of wisdom*** perhaps. — [TFD](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/a+pearl+of+wisdom)
>
> an important piece of advice
>
>
> Usage notes: This phrase is usually used humorously to mean the opposite.
>
> *"Thank you for that pearl of wisdom, Jerry. Now do you think you could suggest something more useful?"*
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | ***Deep*** — [ODO](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/deep)
"you have to think about it, that page is really deep (or thought-provoking)."
>
> 2.2 **Profound** or penetrating in awareness or understanding
>
> 2.3 Difficult to understand: *"this is all getting too deep for me"*
>
>
>
***Thought-provoking*** — [Cambridge](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/thought-provoking)
>
> making you think a lot about a subject: *"a thought-provoking book/film"*
>
>
> | ***Epigram*** — [Dictionary.com](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/epigram)
>
> 1. any witty, ingenious, or pointed saying tersely expressed.
> 2. epigrammatic expression:
> *Oscar Wilde had a genius for epigram.*
> 3. a short, often satirical poem dealing concisely with a single subject and usually ending with a witty or ingenious turn of thought.
>
>
>
Or, ***pearls of wisdom*** perhaps. — [TFD](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/a+pearl+of+wisdom)
>
> an important piece of advice
>
>
> Usage notes: This phrase is usually used humorously to mean the opposite.
>
> *"Thank you for that pearl of wisdom, Jerry. Now do you think you could suggest something more useful?"*
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | ***Deep*** — [ODO](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/deep)
"you have to think about it, that page is really deep (or thought-provoking)."
>
> 2.2 **Profound** or penetrating in awareness or understanding
>
> 2.3 Difficult to understand: *"this is all getting too deep for me"*
>
>
>
***Thought-provoking*** — [Cambridge](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/thought-provoking)
>
> making you think a lot about a subject: *"a thought-provoking book/film"*
>
>
> | I think I found an answer to my own question:
>
> **Pithy** adjective
>
>
> brief, forceful, and meaningful in expression; full of vigor,
> substance, or meaning
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | Many good answers here. In some situations the word you might be looking for is:
***nuanced***
<https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/nuanced>
>
> Adjective[edit]
> nuanced (comparative more nuanced, superlative most nuanced)
>
>
> Having nuances;
>
>
> possessed of multiple layers of detail, pattern, or meaning
>
>
> The setting sunlight played through the gently waving branches, creating subtly nuanced transitions of color and tone as the shadows swept back and forth in the rosy glow.
>
>
> | I think I found an answer to my own question:
>
> **Pithy** adjective
>
>
> brief, forceful, and meaningful in expression; full of vigor,
> substance, or meaning
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | you might be looking for the word **[overloaded](https://www.wordnik.com/words/overloaded)**:
>
> adj. of a word, having multiple meanings depending on context
>
>
>
or you can use **[polysemantic](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/polysemantic#English)**,
>
> Having multiple meanings.
>
>
>
or [**polysemic**](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/polysemic#English),
>
> (linguistics) Having a number of meanings, interpretations or
> understandings.
>
>
>
or **[polysemous](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/polysemous#English)**:
>
> (linguistics) Having multiple meanings or interpretations.
>
>
> | ***Epigram*** — [Dictionary.com](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/epigram)
>
> 1. any witty, ingenious, or pointed saying tersely expressed.
> 2. epigrammatic expression:
> *Oscar Wilde had a genius for epigram.*
> 3. a short, often satirical poem dealing concisely with a single subject and usually ending with a witty or ingenious turn of thought.
>
>
>
Or, ***pearls of wisdom*** perhaps. — [TFD](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/a+pearl+of+wisdom)
>
> an important piece of advice
>
>
> Usage notes: This phrase is usually used humorously to mean the opposite.
>
> *"Thank you for that pearl of wisdom, Jerry. Now do you think you could suggest something more useful?"*
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | [*Meaty*](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/meaty), perhaps?
>
> **meaty** adjective (INTERESTING)
>
>
>
> having a lot of important or interesting ideas:
>
>
> * a meaty book/letter/report
> * She has written some wonderfully meaty parts for older actresses.
>
>
>
Cambridge Dictionary
See also: [Power Thesaurus: full of meaning](https://www.powerthesaurus.org/full_of_meaning/synonyms) | I think I found an answer to my own question:
>
> **Pithy** adjective
>
>
> brief, forceful, and meaningful in expression; full of vigor,
> substance, or meaning
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | Many good answers here. In some situations the word you might be looking for is:
***nuanced***
<https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/nuanced>
>
> Adjective[edit]
> nuanced (comparative more nuanced, superlative most nuanced)
>
>
> Having nuances;
>
>
> possessed of multiple layers of detail, pattern, or meaning
>
>
> The setting sunlight played through the gently waving branches, creating subtly nuanced transitions of color and tone as the shadows swept back and forth in the rosy glow.
>
>
> | you might be looking for the word **[overloaded](https://www.wordnik.com/words/overloaded)**:
>
> adj. of a word, having multiple meanings depending on context
>
>
>
or you can use **[polysemantic](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/polysemantic#English)**,
>
> Having multiple meanings.
>
>
>
or [**polysemic**](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/polysemic#English),
>
> (linguistics) Having a number of meanings, interpretations or
> understandings.
>
>
>
or **[polysemous](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/polysemous#English)**:
>
> (linguistics) Having multiple meanings or interpretations.
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | ***Deep*** — [ODO](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/deep)
"you have to think about it, that page is really deep (or thought-provoking)."
>
> 2.2 **Profound** or penetrating in awareness or understanding
>
> 2.3 Difficult to understand: *"this is all getting too deep for me"*
>
>
>
***Thought-provoking*** — [Cambridge](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/thought-provoking)
>
> making you think a lot about a subject: *"a thought-provoking book/film"*
>
>
> | Sounds like a ***profound*** sentence.
ODO:
>
> **[profound](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/profound)** *ADJECTIVE*
>
> **2** (of a person or statement) having or showing great knowledge or insight
>
>
> ‘The answer by one student was so profound that the professor shared
> it with colleagues, via the Internet, which is, of course, why we now
> have the pleasure of enjoying it as well.’
>
>
> |
367,413 | I was wondering what the correct word would be for a sentence that is tightly packed with meaning. For example, a good aphorism. An aphorism is short, but has a lot of meaning behind it and requires considerable thought in order to understand it.
I thought of the word *dense* (as in "this is a very dense passage that takes some time to understand"). But in my mind, *dense* implies that its more technical and difficult to read. I'm trying to describe a simple passage that has a lot of meaning behind it. For example, a passage like this:
>
> We can forgive a man for making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. (The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde)
>
>
>
Edit: Just for more context. I sent the preface of *The Picture of Dorian Grey* to a friend, he quickly read it and said that he didn't understand it, and I said "you have to think about it, that page is really dense." I need a word to replace dense in that context. | 2017/01/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/367413",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/212551/"
] | [*Meaty*](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/meaty), perhaps?
>
> **meaty** adjective (INTERESTING)
>
>
>
> having a lot of important or interesting ideas:
>
>
> * a meaty book/letter/report
> * She has written some wonderfully meaty parts for older actresses.
>
>
>
Cambridge Dictionary
See also: [Power Thesaurus: full of meaning](https://www.powerthesaurus.org/full_of_meaning/synonyms) | Sounds like a ***profound*** sentence.
ODO:
>
> **[profound](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/profound)** *ADJECTIVE*
>
> **2** (of a person or statement) having or showing great knowledge or insight
>
>
> ‘The answer by one student was so profound that the professor shared
> it with colleagues, via the Internet, which is, of course, why we now
> have the pleasure of enjoying it as well.’
>
>
> |
22,526,405 | I've few excel source files in one folder in SSIS. I want to pull data from these excel files and load in to SQL tables.
My problem is I want to save all the files names one by one and want to create SQL table with exactly same name as filename
and then want to load each excel file in corresponding table.
Please help me how to create a package for this. | 2014/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22526405",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3220846/"
] | Jayvee has presented the high level view which is good enough! Let me add in bit detail.
I am assuming that you have dynamic Excel file connection.
1. Declare a variable and named it as **FileName**. And assign it the first file name which is available in the folder.
2. Place **Foreach Loop Container** and double click on it. Specify the **Folder:** and **Files:** as shown in image below.
3. In the same **Foreach Loop Editor**, go to **Variable Mappings**. Select **Variable** from drop down list. This is the same variable which we defined in first step. Set its **Index** to **0**. Click **OK**.
4. Remaining task is same as Jayvee explained.
See [this](http://the-simple-programmer.blogspot.com/2010/02/use-variable-as-table-name-in-ssis.html) link for further help. And this for [Result Set Property Not Set Correctly](http://suneethasdiary.wordpress.com/tag/resultset-property-not-set-correctly/). I think setting **ResultSet** property to **SingleRow** will do the job. | your control flow should look like this:
 |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | **It might be scientifically correct but it is linguistically misleading**
The sentence "diamond is an element" can be seen to be misleading when compared to the sentence "diamond is an allotrope of the element carbon". Or even "diamond consists of the element carbon".
The issue is that clear language should distinguish between the form and the composition of an element with more than one allotrope. Saying "diamond is an element" confuses the fact that diamond is made from carbon with the fact that it is made from an infinite tetrahedral array of carbon atoms. It also subtly excludes the fact that there are other allotropes.
For clarity in language a specific form of an element (an allotrope) should not be referred to as "an element" but should be referred to as one form of that element. As in "diamond is one form of the element carbon, buckminsterfullerene is another form." | Technically Yes, but Scientifically No.
=======================================
Diamond is made of pure Carbon, so yes. However, it is not on the periodic table nor is it classified as an element by **most** scientists, so on that case, no. It really depends what you think. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | **It might be scientifically correct but it is linguistically misleading**
The sentence "diamond is an element" can be seen to be misleading when compared to the sentence "diamond is an allotrope of the element carbon". Or even "diamond consists of the element carbon".
The issue is that clear language should distinguish between the form and the composition of an element with more than one allotrope. Saying "diamond is an element" confuses the fact that diamond is made from carbon with the fact that it is made from an infinite tetrahedral array of carbon atoms. It also subtly excludes the fact that there are other allotropes.
For clarity in language a specific form of an element (an allotrope) should not be referred to as "an element" but should be referred to as one form of that element. As in "diamond is one form of the element carbon, buckminsterfullerene is another form." | Diamond is a form of *pure carbon* (which is an element). Logic may lead you to believe that diamond is, therefore, an element. However, this is a bit circular because if you say that diamond is an element, then every allotrope of every element also falls under the same consideration.
Also, in order for diamond to be a unique element, the molecules that make it up should have a different number of protons than any other element on the periodic table. Since a diamond is made of carbon, it is really just another form of carbon. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | **It might be scientifically correct but it is linguistically misleading**
The sentence "diamond is an element" can be seen to be misleading when compared to the sentence "diamond is an allotrope of the element carbon". Or even "diamond consists of the element carbon".
The issue is that clear language should distinguish between the form and the composition of an element with more than one allotrope. Saying "diamond is an element" confuses the fact that diamond is made from carbon with the fact that it is made from an infinite tetrahedral array of carbon atoms. It also subtly excludes the fact that there are other allotropes.
For clarity in language a specific form of an element (an allotrope) should not be referred to as "an element" but should be referred to as one form of that element. As in "diamond is one form of the element carbon, buckminsterfullerene is another form." | No. Diamond is not an element.
It is a name for a gemstone, a particular occurence of an allotropic form of carbon that may or may not contain other elements in addition to carbon.
And while "pure" diamond is an allotropic form of the element carbon, diamonds that are actually pure carbon are usually synthetically made, as most naturally occuring diamonds have impurities/inclusions in the matrix. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | **It might be scientifically correct but it is linguistically misleading**
The sentence "diamond is an element" can be seen to be misleading when compared to the sentence "diamond is an allotrope of the element carbon". Or even "diamond consists of the element carbon".
The issue is that clear language should distinguish between the form and the composition of an element with more than one allotrope. Saying "diamond is an element" confuses the fact that diamond is made from carbon with the fact that it is made from an infinite tetrahedral array of carbon atoms. It also subtly excludes the fact that there are other allotropes.
For clarity in language a specific form of an element (an allotrope) should not be referred to as "an element" but should be referred to as one form of that element. As in "diamond is one form of the element carbon, buckminsterfullerene is another form." | The IUPAC definition of element is as follows:
>
> A pure chemical substance composed of atoms with the same number of protons in the atomic nucleus. [IUPAC Goldbook definition of element](https://goldbook.iupac.org/terms/view/C01022)
>
>
>
This seems to allow diamond to be called an element. But it's not a good idea, scientifically or linguistically, since it doesn't make sense.
Carbon is an element. Diamond is a *form* that the element carbon can take.
Let me give you a car analogy:
Toyota is a brand of car. The Camry is one example of a type of Toyota car. I.e., it is one form a Toyota can take. That does not make "Camry" a brand of car, nor would it make sense to call a Camry a car brand.
In summary, referring to diamond as an element, rather than a form an element can take, is like referring to Camry as a car brand, rather than as one of the brand's models. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | Technically Yes, but Scientifically No.
=======================================
Diamond is made of pure Carbon, so yes. However, it is not on the periodic table nor is it classified as an element by **most** scientists, so on that case, no. It really depends what you think. | Diamond is a form of *pure carbon* (which is an element). Logic may lead you to believe that diamond is, therefore, an element. However, this is a bit circular because if you say that diamond is an element, then every allotrope of every element also falls under the same consideration.
Also, in order for diamond to be a unique element, the molecules that make it up should have a different number of protons than any other element on the periodic table. Since a diamond is made of carbon, it is really just another form of carbon. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | Technically Yes, but Scientifically No.
=======================================
Diamond is made of pure Carbon, so yes. However, it is not on the periodic table nor is it classified as an element by **most** scientists, so on that case, no. It really depends what you think. | No. Diamond is not an element.
It is a name for a gemstone, a particular occurence of an allotropic form of carbon that may or may not contain other elements in addition to carbon.
And while "pure" diamond is an allotropic form of the element carbon, diamonds that are actually pure carbon are usually synthetically made, as most naturally occuring diamonds have impurities/inclusions in the matrix. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | The IUPAC definition of element is as follows:
>
> A pure chemical substance composed of atoms with the same number of protons in the atomic nucleus. [IUPAC Goldbook definition of element](https://goldbook.iupac.org/terms/view/C01022)
>
>
>
This seems to allow diamond to be called an element. But it's not a good idea, scientifically or linguistically, since it doesn't make sense.
Carbon is an element. Diamond is a *form* that the element carbon can take.
Let me give you a car analogy:
Toyota is a brand of car. The Camry is one example of a type of Toyota car. I.e., it is one form a Toyota can take. That does not make "Camry" a brand of car, nor would it make sense to call a Camry a car brand.
In summary, referring to diamond as an element, rather than a form an element can take, is like referring to Camry as a car brand, rather than as one of the brand's models. | Diamond is a form of *pure carbon* (which is an element). Logic may lead you to believe that diamond is, therefore, an element. However, this is a bit circular because if you say that diamond is an element, then every allotrope of every element also falls under the same consideration.
Also, in order for diamond to be a unique element, the molecules that make it up should have a different number of protons than any other element on the periodic table. Since a diamond is made of carbon, it is really just another form of carbon. |
102,078 | Is it scientifically correct to call Diamond an element? Carbon has a wide range of allotropes, so would it be correct to actually just call graphite, diamond etc an element. For that matter, could we call any molecule containing only one type of atom, an element? | 2018/09/24 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/102078",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/52469/"
] | The IUPAC definition of element is as follows:
>
> A pure chemical substance composed of atoms with the same number of protons in the atomic nucleus. [IUPAC Goldbook definition of element](https://goldbook.iupac.org/terms/view/C01022)
>
>
>
This seems to allow diamond to be called an element. But it's not a good idea, scientifically or linguistically, since it doesn't make sense.
Carbon is an element. Diamond is a *form* that the element carbon can take.
Let me give you a car analogy:
Toyota is a brand of car. The Camry is one example of a type of Toyota car. I.e., it is one form a Toyota can take. That does not make "Camry" a brand of car, nor would it make sense to call a Camry a car brand.
In summary, referring to diamond as an element, rather than a form an element can take, is like referring to Camry as a car brand, rather than as one of the brand's models. | No. Diamond is not an element.
It is a name for a gemstone, a particular occurence of an allotropic form of carbon that may or may not contain other elements in addition to carbon.
And while "pure" diamond is an allotropic form of the element carbon, diamonds that are actually pure carbon are usually synthetically made, as most naturally occuring diamonds have impurities/inclusions in the matrix. |
4,176 | Recently I received some **very** negative feedback after editing [a question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/64777/what-would-happen-if-a-bacterium-hijacked-human-gender-determination) (see comments and edit history). To me, parts of the question were unstructured, and needed clarification, but to the asker, they made sense.
I edited what I thought needed clarifying, and the OP told me my edits read terribly, made poor word choices, and were too hard for them to find a way to fix. I was told I did a sloppy job, and they said they were "really offended" by the changes I made.
I asked specifically what I did wrong, and while they did not reply, they have been active on the site since then. Clearly I did *something*, and I would like to avoid doing that something again, but I do not know what that is. For such an astoundingly negative response I expect a genuine reason for the OP to be upset, but it is not clear to me why.
---
Is there a genuine reason to respond to an edit in such an overwhelmingly negative way; did I really do something "offensive" that is clear to others but not to me?
What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future? | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4176",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/users/28639/"
] | TL;DR: Unfortunately, you can't. Sorry. Some people will always dislike something.
Each question and answer on here is ultimately someone's baby. They may have just banged it out quickly without much thought or they may have conceived it with love and molded it into the exact perfect shape they desire. Whichever is the case, though, it's still their baby.
Some people will appreciate the help of others in raising their baby, helping to improve the clarity of communication, for example. Others will take it as a deep insult to their Q&A parenting skills if someone so much as tidies up a windswept semi-colon.
If people appreciate your help, then help them. If people don't (and especially if they are rude about it) then don't fret about it, move on and find people who do appreciate it. I assure you that the overwhelming reaction to helpful edits is gratitude.
In this specific case, I think the negative reaction came from the extent of your changes. The actual changes made look good to me and definitely improved the question. However, you just gave someone's baby a new hair cut and they took it personally, no matter that it was an improvement. The changes were too large for that particular OP to be happy with.
Some people don't want to be helped, some people are happy with a bit of help, others are comfortable with more extensive revisions. Unfortunately, it's hard to predict how people will react, so the main recommendation I can make is that your edits should change the question as little as possible while improving it as much as possible. A fine balancing act that's more art than science. | My two cents is that the original post was readable. Your edits were more readable, and didn't really alter the meaning of anything. So on sum, your edits were good. Except that, they weren't really needed in the first place.
So the question is: is it worth tweaking a decent question to make it read a little better?
My opinion is no. I try to only edit to either a. correct obvious grammar/spelling/capitalization or b. attempt to make an interesting but clearly close-worthy question (due to too broad, or unclear what you are asking) better enough that it doesn't get closed. If the post has problems but doesn't meet the above criteria, I prefer to nag them from the comments.
More philosophically, it is great when more people take ownership of Worldbuilding and attempt to make questions and answers better. But there is no 'right way' to do it. So its not that your edit was bad, but you just saw first-hand how needlessly editing a post, even if you are strictly editing in improvements, might conflict with the author's intent (somehow). |
4,176 | Recently I received some **very** negative feedback after editing [a question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/64777/what-would-happen-if-a-bacterium-hijacked-human-gender-determination) (see comments and edit history). To me, parts of the question were unstructured, and needed clarification, but to the asker, they made sense.
I edited what I thought needed clarifying, and the OP told me my edits read terribly, made poor word choices, and were too hard for them to find a way to fix. I was told I did a sloppy job, and they said they were "really offended" by the changes I made.
I asked specifically what I did wrong, and while they did not reply, they have been active on the site since then. Clearly I did *something*, and I would like to avoid doing that something again, but I do not know what that is. For such an astoundingly negative response I expect a genuine reason for the OP to be upset, but it is not clear to me why.
---
Is there a genuine reason to respond to an edit in such an overwhelmingly negative way; did I really do something "offensive" that is clear to others but not to me?
What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future? | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4176",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/users/28639/"
] | TL;DR: Unfortunately, you can't. Sorry. Some people will always dislike something.
Each question and answer on here is ultimately someone's baby. They may have just banged it out quickly without much thought or they may have conceived it with love and molded it into the exact perfect shape they desire. Whichever is the case, though, it's still their baby.
Some people will appreciate the help of others in raising their baby, helping to improve the clarity of communication, for example. Others will take it as a deep insult to their Q&A parenting skills if someone so much as tidies up a windswept semi-colon.
If people appreciate your help, then help them. If people don't (and especially if they are rude about it) then don't fret about it, move on and find people who do appreciate it. I assure you that the overwhelming reaction to helpful edits is gratitude.
In this specific case, I think the negative reaction came from the extent of your changes. The actual changes made look good to me and definitely improved the question. However, you just gave someone's baby a new hair cut and they took it personally, no matter that it was an improvement. The changes were too large for that particular OP to be happy with.
Some people don't want to be helped, some people are happy with a bit of help, others are comfortable with more extensive revisions. Unfortunately, it's hard to predict how people will react, so the main recommendation I can make is that your edits should change the question as little as possible while improving it as much as possible. A fine balancing act that's more art than science. | When I am approving or rejecting edits made by others to posts made by others, I reject about two-thirds of them and only approve them if they are either absolutely necessary, or if correct a typo or formatting issue that is clearly inadvertent.
Editing for style is IMHO almost always ill advised, and when I edit, I am always a minimalist, not adding any unnecessary verbiage or changing the original in any way that is unnecessary. Editing stylistic points is much more irritating than any other kind of edit.
If a question is clear enough to understand well enough to edit without a comment, it almost never needs editing for clarity. If a question is unclear, usually a comment asking for clarification is better. We're in the business of communication, not polished publication of the Stack Exchange posts themselves. Editing is generally not justified by a desire to make the post itself beautiful in the eyes of the editor.
In this particular case, the edit had a sentence fragment that made no sense, changed a couple of preposition/linking words in a manner that were incorrect in usage, changed a consistent tense in the original to a mixed tense in the paragraph, added junk words, garbled the flow of ideas (because clauses in a complex sentence don't map sequentially to separate sentences) and left a writing style that sounded stiff and awkward. An edited post here conveys the impression (sometimes inaccurately) that the author wrote it and it is much less natural to see the edit history if you are just reading it, so that is not cool.
Any time you edit someone else's work, you have a much higher responsibility to be 100% correct than you do when writing or editing your own work. Having an unapproved edit made, when the edit contains an obvious mistake and some subtle mistakes of its own, is really irksome.
It probably did need to be broken out into more than one sentence, but because the edit contained multiple errors of its own, and overdid it in making stylistic changes, and disrupted the flow of ideas from their logical order in the original, it went too far and was not welcome.
I frequently have work edited in my day job, but then, 95% of the time, I agree that the changes are an improvement, and when they don't I am usually free not to accept them and take another approach. Significantly flawed, unapproved edits are extremely rare in my normal world.
If I'd know how to revert the edit at the time (I've now learned how, but the interface doesn't make it clear how to do it), I would have done so and then addressed the run on sentence or two. But, when there are a huge number of edits made, most of which you disagree with, it is a huge and time consuming pain to go back in and fix them.
I very nearly deleted the entire post, and I am half inclined to do so even now, because seeing what was done to the post so soured my enthusiasm for having anything to do with it, or even the entire forum, for that manner.
I don't have smoke blowing out my ears any more at this point and probably won't delete the post or the account.
But a failure to even acknowledge displeasure with the edit expressed in my comment with a "sorry" really aggravated the annoyance further.
Quite frankly, I don't know why the system doesn't give the author some kind of approval or reject option for at least a while, as it does when a person which insufficient rep does an edit that requires approval. This isn't Wikipedia where questions and answers are completely and entirely a group production. |
4,176 | Recently I received some **very** negative feedback after editing [a question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/64777/what-would-happen-if-a-bacterium-hijacked-human-gender-determination) (see comments and edit history). To me, parts of the question were unstructured, and needed clarification, but to the asker, they made sense.
I edited what I thought needed clarifying, and the OP told me my edits read terribly, made poor word choices, and were too hard for them to find a way to fix. I was told I did a sloppy job, and they said they were "really offended" by the changes I made.
I asked specifically what I did wrong, and while they did not reply, they have been active on the site since then. Clearly I did *something*, and I would like to avoid doing that something again, but I do not know what that is. For such an astoundingly negative response I expect a genuine reason for the OP to be upset, but it is not clear to me why.
---
Is there a genuine reason to respond to an edit in such an overwhelmingly negative way; did I really do something "offensive" that is clear to others but not to me?
What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future? | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4176",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/users/28639/"
] | TL;DR: Unfortunately, you can't. Sorry. Some people will always dislike something.
Each question and answer on here is ultimately someone's baby. They may have just banged it out quickly without much thought or they may have conceived it with love and molded it into the exact perfect shape they desire. Whichever is the case, though, it's still their baby.
Some people will appreciate the help of others in raising their baby, helping to improve the clarity of communication, for example. Others will take it as a deep insult to their Q&A parenting skills if someone so much as tidies up a windswept semi-colon.
If people appreciate your help, then help them. If people don't (and especially if they are rude about it) then don't fret about it, move on and find people who do appreciate it. I assure you that the overwhelming reaction to helpful edits is gratitude.
In this specific case, I think the negative reaction came from the extent of your changes. The actual changes made look good to me and definitely improved the question. However, you just gave someone's baby a new hair cut and they took it personally, no matter that it was an improvement. The changes were too large for that particular OP to be happy with.
Some people don't want to be helped, some people are happy with a bit of help, others are comfortable with more extensive revisions. Unfortunately, it's hard to predict how people will react, so the main recommendation I can make is that your edits should change the question as little as possible while improving it as much as possible. A fine balancing act that's more art than science. | You asked:
>
> What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future?
>
>
>
**Do better. Make fewer mistakes.**
First, only try to improve things where you are sure that you are making them better.
Second, try not to change an author's meaning. If you have trouble discerning the author's meaning, ask about it. Avoid editing based on a guess.
Third, carefully read your proposed edits. Check if you are creating any grammar errors while you "improve" someone else's post. If you break up a run-on sentence, pay attention to which subjects, verbs, and objects correspond to each other in the original sentence. Avoid accidentally creating new sentences that mis-match the subjects, verbs, and objects.
In this example, you added two grammar errors:
* You ended a sentence with "in a manner."
* There was a sentence that ended with "[not] caught early on." You changed the subject of this sentence from "a clerical error" to "data [that] will be published". This change significantly affected the meaning of the sentence.
Try not to put words in other people's mouths.
* In this example, you added the words "I assert".
Only add redundancy when necessary.
* In this example, you changed "had started" to "had initially started".
According to your profile:
>
> I may be super disagreeable or argumentative but please don't take it personally!
> I just like to support my answers, even if it sometimes means dragging everyone else's down verbally in the process.
>
>
>
If you are "super disagreeable", expect people to "take it personally". Try not to be "super disagreeable".
Identify your mistakes. Be specific! (At least when talking to yourself.) Learn from your mistakes. Try to avoid making similar mistakes in the future. |
4,176 | Recently I received some **very** negative feedback after editing [a question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/64777/what-would-happen-if-a-bacterium-hijacked-human-gender-determination) (see comments and edit history). To me, parts of the question were unstructured, and needed clarification, but to the asker, they made sense.
I edited what I thought needed clarifying, and the OP told me my edits read terribly, made poor word choices, and were too hard for them to find a way to fix. I was told I did a sloppy job, and they said they were "really offended" by the changes I made.
I asked specifically what I did wrong, and while they did not reply, they have been active on the site since then. Clearly I did *something*, and I would like to avoid doing that something again, but I do not know what that is. For such an astoundingly negative response I expect a genuine reason for the OP to be upset, but it is not clear to me why.
---
Is there a genuine reason to respond to an edit in such an overwhelmingly negative way; did I really do something "offensive" that is clear to others but not to me?
What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future? | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4176",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/users/28639/"
] | My two cents is that the original post was readable. Your edits were more readable, and didn't really alter the meaning of anything. So on sum, your edits were good. Except that, they weren't really needed in the first place.
So the question is: is it worth tweaking a decent question to make it read a little better?
My opinion is no. I try to only edit to either a. correct obvious grammar/spelling/capitalization or b. attempt to make an interesting but clearly close-worthy question (due to too broad, or unclear what you are asking) better enough that it doesn't get closed. If the post has problems but doesn't meet the above criteria, I prefer to nag them from the comments.
More philosophically, it is great when more people take ownership of Worldbuilding and attempt to make questions and answers better. But there is no 'right way' to do it. So its not that your edit was bad, but you just saw first-hand how needlessly editing a post, even if you are strictly editing in improvements, might conflict with the author's intent (somehow). | When I am approving or rejecting edits made by others to posts made by others, I reject about two-thirds of them and only approve them if they are either absolutely necessary, or if correct a typo or formatting issue that is clearly inadvertent.
Editing for style is IMHO almost always ill advised, and when I edit, I am always a minimalist, not adding any unnecessary verbiage or changing the original in any way that is unnecessary. Editing stylistic points is much more irritating than any other kind of edit.
If a question is clear enough to understand well enough to edit without a comment, it almost never needs editing for clarity. If a question is unclear, usually a comment asking for clarification is better. We're in the business of communication, not polished publication of the Stack Exchange posts themselves. Editing is generally not justified by a desire to make the post itself beautiful in the eyes of the editor.
In this particular case, the edit had a sentence fragment that made no sense, changed a couple of preposition/linking words in a manner that were incorrect in usage, changed a consistent tense in the original to a mixed tense in the paragraph, added junk words, garbled the flow of ideas (because clauses in a complex sentence don't map sequentially to separate sentences) and left a writing style that sounded stiff and awkward. An edited post here conveys the impression (sometimes inaccurately) that the author wrote it and it is much less natural to see the edit history if you are just reading it, so that is not cool.
Any time you edit someone else's work, you have a much higher responsibility to be 100% correct than you do when writing or editing your own work. Having an unapproved edit made, when the edit contains an obvious mistake and some subtle mistakes of its own, is really irksome.
It probably did need to be broken out into more than one sentence, but because the edit contained multiple errors of its own, and overdid it in making stylistic changes, and disrupted the flow of ideas from their logical order in the original, it went too far and was not welcome.
I frequently have work edited in my day job, but then, 95% of the time, I agree that the changes are an improvement, and when they don't I am usually free not to accept them and take another approach. Significantly flawed, unapproved edits are extremely rare in my normal world.
If I'd know how to revert the edit at the time (I've now learned how, but the interface doesn't make it clear how to do it), I would have done so and then addressed the run on sentence or two. But, when there are a huge number of edits made, most of which you disagree with, it is a huge and time consuming pain to go back in and fix them.
I very nearly deleted the entire post, and I am half inclined to do so even now, because seeing what was done to the post so soured my enthusiasm for having anything to do with it, or even the entire forum, for that manner.
I don't have smoke blowing out my ears any more at this point and probably won't delete the post or the account.
But a failure to even acknowledge displeasure with the edit expressed in my comment with a "sorry" really aggravated the annoyance further.
Quite frankly, I don't know why the system doesn't give the author some kind of approval or reject option for at least a while, as it does when a person which insufficient rep does an edit that requires approval. This isn't Wikipedia where questions and answers are completely and entirely a group production. |
4,176 | Recently I received some **very** negative feedback after editing [a question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/64777/what-would-happen-if-a-bacterium-hijacked-human-gender-determination) (see comments and edit history). To me, parts of the question were unstructured, and needed clarification, but to the asker, they made sense.
I edited what I thought needed clarifying, and the OP told me my edits read terribly, made poor word choices, and were too hard for them to find a way to fix. I was told I did a sloppy job, and they said they were "really offended" by the changes I made.
I asked specifically what I did wrong, and while they did not reply, they have been active on the site since then. Clearly I did *something*, and I would like to avoid doing that something again, but I do not know what that is. For such an astoundingly negative response I expect a genuine reason for the OP to be upset, but it is not clear to me why.
---
Is there a genuine reason to respond to an edit in such an overwhelmingly negative way; did I really do something "offensive" that is clear to others but not to me?
What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future? | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4176",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/users/28639/"
] | My two cents is that the original post was readable. Your edits were more readable, and didn't really alter the meaning of anything. So on sum, your edits were good. Except that, they weren't really needed in the first place.
So the question is: is it worth tweaking a decent question to make it read a little better?
My opinion is no. I try to only edit to either a. correct obvious grammar/spelling/capitalization or b. attempt to make an interesting but clearly close-worthy question (due to too broad, or unclear what you are asking) better enough that it doesn't get closed. If the post has problems but doesn't meet the above criteria, I prefer to nag them from the comments.
More philosophically, it is great when more people take ownership of Worldbuilding and attempt to make questions and answers better. But there is no 'right way' to do it. So its not that your edit was bad, but you just saw first-hand how needlessly editing a post, even if you are strictly editing in improvements, might conflict with the author's intent (somehow). | You asked:
>
> What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future?
>
>
>
**Do better. Make fewer mistakes.**
First, only try to improve things where you are sure that you are making them better.
Second, try not to change an author's meaning. If you have trouble discerning the author's meaning, ask about it. Avoid editing based on a guess.
Third, carefully read your proposed edits. Check if you are creating any grammar errors while you "improve" someone else's post. If you break up a run-on sentence, pay attention to which subjects, verbs, and objects correspond to each other in the original sentence. Avoid accidentally creating new sentences that mis-match the subjects, verbs, and objects.
In this example, you added two grammar errors:
* You ended a sentence with "in a manner."
* There was a sentence that ended with "[not] caught early on." You changed the subject of this sentence from "a clerical error" to "data [that] will be published". This change significantly affected the meaning of the sentence.
Try not to put words in other people's mouths.
* In this example, you added the words "I assert".
Only add redundancy when necessary.
* In this example, you changed "had started" to "had initially started".
According to your profile:
>
> I may be super disagreeable or argumentative but please don't take it personally!
> I just like to support my answers, even if it sometimes means dragging everyone else's down verbally in the process.
>
>
>
If you are "super disagreeable", expect people to "take it personally". Try not to be "super disagreeable".
Identify your mistakes. Be specific! (At least when talking to yourself.) Learn from your mistakes. Try to avoid making similar mistakes in the future. |
4,176 | Recently I received some **very** negative feedback after editing [a question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/64777/what-would-happen-if-a-bacterium-hijacked-human-gender-determination) (see comments and edit history). To me, parts of the question were unstructured, and needed clarification, but to the asker, they made sense.
I edited what I thought needed clarifying, and the OP told me my edits read terribly, made poor word choices, and were too hard for them to find a way to fix. I was told I did a sloppy job, and they said they were "really offended" by the changes I made.
I asked specifically what I did wrong, and while they did not reply, they have been active on the site since then. Clearly I did *something*, and I would like to avoid doing that something again, but I do not know what that is. For such an astoundingly negative response I expect a genuine reason for the OP to be upset, but it is not clear to me why.
---
Is there a genuine reason to respond to an edit in such an overwhelmingly negative way; did I really do something "offensive" that is clear to others but not to me?
What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future? | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4176",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/users/28639/"
] | When I am approving or rejecting edits made by others to posts made by others, I reject about two-thirds of them and only approve them if they are either absolutely necessary, or if correct a typo or formatting issue that is clearly inadvertent.
Editing for style is IMHO almost always ill advised, and when I edit, I am always a minimalist, not adding any unnecessary verbiage or changing the original in any way that is unnecessary. Editing stylistic points is much more irritating than any other kind of edit.
If a question is clear enough to understand well enough to edit without a comment, it almost never needs editing for clarity. If a question is unclear, usually a comment asking for clarification is better. We're in the business of communication, not polished publication of the Stack Exchange posts themselves. Editing is generally not justified by a desire to make the post itself beautiful in the eyes of the editor.
In this particular case, the edit had a sentence fragment that made no sense, changed a couple of preposition/linking words in a manner that were incorrect in usage, changed a consistent tense in the original to a mixed tense in the paragraph, added junk words, garbled the flow of ideas (because clauses in a complex sentence don't map sequentially to separate sentences) and left a writing style that sounded stiff and awkward. An edited post here conveys the impression (sometimes inaccurately) that the author wrote it and it is much less natural to see the edit history if you are just reading it, so that is not cool.
Any time you edit someone else's work, you have a much higher responsibility to be 100% correct than you do when writing or editing your own work. Having an unapproved edit made, when the edit contains an obvious mistake and some subtle mistakes of its own, is really irksome.
It probably did need to be broken out into more than one sentence, but because the edit contained multiple errors of its own, and overdid it in making stylistic changes, and disrupted the flow of ideas from their logical order in the original, it went too far and was not welcome.
I frequently have work edited in my day job, but then, 95% of the time, I agree that the changes are an improvement, and when they don't I am usually free not to accept them and take another approach. Significantly flawed, unapproved edits are extremely rare in my normal world.
If I'd know how to revert the edit at the time (I've now learned how, but the interface doesn't make it clear how to do it), I would have done so and then addressed the run on sentence or two. But, when there are a huge number of edits made, most of which you disagree with, it is a huge and time consuming pain to go back in and fix them.
I very nearly deleted the entire post, and I am half inclined to do so even now, because seeing what was done to the post so soured my enthusiasm for having anything to do with it, or even the entire forum, for that manner.
I don't have smoke blowing out my ears any more at this point and probably won't delete the post or the account.
But a failure to even acknowledge displeasure with the edit expressed in my comment with a "sorry" really aggravated the annoyance further.
Quite frankly, I don't know why the system doesn't give the author some kind of approval or reject option for at least a while, as it does when a person which insufficient rep does an edit that requires approval. This isn't Wikipedia where questions and answers are completely and entirely a group production. | You asked:
>
> What should I do better if I am at fault so I don't receive such negative feedback in the future?
>
>
>
**Do better. Make fewer mistakes.**
First, only try to improve things where you are sure that you are making them better.
Second, try not to change an author's meaning. If you have trouble discerning the author's meaning, ask about it. Avoid editing based on a guess.
Third, carefully read your proposed edits. Check if you are creating any grammar errors while you "improve" someone else's post. If you break up a run-on sentence, pay attention to which subjects, verbs, and objects correspond to each other in the original sentence. Avoid accidentally creating new sentences that mis-match the subjects, verbs, and objects.
In this example, you added two grammar errors:
* You ended a sentence with "in a manner."
* There was a sentence that ended with "[not] caught early on." You changed the subject of this sentence from "a clerical error" to "data [that] will be published". This change significantly affected the meaning of the sentence.
Try not to put words in other people's mouths.
* In this example, you added the words "I assert".
Only add redundancy when necessary.
* In this example, you changed "had started" to "had initially started".
According to your profile:
>
> I may be super disagreeable or argumentative but please don't take it personally!
> I just like to support my answers, even if it sometimes means dragging everyone else's down verbally in the process.
>
>
>
If you are "super disagreeable", expect people to "take it personally". Try not to be "super disagreeable".
Identify your mistakes. Be specific! (At least when talking to yourself.) Learn from your mistakes. Try to avoid making similar mistakes in the future. |
9,901,885 | I want to convert Notes Richtext into PDF in a server program (preferably Java). Is there any sample code how to do that. Converting to HTML/MIME isn't an option since the conversion process is too lossy. | 2012/03/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9901885",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/131021/"
] | I did some tests with DXL, some XSLT code and XSL:FO, via FOP. It produced some PDF output. Project abandoned due to lack of funding (read: no customer).
The basics, in a recent document: <http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/library/x-xslfo/> | You'll need to find some third-party software to help, as this isn't possible out of the box. Here's one that looks promising: [SWING Software's Lotus Notes Export to PDF](http://www.swingsoftware.com/pdf-converter/overview?gclid=CMnvuZ6xia8CFUXc4AodyGCa_Q) |
10,643,313 | I am trying to send email to a Lotus Notes group from a Lotus Notes application, But email is sent to Outlook group with same name. Is there any way that email be sent to LN group not to exchange group.
Here LN is not used for mailing anymore. It is done by Exchange. | 2012/05/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10643313",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/486289/"
] | Yes this is possible. Making a few assumptions about your setup it sounds like at one of our clients. Domino is used for apps but exchange for email, with domino routing mail via exchange.
The the domain is something like xyz.com then sending a mail to "MyGroup" will go to MyGroup.xyz.com and via exchange.
To send just to domino you need to use the Local primary Internet domain which is configured under the Messaging\Domains section in server config on Conversions tab. In our case it's domino.xyz.com so sending a mail to mygroup@domino.xyz.com would go to domino and not routed to exchange | Set your Notes group's type as 'Access Control List' only, so it won't be considered a mailable name. |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | Please, use MySQL.
There is almost no excuse to use Access backend.
Like you said, Access has very poor connection abilities (every time the database is open, a connection is created as long as the program is still opened). Also, it has poor backup options (do you really want to make copies of the file every day?).
Also, Access has a "repair and compress database" option (for MDB, not sure about the newer format). It has a poor record of data consistency from what I experience with MDBs daily.
MySQL gives you a reliable data store, connections can be pooled properly, it has transaction support, and you can also run proper backups on it.
You can have a MySQL backend, and use Access forms as a frontend. I expect this should be a good enough compromise, and lets you scale it easily. | If you are the one that has to maintain the application also in future then drop the idea of Access and change into MySQL.
Access is only for personal use (or maybe with some small number of co-users) |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | Please, use MySQL.
There is almost no excuse to use Access backend.
Like you said, Access has very poor connection abilities (every time the database is open, a connection is created as long as the program is still opened). Also, it has poor backup options (do you really want to make copies of the file every day?).
Also, Access has a "repair and compress database" option (for MDB, not sure about the newer format). It has a poor record of data consistency from what I experience with MDBs daily.
MySQL gives you a reliable data store, connections can be pooled properly, it has transaction support, and you can also run proper backups on it.
You can have a MySQL backend, and use Access forms as a frontend. I expect this should be a good enough compromise, and lets you scale it easily. | the number of users for your app shouldnt matter, u should use mysql simply because it's free. robust, can handle heavy traffic and very professional. it has pretty much clients for any programming language and there are tons of documentation in the internet.
i hope this will help |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | Please, use MySQL.
There is almost no excuse to use Access backend.
Like you said, Access has very poor connection abilities (every time the database is open, a connection is created as long as the program is still opened). Also, it has poor backup options (do you really want to make copies of the file every day?).
Also, Access has a "repair and compress database" option (for MDB, not sure about the newer format). It has a poor record of data consistency from what I experience with MDBs daily.
MySQL gives you a reliable data store, connections can be pooled properly, it has transaction support, and you can also run proper backups on it.
You can have a MySQL backend, and use Access forms as a frontend. I expect this should be a good enough compromise, and lets you scale it easily. | I have seen Access database have real poor security and which is terribly slow. If at all you intend to open your access database after a few days of running in production, you will see the how slow it can be.
Though it looks like you are new to MySQL, you will not need much of a learning curve to work with it. MySQL have lot of users that you will get a good support for you MySQL related questions also. And the best of all you will be able to learn MySQL, which i am sure you will use later for other applications you create. |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | MySql can handle very large projects, it's stable, updated and free, so I think you shouldn't think to go on with Access.
Connecting to MySql will be quite easy: include MySql.Data.dll and change db connection string, it's easy and you'll find a lot of examples on internet.
If your app should only talk with db in intranet, simply install MySql on a server and connect your app using server ip and port. | If you are the one that has to maintain the application also in future then drop the idea of Access and change into MySQL.
Access is only for personal use (or maybe with some small number of co-users) |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | I have seen Access database have real poor security and which is terribly slow. If at all you intend to open your access database after a few days of running in production, you will see the how slow it can be.
Though it looks like you are new to MySQL, you will not need much of a learning curve to work with it. MySQL have lot of users that you will get a good support for you MySQL related questions also. And the best of all you will be able to learn MySQL, which i am sure you will use later for other applications you create. | If you are the one that has to maintain the application also in future then drop the idea of Access and change into MySQL.
Access is only for personal use (or maybe with some small number of co-users) |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | MySql can handle very large projects, it's stable, updated and free, so I think you shouldn't think to go on with Access.
Connecting to MySql will be quite easy: include MySql.Data.dll and change db connection string, it's easy and you'll find a lot of examples on internet.
If your app should only talk with db in intranet, simply install MySql on a server and connect your app using server ip and port. | the number of users for your app shouldnt matter, u should use mysql simply because it's free. robust, can handle heavy traffic and very professional. it has pretty much clients for any programming language and there are tons of documentation in the internet.
i hope this will help |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | MySql can handle very large projects, it's stable, updated and free, so I think you shouldn't think to go on with Access.
Connecting to MySql will be quite easy: include MySql.Data.dll and change db connection string, it's easy and you'll find a lot of examples on internet.
If your app should only talk with db in intranet, simply install MySql on a server and connect your app using server ip and port. | I have seen Access database have real poor security and which is terribly slow. If at all you intend to open your access database after a few days of running in production, you will see the how slow it can be.
Though it looks like you are new to MySQL, you will not need much of a learning curve to work with it. MySQL have lot of users that you will get a good support for you MySQL related questions also. And the best of all you will be able to learn MySQL, which i am sure you will use later for other applications you create. |
7,511,271 | I know this is not a technical related question.But i do not have any idea.I am going to develop a project which should be supported in both phone and tablet.Is it possible having one project working for both tablet and phone ? | 2011/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7511271",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/861679/"
] | I have seen Access database have real poor security and which is terribly slow. If at all you intend to open your access database after a few days of running in production, you will see the how slow it can be.
Though it looks like you are new to MySQL, you will not need much of a learning curve to work with it. MySQL have lot of users that you will get a good support for you MySQL related questions also. And the best of all you will be able to learn MySQL, which i am sure you will use later for other applications you create. | the number of users for your app shouldnt matter, u should use mysql simply because it's free. robust, can handle heavy traffic and very professional. it has pretty much clients for any programming language and there are tons of documentation in the internet.
i hope this will help |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | >
> The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER
>
>
>
The charges lose potential energy, not kinetic energy. Since they're not slowing down, it's not a problem.
Imagine that I let my car drift down a mountain. The engine isn't running, but I'm in control with the brake pedal. And I'm going to make sure the car always moves at exactly 15 mph.
The car starts with some energy at the top of the mountain. As it moves, it pushes energy into the brakes. Why doesn't the car slow down? Because it's gaining exactly the same amount of energy by dropping down the mountain. The speed and kinetic energy don't change because the energy sent into the brakes is identical to the change in potential energy by moving lower down the mountain. Or you could say the force from the brakes is balanced by the force from gravity.
If the slope is steep, I press harder on the brakes and they get hotter. If the slope is gentle, I release the brakes and they cool off a bit.
In the circuit, when the charges move through the resistor, the energy lost to the resistor is balanced by the energy from the electric field. The resistor is trying to slow down the charge, but the field in the resistor is pushing them along so they keep their speed.
At the "end" of the circuit, the charges have minimal potential energy (like the car at the bottom of the mountain). The voltage source does work on the charges and moves them to the part of the circuit with the greatest potential energy. | @Farcher answer, particularly the last paragraph, sums it up perfectly. The positive work done by the electric field on the charge giving the charge kinetic energy equals the negative work done by the lattice structure that takes away the kinetic energy of the charge increasing the internal energy of the structure. Ultimately, the energy is dissipated as light and heat to the surroundings (a.k.a resistance heating).
A mechanical analog is pushing an object at constant velocity on a surface with friction. The positive work done in pushing the box between two points exactly equals the negative friction work for a net work of zero and no change in the kinetic energy (velocity) of the box. The result is an increase in the temperature at the interface and eventual heat transfer to the surroundings.
Although not exact, you can think of the external force as analogous to the electric field force, the box analogous to the charge, the velocity analogous to current, and the surface with friction analogous to electrical resistance.
Hope this helps. |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | The question
>
> The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
>
>
>
shows that you have a misconception about the motion of the conduction electrons.
If you were correct then to maintain the same current around a circuit by a miracle more conduction electrons would need to contribute to the conduction process as you went around the circuit.
If this did not happen then the conduction electrons would move slower and slower and . . . . . eventually stop?
In fact what happens is that the electrons gain kinetic energy (and lose electric potential energy) between collision with the lattice (bound) ions from the electric field in the wire and then lose that extra kinetic energy to the lattice ions upon collision with them.
The net effect is that the temperature of the material increases as the internal kinetic energy of the material has increased (the lattice ions vibrate more) and the conduction electrons move along the conductor with a constant average speed. | Ok , so I think that confusion lies in the concept of current. When we apply potential difference through a circuit having resistance, a single electron does not move from one end to the other. What actually happens is that it replaces electron next to it which in turn replaces the electron next to it and this happens till the last electron reaches the other terminal. The resistance from beginning itself shows its effect on the movement of charge and not when the charge passes through it. What u say is that a charge when passing through a resistance should lose energy and hence current shoould slow down is partially correct. Yes, resistance does slow down the movement of electron but that effect is observed in overall circuit and not just in the path where resistance is connected. |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | The circuit in its whole will settle into an equilibrium state.
If you were to shoot a very short pulse of electrons through your lamp, then indeed, the current would decrease right after the lamp.
But if you have a constant flow, then, as another user illustrated, you'd have electrons bunch up right before the lamp, which limits the output, but ALSO the input! The "traffic jam" works its way backwards, all the way to the source, and eventually slows down all electrons from source to lamp. | @Farcher answer, particularly the last paragraph, sums it up perfectly. The positive work done by the electric field on the charge giving the charge kinetic energy equals the negative work done by the lattice structure that takes away the kinetic energy of the charge increasing the internal energy of the structure. Ultimately, the energy is dissipated as light and heat to the surroundings (a.k.a resistance heating).
A mechanical analog is pushing an object at constant velocity on a surface with friction. The positive work done in pushing the box between two points exactly equals the negative friction work for a net work of zero and no change in the kinetic energy (velocity) of the box. The result is an increase in the temperature at the interface and eventual heat transfer to the surroundings.
Although not exact, you can think of the external force as analogous to the electric field force, the box analogous to the charge, the velocity analogous to current, and the surface with friction analogous to electrical resistance.
Hope this helps. |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | The circuit in its whole will settle into an equilibrium state.
If you were to shoot a very short pulse of electrons through your lamp, then indeed, the current would decrease right after the lamp.
But if you have a constant flow, then, as another user illustrated, you'd have electrons bunch up right before the lamp, which limits the output, but ALSO the input! The "traffic jam" works its way backwards, all the way to the source, and eventually slows down all electrons from source to lamp. | Here is why the current stays the same going through the bulb:
Think of current as water flowing downstream in a river. The water comes to a dam, and flows over the top, and then falls all the way down to the bottom of the dam, then resumes flowing downstream. Every gallon of water that was flowing in the river will go over the top of the dam. Every gallon of water that flows over the top will fall to the bottom. Every gallon that falls to the bottom resumes flowing downstream. Therefore, every single gallon of water that was originally flowing downstream before coming to the dam will wind up flowing downstream again after leaving the dam behind.
We say that water is *conserved*. One gallon in, one gallon out. Current through a circuit behaves the same way: One ampere in, one ampere out. |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | >
> The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER
>
>
>
The charges lose potential energy, not kinetic energy. Since they're not slowing down, it's not a problem.
Imagine that I let my car drift down a mountain. The engine isn't running, but I'm in control with the brake pedal. And I'm going to make sure the car always moves at exactly 15 mph.
The car starts with some energy at the top of the mountain. As it moves, it pushes energy into the brakes. Why doesn't the car slow down? Because it's gaining exactly the same amount of energy by dropping down the mountain. The speed and kinetic energy don't change because the energy sent into the brakes is identical to the change in potential energy by moving lower down the mountain. Or you could say the force from the brakes is balanced by the force from gravity.
If the slope is steep, I press harder on the brakes and they get hotter. If the slope is gentle, I release the brakes and they cool off a bit.
In the circuit, when the charges move through the resistor, the energy lost to the resistor is balanced by the energy from the electric field. The resistor is trying to slow down the charge, but the field in the resistor is pushing them along so they keep their speed.
At the "end" of the circuit, the charges have minimal potential energy (like the car at the bottom of the mountain). The voltage source does work on the charges and moves them to the part of the circuit with the greatest potential energy. | Ok , so I think that confusion lies in the concept of current. When we apply potential difference through a circuit having resistance, a single electron does not move from one end to the other. What actually happens is that it replaces electron next to it which in turn replaces the electron next to it and this happens till the last electron reaches the other terminal. The resistance from beginning itself shows its effect on the movement of charge and not when the charge passes through it. What u say is that a charge when passing through a resistance should lose energy and hence current shoould slow down is partially correct. Yes, resistance does slow down the movement of electron but that effect is observed in overall circuit and not just in the path where resistance is connected. |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | Ok , so I think that confusion lies in the concept of current. When we apply potential difference through a circuit having resistance, a single electron does not move from one end to the other. What actually happens is that it replaces electron next to it which in turn replaces the electron next to it and this happens till the last electron reaches the other terminal. The resistance from beginning itself shows its effect on the movement of charge and not when the charge passes through it. What u say is that a charge when passing through a resistance should lose energy and hence current shoould slow down is partially correct. Yes, resistance does slow down the movement of electron but that effect is observed in overall circuit and not just in the path where resistance is connected. | Here is why the current stays the same going through the bulb:
Think of current as water flowing downstream in a river. The water comes to a dam, and flows over the top, and then falls all the way down to the bottom of the dam, then resumes flowing downstream. Every gallon of water that was flowing in the river will go over the top of the dam. Every gallon of water that flows over the top will fall to the bottom. Every gallon that falls to the bottom resumes flowing downstream. Therefore, every single gallon of water that was originally flowing downstream before coming to the dam will wind up flowing downstream again after leaving the dam behind.
We say that water is *conserved*. One gallon in, one gallon out. Current through a circuit behaves the same way: One ampere in, one ampere out. |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | The circuit in its whole will settle into an equilibrium state.
If you were to shoot a very short pulse of electrons through your lamp, then indeed, the current would decrease right after the lamp.
But if you have a constant flow, then, as another user illustrated, you'd have electrons bunch up right before the lamp, which limits the output, but ALSO the input! The "traffic jam" works its way backwards, all the way to the source, and eventually slows down all electrons from source to lamp. | There's a lot of overly complicated answers here. I will keep it as simple as possible, and try to address your points.
Current is the movement of Electrons. Protons don't move.
A power supply does not "produce current" as such. Current is caused by Voltage (which is a difference in electrical potential.)
The best analogy is water pressure. Voltage is the water pressure, the resistor is your tap or faucet, current is the flow of water. If your tap is partially on and left constant, then the flow of water is determined by the "Voltage". The higher the water pressure, the higher the flow. Alternatively, with the pressure constant, you can vary the "resistance" with the tap. Open the tap more = lower resistance = higher water flow.
So the formula is Current = Voltage/Resistance.
There can be some confusion when we talk about a circuit being a "10Amp Circuit" but that is the maximum current, not a constant.
Lets consider a simple example using a Car Battery, which is typically referred to as 12 Volts. (Its actually closer to 13, but we like even numbers)
It is always at 12V, even with no current flowing. Once a circuit is completed, current begins to flow. For the purposes of discussion we can ignore the resistance of the wires and focus on the light bulbs. Something like a brake-light would have resistance of about 12ohms so the current for one light would be around 1amps.
Whereas a headlight has lower resistance, around 3ohms, so the current would be around 4amps.
That's the tricky part to understand. A brighter, more powerful light, actually has LOWER resistance.
Again, I'll go back to the water example, only lets make the water hot, and say you're trying to heat something up by running hot water over it. The faster the water, the more heat is put into it.
Hope that helps |
529,224 | I understand when we say current, we mean charge (protons/electrons) passing past a point per second. And the charges have energy due to the e.m.f. of the power supply.
Now tell me, if a lamp has resistance and you hook it in the circuit, how will the current stay the same? The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
[Edit]
All answers explained a bit of everything, so it was hard to choose one. If YOU are looking for an answer, please check the others too, in case the accepted one doesn't answer your question. | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/529224",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/253144/"
] | The question
>
> The charges obviously lose energy in the lamp and so become SLOWER, which should mean current decreases, right?
>
>
>
shows that you have a misconception about the motion of the conduction electrons.
If you were correct then to maintain the same current around a circuit by a miracle more conduction electrons would need to contribute to the conduction process as you went around the circuit.
If this did not happen then the conduction electrons would move slower and slower and . . . . . eventually stop?
In fact what happens is that the electrons gain kinetic energy (and lose electric potential energy) between collision with the lattice (bound) ions from the electric field in the wire and then lose that extra kinetic energy to the lattice ions upon collision with them.
The net effect is that the temperature of the material increases as the internal kinetic energy of the material has increased (the lattice ions vibrate more) and the conduction electrons move along the conductor with a constant average speed. | @Farcher answer, particularly the last paragraph, sums it up perfectly. The positive work done by the electric field on the charge giving the charge kinetic energy equals the negative work done by the lattice structure that takes away the kinetic energy of the charge increasing the internal energy of the structure. Ultimately, the energy is dissipated as light and heat to the surroundings (a.k.a resistance heating).
A mechanical analog is pushing an object at constant velocity on a surface with friction. The positive work done in pushing the box between two points exactly equals the negative friction work for a net work of zero and no change in the kinetic energy (velocity) of the box. The result is an increase in the temperature at the interface and eventual heat transfer to the surroundings.
Although not exact, you can think of the external force as analogous to the electric field force, the box analogous to the charge, the velocity analogous to current, and the surface with friction analogous to electrical resistance.
Hope this helps. |
553,615 | I came across the term 'everyday people' in an unpublished essay. It strikes me as derogatory just because it is referring to people rather than to things and makes them appear common. But then there is 'common people' or 'commoners' to contend with, so I'm not very sure.
It was used like this:
>
> Everyday people trooped to the theatre to see the show.
>
>
>
Okay, so here is the exact sentence in its original context (it's from a short book review):
>
> The book is brimming with stories of everyday people who in spite of
> the curves life threw at them were able to come up strong and better.
>
>
>
What is the authoritative word on this? | 2020/12/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/553615",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/191110/"
] | I guess context is the only thing that can really give the answer. *Everyday people* can also be used as an opposite of *pretentious people* or *snobs*, in which case it is anything but derogatory I would say.
If you really want to avoid 'everyday', you could replace it by expressions like, *Normally/in normal circumstances people...*. Of course, I say this trying to guess the context, so do forgive me if it is not relevant to your particular sentence. | Mm, you see *everyday people* next to *trooped* does give you the hint of a trace of contempt or irony. Could it be that it is intended to be so? If you want to make it more neutral I would find a synonym of *trooped* (like *gathered, crowded in*, etc). Or how about
>
> All kinds of people trooped to the theatre to see the show.
>
>
> |
553,615 | I came across the term 'everyday people' in an unpublished essay. It strikes me as derogatory just because it is referring to people rather than to things and makes them appear common. But then there is 'common people' or 'commoners' to contend with, so I'm not very sure.
It was used like this:
>
> Everyday people trooped to the theatre to see the show.
>
>
>
Okay, so here is the exact sentence in its original context (it's from a short book review):
>
> The book is brimming with stories of everyday people who in spite of
> the curves life threw at them were able to come up strong and better.
>
>
>
What is the authoritative word on this? | 2020/12/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/553615",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/191110/"
] | I guess context is the only thing that can really give the answer. *Everyday people* can also be used as an opposite of *pretentious people* or *snobs*, in which case it is anything but derogatory I would say.
If you really want to avoid 'everyday', you could replace it by expressions like, *Normally/in normal circumstances people...*. Of course, I say this trying to guess the context, so do forgive me if it is not relevant to your particular sentence. | A word will be derogatory if either the speaker (or writer) uses the word with the intent of being derogatory, or the hearer (or reader) interprets it in a way they see as derogatory. If a person sees him or herself as being above others in value or quality they would use “everyday people” as a derogatory phrase.
One issue we run into is that society is often that which determines whether or not a word is derogatory. At one point in time, the “n-word” was used, at times, without any derogatory intent (some certainly used it in a demeaning way, but not all). Over time though, that word became pretty well accepted as an inappropriate, derogatory word – even if it was spoken with no demeaning intent.
As society moves toward ‘politically correct’ labels, I can see where the same will hold true for “everyday people”. Over time, I can see where people will say, “whether you intended it or not, that’s derogatory – no one is more or less common (or everyday) than anyone else.” |
553,615 | I came across the term 'everyday people' in an unpublished essay. It strikes me as derogatory just because it is referring to people rather than to things and makes them appear common. But then there is 'common people' or 'commoners' to contend with, so I'm not very sure.
It was used like this:
>
> Everyday people trooped to the theatre to see the show.
>
>
>
Okay, so here is the exact sentence in its original context (it's from a short book review):
>
> The book is brimming with stories of everyday people who in spite of
> the curves life threw at them were able to come up strong and better.
>
>
>
What is the authoritative word on this? | 2020/12/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/553615",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/191110/"
] | A word will be derogatory if either the speaker (or writer) uses the word with the intent of being derogatory, or the hearer (or reader) interprets it in a way they see as derogatory. If a person sees him or herself as being above others in value or quality they would use “everyday people” as a derogatory phrase.
One issue we run into is that society is often that which determines whether or not a word is derogatory. At one point in time, the “n-word” was used, at times, without any derogatory intent (some certainly used it in a demeaning way, but not all). Over time though, that word became pretty well accepted as an inappropriate, derogatory word – even if it was spoken with no demeaning intent.
As society moves toward ‘politically correct’ labels, I can see where the same will hold true for “everyday people”. Over time, I can see where people will say, “whether you intended it or not, that’s derogatory – no one is more or less common (or everyday) than anyone else.” | Mm, you see *everyday people* next to *trooped* does give you the hint of a trace of contempt or irony. Could it be that it is intended to be so? If you want to make it more neutral I would find a synonym of *trooped* (like *gathered, crowded in*, etc). Or how about
>
> All kinds of people trooped to the theatre to see the show.
>
>
> |
13,019,140 | I'm working on a system which allows imported files to be localized into other languages.
This is mostly a private project to get the hang of MVC3, EntityFramework, LINQ, etcetera. Therefore I like doing some crazy things to spice up the end result, one of those things would be the recognition of similar strings.
Imagine you have the following list of strings - borrowed from a game I've worked with in the past:
* Megabeth: Holy Roller Uniform - Includes Head, Torso, and Legs
* Megabeth: Holy Roller Uniform Head
* Megabeth: Holy Roller Uniform Legs
* Megabeth: Holy Roller Uniform Torso
* Megabeth: PAX East 2012 Uniform - Includes Head, Torso, and Legs
* Megabeth: PAX East 2012 Uniform Head
* Megabeth: PAX East 2012 Uniform Legs
* Megabeth: PAX East 2012 Uniform Torso
As you can see, once users have translated the first 4 strings, the following 4 share a lot of similarities, in this case:
* Megabeth
* Uniform
* Includes Head, Torso, and Legs
* Head
* Legs
* Torso
Consider the first 4 strings are indeed already translated, when a user selects the 5th string from the list, what kind of algorithm or technique can I use to show the user the 1st string (and potentially others) under a sub-header of "Similar strings"?
Edit - A little comment on the Levenshtein Distance:
I'm currently targeting 10k strings in the database. Levenshtein Distance compares string per string, so in this case 10k x (10k -1) possible combinations. How would I approach this in a feasible way? Is there a better solution that this particular algorithm? | 2012/10/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13019140",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/890815/"
] | You could look into the [Levenshtein Distance](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Levenshtein_distance). Those below a certain threshold will be considered similar. Two strings that are identical will have a distance of zero.
There's a C# implementation, amongst other languages, on [Rosetta Code](http://rosettacode.org/wiki/Levenshtein_distance#C.23). | This will depend on the size of the data and how rich the vocabulary is.
Here's the first thought:
build a map of words to strings
then another map of word pairs to strings
and perhaps if data is not huge map of string triplets to strings.
Remove mappings that point at a single string (this will dramatically reduce the number of triplet mappings).
Save resulting dictionary on disk or in a database if building it takes time.
Now given a string you should be able to quickly split it into words, word pairs and triplets and look up all strings related to it. You will need to play with giving weight to a triplet matching vs 4 words matching. I.e. is
"I am an old man" closer to "an old man ate a carrot" or "man killed the old dog with an arrow" (sounds like triplet match is more important).
UPDATE: If this in a Microsoft SQL Server database you can play with full text search feature. I never tried it though.
You should also take a look at [Lucene](http://lucenenet.apache.org/). |
189,416 | I've heard people sarcastically respond with sentences of the form "then [effect of persons actions]" even though the person was not soliciting for advice.
For example
Joe: "I wrote my paper on why George Bush was a good prime minister for Canada"
Jane: "Then you are going to get a bad mark"
Should it be "then" or "than"? Initially I thought "than" as it shows the relationship between writing a poor paper and receiving a poor mark, but since it's talking about something hypothetical that may happen in the future it would be "then". | 2014/08/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/189416",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/40063/"
] | "Then".
"Then" refers to the sequence of actions. "Than" refers to a comparison between two things. In your example, "you are going to get a bad mark" follows, and is the effect of, "I wrote my paper on why George Bush was a good minister for Canada".
Since the second action results from the first, we are dealing with time order, and "Then" is appropriate. | In this case, you are looking for "Then" because "then" is a transition word that helps communicate a sequence of events. In this particular example though, I might suggest the word "consequently" or even the phrase "in that case," as they may be more clear. |
91,802 | The scenario: a level 11+ Fighter has the Feats:
* Two-Weapon Fighting
* Improved Two-Weapon Fighting
* Greater Two-Weapon Fighting
* Quick Draw
* Point Blank Shot
* Precise Shot
* Rapid Shot
How many weapons do they need in a Blinkback belt to perform his full 7 (Main, Iterative -5, Iterative -10, Rapid, TWF, ITWF, GTWF) attacks during a Full Attack?
* 1, because it returns to the belt, so it could be drawn with either hand?
* 2, because each hand needs a weapon at the start of the action?
* 4, because you can't draw them immediately for some reason?
* You can't, because you can't reuse the same weapon, you'd be capped at 4 swings plus other weapons you don't have on the belt?
* Or some reasoning I didn't even think of? Rule quotes appreciated. | 2016/12/16 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/91802",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/28326/"
] | The correct answer is 2.
The Two Weapon Fighting feat explicitly requires you to use two weapons to gain the additional offhand attack (italics mine):
>
> **Benefit:** Your penalties on attack rolls for fighting with two weapons are reduced. The penalty for your primary hand lessens by 2 and the one for your off hand lessens by 6.
>
>
> **Normal:** *If you wield a second weapon in your off hand*, you can get one extra attack per round with that weapon.
>
>
>
For the same reason that you can't use a single weapon between your main and off hands while using TWF normally, you cannot do this while throwing weapons.
The Blinkback belt teleports the weapon back to the belt immediately after the attack is resolved, so you won't need more weapons than the two needed to satisfy TWF. | As spec'd out, the fighter could have all 4 light weapons on the belt and would still be limited to 2 attacks: the blinkback effect only happens when the "wearer draws a weapon attached to this belt and throws it before the end of her next turn" after which the weapon returns "to its strap or sheath", which necessitates drawing the weapon again.
Drawing a weapon is a move action. Even though the fighter can draw a light weapon in each hand at the same time (with Two Weapon Fighting), they'd still only be able to draw two weapons (during their move action) and make two ranged attacks (during their standard action, with the resulting Two Weapon Fighting penalties on the primary attacks).
If they also had Quick Draw, two weapons would suffice - drawing then becomes a free action, so the fighter could draw weapons sufficiently quickly for all of their attacks to go off, and they could always draw both weapons to start their next (iterative) two-weapon attack. |
659,417 | Is it possible that the universe does have a center after all, but we just cannot see it because it already fell beyond the event horizon of our observable universe?
If not, how do we know this for sure if we cannot observe it? | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/659417",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/310722/"
] | Science is all about predictive power. It is entirely possible that the laws of physics are completely different from the ones we know. The universe could be managed by tiny deamons and are just waiting for someone to sound a trumpet before the walls come down. However, there's no evidence to suggest we can make predictions in this way.
What we can say is that every observation we have made is consistent with the universe having no center. If we make predictions based on this assumption, we have a curious tendency to be right.
There's nothing that prevents there from being a "center" elsewhere, if the laws of physics still resulted in the same set of observations that we see. We tend to ignore this because the results are more complicated, and they don't provide any better predictions.
To borrow from Russel's Teapot, I can predict that balls fly through the air in a (roughly) parabolic arc. I can also predict that balls fly through the air in a parabolic arc and there is a teapot orbiting around Jupiter. Unless I can make observations around Jupiter, the second theory doesn't add any more predictive capability, so we can side step it entirely.
In the case of the idea that the universe has no center, we can stick to that simplistic notation until someone finds out how to observe something outside of the observable universe. Obviously this phrasing has some drawbacks... | There are things we can observe with great precision which furnish evidence that your scenario is incorrect, as follows.
If it were true that the universe has an expansion center, then the part of the universe we inhabit would look different to us in different directions: we would see younger structures in one direction (toward the center) and older structures in the opposite direction (away from the center). This is not observed.
In addition, the younger structures toward the center would have their spectra red-shifted less and the older structures away from that center would be red-shifted more. This is not observed.
In addition, the cosmic microwave background would be strongly anisotropic in a manner that matched the spectral shifts. This is not observed either. |
659,417 | Is it possible that the universe does have a center after all, but we just cannot see it because it already fell beyond the event horizon of our observable universe?
If not, how do we know this for sure if we cannot observe it? | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/659417",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/310722/"
] | There are things we can observe with great precision which furnish evidence that your scenario is incorrect, as follows.
If it were true that the universe has an expansion center, then the part of the universe we inhabit would look different to us in different directions: we would see younger structures in one direction (toward the center) and older structures in the opposite direction (away from the center). This is not observed.
In addition, the younger structures toward the center would have their spectra red-shifted less and the older structures away from that center would be red-shifted more. This is not observed.
In addition, the cosmic microwave background would be strongly anisotropic in a manner that matched the spectral shifts. This is not observed either. | The universe [doesn't have a center](https://www.livescience.com/62547-what-is-center-of-universe.html), so this question is not well-posed.
If your question is "can the universe have a center anyway?" then you would be challenging the Big Bang, which is something that (as of 2021) is very much in the fringe. |
659,417 | Is it possible that the universe does have a center after all, but we just cannot see it because it already fell beyond the event horizon of our observable universe?
If not, how do we know this for sure if we cannot observe it? | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/659417",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/310722/"
] | We cannot know “for sure” that the universe beyond the observable universe is the same as the part of the universe that we can observe. But “for sure” is not a benchmark that science tries to achieve (or, indeed, can achieve).
The principle of [Occam’s razor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occam%27s_razor) tells us that if we can think of several possible explanations for observable facts, we should favour the one with the fewest untestable assumptions. In this case, a cosmological model in which the universe expands uniformly in all directions and has no unique centre is better than one that assumes a centre of expansion that is so far away we can never observe it or detect any evidence of it. | There are things we can observe with great precision which furnish evidence that your scenario is incorrect, as follows.
If it were true that the universe has an expansion center, then the part of the universe we inhabit would look different to us in different directions: we would see younger structures in one direction (toward the center) and older structures in the opposite direction (away from the center). This is not observed.
In addition, the younger structures toward the center would have their spectra red-shifted less and the older structures away from that center would be red-shifted more. This is not observed.
In addition, the cosmic microwave background would be strongly anisotropic in a manner that matched the spectral shifts. This is not observed either. |
659,417 | Is it possible that the universe does have a center after all, but we just cannot see it because it already fell beyond the event horizon of our observable universe?
If not, how do we know this for sure if we cannot observe it? | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/659417",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/310722/"
] | Science is all about predictive power. It is entirely possible that the laws of physics are completely different from the ones we know. The universe could be managed by tiny deamons and are just waiting for someone to sound a trumpet before the walls come down. However, there's no evidence to suggest we can make predictions in this way.
What we can say is that every observation we have made is consistent with the universe having no center. If we make predictions based on this assumption, we have a curious tendency to be right.
There's nothing that prevents there from being a "center" elsewhere, if the laws of physics still resulted in the same set of observations that we see. We tend to ignore this because the results are more complicated, and they don't provide any better predictions.
To borrow from Russel's Teapot, I can predict that balls fly through the air in a (roughly) parabolic arc. I can also predict that balls fly through the air in a parabolic arc and there is a teapot orbiting around Jupiter. Unless I can make observations around Jupiter, the second theory doesn't add any more predictive capability, so we can side step it entirely.
In the case of the idea that the universe has no center, we can stick to that simplistic notation until someone finds out how to observe something outside of the observable universe. Obviously this phrasing has some drawbacks... | The universe [doesn't have a center](https://www.livescience.com/62547-what-is-center-of-universe.html), so this question is not well-posed.
If your question is "can the universe have a center anyway?" then you would be challenging the Big Bang, which is something that (as of 2021) is very much in the fringe. |
659,417 | Is it possible that the universe does have a center after all, but we just cannot see it because it already fell beyond the event horizon of our observable universe?
If not, how do we know this for sure if we cannot observe it? | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/659417",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/310722/"
] | Science is all about predictive power. It is entirely possible that the laws of physics are completely different from the ones we know. The universe could be managed by tiny deamons and are just waiting for someone to sound a trumpet before the walls come down. However, there's no evidence to suggest we can make predictions in this way.
What we can say is that every observation we have made is consistent with the universe having no center. If we make predictions based on this assumption, we have a curious tendency to be right.
There's nothing that prevents there from being a "center" elsewhere, if the laws of physics still resulted in the same set of observations that we see. We tend to ignore this because the results are more complicated, and they don't provide any better predictions.
To borrow from Russel's Teapot, I can predict that balls fly through the air in a (roughly) parabolic arc. I can also predict that balls fly through the air in a parabolic arc and there is a teapot orbiting around Jupiter. Unless I can make observations around Jupiter, the second theory doesn't add any more predictive capability, so we can side step it entirely.
In the case of the idea that the universe has no center, we can stick to that simplistic notation until someone finds out how to observe something outside of the observable universe. Obviously this phrasing has some drawbacks... | We cannot know “for sure” that the universe beyond the observable universe is the same as the part of the universe that we can observe. But “for sure” is not a benchmark that science tries to achieve (or, indeed, can achieve).
The principle of [Occam’s razor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occam%27s_razor) tells us that if we can think of several possible explanations for observable facts, we should favour the one with the fewest untestable assumptions. In this case, a cosmological model in which the universe expands uniformly in all directions and has no unique centre is better than one that assumes a centre of expansion that is so far away we can never observe it or detect any evidence of it. |
659,417 | Is it possible that the universe does have a center after all, but we just cannot see it because it already fell beyond the event horizon of our observable universe?
If not, how do we know this for sure if we cannot observe it? | 2021/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/659417",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/310722/"
] | We cannot know “for sure” that the universe beyond the observable universe is the same as the part of the universe that we can observe. But “for sure” is not a benchmark that science tries to achieve (or, indeed, can achieve).
The principle of [Occam’s razor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occam%27s_razor) tells us that if we can think of several possible explanations for observable facts, we should favour the one with the fewest untestable assumptions. In this case, a cosmological model in which the universe expands uniformly in all directions and has no unique centre is better than one that assumes a centre of expansion that is so far away we can never observe it or detect any evidence of it. | The universe [doesn't have a center](https://www.livescience.com/62547-what-is-center-of-universe.html), so this question is not well-posed.
If your question is "can the universe have a center anyway?" then you would be challenging the Big Bang, which is something that (as of 2021) is very much in the fringe. |
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