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41,986 | We've got a pair of SQL2000 servers that are syncing a couple of databases using merge replication. At some stage in the last few months, the merge agent for one of the databases disappeared. It's hard to say when this happened, this system is only really used for a couple of months a couple of times a year.
As far as I can tell (I'm no replication expert) both subscriptions and publications still exist, but one of them isn't doing the merge replication anymore due to the lack of merge agent. The other one is merge replicating away perfectly.
The schema is still the same between the databases, but the data has changed. The subscriber server has newer data than the publisher server.
What's the best way to get the merge agent back? I've looked in BOL, scoured the web, all this replication stuff is confusingly scary! | 2009/07/17 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/41986",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6044/"
] | Yes it is scary.
I remember a while back, that if the replication wasn't done atleast every 2 weeks (I think), by default, the subscription would expire and disappear. Its been years since I've done this so this is really hazy. For us when the end use went on vacation for 2 weeks the workstations subscription would expire (before the days of high high speed internet, we used merge replication for field units).
We changed the setting to 6 months before it would expire.
Don't know if that is your issue though, there were a lot of late nights and head scratching on that project all due to the replication........and nightmares when we did sleep.
EDIT : Something else I just remembered. The replication will run using the permissions that the SQL Agent account is running. So if there are any issues with the account the SQL Agent service is using, that will adversely the replication. | I'm not much of an expert on replication either, but when we've had to redo merge replication I just make sure the publisher has the latest data with a sql data compare tool and recreate the whole thing. I don't know if that's an option for yall, but our databases are pretty small and not geographically distant.
The tool we use is Apex SQL Data Diff. I'm sure there's plenty of other options available out there though. |
183,590 | Lately I've been seeing colour coded screw bits, like in the set below (from Lidl's store brand, Powerfix).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/v2NeN.jpg "Click for larger version")
*(Click for larger version)*
* Red for Phillips
* Blue for Pozidriv
* Orange for slotted
* Yellow for Torx
* Pink for Allen
Is this colour code universal? Or do other brands / manufacturers use different codes? | 2020/01/29 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/183590",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/24283/"
] | The colour codes are NOT universal. There is no agreed upon universal colour code for colouring bits (to my knowledge).
I have found that each brand (mostly) follows their own colour coding. Powerfix uses the colours you describe, and some brands, either intentionally or otherwise, use the same colours as other brands.
But mostly, they do not. For example, Halfords uses
* Blue: Philips
* Yellow: Pozidriv
* Red: Flat
* Green: Torx
While [Wera](https://www-uk.wera.de/en/great-tools/take-it-easy/) uses
* Red: Phillips
* Black: Pozidriv
* Green: Torx
* Blue: hex
* Yellow: flat
And then if all the tools in a set are the same, e.g. hex keys, Wera uses colours for the sizes instead. | On my set, they all have a yellow band - to help find them when you drop them I suppose, and that is for phillips. torx ie all...
My set was made by DeWalt, so not (probably) a cheap chinesium brand... I have also seen others where all the bits have a red band... |
353,686 | I'd like to use screen sharing/I'd like to VNC to a Linux OS desktop from my Mac. Mac OS version: OS X El Capitan, 10.11.15A2301. Ubuntu version: 16.04.5 LTS. I have my Mac configured to accept VNC connections by enabling file sharing, remote login and remote management and I use it to VNC to other Mac systems but I'd like to VNC to a Linux system this time. I'm assuming I'd have to use some kind of sudo apt install command to install something and enable this functionality?
Please do let me know any methods you may be familiar with, thank you. | 2019/03/12 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/353686",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/324038/"
] | It is not a question of whether this will work, but rather that this is not a wise idea. Basically, ordinary flash drives are not designed to withstand the amount of reads and writes that an operating system will require. Certain versions of linux provide a solution referred to a *persistence*. This is where the operation system creates a temporary drive in volatile RAM which can used be for read and writing. When you shutdown the operating system, the contents of this RAM drive is written to the flash drive. When you restart the operating system, the saved data is read from the flash drive into a new RAM drive.
>
> To be clear, most of the operating system is considered read only and resides on the flash drive. Only the files that may may change often reside on the RAM drive.
>
>
>
There are many utilities that can create a flash drive version of linux with persistence. However, the few I have tried would not boot on a Mac. | There are plenty of Linux distributions that are meant to run as "Live Operating Systems" on an external flash or optical disk (like BlackArch, Kali, and TailsOS for the infosec community). Performance is degraded, sure, when running an OS like that...however, you could simply make a new partition on your internal HDD from within Disk Utility, and install a Linux distro on that. I installed Lubuntu that way on my MacBook, and it works just swell. Easy steps:
1. Create a new partition your internal drive in Disk Utility (make it 32gb or whatever you deem acceptable, per your own requirements and/or system limitations, although an absolutely bare minimum of 8gb is needed for most Linux distros)
2. Download balenaEtcher (<https://www.balena.io/etcher/>) to flash the installation media to an external USB drive
3. Download whichever Linux distribution you'd like install as dual boot
4. Use Etcher to burn your installer to the USB
5. Reboot your Macbook while holding the 'option' button until you're presented with boot options, then select the USB drive as your boot disk (probably named EFI Boot, maybe something else, but something that's not the Macintosh HD option)
6. Follow the Linux installation instructions, making TOTALLY certain you target the newly-created partition as the destination disk (so, whichever partition is roughly the size of the one you had just created in Disk Utility in step one)
Note: The installation media you created can, in many cases, be used for Live OS operation. That all depends on which Linux distro you select -- Ubuntu does, and so does it's descendants, Lubuntu and Xubuntu, all of which are descendants of Debian. I'm sure there are plenty others. |
24,436 | Where can I find information on running a Gridseed miner on Mac OSX? Either BTC and/or LTC.
I'm looking for rather consistent information, by this I mean instructions with links that point to the software that works with the instructions or at least specifies the version of the software. One problem I see is that instructions are created and then the software is updated and no longer matched the instructions. | 2014/04/09 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/24436",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/10577/"
] | You can use [MacMiner](http://macminer.fabulouspanda.com/), either the CPU miner window for scrypt mode or the FPGA/ASIC window for BTC mode and the GPU window for dual mode - the last two both use bfgminer
There's more information [here](http://fabulouspanda.co.uk/blog/index.php?post/2014/02/27/Mining-with-Gridseed-ASICs-including-DualMiner-on-Mac-OS-X) and Mac mining forums [here](http://macminer.fabulouspanda.com/forum/) with lots of detailed info in some of the gridseed posts. | For the 70Khs Dualminer USB miners, I found [this post](http://blog.nwoolls.com/2014/03/21/litecoin-mining-on-mac-os-x-dualminer-asics/) to work just fine.
If you're looking for help with the 300khs 5-chip miners on Mac, I'm stuck there as well. I can't find drivers for my Mac to recognize the "STM32 Virtual COM Port". I figure once I find those, the rest should be just like in the link above. |
63,889 | I'm currently enrolled as a graduate student pursuing my masters. I'm wanting to eventually pursue a PhD, but in order to do that, I believe I need to do a thesis for my graduate degree, and for that I need a thesis adviser. What would be the best way of going about this?
There is a long list of professors, and it would take a long time to go through all of them to see what they are currently researching. I thought someone might have some experience with this and be able to offer some thoughts. | 2016/02/23 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/63889",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/49648/"
] | The list of professors *can't* be that long to just see their general research interests. This is just something you'll have to do. I've looked through all the profs at various schools with large departments and it probably took a max of 30 minutes.
**But** just reading about them isn't enough. If you can get your list down to 2-4 potential advisors then you can (A) ask for a meeting with each or (B) try to take a course with some of them.
If you have a general idea of what you want to study, it should be relatively easy to find a few that you are interested in. The harder part is convincing them to take you on :) | Do as Austin Henley's answer says, but make sure to explain you want to go on to a PhD (and be prepared to be asked *why* you want to pursue a PhD, and a master's for that matter!). There might very well be paths to a PhD without a master's, or after a master's without thesis. Which ones do exist (or even might be created just for you, as an exceptionally bright student) is very much a local matter, which we know nothing about. |
105,088 | I've been trying to harden my OSX 10.11 computer and one of the guides suggested installing Homebrew to get updates to things such as OpenSSL. While updates are great, it seems like Apple should be relatively on top of issues (a recent web test showed TLS 1.2 installed...), along with having a comprehensively tested system OS.
Would Homebrew +package updates have an additive effect with Apple security updates? Does Homebrew have known security issues in and of itself? Or would installing a package manager and associated updates change the system configuration such that, in the hands of a relatively inexperienced admin, it will ultimately be in a more vulnerable state? | 2015/11/10 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/105088",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/89455/"
] | >
> Would Homebrew +package updates have an additive effect with Apple security updates?
>
>
>
It should improve security if you leverage it to regularly update packages that Apple is either shipping out of date, or not maintaining and patching. [Example](http://meta.ath0.com/2012/02/05/apples-great-gpl-purge/)
>
> Does Homebrew have known security issues in and of itself?
>
>
>
Without a full security review this answer is [unknown](https://github.com/Homebrew/homebrew/issues/18036). Worth digging around [reported issues](https://github.com/Homebrew/homebrew/search?q=security&type=Issues&utf8=%E2%9C%93) for other security related issues.
>
> ... Would installing a package manager and associated updates change the system configuration such that, in the hands of a relatively inexperienced admin, it will ultimately be in a more vulnerable state?
>
>
>
This question leaves a lot to speculation. I believe the homebrew documentation and its community is large enough that this should not be an issue. [Deeper dive](https://github.com/drduh/OS-X-Security-and-Privacy-Guide#homebrew) into considering ways to secure OSX. | The first thing the OSX HomeBrew installer want to do is change owner of /usr/local/bin to your local user. Thus making any random executable a major security threat. I'd say it would be hard to expect any security after installing HomeBrew. |
46,752,668 | Are there any advantages to use something like HikariCP with embedded databases like SQLite, H2 or HSQLDB? (the last two can also run in server mode but I'm not interested in that)
Apart from the performance benefit (that I suppose would be negligible with embedded databases) I'm also interested in other facilities provided by the connection pool that could make the code more concise and/or robust.
I think that this question is different from [this other one](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/457287) in that it's more specific since it focuses on embedded databases, and, to a lesser degree, on HikariCP. | 2017/10/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/46752668",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8193679/"
] | Connection pools exist primarily because opening a new connection from scratch is an expensive operation. Typically, it involves TCP/IP handshake, encryption and protocol negotiation and authentication. There is some overhead when closing connection, too.
So this ultimately boils down to implementation: is opening a new connection slow enough to warrant a reuse? A connection pool makes sense if the total time for opening connections is considerable compared to time consumed by other operations, or if opening a connection incurs a critical latency. For embedded databases, the difference should be minimal as they run in the same memory space as the program itself.
However, a connection pool also has a useful side effect because it limits the maximum number of simultaneous connections. On a server with no connection pooling, an attacker can easily send a flood of requests, exhausting memory or causing a denial of service.
From perspective of code clarity and abstraction, connection pools are also nice, because they are completely transparent. If you someday decide to move from embedded to client/server, you don't have to change anything. | I can think of only one case,
If you use in development embedded database and in production **not** embedded database
>
> An embedded database is useful during the development phase of a project
>
>
>
Then you can reuse same code for connection pooling with different database without code change (using dependency injection).
In [Spring](https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/3.0.0.M4/spring-framework-reference/html/ch12s08.html) case choose the second option:
>
> Spring Jdbc's embedded database support can be extended in two ways:
>
>
> 1. Implement EmbeddedDatabaseConfigurer to support a new embedded database type, such as Apache Derby.
> 2. Implement DataSourceFactory to support a new DataSource implementation, such as a connection pool, to manage embedded database connections.
>
>
> |
10,845,275 | I am using Horizontal Scrollview in android to show images in my app,
i need to make it scroll exact to the initial of the next or previous image on the user's left or right gesture, how it can be solved, it has a linear layout (orientation horizontal) and images are loaded in that,
thanks | 2012/06/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10845275",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1166549/"
] | there is no property / method / attribute of scroll view which let you do what you want trivially.
but the good news is that the solution is simple - don't use scroll view,
but views that design for such purpose:
[ViewPager](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/support/v4/view/ViewPager.html)
[ViewSwitcher](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/widget/ViewSwitcher.html)
[ViewFlipper](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/widget/ViewFlipper.html) and [example](http://dj-android.blogspot.in/2012/03/view-flipper-example-android.html) here
[Gallery](http://developer.android.com/resources/tutorials/views/hello-gallery.html)
these three view design for showing and navigating between views with horizontal gestures.
they got attributes / properties / method to control number of view on screen. | Gallery view is best to solve this |
604,229 | >
> Minister for Foreign Affairs Penny Wong has urged the UK to confront its colonial past.
>
>
>
Speaking at King’s College’s Centre for Grand Strategy, Senator Wong highlighted the UK’s role in the Indo-Pacific region both now and in its history.
She described her own family’s history and its relationship with British colonialism.
Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – **for those whose stories they are**, and for those who hear them.”
I can understand the meaning of the words in bold. But the grammar eludes me. Please elucidate for me. | 2023/03/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/604229",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/330039/"
] | >
> *Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable* – [*for those whose*
> *stories they are,*] *and* [*for those who hear them*].
>
>
>
The bracketed elements form a coordination of two preposition phrases linked by "and", each headed by the prep "for". In each coordinate "for" has a noun phrase as its complement, i.e. "those whose stories they are", and "those who hear them.”
These noun phases contain, respectively, the relative clause "whose stories they are", and "who hear them" functioning as modifier of "those", which is understood as "the people".
In the first coordinate the genitive noun phrase "whose stories” functions as predicative complement of "are", and is anaphoric to "those". In the second coordinate "them" is anaphoric to "stories". | >
> Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – for those [whose stories they are], and for those [who hear them].
>
>
>
[Both relative clauses] combine with *those* (= "those people") to form noun phrases.
Both *they* and *them* refer to *such stories*. So the first [RC] means "such stories are their stories", where "their" refers to *those* (= "those people"). |
604,229 | >
> Minister for Foreign Affairs Penny Wong has urged the UK to confront its colonial past.
>
>
>
Speaking at King’s College’s Centre for Grand Strategy, Senator Wong highlighted the UK’s role in the Indo-Pacific region both now and in its history.
She described her own family’s history and its relationship with British colonialism.
Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – **for those whose stories they are**, and for those who hear them.”
I can understand the meaning of the words in bold. But the grammar eludes me. Please elucidate for me. | 2023/03/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/604229",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/330039/"
] | >
> Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – for those [whose stories they are], and for those [who hear them].
>
>
>
[Both relative clauses] combine with *those* (= "those people") to form noun phrases.
Both *they* and *them* refer to *such stories*. So the first [RC] means "such stories are their stories", where "their" refers to *those* (= "those people"). | I think this is not phrased properly, that it is awkward English; it seems to me that what this writer was trying to say by the means of "for those whose stories they are" was "for those who recognize themselves in the stories".
The problem : "whose stories" stands for "the stories of someone", and logically "those" is that someone, but then "they" is a subject without a logical referent. The referent cannot be "those"; it cannot be "whose stories" since there is then a redundancy; it has to be "such stories" and that is not logical.
* ~~Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – for those whose stories such storie are, and for those who hear them.~~
* Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – for those who recognize themselves in them, and for those who hear them. |
604,229 | >
> Minister for Foreign Affairs Penny Wong has urged the UK to confront its colonial past.
>
>
>
Speaking at King’s College’s Centre for Grand Strategy, Senator Wong highlighted the UK’s role in the Indo-Pacific region both now and in its history.
She described her own family’s history and its relationship with British colonialism.
Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – **for those whose stories they are**, and for those who hear them.”
I can understand the meaning of the words in bold. But the grammar eludes me. Please elucidate for me. | 2023/03/04 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/604229",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/330039/"
] | >
> *Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable* – [*for those whose*
> *stories they are,*] *and* [*for those who hear them*].
>
>
>
The bracketed elements form a coordination of two preposition phrases linked by "and", each headed by the prep "for". In each coordinate "for" has a noun phrase as its complement, i.e. "those whose stories they are", and "those who hear them.”
These noun phases contain, respectively, the relative clause "whose stories they are", and "who hear them" functioning as modifier of "those", which is understood as "the people".
In the first coordinate the genitive noun phrase "whose stories” functions as predicative complement of "are", and is anaphoric to "those". In the second coordinate "them" is anaphoric to "stories". | I think this is not phrased properly, that it is awkward English; it seems to me that what this writer was trying to say by the means of "for those whose stories they are" was "for those who recognize themselves in the stories".
The problem : "whose stories" stands for "the stories of someone", and logically "those" is that someone, but then "they" is a subject without a logical referent. The referent cannot be "those"; it cannot be "whose stories" since there is then a redundancy; it has to be "such stories" and that is not logical.
* ~~Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – for those whose stories such storie are, and for those who hear them.~~
* Ms Wong said, “Such stories can sometimes feel uncomfortable – for those who recognize themselves in them, and for those who hear them. |
254,705 | Is it natural and correct to say *talk via audio* meaning to actually talk to someone over the phone rather than text? For example:
>
> Do you prefer to talk **via** text or **audio**?
>
>
>
If it sounds off, would it be more natural to say *talk via phone call*? | 2020/07/23 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/254705",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/60696/"
] | >
> A friend of mine
>
>
>
=
My friend
You are, I suspect, misunderstanding the distinction between "a/an" and "the." The indefinite article implies that a single unspecified member of a set is being referenced; the definite article plus a singular noun implies that a singular but previously specified member of the set is being referenced. Neither usage implies anything about the size of the set (except in mathematical terms it is not empty).
>
> I have a broken finger
>
>
>
does not imply that I have only one finger. In all likelihood, I have ten. What it says is that one of my fingers is broken, but it is silent on which one.
>
> My finger is broken
>
>
>
means the same thing. "My" here has a similar meaning to the indefinite article.
>
> The forefinger on my left hand is broken.
>
>
>
I am now specifying which finger is broken so the definite article is appropriate.
Just as good is
>
> My forefinger on my left hand is broken.
>
>
>
In short, possessive pronouns like "my" can replace definite or indefinite articles, and definite and indefinite articles relate to specificity of reference | The sources you’re referring to are either misunderstood or flat-out wrong.
“My friend” simply means that the friend I’m talking about is (one of) mine, rather than someone else’s friend. It says nothing about how many friends I have.
If you need to clarify that you have exactly one friend, you would say “my only friend”.
There are certain things that people are presumed to have only one of, like hearts. If a person had a transplant, they might refer to their old/new heart, but without a qualifier, we presume they mean their current one. |
18,420 | Is there such thing as a 3D printer with a very large diameter nozzle, that can make low fidelity, large and fast prints? I'm picturing a soft serve ice-cream machine on a gantry, with a hopper. You feed it shredded plastic, and it prints bricks, or boards. | 2021/11/22 | [
"https://3dprinting.stackexchange.com/questions/18420",
"https://3dprinting.stackexchange.com",
"https://3dprinting.stackexchange.com/users/32043/"
] | Yes these exist. 3D printers using pellets is not uncommon for industry, but for the user at home this might be a different question. Pellets are the pre-fabricate before it is extruded into filament (small balls/cylinders of plastic).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0RIoy.png)
*Random image showing a variety of pellets in different colors*
There are even processes to turn used plastic into pellets, so if you combine it all this should be very doable. The problem is to get a consistent type of waste plastic to feed your machine. The size of the nozzle doesn't matter, as long as your shredding, compressing and heating process can keep up with the flow you need. It would be an excellent idea to get rid of plastic waste and turning these into building bricks e.g. for insulation of heat.
---
*I've seen prototype printers printing PEEK from pallets having a nozzle (slot) diameter of several millimeters.* | You can certainly get large nozzles, but the material for extrusion still needs to be consistent. So any chunked plastic would have to be melted and that will produce an erratic flow at the extruder.
By reforming your shredded plastic into a consistent string of filament, then the printer has a steady supply of material to use. There are already filament extruders for the small shop, but they're still expensive for the home user. The main problems are getting consistent thickness of filament, and minimising contaminants. Also colours tend to be lost and muddied. These might be economical if you have a print farm and are consuming a spool a day on average.
On a large scale, there are "3d printers" that can place a special quick-drying concrete and produce small buildings as homes in a matter of days. However they're fed a special mixture of smooth cement and accelerators to set the concrete ready for the next layer.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/y1vWs.jpg) |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | There is no best solution or framework. You'd better define, even for yourself, what exactly you want the application to do and then seek the most appropriate technology. Not to be too abstract, I'd suggest you check out Struts, Spring and GWT(Google Web Toolkit).
Each of them has its pros and cons, so it's not a matter of becoming guru in just one of them, but better knowing them all well in order to make a good decision, when one is needed. | Try <http://www.icefaces.org/main/home/> which is powerful than JSF |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | There is no best solution or framework. You'd better define, even for yourself, what exactly you want the application to do and then seek the most appropriate technology. Not to be too abstract, I'd suggest you check out Struts, Spring and GWT(Google Web Toolkit).
Each of them has its pros and cons, so it's not a matter of becoming guru in just one of them, but better knowing them all well in order to make a good decision, when one is needed. | I think [Wicket](http://wicket.apache.org/) is quite nice. But then again, I don't particularly like JSPs.
Just have a look at their [motivation](http://wicket.apache.org/introduction.html) page to see what sets them apart. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | Try [**Play! Framework**](http://www.playframework.org/). It seems to be a nice RAD framework especially for simple apps. | It all depends on your needs. Personally I prefer Spring+Struts2+Hibernate or grails. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | I think [Wicket](http://wicket.apache.org/) is quite nice. But then again, I don't particularly like JSPs.
Just have a look at their [motivation](http://wicket.apache.org/introduction.html) page to see what sets them apart. | You can use a lot frameworks to simplify framework usage and boost efficience.
I would prefer **[Spring Webflow](http://www.springsource.org/go-webflow2)**. It handles conversational state, is simple to use and you can take profit of the other features spring offers (IoC/Dependency Injection, Integration features, Spring Batch ...)
When you have the freedom to use different languages/apis you should have a look at **[Grails](http://www.grails.org/)**. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | There is no best solution or framework. You'd better define, even for yourself, what exactly you want the application to do and then seek the most appropriate technology. Not to be too abstract, I'd suggest you check out Struts, Spring and GWT(Google Web Toolkit).
Each of them has its pros and cons, so it's not a matter of becoming guru in just one of them, but better knowing them all well in order to make a good decision, when one is needed. | You can use a lot frameworks to simplify framework usage and boost efficience.
I would prefer **[Spring Webflow](http://www.springsource.org/go-webflow2)**. It handles conversational state, is simple to use and you can take profit of the other features spring offers (IoC/Dependency Injection, Integration features, Spring Batch ...)
When you have the freedom to use different languages/apis you should have a look at **[Grails](http://www.grails.org/)**. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | There is no best solution or framework. You'd better define, even for yourself, what exactly you want the application to do and then seek the most appropriate technology. Not to be too abstract, I'd suggest you check out Struts, Spring and GWT(Google Web Toolkit).
Each of them has its pros and cons, so it's not a matter of becoming guru in just one of them, but better knowing them all well in order to make a good decision, when one is needed. | Try [**Play! Framework**](http://www.playframework.org/). It seems to be a nice RAD framework especially for simple apps. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | There is no best solution or framework. You'd better define, even for yourself, what exactly you want the application to do and then seek the most appropriate technology. Not to be too abstract, I'd suggest you check out Struts, Spring and GWT(Google Web Toolkit).
Each of them has its pros and cons, so it's not a matter of becoming guru in just one of them, but better knowing them all well in order to make a good decision, when one is needed. | It all depends on your needs. Personally I prefer Spring+Struts2+Hibernate or grails. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | Try [**Play! Framework**](http://www.playframework.org/). It seems to be a nice RAD framework especially for simple apps. | I highly recommend the [Seam Framework](http://seamframework.org) from JBoss. It helps simplify JSF quite a bit, and also makes it very easy to integrate things like Hibernate or EJB3. Plus, it's quite pretty wide support across the major IDEs. |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | You can use a lot frameworks to simplify framework usage and boost efficience.
I would prefer **[Spring Webflow](http://www.springsource.org/go-webflow2)**. It handles conversational state, is simple to use and you can take profit of the other features spring offers (IoC/Dependency Injection, Integration features, Spring Batch ...)
When you have the freedom to use different languages/apis you should have a look at **[Grails](http://www.grails.org/)**. | Try <http://www.icefaces.org/main/home/> which is powerful than JSF |
3,155,662 | I am new to Java Web Application. I am practicing with JSF2.
Is it better to use any framework with JSF or just should I move with JSF?
If it is better to use Framework, what you experienced guys suggest me? | 2010/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3155662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375551/"
] | I highly recommend the [Seam Framework](http://seamframework.org) from JBoss. It helps simplify JSF quite a bit, and also makes it very easy to integrate things like Hibernate or EJB3. Plus, it's quite pretty wide support across the major IDEs. | Try <http://www.icefaces.org/main/home/> which is powerful than JSF |
19,983 | **I am a computer programmer or computer engineer, and am interested in comparing the brain to a classical computer in some way. How well does this comparison hold up?**
This is a general introduction to the computer/brain metaphor and its practical limitations. Similar questions on this forum include:
* [Difference between parallel processing done by human brain and by computers](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/1946/7001)
* [How does the brain generate answers to questions?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/19573/7001)
* [What is the data structure used by the brain to store data?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/8646/7001)
* [How is information stored in the brain](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/12642/7001)
* [How the Brain Does Garbage Collection in Real Time](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/19933/7001)
* [How does a human classify or cluster data?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/12252/7001)
* [Human brain v/s computer: speed comparison?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/15478/7001)
* [Does the brain have a 'debugging mode'?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/12886/7001)
* [Why can't we use 100% of the brain in a certain moment?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/8021/7001)
* [Is it possible to increase the capacity of human brain like “Lucy”?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/12923/7001)
* [In what ways do our brains use compression?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/12813/7001)
* [How many possible states does a brain have?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/12406/7001)
* [What is the capacity of the human brain?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/17463/7001) | 2018/06/17 | [
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/19983",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/7001/"
] | This question's reference to a classical computer refers to a "[Turing Machine](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turing_machine)" style of computation, also known as a [knowledge system](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Knowledge-based_systems), in which decisions and possible results are pre-programmed using if-statements, loops, and other logical constructs.
However, most modern computer programmers and engineers are at least somewhat familiar with neural networks, used for [machine learning](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Machine_learning). [Artificial neural networks (ANNs)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artificial_neural_network) are loosely based on the way the brain (a [biological neural network](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biological_neural_network)) works. If you want to use your computing background to understand the brain, then I recommend learning about neural networks instead. If you already have some understanding of neural networks, then think about how Siri or Watson work.
While neural networks can certainly be thought of as storing data, executing algorithms, parallel processing, and having memory and speed measurements, they are conceptually very different from classical computers, and generally uninstructive to compare. In particular, the "[von Neumann](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Von_Neumann_architecture)" architectural style of modern computers does not have an analog in the brain (there is no separation between areas that compute and areas that store memories, for example). If you are still interested in such a comparison, then many of the questions listed above already have great answers, so check them out.
If you are interested in modeling the brain using a classical computing methodology, then check out [ACT-R](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ACT-R), a popular architecture for modeling the brain using a modular, knowledge-based system (also see this [forum question](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/14064/7001)).
Artificial neural networks are not a perfect model for biological neural networks either, and if you are interested in the difference, then see this [forum question](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/7880/7001). | This line of thought actually represents the current state of the art in scientific approaches to the brain. Before we discovered electricity and that (peripheral) neurons conduct electricity, one analogy or explanation suggested that the mind worked through hydraulic action.
It is therefore possible that we have to abandon this analogy, if we find a better one. For now, we give it explanatory power. However, we do know that the brain circuitry is very different from a computer. At the same time, neurons have discrete outputs, which can be represented in binary ([all-or-none](http://www.scholarpedia.org/article/FitzHugh-Nagumo_model#Absence_of_all-or-none_spikes)). (But there is also non-spiking neurons with a more continuous "analog" response.)
Suggested readings:
[Cognitive Science](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/cognitive-science/#RepCom)
[Philosohpy of Mind: Computationalism](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/computational-mind/)
[A classical argument against computationalism: The Chinese Room Argument](http://www.scholarpedia.org/article/Chinese_room_argument) |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | So, maybe I undetstand your question incorrectly, but...
Here listed all most used Window Form controls: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511482.aspx>
How about the LinkLabel, is it what you're looking for? Read more about the LinkLabel class: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.forms.linklabel.aspx>
Sorry if I missed... | For an Hyperlink effect in WinForms, use [`LinkLabel` control](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/897fcdkf.aspx). |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | i think just check there property and it will ask for which page you want to navigate this is simple way for making the text a hyperlink. and ofcourse it will work. | For an Hyperlink effect in WinForms, use [`LinkLabel` control](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/897fcdkf.aspx). |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | So, maybe I undetstand your question incorrectly, but...
Here listed all most used Window Form controls: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511482.aspx>
How about the LinkLabel, is it what you're looking for? Read more about the LinkLabel class: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.forms.linklabel.aspx>
Sorry if I missed... | May be [LinkLabel](http://msdn.microsoft.com/ru-ru/library/system.windows.forms.linklabel.aspx) control? |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | i think just check there property and it will ask for which page you want to navigate this is simple way for making the text a hyperlink. and ofcourse it will work. | May be [LinkLabel](http://msdn.microsoft.com/ru-ru/library/system.windows.forms.linklabel.aspx) control? |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | So, maybe I undetstand your question incorrectly, but...
Here listed all most used Window Form controls: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511482.aspx>
How about the LinkLabel, is it what you're looking for? Read more about the LinkLabel class: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.forms.linklabel.aspx>
Sorry if I missed... | I think you should implement your own UserControl with the help of LinkLabel (ie. splitting the text to an array of words and use each one in a LinkLabel). Of course this is one way to do it. There's many ways to do it but I don't think there's an easy one. |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | So, maybe I undetstand your question incorrectly, but...
Here listed all most used Window Form controls: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa511482.aspx>
How about the LinkLabel, is it what you're looking for? Read more about the LinkLabel class: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.forms.linklabel.aspx>
Sorry if I missed... | i think just check there property and it will ask for which page you want to navigate this is simple way for making the text a hyperlink. and ofcourse it will work. |
5,027,241 | How to Open a custom webpart from the other custom webpart through a link buttom.
I have a custom webpart in which i have a link buttons of all other custom webparts in that page.On click event the particular webpart should be open.
can anyone please help me in solving this... | 2011/02/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5027241",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/606169/"
] | i think just check there property and it will ask for which page you want to navigate this is simple way for making the text a hyperlink. and ofcourse it will work. | I think you should implement your own UserControl with the help of LinkLabel (ie. splitting the text to an array of words and use each one in a LinkLabel). Of course this is one way to do it. There's many ways to do it but I don't think there's an easy one. |
273,670 | Almost all of my students use the word "cooperate" in this way: "My company cooperates with X." X can be a company or person. For example, if the student works at MediaTek, they will say "We cooperate with Sony and HTC for mobile chip design."
In looking in several dictionaries, the first definition is always "to work together toward a common goal," however the example sentences do not have "work together" as the feeling but "do something you don't really want to do." For example, "ask the child to cooperate and go to bed." I have heard sentences such as "The suspect is cooperating with authorities," or "Her child is uncooperative in class and causes disruptions."
I always thought cooperate has this feeling of "forced" or "unwillingly obliges." Before coming to Taiwan, I never heard people use "cooperate" in the sense of "work with another company." I usually suggest "We work with HTC and Sony." as a better choice. Also, they will sometimes say "I need to / must cooperate with my customers." This usage seems to support my idea of the word, however when I ask for further details they don't feel "unwilling" to work with customers. Some do, though.
Does cooperate mean to work together without any emotional feelings or willingness or obligation? Is cooperate a neutral word? | 2015/09/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/273670",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/129806/"
] | I don't think cooperate is neutral; it implies a mutual willingness to work together; there is normally mutual benefit from the work. It is fairly normal to use it when talking about cooperation between companies. When used in the context of asking a child to go to bed, the child is being asked to work with the authority or parent and go to bed. There's obviously a degree of obligation in that usage but I think of that in the same way as you would a courtesy question. | Cooperation, like assent, can be wholehearted or grudging.
In American English, "work with" is more commonly used to describe mutual ventures, as you suggest:
**FlimFlam Inc is working with Disney to create a virtual theme park with hundreds of imaginary rides replete with long waiting lines.** |
273,670 | Almost all of my students use the word "cooperate" in this way: "My company cooperates with X." X can be a company or person. For example, if the student works at MediaTek, they will say "We cooperate with Sony and HTC for mobile chip design."
In looking in several dictionaries, the first definition is always "to work together toward a common goal," however the example sentences do not have "work together" as the feeling but "do something you don't really want to do." For example, "ask the child to cooperate and go to bed." I have heard sentences such as "The suspect is cooperating with authorities," or "Her child is uncooperative in class and causes disruptions."
I always thought cooperate has this feeling of "forced" or "unwillingly obliges." Before coming to Taiwan, I never heard people use "cooperate" in the sense of "work with another company." I usually suggest "We work with HTC and Sony." as a better choice. Also, they will sometimes say "I need to / must cooperate with my customers." This usage seems to support my idea of the word, however when I ask for further details they don't feel "unwilling" to work with customers. Some do, though.
Does cooperate mean to work together without any emotional feelings or willingness or obligation? Is cooperate a neutral word? | 2015/09/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/273670",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/129806/"
] | The word itself is neutral. It's only the examples you gave that have a context of implied threat. | I don't think cooperate is neutral; it implies a mutual willingness to work together; there is normally mutual benefit from the work. It is fairly normal to use it when talking about cooperation between companies. When used in the context of asking a child to go to bed, the child is being asked to work with the authority or parent and go to bed. There's obviously a degree of obligation in that usage but I think of that in the same way as you would a courtesy question. |
273,670 | Almost all of my students use the word "cooperate" in this way: "My company cooperates with X." X can be a company or person. For example, if the student works at MediaTek, they will say "We cooperate with Sony and HTC for mobile chip design."
In looking in several dictionaries, the first definition is always "to work together toward a common goal," however the example sentences do not have "work together" as the feeling but "do something you don't really want to do." For example, "ask the child to cooperate and go to bed." I have heard sentences such as "The suspect is cooperating with authorities," or "Her child is uncooperative in class and causes disruptions."
I always thought cooperate has this feeling of "forced" or "unwillingly obliges." Before coming to Taiwan, I never heard people use "cooperate" in the sense of "work with another company." I usually suggest "We work with HTC and Sony." as a better choice. Also, they will sometimes say "I need to / must cooperate with my customers." This usage seems to support my idea of the word, however when I ask for further details they don't feel "unwilling" to work with customers. Some do, though.
Does cooperate mean to work together without any emotional feelings or willingness or obligation? Is cooperate a neutral word? | 2015/09/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/273670",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/129806/"
] | The word itself is neutral. It's only the examples you gave that have a context of implied threat. | Cooperation, like assent, can be wholehearted or grudging.
In American English, "work with" is more commonly used to describe mutual ventures, as you suggest:
**FlimFlam Inc is working with Disney to create a virtual theme park with hundreds of imaginary rides replete with long waiting lines.** |
6,983 | I've been looking into using the Wordpress Repository for one of my larger plugins, the problem is that it's using a lot of third party software. Video players/Slide scripts/Jquery includes, some of which are commercial in nature.
My question is related to the content that differs from the GPL v2. Id like to include those into the plugin, since that would make it easier to use. If I get permission from the third party, is this possible? As an example flowplayer (GPL 3) and Longtail Video Player (Commercial).
Also will this supporting software be exempt from the GPL 2 license restriction? | 2011/01/14 | [
"https://wordpress.stackexchange.com/questions/6983",
"https://wordpress.stackexchange.com",
"https://wordpress.stackexchange.com/users/2434/"
] | License Compatibility
---------------------
As a [recent commenter pointed out on my site](http://mindsharestrategy.com/a-quick-gpl-overview/#comments), it should be possible to distribute a plug-in that's not GPL so long as you don't distribute it with WordPress. However, the guys at WP.org have [pointed out](http://wordpress.org/extend/plugins/about/) time and again that only GPL-compatible plug-ins **must** be [compatible with version 2 of the GPL](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#AllCompatibility).
So this puts you between a rock and a hard place. Strictly speaking, you can't distribute commercially licensed software under the terms of the GPL ... so Longtail would be out in this case. However, you might be able to get permission from Flowplayer to incorporate it in a GPLv2 plug-in. Just make sure you ask and point this out clearly in the documentation.
Support
-------
But remember, including 3rd party libraries doesn't require you to support them if the end user is using them outside your plug-in. And "support" is ambiguous anyway. The only support-related requirement is that, if you distribute compiled software, you provide a written offer (valid for 2 years) to provide the source code to anyone you gave the compiled binaries to. Since your plug-in is written in PHP, it's *interpreted* not compiled ... so you already provide the source code. (Meaning you're not obligated to do anything further).
Alternative
-----------
A potential alternative would be to make your plug-in "pluggable." Meaning it can use whatever video library or player the end user has available. Then you can load and use something like Longtail if it's available without having to distribute it. This just adds an extra requirement for the user to find, download, and install a separate player of their choice (I'd recommend listing several possibilities in your documentation).
Then you'd add a configuration section to your plug-in (somewhere in the admin screen) where the user enters the path of their video plug-in and tells you which one it is (so you can use the right API). This lifts the burden of licensing off your shoulders.
In Summary
----------
Just remember these key points:
* Your plug-in must be compatible with version 2 of the GPL, even if it's using some other license
* Your only support requirement is to provide the source of your solution, which you do by default when you release it to the WP.org repository
* If you incorporate a (non-free) third-party solution, you're limiting the rights of your users to edit, re-publish, and re-distribute your system ... though this isn't in the spirit of the GPL, [there are some ways to do it](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#GPLIncompatibleLibs) | [Official requirements](http://wordpress.org/extend/plugins/about/) say that code should be [GPLv2-compatible](http://www.gnu.org/licenses/license-list.html#GPLCompatibleLicenses). Note that actual page they link to is for GPL-compatible of unspecific version and includes GPLv3 as well. Quick search show some GPLv3 plugins in repository so that one should be fine.
Definite no on proprietary components, unless you convince developers to release or dual-license their code under compatible license.
The one way around that would be to make plugin download and install proprietary components during installation (with disclosure and such), but that is not a technique I see used often. |
47,835 | Dumbledore defeated Grindelwald in 1945, a seemingly obvious connection to the end of World War II in the Muggle world. Coincidentally, Voldemort graduated from Hogwarts also in 1945.
How are the events of World War II and Grindelwald's reign of terror linked? Is there a cause-effect relationship? | 2014/01/10 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/47835",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2092/"
] | Good question. I had a few notes on this for an answer to another question some months ago, but never wrote the answer and I threw away the notes. Here's what I remember.
In an [interview in 2005](http://www.accio-quote.org/articles/2005/0705-edinburgh-jones-official.html), JKR hinted that the two were indeed linked:
>
> **Owen Jones:** Are you implying that Dumbledore had a hand in ending the Second World War [JKR laughs] by his defeat of the Dark wizard Grindelwald—
>
>
> **JKR:** In 1945.
>
>
> **OJ:** —in 1945?
>
>
> **JKR:** I may well be implying that.
>
>
> **OJ:** Do you enjoy having stuff in the wizard world connecting with Muggle – Muggles – history?
>
>
> **JKR:** Well, I really do, yes, because I think that's what adds to the believability of the books. I think that's one of the reasons readers can imagine themselves so readily into the wizarding world because they can see how it does interconnect with our world. So it's both secret and apparent, but we, Muggles, don't have the perception to see what's right under our noses, of course.
>
>
>
Unfortunately the interview doesn't go into more detail. According to [an answer on Quora](https://www.quora.com/In-Deathly-Hallows-does-J-K-Rowling-imply-that-Dumbledore-plays-a-role-in-ending-World-War-II-by-defeating-Grindelwald), Grindelwald’s defeat was “related” to the end of World War II. I assume that it's referring to this interview, but it doesn't cite a source.
Later that year, she makes [a more explicit comparison between the two](http://www.accio-quote.org/articles/2005/0705-tlc_mugglenet-anelli-3.htm):
>
> **JKR:** I'm going to tell you as much as I told someone earlier who asked me. You know Owen who won the [UK television] competition to interview me? He asked about Grindelwald [pronounced "Grindelvald" HMM…]. He said, “Is it coincidence that he died in 1945,” and I said no. It amuses me to make allusions to things that were happening in the Muggle world, so my feeling would be that while there's a global Muggle war going on, there's also a global wizarding war going on.
>
>
> **Emerson Spatz:** Does he have any connection to–
>
>
> **JKR:** I have no comment to make on that subject.
>
>
> *[Laughter.]*
>
>
> **Melissa Anelli:** Do they feed each other, the Muggle and wizarding wars?
>
>
> **JKR:** Yeah, I think so. Yeah. Mm.
>
>
>
(And yes, the Owen she refers to is the same Owen in the first interview.)
In an interview in [the Spanish magazine XLSemanal](http://www.snitchseeker.com/harry-potter-news/j-k-rowling-talks-cornelius-fudge-in-new-interview-53897/), she also compares the responses of the British government and the Ministry of Magic:
>
> My model of the world after Voldemort's return was, directly, the government of Neville Chamberlain in Great Britain during the Second World War, when he tried to minimize the menace of the Nazi regime for political convenience. (Translated by forum poster)
>
>
>
Since we know that the Minister for Magic often discusses serious events in the magical world with the Muggle Prime Minister, this probably isn't a coincidence. Just as events of Voldemort's war spilled into the Muggle World, so might have events from Grindelwald. Coincidence or not, there was probably some discussion between the ministers about what to do once the wars were over.
There are lots of other similarities between Grindelwald's war and events in World War II:
* The name of Grindelwald's prison, Nuremgard, is probably based on Nuremberg, a city in Nazi Germany which was the home of many important rallies, and where anti-Semitic laws were written and passed.
Just as Grindelwald was eventually imprisoned in Nuremgard, so Nuremberg was used as a prison for Nazi war criminals after the war had ended. It was also the site of the [Nuremberg Trials](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nuremberg_Trials), with some of the most important Nazi leaders were put on trial.
* HP Wikia takes this further, and draws a parallel between the motto carved over Nuremgard's entrance and the inscriptions at Nazi concentration camps:
>
> “The greater good” is an essential idea of the utilitarian philosophy. “For The Greater Good” may also be a reference to “Arbeit macht frei” (German, “Work makes freedom” or “Work liberates”) the motto that was mendaciously inscribed over the entrance gates to several Nazi concentration camps (The exact wording of the inscription at Nurmengard is unknown, since Grindelwald's exact nationality or his language of preference, are not specified in the books; the German translation of his slogan would be “Für das höhere Wohl”, although the official German translation in the book reads “für das größere Wohl”).
>
>
>
* The language of blood status, which was a central stake of both Grindelwald and Voldemort's campaigns, was [compared to the propaganda about Jewish blood used by the Nazis in WII](http://web.archive.org/web/20110623034429/http://www.jkrowling.com/textonly/en/faq_view.cfm?id=58):
>
> Why are some people in the wizarding world (e.g., Harry) called ‘half-blood’ even though both their parents were magical? […]
>
>
> If you think this is far-fetched, look at some of the real charts the Nazis used to show what constituted ‘Aryan’ or ‘Jewish’ blood. I saw one in the Holocaust Museum in Washington when I had already devised the ‘pure-blood’, ‘half-blood’ and ‘Muggle-born’ definitions, and was chilled to see that the Nazis used precisely the same warped logic as the Death Eaters. A single Jewish grandparent ‘polluted’ the blood, according to their propaganda.
>
>
>
[DVK's answer](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/10000/what-percentage-makes-someone-a-half-blood) on another question about blood status has some good links if you want to read more about this.
There was also the registration of Muggle-borns, and inspections of blood status. Likewise, the Nazis forced Jews to register their property, and severely restricted their freedoms.
* Both the symbol of the deathly Hallows and the swastika were adopted by the antagonists and are now reviled by many modern wizards and Muggles.
As for Voldemort, I can't think of why Grindelwald's defeat coinciding with his graduation would have a major influence on him, but it would have shown that they were like-minded people in the world. It may also have furthered his fear of Dumbledore, who defeated Grindelwald. However, it is interesting to ponder what Voldemort might have done if Grindelwald succeeded.
---
Strictly speaking, this is off-topic as this refers to the end of Voldemort's war, not Grindelwald's, but I think it's another interesting WWII allusion.
In 1944, the village of Oradour-sur-Glane was the subject of a massacre by Nazi soldiers. The [Wikipedia article](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oradour-sur-Glane) has the details, but it makes for fairly gruesome reading. After the war, the ruins were left as-is as a memorial to the dead. A similar sign is placed on the Potters’s cottage:
>
> This house, invisible to Muggles, has been left in its ruined state as a monument to the Potters and as a reminder of the violence that tore apart their family.
>
>
>
And just as Voldemort went to Godric's Hollow on the basis of incomplete information, the massacre of Oradour-sur-Glane occurred because Nazi troops believed an SS soldier was prisoner there. In fact, he was being held in Oradour-sur-Vayres, a nearby village, and this intelligence was erroneous.
That last bit might be a stretch too far, but I still find it an interesting comparison. | According to the Potter Wikia, Gellert Grindlewald was a leading architect of the "[Global Wizarding War](http://harrypotter.wikia.com/wiki/Global_wizarding_war)" that was taking place alongside the Second World War in the Muggle world.
Grindelwald and his followers had the intentions of toppling the 'European Ministries of Magic', replacing them with a Wizarding Empire that would control the entire wizarding population of Earth as well as ending the prohibition on magical secrecy and enslaving the Muggle race for their supposed crimes against wizardkind.
When asked what the connection was between the Global Wizarding War and the Second World War in a [2005 interview](http://www.accio-quote.org/articles/2005/0705-tlc_mugglenet-anelli-3.htm), J K Rowling gave her own views on the subject, albeit without shedding much light on the subject;
>
> *JKR :* **It amuses me to make allusions to things that were happening in the Muggle world, so my feeling would be that while there's a
> global *Muggle* war going on, there's also a global *wizarding* war
> going on.**
>
>
> *Interviewer :* **Do they feed each other, the Muggle and wizarding wars?**
>
>
> *JKR:* **Yeah, I think so. Yeah.**
>
>
>
 |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | One common source of errors on UART besides signal level quality (noise, rise/fall times) is clock skew. If the transmitter clock and receiver clock are not derived from the same source (which is the case most of the time), then one will run faster than the other. When the timing error is too large, you may occasionally read a wrong bit. | Framing errors can be caused by what @jippie mentions - the receiver has detected the start bit and where it expects the stop bit the data is inverted. This can also be due to data corruption caused by line interference impinging on the stop bit. You always need to check this for each byte received.
Parity errors occur when parity is implemented on the data link and there is a corruption that causes a parity mismatch in the received data. You always need to check this for each byte received.
Receive break is also regarded as an error although it's really an indication that the incoming data has fallen to logical zero for longer than 1 byte of data. Normally logical 1 is the "ambient" state between successive data bytes and it remains this way. It's a throw back to old telegraphy systems I think. I wouldn't bother checking this unless you were using this "feature" to indicate (say) a reset command to the receiver.
Overrun error is when a new byte is received before the previous byte was read by a CPU. Slightly different when a FIFO is involved but amounts to the same thing - valid received data is lost due to CPU slowness. Always check this before reading a byte and if the byte is part of a longer message (or command) throw the whole message/command away and somehow request the transmitter to resend the whole message/command.
Under run is not really an error but indicates to the sending UART that it's transmit buffer is empty i.e. it is requesting a new byte to transmit. You don't need to check this. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | There are several potential sources for [noise](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noise_%28electronics%29) in any circuit. Some of the most common include:
* Poorly regulated power supplies;
* Switching power supplies;
* Insufficient [capacitive decoupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decoupling_capacitor) of the power rails near the MCU;
* [Inductive coupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inductive_coupling) of nearby electromagnetic sources (including 50 or 60Hz from the mains power; even if the circuit is battery powered, it will experience this interference when close enough to a mains source);
* RF sources near the resonant frequency of a trace on the circuit board, or one of its harmonics;
* Routing of high-current traces on the circuit board near signal lines;
* Etc.
In addition (as @jippie mentioned), clock skew is a very common cause of errors in any type of serial communication that uses a predetermined data rate. If you're using an external crystal and interfacing to another system that can reasonably be expected to be accurate, it's less likely to cause problems. Internal oscillators, however, can have tolerances that are several orders of magnitude worse than crystals, and tend to vary more over temperature ranges.
There are several basic tests that can be performed on a running system to determine the basic noise (and skew) immunity of your interface, including:
* Freezing (cool the circuit to the minimum rating of its components);
* Baking (heat to the maximum rating);
* Exposure to [EMI](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_interference):
+ Set the board on top of the power cord of a running space heater;
+ Key a CB radio in the near vicinity of the board;
+ Put the board next to your wireless router;
+ Use long hookup wire (instead of a properly constructed serial cable) for the UART connection.
There are many others--in fact, there are large testing labs dedicated to [EMC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_compatibility) qualification.
In general, unless some minimal level of data loss is acceptable, it is always prudent to include some sort of error checking in your communications code. Even a simple checksum is better than nothing. | One common source of errors on UART besides signal level quality (noise, rise/fall times) is clock skew. If the transmitter clock and receiver clock are not derived from the same source (which is the case most of the time), then one will run faster than the other. When the timing error is too large, you may occasionally read a wrong bit. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | One common source of errors on UART besides signal level quality (noise, rise/fall times) is clock skew. If the transmitter clock and receiver clock are not derived from the same source (which is the case most of the time), then one will run faster than the other. When the timing error is too large, you may occasionally read a wrong bit. | In order to deal with these errors, you must implement a higher level logical protocol. something akin to TCP, or check the OSI stack for ideas.
basically, two important parts to start with are checksums, and timeouts. use an algorithm to compute a redundent value that represents, in a smaller form, the contents of each message. then check this in the received message. if the sums don't match, you have possibly gotten a framing error, bit noise, etc, etc. and you'll need to discard the message and attempt some sort of recovery, resend, NACK ( not acknlowledged )signal, etc.
also, make sure to implement timeouts in your upper level protocol. if you get some kind of framing error, your UART may never recover and begin processing again. it may be waiting for the stop bit on a frame that the sender UART thinks has already been sent, but was corrupted by noise , clock skew, etc. this will send any input code into an infinite loop. make sure that you have a sane limit as to how long your input reading should wait until deciding to abandon this message, and again, retry, NACK, abandon, etc. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | One common source of errors on UART besides signal level quality (noise, rise/fall times) is clock skew. If the transmitter clock and receiver clock are not derived from the same source (which is the case most of the time), then one will run faster than the other. When the timing error is too large, you may occasionally read a wrong bit. | Most errors stem from three causes: (1) the transmitter's generated signal did not represent valid data; (2) the transmitter's signal was not received as generated, or (3) the receiver was not ready to handle the data when it was received. The most common cause I've seen for problem #1 is a transmitter that gets reconfigured or shut down while it is transmitting data. Problem #2 can easily occur for signals traveling through the "outside world" as a result of things like radio interference (mobile phones can be surprisingly nasty!), but should generally not occur for signals confined to a single board. Problem #3 can either occur because too many bytes arrive faster than they can be processed, or because the receiver is reconfigured, shut down, or started up during a transmission.
In many cases, it's difficult to completely eliminate all of these problems; one's goal should be to ensure that the total "damage" done by them (probability of occurrence, times damage per occurrence) is acceptably low. This can most easily be done by choosing a pessimistic estimate of reliability, and then designing a protocol so that the impact on system performance of even the worst failures that were consistent with one's estimates would be within acceptable limits. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | There are several potential sources for [noise](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noise_%28electronics%29) in any circuit. Some of the most common include:
* Poorly regulated power supplies;
* Switching power supplies;
* Insufficient [capacitive decoupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decoupling_capacitor) of the power rails near the MCU;
* [Inductive coupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inductive_coupling) of nearby electromagnetic sources (including 50 or 60Hz from the mains power; even if the circuit is battery powered, it will experience this interference when close enough to a mains source);
* RF sources near the resonant frequency of a trace on the circuit board, or one of its harmonics;
* Routing of high-current traces on the circuit board near signal lines;
* Etc.
In addition (as @jippie mentioned), clock skew is a very common cause of errors in any type of serial communication that uses a predetermined data rate. If you're using an external crystal and interfacing to another system that can reasonably be expected to be accurate, it's less likely to cause problems. Internal oscillators, however, can have tolerances that are several orders of magnitude worse than crystals, and tend to vary more over temperature ranges.
There are several basic tests that can be performed on a running system to determine the basic noise (and skew) immunity of your interface, including:
* Freezing (cool the circuit to the minimum rating of its components);
* Baking (heat to the maximum rating);
* Exposure to [EMI](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_interference):
+ Set the board on top of the power cord of a running space heater;
+ Key a CB radio in the near vicinity of the board;
+ Put the board next to your wireless router;
+ Use long hookup wire (instead of a properly constructed serial cable) for the UART connection.
There are many others--in fact, there are large testing labs dedicated to [EMC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_compatibility) qualification.
In general, unless some minimal level of data loss is acceptable, it is always prudent to include some sort of error checking in your communications code. Even a simple checksum is better than nothing. | Framing errors can be caused by what @jippie mentions - the receiver has detected the start bit and where it expects the stop bit the data is inverted. This can also be due to data corruption caused by line interference impinging on the stop bit. You always need to check this for each byte received.
Parity errors occur when parity is implemented on the data link and there is a corruption that causes a parity mismatch in the received data. You always need to check this for each byte received.
Receive break is also regarded as an error although it's really an indication that the incoming data has fallen to logical zero for longer than 1 byte of data. Normally logical 1 is the "ambient" state between successive data bytes and it remains this way. It's a throw back to old telegraphy systems I think. I wouldn't bother checking this unless you were using this "feature" to indicate (say) a reset command to the receiver.
Overrun error is when a new byte is received before the previous byte was read by a CPU. Slightly different when a FIFO is involved but amounts to the same thing - valid received data is lost due to CPU slowness. Always check this before reading a byte and if the byte is part of a longer message (or command) throw the whole message/command away and somehow request the transmitter to resend the whole message/command.
Under run is not really an error but indicates to the sending UART that it's transmit buffer is empty i.e. it is requesting a new byte to transmit. You don't need to check this. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | Framing errors can be caused by what @jippie mentions - the receiver has detected the start bit and where it expects the stop bit the data is inverted. This can also be due to data corruption caused by line interference impinging on the stop bit. You always need to check this for each byte received.
Parity errors occur when parity is implemented on the data link and there is a corruption that causes a parity mismatch in the received data. You always need to check this for each byte received.
Receive break is also regarded as an error although it's really an indication that the incoming data has fallen to logical zero for longer than 1 byte of data. Normally logical 1 is the "ambient" state between successive data bytes and it remains this way. It's a throw back to old telegraphy systems I think. I wouldn't bother checking this unless you were using this "feature" to indicate (say) a reset command to the receiver.
Overrun error is when a new byte is received before the previous byte was read by a CPU. Slightly different when a FIFO is involved but amounts to the same thing - valid received data is lost due to CPU slowness. Always check this before reading a byte and if the byte is part of a longer message (or command) throw the whole message/command away and somehow request the transmitter to resend the whole message/command.
Under run is not really an error but indicates to the sending UART that it's transmit buffer is empty i.e. it is requesting a new byte to transmit. You don't need to check this. | In order to deal with these errors, you must implement a higher level logical protocol. something akin to TCP, or check the OSI stack for ideas.
basically, two important parts to start with are checksums, and timeouts. use an algorithm to compute a redundent value that represents, in a smaller form, the contents of each message. then check this in the received message. if the sums don't match, you have possibly gotten a framing error, bit noise, etc, etc. and you'll need to discard the message and attempt some sort of recovery, resend, NACK ( not acknlowledged )signal, etc.
also, make sure to implement timeouts in your upper level protocol. if you get some kind of framing error, your UART may never recover and begin processing again. it may be waiting for the stop bit on a frame that the sender UART thinks has already been sent, but was corrupted by noise , clock skew, etc. this will send any input code into an infinite loop. make sure that you have a sane limit as to how long your input reading should wait until deciding to abandon this message, and again, retry, NACK, abandon, etc. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | There are several potential sources for [noise](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noise_%28electronics%29) in any circuit. Some of the most common include:
* Poorly regulated power supplies;
* Switching power supplies;
* Insufficient [capacitive decoupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decoupling_capacitor) of the power rails near the MCU;
* [Inductive coupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inductive_coupling) of nearby electromagnetic sources (including 50 or 60Hz from the mains power; even if the circuit is battery powered, it will experience this interference when close enough to a mains source);
* RF sources near the resonant frequency of a trace on the circuit board, or one of its harmonics;
* Routing of high-current traces on the circuit board near signal lines;
* Etc.
In addition (as @jippie mentioned), clock skew is a very common cause of errors in any type of serial communication that uses a predetermined data rate. If you're using an external crystal and interfacing to another system that can reasonably be expected to be accurate, it's less likely to cause problems. Internal oscillators, however, can have tolerances that are several orders of magnitude worse than crystals, and tend to vary more over temperature ranges.
There are several basic tests that can be performed on a running system to determine the basic noise (and skew) immunity of your interface, including:
* Freezing (cool the circuit to the minimum rating of its components);
* Baking (heat to the maximum rating);
* Exposure to [EMI](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_interference):
+ Set the board on top of the power cord of a running space heater;
+ Key a CB radio in the near vicinity of the board;
+ Put the board next to your wireless router;
+ Use long hookup wire (instead of a properly constructed serial cable) for the UART connection.
There are many others--in fact, there are large testing labs dedicated to [EMC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_compatibility) qualification.
In general, unless some minimal level of data loss is acceptable, it is always prudent to include some sort of error checking in your communications code. Even a simple checksum is better than nothing. | In order to deal with these errors, you must implement a higher level logical protocol. something akin to TCP, or check the OSI stack for ideas.
basically, two important parts to start with are checksums, and timeouts. use an algorithm to compute a redundent value that represents, in a smaller form, the contents of each message. then check this in the received message. if the sums don't match, you have possibly gotten a framing error, bit noise, etc, etc. and you'll need to discard the message and attempt some sort of recovery, resend, NACK ( not acknlowledged )signal, etc.
also, make sure to implement timeouts in your upper level protocol. if you get some kind of framing error, your UART may never recover and begin processing again. it may be waiting for the stop bit on a frame that the sender UART thinks has already been sent, but was corrupted by noise , clock skew, etc. this will send any input code into an infinite loop. make sure that you have a sane limit as to how long your input reading should wait until deciding to abandon this message, and again, retry, NACK, abandon, etc. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | There are several potential sources for [noise](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noise_%28electronics%29) in any circuit. Some of the most common include:
* Poorly regulated power supplies;
* Switching power supplies;
* Insufficient [capacitive decoupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decoupling_capacitor) of the power rails near the MCU;
* [Inductive coupling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inductive_coupling) of nearby electromagnetic sources (including 50 or 60Hz from the mains power; even if the circuit is battery powered, it will experience this interference when close enough to a mains source);
* RF sources near the resonant frequency of a trace on the circuit board, or one of its harmonics;
* Routing of high-current traces on the circuit board near signal lines;
* Etc.
In addition (as @jippie mentioned), clock skew is a very common cause of errors in any type of serial communication that uses a predetermined data rate. If you're using an external crystal and interfacing to another system that can reasonably be expected to be accurate, it's less likely to cause problems. Internal oscillators, however, can have tolerances that are several orders of magnitude worse than crystals, and tend to vary more over temperature ranges.
There are several basic tests that can be performed on a running system to determine the basic noise (and skew) immunity of your interface, including:
* Freezing (cool the circuit to the minimum rating of its components);
* Baking (heat to the maximum rating);
* Exposure to [EMI](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_interference):
+ Set the board on top of the power cord of a running space heater;
+ Key a CB radio in the near vicinity of the board;
+ Put the board next to your wireless router;
+ Use long hookup wire (instead of a properly constructed serial cable) for the UART connection.
There are many others--in fact, there are large testing labs dedicated to [EMC](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_compatibility) qualification.
In general, unless some minimal level of data loss is acceptable, it is always prudent to include some sort of error checking in your communications code. Even a simple checksum is better than nothing. | Most errors stem from three causes: (1) the transmitter's generated signal did not represent valid data; (2) the transmitter's signal was not received as generated, or (3) the receiver was not ready to handle the data when it was received. The most common cause I've seen for problem #1 is a transmitter that gets reconfigured or shut down while it is transmitting data. Problem #2 can easily occur for signals traveling through the "outside world" as a result of things like radio interference (mobile phones can be surprisingly nasty!), but should generally not occur for signals confined to a single board. Problem #3 can either occur because too many bytes arrive faster than they can be processed, or because the receiver is reconfigured, shut down, or started up during a transmission.
In many cases, it's difficult to completely eliminate all of these problems; one's goal should be to ensure that the total "damage" done by them (probability of occurrence, times damage per occurrence) is acceptably low. This can most easily be done by choosing a pessimistic estimate of reliability, and then designing a protocol so that the impact on system performance of even the worst failures that were consistent with one's estimates would be within acceptable limits. |
83,379 | I would like to know to know why UART errors occur, and when one should check for such errors. There is a post on here that asks about handling individual errors, such as overrun, parity, etc... I am clear on why data overrun happens, why parity error happens, but I would like to know what is the root cause. My question is more focused on why these errors could occur (physical reasons), and when one should do make error checking a factor for their application.
So far my program seems to work great (with no error checking), but I know that noise can mess things up. How could I simulate conditions that could cause the UART Rx/Tx ports to fail? | 2013/09/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/83379",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/28853/"
] | Most errors stem from three causes: (1) the transmitter's generated signal did not represent valid data; (2) the transmitter's signal was not received as generated, or (3) the receiver was not ready to handle the data when it was received. The most common cause I've seen for problem #1 is a transmitter that gets reconfigured or shut down while it is transmitting data. Problem #2 can easily occur for signals traveling through the "outside world" as a result of things like radio interference (mobile phones can be surprisingly nasty!), but should generally not occur for signals confined to a single board. Problem #3 can either occur because too many bytes arrive faster than they can be processed, or because the receiver is reconfigured, shut down, or started up during a transmission.
In many cases, it's difficult to completely eliminate all of these problems; one's goal should be to ensure that the total "damage" done by them (probability of occurrence, times damage per occurrence) is acceptably low. This can most easily be done by choosing a pessimistic estimate of reliability, and then designing a protocol so that the impact on system performance of even the worst failures that were consistent with one's estimates would be within acceptable limits. | In order to deal with these errors, you must implement a higher level logical protocol. something akin to TCP, or check the OSI stack for ideas.
basically, two important parts to start with are checksums, and timeouts. use an algorithm to compute a redundent value that represents, in a smaller form, the contents of each message. then check this in the received message. if the sums don't match, you have possibly gotten a framing error, bit noise, etc, etc. and you'll need to discard the message and attempt some sort of recovery, resend, NACK ( not acknlowledged )signal, etc.
also, make sure to implement timeouts in your upper level protocol. if you get some kind of framing error, your UART may never recover and begin processing again. it may be waiting for the stop bit on a frame that the sender UART thinks has already been sent, but was corrupted by noise , clock skew, etc. this will send any input code into an infinite loop. make sure that you have a sane limit as to how long your input reading should wait until deciding to abandon this message, and again, retry, NACK, abandon, etc. |
31,562 | Imagine a creature that's a little bit like a human, but with much shorter legs and stronger arms long enough to reach down to the bottom of the torso/ top of the legs. It can easily stand upright and walk around on two legs, but when moving around prefers to do so in a "leaning forward" position, in order to utilize its arms for greater speed and agility. It is generally quite large, and carries most of its weight around the lower torso area.
In hand-to-hand combat it would generally outmatch any human due to its immense reach, its immovability (thanks to the heavy weight and and low center of gravity) and its strength, which is at least on par with the strongest of humans, if not greater.
It can also move very quickly for short bursts, using its arms to propel itself forward and allowing it to charge into others with a massive momentum, but cannot sustain a charge for longer than a few seconds.
However, given a level of medieval technology, how would this type of creature fight with weapons? Which weapons would be best for it, and what kind of fighting styles would it use?
Obviously there can be more than a single type of weapon, humans use many different types, I'm more looking for which weapons would offer the most benefit for the fighting styles you choose. These can be weapons that were invented for humans, or a new invention that is created to fit the physicality of this new creature.
In addition, what compositions of armor would offer the most benefit for this creature to fight with your chosen fighting style? What would offer the most protection, whilst still maintaining the least restrictiveness?
It does not have the dexterity to use its feet to hold weapons, and the hands do not have to be the same design as human hands (though at least would need an opposable thumb), but they must be strong hands. This means that when holding any weapons to fight with, its mobility would be greatly reduced as it can no longer effectively use its arms for movement.
They would be fighting both humans and others of their own kind. So what would be the most advantageous technique to fight by harnessing its strengths and minimizing its weaknesses?
---
For clarification, **I'm not looking for one single fighting style**. I know that humans can use a range of different techniques to fight, because they have been adapted to suit our bodies.
I'm asking **which of these fighting styles** that we have, or a new one that you have created, would work better for a bottom-heavy, long armed, short legged humanoid. This means that you can choose more than one; in fact, I would encourage it.
In addition, I'm looking specifically for fighting solo, or in small groups, rather than within the ranks of an army. This can be in any conditions, but would generally be in pretty wide open spaces on reasonably flat ground. | 2015/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/31562",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/8312/"
] | New Answer to question after edit:
For this answer, I'll be basing the creature off of this image (drawn to the description of OP) of the creature in a 100% upright, back straight position.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/b4wbf.jpg)
A side view should look somewhat hunched like a gorilla, in order to facilitate the type of movement OP has described. Note that you can't actually have the lower body carry the majority of the weight if you want a super strong upper body, since the upper body has to have extensive muscling.
Since OP has said that the majority of the fighting will be:
>
> fighting 1v1 and small group fighting they're most likely to be coming
> up against an array of blade types and short hand-held weapons (short
> swords/ maces/ rapiers), as well as larger two handed weapons
> (warhammers, greataxes, bastardswords)"
>
>
>
the ideal armor would have to be chain mail armor, but only on the body section, and not for the arms (we leave the chain armor off the arms because if it's a one piece it may restrict shoulder movement more than his muscles already do). Chain mail provides good mobility and flexibility while giving decent protection against slashing from blades. The fighter will still be weak to thrusts from rapiers and the like, so he'll have to parry those in order to prevent damage. Chain mail also doesn't protect against the war hammers or great axes, but it won't be a problem if we give him the weaponry I'm about to suggest.
First, take a look at the following two diagrams.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9XUe6.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xq007.jpg)
If you look at the first diagram, you can see that point A and C represent the relaxed and maximum raised positions of the arm. If you look at point D on the spec, you'll see that I've tried to represent the extensive muscling in order to provide massive arm strength. This extra muscle will get in the way in terms of raising his arms, preventing many overhead blows from being possible. Compare it to the human diagram, where there isn't that much muscle on the shoulder area. Since we can already see that he wouldn't be able to move swiftly on his feet based on what OP has said, the weapon must be able to be used while mostly stationary, while making up for the weaknesses in his armor. Since the weaknesses in his armor can be overcome by parrying the incoming attacks, as long as the weapon allows for good parrying abilities, everything is good.
To this, I suggest an unconventional weapon. Use shields with plated arm protection. Take a look at the arm section I've drawn here:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mLkCH.jpg)
This drawing here depicts what I mean by plated arm protection. By only plating the outer section of the arm, we maintain maximum mobility while still allowing the use of his arms to defend himself.
I say to give him (viking style) shields because the shields allow the species can still maintain his mobility while having good defense and offense through shield bashing. With shields, he is able to push away many thrusting attacks, or use his arms to deflect attacks. While even heavy plate armor has trouble dealing with maces or war hammers, a shield can designed to handle the punishment. Shield bashing with his immense strength can cause more damage than a punch as well.
But how would he do this? With what "style"?
Well, there's really no "style" that would work here, but here's what he can try to do.
Taking advantage of the somewhat wide open flat areas that they'll be fighting on, and his immense reach, I suggest using a karate style blocking and punching system for his upper body. (Disregard his lower body since his legs are too short for good karate kicks) This is because his immense reach means that he can intercept attacks using his forearms earlier than most other fighters. The plated arm protection allows him to parry Rapier thrusts, or longer thrusting weapons (spears, pikes etc). I also suggest that he can use those shields deflect attacks instead of just using his forearms. By punching towards the larger weapons (great axes, war hammers), a well aimed punch can completely throw the opponent off balance by reversing the movement of the heavy weapon. Furthermore, because shield bashing does not require overhead blows, we can avoid the limitation of his muscles blocking his arms from being raised.
To take advantage of his "speed bursting dash with arms" ability, he can hold his shields and use them while dashing, and place his shields flush to the ground while dashing (use them as hand-shoes). By propelling forwards, then thrusting his arms out, he can put his entire body weight behind his shield bashes, allowing for even more power. And since these dashes are only short distances, this allows for "chained" short dashes between multiple enemies.
I imagine the dash would look something like this (Arrows represent the directions of force):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PI25E.jpg)
As you can see, the first step would be to place the shields against the ground. The second step would be to throw himself forwards using those shields and launch himself into the air towards the target. Upon landing closer to the target (the completion of the single step dash), he can thrust a shield (or two) to cause damage. This easy 3 step process can be repeated back and forth between different opponents if required.
In terms of offensive attacks using his legs, he can attempt a gymnastics move type attack. By using his arms as pillars on the ground, he can throw his legs forwards as a kick - kind of like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0ITti.jpg)
---
Pre-edit answer:
Normally, I would ask you to clarify your question. Do you want to know which weapons would be best for this creature, or are you looking for a specific style? You're asking over 5 questions in the body of your actual question, and usually, this would already make me put in a vote for closure.
However, since I can answer all these questions in the same succinct answer, I won't make that request.
First of all, you haven't described a creature that's "a little bit like a gorilla human" - You've basically described an upright chimp, minus the feet dexterity.
For this answer, I'll be using the image of a chimp-like human in my mind.
Now, the questions: **However, given a level of medieval technology, how would this type of creature fight with weapons? Which weapon would be best for it, and what kind of fighting style would it use? In addition, what composition of armor would offer the most benefit for this creature to fight? What would offer the most protection for the fighting style, whilst still maintaining the least restrictiveness? What would be the most advantageous technique to fight by harnessing its strengths and minimizing its weaknesses?**
Given a medieval technology, assuming that this creature has attained at least human level intelligence, it would not have a specific weapon type to use at all. The humanoid build and intelligence would drive the creatures to use whatever weapons fit the situation. While you could train a specific member of the species to be god-like at a particular weapon, it's more likely that the entire species will operate more like the human army - swordsmen, archers, pikemen, the lot.
Even humans don't have a "best fighting style". Every style has its own weaknesses, and at the end of the day it's the fighter that beats the other fighter, not the fighters style. Get this through now; **There is no perfect style**. Different members of this species will probably end up training in different styles, simply because at a human level of intelligence, choice is something crucial to the species - that means it'll be impossible for them to ALL train in the same style, since at some point one or two of them will branch out and more will follow. This also means there is no "Best technique" since every technique has a weakness. A person who has a single basic kick practiced 1000 times is more dangerous than one with 1000 different kicks practiced one time each - an old proverb (I don't remember where it came from) that can be interpreted as "even the most basic of techniques, if practiced enough, can be deadly."
Based on the above two answers (and further details you've provided), we can say that there is no best armor for this creature to fight. You've gone and asked a question with no answer. The armor composition depends on what kind of weapons the creature is facing. Plate armor against blades is standard, mail/leather for archers, etc etc. Again, there is no best fit.
**TL;DR: You've asked the wrong questions, mate. Whatever you're doing in your story, if you're working with humanoid like creatures, can branch off our history. They can essentially use or make use of a large majority of our fighting styles, armor, and weaponry. There is no answerable "best fit" for any of your questions in which a weakness cannot be found. You're better off using some creativity and mixing styles (if you want something that isn't completely the same as human styles). Note that styles often come with weapons training specific to that style, so you may want to use those for your warriors.** | The best weapons are the ones that compensate for the fighter's limitations and make the most out of his unique abilities. To sum up:
* His weight and low center of gravity allows him to win most strength-based contests. Furthermore, if he can connect and grab an opponent, he'll be able to put him off-balance in most cases.
* His strength is a big advantage if his opponent is within his grasp. He can then easily subdue or hurt him.
* His mobility and agility are an issue, as a fast opponent could evade him or attack him from behind.
His weapon and armor should then increase his grasping ability and allow him to make the best out of it, while protecting his blind spot.
I suggest **a gruesome long flail made of chains and hooks**. The fighter flails it around and can hit and grab any enemy in a large radius. Once caught, the enemy is violently pulled toward the fighter who then have him within his arms' reach.
The fighter can wear a heavy armor, which makes sense since he''ll probably be a good target for archers. For added efficiency, **the armor could be covered in spikes**, so that caught enemies are propelled to their death upon it.
He would learn techniques for quickly disposing of his victims - untangling his flail, unpinning them - or for turning them into weapons or projectiles, as if his flail was a sling. |
31,562 | Imagine a creature that's a little bit like a human, but with much shorter legs and stronger arms long enough to reach down to the bottom of the torso/ top of the legs. It can easily stand upright and walk around on two legs, but when moving around prefers to do so in a "leaning forward" position, in order to utilize its arms for greater speed and agility. It is generally quite large, and carries most of its weight around the lower torso area.
In hand-to-hand combat it would generally outmatch any human due to its immense reach, its immovability (thanks to the heavy weight and and low center of gravity) and its strength, which is at least on par with the strongest of humans, if not greater.
It can also move very quickly for short bursts, using its arms to propel itself forward and allowing it to charge into others with a massive momentum, but cannot sustain a charge for longer than a few seconds.
However, given a level of medieval technology, how would this type of creature fight with weapons? Which weapons would be best for it, and what kind of fighting styles would it use?
Obviously there can be more than a single type of weapon, humans use many different types, I'm more looking for which weapons would offer the most benefit for the fighting styles you choose. These can be weapons that were invented for humans, or a new invention that is created to fit the physicality of this new creature.
In addition, what compositions of armor would offer the most benefit for this creature to fight with your chosen fighting style? What would offer the most protection, whilst still maintaining the least restrictiveness?
It does not have the dexterity to use its feet to hold weapons, and the hands do not have to be the same design as human hands (though at least would need an opposable thumb), but they must be strong hands. This means that when holding any weapons to fight with, its mobility would be greatly reduced as it can no longer effectively use its arms for movement.
They would be fighting both humans and others of their own kind. So what would be the most advantageous technique to fight by harnessing its strengths and minimizing its weaknesses?
---
For clarification, **I'm not looking for one single fighting style**. I know that humans can use a range of different techniques to fight, because they have been adapted to suit our bodies.
I'm asking **which of these fighting styles** that we have, or a new one that you have created, would work better for a bottom-heavy, long armed, short legged humanoid. This means that you can choose more than one; in fact, I would encourage it.
In addition, I'm looking specifically for fighting solo, or in small groups, rather than within the ranks of an army. This can be in any conditions, but would generally be in pretty wide open spaces on reasonably flat ground. | 2015/12/16 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/31562",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/8312/"
] | New Answer to question after edit:
For this answer, I'll be basing the creature off of this image (drawn to the description of OP) of the creature in a 100% upright, back straight position.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/b4wbf.jpg)
A side view should look somewhat hunched like a gorilla, in order to facilitate the type of movement OP has described. Note that you can't actually have the lower body carry the majority of the weight if you want a super strong upper body, since the upper body has to have extensive muscling.
Since OP has said that the majority of the fighting will be:
>
> fighting 1v1 and small group fighting they're most likely to be coming
> up against an array of blade types and short hand-held weapons (short
> swords/ maces/ rapiers), as well as larger two handed weapons
> (warhammers, greataxes, bastardswords)"
>
>
>
the ideal armor would have to be chain mail armor, but only on the body section, and not for the arms (we leave the chain armor off the arms because if it's a one piece it may restrict shoulder movement more than his muscles already do). Chain mail provides good mobility and flexibility while giving decent protection against slashing from blades. The fighter will still be weak to thrusts from rapiers and the like, so he'll have to parry those in order to prevent damage. Chain mail also doesn't protect against the war hammers or great axes, but it won't be a problem if we give him the weaponry I'm about to suggest.
First, take a look at the following two diagrams.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9XUe6.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xq007.jpg)
If you look at the first diagram, you can see that point A and C represent the relaxed and maximum raised positions of the arm. If you look at point D on the spec, you'll see that I've tried to represent the extensive muscling in order to provide massive arm strength. This extra muscle will get in the way in terms of raising his arms, preventing many overhead blows from being possible. Compare it to the human diagram, where there isn't that much muscle on the shoulder area. Since we can already see that he wouldn't be able to move swiftly on his feet based on what OP has said, the weapon must be able to be used while mostly stationary, while making up for the weaknesses in his armor. Since the weaknesses in his armor can be overcome by parrying the incoming attacks, as long as the weapon allows for good parrying abilities, everything is good.
To this, I suggest an unconventional weapon. Use shields with plated arm protection. Take a look at the arm section I've drawn here:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mLkCH.jpg)
This drawing here depicts what I mean by plated arm protection. By only plating the outer section of the arm, we maintain maximum mobility while still allowing the use of his arms to defend himself.
I say to give him (viking style) shields because the shields allow the species can still maintain his mobility while having good defense and offense through shield bashing. With shields, he is able to push away many thrusting attacks, or use his arms to deflect attacks. While even heavy plate armor has trouble dealing with maces or war hammers, a shield can designed to handle the punishment. Shield bashing with his immense strength can cause more damage than a punch as well.
But how would he do this? With what "style"?
Well, there's really no "style" that would work here, but here's what he can try to do.
Taking advantage of the somewhat wide open flat areas that they'll be fighting on, and his immense reach, I suggest using a karate style blocking and punching system for his upper body. (Disregard his lower body since his legs are too short for good karate kicks) This is because his immense reach means that he can intercept attacks using his forearms earlier than most other fighters. The plated arm protection allows him to parry Rapier thrusts, or longer thrusting weapons (spears, pikes etc). I also suggest that he can use those shields deflect attacks instead of just using his forearms. By punching towards the larger weapons (great axes, war hammers), a well aimed punch can completely throw the opponent off balance by reversing the movement of the heavy weapon. Furthermore, because shield bashing does not require overhead blows, we can avoid the limitation of his muscles blocking his arms from being raised.
To take advantage of his "speed bursting dash with arms" ability, he can hold his shields and use them while dashing, and place his shields flush to the ground while dashing (use them as hand-shoes). By propelling forwards, then thrusting his arms out, he can put his entire body weight behind his shield bashes, allowing for even more power. And since these dashes are only short distances, this allows for "chained" short dashes between multiple enemies.
I imagine the dash would look something like this (Arrows represent the directions of force):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/PI25E.jpg)
As you can see, the first step would be to place the shields against the ground. The second step would be to throw himself forwards using those shields and launch himself into the air towards the target. Upon landing closer to the target (the completion of the single step dash), he can thrust a shield (or two) to cause damage. This easy 3 step process can be repeated back and forth between different opponents if required.
In terms of offensive attacks using his legs, he can attempt a gymnastics move type attack. By using his arms as pillars on the ground, he can throw his legs forwards as a kick - kind of like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0ITti.jpg)
---
Pre-edit answer:
Normally, I would ask you to clarify your question. Do you want to know which weapons would be best for this creature, or are you looking for a specific style? You're asking over 5 questions in the body of your actual question, and usually, this would already make me put in a vote for closure.
However, since I can answer all these questions in the same succinct answer, I won't make that request.
First of all, you haven't described a creature that's "a little bit like a gorilla human" - You've basically described an upright chimp, minus the feet dexterity.
For this answer, I'll be using the image of a chimp-like human in my mind.
Now, the questions: **However, given a level of medieval technology, how would this type of creature fight with weapons? Which weapon would be best for it, and what kind of fighting style would it use? In addition, what composition of armor would offer the most benefit for this creature to fight? What would offer the most protection for the fighting style, whilst still maintaining the least restrictiveness? What would be the most advantageous technique to fight by harnessing its strengths and minimizing its weaknesses?**
Given a medieval technology, assuming that this creature has attained at least human level intelligence, it would not have a specific weapon type to use at all. The humanoid build and intelligence would drive the creatures to use whatever weapons fit the situation. While you could train a specific member of the species to be god-like at a particular weapon, it's more likely that the entire species will operate more like the human army - swordsmen, archers, pikemen, the lot.
Even humans don't have a "best fighting style". Every style has its own weaknesses, and at the end of the day it's the fighter that beats the other fighter, not the fighters style. Get this through now; **There is no perfect style**. Different members of this species will probably end up training in different styles, simply because at a human level of intelligence, choice is something crucial to the species - that means it'll be impossible for them to ALL train in the same style, since at some point one or two of them will branch out and more will follow. This also means there is no "Best technique" since every technique has a weakness. A person who has a single basic kick practiced 1000 times is more dangerous than one with 1000 different kicks practiced one time each - an old proverb (I don't remember where it came from) that can be interpreted as "even the most basic of techniques, if practiced enough, can be deadly."
Based on the above two answers (and further details you've provided), we can say that there is no best armor for this creature to fight. You've gone and asked a question with no answer. The armor composition depends on what kind of weapons the creature is facing. Plate armor against blades is standard, mail/leather for archers, etc etc. Again, there is no best fit.
**TL;DR: You've asked the wrong questions, mate. Whatever you're doing in your story, if you're working with humanoid like creatures, can branch off our history. They can essentially use or make use of a large majority of our fighting styles, armor, and weaponry. There is no answerable "best fit" for any of your questions in which a weakness cannot be found. You're better off using some creativity and mixing styles (if you want something that isn't completely the same as human styles). Note that styles often come with weapons training specific to that style, so you may want to use those for your warriors.** | To take advantage of a solid centre of gravity and long reach, the creatures might find it best to fight with large polearms or axes, and have a close combat style similar to sumo wrestling in order to grapple with opponents.
As noted, there are thousands of fighting styles, and most are dependent on the skill of the practitioner rather than the style itself. A Bruce Lee or Chuck Norris is going to take you apart regardless of what style you know, unless *you* are a grand master of your particular fighting art. Similarly, some of your creatures are going to trip over their shoelaces and be easy to defeat, most will have a reasonable skill in whatever martial art they have studied and a small percentage will be highly skilled and difficult to defeat (unless you "cheat" by using ranged weapons, siccing a dragon on them or doing something outside the normal pattern of fighting and combat behaviour. I would suggest poison myself....).
One other thing which hasn't been mentioned up to this point is the natural habitat of these creatures. I am going to guess that they evolved in a rainforest environment , much like real gorillas in our world. In a rugged, heavily forested environment, swinging swords and axes might not work too well, so they would have preferentially used ambush tactics and perhaps short stabbing spears that would not hinder movement in the forest that much. Once you get out of the woods, these tactics would not work as well, so in the "mainstream" environment, they would adapt the sorts of weapons and fighting arts that already work in open fields. |
9,957,934 | I have recently started studying about threads. I thought of starting from the beginning and started reading MSDN documentation. Read about ApplicationDomain which is separate for each application. But in this link [ApplicationDomain and Threads](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a60kkx8k%28v=vs.71%29.aspx) it is mentioned that
Several threads can be executing in a single application domain at any given time and a particular thread is not confined to a single application domain. **That is, threads are free to cross application domain boundaries**
If a user created a thread and if it is allowed to cross application domain, then can it refer to the objects or memory reference of another applicationdomain ??? Please guide me if I am wrong. | 2012/03/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9957934",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1057180/"
] | The answer is yes. Every thread has a stack which can point to arbitrary object. The local variable on the threads stack are GC roots, meaning they will keep everything alive as long as the thread is alive. | A thread runs code, it can not refer to an application specific types or objects.
Most of the properties of a thread are read only, and the ones you will are very specific (like [CurrentCultre](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.threading.thread.currentculture.aspx)) cannot be used to pass custom types.
The only way to associate data with a specific thread is by using [Thread](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.threadstaticattribute.aspx) [Local Storage](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms686749.aspx)
which of course will not pass from Application Domain to another and is only useful in very specific cases. |
9,957,934 | I have recently started studying about threads. I thought of starting from the beginning and started reading MSDN documentation. Read about ApplicationDomain which is separate for each application. But in this link [ApplicationDomain and Threads](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a60kkx8k%28v=vs.71%29.aspx) it is mentioned that
Several threads can be executing in a single application domain at any given time and a particular thread is not confined to a single application domain. **That is, threads are free to cross application domain boundaries**
If a user created a thread and if it is allowed to cross application domain, then can it refer to the objects or memory reference of another applicationdomain ??? Please guide me if I am wrong. | 2012/03/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9957934",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1057180/"
] | There is no one-one relationship between application domains and threads.
Although a thread may cross an application domain boundary, at any one time, the thread is executing in a single application domain.
See the below information from MSDN (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/2bh4z9hs%28v=vs.90%29.aspx):
*Code running in one application cannot directly access code or resources from another application. The common language runtime enforces this isolation by preventing direct calls between objects in different application domains. Objects that pass between domains are either copied or accessed by proxy. If the object is copied, the call to the object is local. That is, both the caller and the object being referenced are in the same application domain. If the object is accessed through a proxy, the call to the object is remote. In this case, the caller and the object being referenced are in different application domains. Cross-domain calls use the same remote call infrastructure as calls between two processes or between two machines.*
Also the following article may be useful:
<http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/26148/Beginners-Guide-to-Threading-in-NET-Part-1-of-n> | A thread runs code, it can not refer to an application specific types or objects.
Most of the properties of a thread are read only, and the ones you will are very specific (like [CurrentCultre](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.threading.thread.currentculture.aspx)) cannot be used to pass custom types.
The only way to associate data with a specific thread is by using [Thread](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.threadstaticattribute.aspx) [Local Storage](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms686749.aspx)
which of course will not pass from Application Domain to another and is only useful in very specific cases. |
268,320 | Without using a WebBrowser control, how could I execute a JavaScript function, that is decoupled from any browser DOM dependencies, in a C# application? I am investigating implementing validation rules only once, for both server and client validation. See [this question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/265343/automatically-duplicating-business-logic-on-web-client) for reference if you like. Are there any JS interpretor libraries I could use?
*Addendum:*
My goal here is to automatically deploy and invoke exactly the same validation logic on client and server, without communication between the two during the actual validation. So, ideally I would code my validation logic in JavaScript, and render that to the page. Alternatively, I could code my logic in C#, convert that to JavaScript using [Script#](http://projects.nikhilk.net/ScriptSharp/), and render that to the page.
I don't want separate validation functions being maintained client and server side, and I don't want AJAX calls to server validation functions, and I don't want client only or server only validation. | 2008/11/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/268320",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8741/"
] | You could use [JScript.Net](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JScript_.NET)
Either that, or investigate [Script#](http://projects.nikhilk.net/ScriptSharp/) | [Windows Script Host](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9bbdkx3k.aspx) (WSH) is a Windows administration tool. You can use *PInvoke* to activate it from *C#*. Recognizes an MS specific (and old) version of JavaScript.
WSH creates an environment for hosting scripts. That is, when a script arrives at your computer, WSH plays the part of the host — it makes objects and services available for the script and provides a set of guidelines within which the script is executed. Among other things, Windows Script Host manages security and invokes the appropriate script engine. |
268,320 | Without using a WebBrowser control, how could I execute a JavaScript function, that is decoupled from any browser DOM dependencies, in a C# application? I am investigating implementing validation rules only once, for both server and client validation. See [this question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/265343/automatically-duplicating-business-logic-on-web-client) for reference if you like. Are there any JS interpretor libraries I could use?
*Addendum:*
My goal here is to automatically deploy and invoke exactly the same validation logic on client and server, without communication between the two during the actual validation. So, ideally I would code my validation logic in JavaScript, and render that to the page. Alternatively, I could code my logic in C#, convert that to JavaScript using [Script#](http://projects.nikhilk.net/ScriptSharp/), and render that to the page.
I don't want separate validation functions being maintained client and server side, and I don't want AJAX calls to server validation functions, and I don't want client only or server only validation. | 2008/11/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/268320",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8741/"
] | This may help [A script host for C#/VB.NET/JScript.NET](http://www.codeproject.com/KB/dotnet/nscript.aspx) it uses built in classes within the Framework to execute script in VB, C# or JavaScript.
It uses the [CodeDomProvider](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.codedom.compiler.codedomprovider.aspx) to execute the scripts, also check out [this](http://www.developerfusion.com/article/4529/using-net-to-make-your-application-scriptable/3/) article for a more complex example. | You could use [JScript.Net](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JScript_.NET)
Either that, or investigate [Script#](http://projects.nikhilk.net/ScriptSharp/) |
268,320 | Without using a WebBrowser control, how could I execute a JavaScript function, that is decoupled from any browser DOM dependencies, in a C# application? I am investigating implementing validation rules only once, for both server and client validation. See [this question](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/265343/automatically-duplicating-business-logic-on-web-client) for reference if you like. Are there any JS interpretor libraries I could use?
*Addendum:*
My goal here is to automatically deploy and invoke exactly the same validation logic on client and server, without communication between the two during the actual validation. So, ideally I would code my validation logic in JavaScript, and render that to the page. Alternatively, I could code my logic in C#, convert that to JavaScript using [Script#](http://projects.nikhilk.net/ScriptSharp/), and render that to the page.
I don't want separate validation functions being maintained client and server side, and I don't want AJAX calls to server validation functions, and I don't want client only or server only validation. | 2008/11/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/268320",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8741/"
] | This may help [A script host for C#/VB.NET/JScript.NET](http://www.codeproject.com/KB/dotnet/nscript.aspx) it uses built in classes within the Framework to execute script in VB, C# or JavaScript.
It uses the [CodeDomProvider](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.codedom.compiler.codedomprovider.aspx) to execute the scripts, also check out [this](http://www.developerfusion.com/article/4529/using-net-to-make-your-application-scriptable/3/) article for a more complex example. | [Windows Script Host](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9bbdkx3k.aspx) (WSH) is a Windows administration tool. You can use *PInvoke* to activate it from *C#*. Recognizes an MS specific (and old) version of JavaScript.
WSH creates an environment for hosting scripts. That is, when a script arrives at your computer, WSH plays the part of the host — it makes objects and services available for the script and provides a set of guidelines within which the script is executed. Among other things, Windows Script Host manages security and invokes the appropriate script engine. |
21,617 | I have a rather concrete issue for those of you well versed in the chemical sciences:
The situation
-------------
I know for a fact that most of the bottles I am using have been contaminated on the inside with vegetable oil during label removal. In retrospect, my situation could have been easily prevented, but in the mean time I do have hundreds of sub-optimal bottles that I badly want to use. I want to dissolve and remove the fat to make the bottles usable again.
The questions
-------------
1. Is fat dissolution possible while retaining the integrity of the glassware?
2. Which detergents or chemicals should i use, and what is their actual effect? | 2017/07/13 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/21617",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/13277/"
] | What not use a commercial brewing steriliser/cleaner like VWP? Soak in a solution made with very hot water overnight. One might find that all that is needed thereafter is a rinse with fresh water and drain dry. If necessary a scrub with a bottle brush should complete the job.
Specifically,
1) It should be easy to get rid of the fat/oil without compromising the glassware
2) A VPW is a good cleaning/degreasing agent that loosens and solvates fats and oils and it also is a source of chlorine that will sterilise the bottle at the same time.
However it may not be that the oily residue is causing the lack of head retention. That can be due to a myriad of reasons but hopefully using some VWP will indicate if the bottle contaminants are the cause. | I would suggest using a citric acid based cleaner to attempt to dissolve the fat. Leave it for a day or two and use a bottle brush to scrub the rest away |
21,617 | I have a rather concrete issue for those of you well versed in the chemical sciences:
The situation
-------------
I know for a fact that most of the bottles I am using have been contaminated on the inside with vegetable oil during label removal. In retrospect, my situation could have been easily prevented, but in the mean time I do have hundreds of sub-optimal bottles that I badly want to use. I want to dissolve and remove the fat to make the bottles usable again.
The questions
-------------
1. Is fat dissolution possible while retaining the integrity of the glassware?
2. Which detergents or chemicals should i use, and what is their actual effect? | 2017/07/13 | [
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/21617",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/13277/"
] | I would start with a mild dish washing soap with warm water, it usually gets rid of grease and oils. If you have a bottle brush, use it, if not shake the bottles well. Then rince the bottles well. If the glass bottles fit in your dishwasher, you can also give them a wash there first (glass only, not PET).
If this doesn't work, then I would look for a stronger product, but this should be enough. | I would suggest using a citric acid based cleaner to attempt to dissolve the fat. Leave it for a day or two and use a bottle brush to scrub the rest away |
554,164 | I just upgraded to the the Ubuntu 14.10 (Utopic Unicorn) from Ubuntu 14.04 (Trusty Tahr) and the dash is running slow and freezes every now and then.
I don't really want to go back to 14.04 since I would have to start from the beginning, and I just went through the process of getting the OS to work with my hardware. Is there anything I can do to make my computer work better with the OS? | 2014/11/28 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/554164",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/352777/"
] | you can disable few results that you dont need much:
* install Unity Tweak Tool
launch it. and open Search
1. disable 'background blur'
2. uncheck 'search online sources'
3. uncheck 'show "more suggestions"'
4. uncheck 'show "recently used" applications'
5. uncheck "enable search of your files" => this is must for more apparent speed up
you can skip any of these if you want.
---
if this does not works you can try light desktop environments like KDE and XFCE. you can install this from software center. install them and log out and select the session and login again.
 | Hope you have enough disk space for your home files or computer storage that runs the ubuntu software. I had the same issue once when I first installed ubuntu on a 7GB partition. But after I increased the disk size/storage it works fine and no freezing. I run a 32-bit laptop, with 2GB RAM and I am enjoying ubuntu 14.10. |
1,153,411 | As title says.
I used this very often in previous version, but in 2010 I do not see the "insert cut cells options" either in right-click menu or anywhere else.
This was very helpful to change column order. How do I solve this?
EDIT:
Issue is caused by an add-in (ChemDraw for Excel). The add-in allows you to convert a worksheet to use it's functions. The issue only appears on converted worksheets. On normal worksheets it's fine. | 2016/12/06 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1153411",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/242109/"
] | Issue is caused by an add-in (ChemDraw for Excel). The add-in allows you to convert a worksheet to use it's functions. The issue only appears on converted worksheets. On normal worksheets it's fine. | Option to insert cut (or copied) cells is among the things that can be turned on and off in "advanced" options.
According to Microsoft, in Excel 2010, you enable and disable by doing the following
1. Click the File tab, and then click Excel Options.
2. Click the Advanced tab.
3. Click to clear/unclear the Show Insert Options buttons check box in the Cut, copy, and paste section, and then click OK. (See [Knowledge base article]
I am using newer version, so can't actually confirm that this is the location in Excel 2010. |
44,813 | What crafting skills (and in turn [their related skills](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/42375/which-crew-skills-complement-each-other)) are good for each class?
I was thinking about doing Biochem on my Jedi Shadow as it seemed fairly general (a la *WoW* Alchemist) and I already have synthweaving on my Sith Sorcerer. My other characters are also approaching time to leave their starting planets as well. | 2011/12/30 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/44813",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/2259/"
] | **In general, Force Users will want to look at *Artifice* and *Synthweaving*, Non-Force Users will want to look at *Armormech* and *Armstech*. *Cybertech* and *Biochem* are of interest to all classes.**
For Gathering and Mission skills, simply [choose the ones that best compliment your choice of crafting skill](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/42375/which-crew-skills-complement-each-other), or, if so inclined [those you feel will be most profitable.](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/44013/how-can-i-earn-lots-of-credits)
Some things to note about the specific value of each skill:
**Biochem** is likely the most useful at endgame, as it's the only skill that is capable of providing an item that fills a recurring player need (Stims/Medpacks), and which is not purely replaceable with drops. Of particular note are the *reusable* Stims and Medpacks which Biochemists can make for themselves. As far as equipment goes, Biochem also provides recipes for **Implants**, so you can reliably fill and upgrade two equipment slots for yourself and any companions as you level. *Biochem is a great choice for players that prefer to rely heavily on consumables, and don't mind relying on drops and vendors for gear.*
**Cybertech** is the best choice if you are intent on using [orange items to maintain a specific 'look' for your character and or your companions.](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/44156/whats-the-deal-with-orange-items-without-stats) Cybertech provides the **Armoring** and **Mod** slots for these items - two of the 4 slots found on most Weapons and Armor. In addition, Cybertechs can fully outfit Droid companions, as well as producing **Earpieces** for themselves and companions (filling one equipment slot with up to date gear at all times), and **Ship Upgrades**. Finally, Cybertechnicians get to make their own cool custom speeder bikes. *Cybertech is a great choice for players who prefer 'custom' (Orange) armor, classes that rely on droid companions (Trooper, Jedi Knight, and Imperial Agent, or anyone who is fond of the Ship Droid), and those who are very fond of space combat missions.*
**Artifice** is primarily aimed at Force Users, but others *can* make use of this tradeskills ability to create **Color Crystals** and **Enhancements**. The former are used in Blasters as well as Light Sabers, and most orange equipment has slots for the latter. While a Lightsaber user will benefit more, it's not a horrific choice for others. One notable limitation is that very few companions use Lightsabers, so Artifice isn't the best choice for outfitting them.
**Synthweaving** is almost exclusively useful to Force Users. It provides no notable crafting recipes of interest to folks who prefer Blasters to Lightsabers - and since non-force users don't have any 'Jedi' companions availiable to them, it's not even useful for equipping companions. However, for Sith or Jedi characters, *Synthweaving is a powerful choice, as it will ensure that you always have up to date gear availaible for yourself, and at least some of your companions.*
**Armstech** fills a similar role to Artifice for Blaster types. Unlike Artifice however, it provides little that would be of interest to a Force User beyond companion gear. Also unlike Artifice however, it is *much more useful* for equipping companions, since most of them do use Blasters, Vibroswords/knives, Scatterguns, and other weapons of the sort that Armstechnicians can craft.
**Armormech** is similar to Synthweaving for the pew pew set, but again, like Armstech, is much more useful in equipping companions. Like Armstech, it provides little to nothing of interest to a force user, who should skip it for Synth. | I don't really have an answer, per se, but want to point out that each companion has certain skill bonuses. If you're only going to have one or two characters, I wouldn't give a lot of thought to that, and just follow Less' recommendations. But if you don't mind leveling a group of other characters to the point of getting certain companions, you may want to consider those skill bonuses and choose a character to do the skills you want based on that. It isn't like you need to have your main character do all the crafting - although it helps. The crafting character can mail the items to whichever other characters need them. |
31,180,538 | I have downloaded a theme and installed in my drupal website. All the static contents are already created but I would like to add some custom features to the website.
Should I create custom module(s) and installed into my website or are there anyway to add those features, thanks. | 2015/07/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31180538",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3390955/"
] | If the features are not provided by a contributed module and you can't fullfill your requirements by Site-Buildung you should create a custom module. On <http://drupal.org> is an introduction [Developing Drupal Modules](https://www.drupal.org/developing/modules) | For "smaller", theme related features you don't even have to create your module - you can place your code in template.php file in your theme directory. |
296 | We know that it is possible for humans to stay physically in shape during long term space missions (see for example [Valeri Polyakov](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valeri_Polyakov) who stayed on Mir for more than 14 months for one trip). However, the challenges of manned space exploration are different and would include even longer durations.
Reducing the need of the constant physical training required by the Zero-G environment could help to make manned exploration missions more viable. This could be achieved by artificial gravity.
Is artificial gravity feasible today? Would it indeed help to make manned exploration viable? | 2013/07/17 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/296",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/121/"
] | "Artificial" gravity is the name given to techniques to create acceleration that mimics gravitational force. There are two major ways to do this -- both of which are very feasible:
1. Rotation -- in this case, the acceleration is created by [centripetal force](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Centripetal_force). The rotating structure accelerates the crew by forcing them to follow a curved (usually circular) path. This is usually depicted as a rotating torus, but is probably easier to do with a crew compartment tethered to a counterweight spinning about their combined center of gravity.
2. Continuous acceleration -- in this case, the vehicle is undergoing constant thrust, which accelerates the crew and gives the impression of gravity. This is probably only practical for very long (interstellar?) missions and in fact is probably a beneficial side effect of the propulsion required.
Both of these methods probably improve the long term environment for the crew, but do add significant complexities to the spacecraft. | In manned long-term space exploration, where your objective is interstellar, and your time frame is within a single human lifetime. Lack of simulated gravity is not the problem, rather it is the limiting factor for transit time.
Assuming sufficient propulsion (i.e. [Bussard ramjet](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bussard_ramjet)) the ship would accelerate at 1 gravity until half way to the destination, then at the halfway point, turn around and decelerate for the other half of the journey. Other then a brief period of zero gee at turn over, the content acceleration would provide "artificial gravity".
You can only accelerate so fast without squishing your ships occupants. So being limited to a single gravity for acceleration is one of the key limiting factors in getting very far in a human lifetime. |
296 | We know that it is possible for humans to stay physically in shape during long term space missions (see for example [Valeri Polyakov](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valeri_Polyakov) who stayed on Mir for more than 14 months for one trip). However, the challenges of manned space exploration are different and would include even longer durations.
Reducing the need of the constant physical training required by the Zero-G environment could help to make manned exploration missions more viable. This could be achieved by artificial gravity.
Is artificial gravity feasible today? Would it indeed help to make manned exploration viable? | 2013/07/17 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/296",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/121/"
] | "Artificial" gravity is the name given to techniques to create acceleration that mimics gravitational force. There are two major ways to do this -- both of which are very feasible:
1. Rotation -- in this case, the acceleration is created by [centripetal force](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Centripetal_force). The rotating structure accelerates the crew by forcing them to follow a curved (usually circular) path. This is usually depicted as a rotating torus, but is probably easier to do with a crew compartment tethered to a counterweight spinning about their combined center of gravity.
2. Continuous acceleration -- in this case, the vehicle is undergoing constant thrust, which accelerates the crew and gives the impression of gravity. This is probably only practical for very long (interstellar?) missions and in fact is probably a beneficial side effect of the propulsion required.
Both of these methods probably improve the long term environment for the crew, but do add significant complexities to the spacecraft. | Assuming a sufficient budget, a spin-habitat is a highly viable option. To maintain 1G and an acceptable ≤2 RPM rotation, one needs a radius of 223m or so.
Given human needs, a torus of 5m habitat tube at 223m median radius, with a pair of 1mm steel hull shells, is a mass of about 55 cubic meters of steel or about 300 metric tons, just for a fairly thin structural torus. Adding additional support structure should at least double that mass. That's the prohibitive expense.
[SpinCalc Online Calculator](http://www.artificial-gravity.com/sw/SpinCalc/) |
296 | We know that it is possible for humans to stay physically in shape during long term space missions (see for example [Valeri Polyakov](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valeri_Polyakov) who stayed on Mir for more than 14 months for one trip). However, the challenges of manned space exploration are different and would include even longer durations.
Reducing the need of the constant physical training required by the Zero-G environment could help to make manned exploration missions more viable. This could be achieved by artificial gravity.
Is artificial gravity feasible today? Would it indeed help to make manned exploration viable? | 2013/07/17 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/296",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/121/"
] | Assuming a sufficient budget, a spin-habitat is a highly viable option. To maintain 1G and an acceptable ≤2 RPM rotation, one needs a radius of 223m or so.
Given human needs, a torus of 5m habitat tube at 223m median radius, with a pair of 1mm steel hull shells, is a mass of about 55 cubic meters of steel or about 300 metric tons, just for a fairly thin structural torus. Adding additional support structure should at least double that mass. That's the prohibitive expense.
[SpinCalc Online Calculator](http://www.artificial-gravity.com/sw/SpinCalc/) | In manned long-term space exploration, where your objective is interstellar, and your time frame is within a single human lifetime. Lack of simulated gravity is not the problem, rather it is the limiting factor for transit time.
Assuming sufficient propulsion (i.e. [Bussard ramjet](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bussard_ramjet)) the ship would accelerate at 1 gravity until half way to the destination, then at the halfway point, turn around and decelerate for the other half of the journey. Other then a brief period of zero gee at turn over, the content acceleration would provide "artificial gravity".
You can only accelerate so fast without squishing your ships occupants. So being limited to a single gravity for acceleration is one of the key limiting factors in getting very far in a human lifetime. |
17,869,228 | Is there a way to export photoshop/Illustrator files to .ttf or .otf files? I know there is no option for it in these programs themselves, but perhaps there is a third party program which can import them?
Are programs like Glyphs or something the only way to make fonts? And how do professionals make them?
Hope you can help | 2013/07/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17869228",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2246241/"
] | FontLab (commercial app) can import Illustrator paths: <http://www.fontlab.com/contact-and-support/faq/faq-fontlab-typetool-mdash-glyph-drawing/> . FontForge (FOSS) can as well, and apparently some other vector formats: <http://fontforge.org/importexample.html>
As for the second part of your question: most professionals use tools such as FontLab, Glyphs, RoboFont, etc. and draw directly in the font-making applications. In many cases they will work from a template/background of some sort, such as a scan of hand-drawings, or perhaps outlines of a different weight of the same design, etc. | If you are looking to make an Icon as a font then this guide will help.
The easiest way is to use a great free online app called [IcoMoon](https://icomoon.io/), by Keyamoon, which takes away all of the hassle of converting symbols into a web font. Click RED button on top "ICO Moon App" and just go with the flow.
For Step by Step guide for doing the conversion you can follow the below link:
<http://www.webdesignerdepot.com/2013/04/how-to-turn-your-icons-into-a-web-font/> |
1,117,674 | At my wits end! These are the devices:
Windows 7 pro x64 on a lenovo thinkpad w541.
Sony mdr-zx770bn bluetooth headset
I can 'pair' the devices (inasmuch as an 'MDR-ZX770BN' icon shows in Devices and Printers). But drivers are never located. I get "bluetooth peripheral device - driver not found". In Device Manager, I get three new yellow-flagged devices in the 'other devices' category.
Sony's website says there are no drivers for this headset (implying, I suppose, that I should use the built-in Windows drivers). Their website explicitly mentions that this headset is supported by Windows 7.
Contacted Sony chat support and wasted about 45 minutes with them, other than to confirm that indeed there are no Sony drivers for this headset, and that indeed the headset is supported by Windows 7. They told me to contact Microsoft.
Microsoft's website has information on this error message: obtain the driver from the peripheral's manufacturer.
I'm now stuck in FPP (finger-pointing purgatory).
However I found one ray of light. I found a couple of threads in various forums that recommend manually updating the drivers of the unknown devices to use the Microsoft "Standard serial over Bluetooth link". I did so, and now Device Manager sees four new entries under Ports (COM and LPT): four different instances of the serial-over-bluetooth driver, each using a different COM port (COM4, COM5, COM6, COM7).
I did a properties of the headset's bluetooth icon in Devices and Printers and found that FOUR services were enabled for this device: Audio Sink (COM5), Handsfree Telephony (COM4), Headset (COM7) and Remote Control (COM6).
Unfortunately, even though the headset is paired and now has some drivers assigned to it, and no yellow-triangles or red-Xs appear in Device Manager, the headset does not show up as an audio device in Windows (microphone or speaker). Even after power cycle and re-pairing.
Maybe the bluetooth radio driver needs updation? I have Intel bluetooth radio (USB\VID\_8087&PID\_07DC). Windows update said I had the latest version but I was able to find a newer version (19.0.1621.3340). After installing that driver, nothing changed for better or worse.
There's also a Microsoft bluetooth enumerator. I haven't tried to find a newer version of that. It is currently at 6.1.7601.17889
that's where I stand now.
I suspect one solution is to buy a USB-Bluetooth dongle, but I'd like to solve this with the native hardware if possible. | 2016/08/25 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1117674",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/634164/"
] | My issue is solved (mostly). I tried to post the solution here, but the forum thinks my answer is spam. Leaving out the details, these were the two major issues I needed to resolve: (1) obtain updated drivers (even though windows said I had the latest drivers, that was not the case); (2) disable all services for the bluetooth device *except* for "audio sink". sorry cannot provide more details - apparently my writing is so bad it reeks of spam. | Try ALL the USB slots if you are planning to use a USB Bluetooth connector. Mine functioned by changing from the back ports to the front. |
7,897 | Falcon Heavy is expected to take 4 times more mass to LEO than Falcon 9 (53 instead of 13 tons). Are bigger rockets generally about 4/3 times more capable per fuel mass and engine thrust? It doesn't seem to be true for Delta IV Heavy compared with Delta IV. Its 3 common core boosters give 3 times more payload mass to LEO. (9 and 27 tons). | 2015/01/19 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/7897",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/1457/"
] | The 53 metric tonne number comes from the use of [propellant cross feed](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Propellant_crossfeed). And only when using propellant cross feed. When not using it, payload to LEO is lower, but I cannot find a reference to that number.
Cross feed means that the center core has connections to the side cores, sending fuel and oxidizer over from each side to the engines of the center core. This way, when the two side boosters burn out, the center core is mostly full of fuel/oxidizer, converting from a 2 stage vehicle to a functional three stage vehicle. The side boosters only feed the three engines closest to the side booster. Thus 6 of the 9 engines are cross fed, and the middle three of the middle core are fed from its native tankage.
Then the center core, acting as a second stage, can burn most of a full Falcon core's worth to boost the upper stage (now really a third stage) to orbit for it to finish the mission.
It is amazing how big a deal cross feed makes. Alas, it turns out that SpaceX decided it was not worth the effort. Instead they went with launching with all 27 engines at full thrust, and soon after they are moving, throttle down the 9 engines from the middle core, so that the side cores burn out sooner and still give a staging effect.
Delta 4 Heavy, burns all three cores at basically the same rate, though they might be considering full thrust to start, throttle down the center core, separate the cores, and burn the center core a bit longer to get a pseudo third stage effect.
Angara 3 or 5 which will be flying with multiple strapons may have the ability to do something similar with throttling, but unless it is built in from the beginning, cross feed is very hard to add afterwards.
But throttling down the center core to burn longer after the side cores separate is not as effective of emptying the side boosters much faster, staging earlier, throwing away all that extra mass, and then burning the lighter 'second' stage longer. However, SpaceX decided to go with throttling instead of cross feed in the end.
Most likely this is because no paying customer actually needed the full payload capacity for a mission. Thus they get close enough with throttling. Additionally, between the time they announced the first iteration of Falcon Heavy, and the first launch, the Falcon core booster greatly improved.
The performance of the Falcon 9 1.0 (the first 5 boosters) differs greatly from the Block 5 Falcon 9. They went from a LEO payload of 10,450kg to 22,800kg and the penultimate Falcon Heavy will be using the newer boosters.
The first Falcon Heavy mission actually uses Block 3 side boosters (They are previously flown Block 3 boosters). The center core is unique and new, but is thought (Not seen any evidence yet) to not be quite the Block 5 design. The future flights are expected to use three Block 5 cores.
Much of that performance boost is Merlin related, where the Merlin 1A/1B from the original Falcon 1 was only around 75,000 lbs of thrust.
The Merlin 1C used in the Falcon 9 1.0 was a great improvement at closer to 125,000lbs of sea level thrust.
The Merlin 1D used in Falcon 9 1.2/Full Thrust is closer to 170,000lbs of thrust.
The final version expected to be used in Block 5 (No name change officially yet) is expected to increase again, closer to 190,000lbs.
Thus they more than doubled single stick payload performance between the time Falcon Heavy was announced and its first launch.
This allowed them to get payload back to what they originally predicted, without the need for the more complex cross feed. | <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Falcon_9>
Falcon 9 payload
to LEO: 22.8tons
to GTO: 8.3tons
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Falcon_Heavy>
Falcon Heavy payload
to LEO: 63.8tons
to GTO: 26.7tons
FH performance is just 180% more for LEO, but 220% more for GTO
So, no, its NOT 4x more to LEO, that was using cross feed, which has been abandoned because its too risky and complex and is not necessary for existing missions SpaceX sees enough market opportunities for
With cross feed, FH might throw 70+ tons to LEO, perhaps over 4x as much
Why is that ? The two additional side boosters don't add performance linearly. The 3 boosters function as FH first stage and then when the side boosters are jettisoned, the center booster alone functions as a second stage. This improves performance non linearly.
Without cross feed, the side boosters must stay attached longer, reducing the burn time of the 2nd stage configuration. With cross feed, the side boosters feed the center booster fuel until separation, providing a fully fuelled center booster upon separation, substantially increasing the 2nd stage burn time
In this thought process the upper stage is now a 3rd stage
The further reason cross feed was abandoned is with it the center booster finishes burning going way too fast and way too high, that in order to recover it, an ASDS platform might have be be positioned 2x to 3x as far from the launch pad as with F9. Since the revised Block V non cross feed FH can now handle all missions SpaceX has been hired to perform, its logical to make it easier to recover all 3 boosters which is far more important than having performance no customer is willing to pay for. |
76,149 | During the reading of **John 16:24**, I came in contact with something quite "strange", why does Rabbi Yeshua (who is *Jesus Christ*) speaks?
>
> 24 Until now you have asked nothing in my name. Ask, and you will
> receive, that your **joy** may be full.
>
>
>
Who "has asked?" and why in that moment, would people ask the right way and have joy, and what joy is it exactly that they would be full of? | 2022/05/06 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/76149",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/45929/"
] | *Who?*
Jesus is speaking here to 11 of the 12 apostles (Judas has already left).
*Ask in my name*
It is clear that the disciples have already learned to pray and to ask the Father for the things they need; but apparently they have not been praying in the name of Jesus Christ--He instructs them to do so.
*Joy*
Jesus promises *ask and you will receive*, which is in part an answer to why they will have joy. But Jesus also identifies, in the same sermon, other reasons for which His followers will have joy:
* They will see Him again (see verse 22)
* The work & the people of Christ will ultimately overcome the world
He's warning the disciples of the sorrow they will experience, and instructing them to trust Him and to pray in His name. He is ensuring they realize the temporary sorrow they will experience here lies along a path to something far better beyond this world:
>
> These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world. (John 16:33)
>
>
>
Joy in the fullest sense in which Christ offers it is not a feature of this world. Indeed, as He told Pilate the following day, *my kingdom is not of this world*. Jesus has something far more lasting in mind. | This is the second time Jesus has told the disciples to pray in Jesus' name. Note the two instances:
* John 14:12-14 - Truly, truly, I tell you, whoever believes in Me will also do the works that I am doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. And I will do whatever you **ask in My name**, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask Me for anything **in My name**, I will do it.
* John 16:23, 24 - In that day you will no longer ask Me anything. Truly, truly, I tell you, whatever you ask the Father **in My name**, He will give you. Until now you have not asked for anything **in My name**. Ask and you will receive, so that your joy may be complete.
There are two matters that we should observe here:
**1. Prayers to Jesus**
Jesus instructs people to pray to Him (Lord Jesus) which is what we observe in the remainder of the NT. Here is a sample:
* Acts 1:24, 25 - And they prayed, “Lord, You know everyone’s heart. Show us which of these two You have chosen to take up this ministry and apostleship, which Judas abandoned to go to his rightful place.”
* Acts 7:59, 60 - While they were stoning him, Stephen appealed, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” Falling on his knees, he cried out in a loud voice, “Lord, do not hold this sin against them.” And when he had said this, he fell asleep.
* Acts 9:5, 10-14 - “Who are You, Lord?” Saul asked. ... In Damascus there was a disciple named Ananias. The Lord spoke to him in a vision, “Ananias!” “Here I am, Lord,” he answered. ... But Ananias answered, “Lord, many people have told me about this man and all the harm he has done to Your saints in Jerusalem. And now he is here with authority from the chief priests to arrest all who call on Your name.”
* 1 Cor 1:2 - To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours
* 1 Cor 16:22 - If anyone does not love the Lord, let him be under a curse. Come, O Lord!
* 2 Cor 12:8, 9 - Three times I pleaded with the Lord to take it away from me. But He said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for My power is perfected in weakness.” Therefore I will boast all the more gladly in my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may rest on me.
* 1 Tim 1:12 - I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who has strengthened me, that He considered me faithful and appointed me to service.
* 2 Thess 2:16, 17 - Now may our Lord Jesus Christ Himself and God our Father, who by grace has loved us and given us eternal comfort and good hope, encourage your hearts and strengthen you in every good word and deed.
**2. What is the Joy?**
The joy that Jesus is referring to in John 16:24 is explicitly defined in the previous few verses - the joy of seeing Jesus again!
>
> John 16:19-22 - Aware that they wanted to question Him, Jesus said to
> them, “Are you asking one another why I said, ‘In a little while you
> will not see Me, and then after a little while you will see Me’?
> Truly, truly, I tell you, you will weep and wail while the world
> rejoices. You will grieve, but your grief will turn to joy. A woman
> has pain in childbirth because her time has come; but when she brings
> forth her child, she forgets her anguish because of her joy that a
> child has been born into the world. So also you have sorrow now, **but
> I will see you again and your hearts will rejoice, and no one will
> take away your joy**.
>
>
>
Jesus makes a similar statement in John 15:9-11 -
>
> As the Father has loved Me, so have I loved you. Remain in My love. If
> you keep My commandments, you will remain in My love, just as I have
> kept My Father’s commandments and remain in His love. I have told you
> these things so that My joy may be in you and **your joy may be
> complete**.
>
>
>
Thus, Jesus offers two ways that the disciples' joy be complete -
* Joy is completed/fulfilled by doing the Father's commandments (ie, will)
* Joy is completed/fulfilled when we see Jesus return the second time. (Compare John 19:27.)
Note the comments of Ellicott concerning John 15:11 -
>
> And that your joy might be full.—Comp. the words of the Intercessory
> Prayer in John 17:13, and the same phrase in John 3:29; John 16:24; 1
> John 1:4; 2 John 1:12. The state of which He has spoken to them—the
> loving and being loved of God—is the ideal perfection of human life.
> It supplies satisfaction for all the deepest desires of our being. The
> capacities of the whole man are fulfilled in it, and the result is
> fullness of joy. They have learnt little of the true spirit of
> Christianity whose religion does not impart to them a joy which sheds
> its light over the whole of their lives.
>
>
> |
76,149 | During the reading of **John 16:24**, I came in contact with something quite "strange", why does Rabbi Yeshua (who is *Jesus Christ*) speaks?
>
> 24 Until now you have asked nothing in my name. Ask, and you will
> receive, that your **joy** may be full.
>
>
>
Who "has asked?" and why in that moment, would people ask the right way and have joy, and what joy is it exactly that they would be full of? | 2022/05/06 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/76149",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/45929/"
] | During the last supper and before Jesus was arrested, Jesus repeatedly told His disciples from then onwards, they could ask anything in Jesus name.
>
> *13* And I will do whatever you **ask in my name**, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. *14* You may **ask me for anything in my name**, and I will do it. (John 14:13-14 NIV)
>
>
> *16* You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last—and so that whatever you **ask in my name** the Father will give you. (John 15:16 NIV)
>
>
> *24* Until now you have not **asked for anything in my name**. Ask and you will receive, and your joy will be complete. *25* “Though I have been speaking figuratively, a time is coming when I will no longer use this kind of language but will tell you plainly about my Father. *26* In that day you will **ask in my name**. I am not saying that I will ask the Father on your behalf. *27* No, the Father himself loves you because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God. (John 16:24-27 NIV)
>
>
>
These words were Jesus specific told the eleven disciples who stayed with Jesus in the last supper. They were the "Who".
Jesus had told His disciples why should they ask in His name. Right from the start, the verse in John 14:13, it is because "so that the Father may be glorified in the Son". So it is not whatever they asked, Jesus will do it. There is a condition, the condition is "the Father may be glorified". Then why did Jesus use the term "whatever", that sound like unconditional? I believe many Christian today have the same thought, can I ask "whatever" in the name of Jesus, and I get it?
When Jesus told His disciples whatever they asked in His name, He will do it. It is not a lie. In between these verses, Jesus had revealed what came after when He ascended to His Father. Jesus called him;
* an advocate (John 14:16, 15:26, 16:7 NIV)
* the Spirit of truth (John 14:17, 15:26, 16:13 NIV)
* the Holy Spirit (John 14:26, 16:15 NIV)
Jesus told His disciples;
* On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you. (John 14:20 NIV)
So whatever His disciples asked is to complete the works that Jesus left them to do. Surely Jesus will grant everything they ask.
**What is the "Joy"?**
Jesus used a metaphor to explain it;
>
> A woman giving birth to a child has pain because her time has come; but when her baby is born she forgets the anguish because of her joy that a child is born into the world. (John 16:21 NIV)
>
>
>
The woman is the Church. Her baby is the Christian. Isn't that in Luke chapter 15, there are a few parables describe the joy of heaven and earth for the lost is found? The Parable of the Lost Sheep; the parable of the Lost Coin and the parable of the prodigal son.
These eleven disciples were going to continue what Jesus left them to do, established His Church, and **"they will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.”** (Acts 1:8 NIV)
Their joy will be completed as they fulfilled their mission on earth. | This is the second time Jesus has told the disciples to pray in Jesus' name. Note the two instances:
* John 14:12-14 - Truly, truly, I tell you, whoever believes in Me will also do the works that I am doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. And I will do whatever you **ask in My name**, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask Me for anything **in My name**, I will do it.
* John 16:23, 24 - In that day you will no longer ask Me anything. Truly, truly, I tell you, whatever you ask the Father **in My name**, He will give you. Until now you have not asked for anything **in My name**. Ask and you will receive, so that your joy may be complete.
There are two matters that we should observe here:
**1. Prayers to Jesus**
Jesus instructs people to pray to Him (Lord Jesus) which is what we observe in the remainder of the NT. Here is a sample:
* Acts 1:24, 25 - And they prayed, “Lord, You know everyone’s heart. Show us which of these two You have chosen to take up this ministry and apostleship, which Judas abandoned to go to his rightful place.”
* Acts 7:59, 60 - While they were stoning him, Stephen appealed, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” Falling on his knees, he cried out in a loud voice, “Lord, do not hold this sin against them.” And when he had said this, he fell asleep.
* Acts 9:5, 10-14 - “Who are You, Lord?” Saul asked. ... In Damascus there was a disciple named Ananias. The Lord spoke to him in a vision, “Ananias!” “Here I am, Lord,” he answered. ... But Ananias answered, “Lord, many people have told me about this man and all the harm he has done to Your saints in Jerusalem. And now he is here with authority from the chief priests to arrest all who call on Your name.”
* 1 Cor 1:2 - To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours
* 1 Cor 16:22 - If anyone does not love the Lord, let him be under a curse. Come, O Lord!
* 2 Cor 12:8, 9 - Three times I pleaded with the Lord to take it away from me. But He said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for My power is perfected in weakness.” Therefore I will boast all the more gladly in my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may rest on me.
* 1 Tim 1:12 - I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who has strengthened me, that He considered me faithful and appointed me to service.
* 2 Thess 2:16, 17 - Now may our Lord Jesus Christ Himself and God our Father, who by grace has loved us and given us eternal comfort and good hope, encourage your hearts and strengthen you in every good word and deed.
**2. What is the Joy?**
The joy that Jesus is referring to in John 16:24 is explicitly defined in the previous few verses - the joy of seeing Jesus again!
>
> John 16:19-22 - Aware that they wanted to question Him, Jesus said to
> them, “Are you asking one another why I said, ‘In a little while you
> will not see Me, and then after a little while you will see Me’?
> Truly, truly, I tell you, you will weep and wail while the world
> rejoices. You will grieve, but your grief will turn to joy. A woman
> has pain in childbirth because her time has come; but when she brings
> forth her child, she forgets her anguish because of her joy that a
> child has been born into the world. So also you have sorrow now, **but
> I will see you again and your hearts will rejoice, and no one will
> take away your joy**.
>
>
>
Jesus makes a similar statement in John 15:9-11 -
>
> As the Father has loved Me, so have I loved you. Remain in My love. If
> you keep My commandments, you will remain in My love, just as I have
> kept My Father’s commandments and remain in His love. I have told you
> these things so that My joy may be in you and **your joy may be
> complete**.
>
>
>
Thus, Jesus offers two ways that the disciples' joy be complete -
* Joy is completed/fulfilled by doing the Father's commandments (ie, will)
* Joy is completed/fulfilled when we see Jesus return the second time. (Compare John 19:27.)
Note the comments of Ellicott concerning John 15:11 -
>
> And that your joy might be full.—Comp. the words of the Intercessory
> Prayer in John 17:13, and the same phrase in John 3:29; John 16:24; 1
> John 1:4; 2 John 1:12. The state of which He has spoken to them—the
> loving and being loved of God—is the ideal perfection of human life.
> It supplies satisfaction for all the deepest desires of our being. The
> capacities of the whole man are fulfilled in it, and the result is
> fullness of joy. They have learnt little of the true spirit of
> Christianity whose religion does not impart to them a joy which sheds
> its light over the whole of their lives.
>
>
> |
66,252 | I know that many Statistics PhD students come from undergraduate / master's level math / applied math backgrounds. So, many will have taken a full-year of introductory real analysis and most likely also complex analysis (and lots of linear algebra and linear algebraic courses, such as scientific computing) -- but perhaps not measure-theoretic analysis.
Would you say that it is imperative to try and take a measure theory course to strengthen one's application to PhD programs in Statistics?
A lot of my classmates are fixated on the idea that measure theory is a necessity for Phd admission, while one professor that I spoke with internally thinks that this is a myth. But, he is a mathematician, so I'd rather ask the question here, just to gather more information.
Thanks, | 2016/04/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/66252",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/51735/"
] | Measure theory is essential for higher level probability.
However, I believe most graduate schools will have a graduate course on measure theory. Thus it is not absolutely necessary to have learnt measure theory before entering graduate school. | Most statistics doctoral programs don't require their applicants to know measure theory, but then again, some very good doctoral statistics programs don't even require measure theory at all. (Case in point is Virginia Tech, which at least back in the early 2000's when I was there, had a great applied statistics department and measure theory was not required for the PhD program).
Do you need measure theory do statistics? Well, if you plan to work in academics as a statistician or want to do cutting edge research in financial analysis, you probably need it but I would say for a large portion of applied statisticians working outside of academics, the answer is no. IMO, it is not that important for the vast majority of what applied statisticians do (experimental design, data visualization, and estimation). Most of my friends who have high level positions in companies as statistical consultants report they never use it (which has been true for me also). |
121,694 | I am trying to recreate Wheatly from Portal, and I have tried to make his pixelated eyes by have a pixel grid with rectangular holes over the light source. However, as you can see by the picture, the curves within some of the pixels destroys the pixelated attempt. Is there a clear way for pixelating circuluar patterns like this? If, so, which method would you recommend? Thanks!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wJjmW.png) | 2018/10/31 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/121694",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/49514/"
] | While I am not familiar with the subject in question, one way would be to use a custom image and use it as an emissive shader.
image used: <http://orig14.deviantart.net/3961/f/2012/050/a/f/wheatley__s_eye_by_mycroftporthos-d4qarjf.png>
Obviously you can find a better image (more pixelated) or make your own and use some filter in photo editors app like Photoshop, Affinity, Gimp or whichever you prefer.
Photoshop has a bunch of filter under the category Pixelate.
Affinity also has a filter under the Distort category called Pixelate and I'm sure Gimp also has one.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ldhYY.png) | This isn't more of an answer than [this one](https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/112304/how-to-achieve-a-realistic-material-for-an-operative-phone-screen/118394#118394) by @Rich Sedman, but I've taken the 'pixellate' section from it and made an adjustable node-group from it.
This is the node group:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MujpU.jpg)
How it works is explained in the original answer.
This is an example of its usage:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3bOTN.jpg)
Inputs: Number of tiles in X, Number of tiles in Y, The thickness of the borders between pixels as a fraction of 1 (the full UV dimension)
Outputs: The vector to plug into your image texture, and an 'In Border' value of 0 or 1, so you can decide what to do with the parts of the output between the tiles.
Example material:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Gsi5y.jpg)
I can't promise it's bombproof .. or necessarily the simplest group to do this.
[](https://blend-exchange.giantcowfilms.com/b/5478/) |
113,460 | In *Nobody*, Yulian asked a hacker to find out about Hutch Mansell but the moment the hacker saw Hutch's file she quit working for Yulian without pay.
Why? | 2021/04/26 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/113460",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/87213/"
] | >
> The only evidence given is that the meteorites apparently originated in the Klendathu region of space.
>
>
>
This is true BUT we do know that the Bugs are spacefaring since they have colonised other planets in the Quarantine Zone.
Thus although we do not know the *mechanism* by which the bugs transport the meteors *completely across the galaxy* it's not impossible that they do.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xL3J1.jpg)
There is no evidence also that Buenos Aires was actually targeted, a meteor of any reasonable size would cause significant damage wherever on Earth it hits. B.A. was plot-chosen as it's Rico's home city
There is no evidence either way that this was a false flag operation so we can't prove it was or wasn't. | Speaking from memory (haven't watched the film from a number of years), I recall the film had a relatively strong implication that the Humans are projecting onto the bugs aspects of their own collective behavior. One of these aspects is being the aggressor in the conflict. Now, the film is presented from a conformist/mainstream Human perspective, so you won't get a subplot of questioning the official story and investigation by an intrepid freethinker - you only get messages through failures and gaps in the official Human narrative, and from the scenes you are witness too yourself. But the latter are quite limited: It's mostly Rico's perspective.
You can possibly make the analogy to a US ground soldier, sent overseas as part of the forces invading Iraq. He was told "Saddam had weapons of mass destruction", but there wasn't any actual evidence that this was the case, just unsubstantiated claims. This might not have been enough for the politically astute, but it was enough justification as far as the troops were concerned. |
67,622 | In "Silicon Avatar," after discovering the Crystalline Entity hovering in the planet's orbit, several colonists, Dr. Crusher, Riker, and Data start to run for their lives.
Certain episodes seem to suggest that Data was spared from the Omicron Theta Crystalline Entity destruction because he was shut off, and therefore not "alive" at the time. However, according to memory alpha, the Crystalline Entity converts organic matter into energy. I am not aware of Data having any organic components.
So, which is it? Either Data has some organic parts, and therefore he was truly in danger of being destroyed by the Entity, or he really wasn't saved by "being off" on Omicron Theta. Perhaps Data's running in "Silicon Avatar" was not to protect himself, but merely to guide the colonists to safety, since they obviously were in danger. Or, a third alternative: the Entity is also dangerous to inorganic life, and memory alpha's entry is incomplete. | 2014/09/12 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/67622",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Per my answer [here](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/67587/why-didnt-data-stay-onboard-the-enterprise-during-the-baryon-sweep/67588#67588), it's clear that while Data doesn't have any organic components, he does possess some components that closely replicate human tissue and fluids. It's conceivable but unlikely that these would be damaged by the Crystalline Entity's beam.
The main reason why Data seems to be running for the caves is not to protect his own existence, but to protect the lives of the colonists and because he was [directly ordered to do so by Riker](http://www.st-minutiae.com/academy/literature329/204.txt). It's worth noting that the order was largely unnecessary since his ethical subroutines would result in him disobeying an order to abandon them.
>
> Riker, Beverly, Data, and Carmen are herding people together.
>
>
> **RIKER :** **Let's go!** (calling) *Beverly! This way!*
>
>
>
On his arrival at the cave, his presence is once again essential since it's his job (as senior scientific officer on the planet) to scan the caves to see if they're safe to hide in. | He probably was safe
====================
There are two instances here that I think are of crucial importance, both from *TNG* 'Datalore'
1. Lore seemed to be immune
When Lore is speaking with the Crystalline Entity, he says:
>
> LORE: Very good. You've understand [sic] perfectly so far. Next, I'll signal that I'm about to transport something out, **at which time the deflector shields will turn off for a moment, and if you move in at that time**
>
>
>
([Source](http://www.chakoteya.net/NextGen/114.htm))
Unfortunately, Lore was cut off from finishing his sentence, but it certainly sounds as though he was about to say that "if you move in at that time, you can attack". Assuming this is correct, it seems that Lore was going to make the *Enterprise-D* vulnerable to attack from the Entity, but he was going to remain active without any apparent protection from the Entity. This suggests to me that Lore knew he would be safe from whatever the Crystalline Entity does to organic beings. Lore is physically identical to Data (as per 'Brothers'), so if the assumptions here are correct, Data would have been safe.
2. Data was left outside and no harm came to him
Again in 'Datalore':
>
> DATA: I have always felt that it was done hurriedly, but I know little more. Here, sir. This is where the cruiser's landing party found the signal device that had led them here. And they found me lying there, sir.
>
>
> (He indicates a platform, obviously man-made, on a rock shelf)
>
>
> TASHA: **You were just lying out there in the open?** No identity record, no instructions?
>
>
> DATA: **Only a layer of dust.**
>
>
>
Data was obviously not harmed by the Entity's deadly methods, despite not having any protection. Later in the episode they claim that Data was safe from the Entity because he wasn't alive at the time, just like Lore, although I don't buy this based on my argument in point 1 above. Also, what difference would it make if Data were 'alive' or not? Data must have energy reserves. As Data wasn't very well understood even after 27 years by the time of 'The Measure of a Man', it's quite unlikely the Starfleet team who discovered him would have known how provide him with the power he needed. I expect that Data still had energy within his reserves and I highly doubt that such energy would have been converted to organic energy if he were active. |
3,428 | I have to admit, out of all Retainers I signed, not even once I managed to initiate its signing. Each time it was the clients who offered a Retainer. Out of approx 70 clients of mine, only a few offered a Retainer which is less than 10%, closer to 5%.
In my eyes, this is bad as most of them return to me asking for fixing or implementation of new features (programming).
I have tried to approach to a client with idea to sign a Retainer so he can reserve my time, but each time I got a reply "it's not important to me, I can wait". Then he sends me a task list, I tell him that I will take it in work once I am done with all other tasks, but after 10 days or so, I either get scared that I will lose this client for waiting me too long or I feel sorry for him and I take the project in work.
So shall I be a b\*\*ch and act like "we don't have a Retainer, wait till I am in mood to do your project" and stop caring if I lose such clients, or I have to change my strategy on how to make them realize that Retainer is good thing for them?
How about I tell him that I am making a plan for the next 6 months and offer him to buy a portion of that time - if not, whenever he sends me the task(s), he will wait 6 months?
As you can see, I am trying to find out how to persuade (or force) a client to sign a Retainer so that I can have a more concrete schedule for at least 6 months ahead (if not the whole year).
PS. Shall I ditch a client whose app cannot earn so much money that he can reserve my time? A few of them are companies of 50+ employees which actually have money. | 2015/07/08 | [
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/questions/3428",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com",
"https://freelancing.stackexchange.com/users/517/"
] | Most clients don't need a retainer and aren't going to accept one. To be honest it sounds like you are trying to secure extra free income for yourself by trying to convince all of your clients to pay you on retainer, which isn't a good approach. Never try to strong-arm a client into such an agreement.
>
> So shall I be a b\*\*ch and act like "we don't have a Retainer, wait till I am in mood to do your project" and stop caring if I lose such clients, or I have to change my strategy on how to make them realize that Retainer is good thing for them?
>
>
>
*What?* You can be a reasonable person without being a bitch. Here's what you say:
"Once the main portion of the project is completed, I will be moving on to new projects and will have limited availability for updates or other additional work. If you plan on implementing new features after delivery, we should discuss arrangements now. If you already have specific updates in mind, we can extend this contract or start a new one. If you do not have specific changes in mind at this time but would like to ensure my availability for updates on short notice, we can discuss setting up a retainer fee. Otherwise, I will be taking new projects from other clients and cannot guarantee steady availability after the contract is completed."
It's very reasonable and straightforward. If they have any common sense at all, they understand you have to work to make money and can't spend unpaid hours sitting around waiting for them. It doesn't make you a bitch. It has nothing to do with your mood. You need to keep a full schedule of work so your income is steady.
>
> PS. Shall I ditch a client whose app cannot earn so much money that he can reserve my time? A few of them are companies of 50+ employees which actually have money.
>
>
>
***NO***. It really sounds like your goal is to get paid for sitting around doing nothing. You need to change your mindset. If your client can't afford or isn't interested in a retainer, just take another client after the main project is completed. | Maybe don't call it a retainer, because what you are really offering is a **maintenance contract** -- which you should attempt to include in your initial development contract. The client can accept the monthly maintenance fees (which would guarantee them a certain number of hours per month - and offer a discount to sweeten the deal). |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | Best solution for this is PaaS (platform as a service)..
put your logic on a server as server-app and let client-app communicating with server-app through web-service or any other way .. this is the best real solution..
BTW: using obfuscation cannot protect your code. | Sorry, not possible in any kind of environment currently in use. If you are so worried about the client stealing your code, it might be good to reevaluate your relationship with him.
On the other hand, you could provide him with a gated VNC view of your software, whereby he can use it but where you remain in control of the environment. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | If you are so worried someone will crack your software, you'll need to use some kind of client/server architecture where your client can only log in to a webpage in your servers.
Any code can be cracked if there's someone who really wants too. Of course, most of the time its simply not worth it. | Sorry, not possible in any kind of environment currently in use. If you are so worried about the client stealing your code, it might be good to reevaluate your relationship with him.
On the other hand, you could provide him with a gated VNC view of your software, whereby he can use it but where you remain in control of the environment. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | Sorry, not possible in any kind of environment currently in use. If you are so worried about the client stealing your code, it might be good to reevaluate your relationship with him.
On the other hand, you could provide him with a gated VNC view of your software, whereby he can use it but where you remain in control of the environment. | What about using a modified classloader that is able to load your classes from an encrypted storage. As you do not directly expose the jar and the classes inside it might help but as all others said above - it won't be bulletproof. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | If you are so worried someone will crack your software, you'll need to use some kind of client/server architecture where your client can only log in to a webpage in your servers.
Any code can be cracked if there's someone who really wants too. Of course, most of the time its simply not worth it. | Best solution for this is PaaS (platform as a service)..
put your logic on a server as server-app and let client-app communicating with server-app through web-service or any other way .. this is the best real solution..
BTW: using obfuscation cannot protect your code. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | Best solution for this is PaaS (platform as a service)..
put your logic on a server as server-app and let client-app communicating with server-app through web-service or any other way .. this is the best real solution..
BTW: using obfuscation cannot protect your code. | In the past, I've used [Zelix KlassMaster](http://www.zelix.com/) to perform obfuscation. It does a very good job, however, you have to spend time to configure it such that it works properly for your needs. If you use reflection, then you have to ensure that it doesn't obfuscate those class/method/property names, etc. One of its strong suits is that it will obfuscate strings as well.
All that being said, the end result is that your client will still have your code, alebit in a very difficult-to-understand format. However, if he truly has the time and effort, he can reverse engineer it.
A lot also depends on exactly what it is that you are trying to protect. If you are trying to protect the actual IP then obfuscation will help you out. If you are trying to protect licensing, then obfuscation just makes it a little more challenging for someone to figure out where your licencing module(s) are and how to circumvent them. In the latter case, I would then suggest that you use something like [AspectJ](http://www.eclipse.org/aspectj/) to weave in licensing checks in several different classes just to make it more difficult to break. However that too is not fail-proof.
As others have already said, the only fool-proof system is to not give the client the code in the first place and change to a SAAS (Service as a software) solution. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | Best solution for this is PaaS (platform as a service)..
put your logic on a server as server-app and let client-app communicating with server-app through web-service or any other way .. this is the best real solution..
BTW: using obfuscation cannot protect your code. | What about using a modified classloader that is able to load your classes from an encrypted storage. As you do not directly expose the jar and the classes inside it might help but as all others said above - it won't be bulletproof. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | If you are so worried someone will crack your software, you'll need to use some kind of client/server architecture where your client can only log in to a webpage in your servers.
Any code can be cracked if there's someone who really wants too. Of course, most of the time its simply not worth it. | In the past, I've used [Zelix KlassMaster](http://www.zelix.com/) to perform obfuscation. It does a very good job, however, you have to spend time to configure it such that it works properly for your needs. If you use reflection, then you have to ensure that it doesn't obfuscate those class/method/property names, etc. One of its strong suits is that it will obfuscate strings as well.
All that being said, the end result is that your client will still have your code, alebit in a very difficult-to-understand format. However, if he truly has the time and effort, he can reverse engineer it.
A lot also depends on exactly what it is that you are trying to protect. If you are trying to protect the actual IP then obfuscation will help you out. If you are trying to protect licensing, then obfuscation just makes it a little more challenging for someone to figure out where your licencing module(s) are and how to circumvent them. In the latter case, I would then suggest that you use something like [AspectJ](http://www.eclipse.org/aspectj/) to weave in licensing checks in several different classes just to make it more difficult to break. However that too is not fail-proof.
As others have already said, the only fool-proof system is to not give the client the code in the first place and change to a SAAS (Service as a software) solution. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | If you are so worried someone will crack your software, you'll need to use some kind of client/server architecture where your client can only log in to a webpage in your servers.
Any code can be cracked if there's someone who really wants too. Of course, most of the time its simply not worth it. | What about using a modified classloader that is able to load your classes from an encrypted storage. As you do not directly expose the jar and the classes inside it might help but as all others said above - it won't be bulletproof. |
9,035,247 | I would like to give an executable jar file to my client and I have a code in it to expire after a certain time. But if the client uses some decompiler and reads the class file, he can modify and make the code to work Is there any way I can stop this from happening.
Can I use deleteOnExit() or some other technique ??? | 2012/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9035247",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1171691/"
] | In the past, I've used [Zelix KlassMaster](http://www.zelix.com/) to perform obfuscation. It does a very good job, however, you have to spend time to configure it such that it works properly for your needs. If you use reflection, then you have to ensure that it doesn't obfuscate those class/method/property names, etc. One of its strong suits is that it will obfuscate strings as well.
All that being said, the end result is that your client will still have your code, alebit in a very difficult-to-understand format. However, if he truly has the time and effort, he can reverse engineer it.
A lot also depends on exactly what it is that you are trying to protect. If you are trying to protect the actual IP then obfuscation will help you out. If you are trying to protect licensing, then obfuscation just makes it a little more challenging for someone to figure out where your licencing module(s) are and how to circumvent them. In the latter case, I would then suggest that you use something like [AspectJ](http://www.eclipse.org/aspectj/) to weave in licensing checks in several different classes just to make it more difficult to break. However that too is not fail-proof.
As others have already said, the only fool-proof system is to not give the client the code in the first place and change to a SAAS (Service as a software) solution. | What about using a modified classloader that is able to load your classes from an encrypted storage. As you do not directly expose the jar and the classes inside it might help but as all others said above - it won't be bulletproof. |
414,390 | When it comes to using an LR parser generated by a tool, such as Bison, a disadvantage that often comes up as counterarguments is that the resulting parser will be unreadable and complicated to debug, which is true.
However, I don't really understand this argument since we just use one or two functions in the generated output, and that this last one is not supposed to contain any bugs (a priori).
This sounds to me like saying that we shouldn't use a compiler, because the generated assembler is not readable and difficult to certify as bug-free; but, I may not be aware of all the worries this could cause in a project needing a parser... so why should we care about this argument in the plan to use a a generated LR parser? | 2020/08/02 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/414390",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/365020/"
] | Enh... it isn’t a solid argument, but it isn’t something you should just ignore. Parsers are already a pain and a half to debug, so making them even more difficult to debug isn’t a great idea.
There’s also the occasional desire to edit the parser with certain rules that can’t be easily defined in grammars - sometimes for academic reasons, sometimes for performance reasons, sometimes because someone thinks it is easier to do the check there rather than as a post-parsing step.
Mostly though, when I hear this argument it isn’t so much that the parsing code is ugly, but that the output tree is ugly. This isn’t unique to LR parsers of course, but generated parsers do tend towards outputting unwieldy (but technically correct) parse trees. Some see the work to massage that into a nice tree to be nearly as much work as parsing in the first place.
Again, not strong arguments but situations that can make the generator a worse option than it first appears. | Put differently, what are the odds of a bug in a custom-built parser versus in a generated parser and the library code that Bison includes in your system? The Bison library code has had literally millions of uses, for decades. The generated parser will be peculiar to your input grammar, but again, Bison's generator has been used for 35 years. |
414,390 | When it comes to using an LR parser generated by a tool, such as Bison, a disadvantage that often comes up as counterarguments is that the resulting parser will be unreadable and complicated to debug, which is true.
However, I don't really understand this argument since we just use one or two functions in the generated output, and that this last one is not supposed to contain any bugs (a priori).
This sounds to me like saying that we shouldn't use a compiler, because the generated assembler is not readable and difficult to certify as bug-free; but, I may not be aware of all the worries this could cause in a project needing a parser... so why should we care about this argument in the plan to use a a generated LR parser? | 2020/08/02 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/414390",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/365020/"
] | Enh... it isn’t a solid argument, but it isn’t something you should just ignore. Parsers are already a pain and a half to debug, so making them even more difficult to debug isn’t a great idea.
There’s also the occasional desire to edit the parser with certain rules that can’t be easily defined in grammars - sometimes for academic reasons, sometimes for performance reasons, sometimes because someone thinks it is easier to do the check there rather than as a post-parsing step.
Mostly though, when I hear this argument it isn’t so much that the parsing code is ugly, but that the output tree is ugly. This isn’t unique to LR parsers of course, but generated parsers do tend towards outputting unwieldy (but technically correct) parse trees. Some see the work to massage that into a nice tree to be nearly as much work as parsing in the first place.
Again, not strong arguments but situations that can make the generator a worse option than it first appears. | Perhaps the most important aspect of debugging the result of a parser generator happens when you're still developing the language. If you have a language grammar fully formed and ready to go, then debugging the output may not matter.
But if you're developing the grammar itself, that's going to mean a lot of iterating on the grammar. Part of that means that you're going to have grammars that are themselves buggy, that don't represent the language you intended for them to represent. But those bugs will manifest as getting the wrong result from the parsing. And that parsing ultimately comes from the generated code.
So at some point, you're going to have to go stepping through the generated parser code to get to the place where it's parsing the section of interest, then reading through the generated code's data structures and trying to figure out what all of that code is doing and how it relates to the grammar. The more confused and difficult to read the generated code is, the more difficult this process becomes.
So I would not take this issue lightly. |
414,390 | When it comes to using an LR parser generated by a tool, such as Bison, a disadvantage that often comes up as counterarguments is that the resulting parser will be unreadable and complicated to debug, which is true.
However, I don't really understand this argument since we just use one or two functions in the generated output, and that this last one is not supposed to contain any bugs (a priori).
This sounds to me like saying that we shouldn't use a compiler, because the generated assembler is not readable and difficult to certify as bug-free; but, I may not be aware of all the worries this could cause in a project needing a parser... so why should we care about this argument in the plan to use a a generated LR parser? | 2020/08/02 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/414390",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/365020/"
] | Perhaps the most important aspect of debugging the result of a parser generator happens when you're still developing the language. If you have a language grammar fully formed and ready to go, then debugging the output may not matter.
But if you're developing the grammar itself, that's going to mean a lot of iterating on the grammar. Part of that means that you're going to have grammars that are themselves buggy, that don't represent the language you intended for them to represent. But those bugs will manifest as getting the wrong result from the parsing. And that parsing ultimately comes from the generated code.
So at some point, you're going to have to go stepping through the generated parser code to get to the place where it's parsing the section of interest, then reading through the generated code's data structures and trying to figure out what all of that code is doing and how it relates to the grammar. The more confused and difficult to read the generated code is, the more difficult this process becomes.
So I would not take this issue lightly. | Put differently, what are the odds of a bug in a custom-built parser versus in a generated parser and the library code that Bison includes in your system? The Bison library code has had literally millions of uses, for decades. The generated parser will be peculiar to your input grammar, but again, Bison's generator has been used for 35 years. |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | I'm adding this as an answer of what not to do, because you might not be aware of some fringe political/legal arguments people try to make in the US. There are people that refer to themselves as "Sovereign Citizens" and they talk about not being under the jurisdiction of any country's laws so they can do things such as "freely travel" or "non-commercially transit" the country without a need for driver's licenses, license plates on vehicles, etc. Basically they claim to be outside of the laws for any given city or state because they are their own country (or something like that).
This falls under the heading of "conspiracy theories" and if you want to research it, keep in mind that no legal entity in the US agrees with what they claim.
So, why bring it up? Well if you start telling officials that you don't have a country of residency/jurisdiction and you should be free to travel, etc, you're using some common phrases that might lump you in with this movement. It's the first thing I thought of when you said "you're not a resident of any country", but I'm probably biased from watching several videos about the sovereign citizen movement.
So, I agree with the other answers saying what you should do, but don't go around saying you're not a resident of any country without a little more explanation. | I think you are confusing 3 different things:
* citizenship (nation who issues your passport *and cannot* refuse you entry to their borders even if they leave the EU)
* residency (the place you keep your core possessions and sleep at night when not traveling)
* some set of beliefs you hold - not to diminish them in any way, but we need to clear up the fact that these 3 things are not the same.
Confusing these, or perhaps more aptly to "take a political stand" on something - will only result in refusal. Refusal means no more visa waiver, and paying $160 to apply for a visa when/if you want to visit the US in the future, and the wait, and the need to explain your planned activities in greater detail.
Residency is a statement of fact, and facts obviously cannot be about future things that may or may not happen. Therefore, "where you have been staying up to this point" is the answer they are looking for. And stating a residency places you under no obligation to live there in the future.
You just can't live *here*.
Immigration is keenly watchful for people who want to enter on a visitor visa or waiver, and then violate the terms of their visa by overstaying or seeking employment. If you even smell like a person like that, i.e. rootless, wandering, a continuous world traveler\*... they have every reason to refuse you. As such, a powerful part of any visitor application is a showing if facts that you have roots in another country and thus strong incentive to return there when your stated business is done.
\* unless you have an ocean-going boat and have arrived on it. |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | You know, I have been a digital nomad before it was cool, around 2006-2008. And what I learned is the world is simply behind legislation wise and it is us who needs to adjust. Indeed, these days one could use a different visa created for this purpose every year from [dozens of countries](https://travel.stackexchange.com/a/158462/4188) and never have a residence -- or so it seems.
What I am leading to is this: we need to construct a narrative that is plausible, easily acceptable by authorities and somewhat defensible by us legally. Our realities simply do not fit the legislation. It's severely behind. Do not fret too much just make sure you can make an argument if push comes to shove. Example: do you need to file a tax return this year in Germany? Great, you are a German resident. | I think you are confusing 3 different things:
* citizenship (nation who issues your passport *and cannot* refuse you entry to their borders even if they leave the EU)
* residency (the place you keep your core possessions and sleep at night when not traveling)
* some set of beliefs you hold - not to diminish them in any way, but we need to clear up the fact that these 3 things are not the same.
Confusing these, or perhaps more aptly to "take a political stand" on something - will only result in refusal. Refusal means no more visa waiver, and paying $160 to apply for a visa when/if you want to visit the US in the future, and the wait, and the need to explain your planned activities in greater detail.
Residency is a statement of fact, and facts obviously cannot be about future things that may or may not happen. Therefore, "where you have been staying up to this point" is the answer they are looking for. And stating a residency places you under no obligation to live there in the future.
You just can't live *here*.
Immigration is keenly watchful for people who want to enter on a visitor visa or waiver, and then violate the terms of their visa by overstaying or seeking employment. If you even smell like a person like that, i.e. rootless, wandering, a continuous world traveler\*... they have every reason to refuse you. As such, a powerful part of any visitor application is a showing if facts that you have roots in another country and thus strong incentive to return there when your stated business is done.
\* unless you have an ocean-going boat and have arrived on it. |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | You know, I have been a digital nomad before it was cool, around 2006-2008. And what I learned is the world is simply behind legislation wise and it is us who needs to adjust. Indeed, these days one could use a different visa created for this purpose every year from [dozens of countries](https://travel.stackexchange.com/a/158462/4188) and never have a residence -- or so it seems.
What I am leading to is this: we need to construct a narrative that is plausible, easily acceptable by authorities and somewhat defensible by us legally. Our realities simply do not fit the legislation. It's severely behind. Do not fret too much just make sure you can make an argument if push comes to shove. Example: do you need to file a tax return this year in Germany? Great, you are a German resident. | Just to add to the good other answers and to pick up on a few things you said in the comments (and sorry, can't comment, so also mentioning a few things in reply to comments right here):
* I'll concur in the advice to **keep things simple**, even more so as you mentioned the *BCO already has* all the details. What you may need to be prepared to add (again in simple terms), where it doesn't pass as obvious by itself, is **to give the simple explanation about the details, the bigger picture about what you are really doing**.
Which, as others have pointed out, should *not* sound like a person unreliable about where they live or about political issues - but none of these seem to really fit your case as what you are really doing seems quite simple and straightforward (and legal) so you *should* be perfectly fine.
* Most importantly, **you are core mainland EU citizen** (obviously, having a German passport) traveling **with the intent to set up** (if rather temporarily) **in another EU country**.
(Note that "to set up" is an imprecise term for a good reason - within the EU, you are not required to know your own plans any more precisely than that as - for border control considerations, you're practically only moving **in-country**.)
\*No idea why you are making a transfer inside the EU **through the US** but whatever. (Curious to know, though.)
Not only that's the most legal thing for you to do in your position, it is legal to the extent that you don't even need *any* kind of paperwork to do it - you just go and that's it.[1] (FWIW it's legal to the extent that you don't even *have* any paperwork about it simple because none is required. Other than the German idea of registering your place of residence, which is largely really about municipal taxes and urban development.)
[1] Formally, for those not familiar with it, it's called the [Schengen Area](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schengen_Area) and using that is roughly the **same as going from one US state to another US state**, inside the US (obviously), **is for an US citizen**.
which is a) perfectly legal, b) perfectly understandable if one is so inclined, c) should be perfectly meh to an INS officer and the like who would be looking for possible violations of immigration laws - something you neither intend nor would have any connection with your own plans.
Consistently with the above, on a side note,
* a "titre de sejour" is exactly what the OP would **never** need anywhere inside the EU, already being a Schengen Area citizen and that of the core countries such as Germany, France, Italy, Belgium, Spain etc. (@NicolasFormichella - no offense but quite confused that (being in Paris and looking Italian, no offense again) you wouldn't know that.) A "titre de sejour" is a permit for EU aliens (non-citizens of the EU) asking to be legally living (for a usually limited, though often practically indeterminate given period of time) in the issuing country, other than on whatever visa.
On some other side notes,
* So it seems you have been around the world a lot, and obviously always within the legal (and never trying to stay in the US in any awkward way). No red flags to US immigration visible whatsoever.
* What's a problem about world travel anyway? Australians, for one example, do it a lot, and so what? Can't be unfamiliar to US BCOs.
* might could be your thinking is being a bit overly anal (as in detail-possessed) and getting caught up in that about what to say? If a form is asking information in a simplistic way, it's not necessarily that the form is insufficient. Well maybe it is, but making you enter information in a crudely simplifying manner seems to suggest that doing so is considered sufficient for its purpose.
* As for the form entry specifically, when there is no such thing as "last" or "intended" country of residence, it might seem natural to think "natural country of residence" as in "citizenship"
>
> Your German citizenship should preempt your residency for most requirements *from the comments above*
>
>
>
This. I guess that, if asked, would be something that could have legitimately seemed obvious to you even if for some reason you were not sure about the form. I mean, if the form isn't asking something very specific (sorry and no offense about the form), what else could be the natural thing to enter?
You are temporarily not registered in Germany as living there on a municipal register level (which is arguably not even a category to a BCO I guess so no point in even bringing it up), so?
* Seems more interesting what would happen if you were stranded anywhere in the world and that country expelled you, where would you end up being? Being a German citizen, that would be Germany. End of question.
It seems unlikely to me that you would be confronted about entering the "wrong" choice in the form. If it did happened, it would be plausible (as is the case) that you were confused about details that are probably not even relevant (guess the *BCO would know* what should have been entered to give *them* the information *they* need?) your confusion could innocently come across as momentarily sheepish, but obviously innocent.
Seems to me (though not a thing to state) that restrictive forms to enter things in can be thought of as morons, either that or entities that just don't care beyond the point of what you *can* enter. Also, if obviously no one there cares about more exact information (not having made it possible to even enter more exact information), it must be good enough to enter the information you can enter. "That form did not allow me to specify more, so I entered as much as it asked me to. That's what it asked, so meh."
On a closing note, I feel curious to hear how it went - would you feel like following up with us? |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | You know, I have been a digital nomad before it was cool, around 2006-2008. And what I learned is the world is simply behind legislation wise and it is us who needs to adjust. Indeed, these days one could use a different visa created for this purpose every year from [dozens of countries](https://travel.stackexchange.com/a/158462/4188) and never have a residence -- or so it seems.
What I am leading to is this: we need to construct a narrative that is plausible, easily acceptable by authorities and somewhat defensible by us legally. Our realities simply do not fit the legislation. It's severely behind. Do not fret too much just make sure you can make an argument if push comes to shove. Example: do you need to file a tax return this year in Germany? Great, you are a German resident. | Outside of edge cases (seafarer, etc.), you are a resident of a country. You legally become a resident as soon as you settle there for more than a few months (for work, study, etc.) and if you have the right to do so.
You left Germany to go to another country so, in that form, I'd put the country you're currently living in. |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | Based on the information in your question and in the comments, you are a resident of **Germany** for US immigration purposes. The US does not have a system equivalent to the German official residence registration and does not care about your *Abmeldung*. If you are a citizen of Germany, lived there relatively recently, and are not a permanent resident of any other country, you should choose Germany as your residence and, without lying, leave border officials with the impression that you have a plan to return there.
If you make yourself appear "interesting" to border officials, perhaps by insisting that you have no residence and no definitive plan to live anywhere, you will very much increase your chances of your entry to the US being delayed or denied. | Just to add to the good other answers and to pick up on a few things you said in the comments (and sorry, can't comment, so also mentioning a few things in reply to comments right here):
* I'll concur in the advice to **keep things simple**, even more so as you mentioned the *BCO already has* all the details. What you may need to be prepared to add (again in simple terms), where it doesn't pass as obvious by itself, is **to give the simple explanation about the details, the bigger picture about what you are really doing**.
Which, as others have pointed out, should *not* sound like a person unreliable about where they live or about political issues - but none of these seem to really fit your case as what you are really doing seems quite simple and straightforward (and legal) so you *should* be perfectly fine.
* Most importantly, **you are core mainland EU citizen** (obviously, having a German passport) traveling **with the intent to set up** (if rather temporarily) **in another EU country**.
(Note that "to set up" is an imprecise term for a good reason - within the EU, you are not required to know your own plans any more precisely than that as - for border control considerations, you're practically only moving **in-country**.)
\*No idea why you are making a transfer inside the EU **through the US** but whatever. (Curious to know, though.)
Not only that's the most legal thing for you to do in your position, it is legal to the extent that you don't even need *any* kind of paperwork to do it - you just go and that's it.[1] (FWIW it's legal to the extent that you don't even *have* any paperwork about it simple because none is required. Other than the German idea of registering your place of residence, which is largely really about municipal taxes and urban development.)
[1] Formally, for those not familiar with it, it's called the [Schengen Area](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schengen_Area) and using that is roughly the **same as going from one US state to another US state**, inside the US (obviously), **is for an US citizen**.
which is a) perfectly legal, b) perfectly understandable if one is so inclined, c) should be perfectly meh to an INS officer and the like who would be looking for possible violations of immigration laws - something you neither intend nor would have any connection with your own plans.
Consistently with the above, on a side note,
* a "titre de sejour" is exactly what the OP would **never** need anywhere inside the EU, already being a Schengen Area citizen and that of the core countries such as Germany, France, Italy, Belgium, Spain etc. (@NicolasFormichella - no offense but quite confused that (being in Paris and looking Italian, no offense again) you wouldn't know that.) A "titre de sejour" is a permit for EU aliens (non-citizens of the EU) asking to be legally living (for a usually limited, though often practically indeterminate given period of time) in the issuing country, other than on whatever visa.
On some other side notes,
* So it seems you have been around the world a lot, and obviously always within the legal (and never trying to stay in the US in any awkward way). No red flags to US immigration visible whatsoever.
* What's a problem about world travel anyway? Australians, for one example, do it a lot, and so what? Can't be unfamiliar to US BCOs.
* might could be your thinking is being a bit overly anal (as in detail-possessed) and getting caught up in that about what to say? If a form is asking information in a simplistic way, it's not necessarily that the form is insufficient. Well maybe it is, but making you enter information in a crudely simplifying manner seems to suggest that doing so is considered sufficient for its purpose.
* As for the form entry specifically, when there is no such thing as "last" or "intended" country of residence, it might seem natural to think "natural country of residence" as in "citizenship"
>
> Your German citizenship should preempt your residency for most requirements *from the comments above*
>
>
>
This. I guess that, if asked, would be something that could have legitimately seemed obvious to you even if for some reason you were not sure about the form. I mean, if the form isn't asking something very specific (sorry and no offense about the form), what else could be the natural thing to enter?
You are temporarily not registered in Germany as living there on a municipal register level (which is arguably not even a category to a BCO I guess so no point in even bringing it up), so?
* Seems more interesting what would happen if you were stranded anywhere in the world and that country expelled you, where would you end up being? Being a German citizen, that would be Germany. End of question.
It seems unlikely to me that you would be confronted about entering the "wrong" choice in the form. If it did happened, it would be plausible (as is the case) that you were confused about details that are probably not even relevant (guess the *BCO would know* what should have been entered to give *them* the information *they* need?) your confusion could innocently come across as momentarily sheepish, but obviously innocent.
Seems to me (though not a thing to state) that restrictive forms to enter things in can be thought of as morons, either that or entities that just don't care beyond the point of what you *can* enter. Also, if obviously no one there cares about more exact information (not having made it possible to even enter more exact information), it must be good enough to enter the information you can enter. "That form did not allow me to specify more, so I entered as much as it asked me to. That's what it asked, so meh."
On a closing note, I feel curious to hear how it went - would you feel like following up with us? |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | I'm adding this as an answer of what not to do, because you might not be aware of some fringe political/legal arguments people try to make in the US. There are people that refer to themselves as "Sovereign Citizens" and they talk about not being under the jurisdiction of any country's laws so they can do things such as "freely travel" or "non-commercially transit" the country without a need for driver's licenses, license plates on vehicles, etc. Basically they claim to be outside of the laws for any given city or state because they are their own country (or something like that).
This falls under the heading of "conspiracy theories" and if you want to research it, keep in mind that no legal entity in the US agrees with what they claim.
So, why bring it up? Well if you start telling officials that you don't have a country of residency/jurisdiction and you should be free to travel, etc, you're using some common phrases that might lump you in with this movement. It's the first thing I thought of when you said "you're not a resident of any country", but I'm probably biased from watching several videos about the sovereign citizen movement.
So, I agree with the other answers saying what you should do, but don't go around saying you're not a resident of any country without a little more explanation. | Just to add to the good other answers and to pick up on a few things you said in the comments (and sorry, can't comment, so also mentioning a few things in reply to comments right here):
* I'll concur in the advice to **keep things simple**, even more so as you mentioned the *BCO already has* all the details. What you may need to be prepared to add (again in simple terms), where it doesn't pass as obvious by itself, is **to give the simple explanation about the details, the bigger picture about what you are really doing**.
Which, as others have pointed out, should *not* sound like a person unreliable about where they live or about political issues - but none of these seem to really fit your case as what you are really doing seems quite simple and straightforward (and legal) so you *should* be perfectly fine.
* Most importantly, **you are core mainland EU citizen** (obviously, having a German passport) traveling **with the intent to set up** (if rather temporarily) **in another EU country**.
(Note that "to set up" is an imprecise term for a good reason - within the EU, you are not required to know your own plans any more precisely than that as - for border control considerations, you're practically only moving **in-country**.)
\*No idea why you are making a transfer inside the EU **through the US** but whatever. (Curious to know, though.)
Not only that's the most legal thing for you to do in your position, it is legal to the extent that you don't even need *any* kind of paperwork to do it - you just go and that's it.[1] (FWIW it's legal to the extent that you don't even *have* any paperwork about it simple because none is required. Other than the German idea of registering your place of residence, which is largely really about municipal taxes and urban development.)
[1] Formally, for those not familiar with it, it's called the [Schengen Area](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schengen_Area) and using that is roughly the **same as going from one US state to another US state**, inside the US (obviously), **is for an US citizen**.
which is a) perfectly legal, b) perfectly understandable if one is so inclined, c) should be perfectly meh to an INS officer and the like who would be looking for possible violations of immigration laws - something you neither intend nor would have any connection with your own plans.
Consistently with the above, on a side note,
* a "titre de sejour" is exactly what the OP would **never** need anywhere inside the EU, already being a Schengen Area citizen and that of the core countries such as Germany, France, Italy, Belgium, Spain etc. (@NicolasFormichella - no offense but quite confused that (being in Paris and looking Italian, no offense again) you wouldn't know that.) A "titre de sejour" is a permit for EU aliens (non-citizens of the EU) asking to be legally living (for a usually limited, though often practically indeterminate given period of time) in the issuing country, other than on whatever visa.
On some other side notes,
* So it seems you have been around the world a lot, and obviously always within the legal (and never trying to stay in the US in any awkward way). No red flags to US immigration visible whatsoever.
* What's a problem about world travel anyway? Australians, for one example, do it a lot, and so what? Can't be unfamiliar to US BCOs.
* might could be your thinking is being a bit overly anal (as in detail-possessed) and getting caught up in that about what to say? If a form is asking information in a simplistic way, it's not necessarily that the form is insufficient. Well maybe it is, but making you enter information in a crudely simplifying manner seems to suggest that doing so is considered sufficient for its purpose.
* As for the form entry specifically, when there is no such thing as "last" or "intended" country of residence, it might seem natural to think "natural country of residence" as in "citizenship"
>
> Your German citizenship should preempt your residency for most requirements *from the comments above*
>
>
>
This. I guess that, if asked, would be something that could have legitimately seemed obvious to you even if for some reason you were not sure about the form. I mean, if the form isn't asking something very specific (sorry and no offense about the form), what else could be the natural thing to enter?
You are temporarily not registered in Germany as living there on a municipal register level (which is arguably not even a category to a BCO I guess so no point in even bringing it up), so?
* Seems more interesting what would happen if you were stranded anywhere in the world and that country expelled you, where would you end up being? Being a German citizen, that would be Germany. End of question.
It seems unlikely to me that you would be confronted about entering the "wrong" choice in the form. If it did happened, it would be plausible (as is the case) that you were confused about details that are probably not even relevant (guess the *BCO would know* what should have been entered to give *them* the information *they* need?) your confusion could innocently come across as momentarily sheepish, but obviously innocent.
Seems to me (though not a thing to state) that restrictive forms to enter things in can be thought of as morons, either that or entities that just don't care beyond the point of what you *can* enter. Also, if obviously no one there cares about more exact information (not having made it possible to even enter more exact information), it must be good enough to enter the information you can enter. "That form did not allow me to specify more, so I entered as much as it asked me to. That's what it asked, so meh."
On a closing note, I feel curious to hear how it went - would you feel like following up with us? |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | Based on the information in your question and in the comments, you are a resident of **Germany** for US immigration purposes. The US does not have a system equivalent to the German official residence registration and does not care about your *Abmeldung*. If you are a citizen of Germany, lived there relatively recently, and are not a permanent resident of any other country, you should choose Germany as your residence and, without lying, leave border officials with the impression that you have a plan to return there.
If you make yourself appear "interesting" to border officials, perhaps by insisting that you have no residence and no definitive plan to live anywhere, you will very much increase your chances of your entry to the US being delayed or denied. | Outside of edge cases (seafarer, etc.), you are a resident of a country. You legally become a resident as soon as you settle there for more than a few months (for work, study, etc.) and if you have the right to do so.
You left Germany to go to another country so, in that form, I'd put the country you're currently living in. |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | Based on the information in your question and in the comments, you are a resident of **Germany** for US immigration purposes. The US does not have a system equivalent to the German official residence registration and does not care about your *Abmeldung*. If you are a citizen of Germany, lived there relatively recently, and are not a permanent resident of any other country, you should choose Germany as your residence and, without lying, leave border officials with the impression that you have a plan to return there.
If you make yourself appear "interesting" to border officials, perhaps by insisting that you have no residence and no definitive plan to live anywhere, you will very much increase your chances of your entry to the US being delayed or denied. | I'm adding this as an answer of what not to do, because you might not be aware of some fringe political/legal arguments people try to make in the US. There are people that refer to themselves as "Sovereign Citizens" and they talk about not being under the jurisdiction of any country's laws so they can do things such as "freely travel" or "non-commercially transit" the country without a need for driver's licenses, license plates on vehicles, etc. Basically they claim to be outside of the laws for any given city or state because they are their own country (or something like that).
This falls under the heading of "conspiracy theories" and if you want to research it, keep in mind that no legal entity in the US agrees with what they claim.
So, why bring it up? Well if you start telling officials that you don't have a country of residency/jurisdiction and you should be free to travel, etc, you're using some common phrases that might lump you in with this movement. It's the first thing I thought of when you said "you're not a resident of any country", but I'm probably biased from watching several videos about the sovereign citizen movement.
So, I agree with the other answers saying what you should do, but don't go around saying you're not a resident of any country without a little more explanation. |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | I think you are confusing 3 different things:
* citizenship (nation who issues your passport *and cannot* refuse you entry to their borders even if they leave the EU)
* residency (the place you keep your core possessions and sleep at night when not traveling)
* some set of beliefs you hold - not to diminish them in any way, but we need to clear up the fact that these 3 things are not the same.
Confusing these, or perhaps more aptly to "take a political stand" on something - will only result in refusal. Refusal means no more visa waiver, and paying $160 to apply for a visa when/if you want to visit the US in the future, and the wait, and the need to explain your planned activities in greater detail.
Residency is a statement of fact, and facts obviously cannot be about future things that may or may not happen. Therefore, "where you have been staying up to this point" is the answer they are looking for. And stating a residency places you under no obligation to live there in the future.
You just can't live *here*.
Immigration is keenly watchful for people who want to enter on a visitor visa or waiver, and then violate the terms of their visa by overstaying or seeking employment. If you even smell like a person like that, i.e. rootless, wandering, a continuous world traveler\*... they have every reason to refuse you. As such, a powerful part of any visitor application is a showing if facts that you have roots in another country and thus strong incentive to return there when your stated business is done.
\* unless you have an ocean-going boat and have arrived on it. | Just to add to the good other answers and to pick up on a few things you said in the comments (and sorry, can't comment, so also mentioning a few things in reply to comments right here):
* I'll concur in the advice to **keep things simple**, even more so as you mentioned the *BCO already has* all the details. What you may need to be prepared to add (again in simple terms), where it doesn't pass as obvious by itself, is **to give the simple explanation about the details, the bigger picture about what you are really doing**.
Which, as others have pointed out, should *not* sound like a person unreliable about where they live or about political issues - but none of these seem to really fit your case as what you are really doing seems quite simple and straightforward (and legal) so you *should* be perfectly fine.
* Most importantly, **you are core mainland EU citizen** (obviously, having a German passport) traveling **with the intent to set up** (if rather temporarily) **in another EU country**.
(Note that "to set up" is an imprecise term for a good reason - within the EU, you are not required to know your own plans any more precisely than that as - for border control considerations, you're practically only moving **in-country**.)
\*No idea why you are making a transfer inside the EU **through the US** but whatever. (Curious to know, though.)
Not only that's the most legal thing for you to do in your position, it is legal to the extent that you don't even need *any* kind of paperwork to do it - you just go and that's it.[1] (FWIW it's legal to the extent that you don't even *have* any paperwork about it simple because none is required. Other than the German idea of registering your place of residence, which is largely really about municipal taxes and urban development.)
[1] Formally, for those not familiar with it, it's called the [Schengen Area](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schengen_Area) and using that is roughly the **same as going from one US state to another US state**, inside the US (obviously), **is for an US citizen**.
which is a) perfectly legal, b) perfectly understandable if one is so inclined, c) should be perfectly meh to an INS officer and the like who would be looking for possible violations of immigration laws - something you neither intend nor would have any connection with your own plans.
Consistently with the above, on a side note,
* a "titre de sejour" is exactly what the OP would **never** need anywhere inside the EU, already being a Schengen Area citizen and that of the core countries such as Germany, France, Italy, Belgium, Spain etc. (@NicolasFormichella - no offense but quite confused that (being in Paris and looking Italian, no offense again) you wouldn't know that.) A "titre de sejour" is a permit for EU aliens (non-citizens of the EU) asking to be legally living (for a usually limited, though often practically indeterminate given period of time) in the issuing country, other than on whatever visa.
On some other side notes,
* So it seems you have been around the world a lot, and obviously always within the legal (and never trying to stay in the US in any awkward way). No red flags to US immigration visible whatsoever.
* What's a problem about world travel anyway? Australians, for one example, do it a lot, and so what? Can't be unfamiliar to US BCOs.
* might could be your thinking is being a bit overly anal (as in detail-possessed) and getting caught up in that about what to say? If a form is asking information in a simplistic way, it's not necessarily that the form is insufficient. Well maybe it is, but making you enter information in a crudely simplifying manner seems to suggest that doing so is considered sufficient for its purpose.
* As for the form entry specifically, when there is no such thing as "last" or "intended" country of residence, it might seem natural to think "natural country of residence" as in "citizenship"
>
> Your German citizenship should preempt your residency for most requirements *from the comments above*
>
>
>
This. I guess that, if asked, would be something that could have legitimately seemed obvious to you even if for some reason you were not sure about the form. I mean, if the form isn't asking something very specific (sorry and no offense about the form), what else could be the natural thing to enter?
You are temporarily not registered in Germany as living there on a municipal register level (which is arguably not even a category to a BCO I guess so no point in even bringing it up), so?
* Seems more interesting what would happen if you were stranded anywhere in the world and that country expelled you, where would you end up being? Being a German citizen, that would be Germany. End of question.
It seems unlikely to me that you would be confronted about entering the "wrong" choice in the form. If it did happened, it would be plausible (as is the case) that you were confused about details that are probably not even relevant (guess the *BCO would know* what should have been entered to give *them* the information *they* need?) your confusion could innocently come across as momentarily sheepish, but obviously innocent.
Seems to me (though not a thing to state) that restrictive forms to enter things in can be thought of as morons, either that or entities that just don't care beyond the point of what you *can* enter. Also, if obviously no one there cares about more exact information (not having made it possible to even enter more exact information), it must be good enough to enter the information you can enter. "That form did not allow me to specify more, so I entered as much as it asked me to. That's what it asked, so meh."
On a closing note, I feel curious to hear how it went - would you feel like following up with us? |
172,814 | Since this year, 2022, I am not a resident of Germany anymore. I am officially unregistered, and I haven't visited my home country since then. That doesn't mean that I gave up citizenship, however. I still have my German passport.
On Monday, I've a flight with transit through the US. United Airlines asks me for travel documents, and that involves entering a country of residence:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z5Cf7.png)
I don't have a country of residence. *What should I do? Can I even transit through the US?*
A United agent suggested that I contact the German embassy. It is weekend, though, and both the German as well as the American embassy are not available.
Update
======
In the end, I arrived at my destination without a problem, and I did use my layover in the US to leave the airport for a night. What country I specified as country of residence, I forgot, because I couldn't edit or see it anymore after I advanced in the form. I was asked for the country of residence when I got my tickets for the connecting flight. In that case, I specified France, no problem. | 2022/03/26 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/172814",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/2272/"
] | Based on the information in your question and in the comments, you are a resident of **Germany** for US immigration purposes. The US does not have a system equivalent to the German official residence registration and does not care about your *Abmeldung*. If you are a citizen of Germany, lived there relatively recently, and are not a permanent resident of any other country, you should choose Germany as your residence and, without lying, leave border officials with the impression that you have a plan to return there.
If you make yourself appear "interesting" to border officials, perhaps by insisting that you have no residence and no definitive plan to live anywhere, you will very much increase your chances of your entry to the US being delayed or denied. | You know, I have been a digital nomad before it was cool, around 2006-2008. And what I learned is the world is simply behind legislation wise and it is us who needs to adjust. Indeed, these days one could use a different visa created for this purpose every year from [dozens of countries](https://travel.stackexchange.com/a/158462/4188) and never have a residence -- or so it seems.
What I am leading to is this: we need to construct a narrative that is plausible, easily acceptable by authorities and somewhat defensible by us legally. Our realities simply do not fit the legislation. It's severely behind. Do not fret too much just make sure you can make an argument if push comes to shove. Example: do you need to file a tax return this year in Germany? Great, you are a German resident. |
1,283,462 | I installed a new/larger (4TB) hard drive on my computer. I have Windows 7 installed on the old drive (1TB) and using backup of the drive with a system image, I restored that to the new drive. All seems to work fine.
Now I want to extend the partition on the new drive. In Disk Management, I can see the unallocated disk space next to the allocated C: drive. There are no logical partitions, just the allocated and unallocated sections. When I right click to extend the C: drive, the "Extend" option is disabled.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mx1Sz.jpg)
Why would it be disabled and is there a way for me to enable it?
EDIT:
-----
I found some posts that says it has to be converted to be a dynamic disk first, but this option is also disabled. | 2018/01/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1283462",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/75268/"
] | 2TB is the maximum partition size of any MBR format disk.
[Understanding the 2 TB Limit in Windows Storage](https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askcore/2010/02/18/understanding-the-2-tb-limit-in-windows-storage/)
Windows 10 Creators Update provides us a safe, and non-destructive method of converting MBR to GPT using [MBR2GPT.EXE](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/mbr-to-gpt). Unfortunately, you don't have Windows 10.
The safest alternative is to just create a secondary partition to use the remaining space. The new partition will show up as a new drive on your computer, and you can save data to it.
Only Windows 7 64-bit running on UEFI hardware supports booting from a GPT partitioned disk drive. If you're running on older hardware, or 32-bit, you are SOL. If your system meets these requirements and you are adventurous, the drive can be converted from MBR to GPT. The official way involves backing up your data and deleting all partitions to create a new GPT layout and then restore data. But, there are ways to convert MBR to GPT without losing data.
**WARNING: Always verify you have a good backup of data BEFORE attempting to convert MBR to GPT.**
Here are a couple of options:
* Use [EaseUS Partition Master Free](https://www.easeus.com/partition-manager-software/free-convert-mbr-to-gpt-without-data-loss.html)
* Use [GPTGen](http://www.miloszengel.com/how-to-convert-partition-from-mbr-to-gpt-scheme-on-windows/)
In my opinion, you really should not be trying this. It is likely to fail. If you need a partition size greater than 2TB, is it unreasonable to expect you to also have a modern operating system, on modern hardware? | The common response to this is that ***MBR doesn't support drives larger than 2TB***, like mentioned in the other answer
That's true but not *entirely* correct. The real technical limit is *232 - 1 sectors*, since MBR uses 32-bit index to address the sectors. Therefore on old drives with 512-byte sector you'll be maxed at *232×512 = 2TB* and for new drives using Advanced Format (AF, i.e. 4KB sector) you can have *16TB* MBR drives!
I'm not sure if diskmgmt.msc can create big partitions on AF drives or not since it has many artificial hardcoded limits and falls pretty far behind on features as well as capabilities compared to 3rd party disk partitioners. You need to **check if your disk format is AF** and if it really is you can use a 3rd party solution to resize your drive
If it's not, don't fret yet. You can go even higher, up to nearly *twice the above limit* and **have a multi-partition 4TB MBR disk** as long as the *last partition* begins *before the 2TB mark* and *doesn't last longer than 2TB*. The technical explanation behind that is
>
> MBR records partition locations in terms of the starting sector and the partition's length. Both of these are 32-bit values, so in theory you could use MBR on a 4 TiB disk, so long as all the space after the 2 TiB mark is in a single primary partition, or perhaps in a single extended partition, which could in turn hold many logical partitions. Such a configuration would be somewhat limiting, but it fits within the MBR framework
>
>
> [Working Around MBR's Limitations](https://www.rodsbooks.com/gdisk/workarounds.html)
>
>
>
Of course you need OS support for this, and also need a 3rd party disk partitioner instead of diskmgmt.msc. However Windows 7 and above do support those disks well, thus there should be no problem. To quote from Rod Smith's article above
>
> To make a long story short, the only OSes that seemed capable of handling a partition that spanned the 2 TiB mark were Linux, FreeBSD, and Windows 7
>
>
>
In your case you just need to **shrink the C: drive** a tiny bit to make it smaller than 2048GB and create another partition on the remaining 1678GB space. Note that you can't have a single huge volume in this case, but at least you can use the whole drive
>
> Since partitioning information is stored in the MBR partition table using a beginning block address and a length, it may in theory be possible to define partitions in such a way that the allocated space for a disk with 512-byte sectors gives a total size approaching 4 TiB, if all but one partition are located below the 2 TiB limit and the last one is assigned as starting at or close to block 232−1 and specify the size as up to 232−1, thereby defining a partition that requires 33 rather than 32 bits for the sector address to be accessed. However, in practice, only certain LBA-48-enabled operating systems, including GNU/Linux, FreeBSD and Windows 7[20] that use 64-bit sector addresses internally actually support this
>
>
> <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Master_boot_record#Partition_table_entries>
>
>
>
Note that [dynamic disks](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logical_Disk_Manager#Basic_and_dynamic_disks_and_volumes) are completely different and irrelevant to the problem. They're the analog of LVM on Linux for things like software RAID, striping, spanning, online resizing... |
23,375 | The introduction of the [GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Data_Protection_Regulation) in May 2018 for all businesses targeting EU citizens raises questions regarding the [Art. 17 right to erasure](https://gdpr-info.eu/art-17-gdpr/), also known as the right to be forgotten.
>
> The data subject shall have the right to obtain from the controller the erasure of personal data concerning him or her without undue delay and the controller shall have the obligation to erase personal data without undue delay
>
>
>
I think it is reasonable to say that deleting all data (backup included) is not feasible without delay. What about backups that go beyond the *subject* realm (e.g. database backups, disk backups, ...)?
One idea to solve a part of the problem would be to [crypto-shred](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crypto-shredding) data. So when a *subject* asks to erase him/her *personal data*, we simply **erase the encryption key**. That would render all data unusable. However, data encrypted with what is considered a strong encryption method might not be strong anymore in a not-so-distant future (e.g. quantum computing, new algorithms, or a weakness found in the encryption mechanism).
So here are my questions:
1. Is crypto-shredding considered a valid erasure method?
2. What storage mediums are affected by the so-called **undue delay**? | 2017/10/17 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/23375",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/13957/"
] | In my opinion, this should be enough. The GDPR regulation is general - it does not attempt to address these issues directly, precisely for the reasons we see here: You can never predict how the technology will develop.
When interpreting the GDPR, we must keep the intended goal in mind. What is the purpose of the "right to erasure"? To prevent anyone from further processing the personal data. If you "crypto-shred" it, it can't be processed anymore, not even theoretically. The encryptec file cannot be used to identify the subject, therefore it is not even personal data anymore.
In case it can be decrypted in the future... Well, that is just a speculation. The courts can go to great lengths in interpreting what personal data is (dynamic IP address is considered personal data, since it can be linked to a person by the police with a court order), but i am pretty sure that "it can be theoretically possible in some distant future" is beyond the limit.
As for the second question, I am not aware of any applicable case-law, but I guess that current security and technological standards will be used to assess the delay. You have a right to protect your data, the subject has a right to erase them. Those rights must be balanced, neither fully overrules the other.
The delay should be short enough so the right to erasure is effective, and it should not extremely long compared to other (economically viable) backup solutions available, in line with current industrial standards. | The GDPR only requires data to be put "beyond use". You don't need to erase your backups every time someone wants their [data deleted](https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regulation-gdpr/individual-rights/right-to-erasure/). |
22,384 | I have eight icons arranged in a circle, a Null object in the centre, and a camera that's parented to the Null. Each icon is set to be a 3D layer, and Auto-Oriented towards the camera. The camera is Auto-Oriented to Point of Interest, and parented to the Null, so that I can adjust the Z rotation of the Null to have the camera orbit the circle (producing the effect that the circle of icons is carouselling around).
Everything else is perfect, but the icons on the sides are somehow inheriting quite a dramatic Z orientation / rotation. I've attached a screenshot below to illustrate what I mean.
I tried [this expression](http://www.motionscript.com/design-guide/auto-orient-y-only.html), but it made the problem worse, and I don't have the expression skills to adapt it to my needs.
How can I have each icon always face the camera, but remain fully level without manually adding keyframes to compensate?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/73FKm.png) | 2017/09/20 | [
"https://avp.stackexchange.com/questions/22384",
"https://avp.stackexchange.com",
"https://avp.stackexchange.com/users/20080/"
] | Combining camera footage with generated objects is called [compositing](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8jOkA_vze5A).
The candy scene could be created in three steps:
1. The girl was filmed ahead of a green screen. Green parts of the footage made transparent.
2. 3D scene was created with background furniture and the candies flying – in Cinema 4D or any other 3D package. It was rendered to a movie clip A. And the frames with candies flying towards the viewer rendered with transparent background to clib B.
3. AfterEffects or other compositing package was used to combine the three layers (front to back): clip B, green screen, clip A.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vWhFf.jpg) | Yes, you can do exactly that and lots more with this awesome plug-in - [Element 3D](https://www.videocopilot.net/products/element2/) for After Effects (Not free though). You can import 3D models from various programs, create primitives and 3d extrusions based on shape layers and texts right inside of After Effects with cool lighting.
Check the plug-in out and you'll be driven to buying and using it yourself. There are tons of possibilities with that plugin. |
22,384 | I have eight icons arranged in a circle, a Null object in the centre, and a camera that's parented to the Null. Each icon is set to be a 3D layer, and Auto-Oriented towards the camera. The camera is Auto-Oriented to Point of Interest, and parented to the Null, so that I can adjust the Z rotation of the Null to have the camera orbit the circle (producing the effect that the circle of icons is carouselling around).
Everything else is perfect, but the icons on the sides are somehow inheriting quite a dramatic Z orientation / rotation. I've attached a screenshot below to illustrate what I mean.
I tried [this expression](http://www.motionscript.com/design-guide/auto-orient-y-only.html), but it made the problem worse, and I don't have the expression skills to adapt it to my needs.
How can I have each icon always face the camera, but remain fully level without manually adding keyframes to compensate?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/73FKm.png) | 2017/09/20 | [
"https://avp.stackexchange.com/questions/22384",
"https://avp.stackexchange.com",
"https://avp.stackexchange.com/users/20080/"
] | Combining camera footage with generated objects is called [compositing](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8jOkA_vze5A).
The candy scene could be created in three steps:
1. The girl was filmed ahead of a green screen. Green parts of the footage made transparent.
2. 3D scene was created with background furniture and the candies flying – in Cinema 4D or any other 3D package. It was rendered to a movie clip A. And the frames with candies flying towards the viewer rendered with transparent background to clib B.
3. AfterEffects or other compositing package was used to combine the three layers (front to back): clip B, green screen, clip A.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vWhFf.jpg) | Yes, this can be done in After Effects, but I can suggest to use specialized 3D software, like 3dsmax. Here you will get much more tools to manipulate models and motion. Tornado effect can be done with particle systems and their "gravity systems", it much more easy than animating every candy. |
22,215 | So I was searching a room to rent and I found a landlady in an email group. We first talked over the phone, then she sent the photos of the place over text message and we continued talking with messages. I said at some point "I want to rent the place, let's sign a sublease."
She agreed to prepare the documents but then didn't return to me with a document for 10 days. In the meantime, one of my friends offered me a free room so I wrote in a very kind language that I decided not to rent the place. (I am a foreign student in a lab rotation here so for a person not having salary it is a big amount.)
She replied using very strong words and because of that I didn't even bother to reply her. We didn't have any signed document so I was very sure that nothing could happen. 4 days after she wrote me another message saying that she wants the money sending a link to a law firm website saying text messages can be relevant.
The sublease is for 2 weeks and the rent is just 300 dollars. And I am leaving the country in 3 weeks so if her lawsuit request is accepted, I may not be able to go to court. Should I be worried? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/22215",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/13276/"
] | To answer the headline question: yes, text messages are as binding as any other form of communication. They are on par with any other written communication like a letter or email and are better than a verbal communication because they create a permanent record.
To answer the subtext: you probably don't need to worry about being sued. Because the terms of the contract were not fully defined (a sublease document needed to be drawn up), these text messages probably do not create a contract. All they do is prove that you were negotiating a contract - negotiations can break down for all sorts of reasons. | I am a landlord and not a lawyer. I will be answering from that perspective. As well, I can only answer based upon U.S. law and the laws in the states where I am licensed and bonded.
I am working off of *"I want to rent the place, let's sign a sublease."* There is little other information to assess the situation fully.
**Point 1:**
*"I want to rent the place, let's sign a sublease."* in of itself is not enough to constitute an agreement. For an agreement to occur, and therefore be enforceable, there must be a meeting of the minds. This would require responses back and forth with specific details being discussed. For example, "I would like to move in on Wednesday." and a response something similar to "You can move in on Wednesday. I have some paperwork for you to sign and I have to give you the keys." The statement *"I want to rent the place, let's sign a sublease."* only expresses interest.
**Point 2:**
The fact that it took 10 days to get a copy of an agreement is suspect. Any professional real-estate agent, property manager, or landlord, knows that promptness is a requirement. "Strike while the iron is hot." is required in this business. What this tells me is that the landlord was weighing other options and settled on yours due to lack of other positive responses. Given that this appeared to be a rather short and temporary lease, it is paramount that you are settled quickly. Your landlord failed to respond in a timely manner and that often goes well in your favor in tenant landlord disputes.
**Point 3:**
I am assuming that there is no signed contract. In tenant landlord law, a lease always exists. Where there is no written lease offered by the landlord, the state default lease is in play. In order for this to happen, there must be a transaction and not just the meeting of the minds. Money and access to the property must be exchanged before any agreement and coverage under the law exists. Therefore, you have not entered into a lease agreement. No exchange has occurred.
**Point 4:**
While it might not apply in your case, I have included this here for others in the future. Where a background check and other checks are to occur, the landlord must have an application that specifically grants permission to conduct any lawful inquiries into the truthfulness of the application and any other information the landlord is entitled to such as a criminal background check, sex offender check, credit check, prior evictions check, and so on. There must be a signed grant that allows the landlord to perform this action. This application and grant does not constitute a lease agreement or contract for services. This is key. It often does not take long for an online check to occur, however, some others can take some days. I take anywhere from 4 days to 2 weeks to complete this process depending of course on what I find and how long it takes to receive information. If you filled out an application, this is not an lease agreement and is non-binding to both parties.
**Can you be sued?**
Not likely. However, in civil court, only the accusation needs to be made. This means that the landlord can file a complaint regardless of standing. Depending on where you are, a simple written response to the complaint should be enough. For example, I file a suit when obtaining a judgement against a bad tenant, that tenant can respond on the original complaint or in writing before the trial date. This depends upon the procedures of the state court for civil matters. It is possible with a properly written statement that the case could be dismissed prior to entering court providing that the landlord has not provided sufficient documentation with the complaint to make the case. I, as an example, always file supporting evidence with my complaint for just this reason, however, most landlords do not understand the law and often only file the complaint. So in the case where a landlord files a complaint without document evidence, the judge could read your statement, find it reasonable in the absence of supporting documentation, and dismiss the complaint before going to trial. This does happen. At the very least, the landlord could get a call from the judge or court asking for material documentation on the matter. If the landlord does not provide this information, cannot provide the requested documentation, or refuses, then a decision can be made. I have received such calls, and of course, for me it is a trivial matter of faxing the documentation or appearing in person. Assuming that the landlord has only text messages, this will not be enough.
**Should you respond to this complaint?**
Who knows? I would. If nothing else, you can go to the court to see what options you have within the court system given your short stay. It may be best to contact an attorney that may take this on pro-bono because of your story or at least for a very small fee. Most attorneys like to settle things over the phone quickly and this could be done in 10 minutes! You certainly have the legal right to representation even when out of the country. This is a civil case and not a criminal case so no-one is going to lock you up. **However, this does effect your credit score and any background check you may have to go through for housing in the future, car loans, new credit, jobs, etc. This is enough reason for anyone to fight the case.** If you are in the right, I personally would not stand for a default judgement. I am the one who sticks a finger in the air and tells them to bring it on. But that is just me. Only you can decide what to do in this matter. |
198,819 | I was talking to a co-worker about the fact that he ignored certain guidelines when writing his code. He is fairly aware of the established guidelines and a well-defined copy of the same is present on his PC, but he chooses to ignore them and deliver code that doesn't suit the organizational standards.
I wanted to tell him this, "Your ignorance of this matter is unwelcome."
However, I stopped mid-statement because I realized that this statement would imply that he is not aware of these guidelines. However, he is well-aware of the requirements but ignores them out of choice (probably out of laziness or lack of attention). Is there a better word for this situation? Alternately, how would I phrase this statement in a better way to convey the message that his choice of continuing to ignore guidelines is unwelcome? | 2014/09/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198819",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/90804/"
] | The problem is that the words 'ignorance' and 'ignorant' have taken on far stronger meanings than simply 'the ignoring of something'. And that is assuming that they ever did mean simply that. At one level they can mean that someone is 'unlearned', and at its strongest that they are an 'idiot'.
'Ignore' and 'ignorance' can exist on different levels. One can choose to ignore a rule of which one was not ignorant. The fact that I simply choose to ignore an item of junk mail that I receive does not display 'ignorance' on my part (hopefully).
So in the example you mention I think I would either use the gerund 'Ignoring the procedures on your part is unwelcome', or choose another word or phrase altogether, such as 'Your failure to adhere to procedure....'
'Ignorance' like 'illiteracy' is best avoided unless your intention is to offend. | "Ignorance" means that the person who violated standards and policies was unaware of them. Since you report that this is not the case, that the person is definitely aware of the standards and policies, and deliberately fails not to follow them, that word does not apply here. AT best, he is, as Mykolas states, negligent. But what you seem to be describing sounds more like *willful disregard*, or *non-compliance*, or perhaps even *insubordination* to me.
As for how to phrase the statement of the consequences of failing to adhere to guidelines, I think your question is pretty close to the way to do it, but a bit too gentle, given what you relate in your quesion. If it were me, my dialog would be along the lines of
>
> If you continue to ignore (fail to comply, willfully disregard) the standards and procedures for code which you are aware of, the consequences will be dealt with the established policies for dealing with non-compliance, up to, and including termination of employment.
>
>
> |
32,287 | I want to include SFDC Knowledge Icon on VisualForce Page .
Some of the icons URLs could be found [HERE](http://free-121d5f44d20-121d603d1c5-121ee2b8103.force.com/force2b/salesforceicons)
But URL knowledge Icon is not specified here.
Whats the URL for Knowledge Icon? | 2014/04/09 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/32287",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/7533/"
] | To see the tabs, you need the 'Knowledge User' permission after enabling Knowledge itself. This avails the 'Articles' and 'Article Management' tabs, then we can find the icons living in their own folder:
1. Knowledge icon:
* [/img/knowledge/knowledge16.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/knowledge16.png) (16px) 
* [/img/knowledge/knowledge24.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/knowledge24.png) (24px) 
* [/img/knowledge/knowledge32.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/knowledge32.png) (32px) 
* [/img/knowledge/knowledge64.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/knowledge64.png) (64px) 
2. Knowledge management icon
* [/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement16.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement16.png) (16px) 
* [/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement24.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement24.png) (24px) 
* [/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement32.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement32.png) (32px) 
* [/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement64.png](https://login.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/publishing/knowledgemanagement64.png) (64px)  | Something like:
<https://cs5.salesforce.com/img/knowledge/knowledge24.png>
but I would advice you to upload the image as a static resource |
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