qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
7,500,623 | In multicore systems, such as 2, 4, 8 cores, we typically use mutexes and semaphores to access shared memory. However, I can foresee that these methods would induce a high overhead for future systems with many cores. Are there any alternative methods that would be better for future many core systems for accessing shared memories. | 2011/09/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7500623",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/760807/"
] | [Transactional memory](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transactional_memory) is one such method. | Access to shared memory at the lowest level in any multi-processor/core/threaded application synchronization depends on the bus lock. Such a lock may incur hundreds of (CPU) wait states as it also encompasses locking those I/O buses that have bus-mastering devices including DMA. Theoretically it is possible to envision a medium-level lock that can be invoked in situations when the programmer is certain that the memory area being locked won't be affected by any I/O bus. Such a lock would be much faster because it only needs to synchronize the CPU caches with main memory which is fast, at least in comparison to latency of the slowest I/O buses. Whether programmers in general would be competent to determine when to use which bus lock adds worrying implications to its mainstream feasibility. Such a lock could also require its own dedicated external pins for synchronization with other processors.
In multi-processor Opteron systems each processor has its own memory which becomes part of the entire memory that all installed processors can "see". A processor trying to access memory which turns out to be attached to another processor will transparently complete the access - albeit more slowly - through a high-speed interconnect bus (called HyperTransport) to the processor in charge of that memory (the NUMA concept). As long as a processor and its cores are working with the memory physically connected to it processing will be fast. In addition, many processors are equipped with several external memory buses to multiply their overall memory bandwidth.
A theoretical medium-level lock could, on Opteron systems, be implemented using the HyperTransport interconnections.
As for any forseeable future the classic approach of locking as seldom as possible and for as short a time as possible by implementing efficient algorithms (and associated data structures) that are used when the locks are in place still holds true. |
7,500,623 | In multicore systems, such as 2, 4, 8 cores, we typically use mutexes and semaphores to access shared memory. However, I can foresee that these methods would induce a high overhead for future systems with many cores. Are there any alternative methods that would be better for future many core systems for accessing shared memories. | 2011/09/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7500623",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/760807/"
] | I'm not sure how far in the future you want to go. But in the long-long run, shared memory as we know it right now (single address space accessible by any core) is not scalable. So the programming model will have to change at some point and make the lives of programmers harder as it did when we went to multi-core.
But for now (perhaps for another 10 years) you can get away with transactional memory and other hardware/software tricks.
The reason I say shared-memory is not scalable in the long run is simply due to physics. (similar to how single-core/high-frequency hit a barrier)
In short, transistors can't shrink to less than the size of an atom (barring new technology), and signals can't propagate faster than the speed of light. Therefore, memory will get slower and slower (with respect to the processor) and at some point, it becomes infeasible to share memory.
We can already see this effect right now with NUMA on the multi-socket systems. Large-scale supercomputers are neither shared-memory nor cache-coherent. | 1) Lock only the memory part your are accessing, and not the entire table ! This is done with the help of a big hash table. The bigger the table, the finer the lock mechanism is.
2) If you can, only lock on writing, not on reading (this requires that there is no problem in reading the "previous value" while it is being updated, which is very often a valid case). |
7,500,623 | In multicore systems, such as 2, 4, 8 cores, we typically use mutexes and semaphores to access shared memory. However, I can foresee that these methods would induce a high overhead for future systems with many cores. Are there any alternative methods that would be better for future many core systems for accessing shared memories. | 2011/09/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7500623",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/760807/"
] | I'm not sure how far in the future you want to go. But in the long-long run, shared memory as we know it right now (single address space accessible by any core) is not scalable. So the programming model will have to change at some point and make the lives of programmers harder as it did when we went to multi-core.
But for now (perhaps for another 10 years) you can get away with transactional memory and other hardware/software tricks.
The reason I say shared-memory is not scalable in the long run is simply due to physics. (similar to how single-core/high-frequency hit a barrier)
In short, transistors can't shrink to less than the size of an atom (barring new technology), and signals can't propagate faster than the speed of light. Therefore, memory will get slower and slower (with respect to the processor) and at some point, it becomes infeasible to share memory.
We can already see this effect right now with NUMA on the multi-socket systems. Large-scale supercomputers are neither shared-memory nor cache-coherent. | Access to shared memory at the lowest level in any multi-processor/core/threaded application synchronization depends on the bus lock. Such a lock may incur hundreds of (CPU) wait states as it also encompasses locking those I/O buses that have bus-mastering devices including DMA. Theoretically it is possible to envision a medium-level lock that can be invoked in situations when the programmer is certain that the memory area being locked won't be affected by any I/O bus. Such a lock would be much faster because it only needs to synchronize the CPU caches with main memory which is fast, at least in comparison to latency of the slowest I/O buses. Whether programmers in general would be competent to determine when to use which bus lock adds worrying implications to its mainstream feasibility. Such a lock could also require its own dedicated external pins for synchronization with other processors.
In multi-processor Opteron systems each processor has its own memory which becomes part of the entire memory that all installed processors can "see". A processor trying to access memory which turns out to be attached to another processor will transparently complete the access - albeit more slowly - through a high-speed interconnect bus (called HyperTransport) to the processor in charge of that memory (the NUMA concept). As long as a processor and its cores are working with the memory physically connected to it processing will be fast. In addition, many processors are equipped with several external memory buses to multiply their overall memory bandwidth.
A theoretical medium-level lock could, on Opteron systems, be implemented using the HyperTransport interconnections.
As for any forseeable future the classic approach of locking as seldom as possible and for as short a time as possible by implementing efficient algorithms (and associated data structures) that are used when the locks are in place still holds true. |
91,293 | I can use the nvidia drivers with my Quadro FX 1400 to drive 2 monitors, but I want to do 3 monitors, with the ability to drag windows among all of them, good expansion, etc. BTW, setting up 2 monitors is trivial. I just had to run the nvidia-settings program. But, if I use nvidia-settings to "enable" the third monitor, the machine will crash within minutes, at least with Fedora 12. The 3 monitors worked with Fedora 11, but not with 12.
Can someone point me to a recent post on someone who has done this? What video cards were used (2 cards, 1 card with 4 ports, SLI)? Did you use the proprietary or the free drivers?
Is this something than is robust enough for my everyday work machine, which must never crash, or should I just stay with 2 monitors for now?
Basically, I am looking for a tutorial on how to set up 3 or 4 monitors on a Linux machine.
Thanks! | 2010/01/04 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/91293",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/15567/"
] | If you have your video cards configured correctly in X, you could use [XRandr](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RandR) to easily configure your screens. The big desktop environments should come with a GUI configuration tool, or just use `xrandr` directly on the command line. With XRandr you can change settings of a running X server (i.e. without restart). | Have you looked at [Xinerama HOWTOs](http://tldp.org/HOWTO/Xinerama-HOWTO/index.html)? |
6,382 | I have a DisplayLink-based external USB monitor, which has both power and data over USB, and seems to work perfectly under Windows 7, but only can display a text console under Ubuntu 10.10, and that I can only use when I am actually switched to it. So the only Use I can have so far is to have some text-based monitoring or console that I can watch while working on the graphic display.
I know there are some development done for DisplayLink, but I never could get it to actually run properly.
Yes, I tried the detailed setup described in other [posts](https://askubuntu.com/questions/3348/how-to-get-lilliput-usb-monitor-running-in-ubuntu), but they did not work, and instead crashed my X that I had to restore.
Merci :-) | 2010/10/12 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/6382",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/1464/"
] | On Aug 3, 2015, Displaylink finally released the USB Monitor driver for Ubuntu.
Link: <http://www.displaylink.com/downloads/ubuntu.php>
I have an AOC usb monitor and Ubuntu 14.04. After installing the driver, my usb Monitor start working.
If the driver works for your monitor, please let other people know by posting it. Many people waiting for this driver. I've been waiting for 2 years. :-) | Maybe [this](http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1597230) will get you a little bit further.
General DisplayLink adapter information for Linux is available [here](http://libdlo.freedesktop.org/wiki/DeviceQuirks).
Also, if your primary graphics adapter is from NVIDIA, you should read [this](https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu/+source/xserver-xorg-video-displaylink/+bug/629244).
Good Luck |
6,382 | I have a DisplayLink-based external USB monitor, which has both power and data over USB, and seems to work perfectly under Windows 7, but only can display a text console under Ubuntu 10.10, and that I can only use when I am actually switched to it. So the only Use I can have so far is to have some text-based monitoring or console that I can watch while working on the graphic display.
I know there are some development done for DisplayLink, but I never could get it to actually run properly.
Yes, I tried the detailed setup described in other [posts](https://askubuntu.com/questions/3348/how-to-get-lilliput-usb-monitor-running-in-ubuntu), but they did not work, and instead crashed my X that I had to restore.
Merci :-) | 2010/10/12 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/6382",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/1464/"
] | Maybe [this](http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1597230) will get you a little bit further.
General DisplayLink adapter information for Linux is available [here](http://libdlo.freedesktop.org/wiki/DeviceQuirks).
Also, if your primary graphics adapter is from NVIDIA, you should read [this](https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu/+source/xserver-xorg-video-displaylink/+bug/629244).
Good Luck | Don't forget to disable Secure Boot (UEFI) if you have it enabled.
Here's a guide:
<https://wiki.ubuntu.com/UEFI/SecureBoot/DKMS> |
6,382 | I have a DisplayLink-based external USB monitor, which has both power and data over USB, and seems to work perfectly under Windows 7, but only can display a text console under Ubuntu 10.10, and that I can only use when I am actually switched to it. So the only Use I can have so far is to have some text-based monitoring or console that I can watch while working on the graphic display.
I know there are some development done for DisplayLink, but I never could get it to actually run properly.
Yes, I tried the detailed setup described in other [posts](https://askubuntu.com/questions/3348/how-to-get-lilliput-usb-monitor-running-in-ubuntu), but they did not work, and instead crashed my X that I had to restore.
Merci :-) | 2010/10/12 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/6382",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/1464/"
] | On Aug 3, 2015, Displaylink finally released the USB Monitor driver for Ubuntu.
Link: <http://www.displaylink.com/downloads/ubuntu.php>
I have an AOC usb monitor and Ubuntu 14.04. After installing the driver, my usb Monitor start working.
If the driver works for your monitor, please let other people know by posting it. Many people waiting for this driver. I've been waiting for 2 years. :-) | Don't forget to disable Secure Boot (UEFI) if you have it enabled.
Here's a guide:
<https://wiki.ubuntu.com/UEFI/SecureBoot/DKMS> |
340,743 | Afternoons all,
So I have a MacBook Pro, 2018 TB with High Sierra that's bound to a Windows domain, built via JAMF.
We have one admin account on the machine which our IT team use then the user account where they themselves are also admins. I should point out I have admin rights on the machine.
Nothing special about these accounts as far as I'm aware.
However when my user logs onto the machine, to do their work and then reboots, at logon they are only prompted for the password for the IT admin account. They don't see the username and password fields.
I'm trying to go through the console logs but unsure what I'm even looking for.
I should have mentioned, I have admin rights but some features are locked down via JAMF security profiles.
Anyone else seen this issue? | 2018/10/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/340743",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/113594/"
] | FileVault is the clear case where the system will boot to a pre-OS screen and show you only the file vault enabled accounts. When you sign in and authenticate as one of these accounts, that unlocks a decryption key that allows the OS to be readable and starts the actual OS boot process.
You can determine which accounts have been enabled in FileVault by examining that system preference once you’re logged in to the running OS.
Since you managed MDM and JAMF - here is an article with great technical data on the need for a secure token to be provisioned for each FileVault enabled account:
* <https://derflounder.wordpress.com/2018/01/20/secure-token-and-filevault-on-apple-file-system/>
Your IT team should investigate JAMF Connect which extends the typical log in screen to let any AD allowed account log in. It also can be provisioned so that membership in an AD group maps to an admin local account or a non-admin local account. It’s an amazing tool and far better than binding which can have many down sides.
* <https://www.jamf.com/products/jamf-connect/> | Since you have Admin privileges, open users and groups > Log in Options > Log in and set it to show List of users.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VcKrR.jpg) |
340,743 | Afternoons all,
So I have a MacBook Pro, 2018 TB with High Sierra that's bound to a Windows domain, built via JAMF.
We have one admin account on the machine which our IT team use then the user account where they themselves are also admins. I should point out I have admin rights on the machine.
Nothing special about these accounts as far as I'm aware.
However when my user logs onto the machine, to do their work and then reboots, at logon they are only prompted for the password for the IT admin account. They don't see the username and password fields.
I'm trying to go through the console logs but unsure what I'm even looking for.
I should have mentioned, I have admin rights but some features are locked down via JAMF security profiles.
Anyone else seen this issue? | 2018/10/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/340743",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/113594/"
] | go to setting > security and privacy > FileVault. There should be a notice saying that some users are not allowed to unlock the Vault, with an option to change the setting. You have to have admin privileges to change the setting. | Since you have Admin privileges, open users and groups > Log in Options > Log in and set it to show List of users.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VcKrR.jpg) |
340,743 | Afternoons all,
So I have a MacBook Pro, 2018 TB with High Sierra that's bound to a Windows domain, built via JAMF.
We have one admin account on the machine which our IT team use then the user account where they themselves are also admins. I should point out I have admin rights on the machine.
Nothing special about these accounts as far as I'm aware.
However when my user logs onto the machine, to do their work and then reboots, at logon they are only prompted for the password for the IT admin account. They don't see the username and password fields.
I'm trying to go through the console logs but unsure what I'm even looking for.
I should have mentioned, I have admin rights but some features are locked down via JAMF security profiles.
Anyone else seen this issue? | 2018/10/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/340743",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/113594/"
] | Since you have Admin privileges, open users and groups > Log in Options > Log in and set it to show List of users.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/VcKrR.jpg) | I've just bound a MacBook Pro to a domain (for the first time), and have apparently had the same (painful !) issue. FireVault wasn't the culprit, because it isn't enabled by default.
The solution (inspired by [this thread](https://www.reddit.com/r/macsysadmin/comments/3kjmr7/binding_mac_to_ad_can_i_login_without_ethernet/)) was to **enable "mobile accounts" in the domain binding menu:**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RkXDk.png)
*macOS Big Sur (11.2.3),* en français |
340,743 | Afternoons all,
So I have a MacBook Pro, 2018 TB with High Sierra that's bound to a Windows domain, built via JAMF.
We have one admin account on the machine which our IT team use then the user account where they themselves are also admins. I should point out I have admin rights on the machine.
Nothing special about these accounts as far as I'm aware.
However when my user logs onto the machine, to do their work and then reboots, at logon they are only prompted for the password for the IT admin account. They don't see the username and password fields.
I'm trying to go through the console logs but unsure what I'm even looking for.
I should have mentioned, I have admin rights but some features are locked down via JAMF security profiles.
Anyone else seen this issue? | 2018/10/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/340743",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/113594/"
] | go to setting > security and privacy > FileVault. There should be a notice saying that some users are not allowed to unlock the Vault, with an option to change the setting. You have to have admin privileges to change the setting. | FileVault is the clear case where the system will boot to a pre-OS screen and show you only the file vault enabled accounts. When you sign in and authenticate as one of these accounts, that unlocks a decryption key that allows the OS to be readable and starts the actual OS boot process.
You can determine which accounts have been enabled in FileVault by examining that system preference once you’re logged in to the running OS.
Since you managed MDM and JAMF - here is an article with great technical data on the need for a secure token to be provisioned for each FileVault enabled account:
* <https://derflounder.wordpress.com/2018/01/20/secure-token-and-filevault-on-apple-file-system/>
Your IT team should investigate JAMF Connect which extends the typical log in screen to let any AD allowed account log in. It also can be provisioned so that membership in an AD group maps to an admin local account or a non-admin local account. It’s an amazing tool and far better than binding which can have many down sides.
* <https://www.jamf.com/products/jamf-connect/> |
340,743 | Afternoons all,
So I have a MacBook Pro, 2018 TB with High Sierra that's bound to a Windows domain, built via JAMF.
We have one admin account on the machine which our IT team use then the user account where they themselves are also admins. I should point out I have admin rights on the machine.
Nothing special about these accounts as far as I'm aware.
However when my user logs onto the machine, to do their work and then reboots, at logon they are only prompted for the password for the IT admin account. They don't see the username and password fields.
I'm trying to go through the console logs but unsure what I'm even looking for.
I should have mentioned, I have admin rights but some features are locked down via JAMF security profiles.
Anyone else seen this issue? | 2018/10/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/340743",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/113594/"
] | FileVault is the clear case where the system will boot to a pre-OS screen and show you only the file vault enabled accounts. When you sign in and authenticate as one of these accounts, that unlocks a decryption key that allows the OS to be readable and starts the actual OS boot process.
You can determine which accounts have been enabled in FileVault by examining that system preference once you’re logged in to the running OS.
Since you managed MDM and JAMF - here is an article with great technical data on the need for a secure token to be provisioned for each FileVault enabled account:
* <https://derflounder.wordpress.com/2018/01/20/secure-token-and-filevault-on-apple-file-system/>
Your IT team should investigate JAMF Connect which extends the typical log in screen to let any AD allowed account log in. It also can be provisioned so that membership in an AD group maps to an admin local account or a non-admin local account. It’s an amazing tool and far better than binding which can have many down sides.
* <https://www.jamf.com/products/jamf-connect/> | I've just bound a MacBook Pro to a domain (for the first time), and have apparently had the same (painful !) issue. FireVault wasn't the culprit, because it isn't enabled by default.
The solution (inspired by [this thread](https://www.reddit.com/r/macsysadmin/comments/3kjmr7/binding_mac_to_ad_can_i_login_without_ethernet/)) was to **enable "mobile accounts" in the domain binding menu:**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RkXDk.png)
*macOS Big Sur (11.2.3),* en français |
340,743 | Afternoons all,
So I have a MacBook Pro, 2018 TB with High Sierra that's bound to a Windows domain, built via JAMF.
We have one admin account on the machine which our IT team use then the user account where they themselves are also admins. I should point out I have admin rights on the machine.
Nothing special about these accounts as far as I'm aware.
However when my user logs onto the machine, to do their work and then reboots, at logon they are only prompted for the password for the IT admin account. They don't see the username and password fields.
I'm trying to go through the console logs but unsure what I'm even looking for.
I should have mentioned, I have admin rights but some features are locked down via JAMF security profiles.
Anyone else seen this issue? | 2018/10/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/340743",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/113594/"
] | go to setting > security and privacy > FileVault. There should be a notice saying that some users are not allowed to unlock the Vault, with an option to change the setting. You have to have admin privileges to change the setting. | I've just bound a MacBook Pro to a domain (for the first time), and have apparently had the same (painful !) issue. FireVault wasn't the culprit, because it isn't enabled by default.
The solution (inspired by [this thread](https://www.reddit.com/r/macsysadmin/comments/3kjmr7/binding_mac_to_ad_can_i_login_without_ethernet/)) was to **enable "mobile accounts" in the domain binding menu:**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RkXDk.png)
*macOS Big Sur (11.2.3),* en français |
47,487 | I want to transmit data from multiple sensors to an Arduino and distance would be approximately 120 meters.
What protocol or configuration should I use?
Actually I am trying to read values from 5 temperature sensors located in 5 different spots of warehouse. I want to read them and trigger some relay based on the values.
I thought about I2C but I have read somewhere that its not built for long distances. Also thought about RS-485, but I don't know if that supports bus (connect all sensors to same line).
Which solution do you suggest? | 2017/12/07 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/47487",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/40640/"
] | While thinking about RS-485, did you read about it? It is a bus. It is designed for long distances. | I2C is not built for long distances (max. some meters) But you can make it via RS485, But you will need to add termination resistors to each end. |
7,219,755 | Could anyone please explain what is the best practice of using itemrendrers for Adv. DataGrid in Flex? Should one use tag and write the component or by using itemrenderer property?
Regards,
Wrinkle | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7219755",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/378680/"
] | IMHO you should factor out the itemrenderer.
Look at it as an investment in the long-term maintainability and modularity of your code.
It could be that if you wrote the renderer generic enough, you could reuse it elsewhere in that project, or in future projects.
(I am assuming a non-trivial item-renderer - e.g. one that inherits from Label and changes the color) | No difference in performance.
Small difference in readability: if your renderer is rather small, there's no point extracting it as separate class. And vice-versa, if renderer grows huge, leaving its internals inside `DataGrid` tag may look awfull. |
7,219,755 | Could anyone please explain what is the best practice of using itemrendrers for Adv. DataGrid in Flex? Should one use tag and write the component or by using itemrenderer property?
Regards,
Wrinkle | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7219755",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/378680/"
] | IMHO you should factor out the itemrenderer.
Look at it as an investment in the long-term maintainability and modularity of your code.
It could be that if you wrote the renderer generic enough, you could reuse it elsewhere in that project, or in future projects.
(I am assuming a non-trivial item-renderer - e.g. one that inherits from Label and changes the color) | There is one big difference, if you are debugging a component. In my case I am using IntelliJ and there seems to be an Issue (They claim it to be a Flash issue) that renders all Breakpoints invalid as soon as one inline component is found. |
94,031 | For Borderlands 1, maximum bonus was +4/3/3, making maximum level for single skill 9. For Borderlands 2 there is no specific information on any of the wikis, except for "Legendary" and "Slayer of Terramorphous" mods, which give +5 and +4 respectively.
What are maximum skill bonuses from any Class Mods? | 2012/11/25 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/94031",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/33619/"
] | Some non-legendaries have +6 to a skill. Never seen more than 6, though from my inventory even a green can have a level 6, so I don't think it's tied necessarily to rarity (it may be to level though, these are level 50 mods and I think lower level ones go as low as +1). I've played 4 full playthroughs (two playthrough ones, two playthrough twos) and I don't recall ever seeing a single +7, though I have a few +6s in my inventory right now.
The skill counts are the same as the first game; white mods have no skills they boost, greens boost 1, blue 2, purple 3.
According to [The Gear Calculator](http://thegearcalculator.appspot.com/) (via [Orc JMR](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/33619/orc-jmr)), green Mods can grant up to +5, blue Mods up to +6/5, purple Mods up to +5/4/4. So Purple mods boast the most skill points overall, but blue mods can actually boost two specific skills higher than a purple can.
Legendary mods have set skills they boost, the Legendary (Class) mod boosts by +5, the Slayer of Terra mods have +4. | Check out this video at around 3:38
They find a Legendary Mechromancer Class Mod with +5 to 6 skills BUT a penalty to cooldown too.
I'm not sure if that's the max, but it's still pretty big :) |
91,697 | I am a project manager. My boss has notified me that a member of my team is underperforming. My boss was covering me whilst I was away on annual leave with general day to day management duties. My colleague is a web developer on the back end. We know he has the ability but it just seems as though he lacks focus and concentration.
The following reasons are why he is underperforming:
* Producing error prone work i.e. work that keeps on breaking on production to the point it has irritated my boss.
To give him the benefit of the doubt he is a backend developer so it is hard to internally QA his work since it is not visual which is why we have encouraged him to write as many tests as possible.
* As an organisation we have been very patient with him by allowing him to set his own timeframes, but often because of the above it takes ages to finalise work properly making him unreliable and not dependable.
* We use project planning tools to track the delivery of work, I can see after coming back from vacation that he has not been using it. This is mandatory since as an organisation we are unable to track what has been delivered without it.
* In comparison to my other colleague, the time it takes him to produce work is generally a lot slower. My other colleague work has bugs, but often they are resolved quickly.
* He does not take a lot of initiative, sometimes it feels as though I need to spoon feed him with what to do i.e. reminding him to change the status of his tickets as he has completed his work etc.
* He has trouble estimating how long his work will take to complete. I have tried to help him by breaking down the work into much smaller chunks and his estimates are still way off.
* His work ethic is not as strong as my colleagues who tries very hard every week to complete the work he has committed to for that work.
* He is very opinionated, often have had heated discussions when we disagree on something (I am often correct).
On the whole, this has been an on-going issue.
To improve his attitude and make him more of a team player, I have tried to:
* mentor him in one to one meetings by making him understand why things need to be done in a certain way. He seemingly agrees, but then after a few weeks old behavioural traits appear.
I am now running out of ideas. I have considered being a lot more firmer with him, but I am worried it may leave him demotivated.
Any idea how to approach this situation. | 2017/05/27 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/91697",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/40609/"
] | When you have somebody with problems usually punishing them just makes it worse. I think some companies punish workers in the hope that they quit, so they won't have to go through the difficulty of firing them. It is not my philosophy, but I understand why other people do it.
Your steps so far seem reasonable to me.
The key thing is to make sure that it is clear exactly what you expect. I recommend writing emails that are extremely explicit and spell out with no question exactly what you want him do, down to specifying functions and parameters. If he is not doing stuff, visit him, tell him to bring up the email on the screen so you both can read it. Ask him, "Did you read this email?"
Don't ask why he didn't get stuff done, you will just get excuses. Excuses are worthless. Also, questioning of that kind could be construed as "rubbing his nose in it". You don't want to create a hostile or antagonistic atmosphere. The key thing is that he understands perfectly what you expect to have done and by when. The goal here is to make sure he understands that he is underperforming.
At the end of the day you are going to have some workers that are not good, so eventually you either need to lower your expectations or get rid of them. | In your position I would aim to help him to help me. Your ultimate goal as project manager is to get the project completed to spec on time and on budget. But to do that you need your team to be at their best, so you want to support him in order to help him achieve that. You already know that of course, but how do you do it?
You've stated he has the abilities but is not performing. So it feels like a motivation problem, he just doesn't care.
Use the "[Five Whys](https://www.isixsigma.com/tools-templates/cause-effect/determine-root-cause-5-whys/)" of root cause analysis to get to the bottom of why he is underperforming.
The first "why" will be "Why is X underperforming?" to which a likely, but not certain answer will be "because he is not motivated"
You can then proceed to ask "why is he not motivated" (or a different question if the answer to the first one is different)
Keep asking why to proceed along the chain of causes until you reach something you can solve easily. It might turn out to be something trivial such as seating position, or something slightly more involved but still very possible such as adjusting working hours to work around something that is happening in his personal life.
Once you are able to adjust the root cause, over time the effects will work their way up the chain and everything will fall into place.
Make sure to review the chain of causes regularly in order to measure the effectiveness of any changes you have made and ensure you are in a position to make small steering corrections where needed. |
91,697 | I am a project manager. My boss has notified me that a member of my team is underperforming. My boss was covering me whilst I was away on annual leave with general day to day management duties. My colleague is a web developer on the back end. We know he has the ability but it just seems as though he lacks focus and concentration.
The following reasons are why he is underperforming:
* Producing error prone work i.e. work that keeps on breaking on production to the point it has irritated my boss.
To give him the benefit of the doubt he is a backend developer so it is hard to internally QA his work since it is not visual which is why we have encouraged him to write as many tests as possible.
* As an organisation we have been very patient with him by allowing him to set his own timeframes, but often because of the above it takes ages to finalise work properly making him unreliable and not dependable.
* We use project planning tools to track the delivery of work, I can see after coming back from vacation that he has not been using it. This is mandatory since as an organisation we are unable to track what has been delivered without it.
* In comparison to my other colleague, the time it takes him to produce work is generally a lot slower. My other colleague work has bugs, but often they are resolved quickly.
* He does not take a lot of initiative, sometimes it feels as though I need to spoon feed him with what to do i.e. reminding him to change the status of his tickets as he has completed his work etc.
* He has trouble estimating how long his work will take to complete. I have tried to help him by breaking down the work into much smaller chunks and his estimates are still way off.
* His work ethic is not as strong as my colleagues who tries very hard every week to complete the work he has committed to for that work.
* He is very opinionated, often have had heated discussions when we disagree on something (I am often correct).
On the whole, this has been an on-going issue.
To improve his attitude and make him more of a team player, I have tried to:
* mentor him in one to one meetings by making him understand why things need to be done in a certain way. He seemingly agrees, but then after a few weeks old behavioural traits appear.
I am now running out of ideas. I have considered being a lot more firmer with him, but I am worried it may leave him demotivated.
Any idea how to approach this situation. | 2017/05/27 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/91697",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/40609/"
] | When you have somebody with problems usually punishing them just makes it worse. I think some companies punish workers in the hope that they quit, so they won't have to go through the difficulty of firing them. It is not my philosophy, but I understand why other people do it.
Your steps so far seem reasonable to me.
The key thing is to make sure that it is clear exactly what you expect. I recommend writing emails that are extremely explicit and spell out with no question exactly what you want him do, down to specifying functions and parameters. If he is not doing stuff, visit him, tell him to bring up the email on the screen so you both can read it. Ask him, "Did you read this email?"
Don't ask why he didn't get stuff done, you will just get excuses. Excuses are worthless. Also, questioning of that kind could be construed as "rubbing his nose in it". You don't want to create a hostile or antagonistic atmosphere. The key thing is that he understands perfectly what you expect to have done and by when. The goal here is to make sure he understands that he is underperforming.
At the end of the day you are going to have some workers that are not good, so eventually you either need to lower your expectations or get rid of them. | Put him on a PIP while you look for a replacement. You've tried other avenues, now you need to look at protecting your projects and the rest of the teams morale. |
91,697 | I am a project manager. My boss has notified me that a member of my team is underperforming. My boss was covering me whilst I was away on annual leave with general day to day management duties. My colleague is a web developer on the back end. We know he has the ability but it just seems as though he lacks focus and concentration.
The following reasons are why he is underperforming:
* Producing error prone work i.e. work that keeps on breaking on production to the point it has irritated my boss.
To give him the benefit of the doubt he is a backend developer so it is hard to internally QA his work since it is not visual which is why we have encouraged him to write as many tests as possible.
* As an organisation we have been very patient with him by allowing him to set his own timeframes, but often because of the above it takes ages to finalise work properly making him unreliable and not dependable.
* We use project planning tools to track the delivery of work, I can see after coming back from vacation that he has not been using it. This is mandatory since as an organisation we are unable to track what has been delivered without it.
* In comparison to my other colleague, the time it takes him to produce work is generally a lot slower. My other colleague work has bugs, but often they are resolved quickly.
* He does not take a lot of initiative, sometimes it feels as though I need to spoon feed him with what to do i.e. reminding him to change the status of his tickets as he has completed his work etc.
* He has trouble estimating how long his work will take to complete. I have tried to help him by breaking down the work into much smaller chunks and his estimates are still way off.
* His work ethic is not as strong as my colleagues who tries very hard every week to complete the work he has committed to for that work.
* He is very opinionated, often have had heated discussions when we disagree on something (I am often correct).
On the whole, this has been an on-going issue.
To improve his attitude and make him more of a team player, I have tried to:
* mentor him in one to one meetings by making him understand why things need to be done in a certain way. He seemingly agrees, but then after a few weeks old behavioural traits appear.
I am now running out of ideas. I have considered being a lot more firmer with him, but I am worried it may leave him demotivated.
Any idea how to approach this situation. | 2017/05/27 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/91697",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/40609/"
] | When you have somebody with problems usually punishing them just makes it worse. I think some companies punish workers in the hope that they quit, so they won't have to go through the difficulty of firing them. It is not my philosophy, but I understand why other people do it.
Your steps so far seem reasonable to me.
The key thing is to make sure that it is clear exactly what you expect. I recommend writing emails that are extremely explicit and spell out with no question exactly what you want him do, down to specifying functions and parameters. If he is not doing stuff, visit him, tell him to bring up the email on the screen so you both can read it. Ask him, "Did you read this email?"
Don't ask why he didn't get stuff done, you will just get excuses. Excuses are worthless. Also, questioning of that kind could be construed as "rubbing his nose in it". You don't want to create a hostile or antagonistic atmosphere. The key thing is that he understands perfectly what you expect to have done and by when. The goal here is to make sure he understands that he is underperforming.
At the end of the day you are going to have some workers that are not good, so eventually you either need to lower your expectations or get rid of them. | As a PM your loyalty belongs to your project/customer/employer/colleague (in order of descending priority).
* minimize the damage: people who produce error prone work should not be given priority/important tasks. Don't give him exposure to customers. Dont make project-critical things depend on him
* talk to him/his boss about how you see him currently. It is not the PMs task to make plans for an employee, but the task of the boss and the employee.
* as a PM your priorities are your project. If a resource is no use you, remove him/her.or negotiate a lower price (that is what i did - i agreed to a colleague on a project but only if her hours are billed in a ratio 0f 1.5:1).
* The most critical points which i see are that you describe him as opinionated and not motivated. Clearly discuss with him and his boss that you wont allow this in your project.
To put it short: The best way to discipline him is to give him tasks appropriate to his attitude and skills, reduce his value t ohis boss and leave the further disciplining steps to his boss. |
91,697 | I am a project manager. My boss has notified me that a member of my team is underperforming. My boss was covering me whilst I was away on annual leave with general day to day management duties. My colleague is a web developer on the back end. We know he has the ability but it just seems as though he lacks focus and concentration.
The following reasons are why he is underperforming:
* Producing error prone work i.e. work that keeps on breaking on production to the point it has irritated my boss.
To give him the benefit of the doubt he is a backend developer so it is hard to internally QA his work since it is not visual which is why we have encouraged him to write as many tests as possible.
* As an organisation we have been very patient with him by allowing him to set his own timeframes, but often because of the above it takes ages to finalise work properly making him unreliable and not dependable.
* We use project planning tools to track the delivery of work, I can see after coming back from vacation that he has not been using it. This is mandatory since as an organisation we are unable to track what has been delivered without it.
* In comparison to my other colleague, the time it takes him to produce work is generally a lot slower. My other colleague work has bugs, but often they are resolved quickly.
* He does not take a lot of initiative, sometimes it feels as though I need to spoon feed him with what to do i.e. reminding him to change the status of his tickets as he has completed his work etc.
* He has trouble estimating how long his work will take to complete. I have tried to help him by breaking down the work into much smaller chunks and his estimates are still way off.
* His work ethic is not as strong as my colleagues who tries very hard every week to complete the work he has committed to for that work.
* He is very opinionated, often have had heated discussions when we disagree on something (I am often correct).
On the whole, this has been an on-going issue.
To improve his attitude and make him more of a team player, I have tried to:
* mentor him in one to one meetings by making him understand why things need to be done in a certain way. He seemingly agrees, but then after a few weeks old behavioural traits appear.
I am now running out of ideas. I have considered being a lot more firmer with him, but I am worried it may leave him demotivated.
Any idea how to approach this situation. | 2017/05/27 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/91697",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/40609/"
] | In your position I would aim to help him to help me. Your ultimate goal as project manager is to get the project completed to spec on time and on budget. But to do that you need your team to be at their best, so you want to support him in order to help him achieve that. You already know that of course, but how do you do it?
You've stated he has the abilities but is not performing. So it feels like a motivation problem, he just doesn't care.
Use the "[Five Whys](https://www.isixsigma.com/tools-templates/cause-effect/determine-root-cause-5-whys/)" of root cause analysis to get to the bottom of why he is underperforming.
The first "why" will be "Why is X underperforming?" to which a likely, but not certain answer will be "because he is not motivated"
You can then proceed to ask "why is he not motivated" (or a different question if the answer to the first one is different)
Keep asking why to proceed along the chain of causes until you reach something you can solve easily. It might turn out to be something trivial such as seating position, or something slightly more involved but still very possible such as adjusting working hours to work around something that is happening in his personal life.
Once you are able to adjust the root cause, over time the effects will work their way up the chain and everything will fall into place.
Make sure to review the chain of causes regularly in order to measure the effectiveness of any changes you have made and ensure you are in a position to make small steering corrections where needed. | Put him on a PIP while you look for a replacement. You've tried other avenues, now you need to look at protecting your projects and the rest of the teams morale. |
91,697 | I am a project manager. My boss has notified me that a member of my team is underperforming. My boss was covering me whilst I was away on annual leave with general day to day management duties. My colleague is a web developer on the back end. We know he has the ability but it just seems as though he lacks focus and concentration.
The following reasons are why he is underperforming:
* Producing error prone work i.e. work that keeps on breaking on production to the point it has irritated my boss.
To give him the benefit of the doubt he is a backend developer so it is hard to internally QA his work since it is not visual which is why we have encouraged him to write as many tests as possible.
* As an organisation we have been very patient with him by allowing him to set his own timeframes, but often because of the above it takes ages to finalise work properly making him unreliable and not dependable.
* We use project planning tools to track the delivery of work, I can see after coming back from vacation that he has not been using it. This is mandatory since as an organisation we are unable to track what has been delivered without it.
* In comparison to my other colleague, the time it takes him to produce work is generally a lot slower. My other colleague work has bugs, but often they are resolved quickly.
* He does not take a lot of initiative, sometimes it feels as though I need to spoon feed him with what to do i.e. reminding him to change the status of his tickets as he has completed his work etc.
* He has trouble estimating how long his work will take to complete. I have tried to help him by breaking down the work into much smaller chunks and his estimates are still way off.
* His work ethic is not as strong as my colleagues who tries very hard every week to complete the work he has committed to for that work.
* He is very opinionated, often have had heated discussions when we disagree on something (I am often correct).
On the whole, this has been an on-going issue.
To improve his attitude and make him more of a team player, I have tried to:
* mentor him in one to one meetings by making him understand why things need to be done in a certain way. He seemingly agrees, but then after a few weeks old behavioural traits appear.
I am now running out of ideas. I have considered being a lot more firmer with him, but I am worried it may leave him demotivated.
Any idea how to approach this situation. | 2017/05/27 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/91697",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/40609/"
] | As a PM your loyalty belongs to your project/customer/employer/colleague (in order of descending priority).
* minimize the damage: people who produce error prone work should not be given priority/important tasks. Don't give him exposure to customers. Dont make project-critical things depend on him
* talk to him/his boss about how you see him currently. It is not the PMs task to make plans for an employee, but the task of the boss and the employee.
* as a PM your priorities are your project. If a resource is no use you, remove him/her.or negotiate a lower price (that is what i did - i agreed to a colleague on a project but only if her hours are billed in a ratio 0f 1.5:1).
* The most critical points which i see are that you describe him as opinionated and not motivated. Clearly discuss with him and his boss that you wont allow this in your project.
To put it short: The best way to discipline him is to give him tasks appropriate to his attitude and skills, reduce his value t ohis boss and leave the further disciplining steps to his boss. | Put him on a PIP while you look for a replacement. You've tried other avenues, now you need to look at protecting your projects and the rest of the teams morale. |
9,454,092 | I am creating a custom iPhone View in MonoTouch through the interface builder in XCode (In monodevelop New File -> MonoTouch -> iPhone View).
When selecting a new iPhone View it creates an xib file, but no .h file is created, so how can I create outlets?
I usually drag an outlet from my label/button etc. to the .h file, but since it doesn't exist for this view, I don't know how to create the outlets.
Can someone point me in the right direction, since all articles on google are for the old versions, where outlets where created differently. | 2012/02/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9454092",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/79465/"
] | When you double-click a .xib in MonoDevelop, MonoDevelop will generate header files for your [Register]'d C# classes that subclass ObjC types and export them to a temporary Xcode project, where you can use Xcode to drag&drop Outlets and Actions.
Adding a new iPhone View file (.xib) does not auto-create any backing C# classes for you, it *just* creates the .xib, therefore MonoDevelop does not autogenerate any header files for you when you double-click the .xib.
When Xcode launches, you can manually create some Objective-C headers for this .xib and drag&drop outlets or actions to it (or you can create C# classes in MonoDevelop before double-clicking the .xib). When you switch back to MonoDevelop, MonoDevelop will "import" the header files, translating them into the equivalent C#.
While in Xcode, you can also add .xib's there and MonoDevelop will import those as well. | The Xamarin documentation has a good [tutorial](http://docs.xamarin.com/ios/getting_started/Hello_iPhone) on this. There is a section for **Adding Outlets and Actions to the UI** using Interface Builder in Xcode4
>
> **Adding an Outlet** In order to create the Outlet, use the following
> procedure:
>
>
> 1. Determine for which control you want an Outlet.
> 2. Hold down the Control key on the keyboard, and then drag from the control to an empty space in your code file after the @interface
> definition.
>
>
> |
64,937 | It is true that a lot of members of our, and most other species, suffer from cancer, but it is still not ubiquitous nor does it exist throughout the individual's life.
If a species existed, in which all, or almost all of its members suffered from the same pathology, and that pathology showed up and existed throughout the organism's life, and this pathology has always existed within the species, would that violate natural selection enough to consider the current body of theory of evolution falsified?
To be clear, it is recognized that natural selection is not the only process which occurs during evolution, but it is pretty safe to say that enough of our body of theory on evolution rests with the validity of natural selection that if natural selection were falsified, so would the body as a whole, and we would need to rework our theories.
Consider what is said in *[Evolutionary dynamics in structured populations](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2842709/)*.
>
> An evolving population consists of reproducing individuals, which are information carriers. When they reproduce, they pass on information. New mutants arise if this process involves mistakes. Natural selection emerges if mutants reproduce at different rates and compete for limiting resources.
>
>
>
In other words, evolutionary dynamics implies natural selection. A violation of natural selection therefore would make the current theory on evolutionary dynamics less likely. Now, it could be that other processes are so powerful that they completely override natural selection, but to find a species in which natural selection has totally failed to weed out a near universal illness should present a problem for current evolutionary theory. | 2017/08/16 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/64937",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/9995/"
] | Very short answer
=================
Evolution ≠ Natural Selection
Slightly longer answer
======================
**Evolution ≠ Natural Selection**
You seem to equate evolution with natural selection which is the main issue. Various evolutionary processes may yield a population where all individuals suffer from a specific disease. It may not be an equilibrium state though but a state that may well last long enough to be frequently observed.
For example a [bottleneck](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Population_bottleneck) can cause a disease to reach an extremely high frequency if there was some deleterious recessive alleles in the parent population. A bottleneck is not a process that is encompass within the term Natural Selection but it is still an evolutionary process.
We actually have examples (incl. examples in humans) of populations where the prevalence of particular genetic disease is very high.
**The existence of other evolutionary processes than natural selection does not violate the theory of natural selection**
The existence of other evolutionary processes than natural selection does not violate natural selection theory. The theory of natural selection does not state that nothing but natural selection can affect a population's evolution.
If one were to think that the existence of genetic drift (another evolutionary process) would violate natural selection, then this person would also think that the existence of wind that would affect an apple course falling through the air would violate the theory of gravitation.
**What is evolution?**
Your question comes from a misrepresentation of what evolution is about. You might want to have a look at a short and intro course to evolutionary biology such as [Understanding Evolution by UC Berkeley](http://evolution.berkeley.edu/evolibrary/article/evo_01) for example. | **Evolution doesn't ensure a good quality of life, nor does it ensure a longer lifetime of a species's organism.**. It only ***aims for the continued sustenance of the species*** in a changing environment.
What does being ill really mean?
* Does it mean that the lifespan becomes smaller? No, an insect might have a smaller lifespan while being a very rapidly evolving life form.
* Does it mean that the species would be pain-free while living? No, even humans are designed to endure chronic pain.
All the things that contribute to not being "ill", are really just things which contribute to being able to have a faster and continuous sustenance. Long life means more chances of offsprings, being pain-free gives more time and ability to mate.
Hope this answers your question! First post. This thread made me join this exchange! |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | The answers so far focus on the algorithm itself, I have a few social economic thoughts to add.
Let's assume Bitcoin is massively popular and indeed becomes THE global go-to currency, at this point this and similar questions become (very) relevant.
What happens in maturing industries is that through commoditization and mergers smaller and smaller numbers of players remain. Through scale advantages this small number of players will be able to provide services at lower cost and squeeze out smaller players. I see little reason the industry of Bitcoin transaction processing will be exempt from this general rule.
Next, we cannot foresee every aspect of the future, even though the Bitcoin designers did a terrific job there will be situations that will call for changes to the system. For example there might be a call from the people to stop child porn networks, to stop capital shelters for the rich, to stop overly profitable and powerful corporations,... etcetera, you name it. Whether justified or not, the people will demand for changes, not necessarily a villain government individual, the people.
Since there is only a small number of players it is actually possible to regulate the industry. For example the regulation could be that only payments with a traceable account number will be processed, or only payments with attached fees that include a portion for tax.
I would think the government could even demand changes to the core of the algorithm. Preventing, for example, "non-certified" players to enter, thereby further establishing the power of the existing payment processors.
The newly elected monopolists will then, in the final phase of capitalism self-destruction slowly but steadily raise their processing prices, eventually driving customers away and causing the Bitcoin to never reach the deflationary status many proponents and early investors claim it will have.
And let's just hope it ends this way, a forking scenario from this could be that the Bitcoin reaches "too big to fail" status, and the people demand further regulation (of processing fees, mining speed caps, etc). We will all keep paying a premium on the existence of the currency, just for the sake of stability and the fear for disruption of the status quo. Just like with today's currencies.
I'm not trying to be skeptical, I'm actually very hopeful the crypto currencies are going to help with globalization and advance humanity. As a deflationary currency to "easily" save for your (early) retirement I am not so sure. As a transaction system probably in some way.
Maybe we don't actually need a "currency" maybe all we need is a transaction. Maybe there can be a super layer on top of multiple competing crypto currencies that quickly and automatically switches your money back and forth between the best suitable mix of currencies and investment funds. After all what you really care about is how your salary is exchanged into goods and future promises. | I suspect he might be able to mine more than 51% of the blocks. See [Can someone with 51% computing power earn more than he deserves?](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1475/can-someone-with-51-computing-power-earn-more-than-he-deserves) |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | Anyone who owns 51% of the network will have made a massive investment in hardware and systems to organize and construct a machine capable of executing such an attack. If their motive is profit, then the short term gain associated with forking the block chain to enable 'double spend' will net them a negligible benefit; it's difficult to imagine they would pursue this strategy on the basis that the resulting instability will ultimately de-value the very coins they seek to 'spend twice'. If their motive is to destroy Bitcoin, period, that is another matter altogether. That kind of [techno-vandalism](http://www.yourwindow.to/information-security/gl_technovandalism.htm) could only reasonably be motivated by someone with destruction and disruption serving as their primary motivation.
Instead, I posit it's much more likely that such a massive and powerful compute resource (Bitcoin supercomputer) will be used to power the vast bulk of the network within the bounds of its intended use, profiting long term from generation rewards and transaction fees, as the network grows and prospers over time. | A 51% percent attack would simply destroy the currency, and anyone holding a short position would make 100% profit. So there is a strong financial incentive for this attack and it has happened many times. |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | Anyone who owns 51% of the network will have made a massive investment in hardware and systems to organize and construct a machine capable of executing such an attack. If their motive is profit, then the short term gain associated with forking the block chain to enable 'double spend' will net them a negligible benefit; it's difficult to imagine they would pursue this strategy on the basis that the resulting instability will ultimately de-value the very coins they seek to 'spend twice'. If their motive is to destroy Bitcoin, period, that is another matter altogether. That kind of [techno-vandalism](http://www.yourwindow.to/information-security/gl_technovandalism.htm) could only reasonably be motivated by someone with destruction and disruption serving as their primary motivation.
Instead, I posit it's much more likely that such a massive and powerful compute resource (Bitcoin supercomputer) will be used to power the vast bulk of the network within the bounds of its intended use, profiting long term from generation rewards and transaction fees, as the network grows and prospers over time. | I suspect he might be able to mine more than 51% of the blocks. See [Can someone with 51% computing power earn more than he deserves?](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1475/can-someone-with-51-computing-power-earn-more-than-he-deserves) |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | In theory, this attacker owns enough computing power that they could execute a "double spend" attack. They could spend coins in one place, allow the coins to enter the block chain as normal until the required confirmations are met, then fire up their 51% of the miners to craft a fraudulent fork of the block chain in which those coins were never spent, allowing them to re-spend the coins. This could theoretically be repeated for as long as the attacker maintained control of 51% or more of the hashrate.
Realistically, 51% is only the point at which this becomes *possible* not the point at which it becomes *likely* or *easy*. An attacker would probably need something like 65% to actually execute such an attack. | I suspect he might be able to mine more than 51% of the blocks. See [Can someone with 51% computing power earn more than he deserves?](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1475/can-someone-with-51-computing-power-earn-more-than-he-deserves) |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | Actually, it's very easy to do damage to the network once you have 51%; just build your own chain faster than the network, and broadcast it whenever you like. If you send some of your coins to a new address in your own chain, all the transactions issued in the live network by spending those same coins will be reversed at the moment the longer chain is broadcast.
Right from the [bitcoin wiki](https://en.bitcoin.it/wiki/Weaknesses#Attacker_has_a_lot_of_computing_power) (probably proof-read by many pairs of eyes) :
>
> An attacker that controls more than 50% of the network's computing
> power can, for the time that he is in control, exclude and modify the
> ordering of transactions. This allows him to:
>
>
> * Reverse transactions that he sends while he's in control
> * Prevent some or all transactions from gaining any confirmations
> * Prevent some or all other generators from getting any generations
>
>
> The attacker can't:
>
>
> * Reverse other people's transactions
> * Prevent transactions from being sent at all (they'll show as 0/unconfirmed)
> * Change the number of coins generated per block
> * Create coins out of thin air
> * Send coins that never belonged to him
>
>
> It's much more difficult to change historical blocks, and it becomes
> exponentially more difficult the further back you go. As above,
> changing historical blocks only allows you to exclude and change the
> ordering of transactions. It's impossible to change blocks created
> before the last checkpoint.
>
>
> Since this attack doesn't permit all that much power over the network,
> it is expected that no one will attempt it. A profit-seeking person
> will always gain more by just following the rules, and even someone
> trying to destroy the system will probably find other attacks more
> attractive. However, if this attack is successfully executed, it will
> be difficult or impossible to "untangle" the mess created — any
> changes the attacker makes might become permanent.
>
>
> | A 51% percent attack would simply destroy the currency, and anyone holding a short position would make 100% profit. So there is a strong financial incentive for this attack and it has happened many times. |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | And then there is the denial of service possibility of suddenly withdrawing from the service, taking the necessary computing resources away to continue to solve blocks every ten minutes until the difficulty is adjusted down again (which could take a long time if there is only a block every day for example).
Of course, for that one would need much more than 51% of hash power. | Anyone who owns 51% of the network will have made a massive investment in hardware and systems to organize and construct a machine capable of executing such an attack. If their motive is profit, then the short term gain associated with forking the block chain to enable 'double spend' will net them a negligible benefit; it's difficult to imagine they would pursue this strategy on the basis that the resulting instability will ultimately de-value the very coins they seek to 'spend twice'. If their motive is to destroy Bitcoin, period, that is another matter altogether. That kind of [techno-vandalism](http://www.yourwindow.to/information-security/gl_technovandalism.htm) could only reasonably be motivated by someone with destruction and disruption serving as their primary motivation.
Instead, I posit it's much more likely that such a massive and powerful compute resource (Bitcoin supercomputer) will be used to power the vast bulk of the network within the bounds of its intended use, profiting long term from generation rewards and transaction fees, as the network grows and prospers over time. |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | In theory, this attacker owns enough computing power that they could execute a "double spend" attack. They could spend coins in one place, allow the coins to enter the block chain as normal until the required confirmations are met, then fire up their 51% of the miners to craft a fraudulent fork of the block chain in which those coins were never spent, allowing them to re-spend the coins. This could theoretically be repeated for as long as the attacker maintained control of 51% or more of the hashrate.
Realistically, 51% is only the point at which this becomes *possible* not the point at which it becomes *likely* or *easy*. An attacker would probably need something like 65% to actually execute such an attack. | Anyone who owns 51% of the network will have made a massive investment in hardware and systems to organize and construct a machine capable of executing such an attack. If their motive is profit, then the short term gain associated with forking the block chain to enable 'double spend' will net them a negligible benefit; it's difficult to imagine they would pursue this strategy on the basis that the resulting instability will ultimately de-value the very coins they seek to 'spend twice'. If their motive is to destroy Bitcoin, period, that is another matter altogether. That kind of [techno-vandalism](http://www.yourwindow.to/information-security/gl_technovandalism.htm) could only reasonably be motivated by someone with destruction and disruption serving as their primary motivation.
Instead, I posit it's much more likely that such a massive and powerful compute resource (Bitcoin supercomputer) will be used to power the vast bulk of the network within the bounds of its intended use, profiting long term from generation rewards and transaction fees, as the network grows and prospers over time. |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | And then there is the denial of service possibility of suddenly withdrawing from the service, taking the necessary computing resources away to continue to solve blocks every ten minutes until the difficulty is adjusted down again (which could take a long time if there is only a block every day for example).
Of course, for that one would need much more than 51% of hash power. | I suspect he might be able to mine more than 51% of the blocks. See [Can someone with 51% computing power earn more than he deserves?](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1475/can-someone-with-51-computing-power-earn-more-than-he-deserves) |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | In theory, this attacker owns enough computing power that they could execute a "double spend" attack. They could spend coins in one place, allow the coins to enter the block chain as normal until the required confirmations are met, then fire up their 51% of the miners to craft a fraudulent fork of the block chain in which those coins were never spent, allowing them to re-spend the coins. This could theoretically be repeated for as long as the attacker maintained control of 51% or more of the hashrate.
Realistically, 51% is only the point at which this becomes *possible* not the point at which it becomes *likely* or *easy*. An attacker would probably need something like 65% to actually execute such an attack. | And then there is the denial of service possibility of suddenly withdrawing from the service, taking the necessary computing resources away to continue to solve blocks every ten minutes until the difficulty is adjusted down again (which could take a long time if there is only a block every day for example).
Of course, for that one would need much more than 51% of hash power. |
658 | Suppose organization X has 51% of the hash power for a period of 1 week. In this week, what exactly can and can't X do? | 2011/09/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/658",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/78/"
] | Actually, it's very easy to do damage to the network once you have 51%; just build your own chain faster than the network, and broadcast it whenever you like. If you send some of your coins to a new address in your own chain, all the transactions issued in the live network by spending those same coins will be reversed at the moment the longer chain is broadcast.
Right from the [bitcoin wiki](https://en.bitcoin.it/wiki/Weaknesses#Attacker_has_a_lot_of_computing_power) (probably proof-read by many pairs of eyes) :
>
> An attacker that controls more than 50% of the network's computing
> power can, for the time that he is in control, exclude and modify the
> ordering of transactions. This allows him to:
>
>
> * Reverse transactions that he sends while he's in control
> * Prevent some or all transactions from gaining any confirmations
> * Prevent some or all other generators from getting any generations
>
>
> The attacker can't:
>
>
> * Reverse other people's transactions
> * Prevent transactions from being sent at all (they'll show as 0/unconfirmed)
> * Change the number of coins generated per block
> * Create coins out of thin air
> * Send coins that never belonged to him
>
>
> It's much more difficult to change historical blocks, and it becomes
> exponentially more difficult the further back you go. As above,
> changing historical blocks only allows you to exclude and change the
> ordering of transactions. It's impossible to change blocks created
> before the last checkpoint.
>
>
> Since this attack doesn't permit all that much power over the network,
> it is expected that no one will attempt it. A profit-seeking person
> will always gain more by just following the rules, and even someone
> trying to destroy the system will probably find other attacks more
> attractive. However, if this attack is successfully executed, it will
> be difficult or impossible to "untangle" the mess created — any
> changes the attacker makes might become permanent.
>
>
> | The answers so far focus on the algorithm itself, I have a few social economic thoughts to add.
Let's assume Bitcoin is massively popular and indeed becomes THE global go-to currency, at this point this and similar questions become (very) relevant.
What happens in maturing industries is that through commoditization and mergers smaller and smaller numbers of players remain. Through scale advantages this small number of players will be able to provide services at lower cost and squeeze out smaller players. I see little reason the industry of Bitcoin transaction processing will be exempt from this general rule.
Next, we cannot foresee every aspect of the future, even though the Bitcoin designers did a terrific job there will be situations that will call for changes to the system. For example there might be a call from the people to stop child porn networks, to stop capital shelters for the rich, to stop overly profitable and powerful corporations,... etcetera, you name it. Whether justified or not, the people will demand for changes, not necessarily a villain government individual, the people.
Since there is only a small number of players it is actually possible to regulate the industry. For example the regulation could be that only payments with a traceable account number will be processed, or only payments with attached fees that include a portion for tax.
I would think the government could even demand changes to the core of the algorithm. Preventing, for example, "non-certified" players to enter, thereby further establishing the power of the existing payment processors.
The newly elected monopolists will then, in the final phase of capitalism self-destruction slowly but steadily raise their processing prices, eventually driving customers away and causing the Bitcoin to never reach the deflationary status many proponents and early investors claim it will have.
And let's just hope it ends this way, a forking scenario from this could be that the Bitcoin reaches "too big to fail" status, and the people demand further regulation (of processing fees, mining speed caps, etc). We will all keep paying a premium on the existence of the currency, just for the sake of stability and the fear for disruption of the status quo. Just like with today's currencies.
I'm not trying to be skeptical, I'm actually very hopeful the crypto currencies are going to help with globalization and advance humanity. As a deflationary currency to "easily" save for your (early) retirement I am not so sure. As a transaction system probably in some way.
Maybe we don't actually need a "currency" maybe all we need is a transaction. Maybe there can be a super layer on top of multiple competing crypto currencies that quickly and automatically switches your money back and forth between the best suitable mix of currencies and investment funds. After all what you really care about is how your salary is exchanged into goods and future promises. |
20,265,503 | I am using Tortoise SVN. I made a mistake and committed the files(Revision 6). I want to revert back to revision 5 and commit the files again. How can I do it??? | 2013/11/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20265503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2717658/"
] | Go to "SVN Show log", right click on the offending revision and select "Revert changes from this revision". Your working copy will look as before. You can then commit to definitively undo the changes, or make valid changes before. | Hi If it is on your local desktop you should be able to right click - tortoiseSVN - revert. This should show past versions. Try
<http://tortoisesvn.net/docs/release/TortoiseSVN_en/tsvn-howto-rollback.html> |
3,146 | Is there a good mnemonic or trick for working out the key signature from a given key? I can always write out the chromatic scale, then count out the appropriate intervals from the tonic, and figure the key signature out from that, but I'm wondering if there are any mnemonics or tricks for making this easier.
Also, are there any tricks for going in the other direction, from key signature to key? Of course this won't map to a single key, since there are all of the modes with the same key signature, but something that would make it easy to figure out the major and relative minor given a key signature would be helpful. | 2011/06/10 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/3146",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/525/"
] | The easiest way for me to figure this out (until you start memorizing them or gaining more aural awareness of tonality) was to remember the orders of sharps and flats (which are opposites of each other), and two simple rules for translating from key signature to major keys.
**Sharps:**
* Order: FCGDAEB = Fat Cats Go Down After Eating Breakfast
* From the last sharp in the key signature, go up one semitone to name the name of the major scale.
**Flats:**
* Order: BEADGCF = BEAD, Greatest Common Factor
* The name of the major scale is the *second to last* flat in the key signature.
**Minor:** The name of the relative minor scale (that is, the one with the same key signature as a major scale) is a minor third below the name of the major scale for any key signature.
**Example:** Flats and sharps in the key signature always occur in the same order, so we can easily translate from number of b/#s in the key signature to key.
* Three flats:
1. Name the flats in order (Bb, Eb, Ab)
2. Find the second to last flat (Eb major)
3. Down a minor third for the relative minor (C minor)
* Four sharps:
1. Name the sharps in order (F#, C#, G#, D#)
2. Take the last sharp up a half step (E major)
3. Down a minor third for the relative minor (C# minor)
* Six sharps:
1. Name the sharps in order (F#, C#, G#, D#, A#, E#)
2. Take the last sharp up a half step (F **#** major, watch out for enharmonics!)
3. Down a minor third for the relative minor (D# minor)
* One flat (**EXCEPTION TO THE RULE**):
1. Bb in the key signature means F major
2. Or D minor
Finding a key signature from the name of a key is literally the exact opposite process. Some skills that will help with all of this would be learning your scales (both the technique AND the note names, on piano especially) and developing your aural skills to the point where you can identify which note is the tonic just based on the music that you hear. | Indeed there is. For sharps:
**Father Charles Goes Down And Ends Battle**
For flats, just read in reverse!
This works as follows:
* For C Major, there are no sharps.
* For G Major (up a perfect fifth), there is 1 sharp (F#; Father).
* For D Major (up a perfect fifth), there are 2 sharps (F# and C#; Father Charles).
* For A Major (up a perfect fifth), there are 3 sharps (F#, C#, and G#; Father Charles Goes).
* etc.
So just count fifths, and count words in the mnemonic.
For flats:
* For C Major, there are no flats.
* For F Major (down a perfect fifth), there is 1 flat (Bb).
* For Bb Major (down a perfect fifth), there are 2 flats (Bb and Eb).
* etc.
NReilingh's answer covers this slightly differently, plus minor keys so I won't duplicate that part. |
3,146 | Is there a good mnemonic or trick for working out the key signature from a given key? I can always write out the chromatic scale, then count out the appropriate intervals from the tonic, and figure the key signature out from that, but I'm wondering if there are any mnemonics or tricks for making this easier.
Also, are there any tricks for going in the other direction, from key signature to key? Of course this won't map to a single key, since there are all of the modes with the same key signature, but something that would make it easy to figure out the major and relative minor given a key signature would be helpful. | 2011/06/10 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/3146",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/525/"
] | The easiest way for me to figure this out (until you start memorizing them or gaining more aural awareness of tonality) was to remember the orders of sharps and flats (which are opposites of each other), and two simple rules for translating from key signature to major keys.
**Sharps:**
* Order: FCGDAEB = Fat Cats Go Down After Eating Breakfast
* From the last sharp in the key signature, go up one semitone to name the name of the major scale.
**Flats:**
* Order: BEADGCF = BEAD, Greatest Common Factor
* The name of the major scale is the *second to last* flat in the key signature.
**Minor:** The name of the relative minor scale (that is, the one with the same key signature as a major scale) is a minor third below the name of the major scale for any key signature.
**Example:** Flats and sharps in the key signature always occur in the same order, so we can easily translate from number of b/#s in the key signature to key.
* Three flats:
1. Name the flats in order (Bb, Eb, Ab)
2. Find the second to last flat (Eb major)
3. Down a minor third for the relative minor (C minor)
* Four sharps:
1. Name the sharps in order (F#, C#, G#, D#)
2. Take the last sharp up a half step (E major)
3. Down a minor third for the relative minor (C# minor)
* Six sharps:
1. Name the sharps in order (F#, C#, G#, D#, A#, E#)
2. Take the last sharp up a half step (F **#** major, watch out for enharmonics!)
3. Down a minor third for the relative minor (D# minor)
* One flat (**EXCEPTION TO THE RULE**):
1. Bb in the key signature means F major
2. Or D minor
Finding a key signature from the name of a key is literally the exact opposite process. Some skills that will help with all of this would be learning your scales (both the technique AND the note names, on piano especially) and developing your aural skills to the point where you can identify which note is the tonic just based on the music that you hear. | I think you've already received a good answer for determining the key signature from key, but for the other way round, it's actually *really* simple fortunately.
All you need to know is two rules and a special case:
* If the key signature is composed of sharps, then the major key is a semitone above the ultimate (right-most) sharp. (Rather to be pedantic, I mean the major key's *tonic*.)
* If the key signature is composed of flats, then the major key is the penultimate flat.
* No sharps or flats means the major key is C; a single flat means the major key is F.
In both cases the corresponding (enharmonic) minor key is a *minor third* below the major key.
Of course, given any key signature alone, it is indeed not possible to determine whether the piece is in a major or minor key. For this, a pretty reliable way is to look for raised (sharped) seventh degrees, i.e. the note just below the key's tonic, since it is used in the harmonic minor. So if you don't find any (or perhaps just the odd one), then it's almost surely the major key. Also, looking at the notes/chord with which the piece or (a given section) is resolved should indicate what the key is, though it's definitely not foolproof. |
17,298 | Chaucer's "The Miller's Tale" in *The Canterbury Tales* is a weird story about an older Miller, his young, beautiful wife who sleeps with a young Oxford student, and an admiring young clergyman involved in a strange sexual relationship. In "A Whiter Shade of Pale", is the miller's tale a reference to the Miller's Tale in Chaucer's Canterbury Tales? | 2021/01/24 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/17298",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Culler's point here (well, Austin's point) is that a promise is performative: the act of saying "I promise" itself constitutes the promise. If I make a promise without intending to keep it, I have nevertheless made a promise. So *whatever my intentions*, saying "I promise" means I have promised.
For example: If, under conventionally appropriate conditions, I say: "I promise that on February 1, I will repay you the $100 I owe you," I have made a promise. Even if I keep my fingers crossed behind my back while saying those words. My intention is irrelevant. And if on February 1 I tell you, "No, I never intended to repay you; the promise was just words," I am *still breaking my promise*. I cannot claim that I never *really* promised to repay you simply because I never *truly* intended to do so. The promise is not merely an outward form of words that represents or misrepresents my inner intentions; the act of saying "I promise" *is* the promise, whatever my intentions.
So: for certain speech acts, such as promising (or apologizing, or making a bet), my intentions are irrelevant. It isn't so much that I make the promise "without intending to"; it's that my saying "I promise" constitutes the promise, whatever my intentions may have been when I said that.
(As an aside: my then four year old niece, who was just beginning to learn to read, saw me reading Austin's *How to Do Things with Words* and remarked, "I know how to do things with words! You spell them!") | What Culler is describing is based on J. L. Austin's book [*How to Do Things With Words*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/J._L._Austin#How_to_Do_Things_With_Words), which introduced a distinction between constative and performative utterances. Constative utterances are descriptive, whereas performative utterances perform actions rather than stating facts.
Performative utterances cannot be judged as true or false (unlike constative utterances) but are measured in terms of **felicity**. Felicity refers to the appropriateness of the utterances and is based on circumstances in which the utterance is made; these aspects determine the utterance's success.
Austin distinguished three types of **felicity conditions**; infringement of these conditions causes "infelicity" (quoted from Drid's paper):
1. a. There must exist an accepted conventional procedure having a certain conventional effect
b. The particular persons and circumstances in a given case must be appropriate for the invocation
2. The procedure must be executed
a. correctly
b. completely
3. Often
a. The persons must have the prerequisite thoughts, feelings and intentions as specified in the procedure
b. If consequent conduct is specified, the participants must do so (follow the conduct)
Austin even distinguishes five types of performative verbs (examples added by me):
* **Verdictives**: for example, a judge says, "I hereby **sentence** you to six years in state prison."
* **Exercitives**: for example, "I **advise** you to leave the bar before a fight breaks out."
* **Commissives**: for example, "I'll **bet** you dollars I can't bit my right eye" ([joke from reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/Jokes/comments/btvdbj/a_man_walks_into_a_bar_and_says_to_the_bartender/)).
* **Behabitives**: for example, "I **apologise** for such a late response".
* **Expositives**: for example, "I **argue** that Hamlet is a misogynist but that Shakespeare was not."
Another example of a performative using a commissive verb is the [oath of office of the president of the United States](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oath_of_office_of_the_president_of_the_United_States), which begins with the words "I do solemnly swear ...". It is an "accepted conventional procedure having a certain conventional effect". It is an interesting example because the words of the oath are not only spoken by the president elect (and the vice president-elect) but also by Chief Justice. The Chief Justice speaks the words of the oath and the president elect repeats them after him. However, at the end of the process, only the president-elect and not the Chief Justice is considered president of the USA. The Chief Justice does not speak the words under the "appropriate circumstances", i.e. he was not chosen by the electoral college. (Hence the distinction that the president elect *takes* the oath, whereas the Chief Justice merely *administers* it.) In addition, the taking of the oath must be executed correctly and completely: when Chief Justice John Roberts flubbed the words at Obama's inauguration in January 2009, [the oath was re-delivered at the White House on the next day](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8_DjaN4BHKU).
Similarly, when a priest says during a wedding ceremony, "I hereby declare you husband and wife", he does this under appropriate circumstances: two people came to him to get married, etc. If I were to speak the same words to two random people in the street, the statement would be infelicitous in more than one way.
There is a similar issue with the word "promise". For example, when Taylor Swift sings "I promise that you'll never find another like me", she isn't referring something she can actually perform. We understand that the singer's statement does not attempt to follow an accepted conventional procedure and the action (rather than strict "conduct") it specifies is not under her control.
However, if I say, "I promise I will pay you tomorrow" under the *appropriate felicity conditions*, the utterance is interpreted as performative. In this specific example, it is probably sufficient that someone asked, "When will you pay me?" and that this person assumed (a) the amount is not too big for someone of my means, (b) I actually *intend* to pay it. If, for the other person, my statement meets the felicity conditions, I have actually made a performative utterance and I will be in some sort of trouble if I don't fulfil my promise because (for example) I never intended to.
Austin later discarded his constative-performative dichotomy but others used his work as the starting point for the development of speech act theory.
The OP also asked **in what sense does this support the idea that the meaning of a literary work can be unrelated to the author's intentions (...)?**
There are several issues when applying speech act theory to literature, especially literary criticism. Before discussing these, it is necessary to explain another contribution from Austin's *How to Do Things with Words*, namely the distinction between locution, illocution and perlocution. The locutionary act is "the act of saying something and its basic content", the illocutionary act refers to "what you're trying to do by speaking" and the perlocutionary act is "the effect of what you say" (informal definitions quoted from R. L. Trask).
One issue concerns the scope of speech act theory: Austin's speech act theory cannot cope with literature because it is too narrow in scope: it is based on a sentence grammar, whereas literature (and discouse in general) needs to be understood in terms of a text grammar (see Garcia Landa, p. 96; Garcia Landa is talking about Searle here but identifies something that appears to apply to early speech theory in general).
Another issue concerns how you define locution, illocution and perlocution in a literary context or, more specifically, where you locate these type of acts. One way of looking at it goes as follows: the narrative as a whole is a "locution", its transmission from the narrator to the reader (or narratee) is a fictional illocution, and "the composition of a novel or a story by the author is a real illocution" (Garcia Landa, page 92). But what does it mean to say that the composition of a literary work by an author is an illocution? According to Garcia Landa, a work of fiction can be seen as (derived) illocutionary act: "in order to count as fiction we must recognise it as such". (See also Culler's emphasis on the cooperative principle in his discussion of the definition of literature in Chapter 2.) He later add that what some critics "do not see is that *writing a poem* is the illocutionary act performed by the author in writing a poem." This type of illocution is something very different from the concept of [authorial intent](https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/authorial-intent) in intentionalist approaches to interpretation.
Speech act theorists who equate the meaning of a literary work with its illocutionary intent or its illocutionary force neglect perlocutions. Garcia Landa even gives an example of a perlocution that conflicts with the author's illocutionary intent: a reader may find a Barbara Cartland novel very funny even though the author did not intend it to be. The effects of literature are not confined to illocutionary intent. (Perlocutionary intentions can also be important, notably in literary hoaxes; see Garcia Landa, pp. 98-99).
Another issue is that in literary texts (and discourse in general) the distinction between illocutions and perlocutions becomes blurry. The elasticity of the conventions that work at the discourse level makes "the uptake of macro-illocutions (...) fuzzy-edged, probabilistic and approximative". As a consequence, the relationship between illocutions and perlocutions "is constantly being negotiated":
>
> A text, and most of all a literary text, is always redefining the codes that allow us to understand it, escapting automatism and convention, and therefore redefining the play of illocution and perlocution. Each phase of the sender's utterance has a corresponding activity in the reader if communication or understanding is to take place. The author's speech act must be complemented by the reader's interpretive act (cf. Harris, 1988, x).
>
>
>
This does not imply that there are no authorial intentons that are worth retrieving; decoding symbols is an example of this.
In *Interpreting Interpreting* (1979) Susan R. Horton made a distinction between reading and interpreting: "reading is a temporal, sequential activity, and as such is opposed to interpretation, which consists in building a 'spatial' pattern of relationships out of the matter furnished by this activity" (Garcia Landa, p. 100). Reading "should refer to the retrieval of codified meaning; interpreations is concerned with the retrieval of partially codified meaning" (p. 101). Since authors both use exiting codes and create new ones and since the creation of new codes involves the transformation of existing ones, there is no sharp boundary between between codified and partially codified meaning. Garcia Landa argues:
>
> what is fundamental is recognizing that there are two poles, that of the undisputably intentional and that of the undisputably unintentional, that this this situation seems to be the right one for both literature and criticism to thrive on. The lack of a clear boundary between intentional and unintentional features will not invalidate the relevance of authorial intention to the creative or interpretive process (...).
>
>
>
Based on this view of the relationship between speech act theory and literary criticism, authorial intent is not necessarily irrelevant but its retrieval is so uncertain that it can hardly define the boundaries of interpretation.
Sources:
* Drid, Touria: "Language as Action: Fundamentals of Speech Act Theory". Praxis International Journal of Social Science and Literature, Volume 1, Issue 10 (December 2018).
* Garcia Landa, Jose Angel: "Speech Act Theory and the Concept of Intention in Literary Criticism". Review of English Studies Canaria, Vol. 24 (1992), pp. 89-104. Available at [SSRN](https://ssrn.com/abstract=1615111).
* Trask, R. L.: *Language and Linguistics: The Key Concepts*. Second edition. Edited by Peter Stockwell. Routledge, 2007. (See the entries "performative" and "speech act".) |
17,298 | Chaucer's "The Miller's Tale" in *The Canterbury Tales* is a weird story about an older Miller, his young, beautiful wife who sleeps with a young Oxford student, and an admiring young clergyman involved in a strange sexual relationship. In "A Whiter Shade of Pale", is the miller's tale a reference to the Miller's Tale in Chaucer's Canterbury Tales? | 2021/01/24 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/17298",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Culler's point here (well, Austin's point) is that a promise is performative: the act of saying "I promise" itself constitutes the promise. If I make a promise without intending to keep it, I have nevertheless made a promise. So *whatever my intentions*, saying "I promise" means I have promised.
For example: If, under conventionally appropriate conditions, I say: "I promise that on February 1, I will repay you the $100 I owe you," I have made a promise. Even if I keep my fingers crossed behind my back while saying those words. My intention is irrelevant. And if on February 1 I tell you, "No, I never intended to repay you; the promise was just words," I am *still breaking my promise*. I cannot claim that I never *really* promised to repay you simply because I never *truly* intended to do so. The promise is not merely an outward form of words that represents or misrepresents my inner intentions; the act of saying "I promise" *is* the promise, whatever my intentions.
So: for certain speech acts, such as promising (or apologizing, or making a bet), my intentions are irrelevant. It isn't so much that I make the promise "without intending to"; it's that my saying "I promise" constitutes the promise, whatever my intentions may have been when I said that.
(As an aside: my then four year old niece, who was just beginning to learn to read, saw me reading Austin's *How to Do Things with Words* and remarked, "I know how to do things with words! You spell them!") | It seems that Austin is tending towards a contractual theory of speech, rather than performative. After all, if I sign a contract, then it matters not one whit if I was signing it whilst crossing my fingers behind my back or making faces to signify what I really thought of the contract. The contract is signed and that is that. If I tried to contest it in court, then the court would throw out the case unless I could prove that *false representations* were made by the other party, or that I was *forced* to sign against my will. In which case, the court would quite rightly throw the contract out of court, and so we see quite directly intentions matter.
[Performative speech](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Performative_utterance), is speech that aren't prescribed a truth value. In fact, Austin:
>
> defines "performatives" as follows:
>
>
>
>
> (1) Performative utterances are not true or false, that is, not truth-evaluable; instead when something is wrong with them then they are "unhappy", while if nothing is wrong they are "happy".
>
>
>
>
> (2) The uttering of a performative is, or is part of, the doing of a certain kind of action (Austin later deals with them under the name illocutionary acts), the performance of which, again, would not normally be described as just "saying" or "describing" something
>
>
>
Thus Cullers should describe what he terms 'performative' as an 'illocutionary act' and not performative per se. As for the performative aspect of 'promise', a highly pertinent exchange is recorded in an essay at the Nobel Prize for Literature site between Tagore and Gandhi (and which, incidently Tagore won for is book of poems, *Gitanjali* in 1913):
>
> On one occasion when Mahatma Gandhi visited Tagore’s school at Santiniketan, a young woman got him to sign her autograph book. Gandhi wrote: “Never make a promise in haste. Having once made it fulfill it at the cost of your life.” When he saw this entry, Tagore became agitated. He wrote in the same book a short poem in Bengali to the effect that no one can be made “a prisoner forever with a chain of clay.” He went on to conclude in English, possibly so that Gandhi could read it too, “Fling away your promise if it is found to be wrong.”
>
>
> |
17,298 | Chaucer's "The Miller's Tale" in *The Canterbury Tales* is a weird story about an older Miller, his young, beautiful wife who sleeps with a young Oxford student, and an admiring young clergyman involved in a strange sexual relationship. In "A Whiter Shade of Pale", is the miller's tale a reference to the Miller's Tale in Chaucer's Canterbury Tales? | 2021/01/24 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/17298",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | What Culler is describing is based on J. L. Austin's book [*How to Do Things With Words*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/J._L._Austin#How_to_Do_Things_With_Words), which introduced a distinction between constative and performative utterances. Constative utterances are descriptive, whereas performative utterances perform actions rather than stating facts.
Performative utterances cannot be judged as true or false (unlike constative utterances) but are measured in terms of **felicity**. Felicity refers to the appropriateness of the utterances and is based on circumstances in which the utterance is made; these aspects determine the utterance's success.
Austin distinguished three types of **felicity conditions**; infringement of these conditions causes "infelicity" (quoted from Drid's paper):
1. a. There must exist an accepted conventional procedure having a certain conventional effect
b. The particular persons and circumstances in a given case must be appropriate for the invocation
2. The procedure must be executed
a. correctly
b. completely
3. Often
a. The persons must have the prerequisite thoughts, feelings and intentions as specified in the procedure
b. If consequent conduct is specified, the participants must do so (follow the conduct)
Austin even distinguishes five types of performative verbs (examples added by me):
* **Verdictives**: for example, a judge says, "I hereby **sentence** you to six years in state prison."
* **Exercitives**: for example, "I **advise** you to leave the bar before a fight breaks out."
* **Commissives**: for example, "I'll **bet** you dollars I can't bit my right eye" ([joke from reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/Jokes/comments/btvdbj/a_man_walks_into_a_bar_and_says_to_the_bartender/)).
* **Behabitives**: for example, "I **apologise** for such a late response".
* **Expositives**: for example, "I **argue** that Hamlet is a misogynist but that Shakespeare was not."
Another example of a performative using a commissive verb is the [oath of office of the president of the United States](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oath_of_office_of_the_president_of_the_United_States), which begins with the words "I do solemnly swear ...". It is an "accepted conventional procedure having a certain conventional effect". It is an interesting example because the words of the oath are not only spoken by the president elect (and the vice president-elect) but also by Chief Justice. The Chief Justice speaks the words of the oath and the president elect repeats them after him. However, at the end of the process, only the president-elect and not the Chief Justice is considered president of the USA. The Chief Justice does not speak the words under the "appropriate circumstances", i.e. he was not chosen by the electoral college. (Hence the distinction that the president elect *takes* the oath, whereas the Chief Justice merely *administers* it.) In addition, the taking of the oath must be executed correctly and completely: when Chief Justice John Roberts flubbed the words at Obama's inauguration in January 2009, [the oath was re-delivered at the White House on the next day](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8_DjaN4BHKU).
Similarly, when a priest says during a wedding ceremony, "I hereby declare you husband and wife", he does this under appropriate circumstances: two people came to him to get married, etc. If I were to speak the same words to two random people in the street, the statement would be infelicitous in more than one way.
There is a similar issue with the word "promise". For example, when Taylor Swift sings "I promise that you'll never find another like me", she isn't referring something she can actually perform. We understand that the singer's statement does not attempt to follow an accepted conventional procedure and the action (rather than strict "conduct") it specifies is not under her control.
However, if I say, "I promise I will pay you tomorrow" under the *appropriate felicity conditions*, the utterance is interpreted as performative. In this specific example, it is probably sufficient that someone asked, "When will you pay me?" and that this person assumed (a) the amount is not too big for someone of my means, (b) I actually *intend* to pay it. If, for the other person, my statement meets the felicity conditions, I have actually made a performative utterance and I will be in some sort of trouble if I don't fulfil my promise because (for example) I never intended to.
Austin later discarded his constative-performative dichotomy but others used his work as the starting point for the development of speech act theory.
The OP also asked **in what sense does this support the idea that the meaning of a literary work can be unrelated to the author's intentions (...)?**
There are several issues when applying speech act theory to literature, especially literary criticism. Before discussing these, it is necessary to explain another contribution from Austin's *How to Do Things with Words*, namely the distinction between locution, illocution and perlocution. The locutionary act is "the act of saying something and its basic content", the illocutionary act refers to "what you're trying to do by speaking" and the perlocutionary act is "the effect of what you say" (informal definitions quoted from R. L. Trask).
One issue concerns the scope of speech act theory: Austin's speech act theory cannot cope with literature because it is too narrow in scope: it is based on a sentence grammar, whereas literature (and discouse in general) needs to be understood in terms of a text grammar (see Garcia Landa, p. 96; Garcia Landa is talking about Searle here but identifies something that appears to apply to early speech theory in general).
Another issue concerns how you define locution, illocution and perlocution in a literary context or, more specifically, where you locate these type of acts. One way of looking at it goes as follows: the narrative as a whole is a "locution", its transmission from the narrator to the reader (or narratee) is a fictional illocution, and "the composition of a novel or a story by the author is a real illocution" (Garcia Landa, page 92). But what does it mean to say that the composition of a literary work by an author is an illocution? According to Garcia Landa, a work of fiction can be seen as (derived) illocutionary act: "in order to count as fiction we must recognise it as such". (See also Culler's emphasis on the cooperative principle in his discussion of the definition of literature in Chapter 2.) He later add that what some critics "do not see is that *writing a poem* is the illocutionary act performed by the author in writing a poem." This type of illocution is something very different from the concept of [authorial intent](https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/authorial-intent) in intentionalist approaches to interpretation.
Speech act theorists who equate the meaning of a literary work with its illocutionary intent or its illocutionary force neglect perlocutions. Garcia Landa even gives an example of a perlocution that conflicts with the author's illocutionary intent: a reader may find a Barbara Cartland novel very funny even though the author did not intend it to be. The effects of literature are not confined to illocutionary intent. (Perlocutionary intentions can also be important, notably in literary hoaxes; see Garcia Landa, pp. 98-99).
Another issue is that in literary texts (and discourse in general) the distinction between illocutions and perlocutions becomes blurry. The elasticity of the conventions that work at the discourse level makes "the uptake of macro-illocutions (...) fuzzy-edged, probabilistic and approximative". As a consequence, the relationship between illocutions and perlocutions "is constantly being negotiated":
>
> A text, and most of all a literary text, is always redefining the codes that allow us to understand it, escapting automatism and convention, and therefore redefining the play of illocution and perlocution. Each phase of the sender's utterance has a corresponding activity in the reader if communication or understanding is to take place. The author's speech act must be complemented by the reader's interpretive act (cf. Harris, 1988, x).
>
>
>
This does not imply that there are no authorial intentons that are worth retrieving; decoding symbols is an example of this.
In *Interpreting Interpreting* (1979) Susan R. Horton made a distinction between reading and interpreting: "reading is a temporal, sequential activity, and as such is opposed to interpretation, which consists in building a 'spatial' pattern of relationships out of the matter furnished by this activity" (Garcia Landa, p. 100). Reading "should refer to the retrieval of codified meaning; interpreations is concerned with the retrieval of partially codified meaning" (p. 101). Since authors both use exiting codes and create new ones and since the creation of new codes involves the transformation of existing ones, there is no sharp boundary between between codified and partially codified meaning. Garcia Landa argues:
>
> what is fundamental is recognizing that there are two poles, that of the undisputably intentional and that of the undisputably unintentional, that this this situation seems to be the right one for both literature and criticism to thrive on. The lack of a clear boundary between intentional and unintentional features will not invalidate the relevance of authorial intention to the creative or interpretive process (...).
>
>
>
Based on this view of the relationship between speech act theory and literary criticism, authorial intent is not necessarily irrelevant but its retrieval is so uncertain that it can hardly define the boundaries of interpretation.
Sources:
* Drid, Touria: "Language as Action: Fundamentals of Speech Act Theory". Praxis International Journal of Social Science and Literature, Volume 1, Issue 10 (December 2018).
* Garcia Landa, Jose Angel: "Speech Act Theory and the Concept of Intention in Literary Criticism". Review of English Studies Canaria, Vol. 24 (1992), pp. 89-104. Available at [SSRN](https://ssrn.com/abstract=1615111).
* Trask, R. L.: *Language and Linguistics: The Key Concepts*. Second edition. Edited by Peter Stockwell. Routledge, 2007. (See the entries "performative" and "speech act".) | It seems that Austin is tending towards a contractual theory of speech, rather than performative. After all, if I sign a contract, then it matters not one whit if I was signing it whilst crossing my fingers behind my back or making faces to signify what I really thought of the contract. The contract is signed and that is that. If I tried to contest it in court, then the court would throw out the case unless I could prove that *false representations* were made by the other party, or that I was *forced* to sign against my will. In which case, the court would quite rightly throw the contract out of court, and so we see quite directly intentions matter.
[Performative speech](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Performative_utterance), is speech that aren't prescribed a truth value. In fact, Austin:
>
> defines "performatives" as follows:
>
>
>
>
> (1) Performative utterances are not true or false, that is, not truth-evaluable; instead when something is wrong with them then they are "unhappy", while if nothing is wrong they are "happy".
>
>
>
>
> (2) The uttering of a performative is, or is part of, the doing of a certain kind of action (Austin later deals with them under the name illocutionary acts), the performance of which, again, would not normally be described as just "saying" or "describing" something
>
>
>
Thus Cullers should describe what he terms 'performative' as an 'illocutionary act' and not performative per se. As for the performative aspect of 'promise', a highly pertinent exchange is recorded in an essay at the Nobel Prize for Literature site between Tagore and Gandhi (and which, incidently Tagore won for is book of poems, *Gitanjali* in 1913):
>
> On one occasion when Mahatma Gandhi visited Tagore’s school at Santiniketan, a young woman got him to sign her autograph book. Gandhi wrote: “Never make a promise in haste. Having once made it fulfill it at the cost of your life.” When he saw this entry, Tagore became agitated. He wrote in the same book a short poem in Bengali to the effect that no one can be made “a prisoner forever with a chain of clay.” He went on to conclude in English, possibly so that Gandhi could read it too, “Fling away your promise if it is found to be wrong.”
>
>
> |
656,512 | When physicist Steven Weinberg (who, sadly, just died recently) wrote a book about "The First Three Minutes" of the universe, doesn't this imply that there really was a distinct period of time, which we, 13.8 billion years later, designate as "three minutes", that existed "in itself", independent of any observer, possible or actual? Wouldn't this contradict Einstein's theory of relativity, according to which there is no such thing as "absolute" time that exists independent of any observer? | 2021/07/31 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/656512",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/138867/"
] | When cosmologists talk about such and such a time after the Big Bang, they mean a measure of time that applies to a particular reference frame, called the co-moving frame, which is the one in which the gross matter in the universe as a whole appears to be expanding uniformly. It is a broad concept, obviously, so you should take the idea of the first three minutes as something of a generalisation. It does not imply that there is an absolute time.
If you apply the rules of relativity very precisely, you will recognise that time passes at separate rates for all of us, since we are moving relatively to each other, and we are at differing heights in the Earth' gravitational field. The differences between our personal times are minuscule, but they are not zero- nonetheless, we ignore them in day to day life and speak generally of a single time that applies, more or less, to all of us. You might find it helpful to think of Steve Weinberg's idea in the same way- the three minutes is broadly the time experienced by the universe overall, although each particle might experience a different time individually. | Weinberg's title is not meant to be taken too literally. In the [timeline of the early universe](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_the_early_universe) cosmologists use time as a shorthand for temperature, or, to be more exact, the average kinetic energy of particles - this decreases as the universe expands and cools. The notional time "three minutes after the Big Bang" is in the middle of the period of [Big Bang nucleosynthesis](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Bang_nucleosynthesis), when the universe was still hot enough for protons and neutrons to fuse together to form light nuclei such as deuterium, helium and lithium, but not so hot that the products of these fusion reactions were destroyed as quickly as they were formed. So *The First Three Minutes* should have been called *A Model of the Evolution of the Early Universe Up To and Including Nucleosynthesis*. But precise titles with long words do not sell books, so I imagine Weinberg's publishers opted for the short, snappy title. |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | I had the same issue (I use iTunes on Windows 7). I Bought a new iPhone 5 and used the Backup / Restore method to move my stuff from the old iPhone 4S to the new one. The process only restored all the Apple apps, plus Contacts, Phone Calls, and Messages. When I tried to backup again - hoping it would restore the rest - it went through a restore process in iTunes (for about 5 minutes) and then I got the message that my iPhone will restart but never did (I had to restart it manually).
What I also noticed was that, when I retried, the Backup seemed to be very quick.
I called Apple Support who said that there is a problem with the Backup process. I would be able to restore my Apps via the Purchased Apps process but I would lose all my user data (such as games progress). I was extremely frustrated because I use my iPhone and iPad as tools, not game devices.
I went to the App Store on the iPhone and started downloading some of the Purchased apps from the what seemed to be the iCloud. To my surprise, all app data was there (eg. WhatsApp chats, and The Vault data). I am not sure how this works because I never deliberatelly setup app backup on the cloud, but I **suspect** that the "Documents and Data" == "On" setting on Settings --> iCloud does exactly that, and in return does not include this information on the PC backup.
All seems fine now (at least for the apps for which I care and tried). The issue I still have is this uncertainty on what exactly is my iPhone doing and where is my stuff at any point in time. | I had the same issue, but found a TRICK/Solution.
THIS ONLY HAPPENS WHEN YOU BUY A USED PHONE WITH PREVIOUS USER'S APPS ON IT.
1) FOR Factory Unlocked phones> If you had bought a Used Iphone , then the first thing to do is to do a MASTER Reset and then do a fresh start , once you go on the screen where it says Startup as a new phone OR Restore from backup . just simply click restore from back and every single thing will be restored to your phone as its with all APPS, and DATA ..
2) FOR GEVEY SIM/ RIM SIM UNLOCKED PHONES > If you are using a Gevey sim or RIM uncloked sim cards to unlcock your phone and are scared to do the Master reset of the phone in order to lose the UNCLOCK OR SCARED OF THE ACTIVATION ISSUE , then you can still get all you Apps back on the phone. just do this ..
Go on itunes and fist try doing the restore from your backup . Hopefully every thing will be backedup but NOT APPS .. now the problem is ,, your Itnues account on phone is conflicting with the APPS OF THE PREVIOUS USER ..the only solution is to DELETE ALL THE APPS FROM THE PREVIOUS USER... if you dont know which apps to delete .. just
click on the itnues tab and look for Devices. under devices click on Transfer purchases. when you do that. An error message will show saying ETC ETC , apps are not going to transfer. (THESE ARE THE APPS WHICH WERE DOWNLOADED BY THE OTHER USER) so just click on show details , it will show you the list of apps need to be deleted. Now go on your iphone and simply delete the apps. and boom .. now click on sync apps and it will sync all your apps back on your iphone.
Let me know if that helps thank you!
Best of luck |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | Apps purchased are not contained in the backup, therefore they will not restore. They can be found in your iTunes, under apps purchased and can be downloaded again to your device. Appdata however is found in the backup - it can be extracted with software such as iPhone Backup Extractor, and then imported back to the device. Hope this helps! | I had the same issue, but found a TRICK/Solution.
THIS ONLY HAPPENS WHEN YOU BUY A USED PHONE WITH PREVIOUS USER'S APPS ON IT.
1) FOR Factory Unlocked phones> If you had bought a Used Iphone , then the first thing to do is to do a MASTER Reset and then do a fresh start , once you go on the screen where it says Startup as a new phone OR Restore from backup . just simply click restore from back and every single thing will be restored to your phone as its with all APPS, and DATA ..
2) FOR GEVEY SIM/ RIM SIM UNLOCKED PHONES > If you are using a Gevey sim or RIM uncloked sim cards to unlcock your phone and are scared to do the Master reset of the phone in order to lose the UNCLOCK OR SCARED OF THE ACTIVATION ISSUE , then you can still get all you Apps back on the phone. just do this ..
Go on itunes and fist try doing the restore from your backup . Hopefully every thing will be backedup but NOT APPS .. now the problem is ,, your Itnues account on phone is conflicting with the APPS OF THE PREVIOUS USER ..the only solution is to DELETE ALL THE APPS FROM THE PREVIOUS USER... if you dont know which apps to delete .. just
click on the itnues tab and look for Devices. under devices click on Transfer purchases. when you do that. An error message will show saying ETC ETC , apps are not going to transfer. (THESE ARE THE APPS WHICH WERE DOWNLOADED BY THE OTHER USER) so just click on show details , it will show you the list of apps need to be deleted. Now go on your iphone and simply delete the apps. and boom .. now click on sync apps and it will sync all your apps back on your iphone.
Let me know if that helps thank you!
Best of luck |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | I had the same issue (I use iTunes on Windows 7). I Bought a new iPhone 5 and used the Backup / Restore method to move my stuff from the old iPhone 4S to the new one. The process only restored all the Apple apps, plus Contacts, Phone Calls, and Messages. When I tried to backup again - hoping it would restore the rest - it went through a restore process in iTunes (for about 5 minutes) and then I got the message that my iPhone will restart but never did (I had to restart it manually).
What I also noticed was that, when I retried, the Backup seemed to be very quick.
I called Apple Support who said that there is a problem with the Backup process. I would be able to restore my Apps via the Purchased Apps process but I would lose all my user data (such as games progress). I was extremely frustrated because I use my iPhone and iPad as tools, not game devices.
I went to the App Store on the iPhone and started downloading some of the Purchased apps from the what seemed to be the iCloud. To my surprise, all app data was there (eg. WhatsApp chats, and The Vault data). I am not sure how this works because I never deliberatelly setup app backup on the cloud, but I **suspect** that the "Documents and Data" == "On" setting on Settings --> iCloud does exactly that, and in return does not include this information on the PC backup.
All seems fine now (at least for the apps for which I care and tried). The issue I still have is this uncertainty on what exactly is my iPhone doing and where is my stuff at any point in time. | Apps purchased are not contained in the backup, therefore they will not restore. They can be found in your iTunes, under apps purchased and can be downloaded again to your device. Appdata however is found in the backup - it can be extracted with software such as iPhone Backup Extractor, and then imported back to the device. Hope this helps! |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | Just a guess into the wild... All the apps you are trying to install have to be present on the source you want to sync from, which usually is either iTunes or iCloud. A backup usually does not contain content from the App-Store (like apps etc...)
This is what worked for me after some trial and error on iTunes 11: select "File" -> "Devices" -> "Transfer purchases from myPhone" from the menu bar. Then all your missing apps are transfered to your computer. After it is done you might want to refresh the backup of your phone, by clicking on "backup now" on the summary page of your phone. After that you should be able to setup your new phone with all the data from your old device. (Maybe reset the new iPhone first by deleting all the content on it via the settings app) | Apps purchased are not contained in the backup, therefore they will not restore. They can be found in your iTunes, under apps purchased and can be downloaded again to your device. Appdata however is found in the backup - it can be extracted with software such as iPhone Backup Extractor, and then imported back to the device. Hope this helps! |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | I believe the problem is in **iTunes 11**. I found, that on the Apps tab there is now missing "**Sync Apps**" checkbox. They believe, they have replaced this with iCloud. But only partially. If you would install applications you would find, that the data has been synced.
I have solved this by using my old PC with iTunes 10.7. I had to run the restore from my 3GS backup twice. I have wiped all data and settings and restored backup. This installed applications but not all settings (background I guess) and application order was preserved. Thank I have connected the iPhone again and restored again (but without wiping the data). Now my iPhone 5 has all the applications in correct folders with all its data. Strange restarts not corresponding to the instructions from iTunes were experienced too. | The iOS version shouldn't matter, but I would Erase All Content and Settings and restore from iCloud and transfer the rest of your content from iTunes. |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | I had the same issue (I use iTunes on Windows 7). I Bought a new iPhone 5 and used the Backup / Restore method to move my stuff from the old iPhone 4S to the new one. The process only restored all the Apple apps, plus Contacts, Phone Calls, and Messages. When I tried to backup again - hoping it would restore the rest - it went through a restore process in iTunes (for about 5 minutes) and then I got the message that my iPhone will restart but never did (I had to restart it manually).
What I also noticed was that, when I retried, the Backup seemed to be very quick.
I called Apple Support who said that there is a problem with the Backup process. I would be able to restore my Apps via the Purchased Apps process but I would lose all my user data (such as games progress). I was extremely frustrated because I use my iPhone and iPad as tools, not game devices.
I went to the App Store on the iPhone and started downloading some of the Purchased apps from the what seemed to be the iCloud. To my surprise, all app data was there (eg. WhatsApp chats, and The Vault data). I am not sure how this works because I never deliberatelly setup app backup on the cloud, but I **suspect** that the "Documents and Data" == "On" setting on Settings --> iCloud does exactly that, and in return does not include this information on the PC backup.
All seems fine now (at least for the apps for which I care and tried). The issue I still have is this uncertainty on what exactly is my iPhone doing and where is my stuff at any point in time. | I believe the problem is in **iTunes 11**. I found, that on the Apps tab there is now missing "**Sync Apps**" checkbox. They believe, they have replaced this with iCloud. But only partially. If you would install applications you would find, that the data has been synced.
I have solved this by using my old PC with iTunes 10.7. I had to run the restore from my 3GS backup twice. I have wiped all data and settings and restored backup. This installed applications but not all settings (background I guess) and application order was preserved. Thank I have connected the iPhone again and restored again (but without wiping the data). Now my iPhone 5 has all the applications in correct folders with all its data. Strange restarts not corresponding to the instructions from iTunes were experienced too. |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | Just a guess into the wild... All the apps you are trying to install have to be present on the source you want to sync from, which usually is either iTunes or iCloud. A backup usually does not contain content from the App-Store (like apps etc...)
This is what worked for me after some trial and error on iTunes 11: select "File" -> "Devices" -> "Transfer purchases from myPhone" from the menu bar. Then all your missing apps are transfered to your computer. After it is done you might want to refresh the backup of your phone, by clicking on "backup now" on the summary page of your phone. After that you should be able to setup your new phone with all the data from your old device. (Maybe reset the new iPhone first by deleting all the content on it via the settings app) | I had the same issue, but found a TRICK/Solution.
THIS ONLY HAPPENS WHEN YOU BUY A USED PHONE WITH PREVIOUS USER'S APPS ON IT.
1) FOR Factory Unlocked phones> If you had bought a Used Iphone , then the first thing to do is to do a MASTER Reset and then do a fresh start , once you go on the screen where it says Startup as a new phone OR Restore from backup . just simply click restore from back and every single thing will be restored to your phone as its with all APPS, and DATA ..
2) FOR GEVEY SIM/ RIM SIM UNLOCKED PHONES > If you are using a Gevey sim or RIM uncloked sim cards to unlcock your phone and are scared to do the Master reset of the phone in order to lose the UNCLOCK OR SCARED OF THE ACTIVATION ISSUE , then you can still get all you Apps back on the phone. just do this ..
Go on itunes and fist try doing the restore from your backup . Hopefully every thing will be backedup but NOT APPS .. now the problem is ,, your Itnues account on phone is conflicting with the APPS OF THE PREVIOUS USER ..the only solution is to DELETE ALL THE APPS FROM THE PREVIOUS USER... if you dont know which apps to delete .. just
click on the itnues tab and look for Devices. under devices click on Transfer purchases. when you do that. An error message will show saying ETC ETC , apps are not going to transfer. (THESE ARE THE APPS WHICH WERE DOWNLOADED BY THE OTHER USER) so just click on show details , it will show you the list of apps need to be deleted. Now go on your iphone and simply delete the apps. and boom .. now click on sync apps and it will sync all your apps back on your iphone.
Let me know if that helps thank you!
Best of luck |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | I had the same issue (I use iTunes on Windows 7). I Bought a new iPhone 5 and used the Backup / Restore method to move my stuff from the old iPhone 4S to the new one. The process only restored all the Apple apps, plus Contacts, Phone Calls, and Messages. When I tried to backup again - hoping it would restore the rest - it went through a restore process in iTunes (for about 5 minutes) and then I got the message that my iPhone will restart but never did (I had to restart it manually).
What I also noticed was that, when I retried, the Backup seemed to be very quick.
I called Apple Support who said that there is a problem with the Backup process. I would be able to restore my Apps via the Purchased Apps process but I would lose all my user data (such as games progress). I was extremely frustrated because I use my iPhone and iPad as tools, not game devices.
I went to the App Store on the iPhone and started downloading some of the Purchased apps from the what seemed to be the iCloud. To my surprise, all app data was there (eg. WhatsApp chats, and The Vault data). I am not sure how this works because I never deliberatelly setup app backup on the cloud, but I **suspect** that the "Documents and Data" == "On" setting on Settings --> iCloud does exactly that, and in return does not include this information on the PC backup.
All seems fine now (at least for the apps for which I care and tried). The issue I still have is this uncertainty on what exactly is my iPhone doing and where is my stuff at any point in time. | Just a guess into the wild... All the apps you are trying to install have to be present on the source you want to sync from, which usually is either iTunes or iCloud. A backup usually does not contain content from the App-Store (like apps etc...)
This is what worked for me after some trial and error on iTunes 11: select "File" -> "Devices" -> "Transfer purchases from myPhone" from the menu bar. Then all your missing apps are transfered to your computer. After it is done you might want to refresh the backup of your phone, by clicking on "backup now" on the summary page of your phone. After that you should be able to setup your new phone with all the data from your old device. (Maybe reset the new iPhone first by deleting all the content on it via the settings app) |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | Just a guess into the wild... All the apps you are trying to install have to be present on the source you want to sync from, which usually is either iTunes or iCloud. A backup usually does not contain content from the App-Store (like apps etc...)
This is what worked for me after some trial and error on iTunes 11: select "File" -> "Devices" -> "Transfer purchases from myPhone" from the menu bar. Then all your missing apps are transfered to your computer. After it is done you might want to refresh the backup of your phone, by clicking on "backup now" on the summary page of your phone. After that you should be able to setup your new phone with all the data from your old device. (Maybe reset the new iPhone first by deleting all the content on it via the settings app) | I believe the problem is in **iTunes 11**. I found, that on the Apps tab there is now missing "**Sync Apps**" checkbox. They believe, they have replaced this with iCloud. But only partially. If you would install applications you would find, that the data has been synced.
I have solved this by using my old PC with iTunes 10.7. I had to run the restore from my 3GS backup twice. I have wiped all data and settings and restored backup. This installed applications but not all settings (background I guess) and application order was preserved. Thank I have connected the iPhone again and restored again (but without wiping the data). Now my iPhone 5 has all the applications in correct folders with all its data. Strange restarts not corresponding to the instructions from iTunes were experienced too. |
74,860 | I recently upgraded from an iPhone 4s to iPhone 5. **How do I transfer all my apps to the new iPhone 5?** I have tried two times without success:
*First attempt:*
1. From iTunes, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer."
2. From iTunes, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This transferred all my contacts, call history, messages, and photos but all my 3rd party apps were missing. (Also messages I had received on the iPhone 5 before restoring were over-written... any way to prevent this?) The size of the resulting backup files was only 10GB; about the amount of photos and videos on my 4s. Note: I can view the list of my purchased 3rd party apps from the app store and download/install them one at a time. When I re-install the apps, they retain all their old data and even old icon locations.
*Second attempt:*
1. From iTunes, click 'Automatically sync new apps'
2. Again, make "a full backup" of the 4s on "this computer," (this time using the "Encrypt iPhone backup" in hopes my passwords would also be retained.)
3. Again, restore the backup to the iPhone 5
This time, the backup size was about 20GB. However, still no 3rd party apps were transferred except a few apps I had re-installed since the last restore.
When I view my apps on the 4s from iTunes (version 11.0.1.12) I see one significant difference from most [on-line instructions](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/28241/14309). Although 99 apps are visible on the right, I am unable to select any of them because they are not listed on the left:
If it makes any differnce, my iPhones 4s still has iOS version 5.1.1 while the iPhone 5 has iOS version 6.
Also, at the end of the restore, the iPhone 5 seems to reboot automatically. However, after waiting for a long time, nothing happened so I restarted the phone manually.
**So how do I make a truly full backup of my iPhone 4s and fully restore it on my iPhone 5?** | 2012/12/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/74860",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/14309/"
] | Just a guess into the wild... All the apps you are trying to install have to be present on the source you want to sync from, which usually is either iTunes or iCloud. A backup usually does not contain content from the App-Store (like apps etc...)
This is what worked for me after some trial and error on iTunes 11: select "File" -> "Devices" -> "Transfer purchases from myPhone" from the menu bar. Then all your missing apps are transfered to your computer. After it is done you might want to refresh the backup of your phone, by clicking on "backup now" on the summary page of your phone. After that you should be able to setup your new phone with all the data from your old device. (Maybe reset the new iPhone first by deleting all the content on it via the settings app) | The iOS version shouldn't matter, but I would Erase All Content and Settings and restore from iCloud and transfer the rest of your content from iTunes. |
229,826 | Does anyone know if Google Apps for Business edition hosts the apps (gmail, calendar, etc.) on a physically separate infrastructure than the Standard (free) infrastructure? We've been growing increasingly annoyed with the lost/severely delayed email messages, downtime, etc. of Google Apps (standard) over time, and we are wondering if moving to the paid version would bring any benefits. Specifically, if the Business edition is not in some way on a different physical infrastructure, and we are in essence paying for a few small perks but still run on the usual standard/free setup, then we would probably have the same (or just as many) issues with the Business version.
I've emailed Google's sales team responsible for GApps, but haven't heard anything back in 4 days, which already doesn't speak well for the service. So, anyone have any insight into this?
Thanks in advance for any and all help :) | 2011/02/01 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/229826",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/13275/"
] | Google is pretty much silent on how their physical infrastructure works, but the Business edition of Google Apps does have a SLA agreement
<http://www.google.com/apps/intl/en/terms/sla.html>
You can also see their service history on the Apps Status Dashboard
<http://www.google.com/appsstatus#hl=en> | No, google apps for business is run from the same infrastructure as the rest of google apps. There are some that run on a separate infrastructure (early adopters, I believe), but these are being transitioned back into the main infrastructure.
You can tell if a given google apps account is being run from the core infrastructure by trying to load one of the apps email accounts alongside a regular gmail account on the same browser session. If you can open both at once, they're on separate infrastructure. If you can only open one at a time, they're in the same infrastructure. |
2,124,797 | Members at work have come across a C# project posted on Google code that provides a nice solution to a problem they have in a current project. What are the implications/restrictions on using those ideas (or in some cases code snippets) to use in their own project?
I must express that my colleagues are not trying to rip off somebody else’s code and call it their own, but like the way that the Google project is structured and tackles a specific problem. I believe they are looking to refactor their code to a similar architecture and use one or two code snippets from the source code.
The code itself does not come with any licence or terms just a solution.
I have never come across this before but don’t want to get involved doing this work if it I could be liable to comebacks. I have suggested that some form of recognition be added to the code pages that use any snippets.
Thanks | 2010/01/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2124797",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/109288/"
] | If there are no license or terms you cannot use any code snippets from the original work. Ask the creator of the original work for permission to use it in the way you like. | <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1190628/what-license-is-public-code-under-if-no-license-is-specified> |
1,234,133 | I have a
**Philips BDM4037UW 4K screen**
connected to my
**Asus ROG GL552VW**
via
**USB Type-C**
using a
**Club3d USB Type-C -> DisplayPort Adapter**
However it does not work. The screen gives me a *"No input detected"* and my laptop says *"Try improving the USB connection. DisplayPort connection might not work. Try a different cable."*
Does this mean I can forget about displaying my laptop on a 4K screen @60hz?
How can I find out if my laptop supports the DisplayPort alt mode at all? Could it be the cable is not good?
Might it work with a USB Type-C -> HDMI 2.0 adapter?
Any other recommendations? | 2017/07/25 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1234133",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/754472/"
] | It seems that ASUS ROG GL552VW does not support sending video over USB3.1 because the display port function is either not implemented or disabled.
Check this forum thread:
<https://rog.asus.com/forum/showthread.php?82155-GL552VW-USB-TYPE-C-Question-and-Connecting-Additional-Monitor>
Sorry for the bad news. | We have a few PCs in our office with the same problem. I found a workaround. Output from standard USB 3.0 to HDMI using an adapter.
You can also use a USB 3.1 Type C to USB 3.0 hub, too, and then plug in a USB 3.0 to HDMI adapter.
Under Windows, we found the J5Create adapters to work well, and under Linux we had to got for the slightly more expensive Unitek models. |
73,393 | We witness the closure of the tesseract once Coop successfully sends the singularity data back to Murph. And then it appears that Coop is sent back through the wormhole to our home galaxy.
Is the implication that the wormhole remained open, and only the tesseract was closed?
If so, then I imagine as soon as Coop rendezvouses with Brand, the rest of humanity will follow (at least the ones who don't prefer living on a giant cylindrical habitat)? At any rate, it doesn't seem likely that Dr. Brand would be alone for very long, which takes some of the urgency away from Coop's final voyage. | 2014/11/24 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/73393",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/36459/"
] | No. The wormhole is closed according to Christopher Nolan, the director:
<http://www.ign.com/articles/2014/11/08/jonathan-nolan-interstellar-spoilers>
>
> Nolan: ... By the end of Cooper's journey, the wormhole is gone. It's up to us now to undertake the massive journey of spreading out across the face of our galaxy. Brand is still somewhere out there on the far side of the wormhole. The wormhole has disappeared entirely. It's gone.
>
>
> IGN: And he has to try and get to Brand in this little ship?
>
>
> Nolan: That's the idea.
>
>
>
This, however is confusing, even though the director said it himself. The movie implies that the worm hole is open and that Cooper is going to travel back through the worm hole and reunite with Brand.
If the worm hole was gone, then how would Cooper ever possibly find Brand? She is in a completely different galaxy that would take thousands? millions? of years to reach by ship without the worm hole. If that is the case, then where is Cooper going in that little 1-man ship? What is the intent? It doesn't really make sense in the context of what you see at the end of the film. The movie certainly implies that Cooper and TARS steal the ship to fly back through the wormhole and reunite with Brand. This is the only interview I've seen where Nolan has explicitly stated this. | Depends on where Cooper Station is, which I think doesn't matter.
After returning from the first planet (Miller's planet, with the sunamis and the crazy time dilation), Coop and Brand are the same age and Murph is 23 years older (Murph is at least as old as Coop was when he left) and Romilly has gone gray waiting for them on the Endurance.
Coop and Brand stay on the same time scale relative to each other, up until the moment that they are slingshotting around Gargantua and Coop ditches Brand so that she can make it to the third planet (Edmund's planet). The closer you are to Gargantua the more extreme the time dilation. So, as Coop falls closer to the black hole, he would experience time ever slower and slower than Brand (and both of them much slower than Earth); but on the other hand Coop was only falling for like a few minutes (from his perspective) before he enters the tesseract. So it's hard to tell how much difference there is between Coop and Brand as they are both very near Gargantua but Coop was that much closer for a few minutes.
Then Coop is in the tesseract. Although gravity leaks through the tesseract back in time, Coop cannot go back in time (otherwise, he could have just told Murph what to do in person instead of having to manipulate gravity waves; for that matter, "they" could have gone back in time their damn selves, or at least sent Morse Code themselves, instead of taking the stupidly big risk that is the movie). So, I'm guessing when you emerge from the tesseract, you have not gone back in time. (You may have not moved forward in time either; at any rate Coop was only in there for a few minutes so no big loss).
After the tesseract, Coop awakens on Cooper Station (the ring habitat), and Murph is dyingly old. So like another 70 years have passed for Murph (she's like 100), and just days for Coop (since the mission started), and perhaps days or weeks for Brand. Remember also that Earth only had a few more years of life left, which means that Cooper Station was launched very shortly after the adult Murph worked out the calculations, which means that Murph grew old while living on Cooper Station, as no one was living on Earth.
All three planets on the Gargantua side of the wormhole experience significant time dilation relative to Earth (remember even Dr. Mann was marooned on his planet for so long that he lost hope and went crazy). So if Cooper Station left Earth like 70 years ago (or before Earth died anyway), it's possible that all those years did in fact pass (for Murph) in the few minutes that Coop and Brand were slingshotting around Gargantua's event horizon. Maybe Cooper Station emerges from the wormhole around the time that Coop and Brand have completed their slingshot. (Also assuming Murph's gravity calculations also allow rapid flight from Earth to the wormhole near Saturn; it will take NASA Cassini Space Probe 20 years before it gets to Saturn in 2017). So end result: Murph is old, Coop wakes up from the tesseract, and maybe Brand is roughly the same time scale as Coop. Coop picks up Brand at nearby Edmund's Planet. No need for wormhole--could be closed, could be open. Nobody knows.
On the other hand, if Cooper Station is on this side of the wormhole then same diff. Murph is still crazy old, but Coop could not get to Brand except through the wormhole, which must still be open. Again nobody knows. |
73,393 | We witness the closure of the tesseract once Coop successfully sends the singularity data back to Murph. And then it appears that Coop is sent back through the wormhole to our home galaxy.
Is the implication that the wormhole remained open, and only the tesseract was closed?
If so, then I imagine as soon as Coop rendezvouses with Brand, the rest of humanity will follow (at least the ones who don't prefer living on a giant cylindrical habitat)? At any rate, it doesn't seem likely that Dr. Brand would be alone for very long, which takes some of the urgency away from Coop's final voyage. | 2014/11/24 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/73393",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/36459/"
] | Depends on where Cooper Station is, which I think doesn't matter.
After returning from the first planet (Miller's planet, with the sunamis and the crazy time dilation), Coop and Brand are the same age and Murph is 23 years older (Murph is at least as old as Coop was when he left) and Romilly has gone gray waiting for them on the Endurance.
Coop and Brand stay on the same time scale relative to each other, up until the moment that they are slingshotting around Gargantua and Coop ditches Brand so that she can make it to the third planet (Edmund's planet). The closer you are to Gargantua the more extreme the time dilation. So, as Coop falls closer to the black hole, he would experience time ever slower and slower than Brand (and both of them much slower than Earth); but on the other hand Coop was only falling for like a few minutes (from his perspective) before he enters the tesseract. So it's hard to tell how much difference there is between Coop and Brand as they are both very near Gargantua but Coop was that much closer for a few minutes.
Then Coop is in the tesseract. Although gravity leaks through the tesseract back in time, Coop cannot go back in time (otherwise, he could have just told Murph what to do in person instead of having to manipulate gravity waves; for that matter, "they" could have gone back in time their damn selves, or at least sent Morse Code themselves, instead of taking the stupidly big risk that is the movie). So, I'm guessing when you emerge from the tesseract, you have not gone back in time. (You may have not moved forward in time either; at any rate Coop was only in there for a few minutes so no big loss).
After the tesseract, Coop awakens on Cooper Station (the ring habitat), and Murph is dyingly old. So like another 70 years have passed for Murph (she's like 100), and just days for Coop (since the mission started), and perhaps days or weeks for Brand. Remember also that Earth only had a few more years of life left, which means that Cooper Station was launched very shortly after the adult Murph worked out the calculations, which means that Murph grew old while living on Cooper Station, as no one was living on Earth.
All three planets on the Gargantua side of the wormhole experience significant time dilation relative to Earth (remember even Dr. Mann was marooned on his planet for so long that he lost hope and went crazy). So if Cooper Station left Earth like 70 years ago (or before Earth died anyway), it's possible that all those years did in fact pass (for Murph) in the few minutes that Coop and Brand were slingshotting around Gargantua's event horizon. Maybe Cooper Station emerges from the wormhole around the time that Coop and Brand have completed their slingshot. (Also assuming Murph's gravity calculations also allow rapid flight from Earth to the wormhole near Saturn; it will take NASA Cassini Space Probe 20 years before it gets to Saturn in 2017). So end result: Murph is old, Coop wakes up from the tesseract, and maybe Brand is roughly the same time scale as Coop. Coop picks up Brand at nearby Edmund's Planet. No need for wormhole--could be closed, could be open. Nobody knows.
On the other hand, if Cooper Station is on this side of the wormhole then same diff. Murph is still crazy old, but Coop could not get to Brand except through the wormhole, which must still be open. Again nobody knows. | Pertaining to the wormhole status.
IF "they" placed the wormhole there then you would need a huge source of energy to create it and maintain it. The Gargantua black hole would be my assumption as that source of holding it open. Maybe Jupiter is holding it open on our side?? Somehow?? So if the tesseract was removed and that energy source was removed, then it would close. Is my thought.
Pertaining to Dr. Brand and Coop.
Dr. Brand is probably slightly out of sync with Coop after their separation so she is probably a little older than she was, then he is... << if that makes sense. Also, there wouldn't have been a rescue sent out for her yet. Because she would have just setup her beacon, the time dilation effect would have meant some 90 or so years later from when Coop and the gang took off they might have gotten a signal thru the wormhole. But after the wormhole closed then it would have taken even longer for the signal to reach them. Because they would lose their window to the other system.
Pertaining to Coop finding Brand
OK, so this is a lot of speculation. BUT there is a slight possibility that when the wormhole was swinging around that we could see recognizable constellations and are able to get an "idea" of where this place was. So he might have some clue as to where she is in the universe... BUT that doesn't matter... I mean even if he was able to trace her to a single galaxy.. It would still be like looking for a needle in a stack of needles (where the needle stack is the size of the mass of earth... or something... probably worse). IF we solved the equations for gravity and were able to lift off from earth, then maybe we can warp the space around a small ship like Coop left in to travel faster than light IF they have an enormous energy supply to feed it. Then if he could possibly go fast enough maybe...I'm pretty sure he'd never find her... But, another idea in the movie was that love transcended space/time...so maybe he could track her using love???? **love-dar**? |
73,393 | We witness the closure of the tesseract once Coop successfully sends the singularity data back to Murph. And then it appears that Coop is sent back through the wormhole to our home galaxy.
Is the implication that the wormhole remained open, and only the tesseract was closed?
If so, then I imagine as soon as Coop rendezvouses with Brand, the rest of humanity will follow (at least the ones who don't prefer living on a giant cylindrical habitat)? At any rate, it doesn't seem likely that Dr. Brand would be alone for very long, which takes some of the urgency away from Coop's final voyage. | 2014/11/24 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/73393",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/36459/"
] | No. The wormhole is closed according to Christopher Nolan, the director:
<http://www.ign.com/articles/2014/11/08/jonathan-nolan-interstellar-spoilers>
>
> Nolan: ... By the end of Cooper's journey, the wormhole is gone. It's up to us now to undertake the massive journey of spreading out across the face of our galaxy. Brand is still somewhere out there on the far side of the wormhole. The wormhole has disappeared entirely. It's gone.
>
>
> IGN: And he has to try and get to Brand in this little ship?
>
>
> Nolan: That's the idea.
>
>
>
This, however is confusing, even though the director said it himself. The movie implies that the worm hole is open and that Cooper is going to travel back through the worm hole and reunite with Brand.
If the worm hole was gone, then how would Cooper ever possibly find Brand? She is in a completely different galaxy that would take thousands? millions? of years to reach by ship without the worm hole. If that is the case, then where is Cooper going in that little 1-man ship? What is the intent? It doesn't really make sense in the context of what you see at the end of the film. The movie certainly implies that Cooper and TARS steal the ship to fly back through the wormhole and reunite with Brand. This is the only interview I've seen where Nolan has explicitly stated this. | The film's [official novelisation](http://www.goodreads.com/book/show/21488063-interstellar) would suggest that the wormhole is still in place and remains active.
Although at this point in the story Coop isn't really up to scratch with current affairs, it's pretty likely that by this point someone would have, oh, mentioned to him that the wormhole was gone:
>
> *"Maybe they had already sent somebody to help her. Any of the Rangers
> was capable of making the trip, **what with the wormhole still sitting
> right where it had been.** He resolved to bring it up next time he saw
> the administrator. Wolf or no Wolf, Brand would need help."*
>
>
>
This heavily conflicts with what the [Film's Director has said on the subject](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/104246/20774) but in this instance I think we can make our own judgments on whether he was mistaken, mischievous or malign in his response. |
73,393 | We witness the closure of the tesseract once Coop successfully sends the singularity data back to Murph. And then it appears that Coop is sent back through the wormhole to our home galaxy.
Is the implication that the wormhole remained open, and only the tesseract was closed?
If so, then I imagine as soon as Coop rendezvouses with Brand, the rest of humanity will follow (at least the ones who don't prefer living on a giant cylindrical habitat)? At any rate, it doesn't seem likely that Dr. Brand would be alone for very long, which takes some of the urgency away from Coop's final voyage. | 2014/11/24 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/73393",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/36459/"
] | No. The wormhole is closed according to Christopher Nolan, the director:
<http://www.ign.com/articles/2014/11/08/jonathan-nolan-interstellar-spoilers>
>
> Nolan: ... By the end of Cooper's journey, the wormhole is gone. It's up to us now to undertake the massive journey of spreading out across the face of our galaxy. Brand is still somewhere out there on the far side of the wormhole. The wormhole has disappeared entirely. It's gone.
>
>
> IGN: And he has to try and get to Brand in this little ship?
>
>
> Nolan: That's the idea.
>
>
>
This, however is confusing, even though the director said it himself. The movie implies that the worm hole is open and that Cooper is going to travel back through the worm hole and reunite with Brand.
If the worm hole was gone, then how would Cooper ever possibly find Brand? She is in a completely different galaxy that would take thousands? millions? of years to reach by ship without the worm hole. If that is the case, then where is Cooper going in that little 1-man ship? What is the intent? It doesn't really make sense in the context of what you see at the end of the film. The movie certainly implies that Cooper and TARS steal the ship to fly back through the wormhole and reunite with Brand. This is the only interview I've seen where Nolan has explicitly stated this. | Pertaining to the wormhole status.
IF "they" placed the wormhole there then you would need a huge source of energy to create it and maintain it. The Gargantua black hole would be my assumption as that source of holding it open. Maybe Jupiter is holding it open on our side?? Somehow?? So if the tesseract was removed and that energy source was removed, then it would close. Is my thought.
Pertaining to Dr. Brand and Coop.
Dr. Brand is probably slightly out of sync with Coop after their separation so she is probably a little older than she was, then he is... << if that makes sense. Also, there wouldn't have been a rescue sent out for her yet. Because she would have just setup her beacon, the time dilation effect would have meant some 90 or so years later from when Coop and the gang took off they might have gotten a signal thru the wormhole. But after the wormhole closed then it would have taken even longer for the signal to reach them. Because they would lose their window to the other system.
Pertaining to Coop finding Brand
OK, so this is a lot of speculation. BUT there is a slight possibility that when the wormhole was swinging around that we could see recognizable constellations and are able to get an "idea" of where this place was. So he might have some clue as to where she is in the universe... BUT that doesn't matter... I mean even if he was able to trace her to a single galaxy.. It would still be like looking for a needle in a stack of needles (where the needle stack is the size of the mass of earth... or something... probably worse). IF we solved the equations for gravity and were able to lift off from earth, then maybe we can warp the space around a small ship like Coop left in to travel faster than light IF they have an enormous energy supply to feed it. Then if he could possibly go fast enough maybe...I'm pretty sure he'd never find her... But, another idea in the movie was that love transcended space/time...so maybe he could track her using love???? **love-dar**? |
73,393 | We witness the closure of the tesseract once Coop successfully sends the singularity data back to Murph. And then it appears that Coop is sent back through the wormhole to our home galaxy.
Is the implication that the wormhole remained open, and only the tesseract was closed?
If so, then I imagine as soon as Coop rendezvouses with Brand, the rest of humanity will follow (at least the ones who don't prefer living on a giant cylindrical habitat)? At any rate, it doesn't seem likely that Dr. Brand would be alone for very long, which takes some of the urgency away from Coop's final voyage. | 2014/11/24 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/73393",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/36459/"
] | The film's [official novelisation](http://www.goodreads.com/book/show/21488063-interstellar) would suggest that the wormhole is still in place and remains active.
Although at this point in the story Coop isn't really up to scratch with current affairs, it's pretty likely that by this point someone would have, oh, mentioned to him that the wormhole was gone:
>
> *"Maybe they had already sent somebody to help her. Any of the Rangers
> was capable of making the trip, **what with the wormhole still sitting
> right where it had been.** He resolved to bring it up next time he saw
> the administrator. Wolf or no Wolf, Brand would need help."*
>
>
>
This heavily conflicts with what the [Film's Director has said on the subject](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/a/104246/20774) but in this instance I think we can make our own judgments on whether he was mistaken, mischievous or malign in his response. | Pertaining to the wormhole status.
IF "they" placed the wormhole there then you would need a huge source of energy to create it and maintain it. The Gargantua black hole would be my assumption as that source of holding it open. Maybe Jupiter is holding it open on our side?? Somehow?? So if the tesseract was removed and that energy source was removed, then it would close. Is my thought.
Pertaining to Dr. Brand and Coop.
Dr. Brand is probably slightly out of sync with Coop after their separation so she is probably a little older than she was, then he is... << if that makes sense. Also, there wouldn't have been a rescue sent out for her yet. Because she would have just setup her beacon, the time dilation effect would have meant some 90 or so years later from when Coop and the gang took off they might have gotten a signal thru the wormhole. But after the wormhole closed then it would have taken even longer for the signal to reach them. Because they would lose their window to the other system.
Pertaining to Coop finding Brand
OK, so this is a lot of speculation. BUT there is a slight possibility that when the wormhole was swinging around that we could see recognizable constellations and are able to get an "idea" of where this place was. So he might have some clue as to where she is in the universe... BUT that doesn't matter... I mean even if he was able to trace her to a single galaxy.. It would still be like looking for a needle in a stack of needles (where the needle stack is the size of the mass of earth... or something... probably worse). IF we solved the equations for gravity and were able to lift off from earth, then maybe we can warp the space around a small ship like Coop left in to travel faster than light IF they have an enormous energy supply to feed it. Then if he could possibly go fast enough maybe...I'm pretty sure he'd never find her... But, another idea in the movie was that love transcended space/time...so maybe he could track her using love???? **love-dar**? |
19,800 | I have been designing a device and acompanying software and recently found an extremely broad utility patent that has a claim that is very similar and covers the some of the general functionality of this.
1. If the original artwork has a claim on a sensor that
reads data and relays it to a computer, would a the use of multiple
similar sensors and accompanying software be considered new / novel
enough to be patent-able in itself or would it fall under the
original patent?
2. If the original claim explicitly states a sensor that has an
"internal power source," would using an "external power source" be a
difference that would allow a work around?
3. If the dependent claims outline specific operation that is not
repeated in my design, does the independent claim still cover it or
do all of the dependent claims have to be met? For example if a dependent claim states an audible alert, but this provides visual information is that a difference that could be worked around?
4. Finally I think the strongest part of my design is in the software.
If the software applications I am attempting are not outlined in this
patent, is it possible that the software could be novel enough to warrant it's own utility patent? | 2018/08/08 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/19800",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/21305/"
] | You will probably not like the answer to your questions, but most of them are answered with “maybe“.
1: If the original claim contains one sensor, in most cases more than one sensor will still infringe, because if you have many, you also have one. That wouldn't be the case if the claim said “exactly one sensor“, but that's very improbable.
More than one sensor could be novel/inventive, but only if there is a good reason a person skilled in the art wouldn't have considered more sensors or they had an effect the one sensor hasn't for example.
There are other possibilities for inventiveness, but it's hard to guess without exact details. Which you cannot publish here because they'd be prior art for your application then.
Important to note is, your invention can be novel and inventive and still infringe the other claim.
2: That might be a way around, but it's not answereable generally, only for specific cases. Equivalents can be covered by the claims, but specific limitations like that one often have a reason in the prior art which would exclude equivalents.
3: Infringing any claim is enough, you don't need to infringe the dependent claims to infringe the patent.
4: Yes, that's very possible. | **an extremely broad utility patent that has a claim that is very similar**
What you did not say is if this patent is available for licensing. The fact that your product is already covered by a broad patent can be good news, if you obtain an exclusive license to the patent. Often investors are forced to invest in a company which only has patent application(s), so the scope of protection is unclear, reducing the company value.
If, on the other hand, you can obtain an exclusive license to this patent, you leapfrog ahead and now have **proven** broad patent protection, which can add significant value to the company. Such a patent owner, if not in direct competition with you, can also have technology or business know how they can sell you giving you further value and reducing your risk moving forward. |
41,760 | I've come across compression algorithms, I tried creating a simple run-length encoding algorithm but I notice that when I searched other algorithms I was shocked to know that some algorithms can process thousands of megabits per second how is this possible? I tried compressing a `1GB` length text it was taking some time for me.
How do is this achievable? or am I missing something here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0JVgK.png)
I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C? | 2022/08/15 | [
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/41760",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/users/43685/"
] | The short answer to your question is this:
If your goal is *speed* (as it is in typical applications of data compression), then (i) you need to choose a programming language that allows you to write algorithms close to the hardware, and (ii) you will spend a very large amount of time benchmarking and profiling your software to find where it is slow, and then fix these places by using better algorithms and better ways of implementing these algorithms.
The authors of the compression packages you mention have not chosen to use magic to achieve the speed shown in the table. They have just put a large effort (probably years of work) into making their software fast. | >
> I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C?
>
>
>
Yes.
C and possibly C++ are two of the few that are about as close to hardware as most programmers are able to get. (assembly language is not very cross-platform)
Aggressively processing hundreds, thousands, millions, billions, or more of iterations to convert one long bitstream to a smaller bitstream is right at home there.
These things are also tuned every way to Sunday to figure out WHAT they are trying to compress. Is it text, audio (and what format?), video (again what format? mp4, vp6, something decades older. what wrapper? avi, mkv, ogg), microsoft documents, and then there are files that are all of these bundled into a tar (or similar) archive that the user did you the service of not having gzipped the archive to make it harder for you to "squeeze juice" out of? If you are not using metal, or close to metal, something slow like python will suffer no matter how well you tune it.
On the other hand, Python is not that. It is designed for little, short tasks where it doesn't really matter if they are done inefficiently, because they are (relatively) rare. Where with C or C++, finding some little thing on some webpage (oh, and you have to write how to find the thing... and it might miss) to populate a part of a table (oops, the thing is totally too wide for that column because it wasn't the proper hit), all of these difficulties are handled already... with the deal with the devil being speed. For little one-off tasks, speed isn't critical. Millions or trillions of iterations, it will choke.
Then, even if python could "speed itself up" by summoning the functions of the more hardware-centric protocols/methods, it would probably be doing so inefficiently. It would gain on the sub-task, but lose on calling and returning from the sub-task, with maybe a marginal net gain. Then also the "misdiagnosis" where an audio block is requested to be treated as a video block because python misdiagnosed it.
Sorry if this is a bit long-winded. |
41,760 | I've come across compression algorithms, I tried creating a simple run-length encoding algorithm but I notice that when I searched other algorithms I was shocked to know that some algorithms can process thousands of megabits per second how is this possible? I tried compressing a `1GB` length text it was taking some time for me.
How do is this achievable? or am I missing something here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0JVgK.png)
I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C? | 2022/08/15 | [
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/41760",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/users/43685/"
] | The short answer to your question is this:
If your goal is *speed* (as it is in typical applications of data compression), then (i) you need to choose a programming language that allows you to write algorithms close to the hardware, and (ii) you will spend a very large amount of time benchmarking and profiling your software to find where it is slow, and then fix these places by using better algorithms and better ways of implementing these algorithms.
The authors of the compression packages you mention have not chosen to use magic to achieve the speed shown in the table. They have just put a large effort (probably years of work) into making their software fast. | There are actually two questions that can be answered:
#### Why is decompression so much faster than compression?
The key point to understand here is, that compression typically involves searching for matching byte sequences, while the compressed format is basically an extremely dense format for instructions on how to create the original byte stream. I.e. while decompression simply means decoding and following the instructions in the compressed file, one step at a time, compression usually means considering many alternatives and selecting one that leads to the smallest amount of required instructions for reconstruction.
A simple corollary of this is, that decompression throughput is significantly higher for highly compressed data (less instructions to decode) than for virtually incompressible data.
#### Why are the standard tools so much faster on doing compression than a naive implementation?
Now that we know that it is the searching for matching byte sequences that consumes most time in a naive compressor implementation, it is clear how the compressors can be optimized: **They achieve their speed by aggressively *avoiding* searching and considering alternatives**. Key part of this is typically some form of hash table, or other quick lookup data structure that allows finding matching sequences rather quickly. And then those standard tools employ heuristics for looking up good matches rather than just matches, allowing them to cut down on the number of matches they will consider before committing to using one of them. One of these heuristics can be that a match is selected when it is "good enough", whatever that means, and that the search continues for longer when the considered matches do not meet this criterion.
As with decompression, each "instruction" in the compressed format requires the compressor to find a (good) match. As such, compression is also fastest for highly compressible data as fewer matches need to be found. Also quite a visible effect when benchmarking compression algorithms. |
41,760 | I've come across compression algorithms, I tried creating a simple run-length encoding algorithm but I notice that when I searched other algorithms I was shocked to know that some algorithms can process thousands of megabits per second how is this possible? I tried compressing a `1GB` length text it was taking some time for me.
How do is this achievable? or am I missing something here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0JVgK.png)
I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C? | 2022/08/15 | [
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/41760",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/users/43685/"
] | The short answer to your question is this:
If your goal is *speed* (as it is in typical applications of data compression), then (i) you need to choose a programming language that allows you to write algorithms close to the hardware, and (ii) you will spend a very large amount of time benchmarking and profiling your software to find where it is slow, and then fix these places by using better algorithms and better ways of implementing these algorithms.
The authors of the compression packages you mention have not chosen to use magic to achieve the speed shown in the table. They have just put a large effort (probably years of work) into making their software fast. | I have written [compression software in Rust](https://docs.rs/flate3/0.1.21/flate3/). The answer is not simple, but compression algorithms are usually designed to be reasonably quick. [RFC 1951](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc1951) has two steps, the first stage is to find patterns that occurred earlier in the input, which can be compressed as a pointer to the earlier pattern. This is generally done using a hash lookup.
The second stage is to use Huffman encoding to efficiently represent the values needed for the encoding, using variable (bit) length codes. Values which occur frequently use shorter codes, less frequent values use longer codes.
My software is probably a bit unusual in that it runs the two stages in parallel, which can be faster if your computer has more than one CPU.
There tend to be trade-offs between how much compression is achieved and how fast the compression runs. Finally, the answer is partly that modern computers are **very** fast. |
41,760 | I've come across compression algorithms, I tried creating a simple run-length encoding algorithm but I notice that when I searched other algorithms I was shocked to know that some algorithms can process thousands of megabits per second how is this possible? I tried compressing a `1GB` length text it was taking some time for me.
How do is this achievable? or am I missing something here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0JVgK.png)
I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C? | 2022/08/15 | [
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/41760",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/users/43685/"
] | There are actually two questions that can be answered:
#### Why is decompression so much faster than compression?
The key point to understand here is, that compression typically involves searching for matching byte sequences, while the compressed format is basically an extremely dense format for instructions on how to create the original byte stream. I.e. while decompression simply means decoding and following the instructions in the compressed file, one step at a time, compression usually means considering many alternatives and selecting one that leads to the smallest amount of required instructions for reconstruction.
A simple corollary of this is, that decompression throughput is significantly higher for highly compressed data (less instructions to decode) than for virtually incompressible data.
#### Why are the standard tools so much faster on doing compression than a naive implementation?
Now that we know that it is the searching for matching byte sequences that consumes most time in a naive compressor implementation, it is clear how the compressors can be optimized: **They achieve their speed by aggressively *avoiding* searching and considering alternatives**. Key part of this is typically some form of hash table, or other quick lookup data structure that allows finding matching sequences rather quickly. And then those standard tools employ heuristics for looking up good matches rather than just matches, allowing them to cut down on the number of matches they will consider before committing to using one of them. One of these heuristics can be that a match is selected when it is "good enough", whatever that means, and that the search continues for longer when the considered matches do not meet this criterion.
As with decompression, each "instruction" in the compressed format requires the compressor to find a (good) match. As such, compression is also fastest for highly compressible data as fewer matches need to be found. Also quite a visible effect when benchmarking compression algorithms. | >
> I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C?
>
>
>
Yes.
C and possibly C++ are two of the few that are about as close to hardware as most programmers are able to get. (assembly language is not very cross-platform)
Aggressively processing hundreds, thousands, millions, billions, or more of iterations to convert one long bitstream to a smaller bitstream is right at home there.
These things are also tuned every way to Sunday to figure out WHAT they are trying to compress. Is it text, audio (and what format?), video (again what format? mp4, vp6, something decades older. what wrapper? avi, mkv, ogg), microsoft documents, and then there are files that are all of these bundled into a tar (or similar) archive that the user did you the service of not having gzipped the archive to make it harder for you to "squeeze juice" out of? If you are not using metal, or close to metal, something slow like python will suffer no matter how well you tune it.
On the other hand, Python is not that. It is designed for little, short tasks where it doesn't really matter if they are done inefficiently, because they are (relatively) rare. Where with C or C++, finding some little thing on some webpage (oh, and you have to write how to find the thing... and it might miss) to populate a part of a table (oops, the thing is totally too wide for that column because it wasn't the proper hit), all of these difficulties are handled already... with the deal with the devil being speed. For little one-off tasks, speed isn't critical. Millions or trillions of iterations, it will choke.
Then, even if python could "speed itself up" by summoning the functions of the more hardware-centric protocols/methods, it would probably be doing so inefficiently. It would gain on the sub-task, but lose on calling and returning from the sub-task, with maybe a marginal net gain. Then also the "misdiagnosis" where an audio block is requested to be treated as a video block because python misdiagnosed it.
Sorry if this is a bit long-winded. |
41,760 | I've come across compression algorithms, I tried creating a simple run-length encoding algorithm but I notice that when I searched other algorithms I was shocked to know that some algorithms can process thousands of megabits per second how is this possible? I tried compressing a `1GB` length text it was taking some time for me.
How do is this achievable? or am I missing something here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0JVgK.png)
I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C? | 2022/08/15 | [
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/41760",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/users/43685/"
] | I have written [compression software in Rust](https://docs.rs/flate3/0.1.21/flate3/). The answer is not simple, but compression algorithms are usually designed to be reasonably quick. [RFC 1951](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc1951) has two steps, the first stage is to find patterns that occurred earlier in the input, which can be compressed as a pointer to the earlier pattern. This is generally done using a hash lookup.
The second stage is to use Huffman encoding to efficiently represent the values needed for the encoding, using variable (bit) length codes. Values which occur frequently use shorter codes, less frequent values use longer codes.
My software is probably a bit unusual in that it runs the two stages in parallel, which can be faster if your computer has more than one CPU.
There tend to be trade-offs between how much compression is achieved and how fast the compression runs. Finally, the answer is partly that modern computers are **very** fast. | >
> I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C?
>
>
>
Yes.
C and possibly C++ are two of the few that are about as close to hardware as most programmers are able to get. (assembly language is not very cross-platform)
Aggressively processing hundreds, thousands, millions, billions, or more of iterations to convert one long bitstream to a smaller bitstream is right at home there.
These things are also tuned every way to Sunday to figure out WHAT they are trying to compress. Is it text, audio (and what format?), video (again what format? mp4, vp6, something decades older. what wrapper? avi, mkv, ogg), microsoft documents, and then there are files that are all of these bundled into a tar (or similar) archive that the user did you the service of not having gzipped the archive to make it harder for you to "squeeze juice" out of? If you are not using metal, or close to metal, something slow like python will suffer no matter how well you tune it.
On the other hand, Python is not that. It is designed for little, short tasks where it doesn't really matter if they are done inefficiently, because they are (relatively) rare. Where with C or C++, finding some little thing on some webpage (oh, and you have to write how to find the thing... and it might miss) to populate a part of a table (oops, the thing is totally too wide for that column because it wasn't the proper hit), all of these difficulties are handled already... with the deal with the devil being speed. For little one-off tasks, speed isn't critical. Millions or trillions of iterations, it will choke.
Then, even if python could "speed itself up" by summoning the functions of the more hardware-centric protocols/methods, it would probably be doing so inefficiently. It would gain on the sub-task, but lose on calling and returning from the sub-task, with maybe a marginal net gain. Then also the "misdiagnosis" where an audio block is requested to be treated as a video block because python misdiagnosed it.
Sorry if this is a bit long-winded. |
41,760 | I've come across compression algorithms, I tried creating a simple run-length encoding algorithm but I notice that when I searched other algorithms I was shocked to know that some algorithms can process thousands of megabits per second how is this possible? I tried compressing a `1GB` length text it was taking some time for me.
How do is this achievable? or am I missing something here?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0JVgK.png)
I can't code well in C, so I created my simple program in Python can these speeds only be available in C? | 2022/08/15 | [
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/questions/41760",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com",
"https://scicomp.stackexchange.com/users/43685/"
] | I have written [compression software in Rust](https://docs.rs/flate3/0.1.21/flate3/). The answer is not simple, but compression algorithms are usually designed to be reasonably quick. [RFC 1951](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc1951) has two steps, the first stage is to find patterns that occurred earlier in the input, which can be compressed as a pointer to the earlier pattern. This is generally done using a hash lookup.
The second stage is to use Huffman encoding to efficiently represent the values needed for the encoding, using variable (bit) length codes. Values which occur frequently use shorter codes, less frequent values use longer codes.
My software is probably a bit unusual in that it runs the two stages in parallel, which can be faster if your computer has more than one CPU.
There tend to be trade-offs between how much compression is achieved and how fast the compression runs. Finally, the answer is partly that modern computers are **very** fast. | There are actually two questions that can be answered:
#### Why is decompression so much faster than compression?
The key point to understand here is, that compression typically involves searching for matching byte sequences, while the compressed format is basically an extremely dense format for instructions on how to create the original byte stream. I.e. while decompression simply means decoding and following the instructions in the compressed file, one step at a time, compression usually means considering many alternatives and selecting one that leads to the smallest amount of required instructions for reconstruction.
A simple corollary of this is, that decompression throughput is significantly higher for highly compressed data (less instructions to decode) than for virtually incompressible data.
#### Why are the standard tools so much faster on doing compression than a naive implementation?
Now that we know that it is the searching for matching byte sequences that consumes most time in a naive compressor implementation, it is clear how the compressors can be optimized: **They achieve their speed by aggressively *avoiding* searching and considering alternatives**. Key part of this is typically some form of hash table, or other quick lookup data structure that allows finding matching sequences rather quickly. And then those standard tools employ heuristics for looking up good matches rather than just matches, allowing them to cut down on the number of matches they will consider before committing to using one of them. One of these heuristics can be that a match is selected when it is "good enough", whatever that means, and that the search continues for longer when the considered matches do not meet this criterion.
As with decompression, each "instruction" in the compressed format requires the compressor to find a (good) match. As such, compression is also fastest for highly compressible data as fewer matches need to be found. Also quite a visible effect when benchmarking compression algorithms. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | It depends on the conference. In recent years, the College Art Association, an annual conference for art historians and artists, has instituted a ["Pay-What-You-Wish"](https://www.collegeart.org/news/2019/02/05/pay-as-you-wish-is-back-for-caa-2019/) option. This was instituted after many adjuncts, students, and others expressed their inability to pay fees to attend an integral conference in their field. I mention this in case you are a member of an organization that holds conferences. As a member, you may be able to make your voice heard through elections and other ways that can foster a greater awareness of the high costs of attending conferences for underfunded faculty members. Hope this helps. | Conferences might give a discount for people from developing countries, for students, and for people who are early in their career. Otherwise discounts are not given. Even attendees who are invited to receive a cash award usually do not get free admission. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | I have to say that I can't remember ever having my badge checked at any conference. In fact, by the second day, i've often lost my badge. What does sometimes happen is having your badge checked to get onto the campus in the first place. Also, people often have greeters at the door during registration.
I've "sat in" on plenty conferences before when they have been happening on my campus anyway. I'm not sure I'd risk travelling to one on that basis though. | I can't answer how to find conferences as this will depend heavily on the field (or even subfield) that you are in. However, in many fields there are websites/mailing-lists where conferences are announced.
As for finding conferences that will allow you to attend for free. Your starting point will always be the conference announcements. There are several options:
* Some conferences/meetings will not charge registration fees at all. These are usually smaller meetings (< 100 attendees).
* Some conference organisers may be willing the waive a fee if you ask nicely. (You are asking for a favor, so be nice!). Some points to consider if doing this.
+ Smaller conferences are more likely to waive your fee. For big conferences, (part of) the organisation is often out sourced to a commercial company, making a waived fee less likely.
+ For the same reason, look for conferences that are hosted by a university or research center, rather than at a commercial conference venue. (Again organisers are then more likely to have the flexibility to waive a fee.)
+ Conferences organisers are significantly more likely to waive a fee if they feel your presence will be an enhancement to the meeting. It helps, for example, if they have heard of your work before and it fits with the goals of the meeting. So look for conferences organised by people that you have interacted with scientifically. At the very least, have a plausible reason for wanting to attend this particular conference.
+ Look for conferences that are somewhat local. Flying half-way across the globe for a conference does not lend your appeal for a waived fee much credence. In particular, avoid conference that would require you apply for a travel visa. (There are just too many people for Visa invitation letters for conferences.) |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | I have to say that I can't remember ever having my badge checked at any conference. In fact, by the second day, i've often lost my badge. What does sometimes happen is having your badge checked to get onto the campus in the first place. Also, people often have greeters at the door during registration.
I've "sat in" on plenty conferences before when they have been happening on my campus anyway. I'm not sure I'd risk travelling to one on that basis though. | Association conferences sometimes have scholarships or low cost opens as others have mentioned. Also, there may be sponsoring organisations for the conference that you might be able to approach. Otherwise, sometimes offering to volunteer or help organize is an option as well.
"Sitting in" is very against the culture and intention of the conference. Conferences though expensive are usually run as a lost. Venue hire, staff, etc are all very expensive and basically that is what all the money goes to. Most of the presenters are likely to self-fund their travel except the famous keynotes, etc. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | I have to say that I can't remember ever having my badge checked at any conference. In fact, by the second day, i've often lost my badge. What does sometimes happen is having your badge checked to get onto the campus in the first place. Also, people often have greeters at the door during registration.
I've "sat in" on plenty conferences before when they have been happening on my campus anyway. I'm not sure I'd risk travelling to one on that basis though. | Conferences might give a discount for people from developing countries, for students, and for people who are early in their career. Otherwise discounts are not given. Even attendees who are invited to receive a cash award usually do not get free admission. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | I have to say that I can't remember ever having my badge checked at any conference. In fact, by the second day, i've often lost my badge. What does sometimes happen is having your badge checked to get onto the campus in the first place. Also, people often have greeters at the door during registration.
I've "sat in" on plenty conferences before when they have been happening on my campus anyway. I'm not sure I'd risk travelling to one on that basis though. | It depends on the conference. In recent years, the College Art Association, an annual conference for art historians and artists, has instituted a ["Pay-What-You-Wish"](https://www.collegeart.org/news/2019/02/05/pay-as-you-wish-is-back-for-caa-2019/) option. This was instituted after many adjuncts, students, and others expressed their inability to pay fees to attend an integral conference in their field. I mention this in case you are a member of an organization that holds conferences. As a member, you may be able to make your voice heard through elections and other ways that can foster a greater awareness of the high costs of attending conferences for underfunded faculty members. Hope this helps. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | There are a lot of reasons why conferences generally don't allow people to just wander in to sessions without notice or registration. They need some way to assure that the venue will be safe for attendees and an open door policy doesn't permit that. There are liability issues, I assume.
If you just try it, you may get by for a while, but will probably be "caught" and escorted out, probably by police, in the US, anyway.
But there is a "low cost option" for students at all levels. Most ACM conferences, and possibly many others, depend on student volunteers to do some of the work of running the conference, including checking badges at the doors to sessions - both large ones and small.
Here is an example: <https://recsys.acm.org/recsys19/volunteers/>
You can look for similar things at other conferences, or just search. This was turned up by googling "Student volunteers at ACM conferences".
Note, however, that travel and lodging are not covered. Many volunteers are from local universities, making it moot, and some students who need to travel share rooming and even car travel. Some conferences arrange sharing of hotel rooms (evidence is from other questions on this site). | I’ve never seen an official list of such conferences: who would register if it were advertised you can go for free? In addition going to a conference for the actual talks kinda misses the point: a conference is not an obligation to go to every talk, but an occasion to meet people so short of avoiding contact, the first thing people will ask is who are you, your affiliation etc and will rapidly discover you are not registered.
It is not pleasant as an organizer to see people crashing the conference: there is a real cost to organizing an event and common courtesy would be to ask the organizers for a discount or a free registration: the worse possible scenario for you is to travel somewhere and be blacklisted from the event after getting there and arranging accommodation. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | There are a lot of reasons why conferences generally don't allow people to just wander in to sessions without notice or registration. They need some way to assure that the venue will be safe for attendees and an open door policy doesn't permit that. There are liability issues, I assume.
If you just try it, you may get by for a while, but will probably be "caught" and escorted out, probably by police, in the US, anyway.
But there is a "low cost option" for students at all levels. Most ACM conferences, and possibly many others, depend on student volunteers to do some of the work of running the conference, including checking badges at the doors to sessions - both large ones and small.
Here is an example: <https://recsys.acm.org/recsys19/volunteers/>
You can look for similar things at other conferences, or just search. This was turned up by googling "Student volunteers at ACM conferences".
Note, however, that travel and lodging are not covered. Many volunteers are from local universities, making it moot, and some students who need to travel share rooming and even car travel. Some conferences arrange sharing of hotel rooms (evidence is from other questions on this site). | Conferences might give a discount for people from developing countries, for students, and for people who are early in their career. Otherwise discounts are not given. Even attendees who are invited to receive a cash award usually do not get free admission. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | It depends on the conference. In recent years, the College Art Association, an annual conference for art historians and artists, has instituted a ["Pay-What-You-Wish"](https://www.collegeart.org/news/2019/02/05/pay-as-you-wish-is-back-for-caa-2019/) option. This was instituted after many adjuncts, students, and others expressed their inability to pay fees to attend an integral conference in their field. I mention this in case you are a member of an organization that holds conferences. As a member, you may be able to make your voice heard through elections and other ways that can foster a greater awareness of the high costs of attending conferences for underfunded faculty members. Hope this helps. | I would advise against crashing sessions. In my field (CS/ML/AI) organizers may be sticky about registration. I suppose that you can just try and wander in and sit down at sessions. However, you may well be asked by the organizing staff to leave if you don’t have a badge. Since the objective of attending a conference is to a great extent mingling and networking, getting thrown out will have the opposite effect.
If you have a paper/workshop paper (the latter is much easier to get accepted), then you can talk with organizers about the option of a discount which they may give depending on your circumstances. If you’re willing to volunteer they may offer a discount for example.
As an aside, conference fees seem to be rising dramatically over the years, which I think is a serious issue. |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | I have to say that I can't remember ever having my badge checked at any conference. In fact, by the second day, i've often lost my badge. What does sometimes happen is having your badge checked to get onto the campus in the first place. Also, people often have greeters at the door during registration.
I've "sat in" on plenty conferences before when they have been happening on my campus anyway. I'm not sure I'd risk travelling to one on that basis though. | There are a lot of reasons why conferences generally don't allow people to just wander in to sessions without notice or registration. They need some way to assure that the venue will be safe for attendees and an open door policy doesn't permit that. There are liability issues, I assume.
If you just try it, you may get by for a while, but will probably be "caught" and escorted out, probably by police, in the US, anyway.
But there is a "low cost option" for students at all levels. Most ACM conferences, and possibly many others, depend on student volunteers to do some of the work of running the conference, including checking badges at the doors to sessions - both large ones and small.
Here is an example: <https://recsys.acm.org/recsys19/volunteers/>
You can look for similar things at other conferences, or just search. This was turned up by googling "Student volunteers at ACM conferences".
Note, however, that travel and lodging are not covered. Many volunteers are from local universities, making it moot, and some students who need to travel share rooming and even car travel. Some conferences arrange sharing of hotel rooms (evidence is from other questions on this site). |
134,237 | For faculty lack of funding, how to find conferences that allow people to sit in without paying? For those that don't allow officially, will they check attendees' badge? | 2019/08/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/134237",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/102247/"
] | I can't answer how to find conferences as this will depend heavily on the field (or even subfield) that you are in. However, in many fields there are websites/mailing-lists where conferences are announced.
As for finding conferences that will allow you to attend for free. Your starting point will always be the conference announcements. There are several options:
* Some conferences/meetings will not charge registration fees at all. These are usually smaller meetings (< 100 attendees).
* Some conference organisers may be willing the waive a fee if you ask nicely. (You are asking for a favor, so be nice!). Some points to consider if doing this.
+ Smaller conferences are more likely to waive your fee. For big conferences, (part of) the organisation is often out sourced to a commercial company, making a waived fee less likely.
+ For the same reason, look for conferences that are hosted by a university or research center, rather than at a commercial conference venue. (Again organisers are then more likely to have the flexibility to waive a fee.)
+ Conferences organisers are significantly more likely to waive a fee if they feel your presence will be an enhancement to the meeting. It helps, for example, if they have heard of your work before and it fits with the goals of the meeting. So look for conferences organised by people that you have interacted with scientifically. At the very least, have a plausible reason for wanting to attend this particular conference.
+ Look for conferences that are somewhat local. Flying half-way across the globe for a conference does not lend your appeal for a waived fee much credence. In particular, avoid conference that would require you apply for a travel visa. (There are just too many people for Visa invitation letters for conferences.) | I’ve never seen an official list of such conferences: who would register if it were advertised you can go for free? In addition going to a conference for the actual talks kinda misses the point: a conference is not an obligation to go to every talk, but an occasion to meet people so short of avoiding contact, the first thing people will ask is who are you, your affiliation etc and will rapidly discover you are not registered.
It is not pleasant as an organizer to see people crashing the conference: there is a real cost to organizing an event and common courtesy would be to ask the organizers for a discount or a free registration: the worse possible scenario for you is to travel somewhere and be blacklisted from the event after getting there and arranging accommodation. |
158,421 | The Disaster of the Gladden Fields happened in the 2nd year of the Third Age. The Istari come about 998 years after that. In Year 2851, Saruman begins to search near the Gladden Fields for the One Ring. That's more than 2800 years after Isildur died.
>
> No trace of his body was ever found by Elves or Men.
>
>
> *Unfinished Tales* - Part III, Chapter I: The Disaster of the Gladden Fields
>
>
>
Saruman was neither: he was a Maia. Did he find Isildur's bones while searching for the Ring? He sure did find the chain that Isildur wore; upon which was strung the One Ring before he died.
>
> One was a small case of gold, attached to a fine chain; it was empty, and bore no letter or token, but beyond all doubt it had once borne the Ring about Isildur's neck.
>
>
> *Unfinished Tales* - Part III, Chapter I: The Disaster of the Gladden Fields
>
>
>
So, **what happened to Isildur's body(skeleton, actually)?**
Is there any canonical statement that Saruman or *any other non-Elf or non-Man* had found Isildur's body? | 2017/04/30 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/158421",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/82025/"
] | We don't know, but some believed that Saruman did discover his remains.
>
> But King Elessar, when he was crowned in Gondor, began the re-ordering of his realm, and one of his first tasks was the restoration of Orthanc, where he proposed to set up again the palantir recovered from Saruman. Then all the secrets of the tower were searched. Many things of worth were found, jewels and heirlooms of Eorl, filched from Edoras by the agency of Wormtongue during King Thĕoden's decline, and other such things, more ancient and beautiful, from mounds and tombs far and wide. Saruman in his degradation had become not a dragon but a jackdaw. At last behind a hidden door that they could not have found or opened had not Elessar had the aid of Gimli the Dwarf a steel closet was revealed. Maybe it had been intended to receive the Ring; but it was almost bare. In a casket on a high shelf two things were laid. One was a small case of gold, attached to a fine chain; it was empty, and bore no letter or token, but beyond all doubt it had once borne the Ring about Isildur's neck. Next to it lay a treasure without price, long mourned as lost for ever: the Elendilmir itself, the white star of Elvish crystal upon a fillet of mithril that had descended from Silmarien to Elendil, and had been taken by him as the token of royalty in the North Kingdom. Every king and the chieftains that followed them in Arnor had borne the Elendilmir down even to Elessar himself; but though it was a jewel of great beauty, made by Elven-smiths in Imladris for Valandil Isildur's son, it had not the ancientry nor potency of the one that had been lost when Isildur fled into the dark and came back no more. (Unfinished Tales)
>
>
>
Since these were among Isildur's personal effects, it was suspected that Saruman had found his remains, taken the treasures, and dishonored his bones.
>
> When men considered this secret hoard more closely, they were dismayed. For it seemed to them that these things, and certainly the Elendilmir, could not have been found, unless they had been upon Isildur's body when he sank; but if that had been in deep water of strong flow they would in time have been swept far away. Therefore Isildur must have fallen not into the deep stream but into shallow water, no more than shoulder-high. Why then, though an Age had passed, were there no traces of his bones? Had Saruman found them, and scorned them - burned them with dishonour in one of his furnaces? If that were so, it was a shameful deed; but not his worst.
> (Unfinished Tales)
>
>
>
As far as I know, these are the only reference to his remains.
Personally I find it very doubtful human remains would have lasted that long sitting at the bottom of a swampy river, but I suppose I must defer to the judgement of the Wise who would not have been afraid that Saruman found the remains if that was a possibility. | I think the orcs captured his body and Sauron gave him a Ring of Power so he became a Nazgul, but Talion released him. |
113,650 | I practice songs from *The Real Book*, and I am quite new to the chord-melody concept. I have knowledge of scales and chords, and I can play melodically these standards. Now I want to play them as chord-melody (that is, both chords and melody together), and I wonder: what other stuff should I know?
Are chords as written in *The Real Book* enough to construct a chord-melody, or should I use scales to construct them? I am a bit confused. | 2021/04/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/113650",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/77356/"
] | The chords in *The Real Book* (or any fake book) only tell you the general outline of the harmony. Playing them as given will not include the melody (except by occasional coincidence).
To **realize the music** means to arrange the notes of the chords and melody so that they can be played together. The **chord voicings** you choose -- that is, the specific way you play the notes -- will facilitate playing the chords and melody together.
To get started, a good general rule is to play the chord's letter name as the lowest note, and the melody as the highest. Other chord notes can be fit in between in whatever arrangement is convenient. For example, for a C7 chord with an E in the melody, you would make C the lowest pitch, the E the highest pitch, and fit the G and Bb in where you can.
Keep in mind that sometimes the melody will include notes that are not part of the chord. The above rule can still apply — keep the melody on top. | >
> what other stuff should I know?
>
>
>
You need a general knowledge of *harmony*. In particular:
1. What notes are in chords
2. What *upper structures* can you add to a given chord in given context (this is closely related to scales)
3. Which notes of the chords are the most important for their harmonic function (on guitar chords played with 3–4 notes often sound the best, so you often need to drop some notes)
4. Reharmonization techniques – what chords you can play instead of the others
5. Voice leading – how to connect one chord with another so that it sounds smooth.
While learning theory, try also learning arrangements made by the others. An obvious recommendation is Joe Pass, but if his work turns out too difficult for you, there are other resources available.
Playing chord melodies might be quite difficult at the beginning. A very first step I would recommend is to arrange a good chordal accompaniment for the tune, e.g. while singing the melody, or letting another instrument to play it. |
202,852 | There is this context:
>
> "Since we are discussing the relationship of space, time, and logic, let us talk about time-travel paradoxes. We first have to ask ourselves what it means to travel back through time. **What would it mean for me to go back to the Continental Congress held in Philadelphia in 1776**, in order to witness the signing of the Declaration of Independence?"
>
>
>
What's the meaning of “what it means for {someone} to be in some place”?
I had a similar question about what it means for something to be something:
[What's the meaning of "what it means for {something} to be {something}"?](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/201303/whats-the-meaning-of-what-it-means-for-something-to-be-something)
but in this context, I don't think the previous question has the answer for this one. I don't get it what it means for me to be in a certain place. if anyone can help I would appreciate it. | 2019/03/28 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/202852",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/74431/"
] | I agree with the tendency of the many comments to your question.
Userr2684291 directs our attention to a [scene](https://www.imsdb.com/scripts/Elizabeth-The-Golden-Age.html) in which Elizabeth I says the line "What would you have me do?"
As I read that scene, Elizabeth means to ask "What would you like me to do?" But her implication is rhetorical. She means that if you consider that question, "What would you have me do," you will realize that the proposed answer ("Cut out" half the people of England) is obviously a bad answer; and therefore Elizabeth has no real alternative to the plan she favors. | Just to be clear, "What do you have me do?" and
"What do you have me to do?"
are both incorrect English.
I think @FumbleFingers has it right. |
800,324 | A couple of months ago Ubuntu had an ubuntu.exe file inside the ISO, so I was able to run Ubuntu in my Windows by clicking ubuntu.exe after installing it with wubi.exe. Now in Ubuntu 16.04 it seems ubuntu.exe is not there anymore. My computer failed to install Ubuntu 16.04 even though I followed the steps from Ubuntu on how to create a bootable USB.
Why doesn't Ubuntu 16.04 in Windows have an ubuntu.exe file like in older versions of Ubuntu? | 2016/07/19 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/800324",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/569157/"
] | >
> Why doesn't Ubuntu 16.04 have ubuntu.exe inside the iso?
>
>
>
1. Wubi is **no longer supported** and was only meant to be used for testing, not for permanent use.
2. At this time, Wubi does not work with the Windows 8 or Windows 10 default bootloader. Thus at this point Wubi would **not work on a new Windows 8/10** machine. An alternative way of installing Ubuntu in Windows 10 is with [Windows Subsystem for Linux 2](https://askubuntu.com/a/1247443/) which features a true Linux kernel. You would be able to install, but not reboot into Ubuntu.[Wubi Guide](https://wiki.ubuntu.com/WubiGuide)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YuPcA.png "Ubuntu running with WSL2 in Windows 10")
3. An important reason for including Wubi in the Ubuntu installation media has disappeared. Now that most computers have ample disk space, it is not so important to give Windows users a way of installing Ubuntu within the existing Windows partition without making an extra partition.
4. The default repositories in all currently supported versions of Ubuntu have an alternate package for testing the Ubuntu iso called Test Drive. However Test Drive only runs from Ubuntu and runs the test iso in a virtual machine. | I believe this was the wubi method which is no longer recommended. This method has been "not recommended" for quite some time even though it has still been available.
You should seriously consider posting a question about the failed install and provide specifics about the fail. |
593,723 | I'm a student of Politecnico di Milano and today my prof during the lesson told me that it's important to limit current harmonics into the grid and not voltage harmonics because these last do not create problems. I asked the reason to prof but he didn't answer me. He just told me the problems that current harmonics bring, that is current harmonics are critical because they create torque harmonics in motors but also increase ohmic losses. But what problems voltage harmonics in the grid may cause and why is not important to not decrease them? And should voltage harmonics generate also current harmonics? | 2021/11/05 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/593723",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/262978/"
] | Harmonic current in the grid is caused by nonlinear loads. Harmonic current is like reactive current. It does not result in useful power delivered to the load, but it causes losses in the generation, transmission and distribution system. Harmonic current can not easily be mitigated by adding capacitors, the remedies are a bit more complex.
Harmonic voltage in the grid is caused by harmonic voltage drops in the transmission components due to the flow of harmonic current. Since Harmonic voltage is caused by harmonic current flowing through impedance, percentage harmonic voltage is the highest near the source of the harmonic current, where the harmonic current is the highest percentage of the total current. The extent to which an entire grid experiences harmonic voltage distortion is determined by the extent to which users with harmonic loads are distributed throughout the grid.
Look at IEEE 519-2014 - IEEE Recommended Practice and Requirements for Harmonic Control in Electric Power Systems.
Also look at questions tagged [harmonics] such as [what causes voltage harmonics](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/360144/what-causes-voltage-harmonics) and [Harmonics are bad... But how bad?](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/97375/harmonics-are-bad-but-how-bad) | In a Power Transmission Grid voltage and current should be always pure sine waves without harmonics.
---
Voltage is delivered to homes, firms, and offices in this mathematical form:
V = A \* sin (2 \* π \* **f** \* t)
**f** = 50 Hz in Europe and 60 Hz in USA
Voltage V is measure between LINE (black or gray wire) and NEUTRAL (blue wire).
---
Appliances contain non linear components like diodes, diode bridges, and transistors that introduce locally (inside homes, inside offices, ..) non linearities in the **current** sinked.
**Current** non linearities are estimated and valued by measuring how much power is wasted in the harmonics of **f** by special instruments.
In Europe and in the US there are regulations that manufacturers must follow in order not to waste power in harmonics.
---
**Voltage** measured across devices is almost always quite linear because it is imposed/stated by the Power Grid Transmission system which is the SOURCE.
Appliances, which are considered LOAD, can't easily modify the shape of the voltage imposed/stated by the SOURCE unless the current sinked is huge. |
75,245 | Now i am not going for a fantasy kind of feel, but more science fiction. So the character had undergone several harsh experiments and so lost the ability to physically feel pain and as a side effect her heart doesnt stop beating. She could "die" but not pass away, if that makes any sense. No matter how much she loses blood or how fatally injured she gets, she is revived within seconds.
Her body doesnt regenerate immediatly but she still manages to stay alive.
So how do i make it so that she would explain all that without letting people know she'd been gentically modified? Especially after getting shot in the chest or getting her neck sliced open and getting up like it was nothing. | 2017/03/24 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/75245",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/35096/"
] | Holographs
----------
If technology in this world has developed realistic holographs capable of fooling the eye, then you could use them to fool your opponent (and your friends) as to whether you've even been injured.
Use holographs as a cover - literally - to conceal your injuries and carry on like nothing is wrong. By the time your healing factor had done its job, no one will be the wiser or even be able to prove that you were ever injured (except for the problem of blood or other fluids which would either need to also be concealed holographically or taken care of with some kind of medical implant/body suit.)
In fact, minor injuries wouldn't need to be concealed at all, only life-threatening ones that would raise questions.
In the heat of battle, it's pretty difficult to keep track of specific injuries as they happen, so when your character walks away from a fight with zero or only minor injuries they can shrug it off as luck or superior fighting ability. | I'm not certain this is possible to do. Any explanation she comes up with will inevitably only be able to convince a few people, usually strangers.
Hologram
--------
This has been discussed in another answer so I will be brief. Using a hologram may be able to cover up an injury. For example if she were sliced across the neck she could project a hologram of unharmed skin and say she dodged back or the knife was really blunt. This might work for injuries caused in the heat of battle or when people can't see her clearly but in most settings people will see the weapon pierce her skin and will see blood. They may also see her be thrown backwards by impact forces that should kill her in there own right.
CIPA (Congenital Insensitivity to Pain with Anhidrosis)
-------------------------------------------------------
This is a rare genetic disorder which prevents the sufferer feeling pain, heat and cold. It can let them seem to shrug of injuries but in reality they simply do not notice the injury due to lack of pain. This wouldn't help in your setting. CIPA might let the woman explain being able to walk away from a fight with a knife in her leg because she has no pain but people with CIPA heal just as slowly as people without (often slower because they don't realise they have the injury so end up aggravating it. Furthermore, it wouldn't allow her to survive fatal injuries such as bullets to the chest because CIPA doesn't give you healing powers. Finally it is a birth condition so friends and family will already know she does't have it.
The weapon missed/bounced off my mcguffin
-----------------------------------------
This would work if no one saw any evidence of the injury but shares all the problems of a hologram and basically would only work in a few, rare situations.
Nanites, God save or Really good first aid
------------------------------------------
All of these work on the principle of her surviving because something intervened, either magic or advanced technology/first aid. These would be realistic as God could have healed her (assuming she is only trying to convince highly religious people) or the nano robots in her blood saved her (if the technology exists). The nanobots one is basically saying a technology saved her (nanobots) to cover up that a different technology (genetic engineering) saved her. |
13,030,202 | We want to implement disqus commenting system in our existing drupa6 site.we have installed disqus module and configured well and working fine.
but we have 200k comments in my drupal comments table.we need to export them to the disqus but we am not getting any sample xml format or any tool to export the comments.
we are unable to export them in a single attempt because the no of comments are 200k.
could some one please help me to export comments into disqus.
Thanks,
Raghu | 2012/10/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13030202",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/609751/"
] | There is a Ruby script that can do this for you.
* Download [this](https://github.com/pichot/drupal6-to-disqus-xml) project from [GitHub](https://github.com).
* Read the README.md file; you'll need to provide your MYSQL database info in config.example.
* Run the script. If your comments output above 45MB, it will even split the xml for you.
* Go to [Disqus->Import](http://import.disqus.com/), select your domain and import the XML. Make sure to select the correct format.
For a Drupal 7 solution, use a [Disqus Migrate](http://drupal.org/sandbox/dwkitchen/1483518) module. You'll need to check it out with Git and install it as a Drupal module.
Update
------
For Drupal 7, [Disqus Migrate](https://www.drupal.org/project/disqus_migrate) module is now stable. Install it like any other module. | I think you´ll have to wait until D7, because the next version of the Drupal module has the possibility to export comments into Disqus. |
189 | I've run a number of races, and there are almost always a number of water stations. I don't usually stop for water on the short races, but I'm not sure how long of a race I should do that for - when should I start drinking water? How much and often should I drink it? | 2012/02/10 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/189",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/24/"
] | Hydration when racing has a lot of variables, all of which need to be taken into consideration for longer races - which I would say is anything longer than a 10k:
* difficulty of the course (hills, headwind, altitude)
* temperature and humidity
* and your acclimatization to those weather conditions
* your effort, this is somewhat of a double edged sword: run fast and you're done quicker, run slow and you're out there longer, and often you'll be out in the warmer parts of the day more than the early finishers.
* your body: everyone sweats different amounts. Some don't drink much during a 1/2 marathon, some drink a liter or more.
* for longer races, your nutrition intake also adds a fluid component: you need water for your body to digest the nutrition.
* pre-race hydration: it's not uncommon for racers of >4 hour races to adjust up their electrolyte and hydration in the days leading up to a race.
First - try to do a sweat test in an environment as close as you can to the race, and get a good idea of what you generally need, and then consider the other variables.
At the end of a race you will almost never hear people saying "oh dang, I drank too much", but go by the medical tent after a marathon, and you will see racks of people wishing they had taken hydration more seriously. | It depends on the race and the weather.
At a marathon i stop at almost every station and grab a glass of water and have sip.
Its better to hydrate in small sips from time to time.
With a bit of practice you can even learn how to drink while running so you don't lose to much time at the stations. |
189 | I've run a number of races, and there are almost always a number of water stations. I don't usually stop for water on the short races, but I'm not sure how long of a race I should do that for - when should I start drinking water? How much and often should I drink it? | 2012/02/10 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/189",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/24/"
] | It depends on the race and the weather.
At a marathon i stop at almost every station and grab a glass of water and have sip.
Its better to hydrate in small sips from time to time.
With a bit of practice you can even learn how to drink while running so you don't lose to much time at the stations. | It's really much simpler than this. The marathon doctors have been recommending the following for a few years now, with the risk of hyponatremia in mind:
>
> If you're thirsty, drink.
>
>
>
Citations:
* *Runner's World* magazine, 2005: ["How much should you drink during a marathon?"](http://www.runnersworld.com/drinks-hydration/how-much-should-you-drink-during-marathon) (references, in particular, Tim Noakes, author of the widely-respected *Lore of Running* and author of the IMMDA statement below)
* Georgetown University Medical Center, 2007: ["Runners: Let thirst be your guide"](http://explore.georgetown.edu/news/?ID=25347)
* British Journal of Sports Medicine, 2013: ["Current hydration guidelines are erroneous: dehydration does not impair exercise performance in the heat"](http://bjsm.bmj.com/content/early/2013/09/20/bjsports-2013-092417.abstract)
Additionally, [this 2001 statement](http://www.usatf.org/groups/Coaches/library/2007/hydration/IMMDAAdvisoryStatement.pdf) from the International Marathon Medical Directors Association (IMMDA), which concludes:
>
> "Accordingly perhaps the wisest advice that can be provided to athletes in marathon races is that they should drink *ad libitum* and aim for ingestion rates that never exceed about 800 ml per hour."
>
>
> |
189 | I've run a number of races, and there are almost always a number of water stations. I don't usually stop for water on the short races, but I'm not sure how long of a race I should do that for - when should I start drinking water? How much and often should I drink it? | 2012/02/10 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/189",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/24/"
] | Hydration when racing has a lot of variables, all of which need to be taken into consideration for longer races - which I would say is anything longer than a 10k:
* difficulty of the course (hills, headwind, altitude)
* temperature and humidity
* and your acclimatization to those weather conditions
* your effort, this is somewhat of a double edged sword: run fast and you're done quicker, run slow and you're out there longer, and often you'll be out in the warmer parts of the day more than the early finishers.
* your body: everyone sweats different amounts. Some don't drink much during a 1/2 marathon, some drink a liter or more.
* for longer races, your nutrition intake also adds a fluid component: you need water for your body to digest the nutrition.
* pre-race hydration: it's not uncommon for racers of >4 hour races to adjust up their electrolyte and hydration in the days leading up to a race.
First - try to do a sweat test in an environment as close as you can to the race, and get a good idea of what you generally need, and then consider the other variables.
At the end of a race you will almost never hear people saying "oh dang, I drank too much", but go by the medical tent after a marathon, and you will see racks of people wishing they had taken hydration more seriously. | Ideally, you'd have a little straw follow you around and you could have a constant drip of hydration. Take a cup at every water station, and take a few sips. Depending on how far apart they are, you'll want to drink more or less, aiming for an ounce of water every 4 minutes since your last station. This isn't an exact calculation, but it's a good place to start from.
This is going to leave you with leftover water almost every time. I personally would use the remaining water to cool off and keep yourself alert with a good face splash. Unless it's gatorade, then it probably wouldn't feel so good on your face :) |
189 | I've run a number of races, and there are almost always a number of water stations. I don't usually stop for water on the short races, but I'm not sure how long of a race I should do that for - when should I start drinking water? How much and often should I drink it? | 2012/02/10 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/189",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/24/"
] | Ideally, you'd have a little straw follow you around and you could have a constant drip of hydration. Take a cup at every water station, and take a few sips. Depending on how far apart they are, you'll want to drink more or less, aiming for an ounce of water every 4 minutes since your last station. This isn't an exact calculation, but it's a good place to start from.
This is going to leave you with leftover water almost every time. I personally would use the remaining water to cool off and keep yourself alert with a good face splash. Unless it's gatorade, then it probably wouldn't feel so good on your face :) | It's really much simpler than this. The marathon doctors have been recommending the following for a few years now, with the risk of hyponatremia in mind:
>
> If you're thirsty, drink.
>
>
>
Citations:
* *Runner's World* magazine, 2005: ["How much should you drink during a marathon?"](http://www.runnersworld.com/drinks-hydration/how-much-should-you-drink-during-marathon) (references, in particular, Tim Noakes, author of the widely-respected *Lore of Running* and author of the IMMDA statement below)
* Georgetown University Medical Center, 2007: ["Runners: Let thirst be your guide"](http://explore.georgetown.edu/news/?ID=25347)
* British Journal of Sports Medicine, 2013: ["Current hydration guidelines are erroneous: dehydration does not impair exercise performance in the heat"](http://bjsm.bmj.com/content/early/2013/09/20/bjsports-2013-092417.abstract)
Additionally, [this 2001 statement](http://www.usatf.org/groups/Coaches/library/2007/hydration/IMMDAAdvisoryStatement.pdf) from the International Marathon Medical Directors Association (IMMDA), which concludes:
>
> "Accordingly perhaps the wisest advice that can be provided to athletes in marathon races is that they should drink *ad libitum* and aim for ingestion rates that never exceed about 800 ml per hour."
>
>
> |
189 | I've run a number of races, and there are almost always a number of water stations. I don't usually stop for water on the short races, but I'm not sure how long of a race I should do that for - when should I start drinking water? How much and often should I drink it? | 2012/02/10 | [
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/189",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.stackexchange.com/users/24/"
] | Hydration when racing has a lot of variables, all of which need to be taken into consideration for longer races - which I would say is anything longer than a 10k:
* difficulty of the course (hills, headwind, altitude)
* temperature and humidity
* and your acclimatization to those weather conditions
* your effort, this is somewhat of a double edged sword: run fast and you're done quicker, run slow and you're out there longer, and often you'll be out in the warmer parts of the day more than the early finishers.
* your body: everyone sweats different amounts. Some don't drink much during a 1/2 marathon, some drink a liter or more.
* for longer races, your nutrition intake also adds a fluid component: you need water for your body to digest the nutrition.
* pre-race hydration: it's not uncommon for racers of >4 hour races to adjust up their electrolyte and hydration in the days leading up to a race.
First - try to do a sweat test in an environment as close as you can to the race, and get a good idea of what you generally need, and then consider the other variables.
At the end of a race you will almost never hear people saying "oh dang, I drank too much", but go by the medical tent after a marathon, and you will see racks of people wishing they had taken hydration more seriously. | It's really much simpler than this. The marathon doctors have been recommending the following for a few years now, with the risk of hyponatremia in mind:
>
> If you're thirsty, drink.
>
>
>
Citations:
* *Runner's World* magazine, 2005: ["How much should you drink during a marathon?"](http://www.runnersworld.com/drinks-hydration/how-much-should-you-drink-during-marathon) (references, in particular, Tim Noakes, author of the widely-respected *Lore of Running* and author of the IMMDA statement below)
* Georgetown University Medical Center, 2007: ["Runners: Let thirst be your guide"](http://explore.georgetown.edu/news/?ID=25347)
* British Journal of Sports Medicine, 2013: ["Current hydration guidelines are erroneous: dehydration does not impair exercise performance in the heat"](http://bjsm.bmj.com/content/early/2013/09/20/bjsports-2013-092417.abstract)
Additionally, [this 2001 statement](http://www.usatf.org/groups/Coaches/library/2007/hydration/IMMDAAdvisoryStatement.pdf) from the International Marathon Medical Directors Association (IMMDA), which concludes:
>
> "Accordingly perhaps the wisest advice that can be provided to athletes in marathon races is that they should drink *ad libitum* and aim for ingestion rates that never exceed about 800 ml per hour."
>
>
> |
1,521,212 | I just deployed a website into IIS 7 (about which I am woefully ignorant), and upon trying to build the site, I receive this error. I did a little googleing and I saw an article that said I should put system.web.extensions.dll into the /bin. But, I also saw an article saying not to do that. I tried it anyway, but I just received a different error ('Resource cannot be found').
I am totally clueless as to what else to try | 2009/10/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1521212",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/105739/"
] | Can you use the "Publish" command in Visual Studio to publish directly to the site? If not, then use that command to publish to a similar site on your machine, then copy it to the customer site.
You should also look into the [IIS Web Deployment Tool](http://learn.iis.net/page.aspx/346/web-deployment-tool/). It can copy an entire site, including IIS settings and any databases. It will be built into VS2010. | Go to control panel, then programs, turn windows features on or off, scroll down to Microsoft.net framework 3.5.1 expand, make sure both sub options are selected, this might help your issue. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | The other answers were generally good, but didn't necessarilly spell everything out clearly IMHO.
1. To load a compiled program into a microcontroller, the PC that holds the compiled program needs to be connected directly to the microcontroller in some way that provides a method of bidirectional communication. That's one of the jobs of a programing device: to provide that communication path.
2. Some microcontrollers - but not all - require high voltages to program. By high voltage, I mean higher than Vcc. Providing that voltage is another important function of the programing device.
Every microcontroller that I have experience with allows the possibility of programming it with a so-called bootloader. On power up (or reset) the bootloader looks on one or more specific communication channels for someone trying to replace the existing firmware with new. If it finds that to be the case, and everything checks out security wise, then the bootloader accepts the new firmware and puts it in the place of the old program. This is very often done with commercial products that allow firmware updates by the user. Note that this requires the bootloader to already have been loaded into flash memory by 'conventional' methods. So we still haven't solved the problem of programming a fresh chip.
In any case, the bootloader takes up some space in flash memory which may or may not be precious.
Having said all of that, some microcontrollers can be programmed without special voltages. The AVR series is a good example. These still need some sort of hardware to connect the software on your computer to the digital pins on your microcontroller (and software on the PC to make it work, obviously.) You can get everything off the Internet to turn an unloved Arduino into a programmer for AVR chips. This takes care of requirement (1) above, and since AVR chips don't have requirement (2), Bob's your uncle.
As a point of interest, I once built an instrument that was controlled by a Raspberry Pi. It turned out the RPI couldn't provide certain signals that I needed with adequate timing requirements. I looked for an existing IC that could do what I needed, but couldn't find anything. So, I used an ATtiny85. I wrote some simple software to make it into my dream chip, and programed it directly through the RPI digital GPIO. No programmer required. It turned out to be both easy and fun. But, circuit design and microcontroller programming are always fun for me | Not all microcontrollers *need* to be programmed via protocols and connections designated for a debug probe or programmer device.
As an example, the STM32F446RE microcontroller has two boot pins that control if the microcontroller executes the program stored in its (main) flash memory, if it boots from its SRAM, or it it boots the program from its so-called "system memory". This program overwrites the main Flash content with a new main payload program transmitted via UART, CAN, or SPI (where the ports and pins to be used in each case are fixed and can be looked up in the documentation). In this way, the microcontroller can be programmed with a standard USB-to-UART device, via the CAN bus, and so on.
But during development, you often want to use a debug probe anyway, and using that to also program the microcontroller is often more convenient. For firmware updates in the field, the possibility to program from the system memory program can however be useful. It is not possible to overwrite the system memory program as far as I know, so the MCU cannot be bricked in this way. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | A programmer is the implementation of " via specific bus,".
Some devices have inbuilt bootloaders (may be hardware or software or firmware) that allow the use of a port of some sort to load code.
Whenever a feature is included in a device that is not utilised during normal operation it adds an unproductive overhead. On very large and capable systems this overhead may be small and unimportant. On very small systems it may occupy enough program space or hardware to represent a significant degradation of device capability. When processors get into the cents per unit range every last piece of capability is worth having. (A 2 cent processor that becomes a 3 cent processor due to added little used capabilities may matter. ) | Not all microcontrollers *need* to be programmed via protocols and connections designated for a debug probe or programmer device.
As an example, the STM32F446RE microcontroller has two boot pins that control if the microcontroller executes the program stored in its (main) flash memory, if it boots from its SRAM, or it it boots the program from its so-called "system memory". This program overwrites the main Flash content with a new main payload program transmitted via UART, CAN, or SPI (where the ports and pins to be used in each case are fixed and can be looked up in the documentation). In this way, the microcontroller can be programmed with a standard USB-to-UART device, via the CAN bus, and so on.
But during development, you often want to use a debug probe anyway, and using that to also program the microcontroller is often more convenient. For firmware updates in the field, the possibility to program from the system memory program can however be useful. It is not possible to overwrite the system memory program as far as I know, so the MCU cannot be bricked in this way. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | That's what the programmer does.
It takes the binary output from the compiler and stores it in the MCU's Flash EPROM, usually over a serial bus.
Flash EPROM requires a programming algorithm to store data in it, with any erases first. The programmer carries out this algorithm. It's not like writing data to RAM. This is very well documented and explained on the Internet. | Not all microcontrollers *need* to be programmed via protocols and connections designated for a debug probe or programmer device.
As an example, the STM32F446RE microcontroller has two boot pins that control if the microcontroller executes the program stored in its (main) flash memory, if it boots from its SRAM, or it it boots the program from its so-called "system memory". This program overwrites the main Flash content with a new main payload program transmitted via UART, CAN, or SPI (where the ports and pins to be used in each case are fixed and can be looked up in the documentation). In this way, the microcontroller can be programmed with a standard USB-to-UART device, via the CAN bus, and so on.
But during development, you often want to use a debug probe anyway, and using that to also program the microcontroller is often more convenient. For firmware updates in the field, the possibility to program from the system memory program can however be useful. It is not possible to overwrite the system memory program as far as I know, so the MCU cannot be bricked in this way. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | >
> transfer it to specific place in flash memory via specific bus
>
>
>
This is exactly what flash programmer devices do. They just don't use something slow and archaic like RS232, but instead nowadays usually JTAG/SWD. Often translated to/from USB.
A high speed bus like JTAG is required to enable two things:
* Somewhat accurate real-time debugging, including things like "cycle stealing", instruction trace and other such tricks that debuggers might be using.
* To avoid long programming times.
For example in the dark ages where one built everything from scratch, I recall things like RS-232 bootloader with 9600bps and handshaking, then EPROM programming times on top of that. It could take as long as 20 minutes just to program a single MCU.
Before the early 2000s, pretty much every MCU family had its own special snowflake programming interface, which was far from standardized. These were horrible, horrible things. Then came various proprietary single-wire debugger interfaces and eventually JTAG/SWD which became industry standard with the advent of PowerPC and ARM.
You *can* of course still use bootloaders over USB, CAN, UART etc and many MCUs have built-in hardware support for it even. But these are meant to be used for specialized use-cases and not for production batch programming. | The other answers were generally good, but didn't necessarilly spell everything out clearly IMHO.
1. To load a compiled program into a microcontroller, the PC that holds the compiled program needs to be connected directly to the microcontroller in some way that provides a method of bidirectional communication. That's one of the jobs of a programing device: to provide that communication path.
2. Some microcontrollers - but not all - require high voltages to program. By high voltage, I mean higher than Vcc. Providing that voltage is another important function of the programing device.
Every microcontroller that I have experience with allows the possibility of programming it with a so-called bootloader. On power up (or reset) the bootloader looks on one or more specific communication channels for someone trying to replace the existing firmware with new. If it finds that to be the case, and everything checks out security wise, then the bootloader accepts the new firmware and puts it in the place of the old program. This is very often done with commercial products that allow firmware updates by the user. Note that this requires the bootloader to already have been loaded into flash memory by 'conventional' methods. So we still haven't solved the problem of programming a fresh chip.
In any case, the bootloader takes up some space in flash memory which may or may not be precious.
Having said all of that, some microcontrollers can be programmed without special voltages. The AVR series is a good example. These still need some sort of hardware to connect the software on your computer to the digital pins on your microcontroller (and software on the PC to make it work, obviously.) You can get everything off the Internet to turn an unloved Arduino into a programmer for AVR chips. This takes care of requirement (1) above, and since AVR chips don't have requirement (2), Bob's your uncle.
As a point of interest, I once built an instrument that was controlled by a Raspberry Pi. It turned out the RPI couldn't provide certain signals that I needed with adequate timing requirements. I looked for an existing IC that could do what I needed, but couldn't find anything. So, I used an ATtiny85. I wrote some simple software to make it into my dream chip, and programed it directly through the RPI digital GPIO. No programmer required. It turned out to be both easy and fun. But, circuit design and microcontroller programming are always fun for me |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | That's what the programmer does.
It takes the binary output from the compiler and stores it in the MCU's Flash EPROM, usually over a serial bus.
Flash EPROM requires a programming algorithm to store data in it, with any erases first. The programmer carries out this algorithm. It's not like writing data to RAM. This is very well documented and explained on the Internet. | >
> transfer it to specific place in flash memory via specific bus
>
>
>
This is exactly what flash programmer devices do. They just don't use something slow and archaic like RS232, but instead nowadays usually JTAG/SWD. Often translated to/from USB.
A high speed bus like JTAG is required to enable two things:
* Somewhat accurate real-time debugging, including things like "cycle stealing", instruction trace and other such tricks that debuggers might be using.
* To avoid long programming times.
For example in the dark ages where one built everything from scratch, I recall things like RS-232 bootloader with 9600bps and handshaking, then EPROM programming times on top of that. It could take as long as 20 minutes just to program a single MCU.
Before the early 2000s, pretty much every MCU family had its own special snowflake programming interface, which was far from standardized. These were horrible, horrible things. Then came various proprietary single-wire debugger interfaces and eventually JTAG/SWD which became industry standard with the advent of PowerPC and ARM.
You *can* of course still use bootloaders over USB, CAN, UART etc and many MCUs have built-in hardware support for it even. But these are meant to be used for specialized use-cases and not for production batch programming. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | >
> transfer it to specific place in flash memory via specific bus
>
>
>
This is exactly what flash programmer devices do. They just don't use something slow and archaic like RS232, but instead nowadays usually JTAG/SWD. Often translated to/from USB.
A high speed bus like JTAG is required to enable two things:
* Somewhat accurate real-time debugging, including things like "cycle stealing", instruction trace and other such tricks that debuggers might be using.
* To avoid long programming times.
For example in the dark ages where one built everything from scratch, I recall things like RS-232 bootloader with 9600bps and handshaking, then EPROM programming times on top of that. It could take as long as 20 minutes just to program a single MCU.
Before the early 2000s, pretty much every MCU family had its own special snowflake programming interface, which was far from standardized. These were horrible, horrible things. Then came various proprietary single-wire debugger interfaces and eventually JTAG/SWD which became industry standard with the advent of PowerPC and ARM.
You *can* of course still use bootloaders over USB, CAN, UART etc and many MCUs have built-in hardware support for it even. But these are meant to be used for specialized use-cases and not for production batch programming. | Not all microcontrollers *need* to be programmed via protocols and connections designated for a debug probe or programmer device.
As an example, the STM32F446RE microcontroller has two boot pins that control if the microcontroller executes the program stored in its (main) flash memory, if it boots from its SRAM, or it it boots the program from its so-called "system memory". This program overwrites the main Flash content with a new main payload program transmitted via UART, CAN, or SPI (where the ports and pins to be used in each case are fixed and can be looked up in the documentation). In this way, the microcontroller can be programmed with a standard USB-to-UART device, via the CAN bus, and so on.
But during development, you often want to use a debug probe anyway, and using that to also program the microcontroller is often more convenient. For firmware updates in the field, the possibility to program from the system memory program can however be useful. It is not possible to overwrite the system memory program as far as I know, so the MCU cannot be bricked in this way. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | >
> transfer it to specific place in flash memory via specific bus
>
>
>
This is exactly what flash programmer devices do. They just don't use something slow and archaic like RS232, but instead nowadays usually JTAG/SWD. Often translated to/from USB.
A high speed bus like JTAG is required to enable two things:
* Somewhat accurate real-time debugging, including things like "cycle stealing", instruction trace and other such tricks that debuggers might be using.
* To avoid long programming times.
For example in the dark ages where one built everything from scratch, I recall things like RS-232 bootloader with 9600bps and handshaking, then EPROM programming times on top of that. It could take as long as 20 minutes just to program a single MCU.
Before the early 2000s, pretty much every MCU family had its own special snowflake programming interface, which was far from standardized. These were horrible, horrible things. Then came various proprietary single-wire debugger interfaces and eventually JTAG/SWD which became industry standard with the advent of PowerPC and ARM.
You *can* of course still use bootloaders over USB, CAN, UART etc and many MCUs have built-in hardware support for it even. But these are meant to be used for specialized use-cases and not for production batch programming. | The ability to self-program has a number of costs, and generally these costs can be avoided by leaving that ability out:
1. The self-programming MCU can brick itself. Oops...
2. Security: may add a path for a hacker to be able to modify the device's firmware remotely.
3. You have to have an external programming interface to get the initial program in, anyway (though this is built-in for some MCUs).
4. Having to write the software to support self-programming.
5. Communications interface to receive the new program, memory to buffer the new program, battery backup so power won't drop out in the middle of rewriting its flash, any special voltages, write circuitry, again, software to support all this... See @Russell McMahon's answer.
6. Speed of programming: using an external programmer may greatly speed up the programming process, especially if the only usually available communications interface is slow. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | A programmer is the implementation of " via specific bus,".
Some devices have inbuilt bootloaders (may be hardware or software or firmware) that allow the use of a port of some sort to load code.
Whenever a feature is included in a device that is not utilised during normal operation it adds an unproductive overhead. On very large and capable systems this overhead may be small and unimportant. On very small systems it may occupy enough program space or hardware to represent a significant degradation of device capability. When processors get into the cents per unit range every last piece of capability is worth having. (A 2 cent processor that becomes a 3 cent processor due to added little used capabilities may matter. ) | The ability to self-program has a number of costs, and generally these costs can be avoided by leaving that ability out:
1. The self-programming MCU can brick itself. Oops...
2. Security: may add a path for a hacker to be able to modify the device's firmware remotely.
3. You have to have an external programming interface to get the initial program in, anyway (though this is built-in for some MCUs).
4. Having to write the software to support self-programming.
5. Communications interface to receive the new program, memory to buffer the new program, battery backup so power won't drop out in the middle of rewriting its flash, any special voltages, write circuitry, again, software to support all this... See @Russell McMahon's answer.
6. Speed of programming: using an external programmer may greatly speed up the programming process, especially if the only usually available communications interface is slow. |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | That's what the programmer does.
It takes the binary output from the compiler and stores it in the MCU's Flash EPROM, usually over a serial bus.
Flash EPROM requires a programming algorithm to store data in it, with any erases first. The programmer carries out this algorithm. It's not like writing data to RAM. This is very well documented and explained on the Internet. | A programmer is the implementation of " via specific bus,".
Some devices have inbuilt bootloaders (may be hardware or software or firmware) that allow the use of a port of some sort to load code.
Whenever a feature is included in a device that is not utilised during normal operation it adds an unproductive overhead. On very large and capable systems this overhead may be small and unimportant. On very small systems it may occupy enough program space or hardware to represent a significant degradation of device capability. When processors get into the cents per unit range every last piece of capability is worth having. (A 2 cent processor that becomes a 3 cent processor due to added little used capabilities may matter. ) |
602,795 | I mean, if binary code is already generated by PC, wouldn't it be possible to just take this binary code, transfer it to a specific place in flash memory via specific bus, for example Serial Wire, and it would work?
Why is a programmer usually required in an embedded toolchain? | 2022/01/03 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/602795",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/296951/"
] | A programmer is the implementation of " via specific bus,".
Some devices have inbuilt bootloaders (may be hardware or software or firmware) that allow the use of a port of some sort to load code.
Whenever a feature is included in a device that is not utilised during normal operation it adds an unproductive overhead. On very large and capable systems this overhead may be small and unimportant. On very small systems it may occupy enough program space or hardware to represent a significant degradation of device capability. When processors get into the cents per unit range every last piece of capability is worth having. (A 2 cent processor that becomes a 3 cent processor due to added little used capabilities may matter. ) | The other answers were generally good, but didn't necessarilly spell everything out clearly IMHO.
1. To load a compiled program into a microcontroller, the PC that holds the compiled program needs to be connected directly to the microcontroller in some way that provides a method of bidirectional communication. That's one of the jobs of a programing device: to provide that communication path.
2. Some microcontrollers - but not all - require high voltages to program. By high voltage, I mean higher than Vcc. Providing that voltage is another important function of the programing device.
Every microcontroller that I have experience with allows the possibility of programming it with a so-called bootloader. On power up (or reset) the bootloader looks on one or more specific communication channels for someone trying to replace the existing firmware with new. If it finds that to be the case, and everything checks out security wise, then the bootloader accepts the new firmware and puts it in the place of the old program. This is very often done with commercial products that allow firmware updates by the user. Note that this requires the bootloader to already have been loaded into flash memory by 'conventional' methods. So we still haven't solved the problem of programming a fresh chip.
In any case, the bootloader takes up some space in flash memory which may or may not be precious.
Having said all of that, some microcontrollers can be programmed without special voltages. The AVR series is a good example. These still need some sort of hardware to connect the software on your computer to the digital pins on your microcontroller (and software on the PC to make it work, obviously.) You can get everything off the Internet to turn an unloved Arduino into a programmer for AVR chips. This takes care of requirement (1) above, and since AVR chips don't have requirement (2), Bob's your uncle.
As a point of interest, I once built an instrument that was controlled by a Raspberry Pi. It turned out the RPI couldn't provide certain signals that I needed with adequate timing requirements. I looked for an existing IC that could do what I needed, but couldn't find anything. So, I used an ATtiny85. I wrote some simple software to make it into my dream chip, and programed it directly through the RPI digital GPIO. No programmer required. It turned out to be both easy and fun. But, circuit design and microcontroller programming are always fun for me |
11,057,462 | In VS2010, I've created an rdlc report that I want to view using the reportviewer. On the report, I want to use a scanned image underneath all the text (since it must look like the agency's letterhead), and this image must take up the whole page. The problem is that the text boxes on the report are all bumped down beneath the image. Can someone help me figure out how to make this work? | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11057462",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1459630/"
] | Right click the image, select Layout, Send to Back. | I'm doing this in VS 2012 now, but I think it's the same in VS 2010.
Right click the body of your report (in design mode),
Select "Body Properties..." and from there you can specify a Background Image. |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.