qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
297,904 | I know there is no such thing as a dumb question but this is: Can you serve contextual based ads via adsense or others on a site that is entirely behind https? | 2008/11/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/297904",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | [AdSense now supports HTTPS](http://googledevelopers.blogspot.com.au/2013/09/https-compatible-ad-code-for-adsense.html). Just remove the "http:" portion of the ad code. | Yes, as long as the website is not protected by SSL certificates (in that the client accessing the website needs to have a certificate) Google is perfectly capable of indexing your site for keywords to cater the right ads for your website.
I am not sure if Google makes the adsense code available over SSL as well, if not your visitors will be warned by the browser that the page may contain insecure elements. I do know that their analytics code (For Google analytics) does contain an SSL possibility.
In case you have any more questions, Google's adsense support team/faq will be able to better provide answers to your questions, since you can let them know what site you are talking about! |
297,904 | I know there is no such thing as a dumb question but this is: Can you serve contextual based ads via adsense or others on a site that is entirely behind https? | 2008/11/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/297904",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | **Update:**
>
> We’ve updated the AdSense ad code so that it now supports secure ad serving through Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) on Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) web pages. This means that publishers with secure sites, i.e., sites that are served over the HTTPS protocol, can now use AdSense ad code to serve SSL-compliant ads. Examples of secure websites include many financial services sites, e-commerce sites, and social networking sites.
>
>
>
[Google is aware of the issue but does not offer a properly configured HTTPS version of their code at this time](https://www.google.com/support/adsense/bin/answer.py?answer=10528). It'll work by swapping out http for https, but as mentioned above you'll get various errors in browsers. | [AdSense now supports HTTPS](http://googledevelopers.blogspot.com.au/2013/09/https-compatible-ad-code-for-adsense.html). Just remove the "http:" portion of the ad code. |
37,331,887 | I am trying to find out real need of Angularjs framework use with ASP.NET MVC. As I am not wrong, ASP.NET has it own ans strong routing engine, MVC framework and it works as loading views (templates) into master page.
Angular's data binding feature (+1 point).
I understand and recommend to use WebAPI with AngularJS as in that case webAPI only provides data and not frontend(views).
I see couple of articles and blogs, and most of all say about how to use, and I am using too, however now I came across this question **WHY**? and really required?
May be my question is not up to the level, however can have valid point. | 2016/05/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37331887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/659538/"
] | AngularJS and ASP.NET MVC do perform similar functions. But they go about it in very different ways.
AngularJS does its work on the client-side while ASP.NET does its heavy lifting on the server.
So what?
The difference between these approaches leads to a bunch of differences in implementation and user experience. In general here are some of the Pro's and Con's:
**AngularJS = Client-side execution**
*Pros*
* More responsive page reactions to user changes
* Easier to maintain state: Client can keep things in memory for life of app.
*Cons*
* Longer load time on initial page load.
* May need to write some validation twice, since you should still validate on the server side.
* Dependencies on client-side environment, which can be harder to control than the server. (For example, your code could run slowly because the user's computer is slow.)
**ASP.NET MVC = Server execution**
*Pros*
* Uses well-known POST and GET requests for every page load.
* State is cleared out on every request, which can be more predictable (but this is also a pain.)
* Server environment is more easily controlled than client environment.
* Provides easier tracking and logging of behavior.
* Can usually use same objects and language that back-end layers are written in.
*Cons*
* Requires more network traffic, as every page load must go to server and back. Usually slower for end user.
* Each page load is a complete page load. You'll see the navigation bar flash as the page is reloaded.
* State is cleared out on every request.
There are many other differences but these are the first to spring to mind. | I have done AngularJS with ASP.NET MVC, in fact what I usually do is a combination of Angular + MVC + WebAPI.
I usually have a ASP.NET MVC View for each angular application within my whole webpage.
For example. I have a login MVC view that is served to the browser, but that page has other functionalities in it, like a send feedback form, and other user interactive features that dont require the MVC view to change, for those functionalities, I use angular to send AJAX calls, manipulate the DOM, etc.
I would have another MVC view when the user is logged in, and within that view another angularjs application, here, if needed I could have a ng-route views within the MVC view if neeed.
And another angularJS app in an additional MVC view, etc, etc, you see the point... all the AJAX calls from angular are received by the WebAPI controller in the back end, and the MVC controller just handles the change of MVC views.
It would depend on your specific project if you want do lots of code in razor sintax before serving the MVC view, or if you would leave that to angular at the front end.
My two cents.
Edit:
I guess I never answered the question why use it this way? Because it works great and it allows you the FLEXIBILITY to go heavy on the code on the razor view, or heavy on angular/javascript side >> which I always do =) |
7,153 | Are there any alternative to Livestream and Justin.tv when it comes to streaming game footage from your PC? I currently use Livestream and it is a pretty good service, I'm just wondering if there are other alternatives that I can evaluate before I settle on one.
I'm looking to embed the stream (or multiple streams if I can) in my website so something that would be geared towards that would be greatly appreciated. the result doesn't have to be an online service either, if it is a program to run on your PC and it sends the video to your site somehow that would be fine as well (ex. something like fraps on it streams instead of just recording) | 2010/09/09 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/7153",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/2084/"
] | I never used one by you should definitely check out this site:
<http://www.ustream.tv>
A lot of gamers use this to broadcast their LPs or matches. (e.g: Husky and HDStracraft streamed the HDH Tournament on UStream) | The past year has seen an increase in the popularity of own3D as a broadcast service, particularly it seems amongst Quake broadcasters:
<http://www.own3d.tv/>
The reasons for the switch have included high video quality and a single ad that plays at the start of the stream (with no further interruptions).
I unfortunately can't speak to the ease of use at the production side since I'm not a broadcaster. |
7,153 | Are there any alternative to Livestream and Justin.tv when it comes to streaming game footage from your PC? I currently use Livestream and it is a pretty good service, I'm just wondering if there are other alternatives that I can evaluate before I settle on one.
I'm looking to embed the stream (or multiple streams if I can) in my website so something that would be geared towards that would be greatly appreciated. the result doesn't have to be an online service either, if it is a program to run on your PC and it sends the video to your site somehow that would be fine as well (ex. something like fraps on it streams instead of just recording) | 2010/09/09 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/7153",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/2084/"
] | I never used one by you should definitely check out this site:
<http://www.ustream.tv>
A lot of gamers use this to broadcast their LPs or matches. (e.g: Husky and HDStracraft streamed the HDH Tournament on UStream) | The guys at #quakelive also suggest [SopCast](http://www.sopcast.com/). Basically, it's P2P streaming. |
40,964 | Like many others, temperatures between the two levels of my house are uneven. This is particularly noticeable as spring arrives and the upper floor (above ground) enjoys solar heating (so the heater never runs) and the lower (in ground) floor cools off. Frequently, I manually turn on the furnace fan at the thermostat to circulate air between floors and this basically achieves the goal. But then I forget to turn off the fan override. So, I'm wondering if I can install a second thermostat on the lower floor to automatically control the heater blower only when the temperature falls below a given threshold on the lower floor.
Givens:
1) I have a recent model high efficiency natural gas heater
2) my current Thermostat is Honeywell TH4110D1007 Programmable Thermostat
2) access to the heater on the lower level is trivial
Assumptions:
1) I can add a second thermostat in parallel
2) I would only make some connections from the new thermostat
3) 24v Power is supplied with the Red wire
4) Heat is controlled with the White wire
5) Fan is controlled with the Green wire
6) I'd be using a simple programmable Honeywell thermostat
7) I'd need to manually set similar time periods and temperatures as are set on the existing "master" thermostat.
Note: In my current plan, I am NOT trying to turn the heating on - just the fan.
So, my specific questions:
A. Has anyone ever done this?
B. Would I connect the Fan wire or would I actually cross connect the thermostat's Heat connection (W) to the fan control wire. i.e., to get automatic fan control, would I use the G or W wires to signal/control? Or, am I totally mixed up?
C. Am I risking my entire system for something risky?
D. Is there another better way to achieve the goal? | 2014/04/13 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/40964",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/20991/"
] | In theory this should be easy -- have the second thermostat connect the R and G wires when it calls for cooling, and the fan will run.
Here's one reason it might NOT work, and it's subtle/non-intuitive so I thought it was worth mentioning: Some thermostats short the Y (cooling) and G (fan) wires together whenever they're in cooling mode. They do this so that they can use one relay to turn on both fan and A/C during a call for cooling. (Relays are relatively expensive components.) This shorting happens whenever the thermostat is in "cool" mode, whether it's actually calling for cooling or not. (Although if you set such a thermostat's Fan switch to "ON" instead of "AUTO", the short is removed so as to run the fan only.)
Where there's only one thermostat in the system, this shorting behavior does no harm. But if a second thermostat is added and it calls for "fan", the power will go through the short in the first thermostat and turn on the A/C as well. I have this exact arrangement in the house I just bought, and I cannot run the fan independently from either thermostat -- it will always run the A/C as well. If I unwire either thermostat (or set it to "heat" mode), I can then run the fan without the A/C.
So you might try shorting R (or Rc) and G with your existing setup to make sure that the A/C does not come on as well.
Source: personal observation confirmed by isolated testing on Robertshaw 9600 programmable thermostat | Some thermostats already include a fan "recirculation" mode, which runs the fan for (usually) ⅓ of the time that the thermostat is NOT calling for heating or cooling. This feature is specifically to mix the air in the dwelling so the temperature remains even.
I recommend upgrading your thermostat to one with this feature. |
40,964 | Like many others, temperatures between the two levels of my house are uneven. This is particularly noticeable as spring arrives and the upper floor (above ground) enjoys solar heating (so the heater never runs) and the lower (in ground) floor cools off. Frequently, I manually turn on the furnace fan at the thermostat to circulate air between floors and this basically achieves the goal. But then I forget to turn off the fan override. So, I'm wondering if I can install a second thermostat on the lower floor to automatically control the heater blower only when the temperature falls below a given threshold on the lower floor.
Givens:
1) I have a recent model high efficiency natural gas heater
2) my current Thermostat is Honeywell TH4110D1007 Programmable Thermostat
2) access to the heater on the lower level is trivial
Assumptions:
1) I can add a second thermostat in parallel
2) I would only make some connections from the new thermostat
3) 24v Power is supplied with the Red wire
4) Heat is controlled with the White wire
5) Fan is controlled with the Green wire
6) I'd be using a simple programmable Honeywell thermostat
7) I'd need to manually set similar time periods and temperatures as are set on the existing "master" thermostat.
Note: In my current plan, I am NOT trying to turn the heating on - just the fan.
So, my specific questions:
A. Has anyone ever done this?
B. Would I connect the Fan wire or would I actually cross connect the thermostat's Heat connection (W) to the fan control wire. i.e., to get automatic fan control, would I use the G or W wires to signal/control? Or, am I totally mixed up?
C. Am I risking my entire system for something risky?
D. Is there another better way to achieve the goal? | 2014/04/13 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/40964",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/20991/"
] | In theory this should be easy -- have the second thermostat connect the R and G wires when it calls for cooling, and the fan will run.
Here's one reason it might NOT work, and it's subtle/non-intuitive so I thought it was worth mentioning: Some thermostats short the Y (cooling) and G (fan) wires together whenever they're in cooling mode. They do this so that they can use one relay to turn on both fan and A/C during a call for cooling. (Relays are relatively expensive components.) This shorting happens whenever the thermostat is in "cool" mode, whether it's actually calling for cooling or not. (Although if you set such a thermostat's Fan switch to "ON" instead of "AUTO", the short is removed so as to run the fan only.)
Where there's only one thermostat in the system, this shorting behavior does no harm. But if a second thermostat is added and it calls for "fan", the power will go through the short in the first thermostat and turn on the A/C as well. I have this exact arrangement in the house I just bought, and I cannot run the fan independently from either thermostat -- it will always run the A/C as well. If I unwire either thermostat (or set it to "heat" mode), I can then run the fan without the A/C.
So you might try shorting R (or Rc) and G with your existing setup to make sure that the A/C does not come on as well.
Source: personal observation confirmed by isolated testing on Robertshaw 9600 programmable thermostat | I added a second thermostat to run the fan in heating months. It did start the air conditioner as mentioned in several articles, so I just disconnected the air conditioner at the breaker box and it is working fine. I also jumped the white and green so I could manually turn on the fan, if needed. |
131,152 | My wife is an Thai national with an Thai passport. She holds an spouse/partner leave to remain in the UK residence permit. Does she need to apply for a Schengen visa before travelling to France or any other Schengen countries? And if so does she need to apply for a separate Schengen visas for each planned trip (eg France in May, Austria in July, Malta in September etc) | 2019/01/29 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/131152",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/91382/"
] | Yes, I think she will need Schengen visa. Since you are an EU citizen she has a *right* to get it, and per EU rules the visa will be granted for free and "as quickly as possible".
You can apply for multiple-entry Schengen visa, but it's up to the embassy whether to grant it or not. Some countries are more strict than others. Having approximate travel plans usually helps, especially if it's to the same country. E.g. if you demonstrate intent to travel to France multiple times over next year, French embassy is likely to issue multiple entry visa for a year. You can then use this visa to enter any schengen country.
Now, all of above applies to EU citizens. As you may know UK is stated to exit EU on March 29, which is before you planned trip in May. It's anyone's guess at this point what will happen on March 29 and what rules will be in place after it. | Yes, according to <https://ec.europa.eu/home-affairs/what-we-do/policies/borders-and-visas/visa-policy/apply_for_a_visa_en> Thai nationals require a visa to enter Schengen. The application rules generally require you to apply to the country relating to the main purpose of your trip / where you will spend the most time. |
482,910 | I have a question about design winforms.
Should I use, or not, group boxes in my forms? Is it good to the user? Give me some advantages, or disadvantages?
Some people think thar it's not goog enough to use.
What do you think about it? | 2009/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/482910",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/58251/"
] | One reason is to group RadioButtons.
For every element you add to your UI you should ask yourself a few questions:
* Why do I add the element?
* Why is it located in this position?
* Why is it this color?
* Why am I not using a standard control/color/font/...
* etc.
If you can find good answers for this questions, you can include it. But you should be able to explain why you used it.
So for a group box you might say:
* It saves space on my form because I can prevent a label from repeating.
* It gives a clear seperation of other controls
* Users know it is used to group controls | GroupBox are common pieces of UI found in most Windows application and thus they are commonly recognized by users. I think they're very useful to communicate a user that some controls are related in some way (for example RadioBox or CheckBox), plus since contained elements are seen as it's children you can menage them more easily. |
482,910 | I have a question about design winforms.
Should I use, or not, group boxes in my forms? Is it good to the user? Give me some advantages, or disadvantages?
Some people think thar it's not goog enough to use.
What do you think about it? | 2009/01/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/482910",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/58251/"
] | One reason is to group RadioButtons.
For every element you add to your UI you should ask yourself a few questions:
* Why do I add the element?
* Why is it located in this position?
* Why is it this color?
* Why am I not using a standard control/color/font/...
* etc.
If you can find good answers for this questions, you can include it. But you should be able to explain why you used it.
So for a group box you might say:
* It saves space on my form because I can prevent a label from repeating.
* It gives a clear seperation of other controls
* Users know it is used to group controls | Most applications need some kind of control grouping because they'd look cluttered otherwise.
GroupBox is a good thing because the user is used to it. But likely the user will recognize other grouping mechanisms as well. I like the Krypton Toolkit with its HeaderGroup approach to grouping, because it allows to display more group-related information in the top and bottom header. But if you don't need that, a traditional group box should be fine. On a dialog box, that is. On main windows, it doesn't fit in my oppinion, in contrast to the mentioned HeaderGroup, which easily fits both scenarios. |
370,025 | From what I understand, no-SQL databases differ from SQL databases because they allow the developpers to designe the tables to fit the usage, rather than fitting the model. Which means most of the time that if I have an API which uses Cassandra or Neo4J, Cassandra or Neo4J will have one view per API service.
If this is true, then does this mean that if I have a Spark application that fills my no-SQL database, what team in the project should in theory be responsible for Cassandra or Neo4J ? By responsible I mean: creating the tables, defining the table creation standards, delivering the database and the tables to the client... Should the Spark team take care of that because it is the ine filling the table, hence owning the data, or is it the API team because the schemes are designed to feat their application? I guess they will have to communicate, but who would perform these tasks ? | 2018/04/26 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/370025",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/304228/"
] | The API should completely hide the database. Regardless of SQL vs No-SQL approaches.
That means that:
* The DB should be filled via calls to the API.
* Callers of the API don't have to know what the database implementation is
Which 'team' is responsible really depends on your company makeup. But the design allows the API developers (perhaps this team includes DBAs?) to maintain the DB as part of the API. Rather than the old style of having a central DB used by many applications, where the DB Views and Sprocs were essentially its API | Under my point of view, the scenario you mention is a common situation in companies out there.
An API service might be designed by a Software Engineering Team following certain requirements, having already a database there, so the API, a later solution to make use of this data.
It could be also designed at the same time the API service was built.
For big projects, the database itself has a database guy (or team) which is expert in the database technology, highly aware of tricky technical details, enough to make design decisions or provide a robust, optimal database system.
If we are talking about data science databases, mainly fill from calculations made on data (the *spark* for example), maybe the team who knows best what to do with the database is the data engineering/data science team, and the API team, this time, responsible of creating business logic to *"help"* on any kind of query, post-process or complex reporting from this database.
There can be also the case where the database is more like a collection of object oriented registers, to be created/read/updated/deleted, by for example a REST approach to the API service, then, it is more likely that the API team manages completely the database.
I agree with @Ewan that it *depends on your company makeup*, how the system got built, who designed what, and how the experts are aligned within the teams. |
51,878 | There are some compact lithium-ion powered devices on the market that claim that they can start cars and trucks. Youtube is full of videos with reviews and people actually starting cars with them. And thousands of positive reviews on Amazon... Normally I'd buy one immediately, but given what I know about rechargeable lithium batteries, I just can't believe they are able to start cars.
Someone did a teardown of one here:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VlRqu-Iwd0g>
They advertise it as a "1000A" jump starter. Some are even rated for 4000A!
In the video you can clearly see the battery is a rechargeable pouch lithium-ion 12Wh battery. Probably 3 cells in series with 2Ah capacity. How can a 3S lithium-ion battery do even a pulse discharge of 100A, let alone 1000A ? The highest discharge cell I've seen on the market gives like 40A. No car will start with 40A. It just doesn't sound possible. But somehow thousands of people can start cars with it. Am I missing something here? Did they patent some miracle technology? How is this possible?
---
Another video, where somebody did a amp draw test:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mwkIRDCfLU>
You can see on the clamp meter that the device puts out 350A for 10 seconds, and it stays above 8V during this time, so I guess it is able to start a car if the video is real. Around 40 times on a single charge. But I'm still puzzled about how can they do this with current li-ion technology?! How can such a small battery output 350A for 10 secs? The 1000A-4000A ratings I figured are part of the usual marketing bs, but 350A is still a lot for such a small li-ion battery.
Another thing I noticed here: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_LurYulow0Y>
The internal battery has printed on it 11.V, 120C, 8000 mAh. 120C?? That's just crazy. Almost 1000A. I'm not aware of any LiPo with anything close to those discharge rates. If anyone knows one please post a link to the official datasheet with such specs. | 2018/02/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/51878",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/35662/"
] | I also doubt the numbers they claim on the package but the real question is ... can you start a truck with it? Yes you can!
What you seem to forget is that the car or truck you connect this battery to has its own battery which can handle much higher current. As soon as you connect the jump starter pack it will start charging the trucks battery. If the charge current is 10A you you might already have transferred enough energy after 30 seconds (there is enough to give 100A for 3 seconds from the trucks battery now, add to that another 20-30A from the jump starter and there you go). | Firstly: Of course the batteries can supply current far beyond the datasheet recommended levels. However, it may be dangerous (risk of fire or explosion) if the condition exists for too long.
Reference to for example an [18650](https://www.powerstream.com/p/LG%2018650HE2%20Technical%20Information.pdf) battery shows it's capable of 35+ A for a considerable period of time.
Reduce the period of time and tolerate a terminal voltage drop and you can obviously draw more current as shown below:
From [this](https://www.powerstream.com/18650-high-discharge-rate.htm) web site.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1dfA5.png)
Secondly: The starter motor in a car does not draw hundreds of amps continuously.
Like any motor with a load, it initially draws enough energy to get the engine rotating, but as it overcomes the inertia, the current will drop.
It may take only a few seconds (especially with fuel injection) to start a modern car engine and the critical parameter is that the terminal voltage should not drop below that required to run the electrics.
Clearly drawing very large pulses of current for longer period of time will shorten the life of the Li-Ion cells. You also need good mechanical connecting pressure and wire sizes to carry a large current.
It's doubtful that you'd need more than 200-300 A peak to start most modern vehicles, so decent size Li-Ion batteries should be viable. |
51,878 | There are some compact lithium-ion powered devices on the market that claim that they can start cars and trucks. Youtube is full of videos with reviews and people actually starting cars with them. And thousands of positive reviews on Amazon... Normally I'd buy one immediately, but given what I know about rechargeable lithium batteries, I just can't believe they are able to start cars.
Someone did a teardown of one here:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VlRqu-Iwd0g>
They advertise it as a "1000A" jump starter. Some are even rated for 4000A!
In the video you can clearly see the battery is a rechargeable pouch lithium-ion 12Wh battery. Probably 3 cells in series with 2Ah capacity. How can a 3S lithium-ion battery do even a pulse discharge of 100A, let alone 1000A ? The highest discharge cell I've seen on the market gives like 40A. No car will start with 40A. It just doesn't sound possible. But somehow thousands of people can start cars with it. Am I missing something here? Did they patent some miracle technology? How is this possible?
---
Another video, where somebody did a amp draw test:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mwkIRDCfLU>
You can see on the clamp meter that the device puts out 350A for 10 seconds, and it stays above 8V during this time, so I guess it is able to start a car if the video is real. Around 40 times on a single charge. But I'm still puzzled about how can they do this with current li-ion technology?! How can such a small battery output 350A for 10 secs? The 1000A-4000A ratings I figured are part of the usual marketing bs, but 350A is still a lot for such a small li-ion battery.
Another thing I noticed here: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_LurYulow0Y>
The internal battery has printed on it 11.V, 120C, 8000 mAh. 120C?? That's just crazy. Almost 1000A. I'm not aware of any LiPo with anything close to those discharge rates. If anyone knows one please post a link to the official datasheet with such specs. | 2018/02/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/51878",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/35662/"
] | **Yes, Lithium Ion batteries are capable of delivering the power required to turn over an engine**. The thing I am most experienced with is the kind of batteries you put in remote controlled devices, so I will use those for reference. For all intents and purposes they are basically a consumer-friendly version of the bare cells you will find in the devices you are talking about.
How much power (simplify this down to current, since current is a function of the power, voltage and resistance, and for all intents and purposes the voltage and resistance is *relatively* constant) a lithium ion battery can deliver is a function of how much surface area the electrodes within the battery have. How much voltage the battery has is a function of how many cells it has.
Because more surface area = effectively higher current capabilities, a larger battery pack generally means a pack that can deliver higher current. The batteries discharge rate is measured as a function of its capacity as a results of this. A battery that is 10000mAh (10Ah) and has a 15C constant discharge rating - C standing for the capacity of the pack - means that the battery can be discharged constantly at 15 x 10A = 150A. In other words, you can [buy a battery pack capable of delivery 150A at 14.8v off the shelf today from hobbyking](https://hobbyking.com/en_us/turnigy-graphene-professional-10000mah-4s-15c-lipo-pack-w-xt90.html "buy a battery pack capable of delivery 150A at 14.8v off the shelf today") (I can't suggest hooking one of the directly up to you car's battery, though).
To add to this, the devices you are talking about aren't *just* a battery pack on it's own, they also include all sorts of charge circuitry and whatever else the manufacturer has put in them... as a result of this I would say it's safe to hazard a guess they aren't *just* battery packs like what I have described here (Even though we have come to the conclusion a battery pack on its own can deliver the power required for to turn over a reasonably sized modern engine), I would say they probably have a small capacitor bank alongside the battery. Basically, capacitors can deliver significantly higher sustained current, but do not have much capacity. Think of a capacitor as a bucket, the cable from the battery to the capacitor as a hose, and the battery as a 50 gallon drum. You can only fill up the bucket as fast as the water moves through the hose, but once the bucket is full you can dump the *entire bucket at once* on whatever it is you need. Because a starter only needs it's peak current for a very short time, you could use a capacitor bank as a buffer from the battery to the starter to turn over the motor with very high currents.
**In short, a battery alone could turn over an engine relatively easily, but a battery alongside a bank of capacitors would do it without breaking a sweat.** Throw in some circuitry for over-current protection and you can make the whole thing work perfectly with little worry of it going wrong and blowing up in your face.
With regards to asking for a similar battery online... its possible the manufacturer of the device is sourcing directly from a battery manufacturer to their desired specifications. This is a pretty heavy duty pack that I can't imagine has much mass-market appeal due to what would be incredibly rapid discharge times running at its rated load... You can find 2S 8000mAh 60C lipos online, put two of these parallel and you effectively have a 4S 8000mAh 120C lipo... this is 1S over the one in the video but you get the idea. You could maybe team up a 1S and a 2S but i'd be worried of getting cells that are too different.. a least with 2 identical pack's you have more chance of them being near identical.
**It's also possible that the 120C rating is the pack 'burst' rating, not its continuous current rating.** this is more likely as it's *very* easy to find 3S 60C 8000mAh packs with a burst rating of up to 120C, the manufacturer might be boasting the burst rating for this specific product as that is the bit that will matter with this, since the peak load with be short lived.
If you want to see how high continuous load you can go this route, there's also products [like this 5600mAh, 90C pack](https://hobbyking.com/en_us/graphene-5600mah-2s2p-hardcase-w-5mm-female-bullet-connector.html), thats 504A continuous current. At that rate you should be able to deliver 504A for ~30 seconds before the pack is discharged. that's a lot better than the 350A for 10 seconds you are talking about in your question and again, this is just from hobbyist gear off the shelf. The manufacturer of these devices probably has a much wider range of suppliers to choose from, I can't tell if they are the producer of the battery pack in the device (since it's branded the same as the actual device) or if they are re-branding the packs, but it only strengthens the argument that these are packs produced specifically for this purpose. | I also doubt the numbers they claim on the package but the real question is ... can you start a truck with it? Yes you can!
What you seem to forget is that the car or truck you connect this battery to has its own battery which can handle much higher current. As soon as you connect the jump starter pack it will start charging the trucks battery. If the charge current is 10A you you might already have transferred enough energy after 30 seconds (there is enough to give 100A for 3 seconds from the trucks battery now, add to that another 20-30A from the jump starter and there you go). |
51,878 | There are some compact lithium-ion powered devices on the market that claim that they can start cars and trucks. Youtube is full of videos with reviews and people actually starting cars with them. And thousands of positive reviews on Amazon... Normally I'd buy one immediately, but given what I know about rechargeable lithium batteries, I just can't believe they are able to start cars.
Someone did a teardown of one here:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VlRqu-Iwd0g>
They advertise it as a "1000A" jump starter. Some are even rated for 4000A!
In the video you can clearly see the battery is a rechargeable pouch lithium-ion 12Wh battery. Probably 3 cells in series with 2Ah capacity. How can a 3S lithium-ion battery do even a pulse discharge of 100A, let alone 1000A ? The highest discharge cell I've seen on the market gives like 40A. No car will start with 40A. It just doesn't sound possible. But somehow thousands of people can start cars with it. Am I missing something here? Did they patent some miracle technology? How is this possible?
---
Another video, where somebody did a amp draw test:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mwkIRDCfLU>
You can see on the clamp meter that the device puts out 350A for 10 seconds, and it stays above 8V during this time, so I guess it is able to start a car if the video is real. Around 40 times on a single charge. But I'm still puzzled about how can they do this with current li-ion technology?! How can such a small battery output 350A for 10 secs? The 1000A-4000A ratings I figured are part of the usual marketing bs, but 350A is still a lot for such a small li-ion battery.
Another thing I noticed here: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_LurYulow0Y>
The internal battery has printed on it 11.V, 120C, 8000 mAh. 120C?? That's just crazy. Almost 1000A. I'm not aware of any LiPo with anything close to those discharge rates. If anyone knows one please post a link to the official datasheet with such specs. | 2018/02/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/51878",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/35662/"
] | I also doubt the numbers they claim on the package but the real question is ... can you start a truck with it? Yes you can!
What you seem to forget is that the car or truck you connect this battery to has its own battery which can handle much higher current. As soon as you connect the jump starter pack it will start charging the trucks battery. If the charge current is 10A you you might already have transferred enough energy after 30 seconds (there is enough to give 100A for 3 seconds from the trucks battery now, add to that another 20-30A from the jump starter and there you go). | I purchased this [jump starter](https://no.co/gb150) when the batteries died in my 6.7L Cummins and wanted to get past the cold snap before buying new batteries. It's rated at 3000A and it absolutely delivers on starting current - it had no issue starting my truck around 30 degrees. |
51,878 | There are some compact lithium-ion powered devices on the market that claim that they can start cars and trucks. Youtube is full of videos with reviews and people actually starting cars with them. And thousands of positive reviews on Amazon... Normally I'd buy one immediately, but given what I know about rechargeable lithium batteries, I just can't believe they are able to start cars.
Someone did a teardown of one here:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VlRqu-Iwd0g>
They advertise it as a "1000A" jump starter. Some are even rated for 4000A!
In the video you can clearly see the battery is a rechargeable pouch lithium-ion 12Wh battery. Probably 3 cells in series with 2Ah capacity. How can a 3S lithium-ion battery do even a pulse discharge of 100A, let alone 1000A ? The highest discharge cell I've seen on the market gives like 40A. No car will start with 40A. It just doesn't sound possible. But somehow thousands of people can start cars with it. Am I missing something here? Did they patent some miracle technology? How is this possible?
---
Another video, where somebody did a amp draw test:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mwkIRDCfLU>
You can see on the clamp meter that the device puts out 350A for 10 seconds, and it stays above 8V during this time, so I guess it is able to start a car if the video is real. Around 40 times on a single charge. But I'm still puzzled about how can they do this with current li-ion technology?! How can such a small battery output 350A for 10 secs? The 1000A-4000A ratings I figured are part of the usual marketing bs, but 350A is still a lot for such a small li-ion battery.
Another thing I noticed here: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_LurYulow0Y>
The internal battery has printed on it 11.V, 120C, 8000 mAh. 120C?? That's just crazy. Almost 1000A. I'm not aware of any LiPo with anything close to those discharge rates. If anyone knows one please post a link to the official datasheet with such specs. | 2018/02/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/51878",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/35662/"
] | **Yes, Lithium Ion batteries are capable of delivering the power required to turn over an engine**. The thing I am most experienced with is the kind of batteries you put in remote controlled devices, so I will use those for reference. For all intents and purposes they are basically a consumer-friendly version of the bare cells you will find in the devices you are talking about.
How much power (simplify this down to current, since current is a function of the power, voltage and resistance, and for all intents and purposes the voltage and resistance is *relatively* constant) a lithium ion battery can deliver is a function of how much surface area the electrodes within the battery have. How much voltage the battery has is a function of how many cells it has.
Because more surface area = effectively higher current capabilities, a larger battery pack generally means a pack that can deliver higher current. The batteries discharge rate is measured as a function of its capacity as a results of this. A battery that is 10000mAh (10Ah) and has a 15C constant discharge rating - C standing for the capacity of the pack - means that the battery can be discharged constantly at 15 x 10A = 150A. In other words, you can [buy a battery pack capable of delivery 150A at 14.8v off the shelf today from hobbyking](https://hobbyking.com/en_us/turnigy-graphene-professional-10000mah-4s-15c-lipo-pack-w-xt90.html "buy a battery pack capable of delivery 150A at 14.8v off the shelf today") (I can't suggest hooking one of the directly up to you car's battery, though).
To add to this, the devices you are talking about aren't *just* a battery pack on it's own, they also include all sorts of charge circuitry and whatever else the manufacturer has put in them... as a result of this I would say it's safe to hazard a guess they aren't *just* battery packs like what I have described here (Even though we have come to the conclusion a battery pack on its own can deliver the power required for to turn over a reasonably sized modern engine), I would say they probably have a small capacitor bank alongside the battery. Basically, capacitors can deliver significantly higher sustained current, but do not have much capacity. Think of a capacitor as a bucket, the cable from the battery to the capacitor as a hose, and the battery as a 50 gallon drum. You can only fill up the bucket as fast as the water moves through the hose, but once the bucket is full you can dump the *entire bucket at once* on whatever it is you need. Because a starter only needs it's peak current for a very short time, you could use a capacitor bank as a buffer from the battery to the starter to turn over the motor with very high currents.
**In short, a battery alone could turn over an engine relatively easily, but a battery alongside a bank of capacitors would do it without breaking a sweat.** Throw in some circuitry for over-current protection and you can make the whole thing work perfectly with little worry of it going wrong and blowing up in your face.
With regards to asking for a similar battery online... its possible the manufacturer of the device is sourcing directly from a battery manufacturer to their desired specifications. This is a pretty heavy duty pack that I can't imagine has much mass-market appeal due to what would be incredibly rapid discharge times running at its rated load... You can find 2S 8000mAh 60C lipos online, put two of these parallel and you effectively have a 4S 8000mAh 120C lipo... this is 1S over the one in the video but you get the idea. You could maybe team up a 1S and a 2S but i'd be worried of getting cells that are too different.. a least with 2 identical pack's you have more chance of them being near identical.
**It's also possible that the 120C rating is the pack 'burst' rating, not its continuous current rating.** this is more likely as it's *very* easy to find 3S 60C 8000mAh packs with a burst rating of up to 120C, the manufacturer might be boasting the burst rating for this specific product as that is the bit that will matter with this, since the peak load with be short lived.
If you want to see how high continuous load you can go this route, there's also products [like this 5600mAh, 90C pack](https://hobbyking.com/en_us/graphene-5600mah-2s2p-hardcase-w-5mm-female-bullet-connector.html), thats 504A continuous current. At that rate you should be able to deliver 504A for ~30 seconds before the pack is discharged. that's a lot better than the 350A for 10 seconds you are talking about in your question and again, this is just from hobbyist gear off the shelf. The manufacturer of these devices probably has a much wider range of suppliers to choose from, I can't tell if they are the producer of the battery pack in the device (since it's branded the same as the actual device) or if they are re-branding the packs, but it only strengthens the argument that these are packs produced specifically for this purpose. | Firstly: Of course the batteries can supply current far beyond the datasheet recommended levels. However, it may be dangerous (risk of fire or explosion) if the condition exists for too long.
Reference to for example an [18650](https://www.powerstream.com/p/LG%2018650HE2%20Technical%20Information.pdf) battery shows it's capable of 35+ A for a considerable period of time.
Reduce the period of time and tolerate a terminal voltage drop and you can obviously draw more current as shown below:
From [this](https://www.powerstream.com/18650-high-discharge-rate.htm) web site.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1dfA5.png)
Secondly: The starter motor in a car does not draw hundreds of amps continuously.
Like any motor with a load, it initially draws enough energy to get the engine rotating, but as it overcomes the inertia, the current will drop.
It may take only a few seconds (especially with fuel injection) to start a modern car engine and the critical parameter is that the terminal voltage should not drop below that required to run the electrics.
Clearly drawing very large pulses of current for longer period of time will shorten the life of the Li-Ion cells. You also need good mechanical connecting pressure and wire sizes to carry a large current.
It's doubtful that you'd need more than 200-300 A peak to start most modern vehicles, so decent size Li-Ion batteries should be viable. |
51,878 | There are some compact lithium-ion powered devices on the market that claim that they can start cars and trucks. Youtube is full of videos with reviews and people actually starting cars with them. And thousands of positive reviews on Amazon... Normally I'd buy one immediately, but given what I know about rechargeable lithium batteries, I just can't believe they are able to start cars.
Someone did a teardown of one here:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VlRqu-Iwd0g>
They advertise it as a "1000A" jump starter. Some are even rated for 4000A!
In the video you can clearly see the battery is a rechargeable pouch lithium-ion 12Wh battery. Probably 3 cells in series with 2Ah capacity. How can a 3S lithium-ion battery do even a pulse discharge of 100A, let alone 1000A ? The highest discharge cell I've seen on the market gives like 40A. No car will start with 40A. It just doesn't sound possible. But somehow thousands of people can start cars with it. Am I missing something here? Did they patent some miracle technology? How is this possible?
---
Another video, where somebody did a amp draw test:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mwkIRDCfLU>
You can see on the clamp meter that the device puts out 350A for 10 seconds, and it stays above 8V during this time, so I guess it is able to start a car if the video is real. Around 40 times on a single charge. But I'm still puzzled about how can they do this with current li-ion technology?! How can such a small battery output 350A for 10 secs? The 1000A-4000A ratings I figured are part of the usual marketing bs, but 350A is still a lot for such a small li-ion battery.
Another thing I noticed here: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_LurYulow0Y>
The internal battery has printed on it 11.V, 120C, 8000 mAh. 120C?? That's just crazy. Almost 1000A. I'm not aware of any LiPo with anything close to those discharge rates. If anyone knows one please post a link to the official datasheet with such specs. | 2018/02/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/51878",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/35662/"
] | Firstly: Of course the batteries can supply current far beyond the datasheet recommended levels. However, it may be dangerous (risk of fire or explosion) if the condition exists for too long.
Reference to for example an [18650](https://www.powerstream.com/p/LG%2018650HE2%20Technical%20Information.pdf) battery shows it's capable of 35+ A for a considerable period of time.
Reduce the period of time and tolerate a terminal voltage drop and you can obviously draw more current as shown below:
From [this](https://www.powerstream.com/18650-high-discharge-rate.htm) web site.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1dfA5.png)
Secondly: The starter motor in a car does not draw hundreds of amps continuously.
Like any motor with a load, it initially draws enough energy to get the engine rotating, but as it overcomes the inertia, the current will drop.
It may take only a few seconds (especially with fuel injection) to start a modern car engine and the critical parameter is that the terminal voltage should not drop below that required to run the electrics.
Clearly drawing very large pulses of current for longer period of time will shorten the life of the Li-Ion cells. You also need good mechanical connecting pressure and wire sizes to carry a large current.
It's doubtful that you'd need more than 200-300 A peak to start most modern vehicles, so decent size Li-Ion batteries should be viable. | I purchased this [jump starter](https://no.co/gb150) when the batteries died in my 6.7L Cummins and wanted to get past the cold snap before buying new batteries. It's rated at 3000A and it absolutely delivers on starting current - it had no issue starting my truck around 30 degrees. |
51,878 | There are some compact lithium-ion powered devices on the market that claim that they can start cars and trucks. Youtube is full of videos with reviews and people actually starting cars with them. And thousands of positive reviews on Amazon... Normally I'd buy one immediately, but given what I know about rechargeable lithium batteries, I just can't believe they are able to start cars.
Someone did a teardown of one here:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VlRqu-Iwd0g>
They advertise it as a "1000A" jump starter. Some are even rated for 4000A!
In the video you can clearly see the battery is a rechargeable pouch lithium-ion 12Wh battery. Probably 3 cells in series with 2Ah capacity. How can a 3S lithium-ion battery do even a pulse discharge of 100A, let alone 1000A ? The highest discharge cell I've seen on the market gives like 40A. No car will start with 40A. It just doesn't sound possible. But somehow thousands of people can start cars with it. Am I missing something here? Did they patent some miracle technology? How is this possible?
---
Another video, where somebody did a amp draw test:
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mwkIRDCfLU>
You can see on the clamp meter that the device puts out 350A for 10 seconds, and it stays above 8V during this time, so I guess it is able to start a car if the video is real. Around 40 times on a single charge. But I'm still puzzled about how can they do this with current li-ion technology?! How can such a small battery output 350A for 10 secs? The 1000A-4000A ratings I figured are part of the usual marketing bs, but 350A is still a lot for such a small li-ion battery.
Another thing I noticed here: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_LurYulow0Y>
The internal battery has printed on it 11.V, 120C, 8000 mAh. 120C?? That's just crazy. Almost 1000A. I'm not aware of any LiPo with anything close to those discharge rates. If anyone knows one please post a link to the official datasheet with such specs. | 2018/02/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/51878",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/35662/"
] | **Yes, Lithium Ion batteries are capable of delivering the power required to turn over an engine**. The thing I am most experienced with is the kind of batteries you put in remote controlled devices, so I will use those for reference. For all intents and purposes they are basically a consumer-friendly version of the bare cells you will find in the devices you are talking about.
How much power (simplify this down to current, since current is a function of the power, voltage and resistance, and for all intents and purposes the voltage and resistance is *relatively* constant) a lithium ion battery can deliver is a function of how much surface area the electrodes within the battery have. How much voltage the battery has is a function of how many cells it has.
Because more surface area = effectively higher current capabilities, a larger battery pack generally means a pack that can deliver higher current. The batteries discharge rate is measured as a function of its capacity as a results of this. A battery that is 10000mAh (10Ah) and has a 15C constant discharge rating - C standing for the capacity of the pack - means that the battery can be discharged constantly at 15 x 10A = 150A. In other words, you can [buy a battery pack capable of delivery 150A at 14.8v off the shelf today from hobbyking](https://hobbyking.com/en_us/turnigy-graphene-professional-10000mah-4s-15c-lipo-pack-w-xt90.html "buy a battery pack capable of delivery 150A at 14.8v off the shelf today") (I can't suggest hooking one of the directly up to you car's battery, though).
To add to this, the devices you are talking about aren't *just* a battery pack on it's own, they also include all sorts of charge circuitry and whatever else the manufacturer has put in them... as a result of this I would say it's safe to hazard a guess they aren't *just* battery packs like what I have described here (Even though we have come to the conclusion a battery pack on its own can deliver the power required for to turn over a reasonably sized modern engine), I would say they probably have a small capacitor bank alongside the battery. Basically, capacitors can deliver significantly higher sustained current, but do not have much capacity. Think of a capacitor as a bucket, the cable from the battery to the capacitor as a hose, and the battery as a 50 gallon drum. You can only fill up the bucket as fast as the water moves through the hose, but once the bucket is full you can dump the *entire bucket at once* on whatever it is you need. Because a starter only needs it's peak current for a very short time, you could use a capacitor bank as a buffer from the battery to the starter to turn over the motor with very high currents.
**In short, a battery alone could turn over an engine relatively easily, but a battery alongside a bank of capacitors would do it without breaking a sweat.** Throw in some circuitry for over-current protection and you can make the whole thing work perfectly with little worry of it going wrong and blowing up in your face.
With regards to asking for a similar battery online... its possible the manufacturer of the device is sourcing directly from a battery manufacturer to their desired specifications. This is a pretty heavy duty pack that I can't imagine has much mass-market appeal due to what would be incredibly rapid discharge times running at its rated load... You can find 2S 8000mAh 60C lipos online, put two of these parallel and you effectively have a 4S 8000mAh 120C lipo... this is 1S over the one in the video but you get the idea. You could maybe team up a 1S and a 2S but i'd be worried of getting cells that are too different.. a least with 2 identical pack's you have more chance of them being near identical.
**It's also possible that the 120C rating is the pack 'burst' rating, not its continuous current rating.** this is more likely as it's *very* easy to find 3S 60C 8000mAh packs with a burst rating of up to 120C, the manufacturer might be boasting the burst rating for this specific product as that is the bit that will matter with this, since the peak load with be short lived.
If you want to see how high continuous load you can go this route, there's also products [like this 5600mAh, 90C pack](https://hobbyking.com/en_us/graphene-5600mah-2s2p-hardcase-w-5mm-female-bullet-connector.html), thats 504A continuous current. At that rate you should be able to deliver 504A for ~30 seconds before the pack is discharged. that's a lot better than the 350A for 10 seconds you are talking about in your question and again, this is just from hobbyist gear off the shelf. The manufacturer of these devices probably has a much wider range of suppliers to choose from, I can't tell if they are the producer of the battery pack in the device (since it's branded the same as the actual device) or if they are re-branding the packs, but it only strengthens the argument that these are packs produced specifically for this purpose. | I purchased this [jump starter](https://no.co/gb150) when the batteries died in my 6.7L Cummins and wanted to get past the cold snap before buying new batteries. It's rated at 3000A and it absolutely delivers on starting current - it had no issue starting my truck around 30 degrees. |
12,640 | I want to create a contribution page for organizations specifically. So, I create a profile with the "Organization Name" field. This makes the profile type Organization (as opposed to Individual). When setting up my contribution page I'm unable to select my Organization Type Profile from the drop-down menu (Individual Type Profiles work fine).
I have modified the "On Behalf Of Organization" profile to include the fields I desire and selected the [Allow individuals to contribute and / or signup for membership on behalf of an organization?] check-box. Other than the user having to check a box to see Organization fields, this works fine.
The problem now is that I can't setup the form to be a "cid=0" URL form, which gives the user the option to lookup a contact record and have the fields populate upon selection. The lookup works on the Organization form, but when I click the organization I want CiviCRM doesn't populate the fields and I get this error: "Error Mandatory key(s) missing from params array: profile\_id"
The web form I have put together for Individuals works great with a "cid=0" URL for lookup and auto-populate. Why can't a form with organization fields work the same? | 2016/06/27 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/12640",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/3449/"
] | You kind of have two questions here: the second being an issue you ran across after addressing the first.
To start with, yes, the main profiles on a contribution form are limited to contribution fields, individual fields, and fields for all contact types.
The presumption is that only individuals have fingers to fill out a form; even if the form is an organization's membership or donation, it's really an individual *acting on behalf of* the organization. However, you already solved this: you started using the "on behalf of organization" options.
I know the feature you describe with the `cid=0` for filling the donation form as someone else, but that box should only allow you to select individuals, since it's filling the parts of the form that are individual-specific. Meanwhile, it wouldn't necessarily make sense to fill the organization fields, because an individual may have any number of relationships with organizations.
If someone were to extend CiviCRM to add a second box for selecting the organization that is related to the individual making the contribution, that would be a nice feature. However, it doesn't do it at the moment. | We use Drupal CiviCRM Webform to achieve this functionality. It allows us to record a contribution for an organization. In any case, we are not able to send the receipt with the information of the organization because the same reason, we can't embed a profile with organization fields.
>
> Cannot add or update profile field type Contribution with combination
> of Activity or Membership or Participant or Household or Organization
>
>
>
Have you found any solution in this regard? Does anyone know if it is an intentional (and the reasons) or an undeveloped functionality? |
8,359,532 | I have a collection of documents that I'm attempting to parse. Like HTML, they are fairly well structured and have a complex syntax/grammar. Also like HTML, many of the documents do not fully adhere to the desired syntax.
My question is, what general strategies do browsers and HTML/XML parsing libraries use when parsing documents that don't strictly follow the right syntax? They seem to deal with misplaced or missing tags well. And I'm sure there are other situations, such as misspelled tags, incorrect attributes, etc. that must be dealt with and not simply ignored. | 2011/12/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8359532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/145988/"
] | Keeping it short:
* **in XML** any error in code terminates the parsing process - so called "*Draconian Error Handling*"
* **in XHTML** just as in any XML-based doc - error equals termination
* **in HTML** - the browser tries to render as much, as it can | BEHOLD:
[The HTML5 Parsing Algorithm](http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/parsing.html) |
8,359,532 | I have a collection of documents that I'm attempting to parse. Like HTML, they are fairly well structured and have a complex syntax/grammar. Also like HTML, many of the documents do not fully adhere to the desired syntax.
My question is, what general strategies do browsers and HTML/XML parsing libraries use when parsing documents that don't strictly follow the right syntax? They seem to deal with misplaced or missing tags well. And I'm sure there are other situations, such as misspelled tags, incorrect attributes, etc. that must be dealt with and not simply ignored. | 2011/12/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8359532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/145988/"
] | Malformed or bad HTML is referred to as "tag soup". Browsers have to deal with this and do so in different ways based on the browser (IE, Firefox, Chrome, etc.), but here is a good article on tag soup and some general strategies:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tag_soup> | BEHOLD:
[The HTML5 Parsing Algorithm](http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/parsing.html) |
8,359,532 | I have a collection of documents that I'm attempting to parse. Like HTML, they are fairly well structured and have a complex syntax/grammar. Also like HTML, many of the documents do not fully adhere to the desired syntax.
My question is, what general strategies do browsers and HTML/XML parsing libraries use when parsing documents that don't strictly follow the right syntax? They seem to deal with misplaced or missing tags well. And I'm sure there are other situations, such as misspelled tags, incorrect attributes, etc. that must be dealt with and not simply ignored. | 2011/12/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8359532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/145988/"
] | Malformed or bad HTML is referred to as "tag soup". Browsers have to deal with this and do so in different ways based on the browser (IE, Firefox, Chrome, etc.), but here is a good article on tag soup and some general strategies:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tag_soup> | Keeping it short:
* **in XML** any error in code terminates the parsing process - so called "*Draconian Error Handling*"
* **in XHTML** just as in any XML-based doc - error equals termination
* **in HTML** - the browser tries to render as much, as it can |
214,907 | I have two different shapefiles formed by polygons and I need to calculate the max distance of one polygon to the perimeter of the polygon of the other file. I need the output in meters!
The first shapefile contains buildings; the second one contains properties. I need to know the **MAXIMUM** distance between the PERIMETER of the building to the end of the property:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H6kKI.png)
---
I was thinking of some possible solutions, but I have no idea if it make sense:
1. Maybe there is a way to assign to each building the property and then calculate the max distance?
2. Maybe I can transform the properties from polygons to lines, maybe this make the computation easier? | 2016/10/20 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/214907",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/84105/"
] | Analytically speaking, you could run through a series of steps that would give you a decent estimate for the max distance. However, keep in mind that because it is difficult to determine what actually defines the "Max" distance from the property line to the building perimeter, any analytical solution would most likely suffer from inaccuracies to a certain degree. Not a script solution provided, but below I've listed an algorithm that should give decent results.
Foreach "property line" polygon:
1.) Using the [densify](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/editing-toolbox/densify.htm) tool. Add a substantial amount of vertices based on an interval to the property line polygon. Make sure the interval is quite small in order to achieve a smaller margin of error for the final result.
2.) Convert vertices to points for the property line.
3.) Iterate through the new points and draw a new line feature between each point and the centroid of the building perimeter polygon.
4.) Use the [erase](http://pro.arcgis.com/en/pro-app/tool-reference/analysis/erase.htm) tool and erase the building perimeter polygon from the new line FC.
5.) Choose the longest line left and get it's distance.
6.) Populate a new field in the building perimeter FC with the the "Max Distance".
Again, I must re-iterate, this is not a perfect solution and will have a margin of error, but should in theory, be pretty close, if you use a small interval for the densify tool. If there are buildings who's shapes "fold" back in on themselves there is potential for lines being generated that do not touch the edge of the property outline. Probably a good idea to filter any out that meet this criteria.
FYI, This algorithm assumes that "Maximum Distance" is defined as the distance between any given point along the property line and where it intersects the building perimeter given a bearing of the centroid of the building. | I think the [near table tool](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/analysis-toolbox/generate-near-table.htm) would work for what you want but it does require a **ArcGIS for Desktop Advanced Licence**.
Summary from ArcGIS help:
>
> Calculates distances and other proximity information between features in one or more feature class or layer. Unlike the Near tool, which modifies the input, Generate Near Table writes results to a new stand-alone table and supports finding more than one near feature.
>
>
> |
214,907 | I have two different shapefiles formed by polygons and I need to calculate the max distance of one polygon to the perimeter of the polygon of the other file. I need the output in meters!
The first shapefile contains buildings; the second one contains properties. I need to know the **MAXIMUM** distance between the PERIMETER of the building to the end of the property:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H6kKI.png)
---
I was thinking of some possible solutions, but I have no idea if it make sense:
1. Maybe there is a way to assign to each building the property and then calculate the max distance?
2. Maybe I can transform the properties from polygons to lines, maybe this make the computation easier? | 2016/10/20 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/214907",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/84105/"
] | Given my understanding of your scenario I think the following routine may be a helpful avenue to explore. Not sure if you are open to a scripting option (scripting may end up being necessary though) but for this answer I am focusing on just general routines that you could follow by manually running ArcMap tools and manipulating tables with field calculator operations.
**Set up Unique IDs**
Make sure the properties and buildings feature classes have UIDs set so that you can conduct joins and/or reference their original state after doing the procedures below.
**Conduct a spatial join**
Use the [Spatial Join Tool](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/analysis-toolbox/spatial-join.htm) with:
* Target: Properties FC
* Join: Buildings
* Join Operation: One to Many
* Match Option: Intersect
This will give you a new FC with the geometry of your properties but now you will have a crosswalk table between properties IDs and building IDs that intersect. This will allow you to handle buildings that fall completely within a property but also those that span multiple properties (as shown in your screenshot).
**Convert to vertices**
Use the [Feature Vertices to Points Tool](https://pro.arcgis.com/en/pro-app/tool-reference/data-management/feature-vertices-to-points.htm) to convert both the properties and buildings FC into point FCs based on their vertices.
**Generate Near Table**
Use the [Generate Near Table Tool](http://resources.arcgis.com/en/help/main/10.2/index.html#//00080000001n000000) and be sure to un-check the "Find only closest" option. Use the vertices point FC version of the properties and buildings as inputs. This will produce a table of ALL distances, near and far from all points. This may end up being very processor intensive though since your data set seems fairly large. You may need to set a "Search Radius". I would recommend something a bit larger than your largest property perimeter.
**Join Near Table to Spatial Join FC**
This is where things get a bit tricky. The near table should have a way to join the distances back to the buidlings and properties FCs but it will likely use the FID or OID to do so, not the UID that you created in the first step. May need to play around with this concept to figure out how best to join these features. The ultimate goal though would be to have those distance values joined to the spatial join FC from the first step (the crosswalk one that has both UIDs from buildings and properties).
**Dissolve/Rectify**
Again, this step is still a bit theoretical and will require some implemntation testing depedning on what your data looks like. The general idea though is that you should hopefully now have a spatial join FC with:
* building IDs
* property IDs
* lots of near distances
You would then want to figure out a way to dissolve the spatial join FC based on the property IDs using the maximum value of the corresponding building ID near distance. There may be a way to munge your data and fields to have the simple [Dissolve](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/coverage-toolbox/dissolve.htm) geoprocessing routine do this, but I think in the end it may require some scripting. Still trying to noodle it out a bit using some dummy data I made based on my understanding of your data and scenario.
Hopefully this helps give you some avenues to test out. Let us know if you are open to a scripted solution. Might be able to help out some more. | I think the [near table tool](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/analysis-toolbox/generate-near-table.htm) would work for what you want but it does require a **ArcGIS for Desktop Advanced Licence**.
Summary from ArcGIS help:
>
> Calculates distances and other proximity information between features in one or more feature class or layer. Unlike the Near tool, which modifies the input, Generate Near Table writes results to a new stand-alone table and supports finding more than one near feature.
>
>
> |
214,907 | I have two different shapefiles formed by polygons and I need to calculate the max distance of one polygon to the perimeter of the polygon of the other file. I need the output in meters!
The first shapefile contains buildings; the second one contains properties. I need to know the **MAXIMUM** distance between the PERIMETER of the building to the end of the property:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/H6kKI.png)
---
I was thinking of some possible solutions, but I have no idea if it make sense:
1. Maybe there is a way to assign to each building the property and then calculate the max distance?
2. Maybe I can transform the properties from polygons to lines, maybe this make the computation easier? | 2016/10/20 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/214907",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/84105/"
] | Given my understanding of your scenario I think the following routine may be a helpful avenue to explore. Not sure if you are open to a scripting option (scripting may end up being necessary though) but for this answer I am focusing on just general routines that you could follow by manually running ArcMap tools and manipulating tables with field calculator operations.
**Set up Unique IDs**
Make sure the properties and buildings feature classes have UIDs set so that you can conduct joins and/or reference their original state after doing the procedures below.
**Conduct a spatial join**
Use the [Spatial Join Tool](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/analysis-toolbox/spatial-join.htm) with:
* Target: Properties FC
* Join: Buildings
* Join Operation: One to Many
* Match Option: Intersect
This will give you a new FC with the geometry of your properties but now you will have a crosswalk table between properties IDs and building IDs that intersect. This will allow you to handle buildings that fall completely within a property but also those that span multiple properties (as shown in your screenshot).
**Convert to vertices**
Use the [Feature Vertices to Points Tool](https://pro.arcgis.com/en/pro-app/tool-reference/data-management/feature-vertices-to-points.htm) to convert both the properties and buildings FC into point FCs based on their vertices.
**Generate Near Table**
Use the [Generate Near Table Tool](http://resources.arcgis.com/en/help/main/10.2/index.html#//00080000001n000000) and be sure to un-check the "Find only closest" option. Use the vertices point FC version of the properties and buildings as inputs. This will produce a table of ALL distances, near and far from all points. This may end up being very processor intensive though since your data set seems fairly large. You may need to set a "Search Radius". I would recommend something a bit larger than your largest property perimeter.
**Join Near Table to Spatial Join FC**
This is where things get a bit tricky. The near table should have a way to join the distances back to the buidlings and properties FCs but it will likely use the FID or OID to do so, not the UID that you created in the first step. May need to play around with this concept to figure out how best to join these features. The ultimate goal though would be to have those distance values joined to the spatial join FC from the first step (the crosswalk one that has both UIDs from buildings and properties).
**Dissolve/Rectify**
Again, this step is still a bit theoretical and will require some implemntation testing depedning on what your data looks like. The general idea though is that you should hopefully now have a spatial join FC with:
* building IDs
* property IDs
* lots of near distances
You would then want to figure out a way to dissolve the spatial join FC based on the property IDs using the maximum value of the corresponding building ID near distance. There may be a way to munge your data and fields to have the simple [Dissolve](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/coverage-toolbox/dissolve.htm) geoprocessing routine do this, but I think in the end it may require some scripting. Still trying to noodle it out a bit using some dummy data I made based on my understanding of your data and scenario.
Hopefully this helps give you some avenues to test out. Let us know if you are open to a scripted solution. Might be able to help out some more. | Analytically speaking, you could run through a series of steps that would give you a decent estimate for the max distance. However, keep in mind that because it is difficult to determine what actually defines the "Max" distance from the property line to the building perimeter, any analytical solution would most likely suffer from inaccuracies to a certain degree. Not a script solution provided, but below I've listed an algorithm that should give decent results.
Foreach "property line" polygon:
1.) Using the [densify](http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/tools/editing-toolbox/densify.htm) tool. Add a substantial amount of vertices based on an interval to the property line polygon. Make sure the interval is quite small in order to achieve a smaller margin of error for the final result.
2.) Convert vertices to points for the property line.
3.) Iterate through the new points and draw a new line feature between each point and the centroid of the building perimeter polygon.
4.) Use the [erase](http://pro.arcgis.com/en/pro-app/tool-reference/analysis/erase.htm) tool and erase the building perimeter polygon from the new line FC.
5.) Choose the longest line left and get it's distance.
6.) Populate a new field in the building perimeter FC with the the "Max Distance".
Again, I must re-iterate, this is not a perfect solution and will have a margin of error, but should in theory, be pretty close, if you use a small interval for the densify tool. If there are buildings who's shapes "fold" back in on themselves there is potential for lines being generated that do not touch the edge of the property outline. Probably a good idea to filter any out that meet this criteria.
FYI, This algorithm assumes that "Maximum Distance" is defined as the distance between any given point along the property line and where it intersects the building perimeter given a bearing of the centroid of the building. |
556,709 | I have a (web) server at a datacenter, which at times (as all datacenters do) has network failures (for like 10-30 minutes).
I have a second server at a different company (datacenter) which I could use as a failover solution.
Now, I was wondering how I could do that? Of course I can mirror the site. The problem is, how do I achieve this: When the main server let's say IP: 1.2.3.4 at datacenter A is not reachable from the outside world, how does my second server at IP: 4.3.2.1 automatically resume its work as main server ?
I don't think that round robin dns would be a solution, because half the requests will be directed to the server which is not reachable.
my servers are windows, IIs | 2013/11/22 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/556709",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/190751/"
] | You need to place the load balancer off site. Colocate a redundant hardware loadbalancer in a high-uptime third datacenter(costly but v.nice) or use a cloud service to deploy a redundant software load balancer(way cheaper). If you really can't get the budget, go dns. | You are right - round robin DNS would not be a solution in this case. What you need is a DNS service that monitors the availability of your servers and switches over the DNS record for the web site to a failover IP once a problem occurs.
An example of such a service is [DNS Made Easy's DNS failover service](http://www.dnsmadeeasy.com/services/dns-failover-system-monitoring/). |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | That's incredibly rare as you mentioned, but it has happened before twice in Canada to the same Prime Minister though he remained Prime Minister.
Prime Minister William Lyon Mackenzie King lost his seat [in York North in 1925](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1925) and his seat [in Prince Albert in 1945](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1945) but went on to be Prime Minister on both occasions. However, his party lost their majority in Parliament on both occasions, though they won the by-election in 1925 and was the largest party in 1945.
---
Usually, leaders would only lose their seat if their party loses too, in which has occurred twice in Australia and once in the UK.
John Howard lost his seat, Bennelong, in the [2007 Australian federal election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_2007) while Stanley Bruce lost his seat, Flinders, in the [1929 Australian federal election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_1929).
In the UK, Arthur Balfour lost his seat in Manchester East after the [Conservative landslide defeat in 1906](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_election,_1906).
These examples are [referenced from The Guardian](https://www.theguardian.com/notesandqueries/query/0,,-199840,00.html). | While not Parliamentary, this is close enough. [Newt Gingrich](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newt_Gingrich), who was the US Speaker of the House, lost his position 1998 after his party lost only 5 seats. While that was not enough to cost them the majority (i.e. they still won overall), it was enough to spark a revolt within the party against a weak election showing they blamed him for. Gingrich, rather than lose an election for Speaker, resigned.
Also, [Eric Cantor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eric_Cantor), House Majority Leader, neglected working hard in the primaries and wound up losing to a political newcomer, who then went on to win Cantor's seat in the 2014 Republican landslide. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | In the 2013 British Columbia provincial election, [Christy Clark](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christy_Clark), the premier, lost her own seat to David Eby, even though the BC Liberal Party won a majority of 49 of the 85 seats in the legislature.
As a result, Ben Stewart resigned from his safe Liberal riding of Westside-Kelowna, effectively yielding his seat to her via a by-election. Clark resumed her role as premier, then appointed Stewart as a provincial representative to Beijing. | I’d like to point out the answer about Canada was wrong. Sitting Prime Ministers have lost their seats four times. The first time was in 1921 when Arthur Meighen lost his seat and the Conservatives, who had been in power since 1911, lost the election to William Lyon Mackenzie King. He had to run in another safe seat to sit in Parliament. Meighen then became the only sitting PM to lose his seat and the election a second time, in the 1926 election.
Meighen won the election of 1925, since he won the most seats, but could not form a government. King became PM when he formed a coalition with the Progressive party. Scandal forced him to resign, and a constitutional crisis was triggered when the Governor-General, Lord Byng, refused to allow a new election and invited Meighen to try to form a government. It lasted 88 days, and Meighen lost his seat in the next election and King and the Liberals formed the government again.
King lost his seat in the 1925 election, so he was the 2nd sitting PM to lose his seat, but still put together a coalition to form a government and was elected in a by-election in a safe seat after a resignation.
The 3rd time was Meighen’s loss in the 1926 election, and the fourth was King’s 1945 loss. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | You could make the case that this "almost" happened to the Scottish National Party in the recent UK general election, and the situation would have been even closer to the OP's criterion if the SNP had become part of a coalition government.
The SNP remains the party with the largest number of Westminster MPs in Scotland (though reduced from 53 to 35 MPs in the 2017 election), but its former leader in Westminster, Angus Robertson, lost his seat to the Conservative candidate. The former party leader, Alex Salmond, also lost his Westminster seat.
Note, the current SNP party leader (Nicola Sturgeon) is an MSP in the Scottish Parliament, not at Westminster, and was therefore not a candidate in the Westminster election. | In the US, Tom Foley was Speaker of the House and lost his race for reelection in 1994. However, his party also lost (so he would not have been Speaker if he had won).
More directly, Galusha A. Grow lost his bid for reelection in 1862. His party (Republicans) kept the House and he was replaced by another Republican, Schuyler Colfax.
Grow had replaced William Pennington as Speaker after Pennington lost his seat. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | That's incredibly rare as you mentioned, but it has happened before twice in Canada to the same Prime Minister though he remained Prime Minister.
Prime Minister William Lyon Mackenzie King lost his seat [in York North in 1925](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1925) and his seat [in Prince Albert in 1945](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1945) but went on to be Prime Minister on both occasions. However, his party lost their majority in Parliament on both occasions, though they won the by-election in 1925 and was the largest party in 1945.
---
Usually, leaders would only lose their seat if their party loses too, in which has occurred twice in Australia and once in the UK.
John Howard lost his seat, Bennelong, in the [2007 Australian federal election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_2007) while Stanley Bruce lost his seat, Flinders, in the [1929 Australian federal election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_1929).
In the UK, Arthur Balfour lost his seat in Manchester East after the [Conservative landslide defeat in 1906](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_election,_1906).
These examples are [referenced from The Guardian](https://www.theguardian.com/notesandqueries/query/0,,-199840,00.html). | Something like *nearly* happened in North-Rhine-Westphalia in Germany [recently](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/North_Rhine-Westphalia_state_election,_2017), where the candidate for prime minister of the winning party, Armin Laschet, won his seat by only a slim margin ([article in German](https://www.merkur.de/politik/nrw-wahl-2017-cdu-spitzenkandidat-laschet-gewinnt-direktmandat-zr-8308380.html)).
If he had lost it, the party would have had to do some shenanigans to get him into parliament (e.g. some other winning candidate would have had to renounce his seat) since he must be a member of parliament to become prime minister. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | In the 2013 British Columbia provincial election, [Christy Clark](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christy_Clark), the premier, lost her own seat to David Eby, even though the BC Liberal Party won a majority of 49 of the 85 seats in the legislature.
As a result, Ben Stewart resigned from his safe Liberal riding of Westside-Kelowna, effectively yielding his seat to her via a by-election. Clark resumed her role as premier, then appointed Stewart as a provincial representative to Beijing. | Something like *nearly* happened in North-Rhine-Westphalia in Germany [recently](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/North_Rhine-Westphalia_state_election,_2017), where the candidate for prime minister of the winning party, Armin Laschet, won his seat by only a slim margin ([article in German](https://www.merkur.de/politik/nrw-wahl-2017-cdu-spitzenkandidat-laschet-gewinnt-direktmandat-zr-8308380.html)).
If he had lost it, the party would have had to do some shenanigans to get him into parliament (e.g. some other winning candidate would have had to renounce his seat) since he must be a member of parliament to become prime minister. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | In 2007 the Prime Minister of Australia [John Howard](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Howard) lost his seat, but his party also lost the election. He is the second Australian Prime Minister to lose his sear in an election after [Stanley Bruce](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Bruce) in [1929](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_1929).
In Britain Prime Minister [Arthur Balfour](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arthur_Balfour) lost his seat of Manchester East in the [1906 general election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_election,_1906), but remained Conservative party leader, without a seat.
The best example of a Prime Minister who lost his seat but remained prime minister is [William Lyon Mackenzie King](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Lyon_Mackenzie_King) who lost his seat in in the [1925 Canadian general election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1925) and in the [1945 Canadian general election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1945), but still kept the job as Prime Minister of Canada. He returned to parliament shortly after each of these elections by persuading a member of his own party to resign from a safe seat (which triggered a by-election) where he stood in turn and won.
*Credit to [Steve Melnikoff](https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/300/steve-melnikoff) for point regarding how King returned to parliament in Canada* | In the 2013 British Columbia provincial election, [Christy Clark](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christy_Clark), the premier, lost her own seat to David Eby, even though the BC Liberal Party won a majority of 49 of the 85 seats in the legislature.
As a result, Ben Stewart resigned from his safe Liberal riding of Westside-Kelowna, effectively yielding his seat to her via a by-election. Clark resumed her role as premier, then appointed Stewart as a provincial representative to Beijing. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | That's incredibly rare as you mentioned, but it has happened before twice in Canada to the same Prime Minister though he remained Prime Minister.
Prime Minister William Lyon Mackenzie King lost his seat [in York North in 1925](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1925) and his seat [in Prince Albert in 1945](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1945) but went on to be Prime Minister on both occasions. However, his party lost their majority in Parliament on both occasions, though they won the by-election in 1925 and was the largest party in 1945.
---
Usually, leaders would only lose their seat if their party loses too, in which has occurred twice in Australia and once in the UK.
John Howard lost his seat, Bennelong, in the [2007 Australian federal election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_2007) while Stanley Bruce lost his seat, Flinders, in the [1929 Australian federal election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_1929).
In the UK, Arthur Balfour lost his seat in Manchester East after the [Conservative landslide defeat in 1906](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_election,_1906).
These examples are [referenced from The Guardian](https://www.theguardian.com/notesandqueries/query/0,,-199840,00.html). | I’d like to point out the answer about Canada was wrong. Sitting Prime Ministers have lost their seats four times. The first time was in 1921 when Arthur Meighen lost his seat and the Conservatives, who had been in power since 1911, lost the election to William Lyon Mackenzie King. He had to run in another safe seat to sit in Parliament. Meighen then became the only sitting PM to lose his seat and the election a second time, in the 1926 election.
Meighen won the election of 1925, since he won the most seats, but could not form a government. King became PM when he formed a coalition with the Progressive party. Scandal forced him to resign, and a constitutional crisis was triggered when the Governor-General, Lord Byng, refused to allow a new election and invited Meighen to try to form a government. It lasted 88 days, and Meighen lost his seat in the next election and King and the Liberals formed the government again.
King lost his seat in the 1925 election, so he was the 2nd sitting PM to lose his seat, but still put together a coalition to form a government and was elected in a by-election in a safe seat after a resignation.
The 3rd time was Meighen’s loss in the 1926 election, and the fourth was King’s 1945 loss. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | In 2007 the Prime Minister of Australia [John Howard](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Howard) lost his seat, but his party also lost the election. He is the second Australian Prime Minister to lose his sear in an election after [Stanley Bruce](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stanley_Bruce) in [1929](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australian_federal_election,_1929).
In Britain Prime Minister [Arthur Balfour](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arthur_Balfour) lost his seat of Manchester East in the [1906 general election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_election,_1906), but remained Conservative party leader, without a seat.
The best example of a Prime Minister who lost his seat but remained prime minister is [William Lyon Mackenzie King](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Lyon_Mackenzie_King) who lost his seat in in the [1925 Canadian general election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1925) and in the [1945 Canadian general election](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canadian_federal_election,_1945), but still kept the job as Prime Minister of Canada. He returned to parliament shortly after each of these elections by persuading a member of his own party to resign from a safe seat (which triggered a by-election) where he stood in turn and won.
*Credit to [Steve Melnikoff](https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/300/steve-melnikoff) for point regarding how King returned to parliament in Canada* | While not Parliamentary, this is close enough. [Newt Gingrich](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newt_Gingrich), who was the US Speaker of the House, lost his position 1998 after his party lost only 5 seats. While that was not enough to cost them the majority (i.e. they still won overall), it was enough to spark a revolt within the party against a weak election showing they blamed him for. Gingrich, rather than lose an election for Speaker, resigned.
Also, [Eric Cantor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eric_Cantor), House Majority Leader, neglected working hard in the primaries and wound up losing to a political newcomer, who then went on to win Cantor's seat in the 2014 Republican landslide. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | I’d like to point out the answer about Canada was wrong. Sitting Prime Ministers have lost their seats four times. The first time was in 1921 when Arthur Meighen lost his seat and the Conservatives, who had been in power since 1911, lost the election to William Lyon Mackenzie King. He had to run in another safe seat to sit in Parliament. Meighen then became the only sitting PM to lose his seat and the election a second time, in the 1926 election.
Meighen won the election of 1925, since he won the most seats, but could not form a government. King became PM when he formed a coalition with the Progressive party. Scandal forced him to resign, and a constitutional crisis was triggered when the Governor-General, Lord Byng, refused to allow a new election and invited Meighen to try to form a government. It lasted 88 days, and Meighen lost his seat in the next election and King and the Liberals formed the government again.
King lost his seat in the 1925 election, so he was the 2nd sitting PM to lose his seat, but still put together a coalition to form a government and was elected in a by-election in a safe seat after a resignation.
The 3rd time was Meighen’s loss in the 1926 election, and the fourth was King’s 1945 loss. | While not Parliamentary, this is close enough. [Newt Gingrich](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newt_Gingrich), who was the US Speaker of the House, lost his position 1998 after his party lost only 5 seats. While that was not enough to cost them the majority (i.e. they still won overall), it was enough to spark a revolt within the party against a weak election showing they blamed him for. Gingrich, rather than lose an election for Speaker, resigned.
Also, [Eric Cantor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eric_Cantor), House Majority Leader, neglected working hard in the primaries and wound up losing to a political newcomer, who then went on to win Cantor's seat in the 2014 Republican landslide. |
19,855 | In a Parliamentary democracy, general elections appoint constituency representatives. Most such appointees are members of parties with internally determined leaders. One or more parties then form a government, with one of these party leaders the head of government.
However, it's theoretically possible that a party that enters or stays in government due to its electoral performance has to change leader, due to that individual losing their seat. (Party leaders typically come from safe seats to prevent this.)
Has this ever actually happened? I'd be interested if this happened in the UK, or failing that in any nation with a Westminster system. | 2017/06/12 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/19855",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13576/"
] | In the 2013 British Columbia provincial election, [Christy Clark](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christy_Clark), the premier, lost her own seat to David Eby, even though the BC Liberal Party won a majority of 49 of the 85 seats in the legislature.
As a result, Ben Stewart resigned from his safe Liberal riding of Westside-Kelowna, effectively yielding his seat to her via a by-election. Clark resumed her role as premier, then appointed Stewart as a provincial representative to Beijing. | While this is not a Westminster system (but it is mostly a parliamentary one), Romania has suffered a similar process just in the recent years:
* [in 2016 the Social Democrats won the Parliamentary](https://blogs.lse.ac.uk/europpblog/2016/12/21/social-roots-romania-2016-election/) elections and formed the Goverment. Their leader (Liviu Dragnea) wanted to be the PM, but this was prevented by having been convicted of election rigging. However, he remained head of the Chamber of Deputies (part of the Parliament) which virtually means the 3rd person of the state (after the President and the head of Senate). He was [de facto running the Government](https://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-48421430)
* in May 2019, Dragnea was [sentenced to jail and had to leave all positions](https://www.politico.eu/article/liviu-dragnea-romanian-social-democrat-leader-dragnea-sentenced-to-jail-fake-jobs/) (party leader, head of Chamber of Deputies).
* as a bonus the subsequent PM (who also became the party leader) and her government has not managed to survive a motion of trust (no-confidence vote). |
5,309,561 | Im running an j2me app on android.
Im aware that form runs in fullscreen, but since on android all actions are in menu i would like to get rid of the action buttons on form.
How can i do that? | 2011/03/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5309561",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/281092/"
] | You should write a native Android app. Running J2ME apps on Android is never a good idea:
* they are not native, so they won't "feel right"
* you will not be able to use a lot of the goodies the platform offers you (such as the menu button)
* the interface will most probably look a bit bodged
* J2ME apps are harder to debug
* you might even run into performance issues
Try porting your J2ME app to the Android SDK. Keep only the non-interface stuff (any calculations, api libs, etc.) and rewrite the interface stuff using the Android SDK. It's a bit more work, but it will be completely worth it. | You can use an automatic conversion tool from J2ME to Android. UpOnTek provides an automatic conversion tool, which includes optimization tips for the app. Take a look at www.UpOnTek.com or contact michal.geva@UpOnTek.com for more details. |
42,427 | With the [end of mainstream support for Office 2003](http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/products/HA102294401033.aspx), it's tempting to retire Office 2003 from a managed network altogether (and replace with Office 2007, in our environment), but there are pockets of resistance (e.g. users who contractually share Access 2003 databases with large consortia internationally). **Security is an effective rationale to compel users to upgrade, when it's defensible**.
Does Office 2003 represent a security threat on a managed network, due to end of mainstream support?
EDIT: Much of our user base, and our back end, are moving to Office 2007 for Exchange and Sharepoint integration advantages - so sticking with 2003 in general is not the plan, and heterogeneity is a pain. | 2009/07/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/42427",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/11963/"
] | Office 2003 is safe, as long as you are running SP3 and patching. Microsoft continues to provide security fixes for the duration of the extended support cycle.
We had a similar issue with Access -- some users had Access applications that were essential to whatever they were doing. The solution is pretty simple -- you just configure the installer to leave Access 2003 behind! [KB928091 discuses install order and some gotchas](http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx/kb/928091). (*The big one is that you can only have one version of Outlook*)
You're actually just as well that you've waited, Office 2007 SP2 fixed all sorts of pretty serious errors, particularly with Outlook calendaring with Exchange 2007. | I would say that so long as there is a vector by which outside Microsoft Office 2003 documents can get to the PCs w/ Office 2003 installed it could legitimately argued that there is vulnerability. Having said that, I don't know what Microsoft's policy on issuing security-related patches is after the "mainstream support" period ends. A lot of companies are sticking with Office 2003 for now, and so long as there are enough Customers to create a ruckus when new "0 day vulnerabilities" in the Office 2003 products are found I would expect that Microsoft will continue to release security-related patches.
(Insert argument for open source software here... You can pay anyone you want to continue to "support" open source software w/o artifical "upgrade treadmills", etc...) |
11,437 | At the end of the first section, inFamous on the PS3 will upgrade the difficulty level from normal to hard (or presumably lower it) based on your performance to that point.
Does anyone know what criteria it's using to assess performance?
I'm interested since I thought it was a nice touch to automatically try and get the game to a suitably challenging / enjoyable level. | 2010/11/23 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/11437",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/2917/"
] | I just finished this section a couple of days ago, and my theory is that it is based on both how many times you "die" and how effective you are at killing people. I had no problems with most of the sections (I believe I died once and it was from falling in water), and it set my difficulty to hard.
If you do very well at this, it will set the difficulty higher. If you die a lot, it will set the difficulty lower. If you do about average, it will leave the difficulty at normal. | You must be killing it, I only know that when you consistently die you do down level. I would presume that it is the speed that you are progressing and the fact that you are not taking a lot of damage or dying that much. |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | You should consider words such as **modesty** and **humility**. These are both seen as being positive traits but could be taken to an extreme where a person doesn't take appropriate credit for their accomplishments or abilities.
Another word to consider would be **objectivity**. This captures the sense of lack of egotism, but it isn't necessarily understood to be reflexive. | Self-effacing is the closest thing I've found. **Self-effacement** is the act or fact of keeping oneself in the background, as in humility. You could also use the word **withdrawn** |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | You should consider words such as **modesty** and **humility**. These are both seen as being positive traits but could be taken to an extreme where a person doesn't take appropriate credit for their accomplishments or abilities.
Another word to consider would be **objectivity**. This captures the sense of lack of egotism, but it isn't necessarily understood to be reflexive. | **Balanced ego** might fit your need. As the phrase suggests, a person with a balanced ego has one that is optimum, neither too strong (bad) nor too weak (also bad), but in the middle (good).
A similar phrase is **balanced personality**. |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | You should consider words such as **modesty** and **humility**. These are both seen as being positive traits but could be taken to an extreme where a person doesn't take appropriate credit for their accomplishments or abilities.
Another word to consider would be **objectivity**. This captures the sense of lack of egotism, but it isn't necessarily understood to be reflexive. | **Self-aware** is commonly used to describe a healthy objectivity toward oneself, though the formal definition is more limited.
**Self-effacing** captures the idea of modesty, potentially to a fault.
I don't know of an English word that combines both concepts in the way your Swedish term does. |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | **Self-aware** is commonly used to describe a healthy objectivity toward oneself, though the formal definition is more limited.
**Self-effacing** captures the idea of modesty, potentially to a fault.
I don't know of an English word that combines both concepts in the way your Swedish term does. | Self-effacing is the closest thing I've found. **Self-effacement** is the act or fact of keeping oneself in the background, as in humility. You could also use the word **withdrawn** |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | **Self-aware** is commonly used to describe a healthy objectivity toward oneself, though the formal definition is more limited.
**Self-effacing** captures the idea of modesty, potentially to a fault.
I don't know of an English word that combines both concepts in the way your Swedish term does. | The problem here is that although there's a Swedish word that can be used in certain contexts, I suspect it's quite likely different Swedes would interpret even that word differently.
For example, a person might be said to have the *självdistans* attribute if he ***acts*** in an *objective* manner (because he's deliberately being *equitable, evenhanded, impartial, impersonal*). These meanings all tend towards a general concept of *fairness*.
But another Swede may say a person has the *självdistans* attribute if they lack a strong sense of *personal identity*. Clinically speaking, people with [autism/Asperger's syndrome](http://www.lookingupautism.org/Articles/Asperger-brain-signal.html) fall into that category (the link says they *'lack brain signal linked to sense of self'*). That's an extreme case, but there are a whole host of words in that general area (*egoless, detached, unengaged*, etc.).
There are also plenty of words involving *spirituality, serenity, unworldliness*, etc.
And if a person lacks the ability to protect their own interests, they're *naive, gullible, artless*, etc.
All such words will come with connotations, but probably OP's own **objectivity** would be the best word for most contexts, if he wants to minimise positive/negative associations. |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | The problem here is that although there's a Swedish word that can be used in certain contexts, I suspect it's quite likely different Swedes would interpret even that word differently.
For example, a person might be said to have the *självdistans* attribute if he ***acts*** in an *objective* manner (because he's deliberately being *equitable, evenhanded, impartial, impersonal*). These meanings all tend towards a general concept of *fairness*.
But another Swede may say a person has the *självdistans* attribute if they lack a strong sense of *personal identity*. Clinically speaking, people with [autism/Asperger's syndrome](http://www.lookingupautism.org/Articles/Asperger-brain-signal.html) fall into that category (the link says they *'lack brain signal linked to sense of self'*). That's an extreme case, but there are a whole host of words in that general area (*egoless, detached, unengaged*, etc.).
There are also plenty of words involving *spirituality, serenity, unworldliness*, etc.
And if a person lacks the ability to protect their own interests, they're *naive, gullible, artless*, etc.
All such words will come with connotations, but probably OP's own **objectivity** would be the best word for most contexts, if he wants to minimise positive/negative associations. | Self-effacing is the closest thing I've found. **Self-effacement** is the act or fact of keeping oneself in the background, as in humility. You could also use the word **withdrawn** |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | **Self-aware** is commonly used to describe a healthy objectivity toward oneself, though the formal definition is more limited.
**Self-effacing** captures the idea of modesty, potentially to a fault.
I don't know of an English word that combines both concepts in the way your Swedish term does. | **Balanced ego** might fit your need. As the phrase suggests, a person with a balanced ego has one that is optimum, neither too strong (bad) nor too weak (also bad), but in the middle (good).
A similar phrase is **balanced personality**. |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | **self-possession**
>
> [Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/self-possession?show=0&t=1364577607): control of one's emotions or reactions especially when under stress : presence of mind, composure
>
>
> [Oxford](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/self-possession): the state or feeling of being calm, confident, and in control of one’s feelings; composure: *an air of self-possession*
>
>
> [FreeDictionary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/self-possession): Full command of one's faculties, feelings, and behavior. See Synonyms at [confidence](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/confidence): ... *Self-possession* implies composure arising from control over one's own reactions: *"In life courtesy and self-possession . . . are the sensible impressions of the free mind, for both arise . . . from never being swept away, whatever the emotion, into confusion or dullness"* (William Butler Yeats).
>
>
>
Although less literal a match than the other answers, I think you may want to consider this term for the purpose you intended, or the person you intended. It seems *självdistans* emphasizes inner perspective while self-possession is about inner behavior, but they may converge on the same character trait: not being ruled by one's own emotions. After all, which emotion is more remarkable to be free of than self love? I wonder if this distinction may reflect culture, Swedish emphasizing self-image, English self-control. Almost thought versus action.
Whomever deserves this description in your book, I like them already. | Self-effacing is the closest thing I've found. **Self-effacement** is the act or fact of keeping oneself in the background, as in humility. You could also use the word **withdrawn** |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | You should consider words such as **modesty** and **humility**. These are both seen as being positive traits but could be taken to an extreme where a person doesn't take appropriate credit for their accomplishments or abilities.
Another word to consider would be **objectivity**. This captures the sense of lack of egotism, but it isn't necessarily understood to be reflexive. | **self-possession**
>
> [Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/self-possession?show=0&t=1364577607): control of one's emotions or reactions especially when under stress : presence of mind, composure
>
>
> [Oxford](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/self-possession): the state or feeling of being calm, confident, and in control of one’s feelings; composure: *an air of self-possession*
>
>
> [FreeDictionary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/self-possession): Full command of one's faculties, feelings, and behavior. See Synonyms at [confidence](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/confidence): ... *Self-possession* implies composure arising from control over one's own reactions: *"In life courtesy and self-possession . . . are the sensible impressions of the free mind, for both arise . . . from never being swept away, whatever the emotion, into confusion or dullness"* (William Butler Yeats).
>
>
>
Although less literal a match than the other answers, I think you may want to consider this term for the purpose you intended, or the person you intended. It seems *självdistans* emphasizes inner perspective while self-possession is about inner behavior, but they may converge on the same character trait: not being ruled by one's own emotions. After all, which emotion is more remarkable to be free of than self love? I wonder if this distinction may reflect culture, Swedish emphasizing self-image, English self-control. Almost thought versus action.
Whomever deserves this description in your book, I like them already. |
109,854 | In Swedish there is a term called *självdistans*, which would be directly translated to "self-distance", which means possessing a certain objectivity towards yourself, to be ego-less or not taking yourself too seriously. In other words, it's a quality in a person that would be modest and not too egoistic. Important thing to stress here is that an apparent lack of "self-distance" is a negative thing while too much self-distance can also be seen as a negative trait as it would been that you are actively trying to avoid giving yourself credit for something you have done, or dismiss any praise you might get from others.
I am not sure if what I am trying to get at is clear enough or if I should try to explain it better. At any rate, I am trying to find a word or expression to express the same quality but I can't seem to find "self-distance" in any English dictionary. Is there a good, semi-formal word that fits in this context? | 2013/03/29 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/109854",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/24631/"
] | **Balanced ego** might fit your need. As the phrase suggests, a person with a balanced ego has one that is optimum, neither too strong (bad) nor too weak (also bad), but in the middle (good).
A similar phrase is **balanced personality**. | Self-effacing is the closest thing I've found. **Self-effacement** is the act or fact of keeping oneself in the background, as in humility. You could also use the word **withdrawn** |
1,294,545 | I booted my computer today and found Ubuntu 16 and its interface is getting loaded although it displays Ubuntu 20 everywhere. The first login screen is also that of Ubuntu 20. How do I change it back to Ubuntu 20 interface.[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/o95BZ.jpg)
Extra information:-
history of commands that I ran-
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Wzkcu.png)
Basically what I did was- install timeshift, create partition table in flash drive, took backup in it, reduced startup applications (only microsoft teams app), upgrade from Ubuntu 18.04 to 20.04 and download ampgpu graphics driver. The computer still worked fine after restarting multiple times.
This morning I tried to access the grub menu by pressing shift multiple times. Didn't open GRUB, but I was greeted with this issue. | 2020/11/23 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/1294545",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/1116738/"
] | As of late, there have been numerous complaints about unetbootin not working. I do not know the specifics, but the end result is usually something like 'no operating system found'.
There is a solution. It's to use a different program. My personal favorite is [Balena Echer](https://www.balena.io/etcher/).
You might also consider [Mkusb](https://help.ubuntu.com/community/mkusb). There's [MultiBootUSB](http://multibootusb.org/) that is more aimed at multiple ISOs on one USB. The list goes on and you can [search for alternatives](https://alternativeto.net/software/unetbootin/?platform=linux). If you're using Windows, there are even more choices. | Installers that Work for FreeDOS
--------------------------------
I tried a few popular OS installers with FreeDOS FD12FULL.img file. FreeDOS 1.2 was the latest version that I could find on the freedos.org site.
I formatted the USB flash drive as FAT32 and used the various tools to create an installer on the drive, then I booted the drives and used the FreeDOS installer to install on another flash drive.
The installer tools that worked for me were Unetbootin (Windows & Linux), Etcher (W&L), Rufus (W), Win32DiskImager (W), mkusb Live (L), SDC (L) and Gnome-Disks (L).
YUMI (W), Universal (W) and Ventoy (W&L) did not work with the FreeDOS image file. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | Linux servers never need to be rebooted unless you **absolutely** need to change the running kernel version. Most problems can be solved by changing a configuration file and restarting a service with an init script.
You need to watch out for reboots... if you changed anything "on the fly" without reflecting your changes in a service's configuration file, those changes will not be applied after a reboot.
I usually reboot after scheduled system updates, though. It's generally not necessary, but I do them when nobody's in the office, so why not? There are often kernel upgrades when I get to doing the update, anyway. | Its not a bad idea to reboot if it has been that long so you can run a disk check ( fsck ) on the root partition. Your argument can be that this helps ensure data integrity. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | A properly run Linux server should only need rebooting for kernel updates. The same can't always be said for some of the software - for instance, I sometimes have to restart apache2 or mailman. | Depends on the tasks running on the server. For some virtual servers we often use reboot instead of i.e. apachectl restart and it just takes 5-10 seconds longer. But some heavy loaded machines are rebooted several times per year with a whole admin crew monitoring the process. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | Its not a bad idea to reboot if it has been that long so you can run a disk check ( fsck ) on the root partition. Your argument can be that this helps ensure data integrity. | My infrastructure has two data sites, the alpha (where operations takes place on a daily basis) and the beta (the backup site, in case things go horribly wrong at alpha). Although this is not currently the case, I am pushing to have scheduled downtime at the alpha site every 6 months, so that we can run all services from beta.
This will accomplish two things. First, it will prove that our disaster recovery site is completely viable. Second, it will give me a week's worth of time to remove accumulated cruft at alpha.
As it is, I don't reboot my servers as frequently as I should. I agree with the other posters who said that it's important to know that your servers will come back up when you need them to. You don't want to "think" that they will, only to find out that you've changed something and not done it correctly, or not documented it. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | You must reboot after a kernel update (unless you are using KSplice), anything else is optional. Personally I reboot on a monthly cycle during a maintenance window to make sure the server and all services come back as expected. This way I can be reasonably certain if I have to do an out of schedule reboot (i.e. critical kernel update) that the system will come back up properly. Automated monitoring of servers and services (i.e. Nagios) also goes a long way to helping this process (reboot, watch the lights go red and then hopefully all back to green).
P.S. if you do reboot regularily you'll want to make sure you tune your fsck checks (i.e. maximal mount count between checks appropriately, otherwise a quick 2 minute reboot might take 30 minutes if the server starts fsck'ing a couple terabytes of data. I typically set my mount count to 0 (tune2fs -c 0) and the interval between checks to 6 months or so and then manually force an fsck every once in a while and reset the count. | Another thing to look for while having this unexpected downtime, is to look at how exactly the memory and processor are being used and by what programs.
`top` should be able to determine which processes are the culprit for the loss of resources, and then be able to manage them directly. Another idea would be to initialize a cronjob to shutdown and restart your processes on a specific schedule. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | Its not a bad idea to reboot if it has been that long so you can run a disk check ( fsck ) on the root partition. Your argument can be that this helps ensure data integrity. | A properly run Linux server should only need rebooting for kernel updates. The same can't always be said for some of the software - for instance, I sometimes have to restart apache2 or mailman. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | You must reboot after a kernel update (unless you are using KSplice), anything else is optional. Personally I reboot on a monthly cycle during a maintenance window to make sure the server and all services come back as expected. This way I can be reasonably certain if I have to do an out of schedule reboot (i.e. critical kernel update) that the system will come back up properly. Automated monitoring of servers and services (i.e. Nagios) also goes a long way to helping this process (reboot, watch the lights go red and then hopefully all back to green).
P.S. if you do reboot regularily you'll want to make sure you tune your fsck checks (i.e. maximal mount count between checks appropriately, otherwise a quick 2 minute reboot might take 30 minutes if the server starts fsck'ing a couple terabytes of data. I typically set my mount count to 0 (tune2fs -c 0) and the interval between checks to 6 months or so and then manually force an fsck every once in a while and reset the count. | I actually reboot my servers on a fairly regular basis, any time major configuration changes are made. It's important to know that in the event of an emergency the server software will come up without a hassle. The last thing you want is to be in a position where you are trying to recover from an outage but are having to mess with your server configuration because you didn't thoroughly test it when you set it up. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | Linux servers never need to be rebooted unless you **absolutely** need to change the running kernel version. Most problems can be solved by changing a configuration file and restarting a service with an init script.
You need to watch out for reboots... if you changed anything "on the fly" without reflecting your changes in a service's configuration file, those changes will not be applied after a reboot.
I usually reboot after scheduled system updates, though. It's generally not necessary, but I do them when nobody's in the office, so why not? There are often kernel upgrades when I get to doing the update, anyway. | My infrastructure has two data sites, the alpha (where operations takes place on a daily basis) and the beta (the backup site, in case things go horribly wrong at alpha). Although this is not currently the case, I am pushing to have scheduled downtime at the alpha site every 6 months, so that we can run all services from beta.
This will accomplish two things. First, it will prove that our disaster recovery site is completely viable. Second, it will give me a week's worth of time to remove accumulated cruft at alpha.
As it is, I don't reboot my servers as frequently as I should. I agree with the other posters who said that it's important to know that your servers will come back up when you need them to. You don't want to "think" that they will, only to find out that you've changed something and not done it correctly, or not documented it. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | Not really required, linux memory handling is excellent. But if you're having uptimes of that length you're probably running kernels that have known vulnerabilities - you might want to watch that. | Depends on the tasks running on the server. For some virtual servers we often use reboot instead of i.e. apachectl restart and it just takes 5-10 seconds longer. But some heavy loaded machines are rebooted several times per year with a whole admin crew monitoring the process. |
15,782 | I have many Linux servers (SUSE 9 &10) used to run web services that provide data to large calculation grids. Recently we have had some difficult to explain outages (i.e. hardware and software logs are not showing any obvious errors) and we are starting to wonder whether the long uptime (typically 200-300 days) is the issue. Given that these servers are heavily utilised, should I consider a regular reboot cycle? | 2009/05/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/15782",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6440/"
] | Linux servers never need to be rebooted unless you **absolutely** need to change the running kernel version. Most problems can be solved by changing a configuration file and restarting a service with an init script.
You need to watch out for reboots... if you changed anything "on the fly" without reflecting your changes in a service's configuration file, those changes will not be applied after a reboot.
I usually reboot after scheduled system updates, though. It's generally not necessary, but I do them when nobody's in the office, so why not? There are often kernel upgrades when I get to doing the update, anyway. | A properly run Linux server should only need rebooting for kernel updates. The same can't always be said for some of the software - for instance, I sometimes have to restart apache2 or mailman. |
4,410,292 | I've currently got a base Windows 2008 Server AMI that I created on Amazon EC2. I use it to create 20-30 EBS-based EC2 instances at a time for processing large amounts of data into PDFs for a client. However, once the data processing is complete, I have to manually connect to each machine and copy off the files. This takes a lot of time and effort, and so I'm trying to figure out the best way to use S3 as a centralised storage for the outputted PDF files.
I've seen a number of third party (commercial) utilities that can map S3 buckets to drives within Windows, but is there a better, more sensible way to achieve what I want? Having not used S3 before, only EC2, I'm not sure of what options are available, and I've not been able to find anything online addressing the issue of using S3 as centralised storage for multiple EC2 Windows instances.
**Update**: Thanks for suggestions of command line tools for using S3. Was hoping for something a little more integrated and less ad-hoc. Seeing as EC2 is closely related to S3 (S3 used to be the default storage mechanism for AMIs, etc), that there might be something neater/easier I could do. Perhaps even around Private Cloud Networks and EC2 backed S3 servers, etc, or something (an area I know nothing about). No other ideas? | 2010/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4410292",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2152/"
] | I'd probably look for a command line tool. A quick search on Google lead me to a .Net tool:
<http://s3.codeplex.com/>
And a Java one:
<http://www.beaconhill.com/opensource/s3cp.html>
I'm sure there are others out there as well. | this sounds very much like a hadoop/Amazon MapReduce job to me. Unfortunately, hadoop is best deployed on Linux:
[Hadoop on windows server](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/467911/hadoop-on-windows-server)
I assume the software you use for pdf-processing is Windows only?
If this is not the case, I'd seriously consider porting your solution to Linux. |
4,410,292 | I've currently got a base Windows 2008 Server AMI that I created on Amazon EC2. I use it to create 20-30 EBS-based EC2 instances at a time for processing large amounts of data into PDFs for a client. However, once the data processing is complete, I have to manually connect to each machine and copy off the files. This takes a lot of time and effort, and so I'm trying to figure out the best way to use S3 as a centralised storage for the outputted PDF files.
I've seen a number of third party (commercial) utilities that can map S3 buckets to drives within Windows, but is there a better, more sensible way to achieve what I want? Having not used S3 before, only EC2, I'm not sure of what options are available, and I've not been able to find anything online addressing the issue of using S3 as centralised storage for multiple EC2 Windows instances.
**Update**: Thanks for suggestions of command line tools for using S3. Was hoping for something a little more integrated and less ad-hoc. Seeing as EC2 is closely related to S3 (S3 used to be the default storage mechanism for AMIs, etc), that there might be something neater/easier I could do. Perhaps even around Private Cloud Networks and EC2 backed S3 servers, etc, or something (an area I know nothing about). No other ideas? | 2010/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4410292",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2152/"
] | You could use an EC2 instance with EBS exported through samba which can act as a centralized storage that windows instances can map? | this sounds very much like a hadoop/Amazon MapReduce job to me. Unfortunately, hadoop is best deployed on Linux:
[Hadoop on windows server](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/467911/hadoop-on-windows-server)
I assume the software you use for pdf-processing is Windows only?
If this is not the case, I'd seriously consider porting your solution to Linux. |
4,410,292 | I've currently got a base Windows 2008 Server AMI that I created on Amazon EC2. I use it to create 20-30 EBS-based EC2 instances at a time for processing large amounts of data into PDFs for a client. However, once the data processing is complete, I have to manually connect to each machine and copy off the files. This takes a lot of time and effort, and so I'm trying to figure out the best way to use S3 as a centralised storage for the outputted PDF files.
I've seen a number of third party (commercial) utilities that can map S3 buckets to drives within Windows, but is there a better, more sensible way to achieve what I want? Having not used S3 before, only EC2, I'm not sure of what options are available, and I've not been able to find anything online addressing the issue of using S3 as centralised storage for multiple EC2 Windows instances.
**Update**: Thanks for suggestions of command line tools for using S3. Was hoping for something a little more integrated and less ad-hoc. Seeing as EC2 is closely related to S3 (S3 used to be the default storage mechanism for AMIs, etc), that there might be something neater/easier I could do. Perhaps even around Private Cloud Networks and EC2 backed S3 servers, etc, or something (an area I know nothing about). No other ideas? | 2010/12/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4410292",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2152/"
] | I'd probably look for a command line tool. A quick search on Google lead me to a .Net tool:
<http://s3.codeplex.com/>
And a Java one:
<http://www.beaconhill.com/opensource/s3cp.html>
I'm sure there are others out there as well. | You could use an EC2 instance with EBS exported through samba which can act as a centralized storage that windows instances can map? |
22,693 | I sometimes have friends over for dinner. I am an introvert & after they've been here for about 2-3 hours I wish for them to leave so I can relax a little before bed alone. Is there a polite way I can ask them to leave? | 2019/08/19 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/22693",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/25251/"
] | First, guests who (let's presume inadvertently) over stay their welcome is a very, very common thing, I have experience many times myself.
>
> Is there a polite way I can ask them to leave?
>
>
>
Yes, but you may want to try sending 'signals' first. For example, you can say:
>
> That was lovely, but I have to clean up and get to bed. Big day tomorrow!
>
>
>
Then make a lightly exaggerated show of resetting your space.
If that doesn't work, it's ok to ask, just don't be a jerk about it.
>
> Can we call it a night? I'm very tired. Looking forward to the next time!
>
>
>
Your guests won't necessarily know you want them to leave without some form of communication.
There are lots of helpful articles on this very subject, way too many to cite here. Searching *"how to get guests to leave"* returns many results. Be careful, some may be much more direct than you are comfortable with.
**This is an Interpersonal Skill you can practice** by vocalizing some of the suggestions before you have guests again to find some that work for you. | Yes I like having friends over and it's very fun and entertaining but after many hours I feel tired and know the night is over.
For my friends, I tell them that it was fun having them at my house but I'm tired and have to go to bed.
If they are your friends this will not be a problem because you are telling them the truth. If they still do not wish to leave, I would not have that person in my house again. |
8,782,878 | Developed an internet radio streamer using jPlayer which utilizes the html5 audio tags with jQuery and has a flash fall back for unsupported browsers. Upon testing the player on the iPhone (iOS 5.0.1), we ran into a very peculiar issue.
When the iPhone is connected to WiFi, it streams perfectly using the HE-AAC V2 stream @ 64kbps 44.1kHz (the preferred codec for apple products). However, when the iPhone is connected to the 3G mobile network, it "stutters" or stops streaming for 1-2 secs every 1-2 minutes (does not stop streaming completely). The troubling thing is when the iPhone is forced to use a separate MP3 stream at the same bit rate, it does not have this issue and works very well on 3G.
**UPDATE 5**
We recently acquired a 3G/4G Sprint mobile hotspot device and tested this issue with the device. When the iPhone is connected to the mobile hotspot, it shows as being connected to a wifi device and the issue does not render even tho the actual connection is via 3G/4G. This might point back to the issue being with the iPhone not handling HE-AAC via HTTP Live Streaming and when directly connected to the mobile network.
**UPDATE 4**
Updated the iPhone to iOS 5.1 yet the issue persists.
**UPDATE 3**
Read here on SO various issues of script not rendering correctly when connected to mobile networks. The finger seems to point to the mobile network carriers that may be inserting Proxy to serve webpages, e.g. for downsizing images. Also it might inject some JavaScript pages. The test page can be found [HERE](http://remixradio.fm/index2.html) Note: this page is using HE-AAC so it will only work on iPhone...
**UPDATE**
According to Apple's HTTP Live Streaming doc for iOS devices, that "Audio-only content can be either MPEG-2 transport or MPEG elementary audio streams, either in AAC format with ADTS headers or in MP3 format." Our music server is using OddcastV3 encoder to send out three streams (MP3, HE-AAC V2, and Oggvorbis) to the icecastV2 server. Not sure if the encoder is inserting ADTS headers for the HE-AAC V2 stream. Is there a way to check for this? | 2012/01/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8782878",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1110558/"
] | Comming from a radio planning point of view - here are my two cents:
What you are describing sounds like bandwidth shaping - which is both a common and often neccesary design of radio networks (like 3G networks). In most 3G operators I worked at you would typically optimize your network to give high-speed burst (think downloading an image, sending one email or fetching one HTML page) - over "long-running" high bandwidth services.
This is due to the simple fact that this is what most users want/need.
This shaping can on a typical 3GPP (GSM 3G) network result in that you will first get a RAB (radio access bearer) supporting 384kbit and is then downgraded as long as your your device accepts it.
This means that typicall you will get switched from 384 -> 256 -> 128, then 64kbit where maybe your device starts recieving data to slowly, then the network upgrades it and again downgrade it after a while.
So why is not then the MP3 file stuttering? my guess is that the total kbit rate might differ - so you are fine in the 64kbit RAB. This is a common phenomena. | We have managed to get the exact same thing working. 64kbit AAC-v2 on mobile devices. We are streaming files and not a steady stream, I think Magnus is right when he explains how the network prioritized traffic to bursts, in our case that means we have large parts of the file right away and the player can continue to play until he next burst comes in. In your case that means the stream pauses until the next burst comes.
Either if you can switch to larger chunks in your streaming (larger buffer) or stream whole files instead?
We had a very strange phenomenon with iOS, we had to rename all files from .m4a to .aac to be able to get them streaming on iOS. If we didn't rename them iOS wouldnt play them.
Good luck. |
452,041 | I want to use a PMIC chip in my project. As any PMIC, it has a couple of outputs: buck Vout, and an LDO out. The PMIC is operated over the I2C bus. The MCU acts as the host device and runs on Vout, so I have the I2C lines from my MCU pulled up to Vout.
The LDO output is controllable, in the interest of saving power and not losing quiescent current, I would like to use the LDO output to power another slave device. Here is a block diagram of how I would like to connect the MCU and slave device:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vwzdi.png)
This slave device also operates over I2C. I only have one I2C bus, so I can only connect the device on that bus. Assuming the voltage levels are the same on Vout and VLDO, I am not sure the configuration I have will completely turn off the device, since the lines are still remain pulled up to Vout. Is this the right way to implement it? If not, how can I correctly configure it? In case my LDO and Buck outputs are not the same, how can this be connected? | 2019/08/08 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/452041",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/184100/"
] | The letter of the I2C spec says that the powered-down device is not supposed to drag down the I2C lines. In practice, this may not be the case, depending on how the chip designer implemented their I2C I/O pads.
I2C is supposed to be open-drain. However, sometimes designers will use a 'pseudo-open-drain', that is, a regular I/O pad that's wired to use output enable to make low / high-Z to form the I2C signal. The problem is, regular I/O pads have protection diodes that will kill the bus when the device is powered off.
Here's a clue: if the part has a Vi(h) spec on the I2C pads of, say, VccIO+0.5V, *or they have no special statement about I2C vs. power-off*, chances are there are protection diodes on the I2C pads that will be forward-biased by I2C on power-down.
The safest thing to do is to put an isolation switch between the powered-down I2C section and the main section, and disconnect the I2C domains from each other when the LDO is powered off.
You have options for the disconnect. You can use a level shifter with an enable, a signal switch (e.g., USB 2:1 mux like this one: <http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/ts3usb221a.pdf>) or even a pair of N-channel FETs for the cheapest solution.
If you can have a separate I2C bus for that peripheral and the PMIC, even better. | You have valid concerns. You may or may not have a problem of back-powering the slave device when Vout is active but Vldo is turned off. Most likely the slave device was designed to work properly in a situation like this and not allow the presence of voltage on the I2C lines create problems when the device is not powered. However, this may not be the case. Check the slave device's documentation.
If you have different voltages for Vout and Vldo, then the best thing to do is to add an I2C level shifter in between. I have a couple of good news for you: the circuit is extremely simple and it should also solve your back-powering problem when Vldo is turned off.
You can find information on how to implement the level shifter [in this Sparkfun page](https://learn.sparkfun.com/tutorials/bi-directional-logic-level-converter-hookup-guide?_ga=2.264847303.977623115.1565231806-1325975359.1565231806) or [in this Philips application note](http://cdn.sparkfun.com/tutorialimages/BD-LogicLevelConverter/an97055.pdf). |
452,041 | I want to use a PMIC chip in my project. As any PMIC, it has a couple of outputs: buck Vout, and an LDO out. The PMIC is operated over the I2C bus. The MCU acts as the host device and runs on Vout, so I have the I2C lines from my MCU pulled up to Vout.
The LDO output is controllable, in the interest of saving power and not losing quiescent current, I would like to use the LDO output to power another slave device. Here is a block diagram of how I would like to connect the MCU and slave device:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vwzdi.png)
This slave device also operates over I2C. I only have one I2C bus, so I can only connect the device on that bus. Assuming the voltage levels are the same on Vout and VLDO, I am not sure the configuration I have will completely turn off the device, since the lines are still remain pulled up to Vout. Is this the right way to implement it? If not, how can I correctly configure it? In case my LDO and Buck outputs are not the same, how can this be connected? | 2019/08/08 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/452041",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/184100/"
] | The letter of the I2C spec says that the powered-down device is not supposed to drag down the I2C lines. In practice, this may not be the case, depending on how the chip designer implemented their I2C I/O pads.
I2C is supposed to be open-drain. However, sometimes designers will use a 'pseudo-open-drain', that is, a regular I/O pad that's wired to use output enable to make low / high-Z to form the I2C signal. The problem is, regular I/O pads have protection diodes that will kill the bus when the device is powered off.
Here's a clue: if the part has a Vi(h) spec on the I2C pads of, say, VccIO+0.5V, *or they have no special statement about I2C vs. power-off*, chances are there are protection diodes on the I2C pads that will be forward-biased by I2C on power-down.
The safest thing to do is to put an isolation switch between the powered-down I2C section and the main section, and disconnect the I2C domains from each other when the LDO is powered off.
You have options for the disconnect. You can use a level shifter with an enable, a signal switch (e.g., USB 2:1 mux like this one: <http://www.ti.com/lit/ds/symlink/ts3usb221a.pdf>) or even a pair of N-channel FETs for the cheapest solution.
If you can have a separate I2C bus for that peripheral and the PMIC, even better. | Well, I think there are two main options here: one is to bit-bang one I2C of the I2C interfaces, the other is to split the bus in some way with a part that can isolate the slave device you want to switch off. This could probably be done with a simple CMOS bus switch or an I2C level shifter. |
13,051 | I recently started watching Kuroko no Basuke and have watched it up to episode 5. The skills shown up till now are ridiculous. Can those skills be achieved by people in real life? I'm taking about physical abilities like speed, jump, agility, etc., not stuff like the Phantom Pass. | 2014/07/25 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13051",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/7729/"
] | Seeing as you're on episode 5, this is going to have spoilers.
While the *"Misdirection"* which makes him invisible is probably at least rooted in reality, I don't think it can be taken as far as the TV series makes it out to be. It would be one thing to misdirect someone who's defending, but to make yourself invisible to people watching from the crowd or the bench is a little bit incredulous.
The *"Invisible Pass"* is something that is described as more of a "tap pass" and it uses misdirection. That's probably something that people do in real life, though again, maybe not to the fantastic results we see in the show.
The "*Ignite Pass*"/"*Ignite Pass Kai*"/"*Cyclone Pass*" are probably things that you could see basketball players do, but the way they're animated and the speed in which they're shown in the show makes it impossible in real life.
The "*Vanishing Drive*" is another misdirection, and like the first invisibility misdirection, it's probably something people can do in real life against a defender, but everyone else in the arena would obviously still be able to see the player. In the show, it makes it seem like Kuroko goes right through the defender for everyone, not just the defender.
The "*Misdirection Overflow*" is clearly something that can't be done in real life given how spectacular the effect can be. The explanation of how this trick works isn't sufficient in making players "disappear" and trick everyone. Stuff like this make Kuroko seem more like an illusionist instead of 1 among 10 players on a court.
The "*Phantom Shot*" is really just an odd way of shooting the ball. It's something people can surely do in real life, but why would they if they can shoot normally? It's unique in the show's story because Kuroko can't shoot.
I think that's as far as they've gotten so far in the anime. | Many of Aomine's formless shots are unachievable outside the realm of lucky. Midorima's shot arc is excessive but the half-court shot (without the crazy arc) is within reason. Murasakibara's quickness and speed can be explained, but that crazy power with that body frame is insane. Akashi's emperor eye. A good eye, tons of experience, and athletic ability. Kise's Copy... well, there's plenty of people out there that are like that. The zone is explainable, but the reasoning on how it can be "tapped" into (in the anime) is dubious.
My two cents on Kuroko's misdirection and Misdirection Overflow:
Most coaches and players define misdirection as putting their attention on themselves to create space for others (which is Overflow). Kuroko's misdirection if applied in real-life only allows for, at most 3 1/2 feet of separation. It's almost unbelievable to shake somebody's line of sight that it distracts the defender to lose sight of their mark entirely.
Physical abilities alone, outside of the generation of miracles, they're all normal (and achievable). Hyuuga's streaky shooting, Takao's Hawk Eye, Kasamatsu's speed, Kiyoshi's right of postponement... They are all within reason
Watch a Japanese basketball game... There's a great disjoint on how basketball is played in Japan in real life and Japan in the anime world. |
13,051 | I recently started watching Kuroko no Basuke and have watched it up to episode 5. The skills shown up till now are ridiculous. Can those skills be achieved by people in real life? I'm taking about physical abilities like speed, jump, agility, etc., not stuff like the Phantom Pass. | 2014/07/25 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13051",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/7729/"
] | Seeing as you're on episode 5, this is going to have spoilers.
While the *"Misdirection"* which makes him invisible is probably at least rooted in reality, I don't think it can be taken as far as the TV series makes it out to be. It would be one thing to misdirect someone who's defending, but to make yourself invisible to people watching from the crowd or the bench is a little bit incredulous.
The *"Invisible Pass"* is something that is described as more of a "tap pass" and it uses misdirection. That's probably something that people do in real life, though again, maybe not to the fantastic results we see in the show.
The "*Ignite Pass*"/"*Ignite Pass Kai*"/"*Cyclone Pass*" are probably things that you could see basketball players do, but the way they're animated and the speed in which they're shown in the show makes it impossible in real life.
The "*Vanishing Drive*" is another misdirection, and like the first invisibility misdirection, it's probably something people can do in real life against a defender, but everyone else in the arena would obviously still be able to see the player. In the show, it makes it seem like Kuroko goes right through the defender for everyone, not just the defender.
The "*Misdirection Overflow*" is clearly something that can't be done in real life given how spectacular the effect can be. The explanation of how this trick works isn't sufficient in making players "disappear" and trick everyone. Stuff like this make Kuroko seem more like an illusionist instead of 1 among 10 players on a court.
The "*Phantom Shot*" is really just an odd way of shooting the ball. It's something people can surely do in real life, but why would they if they can shoot normally? It's unique in the show's story because Kuroko can't shoot.
I think that's as far as they've gotten so far in the anime. | I think misdirection can be achieved by learning, because if you learn to constantly use silent steps and slide your feet for a moment, you'll eventually get the disappearing down. Since it's on a daily basis for me, it's like being an assassin or ninja being sneaky. That's my conclusion. |
13,051 | I recently started watching Kuroko no Basuke and have watched it up to episode 5. The skills shown up till now are ridiculous. Can those skills be achieved by people in real life? I'm taking about physical abilities like speed, jump, agility, etc., not stuff like the Phantom Pass. | 2014/07/25 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13051",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/7729/"
] | Seeing as you're on episode 5, this is going to have spoilers.
While the *"Misdirection"* which makes him invisible is probably at least rooted in reality, I don't think it can be taken as far as the TV series makes it out to be. It would be one thing to misdirect someone who's defending, but to make yourself invisible to people watching from the crowd or the bench is a little bit incredulous.
The *"Invisible Pass"* is something that is described as more of a "tap pass" and it uses misdirection. That's probably something that people do in real life, though again, maybe not to the fantastic results we see in the show.
The "*Ignite Pass*"/"*Ignite Pass Kai*"/"*Cyclone Pass*" are probably things that you could see basketball players do, but the way they're animated and the speed in which they're shown in the show makes it impossible in real life.
The "*Vanishing Drive*" is another misdirection, and like the first invisibility misdirection, it's probably something people can do in real life against a defender, but everyone else in the arena would obviously still be able to see the player. In the show, it makes it seem like Kuroko goes right through the defender for everyone, not just the defender.
The "*Misdirection Overflow*" is clearly something that can't be done in real life given how spectacular the effect can be. The explanation of how this trick works isn't sufficient in making players "disappear" and trick everyone. Stuff like this make Kuroko seem more like an illusionist instead of 1 among 10 players on a court.
The "*Phantom Shot*" is really just an odd way of shooting the ball. It's something people can surely do in real life, but why would they if they can shoot normally? It's unique in the show's story because Kuroko can't shoot.
I think that's as far as they've gotten so far in the anime. | Highly possible to do all of these things, including the phantom pass. Though, your height and the strength in your legs would have to be incredible to pull of the jumps and continue running as they do. But all can be achieved, the phantom pass is more of an actual technique used in basketball.
Though you won't see something like that used often, coaches teach fakes more than they do misdirection. It requires no ball handling; well at least almost none. If you want to achieve misdirection, most is natural. The misdirection or 'phantom pass' used in Kuroko no Basuke, is most achieved naturally.
It's not something easily taught, I can naturally use it. It's as simple as a fake, maybe even easier. Stay invisible until you know you have a chance to score, call for a pass earlier to who you plan to pass to you. Once you arrive at the rim, almost like a phantom, the players not paying attention to you. Jump at the rim, since you are most likely to be blocked at a shot, put your hand up if above your shoulder and grab the ball, in that instant, shoot it back over your shoulder to an open teammate on the three point line or one with a defense who doesn't expect you to do so. If the ball is passed too low, lower your hand to the ball, the palm of your hand facing behind you. After you feel the ball in your hand, either grab and pass in that instant. Or you can hit it back down in an instant to your teammate, just like above, open or with a defender who doesn't expect it.
For jumping, it's just like in the anime, train the strength in your legs, hauling things back and forward on sand. Leg workouts of any kind, you'll be able to jump in no time. I've got an insane jump but I have to jump over and over, just like in the anime. Kagami's jumps only get higher. You start using more and more strength to put yourself into the air, realizing you need to use more strength. Your body responds to this and launches you higher.
The agility is possible, but very-very hard. The speed is the same as anything else, work your legs, train on getting faster, and the higher you raise your stamina, the faster you'll be able to run, as well as maintain the speed. Sorry for the 10 page long response. But it's not really easy to explain how all of the skills you mentioned can be obtained, as well as performed. |
13,051 | I recently started watching Kuroko no Basuke and have watched it up to episode 5. The skills shown up till now are ridiculous. Can those skills be achieved by people in real life? I'm taking about physical abilities like speed, jump, agility, etc., not stuff like the Phantom Pass. | 2014/07/25 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13051",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/7729/"
] | Many of Aomine's formless shots are unachievable outside the realm of lucky. Midorima's shot arc is excessive but the half-court shot (without the crazy arc) is within reason. Murasakibara's quickness and speed can be explained, but that crazy power with that body frame is insane. Akashi's emperor eye. A good eye, tons of experience, and athletic ability. Kise's Copy... well, there's plenty of people out there that are like that. The zone is explainable, but the reasoning on how it can be "tapped" into (in the anime) is dubious.
My two cents on Kuroko's misdirection and Misdirection Overflow:
Most coaches and players define misdirection as putting their attention on themselves to create space for others (which is Overflow). Kuroko's misdirection if applied in real-life only allows for, at most 3 1/2 feet of separation. It's almost unbelievable to shake somebody's line of sight that it distracts the defender to lose sight of their mark entirely.
Physical abilities alone, outside of the generation of miracles, they're all normal (and achievable). Hyuuga's streaky shooting, Takao's Hawk Eye, Kasamatsu's speed, Kiyoshi's right of postponement... They are all within reason
Watch a Japanese basketball game... There's a great disjoint on how basketball is played in Japan in real life and Japan in the anime world. | I think misdirection can be achieved by learning, because if you learn to constantly use silent steps and slide your feet for a moment, you'll eventually get the disappearing down. Since it's on a daily basis for me, it's like being an assassin or ninja being sneaky. That's my conclusion. |
13,051 | I recently started watching Kuroko no Basuke and have watched it up to episode 5. The skills shown up till now are ridiculous. Can those skills be achieved by people in real life? I'm taking about physical abilities like speed, jump, agility, etc., not stuff like the Phantom Pass. | 2014/07/25 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/13051",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/7729/"
] | Many of Aomine's formless shots are unachievable outside the realm of lucky. Midorima's shot arc is excessive but the half-court shot (without the crazy arc) is within reason. Murasakibara's quickness and speed can be explained, but that crazy power with that body frame is insane. Akashi's emperor eye. A good eye, tons of experience, and athletic ability. Kise's Copy... well, there's plenty of people out there that are like that. The zone is explainable, but the reasoning on how it can be "tapped" into (in the anime) is dubious.
My two cents on Kuroko's misdirection and Misdirection Overflow:
Most coaches and players define misdirection as putting their attention on themselves to create space for others (which is Overflow). Kuroko's misdirection if applied in real-life only allows for, at most 3 1/2 feet of separation. It's almost unbelievable to shake somebody's line of sight that it distracts the defender to lose sight of their mark entirely.
Physical abilities alone, outside of the generation of miracles, they're all normal (and achievable). Hyuuga's streaky shooting, Takao's Hawk Eye, Kasamatsu's speed, Kiyoshi's right of postponement... They are all within reason
Watch a Japanese basketball game... There's a great disjoint on how basketball is played in Japan in real life and Japan in the anime world. | Highly possible to do all of these things, including the phantom pass. Though, your height and the strength in your legs would have to be incredible to pull of the jumps and continue running as they do. But all can be achieved, the phantom pass is more of an actual technique used in basketball.
Though you won't see something like that used often, coaches teach fakes more than they do misdirection. It requires no ball handling; well at least almost none. If you want to achieve misdirection, most is natural. The misdirection or 'phantom pass' used in Kuroko no Basuke, is most achieved naturally.
It's not something easily taught, I can naturally use it. It's as simple as a fake, maybe even easier. Stay invisible until you know you have a chance to score, call for a pass earlier to who you plan to pass to you. Once you arrive at the rim, almost like a phantom, the players not paying attention to you. Jump at the rim, since you are most likely to be blocked at a shot, put your hand up if above your shoulder and grab the ball, in that instant, shoot it back over your shoulder to an open teammate on the three point line or one with a defense who doesn't expect you to do so. If the ball is passed too low, lower your hand to the ball, the palm of your hand facing behind you. After you feel the ball in your hand, either grab and pass in that instant. Or you can hit it back down in an instant to your teammate, just like above, open or with a defender who doesn't expect it.
For jumping, it's just like in the anime, train the strength in your legs, hauling things back and forward on sand. Leg workouts of any kind, you'll be able to jump in no time. I've got an insane jump but I have to jump over and over, just like in the anime. Kagami's jumps only get higher. You start using more and more strength to put yourself into the air, realizing you need to use more strength. Your body responds to this and launches you higher.
The agility is possible, but very-very hard. The speed is the same as anything else, work your legs, train on getting faster, and the higher you raise your stamina, the faster you'll be able to run, as well as maintain the speed. Sorry for the 10 page long response. But it's not really easy to explain how all of the skills you mentioned can be obtained, as well as performed. |
571,942 | I have heard that cognitive verbs such as '*think, believe, consider, suppose, understand, imagine*...etc.' should use '*to be* + noun' or '*to be* + adjective' in the object complement.
>
> She believed him to be a teacher.
>
>
>
>
> She considers him (to be) rich.
>
>
>
Yet, there is a saying that '*to be*' cannot be omitted before a noun, but '*to be*' can be omitted before an adjective.
Which one is right?
1. Is *'to be'* always something that can be omitted?
2. Please let me know if there is a subtle difference in meaning between the presence and absence of *'to be'*. | 2021/07/31 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/571942",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/429179/"
] | >
> The verb BE can sometimes be omitted in English without losing
> grammaticality or changing meaning. ([guinlist. press](https://guinlist.wordpress.com/2018/09/17/192-when-be-can-be-omitted/))
>
>
>
So, whenever we will agree here that ***be*** is omissible, it would mean that neither grammaticality nor meaning will be changed. The omissibility of *be* between an object and its complement is no easy matter, and it depends on the choice of verbs.
>
> Grammar errors are likely in this area because *many verbs whose object can be followed by a complement-like noun or adjective either require mention of ***to be*** or forbid it – they do not allow a choice about it.*
>
>
>
As for ***think***, it belongs to the category of those verbs that can, *"at least sometimes"*, omit ***to be*** before an object complement (whether it is an adjective or noun):
>
> * Plato ***considered*** *the world* ***(to be)*** *a copy of reality*.
>
>
> The object here is *the world*, and the object complement is *a copy of reality*. Other verbs usable *at least sometimes* in the same way include many that can have a “descriptive”, “role” or “belief” complement, such as *APPOINT, BELIEVE, DECLARE, ELECT, FIND, JUDGE* and *THINK*.
>
>
>
So whether ***to be*** can or cannot be omitted is not dictated by the fact that it is followed or not by a noun object complement, but by the verb choice.
But I find your example with ***believe*** particular. I don't think *She believed him a teacher* is common, in fact Gngram finds no instance and I think this is because the object complement (a teacher) does not really express opinion. GNgram did find such instances:
>
> She believed him a monster.
>
>
>
Here opinion is much stronger.
***Consider*** seems to be [much more prone](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=believed%20him%20a%20monster%2Cbelieved%20him%20a%20teacher%2C%20considered%20him%20a%20monster%2Cconsidered%20him%20a%20teacher&year_start=1800&year_end=2019&corpus=26&smoothing=3&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cbelieved%20him%20a%20monster%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Cconsidered%20him%20a%20monster%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Cconsidered%20him%20a%20teacher%3B%2Cc0) to omiss ***to be***:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iWoBJ.png)
CONCLUSION: It would be easy to have a set rule and just follow it, but this is one more proof that English does not work this way. The omissibility of *to be* is dictated by verb choice, by the element of opinion, but also by the behaviour of each verb in part. Also, I think it would be fair to say that the omission of ***to be*** before adjectives is much more common than before nouns, but the latter can and does sometimes occur within the boundaries of grammaticality. | Here are your two hypotheses:
>
> A. When followed by 'Object (O) + *to be* + Object Complement (OC)', cognitive verbs such as *think, believe, consider, suppose, understand, imagine,* etc. **should** use a noun phrase (NP) or an adjective phrase (AdjP) as OC.
>
>
>
>
> B. In the structure 'cognitive verb + O + *to be* + OC', *to be* cannot be omitted when OC = NP, but can be omitted when OC = AdjP.
>
>
>
Before answering the question, let me make it clear that hypotheses A and B are not terribly accurate. Firstly, those verbs are so called not because of their syntactic behaviors but because of their semantics. Just because you can lump them together under the same semantic group doesn't mean that their syntactic behavior will be the same.
For example, *think* can rarely be followed by 'O + *to be* + OC':
>
> (1) ?*She thought him to be a teacher.*
>
>
>
(1) is unidiomatic at best and can be thought of as a counterexample of hypothesis A.
Hypothesis B presumes that the structure with *to be* is somehow more readily allowed than the one without. But that presumption is wrong in the case of *think*:
>
> (1') *She thought him a teacher.*
>
>
>
Although (1) is ill-formed, (1') is well-formed albeit less idiomatic than (1''):
>
> (1'') *She thought he was a teacher.*
>
>
>
Likewise:
>
> (2) ?*She thought him to be rich.*
>
>
> (2') *She thought him rich.*
>
>
> (2'') *She thought he was rich.*
>
>
>
So it's not like that the structure with *to be* is always possible and that you only have to figure out when you can omit *to be*.
Having said all that, in order to answer your question, let's just focus on those verbs that allow the structure 'cognitive verb + O + *to be* + OC' with or without *to be*.
In (3)-(5) and (3')-(5'), an AdjP can be OC, but an NP can be OC unless the NP is referential (i.e., referring to a particular person, thing, etc.)
>
> (3) *She considers him to be rich/a teacher/Steve Jobs.*
>
>
> (4) *She supposes him to be rich/a teacher/Steve Jobs.*
>
>
> (5) *She imagines him to be rich/a teacher/Steve Jobs.*
>
>
>
>
> (3') *She considers him rich/a teacher/??Steve Jobs.*
>
>
> (4') *She supposes him rich/a teacher/??Steve Jobs.*
>
>
> (5') *She imagines him rich/a teacher/??Steve Jobs.*
>
>
>
Since *Steve Jobs* refers to a particular person, *to be* is required. |
203,977 | I thought that: "During a week" means any week and "During the week" means a specific week.
>
> 1) What do you eat during a week? - (*every week*)
>
> 2) What do you eat during the week you spend in Spain every year?
>
>
>
However, it seems to me that some people use "during the week" to mean "during a week".
Is it possible for "during the week" to mean "any week"? | 2019/04/05 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/203977",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/1756/"
] | The can also be used to represent the entire class.
>
> The cow is a domestic animal.
> A cow is a domestic animal.
>
>
>
In the first sentence **the** represents the entire class whereas in the second one **a** is used to mean any.
Therefore the sentence
>
> What do you eat during the week?
>
>
>
Can also mean during every week | Yes, what you mentioned that you think is correct. "**The**" article is used to point out a specific week while **"A"** is used for any week. [(Source)](http://www.butte.edu/departments/cas/tipsheets/grammar/articles.html).
"During the week" can not mean "during any week". |
67,651 | I am wondering if this Arduino UNO R3 clone is clocked at 12 MHz instead of the standard 16 MHz? On the board, you can see there is 12.000 written on the crystal oscillator.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9It2Q.png)
But maybe it's not the MCU clock speed? I found this other clone, which has 2 crystal oscillators?! One is 12 MHz and the other one is 16 MHz.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/awZyF.png)
I can't figure out what's happening with these boards... Are these sporting faster or slower speeds? The original Arduino UNO R3 has only one 16 MHz crystal oscillator. | 2019/08/03 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/67651",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/55816/"
] | The 12MHz crystal is for the USB interface.
The main MCU uses a very small 16MHz resonator, which you can see between C5 and C6. | The 16 MHz resonator, a 3-pin part, can be seen between C5 and C6 in the first picture.
The 12 MHz is for the CH340 as noted.
So it's not an Uno, but a clone ripoff, as an Uno would have a Atmega16U2 for the USB. |
41,182 | I am using an electroacoustic guitar. Anytime I start to play, either picking or strumming it gives me a weird sound. It sounds almost like the string keeps vibrating and seem to be hitting the frets. I have changed the strings because I suspected it was as a result of old strings but it keeps giving me the same problem. | 2016/01/18 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/41182",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/25965/"
] | It's hard to tell for sure without looking at your guitar but it sounds like the strings are too close to the frets at some point on your guitar.
When you pluck a string on a guitar, it vibrates in an oscillating manner. That means it vibrates up and down as well as side to side - sort of in a circle. If any of your strings are too close to any of the frets, they can come in contact with the frets when vibrating. If this is what is happening, you will notice more fret buzz the harder you pluck the strings.
A fairly common happenstance that I see on many acoustic guitars is that there is a hump in the fretboard where the body joins the neck. Often that is where you get the strings hitting the frets.
If your guitar is tuned lower than standard or you are using lighter gauge strings than the nut slots are cut for, this could also contribute to fret buzz.
To correct this problem you might need to have a proper set up on the guitar. During a set up, the action (height of strings above the frets) will be adjusted by making adjustments to either the saddle (at the bridge) height - or the truss rod or both. In some cases, a high fret may need to be filed down with a fret file. A qualified guitar repair tech or luthier will be able to evaluate your guitar and make the needed adjustments.
You might be able to take this buzzing out by adjusting the truss rod which you can do yourself if you have the correct sized truss rod wrench. Ideally the neck will need to have a slight concave bow to give proper relief for the strings to oscillate without contacting the frets. If your neck is perfectly straight or back bowed when you sight down the fretboard - loosening the truss rod may help. You will want to make minor adjustments until your frets are no longer contacting the strings during normal playing.
Below is a link to a comprehensive step by step video explaining how to adjust your truss rod. Do not attempt to adjust your truss rod unless you have the exact correct size wrench. Stripping the truss rod can have serious and expensive consequences. Good luck.
**[How To Adjust Your Truss Rod](http://www.acousticguitar.com/How-To/Truss-Rod-Adjustments)** | without seeing or hearing the guitar, here are a couple of possibilities;
(1) If it's your bass string(s) E / A that keep vibrating, then you may have the bass e.q. set to high (2) you may need set the action/intonation and neck adjustment (possibly fret leveling) to alleviate the fret buzz, no matter if it's only one string that seems to be causing the problem (3) The string(s) may be faulty/defect (not tightly wound enough) (4) There could be something loose on the guitar, that causes this vibration, such as part of the pick-up system or any of the screws, mountings-etc., that hold it in place. If you are not experienced in doing any of these repairs, then the best thing is to take it to your local luthier and have them look at it, to at least identify the exact problem. |
5,362 | When a person mouse down, moves the mouse, and mouses up the system gets the different in the mouse down coord and the mouse up coords and loads in the new map items. However, the problem is it loads them every time so I want a way to track what has been loaded without too much work on checking or storing checks.
* Most promising. Came up with while typing this. Section the screen into 250x250 sectors and check if that sector has been loaded.
* Keep track of each corner of the screen and see if there is an area of those that have not loaded.
* Keep a record of the corners of the screen. When mouse up coords are greater then load the different. Problem is if they are at coord 10,000 then it will load from -10k to 10k positive and that is a lot of items to load.
* Check every item on the page to see if it is loaded. If I do this I might as well reload the whole page.
If anyone has some suggestions; feel free to pass them on. | 2010/11/09 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/5362",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | You might just want to look at a Javascript based "slippy map" library like [Polymaps](http://polymaps.org/docs/) or [OpenLayers](http://www.openlayers.org/). These already do the kind of tile-based sectioning that you (correctly) surmise would work. | Unless I misunderstand your question, I would expect what you describe to be desired behavior. It seems to me, like you are streaming the mapping data as the user pans around the map. As soon as it's off the screen, I would unload those resources and then load up resources for the newly visible sections.
If you don't unload resources as the user pans around, eventually, the user will have the entire map loaded into memory, and this would defeat the purpos of streaming data to the user in the first place.
If the actual streaming of the map is what's got you stumped, I think your first approach is best. Put the map into sections (usually called Tiles) as the user pans around, determine which tiles should be loaded and unloaded, then render all of the loaded tiles. |
21,265 | This main character was genetically created by an alien species.
This particular alien specie are highly intelligent and have numerous abilities such as telepathy, defensive powers similar to magic and can change/morph into any living thing. I wanted to add a certain twist to my main character that makes her different than aliens but have something about her that could change or transition like the alien kind could do.
Before deciding on an ability, I wanted to see if this is even possible for the specie to genetically modify and create her to do this. | 2015/07/25 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/21265",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11200/"
] | Splicing genes for certain traits is common now, specifically with food.
the main concerns with this for humans are ethical.. You could play around with that idea...
But the actually ability is possible. Now how it will interact with moods.. that part hasn't been discovered. However moods like anger affect adrenaline which has effects on skin flushing and heart rate, so it would be a matter of someone figuring out the biochemical changes and figuring how to do 'eye color' change meets 'mood emotional indicators' and linking them. | The idea of a [human-alien hybrid](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/HalfHumanHybrid) takes you far beyond scientific plausibility, so "genetically" and "possible" don't really apply.
* [Mules](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mule) are hybrids between horses and donkeys, and they're sterile. That's despite the fact that horses and donkeys are from the same kingdom, phylom, class, order, family and genus.
* Same for most [Ligers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liger).
You can't even be sure that the aliens use the same amino acids or the same [chirality](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/MirrorChemistry). So you're left with the *magic* explanation unless you're prepared to fiddle with the evolutionary history of Earth. |
21,265 | This main character was genetically created by an alien species.
This particular alien specie are highly intelligent and have numerous abilities such as telepathy, defensive powers similar to magic and can change/morph into any living thing. I wanted to add a certain twist to my main character that makes her different than aliens but have something about her that could change or transition like the alien kind could do.
Before deciding on an ability, I wanted to see if this is even possible for the specie to genetically modify and create her to do this. | 2015/07/25 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/21265",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11200/"
] | Splicing genes for certain traits is common now, specifically with food.
the main concerns with this for humans are ethical.. You could play around with that idea...
But the actually ability is possible. Now how it will interact with moods.. that part hasn't been discovered. However moods like anger affect adrenaline which has effects on skin flushing and heart rate, so it would be a matter of someone figuring out the biochemical changes and figuring how to do 'eye color' change meets 'mood emotional indicators' and linking them. | It sounds like eyes changing with moods is the least of your problems with plausibility. Magic and telepathy already put this story solidly in the realm of fantasy rather than science fiction, so you don't need a scientific explanation.
However, if you want a scientifically plausible creature whose eyes change color rapidly (regardless of the trigger), I would recommend them having chromatophores in their irises. Chromatophores are the kind of cells that allow cephalopods such as octopus, squid and cuttlefish to change color, and they can change at a moment's notice. |
21,265 | This main character was genetically created by an alien species.
This particular alien specie are highly intelligent and have numerous abilities such as telepathy, defensive powers similar to magic and can change/morph into any living thing. I wanted to add a certain twist to my main character that makes her different than aliens but have something about her that could change or transition like the alien kind could do.
Before deciding on an ability, I wanted to see if this is even possible for the specie to genetically modify and create her to do this. | 2015/07/25 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/21265",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/11200/"
] | The idea of a [human-alien hybrid](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/HalfHumanHybrid) takes you far beyond scientific plausibility, so "genetically" and "possible" don't really apply.
* [Mules](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mule) are hybrids between horses and donkeys, and they're sterile. That's despite the fact that horses and donkeys are from the same kingdom, phylom, class, order, family and genus.
* Same for most [Ligers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liger).
You can't even be sure that the aliens use the same amino acids or the same [chirality](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/MirrorChemistry). So you're left with the *magic* explanation unless you're prepared to fiddle with the evolutionary history of Earth. | It sounds like eyes changing with moods is the least of your problems with plausibility. Magic and telepathy already put this story solidly in the realm of fantasy rather than science fiction, so you don't need a scientific explanation.
However, if you want a scientifically plausible creature whose eyes change color rapidly (regardless of the trigger), I would recommend them having chromatophores in their irises. Chromatophores are the kind of cells that allow cephalopods such as octopus, squid and cuttlefish to change color, and they can change at a moment's notice. |
46,658,517 | We have a cloud based audit application. While performing audit a user typically uploads a lot of documents. Currently in order to view the documents he has to download them. Business requirement is that on clicking the document it should directly open up in another browser tab using office 365 just like dropbox/onedrive. The user should be able to view, edit, save it on server (without downloading) and close it. How to achieve that in our application?
Our webapp is built using ReactJS, NodeJS & MongoDB. Whenever a user uploads a document it gets saved in a AWS S3 bucket.
I went through Microsoft Graph API and OneDrive RestAPI's. Looks like the only solution is to use the OneDrive API's to save files in OneDrive instead of S3. And then it should allow you to use the Office365 apps. Is this the right solution? Am I missing anything?
Is there any other solution? | 2017/10/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/46658517",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2381508/"
] | While the easiest solution is indeed to store the documents in OneDrive, there's also another way. You can enroll in Microsoft's [Cloud Storage Partners Program](https://dev.office.com/programs/officecloudstorage) and implement the [WOPI protocol](http://wopi.readthedocs.io/en/latest/) on your service. This would allow the Office Online viewers/editors to integrate with your service's data directly. | You need to use both aws and O365 api to reach a working solution. Try the following steps (PS: I have not tried this. But I have saved edited documents from Office 365 to AWS)
1. Read the uploaded document from AWS using AWS api's and upload it to office doc using office doc api.
2. Edit the doc using office docs api.
3. Save the doc back to S3 |
30,542 | Are Whales smarter than Humans?
Their brain size leads me to think so.
 | 2015/03/18 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/30542",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/14994/"
] | The "wiring" of the brain is more important than the actual size. If only size would matter that basically humans would be rather unintelligent beings ( many many animals have larger head and brain than us). Intelligence is more related to the complexity of the brain (number and size of different brain components) and the number of connections between neurons. We humans are intelligent because we have high complexity compared to our brain size, our brain has more grooves therefore higher surface than a whale brain. So even though whales are quite smart they're not as smart as us.
EDIT: After getting a few comments I felt I need to clarify my answer, so here it comes: as pointed out by user137 humans have much higher brain-to-body size ration than whales and this is very important. What I was trying to explain (yet failed for the first time it seems), that mere physical size / volume is not that important. The level of development and complexity is that matters the most. Many parts of the human brain is found in lower order animals as shown in the image below:  (taken from <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brain>
The surface to volume ratio matters because the higher ratio implies a more complex brain structure. So while whales have a higher surface in absolute value (approx 2-3 times) yet their brain is larger by approx 5-6 times ( lots of comparison data [here](https://faculty.washington.edu/chudler/facts.html)), thus we have higher surface/volume ratio (i left the ratio part out on my original answer). In the accepted answer on the question linked by Bez it is said that more grey matter in frontal lobe correlates with IQ. Now since grey matter is made of neuron bodies and (fewer)axons, this is quite straightfoward --> more neurons = more connections = higher complexity. But all that comparison was made between humans. So brain size differences between different individuals of the same species may contribute to individual qualities. Comparing mere physical brain sizes of different species is not straightforward because of different brain development levels and brain structure. | In any comparison of intelligence, the most important question is how are we going to define intelligence? The typical inclination is: intelligence is what is required to do the things that we admire as difficult intellectual feats. More generally, intelligence is what it takes to do things that humans do. Making comparisons between species is inherently difficult & limited by our species centered narcissism.
An orca has a brain 5-7 times larger than a human brain. The majority of that brain mass is in the frontal lobes- the part of the brain associated with higher cognitive processes (relatively little is involved with motor processes).
Brains require a lot of energy. Nature doesn't like waste. Whales would not have evolved such huge brains unless they were beneficial (& being used)
Consider the image associated with this link:
How your brain sees your body: Meet the cortical homunculus
<https://io9.gizmodo.com/how-your-brain-sees-your-body-meet-the-cortical-homunc-5670064>
Much of our brain is devoted to hands.
Whales don't need to use their immense brain power on hands (that they don't possess). Therefore they're using it for something else. I wouldn't be surprised if that something else is more complicated ( perhaps more intelligent) than we can imagine. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | The real question that only you can answer is *why* you consider exceeding your budget.
You write that your budget is based on what it would cost to rent that kind of property and that "the prices are a higher than we planned". That sounds like a real estate market where it simply makes more sense to rent than to buy, from a financial point of view. Now if you personally place a great value on owning the real estate you live in, and you have to increase your budget to be able to afford the kind if real estate you want, that is a valid reason.
On the other hand, if you would be happy living in something that is within your budget, there are two typical reasons to increase it:
* You think that a "more desirable" property would be a good *investment*, i.e. would increase in value more than whatever else you could invest in. This is unlikely to work out if you're already looking at a real estate market with low rental incomes, and in any case not good for diversification.
* You think you should buy a "better" house simply because you can afford it at the moment. This is called "lifestyle inflation" and is just generally a bad idea. | Normally, borrowing money is a bad idea because most loans are designed to be profitable for the lender. Financially, the borrower generally is at a disadvantage. Borrowing for consumer goods like living space, cars, furniture, jewelry, etc, is especially bad in most cases.
However, you say you have lenders offering a borrowing rate of 1.5% which is so low that, in my opinion, it is favorable for the borrower. If you can truly get this rate (and that includes all fees), then borrowing the money to buy real estate is probably a good idea as long as the real estate is a reasonable piece of property (in a good area, with no obvious problems like easements or restrictions, etc).
Loans impose a psychological burden on the borrower. You are no longer mentally free after you undertake a loan, but if you can get 1.5% and do not mind being a slave to a loan for 20 years, it could be financially beneficial. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | The real question that only you can answer is *why* you consider exceeding your budget.
You write that your budget is based on what it would cost to rent that kind of property and that "the prices are a higher than we planned". That sounds like a real estate market where it simply makes more sense to rent than to buy, from a financial point of view. Now if you personally place a great value on owning the real estate you live in, and you have to increase your budget to be able to afford the kind if real estate you want, that is a valid reason.
On the other hand, if you would be happy living in something that is within your budget, there are two typical reasons to increase it:
* You think that a "more desirable" property would be a good *investment*, i.e. would increase in value more than whatever else you could invest in. This is unlikely to work out if you're already looking at a real estate market with low rental incomes, and in any case not good for diversification.
* You think you should buy a "better" house simply because you can afford it at the moment. This is called "lifestyle inflation" and is just generally a bad idea. | The only reason I can think of to really stretch yourself on something like this is if inflation is really high, well above the mortgage rate. In that situation you would expect your income growth to outpace the mortgage payments. This would also suggest that the value of the home would increase. I see something about 16% taxes. That seems insanely high if that's annual so I'm guessing that maybe that's a one-time sales tax or this doesn't work the same way as property taxes typically do in the US. If you have to pay 16% per year on the current value of the home, I can't see how prices could continue to rise beyond income levels.
I would not buy more home that you need simply because housing prices are going up. Even if they do, what's your exit strategy? If you sell it and buy another home, that one is going to be expensive too. And you likely will not get such a great interest rate. You really can't cash in on a major increase in your home value unless you downsize significantly, get out of the housing market or move somewhere else more affordable. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | This is one question that I’m not sure country matters. I’m in the US and my answer should apply to you.
I’d recommend buying the size house that you need. The larger house comes with taxes, maintenance, the cost of heating/cooling, and cleaning. Instead of reaching for the largest house the bank says you can afford, get the smallest house you can tolerate. That will give you time to start a family, and see how much space you really need to live in. You can also get a far shorter mortgage, and likely have it paid off 10-12 year later. At that point, it would be easier to upsize if you really need another bedroom or two, compared to downsizing, if by the same time you were in a too-big house. | I'm currently in the process of buying a house and would recommend against taking a mortgage that's much higher than the rental rate you're paying now.
You've addressed the principal and interest aspects of a home mortgage, but one key difference between renting and owning is maintenance. It's 100% on you when you own.
For my personal situation, that includes spending some money right after closing to get the house move-in ready (there's some projects we want to do that are easiest without a bunch of stuff on the floors), planning for replacement of some major appliances in the next 5 years, maintaining the lawn area, plus unexpected issues. Furthermore, we are talking about some upgrades we might want to do in the next 5-10 years, which would need to start being saved for. Anyways, all those costs are above and beyond your monthly mortgage payment, so it's definitely helpful to have reserves. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | This is one question that I’m not sure country matters. I’m in the US and my answer should apply to you.
I’d recommend buying the size house that you need. The larger house comes with taxes, maintenance, the cost of heating/cooling, and cleaning. Instead of reaching for the largest house the bank says you can afford, get the smallest house you can tolerate. That will give you time to start a family, and see how much space you really need to live in. You can also get a far shorter mortgage, and likely have it paid off 10-12 year later. At that point, it would be easier to upsize if you really need another bedroom or two, compared to downsizing, if by the same time you were in a too-big house. | From my experience banks will crunch numbers and come back with what they believe you can afford at the time. "AT THE TIME" being key here. This does not mean that you should go with that. It just gives you an idea of what the bank feels your buying power is. As others have mentioned you will want to take into consideration the "what ifs" but there will always be "what ifs." Don't let it be a stopper in what you want. Just keep it in mind as you move forward and plan accordingly. Many things will be a bit vague and blurry with the numbers but the numbers from the banks are usually on the high end on the monthly mortgage for the reason that you can shop for some on your own and get them for less (home insurance being one).
Also note that locking in an interest rate should NOT cost you anything. A bank will generally lock in the interest rate upon the initial completion and acceptance of the pre-approval process. If a bank wants to charge to lock you in, look elsewhere. Lot's of lenders. Go with the one that you feel most comfortable with and listens. Interest rate should be locked in for a certain period of time (90, 120, 180 days, etc) at which rate it'll restart at the current.
Buying property is both exciting and stressful. Stress can be negated some if you have all your finances figured before hand. It can be stressful trying to find the ideal place which you never will. Keep in mind that you can and will make the place yours. Color is cosmetic so if you find a house you like but the rooms are painted purple with orange dots look beyond what it is and look at what it could be. Layout is very important unless you are handy enough or have the means to hire to remove/add walls, etc. Go into the rooms and imagine how you would use it. Walk the paths. You are generally in a house for a short time when looking and are expected to make a decision about living in it for possibly a long time. Spend the time and slow down when looking around. Spend the most time walking around and looking in the areas you use the most (generally kitchen, toilet and bathroom) and those that are important to each other. Also, pay attention to what is outside the place. Are there apartments going up across the street or is a new freeway going to be built behind your place. Always recall the realtors motto "Location, location location" when looking.
Size of a place is also important. You don't want overly large beyond your usage and you don't want so small you are wishing you had a gone larger. Go as large as you are comfortable with. Having a spare room is great. More storage is fantastic. Having to have guests or an office in the living room not fun. Having to cram everything into a closet or two is not good. Get the space while you can.
One thing I have done in the years of buying and selling is I ask myself if this is the place I want to stay or is it going to be a stepping stone to the place I want to be. If a stepping stone go into with the mindset that it is an investment and I want the most money in my pocket and not to the bank. If not then you make it what you really want and not what some else may want and possibly consider a shorter mortgage. You can always refinance at a later time if things change.
Overall, I say enjoy the ride and experience. Sorry for running off topic a bit. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | Normally, borrowing money is a bad idea because most loans are designed to be profitable for the lender. Financially, the borrower generally is at a disadvantage. Borrowing for consumer goods like living space, cars, furniture, jewelry, etc, is especially bad in most cases.
However, you say you have lenders offering a borrowing rate of 1.5% which is so low that, in my opinion, it is favorable for the borrower. If you can truly get this rate (and that includes all fees), then borrowing the money to buy real estate is probably a good idea as long as the real estate is a reasonable piece of property (in a good area, with no obvious problems like easements or restrictions, etc).
Loans impose a psychological burden on the borrower. You are no longer mentally free after you undertake a loan, but if you can get 1.5% and do not mind being a slave to a loan for 20 years, it could be financially beneficial. | From my experience banks will crunch numbers and come back with what they believe you can afford at the time. "AT THE TIME" being key here. This does not mean that you should go with that. It just gives you an idea of what the bank feels your buying power is. As others have mentioned you will want to take into consideration the "what ifs" but there will always be "what ifs." Don't let it be a stopper in what you want. Just keep it in mind as you move forward and plan accordingly. Many things will be a bit vague and blurry with the numbers but the numbers from the banks are usually on the high end on the monthly mortgage for the reason that you can shop for some on your own and get them for less (home insurance being one).
Also note that locking in an interest rate should NOT cost you anything. A bank will generally lock in the interest rate upon the initial completion and acceptance of the pre-approval process. If a bank wants to charge to lock you in, look elsewhere. Lot's of lenders. Go with the one that you feel most comfortable with and listens. Interest rate should be locked in for a certain period of time (90, 120, 180 days, etc) at which rate it'll restart at the current.
Buying property is both exciting and stressful. Stress can be negated some if you have all your finances figured before hand. It can be stressful trying to find the ideal place which you never will. Keep in mind that you can and will make the place yours. Color is cosmetic so if you find a house you like but the rooms are painted purple with orange dots look beyond what it is and look at what it could be. Layout is very important unless you are handy enough or have the means to hire to remove/add walls, etc. Go into the rooms and imagine how you would use it. Walk the paths. You are generally in a house for a short time when looking and are expected to make a decision about living in it for possibly a long time. Spend the time and slow down when looking around. Spend the most time walking around and looking in the areas you use the most (generally kitchen, toilet and bathroom) and those that are important to each other. Also, pay attention to what is outside the place. Are there apartments going up across the street or is a new freeway going to be built behind your place. Always recall the realtors motto "Location, location location" when looking.
Size of a place is also important. You don't want overly large beyond your usage and you don't want so small you are wishing you had a gone larger. Go as large as you are comfortable with. Having a spare room is great. More storage is fantastic. Having to have guests or an office in the living room not fun. Having to cram everything into a closet or two is not good. Get the space while you can.
One thing I have done in the years of buying and selling is I ask myself if this is the place I want to stay or is it going to be a stepping stone to the place I want to be. If a stepping stone go into with the mindset that it is an investment and I want the most money in my pocket and not to the bank. If not then you make it what you really want and not what some else may want and possibly consider a shorter mortgage. You can always refinance at a later time if things change.
Overall, I say enjoy the ride and experience. Sorry for running off topic a bit. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | You should buy a home you will be happy in.
I've only heard of this theory of getting the highest mortgage you can afford coming into play if you are young. The thought is that your salary should increase over the next few years so your debt to income ratio will decrease. Buying the most expensive home you can afford now will prevent you from moving within the next couple of years to a bigger home like you would be inclined to if you got a small home. Just the process of getting a home will cost you upfront money you will not get back(moving costs, origination fees). So the more times you move the worst off you will be.
How much you are willing to pay for a home should be dependent on the age of the home, things that need to be fixed or soon will need to be fixed, neighborhood, taxes, and a realistic guess of any large purchases you will make in the coming years(cars, pool installed, kids). Also, you will have to keep a reserved amount each month for upkeep of the home(light bulbs, lawn care equipment, etc.).
You should not compare your rent to a mortgage payment. Every time you pay rent you only get some credit and a place to live. With a mortgage payment, some of the money is going principal. That is putting money towards something you can later get a return on.
Side note: If your debt to income is low, make sure to invest that extra money. You can consider a mortgage an investment if the house will be worth more than what you paid for it when you sell it. All investments have risks, but sitting money depreciates with inflation so doing nothing with money means you are losing money. | From my experience banks will crunch numbers and come back with what they believe you can afford at the time. "AT THE TIME" being key here. This does not mean that you should go with that. It just gives you an idea of what the bank feels your buying power is. As others have mentioned you will want to take into consideration the "what ifs" but there will always be "what ifs." Don't let it be a stopper in what you want. Just keep it in mind as you move forward and plan accordingly. Many things will be a bit vague and blurry with the numbers but the numbers from the banks are usually on the high end on the monthly mortgage for the reason that you can shop for some on your own and get them for less (home insurance being one).
Also note that locking in an interest rate should NOT cost you anything. A bank will generally lock in the interest rate upon the initial completion and acceptance of the pre-approval process. If a bank wants to charge to lock you in, look elsewhere. Lot's of lenders. Go with the one that you feel most comfortable with and listens. Interest rate should be locked in for a certain period of time (90, 120, 180 days, etc) at which rate it'll restart at the current.
Buying property is both exciting and stressful. Stress can be negated some if you have all your finances figured before hand. It can be stressful trying to find the ideal place which you never will. Keep in mind that you can and will make the place yours. Color is cosmetic so if you find a house you like but the rooms are painted purple with orange dots look beyond what it is and look at what it could be. Layout is very important unless you are handy enough or have the means to hire to remove/add walls, etc. Go into the rooms and imagine how you would use it. Walk the paths. You are generally in a house for a short time when looking and are expected to make a decision about living in it for possibly a long time. Spend the time and slow down when looking around. Spend the most time walking around and looking in the areas you use the most (generally kitchen, toilet and bathroom) and those that are important to each other. Also, pay attention to what is outside the place. Are there apartments going up across the street or is a new freeway going to be built behind your place. Always recall the realtors motto "Location, location location" when looking.
Size of a place is also important. You don't want overly large beyond your usage and you don't want so small you are wishing you had a gone larger. Go as large as you are comfortable with. Having a spare room is great. More storage is fantastic. Having to have guests or an office in the living room not fun. Having to cram everything into a closet or two is not good. Get the space while you can.
One thing I have done in the years of buying and selling is I ask myself if this is the place I want to stay or is it going to be a stepping stone to the place I want to be. If a stepping stone go into with the mindset that it is an investment and I want the most money in my pocket and not to the bank. If not then you make it what you really want and not what some else may want and possibly consider a shorter mortgage. You can always refinance at a later time if things change.
Overall, I say enjoy the ride and experience. Sorry for running off topic a bit. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | The only reason I can think of to really stretch yourself on something like this is if inflation is really high, well above the mortgage rate. In that situation you would expect your income growth to outpace the mortgage payments. This would also suggest that the value of the home would increase. I see something about 16% taxes. That seems insanely high if that's annual so I'm guessing that maybe that's a one-time sales tax or this doesn't work the same way as property taxes typically do in the US. If you have to pay 16% per year on the current value of the home, I can't see how prices could continue to rise beyond income levels.
I would not buy more home that you need simply because housing prices are going up. Even if they do, what's your exit strategy? If you sell it and buy another home, that one is going to be expensive too. And you likely will not get such a great interest rate. You really can't cash in on a major increase in your home value unless you downsize significantly, get out of the housing market or move somewhere else more affordable. | I'm currently in the process of buying a house and would recommend against taking a mortgage that's much higher than the rental rate you're paying now.
You've addressed the principal and interest aspects of a home mortgage, but one key difference between renting and owning is maintenance. It's 100% on you when you own.
For my personal situation, that includes spending some money right after closing to get the house move-in ready (there's some projects we want to do that are easiest without a bunch of stuff on the floors), planning for replacement of some major appliances in the next 5 years, maintaining the lawn area, plus unexpected issues. Furthermore, we are talking about some upgrades we might want to do in the next 5-10 years, which would need to start being saved for. Anyways, all those costs are above and beyond your monthly mortgage payment, so it's definitely helpful to have reserves. |
99,374 | My partner and I are looking to buy at the moment. I won't get into all the details but we live in Germany, have a budget in mind and have talked with a few brokers and providers.
Our idea for the monthly repayment budget comes from what we pay in rent now as well as what we'd pay if we rented a property in a similar bracket to the ones we're trying to buy. And, of course, what we think is fair for the market.
We've had various estimates for mortgage offers and many are offering more than our initial budget idea so my question is is it better to take a higher mortgage for a more 'desirable' property and pay more per month if you can afford it or to be conservative and take a lower mortgage. We're currently finding the prices are a higher than we planned.
I realise it's subjective regarding risk etc but any input on pros and cons or going closer to your financial limits (within reason) with your mortgage payments would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT: I added a little more context to a comment on an answer that might be useful extra information:
We're buying in Berlin, Germany that has had record rises in both rent and purchase prices in recent years. Seems set to continue. Interest rates are at near record lows and I've consistently had offers of around 1.5% for 15-20 year fixed rate deals. We've been advised to lock in current rates for as long as possible, especially as there is talk of a rate rise here next year. Additionally, I have been offered options for a type of income insurance for the payments. So current numbers would have us spending 25% of net income per month. | 2018/09/03 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/99374",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/76674/"
] | This is one question that I’m not sure country matters. I’m in the US and my answer should apply to you.
I’d recommend buying the size house that you need. The larger house comes with taxes, maintenance, the cost of heating/cooling, and cleaning. Instead of reaching for the largest house the bank says you can afford, get the smallest house you can tolerate. That will give you time to start a family, and see how much space you really need to live in. You can also get a far shorter mortgage, and likely have it paid off 10-12 year later. At that point, it would be easier to upsize if you really need another bedroom or two, compared to downsizing, if by the same time you were in a too-big house. | Normally, borrowing money is a bad idea because most loans are designed to be profitable for the lender. Financially, the borrower generally is at a disadvantage. Borrowing for consumer goods like living space, cars, furniture, jewelry, etc, is especially bad in most cases.
However, you say you have lenders offering a borrowing rate of 1.5% which is so low that, in my opinion, it is favorable for the borrower. If you can truly get this rate (and that includes all fees), then borrowing the money to buy real estate is probably a good idea as long as the real estate is a reasonable piece of property (in a good area, with no obvious problems like easements or restrictions, etc).
Loans impose a psychological burden on the borrower. You are no longer mentally free after you undertake a loan, but if you can get 1.5% and do not mind being a slave to a loan for 20 years, it could be financially beneficial. |
173,419 | I like looking at old questions where I got a new upvote, and today happened across this one:
<https://stackoverflow.com/questions/902003/functional-and-non-functional-requirments/902032#902032>
closed as being off topic.
Now look, folks, I've been a programmer and software engineer for more than 40 years. I can't *think* of a topic that's a lot more on-topic -- or important -- for a professional programmer than understanding the difference between functional and nonfunctional requirements. | 2013/03/25 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/173419",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/163561/"
] | This is not just about whether your question is on topic for software engineers. It is also - and more importantly - about whether it is on-topic for Stack Overflow. The site's [FAQ](https://stackoverflow.com/faq#questions) states that the following topics are considered on-topic for Stack Overflow:
>
> * a specific programming problem
> * a software algorithm
> * software tools commonly used by programmers
> * practical, answerable problems that are unique to software development
>
>
>
None of these apply to the question in question. So your question may be on-topic for software engineering, but is clearly off-topic for Stack Overflow. | [FAQ](https://stackoverflow.com/faq) mentions:
>
> You should only ask practical, answerable questions based on actual
> problems that you face. **Chatty, open-ended questions diminish the
> usefulness of our site** and push other questions off the front page.
>
>
> Your questions should be reasonably scoped. **If you can imagine an
> entire book that answers your question, you’re asking too much.**
>
>
>
Though it was a software engineering question but **not inline with FAQ**, so it was correctly closed. |
173,419 | I like looking at old questions where I got a new upvote, and today happened across this one:
<https://stackoverflow.com/questions/902003/functional-and-non-functional-requirments/902032#902032>
closed as being off topic.
Now look, folks, I've been a programmer and software engineer for more than 40 years. I can't *think* of a topic that's a lot more on-topic -- or important -- for a professional programmer than understanding the difference between functional and nonfunctional requirements. | 2013/03/25 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/173419",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/163561/"
] | This is not just about whether your question is on topic for software engineers. It is also - and more importantly - about whether it is on-topic for Stack Overflow. The site's [FAQ](https://stackoverflow.com/faq#questions) states that the following topics are considered on-topic for Stack Overflow:
>
> * a specific programming problem
> * a software algorithm
> * software tools commonly used by programmers
> * practical, answerable problems that are unique to software development
>
>
>
None of these apply to the question in question. So your question may be on-topic for software engineering, but is clearly off-topic for Stack Overflow. | This question has several... issues with it.
* Off topic: As another answerer has stated, it's [not in our scope](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/173421/16587). But let's say I'm wrong about that. Why else could it be closed?
* Not a Real Question: It's an impossibly broad question: You could come up with various requirements until you're blue.
* Too Localized: How many people will benefit from this specific question? There's no way to generalize it; it's about a specific paper that a specific university is using for their class assignment. Outside of that group of people, no one else will find this question.
* Not constructive: Too many possible answers, too much ability for discussion. Which one is the 'right' answer? How do we know objectively that it's right?
It also requires a link to a PDF to download even to answer. What happens when that link dies? The entire question becomes useless.
If:
* The question would be in the text and not in the PDF, and
* If, somehow, the OP could make the question a larger question about functional and non functional requirements and
* If, somehow, the OP could make a discernibly objective answer criteria
It'd probably still be off topic, but it'd be a lot closer to scope than it is currently.
As it stands,the question is so far outside of scope that even talking about it is just attracting rubber-neckers. I've deleted it. 10K users can edit it and flag it for un-deletion. We've got a lot of borderline questions we can talk about, but I just don't see this as one of them. |
173,419 | I like looking at old questions where I got a new upvote, and today happened across this one:
<https://stackoverflow.com/questions/902003/functional-and-non-functional-requirments/902032#902032>
closed as being off topic.
Now look, folks, I've been a programmer and software engineer for more than 40 years. I can't *think* of a topic that's a lot more on-topic -- or important -- for a professional programmer than understanding the difference between functional and nonfunctional requirements. | 2013/03/25 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/173419",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/163561/"
] | This question has several... issues with it.
* Off topic: As another answerer has stated, it's [not in our scope](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/173421/16587). But let's say I'm wrong about that. Why else could it be closed?
* Not a Real Question: It's an impossibly broad question: You could come up with various requirements until you're blue.
* Too Localized: How many people will benefit from this specific question? There's no way to generalize it; it's about a specific paper that a specific university is using for their class assignment. Outside of that group of people, no one else will find this question.
* Not constructive: Too many possible answers, too much ability for discussion. Which one is the 'right' answer? How do we know objectively that it's right?
It also requires a link to a PDF to download even to answer. What happens when that link dies? The entire question becomes useless.
If:
* The question would be in the text and not in the PDF, and
* If, somehow, the OP could make the question a larger question about functional and non functional requirements and
* If, somehow, the OP could make a discernibly objective answer criteria
It'd probably still be off topic, but it'd be a lot closer to scope than it is currently.
As it stands,the question is so far outside of scope that even talking about it is just attracting rubber-neckers. I've deleted it. 10K users can edit it and flag it for un-deletion. We've got a lot of borderline questions we can talk about, but I just don't see this as one of them. | [FAQ](https://stackoverflow.com/faq) mentions:
>
> You should only ask practical, answerable questions based on actual
> problems that you face. **Chatty, open-ended questions diminish the
> usefulness of our site** and push other questions off the front page.
>
>
> Your questions should be reasonably scoped. **If you can imagine an
> entire book that answers your question, you’re asking too much.**
>
>
>
Though it was a software engineering question but **not inline with FAQ**, so it was correctly closed. |
29,216 | I was using Facebook Connect to log into a site, but I was redirected to Zoho account management.
I was asked to either
1. Create a private portal or
2. Create a community forum.
I wasn't sure how to respond. This has happened to me before. Why am I being redirected? | 2012/03/02 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/29216",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/16571/"
] | Sounds like some malware, more than likely your proxy settings got turned on and you're being redirected to another site. Not sure what browser you are using but go into the Internet properties and check to ensure the proxy server doesnt have anything weird in it.
To check the proxy on Firefox go to PREFERENCES >> ADVANCED >> NETWORK >> SETTINGS >> Make sure no proxy is set. | It is possible that the site you used to login uses Zoho Discussions, a community portal. But you may have already used Facebook connect for another Zoho account of yours (CRM/ Mail/ Wiki/ Projects), hence you were redirected to the Zoho account management portal, since Zoho uses SSO.
Instead of sign up, choose "I have an account" and use Facebook Connect to login to the site and you should be connected to the site without any issues. |
89,881 | In the current case of Dominion v Fox News, we saw that text messages from Fox News hosts have been admitted as legal evidence in court.
My understanding was that text messages either had to be turned voluntarily, or they had to be forcefully retrieved by law-enforcement if they have a warrant.
Either scenario seems somewhat unlikely to me : I cannot imagine Fox News hosts to voluntarily hand over incriminating texts, and I also struggle to see how they would have been forced to enforce it, given how hard defamation is to prove in the US.
Does anyone have more details on how these text messages were obtained, and accepted in court? | 2023/02/28 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/89881",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/15963/"
] | Because the hosts are part of the defendants.
---------------------------------------------
A party in a lawsuit can demand documents to be turned over to them from the opposing party. That is called [Discovery](https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/discovery) and participation is mandatory. Not turning over the documents requested and not providing a good reason why they should not be turned over is contempt of court.
>
> Discovery under the Federal Rules is very broad. According to Rule 26(b)(1), "Parties may obtain discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that is relevant to any party's claim or defense." The federal rules also provide several tools that can be used to get information from other parties, including interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admission. **A party may also compel other parties to give them access to documents**, real property, **or other things for review** or testing. See [Rules 26-37.](https://www.law.cornell.edu/rules/frcp#chapter_v)
>
>
>
The Delaware rules of Civil Procedure mimic the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure very closely, and [their Rule 26](https://casetext.com/rule/delaware-court-rules/rules-of-civil-procedure-for-the-superior-court-of-the-state-of-delaware/depositions-and-discoery/rule-26-general-provisions-governing-discovery) is close to the [Federal Rule 34](https://www.law.cornell.edu/rules/frcp/rule_34). Especially interesting here is:
>
> Del. R. Civ. P. Super. Ct. 26 (b) (1) In general. - **Parties may obtain discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that is relevant to any party's claim** or defense and **proportional to the needs of the case**, **including the existence, description, nature, custody, condition and location of any** documents, **electronically stored information** (EST), or tangible things and the identity and location of persons having knowledge of any discoverable matter. It is not ground for objection that the information sought will be inadmissible at the trial. [...]
>
>
>
The hosts are employees of the defendant, the phones contain EST that is regarding the matter and relevant to Dominion's claim, and disclosure is proportional to the needs of the case. As such, The employer has to make them comply with discovery requests by the opposing party and hand over the text messages. | This was apparently part of the normal [discovery](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Discovery_(law)) process. Discovery can compel disclosure from parties and even non-parties upon subpoenas. The lawsuit is in the Superior Court of the State of Delaware, so discovery is governed by Rules of Civil Procedure for the Superior Court of the State of Delaware, [Rule 26](https://casetext.com/rule/delaware-court-rules/rules-of-civil-procedure-for-the-superior-court-of-the-state-of-delaware/depositions-and-discoery/rule-26-general-provisions-governing-discovery) (as opposed to federal rules, but they are essentially the same).
>
> Through the discovery process, Dominion has gained access to internal Fox emails, and several network hosts and executives have sat for depositions, as has Fox Corp. chair Rupert Murdoch.
>
>
> CBC, "[Fox's Murdoch called election fraud claims a 'Trump myth,' Toronto's Dominion says in court filing](https://www.cbc.ca/news/world/fox-dominion-defamation-suit-1.6752030)"
>
>
>
In [Dominion's Brief in Support of its Motion for Summary Judgment](https://int.nyt.com/data/documenttools/redacted-documents-in-dominion-fox-news-case/dca5e3880422426f/full.pdf), it refers to discovery, saying (among other things):
>
> Fox produced many text messages with a date stamp in "UTC" time...
>
>
> |
593,051 | I am designing a computer network for a public high school and came up with the following division of responsibilities between the servers:
In the LAN:
* **Active Directory Domain Controller.** The DC will serve approx. 130 devices in the LAN. DNS, DHCP and RADIUS run here.
* **File server.** User profiles, data shares, mail.
* **Application server.** SQL server and several other programs, such as IP camera recorder, building access control, lunch ordering system, etc.
In the DMZ:
* **Internet gateway.** Provides access to the Internet. Runs Exchange, IIS and a web-caching proxy.
* **Web server.** Debian GNU/Linux hosting several websites and webmail.
---
This is five servers. Although I can acquire the necessary hardware, it seems like a lot. And for some reason, I do not like having servers virtualized.
If I use this design, I would like to take advantage of it and run another AD DC on the file server, just in case something goes wrong with the first server. But user profiles are stored on the file server, so if the file server goes down, everything goes down.
So maybe I could move the data onto a disk array attached to both the AD DC and the file server. Both of them would serve as a DC and file server. I could even run secondary DNS, backup DHCP and backup RADIUS on the second server thus making all services redundant for a little more configuration.
Half of the computers in the LAN could have the first server configured as the primary DC/DHCP/DNS, the other half could use the other server as the primary to balance loads.
SQL server is absolutely critical on the Application server. I could run a backup SQL server on the first DC. The other apps on the application server are not as critical.
Two machines are in the DMZ. Unfortunately we need IIS server in the DMZ. Otherwise a single GNU/Linux server would do. (I would use postfix instead of Exchange Server.)
---
I do not have much experience with the design of computer networks (except for very small networks or separate servers) and would like to know whether or not is my design reasonable and whether there are any inherent flaws.
If there is a good book on the subject, please let me know. | 2014/05/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/593051",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/215074/"
] | You want high availability - the ability for everything to keep running smoothly when something fails. Virtualization is a key part of offering that. I would not even think of doing this without virtual machines.
A very simple setup would be two physical servers with lots of RAM, running VMware ESXI or HyperV in a cluster, and some shared storage (an iSCSI SAN, for example). I'm a big fan of HyperV, especially if you get special educational pricing on Windows Server Datacenter. Spec the systems so everything COULD run on one server, though perhaps not as quickly as you'd like it to under normal circumstances. Primarily this means having enough RAM to run everything. If you do this, under normal circumstances the load will be balanced across the two servers, but if a physical host fails, everything keeps running and nobody is screaming at you while you fix it.
Virtualizing means you aren't limited by the number of physical servers you have (though you are limited by their memory and CPU power). This means you can do things like run two domain controllers, with DHCP either setup as a failover cluster role or split DHCP ranges. You may also be able to use the new Server 2012 features to run a continuously available file server. Same things goes for redundant SQL servers. In both cases, you tell the virtualization platform to keep those virtual machine pairs on separate physical servers, so even if a physical server dies nobody notices.
You NEED to have two domain controllers. Anything less is asking for trouble down the road. Active directory ties into everything, and if it goes down, a LOT of things break. More importantly, recovering active directory is a lot easier if there is still a working domain controller on the network.
Your idea to run your fileserver as a second domain controller isn't too terrible. But running SQL on a domain controller isn't a good idea. Separate servers for separate tasks makes things less likely to break, gives you more control over down time (I need to update SQL server...so I have to take active directory offline for awhile...), and makes restoring backups much, much simpler.
The DMZ can be handled by VLANs on the same servers, or could be a separate physical box, depending on exactly what you need.
The best aspect of virtualization, besides saving you a ton of money buying expensive servers that sit idle all day, is that it decouples the operating system from the hardware. Want to upgrade the hardware to the latest and greatest model - no problem, no need to reinstall windows, just install the hypervisor and migrate the virtual machine over. In many cases, this can be done **without even turning the virtual machine off, 0 downtime**. The OS doesn't know its on new hardware, doesn't need drivers reinstalled, it just works.
Working for a school you're probably eligible for awesome discounts from Microsoft, so I'd recommend picking up a good book on Hyper-V. For picking hardware - work with a vendor. Dell or HP or whoever will be more than happy to show you a setup of servers and storage that they've already tested to work well together. | The avoidance of virtual servers certainly restricts your choice. You should reconsider this if possible.
There is no good way to run multiple DHCP on a segment. It makes more sense to run this as a cluster resource to ensure high-availability. The second DC is essential to allow things like maintenance to happen during normal hours. You don't indicate the reason for RADIUS, so I'll assume VPN. This should also be redundant to allow faults and maintenance.
SQL Server also needs a highly available cluster to provide assured service.
The IIS in the DMZ is curious. If you intend to keep a \*nux web server there, use reverse proxy to keep the IIS role inside the firewall. That way you can also keep the Exchange role on the internal servers.
It is more important to consider the workload of each role than the specific role.
You also need to consider how you want to allow for backups across this many machines.
Look at using a cluster as a NAS front-ending onto a fault-tolerant SAN node - iSCSI attached to lower costs. You also need redundant switches. |
5,301,554 | In Firefox there is a menu item that displays "Page Source": View | Page Source (Ctrl+U).
In Internet Explorer there is a similar function.
When you invoke it, it displays a nicely formatted and syntax-highlighted collection of HTML (and JavaScript) code.
What I don't know is whether this HTML (viewable in the Page Source) is the result of *pre-processing* of the JavaScript (resulting in modification of the original raw HTML) or just *raw* as received by HTTP GET. | 2011/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5301554",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/658798/"
] | The "View Source" code is the code **before** any JavaScript is applied.
Firefox's Web Dev toolbar will allow you to view the resulting post-JavaScript source code from the View Source > View Generated Source menu option. | Before. The page source is the result of the GET request by the browser sans headers. If you want to view the updated content after scripts and so forth, you'll have to use a tool like Firebug or the Web Development toolbar. |
5,301,554 | In Firefox there is a menu item that displays "Page Source": View | Page Source (Ctrl+U).
In Internet Explorer there is a similar function.
When you invoke it, it displays a nicely formatted and syntax-highlighted collection of HTML (and JavaScript) code.
What I don't know is whether this HTML (viewable in the Page Source) is the result of *pre-processing* of the JavaScript (resulting in modification of the original raw HTML) or just *raw* as received by HTTP GET. | 2011/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5301554",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/658798/"
] | The "View Source" code is the code **before** any JavaScript is applied.
Firefox's Web Dev toolbar will allow you to view the resulting post-JavaScript source code from the View Source > View Generated Source menu option. | Unfortunately, it will always display the HTML as the page was before DOM-change by javascript, etc. So the answer is: what you are seeing is "raw as received by HTTP GET".
You can use a tool like Firebug (Firefox & Chrome) to see live dom changes. Or you can make your own function to display the live dom. |
5,301,554 | In Firefox there is a menu item that displays "Page Source": View | Page Source (Ctrl+U).
In Internet Explorer there is a similar function.
When you invoke it, it displays a nicely formatted and syntax-highlighted collection of HTML (and JavaScript) code.
What I don't know is whether this HTML (viewable in the Page Source) is the result of *pre-processing* of the JavaScript (resulting in modification of the original raw HTML) or just *raw* as received by HTTP GET. | 2011/03/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5301554",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/658798/"
] | The "View Source" code is the code **before** any JavaScript is applied.
Firefox's Web Dev toolbar will allow you to view the resulting post-JavaScript source code from the View Source > View Generated Source menu option. | It is the source that was returned to the browser by the server, before DOM updates made through javascript. |
237,222 | Is anyone aware of any alternatives to curl and wget? The key functional requirement I'm looking for is to be able to execute an HTTPS GET request against a known URL.
The reason I'm looking for an alternative is simply that I'm trying to execute a connectivity test from a server which currently doesn't have wget or curl installed. The server concerned is under strict change control and so installing new software on it is a no-no.
The operating system installed on the server is AIX. | 2011/02/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/237222",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/58958/"
] | If you can ssh into the server, I recommend this:
1. Think of a random port, like 5555 that you will use on your local machine.
2. Run ssh -L 5555:remote\_server:443 username@aix\_server
3. Point your browser to <https://localhost:5555/>
Your browser will report an error that the certificate is not for *localhost*, but for the remote\_server, but at least you would have proved that the connectivity works. You could also use openssl s\_client -connect localhost:5555, as noted on other answers to verify more in detail the encrypted communication.
Good luck! | Have you got Perl with LWP::Simple? |
3,490 | **The problem**
When doing a literature review at the start of a process of addressing a specific problem, it's easy to miss related material, if I don't know that it **is** related.
**The example**
Let's say I'm looking at a particular electricity-generation problem relating to pollution costs (in a very broad sense), of combustion and cooling: there might be relevant papers about, say, biodiversity and temperature in river water, that I don't know about, and haven't made the connection to, and it appears in a journal well outside the field of electricity generation.
However, within the literature, there will be authors whose papers span those fields: work on valuing biodiversity (so that loss of biodiversity represents a quantifiable cost), and the effect on biodiversity of changing river temperatures (so that using river-cooling in electricity generation, has a deleterious effect on river biodiversity).
**The proposition**
It should be possible, by doing an analysis of keywords, of co-authorship, and of journals, to automate the building of a network of subjects and of authors, to map out interconnections between specific narrow subject areas, and find the people that work in those interconnecting areas.
**The question**
Is there such a network map of subjects and authors, anywhere? Not just for this specific example, but one that spans a very wide range of literature (e.g. Engineering, Science, Technology, Economics). Ideally, one that gets updated frequently, based on ongoing publications?
As I hope the example above illustrates, it has to be:
* easy to interrogate it;
* very detailed on subject linkages; and
* provide links between people as well as subjects. | 2012/09/30 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/3490",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/96/"
] | Here is a subject map of science:
It is taken from the following paper, freely available from Plos One:
<http://www.plosone.org/article/info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0039464?imageURI=info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0039464.g001>
I think that this is the sort of thing that you are interested in.
N.B. I am not a co-author, nor have I read the paper, so I make no judgment on its quality. | Generally, a researcher is current in the field, (s)he knows the top conferences and key research groups as well as what they have achieved. Often there is no space to list every paper on a certain subject anyway, so one must choose the key papers related to the topic at hand.
However, there are quite a few services that index papers by keywords or topics and authors. [Scopus](http://www.scopus.com), [Web of Science](http://thomsonreuters.com/products_services/science/science_products/a-z/web_of_science/), [IEEE Xplore](http://ieeexplore.ieee.org), [ACM digital library](http://dl.acm.org) to name a few.
Search engines do a good job indexing the papers, [Google Scholar](http://scholar.google.com) and [DBLP](http://www.informatik.uni-trier.de/~ley/db/) come to mind.
And finally, the social networks such as [Mendeley](http://www.mendeley.com/), [Linked In](http://www.linkedin.com) and [Research Gate](http://www.researchgate.net) encourage the authors to list their research publications and provide search functionality. |
3,490 | **The problem**
When doing a literature review at the start of a process of addressing a specific problem, it's easy to miss related material, if I don't know that it **is** related.
**The example**
Let's say I'm looking at a particular electricity-generation problem relating to pollution costs (in a very broad sense), of combustion and cooling: there might be relevant papers about, say, biodiversity and temperature in river water, that I don't know about, and haven't made the connection to, and it appears in a journal well outside the field of electricity generation.
However, within the literature, there will be authors whose papers span those fields: work on valuing biodiversity (so that loss of biodiversity represents a quantifiable cost), and the effect on biodiversity of changing river temperatures (so that using river-cooling in electricity generation, has a deleterious effect on river biodiversity).
**The proposition**
It should be possible, by doing an analysis of keywords, of co-authorship, and of journals, to automate the building of a network of subjects and of authors, to map out interconnections between specific narrow subject areas, and find the people that work in those interconnecting areas.
**The question**
Is there such a network map of subjects and authors, anywhere? Not just for this specific example, but one that spans a very wide range of literature (e.g. Engineering, Science, Technology, Economics). Ideally, one that gets updated frequently, based on ongoing publications?
As I hope the example above illustrates, it has to be:
* easy to interrogate it;
* very detailed on subject linkages; and
* provide links between people as well as subjects. | 2012/09/30 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/3490",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/96/"
] | Here is a subject map of science:
It is taken from the following paper, freely available from Plos One:
<http://www.plosone.org/article/info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0039464?imageURI=info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0039464.g001>
I think that this is the sort of thing that you are interested in.
N.B. I am not a co-author, nor have I read the paper, so I make no judgment on its quality. | There is an interactive map on [Eigenfactor](http://www.eigenfactor.org/) (a much better (arguably) way for assessing impact that mere citation counting):
[eigenfactor.org - mapping science](http://www.eigenfactor.org/map/index.php) (currently, only for medicine related)
You can explore disciplines by graph of citations (i.e. which discipline cites which; it need not to be symmetric). |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.