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12,378 | Instead of discovering that earth was round, we find that we live on a infinite, flat "earth".
What are some cultural implications if we were to live in a world like that (disregarding any physical impossibilities, and that gravity, biological/ecological systems remain roughly the same as reality).
One interesting idea is that cities could be tens of thousands of kilometers from another and that one can only explore so much of the world in their lifetime.
EDIT: I don't mean flat as in geometrically flat, but flat in general. There would still be mountain ranges and oceans and forests and stuff. But there would be different and exotic ecological systems as you travel. | 2015/03/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/12378",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/8105/"
] | Life starting from a single point will create a so called [Fairy Ring](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fairy_ring).
Life will move outwards, expanding the ring seeking for a new resources. Many concentric ever expanding rings may be created as a new life evolves, that is able to use resources that the life in the previous ring was not able to use. | I was actually at a planetarium this weekend and I thought of this question based on a display that was there. It had the travel times to pluto and Proxima Centauri based on a car, a plane, and a rocket ship and then light. What that drove home to me was that I think most of these answers are looking at things from too high of an abstraction perhaps.
On earth if I get on a plane there is a limit to how far I can travel; on this flat world there isn't, not in any direction. There isn't going to be just the Panama Canal and the Suez Canal but probably some Northwest Canal and a Hyperion Canal and a Southern Canal and that is still just in the same grid as we are in; There will be many, many more before one gets to the distance of the moon (1.3 light seconds away); which going a constant 80 mph 24 hours a day would take one 124 day to reach (or 248 to travel from one end to the other).
In this setting what would a MAD policy even mean? one could just out fit a fleet of Zeppelins and travel, but then again there is no assurance that one would necessarily reach a place one could live/conquer even if one traveled ones entire life (or many lifetimes). Likewise, the notion of a "UN"; there would always be nations known to at least some of the member nations that are not part of the UN, and eventually it would reach the point where traveling to and from meetings would take longer than meetings themselves would, or even longer than ones life; while still being much shorter than what can be communicated.
The speed of light being so much faster than anything else, it would be trivial to be able to communicate with people with whom contact is impossible. Mars is 3 light minutes away at closest approach but traveling at Mach 1 would take about 22 years to reach that distance, so quite close enough to communicate with via radio (or on stackexchange using fiber optics or satellites fixed to the celestial spheres, even if first person shooters might be out of the question) but generalized trade wouldn't really happen, not via shipping or rail or plane or even supersonic flight.
So there would be a limit to everything as we are finite even as the world would not be; nations may be fine with nuking some cities and conquering areas many times larger than our earth but eventually either in war or in peace stability would be reached as in 1984 in regions where to go further from their central regions is not worth the marginal effort of doing so.
There would also be many more opportunities for Columbian exchanges to happen, where technologies, foods, and illness (which can be devastating) from one area mix with another (giving the Old World the potato, tomato, chili pepper, corn, chocolate, etc.) Which means that even long trading expeditions could end up being very profitable.
Sure the fragmentation would mean that eventually the people that one is trading/communicating with may not even be people any more (I mean we already dealt with/are still dealing with that idea in our own pale blue dot) but they are really not any stranger or more dangerous than the people who closer at hand but still far enough away to be different than one is oneself, which as already pointed out can be literally next door. |
12,378 | Instead of discovering that earth was round, we find that we live on a infinite, flat "earth".
What are some cultural implications if we were to live in a world like that (disregarding any physical impossibilities, and that gravity, biological/ecological systems remain roughly the same as reality).
One interesting idea is that cities could be tens of thousands of kilometers from another and that one can only explore so much of the world in their lifetime.
EDIT: I don't mean flat as in geometrically flat, but flat in general. There would still be mountain ranges and oceans and forests and stuff. But there would be different and exotic ecological systems as you travel. | 2015/03/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/12378",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/8105/"
] | Any world where an immortal can travel forever without repeating themselves has some interesting implications, some of the things to think about include the migration of disease strains through various populations, plant, human and animal, that call this world home. What happens when nomadic tribes that haven't stop moving in generations run into areas of closely settled farming communities where no-one goes anywhere and haven't for generations either. The migration of new plants and animals across the territories of the universe, introduced pests, the existence and extent of natural barriers like oceans and mountains is important as well. In fact in this kind of universe the water/land balance becomes of vital importance to how things move, if all bodies of water are ultimately landlocked then they don't provide a barrier to migration only a detour, if on the other hand all continents are ultimately islands then migrations are heavily curtailed in the overall scheme. Oceans may be too large to navigate, rivers too vast to bridge, deserts too wide to cross, any geographic feature that can act as a barrier or even a resource can potentially be so large as to create problems for mortals. A wood cutting camp may disappear into the forest they're cutting as regrowth cuts them off from their compatriots who still get logs floated down stream to them but have forgotten from whom they come. Human memory itself becomes a problem in dealing with such large distances.
How far and how fast waves of civilisation grow and collapse across an infinite space is also important; start with the speed of communication and transmission of force, whether aimed at revolting peasants or securing a border, this really sets some limits on centrally organised cultures. A traveler from a civilised enclave will probably be out of touch with their birth culture rather rapidly and into truly alien cultures reasonably shortly thereafter. In theory you could have a culture that spreads at the same rate it fails creating a ring of cities and industry that expands across the world leaving a growing circle of ruins in it's centre. Also consider what limits there may be on technological growth imposed by resource availability, if the world is flat is it also thin and therefore relatively devoid of mining opportunities
The other thing to look at is kind of the opposite of all of the above it's about things that are similar not things that are different. Ultimately in a truly infinite space you will leave behind your cultural, and possibly even your genetic, heritage but it's important when working on a world so vast to think about how far certain practices an individual takes for granted *are* distributed, can an immortal find that though they've walked 50 miles a day for millennia they still find that everyone they meet grows wheat and bakes bread or can a man walk but three days up the road and find the world is unrecognisable? How far can you go and *not* notice the differences in how the world is "out here".
That's just a few thoughts from a piece I've been working on, on and off, for a while, that uses Cosmic Macaroni as the backdrop but the principles are the same. I'm going to have to think about uses for an infinite flat space I've done "humanly infinite" spaces and objects before (worlds so large that nothing living in them lives long enough to see any noticeable fraction of them) but never flat spaces. | Not good (or at least, not much better than our history).
The issue is not only as much "real estate" you have, but how much of it is usable. For example, most of the Earth surface has no human population (the oceans, Antartica) or just a bare minimum (deserts, Amazonian).
In that sense, if your area becomes overcrowded, maybe the nearest free soil is too far away (or has to pass through too many of other tribes'territory) to be of any actual interest.
So you would begin with isolated human groups, which would grown and expand. At the beginning, most of them would be able to send excess population out of the frontier, but with time the "frontier" tribes will find that the free soil is too far away (think how once, the USA frontier run through the Appalachian Mountains).
As technology progresses, the "frontier tribes" would become bigger and bigger (because with better technology is easier to keep the political unity). There would be cycles of frontier nations becoming too big, desintegrating in several nations, and the new "inner" nations using their power to push back the weaker nations of the privous cycle. Probably, sometimes population pressure in the older (inner) nations would lead to massive migrations/waves of conquests, like those of the Germanic peoples or the Mongols. |
12,378 | Instead of discovering that earth was round, we find that we live on a infinite, flat "earth".
What are some cultural implications if we were to live in a world like that (disregarding any physical impossibilities, and that gravity, biological/ecological systems remain roughly the same as reality).
One interesting idea is that cities could be tens of thousands of kilometers from another and that one can only explore so much of the world in their lifetime.
EDIT: I don't mean flat as in geometrically flat, but flat in general. There would still be mountain ranges and oceans and forests and stuff. But there would be different and exotic ecological systems as you travel. | 2015/03/20 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/12378",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/8105/"
] | This would actually be really awesome. It wouldn't really be a planet anymore, but it could conveniently be called a plane or plane-et.
**We could find the epicenter of life.**
Presumably, abiogenesis is quite rare. On an infinite flat Earth it will certainly have occurred elsewhere, but not likely very near to us. Theoretically, we would eventually be able to travel fast enough that we could get to the edge of life. This is similar to how we look at the background radiation of the universe to see its birth.
**Aliens on the same plane-et**
Because life will have certainly occurred elsewhere (a vanishingly small chance in infinite space is a guarantee) we could meet lifeforms that would be totally alien to us, but clearly able to live in similar conditions. They might even be significantly more advanced than us.
**Geo-location would be difficult**
We couldn't build geosynchronous satellites. No GPS. For something to remain geostationary it would need to constantly thrust. Orbit wouldn't be possible. Getting the satellites into the same impossible space as the Sun (or moon if we've got it) wouldn't help because they wouldn't be good references for geolocation. The best we could do is built beacon towers. But the range would be incredibly limited and line-of-sight requirements would make it fairly ineffective.
**Infinite resources**
Obviously we wouldn't need to worry about resources so much. Including fresh air and water. We could pollute as much as we wanted because there would always be more resources further away.
**Nomadic Lives**
Most likely we'd live a long term nomadic life. Is it really worth building a massive city when the resources in the area will eventually be used up? Why would a farmer preserve their land if it's so much easier just to keep moving? When something like land becomes infinite, it's hardly precious anymore. We'd use it up and move on. Maybe we'll circle around in 10,000 years when things have replenished a bit. | With infinite living space, population control might not be such a major concern.
Isaac Asimov's essay "The Relativity of Wrong" can also be a good reference as to why the Earth was/could still be seen as flat... But what if the concave curvature of your living surface was that of the Earth's *orbit* instead? Idea is from a Larry Niven sci-fi novel "Ringworld".
An oversimplified immersive approach to visualizing said infinitely flat(relatively!) land would be found in a game of Halo. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | The RAI on this one is a little uncertain, from what I can tell.
In [this October 2015 tweet](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/651801858130898944), rules designer Jeremy Crawford responded to a question about using the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip for an opportunity attack:
>
> Without a feature like the War Caster feat, a spell can never be cast in place of an opportunity attack.
>
>
>
He doesn't make it incredibly clear, but the implication here seems to be that with the feat, this would be possible.
However, this is contradicted by [a later tweet in November 2015](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/663510873449762816), in which he stated:
>
> Twinned Spell doesn't work with a spell that targets more than 1 creature. Green-flame blade targets 2.
>
>
>
This explicitly states that the spell targets multiple creatures (and therefore wouldn't qualify for the War Caster benefit), but again in a different context.
My instinct here is to agree with explicit disqualification, rather than implied exception, so I would say the RAI is that you can't use *Green-Flame Blade* with an opportunity attack. | This is probably a DM decision. I would say yes as the spell only targets one creature:
>
> you must make a melee attack with a weapon against one creature within the spell's range
>
>
>
The second target isn't directly targeted by the spell, but is hit as an additional property of the spell. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | The RAI on this one is a little uncertain, from what I can tell.
In [this October 2015 tweet](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/651801858130898944), rules designer Jeremy Crawford responded to a question about using the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip for an opportunity attack:
>
> Without a feature like the War Caster feat, a spell can never be cast in place of an opportunity attack.
>
>
>
He doesn't make it incredibly clear, but the implication here seems to be that with the feat, this would be possible.
However, this is contradicted by [a later tweet in November 2015](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/663510873449762816), in which he stated:
>
> Twinned Spell doesn't work with a spell that targets more than 1 creature. Green-flame blade targets 2.
>
>
>
This explicitly states that the spell targets multiple creatures (and therefore wouldn't qualify for the War Caster benefit), but again in a different context.
My instinct here is to agree with explicit disqualification, rather than implied exception, so I would say the RAI is that you can't use *Green-Flame Blade* with an opportunity attack. | Yes, you can, provided you don't hit any other creature with the secondary effect
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> * When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature.**
>
>
>
As long as the only creature getting hit by the spell is the one that provoked the opportunity attack, it is legal.
In response to a very similar question on Twitter about using *eldritch blast* (as a character of 5th level or higher) with War Caster, rules designer Jeremy Crawford [tweeted the following](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/908469121502736384?lang=en):
>
> The 3rd benefit of War Caster requires you to target only the moving creature. Eldritch blast works as long as all the beams target it.
>
>
> |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | The RAI on this one is a little uncertain, from what I can tell.
In [this October 2015 tweet](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/651801858130898944), rules designer Jeremy Crawford responded to a question about using the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip for an opportunity attack:
>
> Without a feature like the War Caster feat, a spell can never be cast in place of an opportunity attack.
>
>
>
He doesn't make it incredibly clear, but the implication here seems to be that with the feat, this would be possible.
However, this is contradicted by [a later tweet in November 2015](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/663510873449762816), in which he stated:
>
> Twinned Spell doesn't work with a spell that targets more than 1 creature. Green-flame blade targets 2.
>
>
>
This explicitly states that the spell targets multiple creatures (and therefore wouldn't qualify for the War Caster benefit), but again in a different context.
My instinct here is to agree with explicit disqualification, rather than implied exception, so I would say the RAI is that you can't use *Green-Flame Blade* with an opportunity attack. | This does not work.
-------------------
As of the [November 10th, 2020 errata to the *Sword Coast Adventurer's Guide*](https://media.wizards.com/2020/dnd/downloads/SCAG-Errata.pdf), the [*green-flame blade*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/green-flame-blade) cantrip (SCAG, p. 142; TCoE, p. 107) has a range of "Self (5-foot radius)".
However, the third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature**.
>
>
>
Since *green-flame blade* has a range of self, it targets the caster, not "only that creature" which provoked the opportunity attack.
---
It should be noted that rules designer Jeremy Crawford has [stated on Twitter that War Caster still works with *green-flame blade*](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752). I disagree with this ruling, based on my explanation above, and think he should have made his rules clear enough to not need unofficial rulings on Twitter. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | The RAI on this one is a little uncertain, from what I can tell.
In [this October 2015 tweet](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/651801858130898944), rules designer Jeremy Crawford responded to a question about using the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip for an opportunity attack:
>
> Without a feature like the War Caster feat, a spell can never be cast in place of an opportunity attack.
>
>
>
He doesn't make it incredibly clear, but the implication here seems to be that with the feat, this would be possible.
However, this is contradicted by [a later tweet in November 2015](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/663510873449762816), in which he stated:
>
> Twinned Spell doesn't work with a spell that targets more than 1 creature. Green-flame blade targets 2.
>
>
>
This explicitly states that the spell targets multiple creatures (and therefore wouldn't qualify for the War Caster benefit), but again in a different context.
My instinct here is to agree with explicit disqualification, rather than implied exception, so I would say the RAI is that you can't use *Green-Flame Blade* with an opportunity attack. | Yes, as long as the fire doesn't "leap" to a second creature
------------------------------------------------------------
Jeremy Crawford has posted some [clarifications regarding spells with a range of "Self" (followed by an area)](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326595384790056960) after the release of *Tasha's Cauldron of Everything*:
>
> A note about D&D spells with a range of "Self (XYZ)": the parenthetical—which says "5-foot radius," "15-foot cone," or something else—means you are the spell's point of origin, but you aren't necessarily its target. You're creating an effect that originates in your space.
>
>
>
He then posted a followup tweet [explicitly stating that the *booming blade* and *green-flame blade* cantrips work with War Caster](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752) (with a caveat, for the latter):
>
> The Booming Blade spell continues to work with the War Caster feat. The spell targets one creature.
>
>
> The Green-Flame Blade spell continues to work with War Caster if you forgo targeting a second creature with the green fire.
>
>
> |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | Yes, you can, provided you don't hit any other creature with the secondary effect
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> * When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature.**
>
>
>
As long as the only creature getting hit by the spell is the one that provoked the opportunity attack, it is legal.
In response to a very similar question on Twitter about using *eldritch blast* (as a character of 5th level or higher) with War Caster, rules designer Jeremy Crawford [tweeted the following](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/908469121502736384?lang=en):
>
> The 3rd benefit of War Caster requires you to target only the moving creature. Eldritch blast works as long as all the beams target it.
>
>
> | This is probably a DM decision. I would say yes as the spell only targets one creature:
>
> you must make a melee attack with a weapon against one creature within the spell's range
>
>
>
The second target isn't directly targeted by the spell, but is hit as an additional property of the spell. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | This does not work.
-------------------
As of the [November 10th, 2020 errata to the *Sword Coast Adventurer's Guide*](https://media.wizards.com/2020/dnd/downloads/SCAG-Errata.pdf), the [*green-flame blade*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/green-flame-blade) cantrip (SCAG, p. 142; TCoE, p. 107) has a range of "Self (5-foot radius)".
However, the third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature**.
>
>
>
Since *green-flame blade* has a range of self, it targets the caster, not "only that creature" which provoked the opportunity attack.
---
It should be noted that rules designer Jeremy Crawford has [stated on Twitter that War Caster still works with *green-flame blade*](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752). I disagree with this ruling, based on my explanation above, and think he should have made his rules clear enough to not need unofficial rulings on Twitter. | This is probably a DM decision. I would say yes as the spell only targets one creature:
>
> you must make a melee attack with a weapon against one creature within the spell's range
>
>
>
The second target isn't directly targeted by the spell, but is hit as an additional property of the spell. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | Yes, as long as the fire doesn't "leap" to a second creature
------------------------------------------------------------
Jeremy Crawford has posted some [clarifications regarding spells with a range of "Self" (followed by an area)](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326595384790056960) after the release of *Tasha's Cauldron of Everything*:
>
> A note about D&D spells with a range of "Self (XYZ)": the parenthetical—which says "5-foot radius," "15-foot cone," or something else—means you are the spell's point of origin, but you aren't necessarily its target. You're creating an effect that originates in your space.
>
>
>
He then posted a followup tweet [explicitly stating that the *booming blade* and *green-flame blade* cantrips work with War Caster](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752) (with a caveat, for the latter):
>
> The Booming Blade spell continues to work with the War Caster feat. The spell targets one creature.
>
>
> The Green-Flame Blade spell continues to work with War Caster if you forgo targeting a second creature with the green fire.
>
>
> | This is probably a DM decision. I would say yes as the spell only targets one creature:
>
> you must make a melee attack with a weapon against one creature within the spell's range
>
>
>
The second target isn't directly targeted by the spell, but is hit as an additional property of the spell. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | Yes, you can, provided you don't hit any other creature with the secondary effect
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> * When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature.**
>
>
>
As long as the only creature getting hit by the spell is the one that provoked the opportunity attack, it is legal.
In response to a very similar question on Twitter about using *eldritch blast* (as a character of 5th level or higher) with War Caster, rules designer Jeremy Crawford [tweeted the following](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/908469121502736384?lang=en):
>
> The 3rd benefit of War Caster requires you to target only the moving creature. Eldritch blast works as long as all the beams target it.
>
>
> | This does not work.
-------------------
As of the [November 10th, 2020 errata to the *Sword Coast Adventurer's Guide*](https://media.wizards.com/2020/dnd/downloads/SCAG-Errata.pdf), the [*green-flame blade*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/green-flame-blade) cantrip (SCAG, p. 142; TCoE, p. 107) has a range of "Self (5-foot radius)".
However, the third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature**.
>
>
>
Since *green-flame blade* has a range of self, it targets the caster, not "only that creature" which provoked the opportunity attack.
---
It should be noted that rules designer Jeremy Crawford has [stated on Twitter that War Caster still works with *green-flame blade*](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752). I disagree with this ruling, based on my explanation above, and think he should have made his rules clear enough to not need unofficial rulings on Twitter. |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | Yes, you can, provided you don't hit any other creature with the secondary effect
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> * When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature.**
>
>
>
As long as the only creature getting hit by the spell is the one that provoked the opportunity attack, it is legal.
In response to a very similar question on Twitter about using *eldritch blast* (as a character of 5th level or higher) with War Caster, rules designer Jeremy Crawford [tweeted the following](https://twitter.com/jeremyecrawford/status/908469121502736384?lang=en):
>
> The 3rd benefit of War Caster requires you to target only the moving creature. Eldritch blast works as long as all the beams target it.
>
>
> | Yes, as long as the fire doesn't "leap" to a second creature
------------------------------------------------------------
Jeremy Crawford has posted some [clarifications regarding spells with a range of "Self" (followed by an area)](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326595384790056960) after the release of *Tasha's Cauldron of Everything*:
>
> A note about D&D spells with a range of "Self (XYZ)": the parenthetical—which says "5-foot radius," "15-foot cone," or something else—means you are the spell's point of origin, but you aren't necessarily its target. You're creating an effect that originates in your space.
>
>
>
He then posted a followup tweet [explicitly stating that the *booming blade* and *green-flame blade* cantrips work with War Caster](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752) (with a caveat, for the latter):
>
> The Booming Blade spell continues to work with the War Caster feat. The spell targets one creature.
>
>
> The Green-Flame Blade spell continues to work with War Caster if you forgo targeting a second creature with the green fire.
>
>
> |
77,738 | The War Caster feat (PHB, p. 170) allows a single-target spell ("must target only that creature") to be cast instead of an opportunity attack.
The *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) appears to have a single target, and then some damage "leaps" onto a creature 5 feet away. The other creature is never referred to as the target, or even "a target".
**Can the *Green-Flame Blade* cantrip be cast as a reaction using the War Caster feat?**
I'm pretty sure this is solid from the RAW perspective. Is this legit from a RAI perspective? | 2016/03/26 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/77738",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/23340/"
] | This does not work.
-------------------
As of the [November 10th, 2020 errata to the *Sword Coast Adventurer's Guide*](https://media.wizards.com/2020/dnd/downloads/SCAG-Errata.pdf), the [*green-flame blade*](https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/green-flame-blade) cantrip (SCAG, p. 142; TCoE, p. 107) has a range of "Self (5-foot radius)".
However, the third benefit of the [War Caster](https://www.dndbeyond.com/feats/war-caster) feat says (PHB, p. 170; emphasis mine):
>
> When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and **must target only that creature**.
>
>
>
Since *green-flame blade* has a range of self, it targets the caster, not "only that creature" which provoked the opportunity attack.
---
It should be noted that rules designer Jeremy Crawford has [stated on Twitter that War Caster still works with *green-flame blade*](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752). I disagree with this ruling, based on my explanation above, and think he should have made his rules clear enough to not need unofficial rulings on Twitter. | Yes, as long as the fire doesn't "leap" to a second creature
------------------------------------------------------------
Jeremy Crawford has posted some [clarifications regarding spells with a range of "Self" (followed by an area)](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326595384790056960) after the release of *Tasha's Cauldron of Everything*:
>
> A note about D&D spells with a range of "Self (XYZ)": the parenthetical—which says "5-foot radius," "15-foot cone," or something else—means you are the spell's point of origin, but you aren't necessarily its target. You're creating an effect that originates in your space.
>
>
>
He then posted a followup tweet [explicitly stating that the *booming blade* and *green-flame blade* cantrips work with War Caster](https://twitter.com/JeremyECrawford/status/1326598236937674752) (with a caveat, for the latter):
>
> The Booming Blade spell continues to work with the War Caster feat. The spell targets one creature.
>
>
> The Green-Flame Blade spell continues to work with War Caster if you forgo targeting a second creature with the green fire.
>
>
> |
10,869,107 | I have 3 levels of users in my Team Foundation Server:
1. **Programmer**: A code reviewer must review their code and they cannot check in their own code
2. **Professional Programmer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed but a copy of their code should be automatically sent to a code reviewer
3. **Code Reviewer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed and can be checked in directly
How can i implement this ? | 2012/06/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10869107",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1352210/"
] | One approach would be to use Branches and Alerts. For example...
* Senior programmers would work directly on your "main" branch so they can check code into the live codebase.
* Junior programmers would work on the "RequiresReview" branch, and then the code reviewers would review their check-ins and merge them into Main only when they are satisfied with the code.
TFS can send email Alerts for various events, so the code reviewers could just subscribe to the check-in events to know when code has been checked into Main (by a Senior programmer) or needs to be reviewed (has been checked into RequiresReview by a Junior Programmer)
The use of branches in this way would mean that you would have to merge in both directions (merge junior's checkins across to Main, and merge senior's checkins back into RequiresReview)
Another approach for Junior Programmers is to use ShelveSets instead of another branch. In this approach, Juniors would not check in their code, but would simply move it into a shelveset and then email the code reviewer to request that their shelveset is reviewed and checked in for them. This avoids the need for merging code from Main back into RequiresReview - the juniors would be working "on" the Main branch, but their checkins would be "gated" via the shelveset.
There are also some 3rd party tools you can purchase to manage code review processes for you in a much more integrated manner. A web search should help you find these sort of tools.
**edit**
*Please note that Visual Studio 2012 and 2013 now include integrated support for code reviews (essentially a proper user interface on top of the shelveset idea above), so upgrading from 2010 may be a better option than my suggested workarounds above.* | +1 Jason
one of the good 3rd party is team review
<http://teamreview.codeplex.com/> |
10,869,107 | I have 3 levels of users in my Team Foundation Server:
1. **Programmer**: A code reviewer must review their code and they cannot check in their own code
2. **Professional Programmer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed but a copy of their code should be automatically sent to a code reviewer
3. **Code Reviewer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed and can be checked in directly
How can i implement this ? | 2012/06/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10869107",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1352210/"
] | One approach would be to use Branches and Alerts. For example...
* Senior programmers would work directly on your "main" branch so they can check code into the live codebase.
* Junior programmers would work on the "RequiresReview" branch, and then the code reviewers would review their check-ins and merge them into Main only when they are satisfied with the code.
TFS can send email Alerts for various events, so the code reviewers could just subscribe to the check-in events to know when code has been checked into Main (by a Senior programmer) or needs to be reviewed (has been checked into RequiresReview by a Junior Programmer)
The use of branches in this way would mean that you would have to merge in both directions (merge junior's checkins across to Main, and merge senior's checkins back into RequiresReview)
Another approach for Junior Programmers is to use ShelveSets instead of another branch. In this approach, Juniors would not check in their code, but would simply move it into a shelveset and then email the code reviewer to request that their shelveset is reviewed and checked in for them. This avoids the need for merging code from Main back into RequiresReview - the juniors would be working "on" the Main branch, but their checkins would be "gated" via the shelveset.
There are also some 3rd party tools you can purchase to manage code review processes for you in a much more integrated manner. A web search should help you find these sort of tools.
**edit**
*Please note that Visual Studio 2012 and 2013 now include integrated support for code reviews (essentially a proper user interface on top of the shelveset idea above), so upgrading from 2010 may be a better option than my suggested workarounds above.* | You can configure this mostly in TFS 2010, but there is no easy way to expose this from the UI. TFS 2012 and VS2012 will provide a much better UI for code review and it has an embedded process which will take you through he hoops.
If you want to configure Source control permissions as you've described, this is how it would work:
>
> Programmers
> -----------
>
>
> Stick them in a TFS group or AD group and set their security so that they have Checkout and Lock permissions on their working branch, but no check-in permissions. When they're done with their work have them create a shelveset and then let them send an email to the reviewer with the shelveset name. The reviewer either returns the set with comments (either inline or through email or workitems) or he checks the code in on behalf of the programmer. because the programmers don't check in directly, you can't set up an automatic alert. You could alter the process template to include ready for review as a state for a task and have them transition the task (it's how the custom code review solutions tend to work).
>
>
> Code Reviewer
> -------------
>
>
> Must at least have checkout, lock and check in rights. Stick them in a TFS group or an AD group and set the security accordingly. They can check in directly without the need to use shelvesets.
>
>
> Professional Programmers
> ------------------------
>
>
> (I'd be careful with this term, it would make the other programmers sound unprofessional, I'd prefer senior or seasoned). Give them the same permissions as the Code Reviewer. [Configure a TFS Alert](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms181334.aspx) which goes off when anyone in this group check something in. Send the alert to the Code Reviewers. They can then use the View History option to review the Changeset and send comments to the programmer in question. Use the [TFS Power Tools](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/vstudio/bb980963.aspx) to make configuring the alerts a lot easier (and more powerful).
>
>
>
If you want a more advanced solution, one that integrates into the TFS process template, then you can use one of these two open source solutions:
* [TeamReview](http://teamreview.codeplex.com/)
* [TFS Code Review Worlflow](http://tfscodereviewflow.codeplex.com/)
Or look at their code (they're open source) to get an idea on how you could build something like this yourself. It's not going to be very easy though, and it would probably be useless once TFS 2012 comes out.
Also check out [my presentation on the new features in TFS 2012 around code review](http://blog.jessehouwing.nl/2012/03/did-you-miss-my-techdaysnl-talk-on-code.html) (the ppt is in English, though the recording was done at a Dutch conference and thus in Dutch). |
10,869,107 | I have 3 levels of users in my Team Foundation Server:
1. **Programmer**: A code reviewer must review their code and they cannot check in their own code
2. **Professional Programmer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed but a copy of their code should be automatically sent to a code reviewer
3. **Code Reviewer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed and can be checked in directly
How can i implement this ? | 2012/06/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10869107",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1352210/"
] | One approach would be to use Branches and Alerts. For example...
* Senior programmers would work directly on your "main" branch so they can check code into the live codebase.
* Junior programmers would work on the "RequiresReview" branch, and then the code reviewers would review their check-ins and merge them into Main only when they are satisfied with the code.
TFS can send email Alerts for various events, so the code reviewers could just subscribe to the check-in events to know when code has been checked into Main (by a Senior programmer) or needs to be reviewed (has been checked into RequiresReview by a Junior Programmer)
The use of branches in this way would mean that you would have to merge in both directions (merge junior's checkins across to Main, and merge senior's checkins back into RequiresReview)
Another approach for Junior Programmers is to use ShelveSets instead of another branch. In this approach, Juniors would not check in their code, but would simply move it into a shelveset and then email the code reviewer to request that their shelveset is reviewed and checked in for them. This avoids the need for merging code from Main back into RequiresReview - the juniors would be working "on" the Main branch, but their checkins would be "gated" via the shelveset.
There are also some 3rd party tools you can purchase to manage code review processes for you in a much more integrated manner. A web search should help you find these sort of tools.
**edit**
*Please note that Visual Studio 2012 and 2013 now include integrated support for code reviews (essentially a proper user interface on top of the shelveset idea above), so upgrading from 2010 may be a better option than my suggested workarounds above.* | If you can upgrade to Visual Studio 2012, then there is a great code review interface built right into the Team Explorer UI now (Requires TFS 2012 as well). Check it out:
<http://blogs.msdn.com/b/mvpawardprogram/archive/2012/09/04/new-code-review-feature-in-visual-studio-2012.aspx> |
10,869,107 | I have 3 levels of users in my Team Foundation Server:
1. **Programmer**: A code reviewer must review their code and they cannot check in their own code
2. **Professional Programmer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed but a copy of their code should be automatically sent to a code reviewer
3. **Code Reviewer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed and can be checked in directly
How can i implement this ? | 2012/06/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10869107",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1352210/"
] | +1 Jason
one of the good 3rd party is team review
<http://teamreview.codeplex.com/> | If you can upgrade to Visual Studio 2012, then there is a great code review interface built right into the Team Explorer UI now (Requires TFS 2012 as well). Check it out:
<http://blogs.msdn.com/b/mvpawardprogram/archive/2012/09/04/new-code-review-feature-in-visual-studio-2012.aspx> |
10,869,107 | I have 3 levels of users in my Team Foundation Server:
1. **Programmer**: A code reviewer must review their code and they cannot check in their own code
2. **Professional Programmer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed but a copy of their code should be automatically sent to a code reviewer
3. **Code Reviewer**: Their code doesn't need to be reviewed and can be checked in directly
How can i implement this ? | 2012/06/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10869107",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1352210/"
] | You can configure this mostly in TFS 2010, but there is no easy way to expose this from the UI. TFS 2012 and VS2012 will provide a much better UI for code review and it has an embedded process which will take you through he hoops.
If you want to configure Source control permissions as you've described, this is how it would work:
>
> Programmers
> -----------
>
>
> Stick them in a TFS group or AD group and set their security so that they have Checkout and Lock permissions on their working branch, but no check-in permissions. When they're done with their work have them create a shelveset and then let them send an email to the reviewer with the shelveset name. The reviewer either returns the set with comments (either inline or through email or workitems) or he checks the code in on behalf of the programmer. because the programmers don't check in directly, you can't set up an automatic alert. You could alter the process template to include ready for review as a state for a task and have them transition the task (it's how the custom code review solutions tend to work).
>
>
> Code Reviewer
> -------------
>
>
> Must at least have checkout, lock and check in rights. Stick them in a TFS group or an AD group and set the security accordingly. They can check in directly without the need to use shelvesets.
>
>
> Professional Programmers
> ------------------------
>
>
> (I'd be careful with this term, it would make the other programmers sound unprofessional, I'd prefer senior or seasoned). Give them the same permissions as the Code Reviewer. [Configure a TFS Alert](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms181334.aspx) which goes off when anyone in this group check something in. Send the alert to the Code Reviewers. They can then use the View History option to review the Changeset and send comments to the programmer in question. Use the [TFS Power Tools](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/vstudio/bb980963.aspx) to make configuring the alerts a lot easier (and more powerful).
>
>
>
If you want a more advanced solution, one that integrates into the TFS process template, then you can use one of these two open source solutions:
* [TeamReview](http://teamreview.codeplex.com/)
* [TFS Code Review Worlflow](http://tfscodereviewflow.codeplex.com/)
Or look at their code (they're open source) to get an idea on how you could build something like this yourself. It's not going to be very easy though, and it would probably be useless once TFS 2012 comes out.
Also check out [my presentation on the new features in TFS 2012 around code review](http://blog.jessehouwing.nl/2012/03/did-you-miss-my-techdaysnl-talk-on-code.html) (the ppt is in English, though the recording was done at a Dutch conference and thus in Dutch). | If you can upgrade to Visual Studio 2012, then there is a great code review interface built right into the Team Explorer UI now (Requires TFS 2012 as well). Check it out:
<http://blogs.msdn.com/b/mvpawardprogram/archive/2012/09/04/new-code-review-feature-in-visual-studio-2012.aspx> |
109,905 | I recently got my meringue game down and though I wouldn’t eat French meringue without baking it, I’ve seen numerous videos where it’s said that Swiss meringue is delicious straight out of the double boiler. I’ve not seen the same about Italian, but I thought that is cooked in the bowl, too?
So which meringue is safe to eat direct from the bowl? | 2020/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/109905",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/58098/"
] | As you're in the UK, they're all safe. Raw egg is [safe according to the NHS](https://www.nhs.uk/live-well/eat-well/eggs-nutrition/)
>
> Because of improved food safety controls in recent years, infants, children, pregnant women and elderly people can now safely eat raw or lightly cooked hen eggs, or foods containing them, that are produced under the [British Lion Code of Practice](https://www.egginfo.co.uk/british-lion-eggs/lion-code-practice) (regarding hygiene and especially salmonella).
>
>
>
This doesn't apply to all other countries, but it's worth checking in many EU countries, where dishes containing raw egg are traditional (such as chocolate mousse and tiramisu). I've failed to find a single reliable source covering many countries, but [Finland, Sweden, Denmark and Norway](https://www.luke.fi/ruokafakta/en/other-factors/salmonella-situation/long-live-a-salmonella-free-finland/) are essentially salmonella-free. I read enough French to make sense of some sources, but can't find anything definitive more recent than [2013](https://agriculture.gouv.fr/sites/minagri/files/documents/pdf/GBPH_Consommateurs_5958_cle8bb1ad.pdf) in which products made from raw egg are advised against for high-risk groups, but generally acceptable; in particular recipes assume that pregnant women will be avoiding raw egg. | Considering the three main [types of meringue](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Meringue#Types) (ignoring the 'vegan meringue' made with aquafaba), you would not eat French meringue without baking because it contains uncooked egg. While salmonella-contaminated eggs are increasingly rare in most (Western) countries, including the UK, this is probably wise.
Italian and Swiss meringue are both cooked to some extent; the former by whisking a hot sugar syrup into the eggs, the latter by heating the eggs over a double boiler. Unless you are measuring the temperature of your mixture and the time it takes to cool, you cannot be sure the eggs will be 'officially' safe, i.e. [pasteurised](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pasteurized_eggs).
Given you are in the UK, you will most likely not experience any negative effects from consuming raw eggs (see [Chris H's answer](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/a/109907/22591) for more details on this). If you want to be extra cautious, you could make any of these meringues with pasteurised eggs ([recommended by the FDA](https://www.fsis.usda.gov/shared/PDF/SE_Risk_Assess_Oct2005.pdf?redirecthttp=true) in the US, where salmonella infections are a little more likely), after which any meringue would be safe to eat raw. |
109,477 | As a beginner I am having hard time and sorry for this basic question.
I have bought some vector from ShutterStock and while removing the background layer, I get some black gradient in the edges of the sparkles!
For easier understanding, please see the image below.
How do I get a fully transparent image of the shining frame. [I have the layered vector file of the image]
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1svHS.png) | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/109477",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/121454/"
] | The objects appear to have been *specifically* created to blend to a dark background.
You won't be able to *easily* alter that. But you *can* alter it.
You will need to select the objects with the dark coloring and adjust the dark color to white or to transparent. *How* one goes about that depends greatly upon *how* the artwork is constructed. It may be a simple matter of adjusting some color fills, or gradient color stops. It is difficult to state.
In some cases internal object construction may prove very intricate and difficult to change.
---
In *this art*.... Many of the objects are merely a gradient fill.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8ljI9.png)
Select the object and change the gradient so that *both* color stops are the *same* color:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/smjxL.png)
Then click the color stop that *used* to be dark and set it's *opacity* to 0:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ln0sS.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mbQW0.png)
Then do the same thing for *all* the other objects with dark in them - replace dark with same color, set that color stop to 0% opacity.
**The reason you need to set the color stops to the same color first** is because if you leave it as the dark color, you are going to get a dark drop-off of the gradient in the middle of it. Sort of a gradient from color to dark and *then* to transparent. Setting the color stops to the same color prevents this drop off when using transparency in a gradient.
Example of the drop-off if you fail to set color stops to the same color:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QvmTK.png) | Asim, of course it is.
Either those elements are locked, grouped, a clipping path or a compound path.
So unlock everything. Perhaps the frame is a group onto itself and it can be removed or locked leaving everything else to be deleted.
There are two different arrow-selectors ... one selects groups, the other individual paths. |
109,477 | As a beginner I am having hard time and sorry for this basic question.
I have bought some vector from ShutterStock and while removing the background layer, I get some black gradient in the edges of the sparkles!
For easier understanding, please see the image below.
How do I get a fully transparent image of the shining frame. [I have the layered vector file of the image]
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1svHS.png) | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/109477",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/121454/"
] | There are many suggestions to this but I think none of them will get you where you want. If you intend to use this flare somewhere else you don't have to convert into a transparent object. All you need to do is **copy and paste** it in front of the work you intend to **apply the effect** and make sure that **transparency mode** is set to **screen.** | Asim, of course it is.
Either those elements are locked, grouped, a clipping path or a compound path.
So unlock everything. Perhaps the frame is a group onto itself and it can be removed or locked leaving everything else to be deleted.
There are two different arrow-selectors ... one selects groups, the other individual paths. |
109,477 | As a beginner I am having hard time and sorry for this basic question.
I have bought some vector from ShutterStock and while removing the background layer, I get some black gradient in the edges of the sparkles!
For easier understanding, please see the image below.
How do I get a fully transparent image of the shining frame. [I have the layered vector file of the image]
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1svHS.png) | 2018/05/17 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/109477",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/121454/"
] | The objects appear to have been *specifically* created to blend to a dark background.
You won't be able to *easily* alter that. But you *can* alter it.
You will need to select the objects with the dark coloring and adjust the dark color to white or to transparent. *How* one goes about that depends greatly upon *how* the artwork is constructed. It may be a simple matter of adjusting some color fills, or gradient color stops. It is difficult to state.
In some cases internal object construction may prove very intricate and difficult to change.
---
In *this art*.... Many of the objects are merely a gradient fill.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8ljI9.png)
Select the object and change the gradient so that *both* color stops are the *same* color:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/smjxL.png)
Then click the color stop that *used* to be dark and set it's *opacity* to 0:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ln0sS.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mbQW0.png)
Then do the same thing for *all* the other objects with dark in them - replace dark with same color, set that color stop to 0% opacity.
**The reason you need to set the color stops to the same color first** is because if you leave it as the dark color, you are going to get a dark drop-off of the gradient in the middle of it. Sort of a gradient from color to dark and *then* to transparent. Setting the color stops to the same color prevents this drop off when using transparency in a gradient.
Example of the drop-off if you fail to set color stops to the same color:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QvmTK.png) | There are many suggestions to this but I think none of them will get you where you want. If you intend to use this flare somewhere else you don't have to convert into a transparent object. All you need to do is **copy and paste** it in front of the work you intend to **apply the effect** and make sure that **transparency mode** is set to **screen.** |
141,574 | I sometimes look at the edit history of a question, mostly when something smells "off" in the way it is written. I took a look at the history of [this question](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/posts/141507/revisions) and it seems like the editor has "writer's envy": the edits do little more than rephrase (poorly in my opinion: how do you "hover a user's question"?) what has already been clearly asked.
Is this a misunderstanding of the purpose of editing on the editor's part? Hubris? Rep whoring? Something else?
Am I just being picky here? It bugs me because I respect an individual's writing "voice" and edits merely for style seem a violation of that. SO/SE isn't about literature per se and so long as the writing is clear, without any glaring grammatical errors, what is the point of making these kind of edits?
In my arbitrary sampling of edits I've seen many instances of this – even one edit which replaced all the contractions (e.g. "I am" for "I'm") – because I guess the editor didn't like contractions. Don't like my use of an "em dash" in the last sentence? Fine, but don't you have better things to do? | 2012/07/29 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/141574",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/182042/"
] | Personally, I do a lot of editing for style, but IMO it's always sorely needed. There's a lot of barely comprehensible English on SE, and I think an easily readable question attracts more/better answers.
Looking at the example you gave, the editor makes one enormous improvement: s/he replaces "put the mouse over" with "hover", the standard term for what the author was getting at. I think this is a really good example of where a little editing greatly enhances a question. I am pretty sure some folks would read the original and not be quite sure what the author was getting at, and then move on. Same with "It's a small and basic box" being changed to "It's a small box and the text is unformatted" -- I think that's subtly clearer, and makes the question easier to understand and hence to answer. | I agree that many of the changes seem to be gratuitous - it is possible that the editor initially only wanted to improve the formatting of the list, but the system wouldn't let them make such a small change, so further "improvements" were needed in order to get the edit through.
Having said that, the editor has 10k+ reputation on the site and I believe that with such reputation there is no such limitation, so must conclude that the editor was trying to improve the style of the post - the problem here is that whether the style is better or not is a judgement call and entirely subjective. |
141,574 | I sometimes look at the edit history of a question, mostly when something smells "off" in the way it is written. I took a look at the history of [this question](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/posts/141507/revisions) and it seems like the editor has "writer's envy": the edits do little more than rephrase (poorly in my opinion: how do you "hover a user's question"?) what has already been clearly asked.
Is this a misunderstanding of the purpose of editing on the editor's part? Hubris? Rep whoring? Something else?
Am I just being picky here? It bugs me because I respect an individual's writing "voice" and edits merely for style seem a violation of that. SO/SE isn't about literature per se and so long as the writing is clear, without any glaring grammatical errors, what is the point of making these kind of edits?
In my arbitrary sampling of edits I've seen many instances of this – even one edit which replaced all the contractions (e.g. "I am" for "I'm") – because I guess the editor didn't like contractions. Don't like my use of an "em dash" in the last sentence? Fine, but don't you have better things to do? | 2012/07/29 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/141574",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/182042/"
] | This is by far one of the many reasons I'm attracted to this platform; it's *easy* to make the site look really professional through edits, and it's easy to make posts look like they were designed to be more permanent and not just some random snapshot of the Internet at a specific moment in time.
Dennis, the editor, is a 10k+ user, so this is hardly rep whoring. This person also has a habit of participating in activities on the site that further benefit it, so it seems clear that his goals with these edits are to make the site better and more professional looking.
Even then, if we get into the habit of accusing every single person of rep whoring, who does something positive for the site, then we might want to step back and ask ourselves what our goals are.
>
> Genghis Khan: "It's not sufficient I succeed. Everyone else must fail."
>
>
>
We mustn't forget that there is a reason new editors are incentivised with +2 reputation for making good, constructive edits to posts. The goal is to reward them for good, constructive edits, and help guide and coach them on how to make better edits when they do something wrong. This prepares them for that 2k mark, when they're able to make edits on their own.
While there are cases where there are pointless edits, let's not go on a witch hunt looking at what the editors' intentions are. Instead, look at the post and ask yourself if it was substantially improved or not. If it was, great, approve it. If not, then reject the edits. | I agree that many of the changes seem to be gratuitous - it is possible that the editor initially only wanted to improve the formatting of the list, but the system wouldn't let them make such a small change, so further "improvements" were needed in order to get the edit through.
Having said that, the editor has 10k+ reputation on the site and I believe that with such reputation there is no such limitation, so must conclude that the editor was trying to improve the style of the post - the problem here is that whether the style is better or not is a judgement call and entirely subjective. |
13,836 | I am new to selenium. I want to verify data shown in grid on my web application page with database value.
I have gone through blogs, and what I have found is:
Using *Selenium Webdriver* in C#:
i. Connect to database and execute the query and get data.
ii. Get parent element of data shown on screen and loop through its child element and match the data.
Is there any better way available to validate data (let's say data in grid) shown on web page with database using *selenium webdriver?*
Using IDE: I have searched for this but I have not found any way to connect selenium IDE with database (in my case, SQL Server).
Let me know if I have missed something or misunderstood the concept.
Regards. | 2015/07/16 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/13836",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/12698/"
] | We did it the same way using C#. Unless it is really slow I would leave it like this.
The only suggestion I would have would be to give each cell a unique identifier so you can use the quick "by id" locator.
You could also check that the MAX+1 rows / columns don't exist if you want to be really rigorous. | I had come across a similar issue . When I inspected the DOM for both List and Grid View , I found classes with the view name . I then asserted if the classes were present . This ensures the view is either grid view or list view |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | You might be able to have the tree construct something like [nanocellulose](http://www.extremetech.com/extreme/134910-nanocellulose-a-cheap-conductive-stronger-than-kevlar-wonder-material-made-from-wood-pulp). A sufficiently skilled person might be able to get a tree to produce [cellophane](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cellophane#Production) as well, since cellophane is produced from cellulose. Or, if perfectly transparent windows aren't all that important, a thin, brittle sheet of dried sap might do.
There might be some assembly required after the fact: support structures to remove that had been necessary during construction, for example. Like a sheet of cellulose that had been grown for the express purpose of giving the tree sap something to hold onto with while it dried. Or, in the case of cellophane, you might need to have knobs around the windows to attach the extruded cellophane to afterward. | I couildn't think of anything like that. That was both strong and see-through, though I liked both of ryepdx suggestions.
Alternatively, to function similar to a window, a hole could be left in the tree and a leaf/flower petal is grown to cover the hole and it is able automatically open during the day and closes both at night and when it rains.
Ofcourse this would mean that if you wanted sunlight in then you would also allow the wind in. Also probably wouldn't work that well during the winter. Even though it is technicly impractical, I liked the idea of having something similar to an automatic curtain/shutter. Mixing this with another idea like ryepdx would hopefully fill out any problems. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | I'm assuming that the magic of this world allows the magicians to endow a tree with any capability they desire.
**Transparency**
Have the tree collect silicon from the soil and oxygen from the atmosphere. Move the dissolved silicon and oxygen into a special pocket in the trunk of the tree where cells similar in function to animal [osteocytes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osteocyte) will incorporate the silicon and oxygen into a thin matrix resembling bone. While making the matrix, the osteocytes could easily include voids in the matrix to increase its insulation power but at the expense of transparency. (You might be able to handwave the size of the voids to be small enough so they don't interact with light passing through.) After the matrix is complete, the tree peels back the bark and phloem to expose the silicon window. This should be extremely resilient as quartz melts at around 1700°C.
Basically, you're growing miniature [geodes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geode) within the bark of a tree.
**Keep it clean**
As an added bonus, have the tree grow a [superhydrophobic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lotus_effect) layer on the outside of the window. No cleaning required and definitely waterproof.
**Open and close**
Venus Flytraps are well known for closing quickly when a fly lands on their leaves. A similar mechanism could be used to open or close the window. | You might be able to have the tree construct something like [nanocellulose](http://www.extremetech.com/extreme/134910-nanocellulose-a-cheap-conductive-stronger-than-kevlar-wonder-material-made-from-wood-pulp). A sufficiently skilled person might be able to get a tree to produce [cellophane](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cellophane#Production) as well, since cellophane is produced from cellulose. Or, if perfectly transparent windows aren't all that important, a thin, brittle sheet of dried sap might do.
There might be some assembly required after the fact: support structures to remove that had been necessary during construction, for example. Like a sheet of cellulose that had been grown for the express purpose of giving the tree sap something to hold onto with while it dried. Or, in the case of cellophane, you might need to have knobs around the windows to attach the extruded cellophane to afterward. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | You might be able to have the tree construct something like [nanocellulose](http://www.extremetech.com/extreme/134910-nanocellulose-a-cheap-conductive-stronger-than-kevlar-wonder-material-made-from-wood-pulp). A sufficiently skilled person might be able to get a tree to produce [cellophane](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cellophane#Production) as well, since cellophane is produced from cellulose. Or, if perfectly transparent windows aren't all that important, a thin, brittle sheet of dried sap might do.
There might be some assembly required after the fact: support structures to remove that had been necessary during construction, for example. Like a sheet of cellulose that had been grown for the express purpose of giving the tree sap something to hold onto with while it dried. Or, in the case of cellophane, you might need to have knobs around the windows to attach the extruded cellophane to afterward. | There are transparent structures grown from living cells. The cornea of the eye, in particular. Is the problem making it thick enough and still transparent?
A non-living deposit made by living organisms are possible, such as seashells and other *tests*. In particular, look at the material used by [*diatoms*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diatom#General_biology) and [*forams*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foraminifera#Tests)
>
> Diatom cells are contained within a unique silica cell wall comprising two separate valves (or shells). The biogenic silica that the cell wall is composed of is synthesised intracellularly by the polymerisation of silicic acid monomers
>
>
>
Silicoloculinina are *glass forams*, making a test out of silica. The mechanism for making the shell is different (inside the cell space vs. Outside) so looking at both glass forams and diatoms for examples will give lots of ideas. It seems that depositing silica is something that cells **can do** and have developed multiple times independently.
I suppose *we* could create such a thing using bio-engineering, in the foreseeable future. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | I'm assuming that the magic of this world allows the magicians to endow a tree with any capability they desire.
**Transparency**
Have the tree collect silicon from the soil and oxygen from the atmosphere. Move the dissolved silicon and oxygen into a special pocket in the trunk of the tree where cells similar in function to animal [osteocytes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osteocyte) will incorporate the silicon and oxygen into a thin matrix resembling bone. While making the matrix, the osteocytes could easily include voids in the matrix to increase its insulation power but at the expense of transparency. (You might be able to handwave the size of the voids to be small enough so they don't interact with light passing through.) After the matrix is complete, the tree peels back the bark and phloem to expose the silicon window. This should be extremely resilient as quartz melts at around 1700°C.
Basically, you're growing miniature [geodes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geode) within the bark of a tree.
**Keep it clean**
As an added bonus, have the tree grow a [superhydrophobic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lotus_effect) layer on the outside of the window. No cleaning required and definitely waterproof.
**Open and close**
Venus Flytraps are well known for closing quickly when a fly lands on their leaves. A similar mechanism could be used to open or close the window. | I couildn't think of anything like that. That was both strong and see-through, though I liked both of ryepdx suggestions.
Alternatively, to function similar to a window, a hole could be left in the tree and a leaf/flower petal is grown to cover the hole and it is able automatically open during the day and closes both at night and when it rains.
Ofcourse this would mean that if you wanted sunlight in then you would also allow the wind in. Also probably wouldn't work that well during the winter. Even though it is technicly impractical, I liked the idea of having something similar to an automatic curtain/shutter. Mixing this with another idea like ryepdx would hopefully fill out any problems. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | There are transparent structures grown from living cells. The cornea of the eye, in particular. Is the problem making it thick enough and still transparent?
A non-living deposit made by living organisms are possible, such as seashells and other *tests*. In particular, look at the material used by [*diatoms*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diatom#General_biology) and [*forams*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foraminifera#Tests)
>
> Diatom cells are contained within a unique silica cell wall comprising two separate valves (or shells). The biogenic silica that the cell wall is composed of is synthesised intracellularly by the polymerisation of silicic acid monomers
>
>
>
Silicoloculinina are *glass forams*, making a test out of silica. The mechanism for making the shell is different (inside the cell space vs. Outside) so looking at both glass forams and diatoms for examples will give lots of ideas. It seems that depositing silica is something that cells **can do** and have developed multiple times independently.
I suppose *we* could create such a thing using bio-engineering, in the foreseeable future. | I couildn't think of anything like that. That was both strong and see-through, though I liked both of ryepdx suggestions.
Alternatively, to function similar to a window, a hole could be left in the tree and a leaf/flower petal is grown to cover the hole and it is able automatically open during the day and closes both at night and when it rains.
Ofcourse this would mean that if you wanted sunlight in then you would also allow the wind in. Also probably wouldn't work that well during the winter. Even though it is technicly impractical, I liked the idea of having something similar to an automatic curtain/shutter. Mixing this with another idea like ryepdx would hopefully fill out any problems. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | This already exists in our world. Some plants have [fenestrate leaves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fenestration_%28botany%29).
[From Latin *fenestratus*, past participle of *fenestrare*: to furnish with openings and windows.]
Thos plants have leaves pierced with small holes or window like openings or with hyaline areas so thinned as to be translucent or transparent.
Examples
* [Two fenestrate plants](http://www.cactus-art.biz/note-book/Dictionary/Dictionary_F/dictionary_fenestrate.htm) (Haworthia and Lithops) with their translucent tissues.
* [Lunaria](http://www.shutterstock.com/pic-4754983/stock-photo-the-plant-lunaria-annua-agaist-white-background.html) with its translucent seed-pods | I couildn't think of anything like that. That was both strong and see-through, though I liked both of ryepdx suggestions.
Alternatively, to function similar to a window, a hole could be left in the tree and a leaf/flower petal is grown to cover the hole and it is able automatically open during the day and closes both at night and when it rains.
Ofcourse this would mean that if you wanted sunlight in then you would also allow the wind in. Also probably wouldn't work that well during the winter. Even though it is technicly impractical, I liked the idea of having something similar to an automatic curtain/shutter. Mixing this with another idea like ryepdx would hopefully fill out any problems. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | I'm assuming that the magic of this world allows the magicians to endow a tree with any capability they desire.
**Transparency**
Have the tree collect silicon from the soil and oxygen from the atmosphere. Move the dissolved silicon and oxygen into a special pocket in the trunk of the tree where cells similar in function to animal [osteocytes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osteocyte) will incorporate the silicon and oxygen into a thin matrix resembling bone. While making the matrix, the osteocytes could easily include voids in the matrix to increase its insulation power but at the expense of transparency. (You might be able to handwave the size of the voids to be small enough so they don't interact with light passing through.) After the matrix is complete, the tree peels back the bark and phloem to expose the silicon window. This should be extremely resilient as quartz melts at around 1700°C.
Basically, you're growing miniature [geodes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geode) within the bark of a tree.
**Keep it clean**
As an added bonus, have the tree grow a [superhydrophobic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lotus_effect) layer on the outside of the window. No cleaning required and definitely waterproof.
**Open and close**
Venus Flytraps are well known for closing quickly when a fly lands on their leaves. A similar mechanism could be used to open or close the window. | There are transparent structures grown from living cells. The cornea of the eye, in particular. Is the problem making it thick enough and still transparent?
A non-living deposit made by living organisms are possible, such as seashells and other *tests*. In particular, look at the material used by [*diatoms*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diatom#General_biology) and [*forams*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foraminifera#Tests)
>
> Diatom cells are contained within a unique silica cell wall comprising two separate valves (or shells). The biogenic silica that the cell wall is composed of is synthesised intracellularly by the polymerisation of silicic acid monomers
>
>
>
Silicoloculinina are *glass forams*, making a test out of silica. The mechanism for making the shell is different (inside the cell space vs. Outside) so looking at both glass forams and diatoms for examples will give lots of ideas. It seems that depositing silica is something that cells **can do** and have developed multiple times independently.
I suppose *we* could create such a thing using bio-engineering, in the foreseeable future. |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | I'm assuming that the magic of this world allows the magicians to endow a tree with any capability they desire.
**Transparency**
Have the tree collect silicon from the soil and oxygen from the atmosphere. Move the dissolved silicon and oxygen into a special pocket in the trunk of the tree where cells similar in function to animal [osteocytes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osteocyte) will incorporate the silicon and oxygen into a thin matrix resembling bone. While making the matrix, the osteocytes could easily include voids in the matrix to increase its insulation power but at the expense of transparency. (You might be able to handwave the size of the voids to be small enough so they don't interact with light passing through.) After the matrix is complete, the tree peels back the bark and phloem to expose the silicon window. This should be extremely resilient as quartz melts at around 1700°C.
Basically, you're growing miniature [geodes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geode) within the bark of a tree.
**Keep it clean**
As an added bonus, have the tree grow a [superhydrophobic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lotus_effect) layer on the outside of the window. No cleaning required and definitely waterproof.
**Open and close**
Venus Flytraps are well known for closing quickly when a fly lands on their leaves. A similar mechanism could be used to open or close the window. | This already exists in our world. Some plants have [fenestrate leaves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fenestration_%28botany%29).
[From Latin *fenestratus*, past participle of *fenestrare*: to furnish with openings and windows.]
Thos plants have leaves pierced with small holes or window like openings or with hyaline areas so thinned as to be translucent or transparent.
Examples
* [Two fenestrate plants](http://www.cactus-art.biz/note-book/Dictionary/Dictionary_F/dictionary_fenestrate.htm) (Haworthia and Lithops) with their translucent tissues.
* [Lunaria](http://www.shutterstock.com/pic-4754983/stock-photo-the-plant-lunaria-annua-agaist-white-background.html) with its translucent seed-pods |
20,112 | This question deals with the magic explained in [this question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/13393/magic-that-alters-living-cells-growing-cities-out-of-trees). It is also explained below.
>
> In my fantasy novel, magic is a natural part of the world. It is not some mystical force shrouded in mystery, but rather backed by science (though only I, the author, know all of it's workings).
>
>
> In my world, magic is a force that by its nature changes living cells. It is similar to radiation, but different in the respect that it changes what the cell does, usually in a beneficial way. For example, if the cells of an eye were exposed to magic, the magic might make the eye also see infrared light.
>
>
> There are those in my world who can control the change worked by the magic. (They can force the magic to make the eye see infrared light. They can also use magic to make that same eye go blind.)
>
>
>
**Question:**
I've already ascertained that magic-wielders would be able to grow trees into nearly any shape they wanted, including houses (see the linked question). What I am now curious about, is how the magic-wielders would go about making 'windows' in those tree houses. I am not certain how a tree could be altered to produce something relatively small, thin, and transparent, and yet sturdy enough to keep rain and cold out, and heat in. Currently, I've gotten as far as some sort of transparent leaf, but aside from not being sure if a leaf would work grown over a gap in the trunk, I'm not sure if it can be made transparent in the first place.
**How could a tree be altered to grow something functionally similar to a window?** I don't necessarily need the window to be open-able, though that would be a nice side-benefit if possible.
**Note for clarification:** This question cannot be answered simply by 'it's magic!' The magic cannot do *anything*. It can *alter* living cells to do things they normally wouldn't, but are still possible within the natural world. | 2015/07/07 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/20112",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/6620/"
] | This already exists in our world. Some plants have [fenestrate leaves](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fenestration_%28botany%29).
[From Latin *fenestratus*, past participle of *fenestrare*: to furnish with openings and windows.]
Thos plants have leaves pierced with small holes or window like openings or with hyaline areas so thinned as to be translucent or transparent.
Examples
* [Two fenestrate plants](http://www.cactus-art.biz/note-book/Dictionary/Dictionary_F/dictionary_fenestrate.htm) (Haworthia and Lithops) with their translucent tissues.
* [Lunaria](http://www.shutterstock.com/pic-4754983/stock-photo-the-plant-lunaria-annua-agaist-white-background.html) with its translucent seed-pods | There are transparent structures grown from living cells. The cornea of the eye, in particular. Is the problem making it thick enough and still transparent?
A non-living deposit made by living organisms are possible, such as seashells and other *tests*. In particular, look at the material used by [*diatoms*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diatom#General_biology) and [*forams*](https://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foraminifera#Tests)
>
> Diatom cells are contained within a unique silica cell wall comprising two separate valves (or shells). The biogenic silica that the cell wall is composed of is synthesised intracellularly by the polymerisation of silicic acid monomers
>
>
>
Silicoloculinina are *glass forams*, making a test out of silica. The mechanism for making the shell is different (inside the cell space vs. Outside) so looking at both glass forams and diatoms for examples will give lots of ideas. It seems that depositing silica is something that cells **can do** and have developed multiple times independently.
I suppose *we* could create such a thing using bio-engineering, in the foreseeable future. |
122,964 | I have seen many different song sheets for the Beatles Song *Norwegian Wood* using time signatures of 3/4, 6/8 and 12/8. My question is, why are they all different, why is there no consensus? What I hear in the original are 2 different time signatures (and 2 different modes): the verses with a kind of 3/4 feel and the chorus 12/8. Shouldn't the time signatures convey to the way you interpret the song?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1rN7.png) original lead sheet
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8C1ZM.png) some piano arrangement
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1nBNs.png) another piano arrangement | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/122964",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/28038/"
] | Lazy’s answer sums it up well but I would like to add that the reason there is no consensus on the notation for this song is that the song was created by a composer with no knowledge of music notation and no thought of how it would appear on sheet music. It was transcribed and notated after the fact, first by the publishers then by anyone else who wanted to make a chart of the song. This is where Lazy’s answer comes in. Any song with a 3 pulse can be interpreted in a number of ways. If the composer does not create their own written notation with their interpretation of what it should be (3/4, 6/8, etc.) then whoever writes out the song after the fact will interpret it in one of those ways and write it that way. All the versions will sound alike to a certain degree with the exception of the way strong beats are stressed in different time signatures.
I personally would go with 6/8 because the strong beats line up best with the lyrics: **I** once had a **girl** or should I **say** she once had **me**… Regarding your observations, there is only one time signature throughout, not two. There are two tonalities like you say, E Mixolydian for verses and E Dorian for the choruses which I identify as Dorian because of the A chord since there is no major or minor 6th melody note in that part of the song. | Ballroom dance music characteristically has a fixed beat. Popular music is re-recorded to provide a cover version with a fixed beat for ballroom dancing. Except for special purposes like that, there is no reason for performance music to have the same beat from one note to the next -- and even the notion of 'note' comes from specific instruments -- the vocal part is never sung exactly to the instrumental notes.
The time signature that is selected for a particular transcription is part of a communication between the publisher and the reader. As much as anything else, it depends on who the intended reader is.
3/4 time signature is common because it's an easy time signature that beginner musicians are familiar with. |
122,964 | I have seen many different song sheets for the Beatles Song *Norwegian Wood* using time signatures of 3/4, 6/8 and 12/8. My question is, why are they all different, why is there no consensus? What I hear in the original are 2 different time signatures (and 2 different modes): the verses with a kind of 3/4 feel and the chorus 12/8. Shouldn't the time signatures convey to the way you interpret the song?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1rN7.png) original lead sheet
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8C1ZM.png) some piano arrangement
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1nBNs.png) another piano arrangement | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/122964",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/28038/"
] | Lazy’s answer sums it up well but I would like to add that the reason there is no consensus on the notation for this song is that the song was created by a composer with no knowledge of music notation and no thought of how it would appear on sheet music. It was transcribed and notated after the fact, first by the publishers then by anyone else who wanted to make a chart of the song. This is where Lazy’s answer comes in. Any song with a 3 pulse can be interpreted in a number of ways. If the composer does not create their own written notation with their interpretation of what it should be (3/4, 6/8, etc.) then whoever writes out the song after the fact will interpret it in one of those ways and write it that way. All the versions will sound alike to a certain degree with the exception of the way strong beats are stressed in different time signatures.
I personally would go with 6/8 because the strong beats line up best with the lyrics: **I** once had a **girl** or should I **say** she once had **me**… Regarding your observations, there is only one time signature throughout, not two. There are two tonalities like you say, E Mixolydian for verses and E Dorian for the choruses which I identify as Dorian because of the A chord since there is no major or minor 6th melody note in that part of the song. | All good discussion. The three-pattern of the song fits in to all those time signatures. But what does it *feel* like? Does it feel like a waltz? Does it feel like a triplet march?
I prefer the 12/8, because it feels like two-bar phrases from the chord and melody movement, and can live with 6/8. |
122,964 | I have seen many different song sheets for the Beatles Song *Norwegian Wood* using time signatures of 3/4, 6/8 and 12/8. My question is, why are they all different, why is there no consensus? What I hear in the original are 2 different time signatures (and 2 different modes): the verses with a kind of 3/4 feel and the chorus 12/8. Shouldn't the time signatures convey to the way you interpret the song?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1rN7.png) original lead sheet
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8C1ZM.png) some piano arrangement
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1nBNs.png) another piano arrangement | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/122964",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/28038/"
] | Having had a hard listen to Norwegian Wood, I can't put it into anything but 6/8.
Reasons being - the bass plays on 1 for each bar, as does the guitar. There's a distinct 'it could be a two feel, but the quicker three feel is still there'.
Were it 3/4, the second bar each time has little definition not really making it a separate bar.
Were it 12/8, the second '6/8' bar would be less defined - it's not.
The 3/4 version (in an easy-to-play key) would be a simplified version for beginners. The 12/8 version, not sure. Although it's in the recorded (and probably 'written' guitar friendly key), it doesn't need to be a more complex 12/8, when 6/8 scans well.
While writing it, it's quite possible that John and Paul didn't even consider what the time signature was - it was just the way this song developed - and didn't really matter, until some poor soul had to commit it to print.
The 6/8 piano arrangement is just that - an arrangement - and as such, could be written in any way preferred by the arranger - he could have arranged it in 5/4 if he so desired ! But, for me at least, he kept the time signature to what I believe is most appropriate for the Beatles' recorded version of this song. I rest my case! | Ballroom dance music characteristically has a fixed beat. Popular music is re-recorded to provide a cover version with a fixed beat for ballroom dancing. Except for special purposes like that, there is no reason for performance music to have the same beat from one note to the next -- and even the notion of 'note' comes from specific instruments -- the vocal part is never sung exactly to the instrumental notes.
The time signature that is selected for a particular transcription is part of a communication between the publisher and the reader. As much as anything else, it depends on who the intended reader is.
3/4 time signature is common because it's an easy time signature that beginner musicians are familiar with. |
122,964 | I have seen many different song sheets for the Beatles Song *Norwegian Wood* using time signatures of 3/4, 6/8 and 12/8. My question is, why are they all different, why is there no consensus? What I hear in the original are 2 different time signatures (and 2 different modes): the verses with a kind of 3/4 feel and the chorus 12/8. Shouldn't the time signatures convey to the way you interpret the song?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1rN7.png) original lead sheet
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8C1ZM.png) some piano arrangement
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1nBNs.png) another piano arrangement | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/122964",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/28038/"
] | Having had a hard listen to Norwegian Wood, I can't put it into anything but 6/8.
Reasons being - the bass plays on 1 for each bar, as does the guitar. There's a distinct 'it could be a two feel, but the quicker three feel is still there'.
Were it 3/4, the second bar each time has little definition not really making it a separate bar.
Were it 12/8, the second '6/8' bar would be less defined - it's not.
The 3/4 version (in an easy-to-play key) would be a simplified version for beginners. The 12/8 version, not sure. Although it's in the recorded (and probably 'written' guitar friendly key), it doesn't need to be a more complex 12/8, when 6/8 scans well.
While writing it, it's quite possible that John and Paul didn't even consider what the time signature was - it was just the way this song developed - and didn't really matter, until some poor soul had to commit it to print.
The 6/8 piano arrangement is just that - an arrangement - and as such, could be written in any way preferred by the arranger - he could have arranged it in 5/4 if he so desired ! But, for me at least, he kept the time signature to what I believe is most appropriate for the Beatles' recorded version of this song. I rest my case! | All good discussion. The three-pattern of the song fits in to all those time signatures. But what does it *feel* like? Does it feel like a waltz? Does it feel like a triplet march?
I prefer the 12/8, because it feels like two-bar phrases from the chord and melody movement, and can live with 6/8. |
122,964 | I have seen many different song sheets for the Beatles Song *Norwegian Wood* using time signatures of 3/4, 6/8 and 12/8. My question is, why are they all different, why is there no consensus? What I hear in the original are 2 different time signatures (and 2 different modes): the verses with a kind of 3/4 feel and the chorus 12/8. Shouldn't the time signatures convey to the way you interpret the song?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1rN7.png) original lead sheet
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8C1ZM.png) some piano arrangement
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1nBNs.png) another piano arrangement | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/122964",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/28038/"
] | Lazy’s answer sums it up well but I would like to add that the reason there is no consensus on the notation for this song is that the song was created by a composer with no knowledge of music notation and no thought of how it would appear on sheet music. It was transcribed and notated after the fact, first by the publishers then by anyone else who wanted to make a chart of the song. This is where Lazy’s answer comes in. Any song with a 3 pulse can be interpreted in a number of ways. If the composer does not create their own written notation with their interpretation of what it should be (3/4, 6/8, etc.) then whoever writes out the song after the fact will interpret it in one of those ways and write it that way. All the versions will sound alike to a certain degree with the exception of the way strong beats are stressed in different time signatures.
I personally would go with 6/8 because the strong beats line up best with the lyrics: **I** once had a **girl** or should I **say** she once had **me**… Regarding your observations, there is only one time signature throughout, not two. There are two tonalities like you say, E Mixolydian for verses and E Dorian for the choruses which I identify as Dorian because of the A chord since there is no major or minor 6th melody note in that part of the song. | Having had a hard listen to Norwegian Wood, I can't put it into anything but 6/8.
Reasons being - the bass plays on 1 for each bar, as does the guitar. There's a distinct 'it could be a two feel, but the quicker three feel is still there'.
Were it 3/4, the second bar each time has little definition not really making it a separate bar.
Were it 12/8, the second '6/8' bar would be less defined - it's not.
The 3/4 version (in an easy-to-play key) would be a simplified version for beginners. The 12/8 version, not sure. Although it's in the recorded (and probably 'written' guitar friendly key), it doesn't need to be a more complex 12/8, when 6/8 scans well.
While writing it, it's quite possible that John and Paul didn't even consider what the time signature was - it was just the way this song developed - and didn't really matter, until some poor soul had to commit it to print.
The 6/8 piano arrangement is just that - an arrangement - and as such, could be written in any way preferred by the arranger - he could have arranged it in 5/4 if he so desired ! But, for me at least, he kept the time signature to what I believe is most appropriate for the Beatles' recorded version of this song. I rest my case! |
23,697 | I'm in the process of creating a web app. I have many randomly-generated non-player characters in a database. I can pull a lot of information about them - their height, weight, down to eye color, hair color, and hair style.
For this, I am solely interested in generating a graphical representation of the face. Currently the information is displayed with text in the nicest way possible, but I believe it's worth generating these faces for a more... human experience.
Problem is, I don't know where to start. Were it 2007, I'd naturally think to myself that using Flash would be the best choice. I'd love to see "breathing" simulated. However, since Flash is on its way out, I'm not sure of a solid solution.
With a previous game, I simply used layered .PNGs to represent various aspects of the player's body: their armor, the face, the skin color. However, these solutions weren't very dynamic and felt very amateur. I can't go deep into this project feeling like that's an inferior way to present these faces, and I'm certain there's a better way.
Can anyone give some suggestion on how to pull this off well? | 2012/02/11 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/23697",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/6056/"
] | The way you are thinking to do it is fine. You should drop inhibitions about Flash and just use it. You aren't writing a bank system here, you're writing a single game. Even if it does have a sequel, Flash is still installed on pretty much every computer today.
Just a note that the best face generator I've ever come across is [facegen](http://www.facegen.com/).
There is a [FaceGen SDK](http://www.facegen.com/sdk.htm). I don't really know what it costs, but I'm guessing it must be in the thousands. Then, you have FaceGen create a face, using your inputted parameters (for eyes spacing, skin color etc - FaceGen can do all that). Then, you render the face to a texture, save it out, and send it over to the other application. | This is a very good question! Unfortunately I can't suggest anything more than what probably you already know:
1. Prepare 10 faces in Photoshop or Flash or other drawing tool with layers.
2. Put every face element like nose, eyes, eyebrows etc. on a separate layer.
3. Design the faces the way all elements are on same place.
4. Hide all elements except one (or set as a guide layer in Flash)
5. Save as .PNG file and repeat for other elements
6. Put these .PNG files in groups, and generate faces by overlapping random PNGs, one of every type on top of each other. |
23,697 | I'm in the process of creating a web app. I have many randomly-generated non-player characters in a database. I can pull a lot of information about them - their height, weight, down to eye color, hair color, and hair style.
For this, I am solely interested in generating a graphical representation of the face. Currently the information is displayed with text in the nicest way possible, but I believe it's worth generating these faces for a more... human experience.
Problem is, I don't know where to start. Were it 2007, I'd naturally think to myself that using Flash would be the best choice. I'd love to see "breathing" simulated. However, since Flash is on its way out, I'm not sure of a solid solution.
With a previous game, I simply used layered .PNGs to represent various aspects of the player's body: their armor, the face, the skin color. However, these solutions weren't very dynamic and felt very amateur. I can't go deep into this project feeling like that's an inferior way to present these faces, and I'm certain there's a better way.
Can anyone give some suggestion on how to pull this off well? | 2012/02/11 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/23697",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/6056/"
] | Have you ever seen old movies where they use an Identikit (little strips of transparent plastic beside each other) to reconstruct a perpetrator's face? Basically, that's what you want to do. Image files with transparency for pre-defined slices of a face, plus one or two for the actual head and face shape, another one for the hair style.
Since you're in 2D, you'd need a separate image for every facial feature for every angle it can be viewed from (e.g. front, left, right, back ...). Then you draw them on top of each other, and maybe cache the pre-rendered head (e.g. in another image file, or as a data: URL or whatever) so you don't have to draw it over and over again.
This works similarly for the body, just that you need separate sets of slices for arms, legs and the parts of the torso, so you can rotate arms (think of how South Park looks, or how an action figure is made for inspiration on how you do the individual parts - take apart a G.I. Joe figure for instance).
For the various body types, you might be able to get away with just stretching the image sideways. Or rather, what you really want to do is draw your character wider and then horizontally compress the image for the narrower body types, because stretching an image means the computer will double pixels (where it *should* add detail), whereas if you compress it, it will remove pixels (and thus some of the "wider body type" detail, giving the appearance of adding detail to the wider ones if you do it right). If that doesn't look right, you can probably at least draw fewer body types and then make intermediate steps by compressing horizontally.
Of course, you can add shading layers that you'll only draw at certain levels of compression, e.g. a "sagging cheeks" layer at 1.0...0.9, nothing at 0.91...0.5, and "sunken cheeks" shading layer at anything below 0.5 or so, to improve the illusion. Just make sure to apply all of this to the slice when seen straight, *before* you rotate it, or it'll end up stretched/compressed in the wrong direction.
If you have a simple drawing style, you could also just draw the faces as vectors and then multiply the coordinates (or transform the coordinate system with a horizontal scale, I forget if Canvas supports that). This would also make it easier for clothes, because those might have to stretch with the character's body, and you might need special versions that show off a character's muscles (could probably be approximated with optional shading layers again). If you draw these in vectors, you could just straighten out the curves you draw for muscles for skinnier characters, or fill the character shape with a different color/texture. | This is a very good question! Unfortunately I can't suggest anything more than what probably you already know:
1. Prepare 10 faces in Photoshop or Flash or other drawing tool with layers.
2. Put every face element like nose, eyes, eyebrows etc. on a separate layer.
3. Design the faces the way all elements are on same place.
4. Hide all elements except one (or set as a guide layer in Flash)
5. Save as .PNG file and repeat for other elements
6. Put these .PNG files in groups, and generate faces by overlapping random PNGs, one of every type on top of each other. |
17,837 | I am traveling to Oklahoma state in USA next week. I am driving my SUV but I have 4 friends going with me and one more person will join us in Oklahoma. I am wondering if there is any legal limitation on the number of passengers allowed in one car in Oklahoma. Not including the driver seat, my car has 4 seats but there is some space in the back of the SUV so someone could sit on that. I can't find anywhere that tells the law on number of passengers allowed in one car in Oklahoma. | 2013/06/02 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/17837",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/6966/"
] | The only likely legal limitation is that there must be a seat belt for every passenger.
Some states only require seat belts for passengers in the front seat, or under a certain age (such as 13).
But to be safe, make sure every passenger is buckled in, and you will have no problems anywhere in the U.S.
As per the [NHTSA summary](http://www.nhtsa.gov/staticfiles/nti/pdf/811458.pdf%E2%80%8E), the number of occupants in the rear seat cannot exceed the number of available safety belts. Including the citations of the relevant laws on pages 19, 29, 33, etc. | [The state of Oklahoma does not require rear-seat passengers to wear seat belts:](http://ok.gov/ohso/documents/Safety%20Belt%20Law%20NFO.pdf)
>
> All drivers and front seat passengers ages 13 and older must have a safety belt properly fastened about his/her body at all times while the vehicle is being operated.
>
>
>
This would imply that you can legally pile four people into the backseat and/or the cargo area. The only other laws I've been able to find concerning passengers and where they can ride either apply to larger vehicles (with a seating of 15 or more) or concern whether passengers can ride outside the passenger compartment (short answer: in the bed of a pickup truck or in a parade, otherwise no.)
If you are passing through any other states on the road-trip, the [Governors' Highway Safety Association](http://ghsa.org/html/stateinfo/bystate/index.html) has a good collection of summaries of each state's traffic laws, including seat belt laws. |
558,026 | I mean, I know each packet is sent with a MAC address, but what about streaming?
What happen if while the router is receiving one packet, a packet from another device arrives?
How can the router know that the photons colliding with the antenna are part of the first packet or the second packet?
Or is it that the speed of light is so fast that this almost never happens and the packets are just reported as corrupt and are sent again? | 2013/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/558026",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/84467/"
] | In a wireless network, only one device is actually "speaking" at once. Each other device listens and waits for the air on that channel to be quiet before speaking. This technique is called [carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carrier_sense_multiple_access_with_collision_avoidance)
An RTS/CTS exchange helps all the nodes stay in sync efficiently by providing a way for one node to say "hey, I'm going to talk for this long so wait this long" to every other node.
@Petr Abdulin is correct but I think all Wifi networks use CSMA/CA. Old 10BaseT non-switched wired networks relied on [carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carrier_sense_multiple_access_with_collision_detection). Collisions don't happen on networks where all nodes are connected to a switch. | If it happens that two transmissions interfere each other (collision), then both transmissions will be corrupted and they will be retransmitted after a random delay, reducing risk of collision repeat. |
558,026 | I mean, I know each packet is sent with a MAC address, but what about streaming?
What happen if while the router is receiving one packet, a packet from another device arrives?
How can the router know that the photons colliding with the antenna are part of the first packet or the second packet?
Or is it that the speed of light is so fast that this almost never happens and the packets are just reported as corrupt and are sent again? | 2013/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/558026",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/84467/"
] | If it happens that two transmissions interfere each other (collision), then both transmissions will be corrupted and they will be retransmitted after a random delay, reducing risk of collision repeat. | >
> What happen if while the router is receiving one packet, a packet from
> another device arrives?
>
>
>
The immediate consequence is that some of the overlapping bits are corrupted.
Often so many bits are corrupted that the receiver sees that the frame check sequence doesn't match up, and the receiver simply throws the bad data out and otherwise acts as if it didn't hear either packet.
Later, higher-level protocols eventually notice that a packet hasn't been acknowledged (ACK'ed) and re-send the packet.
However, the WiFi standards include many different ways of preventing such collisions, including:
* Most versions of WiFi use COFDM or some other combination of spread-spectrum + extra error correction bits. If you are lucky only a few bits have been flipped, all of those bits can be corrected at the receiver, and *one* of the packets gets through without error.
* As LawrenceC already pointed out, most versions of WiFi use carrier sense multiple access with [collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/carrier_sense_multiple_access_with_collision_avoidance): The wireless access point coordinates all the laptops communicating with it so that (usually) only one device at a time is transmitting, so (usually) there is no collision. (Sometimes you still get a collision with a packet from some other laptop trying to talk to some other wireless access point, or interference with various other devices).
>
> what about streaming?
>
>
>
What about it?
When a laptop is playing streaming audio (or streaming video; roughly 5 Mbit/s for 1080p video streams),
the sender sends it as a series of small packets.
Modern communication hardware is fast
(802.11a transmits at over 20 Mbit/s, and more recent Wi-Fi standards are even faster),
so there are (relatively) long gaps between one packet to that laptop, and the next packet to the same laptop.
Between each packet there's plenty of time for the wireless access point to send packets to several other laptops,
listening for the occasional packets from those laptops that ACK the previous transmissions and request the next piece of the stream,
and even more occasionally re-sending packets when there is a collision or some other error.
If all of these laptops are talking to the same access point,
then the access point coordinates the transmissions so only one device at a time is transmitting.
If some of these laptops are talking to one access point, and others are talking to some other (uncoordinated) access point,
and all those devices are located close enough that they can easily overhear each other, then there will be frequent collisions.
Any packets that collide are re-transmitted.
Typically the re-transmitted packet eventually gets through, long before it's time to play it, so no human even notices there was a problem.
So (typically) every human gets the illusion of their own "continuous" dedicated stream. |
558,026 | I mean, I know each packet is sent with a MAC address, but what about streaming?
What happen if while the router is receiving one packet, a packet from another device arrives?
How can the router know that the photons colliding with the antenna are part of the first packet or the second packet?
Or is it that the speed of light is so fast that this almost never happens and the packets are just reported as corrupt and are sent again? | 2013/02/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/558026",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/84467/"
] | In a wireless network, only one device is actually "speaking" at once. Each other device listens and waits for the air on that channel to be quiet before speaking. This technique is called [carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carrier_sense_multiple_access_with_collision_avoidance)
An RTS/CTS exchange helps all the nodes stay in sync efficiently by providing a way for one node to say "hey, I'm going to talk for this long so wait this long" to every other node.
@Petr Abdulin is correct but I think all Wifi networks use CSMA/CA. Old 10BaseT non-switched wired networks relied on [carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carrier_sense_multiple_access_with_collision_detection). Collisions don't happen on networks where all nodes are connected to a switch. | >
> What happen if while the router is receiving one packet, a packet from
> another device arrives?
>
>
>
The immediate consequence is that some of the overlapping bits are corrupted.
Often so many bits are corrupted that the receiver sees that the frame check sequence doesn't match up, and the receiver simply throws the bad data out and otherwise acts as if it didn't hear either packet.
Later, higher-level protocols eventually notice that a packet hasn't been acknowledged (ACK'ed) and re-send the packet.
However, the WiFi standards include many different ways of preventing such collisions, including:
* Most versions of WiFi use COFDM or some other combination of spread-spectrum + extra error correction bits. If you are lucky only a few bits have been flipped, all of those bits can be corrected at the receiver, and *one* of the packets gets through without error.
* As LawrenceC already pointed out, most versions of WiFi use carrier sense multiple access with [collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/carrier_sense_multiple_access_with_collision_avoidance): The wireless access point coordinates all the laptops communicating with it so that (usually) only one device at a time is transmitting, so (usually) there is no collision. (Sometimes you still get a collision with a packet from some other laptop trying to talk to some other wireless access point, or interference with various other devices).
>
> what about streaming?
>
>
>
What about it?
When a laptop is playing streaming audio (or streaming video; roughly 5 Mbit/s for 1080p video streams),
the sender sends it as a series of small packets.
Modern communication hardware is fast
(802.11a transmits at over 20 Mbit/s, and more recent Wi-Fi standards are even faster),
so there are (relatively) long gaps between one packet to that laptop, and the next packet to the same laptop.
Between each packet there's plenty of time for the wireless access point to send packets to several other laptops,
listening for the occasional packets from those laptops that ACK the previous transmissions and request the next piece of the stream,
and even more occasionally re-sending packets when there is a collision or some other error.
If all of these laptops are talking to the same access point,
then the access point coordinates the transmissions so only one device at a time is transmitting.
If some of these laptops are talking to one access point, and others are talking to some other (uncoordinated) access point,
and all those devices are located close enough that they can easily overhear each other, then there will be frequent collisions.
Any packets that collide are re-transmitted.
Typically the re-transmitted packet eventually gets through, long before it's time to play it, so no human even notices there was a problem.
So (typically) every human gets the illusion of their own "continuous" dedicated stream. |
42,799 | I'm hoping to get some help with my thermostat problem. We bought our home brand new and it came with a very basic thermostat (non programmable and runs on batteries). I want to upgrade it to a wifi programmable thermostat so I bought a honeywell one. Our home has a honeywell ventilation system that pulls fresh air from the outside and circulates it through the home. As I read the instructions to use the g wire for the c wire it seemed easy enough. I am handy enough that I finished my own basement electrical and all do I figured it can't be too hard.
So I pulled the old thermostat off after labeling the wires. Put in the new wifi one and used the g wire for the c. Went to my furnace and I have wires running all over. Into the furnace from upstairs is just a 4 wire, I have no extras. All wires are connected to the furnace board except the g wire is connected to a wire that runs up to the honeywell ventilation system and then another set of wires returns back to the furnace board.
I figured out which of the return wires is the g wire and attempted to move that to the c wire in the furnace board then out a jumper in between the y and g on the same board. At first I thought this made it work because I was able to setup the wifi thermostat because it was receiving power. I setup the wifi and set the temp and the ac kicked on so I figured I was good to go. About 10 minutes later though the power to the thermostat was gone and I blew the 3amp fuse in the box. I tested it again and sure enough, after 10 minutes the new fuse blew.
can anyone help me understand what is going wrong and what I need to do to fix it so I can use my new thermostat? I did call the person that installed my system and he didn't seem too thrilled about answering my questions. | 2014/06/08 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/42799",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/21975/"
] | Technically I suppose you could remove the insulation around flex. Why would you want to though? I understand that it fits tight through there but in my installation of commercial duct work (on the side) we have just compressed the insulation. It is after all flexible. One thing that insulation around duct work does is prevent condensation on your ducts when you run the air conditioning in the summer. You may think no big deal but that slight bit of moisture and a couple of drops can start other issues. It's good to keep your ducts insulated. I would say either pipe it through the (and insulate the pipe) joists and put flex on after that or just squish the flex with the understanding that it may affect the airflow to that room (depending on the squish factor) | Yes, but.
The insulation does give a measure of puncture protection to the inner duct. It is a thin and somewhat brittle plastic. If possible, I would remove just enough insulation (on the joist sides), to make placement possible. |
256,084 | I am not a native speaker therefore I would be grateful if someone could explain me what is the diferrence between "minute by minute" and "minute after minute". Thank you. | 2015/06/30 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/256084",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/127314/"
] | If you're open to idioms, you could say that these people are [**cut from the same cloth**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/cut-from-the-same-cloth?q=cut%20from%20the%20same%20cloth).
>
> Of the same nature; similar:
>
>
> *don’t assume all women are cut from the same cloth*
>
>
>
Or they're [**like (two) peas in a pod**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/like-peas-or-two-peas-in-a-pod?q=peas%20in%20a%20pod)
>
> So similar as to be indistinguishable or nearly so:
>
>
> *they were like two peas in a pod, both with the same high cheekbones and hairline*
>
>
> | You could use similar or analogous. |
256,084 | I am not a native speaker therefore I would be grateful if someone could explain me what is the diferrence between "minute by minute" and "minute after minute". Thank you. | 2015/06/30 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/256084",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/127314/"
] | You could use similar or analogous. | [Alike](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_english/alike)
>
> (Of two or more subjects) similar to each other
>
>
>
*The brothers were very much alike* |
256,084 | I am not a native speaker therefore I would be grateful if someone could explain me what is the diferrence between "minute by minute" and "minute after minute". Thank you. | 2015/06/30 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/256084",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/127314/"
] | You could use similar or analogous. | [Dead Ringer](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/dead+ringer) (for someone/something) |
256,084 | I am not a native speaker therefore I would be grateful if someone could explain me what is the diferrence between "minute by minute" and "minute after minute". Thank you. | 2015/06/30 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/256084",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/127314/"
] | If you're open to idioms, you could say that these people are [**cut from the same cloth**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/cut-from-the-same-cloth?q=cut%20from%20the%20same%20cloth).
>
> Of the same nature; similar:
>
>
> *don’t assume all women are cut from the same cloth*
>
>
>
Or they're [**like (two) peas in a pod**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/like-peas-or-two-peas-in-a-pod?q=peas%20in%20a%20pod)
>
> So similar as to be indistinguishable or nearly so:
>
>
> *they were like two peas in a pod, both with the same high cheekbones and hairline*
>
>
> | [Alike](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_english/alike)
>
> (Of two or more subjects) similar to each other
>
>
>
*The brothers were very much alike* |
256,084 | I am not a native speaker therefore I would be grateful if someone could explain me what is the diferrence between "minute by minute" and "minute after minute". Thank you. | 2015/06/30 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/256084",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/127314/"
] | If you're open to idioms, you could say that these people are [**cut from the same cloth**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/cut-from-the-same-cloth?q=cut%20from%20the%20same%20cloth).
>
> Of the same nature; similar:
>
>
> *don’t assume all women are cut from the same cloth*
>
>
>
Or they're [**like (two) peas in a pod**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/like-peas-or-two-peas-in-a-pod?q=peas%20in%20a%20pod)
>
> So similar as to be indistinguishable or nearly so:
>
>
> *they were like two peas in a pod, both with the same high cheekbones and hairline*
>
>
> | [Dead Ringer](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/dead+ringer) (for someone/something) |
143,062 | I run a large bulletin board and I get spammers every now and again. My moderation team does a good job filtering them out but every time I IP ban them they seem to come back (I'm pretty sure it's the same person on some occasions, as the post patterns are exactly the same as are the usernames) but I'm afraid to ban them by IP address every time.
If they are on a dynamic IP address, I could be banning innocent users later down the line when they try to get to my forum through SERPs, but if I ban only via static IPs I know that I'm only banning that one person.
So, is there a way to properly determine if an IP address is static or dynamic?
Thanks. | 2010/05/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/143062",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | No, you can't tell if an IP address is static or dynamic. Any time you IP ban a user, you run the risk of banning legitimate users.
If the IP addresses are from out of country, especially from a region that you aren't targeting demographically, I say block away.
If you can prevent automation, that will help a lot in fighting spam, at least enough for your moderators to keep up.
Make sure that you are using the [nofollow](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nofollow) link attribute when displaying user posted links. This will prevent the spammers from improving their SEO scores in the time it takes to delete the messages.
Many BBs allow you to specify that the user can't post any links until they've posted a minimum number of messages. | You can try to do DNS resolve the ip address and see if it match some terms which identify the IP as a dynamic (adsl, cable, dialup, dyn) or static (static, server, biz). |
143,062 | I run a large bulletin board and I get spammers every now and again. My moderation team does a good job filtering them out but every time I IP ban them they seem to come back (I'm pretty sure it's the same person on some occasions, as the post patterns are exactly the same as are the usernames) but I'm afraid to ban them by IP address every time.
If they are on a dynamic IP address, I could be banning innocent users later down the line when they try to get to my forum through SERPs, but if I ban only via static IPs I know that I'm only banning that one person.
So, is there a way to properly determine if an IP address is static or dynamic?
Thanks. | 2010/05/18 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/143062",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | static vs. dynamic is a policy applied by the owner of the IP block. There's no way to determine this reliably unless you have physical access to the IP owner network and can query their DHCP server. | You can try to do DNS resolve the ip address and see if it match some terms which identify the IP as a dynamic (adsl, cable, dialup, dyn) or static (static, server, biz). |
38,117 | In Suruga Monkey Part 2 of Bakemonogatari, Kanbaru's room is literally full of red hardcover books. Why is this and what does it represent? | 2016/12/28 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/38117",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/25814/"
] | That's her massive collection of BL (boys' love) books (which she is also into, besides considering herself a lesbian), at least that's what they represent. As many other things in Monogatari's animation, it should be taken more symbolically than literally. Take for example Senjougahara's "arsenal" of stationery in episode 1 of Bakemonogatari, or even more obviously the constantly shifting, multiplying, growing, falling etc. pile of pencils in episode 6 of Nisemonogatari (you'll know when you get there :) ). | I believe the books (which are from BL) can represent the mental state of the character, who is also homosexual. Maybe that's why it's all a mess, and when Araragi goes to Suruga's house during a long conversation, they arrange (literally and metaphorically) her books (feelings). Perhaps this is why, in the Nisemonogatari tidying scene, when Suruga gets confused in the conversation, the books fall into a domino effect, and when Araragi helps Suruga to find herself again, the books arrange themselves. But that's just my interpretation |
1,689,012 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Calling Python from Objective-C](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1308079/calling-python-from-objective-c)
>
>
>
I'm a long-time Python programmer and short-time Cocoa programmer. I'm just getting started with PyObjC and it's really amazing how easy it it is to get stuff done. That said, I wanted to try using pure ObjC for my controller with PyObjC models. I might be enjoy letting Python be Python and Objective-C be Objective-C. I figured it was worth a try, anyways.
*Except* I can't figure out or find anything about how to call Python from Objective-C, only the other way around. Can someone point me to any resources on this? (Maybe it's on the PyObjC site but I just don't know what I'm looking for?)
Edit: I'm most interested, at the basic level, in being able to call a Python module and get some native ObjC data types back. | 2009/11/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1689012",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/168594/"
] | There are several possible approaches. The most tempting is to use py2app to compile a loadable bundle from your python code from which you can access the principal class using `NSBundle`. Unfortunately, this use case hasn't gotten much love from the py2app developers, and I've found several bugs in 10.5 and 10.6, including a rather nasty memory leak when passing data from python back in to Objective-C. I wouldn't recommend using py2app at thist point.
The second approach is invert the embedding. Write a Python cocoa app and load your Objective-C code from a bundle at startup (even in main()). If you already have a large Objective-C app, this may take a bit of work. The only downside, that I'm ware of, is that you won't be able to use GC in your Objective-C code, but this is really a universal limitation in working with PyObjC.
Finally, you can instantiate a python interpreter in your Objective-C code to load your python code. This is obviously more involved, but may the best option if you already have a large Objective-C codebase into which you want to inject your python code. The main.m file from the Python-Cococa application template in Xcode is a good place to start to see this in action. | Whoops, guess I should've searched a bit more:
[Calling Python from Objective-C](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1308079/calling-python-from-objective-c) |
446,136 | Is there a qualitative difference, or in the sense of finality, or irreversibility or changeability, some negative connotation, e.g. fate may be affected by future actions, but fait accompli is not?
Since there can be many shades or a broad spectrum of meanings of a word, I am trying to understand what is the intersection of the two spectra. The reason I ask this question is that I wrote a few lines of poetry which allude to many things and can have multiple interpretations. I'm trying to understand how much of a poetic liberty I have taken, and how much of it will be understood by the reader. I could just mention the lines, but it is unpublished and therefore, did not want to post it yet. I kept the question broad very intentionally so that I could see what comes to the mind of the people as the first sense of these words, but did not expect negative comments without an attempt of an answer, especially when I cannot respond to the "user" directly.
**Details:**
Definition of fate
1 : the will or principle or determining cause by which things in general are believed to come to be as they are or events to happen as they do : destiny
… fate sometimes deals a straight flush … he had no idea that he would become the right man in the right place at the right time … —June Goodfield
2 a : an inevitable and often adverse outcome, condition, or end Her fate was to remain in exile.
b : disaster; especially : death The villain met his fate at the hands of the hero.
-- <https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/fate>
plural faits accomplis \ˈfā-tə-ˌkäm-ˈplē(z), ˈfe-, ˈfe-ˌta-, -ˌkōⁿ(m)-, British usually -ˈkäm-(ˌ)plē(z)\
: a thing accomplished and presumably irreversible
he charged that the members were presented with a fait accompli instead of being called to a meeting to discuss the policy change —Daniel Thomases
-- <https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/fait%20accompli> | 2018/05/14 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/446136",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/99016/"
] | Apart from the fact that 'fate' and 'fait' sound similar, 'fate' and 'fait accompli' have nothing in common. They mean different things.
>
> fate noun UK /feɪt/ US /feɪt/ B2 [ C usually singular ] what
> happens to a particular person or thing, especially something final or
> negative, such as death or defeat:
>
>
> We want to decide our own fate. His fate is now in the hands of the
> jury. The disciples were terrified that they would suffer/meet the
> same fate as Jesus. B2 [ U ] a power that some people believe causes
> and controls all events, so that you cannot change or control the way
> things will happen:
>
>
> When we met again by chance in Cairo, I felt it must be fate. Fate has
> brought us together.
>
>
>
[Cambridge Dictionary](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/fate)
'Fait accompli' is a French phrase meaning an 'accomplished fact', one which leaves no room for argument. If my wife and I decide to buy a car, and I want a Honda, but she wants a Toyota, I might seek to win the argument by buying the Honda and presenting that fact to her as a *fait accompli*.
>
> fait accompli noun [ C ] UK /ˌfet ə.kɒmˈpliː/ US /ˌfeɪt
> ə.kɑːmˈpliː/ plural faits accomplis something that has already
> happened or been done and cannot be changed:
>
>
> The policy change was presented to us as a fait accompli, without
> consultation or discussion.
>
>
>
[Cambridge Dictionary](https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/fait-accompli) | The difference between *fate* and *fait accompli* is the same as the difference between [chalk and cheese](https://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/chalk-and-cheese.html).
*Fait* means exactly the same in French as does *fact* in English. Aside from its pronunciation (in the US), it has nothing to do with the English word *fate*. |
236 | I asked [a question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/1754/how-do-you-prepare-cook-kohl-rabi) , because I'd search for "kohl rabi" which is what the ingredient is called over here, and not found anything.
I suspect there are hundreds of differences in ingredient names (what is shortening?), or even cooking methods (what is a broiler?) Which I fear may limit the effectiveness of the site without tweaking the search to allow for the synonyms out there -- either that or there needs to be a **lot** of editing to keep this site being relevant to a worldwide audience.
What do you think can be done to keep this applicable to a worldwide audience? | 2010/07/18 | [
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/236",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/771/"
] | The general population seems to be north American, as best I can tell from the vocabulary commonly used (I understand most of it). This may initially be confusing to new members from other countries, but one of two things will happen:
1) Foreign visitors will come and be too confused by the terminology to effectively use the site, and use vernacular that the board as a whole doesn't understand, resulting in their questions dieing with low views and no answers. They will be forced to join the common language or not use the system.
2) Mutual education will happen, where the American users will google the terms posted when confusing and figure things out. Mods, familiar with numerous regional dialects, will re-tag with whatever they deem appropriate. The community chugs along and everyone learns something new.
I like 2. Something between these will probably happen. It'll be interesting to see what the hive mind comes up with.
Maybe the meta would be a place to create a taxonomy of international differences in food vocabulary. Or is that appropriate for the main board? | Not much can be done I don't think. We could tag things with the different names, but I think we'll be using up a lot of tags for that. It's also unreasonable to expect a questioner to learn what *everyone else* in the world calls something.
For example, I had a question about pork rinds. I never knew that there were 3 different names for them. Apparently scratchings in the UK and crackle in Australia & NZ. Another big one is grilling. Well, what *Americans* calls grilling. Apparently everywhere else in the world a grill is called a barbecue, but barbecue to many Americans is a very specific way to cook meat.
Given the tools we currently have, I think the best way is for zealous editors to help out by adding other terms in footnotes. |
236 | I asked [a question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/1754/how-do-you-prepare-cook-kohl-rabi) , because I'd search for "kohl rabi" which is what the ingredient is called over here, and not found anything.
I suspect there are hundreds of differences in ingredient names (what is shortening?), or even cooking methods (what is a broiler?) Which I fear may limit the effectiveness of the site without tweaking the search to allow for the synonyms out there -- either that or there needs to be a **lot** of editing to keep this site being relevant to a worldwide audience.
What do you think can be done to keep this applicable to a worldwide audience? | 2010/07/18 | [
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/236",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/771/"
] | I have to say, as a Brit I'm feeling like I'm less likely to remain a regular user of this site over time. I don't think so much it's the language/terminology issues - we seem to be managing perfectly well with everyone posting in their own local derivative of English, which seems in the majority to be American English (My only personal bug-bear is grilling & broiling in American English not being what I expect, and I have to make a conscious effort when reading these terms).
Obviously from a personal standpoint it would be easiest if everything was written in English, but I'm happy to research ingredient names or translate units as and when appropriate. In fact I reguarly do this already to some extent, considering I often use recipes from my girlfriend's native French (often written in Ch'ti to further complicate matters!).
What I do find difficult, however, is understanding posts that assume a US audience, or make reference to American culture as assumed knowledge. Things like assuming an ingredient will or won't be available, or that it will come in a given form (eg. In many countries UHT milk is the norm, whereas as I Brit I'm more used to HT/SL, flash-pasteurised, milk).
To summarise somewhat, I don't particuarly think we need to worry too much about ingredient names or units of measure - at the end of the day a salmon is a salmon, regardless of what you call it. What I do think we really need to be careful of are assumptions we make about where other users come from. Obviously some questions will have to be region-specific, but then I feel they should be tagged as such.
Other sites that I'm an active member of manage to make it easy for everyone, such as photo.stackexchange.com and of course stackoverflow.com, so I don't see why we can't. | Not much can be done I don't think. We could tag things with the different names, but I think we'll be using up a lot of tags for that. It's also unreasonable to expect a questioner to learn what *everyone else* in the world calls something.
For example, I had a question about pork rinds. I never knew that there were 3 different names for them. Apparently scratchings in the UK and crackle in Australia & NZ. Another big one is grilling. Well, what *Americans* calls grilling. Apparently everywhere else in the world a grill is called a barbecue, but barbecue to many Americans is a very specific way to cook meat.
Given the tools we currently have, I think the best way is for zealous editors to help out by adding other terms in footnotes. |
236 | I asked [a question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/1754/how-do-you-prepare-cook-kohl-rabi) , because I'd search for "kohl rabi" which is what the ingredient is called over here, and not found anything.
I suspect there are hundreds of differences in ingredient names (what is shortening?), or even cooking methods (what is a broiler?) Which I fear may limit the effectiveness of the site without tweaking the search to allow for the synonyms out there -- either that or there needs to be a **lot** of editing to keep this site being relevant to a worldwide audience.
What do you think can be done to keep this applicable to a worldwide audience? | 2010/07/18 | [
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/236",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/771/"
] | In the first days of the beta I was quite excited. But now I realize that this site is not so useful to me. I would like to ask about food and recipes of my country, whit replies from people living in my country, because the insights of a national cuisine are well known mostly by people living there. Probably this will evolve to a mostly US-focused site, and this is really uncommon for a Stack Exchange site. | Not much can be done I don't think. We could tag things with the different names, but I think we'll be using up a lot of tags for that. It's also unreasonable to expect a questioner to learn what *everyone else* in the world calls something.
For example, I had a question about pork rinds. I never knew that there were 3 different names for them. Apparently scratchings in the UK and crackle in Australia & NZ. Another big one is grilling. Well, what *Americans* calls grilling. Apparently everywhere else in the world a grill is called a barbecue, but barbecue to many Americans is a very specific way to cook meat.
Given the tools we currently have, I think the best way is for zealous editors to help out by adding other terms in footnotes. |
236 | I asked [a question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/1754/how-do-you-prepare-cook-kohl-rabi) , because I'd search for "kohl rabi" which is what the ingredient is called over here, and not found anything.
I suspect there are hundreds of differences in ingredient names (what is shortening?), or even cooking methods (what is a broiler?) Which I fear may limit the effectiveness of the site without tweaking the search to allow for the synonyms out there -- either that or there needs to be a **lot** of editing to keep this site being relevant to a worldwide audience.
What do you think can be done to keep this applicable to a worldwide audience? | 2010/07/18 | [
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/236",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/771/"
] | I have to say, as a Brit I'm feeling like I'm less likely to remain a regular user of this site over time. I don't think so much it's the language/terminology issues - we seem to be managing perfectly well with everyone posting in their own local derivative of English, which seems in the majority to be American English (My only personal bug-bear is grilling & broiling in American English not being what I expect, and I have to make a conscious effort when reading these terms).
Obviously from a personal standpoint it would be easiest if everything was written in English, but I'm happy to research ingredient names or translate units as and when appropriate. In fact I reguarly do this already to some extent, considering I often use recipes from my girlfriend's native French (often written in Ch'ti to further complicate matters!).
What I do find difficult, however, is understanding posts that assume a US audience, or make reference to American culture as assumed knowledge. Things like assuming an ingredient will or won't be available, or that it will come in a given form (eg. In many countries UHT milk is the norm, whereas as I Brit I'm more used to HT/SL, flash-pasteurised, milk).
To summarise somewhat, I don't particuarly think we need to worry too much about ingredient names or units of measure - at the end of the day a salmon is a salmon, regardless of what you call it. What I do think we really need to be careful of are assumptions we make about where other users come from. Obviously some questions will have to be region-specific, but then I feel they should be tagged as such.
Other sites that I'm an active member of manage to make it easy for everyone, such as photo.stackexchange.com and of course stackoverflow.com, so I don't see why we can't. | The general population seems to be north American, as best I can tell from the vocabulary commonly used (I understand most of it). This may initially be confusing to new members from other countries, but one of two things will happen:
1) Foreign visitors will come and be too confused by the terminology to effectively use the site, and use vernacular that the board as a whole doesn't understand, resulting in their questions dieing with low views and no answers. They will be forced to join the common language or not use the system.
2) Mutual education will happen, where the American users will google the terms posted when confusing and figure things out. Mods, familiar with numerous regional dialects, will re-tag with whatever they deem appropriate. The community chugs along and everyone learns something new.
I like 2. Something between these will probably happen. It'll be interesting to see what the hive mind comes up with.
Maybe the meta would be a place to create a taxonomy of international differences in food vocabulary. Or is that appropriate for the main board? |
236 | I asked [a question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/1754/how-do-you-prepare-cook-kohl-rabi) , because I'd search for "kohl rabi" which is what the ingredient is called over here, and not found anything.
I suspect there are hundreds of differences in ingredient names (what is shortening?), or even cooking methods (what is a broiler?) Which I fear may limit the effectiveness of the site without tweaking the search to allow for the synonyms out there -- either that or there needs to be a **lot** of editing to keep this site being relevant to a worldwide audience.
What do you think can be done to keep this applicable to a worldwide audience? | 2010/07/18 | [
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/236",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.meta.stackexchange.com/users/771/"
] | I have to say, as a Brit I'm feeling like I'm less likely to remain a regular user of this site over time. I don't think so much it's the language/terminology issues - we seem to be managing perfectly well with everyone posting in their own local derivative of English, which seems in the majority to be American English (My only personal bug-bear is grilling & broiling in American English not being what I expect, and I have to make a conscious effort when reading these terms).
Obviously from a personal standpoint it would be easiest if everything was written in English, but I'm happy to research ingredient names or translate units as and when appropriate. In fact I reguarly do this already to some extent, considering I often use recipes from my girlfriend's native French (often written in Ch'ti to further complicate matters!).
What I do find difficult, however, is understanding posts that assume a US audience, or make reference to American culture as assumed knowledge. Things like assuming an ingredient will or won't be available, or that it will come in a given form (eg. In many countries UHT milk is the norm, whereas as I Brit I'm more used to HT/SL, flash-pasteurised, milk).
To summarise somewhat, I don't particuarly think we need to worry too much about ingredient names or units of measure - at the end of the day a salmon is a salmon, regardless of what you call it. What I do think we really need to be careful of are assumptions we make about where other users come from. Obviously some questions will have to be region-specific, but then I feel they should be tagged as such.
Other sites that I'm an active member of manage to make it easy for everyone, such as photo.stackexchange.com and of course stackoverflow.com, so I don't see why we can't. | In the first days of the beta I was quite excited. But now I realize that this site is not so useful to me. I would like to ask about food and recipes of my country, whit replies from people living in my country, because the insights of a national cuisine are well known mostly by people living there. Probably this will evolve to a mostly US-focused site, and this is really uncommon for a Stack Exchange site. |
120,154 | I've noticed that news don't seem to affect stock prices. So when I'm talking about news here, I don't mean: "That company's quarterly earnings are down by 22%." I mean: "That company's planes keep crashing." Or: "That company's planes have been found to have software problems that don't only cause individual planes to crash but that affects entire series." Or: "That company's important plane series is being grounded globally because of serious problems." Or: "That company makes unsafe decisions about sensors and sensor data." Or: "That company's spacecraft has been lost because of software problems."
You wouldn't be able to tell where any of this happened from this chart:
This also applies to other companies where I've noticed that nothing happened despite bad news. But I don't think they are as well-known as Boeing.
As these reports keep indicating that that company has serious quality problems, why do people stay interested in their stock? Shouldn't they be expecting that Boeing will sell fewer aircraft and spacecraft in the future because of trust problems and because of quality problems? What sort of news that aren't of the "That company's quarterly earnings are down by 22%." kind even do affect the stock price of a company? | 2020/02/09 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/120154",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/42692/"
] | If you look at a 5 year chart of Boeing where price ranges from $100 to $400 then news related price moves are going to be muted in appearance.
Shorten your chart view to about 15-18 months and you'll see nearly ten drops of 30 to 70 points in a week or so.
And if you check the news releases at those times, you'll see that the price drops correlate directly with the news. So your premise that news doesn't seem to affect stock prices is incorrect. | Air travel is growing between 4-5% a year. This is faster than economic growth in general. The economies of industrialized nations are growing between 2-3% a year. Seems like a good investment if you can invest into 4-5% a year growth instead of into 2-3% a year growth.
Add 2% inflation to 4-5% a year and you'll get 6-7% per year. This alone explains 34%-40% jump in the stock price of Boeing in 5 years.
Now the jump has been higher, 100%. I suspect some of the rest is explained by share buybacks. US companies tend not to only distribute profits by dividends, they also buy back some of the shares from the open market. I do not have know accurate and full share buyback data of Boeing but the market cap of Boeing is around 200 billion and I did find a piece of news about a 20 billion USD share buyback program. This program can explain 10% further growth in the share price during the period of the program.
A partial explanation can also be the continuously low price of oil. In 2015, we could not necessarily foresee if the low oil prices continue. Today, we know the low prices did in fact continue.
We also in 2015 could not know if the attempts to curb carbon dioxide emissions are going to be a total failure. In 2020, the current information is that the global climate actions are nothing but a failure.
So, part of the continuous 4-5% growth of air travel is explained by low oil price and part by lack of action to curb climate change. In 2015, we could not necessarily know if the 4-5% growth continues. Today, it appears to be the case it continues.
Also, you are ignoring one fact about air travel. Air travel, per passenger mile, is the safest means of traveling. It is safer than elevators. It is safer than trains. The stock market investors know this. It is not a problem if some plane occasionally crashes. Air travel is still the safest means of traveling given a plane crash or two every now and then.
Also, part of the reasons is the increased valuation of stock markets. In 2015, Shiller CAPE ratio was 26.49 and today it's 31.82. This explains 20% growth in the valuation of the stock.
So, to summarize:
* 34%-40%: natural growth
* 20%: increased stock market valuation
* probably way over >10%: share buybacks
* the rest: continued low oil prices and lack of action to curb climate change |
120,154 | I've noticed that news don't seem to affect stock prices. So when I'm talking about news here, I don't mean: "That company's quarterly earnings are down by 22%." I mean: "That company's planes keep crashing." Or: "That company's planes have been found to have software problems that don't only cause individual planes to crash but that affects entire series." Or: "That company's important plane series is being grounded globally because of serious problems." Or: "That company makes unsafe decisions about sensors and sensor data." Or: "That company's spacecraft has been lost because of software problems."
You wouldn't be able to tell where any of this happened from this chart:
This also applies to other companies where I've noticed that nothing happened despite bad news. But I don't think they are as well-known as Boeing.
As these reports keep indicating that that company has serious quality problems, why do people stay interested in their stock? Shouldn't they be expecting that Boeing will sell fewer aircraft and spacecraft in the future because of trust problems and because of quality problems? What sort of news that aren't of the "That company's quarterly earnings are down by 22%." kind even do affect the stock price of a company? | 2020/02/09 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/120154",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/42692/"
] | Boeing's stock price dropped 11% on the Monday after that crash, and another 9% since then.
Note also the sharp drop on 17 Oct 2019 when Boeing told the FAA that it knew about the MCAS problems.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nw9LT.png) | Air travel is growing between 4-5% a year. This is faster than economic growth in general. The economies of industrialized nations are growing between 2-3% a year. Seems like a good investment if you can invest into 4-5% a year growth instead of into 2-3% a year growth.
Add 2% inflation to 4-5% a year and you'll get 6-7% per year. This alone explains 34%-40% jump in the stock price of Boeing in 5 years.
Now the jump has been higher, 100%. I suspect some of the rest is explained by share buybacks. US companies tend not to only distribute profits by dividends, they also buy back some of the shares from the open market. I do not have know accurate and full share buyback data of Boeing but the market cap of Boeing is around 200 billion and I did find a piece of news about a 20 billion USD share buyback program. This program can explain 10% further growth in the share price during the period of the program.
A partial explanation can also be the continuously low price of oil. In 2015, we could not necessarily foresee if the low oil prices continue. Today, we know the low prices did in fact continue.
We also in 2015 could not know if the attempts to curb carbon dioxide emissions are going to be a total failure. In 2020, the current information is that the global climate actions are nothing but a failure.
So, part of the continuous 4-5% growth of air travel is explained by low oil price and part by lack of action to curb climate change. In 2015, we could not necessarily know if the 4-5% growth continues. Today, it appears to be the case it continues.
Also, you are ignoring one fact about air travel. Air travel, per passenger mile, is the safest means of traveling. It is safer than elevators. It is safer than trains. The stock market investors know this. It is not a problem if some plane occasionally crashes. Air travel is still the safest means of traveling given a plane crash or two every now and then.
Also, part of the reasons is the increased valuation of stock markets. In 2015, Shiller CAPE ratio was 26.49 and today it's 31.82. This explains 20% growth in the valuation of the stock.
So, to summarize:
* 34%-40%: natural growth
* 20%: increased stock market valuation
* probably way over >10%: share buybacks
* the rest: continued low oil prices and lack of action to curb climate change |
120,154 | I've noticed that news don't seem to affect stock prices. So when I'm talking about news here, I don't mean: "That company's quarterly earnings are down by 22%." I mean: "That company's planes keep crashing." Or: "That company's planes have been found to have software problems that don't only cause individual planes to crash but that affects entire series." Or: "That company's important plane series is being grounded globally because of serious problems." Or: "That company makes unsafe decisions about sensors and sensor data." Or: "That company's spacecraft has been lost because of software problems."
You wouldn't be able to tell where any of this happened from this chart:
This also applies to other companies where I've noticed that nothing happened despite bad news. But I don't think they are as well-known as Boeing.
As these reports keep indicating that that company has serious quality problems, why do people stay interested in their stock? Shouldn't they be expecting that Boeing will sell fewer aircraft and spacecraft in the future because of trust problems and because of quality problems? What sort of news that aren't of the "That company's quarterly earnings are down by 22%." kind even do affect the stock price of a company? | 2020/02/09 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/120154",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/42692/"
] | If you look at a 5 year chart of Boeing where price ranges from $100 to $400 then news related price moves are going to be muted in appearance.
Shorten your chart view to about 15-18 months and you'll see nearly ten drops of 30 to 70 points in a week or so.
And if you check the news releases at those times, you'll see that the price drops correlate directly with the news. So your premise that news doesn't seem to affect stock prices is incorrect. | Boeing's stock price dropped 11% on the Monday after that crash, and another 9% since then.
Note also the sharp drop on 17 Oct 2019 when Boeing told the FAA that it knew about the MCAS problems.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nw9LT.png) |
166,587 | I just read that physical changes are temporary and reversible while chemical changes are permanent and irreversible. If that is the case, why are some chemical reactions reversible. Does it mean that chemical changes are reversible? | 2022/07/22 | [
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/166587",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/125843/"
] | The statement you challenge is a gross oversimplification and generalisation that fails to capture much of the subtlety of chemical reactions.
It seems to be pitched at describing the difference between simple examples such as the melting of water (physical, easily reversible by putting the water in a freezer) and the simple reaction between chlorine and hydrogen to give common salt (chemical, not spontaneously reversible or dinner tables would be far more entertaining).
But the variety of possible chemical reactions is far bigger than that. Many chemical transformations can be reversed easily given the right conditions. Esterification, the reaction of an acid with an alcohol, makes new molecules and water, for example. But to push the reaction to produce the ester, chemists need to remove the water or the reverse reaction just undoes the new bonds. So they have a cool piece of equipment called a [Dean-Stark apparatus][1] that removes water from the reaction to ensure they get the product they want. The whole point of this is a recognition that the underlying reaction is *reversible* and needs to be pushed in one direction.
The key to reversible reactions is that there is some *mechanism* that can undo the new bonds created in a chemical change. In many cases there is no such mechanism which makes many chemical changes impossible to reverse, which is why a simplistic view might distinguish physical from chemical change. But this is unfair on the variety of chemical behaviours.
Another example where you might expect reversibility is the conversion of diamond to graphite. Graphite is more stable under normal conditions but the conversion is not seen. This is because the *mechanism* to convert diamond t graphite would need to break a very large number of chemical bonds in diamond (every carbon connected to other carbons in an infinite tetrahedral grid) to get graphite (every carbon connected to 3 other carbons in an infinite hexagonal array using delocalised multiple bonds). At very high temperatures and pressures (such as carbon dissolved in liquid iron at pressure) many of the bonds in any form of carbon are already broken and the two forms of carbon can interconvert (this is roughly how diamond is formed in nature and laboratories). The reason why reversibility is not normally seen is that, at room temperature, there is no available mechanism to break the bonds.
Sometimes reversibility has tragic real-world consequences. Thalidomide is a chiral molecule one form of which is a mild sedative and is active against some diseases and cancers. The other form is a dangerous teratogen, causing monstrous deformities in the fetus. Unfortunately there is a reaction path in living systems that interconverts the two isomers, hence tragedy for pregnant women.
In short, reversibility is sometimes possible in chemical reactions, *if* there is an easily accessible *mechanism* to undo a chemical reaction under the right conditions. It is wrong to say that *all* chemical reactions are irreversible.
[1]: [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dean%E2%80%93Stark\_apparatus#:~:text=The%20Dean%E2%80%93Stark%20apparatus%2C%20Dean,other%20liquid](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dean%E2%80%93Stark_apparatus#:%7E:text=The%20Dean%E2%80%93Stark%20apparatus%2C%20Dean,other%20liquid))%20from%20a%20reactor. | A chemical reaction is reversible when and if it reaches chemical equilibrium; [A steady state can possibly be a close approximation.] This is almost restricted to simple, elementary reactions that are controlled by "Microscopic Reversibility"; this means that the forward path and reverse path have the exact same mechanism. The conditions for equilibrium are reasonably simple: 1. The reactants and products must be present and properly mixed. 2. There must be a possible mechanism for the reaction [catalysts are permitted]. 3. There must be sufficient energy present for the reaction to happen at a reasonable rate. At equilibrium the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are the same. If these conditions are present the equilibrium position will be reached from either direction. A corollary to this is that if the equilibrium is gently perturbed by changing a factor in the equation: concentration, T, P, the equilibrium will adjust to new equilibrium conditions or even to a nonequilibrium state if a component is completely removed [Le Chatelier's Principle]. At equilibrium Delta G = 0 and the concentrations [activities] satisfy the equilibrium constant conditions. This means that equilibrium is dependent on both the energy change and entropy change between reactants and products. These ideas are explained rather obtusely in all Physical and some Organic Chemistry Texts. Go to the library, read several and get confused then think hard about it.
Most common reactions seem to be irreversible because the above conditions are not met: Products are not confined, energy is removed, and they are a mix of several if not thousands of elementary reactions. Also some cyclic reactions such as the processes of respiration and photosynthesis are not reversible processes because the mechanisms of the various reactions are entirely different and the energetics are profoundly different. It does seem to be equilibrium though. The difference is that the complicated process is not energy driven but entropy driven by the vast entropy differences [increases] in the energy forms as it passes thru reaction steps. The individual steps in the mechanisms are mostly steady state reactions approaching equilibrium. |
25,368 | I understand that the differential (or "diff") is the thing that allows the drive shaft to transfer its rotational velocity to the front or rear axle in order to move the car. As far as I know, the diff is the part that also allows each wheel to turn independently of each other, so as not to drag the outside tire going round a corner, which would increase tire wear and decrease fuel consumption.
* ***How exactly does a differential work?***
* ***How does the diff enable each wheel to turn at different speeds?***
* ***How are some cars able to dynamically adjust the amount of power to each wheel (in more high tech systems)?*** | 2016/01/27 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/25368",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/14003/"
] | What is a Differential ?
* A differential’s job is to compensate for differences. Specifically
the differences in wheel speed when turning. For instance, imagine
taking a corner. Your inside wheel has a shorter distance to travel
than the outside wheel as you go around the corner. That means that
your outside wheel has to turn faster to keep pace with the inside
wheel.
* The differential allows the wheels to turn at different speeds while
still providing power. Without a differential, the tires would scrub
and hop along the pavement during turns.
Working Principle:
* I found an excellent online source [here](http://mechanicalmania.blogspot.com/2011/07/construction-working-of-differential.html)
* Torque is supplied from the engine, via the transmission, to a drive
shaft, which runs to the final drive unit that contains the
differential.
* A spiral bevel pinion gear takes its drive from the end of the
propeller shaft, and is encased within the housing of the final drive
unit. This meshes with the large spiral bevel ring gear, known as the
crown wheel.
* The crown wheel and pinion may mesh in hypoid orientation, not shown.
The crown wheel gear is attached to the differential carrier or cage,
which contains the 'sun' and 'planet' wheels or gears, which are a
cluster of four opposed bevel gears in perpendicular plane, so each
bevel gear meshes with two neighbours, and rotates counter to the
third, that it faces and does not mesh with.
* The two sun wheel gears are aligned on the same axis as the crown
wheel gear, and drive the axle half shafts connected to the vehicle's
driven wheels. The other two planet gears are aligned on a
perpendicular axis which changes orientation with the ring gear's
rotation.
Basically no matter which wheel experiences load the planetary gears will corresponding to them will compensate for that.
The ability of a diff to send various amounts of power on demand to individual wheel is called a Torque vectoring.
They generally have a electric actuator attached to the diff assembly to assist with the torque distribution
For more advanced info on torque vectoring , [This](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qwwFZAbYGW0) video will be helpful.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DqLIi.gif)
Additional info on torque vectoring can be found in this good question [How does torque diff work](https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/23103/lexus-rcf-torque-vectoring-differential-how-does-it-work) | <https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/a/25370/12697> Covers the physical arrangment of gears in a basic differential. The key to understanding a differential is to understand how these gears behave under different scenarios.
The gearing arrangement means that relative to the crown wheel the two half shafts are constrained to turn by equal and opposite ammounts.
Looking from outside the differential this means that the average speed of the two half shafts must be equal to the speed at which the crown wheel turns. So when the engine turns the propshaft at least one of the wheels must turn.
We also see that if the differential is frictionless then the torque delivered to the two wheels must be the same since any difference in torque would cause the gears inside the differential to change speed.
If both the drive wheels have good grip then the basic differential works great at transferring power to the road while allowing the drive wheels to turn at different speeds.
The same principle can be extended to more wheels, for example a 4 wheel drive vehicle will usually have three differentials, one in the center for differences between front and back and then front and back differentials for differences in speed between left and right of each end.
If one wheel loses grip then the wheel that loses grip will spin freely since the torque delivered to the wheels is the same very little power will be delivered to the wheel(s) that still has grip.
So in performance cars systems are built to detect undesirablly high levels of slip and limit them either through the cars brakes or through extra mechnisms in the differntial. There are also more complex types of differential that have different torque VS speed characteristics.
Losing traction on your 4 wheel drive vehicle when one wheel slips kind of defeats the object of having 4 wheel drive. Old fasioned off-roaders often used crude mechnisms to lock up the differentials when driving off road. More modern off roaders often have fancier systems similar to those on performance cars. |
129,477 | This confuses me because people say “everyone is selling off” implying there is more sellers than buyers. It’s the exact opposite when the price goes up. But for an order to go through, there needs to be both a buyer and seller, at the end of the day there is an equal amount of buyers and sellers? Who’s to say the rise in price isn’t from sellers instead of buyers? | 2020/08/02 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/129477",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/101577/"
] | Of course there are the same amount of seller and buyers at the end, but the point is the number of *potential* buyers / sellers - the amount of shares that people would *like* to buy / sell.
Imagine this: assume you want to sell your shares, because you need cash, or because you think the price will soon go down, or whatever. If there are more sellers than buyers, potentially nobody is going to buy *your* shares, unless you offer them a bit cheaper than the others. Of course, all sellers do that, and if there are still more sellers than buyers, you might still not sell yours. So you go a bit further down in price, and the others too, and so on, and so on - with the result that the price is falling.
With a lower price, there might be more buyers interested, or maybe some sellers decide they don't want to sell so urgently, so the process evens out the number of buyers and sellers, and the prices stop to fall.
As a seller, you simply *cannot* raise the price - if you offer for a higher price, people will just ignore you and buy from other sellers. You can only make your sale happen by going down with your asking price, so someone takes it.
All that logic works the other way round if there are more buyers than sellers. Of course, buyers also cannot *lower* the price, because if they offer a lower price, they simply get ignored. | Price rise doesn't come from sellers instead of buyers.
For every transaction there is a buyer and a seller but that doesn't necessarily mean that the number of buyers equals the number of sellers. Nor does it mean that the magnitude of buy orders equals that of sell orders.
Throughout the day, if a similar amount of buying and selling volume comes in at current price, there is equilibrium and price goes nowhere. If an excess of one comes in, price changes.
For example, every time a buyer takes out a seller, if no new seller(s) come in at current price, the price will moves up to the next ask price on the order book. If additional buying takes out that ask price and new sellers don't come in at the new current price, then the ask price moves up again. This either entices new buyers to come in at a higher bid price or the market maker raises the bid, assuming he is the market. The longer this continues, the higher share price will go.
Therefore, it is the aggregate buying (or selling) volume of orders hitting the market that matters rather than the number of buyers and sellers. Ten buyers of 100 shares each has the same effect as one buyer of 1,000 shares. However if a 1,000 share buy order takes out the shares available at the ask price, the ask price rises to the next order on the order book (and vice versa for selling). |
344,876 | I have created a program in Autohotkey, which creates a few shortcut keys that a whole company with 400 people wants to have installed permanently. The way I imagine the program to work is that a shortcut to the program is added to the Start menu under the Startup folder, so it is automatically and transparently started when the computer is started. The program will keep running all day.
I am a freelancer with no access to the IT department, but indirectly I have seen emails that they insist on that I have to create an MSI file in order to roll the program out onto all these computers. The first issue I have with creating an MSI package is that I do not know how an MSI file can be created based on an .EXE file. The second is that they say that it is very costly for them to create such a file (I believe that means that it costs something like 20.000$ to get it done), therefore they do not want to make frequent updates, while I believe it is essential to be able to quickly adjust the program to new needs and fix bugs.
On Wednesday, I will have a meeting with them, and I would therefore like to know what kind of arguments they might have for using MSI packages, and why they could not simply create a shortcut to my .EXE file on all these computers (this should not be too hard, should it?). The shortcut should point to the .EXE file, which is located on a file-server so one can simply replace it to update the program (the computers always have access to the file-servers, meaning that there are no laptops).
What could their arguments be? | 2011/10/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/344876",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/9193/"
] | The MSI packages are so that they can push out the updates through [SCCM](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/System_Center_Configuration_Manager) or other means. Manually pushing out updates or creating is frankly stupid, unless you work with a trivial number of systems - you would need to log into each system, and do it, while not getting in the way of the user.. It also means a single point of failure and its harder to track down bugs
I do believe while there's a time cost, and its non trivial (that is to say there may be some work involved - especially where there isn't an IDE involved that can hook into installer creation), I rather doubt it would cost 20,000 dollars to do - you might want to take a look at [wix](http://wix.codeplex.com/) to better understand the process.
There's of course the possibility this is being imposed on them, and they arn't really happy about the whole thing and having to maintain a bit of special purpose software developed by some outsider... | I work at a Fortune 25 Company here in the US. I do application package - This answer is probably a little late though - We require all application to be self installing so we can push them to user work station silently via Altiris. While we prefer all software installers in MSI format this is not always the case, I will use EXE installers if they can run silently via command line or setup.iss file. If not then they will get repackaged to MSI format.
Your type of package would take less than 1 hour to put in MSI & Compile it via Wise Package Studio. Assuming its 1 file & 1 shortcut. It would actually take longer to test & get sign off than actually package it. All packages(Applications) are peer review & tested by the App Requester(app owner).
We have a few apps that are frequently update, like every few weeks or so. Since this would require allot of time to rebuild in MSI & Test every few weeks- we switch these to update themselves. We set these up to run a vb script as the shortcut, the 1st thing the vb script does is query a predefined network share & check the file date/version there against local copy. If network has newer version - than its copied. The the EXE file is ran - simple self updating. |
1,413,779 | I've extended the wifi in my home with a second wifi access point (AP) router, *wired* to the main one. The two routers are configured with the same encryption settings, same subnet, and same dhcp pool.
Their antennas are on non-overlapping channels, and they are configured with *separate* SSIDs (e.g. HOME-24G-*ext* vs HOME-24G). Would reconfiguring the extension router to use the main's SSID affect anything w.r.t. the AP-roaming decisions of modern phones and computers (in 2018)?
With separate SSIDs, I will sometimes witness wifi clients hanging on to a weaker signal on the main, and *not* automatically switch to the other extension SSID (or vice versa). So, I'm wondering if uniting the SSIDs would facilitate transitions to the AP with a slightly stronger signal.
*Note 1:* This is related to this question on [same vs. different SSIDs](https://superuser.com/questions/1215392/dual-band-wifi-router-to-dual-band-extender-can-should-i-use-a-single-ssid-name), but not quite the same. My two routers are wired, so I don't think that the issue where *"clients hang on to a stronger repeater signal when better performance would be achieved on the main router (despite a weaker signal there)"* applies.
*Note 2:* WDS wasn't an option -- The main router doesn't support it.
*Note 3:* My setup: the extension router is wired from a LAN-port to a LAN-port of the main router. And dhcp is handled only by the main router. This is called "[Bridged AP](https://openwrt.org/docs/guide-user/network/wifi/bridgedap)" in OpenWrt parlance. | 2019/03/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1413779",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/525084/"
] | Wi-Fi clients generally have a "roaming threshold", which is a signal strength (RSSI) value below which the client will consider its current AP to be too far away, and start doing scans to find a better AP to roam to. If it finds any other APs publishing the same SSID, the alternative AP with the highest RSSI must be enough better than the current AP's RSSI to be worth roaming to (to avoid thrashing/flapping back and forth between two equally bad APs).
Scanning is expensive, especially if you have to look for hidden SSIDs or scan DFS channels, so some clients may choose to do quickie roam scans that are less likely to find APs publishing hidden SSIDs or APs on DFS channels. So for best results, be sure to broadcast your SSID, and put your APs on non-DFS channels. | If there is two or more Access Points with the same SSID, the Access Point with the stronger signal is used. The value that determines the "strength" is more or less the RSSI. The reason for this is to prevent an easy "Evil Twin" attack (although, someone with a decent Wi-Fi adapter can still pull this off) and so devices have the best connection strength possible. Schools, universities and any place with a big area for a Wi-Fi signal to cover, most of them utilize this function. |
133 | A [question asking which actors have played Dr. Who](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/231/which-actors-have-played-dr-who-over-the-years) was closed recently. The reason the page shows is:
>
> It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form.
>
>
>
I don't see how that applies to this question. It's not at all difficult to tell what is being asked (and there are two good answers that show others can tell too). It doesn't really seem ambiguous, vague, or overly broad (I guess if you think it means anyone playing the Doctor in any production of any type ever, but if you read it that way an edit would fix it).
It's not incomplete or rhetorical, and the existing answers show that it can be reasonably answered.
When I originally saw the question I didn't think it was great (because it's trivial to find the list of the BBC actors elsewhere). The second answer helps that - it could be better IMO by excluding "spoofs", but including ones outside of the main 12 Doctors (e.g. Cushing, Trevor Martin, the Morbius actors) is reasonable. If the question was open, that could be fixed by an edit to that answer, or a third answer.
Was this closed just because it doesn't seem like a good question? As suggested [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/55/close-vote-motivation), a comment would be useful. | 2011/01/20 | [
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/133",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | Yeah, I don't know what this guy was doing but it's just amazing he drove through and closed at least a dozen questions with reasons that don't seem to apply. | Please see my answer about the "Ashley Judd" question [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/137/is-zypher-closing-too-many-questions-arbitrarily/152#152) this one was closed for the same reason. |
133 | A [question asking which actors have played Dr. Who](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/231/which-actors-have-played-dr-who-over-the-years) was closed recently. The reason the page shows is:
>
> It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form.
>
>
>
I don't see how that applies to this question. It's not at all difficult to tell what is being asked (and there are two good answers that show others can tell too). It doesn't really seem ambiguous, vague, or overly broad (I guess if you think it means anyone playing the Doctor in any production of any type ever, but if you read it that way an edit would fix it).
It's not incomplete or rhetorical, and the existing answers show that it can be reasonably answered.
When I originally saw the question I didn't think it was great (because it's trivial to find the list of the BBC actors elsewhere). The second answer helps that - it could be better IMO by excluding "spoofs", but including ones outside of the main 12 Doctors (e.g. Cushing, Trevor Martin, the Morbius actors) is reasonable. If the question was open, that could be fixed by an edit to that answer, or a third answer.
Was this closed just because it doesn't seem like a good question? As suggested [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/55/close-vote-motivation), a comment would be useful. | 2011/01/20 | [
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/133",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | Yeah, I don't know what this guy was doing but it's just amazing he drove through and closed at least a dozen questions with reasons that don't seem to apply. | Because you can easily find the answer in Wikipedia.
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_actors_who_have_played_the_Doctor> |
133 | A [question asking which actors have played Dr. Who](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/231/which-actors-have-played-dr-who-over-the-years) was closed recently. The reason the page shows is:
>
> It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form.
>
>
>
I don't see how that applies to this question. It's not at all difficult to tell what is being asked (and there are two good answers that show others can tell too). It doesn't really seem ambiguous, vague, or overly broad (I guess if you think it means anyone playing the Doctor in any production of any type ever, but if you read it that way an edit would fix it).
It's not incomplete or rhetorical, and the existing answers show that it can be reasonably answered.
When I originally saw the question I didn't think it was great (because it's trivial to find the list of the BBC actors elsewhere). The second answer helps that - it could be better IMO by excluding "spoofs", but including ones outside of the main 12 Doctors (e.g. Cushing, Trevor Martin, the Morbius actors) is reasonable. If the question was open, that could be fixed by an edit to that answer, or a third answer.
Was this closed just because it doesn't seem like a good question? As suggested [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/55/close-vote-motivation), a comment would be useful. | 2011/01/20 | [
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/133",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | Because you can easily find the answer in Wikipedia.
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_actors_who_have_played_the_Doctor> | Please see my answer about the "Ashley Judd" question [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/137/is-zypher-closing-too-many-questions-arbitrarily/152#152) this one was closed for the same reason. |
133 | A [question asking which actors have played Dr. Who](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/231/which-actors-have-played-dr-who-over-the-years) was closed recently. The reason the page shows is:
>
> It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form.
>
>
>
I don't see how that applies to this question. It's not at all difficult to tell what is being asked (and there are two good answers that show others can tell too). It doesn't really seem ambiguous, vague, or overly broad (I guess if you think it means anyone playing the Doctor in any production of any type ever, but if you read it that way an edit would fix it).
It's not incomplete or rhetorical, and the existing answers show that it can be reasonably answered.
When I originally saw the question I didn't think it was great (because it's trivial to find the list of the BBC actors elsewhere). The second answer helps that - it could be better IMO by excluding "spoofs", but including ones outside of the main 12 Doctors (e.g. Cushing, Trevor Martin, the Morbius actors) is reasonable. If the question was open, that could be fixed by an edit to that answer, or a third answer.
Was this closed just because it doesn't seem like a good question? As suggested [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/55/close-vote-motivation), a comment would be useful. | 2011/01/20 | [
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/133",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | The "general reference" close reason has been abolished, and this particular question seems to be a good and interesting one. It's asking for a finite and clearly scoped list rather than being an open-ended question, so it doesn't fall foul of our "lists or recommendations" close reason either.
The accepted answer to [Are \*all\* list questions off-topic?](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2638/are-all-list-questions-off-topic) describes what kind of list questions are allowed here, and in fact cites **this very question** as one that is acceptable:
>
> However, finite and well-scoped list questions are allowed here. There's a question asking for a list of all of *Doctor Who*'s Doctors, for example. A mere 12 Doctors exist, which can be reasonably included in one, canonical answer. Similarly, a question asks about all of *Star Trek*'s *Enterprise*s. There's a reasonable, limited number of those as well.
>
>
>
So I helped to undelete this post, and it has now been reopened. | Please see my answer about the "Ashley Judd" question [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/137/is-zypher-closing-too-many-questions-arbitrarily/152#152) this one was closed for the same reason. |
133 | A [question asking which actors have played Dr. Who](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/231/which-actors-have-played-dr-who-over-the-years) was closed recently. The reason the page shows is:
>
> It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form.
>
>
>
I don't see how that applies to this question. It's not at all difficult to tell what is being asked (and there are two good answers that show others can tell too). It doesn't really seem ambiguous, vague, or overly broad (I guess if you think it means anyone playing the Doctor in any production of any type ever, but if you read it that way an edit would fix it).
It's not incomplete or rhetorical, and the existing answers show that it can be reasonably answered.
When I originally saw the question I didn't think it was great (because it's trivial to find the list of the BBC actors elsewhere). The second answer helps that - it could be better IMO by excluding "spoofs", but including ones outside of the main 12 Doctors (e.g. Cushing, Trevor Martin, the Morbius actors) is reasonable. If the question was open, that could be fixed by an edit to that answer, or a third answer.
Was this closed just because it doesn't seem like a good question? As suggested [here](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/55/close-vote-motivation), a comment would be useful. | 2011/01/20 | [
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/133",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | The "general reference" close reason has been abolished, and this particular question seems to be a good and interesting one. It's asking for a finite and clearly scoped list rather than being an open-ended question, so it doesn't fall foul of our "lists or recommendations" close reason either.
The accepted answer to [Are \*all\* list questions off-topic?](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2638/are-all-list-questions-off-topic) describes what kind of list questions are allowed here, and in fact cites **this very question** as one that is acceptable:
>
> However, finite and well-scoped list questions are allowed here. There's a question asking for a list of all of *Doctor Who*'s Doctors, for example. A mere 12 Doctors exist, which can be reasonably included in one, canonical answer. Similarly, a question asks about all of *Star Trek*'s *Enterprise*s. There's a reasonable, limited number of those as well.
>
>
>
So I helped to undelete this post, and it has now been reopened. | Because you can easily find the answer in Wikipedia.
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_actors_who_have_played_the_Doctor> |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | With iOS 9, you should enter your app name with key: "Bundle Display Name" in Info.plist.
Thanks to this <https://stackoverflow.com/a/32880876/4628777>
Change this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7xkfW.jpg)
to this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bNbYI.jpg) | I have also same issue happend. But after resloved it. You have to delete your current app in the device. You have to test app on next day. Actuall that permission dialog some time not asking in iOS 9 next day when you test your app definatly you get the permisson dialog in your app. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | Older projects does not have the bundle display name property at all.
In this case, follow these steps:
1. Open Info.plist as Source Code.
2. Add these two lines at the end of the file
CFBundleDisplayName
YorAppName
3. Save & Rejoice!
The name you will state here will be used in the popup requesting the user for permissions.
**Note:** Make sure to search for CFBundleDisplayName property before adding a new property. | I have also same issue happend. But after resloved it. You have to delete your current app in the device. You have to test app on next day. Actuall that permission dialog some time not asking in iOS 9 next day when you test your app definatly you get the permisson dialog in your app. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | There is also another item you need to change in info.plist. Under the information property list, add another key work "privacy - Camera Usage Description". This solves my problem. | I have also same issue happend. But after resloved it. You have to delete your current app in the device. You have to test app on next day. Actuall that permission dialog some time not asking in iOS 9 next day when you test your app definatly you get the permisson dialog in your app. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | With iOS 9, you should enter your app name with key: "Bundle Display Name" in Info.plist.
Thanks to this <https://stackoverflow.com/a/32880876/4628777>
Change this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7xkfW.jpg)
to this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bNbYI.jpg) | I had the same issue.
After a few tests that the old info.plist was the problem. I replaced the info.plist for a one created in a new project and it worked for me.
Regards. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | Older projects does not have the bundle display name property at all.
In this case, follow these steps:
1. Open Info.plist as Source Code.
2. Add these two lines at the end of the file
CFBundleDisplayName
YorAppName
3. Save & Rejoice!
The name you will state here will be used in the popup requesting the user for permissions.
**Note:** Make sure to search for CFBundleDisplayName property before adding a new property. | I had the same issue.
After a few tests that the old info.plist was the problem. I replaced the info.plist for a one created in a new project and it worked for me.
Regards. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | There is also another item you need to change in info.plist. Under the information property list, add another key work "privacy - Camera Usage Description". This solves my problem. | I had the same issue.
After a few tests that the old info.plist was the problem. I replaced the info.plist for a one created in a new project and it worked for me.
Regards. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | With iOS 9, you should enter your app name with key: "Bundle Display Name" in Info.plist.
Thanks to this <https://stackoverflow.com/a/32880876/4628777>
Change this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7xkfW.jpg)
to this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bNbYI.jpg) | Older projects does not have the bundle display name property at all.
In this case, follow these steps:
1. Open Info.plist as Source Code.
2. Add these two lines at the end of the file
CFBundleDisplayName
YorAppName
3. Save & Rejoice!
The name you will state here will be used in the popup requesting the user for permissions.
**Note:** Make sure to search for CFBundleDisplayName property before adding a new property. |
32,720,535 | I have been working on application which allows to use device camera using **AVCaptureDevice**. It was working perfectly for **ios version < 9** before, but now for ios 9 when I access camera from application, it just shows black screen. I can not even access user photos from application.
Main part is for my application I can not find camera option privacy setting in settings. Even I am not getting apple default permission access pop up option.
Can you please help me out here? | 2015/09/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32720535",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2178763/"
] | With iOS 9, you should enter your app name with key: "Bundle Display Name" in Info.plist.
Thanks to this <https://stackoverflow.com/a/32880876/4628777>
Change this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7xkfW.jpg)
to this
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bNbYI.jpg) | There is also another item you need to change in info.plist. Under the information property list, add another key work "privacy - Camera Usage Description". This solves my problem. |
444,253 | I'm doing some kind of reverse engineering to this very old power supply design. I'm having hard time trying to understand it all. I'm asking for some hints that help me read this schematic. From this circuit, you should know:
1 - The line to line voltage is 480 VAC.
2 - The input to the LM317 is +27 V as marked. Don't understand how +27V is generated in that arrangement.
3- The reference is not 0V for the bridge rectifier. It's -13V coming from the regulator.
4- The output of the LM317 (+13.25V) feeds another control circuit that I'm not showing.
5- When the coil is activated, it shut downs the main power.
What I really want to understand is how the +27V is generated, and how the FET is turned on. My guess is that when the control circuit gives the signal to the SCR, it activates the coil, but don't understand how. You can see this design is strongly dependent on the zener diodes. There are 4 zener, 43V, 10V, 12V, and 13V. How would you improve this circuit?
EDIT: The three diodes in series below the coil are TVS diodes. Each one is 300V, so the total reverse breakdown voltage is 900V.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qh36v.png) | 2019/06/18 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/444253",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | **Power line transient is also a major fuse blower with Z1 OVP protection.**
The 3 phase bridge produces 6f frequency ripple which is used to drive the FET as a BUCK regulator with Zeners to limit Gate drive, LDO input max and forward current to power tthe load.
Given the LDO operates at 1.25 between Vout and Vadj, with a short circuit between these the output is 1.25V above the Vadj Zener voltage of 12V. The LDO regulates the output but must charge up the output caps which must not be excessive as the energy to charge these up at 13.2V is only 13.2/600V+ = 2% of what the drop down circuit must dissipate getting started. So the SCR is I used as a soft start latch to bypass the series R which limits the start current.
But if there are any power interruptions and the SCR is not able to shut off in time for the resurge of power, the fuse will blow.,
If this is the case then an undervoltage lockout UVLO must be designed to prevent this occurrence with a retry on UV ok and the SCR unlatched. If you cannot come up with an elegant solution maybe a relay will perform better than can be unlatched easily with UVLO status and restart the soft start., You needs to compute the excess power dissipation weakpoint and choose the proper threshold for UVLO. In PC PSU’s they have an analog timer to prevent the PSU from being power cycled abruptly. Why? Because they often use NTC ICL ‘s to create an InRush Current Limit. ICL’s are cheap for startup but take a second to cool down., PTC polyfuses are the opposite and protect thermal damage by self heating to 135’C while increasing resistance orders of magnitude as required.
These may suggest alternative solutions to prevent breaker or fuse blowing from unknown causes.
Summary.
‘Since efficiency is low, output power might only be 2% of input surge power if not correctly started with soft start circuit or ICL’s and UVLO.
Solutions suggested range from UVLO, Relays instead of SCR, ICL’s and PTC’s. | >
> I really want to understand is how the +27V is generated...
>
>
>
R1 and D8 are a simple zener regulator to 43v. Then D7 subtracts another 10v off of that for about 33V. 20% isn't out of the realm of tolerances for zeners. I'm betting that the 27v varies depending on what is going on. It's just a pre-regulator to the LM317.
>
> and how the FET is turned on
>
>
>
D1-D6 full wave rectify the AC into DC, then R1, D8 and D7 drop the voltage down to about 10V on the Q1 gate to source. This will turn on the FET.
>
> how is the coil activated so it shut downs the power and the FET will turn off?
>
>
>
The FET is on at power up but TR1 is off. So it would appear that the coil can't turn on with the added R3 in the way. When TR1 is turned on it bypasses R3 and allows the coil to activate. D9-D12 are all protection diodes for Q1 and TR1.
In this circuit, Q1 will only turn off when the power coming through L1-L3 is removed. |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | I'm Swiss and this has never occurred to me until I read "a Swiss" in an article earlier today. It really does not sound right. If Shakespeare really referred to them as "Switzers", that seems good enough for the rest of us. My suggestion was going to be "an Helvetic" or "an Helvetian", derived from the latin name of the country (Helvetica, which is why the initials of the country are "CH" and why the currency is "CHF"). It may admittedly not be intuitive or obvious to readers, so perhaps this suggestion isn't the way to go. | I agree with the above; however, another alternative might be "man from Switzerland". |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | A man from Switzerland is called a **Swiss man**.
You can tag the nouns: male; man/men; gentleman; guy/s; woman/women; girl; boy; baby etc. to any nationality. And rightly so, otherwise phrases like:
>
> "He married a Swiss"
>
>
>
and
>
> "The other day while travelling into France by train, we talked to a very friendly Swiss"
>
>
>
are needlessly vague or ambiguous.
Moreover, **Swiss man** should not be spelt as one word. Some other examples are an *Italian man*, a *Brazilian man* a *Chinese man*. I tend to spell **English man** as two words but it can be spelt as one word, likewise **Frenchman** and **Frenchwoman** are commonly used names.
The words Englishman, Englishwoman, Frenchman, Frenchwoman, and Scotsman are [nouns](http://www.edufind.com/english/grammar/nouns6.php) in their own right.
Even the Swiss news use the term [Swiss man](http://www.thelocal.ch/20130725/prince-georges-website-swiped-by-swiss-man) themselves.
>
> Prince George's website swiped by Swiss man
>
>
> | I agree with the above; however, another alternative might be "man from Switzerland". |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | Whichever the nationality, it is an Adjective in a Noun Phrase, whether you tag on a denominator or gender or other such noun.
So, "I'm a Swiss (man / woman / citizen / denizen / etc.)" is fine. Or then simply say, "I'm Swiss" leaving out the [indefinite] article.
(Please do post a comment if you don't agree with me). | I agree with the above; however, another alternative might be "man from Switzerland". |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | A man from Switzerland is called a **Swiss man**.
You can tag the nouns: male; man/men; gentleman; guy/s; woman/women; girl; boy; baby etc. to any nationality. And rightly so, otherwise phrases like:
>
> "He married a Swiss"
>
>
>
and
>
> "The other day while travelling into France by train, we talked to a very friendly Swiss"
>
>
>
are needlessly vague or ambiguous.
Moreover, **Swiss man** should not be spelt as one word. Some other examples are an *Italian man*, a *Brazilian man* a *Chinese man*. I tend to spell **English man** as two words but it can be spelt as one word, likewise **Frenchman** and **Frenchwoman** are commonly used names.
The words Englishman, Englishwoman, Frenchman, Frenchwoman, and Scotsman are [nouns](http://www.edufind.com/english/grammar/nouns6.php) in their own right.
Even the Swiss news use the term [Swiss man](http://www.thelocal.ch/20130725/prince-georges-website-swiped-by-swiss-man) themselves.
>
> Prince George's website swiped by Swiss man
>
>
> | Vladimir Nabokov and Shakespeare went with **Switzer**[;](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/233792/what-is-it-called-when-something-appears-so-obvious-no-one-expects-it) one need look no further.
>
> GERTRUDE
> Alack, what noise is this?
>
>
> CLAUDIUS Where are my **Switzers**? Let them guard the door.
>
>
>
*Hamlet* 4.5
*(Interestingly, the Russian word for "doorman" is швейцар ["shveĭt͡sar"], perhaps from this usage. But I'm fairly sure "Switzer" indeed means "Swiss guy" in English.)*
>
> ...with some weird light effects anon, when the torch-bearing **Switzers**
> are sent to find the body.
>
>
>
*Bend Sinister* 112. |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | There are in fact [very few cases](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/113774/why-do-only-a-few-english-demonyms-indicate-gender) where the customary demonym is *root + -man*— those you have named plus *Irishman*, *Norseman*, *Welshman*, *Scotsman*, and (obsolete, now considered offensive) *Chinaman*, and maybe a few others in Britain like *Yorkshireman* or *Cornishman*.
In the absence of a more established form, the [demonym](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demonym) is usually the same as the adjectival form. Just as we would speak of an Indonesian, an Omani, or a New Zealander, we would speak of a **Swiss**.
It sounds abrupt, even to this native speaker, not only because it is monosyllabic (e.g. calling someone *a Japanese* also seems off), but because in today's politically correct age, referring to someone solely by their nationality or ethnicity is potentially problematic. It would be preferable to use the demonymic adjective in conjunction with a noun; *Swiss man* would suffice. | I agree with the above; however, another alternative might be "man from Switzerland". |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | There are in fact [very few cases](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/113774/why-do-only-a-few-english-demonyms-indicate-gender) where the customary demonym is *root + -man*— those you have named plus *Irishman*, *Norseman*, *Welshman*, *Scotsman*, and (obsolete, now considered offensive) *Chinaman*, and maybe a few others in Britain like *Yorkshireman* or *Cornishman*.
In the absence of a more established form, the [demonym](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demonym) is usually the same as the adjectival form. Just as we would speak of an Indonesian, an Omani, or a New Zealander, we would speak of a **Swiss**.
It sounds abrupt, even to this native speaker, not only because it is monosyllabic (e.g. calling someone *a Japanese* also seems off), but because in today's politically correct age, referring to someone solely by their nationality or ethnicity is potentially problematic. It would be preferable to use the demonymic adjective in conjunction with a noun; *Swiss man* would suffice. | Whichever the nationality, it is an Adjective in a Noun Phrase, whether you tag on a denominator or gender or other such noun.
So, "I'm a Swiss (man / woman / citizen / denizen / etc.)" is fine. Or then simply say, "I'm Swiss" leaving out the [indefinite] article.
(Please do post a comment if you don't agree with me). |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | There are in fact [very few cases](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/113774/why-do-only-a-few-english-demonyms-indicate-gender) where the customary demonym is *root + -man*— those you have named plus *Irishman*, *Norseman*, *Welshman*, *Scotsman*, and (obsolete, now considered offensive) *Chinaman*, and maybe a few others in Britain like *Yorkshireman* or *Cornishman*.
In the absence of a more established form, the [demonym](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demonym) is usually the same as the adjectival form. Just as we would speak of an Indonesian, an Omani, or a New Zealander, we would speak of a **Swiss**.
It sounds abrupt, even to this native speaker, not only because it is monosyllabic (e.g. calling someone *a Japanese* also seems off), but because in today's politically correct age, referring to someone solely by their nationality or ethnicity is potentially problematic. It would be preferable to use the demonymic adjective in conjunction with a noun; *Swiss man* would suffice. | Vladimir Nabokov and Shakespeare went with **Switzer**[;](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/233792/what-is-it-called-when-something-appears-so-obvious-no-one-expects-it) one need look no further.
>
> GERTRUDE
> Alack, what noise is this?
>
>
> CLAUDIUS Where are my **Switzers**? Let them guard the door.
>
>
>
*Hamlet* 4.5
*(Interestingly, the Russian word for "doorman" is швейцар ["shveĭt͡sar"], perhaps from this usage. But I'm fairly sure "Switzer" indeed means "Swiss guy" in English.)*
>
> ...with some weird light effects anon, when the torch-bearing **Switzers**
> are sent to find the body.
>
>
>
*Bend Sinister* 112. |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | I'm Swiss and this has never occurred to me until I read "a Swiss" in an article earlier today. It really does not sound right. If Shakespeare really referred to them as "Switzers", that seems good enough for the rest of us. My suggestion was going to be "an Helvetic" or "an Helvetian", derived from the latin name of the country (Helvetica, which is why the initials of the country are "CH" and why the currency is "CHF"). It may admittedly not be intuitive or obvious to readers, so perhaps this suggestion isn't the way to go. | Whichever the nationality, it is an Adjective in a Noun Phrase, whether you tag on a denominator or gender or other such noun.
So, "I'm a Swiss (man / woman / citizen / denizen / etc.)" is fine. Or then simply say, "I'm Swiss" leaving out the [indefinite] article.
(Please do post a comment if you don't agree with me). |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | There are in fact [very few cases](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/113774/why-do-only-a-few-english-demonyms-indicate-gender) where the customary demonym is *root + -man*— those you have named plus *Irishman*, *Norseman*, *Welshman*, *Scotsman*, and (obsolete, now considered offensive) *Chinaman*, and maybe a few others in Britain like *Yorkshireman* or *Cornishman*.
In the absence of a more established form, the [demonym](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demonym) is usually the same as the adjectival form. Just as we would speak of an Indonesian, an Omani, or a New Zealander, we would speak of a **Swiss**.
It sounds abrupt, even to this native speaker, not only because it is monosyllabic (e.g. calling someone *a Japanese* also seems off), but because in today's politically correct age, referring to someone solely by their nationality or ethnicity is potentially problematic. It would be preferable to use the demonymic adjective in conjunction with a noun; *Swiss man* would suffice. | I'm Swiss and this has never occurred to me until I read "a Swiss" in an article earlier today. It really does not sound right. If Shakespeare really referred to them as "Switzers", that seems good enough for the rest of us. My suggestion was going to be "an Helvetic" or "an Helvetian", derived from the latin name of the country (Helvetica, which is why the initials of the country are "CH" and why the currency is "CHF"). It may admittedly not be intuitive or obvious to readers, so perhaps this suggestion isn't the way to go. |
134,776 | So we call a French male "Frenchman", an English male "Englishman", and a Dutch male "Dutchman". what do we call Swiss males?
"Swissman" comes to mind, but it sounds like a cheesy version of Superman, like "Cheddarman" or "Mozzarellaman". | 2013/11/08 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/134776",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/25083/"
] | A man from Switzerland is called a **Swiss man**.
You can tag the nouns: male; man/men; gentleman; guy/s; woman/women; girl; boy; baby etc. to any nationality. And rightly so, otherwise phrases like:
>
> "He married a Swiss"
>
>
>
and
>
> "The other day while travelling into France by train, we talked to a very friendly Swiss"
>
>
>
are needlessly vague or ambiguous.
Moreover, **Swiss man** should not be spelt as one word. Some other examples are an *Italian man*, a *Brazilian man* a *Chinese man*. I tend to spell **English man** as two words but it can be spelt as one word, likewise **Frenchman** and **Frenchwoman** are commonly used names.
The words Englishman, Englishwoman, Frenchman, Frenchwoman, and Scotsman are [nouns](http://www.edufind.com/english/grammar/nouns6.php) in their own right.
Even the Swiss news use the term [Swiss man](http://www.thelocal.ch/20130725/prince-georges-website-swiped-by-swiss-man) themselves.
>
> Prince George's website swiped by Swiss man
>
>
> | Whichever the nationality, it is an Adjective in a Noun Phrase, whether you tag on a denominator or gender or other such noun.
So, "I'm a Swiss (man / woman / citizen / denizen / etc.)" is fine. Or then simply say, "I'm Swiss" leaving out the [indefinite] article.
(Please do post a comment if you don't agree with me). |
11,490 | I have to determine speed and torque suitable for my combat robot.
I've done some calculations and I need to know whether they're right or not (because they don't seem to be right).
Suppose I have 10kg robot, I want to push other 10kg robot to the arena walls. Let's first assume opposite robot is not opposing my push. Suppose I want it to move it with acceleration of 10cm/sec/sec (also lemme know if acceleration assumed is suitable for robowar or not).
Then force required will be,
F = (total mass to be moved) \* (acceleration) = (10+10)\*(10e-2) = 2 N.
Assume opposite robot is also pushing with me same force, in that case I will need another 2 N for opposing his push, Now taking into account frictional retardation, suppose I need another 2 N so total would be 6 N.
Assuming velocity = 10cm/sec, then Power required will be 6 \* velocity = 6\*10e-2 = 600mW. For 12V motor even with 20% efficiency it would cause current of 250mA only. Also output power = speed X torque.
Now I've heard that robowars usually require motor with high full load current otherwise they'll be damaged.
So it looks like I am somewhere wrong in my calculations. If so, lemme know where,am I wrong where I assumed that opposing robot will cause just 2 N, because generally they'd be fitted with more high torque motors. But is it the only thing which goes wrong in above calculations? If opposite bot had to just exert 2N on my bot, are calculations right?
PS: By side-shaft geared motors, it is meant that it is internally geared with horizontal shaft, right? Or "side-shaft" means something more? | 2017/01/26 | [
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/questions/11490",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/users/15908/"
] | From another point of view, bipeds(humanoids) are regardless of their use interesting since they are high dimensional nonlinear hybrid systems. Sure, there are more systems with those qualifications, but the special thing with bipeds is that we have a clear intuition of what is right and wrong even without any mathematical background. Furthermore, take a quadruped(4 legs), those robots are arguably more inherently stable, while with two legs, especially if you remove the feet, that is a different story. So in a way, those humanoids are perfect tools to center nonlinear control theory around.
I think you can cook up a similar argument from an AI point of view. However, I agree with you that for many practical problems a biped makes no sense. | If you can design a robot that consumes meat and vegetables to recharge its power then you will really have something!
There are so many different robot concepts and designs that it is not a productive discussion to lump them into a single category of being designed to mimic the human body. I can think of many robots that are not like this. A great example is the Odex 1 from the mid-80's, seen [here.](http://www.theoldrobots.com/odex.html)
However, if you think about the tasks that many robots are asked to perform, you will find that most of those tasks were designed to accommodate the human body. Any assembly line that grows from manual, low-volume, production, into a high-speed automation line would be a great example. Since the tools and tasks started as human-capable chores, it is natural that we would design robots that can accomplish the same chores.
Additionally, many robotic implementations are able to restructure the tools and tasks such that they greatly outperform any human capability. A simple example is a tool-changing end effector. I don't know of any humans who are born with a tool turret at the end of their arm!
I also question your statements about human inefficiencies. For some tasks you are 100% correct. Running a long distance fast, as you mention, is a good example. But we can also climb mountains, jump chasms, and ride motorcycles. *Inefficient* in one thing might be a consequence of superb adaptability for many things.
The objective way of looking at this question is to first ask, *what is the robot being designed to do?* Starting with real requirements is the first step to designing a robotic (or other) system to meet those requirements. Overly general statements about whether or not the design is anthropomorphic do nothing to lead a robot designer toward a proper solution for the tasks that the device is intended to accomplish. |
11,490 | I have to determine speed and torque suitable for my combat robot.
I've done some calculations and I need to know whether they're right or not (because they don't seem to be right).
Suppose I have 10kg robot, I want to push other 10kg robot to the arena walls. Let's first assume opposite robot is not opposing my push. Suppose I want it to move it with acceleration of 10cm/sec/sec (also lemme know if acceleration assumed is suitable for robowar or not).
Then force required will be,
F = (total mass to be moved) \* (acceleration) = (10+10)\*(10e-2) = 2 N.
Assume opposite robot is also pushing with me same force, in that case I will need another 2 N for opposing his push, Now taking into account frictional retardation, suppose I need another 2 N so total would be 6 N.
Assuming velocity = 10cm/sec, then Power required will be 6 \* velocity = 6\*10e-2 = 600mW. For 12V motor even with 20% efficiency it would cause current of 250mA only. Also output power = speed X torque.
Now I've heard that robowars usually require motor with high full load current otherwise they'll be damaged.
So it looks like I am somewhere wrong in my calculations. If so, lemme know where,am I wrong where I assumed that opposing robot will cause just 2 N, because generally they'd be fitted with more high torque motors. But is it the only thing which goes wrong in above calculations? If opposite bot had to just exert 2N on my bot, are calculations right?
PS: By side-shaft geared motors, it is meant that it is internally geared with horizontal shaft, right? Or "side-shaft" means something more? | 2017/01/26 | [
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/questions/11490",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/users/15908/"
] | From another point of view, bipeds(humanoids) are regardless of their use interesting since they are high dimensional nonlinear hybrid systems. Sure, there are more systems with those qualifications, but the special thing with bipeds is that we have a clear intuition of what is right and wrong even without any mathematical background. Furthermore, take a quadruped(4 legs), those robots are arguably more inherently stable, while with two legs, especially if you remove the feet, that is a different story. So in a way, those humanoids are perfect tools to center nonlinear control theory around.
I think you can cook up a similar argument from an AI point of view. However, I agree with you that for many practical problems a biped makes no sense. | Fully exploring the reasons for designing humanoid robots would need to explore human psychology and involve lots of discussion with no clear answer, however there is one very concrete reason.
Many robots are given a humanoid form because they must operate in an environment designed for humans, and must use tools designed for humans.
This was the primary criteria for the [DARPA Robotics Challenge](http://archive.darpa.mil/roboticschallenge/teams.html). |
11,490 | I have to determine speed and torque suitable for my combat robot.
I've done some calculations and I need to know whether they're right or not (because they don't seem to be right).
Suppose I have 10kg robot, I want to push other 10kg robot to the arena walls. Let's first assume opposite robot is not opposing my push. Suppose I want it to move it with acceleration of 10cm/sec/sec (also lemme know if acceleration assumed is suitable for robowar or not).
Then force required will be,
F = (total mass to be moved) \* (acceleration) = (10+10)\*(10e-2) = 2 N.
Assume opposite robot is also pushing with me same force, in that case I will need another 2 N for opposing his push, Now taking into account frictional retardation, suppose I need another 2 N so total would be 6 N.
Assuming velocity = 10cm/sec, then Power required will be 6 \* velocity = 6\*10e-2 = 600mW. For 12V motor even with 20% efficiency it would cause current of 250mA only. Also output power = speed X torque.
Now I've heard that robowars usually require motor with high full load current otherwise they'll be damaged.
So it looks like I am somewhere wrong in my calculations. If so, lemme know where,am I wrong where I assumed that opposing robot will cause just 2 N, because generally they'd be fitted with more high torque motors. But is it the only thing which goes wrong in above calculations? If opposite bot had to just exert 2N on my bot, are calculations right?
PS: By side-shaft geared motors, it is meant that it is internally geared with horizontal shaft, right? Or "side-shaft" means something more? | 2017/01/26 | [
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/questions/11490",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com",
"https://robotics.stackexchange.com/users/15908/"
] | From another point of view, bipeds(humanoids) are regardless of their use interesting since they are high dimensional nonlinear hybrid systems. Sure, there are more systems with those qualifications, but the special thing with bipeds is that we have a clear intuition of what is right and wrong even without any mathematical background. Furthermore, take a quadruped(4 legs), those robots are arguably more inherently stable, while with two legs, especially if you remove the feet, that is a different story. So in a way, those humanoids are perfect tools to center nonlinear control theory around.
I think you can cook up a similar argument from an AI point of view. However, I agree with you that for many practical problems a biped makes no sense. | A car is good at driving high speeds on flat ground. A car cannot use a drill. A car cannot climb stairs.
A dishwasher is good at cleaning dishes. A dishwasher also cannot use a drill. A dishwasher also cannot climb stairs.
>
> The human body is highly inefficient.
>
>
>
On the contrary, the human body is extremely efficient. 100 food calories (kcal) will power a person for about a mile (running). A 12oz can of Coke has 140 calories, and there are 128oz in a gallon. That means a person running gets about 15 miles per gallon. If you walk you can double that because walking a mile only burns about 50kcal.
So, 15-30 miles per gallon on soda, to put it into a format that allows for better comparison to cars.
>
> We can't run for very long times
>
>
>
We can run longer than just about any other animal. The earliest form of hunting was the [endurance hunt](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Persistence_hunting) where you basically chase an animal until it collapses.
>
> May be it is time that we took a step away from getting "inspired" by Nature, and build a man-made, highly efficient body.
>
>
>
Build a highly efficient body to do what, exactly? Can you make a list of all the things you want this "body" to do, and then explain how exactly that body is going to traverse sand, rocks, grass, and stairs? |
153,542 | I recently started playing Dragon age II for the first time. I chose the Rogue class and would like some pointer on avoiding damage. The Evade ability comes in handy, but can I combine this with other abilities/ party abilities? | 2014/02/03 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/153542",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/57750/"
] | Although the accepted answer is technically correct I would like to give a slightly different approach.
The answer is: no, not yet.
As was pointed out, the value of +5s over +3s take nearly a year to be realized, but that is only part of the story.
+5s also cost 10x as much as +3s and will also be lost if you are podded. The total cost of +5s is around 500 million. This is generally prohibitively expensive for newer players and causes people to become risk adverse to the extreme.
Mindlinks are for boosting characters only, are often a few hundred million each, and require upwards of six months of training to get the skills to be a booster (a generally boring position usually left to alts.)
"Highgrade" implants such as slaves are extremely powerful, but that power comes at a cost. Most highgrade sets cost over a billion for a set, especially with omega included.
Bottom line is you should be able to be perfectly happy with +3s for the first several years of your EVE life, leave the pirate implants to the bitter vets with more isk then sense. | Some related information/conjecture, by all the reasoning given in other answers training Cybernetics IV for the use of +4 attribute implants should be worthwhile given that:
a. The return is the same, an additional 788,400 over a year's time.
b. The time investment is much less to train IV vs V, so Cybernetics IV will pay off much sooner than Cybernetics V.
c. The +4 implants are significantly cheaper than the +5 implants (about 100M isk less each - each "Standard" +4 implant costs about ~20M isk, or ~100M total for a full set vs ~120M each or ~600M total for a full set of "Improved" +5 implants).
It seems the main attraction of Cybernetics V is the special bonuses mentioned, as the skillpoint payout vs. time invested drops significantly between Cybernetics IV and V. Of course if you know you're going to play for 5 years, training to V and getting a +5 set would be a given. |
120,560 | I am known professionally by a shortened version of one of my middle names (I have 3). Most people don't even know my first name, which I only use as legally necessary.
I was thinking of including my first initial on my business card, followed by "nickname" and surname or should it be first initial, surname (nickname)??
Thoughts? | 2018/10/10 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/120560",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/93240/"
] | Let's say your legal name is John Percy Shane Smith (with 2 middle names) and you want to go by Percy. You could do:
1. **J. Percy Smith** (most common when your preferred name is a middle name in my experience)
2. **John "Percy" Smith** (more typical if your preferred name is not a part of your official name) | It's well understood that many people have reasons for going by a name that doesn't match their legal name. In general there's no expectation that your business card will match your legal name. The best option is just to use the same name that you're known by at work, to avoid confusion.
One exception to this is when two people in the organisation go by the same name. Within an organisation, people can usually tell from context whether "John Smith" means John Smith from Accounts or John Smith from Maintenance, but when dealing with external people (as with business cards) it's probably better to distinguish, e.g. John P. Smith vs. John Q. Smith. |
174,204 | At the end of *Oathbringer*, Hoid grabs a spren (a Cryptic, it seems) from the ruined Alethi palace.
>
> “I know you’d rather have someone else,” Wit said, “but it isn’t the
> time to be picky. I’m certain now that the reason I’m in the city is
> to find you.”
>
>
> *Oathbringer*
>
>
>
I get the strong impression that we’re supposed to know who this spren was meant for, but I can’t figure it out. Surely not Aesudan? | 2017/11/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/174204",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/51379/"
] | The answer is a firm **yes**.
>
> Everything inside me came undone as I stared at the tiny porcelain face of the half-vampire, half-human baby.
>
> Twilight, Breaking Dawn
>
>
>
And from the film of Bella pregnant with Edward's baby. | As evidence by the fourth book, yes, vampires in twilight can impregnate a human. typically it doesn't happen, as most\* vampires would lose control and end up draining said human of blood during the interaction, or break them. This can only happen in Male vampire with female human relationships, as a female vampire is in stasis, and no longer has monthly fluctuations, whereas a male vampire, it seems, still has reproductive ability. |
74,413 | As far as I understand it, an illegal contract is void, and the Polish Supreme Court has assessed that EU contract violates the Polish Constitution.
Why is Poland still considered an EU member state? | 2021/11/10 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/74413",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/41629/"
] | Opinions [vary a bit](https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/69329/how-does-the-polish-courts-rejection-of-eu-law-supremacy-differ-from-germanys) on interpreting the Polish court decision.
According to a more strict reading of the Polish court's [announcement](https://trybunal.gov.pl/en/hearings/judgments/art/11662-ocena-zgodnosci-z-konstytucja-rp-wybranych-przepisow-traktatu-o-unii-europejskiej), they haven't declared any parts of the treaties illegal *per se*. They've only declared some CJEU decisions illegal in Poland. Under the treaties, Poland signed up to the acquis, but those decisions were taken after Poland became a member, so they don't fall under the acquis... and arguably the decisions [were a little bit innovative](https://verfassungsblog.de/commission-v-poland-a-stepping-stone-towards-a-strong-union-of-values/) in their interpretation of treaty provisions. (Although the Polish court rejected wholesale the CJEU interpretation of Article 19(1)--it's at most [two decisions](https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/full/10.1177/1023263X19892185) that are involved both taken after 2018.)
Several EU countries (including Germany in *Weiss/PSPP* and Denmark in [*Ajos*](https://verfassungsblog.de/legal-disintegration-the-ruling-of-the-danish-supreme-court-in-ajos/)) reject unbridled supremacy of EU law, to various extent[s]. If you read through the much more numerous articles that have been written about PSPP, you can find
extremely conciliatory ones that speak of judicial dialogue, but [others](https://verfassungsblog.de/germanys-failing-court/) that conclude that the principles put down on paper by the German court "directly contradict the very idea of the European Union". And
a third [kind](https://www.mpifg.de/pu/mpifg_dp/2021/dp21-1.pdf) that applauds PSPP for stemming the never-ending bias that CJEU [supposedly] has towards granting EU institutions more powers. | This is a large question but part of the answer is that not only is EU Law in conflict with the Polish Constitution but the two systems of law disagree as to which system of law has priority.
According to EU Law, EU law is supreme and the courts of Poland are duty bound to disregard the Constitution of Poland where it conflicts with EU law. So on this basis the EU Treaties (what you call the EU contract) is not illegal and Poland is still a member state.
According to the Polish constitution as interpreted by the Polish courts, parts of the EU treaties are contrary to the Polish constitution and therefore the courts of Poland are duty bound to disregard the EU treaties insofar as they conflict with the Polish constitution. As I understand it the Polish courts have not declared the EU treaties completely illegal - just certain parts of them. On this basis Poland is still a member of the EU but just not bound by some of its rules. |
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