qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
23,576 | Primarily asking this question because of that new TV show "Revolution". I remember reading this novel back in the 80's about a mysterious monolith that renders all electronics in the world inoperable. The novel never explains where the monolith came from, only how civilization adjusted. | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/23576",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/8850/"
] | The premise of the show reminded me of [Robert Silverberg's "The Alien Years"](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/006105111X). Although that novel is not about a monolith, but rather about an alien invasion.
>
> Fifteen feet tall, the Entities land in cities across Earth. Ignoring
> humankind, they wall themselves in impenetrable enclaves, enslaving a
> few willing collaborators with their telepathic PUSH. Then they plunge
> humans into a new Dark Age without electricity, allowing us to
> live--but no longer as a dominant species.
>
>
> But a few refuse to submit to fate, including the Carmichael family,
> whose patriarch, an aging colonel devoted to resistance, will inspire
> a daring new generation of dissidents. United in spirit, these diverse
> rebels--an aging hippie, a cold-blooded Muslim assassin, a prodigal
> son, and a renegade hacker--will carry on the colonel's legacy as they
> attempt to kill the mysterious Prime Entity and free the planet.
>
>
> | Fade Out seems like the book you are looking for. I read it years ago - as you say, diesel engines worked near the object, with cartridge starters, because they did not depend on a spark. Today diesels do depend on the electrical power in many vehicles. This was a story about a strange object which appeared in a remote part of north America and started sending out a field that nullified electrical signals; gradually the effects became stronger until it started turning itself into a pyramid shape. At this point the troops guarding the object (some on horseback) decided an explosion or radiation was imminent. Sound familiar? |
23,576 | Primarily asking this question because of that new TV show "Revolution". I remember reading this novel back in the 80's about a mysterious monolith that renders all electronics in the world inoperable. The novel never explains where the monolith came from, only how civilization adjusted. | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/23576",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/8850/"
] | Perhaps it might have been *[Fade-Out](http://www.patricktilley.co.uk/fadeout/index.php)* by [Patrick Tilley](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Patrick_Tilley)?
>
> Alien Day
>
>
> The date was Friday, the third of August. For some people the day was just beginning. For others it was the end of another perfectly normal day. Then right across the world every ground and airborne radar screen went haywire
>
>
> This time it had really happened. An alien spacecraft was in orbit around planet Earth. And nine weeks later civilization was on the edge of a total breakdown more devastating than any nuclear war or natural disaster
>
>
>
This is a mildly unlikely match because the effect of the alien arrival is to disrupt all radio communication (thus the title, Fade-Out, referring to a radio communication concept) rather than to disable all electricity. | I thought of the [2001: A Space Odyssey](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2001%3a_A_Space_Odyssey_%28film%29) but that's a movie. So I would assume you mean the [Novel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2001%3a_A_Space_Odyssey_%28novel%29) of the same name or the short story it was based upon [The Sentinel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Sentinel_%28short_story%29) by Arthur C. Clarke.
But I don't remember it rendering electronics inoperable. |
23,576 | Primarily asking this question because of that new TV show "Revolution". I remember reading this novel back in the 80's about a mysterious monolith that renders all electronics in the world inoperable. The novel never explains where the monolith came from, only how civilization adjusted. | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/23576",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/8850/"
] | Your description reminds me of the classic French SF novel [*Ravage*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ravage_%28novel%29) by [René Barjavel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ren%C3%A9_Barjavel). The story describes a future society in which all electrical devices have suddenly become inactive. The reason for the disappearance of electricity is not an important part of the book, I don't remember whether it's stated or left unsaid. The alien monolith may have been a very low-key element of the book or may have been a plot element not taken from the book.
I can find a lot of web pages that link *Revolution* to *Ravage*, but only in French. [This article](http://www.myboox.fr/actualite/revolution-la-nouvelle-serie-de-jj-abrams-inspiree-par-barjavel-ac-15341.html), among others, attributes an explicit influence of *Ravage* on J.J. Abrams. I can't find any authoritative reference for that, however, so I don't know whether there was a direct influence or merely plot similitude. | I thought of the [2001: A Space Odyssey](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2001%3a_A_Space_Odyssey_%28film%29) but that's a movie. So I would assume you mean the [Novel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2001%3a_A_Space_Odyssey_%28novel%29) of the same name or the short story it was based upon [The Sentinel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Sentinel_%28short_story%29) by Arthur C. Clarke.
But I don't remember it rendering electronics inoperable. |
23,576 | Primarily asking this question because of that new TV show "Revolution". I remember reading this novel back in the 80's about a mysterious monolith that renders all electronics in the world inoperable. The novel never explains where the monolith came from, only how civilization adjusted. | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/23576",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/8850/"
] | Perhaps it might have been *[Fade-Out](http://www.patricktilley.co.uk/fadeout/index.php)* by [Patrick Tilley](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Patrick_Tilley)?
>
> Alien Day
>
>
> The date was Friday, the third of August. For some people the day was just beginning. For others it was the end of another perfectly normal day. Then right across the world every ground and airborne radar screen went haywire
>
>
> This time it had really happened. An alien spacecraft was in orbit around planet Earth. And nine weeks later civilization was on the edge of a total breakdown more devastating than any nuclear war or natural disaster
>
>
>
This is a mildly unlikely match because the effect of the alien arrival is to disrupt all radio communication (thus the title, Fade-Out, referring to a radio communication concept) rather than to disable all electricity. | Your description reminds me of the classic French SF novel [*Ravage*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ravage_%28novel%29) by [René Barjavel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ren%C3%A9_Barjavel). The story describes a future society in which all electrical devices have suddenly become inactive. The reason for the disappearance of electricity is not an important part of the book, I don't remember whether it's stated or left unsaid. The alien monolith may have been a very low-key element of the book or may have been a plot element not taken from the book.
I can find a lot of web pages that link *Revolution* to *Ravage*, but only in French. [This article](http://www.myboox.fr/actualite/revolution-la-nouvelle-serie-de-jj-abrams-inspiree-par-barjavel-ac-15341.html), among others, attributes an explicit influence of *Ravage* on J.J. Abrams. I can't find any authoritative reference for that, however, so I don't know whether there was a direct influence or merely plot similitude. |
23,576 | Primarily asking this question because of that new TV show "Revolution". I remember reading this novel back in the 80's about a mysterious monolith that renders all electronics in the world inoperable. The novel never explains where the monolith came from, only how civilization adjusted. | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/23576",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/8850/"
] | Perhaps it might have been *[Fade-Out](http://www.patricktilley.co.uk/fadeout/index.php)* by [Patrick Tilley](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Patrick_Tilley)?
>
> Alien Day
>
>
> The date was Friday, the third of August. For some people the day was just beginning. For others it was the end of another perfectly normal day. Then right across the world every ground and airborne radar screen went haywire
>
>
> This time it had really happened. An alien spacecraft was in orbit around planet Earth. And nine weeks later civilization was on the edge of a total breakdown more devastating than any nuclear war or natural disaster
>
>
>
This is a mildly unlikely match because the effect of the alien arrival is to disrupt all radio communication (thus the title, Fade-Out, referring to a radio communication concept) rather than to disable all electricity. | Fade Out seems like the book you are looking for. I read it years ago - as you say, diesel engines worked near the object, with cartridge starters, because they did not depend on a spark. Today diesels do depend on the electrical power in many vehicles. This was a story about a strange object which appeared in a remote part of north America and started sending out a field that nullified electrical signals; gradually the effects became stronger until it started turning itself into a pyramid shape. At this point the troops guarding the object (some on horseback) decided an explosion or radiation was imminent. Sound familiar? |
23,576 | Primarily asking this question because of that new TV show "Revolution". I remember reading this novel back in the 80's about a mysterious monolith that renders all electronics in the world inoperable. The novel never explains where the monolith came from, only how civilization adjusted. | 2012/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/23576",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/8850/"
] | Your description reminds me of the classic French SF novel [*Ravage*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ravage_%28novel%29) by [René Barjavel](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ren%C3%A9_Barjavel). The story describes a future society in which all electrical devices have suddenly become inactive. The reason for the disappearance of electricity is not an important part of the book, I don't remember whether it's stated or left unsaid. The alien monolith may have been a very low-key element of the book or may have been a plot element not taken from the book.
I can find a lot of web pages that link *Revolution* to *Ravage*, but only in French. [This article](http://www.myboox.fr/actualite/revolution-la-nouvelle-serie-de-jj-abrams-inspiree-par-barjavel-ac-15341.html), among others, attributes an explicit influence of *Ravage* on J.J. Abrams. I can't find any authoritative reference for that, however, so I don't know whether there was a direct influence or merely plot similitude. | Fade Out seems like the book you are looking for. I read it years ago - as you say, diesel engines worked near the object, with cartridge starters, because they did not depend on a spark. Today diesels do depend on the electrical power in many vehicles. This was a story about a strange object which appeared in a remote part of north America and started sending out a field that nullified electrical signals; gradually the effects became stronger until it started turning itself into a pyramid shape. At this point the troops guarding the object (some on horseback) decided an explosion or radiation was imminent. Sound familiar? |
76,895 | I want to rent a car from Toulouse in 2 weeks but I couldn't find any rental companies that rent a car to someone with a license < 1yr old.
Is it a law in France? If not, are there any companies offering cars to people with a license that is less than 1yr old? I'm older than 25. | 2016/08/17 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/76895",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/49949/"
] | As pointed out in the comments, it is not a legal, but an insurance issue. It is possible, but not cheap. I did this recently, as a 22 year old driver with a 3 months old license, but I ended up paying quadruple the normal rental price. Consider how much it is worth for you, both in money and in risk.
You are most likely to succeed by calling small, local rental agencies. This is how I did it. They do not always have a policy in place against this, in contrary to big companies like Hertz and Avis.
You can also try taking your chances and turning up at a rental company. You will have to decide if you want to prepay or not. Prepaying is cheaper and may help you get a car, but I have no idea what would happen if they then refuse you because you haven't held your license for long enough.
Good luck and please share what happened. | It's not a legal issue, but rather a matter of insurance (and its cost).
In most cases, a requirement on both age (21 or 25 years old) and time holding a driver's license (3 or 5 years) is typical, however this varies from network to network and even from branch to branch (especially in the case of franchises, they may set their own rules).
Rent-a-Car for instance has a standard 3 or 5 years minimum, but you can pay extra to reduce that by 2 years, so that still leaves you with a 1 year minimum.
Ada however may allow you to drive a car with just days on your license:
<http://www.ada.fr/jeunes/index.html>
Following the link on that page results (at least in the location I selected) in many cars (mostly cheaper models) available with no requirement on how long you've held your licence. |
343,765 | I would like to know the answer, preferably formal, for this question:
What is the idiom clearly implying:
>
> sacrifice short term, trifling objectives for long term goals!
>
>
>
I would like to use it in TOEFL.
Further, what is the idiom that explicitly means:
>
> it should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably
>
>
>
For instance, the idea for building a hospital in a particular zone should be agreed without any hesitation, it is preposterous to disagree with such beneficial, impeccable project. | 2016/08/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/343765",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192192/"
] | I believe you are referring to the concept of [***vision***](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/vision).
>
> 2 [MASS NOUN] The ability to think about or plan the future with imagination or wisdom:
>
> *the organization had lost its vision and direction*
>
>
>
To illuminate:
*The ultimate measure of a man is not where he stands in moments of comfort and convenience, but where he stands at times of challenge and controversy.*
Martin Luther King Jr.
References:
<http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/vision>
<http://biography.yourdictionary.com/articles/martin-luther-kings-vision-change-world.html> | **Don't settle for second best.**
>
> *second best*
>
>
> not as good as the best and therefore not wanted as much:
>
>
> *She refuses to settle for second best - she strives for perfection.*
>
>
>
[[CDO](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/second-best)] |
343,765 | I would like to know the answer, preferably formal, for this question:
What is the idiom clearly implying:
>
> sacrifice short term, trifling objectives for long term goals!
>
>
>
I would like to use it in TOEFL.
Further, what is the idiom that explicitly means:
>
> it should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably
>
>
>
For instance, the idea for building a hospital in a particular zone should be agreed without any hesitation, it is preposterous to disagree with such beneficial, impeccable project. | 2016/08/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/343765",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192192/"
] | I believe you are referring to the concept of [***vision***](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/vision).
>
> 2 [MASS NOUN] The ability to think about or plan the future with imagination or wisdom:
>
> *the organization had lost its vision and direction*
>
>
>
To illuminate:
*The ultimate measure of a man is not where he stands in moments of comfort and convenience, but where he stands at times of challenge and controversy.*
Martin Luther King Jr.
References:
<http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/vision>
<http://biography.yourdictionary.com/articles/martin-luther-kings-vision-change-world.html> | Idiom implying the "sacrifice of short term, trifling objectives for long term goals": **take the long view**.
Idiom explicitly meaning "should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably": **a given**. |
343,765 | I would like to know the answer, preferably formal, for this question:
What is the idiom clearly implying:
>
> sacrifice short term, trifling objectives for long term goals!
>
>
>
I would like to use it in TOEFL.
Further, what is the idiom that explicitly means:
>
> it should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably
>
>
>
For instance, the idea for building a hospital in a particular zone should be agreed without any hesitation, it is preposterous to disagree with such beneficial, impeccable project. | 2016/08/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/343765",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192192/"
] | A very common idiom for "sacrific[*ing*] short term, trifling objectives for long term goals!" is **[delayed (or deferred) gratification](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed_gratification)**:
>
> ...the ability to resist the temptation for an immediate reward and wait for a later reward. - [wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed_gratification)
>
>
>
In regard to "it should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably" a common idiom is [no-brainer](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/no-brainer):
>
> Something, especially a choice or decision, that is so obvious or easy as to require little or no thought. - [the free dictionary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/no-brainer)
>
>
>
or alternatively, a [must](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/must):
>
> *noun*
> 12.
> something necessary, vital, or required:
> *This law is a must*. - [dictionary.com](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/must)
>
>
> | **Don't settle for second best.**
>
> *second best*
>
>
> not as good as the best and therefore not wanted as much:
>
>
> *She refuses to settle for second best - she strives for perfection.*
>
>
>
[[CDO](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/second-best)] |
343,765 | I would like to know the answer, preferably formal, for this question:
What is the idiom clearly implying:
>
> sacrifice short term, trifling objectives for long term goals!
>
>
>
I would like to use it in TOEFL.
Further, what is the idiom that explicitly means:
>
> it should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably
>
>
>
For instance, the idea for building a hospital in a particular zone should be agreed without any hesitation, it is preposterous to disagree with such beneficial, impeccable project. | 2016/08/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/343765",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/192192/"
] | A very common idiom for "sacrific[*ing*] short term, trifling objectives for long term goals!" is **[delayed (or deferred) gratification](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed_gratification)**:
>
> ...the ability to resist the temptation for an immediate reward and wait for a later reward. - [wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed_gratification)
>
>
>
In regard to "it should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably" a common idiom is [no-brainer](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/no-brainer):
>
> Something, especially a choice or decision, that is so obvious or easy as to require little or no thought. - [the free dictionary](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/no-brainer)
>
>
>
or alternatively, a [must](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/must):
>
> *noun*
> 12.
> something necessary, vital, or required:
> *This law is a must*. - [dictionary.com](http://www.dictionary.com/browse/must)
>
>
> | Idiom implying the "sacrifice of short term, trifling objectives for long term goals": **take the long view**.
Idiom explicitly meaning "should be accepted without compromise, or indisputably": **a given**. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | Of course, it's going to be different for everyone, but I'd suggest Spring MVC, as it's a request-based framework like Struts. Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...) and whatever you're going to use for database access (just JDBC? Hibernate? iBatis? etc.).
JSF is component-based, which is a bit different paradigm from request-based frameworks. If you do plan to go the JSF route, I'd suggest looking at Seam from JBoss. It's more of a front-to-back framework that uses JSF as the web/presentation end and EJB as the backend. And pretty much all the people who've used it claim it makes JSF and EJB more usable than they are by themselves.
Good luck on whichever technology you choose, though. (Sounds like you'll need it - strict timelines and a client that's prescribing web frameworks?) | I'd suggest SpringMVC, because of the timeframe:
* you need something with less steep learning curve. SpringMVC is more like Struts than JSF
* in order to use the power of JSF you need to get familiar with many "tricks", while SpringMVC is more or less straightforward |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | Of course, it's going to be different for everyone, but I'd suggest Spring MVC, as it's a request-based framework like Struts. Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...) and whatever you're going to use for database access (just JDBC? Hibernate? iBatis? etc.).
JSF is component-based, which is a bit different paradigm from request-based frameworks. If you do plan to go the JSF route, I'd suggest looking at Seam from JBoss. It's more of a front-to-back framework that uses JSF as the web/presentation end and EJB as the backend. And pretty much all the people who've used it claim it makes JSF and EJB more usable than they are by themselves.
Good luck on whichever technology you choose, though. (Sounds like you'll need it - strict timelines and a client that's prescribing web frameworks?) | I'd suggest JSF + Primefaces component library. I am using this combination to build most of our projects. As I remember, I spent one week to learn the technology and finished my first project in one month. The development time at least 30% faster than Struts.
SpringMVC is not a bad technology and it's quite popular.
Really depends on which one your like the most. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | Of course, it's going to be different for everyone, but I'd suggest Spring MVC, as it's a request-based framework like Struts. Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...) and whatever you're going to use for database access (just JDBC? Hibernate? iBatis? etc.).
JSF is component-based, which is a bit different paradigm from request-based frameworks. If you do plan to go the JSF route, I'd suggest looking at Seam from JBoss. It's more of a front-to-back framework that uses JSF as the web/presentation end and EJB as the backend. And pretty much all the people who've used it claim it makes JSF and EJB more usable than they are by themselves.
Good luck on whichever technology you choose, though. (Sounds like you'll need it - strict timelines and a client that's prescribing web frameworks?) | >
> Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...)
>
>
>
JSF is indeed based on IoC, and much simpler than the Spring learning curve. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | Of course, it's going to be different for everyone, but I'd suggest Spring MVC, as it's a request-based framework like Struts. Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...) and whatever you're going to use for database access (just JDBC? Hibernate? iBatis? etc.).
JSF is component-based, which is a bit different paradigm from request-based frameworks. If you do plan to go the JSF route, I'd suggest looking at Seam from JBoss. It's more of a front-to-back framework that uses JSF as the web/presentation end and EJB as the backend. And pretty much all the people who've used it claim it makes JSF and EJB more usable than they are by themselves.
Good luck on whichever technology you choose, though. (Sounds like you'll need it - strict timelines and a client that's prescribing web frameworks?) | JSF is just the view layer of the MVC and wil need to be used with other technologies like Spring/Hibernate or EJB for a full MVC.
I have been using the Spring MVC for about 1 months now, whilst it's probably not the latyest version of SpringMVC I've found it a little annoying that we have so much XML to deal with. All the managed beans and DAO has XML config to it. Also everything seems to have to go thorugh a method called onSubmit().
JSF with something like EJB is far simplier in my opinion... Everything can be done using Annotations so simply use @ManagedBean=theBean in your backing bean and in your JSF put {thebean.param} and you have access to the backing bean's data. Also you can use the Session beans of your EJB as the backing beans for JSF then have direct acces to the DAO (Model layer) Entity bean. Again simply by using the @Entity annotation and the EntityManager class
Spring MVC is a web framework inside the Spring framework. It does provide features as those in JSF 2.0:
ajax-support
validation
dependency-injection etc
Yet, you can use Spring (not Spring MVC) together with JSF 2.0, with spring providing the dependency-injection, aop, transaction management mechanisms, and JSF providing the web layer. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | I'd suggest SpringMVC, because of the timeframe:
* you need something with less steep learning curve. SpringMVC is more like Struts than JSF
* in order to use the power of JSF you need to get familiar with many "tricks", while SpringMVC is more or less straightforward | I'd suggest JSF + Primefaces component library. I am using this combination to build most of our projects. As I remember, I spent one week to learn the technology and finished my first project in one month. The development time at least 30% faster than Struts.
SpringMVC is not a bad technology and it's quite popular.
Really depends on which one your like the most. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | I'd suggest SpringMVC, because of the timeframe:
* you need something with less steep learning curve. SpringMVC is more like Struts than JSF
* in order to use the power of JSF you need to get familiar with many "tricks", while SpringMVC is more or less straightforward | >
> Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...)
>
>
>
JSF is indeed based on IoC, and much simpler than the Spring learning curve. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | I'd suggest SpringMVC, because of the timeframe:
* you need something with less steep learning curve. SpringMVC is more like Struts than JSF
* in order to use the power of JSF you need to get familiar with many "tricks", while SpringMVC is more or less straightforward | JSF is just the view layer of the MVC and wil need to be used with other technologies like Spring/Hibernate or EJB for a full MVC.
I have been using the Spring MVC for about 1 months now, whilst it's probably not the latyest version of SpringMVC I've found it a little annoying that we have so much XML to deal with. All the managed beans and DAO has XML config to it. Also everything seems to have to go thorugh a method called onSubmit().
JSF with something like EJB is far simplier in my opinion... Everything can be done using Annotations so simply use @ManagedBean=theBean in your backing bean and in your JSF put {thebean.param} and you have access to the backing bean's data. Also you can use the Session beans of your EJB as the backing beans for JSF then have direct acces to the DAO (Model layer) Entity bean. Again simply by using the @Entity annotation and the EntityManager class
Spring MVC is a web framework inside the Spring framework. It does provide features as those in JSF 2.0:
ajax-support
validation
dependency-injection etc
Yet, you can use Spring (not Spring MVC) together with JSF 2.0, with spring providing the dependency-injection, aop, transaction management mechanisms, and JSF providing the web layer. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | I'd suggest JSF + Primefaces component library. I am using this combination to build most of our projects. As I remember, I spent one week to learn the technology and finished my first project in one month. The development time at least 30% faster than Struts.
SpringMVC is not a bad technology and it's quite popular.
Really depends on which one your like the most. | >
> Of course, you'll want to learn about core Spring stuff like Inversion of Control / Dependency Injection (but I'd consider that a plus...)
>
>
>
JSF is indeed based on IoC, and much simpler than the Spring learning curve. |
2,249,706 | I haved used Struts framework in all my past applications and for the new application,my client has requested to use either Spring MVC or JSF? I am not familiar with these two frameworks but our timelines are strict. So, I am not sure which framework I will choose to build the application.
Can anyone please suggest me which framework will be easy to learn in quick time?
Thanks | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2249706",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/268765/"
] | I'd suggest JSF + Primefaces component library. I am using this combination to build most of our projects. As I remember, I spent one week to learn the technology and finished my first project in one month. The development time at least 30% faster than Struts.
SpringMVC is not a bad technology and it's quite popular.
Really depends on which one your like the most. | JSF is just the view layer of the MVC and wil need to be used with other technologies like Spring/Hibernate or EJB for a full MVC.
I have been using the Spring MVC for about 1 months now, whilst it's probably not the latyest version of SpringMVC I've found it a little annoying that we have so much XML to deal with. All the managed beans and DAO has XML config to it. Also everything seems to have to go thorugh a method called onSubmit().
JSF with something like EJB is far simplier in my opinion... Everything can be done using Annotations so simply use @ManagedBean=theBean in your backing bean and in your JSF put {thebean.param} and you have access to the backing bean's data. Also you can use the Session beans of your EJB as the backing beans for JSF then have direct acces to the DAO (Model layer) Entity bean. Again simply by using the @Entity annotation and the EntityManager class
Spring MVC is a web framework inside the Spring framework. It does provide features as those in JSF 2.0:
ajax-support
validation
dependency-injection etc
Yet, you can use Spring (not Spring MVC) together with JSF 2.0, with spring providing the dependency-injection, aop, transaction management mechanisms, and JSF providing the web layer. |
501 | For example, do we find something related to the modern energy concept in Ancient China, Ancient India, or the Islamic Golden Age?
Among "similarities and differences", *conservation* is obviously important, as is *convertibility* and *variety of forms*.
If the word *energy* or a close cognate was *not* used, what is the justification for regarding it as a related concept? | 2014/11/17 | [
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/501",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/users/48/"
] | In ancient Indian texts like Vedas and puranas there are so called philosophies or concepts of energy. Actually vedas and puranas are considered as religious texts, but these texts contain many hidden facts and knowledge(I doubt how many of you agree with this statement. Some of the examples of science in [Vedas](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vedic_science) are, [Vedic mathematics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_mathematics#Vedic_period), [Astrology](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hindu_astrology), [Vasthushasthra](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vastu_shastra), [Yoga](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yoga) and many more ). It will be broad to compare the philosophies in Vedas and modern science energy theories in this small answer and also we need experts on both to verify them. Even though there are thousands of websites discussing the science in Vedas which also includes the comparison of energy concepts.
Let's check this example,
Atom bombs and thermonuclear bombs : powerful weapons which are practical examples of modern energy concept.
So was there an equivalent weapon concept anywhere in the world? Yes, there was and it was in Ancient India. See this [google search result](https://www.google.co.in/search?q=brahmasthra&oq=brahmasthra&aqs=chrome..69i57j69i60.3722j0j7&sourceid=chrome&es_sm=93&ie=UTF-8) and a quote from wikipedia is below.
>
> **Modern day Nuclear weapon and Brahmastra**
>
>
> **Robert Oppenheimer** (1904-1967) was a scientist, philosopher, bohemian, radical, fanatic of ancient Sanskrit literature,a theoretical physicist and the supervising scientist of the Manhattan Project, and most importantly, **the developer of the atomic bomb**. Seven years after the first successful atom bomb blast test in New Mexico (Trinity), Dr. Oppenheimer was giving a lecture at Rochester University. To the question **“Was the bomb exploded at Alamogordo during the Manhattan project the first one to be detonated?” he gave a strange reply “Well — yes. In modern times, of course.”** And as for Oppenheimer’s first words after the **detonation of the bomb** he quoted from Hindu epic Mahabharata , “If the radiance of a thousand suns were to burst at once into the sky, that would be like the splendor of the mighty one. Now, I am become Death, the destroyer of worlds.” (**Bhagavad Gita**)
>
>
>
The previous quote is for praising Lord Krishna when he displayed his real figure to Arjuna, and this has nothing to do with the energy concept. But we can conclude that Dr.Oppenheimer was familiar with the Bhagavat Gita and the book had it's influence on him which made him say those words from the book. (It is to be noted that, Bhagavat Gita includes messages in the middle of the Mahabharatha war. During this war people could have used the Brahmasthra, Pashupasthra or similar kind of weapons.)
>
> Most people agree that no human civilization before us had knowledge of atomic energy and its by-products. The atomic bomb is something completely novel to modern science. But we find in the Vedic literature descriptions of weapons that had a similar amount of energy as the atomic bombs we use today. “The atomic energy fissions the ninety-nine elements, covering its path by the bombardments of neutrons without let or hindrance. Desirous of stalking the head, i. e. the chief part of the swift power, hidden in the mass of molecular adjustments of the elements, this atomic energy approaches it in the very act of fissioning it by the above-noted bombardment. Herein, verily the scientists know the similar hidden striking force of the rays of the sun working in the orbit of the moon.” (Atharva-veda 20.41.1-3).[2](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_mathematics#Vedic_period)
>
>
>
See the full [wikipedia link](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brahmastra). From this link it can be understood that there were concepts like these before thousands of years ago in Vedas(which are older than 5000 years ago). Nobody added the Brahmasthra concept just to compare it with modern atom bombs, it was there in the ancient text and Hindu puranas discuss many of such weapons in different stories. Did these weapons used in ancient days? The verification is difficult but one thing is very much sure, the idea was there in these ancient Indian texts much earlier.
Many philosophical theories in Vedas and puranas are comparable with modern theories. The May be we all can wonder from where the so called modern energy concept was derived. The actual origin of the modern science energy concept could be from these ancient knowledge. Many scientists like Albert Einstein , Neils Bohr and Oppenheimer were admirers of these ideas and there would have been impact of these ideas in their thought process of deriving modern energy concepts(If there is a verification for the same, we can not actually call it 'modern energy concept', we should call it as just the 'Energy concepts').
Another [wiki link](http://en.wikiquote.org/wiki/Werner_Heisenberg) about Heisenberg who proposed uncertainty principle, see the following quote in the wiki link (not discussing the ideas which influenced him as I am not an expert in both subjects, also I was not present during that discussion:). Just mentioning to prove that such concepts had influenced scientists.)
>
> After these conversations with Tagore some of the ideas that had seemed so crazy suddenly made much more sense. That was a great help for me.
> On conversations with Rabindranath Tagore, as quoted in Uncommon Wisdom: Conversations With Remarkable People (1988) by Fritjof Capra, who states that after these "He began to see that the recognition of relativity, interconnectedness, and impermanence as fundamental aspects of physical reality, which had been so difficult for himself and his fellow physicists, was the very basis of the Indian spiritual traditions."
> Variant: After the conversations about Indian philosophy, some of the ideas of Quantum Physics that had seemed so crazy suddenly made much more sense.
>
>
>
Here are some basic links which I found in my search.
<https://cpdarshi.wordpress.com/2011/11/22/modern-physics-found-its-direction-from-vedanta/>
<http://www.krishnapath.org/quantum-physics-came-from-the-vedas-schrodinger-einstein-and-tesla-were-all-vedantists/>
<http://www.hinduwisdom.info/Advanced_Concepts.htm> | Our word “energy” is borrowed via Latin from the Greek energeia, a term coined by Aristotle from the preposition en (“in”) and ergon (“work”). He developed this concept in his discussion of potentiality versus actuality. For “potentiality” he used the word dynamis “capability”, while for “actuality” he used two apparently interchangeable terms energeia and entelecheia. (The identity of the two terms is expressed by Aristotle is his Metaphysics 1047a30: ἐλήλυθε δ᾽ ἡ ἐνέργεια τοὔνομα, ἡ πρὸς τὴν ἐντελέχειαν συντιθεμένη.) Is this sense dynamis overlaps largely with the modern concept of “potential energy”, while energeia is perhaps rather what we would call “kinetic energy”. Aristotle expresses the difference between the two rather clearly in this passage from Metaphysics 1017a (Tredennick’s translation):
“For we say that both that which sees potentially and that which sees actually is ‘a seeing thing’. And in the same way we call ‘understanding’ both that which can use the understanding, and that which does ; and we call ‘tranquil’ both that in which tranquillity is already present, and that which is potentially tranquil. Similarly too in the case of substances. For we say that [a statue of] Hermes is in the stone, and the half of the line in the whole; and we call ‘corn’ what is not yet ripe.”
But you asked about pre-modern non-European cultures. To this we can reply that the mediaeval philosophers in the Islamic world were definitely familiar with the Aristotelian concepts of potentiality versus actuality, but for the former they did not (as far as I can see) use the word energeia, but they did use its synonym entelecheia, which was borrowed directly into Arabic and spelt in Arabic as إنطلاخيا. In this sense you can say that mediaeval Islamic philosophy had a concept of “energy”, but did not use the term “energy” as such. |
501 | For example, do we find something related to the modern energy concept in Ancient China, Ancient India, or the Islamic Golden Age?
Among "similarities and differences", *conservation* is obviously important, as is *convertibility* and *variety of forms*.
If the word *energy* or a close cognate was *not* used, what is the justification for regarding it as a related concept? | 2014/11/17 | [
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/501",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/users/48/"
] | **Etymology**
Quite a few [sources](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=energy) say that Aristotle was the progenitor of the term, after his use of *energeia* (a Latin transliteration of *ἐνέργεια*). However, [one source](http://www.eoht.info/page/Energy) notes that Heraclitus used a similar word, *en-ergon*, years prior. Heraclitus wrote:
>
> "En-ergon is the father of everything, king of all things and, out of it, all forms of contrast originate. Since ‘en-ergon’ is common to everything, it is vital for life itself.”
>
>
>
This was part of his aforementioned flux theory. However, like Aristotle's ideas, his concepts bear no relation to our modern usage of 'energy', and I doubt the two are related. It is worth noting, though, that Thomas Young's coinage of 'energy' in the early 19th century is thought to have been influenced by Aristotle's usage of *energeia*. This would mean that the two, while not the same idea, may be thought of as true cognates.
---
**Comparison**
I’m going to compare some ancient ideas and explain why they aren’t really precursors to our modern idea of ‘energy’. I suppose this is a "Too long; didn't read" summary; a lot of the other things are extraneous. Note: All information is taken from sources given later in the answer., unless otherwise indicated.
* **Qi:** This is occasionally miswritten as 'Qi energy', which is redundant. *Qi* is often translated as 'natural energy' or 'energy flow'; adding 'energy' to the end would be incorrect. Qi was the ancient Chinese idea of an all-permeating substance in every living creature. It was responsible for life living. Obviously, this is not 'energy' in the modern sense because it is not conserved (dead things have no Qi).
* **En-ergon and the [flux theory](http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/heraclitus/):** Heraclitus’ brainchild was the flux theory, which states (explained better [here](http://www.iep.utm.edu/h/heraclit.htm), but sometimes the page goes down and is inaccessible) that there is some substance that permeates all objects. The reason this isn’t ‘energy’ is that it is uniformly distributed – that is, an object sitting on the floor won’t necessarily have a different energy than an object rolling on a table.
* **Energeia/ἐνέργεια/potentiality and actuality:** This was Aristotle's idea. It comes nearer to energy than Heraclitus' ideas, but closer examination reveals major differences. For example, a tree always has potential - to become a wooden bowl! Likewise, a person has potential to be married. These are really just possibilities, not 'energy' found in objects. Aristotle's ideas are not much like modern scientific ideas of energy.
* **[Vitalism](http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/630920/vitalism):** This idea, apparently coming first from Aristotle and surviving for about two millennia, was similar to *Qi* - actually it was nearly identical - in that it was the idea of a 'life force'. According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitalism), it gained the support of eminent scientists such as Jöns Jacob Berzelius, one of the foremost figures in 19th century chemistry.
* **[Vis viva](http://philoscience.unibe.ch/documents/MaterialFS11/PS-Leibniz11/SmithG2006Vis.pdf):** This really isn't part of the list, but it's a true precursor to energy, and worthy of discussion. The term *vis viva* was coined by Leibniz in the 17th century, to describe the "living energy" (*vis viva* is Latin) of a moving object. This truly was a precursor to kinetic energy, and I'm actually a bit surprised that our 'energy' isn't actually a lingual descendant of *vis viva*.
---
After a week or so of research, I found just about nothing that directly confirms or denies the possibility presented in the question. Zip. Zero. Nada. I've gotten the only null result I've ever gotten in 4 months when researching an answer. It's frustrating, but it's a bit helpful, because it taught me that there are some things that you may never know, no matter how hard you try to find them.
Back to the null result. The question asked whether or not any non-European, ancient cultures came up with something related to our modern concept of energy. The answer, as far as I can tell, is that nothing of the sort existed before a few centuries ago.
If you'll pardon this little detour, I'll talk about Europe first. As fdb hit upon, Aristotle is often cited as the creator of a concept similar to energy. I discussed it in [this answer](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/485/who-invented-the-concepts-of-potential-and-kinetic-energy/487#487). The problem is (which I should have expanded upon), [actuality and potentiality](http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/aristotle-metaphysics/#ActPot) were philosophical ideas. Sure, loose interpretations could make them seem similar to the "energy" of today, but they were quite different from our modern concept. By Aristotle's logic, a tree resting at what we would call a reference point (i.e. where potential energy is 0) would still have potential - the potential to become a wooden bowl!
Next, we go to Gottfried Leibniz and [the idea of *vis viva*](http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/228997?uid=3739808&uid=2&uid=4&uid=3739256&sid=21105322432993) (behind a paywall and/or registration, but the free first page should give you an idea of what I'm talking about). He argued that a moving object was imbued with some sort of quantity. This could be interpreted as either kinetic energy or momentum, and in fact there was a dispute over this. We might also say that [Descartes was also involved](http://philoscience.unibe.ch/documents/MaterialFS11/PS-Leibniz11/SmithG2006Vis.pdf). Nevertheless, 350-ish years ago, there was some idea (in Europe) that a quantity in moving object was conserved.
Going to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Energy#History) (a short and mostly irrelevant detour, I assure you), we find that the term "energy" (and then "potential energy" and "kinetic energy") was not coined until the early 19th century, by a few separate scientists working on the idea. At this point, we may consider the concept of energy (in its modern incarnation) to have been born. If you're fine with Wikipedia, you can read more [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_energy).
---
Try a few searches (duckduckgo is my engine of choice) on the internet. I recommend the following:
* History of energy
* History of energy concept
* Energy concept
* Energy ancient [culture]
* Discovery of energy
* Energy ancient science concept
. . . and many more. All turn up results either about energy generation or (once or twice) crank sites about weird life-force ideas that are decidedly kooky. I was not able, in fact, to get a *single mention* of ancient cultures when it came to the concept of energy. This is pretty bad, because a result of "No, there was no idea of energy in ancient cultures" would be definitive. Here, there is nothing.
The one exception I found was from [this site](http://www.visionlearning.com/en/library/Physics/24/Energy/46), which gave the completely following (no sources were cited):
>
> Ancient cultures associated fire with all forms of energy, and the Greek philosopher Heraclitus (~500 BCE) explained everything in the universe in terms of energy. In the centuries that followed, many scientists proposed theories to explain the concept of energy, but few shed any true light on the subject.
>
>
>
Unfortunately, the "ancient cultures" are nowhere to be found. Go ahead a couple hyperlinks to [this](http://www.iep.utm.edu/heraclit/) page. Heraclitus' flux theory is mildly interesting but not too relevant. Further down, we see hints of something along the lines of conservation of mass, but it goes nowhere. The knowledge that [Aristotle](http://www.iep.utm.edu/aristotl/) disagreed with him leads me to believe that there is no hope of a connection between the two.
Just for fun, I went to [the Wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qi) on Qi. The on thing that caught my eye was this sentence:
>
> Notions in the West of energeia, élan vital, or "vitalism" are purported to be similar.
>
>
>
Going to the pages listed reveal nothing of any importance (and none of the ideas are *anything* like our modern idea of energy), but the fact that Aristotle is listed nearby further convinces me that his work is not really scientific.
One last stop. Many searches brought me [here](http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1877042809004704), where the author (see the PDF link on the upper left; I've had a hard time copying it here) claims that Joule and Mayer were the originators of the idea of energy. It seems like they certainly made some empirical investigations, but the ideas of Descartes and company seem to predate these men.
I'll end with [Bertrand Russell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand_Russell). For those who don't know, [Russell's Teapot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell's_teapot) is the idea that the burden of proof is on the claimant. I could say that there is a teapot floating between the Earth and Mars; it's nearly impossible to disprove unless you search every corner of the space between the solar system and so I can say that it exists. Our situation is similar to that, in that the idea that ancient cultures had a concept similar to energy is hard to disprove. One the one hand, I have found nothing; on the other, there are still chances that I am completely wrong. I'm going to let the community judge this answer and its validity, but at the moment, my answer to the question is "No."
By the way, I'd love some positive and/or negative feedback here. This was an odd experiment for me, and I'm not sure how well it worked. | Our word “energy” is borrowed via Latin from the Greek energeia, a term coined by Aristotle from the preposition en (“in”) and ergon (“work”). He developed this concept in his discussion of potentiality versus actuality. For “potentiality” he used the word dynamis “capability”, while for “actuality” he used two apparently interchangeable terms energeia and entelecheia. (The identity of the two terms is expressed by Aristotle is his Metaphysics 1047a30: ἐλήλυθε δ᾽ ἡ ἐνέργεια τοὔνομα, ἡ πρὸς τὴν ἐντελέχειαν συντιθεμένη.) Is this sense dynamis overlaps largely with the modern concept of “potential energy”, while energeia is perhaps rather what we would call “kinetic energy”. Aristotle expresses the difference between the two rather clearly in this passage from Metaphysics 1017a (Tredennick’s translation):
“For we say that both that which sees potentially and that which sees actually is ‘a seeing thing’. And in the same way we call ‘understanding’ both that which can use the understanding, and that which does ; and we call ‘tranquil’ both that in which tranquillity is already present, and that which is potentially tranquil. Similarly too in the case of substances. For we say that [a statue of] Hermes is in the stone, and the half of the line in the whole; and we call ‘corn’ what is not yet ripe.”
But you asked about pre-modern non-European cultures. To this we can reply that the mediaeval philosophers in the Islamic world were definitely familiar with the Aristotelian concepts of potentiality versus actuality, but for the former they did not (as far as I can see) use the word energeia, but they did use its synonym entelecheia, which was borrowed directly into Arabic and spelt in Arabic as إنطلاخيا. In this sense you can say that mediaeval Islamic philosophy had a concept of “energy”, but did not use the term “energy” as such. |
501 | For example, do we find something related to the modern energy concept in Ancient China, Ancient India, or the Islamic Golden Age?
Among "similarities and differences", *conservation* is obviously important, as is *convertibility* and *variety of forms*.
If the word *energy* or a close cognate was *not* used, what is the justification for regarding it as a related concept? | 2014/11/17 | [
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/501",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/users/48/"
] | Weight is an old concept related to energy that was discussed both in [not-so-Ancient China](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wang_Fuzhi), [Ancient India](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jain_philosophy), or the [Islamic Golden Age](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nasir_al-Din_al-Tusi).
It meets each and every of your criteria :
* Conservation of weight: the belief appeared in all of these cultures that weight was to be conserved on a global scale. ("Pudgala" for the Jain, just "matter" of al-Tusi)
* Convertibility was widely observed, at least by Golden Age alchimists.
* As weight and matter where often considered as the same thing, convertibility was often discussed. In a funny way, the same error that was made with energy ("efficiency of the conversion") is found in discussion of weight.
* The cognate used had nothing to do with energy (except for chinese's "Qi", or the "fire/air element"). What makes me believe there is a link are recent (20th century) development of "Conservation of mass-energy", making mass and energy closely related if not fundamentally identical concepts.
I will document this answer latter as I lack knowledge of Ancient China and Ancient India, but I'm sure I can document most aspects for the three given civilisations. | Our word “energy” is borrowed via Latin from the Greek energeia, a term coined by Aristotle from the preposition en (“in”) and ergon (“work”). He developed this concept in his discussion of potentiality versus actuality. For “potentiality” he used the word dynamis “capability”, while for “actuality” he used two apparently interchangeable terms energeia and entelecheia. (The identity of the two terms is expressed by Aristotle is his Metaphysics 1047a30: ἐλήλυθε δ᾽ ἡ ἐνέργεια τοὔνομα, ἡ πρὸς τὴν ἐντελέχειαν συντιθεμένη.) Is this sense dynamis overlaps largely with the modern concept of “potential energy”, while energeia is perhaps rather what we would call “kinetic energy”. Aristotle expresses the difference between the two rather clearly in this passage from Metaphysics 1017a (Tredennick’s translation):
“For we say that both that which sees potentially and that which sees actually is ‘a seeing thing’. And in the same way we call ‘understanding’ both that which can use the understanding, and that which does ; and we call ‘tranquil’ both that in which tranquillity is already present, and that which is potentially tranquil. Similarly too in the case of substances. For we say that [a statue of] Hermes is in the stone, and the half of the line in the whole; and we call ‘corn’ what is not yet ripe.”
But you asked about pre-modern non-European cultures. To this we can reply that the mediaeval philosophers in the Islamic world were definitely familiar with the Aristotelian concepts of potentiality versus actuality, but for the former they did not (as far as I can see) use the word energeia, but they did use its synonym entelecheia, which was borrowed directly into Arabic and spelt in Arabic as إنطلاخيا. In this sense you can say that mediaeval Islamic philosophy had a concept of “energy”, but did not use the term “energy” as such. |
501 | For example, do we find something related to the modern energy concept in Ancient China, Ancient India, or the Islamic Golden Age?
Among "similarities and differences", *conservation* is obviously important, as is *convertibility* and *variety of forms*.
If the word *energy* or a close cognate was *not* used, what is the justification for regarding it as a related concept? | 2014/11/17 | [
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/501",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/users/48/"
] | **Etymology**
Quite a few [sources](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=energy) say that Aristotle was the progenitor of the term, after his use of *energeia* (a Latin transliteration of *ἐνέργεια*). However, [one source](http://www.eoht.info/page/Energy) notes that Heraclitus used a similar word, *en-ergon*, years prior. Heraclitus wrote:
>
> "En-ergon is the father of everything, king of all things and, out of it, all forms of contrast originate. Since ‘en-ergon’ is common to everything, it is vital for life itself.”
>
>
>
This was part of his aforementioned flux theory. However, like Aristotle's ideas, his concepts bear no relation to our modern usage of 'energy', and I doubt the two are related. It is worth noting, though, that Thomas Young's coinage of 'energy' in the early 19th century is thought to have been influenced by Aristotle's usage of *energeia*. This would mean that the two, while not the same idea, may be thought of as true cognates.
---
**Comparison**
I’m going to compare some ancient ideas and explain why they aren’t really precursors to our modern idea of ‘energy’. I suppose this is a "Too long; didn't read" summary; a lot of the other things are extraneous. Note: All information is taken from sources given later in the answer., unless otherwise indicated.
* **Qi:** This is occasionally miswritten as 'Qi energy', which is redundant. *Qi* is often translated as 'natural energy' or 'energy flow'; adding 'energy' to the end would be incorrect. Qi was the ancient Chinese idea of an all-permeating substance in every living creature. It was responsible for life living. Obviously, this is not 'energy' in the modern sense because it is not conserved (dead things have no Qi).
* **En-ergon and the [flux theory](http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/heraclitus/):** Heraclitus’ brainchild was the flux theory, which states (explained better [here](http://www.iep.utm.edu/h/heraclit.htm), but sometimes the page goes down and is inaccessible) that there is some substance that permeates all objects. The reason this isn’t ‘energy’ is that it is uniformly distributed – that is, an object sitting on the floor won’t necessarily have a different energy than an object rolling on a table.
* **Energeia/ἐνέργεια/potentiality and actuality:** This was Aristotle's idea. It comes nearer to energy than Heraclitus' ideas, but closer examination reveals major differences. For example, a tree always has potential - to become a wooden bowl! Likewise, a person has potential to be married. These are really just possibilities, not 'energy' found in objects. Aristotle's ideas are not much like modern scientific ideas of energy.
* **[Vitalism](http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/630920/vitalism):** This idea, apparently coming first from Aristotle and surviving for about two millennia, was similar to *Qi* - actually it was nearly identical - in that it was the idea of a 'life force'. According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitalism), it gained the support of eminent scientists such as Jöns Jacob Berzelius, one of the foremost figures in 19th century chemistry.
* **[Vis viva](http://philoscience.unibe.ch/documents/MaterialFS11/PS-Leibniz11/SmithG2006Vis.pdf):** This really isn't part of the list, but it's a true precursor to energy, and worthy of discussion. The term *vis viva* was coined by Leibniz in the 17th century, to describe the "living energy" (*vis viva* is Latin) of a moving object. This truly was a precursor to kinetic energy, and I'm actually a bit surprised that our 'energy' isn't actually a lingual descendant of *vis viva*.
---
After a week or so of research, I found just about nothing that directly confirms or denies the possibility presented in the question. Zip. Zero. Nada. I've gotten the only null result I've ever gotten in 4 months when researching an answer. It's frustrating, but it's a bit helpful, because it taught me that there are some things that you may never know, no matter how hard you try to find them.
Back to the null result. The question asked whether or not any non-European, ancient cultures came up with something related to our modern concept of energy. The answer, as far as I can tell, is that nothing of the sort existed before a few centuries ago.
If you'll pardon this little detour, I'll talk about Europe first. As fdb hit upon, Aristotle is often cited as the creator of a concept similar to energy. I discussed it in [this answer](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/485/who-invented-the-concepts-of-potential-and-kinetic-energy/487#487). The problem is (which I should have expanded upon), [actuality and potentiality](http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/aristotle-metaphysics/#ActPot) were philosophical ideas. Sure, loose interpretations could make them seem similar to the "energy" of today, but they were quite different from our modern concept. By Aristotle's logic, a tree resting at what we would call a reference point (i.e. where potential energy is 0) would still have potential - the potential to become a wooden bowl!
Next, we go to Gottfried Leibniz and [the idea of *vis viva*](http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/228997?uid=3739808&uid=2&uid=4&uid=3739256&sid=21105322432993) (behind a paywall and/or registration, but the free first page should give you an idea of what I'm talking about). He argued that a moving object was imbued with some sort of quantity. This could be interpreted as either kinetic energy or momentum, and in fact there was a dispute over this. We might also say that [Descartes was also involved](http://philoscience.unibe.ch/documents/MaterialFS11/PS-Leibniz11/SmithG2006Vis.pdf). Nevertheless, 350-ish years ago, there was some idea (in Europe) that a quantity in moving object was conserved.
Going to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Energy#History) (a short and mostly irrelevant detour, I assure you), we find that the term "energy" (and then "potential energy" and "kinetic energy") was not coined until the early 19th century, by a few separate scientists working on the idea. At this point, we may consider the concept of energy (in its modern incarnation) to have been born. If you're fine with Wikipedia, you can read more [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_energy).
---
Try a few searches (duckduckgo is my engine of choice) on the internet. I recommend the following:
* History of energy
* History of energy concept
* Energy concept
* Energy ancient [culture]
* Discovery of energy
* Energy ancient science concept
. . . and many more. All turn up results either about energy generation or (once or twice) crank sites about weird life-force ideas that are decidedly kooky. I was not able, in fact, to get a *single mention* of ancient cultures when it came to the concept of energy. This is pretty bad, because a result of "No, there was no idea of energy in ancient cultures" would be definitive. Here, there is nothing.
The one exception I found was from [this site](http://www.visionlearning.com/en/library/Physics/24/Energy/46), which gave the completely following (no sources were cited):
>
> Ancient cultures associated fire with all forms of energy, and the Greek philosopher Heraclitus (~500 BCE) explained everything in the universe in terms of energy. In the centuries that followed, many scientists proposed theories to explain the concept of energy, but few shed any true light on the subject.
>
>
>
Unfortunately, the "ancient cultures" are nowhere to be found. Go ahead a couple hyperlinks to [this](http://www.iep.utm.edu/heraclit/) page. Heraclitus' flux theory is mildly interesting but not too relevant. Further down, we see hints of something along the lines of conservation of mass, but it goes nowhere. The knowledge that [Aristotle](http://www.iep.utm.edu/aristotl/) disagreed with him leads me to believe that there is no hope of a connection between the two.
Just for fun, I went to [the Wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qi) on Qi. The on thing that caught my eye was this sentence:
>
> Notions in the West of energeia, élan vital, or "vitalism" are purported to be similar.
>
>
>
Going to the pages listed reveal nothing of any importance (and none of the ideas are *anything* like our modern idea of energy), but the fact that Aristotle is listed nearby further convinces me that his work is not really scientific.
One last stop. Many searches brought me [here](http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1877042809004704), where the author (see the PDF link on the upper left; I've had a hard time copying it here) claims that Joule and Mayer were the originators of the idea of energy. It seems like they certainly made some empirical investigations, but the ideas of Descartes and company seem to predate these men.
I'll end with [Bertrand Russell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand_Russell). For those who don't know, [Russell's Teapot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell's_teapot) is the idea that the burden of proof is on the claimant. I could say that there is a teapot floating between the Earth and Mars; it's nearly impossible to disprove unless you search every corner of the space between the solar system and so I can say that it exists. Our situation is similar to that, in that the idea that ancient cultures had a concept similar to energy is hard to disprove. One the one hand, I have found nothing; on the other, there are still chances that I am completely wrong. I'm going to let the community judge this answer and its validity, but at the moment, my answer to the question is "No."
By the way, I'd love some positive and/or negative feedback here. This was an odd experiment for me, and I'm not sure how well it worked. | In ancient Indian texts like Vedas and puranas there are so called philosophies or concepts of energy. Actually vedas and puranas are considered as religious texts, but these texts contain many hidden facts and knowledge(I doubt how many of you agree with this statement. Some of the examples of science in [Vedas](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vedic_science) are, [Vedic mathematics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_mathematics#Vedic_period), [Astrology](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hindu_astrology), [Vasthushasthra](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vastu_shastra), [Yoga](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yoga) and many more ). It will be broad to compare the philosophies in Vedas and modern science energy theories in this small answer and also we need experts on both to verify them. Even though there are thousands of websites discussing the science in Vedas which also includes the comparison of energy concepts.
Let's check this example,
Atom bombs and thermonuclear bombs : powerful weapons which are practical examples of modern energy concept.
So was there an equivalent weapon concept anywhere in the world? Yes, there was and it was in Ancient India. See this [google search result](https://www.google.co.in/search?q=brahmasthra&oq=brahmasthra&aqs=chrome..69i57j69i60.3722j0j7&sourceid=chrome&es_sm=93&ie=UTF-8) and a quote from wikipedia is below.
>
> **Modern day Nuclear weapon and Brahmastra**
>
>
> **Robert Oppenheimer** (1904-1967) was a scientist, philosopher, bohemian, radical, fanatic of ancient Sanskrit literature,a theoretical physicist and the supervising scientist of the Manhattan Project, and most importantly, **the developer of the atomic bomb**. Seven years after the first successful atom bomb blast test in New Mexico (Trinity), Dr. Oppenheimer was giving a lecture at Rochester University. To the question **“Was the bomb exploded at Alamogordo during the Manhattan project the first one to be detonated?” he gave a strange reply “Well — yes. In modern times, of course.”** And as for Oppenheimer’s first words after the **detonation of the bomb** he quoted from Hindu epic Mahabharata , “If the radiance of a thousand suns were to burst at once into the sky, that would be like the splendor of the mighty one. Now, I am become Death, the destroyer of worlds.” (**Bhagavad Gita**)
>
>
>
The previous quote is for praising Lord Krishna when he displayed his real figure to Arjuna, and this has nothing to do with the energy concept. But we can conclude that Dr.Oppenheimer was familiar with the Bhagavat Gita and the book had it's influence on him which made him say those words from the book. (It is to be noted that, Bhagavat Gita includes messages in the middle of the Mahabharatha war. During this war people could have used the Brahmasthra, Pashupasthra or similar kind of weapons.)
>
> Most people agree that no human civilization before us had knowledge of atomic energy and its by-products. The atomic bomb is something completely novel to modern science. But we find in the Vedic literature descriptions of weapons that had a similar amount of energy as the atomic bombs we use today. “The atomic energy fissions the ninety-nine elements, covering its path by the bombardments of neutrons without let or hindrance. Desirous of stalking the head, i. e. the chief part of the swift power, hidden in the mass of molecular adjustments of the elements, this atomic energy approaches it in the very act of fissioning it by the above-noted bombardment. Herein, verily the scientists know the similar hidden striking force of the rays of the sun working in the orbit of the moon.” (Atharva-veda 20.41.1-3).[2](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_mathematics#Vedic_period)
>
>
>
See the full [wikipedia link](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brahmastra). From this link it can be understood that there were concepts like these before thousands of years ago in Vedas(which are older than 5000 years ago). Nobody added the Brahmasthra concept just to compare it with modern atom bombs, it was there in the ancient text and Hindu puranas discuss many of such weapons in different stories. Did these weapons used in ancient days? The verification is difficult but one thing is very much sure, the idea was there in these ancient Indian texts much earlier.
Many philosophical theories in Vedas and puranas are comparable with modern theories. The May be we all can wonder from where the so called modern energy concept was derived. The actual origin of the modern science energy concept could be from these ancient knowledge. Many scientists like Albert Einstein , Neils Bohr and Oppenheimer were admirers of these ideas and there would have been impact of these ideas in their thought process of deriving modern energy concepts(If there is a verification for the same, we can not actually call it 'modern energy concept', we should call it as just the 'Energy concepts').
Another [wiki link](http://en.wikiquote.org/wiki/Werner_Heisenberg) about Heisenberg who proposed uncertainty principle, see the following quote in the wiki link (not discussing the ideas which influenced him as I am not an expert in both subjects, also I was not present during that discussion:). Just mentioning to prove that such concepts had influenced scientists.)
>
> After these conversations with Tagore some of the ideas that had seemed so crazy suddenly made much more sense. That was a great help for me.
> On conversations with Rabindranath Tagore, as quoted in Uncommon Wisdom: Conversations With Remarkable People (1988) by Fritjof Capra, who states that after these "He began to see that the recognition of relativity, interconnectedness, and impermanence as fundamental aspects of physical reality, which had been so difficult for himself and his fellow physicists, was the very basis of the Indian spiritual traditions."
> Variant: After the conversations about Indian philosophy, some of the ideas of Quantum Physics that had seemed so crazy suddenly made much more sense.
>
>
>
Here are some basic links which I found in my search.
<https://cpdarshi.wordpress.com/2011/11/22/modern-physics-found-its-direction-from-vedanta/>
<http://www.krishnapath.org/quantum-physics-came-from-the-vedas-schrodinger-einstein-and-tesla-were-all-vedantists/>
<http://www.hinduwisdom.info/Advanced_Concepts.htm> |
501 | For example, do we find something related to the modern energy concept in Ancient China, Ancient India, or the Islamic Golden Age?
Among "similarities and differences", *conservation* is obviously important, as is *convertibility* and *variety of forms*.
If the word *energy* or a close cognate was *not* used, what is the justification for regarding it as a related concept? | 2014/11/17 | [
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/501",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com",
"https://hsm.stackexchange.com/users/48/"
] | **Etymology**
Quite a few [sources](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=energy) say that Aristotle was the progenitor of the term, after his use of *energeia* (a Latin transliteration of *ἐνέργεια*). However, [one source](http://www.eoht.info/page/Energy) notes that Heraclitus used a similar word, *en-ergon*, years prior. Heraclitus wrote:
>
> "En-ergon is the father of everything, king of all things and, out of it, all forms of contrast originate. Since ‘en-ergon’ is common to everything, it is vital for life itself.”
>
>
>
This was part of his aforementioned flux theory. However, like Aristotle's ideas, his concepts bear no relation to our modern usage of 'energy', and I doubt the two are related. It is worth noting, though, that Thomas Young's coinage of 'energy' in the early 19th century is thought to have been influenced by Aristotle's usage of *energeia*. This would mean that the two, while not the same idea, may be thought of as true cognates.
---
**Comparison**
I’m going to compare some ancient ideas and explain why they aren’t really precursors to our modern idea of ‘energy’. I suppose this is a "Too long; didn't read" summary; a lot of the other things are extraneous. Note: All information is taken from sources given later in the answer., unless otherwise indicated.
* **Qi:** This is occasionally miswritten as 'Qi energy', which is redundant. *Qi* is often translated as 'natural energy' or 'energy flow'; adding 'energy' to the end would be incorrect. Qi was the ancient Chinese idea of an all-permeating substance in every living creature. It was responsible for life living. Obviously, this is not 'energy' in the modern sense because it is not conserved (dead things have no Qi).
* **En-ergon and the [flux theory](http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/heraclitus/):** Heraclitus’ brainchild was the flux theory, which states (explained better [here](http://www.iep.utm.edu/h/heraclit.htm), but sometimes the page goes down and is inaccessible) that there is some substance that permeates all objects. The reason this isn’t ‘energy’ is that it is uniformly distributed – that is, an object sitting on the floor won’t necessarily have a different energy than an object rolling on a table.
* **Energeia/ἐνέργεια/potentiality and actuality:** This was Aristotle's idea. It comes nearer to energy than Heraclitus' ideas, but closer examination reveals major differences. For example, a tree always has potential - to become a wooden bowl! Likewise, a person has potential to be married. These are really just possibilities, not 'energy' found in objects. Aristotle's ideas are not much like modern scientific ideas of energy.
* **[Vitalism](http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/630920/vitalism):** This idea, apparently coming first from Aristotle and surviving for about two millennia, was similar to *Qi* - actually it was nearly identical - in that it was the idea of a 'life force'. According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitalism), it gained the support of eminent scientists such as Jöns Jacob Berzelius, one of the foremost figures in 19th century chemistry.
* **[Vis viva](http://philoscience.unibe.ch/documents/MaterialFS11/PS-Leibniz11/SmithG2006Vis.pdf):** This really isn't part of the list, but it's a true precursor to energy, and worthy of discussion. The term *vis viva* was coined by Leibniz in the 17th century, to describe the "living energy" (*vis viva* is Latin) of a moving object. This truly was a precursor to kinetic energy, and I'm actually a bit surprised that our 'energy' isn't actually a lingual descendant of *vis viva*.
---
After a week or so of research, I found just about nothing that directly confirms or denies the possibility presented in the question. Zip. Zero. Nada. I've gotten the only null result I've ever gotten in 4 months when researching an answer. It's frustrating, but it's a bit helpful, because it taught me that there are some things that you may never know, no matter how hard you try to find them.
Back to the null result. The question asked whether or not any non-European, ancient cultures came up with something related to our modern concept of energy. The answer, as far as I can tell, is that nothing of the sort existed before a few centuries ago.
If you'll pardon this little detour, I'll talk about Europe first. As fdb hit upon, Aristotle is often cited as the creator of a concept similar to energy. I discussed it in [this answer](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/485/who-invented-the-concepts-of-potential-and-kinetic-energy/487#487). The problem is (which I should have expanded upon), [actuality and potentiality](http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/aristotle-metaphysics/#ActPot) were philosophical ideas. Sure, loose interpretations could make them seem similar to the "energy" of today, but they were quite different from our modern concept. By Aristotle's logic, a tree resting at what we would call a reference point (i.e. where potential energy is 0) would still have potential - the potential to become a wooden bowl!
Next, we go to Gottfried Leibniz and [the idea of *vis viva*](http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/228997?uid=3739808&uid=2&uid=4&uid=3739256&sid=21105322432993) (behind a paywall and/or registration, but the free first page should give you an idea of what I'm talking about). He argued that a moving object was imbued with some sort of quantity. This could be interpreted as either kinetic energy or momentum, and in fact there was a dispute over this. We might also say that [Descartes was also involved](http://philoscience.unibe.ch/documents/MaterialFS11/PS-Leibniz11/SmithG2006Vis.pdf). Nevertheless, 350-ish years ago, there was some idea (in Europe) that a quantity in moving object was conserved.
Going to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Energy#History) (a short and mostly irrelevant detour, I assure you), we find that the term "energy" (and then "potential energy" and "kinetic energy") was not coined until the early 19th century, by a few separate scientists working on the idea. At this point, we may consider the concept of energy (in its modern incarnation) to have been born. If you're fine with Wikipedia, you can read more [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_energy).
---
Try a few searches (duckduckgo is my engine of choice) on the internet. I recommend the following:
* History of energy
* History of energy concept
* Energy concept
* Energy ancient [culture]
* Discovery of energy
* Energy ancient science concept
. . . and many more. All turn up results either about energy generation or (once or twice) crank sites about weird life-force ideas that are decidedly kooky. I was not able, in fact, to get a *single mention* of ancient cultures when it came to the concept of energy. This is pretty bad, because a result of "No, there was no idea of energy in ancient cultures" would be definitive. Here, there is nothing.
The one exception I found was from [this site](http://www.visionlearning.com/en/library/Physics/24/Energy/46), which gave the completely following (no sources were cited):
>
> Ancient cultures associated fire with all forms of energy, and the Greek philosopher Heraclitus (~500 BCE) explained everything in the universe in terms of energy. In the centuries that followed, many scientists proposed theories to explain the concept of energy, but few shed any true light on the subject.
>
>
>
Unfortunately, the "ancient cultures" are nowhere to be found. Go ahead a couple hyperlinks to [this](http://www.iep.utm.edu/heraclit/) page. Heraclitus' flux theory is mildly interesting but not too relevant. Further down, we see hints of something along the lines of conservation of mass, but it goes nowhere. The knowledge that [Aristotle](http://www.iep.utm.edu/aristotl/) disagreed with him leads me to believe that there is no hope of a connection between the two.
Just for fun, I went to [the Wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qi) on Qi. The on thing that caught my eye was this sentence:
>
> Notions in the West of energeia, élan vital, or "vitalism" are purported to be similar.
>
>
>
Going to the pages listed reveal nothing of any importance (and none of the ideas are *anything* like our modern idea of energy), but the fact that Aristotle is listed nearby further convinces me that his work is not really scientific.
One last stop. Many searches brought me [here](http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1877042809004704), where the author (see the PDF link on the upper left; I've had a hard time copying it here) claims that Joule and Mayer were the originators of the idea of energy. It seems like they certainly made some empirical investigations, but the ideas of Descartes and company seem to predate these men.
I'll end with [Bertrand Russell](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand_Russell). For those who don't know, [Russell's Teapot](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell's_teapot) is the idea that the burden of proof is on the claimant. I could say that there is a teapot floating between the Earth and Mars; it's nearly impossible to disprove unless you search every corner of the space between the solar system and so I can say that it exists. Our situation is similar to that, in that the idea that ancient cultures had a concept similar to energy is hard to disprove. One the one hand, I have found nothing; on the other, there are still chances that I am completely wrong. I'm going to let the community judge this answer and its validity, but at the moment, my answer to the question is "No."
By the way, I'd love some positive and/or negative feedback here. This was an odd experiment for me, and I'm not sure how well it worked. | Weight is an old concept related to energy that was discussed both in [not-so-Ancient China](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wang_Fuzhi), [Ancient India](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jain_philosophy), or the [Islamic Golden Age](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nasir_al-Din_al-Tusi).
It meets each and every of your criteria :
* Conservation of weight: the belief appeared in all of these cultures that weight was to be conserved on a global scale. ("Pudgala" for the Jain, just "matter" of al-Tusi)
* Convertibility was widely observed, at least by Golden Age alchimists.
* As weight and matter where often considered as the same thing, convertibility was often discussed. In a funny way, the same error that was made with energy ("efficiency of the conversion") is found in discussion of weight.
* The cognate used had nothing to do with energy (except for chinese's "Qi", or the "fire/air element"). What makes me believe there is a link are recent (20th century) development of "Conservation of mass-energy", making mass and energy closely related if not fundamentally identical concepts.
I will document this answer latter as I lack knowledge of Ancient China and Ancient India, but I'm sure I can document most aspects for the three given civilisations. |
29,092 | I am looking for a tool (Python library etc.) that would allow me to edit a file geodatabase without Esri software?
It is possible? | 2012/07/08 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/29092",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/7172/"
] | [GDAL/OGR](http://www.gdal.org/ogr/) has [python bindings](http://trac.osgeo.org/gdal/browser/trunk/gdal/swig/python/osgeo/ogr.py) and a [FileGDB driver](http://www.gdal.org/ogr/drv_filegdb.html), but it requires the FileGDB API SDK from ESRI (not free, but AFAIK free of charge). | As wrote before + The File Geodatabase must be created in ArcGIS 10(+). File GDB's created using ArcGIS 9.X are NOT supported.
Also it is possible with Qgis with the mentioned library - well I only opened the file, didn't try to edit - more here: [File Geodatabase (\*.gdb) support in QGIS?](https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/26285/how-to-get-gdb-esri-file-geodatabase-support-in-quantum-gis-osgeo4w-qgis)
(I wanted to wrote this as comment to previous answer but I don't see any link "add comment") |
29,092 | I am looking for a tool (Python library etc.) that would allow me to edit a file geodatabase without Esri software?
It is possible? | 2012/07/08 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/29092",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/7172/"
] | [GDAL/OGR](http://www.gdal.org/ogr/) has [python bindings](http://trac.osgeo.org/gdal/browser/trunk/gdal/swig/python/osgeo/ogr.py) and a [FileGDB driver](http://www.gdal.org/ogr/drv_filegdb.html), but it requires the FileGDB API SDK from ESRI (not free, but AFAIK free of charge). | You could utilize my Python wrapper for the File Geodatabase API.
Read about it here:
<http://libjoe.blogspot.com/2014/02/python-wrapper-for-esri-file.html>
I also started an open source project for it:
<https://code.google.com/p/file-geodatabase-api-python-wrapper/> |
29,092 | I am looking for a tool (Python library etc.) that would allow me to edit a file geodatabase without Esri software?
It is possible? | 2012/07/08 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/29092",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/7172/"
] | You could utilize my Python wrapper for the File Geodatabase API.
Read about it here:
<http://libjoe.blogspot.com/2014/02/python-wrapper-for-esri-file.html>
I also started an open source project for it:
<https://code.google.com/p/file-geodatabase-api-python-wrapper/> | As wrote before + The File Geodatabase must be created in ArcGIS 10(+). File GDB's created using ArcGIS 9.X are NOT supported.
Also it is possible with Qgis with the mentioned library - well I only opened the file, didn't try to edit - more here: [File Geodatabase (\*.gdb) support in QGIS?](https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/26285/how-to-get-gdb-esri-file-geodatabase-support-in-quantum-gis-osgeo4w-qgis)
(I wanted to wrote this as comment to previous answer but I don't see any link "add comment") |
66,251 | When applying for the visa, there were a lot of complicated explanations about where not to go. What does it mean in practice?
Can I drive around in Russia anywhere I want? Or are there *legal* limitations? For example, if I want to do day-trips from St. Petersburg to wherever in the countryside, is that allowed? Can I go in any hotel I find anywhere?
I know this sounds a bit silly, as in other countries this is an obvious 'yes', but as i said, in the Visa application, there was a lot of fine print about not going anywhere else than my visa was applied/given for (however, the visa has no text on it with locations limitations).
[this question is not about my security while doing that, but about legally being allowed to] | 2016/04/07 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/66251",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/37993/"
] | Here's my understanding (based on lots of Russian travel): You can legally explore anywhere in Russia, except keep the following in mind:
1) Don't forget about registration requirements. If you're moving around a lot, this is likely a non-issue, but keep all your bus/train tickets, etc. If you're using a central hub city for radial day-trips, register in the hub city.
2) "Closed cities": Some cities require a permit to get into (typically ones with sensitive military-related industry). I don't know whether it's possible to get a permit unless you e.g. have a close relative there. Some cities (e.g. many cities in the north of Krasnoyarsk Krai) are closed only to foreigners, so locals may not know they're "closed". There's a list here: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Closed_city#Russia>
3) Border areas. Unless you're in the process of legally crossing the border via an official crossing point, you need a border area permit to be there. The permit is possible to get but takes a long time (around 2 months). Note that in some areas (e.g. in the Arctic) some areas may be defined as "border areas" despite being thousands of kilometers from the actual border.
4) Due to recent political tensions, I would STRONGLY advise to stay away from anything that is even remotely related to the military or any sensitive industry, especially if you're carrying a camera, GPS-capable phone, etc. Also, stay well away from any remote place with especially luxurious houses / "dachas" that appear to be well-guarded.
5) Some nature reserves have areas that are forbidden to enter (or forbidden to enter without a special permit) for reasons of nature conservation. These are usually marked.
With all that said, seeing the little remote villages of "real Russia" can be very fun and rewarding! | Yes, it's a completely legal, if you aren't going to visit the restricted areas such as closed cities near the border and so on. And if you're asking, then you'll definitely see the warning signs near them, so you shouldn't be afraid of breaking some local law.
However, you should check the questions I've linked in comments as there are a couple of advises how to deal with registration issues. If you are going to stay in a hotel at night, it would be better to create a reservation, as the service isn't always be prepared for a visitor, unfortunately. Also the language barrier could be a problem for some places, so you should check for the English speakers at the place you're going to stay in.
Major restricting road signs you should be aware of:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bh0pc.jpg)
There is a control point ahead on the road
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FEfIO.jpg)
There is a danger zone ahead on the road
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qVeLi.gif)
There is a road police checkpoint ahead on the road. You can try to gather some information there, but be careful and don't let them achieve your documents.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SInE3.jpg)
You can't go without a stop the vehicle. If you meet this sign somewhere not near the railroad, you've probably got near the restricted zone, and you should get the directions as soon as possible.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lmyQI.gif)
A [STOP-line](https://travel.stackexchange.com/a/48016/19) :) |
209,412 | Does the windows 7 backup system version the files? Or does it just backup and erase the old set of files?
Can I set it to backup every hour? Does it only backup the changes in files, or erase them all and save them again? | 2010/11/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/209412",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/35269/"
] | >
> Does the windows 7 backup system
> version the files?
>
>
>
Yes, if system protection is turned on.
>
> Or does it just backup and erase the
> old set of files?
>
>
>
Not sure exactly what you mean here.
>
> Can I set it to backup every hour?
>
>
>
Yes.
>
> Does it only backup the changes in
> files, or erase them all and save them
> again?
>
>
>
Only the files you change are updated, backups of the other files already exist from the previous restore point.
**I think all of these questions are answered in more detail [here](http://windows.microsoft.com/en-US/windows7/Previous-versions-of-files-frequently-asked-questions).** | It does do incremental backups, so there may be multiple copies of a single file. When a something is changed, the entire file is saved again in the next backup. |
209,412 | Does the windows 7 backup system version the files? Or does it just backup and erase the old set of files?
Can I set it to backup every hour? Does it only backup the changes in files, or erase them all and save them again? | 2010/11/10 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/209412",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/35269/"
] | >
> Does the windows 7 backup system
> version the files?
>
>
>
Yes, if system protection is turned on.
>
> Or does it just backup and erase the
> old set of files?
>
>
>
Not sure exactly what you mean here.
>
> Can I set it to backup every hour?
>
>
>
Yes.
>
> Does it only backup the changes in
> files, or erase them all and save them
> again?
>
>
>
Only the files you change are updated, backups of the other files already exist from the previous restore point.
**I think all of these questions are answered in more detail [here](http://windows.microsoft.com/en-US/windows7/Previous-versions-of-files-frequently-asked-questions).** | this article should help answer your question: <http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/windowsbackup/thread/c200e540-b36d-40c8-9957-690d447dbef9>
Also: (Answer provided by A Dwarf (6,504) From this question [Does built in Windows 7 backup perform differential (incremental) backups?](https://superuser.com/questions/60554/does-built-in-windows-7-backup-perform-differential-incremental-backups))
**Windows 7 Backup is a block based file backup.**
This means each block in a file is examined and if a duplicate already exists on the last backup, and this is the important bit, even if from a different file, that block is not saved. Quite good :)
The first backup is always a full backup. The following backups will only save changed blocks. Disadvantage is you cannot manage your backups individually |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | It is obviously good practice to let the user know when they are using the internet as such activities involve the use of money. Its more of an ethics thing than convention. | **You should always show the network activity indicator whenever the internet is been accessed**. Your app's users should always be indicated if the app is currently using their internet connection. *Man! Don't cheat your beloved customers. Its a sin. May God bless you!* ;-) |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | It is obviously good practice to let the user know when they are using the internet as such activities involve the use of money. Its more of an ethics thing than convention. | I would always show the user the internet or connection activity. As stated before you have to keep in mind that data plans do cost money. And have a connection means consuming exactly that money.
The activity symbol is no big deal and it even does not disturb the interaction of the app. So there is no reason why NOT to use the activity indicator. |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | Apple's own iWork apps don't use the network activity indicator, even though they are constantly uploading the changes to the server.
I think that if the user is clearly aware that the app accesses the internet (i.e. they explicitly allowed it), there is no need to show the indicator for every *small* network operation.
It is intended for indicating that a larger amount (>100kb) of data is being uploaded/downloaded, and keeping the user informed, that the app is still working.
If you just think of iCloud as an example, I think it would be very annoying to continuously see the network activity indicator spinning. | You should always let the user know if anything is going on.
Just for the sake of letting the waiting time appear shorter than it actually is.
And it just looks nice. |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | You should always let the user know if anything is going on.
Just for the sake of letting the waiting time appear shorter than it actually is.
And it just looks nice. | I would always show the user the internet or connection activity. As stated before you have to keep in mind that data plans do cost money. And have a connection means consuming exactly that money.
The activity symbol is no big deal and it even does not disturb the interaction of the app. So there is no reason why NOT to use the activity indicator. |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | As usual a look into the HIG and the documentation is useful.
This is what apple [says](http://developer.apple.com/library/iOS/#documentation/UserExperience/Conceptual/MobileHIG/UIElementGuidelines/UIElementGuidelines.html#//apple_ref/doc/uid/TP40006556-CH13-SW44) about the network activity indicator.
>
> Guidelines
>
>
> Display the network activity indicator to provide feedback when your
> application accesses the network for more than a couple of seconds. If
> the operation finishes sooner than that, you don’t have to show the
> network activity indicator, because the indicator would be likely to
> disappear before users notice its presence.
>
>
> | **You should always show the network activity indicator whenever the internet is been accessed**. Your app's users should always be indicated if the app is currently using their internet connection. *Man! Don't cheat your beloved customers. Its a sin. May God bless you!* ;-) |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | As usual a look into the HIG and the documentation is useful.
This is what apple [says](http://developer.apple.com/library/iOS/#documentation/UserExperience/Conceptual/MobileHIG/UIElementGuidelines/UIElementGuidelines.html#//apple_ref/doc/uid/TP40006556-CH13-SW44) about the network activity indicator.
>
> Guidelines
>
>
> Display the network activity indicator to provide feedback when your
> application accesses the network for more than a couple of seconds. If
> the operation finishes sooner than that, you don’t have to show the
> network activity indicator, because the indicator would be likely to
> disappear before users notice its presence.
>
>
> | You should always let the user know if anything is going on.
Just for the sake of letting the waiting time appear shorter than it actually is.
And it just looks nice. |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | Apple's own iWork apps don't use the network activity indicator, even though they are constantly uploading the changes to the server.
I think that if the user is clearly aware that the app accesses the internet (i.e. they explicitly allowed it), there is no need to show the indicator for every *small* network operation.
It is intended for indicating that a larger amount (>100kb) of data is being uploaded/downloaded, and keeping the user informed, that the app is still working.
If you just think of iCloud as an example, I think it would be very annoying to continuously see the network activity indicator spinning. | It is obviously good practice to let the user know when they are using the internet as such activities involve the use of money. Its more of an ethics thing than convention. |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | It is obviously good practice to let the user know when they are using the internet as such activities involve the use of money. Its more of an ethics thing than convention. | The HIGs state the following:
>
> When appropriate, display the network activity indicator. The network activity indicator can appear in the status bar to show users that lengthy network access is occurring. To learn how to implement this indicator in your code, see “Network Activity Indicator.”
>
>
>
And
>
> Display the network activity indicator to provide feedback when your application accesses the network for more than a couple of seconds. If the operation finishes sooner than that, you don’t have to show the network activity indicator, because the indicator would be likely to disappear before users notice its presence.
>
>
>
I would probably not show the activity indicator, because it is no "lengthy" network access.
[Apple Documentation](http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/UserExperience/Conceptual/MobileHIG/UIElementGuidelines/UIElementGuidelines.html#//apple_ref/doc/uid/TP40006556-CH13-SW1) |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | You should always let the user know if anything is going on.
Just for the sake of letting the waiting time appear shorter than it actually is.
And it just looks nice. | **You should always show the network activity indicator whenever the internet is been accessed**. Your app's users should always be indicated if the app is currently using their internet connection. *Man! Don't cheat your beloved customers. Its a sin. May God bless you!* ;-) |
7,091,551 | I have just started including networking functionality into my apps. I know that you should use the network activity indicator when the user is actively waiting for something, but what about if it was just a subtle background communication with the server (in my case, just to update a value) - is it still good practice to let the user know that your app is connecting to the internet?
This is something I find interesting about the iOS platform - that it lets its developers tell the users whether or not the internet is being used.
**UPDATE**: In this specific case I'm downloading a text file which is 4 chars long!! | 2011/08/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7091551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/840973/"
] | Apple's own iWork apps don't use the network activity indicator, even though they are constantly uploading the changes to the server.
I think that if the user is clearly aware that the app accesses the internet (i.e. they explicitly allowed it), there is no need to show the indicator for every *small* network operation.
It is intended for indicating that a larger amount (>100kb) of data is being uploaded/downloaded, and keeping the user informed, that the app is still working.
If you just think of iCloud as an example, I think it would be very annoying to continuously see the network activity indicator spinning. | **You should always show the network activity indicator whenever the internet is been accessed**. Your app's users should always be indicated if the app is currently using their internet connection. *Man! Don't cheat your beloved customers. Its a sin. May God bless you!* ;-) |
25,154 | Is it possible and are there cases where patents have been granted even though there is prior art that describes the same invention? Do these patent grants have to be reverted when someone finds prior art describing the same invention after the patent opposition period? | 2023/02/11 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/25154",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/28404/"
] | There are different procedures in various jurisdictions. In no place I have heard it is automatic or easy. Until the 2012 AIA law in the US patents could only be invalidated in a court process that involved an alleged infringement.
Now there is a way for any party to challenge the validity of an issued patent based on prior art through an administrative, court-like process. It is still relatively expensive. | In Europe, usually each lawsuit for patent infringement against a third party is responded to with an invalidity counterclaim. It is fairly common to see patents being revoked in Court.
In the case of European patents, once the patent has issued, third parties are allowed to file an opposition with the European Patent Office in an attempt to limit the scope of the patent or revoke it entirely. Unlike in the US, the cost of opposition before the EPO is relatively low. The filing of oppositions is not so uncommon. See for example the [EPO's calendar of oral proceedings](https://www.epo.org/applying/online-services/proceedings/calendar.html?), each day there are 10 to 20 oppositions in average. |
4,297,552 | I just received some artist rendered images of my Delphi Pro 6 application that I will use to overhaul the look and feel of it. The problem is of course that my application, like any other Delphi application, uses the VCL custom control library and those controls paint themselves and in a way that frequently isn't conducive to altering their look and feel. I also make heavy use of the open source JEDI JVCL library too.
If anyone out there has a some tips, articles, web pages or anything that talk about working from an image to reskin or overhaul a Delphi 6 application, I would appreciate knowing about it. It's a big application with tons of complex TFrame descendants and a heavy use of the JEDI VCL page control so switching over to a brand new component library isn't practical.
One idea I had that I have not tried out yet is to take each top level form and nestle it in another TForm by changing the current form's Parent property to the new TForm and setting the AlphaBlend property of the current form so that it is transparent. Then I'd set the new shell or host TForm's background to an image containing the new look and feel so that it bled through the transparent form. That approach seems kind of kludgy and I worry about resizing issues but that's the kind of technique that I'm wondering if is usable. | 2010/11/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4297552",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2561452/"
] | Use a skinning library like VCLSkin or DevExpress Skins. | It sounds like your UI and business logic are tightly coupled. Its pretty common among RAD style development projects. You would do well to break this coupling. One of the many [UI architectural patterns](http://martinfowler.com/eaaDev/uiArchs.html) will help with this. I prefer [MVP Passive View](http://martinfowler.com/eaaDev/PassiveScreen.html) whenever possible as it moves all logic out of the UI into classes which can be tested in isolation. One of the other patterns may be more appropriate depending on the architecture of your application.
I'll be blunt. Decoupling the UI in an existing application is a tedious and sometimes difficult process. The payoff comes when you can freely change the UI with minimal changes to the logic behind it. |
4,297,552 | I just received some artist rendered images of my Delphi Pro 6 application that I will use to overhaul the look and feel of it. The problem is of course that my application, like any other Delphi application, uses the VCL custom control library and those controls paint themselves and in a way that frequently isn't conducive to altering their look and feel. I also make heavy use of the open source JEDI JVCL library too.
If anyone out there has a some tips, articles, web pages or anything that talk about working from an image to reskin or overhaul a Delphi 6 application, I would appreciate knowing about it. It's a big application with tons of complex TFrame descendants and a heavy use of the JEDI VCL page control so switching over to a brand new component library isn't practical.
One idea I had that I have not tried out yet is to take each top level form and nestle it in another TForm by changing the current form's Parent property to the new TForm and setting the AlphaBlend property of the current form so that it is transparent. Then I'd set the new shell or host TForm's background to an image containing the new look and feel so that it bled through the transparent form. That approach seems kind of kludgy and I worry about resizing issues but that's the kind of technique that I'm wondering if is usable. | 2010/11/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4297552",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2561452/"
] | Almost all skin-engines have their own skin-editors. So you just need to peek one (Chris Thornton have not mentioned AlphaControls and DynamicSkinForm). Then you need to give your artist that skin-editor, and ask him to redraw his skin with that tool. | It sounds like your UI and business logic are tightly coupled. Its pretty common among RAD style development projects. You would do well to break this coupling. One of the many [UI architectural patterns](http://martinfowler.com/eaaDev/uiArchs.html) will help with this. I prefer [MVP Passive View](http://martinfowler.com/eaaDev/PassiveScreen.html) whenever possible as it moves all logic out of the UI into classes which can be tested in isolation. One of the other patterns may be more appropriate depending on the architecture of your application.
I'll be blunt. Decoupling the UI in an existing application is a tedious and sometimes difficult process. The payoff comes when you can freely change the UI with minimal changes to the logic behind it. |
72,304 | Daniel Chap 8 always confused me. The last (4th) Beast was detailed in Chap 7 and the former 3rd beast detailed in Chap 8. Both detailed beasts had a little horn coming up later but from different scenarios of previous horns.
However Chap 8 explains the 3rd Empire (Chap 7 Leopard) instead as a Goat and in more detail. It's little horn rises out of 4 horns (Generals) taking over (per history) Alexander the Great's empire (at his death). But this little horn isn't said to subdue any previous horns but rather it waxed exceeding great to the south, east, and pleasant land. If one examines history the first sections of Chap 8 seems to be about the Seleucid Empire's Antiochus Epiphanes IV.
But the latter part of Chap 8 also seems to go beyond Seleucid's Epiphanes IV and details more in line with the timeline and happenstance of the 4th (final) beast of Chap 7(?). Other than this said implicit latter section expansion Chap 8 does not specifically mention the 4th beast empire included Daniel Chap 7.
The Seleucid Empire encompassed a good fraction of the same area as the Eastern Roman (4th beast) Empire. But it's confusing to see the little horn out of the 4 horns go on in the latter section of Chap 8 to sound synonymous with the little horn of the Chap 7's 4th beast which subdued 3 of it's previous 10 horns.
Unless Chap 8 is not referring to the 4th beast at all (timeline or premise) and verse 11 is referencing Israel of Christ's earthly time. And verse 23's latter time is referencing the same? I.e. making Chap 7 more about the end of the times of the Gentiles and Chap 8 more about the cutting off of the messiah and Israel being scattered until the last days? | 2019/09/06 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/72304",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/46498/"
] | The beasts are distinct and each one is figuratively representing an different empire and period of history. The little horn of the third beast is often considered to have been Antiochus Epiphane, a historcal ruler if the Hellenic (Greek) period. His actions are related in the book of Maccabees.
The little horn of the fourth beast is related to the Roman Empire. Its interpretation is varied. Some link it to the antichrist, an singularly evil person who will appear near the end of the world. Others connect it to historical figures, including the papacy, napoleon, and Hitler. Interesting articles are available online on this topic:
>
> To clear up some known confusion: let us look at another horn
> mentioned in chapter 8. It will help you to read the whole chapter,
> but we are not going to now. We will start in verse 9, and read a few
> verses to get this horn. Daniel saw a goat which had a great horn
> between his eyes, and this he goat (Greece) was very great, but there
> came a time when his great horn was broken, and for it four notable
> ones came up, and out of one of them came forth a little horn, which
> waxed exceedingly great toward the south, and toward the east, and
> toward the pleasant land (ISRAEL). This little horn magnified himself,
> and by him the daily sacrifice of the Jews was taken away, and the
> truth was cast down to the ground, and the horn practiced and
> prospered. Go to verse 13, “Then I heard one saint speaking, and
> another saint said unto that certain saint which spake, How long shall
> be the vision concerning the daily sacrifice, and the transgression of
> desolation, to give both the sanctuary and the host to be trodden
> under foot?” Now I know that sounds just like what we know about the
> Antichrist, what he will do in that seventieth week of Daniel, over in
> the great tribulation, but remember, the Antichrist only has 1,200
> days allotted to him to do this, and then notice the answer given here
> in verse 14, “And he said unto me, Unto two thousand and three hundred
> days; (2,300) then shall the sanctuary be cleansed.” That is, without
> any doubt whatsoever, speaking of Antiochus Epiphanes, that horn of
> Syria which came out of the break up of the Grecian empire. But as you
> read on throughout this chapter, verses 24 & 25, which actually are
> speaking of the Antichrist, have caused some scholars to believe it is
> still referring to the horn of verse 9. That simply is a reference to
> show that this same spirit of Satan rested on those forerunning types
> of the wicked one who is yet to come. You will notice in verse 25,
> that this one stands up against the Prince of princes, which could be
> none other than Jesus Christ himself, and we know that Antiochus has
> never, and will never stand up against Jesus Christ in mortal flesh.
> It is only that the same spirit of destruction and desolation that was
> in Antiochus will also be in the Antichrist, the son of perdition.
> Some have looked at these verses and said, the Antichrist will come
> out of Syria. Others try to put these scriptures together, and they
> come up with the idea that he will be an apostle Jew. No! He will be a
> Roman. We will show you, in chapter 9, that the Antichrist must be a
> prince of the Romans. - <https://www.fachurch.org/1980/07/21/publications/contenders/bro-raymond-jackson/the-abomination-that-maketh-desolate-part-1/>
>
>
> | There is another postion that can be taken regarding the difficulty in explaining Daniel 7-8. It would be that all interpretations to date are insufficient, or grossly in error.
Here is where I would point back to the beginning of creation, because I would contend there are under- appreciated elements involved in the creation. This oversight results in continuous errors in interpretation. This is essentially a spatially disorienting condition. ( I am reluctant to say geographical)
1. Reality is composed of Heaven and Earth. These are two worlds.
2. A firmanent (raquiya) is created to preform a function. It divides those things above from below. It makes a third component to the nature of reality. Heaven is plural, not one.
3. Overlooked in Gen 2:1 is not only the plurality of Worlds, but plurality of host. It does not number them as two, but a plurality of types. How many exist is not stated.
Daniel 7 opens with the prophet's description of the four winds of heaven. This is not appreciated in importance, when in fact it is foundational to what follows. The four winds are real and functional, not merely existing. They are not ethereal, they are persons. While discribed as four, that may be four divisions, not a sum total. When Solomon constructed the molten sea, it rested on four groups of three oxen. Earlier, the laver rested on some type of stand or base.
4. The Great Sea is not the Meditereanian Sea. It is the raqiya. It's location is Heaven, and the earthly symbols of oxen represent real life spirits, with assigned duties.
5. The functioning of the raqiya, results in actions taking place on Earth. This is causality from a location, separated from the finale outcome.
Previously in Daniel 4, Nebuchadnezzar described watchers. They have assigned oversight duties of the lower World. In Dan 10, we are told of princes, but not whether prince and watcher, are one and the same. Watchers can apperently " come down," a function no different then angel as described by Jacob at Bethel.
Prince is not described in terms of decent. Prince and elohym, may be one and the same. The number of elohym is never said, but may be over seventy.
When Satan makes appearances in Job, he stands among the elohym, or what is also called sons of God.
My conclusion is the activity taking place, is easily overlooked, and the focus is placed on historical identification of the components of Daniel 7. Doctrinal positions are being read back into the story.
The primary point of my theory is a type of multi-party war will break out in Heaven. Understanding it's location, is necessary to progress towards determining what is being contested. |
72,304 | Daniel Chap 8 always confused me. The last (4th) Beast was detailed in Chap 7 and the former 3rd beast detailed in Chap 8. Both detailed beasts had a little horn coming up later but from different scenarios of previous horns.
However Chap 8 explains the 3rd Empire (Chap 7 Leopard) instead as a Goat and in more detail. It's little horn rises out of 4 horns (Generals) taking over (per history) Alexander the Great's empire (at his death). But this little horn isn't said to subdue any previous horns but rather it waxed exceeding great to the south, east, and pleasant land. If one examines history the first sections of Chap 8 seems to be about the Seleucid Empire's Antiochus Epiphanes IV.
But the latter part of Chap 8 also seems to go beyond Seleucid's Epiphanes IV and details more in line with the timeline and happenstance of the 4th (final) beast of Chap 7(?). Other than this said implicit latter section expansion Chap 8 does not specifically mention the 4th beast empire included Daniel Chap 7.
The Seleucid Empire encompassed a good fraction of the same area as the Eastern Roman (4th beast) Empire. But it's confusing to see the little horn out of the 4 horns go on in the latter section of Chap 8 to sound synonymous with the little horn of the Chap 7's 4th beast which subdued 3 of it's previous 10 horns.
Unless Chap 8 is not referring to the 4th beast at all (timeline or premise) and verse 11 is referencing Israel of Christ's earthly time. And verse 23's latter time is referencing the same? I.e. making Chap 7 more about the end of the times of the Gentiles and Chap 8 more about the cutting off of the messiah and Israel being scattered until the last days? | 2019/09/06 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/72304",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/46498/"
] | The beasts are distinct and each one is figuratively representing an different empire and period of history. The little horn of the third beast is often considered to have been Antiochus Epiphane, a historcal ruler if the Hellenic (Greek) period. His actions are related in the book of Maccabees.
The little horn of the fourth beast is related to the Roman Empire. Its interpretation is varied. Some link it to the antichrist, an singularly evil person who will appear near the end of the world. Others connect it to historical figures, including the papacy, napoleon, and Hitler. Interesting articles are available online on this topic:
>
> To clear up some known confusion: let us look at another horn
> mentioned in chapter 8. It will help you to read the whole chapter,
> but we are not going to now. We will start in verse 9, and read a few
> verses to get this horn. Daniel saw a goat which had a great horn
> between his eyes, and this he goat (Greece) was very great, but there
> came a time when his great horn was broken, and for it four notable
> ones came up, and out of one of them came forth a little horn, which
> waxed exceedingly great toward the south, and toward the east, and
> toward the pleasant land (ISRAEL). This little horn magnified himself,
> and by him the daily sacrifice of the Jews was taken away, and the
> truth was cast down to the ground, and the horn practiced and
> prospered. Go to verse 13, “Then I heard one saint speaking, and
> another saint said unto that certain saint which spake, How long shall
> be the vision concerning the daily sacrifice, and the transgression of
> desolation, to give both the sanctuary and the host to be trodden
> under foot?” Now I know that sounds just like what we know about the
> Antichrist, what he will do in that seventieth week of Daniel, over in
> the great tribulation, but remember, the Antichrist only has 1,200
> days allotted to him to do this, and then notice the answer given here
> in verse 14, “And he said unto me, Unto two thousand and three hundred
> days; (2,300) then shall the sanctuary be cleansed.” That is, without
> any doubt whatsoever, speaking of Antiochus Epiphanes, that horn of
> Syria which came out of the break up of the Grecian empire. But as you
> read on throughout this chapter, verses 24 & 25, which actually are
> speaking of the Antichrist, have caused some scholars to believe it is
> still referring to the horn of verse 9. That simply is a reference to
> show that this same spirit of Satan rested on those forerunning types
> of the wicked one who is yet to come. You will notice in verse 25,
> that this one stands up against the Prince of princes, which could be
> none other than Jesus Christ himself, and we know that Antiochus has
> never, and will never stand up against Jesus Christ in mortal flesh.
> It is only that the same spirit of destruction and desolation that was
> in Antiochus will also be in the Antichrist, the son of perdition.
> Some have looked at these verses and said, the Antichrist will come
> out of Syria. Others try to put these scriptures together, and they
> come up with the idea that he will be an apostle Jew. No! He will be a
> Roman. We will show you, in chapter 9, that the Antichrist must be a
> prince of the Romans. - <https://www.fachurch.org/1980/07/21/publications/contenders/bro-raymond-jackson/the-abomination-that-maketh-desolate-part-1/>
>
>
> | Daniel 7 and Daniel 8 both present two little horns. The Bible clearly points out that a horn represents a king or kingdom therefore each little horn represents exactly that.
The little horn of Daniel 7 arises among the 10 horns on the beast i.e. among 10 kingdoms. However, the little horn of Daniel 8 arises among the 4 horns that replace the one notable horn.
Daniel 7 presents 10 European nations and the political-religious entity known as the papacy (little horn).
Daniel 8 presents 4 nations that arise out of Alexander's empire. Out of one of them comes a little horn....a religious-political entity.....ISLAM.
Thus, the Bible clearly presents the two religious groups that will dominate the world at tge time of the end. Each has a "holy day" before or after the Sabbath day. Each persecuted saints of God... still do today and will still do even more soon.
Each will oppose Jesus Christ at his coming.
Check it out. |
72,304 | Daniel Chap 8 always confused me. The last (4th) Beast was detailed in Chap 7 and the former 3rd beast detailed in Chap 8. Both detailed beasts had a little horn coming up later but from different scenarios of previous horns.
However Chap 8 explains the 3rd Empire (Chap 7 Leopard) instead as a Goat and in more detail. It's little horn rises out of 4 horns (Generals) taking over (per history) Alexander the Great's empire (at his death). But this little horn isn't said to subdue any previous horns but rather it waxed exceeding great to the south, east, and pleasant land. If one examines history the first sections of Chap 8 seems to be about the Seleucid Empire's Antiochus Epiphanes IV.
But the latter part of Chap 8 also seems to go beyond Seleucid's Epiphanes IV and details more in line with the timeline and happenstance of the 4th (final) beast of Chap 7(?). Other than this said implicit latter section expansion Chap 8 does not specifically mention the 4th beast empire included Daniel Chap 7.
The Seleucid Empire encompassed a good fraction of the same area as the Eastern Roman (4th beast) Empire. But it's confusing to see the little horn out of the 4 horns go on in the latter section of Chap 8 to sound synonymous with the little horn of the Chap 7's 4th beast which subdued 3 of it's previous 10 horns.
Unless Chap 8 is not referring to the 4th beast at all (timeline or premise) and verse 11 is referencing Israel of Christ's earthly time. And verse 23's latter time is referencing the same? I.e. making Chap 7 more about the end of the times of the Gentiles and Chap 8 more about the cutting off of the messiah and Israel being scattered until the last days? | 2019/09/06 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/72304",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/46498/"
] | Daniel 7 and Daniel 8 both present two little horns. The Bible clearly points out that a horn represents a king or kingdom therefore each little horn represents exactly that.
The little horn of Daniel 7 arises among the 10 horns on the beast i.e. among 10 kingdoms. However, the little horn of Daniel 8 arises among the 4 horns that replace the one notable horn.
Daniel 7 presents 10 European nations and the political-religious entity known as the papacy (little horn).
Daniel 8 presents 4 nations that arise out of Alexander's empire. Out of one of them comes a little horn....a religious-political entity.....ISLAM.
Thus, the Bible clearly presents the two religious groups that will dominate the world at tge time of the end. Each has a "holy day" before or after the Sabbath day. Each persecuted saints of God... still do today and will still do even more soon.
Each will oppose Jesus Christ at his coming.
Check it out. | There is another postion that can be taken regarding the difficulty in explaining Daniel 7-8. It would be that all interpretations to date are insufficient, or grossly in error.
Here is where I would point back to the beginning of creation, because I would contend there are under- appreciated elements involved in the creation. This oversight results in continuous errors in interpretation. This is essentially a spatially disorienting condition. ( I am reluctant to say geographical)
1. Reality is composed of Heaven and Earth. These are two worlds.
2. A firmanent (raquiya) is created to preform a function. It divides those things above from below. It makes a third component to the nature of reality. Heaven is plural, not one.
3. Overlooked in Gen 2:1 is not only the plurality of Worlds, but plurality of host. It does not number them as two, but a plurality of types. How many exist is not stated.
Daniel 7 opens with the prophet's description of the four winds of heaven. This is not appreciated in importance, when in fact it is foundational to what follows. The four winds are real and functional, not merely existing. They are not ethereal, they are persons. While discribed as four, that may be four divisions, not a sum total. When Solomon constructed the molten sea, it rested on four groups of three oxen. Earlier, the laver rested on some type of stand or base.
4. The Great Sea is not the Meditereanian Sea. It is the raqiya. It's location is Heaven, and the earthly symbols of oxen represent real life spirits, with assigned duties.
5. The functioning of the raqiya, results in actions taking place on Earth. This is causality from a location, separated from the finale outcome.
Previously in Daniel 4, Nebuchadnezzar described watchers. They have assigned oversight duties of the lower World. In Dan 10, we are told of princes, but not whether prince and watcher, are one and the same. Watchers can apperently " come down," a function no different then angel as described by Jacob at Bethel.
Prince is not described in terms of decent. Prince and elohym, may be one and the same. The number of elohym is never said, but may be over seventy.
When Satan makes appearances in Job, he stands among the elohym, or what is also called sons of God.
My conclusion is the activity taking place, is easily overlooked, and the focus is placed on historical identification of the components of Daniel 7. Doctrinal positions are being read back into the story.
The primary point of my theory is a type of multi-party war will break out in Heaven. Understanding it's location, is necessary to progress towards determining what is being contested. |
69,820 | Clicking "Update Now..." inside my EX470 control panel for Windows Update produces the following error message:
"Windows Home Server updates installation can not complete. Please try again later. If the problem persists, please restart the server."
I have rebooted the server numerous times, and I have also used remote desktop to connect to the machine to perform the update this way, however the browser is unable to pull up <http://windowsupdate.microsoft.com>. This is very strange behavior because I am able to access all other sites (gmail.com, serverfault.com, etc).
Would it be possible for someone to explain to me how I can check to see what is blocking the connection of this device, which apparently has a valid internet connection, to the Microsoft Windows Update site?
*note #1 Using the shortcut: %SystemRoot%\system32\wupdmgr.exe does not work either. It says "Connecting to 65.55.200.155..." but nothing ever happens. This is strange because all other sites seem fine. Also, I can connect to windowsupdate.microsoft.com on my local desktop so I know this is running as well* | 2009/09/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/69820",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/9487/"
] | Not sure WTF happened, but it appears to have been an intermittent error. | i got the same thing and it was becasue i forgot to set the time and date for WHS. date was set to june 2000 7:25pm and it was actually june 21st 2010 2:00pm. its installing about 94 updates at the moment. yeah yeah old post blah blah but heres the fix :) |
69,820 | Clicking "Update Now..." inside my EX470 control panel for Windows Update produces the following error message:
"Windows Home Server updates installation can not complete. Please try again later. If the problem persists, please restart the server."
I have rebooted the server numerous times, and I have also used remote desktop to connect to the machine to perform the update this way, however the browser is unable to pull up <http://windowsupdate.microsoft.com>. This is very strange behavior because I am able to access all other sites (gmail.com, serverfault.com, etc).
Would it be possible for someone to explain to me how I can check to see what is blocking the connection of this device, which apparently has a valid internet connection, to the Microsoft Windows Update site?
*note #1 Using the shortcut: %SystemRoot%\system32\wupdmgr.exe does not work either. It says "Connecting to 65.55.200.155..." but nothing ever happens. This is strange because all other sites seem fine. Also, I can connect to windowsupdate.microsoft.com on my local desktop so I know this is running as well* | 2009/09/30 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/69820",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/9487/"
] | If you remote desktop into the server you should be able to go into Control Panel -> Admin Tools -> Event Viewer.
Look through the Application and System logs around the time that your updates failed, you should see sets of MsiInstaller, Windows Update Agent and NTServicePack events around the time that your install failed. Have a look at what those say, and any other events logged at the same time, this should give you more info. | i got the same thing and it was becasue i forgot to set the time and date for WHS. date was set to june 2000 7:25pm and it was actually june 21st 2010 2:00pm. its installing about 94 updates at the moment. yeah yeah old post blah blah but heres the fix :) |
316,853 | Now, the year is 2022. I want to say that the number became the highest in 2017 compared to the numbers in 2016 and 2015.
Which one should I use? Example 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6?
**Example 1**
>
> In 2017, the number reached the highest record in the past two years
>
>
>
**Example 2**
>
> In 2017, the number reached the highest record in the past precious two years.
>
>
>
**Example 3**
>
> In 2017, the number reached the highest record in the last two years.
>
>
>
**Example 4**
>
> In 2017, the number reached the highest record in the last previous two years.
>
>
>
**Example 5**
>
> In 2017, the number was the highest in the past two years.
>
>
>
**Example 6**
>
> In 2017, the number was the highest in the past previous two years.
>
>
> | 2022/06/07 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/316853",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/13980/"
] | It is not idiomatic to talk about **highest records** or **lowest records**.
A record is a record, no matter by how much it exceeds or improves the previous record. It does not become a high record or a low record.
And you need to be more specific to make sense. The number of what?
**In 2017, the number of Dazla cars exported from X country exceeded those of either of the previous two years.**
If you just said **exceeded those of the previous two years**, the statement might be understood to be of the two years combined.
If the number exported in 2017 set a new record, you might say: **The number of Dazla cars exported in 2017 set a new record, (far) exceeding exports for (either of) the previous two years.**
You can't say **of the past two years** unless you are referring to 2020 and 2021. | I personally think that all of the above have grammatical mistakes, and I would like to give you a better one.
In Example 1, no full stop was provided. Also, when you say it "has reached the highest record in the past two years", it means it was reaching the record in the duration of the past two years, while the record was actually hit in 2017.
In Example 2, assuming you aimed to write "previous" instead of "precious", past and previous have the same meaning, so you should only write one. The same logical mistake exists here.
Example 3 and Example 5 are similar to Example 1.
Example 4 and Example 6 also use two words that mean the same, like Example 2.
All of your examples above have a logical mistake. I personally recommend saying something along the lines of:
>
> "In 2017, the number reached the highest record ever recorded, far surpassing the number for the previous two years."
>
>
> |
121,398 | I've been looking for sheep for almost 2 Minecraft days; I need to find them to get wool and make a bed. I can't find any spiders either to get string to spin into wool.
I'm currently on Easy difficulty. What difficulty must I be on to find sheep? | 2013/06/23 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/121398",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/50642/"
] | Sheep spawn on any difficulty, and on any setting. They do however require at least 2 blocks of grass, not dirt, in a 10x10 area of grass, and sunlight. They will only spawn during daytime. By default, every 80 seconds the server will throw a dice to see if, and how many creatures will spawn. This can be sheep, pigs, chickens or anything like it. | You don't need a difficulty to find sheep. They naturally spawn and can be found anywhere. If you are having trouble finding sheep you could use a spawn egg or look in plains biomes. If you are specifically looking for wool to make a bed craft wool out of string. |
38,626 | In *Aliens vs. Predator: Requiem* (terrible, terrible movie):
>
> One police officer discovers the Predator in the woods whilst continuing the search for a missing father and son. The Predator kills him, and he is later found hanging from a tree, skinned.
>
>
>
Aside from the apparent desire of the screenwriter to include a copy (sorry, homage. No, wait, it *is* just copying) of every memorable scene from both franchises, why did this happen?
The Predator didn’t hunt this character. It killed him while he was running away, presumably in an attempt to avoid attracting attention. Why skin him? | 2013/07/27 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/38626",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/440/"
] | I think this really depends on how you consider the Predators society to be:
* To me, they're simply trophy hunters. Collect the most exotic and most dangerous game as trophies.
* A Predator might fight with his own "agenda" ("fair game for good game"), but doesn't necessarily have to.
* Just because the game doesn't fight or runs away doesn't mean it would be no valid game. Sure, probably not as special or sought after as something more dangerous that's fighting back, but at the same time...
* Predators and humans can work together, which won't invalidate the first two points in any way. It just depends on what the Predators consider the human: game or hunter. In a similar way, people used to hunt wolves, but they also tamed wolves as pets.
So, why picking/skinning the human as well? Think about those classic trophy hunter ideal:
Pick an animal missing in your collection and start the hunt. What happens if you see another game on your way possibly fitting in your collection as well? Right, you just pick it up, especially if you had to shoot it anyway. After all, humans are the dominant species on their home planet; that is significant, ignoring humans' "fragility" compared to other lifeforms such as the Xenomorph. | Notice when the skinning takes place: At the beginning of the hunt.
In Predator and Predator 2, both have occurrences of the Predator on the hunt making a point of making a hanging display to its intended prey as they enter the hunting territory.
This probably is inter-species communication, as a warning to the humans that they are entering the hunting area. The Predator probably does this to divide the choicest trophies from the ones which would be turned away by such a gruesome sign post.
How I draw this conclusion is by how the Predator on the hunt, even further evidenced in the movie Predators, chooses its intended prey, it doesn't take trophies from pregnant women and the unarmed, it wants hunters to hunt, seasoned killers.
Those who gaze upon the skinned warrior and do not turn back are more than likely a blooded, hardened warrior or not fit to breed more potential prey for the Predator to hunt by virtue of being a fool who ignores the signs that a hunt has begun in the area. Even then, those not armed or children that find them self in the hunting territory are given a chance to leave. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | This is something that keeps upsetting me. Both your question and almost all answers so far seem to be working under the assumption that UX people design products for the web. Hence, they "need to have basic knowledge of HTML, CSS and Javascript".
Why is that? What about all those who design for desktop and mobile and various specialized platforms - from kiosks to copy machines to TVs to aircraft displays? Do they need to have a basic knowledge of C, Java, .NET or whatever?
Does it make them a worse UX person if they don't? And keep in mind that we're talking about the vast majority of UX folks working at [all of these](http://www.softwaretop100.org/global-software-top-100-edition-2010) and countless more. So it's not as negligible a percentage of the industry as people seem to believe - I actually think it's at the very least 50% of it (look at [the link](http://www.softwaretop100.org/global-software-top-100-edition-2010) again :) ).
To make this answer not completely pointless (yes, this should've been a comment) - it's extremely helpful if UX designers understand how programming *works*, so that the platform is not a black mystery box to them, and they can communicate efficiently with the techies. But beyond that it's really just a skill that is very nice to have, but by no means necessary. | A UX team that can't build their UX recommendations is a rather useless UX team.
Individual UX members don't have to be front-end-coders, but the skillset has to exist within the team as a whole. I've found that UX teams that do not handle any of the front end production tend to:
* design interfaces that aren't leveraging up-to-date features of the browsers
* design interfaces that simply don't work on screen (typically omitting key steps)
* design interfaces that are atypical and/or are reinventing the wheel
* don't fully think through every point of interaction
* fail to design for contingencies
I'll add that an organization that splits its UX team from it's FE dev team is set up to fail in the realm of user experience. I've worked in both situations and the situations where the UX team has no development responsibility, there are huge amounts of inefficiencies throughout the project as so much has to go back and forth between the separate departments without any true iterative design.
An analogy is an architect that has no practical building experience. Said architects exist, and some are quite famous, but for most architects, to be good at what they do, they have to design structures that can be built in terms of engineering, budgets and timelines.
A UX team with no front end development skills is like a painter with no brush skills. ;) |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | As a UX person who works in a situation like you describe (UX creates the specs, FE implements them), I can say that it is vitally important that my team know what is/is not possible when designing a UI. If something's completely impossible, we do our stakeholders a disservice by proposing it.
On the other hand, given that only a few member of our team members have formal coding experience, we always work in tandem with our developers. Often we'll sit down with the development team prior to presenting our designs to the stakeholders and discuss the potential coding pain points.
In particular, I believe that it is vitally important that UX folks have (at least) a theoretical understanding of "FE-related things", including semantic page structure, optimization techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility, etc. Of course, there's always the viewpoint of Jared Spool; that [in the future, all UX'ers will beed to be able to code](http://www.currybet.net/cbet_blog/2011/04/will-we-all-have-to-code.php) (a viewpoint I don't necessarily agree with). | Specialization is the foundation of our modern economy. In the days of yore, an artist was required to mix their own paints. Now they can buy them in the store in any hue (please note that I am not an artist). I feel that this split is analogous - front end developers are the paint mixers to the UX professional. Nevertheless, an strong understanding of your tools is essential to any professional.
UX professionals should develop a strong working knowledge of the things that are easy and the things that are hard to do within the framework that they choose. Commonly used are HTML/CSS, MS Windows API, Flash, maybe even the console. Occasionally a framework is developed specifically for the application, such as in video games. Knowing what can be accomplished with the framework is essential. As an understanding of the framework grows, so too does the ease of implementation.
On the matter of general purpose programming in specific; this is a valuable skill - but not essential for a UX professional. As the fields are still somewhat overlapping, in the present day it has a greater import than it will in the future, but I do not see it becoming redundant any time soon. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | Technically, UX is a form of Design. In Front end software, you can have multiple specializations: designer, developer, and architect. UX typically sits in the "designer" category with an emphasis on conceptual drawings, workflow diagrams, and other "high-level" creatives.
Architects and Developers leverage these, along with other design assets, to produce the application.
Software development is largely dictated by environments. In other words, you can only design what the browser or device is capable of. It is EXTREMELY helpful if the UX designer is familiar with the technical constraints of CSS3, for example, so on the one hand he will push for cool stuff that CSS3 can do, but on the other hand is aware of and will work around things that CSS3 can't.
It's been my experience that the best designers can code their designs, and vice-versa: the best coders have amazing sense for design.
While it is possible to have UX people who can't do a lick of code, I would argue against it. Look for people who can build what they dream up - or at least know how to build it. | **It all depends on the context of the organization, the type and cycle of the project, as well as other factors.**
In my opinion: **Yes** ,designers who can't code will say that this knowledge is unnecessary, while the market will verify itself.
Technologies, frameworks and libraries are developing so fast that the boundary between design and coding is disappearing.
However, if we separate the fields of design and front-end programming, we can see the detailed components (animations in UI or unit tests in the frontend).
So in this context a lot depends on the current needs and scopes that the project supports or should support.
Elementary knowledge of front-end is necessary, I would go a step further and give designers access to repositories on the git, because designing takes considerably less time than coding.
The monthly project can be implemented up to half a year (depending on the complexity)
So when the system is already designed and ready for programming, the designer could at this time take care of real programming support (even in terms of aesthetics, not to mention communication with the API) instead of generating unnecessary shots on dribbble portals.
Much depends on the life cycle of the product (I mean, when the project is already mature, the task of UX is to verify / test hypotheses with users, so in this phase, when the system is already functioning programming or creating architectures is no longer as needed as at the beginning. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | As a UX person who works in a situation like you describe (UX creates the specs, FE implements them), I can say that it is vitally important that my team know what is/is not possible when designing a UI. If something's completely impossible, we do our stakeholders a disservice by proposing it.
On the other hand, given that only a few member of our team members have formal coding experience, we always work in tandem with our developers. Often we'll sit down with the development team prior to presenting our designs to the stakeholders and discuss the potential coding pain points.
In particular, I believe that it is vitally important that UX folks have (at least) a theoretical understanding of "FE-related things", including semantic page structure, optimization techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility, etc. Of course, there's always the viewpoint of Jared Spool; that [in the future, all UX'ers will beed to be able to code](http://www.currybet.net/cbet_blog/2011/04/will-we-all-have-to-code.php) (a viewpoint I don't necessarily agree with). | Short answer: "it depends".
I've been wrestling with this question for about 2 years. Some things to think about:
* If you learn to code, you will spend a lot more time coding, and a lot less time designing. Muscles that you don't use will atrophy, and the ones you do use will build at the exclusion of others.
* UX is a craft and must be coupled with something else, like visual design, material design, prototyping, or (as you asked) the ability to do some of the implementation work.
* Most employers (and teams) have a desire to have someone who can "do both" but rarely is this the case; you're usually doing one or the other, and from my experience it will mostly be coding.
* If you learn to code, you will have the burden of a coder. That is, you will notice that you will start to design for what you know you can develop.
* There are positions open for those who are simply great designers, but these positions are few and far between and highly sought after. Adaptive Path, IDEO, etc. hire pure UX designers.
So "should" you? I don't know you. If you're a stellar designer, that is, breathtaking sketching and visual design skills, then keep doing that. If you're someone who wants to work to make a product real, then perhaps coding is a good skill to have.
I consider myself a UX person with technical skills. After 3 years of solutions architecture work I went back to school to get my HCI degree, then went to work as a UX designer. I find that having my technical background gives me more of an edge in leadership roles than a pure designer, but my designs are less creative and innovative than those who get the opportunity to only focus on design.
My advice? Do what you find interesting alongside pure UX work. This may include visual design or development work. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | Development skills are obviously important - more so for smaller teams than larger teams. Those skills should be covered within the design team in one way or another.
More importantly, UX professionals should be either extremely close to, or do themselves, **direct user support**. Hearing pain points directly from customers or users should be a direct influence on the ongoing UX design work, refining the product to solve those problems.
Here's [37signal's take on this from their first book](http://gettingreal.37signals.com/ch14_Feel_The_Pain.php) | **It all depends on the context of the organization, the type and cycle of the project, as well as other factors.**
In my opinion: **Yes** ,designers who can't code will say that this knowledge is unnecessary, while the market will verify itself.
Technologies, frameworks and libraries are developing so fast that the boundary between design and coding is disappearing.
However, if we separate the fields of design and front-end programming, we can see the detailed components (animations in UI or unit tests in the frontend).
So in this context a lot depends on the current needs and scopes that the project supports or should support.
Elementary knowledge of front-end is necessary, I would go a step further and give designers access to repositories on the git, because designing takes considerably less time than coding.
The monthly project can be implemented up to half a year (depending on the complexity)
So when the system is already designed and ready for programming, the designer could at this time take care of real programming support (even in terms of aesthetics, not to mention communication with the API) instead of generating unnecessary shots on dribbble portals.
Much depends on the life cycle of the product (I mean, when the project is already mature, the task of UX is to verify / test hypotheses with users, so in this phase, when the system is already functioning programming or creating architectures is no longer as needed as at the beginning. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | I think for a UX designer it's important to understand the basics of frontend development. You should know what HTML, CSS and JS is, how it's interpreted by the browser and how the web works in general. But I don't think it's necessary to have in depth knowledge of all possibilities. That said, it's essential that UX designers, frontend developers and graphic designers work together very closely.
**Additional thoughts:** I don't think it's usually a good idea when one person is responsible for two different disciplines (coding and UX design) because there aren't many people who can be very good at two things (usually you have to focus to become the best). And there's the danger that a UX person who codes the page himself will only design stuff that he knows how to code.
I'm aware that this probably isn't a very popular opinion, but I think specialists working together closely is what produces state of the art solutions and pushes the boundaries of what's possible. Remember the time when we were called Webdesigners? Programming, frontend, design, project management etc. was all done by one person. Was it fun? Sure! Did it produce good results? Rarely.
In my company frontend development and UX and UI design is one team (2 coders, 2 graphic designers, 1 UX architect) and I think that's the way it should be. | Technically, UX is a form of Design. In Front end software, you can have multiple specializations: designer, developer, and architect. UX typically sits in the "designer" category with an emphasis on conceptual drawings, workflow diagrams, and other "high-level" creatives.
Architects and Developers leverage these, along with other design assets, to produce the application.
Software development is largely dictated by environments. In other words, you can only design what the browser or device is capable of. It is EXTREMELY helpful if the UX designer is familiar with the technical constraints of CSS3, for example, so on the one hand he will push for cool stuff that CSS3 can do, but on the other hand is aware of and will work around things that CSS3 can't.
It's been my experience that the best designers can code their designs, and vice-versa: the best coders have amazing sense for design.
While it is possible to have UX people who can't do a lick of code, I would argue against it. Look for people who can build what they dream up - or at least know how to build it. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | As a UX person who works in a situation like you describe (UX creates the specs, FE implements them), I can say that it is vitally important that my team know what is/is not possible when designing a UI. If something's completely impossible, we do our stakeholders a disservice by proposing it.
On the other hand, given that only a few member of our team members have formal coding experience, we always work in tandem with our developers. Often we'll sit down with the development team prior to presenting our designs to the stakeholders and discuss the potential coding pain points.
In particular, I believe that it is vitally important that UX folks have (at least) a theoretical understanding of "FE-related things", including semantic page structure, optimization techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility, etc. Of course, there's always the viewpoint of Jared Spool; that [in the future, all UX'ers will beed to be able to code](http://www.currybet.net/cbet_blog/2011/04/will-we-all-have-to-code.php) (a viewpoint I don't necessarily agree with). | Technically, UX is a form of Design. In Front end software, you can have multiple specializations: designer, developer, and architect. UX typically sits in the "designer" category with an emphasis on conceptual drawings, workflow diagrams, and other "high-level" creatives.
Architects and Developers leverage these, along with other design assets, to produce the application.
Software development is largely dictated by environments. In other words, you can only design what the browser or device is capable of. It is EXTREMELY helpful if the UX designer is familiar with the technical constraints of CSS3, for example, so on the one hand he will push for cool stuff that CSS3 can do, but on the other hand is aware of and will work around things that CSS3 can't.
It's been my experience that the best designers can code their designs, and vice-versa: the best coders have amazing sense for design.
While it is possible to have UX people who can't do a lick of code, I would argue against it. Look for people who can build what they dream up - or at least know how to build it. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | A UX team that can't build their UX recommendations is a rather useless UX team.
Individual UX members don't have to be front-end-coders, but the skillset has to exist within the team as a whole. I've found that UX teams that do not handle any of the front end production tend to:
* design interfaces that aren't leveraging up-to-date features of the browsers
* design interfaces that simply don't work on screen (typically omitting key steps)
* design interfaces that are atypical and/or are reinventing the wheel
* don't fully think through every point of interaction
* fail to design for contingencies
I'll add that an organization that splits its UX team from it's FE dev team is set up to fail in the realm of user experience. I've worked in both situations and the situations where the UX team has no development responsibility, there are huge amounts of inefficiencies throughout the project as so much has to go back and forth between the separate departments without any true iterative design.
An analogy is an architect that has no practical building experience. Said architects exist, and some are quite famous, but for most architects, to be good at what they do, they have to design structures that can be built in terms of engineering, budgets and timelines.
A UX team with no front end development skills is like a painter with no brush skills. ;) | I think they should have a solid grasp of the basics, just as a front-end developer should have a solid grasp of the basics of UX.
That isn't to say it's necessary for them to be able to sit down and code up the whole interface, but they should be able to converse with developers in their own language (and vice-versa), and possibly pair-program with a developer who is having some trouble getting something to work as designed. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | Specialization is the foundation of our modern economy. In the days of yore, an artist was required to mix their own paints. Now they can buy them in the store in any hue (please note that I am not an artist). I feel that this split is analogous - front end developers are the paint mixers to the UX professional. Nevertheless, an strong understanding of your tools is essential to any professional.
UX professionals should develop a strong working knowledge of the things that are easy and the things that are hard to do within the framework that they choose. Commonly used are HTML/CSS, MS Windows API, Flash, maybe even the console. Occasionally a framework is developed specifically for the application, such as in video games. Knowing what can be accomplished with the framework is essential. As an understanding of the framework grows, so too does the ease of implementation.
On the matter of general purpose programming in specific; this is a valuable skill - but not essential for a UX professional. As the fields are still somewhat overlapping, in the present day it has a greater import than it will in the future, but I do not see it becoming redundant any time soon. | **It all depends on the context of the organization, the type and cycle of the project, as well as other factors.**
In my opinion: **Yes** ,designers who can't code will say that this knowledge is unnecessary, while the market will verify itself.
Technologies, frameworks and libraries are developing so fast that the boundary between design and coding is disappearing.
However, if we separate the fields of design and front-end programming, we can see the detailed components (animations in UI or unit tests in the frontend).
So in this context a lot depends on the current needs and scopes that the project supports or should support.
Elementary knowledge of front-end is necessary, I would go a step further and give designers access to repositories on the git, because designing takes considerably less time than coding.
The monthly project can be implemented up to half a year (depending on the complexity)
So when the system is already designed and ready for programming, the designer could at this time take care of real programming support (even in terms of aesthetics, not to mention communication with the API) instead of generating unnecessary shots on dribbble portals.
Much depends on the life cycle of the product (I mean, when the project is already mature, the task of UX is to verify / test hypotheses with users, so in this phase, when the system is already functioning programming or creating architectures is no longer as needed as at the beginning. |
9,119 | Apologies if this is too much of a fuzzy question, I was wondering what people's thoughts were regarding the level of front-end development knowledge a UX professional (Experience Architect, Usability designer, Experience Designer - call it what you will) should have.
I'm guess I'm talking about situations where the two disciplines are handled by separate teams (UX team handle wireframes/designs/user journey and the front-end team actually do the coding).
Do you think the UX team can make do with a general level of front-end knowledge (basic understanding of HTML/CSS), or is it important for them to know the nitty gritty (semantic page structure, optimisation techniques, impact of JavaScript, graceful degradation/progressive enhancement, accessibility etc)?
Should a UX team be able to imagine how their designs/wireframes will be interpreted by the front-end team and what mark-up/technologies are likely to be used?
Does only having a limited knowledge of front-end development make for poorer UX?
Are the finer points of FE development solely the concern of the front-end devs, or should it be a consideration for the UX team as well?
As I said, I know it's a bit of a fuzzy question, but I'm just curious as to how people view the respective skills of FE and UX teams, and how much blurring there should ideally be between the two. | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/9119",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5744/"
] | Development skills are obviously important - more so for smaller teams than larger teams. Those skills should be covered within the design team in one way or another.
More importantly, UX professionals should be either extremely close to, or do themselves, **direct user support**. Hearing pain points directly from customers or users should be a direct influence on the ongoing UX design work, refining the product to solve those problems.
Here's [37signal's take on this from their first book](http://gettingreal.37signals.com/ch14_Feel_The_Pain.php) | I think for a UX designer it's important to understand the basics of frontend development. You should know what HTML, CSS and JS is, how it's interpreted by the browser and how the web works in general. But I don't think it's necessary to have in depth knowledge of all possibilities. That said, it's essential that UX designers, frontend developers and graphic designers work together very closely.
**Additional thoughts:** I don't think it's usually a good idea when one person is responsible for two different disciplines (coding and UX design) because there aren't many people who can be very good at two things (usually you have to focus to become the best). And there's the danger that a UX person who codes the page himself will only design stuff that he knows how to code.
I'm aware that this probably isn't a very popular opinion, but I think specialists working together closely is what produces state of the art solutions and pushes the boundaries of what's possible. Remember the time when we were called Webdesigners? Programming, frontend, design, project management etc. was all done by one person. Was it fun? Sure! Did it produce good results? Rarely.
In my company frontend development and UX and UI design is one team (2 coders, 2 graphic designers, 1 UX architect) and I think that's the way it should be. |
12,380,843 | Been trying to fix this program for 5 hours now by searching forums, very tired by now. Nothing has been helpful, and I think my patience may have ran out.
Here's an list of what i am doing.
1st- I "publish" the program which compiles everything into a .exe and a resource folder
2nd- works flawlessly on my computer
3rd- copy it to my other computer(eventually renaming folders and everything to be exactly the same)
4th- open the .exe, this ridiculously unhelpful error pops up saying there was an unhandled exception in my application
5th- continue any way, my form is missing the background, 3 more images, 2 labels and a couple of drawings. but it has 6 labels and 2 picture boxes, I am not understanding why the labels, the background and this other picture box is not loading... this is very very frustrating and any small logical suggestions would be helpful.
Note: the program is 1378 lines long | 2012/09/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12380843",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1352678/"
] | Are the images compiled as resources? If not, they may need to explicitly be copied during the deployment. | Fixed it. My images were called from C:/... they needed so be called from My.Resources. |
10,065,646 | I'm building a web application and eventually would want to use Yii framework. But right now I'm in the process or prototyping the web application itself. While I like Twitter [Bootstrap](http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/), what I'm curious are,
1. If I buy an admin template from Themeforest, would that in anyway provide more complete capabilities than Bootstrap? Has any one used these templates and what was your experience / opinion?
2. Say I complete the wire framing using either Bootstrap or a theme from Themeforest, how easy would it to be Yii'ify it? | 2012/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10065646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/456563/"
] | I start recently new project with Twitter bootstrap and it was very very easy to replace standard css/js files from basic Yii project to those from bootstrap.
Ofc you have to design and build markup your website then. With Themeforest you get already designed HTML pages with CSS and JS.
Those are completely different ways to go. First one is if you're designer or you have one at your disposal. Also you should know frontend programming pretty well (HTML, CSS, JS and etc). Second approach saves you time and doesn't require many additional skills for frontend programming. But you limit yourself pretty much into what template gives you. If you would have to create new type of page, that template doesn't offer - you will have to follow template's general style.
Myself, i prefer the first route, as i have designer that makes all designs for me in Adobe Illustrator and i have good frontend programming skills, so i can create markups from AI files. Yii along with Twitter Bootstrap allows me to save time at doing standard things multiple times and suits perfectly to my programming style.
**TLDR:** *If you want bother just about PHP and backend - go Themeforest. If you want to have full control about your website creating process - go straight Twitter bootstrap.*
Also check out **[Kickstrap](http://ajkochanowicz.github.com/Kickstrap/)**, which is due to be released 15th of April. Kickstrap is version of Twitter boostrap on steroids. It has already several themes precreated, HTML5 Boilerplate included, Font Awesome inside and much more. | I suggest to give a look also to this extension:
<http://www.yiiframework.com/extension/bootstrap>
It's a porting of the twitter bootstrap framework in Yii.
It gives you the advantage of having the full features of Yii and twitter bootstrap toghether. |
10,065,646 | I'm building a web application and eventually would want to use Yii framework. But right now I'm in the process or prototyping the web application itself. While I like Twitter [Bootstrap](http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/), what I'm curious are,
1. If I buy an admin template from Themeforest, would that in anyway provide more complete capabilities than Bootstrap? Has any one used these templates and what was your experience / opinion?
2. Say I complete the wire framing using either Bootstrap or a theme from Themeforest, how easy would it to be Yii'ify it? | 2012/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10065646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/456563/"
] | I start recently new project with Twitter bootstrap and it was very very easy to replace standard css/js files from basic Yii project to those from bootstrap.
Ofc you have to design and build markup your website then. With Themeforest you get already designed HTML pages with CSS and JS.
Those are completely different ways to go. First one is if you're designer or you have one at your disposal. Also you should know frontend programming pretty well (HTML, CSS, JS and etc). Second approach saves you time and doesn't require many additional skills for frontend programming. But you limit yourself pretty much into what template gives you. If you would have to create new type of page, that template doesn't offer - you will have to follow template's general style.
Myself, i prefer the first route, as i have designer that makes all designs for me in Adobe Illustrator and i have good frontend programming skills, so i can create markups from AI files. Yii along with Twitter Bootstrap allows me to save time at doing standard things multiple times and suits perfectly to my programming style.
**TLDR:** *If you want bother just about PHP and backend - go Themeforest. If you want to have full control about your website creating process - go straight Twitter bootstrap.*
Also check out **[Kickstrap](http://ajkochanowicz.github.com/Kickstrap/)**, which is due to be released 15th of April. Kickstrap is version of Twitter boostrap on steroids. It has already several themes precreated, HTML5 Boilerplate included, Font Awesome inside and much more. | As per my opinion [Bootstrap 3.0](http://getbootstrap.com/) recommended for Admin Themes.
What you need to do first is define our color schema, branding and mock-up.
I am using [Bootstrap Magic](http://pikock.github.io/bootstrap-magic/app/index.html) for generating CSS.
You can refer [Free Bootstrap Admin Template](http://dmartify.com/downloads/karmanta-lite-free-bootstrap-admin-template/) for getting start as a [Bootstrap 3 Responsive Admin Template](http://dmartify.com/downloads/karmanta-bootstrap-3-responsive-admin-template/) |
10,065,646 | I'm building a web application and eventually would want to use Yii framework. But right now I'm in the process or prototyping the web application itself. While I like Twitter [Bootstrap](http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/), what I'm curious are,
1. If I buy an admin template from Themeforest, would that in anyway provide more complete capabilities than Bootstrap? Has any one used these templates and what was your experience / opinion?
2. Say I complete the wire framing using either Bootstrap or a theme from Themeforest, how easy would it to be Yii'ify it? | 2012/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10065646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/456563/"
] | I suggest to give a look also to this extension:
<http://www.yiiframework.com/extension/bootstrap>
It's a porting of the twitter bootstrap framework in Yii.
It gives you the advantage of having the full features of Yii and twitter bootstrap toghether. | As per my opinion [Bootstrap 3.0](http://getbootstrap.com/) recommended for Admin Themes.
What you need to do first is define our color schema, branding and mock-up.
I am using [Bootstrap Magic](http://pikock.github.io/bootstrap-magic/app/index.html) for generating CSS.
You can refer [Free Bootstrap Admin Template](http://dmartify.com/downloads/karmanta-lite-free-bootstrap-admin-template/) for getting start as a [Bootstrap 3 Responsive Admin Template](http://dmartify.com/downloads/karmanta-bootstrap-3-responsive-admin-template/) |
102,313 | I'm creating this image with inkscape and never had this problem before. As you can see, a rectangle appears around each object. I don't understand why. How can I remove them?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6s3sF.png)
I have tried to do filters -> remove filters ... | 2017/12/05 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/102313",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/109884/"
] | If you look at the bottom tab of the window(besides layer tab), the description still gives the info that some filter is applied on the object (circle; filtered in layer Layer 1). Select the circles and then try filters- remove filters. If this doesn't work, select the circles and try opening the filters- filter editor and deselect any filter that is applied on the object. Hope this works. | Do you have layers with blend modes, like Overlay or Multiply? That could cause this effect and Inkscape shows layer blends as filtered in the taskbar. |
23,077 | I am working as developer in the current firm. We are developing a application for the organization. However for requirements and for other clarifications we need to approach so many other teams and many other people. Usually for those clarifications I used to approach my reporting manager.
However he is super busy with lot of things, and usually the inputs or clarifications are getting late from other teams. Since my manager is super busy he is sometimes becomes bottle neck for those clarifications and inputs. Sometimes I used to wait for those clarifications and sit idle without any work. But when those clarifications are inputs come I used to work more than usual working hours and used to slog in order to meet dead lines.
Hence I feel I would like to go beyond my manager and approach other teams or departments for those clarifications. How can I do gracefully without creating any rift with my manager? | 2014/04/23 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/23077",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/5183/"
] | The easiest way to do this is to go to your manager and say "I need some clarifications from such-and-such a team. Normally I'd talk to you, but I know you're busy. Do you mind if I go and talk to them direct? I'll copy you on what they say if you like."
I should say that in some cases, getting input from other teams is much more complicated than simply going to some person and asking them. I say this because taking on this task might be more work than you think. | The graceful way is to offer your manager a potential solution to help him with the amount of work in his plate and getting projects finished sooner. Don't start with trying to limit your hours in general, but doing things at the last minute is taking a risk of more errors.
He may be worried that things will happen without his knowledge. Work on documentation of the requests and that if you feel someone is making an unnecessary requirement, you'll bring it to his attention. He is responsible for the project and sometimes that leads to micro-managing. There could be other checks and balances required by the company to keep him in the loop. I've had managers who tried to insulate their team from ad hoc requests especially and I only would work directly with users when given permission on particular projects.
There may be other solutions to free up his time (Isn't that the real problem?). Does he take on the sole responsibility of finding replacements? You'll never provide the best solution until you have all the information. Just because this is a bottleneck for your projects may not be perceived as a problem for the company (ie. they don't care if you have to work late.). |
23,077 | I am working as developer in the current firm. We are developing a application for the organization. However for requirements and for other clarifications we need to approach so many other teams and many other people. Usually for those clarifications I used to approach my reporting manager.
However he is super busy with lot of things, and usually the inputs or clarifications are getting late from other teams. Since my manager is super busy he is sometimes becomes bottle neck for those clarifications and inputs. Sometimes I used to wait for those clarifications and sit idle without any work. But when those clarifications are inputs come I used to work more than usual working hours and used to slog in order to meet dead lines.
Hence I feel I would like to go beyond my manager and approach other teams or departments for those clarifications. How can I do gracefully without creating any rift with my manager? | 2014/04/23 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/23077",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/5183/"
] | The easiest way to do this is to go to your manager and say "I need some clarifications from such-and-such a team. Normally I'd talk to you, but I know you're busy. Do you mind if I go and talk to them direct? I'll copy you on what they say if you like."
I should say that in some cases, getting input from other teams is much more complicated than simply going to some person and asking them. I say this because taking on this task might be more work than you think. | It depends on your company's structure. If the President/CEO is in your line of report-to, then simply make the point to politely request to speak with him/her and bring such issues to their attention. I work with a remote manager who is not the most punctual and brings a very outdated approach to application development to the table often. In those situations where he is stalling or being purposeful in his impedance to progress for the sake of his own comfort and position, I routinely go directly to the President/CEO. The key to doing that though lays in presenting the facts and espressing the issue tactfully, not in a way that comes across as throwing someone under the bus, even if they may deserve it.
I find that being equipped with the facts, what the problem is and how going about it differently will speed up completion, the CEO is all ears, and provides the authorization and any resources needed, in addition to setting the manager straight on the same path as I presented to him. Just be prepared and organized beforehand. |
23,077 | I am working as developer in the current firm. We are developing a application for the organization. However for requirements and for other clarifications we need to approach so many other teams and many other people. Usually for those clarifications I used to approach my reporting manager.
However he is super busy with lot of things, and usually the inputs or clarifications are getting late from other teams. Since my manager is super busy he is sometimes becomes bottle neck for those clarifications and inputs. Sometimes I used to wait for those clarifications and sit idle without any work. But when those clarifications are inputs come I used to work more than usual working hours and used to slog in order to meet dead lines.
Hence I feel I would like to go beyond my manager and approach other teams or departments for those clarifications. How can I do gracefully without creating any rift with my manager? | 2014/04/23 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/23077",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/5183/"
] | The graceful way is to offer your manager a potential solution to help him with the amount of work in his plate and getting projects finished sooner. Don't start with trying to limit your hours in general, but doing things at the last minute is taking a risk of more errors.
He may be worried that things will happen without his knowledge. Work on documentation of the requests and that if you feel someone is making an unnecessary requirement, you'll bring it to his attention. He is responsible for the project and sometimes that leads to micro-managing. There could be other checks and balances required by the company to keep him in the loop. I've had managers who tried to insulate their team from ad hoc requests especially and I only would work directly with users when given permission on particular projects.
There may be other solutions to free up his time (Isn't that the real problem?). Does he take on the sole responsibility of finding replacements? You'll never provide the best solution until you have all the information. Just because this is a bottleneck for your projects may not be perceived as a problem for the company (ie. they don't care if you have to work late.). | It depends on your company's structure. If the President/CEO is in your line of report-to, then simply make the point to politely request to speak with him/her and bring such issues to their attention. I work with a remote manager who is not the most punctual and brings a very outdated approach to application development to the table often. In those situations where he is stalling or being purposeful in his impedance to progress for the sake of his own comfort and position, I routinely go directly to the President/CEO. The key to doing that though lays in presenting the facts and espressing the issue tactfully, not in a way that comes across as throwing someone under the bus, even if they may deserve it.
I find that being equipped with the facts, what the problem is and how going about it differently will speed up completion, the CEO is all ears, and provides the authorization and any resources needed, in addition to setting the manager straight on the same path as I presented to him. Just be prepared and organized beforehand. |
7,724 | I'm trying to understand how symbol synchronization is done in OFDM using pilot tones, cyclic prefixes, or any other technique.
I've read the following answers which provide some explanation, but I still don't totally understand it.
[How to demodulate an OFDM signal](https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/360/how-to-demodulate-an-ofdm-signal/368#368)
[How to estimate the number of taps needed for subsequent channel estimation algorithms?](https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/309/how-to-estimate-the-number-of-taps-needed-for-subsequent-channel-estimation-algo/315#315)
Specific questions:
1) How is a pilot tone found? What makes it different than the regular data on a sub-carrier? How can it be used to determine symbol starts and ends?
2) If I understand the answers above correctly, a cyclic prefix can be used to find the symbol start/end because it will auto-correlate with some delay. However, the cyclic-prefix exists in order to "absorb" ISI. So if the prefix has been munged with ISI, then how can this auto-correlation be successful? | 2013/02/01 | [
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/7724",
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com",
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com/users/3435/"
] | **Regarding you're general question about how symbol sychronization is done in OFDM systems:**
1. One of the most popular and frequently used techniques is the transmission of one or several pilot *symbols* that are known in the receiver. A pilot symbol is a complete OFDM symbol where the value of each subcarrier is predefined and known in transmitter and receiver. It is repeated with a certain rate that depends on how fast the channel changes. The received signal is correlated with the pilot symbol to detect the OFDM symbol start. It can also be used for channel estimation. Schmidl and Cox have introduced in [1] a pilot symbol based technique where the pilot symbol has a special symmetry so that the pilot symbol need not to be known at the receiver.
2. As Jason R has noted in his comment, although it is not its initial purpose, the cyclic prefix can also be used for symbol synchronization because its a known repetition of some part of the received signal that can be detected through autocorrelation. It is especially well-suited for fast-changing channels, because the delay time can be updated on a per-symbol basis. Additionaly, it does not add any additional overhead. However, it is more sensitive to noise [2] and presumably also to ISI.
*Edit:* The maximum delay that can be detected by this method is the lenght of one OFDM symbol. It's therefore only suited for fine synchronization.
3. There are some more "exotic" techniques. In one of these, for instance, the N-DFT (N = number of subcarriers) of time-shifted versions of the received signal is calculated. If you apply the DFT to the wrong time window, the resulting constellation diagram will be a mess. If you got the correct time window, the constallation digaram shows distinct constellation points. This can be detected by calculating the standard deviation of the DFT output. This method implies a high computational cost.
**Regarding you specific questions**
>
> How is a pilot tone found? What makes it different than the regular data on a sub-carrier? How can it be used to determine symbol starts and ends?
>
>
>
Once you have synchronized the received signal the pilot tones are at predefined bins of the DFT. When designing the system the location of pilot tones in the spectrum is fixed. There are more complex schemes, where the location of the pilot tones changes in a predefined pattern to get a good approximation of the channel in both frequency and time domain. Pilot tones cannot be used for synchronization, because the received signal has first to be synchronized before you can even extract the pilot tones in frequency domain. Assume that a wrong time window is used: ortogonality of subcarriers will be lost and the result of DFT is some mixture of two consecutive OFDM symbols. This is a nonlinear effect and the pilot symbols cannot be extracted from this mixture. Pilot tones are used for channel estimation and sometimes phase noise mitigation.
*Edit:* As Jim Clay has pointed out in his comments, fine synchronization through pilot tones is possible if a coarse value for the delay is known and the residual delay does not exceed the length of the cyclic prefix.
>
> If I understand the answers above correctly, a cyclic prefix can be used to find the symbol start/end because it will auto-correlate with some delay. However, the cyclic-prefix exists in order to "absorb" ISI. So if the prefix has been munged with ISI, then how can this auto-correlation be successful?
>
>
>
Like all synchronisation techniques this method will suffer from noise and channel dispersion and consequently will only work to some extent of the beforementioned effects. Quantifying to which extent *exactly* it is still working would require some thorough research that somone has certainly already done.
---
[1] Schmidl, T.M.; Cox, D.C.; , "Robust frequency and timing synchronization for OFDM," Communications, IEEE Transactions on , vol.45, no.12, pp.1613-1621, Dec 1997
[2] van de Beek, J.J.; Sandell, M.; Borjesson, P.O.; , "ML estimation of time and frequency offset in OFDM systems," Signal Processing, IEEE Transactions on , vol.45, no.7, pp.1800-1805, Jul 1997 | To roughly summarize Deve & Jim Clay's excellent responses:
Symbol Synchronization consists of two different tasks -- rough symbol synchronization, where the symbol boundaries are approximated, and fine symbol synchronization, where the rough synchronization is slightly adjusted. Often the fine synchronization is less computationally intensive and so can be done more frequently to adjust for changes in the channel.
Pilot symbols, which are special predefined symbols that are known to the transmitter and receiver can be used to do rough synchronization by searching for the symbol in the time-domain ("auto-correlation")
The phase of a sub-carrier should change in a predictable way from one window to the next. For example, in BPSK, the phase should be 0 or pi radians away from its expected value from one window to the next. By trying different window positions, and testing multiple sub-carriers (for better noise immunity) rough symbol synchronization can be achieved. This is an "exotic" method.
Cyclic prefixes, which are a continuation of the symbol that is prefixed to the beginning, can be used for fine correlation through auto-correlation.
Pilot tones are specific sub-carriers that are chosen ahead of time. They carry a specific repeating pattern. They are used for channel estimation and additionally can be used for fine synchronization. |
7,724 | I'm trying to understand how symbol synchronization is done in OFDM using pilot tones, cyclic prefixes, or any other technique.
I've read the following answers which provide some explanation, but I still don't totally understand it.
[How to demodulate an OFDM signal](https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/360/how-to-demodulate-an-ofdm-signal/368#368)
[How to estimate the number of taps needed for subsequent channel estimation algorithms?](https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/309/how-to-estimate-the-number-of-taps-needed-for-subsequent-channel-estimation-algo/315#315)
Specific questions:
1) How is a pilot tone found? What makes it different than the regular data on a sub-carrier? How can it be used to determine symbol starts and ends?
2) If I understand the answers above correctly, a cyclic prefix can be used to find the symbol start/end because it will auto-correlate with some delay. However, the cyclic-prefix exists in order to "absorb" ISI. So if the prefix has been munged with ISI, then how can this auto-correlation be successful? | 2013/02/01 | [
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/7724",
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com",
"https://dsp.stackexchange.com/users/3435/"
] | Synchronization is an important task in practical communication systems but it is not directly related to the theory of OFDM.
Frame Synchronization
=====================
Practical communication systems (such as IEEE 802.11 or 802.3) exchange so-called frames, which consist of several fields, which in turn accomplish different, specific tasks.
Typically, the first field of a frame is a so-called preamble, which has the mere purpose of
* detecting arriving frames,
* synchronizing the receiver with the transmitter,
* performing automatic gain correction (AGC) at the receiver (required in wireless communication systems).
The preamble typically consists of a Barker sequence, which is a binary code with minimal off-peak autocorrelation.
This code doesn't even necessarily have to be OFDM-modulated, but it may be BPSK-modulated on a single carrier within the available frequency band.
The receiver applies a matched filter to the incoming stream of samples.
If the matched filter's output exceeds a specific threshold, it is very likely that it has detected an incoming preamble.
As the Barker code's off-peak autocorrelation coefficients are minimal, the peak of the matched filter's output provides the required information to align the subsequent fields of the frame with the receiver's FFT.
Training Sequence
=================
After the preamble, the next field of a frame is typically some sort of an OFDM *training sequence*.
The main purpose of training sequences is to *estimate channel coefficients* of individual subcarriers, not synchronization.
Some protocols distinguish also between long and short training sequences, whereas a long training sequence can be found directly after the preamble and short training sequences are spread in the rest of the frame.
Generally, the receiver knows in advance
* the positions of training sequences in the frame and
* the values of the pilot symbols contained in the training sequences.
As the channel coefficients may change over time due to mobility of nodes and obstacles in the environment, they have to be re-estimated within the so-called coherence time, which is accomplished by short training sequences (i.e., pilot symbols) between payload OFDM symbols.
The coherence time can be approximated as the inverse of the maximum Doppler spread.
Also, in some protocols, training sequences are transmitted only on a few, equally-spaced subcarriers, while all other subcarriers in between continue payload transmissions.
This works since the channel coefficients of neighboring subcarriers are correlated to each other.
The coherence bandwidth of a fading channel can be estimated as the inverse of the channel delay spread.
Also note that in practical systems, the pilot symbols may also be used for other purposes, such as to estimate the SNR of individual subcarriers or to perform estimation of the carrier frequency offset (see below).
Cyclic prefix
=============
The main purpose of the cyclic prefix inserted between successive OFDM symbols is mitigation of ISI (Inter-Symbol-Interference) and ICI (Inter-Carrier-Interference), not synchronization or determining symbol starts or ends.
Mitigation of ISI
-----------------
Due to multipath propagation, multiple copies of the transmitted waveform arrive at the receiver at different time instants.
Hence, if there was no guard space between successive OFDM symbols, a transmitted OFDM symbol may overlap with its subsequent OFDM symbol at the receiver, causing ISI.
Inserting a guard space between successive OFDM symbols in the time domain mitigates this effect.
If the guard space is larger than the maximum channel delay spread, all of the multi-path copies arrive within the guard space, keeping the subsequent OFDM symbol unaffected.
Note that the guard space may also contain zeros to mitigate the effect of ISI.
In fact, no cyclic prefix is required in the guard space in any digital communication technique to mitigate the effect of ISI.
Mitigation of ICI
-----------------
In OFDM, guard spaces are filled with a cyclic prefix to maintain orthogonality between subcarriers on condition that multiple delayed copies arrive at the receiver due to multi-path propagation.
If the guard space was actually filled with zeros at the transmitter, the multiple copies arriving at the receiver would be non-orthogonal (i.e., somehow correlated) to each other, causing ICI.
Carrier Frequency Offset (CFO) and Phase Noise
==============================================
In practical systems, the transmitter's and the receiver's carrier frequency oscillators typically have a slight offset in frequency, which causes a *phase drift* over time.
In addition, the power spectral density of a practical oscillator is not an ideal delta function, resulting in phase noise.
Phase noise causes the CFO to continuously change, resulting in a change of the phase drift's speed and direction.
There are various techniques to *resynchronize* the receiver to the received signal, i.e., to track the phase of the incoming signal.
These techniques may additionally exploit the presence of pilot symbols in the signal, and/or apply blind estimation and correlation techniques.
I also maintain an open-source [OFDM framework](https://github.com/r3nk/WARPLab-OFDM) for software defined radios, which covers the techniques described above in Matlab code. | To roughly summarize Deve & Jim Clay's excellent responses:
Symbol Synchronization consists of two different tasks -- rough symbol synchronization, where the symbol boundaries are approximated, and fine symbol synchronization, where the rough synchronization is slightly adjusted. Often the fine synchronization is less computationally intensive and so can be done more frequently to adjust for changes in the channel.
Pilot symbols, which are special predefined symbols that are known to the transmitter and receiver can be used to do rough synchronization by searching for the symbol in the time-domain ("auto-correlation")
The phase of a sub-carrier should change in a predictable way from one window to the next. For example, in BPSK, the phase should be 0 or pi radians away from its expected value from one window to the next. By trying different window positions, and testing multiple sub-carriers (for better noise immunity) rough symbol synchronization can be achieved. This is an "exotic" method.
Cyclic prefixes, which are a continuation of the symbol that is prefixed to the beginning, can be used for fine correlation through auto-correlation.
Pilot tones are specific sub-carriers that are chosen ahead of time. They carry a specific repeating pattern. They are used for channel estimation and additionally can be used for fine synchronization. |
4,910,029 | On Windows, when a PDF is opened in Adobe Reader, it appears to hold a lock on the file. This behavior means that if I want to re-run pdflatex to regenerate the file, I need to close it in Reader, run pdflatex, jump back to Reader, and reopen the file. Is there a way to make Reader not hold a lock while the file is open, like Preview on OSX and most other PDF readers I've used on other platforms? | 2011/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4910029",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/230123/"
] | As peq mentioned, SumatraPDF (http://blog.kowalczyk.info/software/sumatrapdf/free-pdf-reader.html ) is a great solution. | As seen in [this post in Adobe forum](https://forums.adobe.com/thread/2345245), the company considers this not to be a desirable feature but a bug. |
286,897 | Is there any food, other than *toast* (i.e. slices of bread browned by fire, electric heat, etc.) that, even when it is in domestic-sized, countable amounts is nevertheless treated as an uncountable, mass noun.
This question arises from the discussion here [Why is “toast” uncountable?](https://english.stackexchange.com/q/286613/103961) | 2015/11/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/286897",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/103961/"
] | Fruit. Corn (U.S.) Maize (U.K.) You have to say *"a piece of fruit"*, *"an ear of corn"*, or *"an ear of maize".* | I would say Jello perhaps? Though almost always preportioned it's extremely uncommon to hear someone order "a Jello". My recollection is that nearly everyone orders "some jello", even when it's portioned out in full view. |
4,035,459 | I have a single line text field that gets his .text property populated from a external .XML file. This text is pretty long and I want to display it on one line as much as I can and add a "..." afterwards.
e.g.
whole text = Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum.
displayed text = Description: Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing el
how I want it to be displayed = Description: Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing...
I read the manual and I can't seem to find a property that gives me the index which points me to the end of the displayed text.
If you have another idea, please tell me.
Thank you! | 2010/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4035459",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/489109/"
] | Perhaps it's too late, but have you looked into using a [DEF](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/d91k01sh.aspx) file? | There is one another way to solve your problem.
You just need to create one definition file(.def) and export all the methods or class you want to share.
U will also have to set :
Properties->Linker->Input->Module Definition File -> add name of your created .def file.
Now use run time dynamic linking:
In project where you want to call the exported methods use LoadLibrary to get handle of your Dll and call the required method using GetProcAddress. |
35,013 | I know that many apple laptops such as my Macbook 6,1 run a 32 bit kernel in OS X Snow Leopard. The kernel according to Apple can also run or "support" 64 bit applications. My question is how does the system do that?
A 64 bit OS can run 32 bit apps by default because the OS has emulators that catch all 32 bit calls and translate them into native 64 bit calls.
But how does the 32 bit kernel in OS X do that with 64 bit?
1. Hardware architecture virtualization? (if so, wouldnt this be slow as the conversion from 32 bit calls and memory addresses to 64 bit is a lot more intensive?)
2. Hybrid architecture design (i.e the kernel is designed with some 64 bit elements mixed in with the mostly 32 bit design?)
Apple docs and support doesnt seem to have anything specific on this. I am just curious! | 2011/12/30 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/35013",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/15714/"
] | Note, some of the info in this answer was cribbed from [here](http://www.zdnet.com/blog/apple/will-your-mac-boot-64-bit-snow-leopard-by-default-not-unless-its-an-xserve/4712):
Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard was the last OS to support 32 bit CPU architectures, like the Core Solo, and Core Duo (not Core 2 Duo) processors. Note that it's entirely possible to have a 64bit processors like the Core 2 Duo, and still have a 32bit EFI firmware, so the CPU alone isn't the sole indicator of your systems capabilities in this respect.
This is how you end up the situation of having a 32 bit kernel, that is held back by the EFI, running on a 64 bit CPU, which is capable of running a 64bit application stack so long as it is not dynamically loading any kernel modules etc. The application isn't wholly tied to the kernel, and is capable is independent running in a different state to the kernel if required. Same way an app can run 32bit on a 64bit kernel...
To be honest, the number of people with a Core 2 Duo or above but with a 32bit EFI are relatively limited, and you are unlucky if you are one of those people that has, say a Macbook from 2007/8 when this was common. The 64bit EFI was introduced in a staggered way across the range so it's not simple to pinpoint what date it was common across all formats.
You can check your machine’s EFI by entering the following command in Terminal:
ioreg -l -p IODeviceTree | grep firmware-abi
It will return either “EFI32″ or “EFI64.”
In addition, some perfectly capable machines still only boot into 32bit mode kernels, even when they are capable, although you can force a 64bit kernel by holding down the 6 and 4 keys on boot.
OS News notes that only Macs with a 64-bit EFI are able to boot the 64-bit Snow Leopard kernel and kexts; an artificial limitation imposed by Apple, even though a 32-bit EFI can boot a 64-bit kernel “just fine.”
What’s worse is that even if your MacBook (non-Pro) has a 64-bit EFI, it will only be able to boot the 32-bit version of Snow Leopard because of a limitation that Apple imposes on MacBooks. The biggest roadkill on Route 64 is the original Mac Pro (which was discontinued January 8, 2008) it won’t be able to boot the 64-bit kernel and drivers either.[enter link description here](http://www.osnews.com/story/22009/Snow_Leopard_Seeds_Use_32bit_Kernel_Drivers_by_Default) | The 32 bit versus 64 bit is probably more of a question for the microprocessor manufacturer:
<http://search.intel.com/default.aspx?q=64+bit&c=en_US&method=text&input-submit=Search> |
6,525 | >
> Given our knowledge and the standard cosmological model, we estimate that the age of the universe is about 13.7 billion years old.
>
>
>
How much sense does it make to talk about the age of the universe as a whole?
We can observe [time dilation](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_dilation) so we know time passes differently for observers moving at different speeds (special relativistic time dilation) or located at different distances from centres of strong gravitational fields (as explained by general relativity). Is the estimated age of the universe a property of the universe or of us as its observers?
Would a different observer perceive the age of the universe to be different? Do different parts of the universe have different ages? Do the principles of special relativity even apply when thinking on a universal scale? | 2014/10/05 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/6525",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/211/"
] | The answer is yes time dilation does affect how much time an observer experiences since the big bang until the present (cosmological) time.
However there is a certain set of special observers called comoving observers, these are the observers to which the Universe appears isotropic to. For example we can tell the Earth is moving at about 350 km/s relative to a nearby comoving observer by measuring the anistropy in the cosmic microwave background (in fact it causes a relatively large anistropy, the pictures of the CMB you see from WMAP, etc are with this anistropy factored out).
One special property of a comoving observer in the Universe is that they maximize the age of the Universe, i.e. no other observer can experience more time since the big bang than a comoving observer (in case you ask there is no observer that minimizes the time since the big bang). When we talk about the age of the Universe we are talking about the age of the Universe from the pov of a comoving observer. | In the standard model, the universe looks the same for all locations moving in the local rest frame. This includes its apparent age. You can tell if you are in the local rest frame if the expansion of galaxies around you is symmetric in all directions and the microwave background also is the same in all directions. Simply put, any civilization on any galaxy in the visible universe would measure the same age of the universe that we do.
If, however, some object managed to move at nearly the speed of light relative to its local rest frames, which would have been changing continuously, for a significant fraction of the age of the universe, there would be relativistic time dilation and that object would not have aged as much as the rest of the universe. That is, if there were a clock onboard, it would record less time elapsed. However, since doing this requires continuous accelerations and vast energy, no natural phenomenon that we know of could have experienced this.
If an object accelerates to the speed of light and then cuts off its engines, then because of Hubble expansion, it will travel to locations where relative to the new local galaxies it is no longer going near the speed of light and hence the time dilation as seen by local observers drops off. Cosmologists usually use expanding coordinates, which expand in time with the global scale, to do calculations. In expanding coordinates this effect appears as a fictitious force (arising from the transformation of coordinate system) that acts to dampen velocities. |
3,223 | Just to clarify: I've made some research and generally know what the case is, didn't mean to make the question sound stupid. :)
I know there is a thing called Hohmann transfer orbit, named after Walter Hohmann, who came up with the idea of it, and each and every spacecraft we've sent to Mars so far, has used this very method to reach Mars.
On one side, the Hohmann transfer orbit is quite fuel efficient, compared to other methods, and for a unmanned probe, it wouldn't matter if the voyage to Mars is 7 months.
However, we are all aware of the hazardous environment during the trip, if you're a human. So a round-trip of 5 months is better than year and a half.
I know that in order to travel to Mars in a straight line we need to achieve a direct Earth-solar escape velocity. The probe New Horizons already did that.
If we launch in a straight line, and we've calculated the position of Mars in the time frame of arrival, we'll rendezvous with Mars.
However, we wouldn't be able to get into orbit around Mars in order to land, because our speed relative to Mars would be too high. So we need to do a deceleration fuel burn, to reduce speed.
The two combined (direct Earth-solar escape velocity and Mars orbit deceleration fuel burn) would require very large amounts of fuel, especially for a manned mission, which is heavy to lift. But it is achievable either with a Mars manned spacecraft assembled in LEO (much like the ISS), or with some other means.
So why not travel to Mars in a straight line, or am I missing something?
**UPDATE (to further clarify the question):**
If the only obstacle in achieving this is a large amount of required fuel, how large would it be, and what techniques could we apply to minimize this amount of required fuel? What about the assembly of a Mars manned vehicle in LEO? How would that change things? | 2013/12/29 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/3223",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/1357/"
] | Like @oefe noted in the comments, you've already covered the reasons why not use direct launch to Mars pretty well in your question, so I'm going to assume you just haven't taken enough time for all these rather difficult concepts to clarify in your own mind, and I'll point you to a nicely written and relatively easy to understand description for it, that should help with that. From [NASA Jet Propulsion Laboratory's Basics of Space Flight, Section I, Chapter 4. Interplanetary Trajectories](http://www2.jpl.nasa.gov/basics/bsf4-1.php):
>
> When travelling among the planets, it's a good idea to minimize the
> propellant mass needed by your spacecraft and its launch vehicle. That
> way, such a flight is possible with current launch capabilities, and
> costs will not be prohibitive. The amount of propellant needed depends
> largely on what route you choose. Trajectories that by their nature
> need a minimum of propellant are therefore of great interest.
>
>
> **Hohmann Transfer Orbits**
>
>
> To launch a spacecraft from Earth to an outer planet such as Mars
> using the least propellant possible, first consider that the
> spacecraft is already in solar orbit as it sits on the launch pad.
> This existing solar orbit must be adjusted to cause it to take the
> spacecraft to Mars: The desired orbit's perihelion (closest approach
> to the sun) will be at the distance of Earth's orbit, and the aphelion
> (farthest distance from the sun) will be at the distance of Mars'
> orbit. This is called a Hohmann Transfer orbit. The portion of the
> solar orbit that takes the spacecraft from Earth to Mars is called its
> trajectory.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> 
>
>
> **Earth to Mars via Least Energy Orbit**
>
>
> Quote and image source: [NASA Jet Propulsion Laboratory's Basics of Space Flight, Section I, Chapter 4. Interplanetary Trajectories](http://www2.jpl.nasa.gov/basics/bsf4-1.php)
>
>
>
And so on and I suggest reading the whole lot. It's the easiest and still sufficiently complete description of *interplanetary spaceflight economics* that I can think of, and sometimes all it takes is reading or hearing it put in different words to really understand it. One other resource that I suggest is also reading Emily Lakdawalla's blog post on [Why are MAVEN and Mars Orbiter Mission taking such different paths to Mars?](http://www.planetary.org/blogs/emily-lakdawalla/2013/11220947-maven-mom-trajectory-explainer.html) But I'd start with the NASA JPL one first, since it deals with the concepts, then move on to an actual example as described in Emily's blog.
So, as you see, this all boils down to economics. For example, the Mars One project is expected to use 4 separate launches of Delta IV Heavy (four of the most powerful rockets currently available) to launch required parts into Low-Earth Orbit (LEO), use in-orbit assembly and then launch all of that into a Hohmann transfer orbit towards Mars. If they attempted to launch all required parts into a more direct trajectory, they would have to use many more launches (it's the lifting capacity that's *dragging you down* and you'd require more fuel to reach escape velocity for a more direct trajectory, requiring greater delta-v, which adds more mass which requires more thrust, ad nauseum), and do that at the same time for in-trajectory assembly, otherwise you end up with parts indefinitely chasing each other. To put it differently, we simply don't have lifting capacity available for a more direct trajectory to Mars launch. And even if we had, we'd still be able to launch a lot greater mass towards Mars by requiring less delta-v by using Hohmann transfer trajectory. | All answers above have very good points. But it's even more difficult than that. Even with speculative propulsion systems it will be very hard to go to Mars rapidly. Following the observation by [Wertz](https://doi.org/10.2514/6.IAC-03-Q.4.06) (gated link, sorry) that if the transfer is fast enough we can avoid waiting a lot of time to return, I co-authored a preliminary study estimating the required mass to go and return fast enough using modern and even a very speculative propulsion system. The study has been accepted for publication in the J. Astronautical Sciences but a preprint is available [here](https://arxiv.org/pdf/1502.06457). The conclusion is that even with a very, speculative, propulsion system, it will require a lot - a lot! - of mass to do it. A more detailed study only for impulsive maneuvers was also presented this year at the International Astronautical Congress (abstract [here](https://iafastro.directory/iac/paper/id/62203/summary/), soon to be submitted to a journal) and the conclusion is basically the same: we need much better propulsion systems to consider the possibility of going much faster than the usual Hohmann-like solution. |
3,223 | Just to clarify: I've made some research and generally know what the case is, didn't mean to make the question sound stupid. :)
I know there is a thing called Hohmann transfer orbit, named after Walter Hohmann, who came up with the idea of it, and each and every spacecraft we've sent to Mars so far, has used this very method to reach Mars.
On one side, the Hohmann transfer orbit is quite fuel efficient, compared to other methods, and for a unmanned probe, it wouldn't matter if the voyage to Mars is 7 months.
However, we are all aware of the hazardous environment during the trip, if you're a human. So a round-trip of 5 months is better than year and a half.
I know that in order to travel to Mars in a straight line we need to achieve a direct Earth-solar escape velocity. The probe New Horizons already did that.
If we launch in a straight line, and we've calculated the position of Mars in the time frame of arrival, we'll rendezvous with Mars.
However, we wouldn't be able to get into orbit around Mars in order to land, because our speed relative to Mars would be too high. So we need to do a deceleration fuel burn, to reduce speed.
The two combined (direct Earth-solar escape velocity and Mars orbit deceleration fuel burn) would require very large amounts of fuel, especially for a manned mission, which is heavy to lift. But it is achievable either with a Mars manned spacecraft assembled in LEO (much like the ISS), or with some other means.
So why not travel to Mars in a straight line, or am I missing something?
**UPDATE (to further clarify the question):**
If the only obstacle in achieving this is a large amount of required fuel, how large would it be, and what techniques could we apply to minimize this amount of required fuel? What about the assembly of a Mars manned vehicle in LEO? How would that change things? | 2013/12/29 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/3223",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/1357/"
] | In addition to the answers above, one should add that assuming you can get to Mars very, very fast, you will therefore arrive there with a very high velocity relative to Mars. This makes the problem of landing on Mars much harder. Also, if something goes wrong at Mars insertion, the Martian explorers are hurtling off into deep space with no way back. The Mars Direct plan called for Hohmann transfers partly because if something goes wrong during Mars insertion (or on the way to Mars) the orbit can be continued back to Earth instead with minimal fuel needed. | All answers above have very good points. But it's even more difficult than that. Even with speculative propulsion systems it will be very hard to go to Mars rapidly. Following the observation by [Wertz](https://doi.org/10.2514/6.IAC-03-Q.4.06) (gated link, sorry) that if the transfer is fast enough we can avoid waiting a lot of time to return, I co-authored a preliminary study estimating the required mass to go and return fast enough using modern and even a very speculative propulsion system. The study has been accepted for publication in the J. Astronautical Sciences but a preprint is available [here](https://arxiv.org/pdf/1502.06457). The conclusion is that even with a very, speculative, propulsion system, it will require a lot - a lot! - of mass to do it. A more detailed study only for impulsive maneuvers was also presented this year at the International Astronautical Congress (abstract [here](https://iafastro.directory/iac/paper/id/62203/summary/), soon to be submitted to a journal) and the conclusion is basically the same: we need much better propulsion systems to consider the possibility of going much faster than the usual Hohmann-like solution. |
24,807 | So I just tried this recipe for banana muffins. They taste great (even directly after baking) and the texture is really nice and soft - like a muffin is supposed to be.
The problem: They don't rise like I want them to do.
This how I want them to look:
And this how they look like (not my picture, but identically):
I already found this: [Why don't my muffins rise and develop tops properly?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/16533/why-dont-my-muffins-rise-and-develop-tops-properly)
The accepted answer has many great hints, but I truly don't believe any of these points target my problem. I thought that I maybe didn't fill the forms enough, but the recipe is for 12 muffins and I made, using 100% of the batter.
I baked them on the middle tray of my oven, using heat only from the top and bottom, no ventilation.
So I think that maybe they don't rise that nice because of the banana? Is it possible that the banana makes the dough so heavy that is gets soft but doesn't rise that much? Or do you have any other ideas what could cause this - is it allowed to post the recipe?
Edit: Ok, so here is the recipe:
* 180 g flour (I used Type 550 wheat flour)
* 120 g brown sugar
* 1 teaspoon baking powder
* 1 teaspoon baking soda
* a pinch of salt
* 75 g melted butter
* 4 ripe mashed bananas
* 1 egg
* some vanilla seeds
First I mixed the sugar, the egg, the butter and the mashed bananas together and added the vanilla seeds. Into a separate bowl I sieved the flour, baking powder and the baking soda, then I added the salt. After that I combined the dry-mix with the wet-mix. At that stage I notice some bubbles in the batter which was a good sign I believe. I put the batter into my muffin form and baked it approx. 20 minutes at 180 °C. | 2012/07/02 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/24807",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/10268/"
] | If the muffins have a slightly chemical flavour, it could be that there is not enough acid in the recipe to react with all the baking soda. Bananas do contain malic acid and citric acid but you could try adding some lemon juice to be sure. You could also play around with the proportions of baking powder to baking soda. Try 1 1/2 tsp baking powder and just 1/2 tsp baking soda.
I also notice that the muffin in your picture looks slightly anaemic compared to your ideal muffin. Get an oven thermometer if you don't already have one and check that the middle tray of the oven is reaching the correct temperature. | Did you preheat the Oven?
At our facility we preheat to 400F then lower to 360F just as soon as we close the door. Why? Muffins do not rise enough (we feel) in a warm oven. The time the oven door is open also cools the oven itself 30-40 degrees. So we preheat, then it's at the right temp as soon as the door is closed.
We try to cook fast in a hot oven rather than slow in a warm oven. You have to achieve the chemical reaction part rather quickly or it fizzles out.
That is only one of many reasons for small round tops, as you're finding out. [Here is another article that may also help the train of thought.](http://om-paramapoonya.hubpages.com/hub/How-to-Make-Muffins-Like-a-Pro) |
24,807 | So I just tried this recipe for banana muffins. They taste great (even directly after baking) and the texture is really nice and soft - like a muffin is supposed to be.
The problem: They don't rise like I want them to do.
This how I want them to look:
And this how they look like (not my picture, but identically):
I already found this: [Why don't my muffins rise and develop tops properly?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/16533/why-dont-my-muffins-rise-and-develop-tops-properly)
The accepted answer has many great hints, but I truly don't believe any of these points target my problem. I thought that I maybe didn't fill the forms enough, but the recipe is for 12 muffins and I made, using 100% of the batter.
I baked them on the middle tray of my oven, using heat only from the top and bottom, no ventilation.
So I think that maybe they don't rise that nice because of the banana? Is it possible that the banana makes the dough so heavy that is gets soft but doesn't rise that much? Or do you have any other ideas what could cause this - is it allowed to post the recipe?
Edit: Ok, so here is the recipe:
* 180 g flour (I used Type 550 wheat flour)
* 120 g brown sugar
* 1 teaspoon baking powder
* 1 teaspoon baking soda
* a pinch of salt
* 75 g melted butter
* 4 ripe mashed bananas
* 1 egg
* some vanilla seeds
First I mixed the sugar, the egg, the butter and the mashed bananas together and added the vanilla seeds. Into a separate bowl I sieved the flour, baking powder and the baking soda, then I added the salt. After that I combined the dry-mix with the wet-mix. At that stage I notice some bubbles in the batter which was a good sign I believe. I put the batter into my muffin form and baked it approx. 20 minutes at 180 °C. | 2012/07/02 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/24807",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/10268/"
] | If the muffins have a slightly chemical flavour, it could be that there is not enough acid in the recipe to react with all the baking soda. Bananas do contain malic acid and citric acid but you could try adding some lemon juice to be sure. You could also play around with the proportions of baking powder to baking soda. Try 1 1/2 tsp baking powder and just 1/2 tsp baking soda.
I also notice that the muffin in your picture looks slightly anaemic compared to your ideal muffin. Get an oven thermometer if you don't already have one and check that the middle tray of the oven is reaching the correct temperature. | As others have suggested, try pre-heating your oven. You also seem to be using a lot of butter, you could try reducing it.
There's nothing shocking with your recipe. I made banana muffins daily for two years in University and I used a ratio of 400g/200g/100g flour/butter/sugar and mine were perfect almost every time. |
24,807 | So I just tried this recipe for banana muffins. They taste great (even directly after baking) and the texture is really nice and soft - like a muffin is supposed to be.
The problem: They don't rise like I want them to do.
This how I want them to look:
And this how they look like (not my picture, but identically):
I already found this: [Why don't my muffins rise and develop tops properly?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/16533/why-dont-my-muffins-rise-and-develop-tops-properly)
The accepted answer has many great hints, but I truly don't believe any of these points target my problem. I thought that I maybe didn't fill the forms enough, but the recipe is for 12 muffins and I made, using 100% of the batter.
I baked them on the middle tray of my oven, using heat only from the top and bottom, no ventilation.
So I think that maybe they don't rise that nice because of the banana? Is it possible that the banana makes the dough so heavy that is gets soft but doesn't rise that much? Or do you have any other ideas what could cause this - is it allowed to post the recipe?
Edit: Ok, so here is the recipe:
* 180 g flour (I used Type 550 wheat flour)
* 120 g brown sugar
* 1 teaspoon baking powder
* 1 teaspoon baking soda
* a pinch of salt
* 75 g melted butter
* 4 ripe mashed bananas
* 1 egg
* some vanilla seeds
First I mixed the sugar, the egg, the butter and the mashed bananas together and added the vanilla seeds. Into a separate bowl I sieved the flour, baking powder and the baking soda, then I added the salt. After that I combined the dry-mix with the wet-mix. At that stage I notice some bubbles in the batter which was a good sign I believe. I put the batter into my muffin form and baked it approx. 20 minutes at 180 °C. | 2012/07/02 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/24807",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/10268/"
] | Did you preheat the Oven?
At our facility we preheat to 400F then lower to 360F just as soon as we close the door. Why? Muffins do not rise enough (we feel) in a warm oven. The time the oven door is open also cools the oven itself 30-40 degrees. So we preheat, then it's at the right temp as soon as the door is closed.
We try to cook fast in a hot oven rather than slow in a warm oven. You have to achieve the chemical reaction part rather quickly or it fizzles out.
That is only one of many reasons for small round tops, as you're finding out. [Here is another article that may also help the train of thought.](http://om-paramapoonya.hubpages.com/hub/How-to-Make-Muffins-Like-a-Pro) | As others have suggested, try pre-heating your oven. You also seem to be using a lot of butter, you could try reducing it.
There's nothing shocking with your recipe. I made banana muffins daily for two years in University and I used a ratio of 400g/200g/100g flour/butter/sugar and mine were perfect almost every time. |
2,011,212 | i am getting error using this syntax
this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(typeof(string), "Test", " alert('<%=Resources.Text.Header\_Login%>');");
please any suggestion reply to me | 2010/01/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2011212",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/242565/"
] | I don't think there is a benchmark yet, and until someone performs it we can only guess...
You may find [this post](http://groovyland.wordpress.com/2008/05/09/invokedynamic-is-it-what-we-really-need/) in this matter interesting. | I'm not sure how much is it applicable to Groovy. If I remember well, Groovy has some fallbacks (e.g. invokeMethod method). It is not possible to simply use the fallback with invokedynamic, I think.
However, there are some ways:
* Catch the exception that is thrown when the method is not found. Unfortunately, it is probably necessary to analyze stacktrace, because you can't be sure where is it thrown from. This can be a signifficant slowdown when calling a non-existing method, regardless it is handled by invokeMethod callback.
* Look at Groovy++. It allows you to use static typing if you satisfy some contraints. In such case, the it can be possible to allow you to switch to a "strict dynamic mode", which does not allow these fallbacks. |
2,011,212 | i am getting error using this syntax
this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(typeof(string), "Test", " alert('<%=Resources.Text.Header\_Login%>');");
please any suggestion reply to me | 2010/01/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2011212",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/242565/"
] | invokedynamic is a complicated story really, since the performance characteristics changes all the time in JDK7. During porting Groovy to indy I got really, really near Java, about factor 1.5. But I have to use the catchExceptionGuard, which reduces performance to something like being factor 3-4. We still need to investigate ways to avoid having to use that guard. Maybe we will have to break some existing code in Groovy 2.2 for that. Anyway, I don't need the guard for the invokeMethod fallback as mentioned above. It is for GroovyRuntimeExceptions possibly containing other exceptions, that I have to unwrap or do other things with. So the theoretical possible performance seems to be between Java and half of Java speed for existing methods. Performance of calls to invokeMethod is a whole different story.
If you need more, then use @CompileStatic in Groovy 2.0. | I don't think there is a benchmark yet, and until someone performs it we can only guess...
You may find [this post](http://groovyland.wordpress.com/2008/05/09/invokedynamic-is-it-what-we-really-need/) in this matter interesting. |
2,011,212 | i am getting error using this syntax
this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(typeof(string), "Test", " alert('<%=Resources.Text.Header\_Login%>');");
please any suggestion reply to me | 2010/01/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2011212",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/242565/"
] | It would be around 10-50 times faster in general.
<http://www.mail-archive.com/mlvm-dev@openjdk.java.net/msg00819.html> | I'm not sure how much is it applicable to Groovy. If I remember well, Groovy has some fallbacks (e.g. invokeMethod method). It is not possible to simply use the fallback with invokedynamic, I think.
However, there are some ways:
* Catch the exception that is thrown when the method is not found. Unfortunately, it is probably necessary to analyze stacktrace, because you can't be sure where is it thrown from. This can be a signifficant slowdown when calling a non-existing method, regardless it is handled by invokeMethod callback.
* Look at Groovy++. It allows you to use static typing if you satisfy some contraints. In such case, the it can be possible to allow you to switch to a "strict dynamic mode", which does not allow these fallbacks. |
2,011,212 | i am getting error using this syntax
this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(typeof(string), "Test", " alert('<%=Resources.Text.Header\_Login%>');");
please any suggestion reply to me | 2010/01/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2011212",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/242565/"
] | invokedynamic is a complicated story really, since the performance characteristics changes all the time in JDK7. During porting Groovy to indy I got really, really near Java, about factor 1.5. But I have to use the catchExceptionGuard, which reduces performance to something like being factor 3-4. We still need to investigate ways to avoid having to use that guard. Maybe we will have to break some existing code in Groovy 2.2 for that. Anyway, I don't need the guard for the invokeMethod fallback as mentioned above. It is for GroovyRuntimeExceptions possibly containing other exceptions, that I have to unwrap or do other things with. So the theoretical possible performance seems to be between Java and half of Java speed for existing methods. Performance of calls to invokeMethod is a whole different story.
If you need more, then use @CompileStatic in Groovy 2.0. | It would be around 10-50 times faster in general.
<http://www.mail-archive.com/mlvm-dev@openjdk.java.net/msg00819.html> |
2,011,212 | i am getting error using this syntax
this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(typeof(string), "Test", " alert('<%=Resources.Text.Header\_Login%>');");
please any suggestion reply to me | 2010/01/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2011212",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/242565/"
] | invokedynamic is a complicated story really, since the performance characteristics changes all the time in JDK7. During porting Groovy to indy I got really, really near Java, about factor 1.5. But I have to use the catchExceptionGuard, which reduces performance to something like being factor 3-4. We still need to investigate ways to avoid having to use that guard. Maybe we will have to break some existing code in Groovy 2.2 for that. Anyway, I don't need the guard for the invokeMethod fallback as mentioned above. It is for GroovyRuntimeExceptions possibly containing other exceptions, that I have to unwrap or do other things with. So the theoretical possible performance seems to be between Java and half of Java speed for existing methods. Performance of calls to invokeMethod is a whole different story.
If you need more, then use @CompileStatic in Groovy 2.0. | I'm not sure how much is it applicable to Groovy. If I remember well, Groovy has some fallbacks (e.g. invokeMethod method). It is not possible to simply use the fallback with invokedynamic, I think.
However, there are some ways:
* Catch the exception that is thrown when the method is not found. Unfortunately, it is probably necessary to analyze stacktrace, because you can't be sure where is it thrown from. This can be a signifficant slowdown when calling a non-existing method, regardless it is handled by invokeMethod callback.
* Look at Groovy++. It allows you to use static typing if you satisfy some contraints. In such case, the it can be possible to allow you to switch to a "strict dynamic mode", which does not allow these fallbacks. |
65,539 | I did some research and with some people's help, I think my AC pressure sensor/pressure switch doesn't work properly. When I try to turn on AC I see the light come on but it doesn't give me cold air. I checked and saw that the clutch doesn't get engaged. I recently did ac recharge and when I bypass AC compressor AC works perfectly. I left it on for like 15 min and it was giving me ice cold air. So we know air compressor works just fine. I also checked the relay and put it different fuse it didn't change anything.
I think I will just replace the AC pressure sensor on 2007 Buick LaCrosse. Before that do I need to do anything else? Simply unscrew and screw the one and give it a try? | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/65539",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/36270/"
] | You need to be totally sure the pressure switch/sensor port has a Schrader valve. You don't want to vent refrigerant into the atmosphere and also accidentally vent it where you don't want it to vent (it gets incredibly cold when it evaporates, believe me; also, the PAG oil that would spray together with the refrigerant is nasty stuff).
I highly recommend you let a professional equipped with a refrigerant recovery machine handle all of this.
Anyway it's always good policy to disconnect the battery everytime you tinker with electrical stuff (fuses, relays, sensors, et cetera). But, again, the real problem is the refrigerant. | Thank you everyone, the problem has solved. It was the low ac pressure switch, not high-pressure switch |
81,362 | I come home and have maybe 1" of water in bottom of stem in base of bowl. This happens when neighbor flushes her toilet. I have had a plumber here, he has reset the toilet & new wax ring, gone on roof to vent from the top, routed in toilet out to sewer system to find NO blockages, he has even been over to check neighbors feed to sewer & found no blockages. He has no answers any more to help. This started 1 year ago water started being removed after neighbor flushing just a little now 1 year later all my bowl water is now gone. Neighbor has been there 8 years with no problems prior, I have no animals and the only thing that I have seen is the utilities dug up shallow wires and fixed it in the front area. Any thoughts? | 2016/01/05 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/81362",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/47389/"
] | I agree with Ed Beal, the plumber should actually route/snake/auger both of your vents from the roof...it seems like the neighbor's vent is clogged. There should also be vents by the street & those should be cleared as well. Either way it should be a venting clog problem, typically from crazy birds loading your first bend from the roof. | I've had a similar problem with 2 toilets connected to the same septic tank. There was no problem with the vents but water kept being sucked out of 2nd toilet.
solution was to have the tank emptied, somehow negative pressure was created by the upper layer of dirt moving up and down in the tank at the level of the connection of the 2nd toilet. |
10,479,521 | Or any counterpart?
How can I generate a cheap random number? | 2012/05/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10479521",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/215282/"
] | GLSL ES doesn't come with noise functions, and the desktop GLSL noise functions are almost *never* implemented.
However, there are some [freeware noise functions available](https://github.com/ashima/webgl-noise/wiki). They're supposed to be pretty decent and fast. I've never used them myself, but they should work. It's MIT-licensed code, if you're worried about that. | Define "cheap".
The way random numbers work in computers is, they're not really random. You start with a number (the seed), and for each random number you want you do some fancy looking calculations on that number to get another number which looks random, and you use that number as your random number and the seed for the next random number. See [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudorandom_number_generator) for the gory details.
Problem is, that procedure is inherently sequential, which is no good for shaders.
You could theoretically write a function in a fragment shader that makes some hash out of, say, the fragment position and potentially some uniform int that is incremented every frame, but that is an awful lot of work for a fragment shader, just to produce something that looks like noise.
The conventional technique for producing noise effects in OpenGL is to create a noisy texture and have the shader(s) use it in various ways. You could simply apply the texture as a standard texture to your surface, or you could stretch it or clamp its color values. For time-varying effects you might want to use a 3D texture, or have a larger 2D texture and pass a random texture coordinate offset to the fragment shader stage each frame via a uniform.
Also have a look at [perlin noise](http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=perlin%20noise&source=web&cd=1&ved=0CGQQFjAA&url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perlin_noise&ei=JpWnT9S1AYi0iQeU3pW6Aw&usg=AFQjCNEg-ZxRBMKgV6RsWZbCySp0ibuePA&cad=rja), which essentially uses a variation of the effect described above. |
22,807,828 | Less than a year ago I wanted to learn Android and I started to make an application.
I know java/eclipse long, but not like other of you, as the language in which most have been deepened is C/C++.
But I always been a thing I've been missing, and it is the lack in the (language || IDE || Framework) , of not having a preprocessor as the M4 that C/C++ has.
To include similar directives as these.
* #DEFINE foo
* #IFDEF foo
* #IFNDEF foo
* #ENDIF
So that we avoid some code on the package. Or resources.
* Do you know any way/s to incorporate this feature in Android with Java or Eclipse or NetBeans or IntelliJ IDEA or Android Studio or plugin?.
* If you know several, in your opinion, What would be the best?.
Please, that this post does not turn into a war of which is the best solution, there's no accounting for taste. | 2014/04/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22807828",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2752609/"
] | With new gradle plugin you can use buildConfigField method of BuildType's or Flavor's DSL.
It will generate a field in BuildConfig so you can use it later in code.
You can see example here: [BuildConfig not getting created correctly (Gradle Android)](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/20706451/buildconfig-not-getting-created-correctly-gradle-android) | You have a classic case of the [XY problem](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/66377/what-is-the-xy-problem/66378#66378). Java already gives you plenty of tools to reduce code duplication, use them. C-style #defines are not the solution. |
6,522,235 | I would like to track (if that is the right word for this) the movement of a point on an object and return the co-ordinates for the point in each frame to arrays for plotting. How would you go about doing this?
The point on the video is a certain color and so my first effort was to eliminate all other colors and change the part I wish to follow to black and everything else to white. Doing this left me with some areas in the background which are the same color but I wish to ignore them and just focus on the moving point. I do not know where to even begin with this or if I've even been trying to do the right thing so far?
Any help would be greatly appreciated! :) | 2011/06/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6522235",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/810167/"
] | Try searching for terms like 'tracking', 'morphological', 'computer vision', 'matlab'
Here's a project that I found that will probably get you started.
<http://www.mathworks.com/matlabcentral/fileexchange/28757-tracking-red-color-objects-using-matlab> | if your object of interests is of a certain specific color. You can always apply a color-filter. To give you a bit of a background, i was trying to track not a point on an object, but a moving object in one of the videos i have. (it was a ping-pong video and my goal was to track the ping-pong ball). My algorithm was simple and fast (as i did not want any of my filters to induce heavy computations at one single frame). The basic idea was to apply a color filter. Similar to other shape filters, if your target is of high similarity to the filter, the response will be distinctive enough for you to notice. In other words, if you minus two objects that are extremely similar, you will get 0, otherwise, it will be far greater than 0. |
242,242 | In Naomi Novik's *Deadly Education* the Scholomance is the Boarding School from hell, where monsters fight for the privilege of being able to eat the tender morsels (mortals) stuck inside.
But how dangerous was the school supposed to be? The first novel makes it clear that some Mals were expected to reach the school no matter what. The Mortal Flame cleaning equipment was meant to run in the Great Hall and across the other levels just prior to graduation.
This would have meant that at least some Mals were expected to be in the school throughout the year, before being cleansed. And the initial plan appeared to be for regular maintenance/purging of Mals that escaped the Mortal Fire by adults.
But clearly there was expected to be "some" level of Mal threat within the school all year round and the teenagers were expected to be able to deal with it?
How high was the threat level supposed to be compared to the 40% fatality rate is shown in the book? | 2021/01/22 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/242242",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/40437/"
] | It is always clear, in the book, that the entire intention of the Scholomance is to make the school as safe as possible - the builders were, after all, planning on sending their own children, grandchildren, etc. All of the dangers, then, are entirely the result of the limitations and failures in the school's design and construction.
Near the beginning of the book, El is grousing about being saved by Orion and narrates:
>
> We’re not meant to all survive, anyway. The school has to be fed somehow.
>
>
>
This is discussed later in the book when another character talks about how many people Orion has saved (approximately 600) and the fact that the amount of food available in the cafeteria is not enough for everyone.
And then at the beginning of chapter thirteen:
>
> We’d made it to our senior year, the one in two odds we’d beaten so far.
>
>
>
Also, from half-way through chapter one, talking about graduation:
>
> About half the senior class—that is, half of the ones who’ve managed to survive that long—makes it.
>
>
>
There are three main features of the school designed to protect the students. The first is the fact that only the Graduation Hall is connected to the outside world, the rest is surrounded by the void. The second is that there is very little direct connection between the Graduation Hall and the rest of the school. Third is the cleaning cycles.
There are at least three Mortal Flame cleaning cycles specifically mentioned in the book:
1. Graduation Hall just before graduation
2. The main halls and stairwells of the school twice a year
3. Kitchen after each meal is served (though it wasn't clear exactly how that worked)
Near the end of chapter three, the protagonist tells us:
>
> It’s one of the few situations in which a wall of mortal flame might actually be called for: in fact that’s how the school cleans out the cafeteria and does the twice-yearly scouring of the halls.
>
>
>
And half-way through chapter six:
>
> The builders knew that some mals would wriggle their way up to us, so twice a year the halls get a good scouring. A very loud warning bell goes, we all run for our dormitory cells, shut ourselves in, and barricade our doors as thoroughly as we can. Then massive cleansing walls of mortal flame get conjured up and sent running on their merry way throughout the whole building, from top to bottom, incinerating hordes of desperate fleeing mals.
>
>
>
And shortly after that:
>
> If you’re wondering why they don’t also run this excellent system down in the graduation hall to clear out the mals before dumping in the seniors, the answer is they meant to, but the machinery down there has been broken since about five minutes after the school opened. No one’s going down to the graduation hall to do maintenance.
>
>
>
Since the system in the Graduation Hall is the only one that failed, only the survival rate of students who actually reach graduation is affected.
Near the end of chapter one, El says:
>
> Even enclave kids were getting eaten more often than not before the school was built, and if you’re an indie kid who doesn’t get into the Scholomance, these days your odds of making it to the far side of puberty are one in twenty. One in four is plenty decent odds compared to that.
>
>
>
And also:
>
> For all that I want to go home every minute of every day in here, I know perfectly well it’s actually unbelievably good luck to be here.
>
>
>
Half-way through chapter three:
>
> The place is filled to capacity with kids; there are two applicants for every spot as it is
>
>
>
About a quarter of the way through chapter twelve:
>
> The enclaver kids do make it out alive almost all of the time—their survival rate usually hovers around eighty percent, a substantial improvement over the forty percent chance they’ve got if they stay home.
>
>
>
And that's even without the end-of-year cleanup of the graduation hall.
So, while it is clear that the Scholomance is an imperfect solution to an impossible problem, it is also the best available chance of surviving to adulthood for anyone fortunate enough to get in.
Going back over this after reading The Last Graduate.
Jontia's comment is spot on - the intention was always to have a 0% fatality rate. In fact, the motto of the school is even built into it:
>
> the silver letters inlaid into the old scarred wood: TO OFFER SANCTUARY AND PROTECTION TO ALL THE WISE-GIFTED CHILDREN OF THE WORLD
>
>
>
So what went wrong?
It turns out that, unbeknownst to El, the problem has been endlessly studied by the best people in various major enclaves and there is not, actually a solution.
The problem starts with this:
>
> "Okay, so -" Aadhya said after a moment. "This is all because the cleansing machinery worked. So we just need to find a way to keep it working, for good."
>
>
> That did sound promising, but Alfie said, "Oh, bugger," half under his breath, and then said, "You can't. The cleansing machinery can't be preserved. You can fix it, but you can't keep it working. Four years is the absolute most you can get. The agglos will do for it by then."
>
>
>
A couple of paragraphs later, he explains the problem with agglos:
>
> "That's *why* you can't ward them out," Alfie said. "Mortal flame is - well, it's arguably an *entity*, and one that consumes mana that it doesn't make itself. If you want to conjure a mortal flame and send it *out*, you can't ward the artifice you're doing it with against mana-consuming creatures. You have to ward it against malice. But the agglos aren't malicious. They never take mana against resistance. They just nibble on this thing we've left sitting out near them, and sooner or later they make a hole in it, and then they squirm inside and take bits of it until the whole thing comes apart. London enclaves got a laboratory with an Anglo farm that's been lookin for ways to keep them out for the last century. If we could, it would be worth doing anything, spending any amount of mana, to get another team in to do a real repair. But we can't find anything that works for longer than bloody wrapping the thing in tinfoil - the agglos like that stuff so much they'll eat all of it before they *bother* going into the artifice. And that would get you four years."
>
>
>
Then somebody brings up the question of repairing the machinery regularly, and he continues:
>
> "They've thought of that. Posting guards, sending in maintenance crews every month, all of it. And that would handle the agglos. But you can't pay anyone enough to do it, because a new maw-mouth *will* come into the school, very soon. There's a trace on the doors. Usually one or two manage it every year - they're oozes, those are always the hardest to keep out of anywhere."
>
>
>
And we know, at this point, that only two people in the entire world have faced down and defeated a maw-mouth so they are left with a seemingly insoluble problem - which clears the stage for what they actually do in *The Last Graduate*. | As I read it, surviving the school (we'll call it graduation, meaning successful graduation and leaving graduation hall) is 50%. And that roughly 50% of students make it to graduation hall. That means successful graduation rate is 25% OVERALL, including both Enclavers and Indies. That's truly bad for Indies, as their graduation successful graduation rate must be well under 25% to make up for Enclavers making it out 80% of the time.
In Chapter 6, El has a discussion with Orion about his Enclaver privilege. It does seem quite apparent that the Indies are let into the school to help out the Enclavers (taking their risks and workshifts, being low hanging fruit for maleficaria, and IF they show enough talent, helping out the team on Graduation Day).
Let me share my calculations, which I'm sure I've messed up, but you'll get the idea of how bad it is to be an Indie.
Assuming-
-matriculating class is made up of Indies and Enclavers, then
(Is + Es = 1)
-that there is 25% OVERALL successful graduation rate, then
(Ig + Eg = 0.25)
-that Enclaver graduation rate is 80%, then
(Eg/Es = 0.80)
I can't show you my cute chart, but it says you can't have ANY Indies survive unless you have at least 69% Indies to start. I would have guessed from book that Enclavers were 20% of class- if they start there, the Indie graduation rate is about 10%. If you start with 10% Enclavers (which I think is a bit light, given the number of enclaves which were mentioned in the book; also Enclavers and their entourage are enough to fill up the reading area of the library), Indie graduation goes up to 17%.
Lastly, I'll close by saying that it is my suspicion thet the Scholomance IS functioning up to specs, lousy as it is. Something to do with "balance" or something; those kids do need to have a hard time in there. They just let the Indies in so it's not so bad for Enclavers. Remember that El's mum, practically the best person in the world doesn't want her in an Enclave nor in the Scholomance.
I'm looking to see planned misery of Scholomance confirmed next book, supposed to be out soon, looking forward to it. |
242,242 | In Naomi Novik's *Deadly Education* the Scholomance is the Boarding School from hell, where monsters fight for the privilege of being able to eat the tender morsels (mortals) stuck inside.
But how dangerous was the school supposed to be? The first novel makes it clear that some Mals were expected to reach the school no matter what. The Mortal Flame cleaning equipment was meant to run in the Great Hall and across the other levels just prior to graduation.
This would have meant that at least some Mals were expected to be in the school throughout the year, before being cleansed. And the initial plan appeared to be for regular maintenance/purging of Mals that escaped the Mortal Fire by adults.
But clearly there was expected to be "some" level of Mal threat within the school all year round and the teenagers were expected to be able to deal with it?
How high was the threat level supposed to be compared to the 40% fatality rate is shown in the book? | 2021/01/22 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/242242",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/40437/"
] | It is always clear, in the book, that the entire intention of the Scholomance is to make the school as safe as possible - the builders were, after all, planning on sending their own children, grandchildren, etc. All of the dangers, then, are entirely the result of the limitations and failures in the school's design and construction.
Near the beginning of the book, El is grousing about being saved by Orion and narrates:
>
> We’re not meant to all survive, anyway. The school has to be fed somehow.
>
>
>
This is discussed later in the book when another character talks about how many people Orion has saved (approximately 600) and the fact that the amount of food available in the cafeteria is not enough for everyone.
And then at the beginning of chapter thirteen:
>
> We’d made it to our senior year, the one in two odds we’d beaten so far.
>
>
>
Also, from half-way through chapter one, talking about graduation:
>
> About half the senior class—that is, half of the ones who’ve managed to survive that long—makes it.
>
>
>
There are three main features of the school designed to protect the students. The first is the fact that only the Graduation Hall is connected to the outside world, the rest is surrounded by the void. The second is that there is very little direct connection between the Graduation Hall and the rest of the school. Third is the cleaning cycles.
There are at least three Mortal Flame cleaning cycles specifically mentioned in the book:
1. Graduation Hall just before graduation
2. The main halls and stairwells of the school twice a year
3. Kitchen after each meal is served (though it wasn't clear exactly how that worked)
Near the end of chapter three, the protagonist tells us:
>
> It’s one of the few situations in which a wall of mortal flame might actually be called for: in fact that’s how the school cleans out the cafeteria and does the twice-yearly scouring of the halls.
>
>
>
And half-way through chapter six:
>
> The builders knew that some mals would wriggle their way up to us, so twice a year the halls get a good scouring. A very loud warning bell goes, we all run for our dormitory cells, shut ourselves in, and barricade our doors as thoroughly as we can. Then massive cleansing walls of mortal flame get conjured up and sent running on their merry way throughout the whole building, from top to bottom, incinerating hordes of desperate fleeing mals.
>
>
>
And shortly after that:
>
> If you’re wondering why they don’t also run this excellent system down in the graduation hall to clear out the mals before dumping in the seniors, the answer is they meant to, but the machinery down there has been broken since about five minutes after the school opened. No one’s going down to the graduation hall to do maintenance.
>
>
>
Since the system in the Graduation Hall is the only one that failed, only the survival rate of students who actually reach graduation is affected.
Near the end of chapter one, El says:
>
> Even enclave kids were getting eaten more often than not before the school was built, and if you’re an indie kid who doesn’t get into the Scholomance, these days your odds of making it to the far side of puberty are one in twenty. One in four is plenty decent odds compared to that.
>
>
>
And also:
>
> For all that I want to go home every minute of every day in here, I know perfectly well it’s actually unbelievably good luck to be here.
>
>
>
Half-way through chapter three:
>
> The place is filled to capacity with kids; there are two applicants for every spot as it is
>
>
>
About a quarter of the way through chapter twelve:
>
> The enclaver kids do make it out alive almost all of the time—their survival rate usually hovers around eighty percent, a substantial improvement over the forty percent chance they’ve got if they stay home.
>
>
>
And that's even without the end-of-year cleanup of the graduation hall.
So, while it is clear that the Scholomance is an imperfect solution to an impossible problem, it is also the best available chance of surviving to adulthood for anyone fortunate enough to get in.
Going back over this after reading The Last Graduate.
Jontia's comment is spot on - the intention was always to have a 0% fatality rate. In fact, the motto of the school is even built into it:
>
> the silver letters inlaid into the old scarred wood: TO OFFER SANCTUARY AND PROTECTION TO ALL THE WISE-GIFTED CHILDREN OF THE WORLD
>
>
>
So what went wrong?
It turns out that, unbeknownst to El, the problem has been endlessly studied by the best people in various major enclaves and there is not, actually a solution.
The problem starts with this:
>
> "Okay, so -" Aadhya said after a moment. "This is all because the cleansing machinery worked. So we just need to find a way to keep it working, for good."
>
>
> That did sound promising, but Alfie said, "Oh, bugger," half under his breath, and then said, "You can't. The cleansing machinery can't be preserved. You can fix it, but you can't keep it working. Four years is the absolute most you can get. The agglos will do for it by then."
>
>
>
A couple of paragraphs later, he explains the problem with agglos:
>
> "That's *why* you can't ward them out," Alfie said. "Mortal flame is - well, it's arguably an *entity*, and one that consumes mana that it doesn't make itself. If you want to conjure a mortal flame and send it *out*, you can't ward the artifice you're doing it with against mana-consuming creatures. You have to ward it against malice. But the agglos aren't malicious. They never take mana against resistance. They just nibble on this thing we've left sitting out near them, and sooner or later they make a hole in it, and then they squirm inside and take bits of it until the whole thing comes apart. London enclaves got a laboratory with an Anglo farm that's been lookin for ways to keep them out for the last century. If we could, it would be worth doing anything, spending any amount of mana, to get another team in to do a real repair. But we can't find anything that works for longer than bloody wrapping the thing in tinfoil - the agglos like that stuff so much they'll eat all of it before they *bother* going into the artifice. And that would get you four years."
>
>
>
Then somebody brings up the question of repairing the machinery regularly, and he continues:
>
> "They've thought of that. Posting guards, sending in maintenance crews every month, all of it. And that would handle the agglos. But you can't pay anyone enough to do it, because a new maw-mouth *will* come into the school, very soon. There's a trace on the doors. Usually one or two manage it every year - they're oozes, those are always the hardest to keep out of anywhere."
>
>
>
And we know, at this point, that only two people in the entire world have faced down and defeated a maw-mouth so they are left with a seemingly insoluble problem - which clears the stage for what they actually do in *The Last Graduate*. | Also, it's fair to point out that the 25% figure is a bit ambiguous. I read it as 25% overall survival, but El is an Indie and may be thinking in terms of Indies only, so maybe she is referring specifically to Indie survival when stating half make it to graduation hall and half make it out of the hall.
Also, she's a languages major, not an artificer (or whatever is equivalent to math/engineering in Scholomance). So maybe her figures are not the best. But she seems like a sharp cookie, generally good with numbers, and as they say, there is nothing like the prospect of imminent death to focus the mind.
"Well, I always find that the prospect of death contracts the mind wonderfully." Ford Prefect, The Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy
“Depend upon it, sir, when a man knows he is to be hanged in a fortnight, it concentrates his mind wonderfully.”
― Samuel Johnson, The Life of Samuel Johnson LL.D. Vol 3 |
242,242 | In Naomi Novik's *Deadly Education* the Scholomance is the Boarding School from hell, where monsters fight for the privilege of being able to eat the tender morsels (mortals) stuck inside.
But how dangerous was the school supposed to be? The first novel makes it clear that some Mals were expected to reach the school no matter what. The Mortal Flame cleaning equipment was meant to run in the Great Hall and across the other levels just prior to graduation.
This would have meant that at least some Mals were expected to be in the school throughout the year, before being cleansed. And the initial plan appeared to be for regular maintenance/purging of Mals that escaped the Mortal Fire by adults.
But clearly there was expected to be "some" level of Mal threat within the school all year round and the teenagers were expected to be able to deal with it?
How high was the threat level supposed to be compared to the 40% fatality rate is shown in the book? | 2021/01/22 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/242242",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/40437/"
] | As I read it, surviving the school (we'll call it graduation, meaning successful graduation and leaving graduation hall) is 50%. And that roughly 50% of students make it to graduation hall. That means successful graduation rate is 25% OVERALL, including both Enclavers and Indies. That's truly bad for Indies, as their graduation successful graduation rate must be well under 25% to make up for Enclavers making it out 80% of the time.
In Chapter 6, El has a discussion with Orion about his Enclaver privilege. It does seem quite apparent that the Indies are let into the school to help out the Enclavers (taking their risks and workshifts, being low hanging fruit for maleficaria, and IF they show enough talent, helping out the team on Graduation Day).
Let me share my calculations, which I'm sure I've messed up, but you'll get the idea of how bad it is to be an Indie.
Assuming-
-matriculating class is made up of Indies and Enclavers, then
(Is + Es = 1)
-that there is 25% OVERALL successful graduation rate, then
(Ig + Eg = 0.25)
-that Enclaver graduation rate is 80%, then
(Eg/Es = 0.80)
I can't show you my cute chart, but it says you can't have ANY Indies survive unless you have at least 69% Indies to start. I would have guessed from book that Enclavers were 20% of class- if they start there, the Indie graduation rate is about 10%. If you start with 10% Enclavers (which I think is a bit light, given the number of enclaves which were mentioned in the book; also Enclavers and their entourage are enough to fill up the reading area of the library), Indie graduation goes up to 17%.
Lastly, I'll close by saying that it is my suspicion thet the Scholomance IS functioning up to specs, lousy as it is. Something to do with "balance" or something; those kids do need to have a hard time in there. They just let the Indies in so it's not so bad for Enclavers. Remember that El's mum, practically the best person in the world doesn't want her in an Enclave nor in the Scholomance.
I'm looking to see planned misery of Scholomance confirmed next book, supposed to be out soon, looking forward to it. | Also, it's fair to point out that the 25% figure is a bit ambiguous. I read it as 25% overall survival, but El is an Indie and may be thinking in terms of Indies only, so maybe she is referring specifically to Indie survival when stating half make it to graduation hall and half make it out of the hall.
Also, she's a languages major, not an artificer (or whatever is equivalent to math/engineering in Scholomance). So maybe her figures are not the best. But she seems like a sharp cookie, generally good with numbers, and as they say, there is nothing like the prospect of imminent death to focus the mind.
"Well, I always find that the prospect of death contracts the mind wonderfully." Ford Prefect, The Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy
“Depend upon it, sir, when a man knows he is to be hanged in a fortnight, it concentrates his mind wonderfully.”
― Samuel Johnson, The Life of Samuel Johnson LL.D. Vol 3 |
296,312 | This might be best explained by trying to paint a picture. It would be nice if either scenario exists, or that someone is working on it. I'd love to at least subscribe to something to get updates as the development progresses.
Setup:
I have several PC's in the home; them being my office PC in the back of the house, one connected to the TV in the front, and a laptop floating through various rooms.
Scenario:
I'm either programming, or watching videos on my office PC. I'm tasked with cooking on the BBQ so I bring the laptop outside and continue using the same session that was on my PC, but is now on the laptop. After finishing there, I head back inside and transfer the session to the TV's computer.
Theoretically, I can see this happening through two different methods.
1. A network hosted OS and each "PC" essentially is a dummy terminal that handles only the display and input capture. Everything else is sent to the server to handle the work. This scenario would likely only have one or two users... not a huge number so I don't really need a super computer as the server.
2. A "sharing" OS where each PC has it's own installation but it can share some or any running applications to any of the other PC's given they were running the same fundamental architecture. The concept would essentially "pause" an app transfer everything about it to the second computer where it would then "resume". How this works is not really necessary, just that this is what it does.
3. A sync like program that manages the data isn't really what I'm looking for as that's almost what I have now. And I'll often have to prompt the necessary programs to sync, as well as some programs need to be shut down to unlock files. lots of time and thinking on my part and time
I'm not necessarily looking for a working solution today, just something I'm interested in knowing if it exists already. I know virtual servers can move the guest machines while they are running, so long as the target server is running the same CPU.
Ideally, the example that I like best is an ad I saw for netflicks where someone is watching a moving in bed, pauses, goes downstairs and continue watches in the kitchen, then pauses and continues watching in the living room (or maybe it was the other way around)
Notes:
Any security related issues are irrelevant. While they are important, it's not the focus of what I'm wondering.
If it's listed on Google, I'm using the wrong search terms (but I don't know the right ones).
Update: As per entertainment purposes, I wonder what a good solution is for videos. And in regards to gaming, something similar to OnLive's services would be cool too. Infact, if OnLive's services could be utilized for regular PC use,m I think that would be ideal. | 2011/06/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/296312",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/85562/"
] | Have you tried remote desktop connection? It essentially makes one computer a terminal for another computer (both running Windows). This would be the best answer for the first method you described.
<http://windows.microsoft.com/en-US/windows7/Remote-Desktop-Connection-frequently-asked-questions>
It's not just a random feature :-). This is basically how Microsoft programmers use/switch between their computers, so it's well supported.
I'm not sure there's a solution for the second one. If there, were I bet a number of datacenter admins would love to use it. As for the 3rd one, it would be very challenging for a 3rd party program to understand how various apps are using files in memory, and to transfer this info across the wire (hence why most apps can't sync without the apps closing & writing files to disk). It'd actually be impossible to do this without operating system support (the 2nd method you described) or support by each running app, and I'm not aware of any major operating systems that currently do this. Perhaps there's one that I'm not aware of. | there is a solution called *cloud OS* - I am not sure, whether this can work on a local network, but it could be what you need.
There are various cloud OS like [Joli OS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joli_OS), or [Peppermint](http://linuxers.org/article/peppermint-new-linux-based-cloud-os) for example. Other way is, as mentioned, the remote desktop access. |
6,306 | I had just finished typing a great answer, and It wouldn't let me post? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://softwareengineering.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6306",
"https://softwareengineering.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.meta.stackexchange.com/users/109567/"
] | (10k link - <https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/219691/is-the-mvc-software-architecture-used-only-in-web-development> )
It was deleted by the author of the question - likely when they realized it wasn't going to garner a positive response in its current form.
 | *10k+ only link:* [This is the question you're asking about](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/219691/is-the-mvc-software-architecture-used-only-in-web-development)
At the time of deletion, it had a suggested duplicate question in the comments.
The owner of the question chose to delete it. |
39,335 | I recently heard that the New York Stock Exchange used to close once a week so that they could organize the paper trades. I can't find anything online about it. Does anyone have any insight here? | 2014/11/04 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/39335",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/2707/"
] | Yes, from June 1968 until December 1968, they closed the NYSE every Wednesday so they could catch up on paperwork representing billions of dollars in unprocessed transactions. Even after the NYSE re-opened on Wednesdays in January 1969, they still had to close it early at 2pm for seven more months.
[Forbes](http://www.forbes.com/sites/abrambrown/2012/10/29/what-can-close-the-nyse-world-war-presidential-funerals-and-hurricane-sandy/) has a description of this:
>
> Not to be forgotten, though, is the Paperwork Crunch. In a day of email and the Cloud and trading completed in microseconds, the idea that Wall Street needed Wednesdays off in the late 1960′s to catch up on back-office tasks seems especially quaint.
>
>
> Yet, in 1968, the NYSE found itself sitting on more than $4 billion in unprocessed transactions. Trading had risen to 21 million shares daily; by contrast, even in the heavy volume days in 1929, trading never went above 16 million shares. Papers stacked on desks. A (now old) joke formed: If a fan blew the wrong way in a Wall Street office, visitors below could expect a ticker-tape parade.
>
>
> “Everybody agreed that the securities-processing system had virtually broken down, and the only major point of dispute was who was more responsible for the mess: the back offices of the brokerage firms of the stock-transfer agents,” Securities and Exchange Commission Commissioner Ray Garrett, Jr. said in 1974. Some 100 broker-dealers failed, crumbling under the pressure of fulfilling those back-orders. The fix: an organization akin to the FDIC, the Securities Investor Protection Corporation. Wall Street would stick to the shortened weeks from June to December; in January, Wednesday trading resumed, though it ended early at 2 for another seven months.
>
>
> | Yes. To give brokerages the time to process paperwork, the American stock market, did stop trading on Wednesday's during 1968. Industry leaders first implemented the four day week around June 6, 68.
<https://www.newspapers.com/clip/75932396/>
Interestingly, the four day weeks were out of necessity due to holidays, etc. in Nov 1968.
<https://www.newspapers.com/clip/75940046/>
In Dec 68, they were planning to go back to full time at the beginning of the year, but decided better of it as the day approached. They then decided to operate on a reduced schedule.
One interesting side effect of being closed Weds to handle the paperwork, was a pattern of record numbers of transactions on the following Thursday. <https://www.newspapers.com/clip/75943028/> |
4,214 | I just got done installing Ubuntu 10.04 on an acer laptop. The fan was working fine in Vista but now with Ubuntu the fan doens't turn on, so now it's overheating after an hour or so of use. What's wrong? And if I have to, how do I turn on the fan manually?
P.S. Not my laptop, it's a friend's daughter's. | 2010/09/15 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/4214",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/593/"
] | 1. [File a bug](https://wiki.ubuntu.com/KernelTeam/KernelTeamBugPolicies). Even if there is a bug that looks like it matches yours exactly, go ahead and file a new, unique bug.
2. [Download the current daily iso](http://cdimage.ubuntu.com/daily/current/). Put it onto a usb drive and boot into the live image to see if that has the same problem. | Don't use it (with Ubuntu) until you find a fix. Constant overheating will eventually kill it dead.
You don't specify the model. Please edit your question to show exactly which model we're talking about.
But I've have seen this problem before around the internet. Everything I've seen suggests that downloading and installing a BIOS update (available from the Acer website) should fix this. |
4,214 | I just got done installing Ubuntu 10.04 on an acer laptop. The fan was working fine in Vista but now with Ubuntu the fan doens't turn on, so now it's overheating after an hour or so of use. What's wrong? And if I have to, how do I turn on the fan manually?
P.S. Not my laptop, it's a friend's daughter's. | 2010/09/15 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/4214",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/593/"
] | Of all the people to answer my question, I wouldn't have expected my Dad! He found the solution here: <http://ubuntuforums.org/showpost.php?p=4925392&postcount=117>
That script is written for exactly the model I'm dealing with, an Acer Aspire 5720z with 2gigs of RAM, though it can be edited for any other model in that line.
Installing that script fixed it. Now the fan runs the way it should. | Don't use it (with Ubuntu) until you find a fix. Constant overheating will eventually kill it dead.
You don't specify the model. Please edit your question to show exactly which model we're talking about.
But I've have seen this problem before around the internet. Everything I've seen suggests that downloading and installing a BIOS update (available from the Acer website) should fix this. |
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