qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
72,908 | Id like to go with wider tires, but there is not tires 2.0 inch that is made for 700c rims.
So is there any alternative to that? | 2020/10/23 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/72908",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/40478/"
] | This article explains most of the issues
<https://support.strava.com/hc/en-us/articles/216918227>
For example 'Box Hill' is the most popular Strava climb in the world. There are many segments:
<https://www.strava.com/segments/3623111> - this one is not necessarily ideal because it has a right turn at the start across a road open to traffic , and while this accounts for 13m of the climb and it's not a very busy road, it's still less than ideal and riders who ride this route (100,000+ people <https://www.cyclist.co.uk/news/6788/box-hill-crowned-stravas-most-popular-hill-climb-segment>) might favourite a different segment. However it is very well named - 'Box Hill Roundabout to Summit (post box)' makes it clear to a rider what segment they are targeting
This segment is poor quality:
<https://www.strava.com/segments/1234330>
in that the trace does not match the road, and it claims to be 'full climb', yet the elevation is below the previous one
This one has been created by someone selling a book of cycling climbs I believe:
<https://www.strava.com/segments/6695759>
and calls it self 'Official 100Climbs' . It is a bad segment because it is not properly described.
This similar segment makes it clearer
<https://www.strava.com/segments/1450512>
'Boxhill Roundabout to Cafe' - its end point is a cafe, and not the actual summit. While this is fine, and for such an overwhelmingly popular segment it makes sense to perhaps have different segments, as there wouldn't necessarily be any consensus about the end of the climb - some people might target the cafe & car park and stop there, while others would prefer the true summit, so the segment should at a minimum make it clear what it is, because if you are targeting a very popular segment you don't want to slow down short of your goal or something.
If you are riding in, say, remote rural Asia, then there often won't be any segments, so you can create them after riding yourself (you can't create the segment without riding it, but you will be KoM/QoM after creating a new segment if you are the only one to have ridden it). In a developed country in a populated area, probably most segments will exist already, but if you feel that an existing segment is not very good, then you simply create a better one (e.g., you might feel that starting before a traffic light is a bad idea, and create a new segment after a traffic light). Over time your segment might be favourited by other users, and will show up in their Stravas. Poor quality segments will be hidden - e.g., you might be shown 40 out of 200 segments on a particular trip, where better quality segments tend to get viewed and favourited more
Some segments are anti-social, e.g., there are people setting 30mph speeds on shared paths, and you can report such segments as hazardous, which won't delete them, but it will hide them from leaderboards. However this is not particularly well-policed by Strava in my experience. <https://support.strava.com/hc/en-us/articles/216918217-Updated-Flagging-a-Segment-as-Hazardous> | Anyone can create segments, ordinary users make them, there are too many of them to be created by the company. Go to your activity, choose More and Create Segment. Then just follow the comments. See <https://support.strava.com/hc/en-us/articles/216918157-Create-a-Segment>
Some old segments may be automatically created. They are typically named by some close address followed by "climb" even in non-English speaking areas. They are the minority. I do not know what the process to create them was but someone likely had to ride there first but I do not know how many people. Some of these have very few attempts, though.
Only people who created the segment can Edit and Remove them. Go to "My Segments", choose your segment and do what you wish. You can only report other people's segments as dangerous, but you cannot do anything to them yourself. |
220,048 | I have a CentOS server... I deleted the dns zones from a domain, but it is still working... Is this normal? The domain to continue answering even after deleted its dns zones? | 2011/01/08 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/220048",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/56589/"
] | The old zone information might still be in your local DNS cache.
If you are using a browser to test, you may have to clear your browsing history or restart the browser in order to flush the old information. Alternately, you could use the dig command - it queries the current DNS information directly. | You omitted what DNS software you are using. Is it Bind, PowerDNS, DJBDNS, or something else?
In any case, simply deleting a file is not likely to be enough to make the change. Typically, you will have to reload the software in some way to force it to reread the zone files or configuration.
I'm going to guess you're using Bind. I don't remember exactly which scripts exist on Redhat, but here's an example. A very blunt method would be to simply restart it with "/etc/init.d/bind-server restart" or "service restart bind-server". With Bind, you should also be able to control the daemon with the utility "rndc". Check the rndc manpage for more information. |
220,048 | I have a CentOS server... I deleted the dns zones from a domain, but it is still working... Is this normal? The domain to continue answering even after deleted its dns zones? | 2011/01/08 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/220048",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/56589/"
] | You have to do two checks:
1- You need to restart/reload the name server after changing the configuration (including zone file change).
2- You need to wait for the record timeout before seeing the new change. The TTL value is specified usually in the zone file. Look at [this link](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zone_file) (file format section). You can flush your DNS cache on your local machine, but you can not flush the DNS cache on an intermediate DNS server between your machine and your DNS server (if any). | You omitted what DNS software you are using. Is it Bind, PowerDNS, DJBDNS, or something else?
In any case, simply deleting a file is not likely to be enough to make the change. Typically, you will have to reload the software in some way to force it to reread the zone files or configuration.
I'm going to guess you're using Bind. I don't remember exactly which scripts exist on Redhat, but here's an example. A very blunt method would be to simply restart it with "/etc/init.d/bind-server restart" or "service restart bind-server". With Bind, you should also be able to control the daemon with the utility "rndc". Check the rndc manpage for more information. |
100,648 | I needed to be granted access to some IT resource by a colleague, so I sent a short email like this:
>
> Hi *colleague*,
>
>
> I need access to *blah*, could you please add me to the permitted user list?
>
>
> Thanks,
>
>
> *me*
>
>
>
Shortly he did what I asked for, and I received a one-liner containing literally
>
> done
>
>
>
This colleague is quite a busy person, and I'm certain his email inbox is overflowing as it is. I don't want to appear rude by not sending a quick "Thanks" message, but I also don't want to add more clutter to his inbox.
Would it be appropriate *not* to send "Thanks"?
I probably need to add that it's not his primary job to grant access to stuff; he's the creator/owner of the resource, this is why he needs to explicitly allow people to use it. | 2017/10/12 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/100648",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/10923/"
] | >
> should I respond with “thanks” in this situation?
>
>
>
Based on my experience, in this case there is no need to send an additional email. As you said, this individual is busy, and was simply informing you that what you asked for was done. You already implied the "Thanks" part in your first email's signature.
If the email included some additional useful information or special instructions you may want to consider a thank you response for that.
Short answer: **No response required** in this case. | Yes respond. As soon as you have verified that you have actually been given the access you requested. I have seen people click the wrong button, or click the wrong name and it has to be done again.
The response should be on the order of:
"I'm in. Thanks for your help."
That lets them know that you have actually used the access that you requested. It is never a good feeling when you drop everything for an urgent request, and then you find out that they never even accessed the system. |
100,648 | I needed to be granted access to some IT resource by a colleague, so I sent a short email like this:
>
> Hi *colleague*,
>
>
> I need access to *blah*, could you please add me to the permitted user list?
>
>
> Thanks,
>
>
> *me*
>
>
>
Shortly he did what I asked for, and I received a one-liner containing literally
>
> done
>
>
>
This colleague is quite a busy person, and I'm certain his email inbox is overflowing as it is. I don't want to appear rude by not sending a quick "Thanks" message, but I also don't want to add more clutter to his inbox.
Would it be appropriate *not* to send "Thanks"?
I probably need to add that it's not his primary job to grant access to stuff; he's the creator/owner of the resource, this is why he needs to explicitly allow people to use it. | 2017/10/12 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/100648",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/10923/"
] | >
> should I respond with “thanks” in this situation?
>
>
>
Based on my experience, in this case there is no need to send an additional email. As you said, this individual is busy, and was simply informing you that what you asked for was done. You already implied the "Thanks" part in your first email's signature.
If the email included some additional useful information or special instructions you may want to consider a thank you response for that.
Short answer: **No response required** in this case. | Don´t respond. He is busy and you will clutter his inbox. If he cared for niceties, he would have sent you more than a "done". The whole matter is already out of his mind.
Next time you mail him about something else, you can thank him in the open line. *Thank you for completing my other task so fast. This really helped me a lot. ... say what you want to say ...* |
100,648 | I needed to be granted access to some IT resource by a colleague, so I sent a short email like this:
>
> Hi *colleague*,
>
>
> I need access to *blah*, could you please add me to the permitted user list?
>
>
> Thanks,
>
>
> *me*
>
>
>
Shortly he did what I asked for, and I received a one-liner containing literally
>
> done
>
>
>
This colleague is quite a busy person, and I'm certain his email inbox is overflowing as it is. I don't want to appear rude by not sending a quick "Thanks" message, but I also don't want to add more clutter to his inbox.
Would it be appropriate *not* to send "Thanks"?
I probably need to add that it's not his primary job to grant access to stuff; he's the creator/owner of the resource, this is why he needs to explicitly allow people to use it. | 2017/10/12 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/100648",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/10923/"
] | Yes respond. As soon as you have verified that you have actually been given the access you requested. I have seen people click the wrong button, or click the wrong name and it has to be done again.
The response should be on the order of:
"I'm in. Thanks for your help."
That lets them know that you have actually used the access that you requested. It is never a good feeling when you drop everything for an urgent request, and then you find out that they never even accessed the system. | Don´t respond. He is busy and you will clutter his inbox. If he cared for niceties, he would have sent you more than a "done". The whole matter is already out of his mind.
Next time you mail him about something else, you can thank him in the open line. *Thank you for completing my other task so fast. This really helped me a lot. ... say what you want to say ...* |
379,577 | They're just podcasts. Episodes should be either downloaded or not downloaded, and podcasts should be either subscribed to not subscribed. But it seems an episode can be "in your library" without being downloaded, and a podcast can be "in your library" without being subscribed. What does that even mean?
(I'm referring to Podcasts on both Mac OS and iOS.) | 2020/01/12 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/379577",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/358862/"
] | I personally also gave up on podcasts on the Mac. Maybe someone has a great app, but for me using Overcast made my phone / watch always with me and “perfect for this job” so my Mac can take a rest from podcast duties and only need to work when I listen to music and find it’s better than HomePod / watch / phone / iPad.
* <https://overcast.fm/>
I know this doesn’t directly answer your question, but really - consider not solving this at all on the Mac is my advice. Since Catalina, Big Sur, Monterey have come and gone, I still haven’t needed to use Apple podcast app anywhere and overcast is still what I’m happy to pay for and use since it makes me happy and saves me time. | I would suggest using [Overcast](https://overcast.fm/), which is a great iOS app, but also runs pretty well as an M1 mac app. |
81,890 | I am trying to repair a squealing heating blower motor.
The shaft doesn't have feel-able tilt play in the bushings, so I suspect the bushing isn't yet worn out. The shaft looks scratched, but I barely feel something with a fingernail. Previous attempts at just dropping in some oil didn't last long.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xhSpi.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/LNihp.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QMjWk.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/n3wNX.jpg)
**Update:**
I tried to soak the bearings in oil, by vacuum-sealing them. For now the squealing is gone.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MK8Bx.jpg) | 2021/02/19 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/81890",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/19901/"
] | You have it backwards, battery insulators are used to protect batteries from excess engine heat rather than protect them from cold, as extreme heat is worse for batteries than cold. Car batteries have no heat source, so an insulating blanket is only going to slow heat loss, a car battery sitting overnight will still reach ambient air temperature. | Modern fuel injection ,electronic ignition ,should start easily down to about 0 F (outside). So I would not bother with insulation. Insulation will slow cooling but overnight in wind it will cool to about the same temperature ;so, no real difference in battery temperature / voltage. Long ago ,with carburetor and points ignition, I took the battery out and kept it in a warm house overnight ( at 0 F). Next morning ,the battery slowly turned the engine but not enough to start. I see some cars have a little thermal insulation around the battery; That is to protect it from high underhood temperatures and ,hopefully extend life. |
222 | Is there a convenient, easy-to-access source for Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSes) that does not require registration or payment?
A good website or reference book for wood-working MSDSes should make it easy to look up:
* Products by manufacturer or brand name (such as Copper-Green Brown)
* Products by chemical name (such as copper naphthenate)
* Include a wide variety of wood working materials, glues, and finishes
* Not require registration | 2015/03/18 | [
"https://woodworking.stackexchange.com/questions/222",
"https://woodworking.stackexchange.com",
"https://woodworking.stackexchange.com/users/140/"
] | I'm not sure if it's required by law, but many companies make their MSDSes publicly available for free.
For example:
* <http://www.titebond.com/ProductMSDSCO.php>
* <http://msds.gp.com/msdsinternet/?bu=bp>
In addition, some resellers provide the MSDSes for products they sell:
* <http://www.highlandwoodworking.com/material-safety-datasheets-msds.aspx>
You can also often find the MSDS for a product or chemical by searching for the product or chemical name along with "msds" in Google, Bing, etc. | The best I can currently do is search Google (or Duck, or Bing) for the product name, followed by MSDS. For example:
* Googling: [Copper Green Brown MSDS](https://www.google.com/?gws_rd=ssl#q=Copper%20Green%20Brown%20MSDS) gives the [MSDS](http://www.coppergreen.com/wpscg.htm) as the first link.
* Ducking: [Copper Green Brown MSDS](https://duckduckgo.com/?q=Copper%20Green%20Brown%20MSDS) also gives the [MSDS](http://www.coppergreen.com/wpscg.htm) as the first link. |
97,401 | Suppose I meet a stranger at park. And I want to ask about his study,i.e., what course he is studying. Then which one the following is true:
1. What do you study?
2. What are you studying?
I think first one is correct and till now I was using that. But I just watched an English tutorial video on YouTube ([here](https://youtu.be/IhQt_fxGOcw?t=97)) in which they use (2). So I get confused. I am not asking about what currently he is studying.
Thanks | 2016/07/24 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/97401",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/38203/"
] | Both are absolutely correct
---------------------------
and in most cases, they are interchangeable. Unfortunately, like many other things in a language, it depends on the context.
If I am a college student living in a dormitory, and I ask my room mate
>
> What are you studying?
>
>
>
They might tell me which subject they are studying at that moment.
>
> I'm studying Math right now, but I'll be studying Spanish in an hour.
>
>
>
If I ask my room mate
>
> What do you study?
>
>
>
He/she might respond with a broader answer, since I didn't use the gerund (present participle) verb tense. To say `studying` suggests that the study is happening right now.
>
> I study microbiology
>
>
>
---
In another context, let's say that you are attending a family reunion. You're going to be around a lot of relatives, and generally, people that know you. At such an event, it is inevitable that a question comes about your education, assuming you are in college/school.
Consider your uncle asking you
>
> It is great that you're in college. What are you studying?
>
>
>
In this sense, the uncle is not interested in getting a course name for an answer, he's interested in the broader answer: *microbiology (from above)*
Also, in this sense, both questions mean the same thing. So if your uncle says, instead
>
> It is great that you're in college. What do you study?
>
>
>
You would answer with the same answer. | Both would be understood, but there's a slightly different flavour. I think the "-ing" form is better when talking about some ongoing education:
>
> I'm a student at X University.
>
>
> Oh, what are you studying?
>
>
>
contrast with
>
> I have been taking some extra lessons.
>
>
> Oh, what do you study?
>
>
> Conversational English relating to medicine.
>
>
>
here we are talking about specific items of study, probably for a limited period of time. |
97,401 | Suppose I meet a stranger at park. And I want to ask about his study,i.e., what course he is studying. Then which one the following is true:
1. What do you study?
2. What are you studying?
I think first one is correct and till now I was using that. But I just watched an English tutorial video on YouTube ([here](https://youtu.be/IhQt_fxGOcw?t=97)) in which they use (2). So I get confused. I am not asking about what currently he is studying.
Thanks | 2016/07/24 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/97401",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/38203/"
] | Both are absolutely correct
---------------------------
and in most cases, they are interchangeable. Unfortunately, like many other things in a language, it depends on the context.
If I am a college student living in a dormitory, and I ask my room mate
>
> What are you studying?
>
>
>
They might tell me which subject they are studying at that moment.
>
> I'm studying Math right now, but I'll be studying Spanish in an hour.
>
>
>
If I ask my room mate
>
> What do you study?
>
>
>
He/she might respond with a broader answer, since I didn't use the gerund (present participle) verb tense. To say `studying` suggests that the study is happening right now.
>
> I study microbiology
>
>
>
---
In another context, let's say that you are attending a family reunion. You're going to be around a lot of relatives, and generally, people that know you. At such an event, it is inevitable that a question comes about your education, assuming you are in college/school.
Consider your uncle asking you
>
> It is great that you're in college. What are you studying?
>
>
>
In this sense, the uncle is not interested in getting a course name for an answer, he's interested in the broader answer: *microbiology (from above)*
Also, in this sense, both questions mean the same thing. So if your uncle says, instead
>
> It is great that you're in college. What do you study?
>
>
>
You would answer with the same answer. | The two phrases can mean the same thing.
Since the two persons are introducing themselves, 2 is inquiring about the person's [major](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Major_(academic)) (AmE), or, as Wikipedia puts it:
>
> the academic discipline to which an undergraduate student formally commits.
>
>
>
This is in contrast to, say, two friends who are inquiring about the current/up coming term. In such a case, 2 inquires about the particular subjects one might be studying that term, such as biology, math, and economics. This is because, presumably, the friends already know each other's committed disciplines.
Question 1 usually inquires about one's committed disciple. So, Kabir could **also** have asked 1 in this case, and it would have meant the same thing as 2. Hence, Jackie responds "B.E.". We can infer that B.E. is Jackie's committed discipline, in either case. |
36,381,177 | I have a blog website using django and I keep editing blogs occasionally, and I want to retrieve a history version at any time just like git and notes history function in evernote.
How can I do that? Should I save every new version in the database?
Are there any good solutions? Any language is welcome (python, java, ...).
Example:<https://blog.evernote.com/blog/2010/04/14/new-premium-features-note-history-and-50mb-notes/> | 2016/04/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36381177",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5432806/"
] | Yeah this can be done by adding a Django LogEntry. LogEntry is the model used by Django to maintain the Django admin edit history. You can use the same model to track changes to your blog.
Refer to this Stackoverflow answer on how to use it.
<https://stackoverflow.com/a/988202/1774657> | Django/Python version:
I would make two models: FirstBlog() and EditedBlog() and bind them via OnetoMany together.
everytime you edit the FirstBlog() version, you create another EditedBlog() version with information: who edited it, when edited, what edited. |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | One of the more popular music notation software programs is [Finale](https://www.finalemusic.com/) (at least that was the case when I was in high school). Finale is bundled with a [bunch of fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) that you'll recognize if you use sheet music with any kind of regularity:
* Broadway Copyist Font
* Engraver Font
* Finale Alpha Notes Font
* Finale Copyist Text Font
* Finale Lyrics Font
* Finale Mallets Font
* Finale Numerics Font
* Finale Percussion Font
* Jazz Font
* Maestro Font
These cover pretty much all musical notation you could ask for. For lettering specifically, look to these:
Finale Copyist Text
JazzText
Broadway Copyist Text
MaestroTimes
Not sure if these exact fonts are available for licensing outside of the software.
### Reference:
[Finale Character Sets](https://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Character_sets.htm)
[Finale Alternative Music Fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) | [Steinberg](https://www.smufl.org/fonts/) has made available a number of very complete, [SMuFL](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MusicXML)-compatible music sheet fonts, of which [***Bravura***](https://github.com/steinbergmedia/bravura) (in OTF, SVG, WOFF & EOT format)
and [***Petaluma***](https://www.steinberg.net/en/products/steinberg_trial_versions/dorico.html) (1350 glyphs)
are freely available under [the SIL Open Font License](http://scripts.sil.org/ofl). |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | One of the more popular music notation software programs is [Finale](https://www.finalemusic.com/) (at least that was the case when I was in high school). Finale is bundled with a [bunch of fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) that you'll recognize if you use sheet music with any kind of regularity:
* Broadway Copyist Font
* Engraver Font
* Finale Alpha Notes Font
* Finale Copyist Text Font
* Finale Lyrics Font
* Finale Mallets Font
* Finale Numerics Font
* Finale Percussion Font
* Jazz Font
* Maestro Font
These cover pretty much all musical notation you could ask for. For lettering specifically, look to these:
Finale Copyist Text
JazzText
Broadway Copyist Text
MaestroTimes
Not sure if these exact fonts are available for licensing outside of the software.
### Reference:
[Finale Character Sets](https://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Character_sets.htm)
[Finale Alternative Music Fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) | Simplified Arabic Fixed, this is common in typed simplified sheet music. |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | One of the more popular music notation software programs is [Finale](https://www.finalemusic.com/) (at least that was the case when I was in high school). Finale is bundled with a [bunch of fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) that you'll recognize if you use sheet music with any kind of regularity:
* Broadway Copyist Font
* Engraver Font
* Finale Alpha Notes Font
* Finale Copyist Text Font
* Finale Lyrics Font
* Finale Mallets Font
* Finale Numerics Font
* Finale Percussion Font
* Jazz Font
* Maestro Font
These cover pretty much all musical notation you could ask for. For lettering specifically, look to these:
Finale Copyist Text
JazzText
Broadway Copyist Text
MaestroTimes
Not sure if these exact fonts are available for licensing outside of the software.
### Reference:
[Finale Character Sets](https://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Character_sets.htm)
[Finale Alternative Music Fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) | It's not difficult to find some "jazz fonts" in the internet:
Sibelius software uses *Jazz Inkpen*:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1KzjX.png)
Also: [JazzFont.com](http://www.jazzfont.com/). |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | I believe that the "Allegretto" is a bold [Times New Roman](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Times_New_Roman).
 | Simplified Arabic Fixed, this is common in typed simplified sheet music. |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | I believe that the "Allegretto" is a bold [Times New Roman](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Times_New_Roman).
 | The handwritten example uses a number of fonts:
The violin clef: RussMusic (see <https://elbsound.studio/music-font-comparison.php?font=RussMusic> )
The time signature: probably a text font, could be AshAlpha (from the AshMusic font, same publisher as RussMusic)
The rests look like from a NorFont (RealScore, BopMusic, etc.), see <https://www.facebook.com/norfonts> .
The chords and the song title is probably handwritten, too many deviations between similar characters.
An overview of handwritten text fonts for this jazz style can be found here: <https://elbsound.studio/text-fonts-free-download.php#handwritten>
It's possible to create this look in Finale. Examples are available here:
<https://elbsound.studio/realbook-look.php#examples> |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | One of the more popular music notation software programs is [Finale](https://www.finalemusic.com/) (at least that was the case when I was in high school). Finale is bundled with a [bunch of fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) that you'll recognize if you use sheet music with any kind of regularity:
* Broadway Copyist Font
* Engraver Font
* Finale Alpha Notes Font
* Finale Copyist Text Font
* Finale Lyrics Font
* Finale Mallets Font
* Finale Numerics Font
* Finale Percussion Font
* Jazz Font
* Maestro Font
These cover pretty much all musical notation you could ask for. For lettering specifically, look to these:
Finale Copyist Text
JazzText
Broadway Copyist Text
MaestroTimes
Not sure if these exact fonts are available for licensing outside of the software.
### Reference:
[Finale Character Sets](https://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Character_sets.htm)
[Finale Alternative Music Fonts](http://www.finalemusic.com/UserManuals/Finale2014Mac/Content/Finale/Alternative_music_fonts.htm) | The handwritten example uses a number of fonts:
The violin clef: RussMusic (see <https://elbsound.studio/music-font-comparison.php?font=RussMusic> )
The time signature: probably a text font, could be AshAlpha (from the AshMusic font, same publisher as RussMusic)
The rests look like from a NorFont (RealScore, BopMusic, etc.), see <https://www.facebook.com/norfonts> .
The chords and the song title is probably handwritten, too many deviations between similar characters.
An overview of handwritten text fonts for this jazz style can be found here: <https://elbsound.studio/text-fonts-free-download.php#handwritten>
It's possible to create this look in Finale. Examples are available here:
<https://elbsound.studio/realbook-look.php#examples> |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | [Steinberg](https://www.smufl.org/fonts/) has made available a number of very complete, [SMuFL](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MusicXML)-compatible music sheet fonts, of which [***Bravura***](https://github.com/steinbergmedia/bravura) (in OTF, SVG, WOFF & EOT format)
and [***Petaluma***](https://www.steinberg.net/en/products/steinberg_trial_versions/dorico.html) (1350 glyphs)
are freely available under [the SIL Open Font License](http://scripts.sil.org/ofl). | Simplified Arabic Fixed, this is common in typed simplified sheet music. |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | I believe that the "Allegretto" is a bold [Times New Roman](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Times_New_Roman).
 | [Steinberg](https://www.smufl.org/fonts/) has made available a number of very complete, [SMuFL](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MusicXML)-compatible music sheet fonts, of which [***Bravura***](https://github.com/steinbergmedia/bravura) (in OTF, SVG, WOFF & EOT format)
and [***Petaluma***](https://www.steinberg.net/en/products/steinberg_trial_versions/dorico.html) (1350 glyphs)
are freely available under [the SIL Open Font License](http://scripts.sil.org/ofl). |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | I believe that the "Allegretto" is a bold [Times New Roman](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Times_New_Roman).
 | It's not difficult to find some "jazz fonts" in the internet:
Sibelius software uses *Jazz Inkpen*:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1KzjX.png)
Also: [JazzFont.com](http://www.jazzfont.com/). |
31,184 | I'm looking for the typical fonts appearing in classical music scores, like the ones here:
where you can see some **Allegretto**, and also a *leggiero*, some numbers too, and *m****f***.
And also, what fonts are those used in software like Sibelius, Encore... that looks like *Real Book*'s handwritten font?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/31184",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/18982/"
] | [Steinberg](https://www.smufl.org/fonts/) has made available a number of very complete, [SMuFL](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MusicXML)-compatible music sheet fonts, of which [***Bravura***](https://github.com/steinbergmedia/bravura) (in OTF, SVG, WOFF & EOT format)
and [***Petaluma***](https://www.steinberg.net/en/products/steinberg_trial_versions/dorico.html) (1350 glyphs)
are freely available under [the SIL Open Font License](http://scripts.sil.org/ofl). | The handwritten example uses a number of fonts:
The violin clef: RussMusic (see <https://elbsound.studio/music-font-comparison.php?font=RussMusic> )
The time signature: probably a text font, could be AshAlpha (from the AshMusic font, same publisher as RussMusic)
The rests look like from a NorFont (RealScore, BopMusic, etc.), see <https://www.facebook.com/norfonts> .
The chords and the song title is probably handwritten, too many deviations between similar characters.
An overview of handwritten text fonts for this jazz style can be found here: <https://elbsound.studio/text-fonts-free-download.php#handwritten>
It's possible to create this look in Finale. Examples are available here:
<https://elbsound.studio/realbook-look.php#examples> |
127,511 | I've played before but never long enough for me to get to try to prestige. I'm trying to figure out how to go about prestiging my character. I understand you need to meet the requirements. For example to become a Blackguard you need to be evil have +6 BAB and so on. But I'm trying to figure out how does the prestige classes BAB Fort save Ref save and Eill save work. Do they just add too or do you take that as your base and scrap the base classes saves and BAB. Also for the Hit Die and Skill points per level. Do you take those of your new class or does it combine? | 2018/07/18 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/127511",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/46870/"
] | Adding a prestige class is “a special form of multiclassing” as *Dungeon Master’s Guide* puts it, and for this kind of thing it uses the rules for multiclass characters. You can find [those rules here](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/classes/multiclass.htm), but the long and short of it is,
Yes, you just add them together.
================================
This is actually why the [blackguard](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/prestigeClasses/blackguard.htm)’s table lists BAB +6, +7, and so on, rather than +6/+1, +7/+2 like you see for the [barbarian](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/classes/barbarian.htm)’s table—because you get the extra attack when your total reaches +6, and blackguard can’t know when that will be since you can start being a blackguard any time after you qualify. So at 5th level you might have BAB +6/+1 from your base class (the minimum to enter blackguard), +5 from blackguard, for +11/+6/+1 total, but you could have entered blackguard with +10/+5 instead of +6/+1 and so you actually don’t get another attack until blackguard 6th.
Note that there are two methods of adding the numbers together: just reading off the table and adding them together, and the so-called “fractional” system. Basically, the numbers in the tables are all pre-rounded for you—a 3rd-level cleric doesn’t really have BAB +2 so much as BAB +2¼, but the table just rounds down since a ¼ bonus is meaningless. But it is recommended for games to save this rounding until *after* they have added all their classes together, to avoid rounding errors. For example, a 1st-level bard/1st-level cleric/1st-level rogue has +0+0+0 listed on the tables, but really ought to be +¾+¾+¾ = +2¼—the same as a 3rd-level bard, or a 3rd-level cleric, or a 3rd-level rogue. Ask your DM if you can use the fractional system; it’s much better (everyone at the table should use the same system).
### Sidenote: about the blackguard...
Finally, note that blackguard is a pretty problematic class:
* It’s hard to enter, since
+ It requires three feats and Cleave and Improved Sunder in particular are really weak feats.
+ It also requires Hide, which
1. you aren’t likely to get much use out of as the typical (heavily-armored) blackguard, and
2. isn’t a class skill for paladins, making it very hard to do the expected paladin entry.
* And then the class features are kind of meh:
+ the spells are pretty limited,
+ sneak attack is all right but you could just be a rogue,
+ poison use is pretty much garbage,
+ you get too little of smite good for it to be worth much,
and so on. The dark blessing and aura of despair, though, those are absolutely fantastic. I’m not trying to tell you not to play one, just want to make sure you know about the issues going in. In particular, you probably *don’t* really want to enter as a paladin, but probably more like 2 levels in each of barbarian (for rage, since you need some Cha and so your Str/Con may be lower than they’d otherwise be), fighter (for bonus feats so you can get all you need), and ranger (for Hide, and maybe the combat style feat can be useful to you). | In most ways, aside from the fact that they have requirements that you have to meet before you can take levels in them, entering a prestige class works just like [multiclassing](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/classes/multiclass.htm) into any other class.
>
> I'm trying to figure out how does the prestige classes BAB Fort save Ref save and Eill save work. Do they just add too or do you take that as your base and scrap the base classes saves and BAB.
>
>
>
Just like when multiclassing normally, to calculate your base saves and BAB, simply add up the corresponding columns for all your classes. For instance, a **Fighter 6/Blackguard 1** has:
* BAB 7 (6 from Fighter + 1 from Blackguard)
* Base fort save +7 (5 from Fighter + 2 from Blackguard)
* Base ref save +2 (2 from Fighter + 0 from Blackguard
* Base will save +2 (2 from Fighter + 0 from Blackguard
These rules tend to mean that multiclass characters have higher base saves than single-class characters (because you get the +2 to your strong saves on every new class you take), but lower BAB than single-class characters (because classes with less than full BAB have their +0 BAB levels at the beginning of the class).
There is a variant rule in Unearthed Arcana for fractional BAB and saves that many people prefer, but the above is how it works in the base rules.
>
> Also for the Hit Die and Skill points per level. Do you take those of your new class or does it combine?
>
>
>
When you gain a level, you gain the hit die and skill points of whatever new class you're taking. When multiclassing (including into a prestige class), this might mean you don't gain the same hit die at every level - for instance, a **Cleric 8/Blackguard 2** would have 8d8 + 2d10 as their hit dice (they would gain d8 + con bonus on their Cleric levels, then d10 + con bonus on their Blackguard levels)
For skill points, again, you gain new skill points according to the skill points of the class you're gaining. For instance, a **Rogue 5/[Assassin](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/prestigeClasses/assassin.htm) 1** would have gained 8 + int bonus skill points at level 5, but would then only gain 4 + int bonus skill points when they took a level of Assassin at level 6.
Since different classes can have different class skills, make sure you brush up on how [gaining skills works](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/skills/skillsSummary.htm), in particular:
>
> The maximum rank in a class skill is the character’s level + 3. If it’s a cross-class skill, the maximum rank is half of that number (do not round up or down).
>
>
> Regardless of whether a skill is purchased as a class skill or a cross-class skill, if it is a class skill for any of your classes, your maximum rank equals your total character level + 3.
>
>
> |
172,911 | This is my first publishing experience (field: social sciences). I have an article accepted for a journal (sage publications) after minor revision. I have undergone the proof read and revision stage (submitted my proof and responding a week ago and my open-access option).
But today, I received an email from the editor asking for further revision (actually, a challenging one). The editor writes that there was a miscommunication on the journal's side and I shouldn't worry because my paper is still "accepted." I am writing to ask if this is a rare situation? Do you really have to go through another process of revision? | 2021/08/02 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/172911",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/139287/"
] | **Yes**
Ultimately nothing gets published unless the editor(s) approve of it, so if they request revisions you'll have to make them.
As for whether it's rare, the answer is also yes. Usually there are no more revisions requested after a paper is accepted. The underlying reason this is happening is, as the editor says, a miscommunication on their part. People are more likely to communicate correctly than incorrectly. | I won't comment on how rare it is other than to guess that for something major it is pretty rare - and a bit odd. But until you have something that can be considered a contract where you are, they can require it. Not knowing the actual request, it is impossible to say if they would be justified in withdrawing acceptance if you don't comply. There might be some regulatory reason for the request, in fact.
Probably you should do this, unless you are willing to withdraw the paper and submit elsewhere. But you need to judge whether the request is *reasonable*. If so, it might be in your best (career) interest to make a final revision.
One option that is open, is to discuss the situation with the editor and determine the reason and the necessity. |
6,844 | In Skyfall James Bond has to complete a word assocation exercise as part of his evaluation.
One of the words the psychiatrist says is "skyfall" to which Bond replys "done".
It seems as if the word prompted Bond to go after Patrice as this is what he did immediately after his evaluation. Did we miss a scene where this mission was discussed? Is it just a coincidence it was also the name of Bonds old home? | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/6844",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | I think that the test was just probing Bond's psychological state. Skyfall would involk a painful memory and Bond replied 'Done' in the sense that he was done with the test (hence he walked out).
Bond is rarely one for sharing his true feelings and had a defiant streak. Once he knew that the test was going to ask personal question he did not want to discuss he walked out partially because he was upset at the memory, partly because he was offended that they asked something so personal and partly because he did not want to be there anyway. | I don't think its a coincidence, that was how the story was laid. It was something to do with the movie's editing that it made viewers feel it was a coincidence.
Skyfall wasn't just his old home; his parents also died there, and he hadn't been there since their death. So, when the psychiatrist says 'Skyfall', he actually wanted to check if he had moved on from their death or not. 'Done', was probably Bond's way of saying 'Yes'.
After (failing) the tests, he continues on his mission (that computer scene where they tell him go to China because Patrice is there) only after *M* gives the go-ahead. |
6,844 | In Skyfall James Bond has to complete a word assocation exercise as part of his evaluation.
One of the words the psychiatrist says is "skyfall" to which Bond replys "done".
It seems as if the word prompted Bond to go after Patrice as this is what he did immediately after his evaluation. Did we miss a scene where this mission was discussed? Is it just a coincidence it was also the name of Bonds old home? | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/6844",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | I don't think its a coincidence, that was how the story was laid. It was something to do with the movie's editing that it made viewers feel it was a coincidence.
Skyfall wasn't just his old home; his parents also died there, and he hadn't been there since their death. So, when the psychiatrist says 'Skyfall', he actually wanted to check if he had moved on from their death or not. 'Done', was probably Bond's way of saying 'Yes'.
After (failing) the tests, he continues on his mission (that computer scene where they tell him go to China because Patrice is there) only after *M* gives the go-ahead. | Once you watch the movie you'll come to know that the word Skyfall refers to Bond's ancestral house in Scotland, where his parents died a supposedly tragic death. The reaction to this word (walking out of the room and quitting the test) eventually leads to Bond failing the test and the evaluator adding a remark of "Personal Childhood Trauma". |
6,844 | In Skyfall James Bond has to complete a word assocation exercise as part of his evaluation.
One of the words the psychiatrist says is "skyfall" to which Bond replys "done".
It seems as if the word prompted Bond to go after Patrice as this is what he did immediately after his evaluation. Did we miss a scene where this mission was discussed? Is it just a coincidence it was also the name of Bonds old home? | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/6844",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | I don't think its a coincidence, that was how the story was laid. It was something to do with the movie's editing that it made viewers feel it was a coincidence.
Skyfall wasn't just his old home; his parents also died there, and he hadn't been there since their death. So, when the psychiatrist says 'Skyfall', he actually wanted to check if he had moved on from their death or not. 'Done', was probably Bond's way of saying 'Yes'.
After (failing) the tests, he continues on his mission (that computer scene where they tell him go to China because Patrice is there) only after *M* gives the go-ahead. | Don't forget who we're talking about here - "James Bond" - highly-intelligent and a very fast thinker - Skyfall has the implied meaning, "The Sky is Falling" - so his answer was actually 100% correct. The term "Skyfall" is associated with something - civilization, for example - and/or the test - and the villain - being "done." ;) |
6,844 | In Skyfall James Bond has to complete a word assocation exercise as part of his evaluation.
One of the words the psychiatrist says is "skyfall" to which Bond replys "done".
It seems as if the word prompted Bond to go after Patrice as this is what he did immediately after his evaluation. Did we miss a scene where this mission was discussed? Is it just a coincidence it was also the name of Bonds old home? | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/6844",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | I think that the test was just probing Bond's psychological state. Skyfall would involk a painful memory and Bond replied 'Done' in the sense that he was done with the test (hence he walked out).
Bond is rarely one for sharing his true feelings and had a defiant streak. Once he knew that the test was going to ask personal question he did not want to discuss he walked out partially because he was upset at the memory, partly because he was offended that they asked something so personal and partly because he did not want to be there anyway. | Once you watch the movie you'll come to know that the word Skyfall refers to Bond's ancestral house in Scotland, where his parents died a supposedly tragic death. The reaction to this word (walking out of the room and quitting the test) eventually leads to Bond failing the test and the evaluator adding a remark of "Personal Childhood Trauma". |
6,844 | In Skyfall James Bond has to complete a word assocation exercise as part of his evaluation.
One of the words the psychiatrist says is "skyfall" to which Bond replys "done".
It seems as if the word prompted Bond to go after Patrice as this is what he did immediately after his evaluation. Did we miss a scene where this mission was discussed? Is it just a coincidence it was also the name of Bonds old home? | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/6844",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | I think that the test was just probing Bond's psychological state. Skyfall would involk a painful memory and Bond replied 'Done' in the sense that he was done with the test (hence he walked out).
Bond is rarely one for sharing his true feelings and had a defiant streak. Once he knew that the test was going to ask personal question he did not want to discuss he walked out partially because he was upset at the memory, partly because he was offended that they asked something so personal and partly because he did not want to be there anyway. | Don't forget who we're talking about here - "James Bond" - highly-intelligent and a very fast thinker - Skyfall has the implied meaning, "The Sky is Falling" - so his answer was actually 100% correct. The term "Skyfall" is associated with something - civilization, for example - and/or the test - and the villain - being "done." ;) |
6,844 | In Skyfall James Bond has to complete a word assocation exercise as part of his evaluation.
One of the words the psychiatrist says is "skyfall" to which Bond replys "done".
It seems as if the word prompted Bond to go after Patrice as this is what he did immediately after his evaluation. Did we miss a scene where this mission was discussed? Is it just a coincidence it was also the name of Bonds old home? | 2012/10/30 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/6844",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/3203/"
] | Once you watch the movie you'll come to know that the word Skyfall refers to Bond's ancestral house in Scotland, where his parents died a supposedly tragic death. The reaction to this word (walking out of the room and quitting the test) eventually leads to Bond failing the test and the evaluator adding a remark of "Personal Childhood Trauma". | Don't forget who we're talking about here - "James Bond" - highly-intelligent and a very fast thinker - Skyfall has the implied meaning, "The Sky is Falling" - so his answer was actually 100% correct. The term "Skyfall" is associated with something - civilization, for example - and/or the test - and the villain - being "done." ;) |
11,989,526 | I'm on the panic-mode. Today, when navigating to my website, I saw the website was down because of SQL Server timeouts (after an attack with million of login attempts.) ASP.Net pages can't be processed, because SQL Server requests just don't work.
Is there an on/off button for remote access in SQL Server 2008? I saw a lot of vague threads about adding firewall rules. I will never need to remotely access SQL Server, so I don't need to filter access, I just need to limit it to 127.0.0.1. Is this feasible? | 2012/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11989526",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/787856/"
] | Under Server Properties/Connections you can uncheck the
>
> "Allow remote connections"
>
>
>
box. | You can also disable tcp-ip using the configuration manager |
11,989,526 | I'm on the panic-mode. Today, when navigating to my website, I saw the website was down because of SQL Server timeouts (after an attack with million of login attempts.) ASP.Net pages can't be processed, because SQL Server requests just don't work.
Is there an on/off button for remote access in SQL Server 2008? I saw a lot of vague threads about adding firewall rules. I will never need to remotely access SQL Server, so I don't need to filter access, I just need to limit it to 127.0.0.1. Is this feasible? | 2012/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11989526",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/787856/"
] | Under Server Properties/Connections you can uncheck the
>
> "Allow remote connections"
>
>
>
box. | 1) You should turn off "Allow remote connections" - do this in SQL Server Management Studio (Right Click on server, properties, Connections)
2) Ensure that your firewall is blocked (MSSQL - right click and set it to Block) |
11,989,526 | I'm on the panic-mode. Today, when navigating to my website, I saw the website was down because of SQL Server timeouts (after an attack with million of login attempts.) ASP.Net pages can't be processed, because SQL Server requests just don't work.
Is there an on/off button for remote access in SQL Server 2008? I saw a lot of vague threads about adding firewall rules. I will never need to remotely access SQL Server, so I don't need to filter access, I just need to limit it to 127.0.0.1. Is this feasible? | 2012/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11989526",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/787856/"
] | Under Server Properties/Connections you can uncheck the
>
> "Allow remote connections"
>
>
>
box. | Not to resurrect an old question but I recently came across this need myself. The remote connections button is server to server communications generally for executing stored procedures and such as mentioned in the previous post. In lieu of Firewall rules disabling TCP/IP and Named Pipes should prevent external connections if you are running SQL on a laptop for development purposes or a stand alone server and do not want SQL listening to any external ports. |
11,989,526 | I'm on the panic-mode. Today, when navigating to my website, I saw the website was down because of SQL Server timeouts (after an attack with million of login attempts.) ASP.Net pages can't be processed, because SQL Server requests just don't work.
Is there an on/off button for remote access in SQL Server 2008? I saw a lot of vague threads about adding firewall rules. I will never need to remotely access SQL Server, so I don't need to filter access, I just need to limit it to 127.0.0.1. Is this feasible? | 2012/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11989526",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/787856/"
] | You can also disable tcp-ip using the configuration manager | 1) You should turn off "Allow remote connections" - do this in SQL Server Management Studio (Right Click on server, properties, Connections)
2) Ensure that your firewall is blocked (MSSQL - right click and set it to Block) |
11,989,526 | I'm on the panic-mode. Today, when navigating to my website, I saw the website was down because of SQL Server timeouts (after an attack with million of login attempts.) ASP.Net pages can't be processed, because SQL Server requests just don't work.
Is there an on/off button for remote access in SQL Server 2008? I saw a lot of vague threads about adding firewall rules. I will never need to remotely access SQL Server, so I don't need to filter access, I just need to limit it to 127.0.0.1. Is this feasible? | 2012/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11989526",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/787856/"
] | You can also disable tcp-ip using the configuration manager | Not to resurrect an old question but I recently came across this need myself. The remote connections button is server to server communications generally for executing stored procedures and such as mentioned in the previous post. In lieu of Firewall rules disabling TCP/IP and Named Pipes should prevent external connections if you are running SQL on a laptop for development purposes or a stand alone server and do not want SQL listening to any external ports. |
11,989,526 | I'm on the panic-mode. Today, when navigating to my website, I saw the website was down because of SQL Server timeouts (after an attack with million of login attempts.) ASP.Net pages can't be processed, because SQL Server requests just don't work.
Is there an on/off button for remote access in SQL Server 2008? I saw a lot of vague threads about adding firewall rules. I will never need to remotely access SQL Server, so I don't need to filter access, I just need to limit it to 127.0.0.1. Is this feasible? | 2012/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11989526",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/787856/"
] | 1) You should turn off "Allow remote connections" - do this in SQL Server Management Studio (Right Click on server, properties, Connections)
2) Ensure that your firewall is blocked (MSSQL - right click and set it to Block) | Not to resurrect an old question but I recently came across this need myself. The remote connections button is server to server communications generally for executing stored procedures and such as mentioned in the previous post. In lieu of Firewall rules disabling TCP/IP and Named Pipes should prevent external connections if you are running SQL on a laptop for development purposes or a stand alone server and do not want SQL listening to any external ports. |
7,830,848 | I try to search through the questions to see if there is any similar thread to my problem but so far haven't found any.
Here is my problem is: I have a list of products which contains ~10,000 items stored in a SQLite db. In my app, I need to search for any item from this list. I have a few options:
* Use the autoCompleteTextView, with all products preloaded, and as I type the product's name, the list will suggest the product, hence I just need to select from the suggestion. This is the simplest way but I feel 10,000 items (or even more in the future) would be very heavy to load
* As I type any character and click search, the app will do a select all products from the db with the character as a filter. The result set is then fed to some list view so that i can pick any item. This approach would save the memory as the app won't load all items to the memory but only items that contain the filtering characters.
Is there any better way to do this?
Thanks | 2011/10/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7830848",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1004393/"
] | Your second option is the best way. Its similar to how you get a list of recommended search results while you type in your query. For you, assuming your using asynctask to query your db you can have a proper loading message signaled by onProgressUpdate | Can you categorize the items? So that you can use use spinner to select the category, and use AutoCompleteTextView to type and select items. |
383,415 | I use some industrial amplifier modules where each of them amplifies force transducers. All amplifiers are powered by a single power supply and the output.
Amplifier is set to 6kHz filter. And there is no anti-aliasing filter in the system.
Interest of frequency is max 10Hz and the sampling rate is 500Hz. Sometimes when the noise noise appears at the sampled outputs it has a peak around 3.1Hz. So this corrupts the readings below 10Hz.
I took some offset readings to observe the electrical noise better.
I have the following 12 seconds of noisy signal in time series:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tb7r2.png)
And here 1 second view:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6S2vx.png)
And below is the FFT of the signal:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/LKWgx.png)
(left-click to zoom in)
And finally comparison when that 3.1Hz noise, green when it is there and the blue plot when it is not there:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/igQ09.png)
I still could not find the source of this noise.
But just by looking at these plots, what can that 3.1Hz noise be?
Can that be aliasing? If so, is there a way to estimate the real noise freq. by looking at the peaks at FFT given that we only have 500Hz sampling rate? | 2018/07/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/383415",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/125197/"
] | Looks like you're in 50Hz-land, observing that there are about 10 cycles in 0.2 seconds in the second graph.
If whatever 50Hz signal you have is rich in harmonic content, the tenth harmonic will be pretty close to your sampling frequency. In fact I'll speculate it's 3.1Hz away (and will move around as the mains frequency drifts under load).
There's a reason sample data systems always need an anti-aliasing filter.
If you're not interested above 10Hz, you can use it to attenuate 50Hz too. | It could be something higher being aliased, but it is in the nature of aliasing that you cannot definitively go from the aliased signal back to the original unless you have knowledge of which nyquest zone the original signal fitted into, and I am guessing that in your case the original did NOT fit in a single nyquest zone.
I would start by hooking up a PC sound card as a digitiser and recording the signal at 48/96 or 192KHz, this will give you a few tens of kHz of bandwidth with correct anti aliasing filters, so you should be able to see what is really going on.
This file (it will be more then a little large) can then be used both for analysis and as a reproducible source of test signals, so that you can actually play the interference out into your measurement system on demand.
One other thing with weirdly intermittent noise sources, look for radios in the area (cell phones, walkie talkies, that kind of thing), a maintenance guy with a handheld radio leaning on a badly filtered control cabinet while he calls the control room can cause chaos that is HARD to track down.
One final thought, can you try a divide a conquer approach (Replace the transducer amplifier on one channel with a resistor to see if the problem goes away, then do the same for the transducer, both at the amp and at the sensor, keep halving the problem until you find where the issue is getting in). |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | ### We probably need a revamped tutorial on *how* to ask an on-topic homework question.
The current title of the homework policy, "[How do I ask homework questions on Physics Stack Exchange?](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/how-do-i-ask-homework-questions-on-physics-stack-exchange)", is not a coincidence: in its original form (say, [v11](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/revisions/715/11)), and as adapted from [the original thread on the mathematics site](https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1803/how-to-ask-a-homework-question), it was intended as a tutorial to help newcomers adapt their set-piece dumps into posts that passed the bar set by the (rather more permissive?) environment on this site all those seven years ago.
Over the years, that post's form and function has morphed somewhat, but if you look at the current post from the perspective of its original goal, it's really not doing its job very well, so if you take e.g. this passage,
>
> The best way to produce a focused, specific question is to show your work. Explain what you've been able to figure out so far and how you did it. Showing your work will help us gauge where you are having problems
>
>
>
it does some pretty poor justice to the actual policy as implemented in the ground, but more importantly, it's just pointing newcomers in completely the wrong direction.
So, for one, there's definitely some polishing to be done on the homework policy itself (which, I would argue, should take it closer to a proper "policy" post with a title along the lines or "Are homework questions on-topic here?" or maybe "Which homework questions are on-topic here?"), but that's probably a debate that's not for this round (again).
However, one thing I think we *could* do, given our existing budget of time, energy, and participation, is to write a separate post that actually goes in depth into *how* you write your homework question in a way that actually ticks that elusive "conceptual question" checkbox that forms the core of the current requirements. This takes me back to dmckee's premise:
>
> The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of thing that is still in front of beginning students.
>
>
> I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia, and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing they are trying to do.
>
>
>
So, let's actually try and lay out in a long-form, accessible text exactly what we mean by "conceptual" (independently of policy itself), and the rough process for taking a set-piece dump, or a set-piece-dump-with-check-my-work-due-diligence, into a conceptual question that transcends the set-piece the newcomer was originally stuck with and which is useful for future visitors. | *I am here suggesting an attitude/behavior change (let's call it an improvement) rather than a change in rule or given information.*
---
A specific behavior change or change of attitude towards new users with poorly described homework questions could simply be to comment:
>
> I understand your task - but why can't you solve it? **What is your doubt**?
>
>
>
Meaning, **refrain from solving the question and rather ask for the underlying doubt.**
Honestly, no homework-asker needs help with their homework - they need help with the **tool**, **method**, or **understanding** required to solve the homework. (Apart from obvious cases of poorly stated homework-tasks or typos - or lazy panicking last-minute students.)
Focusing on targeting the underlying doubt before the question is of course more the purpose of a teacher who educates than a Q/A-site that answers specific questions without care for the background. But if this site and community really, truly wish to embrace more homework-askers, then prompting for the right question with a doubt-seeking rather than condemning attitude is a *strong* necessity IMO.
---
Now, the standard message given when closing such questions includes:
>
> Homework-like questions should ask about a specific physics concept [...]
>
>
>
A sentence often mentioned for the user in comments before closing. But is this sentence and phrase clear? I do not believe so. A "specific physics concept" could for a not-too-experienced student just as well be interpreted as the homework question itself. So, such sentence may not be as helpful towards a proper rephrasing as asking for the doubt or "what prevents you from solving / starting / doing something". |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | As a just-about-no-longer-new user, I feel certified to take a shot at this.
I recently started a discussion in a chat ([Physics meta room, 6th June '18](https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/13775/2018/6/6)) about how homework-help-seekers find us. The discussion was inconclusive. But an important point that Rob (the moderator) brought up was that there's no easy way to do anything about a "student [that] is already in a mindset where they think copying a multiple-choice question from their homework onto a website will be better for their education than reading their textbook [that's one end of the spectrum]", which I think is a brilliant way of thinking of things. If they didn't want to read the 2-minute tour, even when motivated by a badge ('informed'), there's no point in sweet-talking too much, since they're here to get the question solved and *expressed* no *evident* involvement, and anyways they'll leave until they resurface with another similar problem. A person with genuine interest (hopefully) will subsequently read the linked documents about homework policies.
---
In my first couple of weeks (2 months ago), I got the feeling that some users, notably one guy with way more than 25,000 reputation, were pretty terse and mean, and I got pretty intimidated by some comments on my answers. Soon after that, I read a something on meta which, in essence, said that soon enough, your supervisors for early research work are going to be criticizing your work much more aggressively than people here do, and that there's a need to be a little thick-skinned. At the end of it, I'm grateful that the aforementioned high-rep user was terse with the feedback on my posts, because now I've gotten a better idea of how much research and effort needs to go into a post to confirm accuracy and legibility, and learned how to respond to feedback.
Hence my recommendation, as a just-about-no-longer-new user, is that **we shouldn't sugarcoat advice too, but we should tell new users why we're aggressive and what they'll learn from it.** (Comments are mean because we want to maintain quality standards; listening/cooperating/discussing issues in comments will help you to learn to cope with future research advisers).
---
There are some cases beyond homework, however, where I think we could be better. In a recent review (no link because it was deleted soon after), I left a somewhat curt message in a comment to an answer. The answer said "This should be a comment, but not enough rep... (suggestion about a solution)". I included the word 'loophole', and even felt the need to end the comment with "Sorry." Another reviewer left a similar response which had links to several (more than 3) meta and help center posts. The author of the answer apologized. And then the final review was an incredibly nice comment by stafusa. The comment said something on the lines of "don't lose heart, I'll post it in the comments section of the question; check back there for a response".
We need to adopt stafusa's approach with such new users who *aren't* related to the homework fiasco, i.e. the section among which there are several awesome people who genuinely want to contribute. That user clearly wanted to help the asker, but couldn't do it due to the new-user restrictions. (I'm not criticizing those restrictions though; they keep the spam away almost perfectly)
Edit: I hunted down the evasive review and put together a badly-edited picture. The author of the second comment had about 3k rep; I decided to remove the name because I don't what s/he was feeling while putting his/her comment. Note that the question has been deleted as well.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KJee4.png)
---
Edit 2: [Here's something interesting I read today.](https://hackernoon.com/the-decline-of-stack-overflow-7cb69faa575d) It's about stackoverflow, but the message is applicable to Physics SE to a certain extent. It essentially discusses the fact that the permanent residents of SO (the regular contributors) are a very small population. I don't agree with a lot of the deductions they make: most notably, I don't think that their claims and justifications that SO is *declining* are valid. But the relevant takeaway for us is this: most new users are going to pop in for ONLY 1 question, and then disappear with their problems solved. This follows the argument that there's no big point in 'nurturing their interests to induct them into the SE family' or whatever jazz: most are here to take the help and run away without thinking about SE as a community of people contributing in different ways. | If the concern is that homework like questions clog up the site, would an “easy” solution\* be to make these posts optionally invisible?
One check box removes the content from your feed and search results - yet people who want to help (or need help) can find each other on this site. We already have he ability to have favorite tags. This just extends that concept in the opposite direction.
It would give people who choose to be welcoming and helpful the chance to do so - the ones who want to snark can instead ignore these posts and live happier, more fulfilling lives.
---
\* I realize that on a common platform like SE nothing is as easy as it sounds... |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | **Summary - (Maybe) snappy video FAQs but no rule changes**
There's a difference between being welcoming and being a doormat.
>
> Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”
>
>
>
Abuse is already a breach of the rules, it's for users to flag outright abuse if they see it. It requires no more.
We also need to avoid enforcing an artificial code of conduct which acts as a barrier to people staying on the site. If people cannot feel reasonable levels of freedom to express frustration, irritation and annoyance they will leave. And those people leaving will be the useful posters, who provide useful answers and some of the challenging questions.
Let's not throw the baby out with the bathwater.
You can't completely stifle sarcasm, etc. without making the place feel like a morgue or some sort of gawd-awful genetlemen's club.
It's nice enough, IMO. We're not running a hotel for Mormons, if you see what I mean. :-)
>
> Let’s do something about comments. (in particular about sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to push new users away)
>
>
>
When people stop posting their homework (often as nothing more than a photo of the page it's written on) and looking for an answer (and even have the gall to want it explained "clearly and in detail"), I'll stop being sarcastic, pointed and overly terse.
These people are not remotely interested in learning physics. They're interested in having someone else do their homework, period.
There's no need to be nice about this and it's a waste of effort doing more than VTCing for homework-type reasons (which will post a message explaining why which they can fix or ignore - their choice).
>
> Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.
>
>
>
It is easy. It's a simple matter of them looking at the site before they post an answer, opinion or question.
We do not have to handhold them. There's plenty of common sense ways to learn the ropes. There's a tour, you can just read upvoted questions and answers to get a feel for the place.
>
> Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A site!)
>
>
>
Why not ?
We're not doormats. I think we all offer help (in different ways).
Let's put that another way. In school (remember that ?) when you were in class was it sometimes exactly what you need to be told to stop wasting people's time (or similar) ? To be told that a minimum effort is expected of you ? To not waste people's time because you're too lazy to make any effort.
And it's not as if there's isn't a lot of text already posted telling people what's expected of them.
They often just don't care.
We've all experienced the posters who won't take no for an answer and do things like try and argue in comments why we should do their homework for them, all the way up to the ones that repost multiple times.
>
> Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.
>
>
>
I was not aware of any such "dichotomy".
We have rules for quality. We have *different* rules for kindness.
And "kindness" is not what's needed. There's a difference between reasonable politeness as a general rule and "walk over us and we'll walk in front of you again and ask for another".
If I want to be kind to people, I'll work on the soup kitchens for the homeless.
>
> Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
>
>
>
The barrier is there to discourage abuse of the site. It does it's job.
An argument could be made for making the barrier tougher, not easier. I think we're already on the nice side of reasonable.
>
> Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in the way.
>
>
>
I think we already provide a lot of this. This is something of a "You Can Lead A Horse To Water" thing. The warnings, FAQs and guidelines are already there and pointed to.
>
> The YouTube generation
>
>
>
I think what may be needed, if anything, is *video* FAQs, and guidelines for newbies.
I am afraid the majority of the younger generation are utterly disinterested in *reading* rules. They need some snappy music backed video telling them.
However the problem users will continue to be a problem because they don't care about rules. Video rules might help avoid the problems with some genuine users keen to learn.
So maybe one specific video stating the homework policy prominently on the question entry page ? With (Gawd help us) a snappy background muzak for the Millennials. :-) | **Invite people from different backgrounds as newcomers to peer review this site**
To get a good idea of problems experienced by newcomers, we should consider inviting a number of newcomers to peer review this site. They can be physics students, professional physicists etc., they are then asked to occasionally post here and keep a file about their opinion on the questions/answers they post and the feedback they get. When the review period is over, we can study the opinions of the reviewers and then decide how best to address problems experienced here. |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | Implement a *helpful* [tag warning](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/a/274634/7317818) for [homework-and-exercises](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/homework-and-exercises "show questions tagged 'homework-and-exercises'")
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I suggest a tag warning for hw/exercises that's written with an eye to the user who has a question we want: lead *that* user to write a good hw/exercise question.
Who knows how much impact tag-warnings actually have. ([They show up at the wrong time, after all.](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/309592/311001)) But the tag warning for hw/exercises [already brainstormed here](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/a/10043/124778) is largely focused on preventing the asking of bad questions rather than stepping a user through asking one well.
As you said in the question-post, you're not going to immediately get a wizard for crafting good homework-based questions. But by trying to write into a tag-warning good guidelines/workflow for someone trying to ask for homework help we'll be laying the groundwork for when the time comes: "see, SE staff: we already have one ready to go, for the 2nd-most used and most-problematic tag on one of the Network's busiest sites." | As a just-about-no-longer-new user, I feel certified to take a shot at this.
I recently started a discussion in a chat ([Physics meta room, 6th June '18](https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/13775/2018/6/6)) about how homework-help-seekers find us. The discussion was inconclusive. But an important point that Rob (the moderator) brought up was that there's no easy way to do anything about a "student [that] is already in a mindset where they think copying a multiple-choice question from their homework onto a website will be better for their education than reading their textbook [that's one end of the spectrum]", which I think is a brilliant way of thinking of things. If they didn't want to read the 2-minute tour, even when motivated by a badge ('informed'), there's no point in sweet-talking too much, since they're here to get the question solved and *expressed* no *evident* involvement, and anyways they'll leave until they resurface with another similar problem. A person with genuine interest (hopefully) will subsequently read the linked documents about homework policies.
---
In my first couple of weeks (2 months ago), I got the feeling that some users, notably one guy with way more than 25,000 reputation, were pretty terse and mean, and I got pretty intimidated by some comments on my answers. Soon after that, I read a something on meta which, in essence, said that soon enough, your supervisors for early research work are going to be criticizing your work much more aggressively than people here do, and that there's a need to be a little thick-skinned. At the end of it, I'm grateful that the aforementioned high-rep user was terse with the feedback on my posts, because now I've gotten a better idea of how much research and effort needs to go into a post to confirm accuracy and legibility, and learned how to respond to feedback.
Hence my recommendation, as a just-about-no-longer-new user, is that **we shouldn't sugarcoat advice too, but we should tell new users why we're aggressive and what they'll learn from it.** (Comments are mean because we want to maintain quality standards; listening/cooperating/discussing issues in comments will help you to learn to cope with future research advisers).
---
There are some cases beyond homework, however, where I think we could be better. In a recent review (no link because it was deleted soon after), I left a somewhat curt message in a comment to an answer. The answer said "This should be a comment, but not enough rep... (suggestion about a solution)". I included the word 'loophole', and even felt the need to end the comment with "Sorry." Another reviewer left a similar response which had links to several (more than 3) meta and help center posts. The author of the answer apologized. And then the final review was an incredibly nice comment by stafusa. The comment said something on the lines of "don't lose heart, I'll post it in the comments section of the question; check back there for a response".
We need to adopt stafusa's approach with such new users who *aren't* related to the homework fiasco, i.e. the section among which there are several awesome people who genuinely want to contribute. That user clearly wanted to help the asker, but couldn't do it due to the new-user restrictions. (I'm not criticizing those restrictions though; they keep the spam away almost perfectly)
Edit: I hunted down the evasive review and put together a badly-edited picture. The author of the second comment had about 3k rep; I decided to remove the name because I don't what s/he was feeling while putting his/her comment. Note that the question has been deleted as well.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KJee4.png)
---
Edit 2: [Here's something interesting I read today.](https://hackernoon.com/the-decline-of-stack-overflow-7cb69faa575d) It's about stackoverflow, but the message is applicable to Physics SE to a certain extent. It essentially discusses the fact that the permanent residents of SO (the regular contributors) are a very small population. I don't agree with a lot of the deductions they make: most notably, I don't think that their claims and justifications that SO is *declining* are valid. But the relevant takeaway for us is this: most new users are going to pop in for ONLY 1 question, and then disappear with their problems solved. This follows the argument that there's no big point in 'nurturing their interests to induct them into the SE family' or whatever jazz: most are here to take the help and run away without thinking about SE as a community of people contributing in different ways. |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | As a just-about-no-longer-new user, I feel certified to take a shot at this.
I recently started a discussion in a chat ([Physics meta room, 6th June '18](https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/13775/2018/6/6)) about how homework-help-seekers find us. The discussion was inconclusive. But an important point that Rob (the moderator) brought up was that there's no easy way to do anything about a "student [that] is already in a mindset where they think copying a multiple-choice question from their homework onto a website will be better for their education than reading their textbook [that's one end of the spectrum]", which I think is a brilliant way of thinking of things. If they didn't want to read the 2-minute tour, even when motivated by a badge ('informed'), there's no point in sweet-talking too much, since they're here to get the question solved and *expressed* no *evident* involvement, and anyways they'll leave until they resurface with another similar problem. A person with genuine interest (hopefully) will subsequently read the linked documents about homework policies.
---
In my first couple of weeks (2 months ago), I got the feeling that some users, notably one guy with way more than 25,000 reputation, were pretty terse and mean, and I got pretty intimidated by some comments on my answers. Soon after that, I read a something on meta which, in essence, said that soon enough, your supervisors for early research work are going to be criticizing your work much more aggressively than people here do, and that there's a need to be a little thick-skinned. At the end of it, I'm grateful that the aforementioned high-rep user was terse with the feedback on my posts, because now I've gotten a better idea of how much research and effort needs to go into a post to confirm accuracy and legibility, and learned how to respond to feedback.
Hence my recommendation, as a just-about-no-longer-new user, is that **we shouldn't sugarcoat advice too, but we should tell new users why we're aggressive and what they'll learn from it.** (Comments are mean because we want to maintain quality standards; listening/cooperating/discussing issues in comments will help you to learn to cope with future research advisers).
---
There are some cases beyond homework, however, where I think we could be better. In a recent review (no link because it was deleted soon after), I left a somewhat curt message in a comment to an answer. The answer said "This should be a comment, but not enough rep... (suggestion about a solution)". I included the word 'loophole', and even felt the need to end the comment with "Sorry." Another reviewer left a similar response which had links to several (more than 3) meta and help center posts. The author of the answer apologized. And then the final review was an incredibly nice comment by stafusa. The comment said something on the lines of "don't lose heart, I'll post it in the comments section of the question; check back there for a response".
We need to adopt stafusa's approach with such new users who *aren't* related to the homework fiasco, i.e. the section among which there are several awesome people who genuinely want to contribute. That user clearly wanted to help the asker, but couldn't do it due to the new-user restrictions. (I'm not criticizing those restrictions though; they keep the spam away almost perfectly)
Edit: I hunted down the evasive review and put together a badly-edited picture. The author of the second comment had about 3k rep; I decided to remove the name because I don't what s/he was feeling while putting his/her comment. Note that the question has been deleted as well.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KJee4.png)
---
Edit 2: [Here's something interesting I read today.](https://hackernoon.com/the-decline-of-stack-overflow-7cb69faa575d) It's about stackoverflow, but the message is applicable to Physics SE to a certain extent. It essentially discusses the fact that the permanent residents of SO (the regular contributors) are a very small population. I don't agree with a lot of the deductions they make: most notably, I don't think that their claims and justifications that SO is *declining* are valid. But the relevant takeaway for us is this: most new users are going to pop in for ONLY 1 question, and then disappear with their problems solved. This follows the argument that there's no big point in 'nurturing their interests to induct them into the SE family' or whatever jazz: most are here to take the help and run away without thinking about SE as a community of people contributing in different ways. | **Invite people from different backgrounds as newcomers to peer review this site**
To get a good idea of problems experienced by newcomers, we should consider inviting a number of newcomers to peer review this site. They can be physics students, professional physicists etc., they are then asked to occasionally post here and keep a file about their opinion on the questions/answers they post and the feedback they get. When the review period is over, we can study the opinions of the reviewers and then decide how best to address problems experienced here. |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | ### We probably need a revamped tutorial on *how* to ask an on-topic homework question.
The current title of the homework policy, "[How do I ask homework questions on Physics Stack Exchange?](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/how-do-i-ask-homework-questions-on-physics-stack-exchange)", is not a coincidence: in its original form (say, [v11](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/revisions/715/11)), and as adapted from [the original thread on the mathematics site](https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1803/how-to-ask-a-homework-question), it was intended as a tutorial to help newcomers adapt their set-piece dumps into posts that passed the bar set by the (rather more permissive?) environment on this site all those seven years ago.
Over the years, that post's form and function has morphed somewhat, but if you look at the current post from the perspective of its original goal, it's really not doing its job very well, so if you take e.g. this passage,
>
> The best way to produce a focused, specific question is to show your work. Explain what you've been able to figure out so far and how you did it. Showing your work will help us gauge where you are having problems
>
>
>
it does some pretty poor justice to the actual policy as implemented in the ground, but more importantly, it's just pointing newcomers in completely the wrong direction.
So, for one, there's definitely some polishing to be done on the homework policy itself (which, I would argue, should take it closer to a proper "policy" post with a title along the lines or "Are homework questions on-topic here?" or maybe "Which homework questions are on-topic here?"), but that's probably a debate that's not for this round (again).
However, one thing I think we *could* do, given our existing budget of time, energy, and participation, is to write a separate post that actually goes in depth into *how* you write your homework question in a way that actually ticks that elusive "conceptual question" checkbox that forms the core of the current requirements. This takes me back to dmckee's premise:
>
> The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of thing that is still in front of beginning students.
>
>
> I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia, and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing they are trying to do.
>
>
>
So, let's actually try and lay out in a long-form, accessible text exactly what we mean by "conceptual" (independently of policy itself), and the rough process for taking a set-piece dump, or a set-piece-dump-with-check-my-work-due-diligence, into a conceptual question that transcends the set-piece the newcomer was originally stuck with and which is useful for future visitors. | **Invite people from different backgrounds as newcomers to peer review this site**
To get a good idea of problems experienced by newcomers, we should consider inviting a number of newcomers to peer review this site. They can be physics students, professional physicists etc., they are then asked to occasionally post here and keep a file about their opinion on the questions/answers they post and the feedback they get. When the review period is over, we can study the opinions of the reviewers and then decide how best to address problems experienced here. |
10,606 | **tl/dr** What specific policy changes or behavior changes do you think would lower the barrier to entry for new users represented by the current homework policy?
---
This essay is in response to a
[recent Stack Overflow blogpost "Stack Overflow Isn’t Very Welcoming. It’s Time for That to Change."](https://stackoverflow.blog/2018/04/26/stack-overflow-isnt-very-welcoming-its-time-for-that-to-change/). We've
had some discussion in the h bar about the logic behind the post,
but I'd suggest that we leave that aside for a bit and focus on
the action points suggested in the post:
* **Let’s shift from “don’t be an asshole” to “be welcoming.”**
* **Let’s do something about comments.** (in particular about
sarcastic, pointed, or overly terse comments that might tend to
push new users away)
* **Let’s make it easier for new users to succeed.**
* **Let’s stop judging users for not knowing things. (We’re a Q&A
site!)**
* **Let’s reject the false dichotomy between quality and kindness.**
Right now I'm focusing on the third on ``Let’s make it easier
for new users to succeed'' in relation to the oft-discussed
homework policy.
Summary of the Current State of Things
--------------------------------------
[The current policy](https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/714/) holds that we don't work individual exercises
(without regard to whether they were assigned as homework or
not), but instead are happy to answer questions about physics
concepts and principle no matter the context in which they arise.
### Why *that* policy?1
Roughly this is a compromise between a understanding among some
users that homework-like question flood a internet help space and
push out more interesting content on one hand and the desire of
other users explicitly to provide help with the early stages
education and development and to provide explicit outreach to the
wider community.
The matter has been discussed over and over again, and while
people are willing to take the opinions of others seriously
and treat them respectfully they two points of view have never
been fully reconciled.
However, there seems to be a widespread agreement that current
policy is not achieving it's goals and improvements are
needed. They haven't happened in part because of deadlock and it
part due to burnout over the issue on the part of the active meta
users.
### The issue with the policy
The basic problem is that extracting the conceptual trouble from
the middle of an exercise the student doesn't understand well
enough to complete is an advanced skill: exactly the sort of
thing that is still in front of beginning students.
[I wrote about some of the techniques for teaching the difference in a post on academia](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/54769/440),
and I will emphasize that it can be a time consuming process that
is often frustrating to the student because they don't understand
why the things I'm asking them to do are better than the thing
they are trying to do.2
In short the policy we have is almost the opposite of "Let’s make
it [easy] for new users to succeed." At least when the new user is a beginner in our subject.
### Confession
While on the whole I think it is not useful to focus on *who* is
responsible for policy, but I need to fess up to being non-trivially
responsible for the current situation. I've been (and still am)
firmly in the "homework-help eats on-line communities" camp, and
I pushed some ideas that contributed to the current situation.
What Can Be Done?
-----------------
It's clear from the blog post that they are contemplating a
"ask-a-question wizard" type of tool, but we won't see that on
Physics in the short term.3
### What Can *We* Do in the Meantime?
That is the point of the question.
The obvious answers seems to me to be
1. Change the policy in a way that reduces the barrier, without opening the floodgates of venue-consuming low-level problem-solving.
2. Provide more active and positive guidance (and outright aid) so
that willing posters can get past any barrier that is still in
the way. 4
but neither one is actually finished in this form. The details
are still to be provided.
Question to be answered
-----------------------
What *specific* policy or behavior change do you recommend (or
recommend against) and why?
---
1 My interpretation. Opinions doubtless vary.
2 And they *are* better.
3 Maybe we can do some spade work to
earn a spot near the top of the list? Consider this a solicitation for input from the team.
4 I tried to work on this at the level of "[helpful
comment to guide the poster in the direction of finding
conceptual stumbling blocks](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/402666/a-source-contains-two-radionuclides-initially-10-decays-come-from-one-how-lo?noredirect=1#comment902467_402666)" a recent post: | 2018/04/28 | [
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/10606",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/520/"
] | *I am here suggesting an attitude/behavior change (let's call it an improvement) rather than a change in rule or given information.*
---
A specific behavior change or change of attitude towards new users with poorly described homework questions could simply be to comment:
>
> I understand your task - but why can't you solve it? **What is your doubt**?
>
>
>
Meaning, **refrain from solving the question and rather ask for the underlying doubt.**
Honestly, no homework-asker needs help with their homework - they need help with the **tool**, **method**, or **understanding** required to solve the homework. (Apart from obvious cases of poorly stated homework-tasks or typos - or lazy panicking last-minute students.)
Focusing on targeting the underlying doubt before the question is of course more the purpose of a teacher who educates than a Q/A-site that answers specific questions without care for the background. But if this site and community really, truly wish to embrace more homework-askers, then prompting for the right question with a doubt-seeking rather than condemning attitude is a *strong* necessity IMO.
---
Now, the standard message given when closing such questions includes:
>
> Homework-like questions should ask about a specific physics concept [...]
>
>
>
A sentence often mentioned for the user in comments before closing. But is this sentence and phrase clear? I do not believe so. A "specific physics concept" could for a not-too-experienced student just as well be interpreted as the homework question itself. So, such sentence may not be as helpful towards a proper rephrasing as asking for the doubt or "what prevents you from solving / starting / doing something". | If the concern is that homework like questions clog up the site, would an “easy” solution\* be to make these posts optionally invisible?
One check box removes the content from your feed and search results - yet people who want to help (or need help) can find each other on this site. We already have he ability to have favorite tags. This just extends that concept in the opposite direction.
It would give people who choose to be welcoming and helpful the chance to do so - the ones who want to snark can instead ignore these posts and live happier, more fulfilling lives.
---
\* I realize that on a common platform like SE nothing is as easy as it sounds... |
221,910 | Admittedly new to this but I wanted to understand why there is a gap between Red Hat's JBoss EAP project (their *enterprise* version) and JBoss AS/Wildfly/community project.
Looking at [this post from Red Hat](https://community.jboss.org/message/745879#745879), it seems that they don't withhold the source/patches. Makes sense since withholding the source would be a GPL violation, which in spirit wants source distributions so end users can recreate/reuse the binaries.
So if the sources are identical, then why isn't the AS/community version ***exactly*** at par with the EAP version? Shouldn't they be bit-exact, like having the same SHA256 value? It appears that the AS/community version usually lags by several hundred patches (from [here](http://zeroturnaround.com/rebellabs/the-great-java-application-server-debate-jboss-as7-aka-wildfly/), "Intro" section)
>
> *Talking about the latest JBoss Application Server is always tricky.
> Red Hat simultaneously offers two versions of JBoss: community
> edition, the current release where is 7.1.1-Final, and Enterprise
> Application Platform, EAP, edition where JBoss AS component version is
> 7.1.3-Final. The difference between these is actually a few hundred bug-fixes, which is enormous ...*
>
>
>
Since EAP binary distribution is controlled by Red Hat, surely there is enough community interest that the community itself rebuilds and redistributes AS/Wildfly binaries that are at-par with the EAP binaries, right? (a single Maven server should suffice).
I mean look at the popularity of CentOS (the community version of Red Hat Enterprise Linux) - the community IS interested in using software in production without RedHat's blessings/support.
So, what am I missing here? | 2013/12/19 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/221910",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/112275/"
] | It looks like all boils down to the differences mentioned on this [page](http://www.redhat.com/products/jbossenterprisemiddleware/community-enterprise/)
While the community version is mainly used for prototyping and testing, the enterprise version is intended for commercial production use. Due to the service level agreements (SLAs) that are mentioned for the jboss enterprise edition *(which centers around the EAP)*, it is no wonder that commercial customers might require fixes that are not of particular interest for the community edition as the target audience is different.
As the development process is different for both versions, such fixes could be integrated at a later stage into the community edition where the focus lies on different aspects. *(e.g. innovating)* | When community is finished, that's the start point for JBoss EAP. It goes through a much more harden software process than the community version. <https://docs.jboss.org/jbossas/docs/Server_Configuration_Guide/beta500/html/ch01s01s01.html>
Since enterprise is the "enterprise version", new features get developed, features are backported, security is backported, etc etc. In community, once it's done, it's done, no more enhancements. The developers move to the next version.
So there are a lot of differences.
As a Red Hatter, I would encourage you to contact Red Hat to get the real story. Too much FUD on internet.
Updated: Here's a video from Red Hat on the differences. <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ty328F9Li4w> |
46,144 | In Beyond Good and Evil, Section 16, Nietzsche uses "immediate certainties" in quotation marks. *Who and from where is Nietzsche quoting this, or is he using the quotations marks to speak ironically?* My suspicion is Kant. It would be helpful if could provide as accurate a source as possible.
The section begins as follows and here is a [link](http://nietzsche.holtof.com/reader/friedrich-nietzsche/beyond-good-and-evil/aphorism-16-quote_f2edd7148.html) to the entire section if needed.
There are still harmless observers of themselves who believe that there are "immediate certainties," for example, "I think," or that superstition of Schopenhauer's, "I will," just as if perception here was able to seize upon its object pure and naked, as "thing in itself," and as if there was no falsification either on the part of the subject or on the part of the object. | 2017/09/20 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/46144",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/15449/"
] | Nietzsche's source for "immediate certainty" is probably Descartes. It was through Descartes that the link between the *immediacy* of "observing oneself" and *certainty* became an important theme and an ongoing topic of debate for subsequent modern philosophy. Here is a more precise excerpt from Descartes's *Principles of Philosophy*.
>
> IX. What thought (cogitatio) is.
>
> **By the word thought, I understand all that which so takes place in us that we of ourselves are immediately conscious of it**; and, accordingly, not only to understand (intelligere, entendre), to will (velle), to imagine (imaginari), but even to perceive (sentire, sentir), are here the same as to think (cogitare, penser). For if I say, I see, or, I walk, therefore I am; and **if I understand by vision or walking the act of my eyes or of my limbs, which is the work of the body, the conclusion is not absolutely certain**, because, as is often the case in dreams, I may think that I see or walk, although I do not open my eyes or move from my place, and even, perhaps, although I have no body: **but, if I mean the sensation itself, or consciousness of seeing or walking, the knowledge is manifestly certain**, because it is then referred to the mind, which alone perceives or is conscious that it sees or walks.
>
>
>
In addition, Nietzsche's first example "I think" probably refers to Descartes's related *Cogito* argument: "I think, therefore I am". | I have erased some of my over-the-top comments and I am writing a short answer really to put Barinder's question back on top again because it was a good question.
My feeling is that Nietzsche is writing an anti-philosophy, and that he would suggest that we humans operate on the level of the instincts. The only check on this would be the true ascetic aristocratic mode of being. The true aristocrat was after land and he was a warrior, not a thinker. Rarely will you find an aristocrat and a thinker in one person, though Descartes had the misfortune of running across one with a very cold library.
Aristocrats fight for what they want, and they satisfy their instinctual urges without any qualms, but this requires a warrior spirit and this requires a fit body, and this may require a somewhat asetic life. We philosophers (who know our Nietzsche) are called to give up our thinking, and our word play to to become this kind of "philosopher-aristocrat", if you will. This is very much Nietzsche's version of the philosopher king, not Plato's.
The second point would be on Descartes' "I", and whether perhaps Nietzsche had studied some Buddhism (idea from Schopenhauer?), and that Nietzsche began to question the idea of the "I" in Descartes (i.e. Buddha would say no "I", no ego, it is not to be found). At any rate, if Buddhism worked to calm Schopenhauer's Will, it would actually defeat Nietzsche's larger project of turning man into an instinctual doer, with the only possible check against the gross display of instinct being the temperament of the true aristocrat (the ascetic, warrior temperament, not a life of luxury and gluttony).
Of course, Nietzsche could not actually "insist" on anything it seems to me, at bottom, his philosophy or anti-philosophy says all facts are interpretations, and this is itself an interpretation...so this is doing, instincts and not thinking, with all the problems and benefits that come along with doing and not thinking. |
520,200 | I'm thinking of making a prototype PCB which would use a bridge rectified AC, which will end up with peaks around 350V in my area (+/- some smoothing). It's a through-hole design and the circuit will use a MOSFET, e.g. IRF840 (comments welcome). I'm new to AC, and I'm educating myself.
The problem is - I'm not sure how can I maintain recommended clearances since the MOFET's footprint (TO-220) has about 0.5 mm clearance between the pins, and I will be using it to switch the low side of the rectified power line.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hmYpk.png)
By most standards, there should be at least 1.5mm between exposed metal there, right? How is this done in general? Are there different, larger MOSFET footprints? If so, why are there MOSFETs like this one which are rated to 500V+? | 2020/09/06 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/520200",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/103063/"
] | I've wondered about this myself.
What I ended up doing for a 230VAC mains project: I created a custom footprint for the TO-220 part, where I moved the outer two legs out to approximately a 4mm pitch (up from 2.54), and the center leg forward. Then I routed slots in the PCB between the pads for additional creepage distance.
This won't change the creepage on the part body itself, but at least it will get the best possible isolation on the board:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/4bskj.png)
You'll need to bend the TO-220 legs when assembling. This is perfectly doable for small manual assembly runs, but I suspect it doesn't lend itself well to large-scale production.
The better solution for high voltages is probably to use a larger part, like a TO-247, which naturally comes with a 5.44mm pitch. That should easily allow routed slots between the pads:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/UUkND.png)
(image from [Infineon](https://www.infineon.com/dgdl/Infineon-General_Recommendations_for_Assembly_of_Infineon_Packages-P-v04_00-EN.pdf?fileId=5546d4625cc9456a015ccaf4a1fe3a32)) | I use this approach when I have enough board space.
I cut the second leg off and lay it down on board.
as a bonus, I can make a VIAed simple heatsink. not sure if it's a good thing or not, but thankfully didn't have problems with it.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gh9xQ.png) |
45,732 | I decided I need a community garden plot this year, and since I do a cardboard cover barrier will plant roots be able to survive under the cardboard, or are they going to suffocate due to a lack of oxygen? | 2019/05/14 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/45732",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/13136/"
] | You can make few holes on it, or just a large hole near the plant.
Professionally, a bad, but common, method to do mulching, is to use plastic sheets. Air enter and exit from any hole, so you make sure there is some place to let air to enter, and that the sheet (cardboard) has some separation from soil. Plants will not breath like human, so no need to have large exchange rate. Changes in temperatures (day/night) should be sufficient. | cardboard is as permeable to air as soil is, no harm there, you could inadvertently create a dry spot though... if you have a way for water to get down you will be fine, new cardboard is surprisingly waterproof. |
5,520,246 | Is it possible to use a commercial code signing certificate on multiple programs and installers?
I would like to purchase a Comodo certificate but due to the cost I need to use it to sign multiple programs and installers.
Thanks | 2011/04/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5520246",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/427911/"
] | I've never purchased a cert from Comodo, but there are generally no limits on the numbers of items you're allowed to sign, only a limit on the amount of time (1 or more years, typically) for which the cert is valid.
Update: From the [Comodo Code-Signing FAQ](http://www.instantssl.com/code-signing/code-signing-faq.html):
>
> **Is there a limit to the amount of
> applications allowed to be signed with
> a Code Signing Certificate?**
>
>
> Comodo
> does not limit you to any specific
> number. You can sign as many
> applications with a Code Signing
> Certificate as you wish, provided that
> the applications are going to be used
> for and distributed by the
> Organization that owns the
> certificate.
>
>
> | We use a Comodo certificate at work, there is no limit on the amount of code that you can sign. You buy the certificate for a year, 2 years etc and can sign as much as you want during that time span. Also, if you timestamp everything correctly, the signed code does not expire when the certificate expires, so once you sign it (with a valid timestamp), it is signed until you have to recompile. |
394,893 | When a user is asking a question SO has many ways of making sure the question is at high quality, SO has many guides and rules to make a good question and they are doing the job well.
I would like to have these kind of rules applied on the code posted in questions as well.
We already have some rules applied to code - the question cannot contain too much of it and too little of an explanation, but this is not enough. I am reading a lot of code that I do not understand - the code quality is low. This is hard for me and others to answer the question even if there is a paragraph of explanation.
The feature I am asking is as follows:
Define a two ratios of comments to code-lines (say 1 to 10 and 1 to 20). If the code posted does not answer the first ratio than alert the user, if the code posted does not answer the second ratio than do not let them post the question.
This is a very basic demand from users (and programmers in general), it helps us help them and it sets a higher readability standard. | 2020/03/28 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/394893",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/7501501/"
] | Preamble: I do agree that code readability is very important, and if you happen to find poorly formatted code, for example, consider editing it to match a standard or more conventional format (go's fmt, Rust's rustfmt, etc.). If that isn't enough to understand it from a knowledgeable point of view, you know what to do: downvote and/or vote to close.
With that said, any hard limit based on the ratio of comments to lines of code is *more likely to hinder than to help*. For one, there is no reasonable ratio to begin with, much less one that works well across so many technologies out there. Plus, it would only invite users to add bogus comments with no value to understanding the problem, which in turn only makes the code noisier.
This isn't the first time I see a feature request suggesting an automatic question filter of some sort. It's very hard to come up with a good one, as much as one would want to reduce the flood. For the time being, it might be best to empower the curator base to handle bad questions quicker. | This would only encourage to add useless comments to code. Clear and short code snippets hardly ever need comments anyway, and this would make trying to understand other people's code even harder. Code should never have such arbitrary rules applied to it, if a comment is needed it should always be there, but a force or an unnecessary comment is much worse than no comment at all. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | It is usually preferred to pay with Forints in Hungary, as even in cases where the stores accept Euros they will do it with a sub-par exchange rates, and also give the change back in Forints anyway. Most high street exchange booths (especially in tourist areas - airports and train stations) will also operate with very high margins, so you should avoid them too.
On the other hand [there are a few](http://www.correctchange.hu/index.php?lang=eng), which operate with very low margin exchange rates, meaning you could potentially get much better rates than what you would get from your bank (the linked one for example has much better rates than most UK banks offer you). If you want to get the most from your Euros you should defintiely check before travel whether it's more worth it to use your debit / credit card, or to use one of the exchange offices that operate with low margins. | I've just spend 4 days in Budapest in **December 2018**. I have an [N26 credit card](https://n26.com/r/martint3954) which I used:
* Public transportation ticket
* In restaurents,
* In [Széchenyi thermal bath](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sz%C3%A9chenyi_thermal_bath),
* In 3D museum,
* dm (groceries - forgot shampoo), Aldi, Lidl
* small Christmas booths
It worked flawlessly. Some of the restaurants printed a Forint reference price, but it was always way higher than what N26 charged me.
There were three occasions where I needed cash:
* Two super small christmas booths - I simply took others then
* A "pirate candy" shop
* The luggage safe at the central station
For the last one, I used [Gyorspénzváltó Kft.](https://goo.gl/maps/jvfrD1iQMKK2). It's a small shop with WAY better exchange rates than the ATMs / the exchange shop on the other side. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | It might be possible to use only Euro, but as the others have already pointed out, the conversion rate is not very favourable. In the last year, new ticket vending machines have been installed in Budapest, which accept credit cards, but obviously not Euro banknotes so at least **for public transport you will need either HUF or a credit card**. So if you don't want to use HUF, you might use your card (depending on its conditions). Of course, if you want to go to small shops, restaurants etc you will most probably need HUF. | Many large shops accept EUR in Hungary, but they offer a terrible exchange rate. You're better off if you do currency exchange in one of the dedicated booths or offices. Most small shops don't accept EUR. Depending on your home bank and your debit (not credit!) card, withdrawing HUF from an ATM can give you a good rate. Please make sure that your home bank does the currency conversion. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | I did not visit Budapest, but spent some time in Hungary last year. My experience was that even if a few shops accept euros (especially larger shops in areas with many tourists), they tend to give you very unfavourable exchange rates.
When hotels annouced their prices in forint and euro, in some cases, it even appeared to be two completely different prices. One of the hotels I staid in offered a single room for 25€ or 5,500Ft a night. The price in forint is about 30% below the price in euro. As a foreigner, most hotels first gave me the price in euro and when I asked to pay in forint, without problems they offered me the lower price in local currency. | Many large shops accept EUR in Hungary, but they offer a terrible exchange rate. You're better off if you do currency exchange in one of the dedicated booths or offices. Most small shops don't accept EUR. Depending on your home bank and your debit (not credit!) card, withdrawing HUF from an ATM can give you a good rate. Please make sure that your home bank does the currency conversion. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | I did not visit Budapest, but spent some time in Hungary last year. My experience was that even if a few shops accept euros (especially larger shops in areas with many tourists), they tend to give you very unfavourable exchange rates.
When hotels annouced their prices in forint and euro, in some cases, it even appeared to be two completely different prices. One of the hotels I staid in offered a single room for 25€ or 5,500Ft a night. The price in forint is about 30% below the price in euro. As a foreigner, most hotels first gave me the price in euro and when I asked to pay in forint, without problems they offered me the lower price in local currency. | Basically, **EURO IS NOT ACCEPTED IN HUNGARY**.
-Only SOME larger, tourist-oriented hotels and restaurants accepting euro in favour of tourists, but generally, euro is NOWHERE accepted in hungary. The real economy will usually not accept euro (or any other currency).
-If you find something that accepts euro, the price will be 50-150% higher than the price in forint.
-Your foreginer credit card will be immediately vomited out by any of the generic ATM machines, or the machine will confiscate your card, displaying a phone number that you must call, if you want it back... You really do not want this.
-HUNGARIANS ARE NOT USING BANKING CARDS TO BUY/SELL THINGS IN THEIR ORDINARY LIFE. DO NOT EVEN TRY TO BUY THINGS WITH YOUR CREDIT CARD IN HUNGARY! ONLY FORINT CASH IS ACCEPTED! FORGET A CREDIT CARD, ITS USELESS!
-In short, yes, you need Forint in your hand, there is no other way to pay for things in hungary.
source: hungarian |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | Many large shops accept EUR in Hungary, but they offer a terrible exchange rate. You're better off if you do currency exchange in one of the dedicated booths or offices. Most small shops don't accept EUR. Depending on your home bank and your debit (not credit!) card, withdrawing HUF from an ATM can give you a good rate. Please make sure that your home bank does the currency conversion. | I've just spend 4 days in Budapest in **December 2018**. I have an [N26 credit card](https://n26.com/r/martint3954) which I used:
* Public transportation ticket
* In restaurents,
* In [Széchenyi thermal bath](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sz%C3%A9chenyi_thermal_bath),
* In 3D museum,
* dm (groceries - forgot shampoo), Aldi, Lidl
* small Christmas booths
It worked flawlessly. Some of the restaurants printed a Forint reference price, but it was always way higher than what N26 charged me.
There were three occasions where I needed cash:
* Two super small christmas booths - I simply took others then
* A "pirate candy" shop
* The luggage safe at the central station
For the last one, I used [Gyorspénzváltó Kft.](https://goo.gl/maps/jvfrD1iQMKK2). It's a small shop with WAY better exchange rates than the ATMs / the exchange shop on the other side. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | It might be possible to use only Euro, but as the others have already pointed out, the conversion rate is not very favourable. In the last year, new ticket vending machines have been installed in Budapest, which accept credit cards, but obviously not Euro banknotes so at least **for public transport you will need either HUF or a credit card**. So if you don't want to use HUF, you might use your card (depending on its conditions). Of course, if you want to go to small shops, restaurants etc you will most probably need HUF. | It is usually preferred to pay with Forints in Hungary, as even in cases where the stores accept Euros they will do it with a sub-par exchange rates, and also give the change back in Forints anyway. Most high street exchange booths (especially in tourist areas - airports and train stations) will also operate with very high margins, so you should avoid them too.
On the other hand [there are a few](http://www.correctchange.hu/index.php?lang=eng), which operate with very low margin exchange rates, meaning you could potentially get much better rates than what you would get from your bank (the linked one for example has much better rates than most UK banks offer you). If you want to get the most from your Euros you should defintiely check before travel whether it's more worth it to use your debit / credit card, or to use one of the exchange offices that operate with low margins. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | I did not visit Budapest, but spent some time in Hungary last year. My experience was that even if a few shops accept euros (especially larger shops in areas with many tourists), they tend to give you very unfavourable exchange rates.
When hotels annouced their prices in forint and euro, in some cases, it even appeared to be two completely different prices. One of the hotels I staid in offered a single room for 25€ or 5,500Ft a night. The price in forint is about 30% below the price in euro. As a foreigner, most hotels first gave me the price in euro and when I asked to pay in forint, without problems they offered me the lower price in local currency. | It is usually preferred to pay with Forints in Hungary, as even in cases where the stores accept Euros they will do it with a sub-par exchange rates, and also give the change back in Forints anyway. Most high street exchange booths (especially in tourist areas - airports and train stations) will also operate with very high margins, so you should avoid them too.
On the other hand [there are a few](http://www.correctchange.hu/index.php?lang=eng), which operate with very low margin exchange rates, meaning you could potentially get much better rates than what you would get from your bank (the linked one for example has much better rates than most UK banks offer you). If you want to get the most from your Euros you should defintiely check before travel whether it's more worth it to use your debit / credit card, or to use one of the exchange offices that operate with low margins. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | Assuming that you want to hit up only major tourist destinations, it's likely that you could get by with only your credit card and a few thousand HuF. But if you want to go to any truly local bars, restaurants, shops, etc., you'll want a decent amount of HuF, especially outside of Budapest. | I've just spend 4 days in Budapest in **December 2018**. I have an [N26 credit card](https://n26.com/r/martint3954) which I used:
* Public transportation ticket
* In restaurents,
* In [Széchenyi thermal bath](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sz%C3%A9chenyi_thermal_bath),
* In 3D museum,
* dm (groceries - forgot shampoo), Aldi, Lidl
* small Christmas booths
It worked flawlessly. Some of the restaurants printed a Forint reference price, but it was always way higher than what N26 charged me.
There were three occasions where I needed cash:
* Two super small christmas booths - I simply took others then
* A "pirate candy" shop
* The luggage safe at the central station
For the last one, I used [Gyorspénzváltó Kft.](https://goo.gl/maps/jvfrD1iQMKK2). It's a small shop with WAY better exchange rates than the ATMs / the exchange shop on the other side. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | It might be possible to use only Euro, but as the others have already pointed out, the conversion rate is not very favourable. In the last year, new ticket vending machines have been installed in Budapest, which accept credit cards, but obviously not Euro banknotes so at least **for public transport you will need either HUF or a credit card**. So if you don't want to use HUF, you might use your card (depending on its conditions). Of course, if you want to go to small shops, restaurants etc you will most probably need HUF. | Assuming that you want to hit up only major tourist destinations, it's likely that you could get by with only your credit card and a few thousand HuF. But if you want to go to any truly local bars, restaurants, shops, etc., you'll want a decent amount of HuF, especially outside of Budapest. |
49,357 | The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set? | 2015/06/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/49357",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/4801/"
] | It might be possible to use only Euro, but as the others have already pointed out, the conversion rate is not very favourable. In the last year, new ticket vending machines have been installed in Budapest, which accept credit cards, but obviously not Euro banknotes so at least **for public transport you will need either HUF or a credit card**. So if you don't want to use HUF, you might use your card (depending on its conditions). Of course, if you want to go to small shops, restaurants etc you will most probably need HUF. | I've just spend 4 days in Budapest in **December 2018**. I have an [N26 credit card](https://n26.com/r/martint3954) which I used:
* Public transportation ticket
* In restaurents,
* In [Széchenyi thermal bath](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sz%C3%A9chenyi_thermal_bath),
* In 3D museum,
* dm (groceries - forgot shampoo), Aldi, Lidl
* small Christmas booths
It worked flawlessly. Some of the restaurants printed a Forint reference price, but it was always way higher than what N26 charged me.
There were three occasions where I needed cash:
* Two super small christmas booths - I simply took others then
* A "pirate candy" shop
* The luggage safe at the central station
For the last one, I used [Gyorspénzváltó Kft.](https://goo.gl/maps/jvfrD1iQMKK2). It's a small shop with WAY better exchange rates than the ATMs / the exchange shop on the other side. |
98,000 | How do I find my apps on my MacBook Pro? I downloaded them, and I tried looking in LaunchPad and my dock, but do not see them. | 2013/08/05 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/98000",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/54510/"
] | Apps do not get placed in the dock when you download them from the Mac app store. They do get placed in Launchpad - so if you don't see them (especially after searching by name), then some sort of problem or corruption has arrived on your Mac.
You also could have a problem with Spotlight and need to remedy that if searching for the app in normal spotlight (or spotlight within Launchpad) can't find an app you know you downloaded. | Depends on your computer set up.
In my case all downloads go it to the "downloads folder".
It should be in the Finder side bar, or as Doc icon, or just look for it.
Then and there I can decide if to install now later or newer. |
137,050 | I have a domain on BigRock and hosting on GoDaddy. I am also using CloudFlare in between. Now I need to add a subdomain on BigRock which should also point to a subdomain on GoDaddy.
I have created a Subdomain on GoDaddy hosting successfully. However actions might also be needed on BigRock and Cloudflare.
I tried to add a CName record on Bigrock looking at some tutorials online. But it said HostName and Value cannot be same. There's very small help available on adding subdomain on BigRock where as for GoDaddy is was easy.
I need the steps needed to complete what I am trying to do. | 2021/09/30 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/137050",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/123320/"
] | I'm assuming you've got a standard Cloudflare setup, where you have configured the name servers in BigRock to point to Cloudflare's.
In this case you just need to add the subdomain on [Cloudflare's DNS settings page](https://support.cloudflare.com/hc/en-us/articles/360019093151-Managing-DNS-records-in-Cloudflare).
Depending on what options GoDaddy offer for pointing domains to your hosted sub-domain, your choice of entry will vary.
I'd recommend setting it up as a CNAME record if possible, pointing to the GoDaddy subdomain, as this will give you slightly more flexibility if GoDaddy need to move your server at any time - this would typically mean you wouldn't need to update the DNS. However I'm not sure how likely this is, so an A record mapping to the IP address may be fine.
In either case, you can then choose between "proxied" where Cloudflare provides full CDN services, etc ) or not.
You shouldn't need to make any further changes in BigRock. | Create your subdomain in godaddy then point it in your cloudflare configuration also from your hosting (BigRock)..
if you don't need seperate setting for your subdomain
don't touch unnecessarily in your bigrock domain settings. |
16,928 | Mathew 14:16-20 (NIV) says:
>
> 16 Jesus replied, “They do not need to go away. You give them
> something to eat.” 17 “We have here only five loaves of bread and two
> fish,” they answered. 18 “Bring them here to me,” he said. 19 And he
> directed the people to sit down on the grass. Taking the five loaves
> and the two fish and looking up to heaven, he gave thanks and broke
> the loaves. Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave
> them to the people. 20 They all ate and were satisfied, and the
> disciples picked up twelve basketfuls of broken pieces that were left
> over. 21 The number of those who ate was about five thousand men,
> besides women and children.
>
>
>
I am trying to understand why Jesus made 12 baskets of leftovers when he could have made the exact needed.
The number 12 is recurring in bible (12 tribes and 12 disciples). Did Jesus intentionally make 12 baskets of leftovers, giving each disciple one to carry in accordance with Mathew 14:16 *"You give them something to eat"*.
Was Jesus telling his disciples here to preach the good news to world? Also, I am interested to know, does this having any relation with the Last Supper indirectly? | 2015/03/03 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/16928",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/8041/"
] | This is purely conjecture, as the text doesn't clearly state, however, we see in the text: "Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave them to the people", and being that there were 12 disciples, each one was likely to have had bread to spread to the peoples. There may have been a larger bounty, but each disciple could carry only one basket, or the basket was used as the delivery device by each disciple.
Again, without the text giving clear interpretation we want to be wary of giving the number meaning where it may have none, lest we slip into numerology. | The excess food was one apparent source of revenue. That is, while certain women donated funds to the ministry of Jesus ([Luke 8:1-3](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke%208%3A%201-3&version=NASB;SBLGNT)) there was the apparent need for the administering substantive amounts of money, which had fallen to Judas Iscariot ([John 13:29](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2013%3A29&version=NASB;SBLGNT)), who pilfered from the purse. In other words, it was not the private donations of some women, but also the sales of excess food which had contributed significant funds supporting the ministry of Jesus. |
16,928 | Mathew 14:16-20 (NIV) says:
>
> 16 Jesus replied, “They do not need to go away. You give them
> something to eat.” 17 “We have here only five loaves of bread and two
> fish,” they answered. 18 “Bring them here to me,” he said. 19 And he
> directed the people to sit down on the grass. Taking the five loaves
> and the two fish and looking up to heaven, he gave thanks and broke
> the loaves. Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave
> them to the people. 20 They all ate and were satisfied, and the
> disciples picked up twelve basketfuls of broken pieces that were left
> over. 21 The number of those who ate was about five thousand men,
> besides women and children.
>
>
>
I am trying to understand why Jesus made 12 baskets of leftovers when he could have made the exact needed.
The number 12 is recurring in bible (12 tribes and 12 disciples). Did Jesus intentionally make 12 baskets of leftovers, giving each disciple one to carry in accordance with Mathew 14:16 *"You give them something to eat"*.
Was Jesus telling his disciples here to preach the good news to world? Also, I am interested to know, does this having any relation with the Last Supper indirectly? | 2015/03/03 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/16928",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/8041/"
] | This is purely conjecture, as the text doesn't clearly state, however, we see in the text: "Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave them to the people", and being that there were 12 disciples, each one was likely to have had bread to spread to the peoples. There may have been a larger bounty, but each disciple could carry only one basket, or the basket was used as the delivery device by each disciple.
Again, without the text giving clear interpretation we want to be wary of giving the number meaning where it may have none, lest we slip into numerology. | The gospel of Matthew has a lot of interesting things to say about bread. Its first mention is when the devil tempts Jesus in Matthew 4, commanding the stones to become bread. Jesus refuses to do a bread miracle to satiate his own hunger, despite the fact that he will ultimately feed at least 9,000 men with miraculous bread. Jesus' rebuke of the devil says in essence that physical bread does not sustain the variety of life that God has in store for men, but the words of God only.
Interestingly, In Matthew 7 during the Sermon on the Mount, he says that a loving father does not give his children stones when they ask for bread. So we make the connection: the devil wants Jesus to bypass the complete and total dependence upon the Father and usurp authority, rather than have it granted him. Jesus would have bread, spiritually and physically, but not from his own exercise of power but rather granted by the Father.
By Matthew 9-12, Jesus has extended the metaphor of a grain harvest to his mission. Then the parable of the sower. Then the parable of the leaven.
Finally, Matthew 14, the feeding of the 5,000, with 12 baskets left over. Then Matthew 15, the feeding of the 4,000 with 7 baskets left over. Finally, Matthew 16 where the disciples get worried about bread and Jesus explains that the bread miracles are not really about bread and warns them against the "leaven" of the scribes and Pharisees, which is their teaching.
So these are the clues. Bread is likened to words from God that grant life, like the manna for Israel. Teachings are likened to leaven because they begin small but work themselves through the entire population. The temptation is circumvent the right way to get bread, and through worry and anxiety about having enough to eat to miss out on the true bread.
On a simple level the symbolism of the extra baskets of bread is that you seek the right *teaching*, the teaching that corresponds to the word of God, regardless of the immediate circumstances and afterwards you find that there is an abundance left over because God is a gracious provider. The significance of twelve? Probably a basket for each disciple (and corresponding to them, a disciple for each tribe of Israel). The significance of the seven? Probably a perfect completion of the provision.
So when the disciples are still concerned about bread, Jesus warns them about the leaven of the Pharisees, the teachings that suppose to be spiritual but are focused on fleshly, immediate, worldly desires at the expense of the truth of God. |
16,928 | Mathew 14:16-20 (NIV) says:
>
> 16 Jesus replied, “They do not need to go away. You give them
> something to eat.” 17 “We have here only five loaves of bread and two
> fish,” they answered. 18 “Bring them here to me,” he said. 19 And he
> directed the people to sit down on the grass. Taking the five loaves
> and the two fish and looking up to heaven, he gave thanks and broke
> the loaves. Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave
> them to the people. 20 They all ate and were satisfied, and the
> disciples picked up twelve basketfuls of broken pieces that were left
> over. 21 The number of those who ate was about five thousand men,
> besides women and children.
>
>
>
I am trying to understand why Jesus made 12 baskets of leftovers when he could have made the exact needed.
The number 12 is recurring in bible (12 tribes and 12 disciples). Did Jesus intentionally make 12 baskets of leftovers, giving each disciple one to carry in accordance with Mathew 14:16 *"You give them something to eat"*.
Was Jesus telling his disciples here to preach the good news to world? Also, I am interested to know, does this having any relation with the Last Supper indirectly? | 2015/03/03 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/16928",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/8041/"
] | This is purely conjecture, as the text doesn't clearly state, however, we see in the text: "Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave them to the people", and being that there were 12 disciples, each one was likely to have had bread to spread to the peoples. There may have been a larger bounty, but each disciple could carry only one basket, or the basket was used as the delivery device by each disciple.
Again, without the text giving clear interpretation we want to be wary of giving the number meaning where it may have none, lest we slip into numerology. | I was just pondering the same text and searched to see if a similar question had been asked and found this. This is purely my understanding and so should be considered as such - but in my study of the text the primary thing that jumps out is:
**The symbology of breaking bread.**
In the last supper this is metaphorically used to show how Jesus would willingly give himself to "feed" those who follow him. That his body / blood and spirit would be "broken" and sacrficed to feed and sustain others spiritually. He is the bread that came down from heaven.
Here in this passage we see a close parallel with the baskets being described as containing "broken" pieces likely symbolizing something similar. The breaking up and sacrificing of something/someone which is represented by the 12 baskets.
So what might those 12 baskets represent ? I think the answer is given in Matthew 14:17 when the disciples tell Jesus they should send the people away because they will be hungry and need food and lodging - he tells them.
>
> They do not need to go away,” Jesus replied. “You give them something
> to eat.”
>
>
>
Here its stated point blank that the disciples are to feed them. Then after Jesus breaks the bread which the disciples hand out we end up with 12 baskets of broken bread pieces left over. To my understanding this act symbolizes the future sacrifice of the 12 apostles. They like Jesus would go through extreme sacrifice and suffering and the majority martyrdom - with their lives to be used to provide spiritual food to feed the "hungry" in Israel. Essentially that the 12 apostles were to be asked to "follow Jesus" and perform similar selfless sacrifice with their lives being used for the same purpose as his own.
This act is basically the apostles equivalent of the last supper. A symbolic breaking of bread to feed others which represents their future sacrifice |
16,928 | Mathew 14:16-20 (NIV) says:
>
> 16 Jesus replied, “They do not need to go away. You give them
> something to eat.” 17 “We have here only five loaves of bread and two
> fish,” they answered. 18 “Bring them here to me,” he said. 19 And he
> directed the people to sit down on the grass. Taking the five loaves
> and the two fish and looking up to heaven, he gave thanks and broke
> the loaves. Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave
> them to the people. 20 They all ate and were satisfied, and the
> disciples picked up twelve basketfuls of broken pieces that were left
> over. 21 The number of those who ate was about five thousand men,
> besides women and children.
>
>
>
I am trying to understand why Jesus made 12 baskets of leftovers when he could have made the exact needed.
The number 12 is recurring in bible (12 tribes and 12 disciples). Did Jesus intentionally make 12 baskets of leftovers, giving each disciple one to carry in accordance with Mathew 14:16 *"You give them something to eat"*.
Was Jesus telling his disciples here to preach the good news to world? Also, I am interested to know, does this having any relation with the Last Supper indirectly? | 2015/03/03 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/16928",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/8041/"
] | The gospel of Matthew has a lot of interesting things to say about bread. Its first mention is when the devil tempts Jesus in Matthew 4, commanding the stones to become bread. Jesus refuses to do a bread miracle to satiate his own hunger, despite the fact that he will ultimately feed at least 9,000 men with miraculous bread. Jesus' rebuke of the devil says in essence that physical bread does not sustain the variety of life that God has in store for men, but the words of God only.
Interestingly, In Matthew 7 during the Sermon on the Mount, he says that a loving father does not give his children stones when they ask for bread. So we make the connection: the devil wants Jesus to bypass the complete and total dependence upon the Father and usurp authority, rather than have it granted him. Jesus would have bread, spiritually and physically, but not from his own exercise of power but rather granted by the Father.
By Matthew 9-12, Jesus has extended the metaphor of a grain harvest to his mission. Then the parable of the sower. Then the parable of the leaven.
Finally, Matthew 14, the feeding of the 5,000, with 12 baskets left over. Then Matthew 15, the feeding of the 4,000 with 7 baskets left over. Finally, Matthew 16 where the disciples get worried about bread and Jesus explains that the bread miracles are not really about bread and warns them against the "leaven" of the scribes and Pharisees, which is their teaching.
So these are the clues. Bread is likened to words from God that grant life, like the manna for Israel. Teachings are likened to leaven because they begin small but work themselves through the entire population. The temptation is circumvent the right way to get bread, and through worry and anxiety about having enough to eat to miss out on the true bread.
On a simple level the symbolism of the extra baskets of bread is that you seek the right *teaching*, the teaching that corresponds to the word of God, regardless of the immediate circumstances and afterwards you find that there is an abundance left over because God is a gracious provider. The significance of twelve? Probably a basket for each disciple (and corresponding to them, a disciple for each tribe of Israel). The significance of the seven? Probably a perfect completion of the provision.
So when the disciples are still concerned about bread, Jesus warns them about the leaven of the Pharisees, the teachings that suppose to be spiritual but are focused on fleshly, immediate, worldly desires at the expense of the truth of God. | The excess food was one apparent source of revenue. That is, while certain women donated funds to the ministry of Jesus ([Luke 8:1-3](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke%208%3A%201-3&version=NASB;SBLGNT)) there was the apparent need for the administering substantive amounts of money, which had fallen to Judas Iscariot ([John 13:29](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2013%3A29&version=NASB;SBLGNT)), who pilfered from the purse. In other words, it was not the private donations of some women, but also the sales of excess food which had contributed significant funds supporting the ministry of Jesus. |
16,928 | Mathew 14:16-20 (NIV) says:
>
> 16 Jesus replied, “They do not need to go away. You give them
> something to eat.” 17 “We have here only five loaves of bread and two
> fish,” they answered. 18 “Bring them here to me,” he said. 19 And he
> directed the people to sit down on the grass. Taking the five loaves
> and the two fish and looking up to heaven, he gave thanks and broke
> the loaves. Then he gave them to the disciples, and the disciples gave
> them to the people. 20 They all ate and were satisfied, and the
> disciples picked up twelve basketfuls of broken pieces that were left
> over. 21 The number of those who ate was about five thousand men,
> besides women and children.
>
>
>
I am trying to understand why Jesus made 12 baskets of leftovers when he could have made the exact needed.
The number 12 is recurring in bible (12 tribes and 12 disciples). Did Jesus intentionally make 12 baskets of leftovers, giving each disciple one to carry in accordance with Mathew 14:16 *"You give them something to eat"*.
Was Jesus telling his disciples here to preach the good news to world? Also, I am interested to know, does this having any relation with the Last Supper indirectly? | 2015/03/03 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/16928",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/8041/"
] | The gospel of Matthew has a lot of interesting things to say about bread. Its first mention is when the devil tempts Jesus in Matthew 4, commanding the stones to become bread. Jesus refuses to do a bread miracle to satiate his own hunger, despite the fact that he will ultimately feed at least 9,000 men with miraculous bread. Jesus' rebuke of the devil says in essence that physical bread does not sustain the variety of life that God has in store for men, but the words of God only.
Interestingly, In Matthew 7 during the Sermon on the Mount, he says that a loving father does not give his children stones when they ask for bread. So we make the connection: the devil wants Jesus to bypass the complete and total dependence upon the Father and usurp authority, rather than have it granted him. Jesus would have bread, spiritually and physically, but not from his own exercise of power but rather granted by the Father.
By Matthew 9-12, Jesus has extended the metaphor of a grain harvest to his mission. Then the parable of the sower. Then the parable of the leaven.
Finally, Matthew 14, the feeding of the 5,000, with 12 baskets left over. Then Matthew 15, the feeding of the 4,000 with 7 baskets left over. Finally, Matthew 16 where the disciples get worried about bread and Jesus explains that the bread miracles are not really about bread and warns them against the "leaven" of the scribes and Pharisees, which is their teaching.
So these are the clues. Bread is likened to words from God that grant life, like the manna for Israel. Teachings are likened to leaven because they begin small but work themselves through the entire population. The temptation is circumvent the right way to get bread, and through worry and anxiety about having enough to eat to miss out on the true bread.
On a simple level the symbolism of the extra baskets of bread is that you seek the right *teaching*, the teaching that corresponds to the word of God, regardless of the immediate circumstances and afterwards you find that there is an abundance left over because God is a gracious provider. The significance of twelve? Probably a basket for each disciple (and corresponding to them, a disciple for each tribe of Israel). The significance of the seven? Probably a perfect completion of the provision.
So when the disciples are still concerned about bread, Jesus warns them about the leaven of the Pharisees, the teachings that suppose to be spiritual but are focused on fleshly, immediate, worldly desires at the expense of the truth of God. | I was just pondering the same text and searched to see if a similar question had been asked and found this. This is purely my understanding and so should be considered as such - but in my study of the text the primary thing that jumps out is:
**The symbology of breaking bread.**
In the last supper this is metaphorically used to show how Jesus would willingly give himself to "feed" those who follow him. That his body / blood and spirit would be "broken" and sacrficed to feed and sustain others spiritually. He is the bread that came down from heaven.
Here in this passage we see a close parallel with the baskets being described as containing "broken" pieces likely symbolizing something similar. The breaking up and sacrificing of something/someone which is represented by the 12 baskets.
So what might those 12 baskets represent ? I think the answer is given in Matthew 14:17 when the disciples tell Jesus they should send the people away because they will be hungry and need food and lodging - he tells them.
>
> They do not need to go away,” Jesus replied. “You give them something
> to eat.”
>
>
>
Here its stated point blank that the disciples are to feed them. Then after Jesus breaks the bread which the disciples hand out we end up with 12 baskets of broken bread pieces left over. To my understanding this act symbolizes the future sacrifice of the 12 apostles. They like Jesus would go through extreme sacrifice and suffering and the majority martyrdom - with their lives to be used to provide spiritual food to feed the "hungry" in Israel. Essentially that the 12 apostles were to be asked to "follow Jesus" and perform similar selfless sacrifice with their lives being used for the same purpose as his own.
This act is basically the apostles equivalent of the last supper. A symbolic breaking of bread to feed others which represents their future sacrifice |
13,314,228 | Short question: Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
Long question: How does NFC with credit cards exatly work? The card (or the phone with wallet function) receives a request via NFC and replies with the cleartext credit card information in some standardised format? The Wallet option then aditionally still props some comfirmation dialog before broadcasting the credit card information?
Or is there some handshake encryption going on before hand? Or is there some credit card specific secret code safeguarding the commuincation? Or is there some overlay protocol on NFC for payment? NFC ist just pushing a string over the air as far as know?
If it works, as I think it works, can I tell a Windows 8 Phone, through preferably C#, to read credit card information and display it to me (if the credit card has a chip inside)? Or does maybe Windows Phone 8 disallow access to the NFC reader, or some mystic payment protocol (if such a thing exists). My short web search was very vage on technical details, especially with some sites talking about carrier support for wallet systems, as if some keys would be fetched from somewhere in the web to secure the transactions? I can't really image something like that being standardised accross all credit card issuers.
Can someone give technical insight the way credit card data is transfered and if you can program a phone to read such data. | 2012/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13314228",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/643742/"
] | Short answer: No. It's unlikely Credit card would work with WP8.
Long answer:
1. **RFID vs. NFC:** As far as I know most credit cards don't have NFC. They have RFID. Which one could say it's a "predecessor" technology to NFC. RFID is mostly non-standardized, has longer range than NFC and only supports one-way communication. Whereas NFC is an evolving standard, can be used in 2cm-4cm range and supports two-way communication. So, WP8 does not support RFID but it does support NFC.
2. **RFID on WP8:** All that being said, there's a chance that WP8 could identify *some* RFID tags. You might be able read byte[] from specific RFID tags in specific WP8 phones. Obviously, that's not recommended.
3. **Secure NFC:** One last thing is that some very exclusive partners in some very specific regions will have access to "Secure NFC". Secure NFC is a superset of NFC and adds the feature to store & transmit secure information via NFC from WP8. For example Secure NFC can store a Credit Card number or a bank account number as part of the WP8 Wallet. However, That will only work in regions where the mobile operator issues a "Smart SIM" (SIM capable of running applets), where the developer can author Java based Smart SIM applets, where the developer has an agreement with the mobile operator to deploy those applets over-the-air, where those WP8 apps have been cleared with Microsoft for the WP8 store and where there are dedicated retail HW terminals that can read them. | >
> Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
>
>
>
No, you cannot do that. NFC API on Windows Phone 8 is very limited.
May be Wallet API could help you somehow with your project, but this is not about NFC.
Also you could try to use Android devices with NFC, they have more powerful NFC API than WP8. |
13,314,228 | Short question: Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
Long question: How does NFC with credit cards exatly work? The card (or the phone with wallet function) receives a request via NFC and replies with the cleartext credit card information in some standardised format? The Wallet option then aditionally still props some comfirmation dialog before broadcasting the credit card information?
Or is there some handshake encryption going on before hand? Or is there some credit card specific secret code safeguarding the commuincation? Or is there some overlay protocol on NFC for payment? NFC ist just pushing a string over the air as far as know?
If it works, as I think it works, can I tell a Windows 8 Phone, through preferably C#, to read credit card information and display it to me (if the credit card has a chip inside)? Or does maybe Windows Phone 8 disallow access to the NFC reader, or some mystic payment protocol (if such a thing exists). My short web search was very vage on technical details, especially with some sites talking about carrier support for wallet systems, as if some keys would be fetched from somewhere in the web to secure the transactions? I can't really image something like that being standardised accross all credit card issuers.
Can someone give technical insight the way credit card data is transfered and if you can program a phone to read such data. | 2012/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13314228",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/643742/"
] | Sorting out a bit of the above answer of JustinAngel:
* RFID is not a predecessor technology of NFC
* RFID covers various frequency bands of Radio Frequency Communication (e.g. HF and UHF)
* NFC is Near Field Communication and usually covers HF (13.56 MHz)
* Many standards fall under HF NFC: ISO14443-4, ISO15693, FeliCa, ISO18092, .....
* NFC Forum is trying to unify things and uses NDEF messages to exchange semantic messages
* contactless payment on credit cards is based on a contactless smartcard layer.
* WP8 allows only exchange of NDEF messages
* WP8 does not allow exchange on the contactless smartcard layer (ISODEP==L4==(T=CL))
* see the windows proximity api for details or <http://developer.nokia.com/Community/Wiki/Use_NFC_tags_with_Windows_Phone_8>
* Android however gives access to this ISODEP layer
* I don't know what credit card information could be retrieved from an app. There is a secure element involved which handles cryptography and stuff. I don't think detailed information on Mastercard payPass or VISA payWave is freely available | >
> Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
>
>
>
No, you cannot do that. NFC API on Windows Phone 8 is very limited.
May be Wallet API could help you somehow with your project, but this is not about NFC.
Also you could try to use Android devices with NFC, they have more powerful NFC API than WP8. |
13,314,228 | Short question: Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
Long question: How does NFC with credit cards exatly work? The card (or the phone with wallet function) receives a request via NFC and replies with the cleartext credit card information in some standardised format? The Wallet option then aditionally still props some comfirmation dialog before broadcasting the credit card information?
Or is there some handshake encryption going on before hand? Or is there some credit card specific secret code safeguarding the commuincation? Or is there some overlay protocol on NFC for payment? NFC ist just pushing a string over the air as far as know?
If it works, as I think it works, can I tell a Windows 8 Phone, through preferably C#, to read credit card information and display it to me (if the credit card has a chip inside)? Or does maybe Windows Phone 8 disallow access to the NFC reader, or some mystic payment protocol (if such a thing exists). My short web search was very vage on technical details, especially with some sites talking about carrier support for wallet systems, as if some keys would be fetched from somewhere in the web to secure the transactions? I can't really image something like that being standardised accross all credit card issuers.
Can someone give technical insight the way credit card data is transfered and if you can program a phone to read such data. | 2012/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13314228",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/643742/"
] | Contactless credit/debit cards certainly do use NFC (mainly ISO 14443-A, some mainly in France are ISO 14443-B), and their communication protocols follow an industry standard called EMV which has public specs available here: <http://www.emvco.com/specifications.aspx?id=223> The cards speak the same EMV both over NFC/contactless as well as through the contact chip (eg the gold thing you insert into a reader) though payment networks tend to do things slightly differently depending on which interface is used (eg sometimes PIN not required via contactless for low amounts, whereas contact might always require a PIN). Also, certain aspects of the protocols are proprietary to the payment networks so the EMV specs don't fully describe everything.
If you search around there are various sites that give some examples of how to communicate with credit/debit cards some over NFC others with an insert chip card, but typically the commands will work the same regardless of the interface. You can buy a USB smart card reader that will do both NFC and insert/contact for http://blog.saush.com/2006/09/08/getting-information-from-an-emv-chip-card/
For Windows Phone you also can talk with credit cards as long as you have a Lumia 830/730/735 etc as the older devices (even the Lumia 930) have an older NFC chip where the driver doesn't support the smart card APIs. You can use the sample code here: <https://nfcsmartcardreader.codeplex.com/> to learn how to send/receive APDU commands/responses to NFC cards though that project doesn't specifically have the commands you need for a credit card (though that other link does have the APDUs you need).
And credit cards generally all will let you read their PAN (the account number printed on the front), expiry date, and in some countries even the cardholder name (though in the US for privacy most banks tend to not expose it, instead returning stuff like "VALUED/CARDHOLDER" as the name) without any encryption or keys. It will not however return the CVV2 code printed on the back of the card, which is generally required by merchants to be able to place orders on the internet, and it also generally does not let you clone the card since there is dynamic/encrypted data required to do card present transactions at a physical merchant. | >
> Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
>
>
>
No, you cannot do that. NFC API on Windows Phone 8 is very limited.
May be Wallet API could help you somehow with your project, but this is not about NFC.
Also you could try to use Android devices with NFC, they have more powerful NFC API than WP8. |
13,314,228 | Short question: Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
Long question: How does NFC with credit cards exatly work? The card (or the phone with wallet function) receives a request via NFC and replies with the cleartext credit card information in some standardised format? The Wallet option then aditionally still props some comfirmation dialog before broadcasting the credit card information?
Or is there some handshake encryption going on before hand? Or is there some credit card specific secret code safeguarding the commuincation? Or is there some overlay protocol on NFC for payment? NFC ist just pushing a string over the air as far as know?
If it works, as I think it works, can I tell a Windows 8 Phone, through preferably C#, to read credit card information and display it to me (if the credit card has a chip inside)? Or does maybe Windows Phone 8 disallow access to the NFC reader, or some mystic payment protocol (if such a thing exists). My short web search was very vage on technical details, especially with some sites talking about carrier support for wallet systems, as if some keys would be fetched from somewhere in the web to secure the transactions? I can't really image something like that being standardised accross all credit card issuers.
Can someone give technical insight the way credit card data is transfered and if you can program a phone to read such data. | 2012/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13314228",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/643742/"
] | Contactless credit/debit cards certainly do use NFC (mainly ISO 14443-A, some mainly in France are ISO 14443-B), and their communication protocols follow an industry standard called EMV which has public specs available here: <http://www.emvco.com/specifications.aspx?id=223> The cards speak the same EMV both over NFC/contactless as well as through the contact chip (eg the gold thing you insert into a reader) though payment networks tend to do things slightly differently depending on which interface is used (eg sometimes PIN not required via contactless for low amounts, whereas contact might always require a PIN). Also, certain aspects of the protocols are proprietary to the payment networks so the EMV specs don't fully describe everything.
If you search around there are various sites that give some examples of how to communicate with credit/debit cards some over NFC others with an insert chip card, but typically the commands will work the same regardless of the interface. You can buy a USB smart card reader that will do both NFC and insert/contact for http://blog.saush.com/2006/09/08/getting-information-from-an-emv-chip-card/
For Windows Phone you also can talk with credit cards as long as you have a Lumia 830/730/735 etc as the older devices (even the Lumia 930) have an older NFC chip where the driver doesn't support the smart card APIs. You can use the sample code here: <https://nfcsmartcardreader.codeplex.com/> to learn how to send/receive APDU commands/responses to NFC cards though that project doesn't specifically have the commands you need for a credit card (though that other link does have the APDUs you need).
And credit cards generally all will let you read their PAN (the account number printed on the front), expiry date, and in some countries even the cardholder name (though in the US for privacy most banks tend to not expose it, instead returning stuff like "VALUED/CARDHOLDER" as the name) without any encryption or keys. It will not however return the CVV2 code printed on the back of the card, which is generally required by merchants to be able to place orders on the internet, and it also generally does not let you clone the card since there is dynamic/encrypted data required to do card present transactions at a physical merchant. | Short answer: No. It's unlikely Credit card would work with WP8.
Long answer:
1. **RFID vs. NFC:** As far as I know most credit cards don't have NFC. They have RFID. Which one could say it's a "predecessor" technology to NFC. RFID is mostly non-standardized, has longer range than NFC and only supports one-way communication. Whereas NFC is an evolving standard, can be used in 2cm-4cm range and supports two-way communication. So, WP8 does not support RFID but it does support NFC.
2. **RFID on WP8:** All that being said, there's a chance that WP8 could identify *some* RFID tags. You might be able read byte[] from specific RFID tags in specific WP8 phones. Obviously, that's not recommended.
3. **Secure NFC:** One last thing is that some very exclusive partners in some very specific regions will have access to "Secure NFC". Secure NFC is a superset of NFC and adds the feature to store & transmit secure information via NFC from WP8. For example Secure NFC can store a Credit Card number or a bank account number as part of the WP8 Wallet. However, That will only work in regions where the mobile operator issues a "Smart SIM" (SIM capable of running applets), where the developer can author Java based Smart SIM applets, where the developer has an agreement with the mobile operator to deploy those applets over-the-air, where those WP8 apps have been cleared with Microsoft for the WP8 store and where there are dedicated retail HW terminals that can read them. |
13,314,228 | Short question: Can I read credit card information with a NFC capable Windows Phone 8?
Long question: How does NFC with credit cards exatly work? The card (or the phone with wallet function) receives a request via NFC and replies with the cleartext credit card information in some standardised format? The Wallet option then aditionally still props some comfirmation dialog before broadcasting the credit card information?
Or is there some handshake encryption going on before hand? Or is there some credit card specific secret code safeguarding the commuincation? Or is there some overlay protocol on NFC for payment? NFC ist just pushing a string over the air as far as know?
If it works, as I think it works, can I tell a Windows 8 Phone, through preferably C#, to read credit card information and display it to me (if the credit card has a chip inside)? Or does maybe Windows Phone 8 disallow access to the NFC reader, or some mystic payment protocol (if such a thing exists). My short web search was very vage on technical details, especially with some sites talking about carrier support for wallet systems, as if some keys would be fetched from somewhere in the web to secure the transactions? I can't really image something like that being standardised accross all credit card issuers.
Can someone give technical insight the way credit card data is transfered and if you can program a phone to read such data. | 2012/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13314228",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/643742/"
] | Contactless credit/debit cards certainly do use NFC (mainly ISO 14443-A, some mainly in France are ISO 14443-B), and their communication protocols follow an industry standard called EMV which has public specs available here: <http://www.emvco.com/specifications.aspx?id=223> The cards speak the same EMV both over NFC/contactless as well as through the contact chip (eg the gold thing you insert into a reader) though payment networks tend to do things slightly differently depending on which interface is used (eg sometimes PIN not required via contactless for low amounts, whereas contact might always require a PIN). Also, certain aspects of the protocols are proprietary to the payment networks so the EMV specs don't fully describe everything.
If you search around there are various sites that give some examples of how to communicate with credit/debit cards some over NFC others with an insert chip card, but typically the commands will work the same regardless of the interface. You can buy a USB smart card reader that will do both NFC and insert/contact for http://blog.saush.com/2006/09/08/getting-information-from-an-emv-chip-card/
For Windows Phone you also can talk with credit cards as long as you have a Lumia 830/730/735 etc as the older devices (even the Lumia 930) have an older NFC chip where the driver doesn't support the smart card APIs. You can use the sample code here: <https://nfcsmartcardreader.codeplex.com/> to learn how to send/receive APDU commands/responses to NFC cards though that project doesn't specifically have the commands you need for a credit card (though that other link does have the APDUs you need).
And credit cards generally all will let you read their PAN (the account number printed on the front), expiry date, and in some countries even the cardholder name (though in the US for privacy most banks tend to not expose it, instead returning stuff like "VALUED/CARDHOLDER" as the name) without any encryption or keys. It will not however return the CVV2 code printed on the back of the card, which is generally required by merchants to be able to place orders on the internet, and it also generally does not let you clone the card since there is dynamic/encrypted data required to do card present transactions at a physical merchant. | Sorting out a bit of the above answer of JustinAngel:
* RFID is not a predecessor technology of NFC
* RFID covers various frequency bands of Radio Frequency Communication (e.g. HF and UHF)
* NFC is Near Field Communication and usually covers HF (13.56 MHz)
* Many standards fall under HF NFC: ISO14443-4, ISO15693, FeliCa, ISO18092, .....
* NFC Forum is trying to unify things and uses NDEF messages to exchange semantic messages
* contactless payment on credit cards is based on a contactless smartcard layer.
* WP8 allows only exchange of NDEF messages
* WP8 does not allow exchange on the contactless smartcard layer (ISODEP==L4==(T=CL))
* see the windows proximity api for details or <http://developer.nokia.com/Community/Wiki/Use_NFC_tags_with_Windows_Phone_8>
* Android however gives access to this ISODEP layer
* I don't know what credit card information could be retrieved from an app. There is a secure element involved which handles cryptography and stuff. I don't think detailed information on Mastercard payPass or VISA payWave is freely available |
71,814,248 | I have an app that already have had several releases pushed to the Open Testing track:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/C7jxC.png)
The earliest release was 22 hours ago and the latest, 2 hours ago. However, no one seems to be able to access the app with either links provided here:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Qm4Vf.png)
The first link for joining on Android shows this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jZvCH.png)
The second link, for joining on the web, prompts me to sign-in to my google account, and then shows this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/4TiKM.png)
However, people that were originally in my internal testing email list *can* access the app from the first link, *but not* the second link. I am also able to download, install and run the app from the first link on my Android Emulator (using my own google account which is in the internal testing email list).
I've tried adding new users to my internal testing email list, but that didn't allow them to access the Open Testing release.
I've also tried pausing the internal testing track, but that did nothing. I have read elsewhere that the open testing app will only be available after a few hours, but the first release has already been released 22 hours ago.
How do I fix this? | 2022/04/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/71814248",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7577786/"
] | If you see there it says "In review", you should expect them to review and approve it since there are many cases of misuse of apps in the Play Store.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ATNRC.jpg) | You can see the status in "Go to Publication Summary":
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mNvO9.jpg) |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | Historical Linquistics can perhaps help here. While the existence, timing, and nature of any "Dorian Invasion" is controversial, we can gather a lot from looking at [ancient Greek dialects](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Greek) and their known distribution. Due to that, where the Dorian *dialects* came from is not controversial at all.
To quote from [today's Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Doric_Greek):
>
> It is widely accepted that Doric originated in the mountains of Epirus
> and Macedonia, northwestern Greece, the original seat of the Dorians.
>
>
>
The timing down to the exact century is still a bit controversial but proto-Greek seems to have developed roughly as follows:
Proto-Greek -> Western vs. non-western Greek
Western -> Doric vs. Northwest
non-Western -> Achaean (Mycenaean), misc. others -> Central vs. Eastern Greek
Central -> Attic vs. Ionic
Now its a general (but not foolproof) principle that you can find a language family's homeland on a later language distribution map by finding the location of its oldest offshoot. So what we are looking for here is the border between Doric and Northwest Greek, and particularly where the rest of Northwest Greek is.
So with that in mind, here's roughly what the picture looked like when the smoke cleared from the Greek Dark Ages (as per Roger D. Woodard's The Ancient Languages of Europe):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h7b6e.png)
Notice the Northwest Greek area is in the, well, northwest of Greece. The areas south of there are all former Mycenaean-speaking areas. While the timing and method may not be known as of now, it is accepted that the Dorian speakers moved from out of that area to effectively take over all of southern coastal and insular Greece, bar inland Ionia and Cyprus. The rest of Greece continued to house everybody else, who developed into their separate dialects as outlined above. | What I see here,because of ignorance or bad intentions, nobody says that in highlands of northwestern Greece,they were the illyrian tribes, warlike people called the barbarians ,from where came heroes of anticity, like Achilles, the ancestor of Olympia,Alexander the Greta's mother.Can somebody explain me,what the names Illyrian, Doris,Aegimius, Hyllius Achilles and Helios mean in Greek language. Those names are still used in today's Albania in the form of human names,like Doris,Agim, Ilir ,Ylli,Arqilea, And Diell, who respectively mean Dora-hand,Agim-dawn,Ylli-star,Diell- sun,kind of pagan-barbarian names,and there is not a chance Albanians still nowadays are called half believers. Go check dorian tribe of Sfakia,tall,blueeyed warlike people.Kalash people of Pakistan,left behind from Alexander the Great or the mountain people in Albanian Alps and in Pindi and Suli mountains.They fit the profile.This is History, not alternative history, |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | The Dorians, were a primitive Greek tribe who originally came from the Northwest of Greece-(the region called, "Epirus"). This was and is still the most mountainous and pastoral region within Greece proper-(specifically, the Hellenic mainland. This is the region where Hades and The Elysian fields were located, as well as the homeland of Alexander The Great's Mother, Olympias).
For most of ancient history, the Dorians lived in relative obscurity throughout the mountainous valleys of Northwest Greece. However, by the 1100's BC/BCE-(about 100 years after The Trojan War, as well as 500 years after a prosperous Mycenaean civilization in the Peloponnese), the Dorians began to invade much of the Hellenic mainland and settled into the Peloponnese in big numbers until 800 BC/BCE, essentially destroying or supplanting the centuries old Mycenaean civilization.
The Dorian invasion of mainland Greece is often (somewhat disparagingly and sarcastically) referred to as, "The Greek Dark Ages" and from the Mycenaean perspective,it would have appeared to have been an ensuing Dark Age. Comparatively speaking, the Dorians, were culturally unsophisticated and primitive, though they were known, perhaps even notorious for their warlike temperament.
Were the Dorians ethnically related to the Mycenaeans? Yes, in all likelihood, the Dorians were Hellenic compatriots, though the Mycenaeans would probably have viewed the Dorians as having been barely Hellenic or semi-Hellenic at best. Keep in mind that the Dorians came from a region of Greece that literally neighbors the larger region of Illyria-(which, at the time, was comprised of the majority of present-day Albania, the nearby region of Kosovo and much of the Yugoslav interior) to its North. The Dorians, though of Greek ethno-linguistic extraction, may have had Illyrian linguistic and cultural influences which would have appeared to have been somewhat foreign to the more culturally refined and cosmopolitan Mycenaeans. | According to my research, the Dorians who invaded Greece in the twelfth century BC originated from Northern Europe. Some of them inhabited the island Rügen in present-day Germany. This island was densely populated in the Bronze Age. In the beginning of the 1800s (AD), you could still see 1239 tumuli from the Early Bronze Age there (NBA terminology). The present name Rügen is due to the people who inhabited the island after the Dorians and other tribes had left. One reason for leaving southwards for people in Northern Europe could be an Icelandic volcanic eruption 1190 BC (cfr GISP2 data from the Greenland ice). According to the Odyssey (19:177) the Dorians and some other tribes inhabited Crete, which was probably the ancient name of Rügen. They later invaded the island we now call Crete (in addition to other areas) and brought the name with them (as Englishmen brought with them their names to the US, e.g. «New England»). As far as I know, the name Crete (Κρητη) has not been found in any writings prior to the Dorian invasion; the Egyptians called the island «Keftiu». The migration was chaotic and took a long time. My hypothesis needs to be verified by new techniques such as aDNA and/or strontium isotope analysis.
Reference to the number of Early Bronze Age tumuli at Rügen: "A[rchäologische Entdeckungen in Mecklenburg-Vorpommern, page 69: Article by Lars Saalow and Jens-Peter Schmidt. Schwerin, 2009. ISBN 9783935770248."](http://www.kulturwerte-mv.de/Landesarchaeologie/Service/Publikationen/?id=6826&processor=veroeff)
My hypothesis, that Rügen is «Kreta» in the Homeric epics, builds on the Ship catalogue (Iliad 2:484-760), describing 180 sites where the 1058-ship Danaan fleet originated. I have identified most of these sites along the shores of the Baltic Sea. In particular, I strongly believe, from the overall picture and details in the Iliad's description, that the 80 ships of Idomenes (Iliad 2:645-52) were supplied from the island Rügen. A possible connection between the name «Kreta» and Rügen is «Karenza», the old name of the historic city and religious centre Garz on Rügen, with its famous «Burgwall» (ancient city wall) (ref J.W. Barthold, «Geschichte von Rügen und Pommern», Hamburg, 1839) [2]. There are evident similarities between «Karenza» and «Kreta». (According to my theory, the war to capture the city of Ilion in Troía did not take place in the Mediterranean but close to the hamlet Weltzin in the Tollense valley [3] in Germany.)
[2] <https://books.google.no/books?id=BdkAAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA558&lpg=PA558&dq=karenza+r%C3%BCgen&source=bl&ots=YFhvu2w4IY&sig=mru1X_-P_bUx7xr6uwmIk8wUiQc&hl=no&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwifz-7b__7eAhWL1ywKHcGTCSAQ6AEwAXoECAUQAQ#v=onepage&q=karenza%20r%C3%BCgen&f=false>
[3] <https://www.semdoc.de/regionalliteratur-neubrandenburg_7/tod-im-tollensetal_1583726.htm> |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | The Dorians, were a primitive Greek tribe who originally came from the Northwest of Greece-(the region called, "Epirus"). This was and is still the most mountainous and pastoral region within Greece proper-(specifically, the Hellenic mainland. This is the region where Hades and The Elysian fields were located, as well as the homeland of Alexander The Great's Mother, Olympias).
For most of ancient history, the Dorians lived in relative obscurity throughout the mountainous valleys of Northwest Greece. However, by the 1100's BC/BCE-(about 100 years after The Trojan War, as well as 500 years after a prosperous Mycenaean civilization in the Peloponnese), the Dorians began to invade much of the Hellenic mainland and settled into the Peloponnese in big numbers until 800 BC/BCE, essentially destroying or supplanting the centuries old Mycenaean civilization.
The Dorian invasion of mainland Greece is often (somewhat disparagingly and sarcastically) referred to as, "The Greek Dark Ages" and from the Mycenaean perspective,it would have appeared to have been an ensuing Dark Age. Comparatively speaking, the Dorians, were culturally unsophisticated and primitive, though they were known, perhaps even notorious for their warlike temperament.
Were the Dorians ethnically related to the Mycenaeans? Yes, in all likelihood, the Dorians were Hellenic compatriots, though the Mycenaeans would probably have viewed the Dorians as having been barely Hellenic or semi-Hellenic at best. Keep in mind that the Dorians came from a region of Greece that literally neighbors the larger region of Illyria-(which, at the time, was comprised of the majority of present-day Albania, the nearby region of Kosovo and much of the Yugoslav interior) to its North. The Dorians, though of Greek ethno-linguistic extraction, may have had Illyrian linguistic and cultural influences which would have appeared to have been somewhat foreign to the more culturally refined and cosmopolitan Mycenaeans. | What I see here,because of ignorance or bad intentions, nobody says that in highlands of northwestern Greece,they were the illyrian tribes, warlike people called the barbarians ,from where came heroes of anticity, like Achilles, the ancestor of Olympia,Alexander the Greta's mother.Can somebody explain me,what the names Illyrian, Doris,Aegimius, Hyllius Achilles and Helios mean in Greek language. Those names are still used in today's Albania in the form of human names,like Doris,Agim, Ilir ,Ylli,Arqilea, And Diell, who respectively mean Dora-hand,Agim-dawn,Ylli-star,Diell- sun,kind of pagan-barbarian names,and there is not a chance Albanians still nowadays are called half believers. Go check dorian tribe of Sfakia,tall,blueeyed warlike people.Kalash people of Pakistan,left behind from Alexander the Great or the mountain people in Albanian Alps and in Pindi and Suli mountains.They fit the profile.This is History, not alternative history, |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | There is much we can only guess at when it comes to when and how the Dorians first appeared in the Peloponnese. Most historians accept that the Dorians moved into southern Greece during the early part of a period known as the Greek Dark Ages (c1100 or 1050 BC to c800 BC), but it has been argued (by Chadwick in 1976, then Hooker in 1977) that the Dorians were in southern Greece before 1200 BC, or may even have been there all the time, and that it was they who overthrew the Mycenaeans (as opposed to the Dorians moving into territory 'vacated' after the fall of Mycenae). Paul Cartledge, currently considered the leading authority on Sparta, is one of the many historians who do not subscribe to these theories. He argues that, after the destruction of the principal Mycenaean centres around 1200 BC,
>
> the civilization of which they had been the focus melted away....Some
> of the previous inhabitants remained in place, though scattered and
> diminished, but they seem to have been eventually dominated by a group
> or groups of incomers from further to the north and northwest, people
> who came to call themselves Dorians...
>
>
>
Also, note Tom Holland in 'Persian Fire':
>
> Gradually, the void left by the collapse of Menelaus' Kingdom *[i.e.
> Mycenae]* had been filled by newcomers from the north, wandering
> tribes who would be known much later as the Dorians, in proud
> contra-distinction to the vanquished native Greeks.
>
>
>
Assuming the Dorians did come south, where did they come from? The consensus seems to be from the mountainous areas of northern Greece. Tom Holland writes:
>
> The Spartans, despite their attempts to present themselves as the
> heirs of Menelaus, were Dorians after all. The mountainous country
> north of the Isthmus *[of Corinth]* was their ancestral homeland.
>
>
>
From encyclopedia.com:
>
> Originating in the northwestern mountainous region of Epirus and SW
> Macedonia, they migrated through central Greece and into the
> Peloponnesus probably between 1100 and 950 BC
>
>
>
The fact that large parts of the Peloponnese were very fertile explains why they came. Whether it was a gradual migration or an invasion remains a topic of some debate.
As we don't know what caused the collapse of Mycenaean civilization and as there are no written records between the time of this collapse and the emergence of the Greek city states around 800 BC, it is impossible to be certain of the relationship / interaction between Mycenaeans and Dorians. However, this did not stop Sparta and other city states from adopting heroes from the Mycenaean age and claiming them as their own (but this should be seen for what it was - propaganda).
With specific reference to Sparta, W.G. Forrest concludes:
>
> Mycenaean Lakedaimon vanished around 1200, Dorian Sparta was created
> somewhere in the tenth century.....Of what happened in between we have
> no knowledge.
>
>
>
I have not seen any evidence of a relationship between the Minoans and the Dorians (perhaps someone else can throw more light on this).
You might want to check the following for further information:
W.G.Forrest,
'A History of Sparta 950-192 BC'
Paul Cartledge, 'The Spartans'
Paul Cartledge, 'Sparta and Lakonia' (2nd ed.) *Presents and assesses various hypotheses which relate to the Dorians in southern Greece.*
A. Andrews, 'The Greek Tyrants' | Historical Linquistics can perhaps help here. While the existence, timing, and nature of any "Dorian Invasion" is controversial, we can gather a lot from looking at [ancient Greek dialects](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Greek) and their known distribution. Due to that, where the Dorian *dialects* came from is not controversial at all.
To quote from [today's Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Doric_Greek):
>
> It is widely accepted that Doric originated in the mountains of Epirus
> and Macedonia, northwestern Greece, the original seat of the Dorians.
>
>
>
The timing down to the exact century is still a bit controversial but proto-Greek seems to have developed roughly as follows:
Proto-Greek -> Western vs. non-western Greek
Western -> Doric vs. Northwest
non-Western -> Achaean (Mycenaean), misc. others -> Central vs. Eastern Greek
Central -> Attic vs. Ionic
Now its a general (but not foolproof) principle that you can find a language family's homeland on a later language distribution map by finding the location of its oldest offshoot. So what we are looking for here is the border between Doric and Northwest Greek, and particularly where the rest of Northwest Greek is.
So with that in mind, here's roughly what the picture looked like when the smoke cleared from the Greek Dark Ages (as per Roger D. Woodard's The Ancient Languages of Europe):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h7b6e.png)
Notice the Northwest Greek area is in the, well, northwest of Greece. The areas south of there are all former Mycenaean-speaking areas. While the timing and method may not be known as of now, it is accepted that the Dorian speakers moved from out of that area to effectively take over all of southern coastal and insular Greece, bar inland Ionia and Cyprus. The rest of Greece continued to house everybody else, who developed into their separate dialects as outlined above. |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | There is much we can only guess at when it comes to when and how the Dorians first appeared in the Peloponnese. Most historians accept that the Dorians moved into southern Greece during the early part of a period known as the Greek Dark Ages (c1100 or 1050 BC to c800 BC), but it has been argued (by Chadwick in 1976, then Hooker in 1977) that the Dorians were in southern Greece before 1200 BC, or may even have been there all the time, and that it was they who overthrew the Mycenaeans (as opposed to the Dorians moving into territory 'vacated' after the fall of Mycenae). Paul Cartledge, currently considered the leading authority on Sparta, is one of the many historians who do not subscribe to these theories. He argues that, after the destruction of the principal Mycenaean centres around 1200 BC,
>
> the civilization of which they had been the focus melted away....Some
> of the previous inhabitants remained in place, though scattered and
> diminished, but they seem to have been eventually dominated by a group
> or groups of incomers from further to the north and northwest, people
> who came to call themselves Dorians...
>
>
>
Also, note Tom Holland in 'Persian Fire':
>
> Gradually, the void left by the collapse of Menelaus' Kingdom *[i.e.
> Mycenae]* had been filled by newcomers from the north, wandering
> tribes who would be known much later as the Dorians, in proud
> contra-distinction to the vanquished native Greeks.
>
>
>
Assuming the Dorians did come south, where did they come from? The consensus seems to be from the mountainous areas of northern Greece. Tom Holland writes:
>
> The Spartans, despite their attempts to present themselves as the
> heirs of Menelaus, were Dorians after all. The mountainous country
> north of the Isthmus *[of Corinth]* was their ancestral homeland.
>
>
>
From encyclopedia.com:
>
> Originating in the northwestern mountainous region of Epirus and SW
> Macedonia, they migrated through central Greece and into the
> Peloponnesus probably between 1100 and 950 BC
>
>
>
The fact that large parts of the Peloponnese were very fertile explains why they came. Whether it was a gradual migration or an invasion remains a topic of some debate.
As we don't know what caused the collapse of Mycenaean civilization and as there are no written records between the time of this collapse and the emergence of the Greek city states around 800 BC, it is impossible to be certain of the relationship / interaction between Mycenaeans and Dorians. However, this did not stop Sparta and other city states from adopting heroes from the Mycenaean age and claiming them as their own (but this should be seen for what it was - propaganda).
With specific reference to Sparta, W.G. Forrest concludes:
>
> Mycenaean Lakedaimon vanished around 1200, Dorian Sparta was created
> somewhere in the tenth century.....Of what happened in between we have
> no knowledge.
>
>
>
I have not seen any evidence of a relationship between the Minoans and the Dorians (perhaps someone else can throw more light on this).
You might want to check the following for further information:
W.G.Forrest,
'A History of Sparta 950-192 BC'
Paul Cartledge, 'The Spartans'
Paul Cartledge, 'Sparta and Lakonia' (2nd ed.) *Presents and assesses various hypotheses which relate to the Dorians in southern Greece.*
A. Andrews, 'The Greek Tyrants' | According to my research, the Dorians who invaded Greece in the twelfth century BC originated from Northern Europe. Some of them inhabited the island Rügen in present-day Germany. This island was densely populated in the Bronze Age. In the beginning of the 1800s (AD), you could still see 1239 tumuli from the Early Bronze Age there (NBA terminology). The present name Rügen is due to the people who inhabited the island after the Dorians and other tribes had left. One reason for leaving southwards for people in Northern Europe could be an Icelandic volcanic eruption 1190 BC (cfr GISP2 data from the Greenland ice). According to the Odyssey (19:177) the Dorians and some other tribes inhabited Crete, which was probably the ancient name of Rügen. They later invaded the island we now call Crete (in addition to other areas) and brought the name with them (as Englishmen brought with them their names to the US, e.g. «New England»). As far as I know, the name Crete (Κρητη) has not been found in any writings prior to the Dorian invasion; the Egyptians called the island «Keftiu». The migration was chaotic and took a long time. My hypothesis needs to be verified by new techniques such as aDNA and/or strontium isotope analysis.
Reference to the number of Early Bronze Age tumuli at Rügen: "A[rchäologische Entdeckungen in Mecklenburg-Vorpommern, page 69: Article by Lars Saalow and Jens-Peter Schmidt. Schwerin, 2009. ISBN 9783935770248."](http://www.kulturwerte-mv.de/Landesarchaeologie/Service/Publikationen/?id=6826&processor=veroeff)
My hypothesis, that Rügen is «Kreta» in the Homeric epics, builds on the Ship catalogue (Iliad 2:484-760), describing 180 sites where the 1058-ship Danaan fleet originated. I have identified most of these sites along the shores of the Baltic Sea. In particular, I strongly believe, from the overall picture and details in the Iliad's description, that the 80 ships of Idomenes (Iliad 2:645-52) were supplied from the island Rügen. A possible connection between the name «Kreta» and Rügen is «Karenza», the old name of the historic city and religious centre Garz on Rügen, with its famous «Burgwall» (ancient city wall) (ref J.W. Barthold, «Geschichte von Rügen und Pommern», Hamburg, 1839) [2]. There are evident similarities between «Karenza» and «Kreta». (According to my theory, the war to capture the city of Ilion in Troía did not take place in the Mediterranean but close to the hamlet Weltzin in the Tollense valley [3] in Germany.)
[2] <https://books.google.no/books?id=BdkAAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA558&lpg=PA558&dq=karenza+r%C3%BCgen&source=bl&ots=YFhvu2w4IY&sig=mru1X_-P_bUx7xr6uwmIk8wUiQc&hl=no&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwifz-7b__7eAhWL1ywKHcGTCSAQ6AEwAXoECAUQAQ#v=onepage&q=karenza%20r%C3%BCgen&f=false>
[3] <https://www.semdoc.de/regionalliteratur-neubrandenburg_7/tod-im-tollensetal_1583726.htm> |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | There is much we can only guess at when it comes to when and how the Dorians first appeared in the Peloponnese. Most historians accept that the Dorians moved into southern Greece during the early part of a period known as the Greek Dark Ages (c1100 or 1050 BC to c800 BC), but it has been argued (by Chadwick in 1976, then Hooker in 1977) that the Dorians were in southern Greece before 1200 BC, or may even have been there all the time, and that it was they who overthrew the Mycenaeans (as opposed to the Dorians moving into territory 'vacated' after the fall of Mycenae). Paul Cartledge, currently considered the leading authority on Sparta, is one of the many historians who do not subscribe to these theories. He argues that, after the destruction of the principal Mycenaean centres around 1200 BC,
>
> the civilization of which they had been the focus melted away....Some
> of the previous inhabitants remained in place, though scattered and
> diminished, but they seem to have been eventually dominated by a group
> or groups of incomers from further to the north and northwest, people
> who came to call themselves Dorians...
>
>
>
Also, note Tom Holland in 'Persian Fire':
>
> Gradually, the void left by the collapse of Menelaus' Kingdom *[i.e.
> Mycenae]* had been filled by newcomers from the north, wandering
> tribes who would be known much later as the Dorians, in proud
> contra-distinction to the vanquished native Greeks.
>
>
>
Assuming the Dorians did come south, where did they come from? The consensus seems to be from the mountainous areas of northern Greece. Tom Holland writes:
>
> The Spartans, despite their attempts to present themselves as the
> heirs of Menelaus, were Dorians after all. The mountainous country
> north of the Isthmus *[of Corinth]* was their ancestral homeland.
>
>
>
From encyclopedia.com:
>
> Originating in the northwestern mountainous region of Epirus and SW
> Macedonia, they migrated through central Greece and into the
> Peloponnesus probably between 1100 and 950 BC
>
>
>
The fact that large parts of the Peloponnese were very fertile explains why they came. Whether it was a gradual migration or an invasion remains a topic of some debate.
As we don't know what caused the collapse of Mycenaean civilization and as there are no written records between the time of this collapse and the emergence of the Greek city states around 800 BC, it is impossible to be certain of the relationship / interaction between Mycenaeans and Dorians. However, this did not stop Sparta and other city states from adopting heroes from the Mycenaean age and claiming them as their own (but this should be seen for what it was - propaganda).
With specific reference to Sparta, W.G. Forrest concludes:
>
> Mycenaean Lakedaimon vanished around 1200, Dorian Sparta was created
> somewhere in the tenth century.....Of what happened in between we have
> no knowledge.
>
>
>
I have not seen any evidence of a relationship between the Minoans and the Dorians (perhaps someone else can throw more light on this).
You might want to check the following for further information:
W.G.Forrest,
'A History of Sparta 950-192 BC'
Paul Cartledge, 'The Spartans'
Paul Cartledge, 'Sparta and Lakonia' (2nd ed.) *Presents and assesses various hypotheses which relate to the Dorians in southern Greece.*
A. Andrews, 'The Greek Tyrants' | What I see here,because of ignorance or bad intentions, nobody says that in highlands of northwestern Greece,they were the illyrian tribes, warlike people called the barbarians ,from where came heroes of anticity, like Achilles, the ancestor of Olympia,Alexander the Greta's mother.Can somebody explain me,what the names Illyrian, Doris,Aegimius, Hyllius Achilles and Helios mean in Greek language. Those names are still used in today's Albania in the form of human names,like Doris,Agim, Ilir ,Ylli,Arqilea, And Diell, who respectively mean Dora-hand,Agim-dawn,Ylli-star,Diell- sun,kind of pagan-barbarian names,and there is not a chance Albanians still nowadays are called half believers. Go check dorian tribe of Sfakia,tall,blueeyed warlike people.Kalash people of Pakistan,left behind from Alexander the Great or the mountain people in Albanian Alps and in Pindi and Suli mountains.They fit the profile.This is History, not alternative history, |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | In the context of Mycenaean palace societies and their collapse, i.e. *Late Bronze Age, c. 1200 BCE,* I believe a very *good recent source* is:
* **Eric H. Cline's "*[1177 B.C.: The Year Civilization Collapsed](http://press.princeton.edu/titles/10185.html)*", Princeton, 2014**
In Chapter 5, Cline writes (emphasis mine):
>
> Rather than the Sea Peoples, the ancient Greeks—ranging from historians like Herodotus and Thucydides in fifth-century BC Athens to the much-later traveler Pausanias—***believed that a group known as the Dorians had invaded from the north at the end of the Bronze Age, thereby initiating the Iron Age*.** f.n.45 This concept was once much discussed by archaeologists and ancient historians of the Bronze Age Aegean; among their considerations was a new type of pottery called “Handmade Burnished Ware” or “Barbarian Ware.” However, ***in recent decades it has become clear that there was no such invasion from the north at this time and no reason to accept the idea of a “Dorian Invasion”*** bringing the Mycenaean civilization to an end. Despite the traditions of the later classical Greeks, ***it is clear that the Dorians had nothing to do with the collapse*** at the end of the Late Bronze Age and entered Greece only long after those events had transpired.
>
>
>
So, according to Cline, **the Dorians had no role in the collapse of Late Mycenaean society**.
That **f.n. 45** refers to *Middleton, G. D. 2010. The Collapse of Palatial Society in LBA Greece and the Postpalatial Period. BAR International Series 2110. Oxford: Archaeopress*.
I don't have this, so I got the next best thing, his Ph.D thesis:
* **Middleton, Guy Daniel (2008) *[The collapse of palatial society in LBA Greece and the postpalatial period](http://etheses.dur.ac.uk/2900/)*, Durham theses, Durham University**
Starting at p. 138, under ***The Dorian hypothesis***, Middleton walks through 3 different theories of origin:
* "*the Dorians entered the Peloponnese and Crete from the mountains of
Thessaly in a fairly peaceful fashion*" (p.138)
* "*they were from Epirus .. This Epirote origin theory may relate to the speculation that the Dorians were a pastoral people, and that this way of life was preserved in north-western Greece, which would arguably render the Dorians archaeologically invisible*." (p.139)
* "*the Dorians were in fact a submerged class already present in Mycenaean Greece who revolted against their Mycenaean masters, but this has not been widely supported and does not seem to be indicated by the archaeological or linguistic evidence*." (p. 151)
Middleton's conclusion is (p.152):
>
> **The Dorian identity may have only been formed much later than c.1200** and none of the significant Dorian centres were prominent in postpalatial times. The mixed origins of what became Dorian populations also seems indicated by one of the three standard tribal names, Pamphyloi, or 'people of all tribes' although in some Dorian areas some or all of these standard names were not present (e.g. Corinth) and in others extra tribal names appear.
>
>
>
**CONCLUSION**
In other words, it was an *[origin myth](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origin_myth)* - the **Dorians were created after the collapse**. By the way, Cline does not bring up the Dorians again (i.e. after dismissing their role in the collapse - *as per quote above*). | The Dorians, were a primitive Greek tribe who originally came from the Northwest of Greece-(the region called, "Epirus"). This was and is still the most mountainous and pastoral region within Greece proper-(specifically, the Hellenic mainland. This is the region where Hades and The Elysian fields were located, as well as the homeland of Alexander The Great's Mother, Olympias).
For most of ancient history, the Dorians lived in relative obscurity throughout the mountainous valleys of Northwest Greece. However, by the 1100's BC/BCE-(about 100 years after The Trojan War, as well as 500 years after a prosperous Mycenaean civilization in the Peloponnese), the Dorians began to invade much of the Hellenic mainland and settled into the Peloponnese in big numbers until 800 BC/BCE, essentially destroying or supplanting the centuries old Mycenaean civilization.
The Dorian invasion of mainland Greece is often (somewhat disparagingly and sarcastically) referred to as, "The Greek Dark Ages" and from the Mycenaean perspective,it would have appeared to have been an ensuing Dark Age. Comparatively speaking, the Dorians, were culturally unsophisticated and primitive, though they were known, perhaps even notorious for their warlike temperament.
Were the Dorians ethnically related to the Mycenaeans? Yes, in all likelihood, the Dorians were Hellenic compatriots, though the Mycenaeans would probably have viewed the Dorians as having been barely Hellenic or semi-Hellenic at best. Keep in mind that the Dorians came from a region of Greece that literally neighbors the larger region of Illyria-(which, at the time, was comprised of the majority of present-day Albania, the nearby region of Kosovo and much of the Yugoslav interior) to its North. The Dorians, though of Greek ethno-linguistic extraction, may have had Illyrian linguistic and cultural influences which would have appeared to have been somewhat foreign to the more culturally refined and cosmopolitan Mycenaeans. |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | There is much we can only guess at when it comes to when and how the Dorians first appeared in the Peloponnese. Most historians accept that the Dorians moved into southern Greece during the early part of a period known as the Greek Dark Ages (c1100 or 1050 BC to c800 BC), but it has been argued (by Chadwick in 1976, then Hooker in 1977) that the Dorians were in southern Greece before 1200 BC, or may even have been there all the time, and that it was they who overthrew the Mycenaeans (as opposed to the Dorians moving into territory 'vacated' after the fall of Mycenae). Paul Cartledge, currently considered the leading authority on Sparta, is one of the many historians who do not subscribe to these theories. He argues that, after the destruction of the principal Mycenaean centres around 1200 BC,
>
> the civilization of which they had been the focus melted away....Some
> of the previous inhabitants remained in place, though scattered and
> diminished, but they seem to have been eventually dominated by a group
> or groups of incomers from further to the north and northwest, people
> who came to call themselves Dorians...
>
>
>
Also, note Tom Holland in 'Persian Fire':
>
> Gradually, the void left by the collapse of Menelaus' Kingdom *[i.e.
> Mycenae]* had been filled by newcomers from the north, wandering
> tribes who would be known much later as the Dorians, in proud
> contra-distinction to the vanquished native Greeks.
>
>
>
Assuming the Dorians did come south, where did they come from? The consensus seems to be from the mountainous areas of northern Greece. Tom Holland writes:
>
> The Spartans, despite their attempts to present themselves as the
> heirs of Menelaus, were Dorians after all. The mountainous country
> north of the Isthmus *[of Corinth]* was their ancestral homeland.
>
>
>
From encyclopedia.com:
>
> Originating in the northwestern mountainous region of Epirus and SW
> Macedonia, they migrated through central Greece and into the
> Peloponnesus probably between 1100 and 950 BC
>
>
>
The fact that large parts of the Peloponnese were very fertile explains why they came. Whether it was a gradual migration or an invasion remains a topic of some debate.
As we don't know what caused the collapse of Mycenaean civilization and as there are no written records between the time of this collapse and the emergence of the Greek city states around 800 BC, it is impossible to be certain of the relationship / interaction between Mycenaeans and Dorians. However, this did not stop Sparta and other city states from adopting heroes from the Mycenaean age and claiming them as their own (but this should be seen for what it was - propaganda).
With specific reference to Sparta, W.G. Forrest concludes:
>
> Mycenaean Lakedaimon vanished around 1200, Dorian Sparta was created
> somewhere in the tenth century.....Of what happened in between we have
> no knowledge.
>
>
>
I have not seen any evidence of a relationship between the Minoans and the Dorians (perhaps someone else can throw more light on this).
You might want to check the following for further information:
W.G.Forrest,
'A History of Sparta 950-192 BC'
Paul Cartledge, 'The Spartans'
Paul Cartledge, 'Sparta and Lakonia' (2nd ed.) *Presents and assesses various hypotheses which relate to the Dorians in southern Greece.*
A. Andrews, 'The Greek Tyrants' | The Dorians, were a primitive Greek tribe who originally came from the Northwest of Greece-(the region called, "Epirus"). This was and is still the most mountainous and pastoral region within Greece proper-(specifically, the Hellenic mainland. This is the region where Hades and The Elysian fields were located, as well as the homeland of Alexander The Great's Mother, Olympias).
For most of ancient history, the Dorians lived in relative obscurity throughout the mountainous valleys of Northwest Greece. However, by the 1100's BC/BCE-(about 100 years after The Trojan War, as well as 500 years after a prosperous Mycenaean civilization in the Peloponnese), the Dorians began to invade much of the Hellenic mainland and settled into the Peloponnese in big numbers until 800 BC/BCE, essentially destroying or supplanting the centuries old Mycenaean civilization.
The Dorian invasion of mainland Greece is often (somewhat disparagingly and sarcastically) referred to as, "The Greek Dark Ages" and from the Mycenaean perspective,it would have appeared to have been an ensuing Dark Age. Comparatively speaking, the Dorians, were culturally unsophisticated and primitive, though they were known, perhaps even notorious for their warlike temperament.
Were the Dorians ethnically related to the Mycenaeans? Yes, in all likelihood, the Dorians were Hellenic compatriots, though the Mycenaeans would probably have viewed the Dorians as having been barely Hellenic or semi-Hellenic at best. Keep in mind that the Dorians came from a region of Greece that literally neighbors the larger region of Illyria-(which, at the time, was comprised of the majority of present-day Albania, the nearby region of Kosovo and much of the Yugoslav interior) to its North. The Dorians, though of Greek ethno-linguistic extraction, may have had Illyrian linguistic and cultural influences which would have appeared to have been somewhat foreign to the more culturally refined and cosmopolitan Mycenaeans. |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | In the context of Mycenaean palace societies and their collapse, i.e. *Late Bronze Age, c. 1200 BCE,* I believe a very *good recent source* is:
* **Eric H. Cline's "*[1177 B.C.: The Year Civilization Collapsed](http://press.princeton.edu/titles/10185.html)*", Princeton, 2014**
In Chapter 5, Cline writes (emphasis mine):
>
> Rather than the Sea Peoples, the ancient Greeks—ranging from historians like Herodotus and Thucydides in fifth-century BC Athens to the much-later traveler Pausanias—***believed that a group known as the Dorians had invaded from the north at the end of the Bronze Age, thereby initiating the Iron Age*.** f.n.45 This concept was once much discussed by archaeologists and ancient historians of the Bronze Age Aegean; among their considerations was a new type of pottery called “Handmade Burnished Ware” or “Barbarian Ware.” However, ***in recent decades it has become clear that there was no such invasion from the north at this time and no reason to accept the idea of a “Dorian Invasion”*** bringing the Mycenaean civilization to an end. Despite the traditions of the later classical Greeks, ***it is clear that the Dorians had nothing to do with the collapse*** at the end of the Late Bronze Age and entered Greece only long after those events had transpired.
>
>
>
So, according to Cline, **the Dorians had no role in the collapse of Late Mycenaean society**.
That **f.n. 45** refers to *Middleton, G. D. 2010. The Collapse of Palatial Society in LBA Greece and the Postpalatial Period. BAR International Series 2110. Oxford: Archaeopress*.
I don't have this, so I got the next best thing, his Ph.D thesis:
* **Middleton, Guy Daniel (2008) *[The collapse of palatial society in LBA Greece and the postpalatial period](http://etheses.dur.ac.uk/2900/)*, Durham theses, Durham University**
Starting at p. 138, under ***The Dorian hypothesis***, Middleton walks through 3 different theories of origin:
* "*the Dorians entered the Peloponnese and Crete from the mountains of
Thessaly in a fairly peaceful fashion*" (p.138)
* "*they were from Epirus .. This Epirote origin theory may relate to the speculation that the Dorians were a pastoral people, and that this way of life was preserved in north-western Greece, which would arguably render the Dorians archaeologically invisible*." (p.139)
* "*the Dorians were in fact a submerged class already present in Mycenaean Greece who revolted against their Mycenaean masters, but this has not been widely supported and does not seem to be indicated by the archaeological or linguistic evidence*." (p. 151)
Middleton's conclusion is (p.152):
>
> **The Dorian identity may have only been formed much later than c.1200** and none of the significant Dorian centres were prominent in postpalatial times. The mixed origins of what became Dorian populations also seems indicated by one of the three standard tribal names, Pamphyloi, or 'people of all tribes' although in some Dorian areas some or all of these standard names were not present (e.g. Corinth) and in others extra tribal names appear.
>
>
>
**CONCLUSION**
In other words, it was an *[origin myth](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origin_myth)* - the **Dorians were created after the collapse**. By the way, Cline does not bring up the Dorians again (i.e. after dismissing their role in the collapse - *as per quote above*). | According to my research, the Dorians who invaded Greece in the twelfth century BC originated from Northern Europe. Some of them inhabited the island Rügen in present-day Germany. This island was densely populated in the Bronze Age. In the beginning of the 1800s (AD), you could still see 1239 tumuli from the Early Bronze Age there (NBA terminology). The present name Rügen is due to the people who inhabited the island after the Dorians and other tribes had left. One reason for leaving southwards for people in Northern Europe could be an Icelandic volcanic eruption 1190 BC (cfr GISP2 data from the Greenland ice). According to the Odyssey (19:177) the Dorians and some other tribes inhabited Crete, which was probably the ancient name of Rügen. They later invaded the island we now call Crete (in addition to other areas) and brought the name with them (as Englishmen brought with them their names to the US, e.g. «New England»). As far as I know, the name Crete (Κρητη) has not been found in any writings prior to the Dorian invasion; the Egyptians called the island «Keftiu». The migration was chaotic and took a long time. My hypothesis needs to be verified by new techniques such as aDNA and/or strontium isotope analysis.
Reference to the number of Early Bronze Age tumuli at Rügen: "A[rchäologische Entdeckungen in Mecklenburg-Vorpommern, page 69: Article by Lars Saalow and Jens-Peter Schmidt. Schwerin, 2009. ISBN 9783935770248."](http://www.kulturwerte-mv.de/Landesarchaeologie/Service/Publikationen/?id=6826&processor=veroeff)
My hypothesis, that Rügen is «Kreta» in the Homeric epics, builds on the Ship catalogue (Iliad 2:484-760), describing 180 sites where the 1058-ship Danaan fleet originated. I have identified most of these sites along the shores of the Baltic Sea. In particular, I strongly believe, from the overall picture and details in the Iliad's description, that the 80 ships of Idomenes (Iliad 2:645-52) were supplied from the island Rügen. A possible connection between the name «Kreta» and Rügen is «Karenza», the old name of the historic city and religious centre Garz on Rügen, with its famous «Burgwall» (ancient city wall) (ref J.W. Barthold, «Geschichte von Rügen und Pommern», Hamburg, 1839) [2]. There are evident similarities between «Karenza» and «Kreta». (According to my theory, the war to capture the city of Ilion in Troía did not take place in the Mediterranean but close to the hamlet Weltzin in the Tollense valley [3] in Germany.)
[2] <https://books.google.no/books?id=BdkAAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA558&lpg=PA558&dq=karenza+r%C3%BCgen&source=bl&ots=YFhvu2w4IY&sig=mru1X_-P_bUx7xr6uwmIk8wUiQc&hl=no&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwifz-7b__7eAhWL1ywKHcGTCSAQ6AEwAXoECAUQAQ#v=onepage&q=karenza%20r%C3%BCgen&f=false>
[3] <https://www.semdoc.de/regionalliteratur-neubrandenburg_7/tod-im-tollensetal_1583726.htm> |
39,850 | I'm studying Greek History and reading about the end of the Bronze Age. And after reading about the Dorians several times now, I'm confused about where the Dorians actually came from, the closest I can find is Wikipedia saying they were from Northern Greece. But if they were from there why would they come southward to the Greek Peninsula? Also, if they came from Northern Greece, were they of the same lineage as the Minoans and Mycenaeans? Or were they a completely separate ethnic group? | 2017/08/26 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/39850",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/16379/"
] | In the context of Mycenaean palace societies and their collapse, i.e. *Late Bronze Age, c. 1200 BCE,* I believe a very *good recent source* is:
* **Eric H. Cline's "*[1177 B.C.: The Year Civilization Collapsed](http://press.princeton.edu/titles/10185.html)*", Princeton, 2014**
In Chapter 5, Cline writes (emphasis mine):
>
> Rather than the Sea Peoples, the ancient Greeks—ranging from historians like Herodotus and Thucydides in fifth-century BC Athens to the much-later traveler Pausanias—***believed that a group known as the Dorians had invaded from the north at the end of the Bronze Age, thereby initiating the Iron Age*.** f.n.45 This concept was once much discussed by archaeologists and ancient historians of the Bronze Age Aegean; among their considerations was a new type of pottery called “Handmade Burnished Ware” or “Barbarian Ware.” However, ***in recent decades it has become clear that there was no such invasion from the north at this time and no reason to accept the idea of a “Dorian Invasion”*** bringing the Mycenaean civilization to an end. Despite the traditions of the later classical Greeks, ***it is clear that the Dorians had nothing to do with the collapse*** at the end of the Late Bronze Age and entered Greece only long after those events had transpired.
>
>
>
So, according to Cline, **the Dorians had no role in the collapse of Late Mycenaean society**.
That **f.n. 45** refers to *Middleton, G. D. 2010. The Collapse of Palatial Society in LBA Greece and the Postpalatial Period. BAR International Series 2110. Oxford: Archaeopress*.
I don't have this, so I got the next best thing, his Ph.D thesis:
* **Middleton, Guy Daniel (2008) *[The collapse of palatial society in LBA Greece and the postpalatial period](http://etheses.dur.ac.uk/2900/)*, Durham theses, Durham University**
Starting at p. 138, under ***The Dorian hypothesis***, Middleton walks through 3 different theories of origin:
* "*the Dorians entered the Peloponnese and Crete from the mountains of
Thessaly in a fairly peaceful fashion*" (p.138)
* "*they were from Epirus .. This Epirote origin theory may relate to the speculation that the Dorians were a pastoral people, and that this way of life was preserved in north-western Greece, which would arguably render the Dorians archaeologically invisible*." (p.139)
* "*the Dorians were in fact a submerged class already present in Mycenaean Greece who revolted against their Mycenaean masters, but this has not been widely supported and does not seem to be indicated by the archaeological or linguistic evidence*." (p. 151)
Middleton's conclusion is (p.152):
>
> **The Dorian identity may have only been formed much later than c.1200** and none of the significant Dorian centres were prominent in postpalatial times. The mixed origins of what became Dorian populations also seems indicated by one of the three standard tribal names, Pamphyloi, or 'people of all tribes' although in some Dorian areas some or all of these standard names were not present (e.g. Corinth) and in others extra tribal names appear.
>
>
>
**CONCLUSION**
In other words, it was an *[origin myth](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origin_myth)* - the **Dorians were created after the collapse**. By the way, Cline does not bring up the Dorians again (i.e. after dismissing their role in the collapse - *as per quote above*). | What I see here,because of ignorance or bad intentions, nobody says that in highlands of northwestern Greece,they were the illyrian tribes, warlike people called the barbarians ,from where came heroes of anticity, like Achilles, the ancestor of Olympia,Alexander the Greta's mother.Can somebody explain me,what the names Illyrian, Doris,Aegimius, Hyllius Achilles and Helios mean in Greek language. Those names are still used in today's Albania in the form of human names,like Doris,Agim, Ilir ,Ylli,Arqilea, And Diell, who respectively mean Dora-hand,Agim-dawn,Ylli-star,Diell- sun,kind of pagan-barbarian names,and there is not a chance Albanians still nowadays are called half believers. Go check dorian tribe of Sfakia,tall,blueeyed warlike people.Kalash people of Pakistan,left behind from Alexander the Great or the mountain people in Albanian Alps and in Pindi and Suli mountains.They fit the profile.This is History, not alternative history, |
13,520 | Does anybody know any plugin for Joomla 3.x to switch between languages(ex. tabs) while editing content? You need to create pages with different languages and after that create dependencies between them by default. It takes too much time. | 2015/09/08 | [
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com/questions/13520",
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com",
"https://joomla.stackexchange.com/users/6883/"
] | Have you tried FaLang?
FaLang is a (free) component for Joomla (2.x and 3.x) and is built on the base of JoomFish (which doesn't have any development anymore on J3.x).
With FaLang you are able to translate the content, categories, menu-items of Joomla without the need to duplicate the contents.
Even for some components as HikaShop, K2, jDownload and many others they made it possible to translate it.
It works like this: You create an article in your base language. If you have a paid version of FaLang, you can edit the content right after saving in the same view. Otherwise, you'll need to go to the FaLang component where you can edit the other languages.
For more details about FaLang: <http://extensions.joomla.org/extensions/extension/languages/multi-lingual-content/falang>
If you want a video about the plugin and how it exactly works: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yT8PkNKoTeE>
In this video they use J2.x, but it is roughly the same as in 3.x. | This was not possible. Each article has a differente ID and differente settings. You need chose how language this article ID will be displayed.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DSoXQ.jpg) |
8,129,178 | So here's the thing .. I've been working on my webpage for some time now. I have a .htaccess in the root folder that contains only a few rows of rewriting rules and nothing else. It works fine on localhost but when I upload it to my host it just throws 404 error (my host is 000webhost.com). I tried eliminating every rule one by one to see where the error is, but nothing happened, I even deleted the contents of the .htaccess file and still it gives a 404 error. The only solution that worked (so far) was deleting the .htaccess file and only then the homepage appears. Any suggestions? | 2011/11/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8129178",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1046482/"
] | I just found out that my host doesn't support UTF8 encoding (i guess?) in .htaccess file so i changed the encoding to ANSI and it did the trick. | Have you tried the suggestion on your web host's site:
<http://www.000webhost.com/faq.php?ID=16>
they are suggesting you put this at the top of your .htaccess
RewriteBase / |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Visual C++ 2008. The [Express Edition](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/) is even free.
Preemptive answers: yes, it can compile C code as well as C++ code, and it can compile native code as well as managed .NET code.
---
Update: see [matthew's answer](https://superuser.com/questions/24339/vista-c-compiler/24368#24368) for instructions on how to configure VC++ to compile pure C code. | [Visual C++](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/) with it set to compile to [pure, unadulterated C.](http://cplus.about.com/od/learningc/qt/compilingc.htm) |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Visual C++ 2008. The [Express Edition](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/) is even free.
Preemptive answers: yes, it can compile C code as well as C++ code, and it can compile native code as well as managed .NET code.
---
Update: see [matthew's answer](https://superuser.com/questions/24339/vista-c-compiler/24368#24368) for instructions on how to configure VC++ to compile pure C code. | The free command line Borland C++ 5.5 is good. |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | [code blocks](http://www.codeblocks.org)
or
[Visual Studio](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/)
or
[netbeans + add-on for C/C++ Complier](http://www.netbeans.org/community/magazine/html/03/c++/) | The free command line Borland C++ 5.5 is good. |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Mingw works. ( <http://www.mingw.org/> ) Mingw is a port of GNUCC to Windows.
You can also use Code::Blocks IDE which comes with MinGW.
TinyC Compiler is another compiler, but i prefer MinGW myself. :) | [Visual C++](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/) with it set to compile to [pure, unadulterated C.](http://cplus.about.com/od/learningc/qt/compilingc.htm) |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Mingw works. ( <http://www.mingw.org/> ) Mingw is a port of GNUCC to Windows.
You can also use Code::Blocks IDE which comes with MinGW.
TinyC Compiler is another compiler, but i prefer MinGW myself. :) | If you're willing to dive into the command line (and as a programmer, you should expect to eventually), the Gnu Compiler Collection is a great choice. Its been around since pretty much forever (1980s in real-life terms) and it or its offshoots can compile most anything (Ada, anyone?) and target most anything (TIGCC if you want to write for your TI graphing calculator).
If the command line is still too scary, there are a few front ends to make things easier.
GCC, however, isn't a full on development environment. You'll have to use a separate text editor, of which there are many good ones on Vista (I'm partial to Vim for Windows, Emacs, and Notepad++, all of which support syntax highlighting and auto-indentation). |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | [code blocks](http://www.codeblocks.org)
or
[Visual Studio](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/)
or
[netbeans + add-on for C/C++ Complier](http://www.netbeans.org/community/magazine/html/03/c++/) | If you're willing to dive into the command line (and as a programmer, you should expect to eventually), the Gnu Compiler Collection is a great choice. Its been around since pretty much forever (1980s in real-life terms) and it or its offshoots can compile most anything (Ada, anyone?) and target most anything (TIGCC if you want to write for your TI graphing calculator).
If the command line is still too scary, there are a few front ends to make things easier.
GCC, however, isn't a full on development environment. You'll have to use a separate text editor, of which there are many good ones on Vista (I'm partial to Vim for Windows, Emacs, and Notepad++, all of which support syntax highlighting and auto-indentation). |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Mingw works. ( <http://www.mingw.org/> ) Mingw is a port of GNUCC to Windows.
You can also use Code::Blocks IDE which comes with MinGW.
TinyC Compiler is another compiler, but i prefer MinGW myself. :) | [code blocks](http://www.codeblocks.org)
or
[Visual Studio](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/)
or
[netbeans + add-on for C/C++ Complier](http://www.netbeans.org/community/magazine/html/03/c++/) |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Mingw works. ( <http://www.mingw.org/> ) Mingw is a port of GNUCC to Windows.
You can also use Code::Blocks IDE which comes with MinGW.
TinyC Compiler is another compiler, but i prefer MinGW myself. :) | The free command line Borland C++ 5.5 is good. |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | Visual C++ 2008. The [Express Edition](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/) is even free.
Preemptive answers: yes, it can compile C code as well as C++ code, and it can compile native code as well as managed .NET code.
---
Update: see [matthew's answer](https://superuser.com/questions/24339/vista-c-compiler/24368#24368) for instructions on how to configure VC++ to compile pure C code. | [code blocks](http://www.codeblocks.org)
or
[Visual Studio](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/)
or
[netbeans + add-on for C/C++ Complier](http://www.netbeans.org/community/magazine/html/03/c++/) |
24,339 | What is a good C compiler for Windows Vista? | 2009/08/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/24339",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5770/"
] | [code blocks](http://www.codeblocks.org)
or
[Visual Studio](http://www.microsoft.com/express/vc/)
or
[netbeans + add-on for C/C++ Complier](http://www.netbeans.org/community/magazine/html/03/c++/) | dev C++ is a good and lightweight compiler for any version of windows. <http://www.bloodshed.net/devcpp.html> |
30,673,568 | I'm managing a team that works in many Git repositories in TFS. We are having a difficult time keeping track of pull requests in TFS. I was hoping to query all repos' pull requests so i could see the status of each. Is there a way to do this within TFS or VS? If not, is there a way to do this with other Git tools? | 2015/06/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30673568",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/258982/"
] | I needed to get all pull requests from our project across 275-ish repo's. So, I made a little app! [Here's the link to my code on GitHub.](https://github.com/sierpinski/Blitz) It's yours! Hope you find it useful! | No. And no.
But you could write a program that query [the TFS rest api for pull requests](https://www.visualstudio.com/integrate/api/git/pull-requests) to list them.
You will have to query all the existing projects and for each project, the pull requests and display that.
Ps: using the json newtonsoft library could help you a lot to do that... |
57,730 | I'm at a library, and all of the computers are Windows based. I'm sshing into my Ubuntu box somewhere else. The terms of service says "You may not make any changes to system files." However, when I ssh into my Ubuntu box, it might "look" like I'm hacking, since I've had a few people (including I presume the library supervisor) look at my computer funny when I opened a website where the text was a monospaced font and the website background was black. Running Command Prompt will certainly be considered to be hacking if looking at a website was.
If I'm sshing into my box it appears as though I'm "hacking" into the computer. I'd like to somehow do it in a web browser with nice happy looking text, so that it actually represents what I'm doing; I'm not going to hack into the computer, I'm only using a computer somewhere else. | 2011/08/18 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/57730",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/23272/"
] | I would like to recommend [GateOne](https://github.com/liftoff/GateOne), powerful and snappy. Author has Docker image as well for easy setup. | I recommend [Serfish Console](https://www.serfish.com/console/), as it uses ssh and requires no installation. You could also try Chrome Remote Desktop, as it works from any internet-connected computer, as long as you install the software on the computer you want to connect to. Chrome Remote Desktop also lets you use the desktop on the computer you are connecting to, and does not require port forwarding. If you just want basic SSH, then try Serfish Console. |
57,730 | I'm at a library, and all of the computers are Windows based. I'm sshing into my Ubuntu box somewhere else. The terms of service says "You may not make any changes to system files." However, when I ssh into my Ubuntu box, it might "look" like I'm hacking, since I've had a few people (including I presume the library supervisor) look at my computer funny when I opened a website where the text was a monospaced font and the website background was black. Running Command Prompt will certainly be considered to be hacking if looking at a website was.
If I'm sshing into my box it appears as though I'm "hacking" into the computer. I'd like to somehow do it in a web browser with nice happy looking text, so that it actually represents what I'm doing; I'm not going to hack into the computer, I'm only using a computer somewhere else. | 2011/08/18 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/57730",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/23272/"
] | What you'll probably want to do, is to install a HTML-based terminal emulator. There are several (many) to choose from. That will give you a text field in a webpage (such as the one I'm currently typing into) and that will run on your system.
This is a list of such applications, in no particular order. I have little or no experience with these:
* <http://anyterm.org/>
* <http://scott.yang.id.au/2006/04/ajaxterm-terminal-emulation/>
* <http://code.google.com/p/shellinabox/>
You can see live demos of the three at the bottom of this page: <http://anyterm.org/demos.html>
All of these will work in any browser. Probably even IE4 :) | Disclaimer: I'm the primary developer for Shellvault.
Another option is [Shellvault](https://www.shellvault.io), a web-based cloud SSH client that you don't have to download or set up yourself. It has terminal multiplexing, it looks nice by default, and since it's cloud-based, you can administer your servers from any computer without setting up SSH on a new machine.
[](https://www.shellvault.io)
Shellvault is a Software-as-a-Service, so it's not free, but it has free trial so you can see if you like using it. After the 7-day trial, a subscription costs $5/month. |
57,730 | I'm at a library, and all of the computers are Windows based. I'm sshing into my Ubuntu box somewhere else. The terms of service says "You may not make any changes to system files." However, when I ssh into my Ubuntu box, it might "look" like I'm hacking, since I've had a few people (including I presume the library supervisor) look at my computer funny when I opened a website where the text was a monospaced font and the website background was black. Running Command Prompt will certainly be considered to be hacking if looking at a website was.
If I'm sshing into my box it appears as though I'm "hacking" into the computer. I'd like to somehow do it in a web browser with nice happy looking text, so that it actually represents what I'm doing; I'm not going to hack into the computer, I'm only using a computer somewhere else. | 2011/08/18 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/57730",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/23272/"
] | Disclaimer: I'm the primary developer for Shellvault.
Another option is [Shellvault](https://www.shellvault.io), a web-based cloud SSH client that you don't have to download or set up yourself. It has terminal multiplexing, it looks nice by default, and since it's cloud-based, you can administer your servers from any computer without setting up SSH on a new machine.
[](https://www.shellvault.io)
Shellvault is a Software-as-a-Service, so it's not free, but it has free trial so you can see if you like using it. After the 7-day trial, a subscription costs $5/month. | You should try Bastillion - <https://www.bastillion.io> You can use multiple terminals simultaneously (like tmux). |
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