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5,871
My wife just bought me a used Electra Townie with aluminum frame and wheels. The previous owner claimed it had been serviced in the past year. Checking the bearings, I can tell it was a poor job of lubrication, probably done by the seller using who knows what for lube. What lube(s) are proper for the various bearings, etc on this bike?
2011/09/05
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/5871", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/2316/" ]
Cup and cone bearings on a bicycle need 'preload' for them to work properly under load. This is because the balls are tiny spheres of metal that deform under your weight. Hence the bearings must be tightened up slightly beyond feeling smooth when unloaded. Due to quality of parts, i.e. not perfect, a pre-loaded bearing feels 'rough' and requires effort to spin it. There are proper ways of applying the correct pre-load, e.g. with the use of a torque meter, however, 'feel' is a good way to do it. To understand that 'feel', go into a bike shop and try to turn the spindles on the new wheels that are for sale. With rare exceptions all of them will feel rough - this is preload. Now see how your own spindles/axles feel when you turn them without load, chances are that they feel pretty much the same. If you have rough bearings then you might think the grease is missing. Chances are that it is just the preload and not a grease problem at all. If you are going to dive in there anyway, do get a handle on the preload concept. As for your question on grease, a little grease goes a long way and you don't want it contaminated. The white lithium grease in a tube from your local bike shop will do fine. Yes you can buy posh coloured 'marine' grease but preload is what matters most with bearing setup.
You don't say wether this bike came equipped with an internally-geared hub. If you have an 8-speed IGH then you should get a tube of Shimano's white grease they make specifically for this hub. There's also a lubricating bath they sell that you would use to flush and lube the guts.
5,871
My wife just bought me a used Electra Townie with aluminum frame and wheels. The previous owner claimed it had been serviced in the past year. Checking the bearings, I can tell it was a poor job of lubrication, probably done by the seller using who knows what for lube. What lube(s) are proper for the various bearings, etc on this bike?
2011/09/05
[ "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/5871", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com", "https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/2316/" ]
Any standard bike bearing grease will be fine. There are several premium brands such as Phil Wood, but whatever the LBS has on their rack should be as good in 99% of the cases. More important is removing any traces of dirt, which generally means washing the bearing pieces in solvent. As stated, properly tightened bearings will feel ever so slightly "gritty" when you turn the axle by hand.
You don't say wether this bike came equipped with an internally-geared hub. If you have an 8-speed IGH then you should get a tube of Shimano's white grease they make specifically for this hub. There's also a lubricating bath they sell that you would use to flush and lube the guts.
577
Since I was a small child, my grandparents have given all of their grandchildren savings bonds on our birthdays. I'm not sure if it makes a difference, but they are always "EE" series. I had to use some of mine while I was in college (one of my scholarships didn't go through one year), but I have one left from 1993 and all of them from 2005 to present. It seems to me that bonds are very slow to grow and often have pitifully low interest rates. Can you think of any other form of investment that is as stable (or almost as stable) but gives better returns? I'd like to recommend a more fruitful investing form to my grandparents.
2009/12/21
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/577", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/143/" ]
I have several as well, (acquired the same way as you) and I am happy with the idea. They are very stable and that is the reason they pay so little. I don't think you can get a low risk and medium (or high) return. The interest does reset every six months so you do get a bit of the market, should the fed set interest rates higher, you bonds will eventually reflect that. Bonds and Certificates of Deposit are just one element of your investment portfolio. Put the money you can't lose into bonds, the money you can into higher risk stocks. Bonds are great from our grandparent's perspective because they are NOT going to lose value. (My grandparents were depression era folks who wanted that stability) They are trivial to give as gifts. Most other investment forms require a heavy bit more of legal work I would think.
You may be thinking about this the wrong way. The yield (Return) on your investment is effectively the market price paid to the investor for the amount of risk assumed for participating. Looking at the last few years, many including myself would have given their left arm for a so-called "meager return" instead of the devastation visited on our portfolios. In essence, higher return almost always (arguably always) comes at the cost of increased risk. You just have to decide your risk profile and investment goals. For example, which of the following scenarios would you prefer? **Investment Option A** Treasuries, CD's Worst Case: 1% gain Best Case 5% gain **Investment option B** Equities/Commodities Worst Case: 25% loss Best Case: 40% gain
577
Since I was a small child, my grandparents have given all of their grandchildren savings bonds on our birthdays. I'm not sure if it makes a difference, but they are always "EE" series. I had to use some of mine while I was in college (one of my scholarships didn't go through one year), but I have one left from 1993 and all of them from 2005 to present. It seems to me that bonds are very slow to grow and often have pitifully low interest rates. Can you think of any other form of investment that is as stable (or almost as stable) but gives better returns? I'd like to recommend a more fruitful investing form to my grandparents.
2009/12/21
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/577", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/143/" ]
I have several as well, (acquired the same way as you) and I am happy with the idea. They are very stable and that is the reason they pay so little. I don't think you can get a low risk and medium (or high) return. The interest does reset every six months so you do get a bit of the market, should the fed set interest rates higher, you bonds will eventually reflect that. Bonds and Certificates of Deposit are just one element of your investment portfolio. Put the money you can't lose into bonds, the money you can into higher risk stocks. Bonds are great from our grandparent's perspective because they are NOT going to lose value. (My grandparents were depression era folks who wanted that stability) They are trivial to give as gifts. Most other investment forms require a heavy bit more of legal work I would think.
EE bonds purchased today pay a fraction of a percent in interest annually. But, on the 20th anniversary of the purchase date, a one time interest payment is made such that the value of the bond will be twice the purchase price. That figures out to to an interest rate of more than 3.5%. This is a not bad interest rate. I bonds right now are even better.
577
Since I was a small child, my grandparents have given all of their grandchildren savings bonds on our birthdays. I'm not sure if it makes a difference, but they are always "EE" series. I had to use some of mine while I was in college (one of my scholarships didn't go through one year), but I have one left from 1993 and all of them from 2005 to present. It seems to me that bonds are very slow to grow and often have pitifully low interest rates. Can you think of any other form of investment that is as stable (or almost as stable) but gives better returns? I'd like to recommend a more fruitful investing form to my grandparents.
2009/12/21
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/577", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/143/" ]
You may be thinking about this the wrong way. The yield (Return) on your investment is effectively the market price paid to the investor for the amount of risk assumed for participating. Looking at the last few years, many including myself would have given their left arm for a so-called "meager return" instead of the devastation visited on our portfolios. In essence, higher return almost always (arguably always) comes at the cost of increased risk. You just have to decide your risk profile and investment goals. For example, which of the following scenarios would you prefer? **Investment Option A** Treasuries, CD's Worst Case: 1% gain Best Case 5% gain **Investment option B** Equities/Commodities Worst Case: 25% loss Best Case: 40% gain
EE bonds purchased today pay a fraction of a percent in interest annually. But, on the 20th anniversary of the purchase date, a one time interest payment is made such that the value of the bond will be twice the purchase price. That figures out to to an interest rate of more than 3.5%. This is a not bad interest rate. I bonds right now are even better.
1,859,634
I've been looking for a way to tell clients about expired objects and AppEngine's XMPP implementation seems really interesting because it's scalable, should be reliable and can contain up to 100kb of data. 1. But as I understand it, before a client can listen to messages, he should have a gmail account. That's very impractical. 2. Is there maybe a way to make temporary readonly XMPP accounts to use with this?
2009/12/07
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1859634", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/56495/" ]
1. No this isn't true: you can have the AppEngine robot as contact over any Jabber/XMPP based networks. Unless you are talking about the need for a GMAIL account to create an AppEngine robot... in which case YES you need to have a Google account.
In that situation, I would perform ajax calls every 5 minutes in example to check it. It's easy to implement and the data exchanged can be reduced to the max (taking advantage of "fast query/response" bonifications of google-app). Regards.
1,859,634
I've been looking for a way to tell clients about expired objects and AppEngine's XMPP implementation seems really interesting because it's scalable, should be reliable and can contain up to 100kb of data. 1. But as I understand it, before a client can listen to messages, he should have a gmail account. That's very impractical. 2. Is there maybe a way to make temporary readonly XMPP accounts to use with this?
2009/12/07
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1859634", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/56495/" ]
1. No this isn't true: you can have the AppEngine robot as contact over any Jabber/XMPP based networks. Unless you are talking about the need for a GMAIL account to create an AppEngine robot... in which case YES you need to have a Google account.
[jldupont](https://stackoverflow.com/users/171461/jldupont) has it right for the first point : any **JID** should work :) For the 2nd point, the only option is probably to set up your own server and allow anonymous access + temporary accounts.
18,162,190
How can I use two iPhone simulator at the same time? I need it for doing test as soon as two users uses my app. I need to do a test like if two users are using my app. Thanks in advance
2013/08/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18162190", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2546800/" ]
You cannot run two simulators at the same time, but you CAN run a simulator together with other devices. Reference: [Ray Wenderlich cardame tutorial](http://www.raywenderlich.com/12735/how-to-make-a-simple-playing-card-game-with-multiplayer-and-bluetooth-part-1)
There is not way to do this. Apple would have to build it that way and they didn't.
172,493
In an economics and accounting context, what is the difference between *goods* and *merchandise* ?
2014/05/23
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/172493", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/75254/" ]
This might help : Goods: Object material product of economic activity used to meet any business need. Things or rights likely to produce benefits and / or grant rights of economic character are goods. The merchandise is also a good, it’s just one that sells well. This leads us to conclude that any property or asset that a company has earmarked for sale are called merchandise. Reference : <http://vspages.com/goods-vs-merchandise-17391/>
There is a finely nuanced difference in the circumstances in which each is used. *Goods* are things which some individuals and businesses both buy and sell. *Merchandise* is something which is sold. One doesn't normally speak of the receipt of some merchandise, unless one is specifically referring to one particular supplier, as in 'We have had trouble with their merchandise before'.
9,042,973
We are developing an application that processes some codes and output large amount of rows each time (millions !). We want to save these rows in a database because the processing itself make take a couple of hours to complete. **1. What is the best way to save these records ?** **2. is a NoSql solution usable here ?** Assume that we are saving five million records per day, and may be retrieving from it once in a while.
2012/01/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9042973", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/865188/" ]
It depends very much on how you intend to use the data after it is generated. If you will only be looking it up by primary key then NoSQL will probably be fine, but if you ever want to search or sort the data (or join rows together) then an SQL database will probably work better. Basically, NoSQL is really good at stuffing opaque data into a store and retrieving any individual item very quickly. Relational databases are really good at indexing data that may be joined together or searched. Any modern SQL database will easily handle 5 million rows per day - disk space is more likely to be your bottleneck, depending on how big your rows are. I haven't done a lot with NoSQL, but I'd be surprised if 5 million items per day would cause a problem.
It depends on exactly what kind of data you want to store - could you elaborate on that? If the data is neatly structured into tables then you don't necessarily need a NoSQL approach. If, however, your data has a graph or network-like structure to it, then you should consider a NoSQL solution. If the latter is true for you, then maybe the following will be helpful to give you an overview of some of the NoSQL databases: <http://kkovacs.eu/cassandra-vs-mongodb-vs-couchdb-vs-redis>
10,095
I'm Egyptian and currently working in Austria under a work permit which is restricted for 4 months, the length of the contract. If they are happy with me, my employers will prolong it. I started 2 months ago, and have been doing good a type of electronic circuit design and embedded software. The direct manager was happy, and said to me "Wow! So fast!!" for some of my tasks, and other very good words. I had a meeting with the CEO last month. He asked me - how do you like the work ? I told him - it's good, I like the manager, the environment,..etc. Then he said - You have to push your self more, you are just working by 70-80% percentage. I was shocked, and upset by these words. He also added - I know that you have a lot of knowledge, I also asked the direct manager to give you lots of work packages!!! Currently the situation is worse - they don't invite me for meetings, I don't know if it is because of the language or not. The direct manager doesn't care about me, there is just about one month and a half and the contract will be ended, and we agreed they may renew or not, but they didn't talk with me at all, and I must get a renewal to renew my work permit. I don't know what to do, should I talk with them? I want to understand why they are treating me like this. How can I approach resolving this situation with my superiors? Update: I'm still waiting for the end of the contract and I'm very patient about them. Now the situation is more worse, today my line manager told me do whatever you like regarding tasks, he doesn't talk with me anymore regarding any task or about the project, he just talks with other engineers ;(. This is really unbearable and I hate that treatment.
2013/03/05
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/10095", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/8095/" ]
Something to consider here is how each person may have a different view of you and your work. The direct manager has his perspective and likely knows better what you are doing day in and day out while the CEO may have been trying to encourage you to do more though not necessarily in the best way. While you do have 6 weeks left on your work permit, have you considered what kind of deadline you want to have to know whether you'll be staying or not? While I'm not familiar with the culture in Austria, I do know that in North America to make a move from one country to another isn't that simple of a thing to do and thus I'd want to have a month's notice or more if I'm not going to be staying where I am which did happen when I worked in the US for a number of years though I am a Canadian citizen that was a temporary worker there. I'd suggest talking with the direct manager of how are things going and set up some time to know whether or not they are satisfied with your work enough to keep you for another 4 months or some other time period. Note what are the expectations and see what happens. There is the possibility that some of what you completed quickly could have been viewed by the CEO as being simple work that should be done that fast and so it isn't that impressive to him. Different people will see things differently. Ask the manager if there are meetings where it may be worth you coming to hear what is said as some meetings may be getting missed though I suspect the issue here is how well does the manager and CEO choose to motivate someone. Some people will give you a challenge as a way to get you to improve yourself and give 110% for a project. Others may use words of appreciation and affirmation to motivate a person and each can work depending on the circumstances. --- If they were really unhappy with what you've done, I suspect they would have had meetings to set performance targets and state that they aren't satisfied with your work. That doesn't seem to have happened. [The Four Agreements](http://stress.about.com/od/products/fr/fouragreementsf.htm) may be something to consider where here is the text of each agreement: > > 1. Be Impeccable With Your Word. > 2. Don't Take Anything Personally. > 3. Don't Make Assumptions. > 4. Always Do Your Best. > > > Just an idea for something to consider that may help you.
Mahmoud, relax my friend. Whatever happens, will happen for the best. If they will keep you, why worry, if they wont, why worry. If you worry this will hamper your current skills and may create real problems even if none exist now. So far, my gut says you are staying. Be prepared for the worst and hope for the best. If I were you (I am not from America, but I work here so I know how challenging all this can be), I would do these : 1. Make sure I know *exactly* how long it takes for the job permit to be extended ? 2. Start looking at the job market and see if there are other opportunities. 3. If things start getting worse, actively search for other employment. 4. If you have knowledge and are good at what you do, hopefully you shall not have too much problem 5. Forget about what CEO says, he may be least interested in your day to day activities. If your direct manager is friendly, you can strike up a casual conversation in a lighter mood and say 'hey did you know it takes 3 weeks to renew work permit in Austria ....'etc.. and cleverly put in 'I either have to pack my bags after 4 weeks or rush to arrange for the extension, would you suggest a way I can be prepared for either or'. I feel this will let the cat out of the bag at least somewhat. This is just me, and I would have definitely done this. Good luck
10,095
I'm Egyptian and currently working in Austria under a work permit which is restricted for 4 months, the length of the contract. If they are happy with me, my employers will prolong it. I started 2 months ago, and have been doing good a type of electronic circuit design and embedded software. The direct manager was happy, and said to me "Wow! So fast!!" for some of my tasks, and other very good words. I had a meeting with the CEO last month. He asked me - how do you like the work ? I told him - it's good, I like the manager, the environment,..etc. Then he said - You have to push your self more, you are just working by 70-80% percentage. I was shocked, and upset by these words. He also added - I know that you have a lot of knowledge, I also asked the direct manager to give you lots of work packages!!! Currently the situation is worse - they don't invite me for meetings, I don't know if it is because of the language or not. The direct manager doesn't care about me, there is just about one month and a half and the contract will be ended, and we agreed they may renew or not, but they didn't talk with me at all, and I must get a renewal to renew my work permit. I don't know what to do, should I talk with them? I want to understand why they are treating me like this. How can I approach resolving this situation with my superiors? Update: I'm still waiting for the end of the contract and I'm very patient about them. Now the situation is more worse, today my line manager told me do whatever you like regarding tasks, he doesn't talk with me anymore regarding any task or about the project, he just talks with other engineers ;(. This is really unbearable and I hate that treatment.
2013/03/05
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/10095", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/8095/" ]
Something to consider here is how each person may have a different view of you and your work. The direct manager has his perspective and likely knows better what you are doing day in and day out while the CEO may have been trying to encourage you to do more though not necessarily in the best way. While you do have 6 weeks left on your work permit, have you considered what kind of deadline you want to have to know whether you'll be staying or not? While I'm not familiar with the culture in Austria, I do know that in North America to make a move from one country to another isn't that simple of a thing to do and thus I'd want to have a month's notice or more if I'm not going to be staying where I am which did happen when I worked in the US for a number of years though I am a Canadian citizen that was a temporary worker there. I'd suggest talking with the direct manager of how are things going and set up some time to know whether or not they are satisfied with your work enough to keep you for another 4 months or some other time period. Note what are the expectations and see what happens. There is the possibility that some of what you completed quickly could have been viewed by the CEO as being simple work that should be done that fast and so it isn't that impressive to him. Different people will see things differently. Ask the manager if there are meetings where it may be worth you coming to hear what is said as some meetings may be getting missed though I suspect the issue here is how well does the manager and CEO choose to motivate someone. Some people will give you a challenge as a way to get you to improve yourself and give 110% for a project. Others may use words of appreciation and affirmation to motivate a person and each can work depending on the circumstances. --- If they were really unhappy with what you've done, I suspect they would have had meetings to set performance targets and state that they aren't satisfied with your work. That doesn't seem to have happened. [The Four Agreements](http://stress.about.com/od/products/fr/fouragreementsf.htm) may be something to consider where here is the text of each agreement: > > 1. Be Impeccable With Your Word. > 2. Don't Take Anything Personally. > 3. Don't Make Assumptions. > 4. Always Do Your Best. > > > Just an idea for something to consider that may help you.
Ask your direct manager about the feedback you got from the CEO. I don't know how they come up with a measurement of how much you designed or their ability to compare to someone else. Your direct manager may be able to explain. Sounds like they're applying production metrics to a creative process. Let them know you want to stay and get feedback on what you need to do to make that happen. I hope you're not in a situation where they don't have enough work or large enough budget to maintain your position. There are some extenuating circumstances regarding your legal status that they should take into consideration. They should be upfront if they have no intentions of renewing your contract, so you can try and find another job. Unlike full-time employees there are no legal ramifications for not renewing (Maybe this is different in Australia?). Failure to give you enough notice is unprofessional and cowardly.
10,095
I'm Egyptian and currently working in Austria under a work permit which is restricted for 4 months, the length of the contract. If they are happy with me, my employers will prolong it. I started 2 months ago, and have been doing good a type of electronic circuit design and embedded software. The direct manager was happy, and said to me "Wow! So fast!!" for some of my tasks, and other very good words. I had a meeting with the CEO last month. He asked me - how do you like the work ? I told him - it's good, I like the manager, the environment,..etc. Then he said - You have to push your self more, you are just working by 70-80% percentage. I was shocked, and upset by these words. He also added - I know that you have a lot of knowledge, I also asked the direct manager to give you lots of work packages!!! Currently the situation is worse - they don't invite me for meetings, I don't know if it is because of the language or not. The direct manager doesn't care about me, there is just about one month and a half and the contract will be ended, and we agreed they may renew or not, but they didn't talk with me at all, and I must get a renewal to renew my work permit. I don't know what to do, should I talk with them? I want to understand why they are treating me like this. How can I approach resolving this situation with my superiors? Update: I'm still waiting for the end of the contract and I'm very patient about them. Now the situation is more worse, today my line manager told me do whatever you like regarding tasks, he doesn't talk with me anymore regarding any task or about the project, he just talks with other engineers ;(. This is really unbearable and I hate that treatment.
2013/03/05
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/10095", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/8095/" ]
1) Check your contract ---------------------- Try to find what it says about: * Contract Renewal/Termination Notice (if they need to give notice before firing you or not renewing your contract) * Employer's Termination Rights (if they can fire you for not having a proper visa) * Any Obligations on Non-Renewal (see if they are obligated to pay for your plane fare home depending on how the contract ends, and if you have any additional obligations to the employer) Make sure that you have prepared for the worst-case scenarios: not having your visa renewed, and having your contract expire/be terminated. 2) Check Austrian Visa Requirements ----------------------------------- I am not familiar with Austrian visa requirements (and they differ by country, industry, etc. generally), but for many countries the visa is not actually tied to the employer. In other words, you need to have a sponsor to get the visa, but losing the job with the employer does not necessarily mean you lose the visa. I would confirm the Austrian regulations and/or call the immigration service in Austria to find out what the status of your visa is if your current contract gets terminated for whatever reason. The best-case scenario is that you learn you have 8 months left on the visa to find similar work in Austria, and can start looking 6 weeks early. The worst-case scenario is that it is tied to your employment and you should plan to leave in 6 weeks if required. Be sure to ask if there is a grace period after the employment ends to move out of the country. The last thing you want is the contract ending on a Friday, and having to leave the same day with all your stuff. 3) Talk to your Boss -------------------- Once you know what your legal requirements are in regards to employment and living/working in Austria, it's time to talk to your boss. Be positive! Explain the good things -- that you like working there, you want to keep working there, and that you enjoy the company and the country (assuming it's an Austrian company and an Austrian boss). Explain that your contract is ending in 6 weeks, and what you found out from 2) above about visa requirements and how challenging it will be if your contract doesn't get renewed. I would make a simple request: if you guys want to renew my contract, could I please have a signed copy of the renewal in 2 weeks? 4) Prepare for the Worst ------------------------ Unfortunately, because of stringent visa requirements for people from less developed countries to the EU/US/Japan especially, many employers will take full advantage of highly educated candidates by paying them less, working them harder, and then getting rid of them. I am not saying your employer is going to do that, but be prepared for the worst. Whenever working in a foreign country, it is most important for you to understand better than your employer about what your rights are in regards to employment and residency in that country, so that they lose some of their ability to take advantage of you. For instance, in Japan, many employers will tell their (foreign) employees that their work visa is tied to employment, and if they ever break the contract the employer can get them deported. This is not true, but it scares a lot of new people with no Japanese skill in to continuing with less-than-ideal working conditions because they feel they have no choice. Do not let an employer take advantage of you, and make sure you understand your situation well enough to feel comfortable even in the worst-case scenario. Moving to another country is stressful enough without having to worry about visa requirements. Good luck!
Something to consider here is how each person may have a different view of you and your work. The direct manager has his perspective and likely knows better what you are doing day in and day out while the CEO may have been trying to encourage you to do more though not necessarily in the best way. While you do have 6 weeks left on your work permit, have you considered what kind of deadline you want to have to know whether you'll be staying or not? While I'm not familiar with the culture in Austria, I do know that in North America to make a move from one country to another isn't that simple of a thing to do and thus I'd want to have a month's notice or more if I'm not going to be staying where I am which did happen when I worked in the US for a number of years though I am a Canadian citizen that was a temporary worker there. I'd suggest talking with the direct manager of how are things going and set up some time to know whether or not they are satisfied with your work enough to keep you for another 4 months or some other time period. Note what are the expectations and see what happens. There is the possibility that some of what you completed quickly could have been viewed by the CEO as being simple work that should be done that fast and so it isn't that impressive to him. Different people will see things differently. Ask the manager if there are meetings where it may be worth you coming to hear what is said as some meetings may be getting missed though I suspect the issue here is how well does the manager and CEO choose to motivate someone. Some people will give you a challenge as a way to get you to improve yourself and give 110% for a project. Others may use words of appreciation and affirmation to motivate a person and each can work depending on the circumstances. --- If they were really unhappy with what you've done, I suspect they would have had meetings to set performance targets and state that they aren't satisfied with your work. That doesn't seem to have happened. [The Four Agreements](http://stress.about.com/od/products/fr/fouragreementsf.htm) may be something to consider where here is the text of each agreement: > > 1. Be Impeccable With Your Word. > 2. Don't Take Anything Personally. > 3. Don't Make Assumptions. > 4. Always Do Your Best. > > > Just an idea for something to consider that may help you.
10,095
I'm Egyptian and currently working in Austria under a work permit which is restricted for 4 months, the length of the contract. If they are happy with me, my employers will prolong it. I started 2 months ago, and have been doing good a type of electronic circuit design and embedded software. The direct manager was happy, and said to me "Wow! So fast!!" for some of my tasks, and other very good words. I had a meeting with the CEO last month. He asked me - how do you like the work ? I told him - it's good, I like the manager, the environment,..etc. Then he said - You have to push your self more, you are just working by 70-80% percentage. I was shocked, and upset by these words. He also added - I know that you have a lot of knowledge, I also asked the direct manager to give you lots of work packages!!! Currently the situation is worse - they don't invite me for meetings, I don't know if it is because of the language or not. The direct manager doesn't care about me, there is just about one month and a half and the contract will be ended, and we agreed they may renew or not, but they didn't talk with me at all, and I must get a renewal to renew my work permit. I don't know what to do, should I talk with them? I want to understand why they are treating me like this. How can I approach resolving this situation with my superiors? Update: I'm still waiting for the end of the contract and I'm very patient about them. Now the situation is more worse, today my line manager told me do whatever you like regarding tasks, he doesn't talk with me anymore regarding any task or about the project, he just talks with other engineers ;(. This is really unbearable and I hate that treatment.
2013/03/05
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/10095", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/8095/" ]
Ask your direct manager about the feedback you got from the CEO. I don't know how they come up with a measurement of how much you designed or their ability to compare to someone else. Your direct manager may be able to explain. Sounds like they're applying production metrics to a creative process. Let them know you want to stay and get feedback on what you need to do to make that happen. I hope you're not in a situation where they don't have enough work or large enough budget to maintain your position. There are some extenuating circumstances regarding your legal status that they should take into consideration. They should be upfront if they have no intentions of renewing your contract, so you can try and find another job. Unlike full-time employees there are no legal ramifications for not renewing (Maybe this is different in Australia?). Failure to give you enough notice is unprofessional and cowardly.
Mahmoud, relax my friend. Whatever happens, will happen for the best. If they will keep you, why worry, if they wont, why worry. If you worry this will hamper your current skills and may create real problems even if none exist now. So far, my gut says you are staying. Be prepared for the worst and hope for the best. If I were you (I am not from America, but I work here so I know how challenging all this can be), I would do these : 1. Make sure I know *exactly* how long it takes for the job permit to be extended ? 2. Start looking at the job market and see if there are other opportunities. 3. If things start getting worse, actively search for other employment. 4. If you have knowledge and are good at what you do, hopefully you shall not have too much problem 5. Forget about what CEO says, he may be least interested in your day to day activities. If your direct manager is friendly, you can strike up a casual conversation in a lighter mood and say 'hey did you know it takes 3 weeks to renew work permit in Austria ....'etc.. and cleverly put in 'I either have to pack my bags after 4 weeks or rush to arrange for the extension, would you suggest a way I can be prepared for either or'. I feel this will let the cat out of the bag at least somewhat. This is just me, and I would have definitely done this. Good luck
10,095
I'm Egyptian and currently working in Austria under a work permit which is restricted for 4 months, the length of the contract. If they are happy with me, my employers will prolong it. I started 2 months ago, and have been doing good a type of electronic circuit design and embedded software. The direct manager was happy, and said to me "Wow! So fast!!" for some of my tasks, and other very good words. I had a meeting with the CEO last month. He asked me - how do you like the work ? I told him - it's good, I like the manager, the environment,..etc. Then he said - You have to push your self more, you are just working by 70-80% percentage. I was shocked, and upset by these words. He also added - I know that you have a lot of knowledge, I also asked the direct manager to give you lots of work packages!!! Currently the situation is worse - they don't invite me for meetings, I don't know if it is because of the language or not. The direct manager doesn't care about me, there is just about one month and a half and the contract will be ended, and we agreed they may renew or not, but they didn't talk with me at all, and I must get a renewal to renew my work permit. I don't know what to do, should I talk with them? I want to understand why they are treating me like this. How can I approach resolving this situation with my superiors? Update: I'm still waiting for the end of the contract and I'm very patient about them. Now the situation is more worse, today my line manager told me do whatever you like regarding tasks, he doesn't talk with me anymore regarding any task or about the project, he just talks with other engineers ;(. This is really unbearable and I hate that treatment.
2013/03/05
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/10095", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/8095/" ]
1) Check your contract ---------------------- Try to find what it says about: * Contract Renewal/Termination Notice (if they need to give notice before firing you or not renewing your contract) * Employer's Termination Rights (if they can fire you for not having a proper visa) * Any Obligations on Non-Renewal (see if they are obligated to pay for your plane fare home depending on how the contract ends, and if you have any additional obligations to the employer) Make sure that you have prepared for the worst-case scenarios: not having your visa renewed, and having your contract expire/be terminated. 2) Check Austrian Visa Requirements ----------------------------------- I am not familiar with Austrian visa requirements (and they differ by country, industry, etc. generally), but for many countries the visa is not actually tied to the employer. In other words, you need to have a sponsor to get the visa, but losing the job with the employer does not necessarily mean you lose the visa. I would confirm the Austrian regulations and/or call the immigration service in Austria to find out what the status of your visa is if your current contract gets terminated for whatever reason. The best-case scenario is that you learn you have 8 months left on the visa to find similar work in Austria, and can start looking 6 weeks early. The worst-case scenario is that it is tied to your employment and you should plan to leave in 6 weeks if required. Be sure to ask if there is a grace period after the employment ends to move out of the country. The last thing you want is the contract ending on a Friday, and having to leave the same day with all your stuff. 3) Talk to your Boss -------------------- Once you know what your legal requirements are in regards to employment and living/working in Austria, it's time to talk to your boss. Be positive! Explain the good things -- that you like working there, you want to keep working there, and that you enjoy the company and the country (assuming it's an Austrian company and an Austrian boss). Explain that your contract is ending in 6 weeks, and what you found out from 2) above about visa requirements and how challenging it will be if your contract doesn't get renewed. I would make a simple request: if you guys want to renew my contract, could I please have a signed copy of the renewal in 2 weeks? 4) Prepare for the Worst ------------------------ Unfortunately, because of stringent visa requirements for people from less developed countries to the EU/US/Japan especially, many employers will take full advantage of highly educated candidates by paying them less, working them harder, and then getting rid of them. I am not saying your employer is going to do that, but be prepared for the worst. Whenever working in a foreign country, it is most important for you to understand better than your employer about what your rights are in regards to employment and residency in that country, so that they lose some of their ability to take advantage of you. For instance, in Japan, many employers will tell their (foreign) employees that their work visa is tied to employment, and if they ever break the contract the employer can get them deported. This is not true, but it scares a lot of new people with no Japanese skill in to continuing with less-than-ideal working conditions because they feel they have no choice. Do not let an employer take advantage of you, and make sure you understand your situation well enough to feel comfortable even in the worst-case scenario. Moving to another country is stressful enough without having to worry about visa requirements. Good luck!
Mahmoud, relax my friend. Whatever happens, will happen for the best. If they will keep you, why worry, if they wont, why worry. If you worry this will hamper your current skills and may create real problems even if none exist now. So far, my gut says you are staying. Be prepared for the worst and hope for the best. If I were you (I am not from America, but I work here so I know how challenging all this can be), I would do these : 1. Make sure I know *exactly* how long it takes for the job permit to be extended ? 2. Start looking at the job market and see if there are other opportunities. 3. If things start getting worse, actively search for other employment. 4. If you have knowledge and are good at what you do, hopefully you shall not have too much problem 5. Forget about what CEO says, he may be least interested in your day to day activities. If your direct manager is friendly, you can strike up a casual conversation in a lighter mood and say 'hey did you know it takes 3 weeks to renew work permit in Austria ....'etc.. and cleverly put in 'I either have to pack my bags after 4 weeks or rush to arrange for the extension, would you suggest a way I can be prepared for either or'. I feel this will let the cat out of the bag at least somewhat. This is just me, and I would have definitely done this. Good luck
10,095
I'm Egyptian and currently working in Austria under a work permit which is restricted for 4 months, the length of the contract. If they are happy with me, my employers will prolong it. I started 2 months ago, and have been doing good a type of electronic circuit design and embedded software. The direct manager was happy, and said to me "Wow! So fast!!" for some of my tasks, and other very good words. I had a meeting with the CEO last month. He asked me - how do you like the work ? I told him - it's good, I like the manager, the environment,..etc. Then he said - You have to push your self more, you are just working by 70-80% percentage. I was shocked, and upset by these words. He also added - I know that you have a lot of knowledge, I also asked the direct manager to give you lots of work packages!!! Currently the situation is worse - they don't invite me for meetings, I don't know if it is because of the language or not. The direct manager doesn't care about me, there is just about one month and a half and the contract will be ended, and we agreed they may renew or not, but they didn't talk with me at all, and I must get a renewal to renew my work permit. I don't know what to do, should I talk with them? I want to understand why they are treating me like this. How can I approach resolving this situation with my superiors? Update: I'm still waiting for the end of the contract and I'm very patient about them. Now the situation is more worse, today my line manager told me do whatever you like regarding tasks, he doesn't talk with me anymore regarding any task or about the project, he just talks with other engineers ;(. This is really unbearable and I hate that treatment.
2013/03/05
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/10095", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/8095/" ]
1) Check your contract ---------------------- Try to find what it says about: * Contract Renewal/Termination Notice (if they need to give notice before firing you or not renewing your contract) * Employer's Termination Rights (if they can fire you for not having a proper visa) * Any Obligations on Non-Renewal (see if they are obligated to pay for your plane fare home depending on how the contract ends, and if you have any additional obligations to the employer) Make sure that you have prepared for the worst-case scenarios: not having your visa renewed, and having your contract expire/be terminated. 2) Check Austrian Visa Requirements ----------------------------------- I am not familiar with Austrian visa requirements (and they differ by country, industry, etc. generally), but for many countries the visa is not actually tied to the employer. In other words, you need to have a sponsor to get the visa, but losing the job with the employer does not necessarily mean you lose the visa. I would confirm the Austrian regulations and/or call the immigration service in Austria to find out what the status of your visa is if your current contract gets terminated for whatever reason. The best-case scenario is that you learn you have 8 months left on the visa to find similar work in Austria, and can start looking 6 weeks early. The worst-case scenario is that it is tied to your employment and you should plan to leave in 6 weeks if required. Be sure to ask if there is a grace period after the employment ends to move out of the country. The last thing you want is the contract ending on a Friday, and having to leave the same day with all your stuff. 3) Talk to your Boss -------------------- Once you know what your legal requirements are in regards to employment and living/working in Austria, it's time to talk to your boss. Be positive! Explain the good things -- that you like working there, you want to keep working there, and that you enjoy the company and the country (assuming it's an Austrian company and an Austrian boss). Explain that your contract is ending in 6 weeks, and what you found out from 2) above about visa requirements and how challenging it will be if your contract doesn't get renewed. I would make a simple request: if you guys want to renew my contract, could I please have a signed copy of the renewal in 2 weeks? 4) Prepare for the Worst ------------------------ Unfortunately, because of stringent visa requirements for people from less developed countries to the EU/US/Japan especially, many employers will take full advantage of highly educated candidates by paying them less, working them harder, and then getting rid of them. I am not saying your employer is going to do that, but be prepared for the worst. Whenever working in a foreign country, it is most important for you to understand better than your employer about what your rights are in regards to employment and residency in that country, so that they lose some of their ability to take advantage of you. For instance, in Japan, many employers will tell their (foreign) employees that their work visa is tied to employment, and if they ever break the contract the employer can get them deported. This is not true, but it scares a lot of new people with no Japanese skill in to continuing with less-than-ideal working conditions because they feel they have no choice. Do not let an employer take advantage of you, and make sure you understand your situation well enough to feel comfortable even in the worst-case scenario. Moving to another country is stressful enough without having to worry about visa requirements. Good luck!
Ask your direct manager about the feedback you got from the CEO. I don't know how they come up with a measurement of how much you designed or their ability to compare to someone else. Your direct manager may be able to explain. Sounds like they're applying production metrics to a creative process. Let them know you want to stay and get feedback on what you need to do to make that happen. I hope you're not in a situation where they don't have enough work or large enough budget to maintain your position. There are some extenuating circumstances regarding your legal status that they should take into consideration. They should be upfront if they have no intentions of renewing your contract, so you can try and find another job. Unlike full-time employees there are no legal ramifications for not renewing (Maybe this is different in Australia?). Failure to give you enough notice is unprofessional and cowardly.
95,746
We run a network with a domain controller under Windows 2000 5.00 Service Pack 4. Somebody left an Excel document open and everybody else cannot fill it. How can I find which person (or computer) kept the document open? Thanks
2009/12/18
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/95746", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/-1/" ]
On the computer that has the file stored, you can check for open files in the "manage" option of right clicking my computer, shared folders, open files.
I've always been a fan of [WhoLockMe](http://www.dr-hoiby.com/WhoLockMe/). It should show you user as well as program.
10,741,795
> > **Possible Duplicate:** > > [Garbage collector and circular reference](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8840567/garbage-collector-and-circular-reference) > > > Is there any impact on GC performance if objects have a circular reference but are otherwise unattached to any root, and thus ripe for GC? Would there be any benefit in having a weak ref in one direction?
2012/05/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10741795", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/644682/" ]
If the objects can't be reached from the root, they will not be traversed, so a circular reference won't be an issue.
> > Is there any impact on GC performance if objects have a circular reference but are otherwise unattached to any root, and thus ripe for GC? > > > Nope. Basically both objects will be eligible for garbage collection when there are no strong references... you don't need to worry about it.
10,741,795
> > **Possible Duplicate:** > > [Garbage collector and circular reference](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8840567/garbage-collector-and-circular-reference) > > > Is there any impact on GC performance if objects have a circular reference but are otherwise unattached to any root, and thus ripe for GC? Would there be any benefit in having a weak ref in one direction?
2012/05/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10741795", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/644682/" ]
If the objects can't be reached from the root, they will not be traversed, so a circular reference won't be an issue.
> > Is there any impact on GC performance if objects have a circular reference > > > No. The sweep process stops when it encounters an instance already visited. There is no diff with non-circular structures. > > but are otherwise unattached to any root, and thus ripe for GC? > > > In that case they will not be visited at all, making it totally irrelevant how many cross links there are.
8,475,726
I have "developer removed from sale" an app from iTunesConnect. It was a free app. What happens to my users? Do they get to keep the latest version they downloaded in perpetuity or does it get removed when they next update?
2011/12/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8475726", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/143589/" ]
If anybody have downloaded your app you can't delete the app on the device from the itunes connect. They have bought a product like in a supermarket. If you buy a thing it's yours.
I you want it completely deleted from the appstore, you just tab the delete app button that now are under your app. that would remove the app completely from the appstore. if you just removed it from sale it would still just not appear, but it is still in apples database. YES if they downloaded it before you removed it from sale they will still be able to use the app on their idevices.
41,628
What is the right way to embed one question inside another? For example: > > 1. "Do you know what **is it?**" > 2. "Do you know what **it is?**" > > > Are they both grammatical? If one of them isn't, then why is it ungrammatical? I can say the question *"What is it?",* so I assume I can also say the question *"Do you know what is it?"* Can't I?
2014/12/10
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/41628", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/12430/" ]
This one is grammatical: > > Do you know what it is? > > > This one is not grammatical (except for an unusual situation described below): > > Do you know what is it? > > > The key to understanding this is to see that **what it is** is not a question. It's just the object of **know**. **What is it?** is a question, but there's only one question here, not a question within a question. As a declarative statement, you would say: > > You know what it is. > > > Making this into a question requires that you add the auxiliary verb **do** in front of the subject. That's all you need to do to turn this statement into a question. You don't need to do anything to the object of **know**. --- *An exception:* As F.E. noted in the comments, there's a children's game called "[tag](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tag_(game))" where one person is called "it". In that game, you might ask "Do you know who is it?" (with the stress on "it"). This is because the equivalent statements are "Johnny is it" and "I know [that] Johnny is it." A more-ordinary form of this is "Do you know who is President?" So, there's probably *some* rare circumstance where it would make sense to say "Do you know what is it?", but I can't think of one.
I assume the two sentences are 1) Do you know what is it? 2) Do you know what it is? I kinda do a Google research on this and basically most people say it should be the first one but unfortunately the correct one is the second one. Why it is so? If we refer to the rule of making question (WH-word + verb to be/verb to have + subject + verb + description). But based on the question above, there are no verb/description after the subject. So, now here the second rule (WH-word + subject + verb to be) So, here you are. Based on the second rule the second one is right. 1) Do you know what is it? (Wrong) 2) Do you know what it is? (Right) 3) Do you know what is it all about? (Right, as there is a description behind the subject)
41,628
What is the right way to embed one question inside another? For example: > > 1. "Do you know what **is it?**" > 2. "Do you know what **it is?**" > > > Are they both grammatical? If one of them isn't, then why is it ungrammatical? I can say the question *"What is it?",* so I assume I can also say the question *"Do you know what is it?"* Can't I?
2014/12/10
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/41628", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/12430/" ]
The rule is: Subordinate questions have no inversion of subject and verb as in independent questions. So the following examples are correct: What is it? (Subject placed after the verb) Do you know what it is? (In the subordinate question normal word order subject verb)
I assume the two sentences are 1) Do you know what is it? 2) Do you know what it is? I kinda do a Google research on this and basically most people say it should be the first one but unfortunately the correct one is the second one. Why it is so? If we refer to the rule of making question (WH-word + verb to be/verb to have + subject + verb + description). But based on the question above, there are no verb/description after the subject. So, now here the second rule (WH-word + subject + verb to be) So, here you are. Based on the second rule the second one is right. 1) Do you know what is it? (Wrong) 2) Do you know what it is? (Right) 3) Do you know what is it all about? (Right, as there is a description behind the subject)
41,628
What is the right way to embed one question inside another? For example: > > 1. "Do you know what **is it?**" > 2. "Do you know what **it is?**" > > > Are they both grammatical? If one of them isn't, then why is it ungrammatical? I can say the question *"What is it?",* so I assume I can also say the question *"Do you know what is it?"* Can't I?
2014/12/10
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/41628", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/12430/" ]
The rule is: Subordinate questions have no inversion of subject and verb as in independent questions. So the following examples are correct: What is it? (Subject placed after the verb) Do you know what it is? (In the subordinate question normal word order subject verb)
This one is grammatical: > > Do you know what it is? > > > This one is not grammatical (except for an unusual situation described below): > > Do you know what is it? > > > The key to understanding this is to see that **what it is** is not a question. It's just the object of **know**. **What is it?** is a question, but there's only one question here, not a question within a question. As a declarative statement, you would say: > > You know what it is. > > > Making this into a question requires that you add the auxiliary verb **do** in front of the subject. That's all you need to do to turn this statement into a question. You don't need to do anything to the object of **know**. --- *An exception:* As F.E. noted in the comments, there's a children's game called "[tag](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tag_(game))" where one person is called "it". In that game, you might ask "Do you know who is it?" (with the stress on "it"). This is because the equivalent statements are "Johnny is it" and "I know [that] Johnny is it." A more-ordinary form of this is "Do you know who is President?" So, there's probably *some* rare circumstance where it would make sense to say "Do you know what is it?", but I can't think of one.
44,025
Does sat/sun also decay the value of options or just days the market is open?
2015/02/06
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/44025", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/11301/" ]
Yes it does! The market prices this in on Fridays And even better, on three days weekends and other holidays the additional time decay gets priced in causing option decay to happen even faster on the day before the market is closed. This happens because options still have utility on days the market is closed. If there is an earthquake in Japan on a weekend and you have put options on the Nikkei index, you will still get the utility when the Nikkei drops 80% when the market reopens
Yes, it does. Options are a contract to buy a certain asset at a certain price in the future. The contract doesn't say "but only between 9-5 on weekdays!". You can execute it any time. The **market** is closed on the weekends, and likely so is your broker. But these are mainly services that facilitate trading. They are not a fundamental aspect of the trading. For example, nothing is stopping you from showing up at your friend's house on Saturday night and trading stock and options with him. You just won't have the convenience of the exchange and broker helping you actually do it. For most people, not trading on the exchange through their broker is a silly idea. But it's possible. Because of this you cannot "freeze time" on the weekend - those days are actual time value even if you as a retail trader cannot take advantage of it.
15
The [IPIP](http://ipip.ori.org/) is an example of a public domain scientific personality inventory that can be used for research. * Are there any good public domain scientific measures of intelligence? ### Requirements * **Do not** link to the kinds of hits you get when you type ["free online intelligence tests" into Google](http://www.google.com.au/search?gcx=c&sourceid=chrome&client=ubuntu&channel=cs&ie=UTF-8&q=free+online+iq+tests) (i.e., tests where you can only do the questions and get summary normative feedback at the end) * Full text of instrument should be available, ideally with some form of test manual * Information about test has been published in a refereed journal * Test is freely available for use for scientific purposes, and ideally can be modified, adapted,
2012/01/19
[ "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/52/" ]
[PEBL](http://pebl.sourceforge.net/index.html#about) is a free open source programming language to help construct psychological experiments. A wiki and developer community provide some documentation and support. PEBL has a [Psychological Test Battery](http://pebl.sourceforge.net/battery.html) of many common or simple psychological tests so you may be able to use it out of the box without constructing your own test. PEBL includes free versions of many accredited and popular psychometric tests. > > Many of them represent the only Free version of proprietory tests available anywhere. They include a free Iowa Gambling Task, a free version of the TOVA®, a free Wisconsin Card Sort Test®, a free version of Conners Continuous Performance task, and a number of other useful tasks, with more to come. > > > If one of the included tests does not suit your needs, you or a programmer can create your own tests with PEBL's programming language which is customized specifically to create psychometric tests.
### Gf/Gc Quickie Test The Gf/Gc Quickie Test Battery (Stankov, 1997) is a one-on-one administered intelligence test. It is designed for teaching purposes, but has been used in research. > > The Gf/Gc Quickie Test Battery is a collection of tasks used by > psychologists to assess human cognitive abilities. It is derived from > within the framework of fluid and crystallized intelligence (Horn & > Cattell, 1966), which is outlined below. This battery is designed for > teaching purposes and the scores obtained must not be regarded as > reflecting an “intelligence quotient”. > > > Here is a link to the test items and administration manual: <https://klingenstein09.wikispaces.com/file/view/Sample_Cognitive_Tests.docx> Stankov, L. (1997). The Gf/Gc Quickie Test Battery. Unpublished test battery from the School of Psychology. Australia: University of Sydney.
15
The [IPIP](http://ipip.ori.org/) is an example of a public domain scientific personality inventory that can be used for research. * Are there any good public domain scientific measures of intelligence? ### Requirements * **Do not** link to the kinds of hits you get when you type ["free online intelligence tests" into Google](http://www.google.com.au/search?gcx=c&sourceid=chrome&client=ubuntu&channel=cs&ie=UTF-8&q=free+online+iq+tests) (i.e., tests where you can only do the questions and get summary normative feedback at the end) * Full text of instrument should be available, ideally with some form of test manual * Information about test has been published in a refereed journal * Test is freely available for use for scientific purposes, and ideally can be modified, adapted,
2012/01/19
[ "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/52/" ]
[PEBL](http://pebl.sourceforge.net/index.html#about) is a free open source programming language to help construct psychological experiments. A wiki and developer community provide some documentation and support. PEBL has a [Psychological Test Battery](http://pebl.sourceforge.net/battery.html) of many common or simple psychological tests so you may be able to use it out of the box without constructing your own test. PEBL includes free versions of many accredited and popular psychometric tests. > > Many of them represent the only Free version of proprietory tests available anywhere. They include a free Iowa Gambling Task, a free version of the TOVA®, a free Wisconsin Card Sort Test®, a free version of Conners Continuous Performance task, and a number of other useful tasks, with more to come. > > > If one of the included tests does not suit your needs, you or a programmer can create your own tests with PEBL's programming language which is customized specifically to create psychometric tests.
### ICAR: INTERNATIONAL COGNITIVE ABILITY RESOURCE This project is an attempt to develop a public-domain assessment tool for cognitive abilities. It is being developed by several leading researchers in individual differences. <https://icar-project.com/> You need to register to access a short measure of cognitive ability. They have sample items and a range of resources. Condon, D. M., & Revelle, W. (2014). The International Cognitive Ability Resource: Development and initial validation of a public-domain measure. Intelligence, 43, 52-64.
15
The [IPIP](http://ipip.ori.org/) is an example of a public domain scientific personality inventory that can be used for research. * Are there any good public domain scientific measures of intelligence? ### Requirements * **Do not** link to the kinds of hits you get when you type ["free online intelligence tests" into Google](http://www.google.com.au/search?gcx=c&sourceid=chrome&client=ubuntu&channel=cs&ie=UTF-8&q=free+online+iq+tests) (i.e., tests where you can only do the questions and get summary normative feedback at the end) * Full text of instrument should be available, ideally with some form of test manual * Information about test has been published in a refereed journal * Test is freely available for use for scientific purposes, and ideally can be modified, adapted,
2012/01/19
[ "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/52/" ]
[PEBL](http://pebl.sourceforge.net/index.html#about) is a free open source programming language to help construct psychological experiments. A wiki and developer community provide some documentation and support. PEBL has a [Psychological Test Battery](http://pebl.sourceforge.net/battery.html) of many common or simple psychological tests so you may be able to use it out of the box without constructing your own test. PEBL includes free versions of many accredited and popular psychometric tests. > > Many of them represent the only Free version of proprietory tests available anywhere. They include a free Iowa Gambling Task, a free version of the TOVA®, a free Wisconsin Card Sort Test®, a free version of Conners Continuous Performance task, and a number of other useful tasks, with more to come. > > > If one of the included tests does not suit your needs, you or a programmer can create your own tests with PEBL's programming language which is customized specifically to create psychometric tests.
[Quantified mind](http://www.quantified-mind.com/science) is a collection of many tests with published papers. Its free and batteries are easy to customize, but only works online and converts the raw measurements of each test into a score for that item.
15
The [IPIP](http://ipip.ori.org/) is an example of a public domain scientific personality inventory that can be used for research. * Are there any good public domain scientific measures of intelligence? ### Requirements * **Do not** link to the kinds of hits you get when you type ["free online intelligence tests" into Google](http://www.google.com.au/search?gcx=c&sourceid=chrome&client=ubuntu&channel=cs&ie=UTF-8&q=free+online+iq+tests) (i.e., tests where you can only do the questions and get summary normative feedback at the end) * Full text of instrument should be available, ideally with some form of test manual * Information about test has been published in a refereed journal * Test is freely available for use for scientific purposes, and ideally can be modified, adapted,
2012/01/19
[ "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/52/" ]
### Gf/Gc Quickie Test The Gf/Gc Quickie Test Battery (Stankov, 1997) is a one-on-one administered intelligence test. It is designed for teaching purposes, but has been used in research. > > The Gf/Gc Quickie Test Battery is a collection of tasks used by > psychologists to assess human cognitive abilities. It is derived from > within the framework of fluid and crystallized intelligence (Horn & > Cattell, 1966), which is outlined below. This battery is designed for > teaching purposes and the scores obtained must not be regarded as > reflecting an “intelligence quotient”. > > > Here is a link to the test items and administration manual: <https://klingenstein09.wikispaces.com/file/view/Sample_Cognitive_Tests.docx> Stankov, L. (1997). The Gf/Gc Quickie Test Battery. Unpublished test battery from the School of Psychology. Australia: University of Sydney.
[Quantified mind](http://www.quantified-mind.com/science) is a collection of many tests with published papers. Its free and batteries are easy to customize, but only works online and converts the raw measurements of each test into a score for that item.
15
The [IPIP](http://ipip.ori.org/) is an example of a public domain scientific personality inventory that can be used for research. * Are there any good public domain scientific measures of intelligence? ### Requirements * **Do not** link to the kinds of hits you get when you type ["free online intelligence tests" into Google](http://www.google.com.au/search?gcx=c&sourceid=chrome&client=ubuntu&channel=cs&ie=UTF-8&q=free+online+iq+tests) (i.e., tests where you can only do the questions and get summary normative feedback at the end) * Full text of instrument should be available, ideally with some form of test manual * Information about test has been published in a refereed journal * Test is freely available for use for scientific purposes, and ideally can be modified, adapted,
2012/01/19
[ "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/15", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/52/" ]
### ICAR: INTERNATIONAL COGNITIVE ABILITY RESOURCE This project is an attempt to develop a public-domain assessment tool for cognitive abilities. It is being developed by several leading researchers in individual differences. <https://icar-project.com/> You need to register to access a short measure of cognitive ability. They have sample items and a range of resources. Condon, D. M., & Revelle, W. (2014). The International Cognitive Ability Resource: Development and initial validation of a public-domain measure. Intelligence, 43, 52-64.
[Quantified mind](http://www.quantified-mind.com/science) is a collection of many tests with published papers. Its free and batteries are easy to customize, but only works online and converts the raw measurements of each test into a score for that item.
299,491
On the Xbox One, if I aim my sights at a spot and call my titan, it will invariably land in a completely different location. This sucks when I'm trying to drop it on another titan. Is there some mechanic that I'm completely unaware of that dictates where it falls?
2017/02/01
[ "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/299491", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com", "https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/178479/" ]
A titan will not drop on a location that is partially or fully obstructed by static scenery, or is too small to fit a titan crouched down. If the game has space to drop the titan on the roof of a building it will, otherwise it will choose the closest open location with enough room to drop a titan.
Dropping a titan is tricky business. Especially when you are trying to land it on another titan. A quick checklist: * Look up! If there is not an opening to the sky then the titan will land elsewhere along the line drawn from you to where a bullet would hit the ground were to you to fire one. * Look down! Aiming at the ground with your gun sight is the best possible way to get a titan to drop right on the dot. * Look around! If there is anything within a decent radius of the place your gun sight is aimed then the titan will drop somewhere else further along the line drawn between you and where your gun is aimed (rarely horizontally off, if the calculation hits the end of the map it may track by closest distance to where it would have hit the end of the map). For example, here you can see me target the ground with my Mozambique and then call the titan to fall directly on the Tone (with a little satchel distraction as well). ![](https://i.imgur.com/1qeWOKe.gif)
115,425
Can we migrate SSL certificates between sandboxes? I have a certificate uploaded in one sandbox and working fine and now intend to move all the pieces to another sandbox. I was hoping certificates are part of metadata which I can migrate using any migration tool. What is the correct process to move the SSL certificate from the current sandbox to another sandbox?
2016/03/24
[ "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/115425", "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com", "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/992/" ]
Finally got the right way!, same certificates can be installed across sandboxes with the the below steps: On the source sandbox 1. Security Controls -> Certificate and Key Management 2. Click on Export to Keystore 3. Provide a Keystore password 4. Click on export 5. A file Java Keystore format with extension .jks (e.g. 00D180000001XWw.jks) will get downloaded to local system On target sandbox 1. Security Controls -> Certificate and Key Management 2. Click on Import from a Keystore 3. Choose downloaded jsk file and provide Keystore password and click on Save 4. All certificates inside the Keystore imported to target sandbox.
You will have to reconfigure the certificates across sandboxes. As far as I'm aware there is no way to deploy these. Might be a good idea to double check either way, because your URL will change when using a different sandbox and you might need a different certificate.
158,203
On my system i have windows 7 and ubuntu 10.04 installed. I need to share large amounts of data between both OS. My idea is to set up a partition which both system can access and exchange data. Any suggestions which filesystem to use for this?
2010/07/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/158203", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46881/" ]
I'd recommend NTFS. You can access it from Linux using ntfs-3g, and it doesn't have any of the silly file size restrictions that FAT32 has. You certainly can't use any of the normal Linux filesystems - Windows can't read ext{2,3,4}, XFS, ReiserFS, btrfs, etc.
I suggest you a NTFS partition or simply make windows Partition bigger and access it from Linux.
158,203
On my system i have windows 7 and ubuntu 10.04 installed. I need to share large amounts of data between both OS. My idea is to set up a partition which both system can access and exchange data. Any suggestions which filesystem to use for this?
2010/07/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/158203", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46881/" ]
I'd recommend NTFS. You can access it from Linux using ntfs-3g, and it doesn't have any of the silly file size restrictions that FAT32 has. You certainly can't use any of the normal Linux filesystems - Windows can't read ext{2,3,4}, XFS, ReiserFS, btrfs, etc.
In a similar situation (with a couple of Macs in the mix as well), I just set up a NAS and shared the data through that. All three OSes can handle SMB, and Macs and Linux also do NFS natively.
158,203
On my system i have windows 7 and ubuntu 10.04 installed. I need to share large amounts of data between both OS. My idea is to set up a partition which both system can access and exchange data. Any suggestions which filesystem to use for this?
2010/07/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/158203", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46881/" ]
NTFS is pretty much your most problem-free option. It's used by default in Windows and Ubuntu supports it perfectly. Windows does not support any of the traditional Linux filesystems out of the box. I believe there are ext3 Windows drivers (haven't heard of any for ext4), but in my opinion filesystem drivers in Windows constitute shaky ground.
I suggest you a NTFS partition or simply make windows Partition bigger and access it from Linux.
158,203
On my system i have windows 7 and ubuntu 10.04 installed. I need to share large amounts of data between both OS. My idea is to set up a partition which both system can access and exchange data. Any suggestions which filesystem to use for this?
2010/07/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/158203", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46881/" ]
NTFS is pretty much your most problem-free option. It's used by default in Windows and Ubuntu supports it perfectly. Windows does not support any of the traditional Linux filesystems out of the box. I believe there are ext3 Windows drivers (haven't heard of any for ext4), but in my opinion filesystem drivers in Windows constitute shaky ground.
In a similar situation (with a couple of Macs in the mix as well), I just set up a NAS and shared the data through that. All three OSes can handle SMB, and Macs and Linux also do NFS natively.
158,203
On my system i have windows 7 and ubuntu 10.04 installed. I need to share large amounts of data between both OS. My idea is to set up a partition which both system can access and exchange data. Any suggestions which filesystem to use for this?
2010/07/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/158203", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46881/" ]
I use ext3fs and have a [IFS plugin](http://www.fs-driver.org/) that lets Winders read it without issue (to date!). Well except if you let Windows hibernate. But who wants to waste 4 gigs of disk space just for hibernate, anyway? I have a 320 GB drive on my laptop, 100GB NTFS to boot Windows, and the rest is ext3fs for my Linux dual boot (OpenSuse11.2) and broken into a couple of partitions. I have the ext3fs partitions mapped as T: U: and V: drives. Have been running this way across two laptops, and three hard drives in this last one, for 4 years no, without issue. Though I should qualify and say that I am running in Winders XP SP3 at the moment. Not yet tried it in Win 7. Not sure if there is a 64 bit version either.
I suggest you a NTFS partition or simply make windows Partition bigger and access it from Linux.
158,203
On my system i have windows 7 and ubuntu 10.04 installed. I need to share large amounts of data between both OS. My idea is to set up a partition which both system can access and exchange data. Any suggestions which filesystem to use for this?
2010/07/07
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/158203", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/46881/" ]
I use ext3fs and have a [IFS plugin](http://www.fs-driver.org/) that lets Winders read it without issue (to date!). Well except if you let Windows hibernate. But who wants to waste 4 gigs of disk space just for hibernate, anyway? I have a 320 GB drive on my laptop, 100GB NTFS to boot Windows, and the rest is ext3fs for my Linux dual boot (OpenSuse11.2) and broken into a couple of partitions. I have the ext3fs partitions mapped as T: U: and V: drives. Have been running this way across two laptops, and three hard drives in this last one, for 4 years no, without issue. Though I should qualify and say that I am running in Winders XP SP3 at the moment. Not yet tried it in Win 7. Not sure if there is a 64 bit version either.
In a similar situation (with a couple of Macs in the mix as well), I just set up a NAS and shared the data through that. All three OSes can handle SMB, and Macs and Linux also do NFS natively.
4,235,030
I want to send / receive sms using AT commands from my computer to my mobile phone. I connected my phone to my computer using a USB port. My computer detects the modem and I am able to send sms from the computer to mobile phone. However, I am not able to receive sms in my computer.. I am presenting a sample of what I get from AT editor AT+CMGF=1 OK AT+CNMI=1,2,0,0,0 Error What can I do to send this prob and why am I getting this Error?
2010/11/20
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4235030", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/514493/" ]
Every phone has different capabilities so you should check which values for each parameter are valid for your phone by sending it a > > AT+CNMI=? > > > For example my phone doesn't support your example because mode 1 is not supported. For the full syntax of +CNMI you can consult the AT Manual of your manufacturer or the ETSI standard or read this brief tutorial <http://www.cellular.co.za/at_etsi.htm> AT+CNMI is used anyway just to get a notification when a SMS arrives, in order to read the content of the stored SMS you have to use AT+CMGL= or AT+CMGR=. Briefly: AT+CMGF=1 ;sets the text mode AT+CMGL=? ;tells you which memories are available AT+CSCS=? ;tells you which character sets are available AT+CSCS="8859-1" ;sets Latin1 as the charset so that you can see eventually accented letters AT+CMGL="ALL" ;prints every text message you have stored in your phone
Most of the phones returns Error when some special AT command sent to them and +CNMI is one of that command. It will return error also when send AT+CNMI=?. So forget Phones buy a GSM Modem based on RS232 or USB and then try it again.
18,744
What I'm trying to do is to make test deployment easier. We're developing many features of a webpage at the same time, and it's come to the point where it takes a lot of time to get each version of these feature branches out to the test server so the customer who has the final say can test, give feedback/final OK on the changes made. So I'm looking for a way to automate this and let the customer choose the git commit/branch from some kind of menu and then be taken to the correct version of the webpage. This way I don't have to update the test server, then let the customer know so they can test, then wait for feedback. It probably has to be a part of some kind of continuous build/testing integration? So the commit is built and can actually be run. Any pointers to where I should start, what to read, software to check out would be highly appreciated.
2016/05/18
[ "https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/18744", "https://sqa.stackexchange.com", "https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/18386/" ]
I would suggest that you do not use git feature branches for this and instead build this functionality into the application itself. For controlling deployment you should be using tools such as capistrano and docker and processes such as blue-green deploy. Your answer doesn't indicate what, if any tools or processes you are following so it's hard to advise without that.
To avoid running many different versions of the website, one for every commit/branch, you may need to use a lot of symlinks. We do use something similar (with Subversion). You can checkout a branch, and script changes symlinks and restarts the relevant servers, so it "just works" and change takes few seconds (not counting checkout time). Of course some code changes require database changes, so then the magic breaks... :-( Change of current branch of code is done by a script, not from web GUI - but that would possible too I guess. But I do not think having such separate code instance would be feasible for every feature. It would be just way too many of them.
18,744
What I'm trying to do is to make test deployment easier. We're developing many features of a webpage at the same time, and it's come to the point where it takes a lot of time to get each version of these feature branches out to the test server so the customer who has the final say can test, give feedback/final OK on the changes made. So I'm looking for a way to automate this and let the customer choose the git commit/branch from some kind of menu and then be taken to the correct version of the webpage. This way I don't have to update the test server, then let the customer know so they can test, then wait for feedback. It probably has to be a part of some kind of continuous build/testing integration? So the commit is built and can actually be run. Any pointers to where I should start, what to read, software to check out would be highly appreciated.
2016/05/18
[ "https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/18744", "https://sqa.stackexchange.com", "https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/18386/" ]
There is a major issue with having a lot of branches (and features) waiting for approval by clients. Mainly if clients do not test immediately and accept the work, the branches will not be merged into the main branch. This is a problem because other features will want to depend on this work and merging branches will become a real drama when your branches diverse for too long. Overall this sounds like a failing strategy. I would try to keep just one test branch in which all features are merged continuously. Now to let clients test their requested feature I would suggest to try [feature toggles](https://martinfowler.com/articles/feature-toggles.html). For each users you enable a feature with a toggle. Now the client can test the feature and when accepted you enable the feature for all users and you prepare it for deployment. This by either removing the feature toggle totally or by just enabling it for some users. Do keep in mind that feature toggles are essential [technical debt](https://martinfowler.com/bliki/TechnicalDebt.html). You need to remove them as soon as possible or make them part of a right-system if you want do not want to enable this feature for 100% of the users. Now having only one branch with all the finished work simplifies everything a lot, certainly when you have a lot of features that need accepting. Experience learns clients do not make time to accept work, maybe you can skip the test phase all together and just push changes into production by using feature toggles and remove them after you confirm the client is happy. My personal goal is [deliver continuously](https://continuousdelivery.com/), each commit should go into production to get the fastest feedback as you can. Unless you build life or dead applications, maybe testing in production is not such a good idea then. Do think about what is the simplest thing possible and keeping the flow optimised so that developers can keep building on their previous work even if it is not yet accepted. Try to keep the number of open feature branches as low as possible at all times, since this will make the life of developers so much easier.
To avoid running many different versions of the website, one for every commit/branch, you may need to use a lot of symlinks. We do use something similar (with Subversion). You can checkout a branch, and script changes symlinks and restarts the relevant servers, so it "just works" and change takes few seconds (not counting checkout time). Of course some code changes require database changes, so then the magic breaks... :-( Change of current branch of code is done by a script, not from web GUI - but that would possible too I guess. But I do not think having such separate code instance would be feasible for every feature. It would be just way too many of them.
175,252
Preparing myself also to ISTQB certification, I found they call static analysis actually as a static testing, while some engineering book distinct between static analysis and testing, which is the dynamic activity. I tent to think that static analysis is not a testing in the true sense as it does not test, it checks/verifies. But sure I would love to hear opinion of the true experts here. Thank you
2012/11/09
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/175252", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/60327/" ]
In many respects, your question is the corollary of a number of recent discussions, about where the line is drawn. eg * [Is verification and validation part of testing process?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/167377/is-verification-and-validation-part-of-testing-process) * [Verfication vs validation again, does testing belong to verification? If so, which?](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/168264/verfication-vs-validation-again-does-testing-belong-to-verification-if-so-whi) * [How to apply verification and validation on the following example](https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/172850/how-to-apply-verification-and-validation-on-the-following-example) Quite simply, the line depends on which standard, and which lifecycle you are following. Personally, as an advocate of ISO/IEC 12207, I put Static Code Analysis firmly in the *Verification* camp, as it is a review activity, whereas Dynamic Analysis is a testing activity, therefore a *Validation* phase. As an aside, I had never heard SCA referred to as *Static Testing*, so I Googled... [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Static_testing) defines it, pretty much as a synonym of SCA. I prefer to use the terms *Static Analysis*, and restrict *testing* to cover the actual execution. I'm not that familiar with ISTQB so I can't draw the specific line for that certification for you.
I agree, I do not view static analysis as testing. Static analysis is more powerful than testing because it is a formal proof that a certain piece of code matches its specifications. Therefore, it guarantees that a piece of code does what it should do, **for all inputs**. In other words, it can **guarantee the absence of errors**. Testing, on the other hand, is done on a limited number of different inputs. Therefore, it can only **indicate the presence of errors**, not their absence. This is the biggest difference between static analysis and testing. However, static analysis is very difficult, time-consuming and fundamentally impossible to perform for all programs due to the incompleteness of first-order logic.
175,252
Preparing myself also to ISTQB certification, I found they call static analysis actually as a static testing, while some engineering book distinct between static analysis and testing, which is the dynamic activity. I tent to think that static analysis is not a testing in the true sense as it does not test, it checks/verifies. But sure I would love to hear opinion of the true experts here. Thank you
2012/11/09
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/175252", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/60327/" ]
One of the traditional definitions of software testing is execution of the program with the intent of finding bugs. This was Glen Myers definition, for example. We pretty much followed that definition in Testing Computer Software. I still see this--Wikipedia, for example, says "Test techniques include, but are not limited to, the process of executing a program or application with the intent of finding software bugs (errors or other defects)." Under that definition, static analysis cannot be testing because it analyzes the code without executing it. The definition that I currently use is that testing is an empirical investigation of a software product or service in order to learn quality-related information about it. (See for example, the BBST courses (my free course videos for BBST are at <http://www.testingeducation.org>). Under this definition, static analysis might be testing. If you think that SCA is an empirical activity (in other words, something like running an experiment), then you should think that SCA would be testing under my definition. In contrast, if you think that SCA is more like theoretical analysis than like running experiments, then you should think that SCA is not testing. I don't personally have an opinion. I use SCA while I am writing code and it feels to me that it is part of what I do when programming. It doesn't much feel like testing. But I also do a lot of unit testing and monitor code coverage of the unit tests and when I do it, that also feels like part of an integrated programming activity, not like testing either. Mainly, I don't care whether people call SCA (or unit testing) testing or not. The more important question to me is whether they do it, and if they do, whether they are any good at it. There are several other widely used definitions of software testing. Some people (and some organizations) insist that they have the One True Definition. And I suppose it is the One True One for them. But there are enough different One True Definitions that I find it more useful to accept the diversity as a fact of life and work with people by asking them what they mean when they say things. So, depending on your favorite definition of testing, SCA is or is not testing (or is ambiguous), but under someone else's favorite definition, the answer might be different. If you're studying for the ISTQB exam, the relevant definition is the ISTQB definition. I don't remember it, but you can look it up in your study materials. By the way, static analysis is a broad term. A program that analyzes code to check for certain specific coding errors (or even nonconformities with a specified coding style) is doing static analysis. So is a person or program that analyzes code to determine whether an algorithm is theoretically correct (and whether the implementation conforms logically to the algorithm). This latter case is called a proof of correctness. This is an instance of static analysis, not the entirety of it. By the way, proofs of correctness cannot prove that the program as run will be correct. They can prove that certain types of errors cannot be present. However, if you analyze the source code (e.g. code written in Java), you have not analyzed what actually gets run, because the Java gets translated into other code by a compiler. Additionally, you don't know how this Java code will interact with the memory manager, the printer driver, the video display, etc. Those interactions might cause a program failure but the static analysis will be blind to them. Another class of increasingly common risk involves multithreaded execution. What looks to you like one linear sequence of commands can be executed partially in parallel. Sometimes, things get done in an unexpected order of execution (the wrong thing gets done first, so perhaps a memory location has outdated information or information that shouldn't have been put there yet) The result is a failure, even if it wouldn't have been a failure on a different computer. Finally, I have never seen an error-free specification, so the idea that a proof that some code matches the specification perfectly doesn't assure me that the program is error-free. So.... formal analysis is useful, but it cannot replace all of (the other types of) testing.
I agree, I do not view static analysis as testing. Static analysis is more powerful than testing because it is a formal proof that a certain piece of code matches its specifications. Therefore, it guarantees that a piece of code does what it should do, **for all inputs**. In other words, it can **guarantee the absence of errors**. Testing, on the other hand, is done on a limited number of different inputs. Therefore, it can only **indicate the presence of errors**, not their absence. This is the biggest difference between static analysis and testing. However, static analysis is very difficult, time-consuming and fundamentally impossible to perform for all programs due to the incompleteness of first-order logic.
150,778
I wrote a service script to run a specific software at boot time. How can I restrict this software so that it does not run manually again? I mean software has to have just one instance in the memory.. I don't want to change the source code of my software, I want init to this job for me.
2014/08/18
[ "https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/150778", "https://unix.stackexchange.com", "https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/37507/" ]
You can instruct init to run only one instance of your software — in fact, that will happen naturally if you start your software from init. But init's job has nothing to do with preventing other programs from starting other instances of your software. If you want to ensure that only a single instance of your program runs, then instead of running your program directly, run a wrapper script that checks whether your software is already running. [LatinSuD's answer](https://unix.stackexchange.com/a/150780) gives an example of such a wrapper script. Of course a user could bypass the wrapper script and run another instance of your software. But a user could also create an executable file that happens to be identical to yours and run that. So going via a wrapper script does implement the desired restriction in a way that makes sense. Having multiple instances of the same executable running is not in itself a problem. What can be a problem is if they access the same resource: files, network ports, etc. If you need to protect against concurrent access to the same resource, then the possible methods depend on what the resource is. If the resource is a TCP or UDP port, only one process can listen on that port anyway. If the resource is a file, make sure that only the user running the instance started by an init script has the right to access that file.
If we're constrained to only running something with `init`, then the only solution I can think of is to have a lightweight kill-script constantly monitoring what processes are running, and to terminate any additional processes. But I would suggest that this is far from perfect, and could be bypassed relatively easily.
150,778
I wrote a service script to run a specific software at boot time. How can I restrict this software so that it does not run manually again? I mean software has to have just one instance in the memory.. I don't want to change the source code of my software, I want init to this job for me.
2014/08/18
[ "https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/150778", "https://unix.stackexchange.com", "https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/37507/" ]
You can instruct init to run only one instance of your software — in fact, that will happen naturally if you start your software from init. But init's job has nothing to do with preventing other programs from starting other instances of your software. If you want to ensure that only a single instance of your program runs, then instead of running your program directly, run a wrapper script that checks whether your software is already running. [LatinSuD's answer](https://unix.stackexchange.com/a/150780) gives an example of such a wrapper script. Of course a user could bypass the wrapper script and run another instance of your software. But a user could also create an executable file that happens to be identical to yours and run that. So going via a wrapper script does implement the desired restriction in a way that makes sense. Having multiple instances of the same executable running is not in itself a problem. What can be a problem is if they access the same resource: files, network ports, etc. If you need to protect against concurrent access to the same resource, then the possible methods depend on what the resource is. If the resource is a TCP or UDP port, only one process can listen on that port anyway. If the resource is a file, make sure that only the user running the instance started by an init script has the right to access that file.
Actually, the sensible way is to deny a user access by using the correct permissions and only allow root(esque) users run the software.
42,188
I've recently started using Google Keep for storing quick notes on my phone and personal laptop. I'd like to start using this at work also on my desktop machine, however I don't want my work notes to be mixed in with personal notes. Is there a way of splitting the notes onto seperate pages/categories so that my personal ones aren't displayed at work?
2013/03/26
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/42188", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/4406/" ]
Install This <https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/category-tabs-for-google/dlahcjmefibiedeecoegjilekaebchhl?hl=en> And keep all your personal Notes in one color, and select the other colors so that your personal items do not show up. I know this is really irritating, but google wants us to feel that way it seems :)
There's not currently any way to hide notes without deleting or archiving them. You can't split the notes into categories or folders, but you can differentiate the notes by color-coding them or adding common titles.
42,188
I've recently started using Google Keep for storing quick notes on my phone and personal laptop. I'd like to start using this at work also on my desktop machine, however I don't want my work notes to be mixed in with personal notes. Is there a way of splitting the notes onto seperate pages/categories so that my personal ones aren't displayed at work?
2013/03/26
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/42188", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/4406/" ]
Now Google Keep include labels to help to organize notes. For further details see [Organize notes with labels - Google Keep Help](https://support.google.com/keep/answer/6191044?hl=en)
There's not currently any way to hide notes without deleting or archiving them. You can't split the notes into categories or folders, but you can differentiate the notes by color-coding them or adding common titles.
42,188
I've recently started using Google Keep for storing quick notes on my phone and personal laptop. I'd like to start using this at work also on my desktop machine, however I don't want my work notes to be mixed in with personal notes. Is there a way of splitting the notes onto seperate pages/categories so that my personal ones aren't displayed at work?
2013/03/26
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/42188", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/4406/" ]
Install This <https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/category-tabs-for-google/dlahcjmefibiedeecoegjilekaebchhl?hl=en> And keep all your personal Notes in one color, and select the other colors so that your personal items do not show up. I know this is really irritating, but google wants us to feel that way it seems :)
I just installed Catagories for Google Keep from <https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/category-tabs-for-google/dlahcjmefibiedeecoegjilekaebchhl/related?hl=en>. It seems to be working fine, and provides some sorting capability (limited amount of colors, i.e., catagories).
42,188
I've recently started using Google Keep for storing quick notes on my phone and personal laptop. I'd like to start using this at work also on my desktop machine, however I don't want my work notes to be mixed in with personal notes. Is there a way of splitting the notes onto seperate pages/categories so that my personal ones aren't displayed at work?
2013/03/26
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/42188", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/4406/" ]
Install This <https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/category-tabs-for-google/dlahcjmefibiedeecoegjilekaebchhl?hl=en> And keep all your personal Notes in one color, and select the other colors so that your personal items do not show up. I know this is really irritating, but google wants us to feel that way it seems :)
Now Google Keep include labels to help to organize notes. For further details see [Organize notes with labels - Google Keep Help](https://support.google.com/keep/answer/6191044?hl=en)
42,188
I've recently started using Google Keep for storing quick notes on my phone and personal laptop. I'd like to start using this at work also on my desktop machine, however I don't want my work notes to be mixed in with personal notes. Is there a way of splitting the notes onto seperate pages/categories so that my personal ones aren't displayed at work?
2013/03/26
[ "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/42188", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/4406/" ]
Now Google Keep include labels to help to organize notes. For further details see [Organize notes with labels - Google Keep Help](https://support.google.com/keep/answer/6191044?hl=en)
I just installed Catagories for Google Keep from <https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/category-tabs-for-google/dlahcjmefibiedeecoegjilekaebchhl/related?hl=en>. It seems to be working fine, and provides some sorting capability (limited amount of colors, i.e., catagories).
12,764,725
My situation: 1. Medical staff wants to enter sensitive data of patients into a web browser (!) in order to store it to some database and later retrieve it again. 2. These data are not allowed to be seen by anyone else except the medical staff itself. This means that it must be encrypted using some secret token before it is transferred to the server. It also means that neither IT staff (having access to the server/database) nor anyone else should be able to decrypt it without the secret token. (If the token is lost, the data would never be accessible anymore.) 3. No additional software should be installed on the client machine, except some token (e.g., a private key) that one would export once and import it into all browsers from which data access should be granted. *So my question is:* Is there a way to encrypt/decrypt data on the client-side (e.g., using JavaScript) using some secret browser token that can be exchanged between browsers easily (I.e., exported/imported similar to X.509 certificates)? If not, which alternative solutions would be possible? Since conditions 1 and 2 are mandatory, only condition 3 may be modified, if necessary. However, still as little installation effort as possible should be necessary on the client-side. **EDIT: SSL is obviously only part of the answer to this question!**
2012/10/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12764725", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1264367/" ]
Take a look at [Web-browser encryption of personal health information](http://www.biomedcentral.com/1472-6947/11/70), whose "Abstract" section seems to describe your same problem. However, their "passcode" that generates the encryption key must be shared, which wouldn't let you differentiate medial staff. > > We describe a system for remote data entry that allows the data that > would identify the patient to be encrypted in the web browser of the > person entering the data. These data cannot be decrypted on the server > by the staff at the data center but can be decrypted by the person > entering the data or their delegate. We developed this system to solve > a problem that arose in the context of clinical research, but it is > applicable in a range of situations where sensitive information is > stored and updated in a database and it is necessary to ensure that it > cannot be viewed by any except those intentionally given access. > > >
There's a javascript implementation of AES encryption which encrypts the plaintext in the browser. If you build something around those tools, the server side would store only the encrypted text and would not have the passphrase. <http://www.fourmilab.ch/javascrypt/> Shouldn't require any extra installation on the client side, but probably will require some development effort to get the user experience right.
12,764,725
My situation: 1. Medical staff wants to enter sensitive data of patients into a web browser (!) in order to store it to some database and later retrieve it again. 2. These data are not allowed to be seen by anyone else except the medical staff itself. This means that it must be encrypted using some secret token before it is transferred to the server. It also means that neither IT staff (having access to the server/database) nor anyone else should be able to decrypt it without the secret token. (If the token is lost, the data would never be accessible anymore.) 3. No additional software should be installed on the client machine, except some token (e.g., a private key) that one would export once and import it into all browsers from which data access should be granted. *So my question is:* Is there a way to encrypt/decrypt data on the client-side (e.g., using JavaScript) using some secret browser token that can be exchanged between browsers easily (I.e., exported/imported similar to X.509 certificates)? If not, which alternative solutions would be possible? Since conditions 1 and 2 are mandatory, only condition 3 may be modified, if necessary. However, still as little installation effort as possible should be necessary on the client-side. **EDIT: SSL is obviously only part of the answer to this question!**
2012/10/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12764725", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1264367/" ]
There's a javascript implementation of AES encryption which encrypts the plaintext in the browser. If you build something around those tools, the server side would store only the encrypted text and would not have the passphrase. <http://www.fourmilab.ch/javascrypt/> Shouldn't require any extra installation on the client side, but probably will require some development effort to get the user experience right.
The [Web Crypto API](https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/API/SubtleCrypto) has [pretty good](https://caniuse.com/#feat=cryptography) support in all modern browsers. It supports many algorithms, both symmetric and public key. With a good reminder for the user to keep their keys secure and may be backed up somewhere else, this should be the way to go.
12,764,725
My situation: 1. Medical staff wants to enter sensitive data of patients into a web browser (!) in order to store it to some database and later retrieve it again. 2. These data are not allowed to be seen by anyone else except the medical staff itself. This means that it must be encrypted using some secret token before it is transferred to the server. It also means that neither IT staff (having access to the server/database) nor anyone else should be able to decrypt it without the secret token. (If the token is lost, the data would never be accessible anymore.) 3. No additional software should be installed on the client machine, except some token (e.g., a private key) that one would export once and import it into all browsers from which data access should be granted. *So my question is:* Is there a way to encrypt/decrypt data on the client-side (e.g., using JavaScript) using some secret browser token that can be exchanged between browsers easily (I.e., exported/imported similar to X.509 certificates)? If not, which alternative solutions would be possible? Since conditions 1 and 2 are mandatory, only condition 3 may be modified, if necessary. However, still as little installation effort as possible should be necessary on the client-side. **EDIT: SSL is obviously only part of the answer to this question!**
2012/10/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12764725", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1264367/" ]
Take a look at [Web-browser encryption of personal health information](http://www.biomedcentral.com/1472-6947/11/70), whose "Abstract" section seems to describe your same problem. However, their "passcode" that generates the encryption key must be shared, which wouldn't let you differentiate medial staff. > > We describe a system for remote data entry that allows the data that > would identify the patient to be encrypted in the web browser of the > person entering the data. These data cannot be decrypted on the server > by the staff at the data center but can be decrypted by the person > entering the data or their delegate. We developed this system to solve > a problem that arose in the context of clinical research, but it is > applicable in a range of situations where sensitive information is > stored and updated in a database and it is necessary to ensure that it > cannot be viewed by any except those intentionally given access. > > >
Due to ProtonMail's efforts, there is now an open source PrivateKey implementation in the browser at: <https://openpgpjs.org/> This has had multiple security audits and is the basis of protonmail.com, so it has a fairly good records and maintainer in place. They also have a good summary of important security browser models.
12,764,725
My situation: 1. Medical staff wants to enter sensitive data of patients into a web browser (!) in order to store it to some database and later retrieve it again. 2. These data are not allowed to be seen by anyone else except the medical staff itself. This means that it must be encrypted using some secret token before it is transferred to the server. It also means that neither IT staff (having access to the server/database) nor anyone else should be able to decrypt it without the secret token. (If the token is lost, the data would never be accessible anymore.) 3. No additional software should be installed on the client machine, except some token (e.g., a private key) that one would export once and import it into all browsers from which data access should be granted. *So my question is:* Is there a way to encrypt/decrypt data on the client-side (e.g., using JavaScript) using some secret browser token that can be exchanged between browsers easily (I.e., exported/imported similar to X.509 certificates)? If not, which alternative solutions would be possible? Since conditions 1 and 2 are mandatory, only condition 3 may be modified, if necessary. However, still as little installation effort as possible should be necessary on the client-side. **EDIT: SSL is obviously only part of the answer to this question!**
2012/10/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12764725", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1264367/" ]
Take a look at [Web-browser encryption of personal health information](http://www.biomedcentral.com/1472-6947/11/70), whose "Abstract" section seems to describe your same problem. However, their "passcode" that generates the encryption key must be shared, which wouldn't let you differentiate medial staff. > > We describe a system for remote data entry that allows the data that > would identify the patient to be encrypted in the web browser of the > person entering the data. These data cannot be decrypted on the server > by the staff at the data center but can be decrypted by the person > entering the data or their delegate. We developed this system to solve > a problem that arose in the context of clinical research, but it is > applicable in a range of situations where sensitive information is > stored and updated in a database and it is necessary to ensure that it > cannot be viewed by any except those intentionally given access. > > >
The [Web Crypto API](https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/API/SubtleCrypto) has [pretty good](https://caniuse.com/#feat=cryptography) support in all modern browsers. It supports many algorithms, both symmetric and public key. With a good reminder for the user to keep their keys secure and may be backed up somewhere else, this should be the way to go.
12,764,725
My situation: 1. Medical staff wants to enter sensitive data of patients into a web browser (!) in order to store it to some database and later retrieve it again. 2. These data are not allowed to be seen by anyone else except the medical staff itself. This means that it must be encrypted using some secret token before it is transferred to the server. It also means that neither IT staff (having access to the server/database) nor anyone else should be able to decrypt it without the secret token. (If the token is lost, the data would never be accessible anymore.) 3. No additional software should be installed on the client machine, except some token (e.g., a private key) that one would export once and import it into all browsers from which data access should be granted. *So my question is:* Is there a way to encrypt/decrypt data on the client-side (e.g., using JavaScript) using some secret browser token that can be exchanged between browsers easily (I.e., exported/imported similar to X.509 certificates)? If not, which alternative solutions would be possible? Since conditions 1 and 2 are mandatory, only condition 3 may be modified, if necessary. However, still as little installation effort as possible should be necessary on the client-side. **EDIT: SSL is obviously only part of the answer to this question!**
2012/10/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/12764725", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1264367/" ]
Due to ProtonMail's efforts, there is now an open source PrivateKey implementation in the browser at: <https://openpgpjs.org/> This has had multiple security audits and is the basis of protonmail.com, so it has a fairly good records and maintainer in place. They also have a good summary of important security browser models.
The [Web Crypto API](https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/API/SubtleCrypto) has [pretty good](https://caniuse.com/#feat=cryptography) support in all modern browsers. It supports many algorithms, both symmetric and public key. With a good reminder for the user to keep their keys secure and may be backed up somewhere else, this should be the way to go.
422,702
If a balanced source or driver is coupled to a differential balanced receiver via a balanced STP cable as shown in the hand drawn illustration below: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DnIPp.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DnIPp.jpg) in such case I have read that grounding the shield of the STP cable at both receiver and source side might cause ground loops. Is there a difference between using |AA’| and |BB’| for grounding the shield? In other words is there a consensus about whether the shield must be grounded at receiver end or the source end? And what happens if the shield is not grounded at all?
2019/02/16
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/422702", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/163738/" ]
Best practice is to ground the shield at the receiver end. This of course assumes that the transmit end (the sending end) is designed adequately. Not grounding the shield raises the net capacitance of the inner conductors to any aggressor electric field and creates higher common mode voltages on the differential pair and, due to small impedance imbalances on the differential pair, some of that common mode interference is converted to differential interference. Hence not grounding the shield creates more interference on the otherwise pure signal and deteriorates the receiver amplifier’s ability to reject common mode noise.
You are correct in your research so far. A rule of thumb is that a shield is always grounded at the signal input ground (The ground of an IC op-amp), not power ground, even though it maybe a ground 'trace'. A more extreme example would be ultra-sensitive brain-wave sensors. Yes, a common signal ground is attached to both ear lobes, but in addition each input wire is shielded, with the shield connected to an op-amp output equal to the inverse of the input signal. This is an 'active' shield that neutralises all but the most extreme noise. Connecting a shield wire at both ends allows DC offsets to occur, but can be cancelled out if both drive and receiver are differential. Sometimes this is done with a 100K resistor at the signal source ground and the cable shield connects to the resistor. The idea is to allow a high impedance reference to keep a floating source signal in the common-mode range of the inputs, but not allow offset currents over a few microamps to develop. You do NOT want to have an ungrounded shield. It would act like an antenna and pull in all kinds of noise. If the wire or twisted pair is shielded, it needs to be grounded as mentioned above.
29,566,714
As far as I know, a Turing machine can be made to execute loops or iterations of instructions encoded on a Tape. This can be done by identifying Line separators and making the Turing machine go back until a specific count of Line separators is reached (that is, inside the loop). But, can a Turing machine also execute a recursive program? Can someone describe various details for such a Turing Machine? I suppose, if recursion can be executed by a Turing machine, the Quicksort can also be performed?
2015/04/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/29566714", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3298165/" ]
If the question is if a Turing Machine can execute a sorting algorithm, the answer is yes, since any computable function can be implemented on a Turing Machine. However, if the question is really about mimicking the structure of quicksort, preserving its complexity, the answer is not so trivial, and it also depends on the number of tapes. Supposing to have n elements, each one of dimension l=k\*log(n), it has been proved that the best sorting algorithm on a single tape Turing Machine has complexity O(n^2\*log(n)), so, in this case the answer is no: you have nothing similar to a quicksort. On the other side, with three tapes, you may write merge-sort like algorithms running with complexity O(n\*log(n)\*l). The dimension l of data is relevant in this context, since you cannot expect they can fit in a single tape cell (otherwise they would be finite, and sorting elements in a finite range is a simpler, linear problem). In general, the problem with Turing machines is that exchanging the content of two cells takes a time proportional to their distance. Things are even worse when you need to move around (or compare) consecutive portions of the tape of lenght l, since on a single tape machine you need to move back and forth l times between the two locations on the tape. See "Element distinctness and sorting on one-tape off-line turing machines" by Holger Petersen, 2008 for more references.
Yes, a Turing machine can perform any algorithm, including Quicksort.
23,936,869
So, I'm creating an android app, and along with my standard registration method, I'd like to allow users to register using their Google account. I've seen a lot of information on "Log in with Google+" as well as OAuth implementations. However, I still haven't seen anything that really touches on just authenticating a user and allowing them to register for an application using their Google account, and then later log in using the same account, referencing my local copy of the user account record in my database. Essentially, what I want to do is: * Allow user to register an account using their Google account, which I assume would pull basic information such as name and email address, which I could use to create a local db record * When the user registers with their Google account, tie that registration or token id to the actual record in my database. Something that allows me to identify that user/record with a Google Account * When that user decides to login with Google, search for an existing association (access/token id) and log them in with that information (assuming it's still valid) and at the same time pull their local account information (for example, submitted reviews for a movie review application) that is tied to that Google Account. I hope I've explained what I'm trying to accomplish, but if it still sounds a bit vague let me know and I'll try to explain more. Any help is greatly appreciated. I obviously don't expect anyone to code this for me, just to point me in the right direction, or just tell me that what I'm trying to do is a horrible idea. Either way, thanks in advance!
2014/05/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/23936869", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1778116/" ]
You should start by reading some tutorials on how to achieve the registration. <https://developers.google.com/+/mobile/android/sign-in> and <https://developer.android.com/google/play-services/index.html> Maybe for the handling of the database you should use a content provider: <http://thinkandroid.wordpress.com/2010/01/13/writing-your-own-contentprovider/> or <http://www.vogella.com/tutorials/AndroidSQLite/article.html> the rest is just coding and some hard work. Hope i addressed you problem.
You can get the list of Google accounts on the machine and use that as a key (see AccountManager), but how do you prevent someone from faking a connection to your server using someone else account ? 'Just' authenticating is complicated if you want 1/ to avoid security flaws and 2/ to avoid to handle the user password. So OAuth is the way to go: the phone will generate an access token (after the user is prompted to allow your application to access his account), this token can be sent to your server (https), then your server can check against google servers that the token is valid and get back a unique id for the user. See <http://developer.android.com/google/play-services/auth.html>
60,455
I am applying for a Ph.D. in Mathematics in U.S. universities from India. The application process requires me to register people who can comment on my capability for research and recommend me for the graduate school. I have heard that since most applicants for (pure) mathematics Ph.D.s generally do not have publications to show, the recommendations are crucial in the selection process. Hence, I have three questions about selecting my recommenders wisely. 1) Do you feel that recommendations coming from a Professor carries more weightage than the ones coming from an Assistant Professor? My question is that, does the seniority of my recommender add any extra weight or credibility to the recommendation? 2) If a senior Professor gives me 'above average'(or 'good') recommendation while another Assistant Professor ( just two years on the job, not very famous but a very active and well cited researcher) gives me 'excellent' recommendation - which one do you think will support my application better? 3) Which recommendation should I prefer - from a person with whom I worked on a project for around a month, or , from someone who has taught me two courses over two semesters?
2015/12/21
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/60455", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/45138/" ]
Choosing recommenders doesn't exactly have clear-cut rules, so it's going to be impossible to give specific advice without detailed knowledge of your exact situation. That said, some guidelines that I found helpful: * Try to cover all your bases. I'd recommend having at least one professor with whom you worked with closely on a research project or something similar, and at least one professor who knows you well from class(es) in which you excelled. Remember that you generally have three recommendations to work with, so make sure all of them are useful. * In general, you want the best letters possible, regardless of rank or prestige. As long as they're faculty and actively do (or even did) research, go for your best letters. Again, this is where you can cover your bases a little with multiple letters, hopefully not all of your potential recommenders are brand-new faculty. * Don't be afraid to simply schedule a meeting or send an email and ask them for their thoughts. In my experience, most faculty are excited to see their students aspire to graduate school and are very willing to talk about it. You should at least be able to ask your potential recommenders if they can write a *good* recommendation. * If a recommendation letter doesn't add information to your application, then it probably isn't helpful. If a professor who taught you can pretty much just say the grade you got in the class, then it doesn't add anything over your transcript. Lots of applicants make this mistake, assuming that an A in one or two classes is enough to get a good letter. You can get great letters from professors who only taught you, but make sure that you actually gave them something to talk about in those classes. I should also say that most people shouldn't have to worry too much about these considerations. It usually comes down to picking the best third letter writer or something. But if you find yourself trying to parse through many decisions in selecting letter writers, then you're probably overthinking it or reaching down too far. Ultimately, developing good potential recommenders is the hard part, and hopefully that has already happened.
I’ll give a perspective as a professor in a Physics department in the U.S. —- I would guess that Math is quite similar. About #2: An “excellent” recommendation from the assistant professor is far better than a “good” one from a senior professor, and even more so if the assistant professor is active and well known. The more a recommendation differentiates you from the “average” student, the better, so excellent recommendations count for a lot. The status of the recommender is important, but just being senior in itself is not as big a plus as being well-known and active. About #3: The recommendation related to the project is more valuable than that of the class, unless you did something in the class (e.g. an independent project) that was really special, and that isn’t reflected in your grade for the class. Note that the admissions committee already has some insight into how you do in courses, from your grades. How you’ll do in research is something they want information about. About #1: see above — seniority per se isn’t that valuable. It’s true that more senior people often have very good reputations, and often have a broad context in which to evaluate you, but being senior *in itself* doesn’t carry a lot of weight. (I will claim that this is generally true in the U.S.)
6,104,401
i have one web application. index.aspx is my default page. so my problem is when my app starts for the first time it take 15sec to load the page. in my index.aspx has just simple static menu. when i put a break point in page\_load it got hit after 15 sec. so its not my page but something else is causing this issue. may be pre compilation or loading dlls or something. i really need help on this. i dont know where to look. Thanks
2011/05/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6104401", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/231613/" ]
Every time you rebuild your application the server has to recompile the code, but should be quicker after the first visit. Additionally, using the debugger will degrade performance. If you want to view the site locally with better performance overall you might want to setup a website in IIS, rather than using Visual Studio's built in web server.
Let your page render then click view source and look at the external libraries that a referenced by the page. Normally forcing the client to download a large external javascript library is the cause of this (this library should be cached on the client and not affect future page loads).
6,104,401
i have one web application. index.aspx is my default page. so my problem is when my app starts for the first time it take 15sec to load the page. in my index.aspx has just simple static menu. when i put a break point in page\_load it got hit after 15 sec. so its not my page but something else is causing this issue. may be pre compilation or loading dlls or something. i really need help on this. i dont know where to look. Thanks
2011/05/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6104401", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/231613/" ]
This is perfectly normal. When you first initialize an application after a fresh deploy, the ASP.NET pages will compile into assemblies for reference in IIS. There are ways however to precompile these pages. See the following MSDN article for information on how to precompile your web pages for faster initial load times. <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms227972.aspx>
Let your page render then click view source and look at the external libraries that a referenced by the page. Normally forcing the client to download a large external javascript library is the cause of this (this library should be cached on the client and not affect future page loads).
50,389
One of John Calvin's arguments against transubstantiation and consubstantiation was that the body of Christ, as a human body, could not be in more than one place at a time. His view of the Eucharist was thus one of *spiritual* presence, not *real* presence as understood by Catholics. Luther argued that Jesus's body *could* be in multiple places at one time, thanks to its divine properties, and that this allowed for consubstantiation. This, as I understand it, is known as Luther's doctrine of ubiquity. As a Calvinist with relatively little exposure to Catholicism, I assumed that Catholicism took the same approach on this issue, as transubstantiation seems to similarly require a doctrine justifying the idea that Jesus's physical body can be in multiple places at once. But Ludwig Ott opposes my assumption in [*Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma*](https://isidore.co/calibre#panel=book_details&book_id=7262): > > [Luther] explained the possibility of the Real Presence of the body and blood of Christ by the aid of the **untenable** Ubiquity Doctrine, according to which the human nature of Christ by virtue of the Hypostatic Union, has a real share in the properties of the Deity, and thereby also in the omnipresence of God. [372, emphasis added] > > > So, I'm wondering—how do Catholics view the distinction between Luther's doctrine of ubiquity and whatever solution Catholicism uses that allows Jesus's physical body to be present in more than one place at one time? What makes Luther's view "untenable" in their eyes? (Apologies if the question is crude; I'm no expert on transubstantiation. If those answering keep that in mind, I'd be grateful!)
2016/06/24
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50389", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/21576/" ]
From what you've quoted of Ott, it sounds like this "Ubiquity\* Doctrine" holds that Christ's human nature *is* His divine nature. This is the heresy of *monophysitism*,\*\* which says that Christ only has one nature, not both human and divine natures. \*(*ubi-* = Latin for "where" or "in what place") \*\*(*mono-* = one; *phys-* = nature) It is not necessary, for explaining how Christ can be substantially present under the Eucharistic species in multiple locations around the world, to think that Christ's human and divine natures are the same. In fact, even some saints have bilocated, and they certainly are not God. To understand this, we need to first understand the distinction between 1. substance 2. accidents ("properties"). The substance of something is its essence, the answer to the question "What/who is it?" Accidents ("properties") inhere in a substance; they are not essential to it, but they cannot exist without it.\* For example, my substance is myself, what makes me to be what I am (my particular body and soul). My hair, for example, is an accident, a quality of myself; I am still myself regardless whether I have hair or not, if it is long or short, etc. Another accident of myself is my location. I am still the same substance regardless where I am; viz., it's not essential to myself to be located in a particular place. My size is another accident of myself; I have always been myself even when I was as small as a fetus in my mother's womb or as large as a grown adult. \*(except in transubstantiation, where God miraculously maintains the existence of the accidents of bread and wine without their inhering in the substance of bread and wine, which is replaced by the substance of Christ Himself; cf. the [*Catechism of the Council of Trent*, ch. The Holy Eucharist, § "Three Mysteries Of The Eucharist"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/49011/1787)) With this understanding, you can follow St. Thomas Aquinas's reasoning when he answers the question "Whether the whole Christ is contained under this sacrament?," [*Summa Theologica* III q. 76 a. 1](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP076.html#TPQ76A1THEP1) ad 3: Some terminology he uses: "dimensive quantity" = e.g., length, breadth, width; "by way of substance" (*per modum substantiae*) = "substantially"; the adverb "locally" (*[localiter](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=localiter&la=la#lexicon)*) = "place-ly" or "in the manner of a place (*[locus](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=locus&la=la#lexicon)*)" > > As has been already stated ([Question [75]](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP075.html#TPQ75OUTP1), [Article [5](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/search?query=title:Le%20Syst%C3%A8me%20du%20Monde)](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP075.html#TPQ75A5THEP1)\*), after the consecration of the bread into the body of Christ, or of the wine into His blood, the accidents of both [the bread & wine] remain. From which it is evident that the dimensions of the bread or wine are not changed into the dimensions of the body of Christ, but substance into substance. And so the substance of Christ's body or blood is under this sacrament by the power of the sacrament, but not the dimensions of Christ's body or blood. Hence it is clear that the body of Christ is in this sacrament, and not by way of quantity. But the proper totality of substance is contained indifferently in a small or large quantity; as the whole nature of air in a great or small amount of air, and the whole nature of a man in a big or small individual. Wherefore, after the consecration, the whole substance of Christ's body and blood is contained in this sacrament, just as the whole substance of the bread and wine was contained there before the consecration. > > > \*"Whether the accidents of the bread and wine remain in this sacrament after the change [effected by consecration]?" Finally, we can understand his answer to what appears to be your question: "**Whether Christ's body is in this sacrament as in a place?,**" in [*Summa Theologica* III q. 76 a. 5](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP076.html#TPQ76A5THEP1) c.: > > As stated above [what I quoted above], Christ's body is in this sacrament not after the proper manner of dimensive quantity, but rather after the manner of substance. But every body occupying a place is in the place according to the manner of dimensive quantity, namely, inasmuch as it is commensurate with the place according to its dimensive quantity. Hence it remains that Christ's body is not in this sacrament as in a place, but after the manner of substance, that is to say, in that way in which substance is contained by dimensions; because the substance of Christ's body succeeds the substance of bread in this sacrament: hence as the substance of bread was not locally under its dimensions, but after the manner of substance, so neither is the substance of Christ's body. Nevertheless the substance of Christ's body is not the subject of those dimensions, as was the substance of the bread: and therefore the substance of the bread was there locally by reason of its dimensions, because it was compared with that place through the medium of its own dimensions; but the substance of Christ's body is compared with that place through the medium of foreign dimensions, so that, on the contrary, the proper dimensions of Christ's body are compared with that place through the medium of substance; which is contrary to the notion of a located body. > > > Hence in no way is Christ's body locally in this sacrament. > > > The reason this may seem obscure is because the question of place or location\* is an immensely deep physics concept, like time or infinity. See Catholic physicist and historian of physics [Pierre Duhem](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx)'s magisterial, 10 volume work in the history of medieval physics: * [Duhem, Pierre Maurice Marie](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx). *[Le système du monde: Histoire des doctrines cosmologiques de Platon à Copernic](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/search?query=title:Le%20Syst%C3%A8me%20du%20Monde)*. 10 vols. Paris: A. Hermann, 1913-1959. Partially translated in: * [Duhem, Pierre Maurice Marie](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx). *[Medieval Cosmology: Theories of Infinity, Place, Time, Void, and the Plurality of Worlds](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/book/4757)*. Edited and translated by Roger Ariew. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1985. + see: Part II "Place" pp. 137-291 The medieval physicists' penetrating disputations on place, in part to understand transubstantiation more deeply, laid the foundations for modern physics, as [I discuss on History of Science SE](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/a/2147/232). \*(In Latin there are several words for these related concepts: [*ubi*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=ubi&la=la#lexicon), [*locus*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=locus&la=la#lexicon), [*positio*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=positio&la=la#lexicon), [*situs*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=situs&la=la#lexicon), etc.)
The ubiquity doctrine is problematic to Catholics in that it does not acknowledge a "real" (substantial) change. > > Second, Lutherans reject Rome's identification of the bread and wine as the corporal body and blood of the Lord. At the Lord's Table, **the bread remains bread; the wine remains wine**. Luther, however, argued that there was a communication of divine attributes to the human nature of the incarnate Christ. The attribute that interests us here is omnipresence. **Because the Lord's body is omnipresent**, Luther argues, **Christ is physically present "in, with, and under" the bread and wine**. The Lutheran doctrine is commonly called "consubstantiation." (See Westminster Confession of Faith 29.7) > > > * <http://www.opc.org/qa.html?question_id=89> This is mostly consistent with the answer given here: > > Consubstantiation (also called impanation) says that, after consecration, bread remains and Christ becomes present within, among, or "along-side" the bread. > > > * [What is the Lutheran doctrine of consubstantiation and how does it differ from transubstantiation and a more general protestant sacramental view?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/35744/what-is-the-lutheran-doctrine-of-consubstantiation-and-how-does-it-differ-from-t) There's an inconsistency between these two interpretations in whether Christ *becomes* present or *is always* present with the bread and wine. The general philosophical understanding of *omnipresence* would suggest the latter. *In either case,* the bread and wine remain *substantially* present in Luther's doctrines. In Catholic doctrine, they are no longer bread and wine *substantially*, only *accidentally* (in appearance).
50,389
One of John Calvin's arguments against transubstantiation and consubstantiation was that the body of Christ, as a human body, could not be in more than one place at a time. His view of the Eucharist was thus one of *spiritual* presence, not *real* presence as understood by Catholics. Luther argued that Jesus's body *could* be in multiple places at one time, thanks to its divine properties, and that this allowed for consubstantiation. This, as I understand it, is known as Luther's doctrine of ubiquity. As a Calvinist with relatively little exposure to Catholicism, I assumed that Catholicism took the same approach on this issue, as transubstantiation seems to similarly require a doctrine justifying the idea that Jesus's physical body can be in multiple places at once. But Ludwig Ott opposes my assumption in [*Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma*](https://isidore.co/calibre#panel=book_details&book_id=7262): > > [Luther] explained the possibility of the Real Presence of the body and blood of Christ by the aid of the **untenable** Ubiquity Doctrine, according to which the human nature of Christ by virtue of the Hypostatic Union, has a real share in the properties of the Deity, and thereby also in the omnipresence of God. [372, emphasis added] > > > So, I'm wondering—how do Catholics view the distinction between Luther's doctrine of ubiquity and whatever solution Catholicism uses that allows Jesus's physical body to be present in more than one place at one time? What makes Luther's view "untenable" in their eyes? (Apologies if the question is crude; I'm no expert on transubstantiation. If those answering keep that in mind, I'd be grateful!)
2016/06/24
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50389", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/21576/" ]
From what you've quoted of Ott, it sounds like this "Ubiquity\* Doctrine" holds that Christ's human nature *is* His divine nature. This is the heresy of *monophysitism*,\*\* which says that Christ only has one nature, not both human and divine natures. \*(*ubi-* = Latin for "where" or "in what place") \*\*(*mono-* = one; *phys-* = nature) It is not necessary, for explaining how Christ can be substantially present under the Eucharistic species in multiple locations around the world, to think that Christ's human and divine natures are the same. In fact, even some saints have bilocated, and they certainly are not God. To understand this, we need to first understand the distinction between 1. substance 2. accidents ("properties"). The substance of something is its essence, the answer to the question "What/who is it?" Accidents ("properties") inhere in a substance; they are not essential to it, but they cannot exist without it.\* For example, my substance is myself, what makes me to be what I am (my particular body and soul). My hair, for example, is an accident, a quality of myself; I am still myself regardless whether I have hair or not, if it is long or short, etc. Another accident of myself is my location. I am still the same substance regardless where I am; viz., it's not essential to myself to be located in a particular place. My size is another accident of myself; I have always been myself even when I was as small as a fetus in my mother's womb or as large as a grown adult. \*(except in transubstantiation, where God miraculously maintains the existence of the accidents of bread and wine without their inhering in the substance of bread and wine, which is replaced by the substance of Christ Himself; cf. the [*Catechism of the Council of Trent*, ch. The Holy Eucharist, § "Three Mysteries Of The Eucharist"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/49011/1787)) With this understanding, you can follow St. Thomas Aquinas's reasoning when he answers the question "Whether the whole Christ is contained under this sacrament?," [*Summa Theologica* III q. 76 a. 1](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP076.html#TPQ76A1THEP1) ad 3: Some terminology he uses: "dimensive quantity" = e.g., length, breadth, width; "by way of substance" (*per modum substantiae*) = "substantially"; the adverb "locally" (*[localiter](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=localiter&la=la#lexicon)*) = "place-ly" or "in the manner of a place (*[locus](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=locus&la=la#lexicon)*)" > > As has been already stated ([Question [75]](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP075.html#TPQ75OUTP1), [Article [5](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/search?query=title:Le%20Syst%C3%A8me%20du%20Monde)](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP075.html#TPQ75A5THEP1)\*), after the consecration of the bread into the body of Christ, or of the wine into His blood, the accidents of both [the bread & wine] remain. From which it is evident that the dimensions of the bread or wine are not changed into the dimensions of the body of Christ, but substance into substance. And so the substance of Christ's body or blood is under this sacrament by the power of the sacrament, but not the dimensions of Christ's body or blood. Hence it is clear that the body of Christ is in this sacrament, and not by way of quantity. But the proper totality of substance is contained indifferently in a small or large quantity; as the whole nature of air in a great or small amount of air, and the whole nature of a man in a big or small individual. Wherefore, after the consecration, the whole substance of Christ's body and blood is contained in this sacrament, just as the whole substance of the bread and wine was contained there before the consecration. > > > \*"Whether the accidents of the bread and wine remain in this sacrament after the change [effected by consecration]?" Finally, we can understand his answer to what appears to be your question: "**Whether Christ's body is in this sacrament as in a place?,**" in [*Summa Theologica* III q. 76 a. 5](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP076.html#TPQ76A5THEP1) c.: > > As stated above [what I quoted above], Christ's body is in this sacrament not after the proper manner of dimensive quantity, but rather after the manner of substance. But every body occupying a place is in the place according to the manner of dimensive quantity, namely, inasmuch as it is commensurate with the place according to its dimensive quantity. Hence it remains that Christ's body is not in this sacrament as in a place, but after the manner of substance, that is to say, in that way in which substance is contained by dimensions; because the substance of Christ's body succeeds the substance of bread in this sacrament: hence as the substance of bread was not locally under its dimensions, but after the manner of substance, so neither is the substance of Christ's body. Nevertheless the substance of Christ's body is not the subject of those dimensions, as was the substance of the bread: and therefore the substance of the bread was there locally by reason of its dimensions, because it was compared with that place through the medium of its own dimensions; but the substance of Christ's body is compared with that place through the medium of foreign dimensions, so that, on the contrary, the proper dimensions of Christ's body are compared with that place through the medium of substance; which is contrary to the notion of a located body. > > > Hence in no way is Christ's body locally in this sacrament. > > > The reason this may seem obscure is because the question of place or location\* is an immensely deep physics concept, like time or infinity. See Catholic physicist and historian of physics [Pierre Duhem](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx)'s magisterial, 10 volume work in the history of medieval physics: * [Duhem, Pierre Maurice Marie](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx). *[Le système du monde: Histoire des doctrines cosmologiques de Platon à Copernic](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/search?query=title:Le%20Syst%C3%A8me%20du%20Monde)*. 10 vols. Paris: A. Hermann, 1913-1959. Partially translated in: * [Duhem, Pierre Maurice Marie](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx). *[Medieval Cosmology: Theories of Infinity, Place, Time, Void, and the Plurality of Worlds](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/book/4757)*. Edited and translated by Roger Ariew. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1985. + see: Part II "Place" pp. 137-291 The medieval physicists' penetrating disputations on place, in part to understand transubstantiation more deeply, laid the foundations for modern physics, as [I discuss on History of Science SE](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/a/2147/232). \*(In Latin there are several words for these related concepts: [*ubi*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=ubi&la=la#lexicon), [*locus*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=locus&la=la#lexicon), [*positio*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=positio&la=la#lexicon), [*situs*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=situs&la=la#lexicon), etc.)
Why Calvin Errs --------------- [![loading image...](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mIia8.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mIia8.jpg) ***Jesus' miraculously makes enough food for everyone, from a limited amount.*** The simple answer is the miracle Jesus performed prior to instituting the Eucharist: **the miracle of superabundance.** Jesus can take normal bread and normal fish (which are both examples of matter, body, flesh) of a limited amount and measure, and make it as abundant as necessary (being a miracle): > > **Matthew 14:15-21** > > > And when it was evening, his disciples came to him, saying: This is a > desert place, and the hour is now past: send away the multitudes, that > going into the towns, they may buy themselves victuals. But Jesus > said to them, They have no need to go: give you them to eat. They > answered him: We have not here, but *five loaves, and two fishes.* He > said to them: Bring them hither to me. And when he had commanded > the multitudes to sit down upon the grass, **he took the five loaves and > the two fishes, and looking up to heaven, he blessed, and broke, and > gave the loaves to his disciples,** and the disciples to the multitudes. > And **they did all eat, and were filled.** And they took up what > *remained, twelve full baskets of fragments. And the number of them > that did eat, was five thousand men, besides women and children.* > > > We thus read that Christ does the same when instituting the Eucharist: > > **Matthew 26:26 et seq.** > > > And whilst they were at supper, **Jesus took bread, and blessed, and > broke: and gave to his disciples,** and said: Take ye, and eat. **This is** > my body. ... > > > Thus, there is no Biblical argument against Christ being able to make His Body superabundant as well. In fact, I think it's quite obvious the connection made here between these two miracles. Why Luther Errs --------------- Luther is making an argument which implies monophysitism: 'Christ's two natures are actual one new nature:' mixing the attributes of both beyond what is true of the Hypostatic Union (which is a way of saying His two natures are distinct, but not separate; united in the one *Person* of the Word). In addition, the subject of the miracle need not be divine (for example, the loaves and fishes). The Catholic Answer ------------------- One is wise to consult the great St. Thomas Aquinas for questions such as these. As written in another answer here, St. Thomas explains that transubstantiation means that 'Christ's Body' is that which the substance of the bread and the wine is made, by a miracle of God. Not that His Body is specifically 'torn' off Him and placed at the Eucharist. It's simply that the Divine Word says, through the priest, "This is My Body" (*Mt 26:26*) "and it [becomes] so" (*Gen 1:7; 1 Cor 10:16*)—the bread becomes Christ's Body and Blood with the exception that it's appearance, or outward, tangible aspect (called *accidents*), is not changed into that of Christ's Body and Blood.
50,389
One of John Calvin's arguments against transubstantiation and consubstantiation was that the body of Christ, as a human body, could not be in more than one place at a time. His view of the Eucharist was thus one of *spiritual* presence, not *real* presence as understood by Catholics. Luther argued that Jesus's body *could* be in multiple places at one time, thanks to its divine properties, and that this allowed for consubstantiation. This, as I understand it, is known as Luther's doctrine of ubiquity. As a Calvinist with relatively little exposure to Catholicism, I assumed that Catholicism took the same approach on this issue, as transubstantiation seems to similarly require a doctrine justifying the idea that Jesus's physical body can be in multiple places at once. But Ludwig Ott opposes my assumption in [*Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma*](https://isidore.co/calibre#panel=book_details&book_id=7262): > > [Luther] explained the possibility of the Real Presence of the body and blood of Christ by the aid of the **untenable** Ubiquity Doctrine, according to which the human nature of Christ by virtue of the Hypostatic Union, has a real share in the properties of the Deity, and thereby also in the omnipresence of God. [372, emphasis added] > > > So, I'm wondering—how do Catholics view the distinction between Luther's doctrine of ubiquity and whatever solution Catholicism uses that allows Jesus's physical body to be present in more than one place at one time? What makes Luther's view "untenable" in their eyes? (Apologies if the question is crude; I'm no expert on transubstantiation. If those answering keep that in mind, I'd be grateful!)
2016/06/24
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50389", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/21576/" ]
From what you've quoted of Ott, it sounds like this "Ubiquity\* Doctrine" holds that Christ's human nature *is* His divine nature. This is the heresy of *monophysitism*,\*\* which says that Christ only has one nature, not both human and divine natures. \*(*ubi-* = Latin for "where" or "in what place") \*\*(*mono-* = one; *phys-* = nature) It is not necessary, for explaining how Christ can be substantially present under the Eucharistic species in multiple locations around the world, to think that Christ's human and divine natures are the same. In fact, even some saints have bilocated, and they certainly are not God. To understand this, we need to first understand the distinction between 1. substance 2. accidents ("properties"). The substance of something is its essence, the answer to the question "What/who is it?" Accidents ("properties") inhere in a substance; they are not essential to it, but they cannot exist without it.\* For example, my substance is myself, what makes me to be what I am (my particular body and soul). My hair, for example, is an accident, a quality of myself; I am still myself regardless whether I have hair or not, if it is long or short, etc. Another accident of myself is my location. I am still the same substance regardless where I am; viz., it's not essential to myself to be located in a particular place. My size is another accident of myself; I have always been myself even when I was as small as a fetus in my mother's womb or as large as a grown adult. \*(except in transubstantiation, where God miraculously maintains the existence of the accidents of bread and wine without their inhering in the substance of bread and wine, which is replaced by the substance of Christ Himself; cf. the [*Catechism of the Council of Trent*, ch. The Holy Eucharist, § "Three Mysteries Of The Eucharist"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/49011/1787)) With this understanding, you can follow St. Thomas Aquinas's reasoning when he answers the question "Whether the whole Christ is contained under this sacrament?," [*Summa Theologica* III q. 76 a. 1](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP076.html#TPQ76A1THEP1) ad 3: Some terminology he uses: "dimensive quantity" = e.g., length, breadth, width; "by way of substance" (*per modum substantiae*) = "substantially"; the adverb "locally" (*[localiter](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=localiter&la=la#lexicon)*) = "place-ly" or "in the manner of a place (*[locus](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=locus&la=la#lexicon)*)" > > As has been already stated ([Question [75]](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP075.html#TPQ75OUTP1), [Article [5](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/search?query=title:Le%20Syst%C3%A8me%20du%20Monde)](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP075.html#TPQ75A5THEP1)\*), after the consecration of the bread into the body of Christ, or of the wine into His blood, the accidents of both [the bread & wine] remain. From which it is evident that the dimensions of the bread or wine are not changed into the dimensions of the body of Christ, but substance into substance. And so the substance of Christ's body or blood is under this sacrament by the power of the sacrament, but not the dimensions of Christ's body or blood. Hence it is clear that the body of Christ is in this sacrament, and not by way of quantity. But the proper totality of substance is contained indifferently in a small or large quantity; as the whole nature of air in a great or small amount of air, and the whole nature of a man in a big or small individual. Wherefore, after the consecration, the whole substance of Christ's body and blood is contained in this sacrament, just as the whole substance of the bread and wine was contained there before the consecration. > > > \*"Whether the accidents of the bread and wine remain in this sacrament after the change [effected by consecration]?" Finally, we can understand his answer to what appears to be your question: "**Whether Christ's body is in this sacrament as in a place?,**" in [*Summa Theologica* III q. 76 a. 5](https://isidore.co/aquinas/summa/TP/TP076.html#TPQ76A5THEP1) c.: > > As stated above [what I quoted above], Christ's body is in this sacrament not after the proper manner of dimensive quantity, but rather after the manner of substance. But every body occupying a place is in the place according to the manner of dimensive quantity, namely, inasmuch as it is commensurate with the place according to its dimensive quantity. Hence it remains that Christ's body is not in this sacrament as in a place, but after the manner of substance, that is to say, in that way in which substance is contained by dimensions; because the substance of Christ's body succeeds the substance of bread in this sacrament: hence as the substance of bread was not locally under its dimensions, but after the manner of substance, so neither is the substance of Christ's body. Nevertheless the substance of Christ's body is not the subject of those dimensions, as was the substance of the bread: and therefore the substance of the bread was there locally by reason of its dimensions, because it was compared with that place through the medium of its own dimensions; but the substance of Christ's body is compared with that place through the medium of foreign dimensions, so that, on the contrary, the proper dimensions of Christ's body are compared with that place through the medium of substance; which is contrary to the notion of a located body. > > > Hence in no way is Christ's body locally in this sacrament. > > > The reason this may seem obscure is because the question of place or location\* is an immensely deep physics concept, like time or infinity. See Catholic physicist and historian of physics [Pierre Duhem](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx)'s magisterial, 10 volume work in the history of medieval physics: * [Duhem, Pierre Maurice Marie](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx). *[Le système du monde: Histoire des doctrines cosmologiques de Platon à Copernic](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/search?query=title:Le%20Syst%C3%A8me%20du%20Monde)*. 10 vols. Paris: A. Hermann, 1913-1959. Partially translated in: * [Duhem, Pierre Maurice Marie](http://www.encyclopedia.com/topic/Pierre_Maurice_Marie_Duhem.aspx). *[Medieval Cosmology: Theories of Infinity, Place, Time, Void, and the Plurality of Worlds](https://isidore.co/calibre/browse/book/4757)*. Edited and translated by Roger Ariew. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1985. + see: Part II "Place" pp. 137-291 The medieval physicists' penetrating disputations on place, in part to understand transubstantiation more deeply, laid the foundations for modern physics, as [I discuss on History of Science SE](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/a/2147/232). \*(In Latin there are several words for these related concepts: [*ubi*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=ubi&la=la#lexicon), [*locus*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=locus&la=la#lexicon), [*positio*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=positio&la=la#lexicon), [*situs*](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=situs&la=la#lexicon), etc.)
What is wrong with Luther's doctrine of ubiquity is that it flatly contradicts the Christological definition of the Ecumenical Council of Chalcedon: > > one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged > in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; > (ἐν δύο φύσεσιν ἀσυγχύτως, ἀτρέπτως, ἀδιαιρέτως, ἀχωρίστως – Latin: in > duabus naturis inconfuse, immutabiliter, indivise, inseparabiliter) > the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, > but rather **the peculiar property (ἰδιότητος) of each nature being > preserved**, and concurring in one Person (πρόσωπον - Prósopon) and > one Subsistence (ὑπὸστασιν - Hypostasis), > > > The body of Jesus, in both its mortal and its glorified state, is **a true material body** and not a spirit, as Jesus Himself remarked after his resurrection: > > "See My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself; touch Me and see, for > a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have." (Lk > 24:39) > > > A **peculiar property** of material bodies like a piece of bread or the body of a human being is that **only one such body can be at a given time in a given extension of space.** If in a given extension of space there is a piece of bread, the body of a human being cannot be at the same time in that same extension of space. This is true whether said body is in a mortal or in a glorified state, or whether said body belongs to a human person or to a divine Person Who assumed a human nature, because "the distinction of natures" is "by no means taken away by the (hypostatic) union, but rather **the peculiar property (ἰδιότητος) of each nature" is "preserved"**. Therefore, divine power can make a human body (not just the body of Jesus) to be in several places at the same time, but it cannot make a human body, **if the peculiar property of its nature is to be preserved**, to be at the same time in the same extension of space as a piece of bread or whatever other material body. Just as divine power cannot make anything intrinsically self-contradictory, like a square circle.
50,389
One of John Calvin's arguments against transubstantiation and consubstantiation was that the body of Christ, as a human body, could not be in more than one place at a time. His view of the Eucharist was thus one of *spiritual* presence, not *real* presence as understood by Catholics. Luther argued that Jesus's body *could* be in multiple places at one time, thanks to its divine properties, and that this allowed for consubstantiation. This, as I understand it, is known as Luther's doctrine of ubiquity. As a Calvinist with relatively little exposure to Catholicism, I assumed that Catholicism took the same approach on this issue, as transubstantiation seems to similarly require a doctrine justifying the idea that Jesus's physical body can be in multiple places at once. But Ludwig Ott opposes my assumption in [*Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma*](https://isidore.co/calibre#panel=book_details&book_id=7262): > > [Luther] explained the possibility of the Real Presence of the body and blood of Christ by the aid of the **untenable** Ubiquity Doctrine, according to which the human nature of Christ by virtue of the Hypostatic Union, has a real share in the properties of the Deity, and thereby also in the omnipresence of God. [372, emphasis added] > > > So, I'm wondering—how do Catholics view the distinction between Luther's doctrine of ubiquity and whatever solution Catholicism uses that allows Jesus's physical body to be present in more than one place at one time? What makes Luther's view "untenable" in their eyes? (Apologies if the question is crude; I'm no expert on transubstantiation. If those answering keep that in mind, I'd be grateful!)
2016/06/24
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50389", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/21576/" ]
The ubiquity doctrine is problematic to Catholics in that it does not acknowledge a "real" (substantial) change. > > Second, Lutherans reject Rome's identification of the bread and wine as the corporal body and blood of the Lord. At the Lord's Table, **the bread remains bread; the wine remains wine**. Luther, however, argued that there was a communication of divine attributes to the human nature of the incarnate Christ. The attribute that interests us here is omnipresence. **Because the Lord's body is omnipresent**, Luther argues, **Christ is physically present "in, with, and under" the bread and wine**. The Lutheran doctrine is commonly called "consubstantiation." (See Westminster Confession of Faith 29.7) > > > * <http://www.opc.org/qa.html?question_id=89> This is mostly consistent with the answer given here: > > Consubstantiation (also called impanation) says that, after consecration, bread remains and Christ becomes present within, among, or "along-side" the bread. > > > * [What is the Lutheran doctrine of consubstantiation and how does it differ from transubstantiation and a more general protestant sacramental view?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/35744/what-is-the-lutheran-doctrine-of-consubstantiation-and-how-does-it-differ-from-t) There's an inconsistency between these two interpretations in whether Christ *becomes* present or *is always* present with the bread and wine. The general philosophical understanding of *omnipresence* would suggest the latter. *In either case,* the bread and wine remain *substantially* present in Luther's doctrines. In Catholic doctrine, they are no longer bread and wine *substantially*, only *accidentally* (in appearance).
Why Calvin Errs --------------- [![loading image...](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mIia8.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mIia8.jpg) ***Jesus' miraculously makes enough food for everyone, from a limited amount.*** The simple answer is the miracle Jesus performed prior to instituting the Eucharist: **the miracle of superabundance.** Jesus can take normal bread and normal fish (which are both examples of matter, body, flesh) of a limited amount and measure, and make it as abundant as necessary (being a miracle): > > **Matthew 14:15-21** > > > And when it was evening, his disciples came to him, saying: This is a > desert place, and the hour is now past: send away the multitudes, that > going into the towns, they may buy themselves victuals. But Jesus > said to them, They have no need to go: give you them to eat. They > answered him: We have not here, but *five loaves, and two fishes.* He > said to them: Bring them hither to me. And when he had commanded > the multitudes to sit down upon the grass, **he took the five loaves and > the two fishes, and looking up to heaven, he blessed, and broke, and > gave the loaves to his disciples,** and the disciples to the multitudes. > And **they did all eat, and were filled.** And they took up what > *remained, twelve full baskets of fragments. And the number of them > that did eat, was five thousand men, besides women and children.* > > > We thus read that Christ does the same when instituting the Eucharist: > > **Matthew 26:26 et seq.** > > > And whilst they were at supper, **Jesus took bread, and blessed, and > broke: and gave to his disciples,** and said: Take ye, and eat. **This is** > my body. ... > > > Thus, there is no Biblical argument against Christ being able to make His Body superabundant as well. In fact, I think it's quite obvious the connection made here between these two miracles. Why Luther Errs --------------- Luther is making an argument which implies monophysitism: 'Christ's two natures are actual one new nature:' mixing the attributes of both beyond what is true of the Hypostatic Union (which is a way of saying His two natures are distinct, but not separate; united in the one *Person* of the Word). In addition, the subject of the miracle need not be divine (for example, the loaves and fishes). The Catholic Answer ------------------- One is wise to consult the great St. Thomas Aquinas for questions such as these. As written in another answer here, St. Thomas explains that transubstantiation means that 'Christ's Body' is that which the substance of the bread and the wine is made, by a miracle of God. Not that His Body is specifically 'torn' off Him and placed at the Eucharist. It's simply that the Divine Word says, through the priest, "This is My Body" (*Mt 26:26*) "and it [becomes] so" (*Gen 1:7; 1 Cor 10:16*)—the bread becomes Christ's Body and Blood with the exception that it's appearance, or outward, tangible aspect (called *accidents*), is not changed into that of Christ's Body and Blood.
50,389
One of John Calvin's arguments against transubstantiation and consubstantiation was that the body of Christ, as a human body, could not be in more than one place at a time. His view of the Eucharist was thus one of *spiritual* presence, not *real* presence as understood by Catholics. Luther argued that Jesus's body *could* be in multiple places at one time, thanks to its divine properties, and that this allowed for consubstantiation. This, as I understand it, is known as Luther's doctrine of ubiquity. As a Calvinist with relatively little exposure to Catholicism, I assumed that Catholicism took the same approach on this issue, as transubstantiation seems to similarly require a doctrine justifying the idea that Jesus's physical body can be in multiple places at once. But Ludwig Ott opposes my assumption in [*Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma*](https://isidore.co/calibre#panel=book_details&book_id=7262): > > [Luther] explained the possibility of the Real Presence of the body and blood of Christ by the aid of the **untenable** Ubiquity Doctrine, according to which the human nature of Christ by virtue of the Hypostatic Union, has a real share in the properties of the Deity, and thereby also in the omnipresence of God. [372, emphasis added] > > > So, I'm wondering—how do Catholics view the distinction between Luther's doctrine of ubiquity and whatever solution Catholicism uses that allows Jesus's physical body to be present in more than one place at one time? What makes Luther's view "untenable" in their eyes? (Apologies if the question is crude; I'm no expert on transubstantiation. If those answering keep that in mind, I'd be grateful!)
2016/06/24
[ "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50389", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com", "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/21576/" ]
The ubiquity doctrine is problematic to Catholics in that it does not acknowledge a "real" (substantial) change. > > Second, Lutherans reject Rome's identification of the bread and wine as the corporal body and blood of the Lord. At the Lord's Table, **the bread remains bread; the wine remains wine**. Luther, however, argued that there was a communication of divine attributes to the human nature of the incarnate Christ. The attribute that interests us here is omnipresence. **Because the Lord's body is omnipresent**, Luther argues, **Christ is physically present "in, with, and under" the bread and wine**. The Lutheran doctrine is commonly called "consubstantiation." (See Westminster Confession of Faith 29.7) > > > * <http://www.opc.org/qa.html?question_id=89> This is mostly consistent with the answer given here: > > Consubstantiation (also called impanation) says that, after consecration, bread remains and Christ becomes present within, among, or "along-side" the bread. > > > * [What is the Lutheran doctrine of consubstantiation and how does it differ from transubstantiation and a more general protestant sacramental view?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/35744/what-is-the-lutheran-doctrine-of-consubstantiation-and-how-does-it-differ-from-t) There's an inconsistency between these two interpretations in whether Christ *becomes* present or *is always* present with the bread and wine. The general philosophical understanding of *omnipresence* would suggest the latter. *In either case,* the bread and wine remain *substantially* present in Luther's doctrines. In Catholic doctrine, they are no longer bread and wine *substantially*, only *accidentally* (in appearance).
What is wrong with Luther's doctrine of ubiquity is that it flatly contradicts the Christological definition of the Ecumenical Council of Chalcedon: > > one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged > in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; > (ἐν δύο φύσεσιν ἀσυγχύτως, ἀτρέπτως, ἀδιαιρέτως, ἀχωρίστως – Latin: in > duabus naturis inconfuse, immutabiliter, indivise, inseparabiliter) > the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, > but rather **the peculiar property (ἰδιότητος) of each nature being > preserved**, and concurring in one Person (πρόσωπον - Prósopon) and > one Subsistence (ὑπὸστασιν - Hypostasis), > > > The body of Jesus, in both its mortal and its glorified state, is **a true material body** and not a spirit, as Jesus Himself remarked after his resurrection: > > "See My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself; touch Me and see, for > a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have." (Lk > 24:39) > > > A **peculiar property** of material bodies like a piece of bread or the body of a human being is that **only one such body can be at a given time in a given extension of space.** If in a given extension of space there is a piece of bread, the body of a human being cannot be at the same time in that same extension of space. This is true whether said body is in a mortal or in a glorified state, or whether said body belongs to a human person or to a divine Person Who assumed a human nature, because "the distinction of natures" is "by no means taken away by the (hypostatic) union, but rather **the peculiar property (ἰδιότητος) of each nature" is "preserved"**. Therefore, divine power can make a human body (not just the body of Jesus) to be in several places at the same time, but it cannot make a human body, **if the peculiar property of its nature is to be preserved**, to be at the same time in the same extension of space as a piece of bread or whatever other material body. Just as divine power cannot make anything intrinsically self-contradictory, like a square circle.
50,218
I'd like to prototype a web site with a massive use of parallax effect, like this: <http://spider.mclarenautomotive.com/> For prototyping, I'd like to test how using this effect could influence the navigation and the user experience. Do you have advice for prototyping it?
2014/01/14
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/50218", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/4464/" ]
Use [AxureRP](http://www.axure.com/) for that. A sample prototype is also available on their forum for that. <http://www.axure.com/forum/tips-tricks-examples/8157-parallax-scrolling.html> > > How to use this effect to better influence the navigation and the user > experience? > > > If you ask that does Parallax has an influence on user-experience then sure, everything you do in your website adds or subtracts from the user-experience but how can parallax be used to do that is too broad to answer. It depends on what is your context and what you are looking to achieve and then you may ask if Parallax can accomplish that.
I think paper prototyping would be a good fit here.
50,218
I'd like to prototype a web site with a massive use of parallax effect, like this: <http://spider.mclarenautomotive.com/> For prototyping, I'd like to test how using this effect could influence the navigation and the user experience. Do you have advice for prototyping it?
2014/01/14
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/50218", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/4464/" ]
Use [AxureRP](http://www.axure.com/) for that. A sample prototype is also available on their forum for that. <http://www.axure.com/forum/tips-tricks-examples/8157-parallax-scrolling.html> > > How to use this effect to better influence the navigation and the user > experience? > > > If you ask that does Parallax has an influence on user-experience then sure, everything you do in your website adds or subtracts from the user-experience but how can parallax be used to do that is too broad to answer. It depends on what is your context and what you are looking to achieve and then you may ask if Parallax can accomplish that.
You could use Adobe Edge Animate with the Edge Commons library. The library includes a parallax effect.
50,218
I'd like to prototype a web site with a massive use of parallax effect, like this: <http://spider.mclarenautomotive.com/> For prototyping, I'd like to test how using this effect could influence the navigation and the user experience. Do you have advice for prototyping it?
2014/01/14
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/50218", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/4464/" ]
Use [AxureRP](http://www.axure.com/) for that. A sample prototype is also available on their forum for that. <http://www.axure.com/forum/tips-tricks-examples/8157-parallax-scrolling.html> > > How to use this effect to better influence the navigation and the user > experience? > > > If you ask that does Parallax has an influence on user-experience then sure, everything you do in your website adds or subtracts from the user-experience but how can parallax be used to do that is too broad to answer. It depends on what is your context and what you are looking to achieve and then you may ask if Parallax can accomplish that.
Build it. That level of animation would be as easy if not easier to build than dealing with prototyping software to emulate it.
50,218
I'd like to prototype a web site with a massive use of parallax effect, like this: <http://spider.mclarenautomotive.com/> For prototyping, I'd like to test how using this effect could influence the navigation and the user experience. Do you have advice for prototyping it?
2014/01/14
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/50218", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/4464/" ]
Build it. That level of animation would be as easy if not easier to build than dealing with prototyping software to emulate it.
I think paper prototyping would be a good fit here.
50,218
I'd like to prototype a web site with a massive use of parallax effect, like this: <http://spider.mclarenautomotive.com/> For prototyping, I'd like to test how using this effect could influence the navigation and the user experience. Do you have advice for prototyping it?
2014/01/14
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/50218", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/4464/" ]
Build it. That level of animation would be as easy if not easier to build than dealing with prototyping software to emulate it.
You could use Adobe Edge Animate with the Edge Commons library. The library includes a parallax effect.
84,752
Good they to all devs or people with raspberry pi 3 b+ have you noticce the 4 POE pins in the board near the 4 usb ports? what is the purpose of that 4 pins? can I use that pin to power up my 5v DC fan? if yes how the ground and 5v connecction? or what is the real use of that pins I believe that they put it there for reason thanks for the comments highly appreciated.
2018/06/07
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/84752", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/86244/" ]
The Raspberry Pi foundation plans to release a PoE HAT, which will be an add-on board to be stacked on top of the Raspberry Pi. That HAT will transform the rather high PoE voltage into the 5V the Raspberry Pi needs and eliminate the need for any other cables and a power supply.
If you take a look at the [schematics](https://www.raspberrypi.org/documentation/hardware/raspberrypi/schematics/rpi_SCH_3bplus_1p0_reduced.pdf), those 4 pins are used to feed the Ethernet power signal from the Ethernet port to the PoE Hat to the. **EDIT:** As @JaromandaX points out I was looking at the schematics the wrong way. Those four pins are used to (of course) transfer the power and not the data to the hat.
847,727
Often when browsing in Firefox, I'll right click on a link, and open it in a separate tab to view later, and go on reading the current page. When the link is a Youtube script, however, playback starts immediately even though the tab isn't active. Other video players (like fora.tv and TED.com) don't start playback until you activate that tab. Is there a [greasemonkey](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/748) script that I can use to make sure that videos (and especially Youtube videos) are paused unless their tab is active?
2009/05/11
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/847727", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10658/" ]
I found two options: "Youtube Alternate Video Player" (greasemonkey script) <http://userscripts.org/scripts/show/13955> Script Summary: Replaces the youtube flash video player with FlowPlayer flash video player. * replaces the youtube player * no hd * no 16:9 Firefox Add-On "TubeStop" <http://www.chrisfinke.com/addons/tubestop/> * disables the autoplay on YouTube videos * does it every time (even if the tab is active) I will keep the TubeStop addon for now.
I think Youtube now does this by default (only playing a video when the tab the video is in is activated)
80,991
I would like to know how to get rid of these icons with the lock, every other app just goes but not these three. I used the small broom icon but these remained there and it didn't happen before. I'm using Android 4.2.2 in a Lenovo vibe x s960 smartphone. [![there are the icons with the green locks](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h21erm.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h21er.jpg) Click for larger version
2014/08/21
[ "https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/80991", "https://android.stackexchange.com", "https://android.stackexchange.com/users/71258/" ]
This is the task bar showing applications currently in main memory. The broom cleans up main memory except "locked" apps. To clean them up, you can **flick them up one by one**. Yet, **with Android it is not necessary to do this in the vast majority of cases**. Android OS does a pretty good job of managing memory and swapping apps to storage.
Well, I can't say correctly but I think it's showing green lock because the application is locked by some other application, do you remember installing any application which may be responsible for locking those application off ! I would say you need to go through the application installed again. I think this must be some cleaner application which you may have installed recently.
80,991
I would like to know how to get rid of these icons with the lock, every other app just goes but not these three. I used the small broom icon but these remained there and it didn't happen before. I'm using Android 4.2.2 in a Lenovo vibe x s960 smartphone. [![there are the icons with the green locks](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h21erm.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h21er.jpg) Click for larger version
2014/08/21
[ "https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/80991", "https://android.stackexchange.com", "https://android.stackexchange.com/users/71258/" ]
Swipe the icons down to get rid of the lock, then swipe the icon up to get rid of the icon.
Well, I can't say correctly but I think it's showing green lock because the application is locked by some other application, do you remember installing any application which may be responsible for locking those application off ! I would say you need to go through the application installed again. I think this must be some cleaner application which you may have installed recently.
80,991
I would like to know how to get rid of these icons with the lock, every other app just goes but not these three. I used the small broom icon but these remained there and it didn't happen before. I'm using Android 4.2.2 in a Lenovo vibe x s960 smartphone. [![there are the icons with the green locks](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h21erm.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/h21er.jpg) Click for larger version
2014/08/21
[ "https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/80991", "https://android.stackexchange.com", "https://android.stackexchange.com/users/71258/" ]
This is the task bar showing applications currently in main memory. The broom cleans up main memory except "locked" apps. To clean them up, you can **flick them up one by one**. Yet, **with Android it is not necessary to do this in the vast majority of cases**. Android OS does a pretty good job of managing memory and swapping apps to storage.
Swipe the icons down to get rid of the lock, then swipe the icon up to get rid of the icon.
107,541
Worldwide, every single person stopped enjoying sex. They still get attracted sexually but sex is basically frustrating and feels like it's always uncompleted. Nobody has orgasm but still ejaculate so reproduction is still achievable. In a world like this, how is natality affected? --- Things to take in account: * It's basically something just happened from one day to another * Looks like something hormonal (Incapacity to segregate dopamine, serotonin, endorphin, etc... during sex) * Everybody is affected the same way * Only humans are affected
2018/03/21
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/107541", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/20792/" ]
Physical pleasure is the "reward" for taking action to procreate and spread copies of your genes. Modern society has generally broken that link with contraceptives and the availability of abortions. The birth rate in modern societies has dropped as a result. However, some studies have shown that abortions don't significantly reduce the number of children a woman has in her lifetime but delays the birth of the first child until later in life when having children was a conscious decision. So, you would likely see fewer pregnancies at lower ages but mostly the same total number of children in developed countries. Also, you would likely see fewer cases STDs since there would be less incentive to engage in risky behavior.
Western/First World birth rates (where there's already lots of birth control usage, and children aren't required to work the farm and take care of the elderly) would drop like a stone. Certain segments of the population (mostly the rich and well-educated) would be virtually eliminated. Agricultural societies where family-based farm labor is required would survive, but family sizes (and thus population growth) would be reduced, since the male wouldn't have the urges to take his wife whenever he felt like it. Some segments of the population might survive, though, if the males use "number of children sired" as a way of showing that they do, in fact, enjoy sex. Teen pregnancy would drop, too.
107,541
Worldwide, every single person stopped enjoying sex. They still get attracted sexually but sex is basically frustrating and feels like it's always uncompleted. Nobody has orgasm but still ejaculate so reproduction is still achievable. In a world like this, how is natality affected? --- Things to take in account: * It's basically something just happened from one day to another * Looks like something hormonal (Incapacity to segregate dopamine, serotonin, endorphin, etc... during sex) * Everybody is affected the same way * Only humans are affected
2018/03/21
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/107541", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/20792/" ]
Western/First World birth rates (where there's already lots of birth control usage, and children aren't required to work the farm and take care of the elderly) would drop like a stone. Certain segments of the population (mostly the rich and well-educated) would be virtually eliminated. Agricultural societies where family-based farm labor is required would survive, but family sizes (and thus population growth) would be reduced, since the male wouldn't have the urges to take his wife whenever he felt like it. Some segments of the population might survive, though, if the males use "number of children sired" as a way of showing that they do, in fact, enjoy sex. Teen pregnancy would drop, too.
Nothing would change, people have children because they want children not because sex is fun. Having children by mistake is either the result of abuse or will result in the child being aborted if possible or otherwise just abandoned.
107,541
Worldwide, every single person stopped enjoying sex. They still get attracted sexually but sex is basically frustrating and feels like it's always uncompleted. Nobody has orgasm but still ejaculate so reproduction is still achievable. In a world like this, how is natality affected? --- Things to take in account: * It's basically something just happened from one day to another * Looks like something hormonal (Incapacity to segregate dopamine, serotonin, endorphin, etc... during sex) * Everybody is affected the same way * Only humans are affected
2018/03/21
[ "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/107541", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com", "https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/20792/" ]
Physical pleasure is the "reward" for taking action to procreate and spread copies of your genes. Modern society has generally broken that link with contraceptives and the availability of abortions. The birth rate in modern societies has dropped as a result. However, some studies have shown that abortions don't significantly reduce the number of children a woman has in her lifetime but delays the birth of the first child until later in life when having children was a conscious decision. So, you would likely see fewer pregnancies at lower ages but mostly the same total number of children in developed countries. Also, you would likely see fewer cases STDs since there would be less incentive to engage in risky behavior.
Nothing would change, people have children because they want children not because sex is fun. Having children by mistake is either the result of abuse or will result in the child being aborted if possible or otherwise just abandoned.
56,481
I was reading the Nanatsu no Taizai wikia and I saw there Chandler's power level is listed to be 173,000 , which is over Meliodas' power level of 142,000 , which I thought to be the highest. Which is the highest recorded power level in Nanatsu no Taizai?
2020/01/16
[ "https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/56481", "https://anime.stackexchange.com", "https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/3028/" ]
As per the wiki's page on [Balor's Magical Eye](https://nanatsu-no-taizai.fandom.com/wiki/Balor's_Magical_Eye), the highest **known-for-certain** power level recorded in Nanatsu no Taizai is Ludociel's impressive 201 000 (*Chapter 286, page 14*). However, we know that Mael has a 200 000+ power level (*Chapter 278, page 12*). As this is relatively vague, Mael may or may not have a numerically higher power level than Ludociel. Since Mael has often been described as the strongest Archangel in-universe, it is almost certain that his actual power level goes beyond 201 000. Alas, since it has never been recorded precisely, we cannot actually confirm this.
SPOILERS: The highest power level we have been given is probably infinite when MERLIN awakens the power of MOTHER CHAOS inside of King Arthur after the demon king was defeated. Now, mother chaos is essentially the creator of the goddess, the demon king, and in turn made all the other races.
34,527
After some discussions, I found out that Caribbean Hindustani is quite popular in Suriname. This has inclined me to choose it as one of the next destinations on my bucket list. How can I get a tourist visa for Suriname as an Indian citizen? In my discussions, I have heard that it allows visa on arrival. Is this the case or a visa prior to arrival is required? If yes, can I get it from an Embassy/Consulate in the United States?
2014/07/30
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/34527", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/12160/" ]
According to [Suriname Embassy in the United States](http://www.surinameembassy.org/visa_extension.shtml) there is still visa required for Indian Citizens, though it will be less expensive then for the US citizens. As far as I can tell Visa On arrival is available [for business purposes only](http://scgmia.com/special-categories-visa/) with no further details an restrictions on countries have been made available: > > 1. **VISA AT ARRIVAL**: THIS VISA IS FOR BUSINESS ONLY. THE APPLICATION AND FEES ARE DONE IN SURINAME > > > There is a [Tourist Card](http://scgmia.com/the-tourist-card/) which one can purchase at [Johan Adolf Pengel airport / Zanderij / Suriname](http://scgmia.com/faq-visa/) but again it's not available for Indian Citizens. So as you indicated in another one of your questions: more visas for you.
Yes tourist card is available for Indian also . You can take that after arrival at Suriname also.
45,453
I wonder why editors sometimes do reject submitted manuscripts for being out of the journal's scopes while the authors have utilized published papers from the same journals. Is it just a polite way of rejection?
2015/05/15
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/45453", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/34526/" ]
Cape Code has given a good answer, but it's not the only possibility for such a rejection. Suppose you publish a paper in, say, "Topology and Its Applications", in which you prove some topological result using (among other things) a set-theoretic lemma. And suppose I later prove some result in algebra using (among other things) your lemma. Of course, I would cite your paper, but that doesn't put my algebra paper into the scope of "Topology and Its Applications".
Citing articles form a given journal does not automatically mean your paper is in its scope. Even if the subject and methodology of your work seem similar to the ones of the articles in a given journal, the scope can also include quality criteria. As an example, Nature Chemistry, in the [description of its scope](http://www.nature.com/nchem/authors/aims_scope.html) says: > > Nature Chemistry is committed to publishing **top-tier** original research in all areas of chemistry [...] > > > Or, some journals decide to accept only papers based on their impact potential. If we look at the New England Journal of Medicine, the [scope description](https://cdf.nejm.org/misc/authors/) states: > > We are interested in original research that will **change clinical practice** or **teach us something new** about the biology of disease. > > > etc.
45,453
I wonder why editors sometimes do reject submitted manuscripts for being out of the journal's scopes while the authors have utilized published papers from the same journals. Is it just a polite way of rejection?
2015/05/15
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/45453", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/34526/" ]
Cape Code has given a good answer, but it's not the only possibility for such a rejection. Suppose you publish a paper in, say, "Topology and Its Applications", in which you prove some topological result using (among other things) a set-theoretic lemma. And suppose I later prove some result in algebra using (among other things) your lemma. Of course, I would cite your paper, but that doesn't put my algebra paper into the scope of "Topology and Its Applications".
One of the most common cases for being out of scope for the journal in such a case is that the paper is not at the right level of the theory-practice scale. In particular, an application paper can make use of a lot of concepts of earlier theoretical work. Yet, that doesn't meant that the application paper is in scope. If the readership of the journal most likely does not understand the details of the application that are needed to understand the paper, then this is a good reason for rejection. Likewise, for a theory paper, the problem studied may be well-motivated by practice. Yet, if the novel result builds on concepts that are out-of-scope for the rather practical journal, then the paper is also likely to be rejected.
45,453
I wonder why editors sometimes do reject submitted manuscripts for being out of the journal's scopes while the authors have utilized published papers from the same journals. Is it just a polite way of rejection?
2015/05/15
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/45453", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/34526/" ]
Cape Code has given a good answer, but it's not the only possibility for such a rejection. Suppose you publish a paper in, say, "Topology and Its Applications", in which you prove some topological result using (among other things) a set-theoretic lemma. And suppose I later prove some result in algebra using (among other things) your lemma. Of course, I would cite your paper, but that doesn't put my algebra paper into the scope of "Topology and Its Applications".
I'll add another example to the several already given. There are a number of journals (e.g. some or many of the *Letters on...*) which have a somewhat fast review process, in order to publish results on "hot topics" in a relatively short time. However, to publish in those kind of journals, not only does your work have to be on-topic, original, innovative, etc. (the usual stuff), but you should also justify the need for such a fast publication track. Now, even if you produce an original high-quality work with the aim of publishing in such a journal, and even if your paper is apparently within its scope (and even citing references from that same journal), you might have worked on a topic which was hot ten years ago but now barely warm, and your paper would definitely fall out of scope.
516,607
I intend to build my own USB rechargeable 9V battery, [kinda like this one.](https://www.akkushop-austria.at/media/image/e3/bc/a9/Trustfire-9V-Block_600x600.jpg) My main issue with those is that they usually use 2 Li-Ion batteries in series, which produces an insufficient voltage for my application. So I've created my own version with an integrated boost converter, I'll see if the noise is low enough, otherwise I guess I'll have to add a linear regulator, and consistently overshoot with the boost converter. I'd love to fit the terminals for the battery on the backside of the PCB, because it has pretty much the same size as the top/bottom side of a 9V cell, and the backside of my PCB is empty anyways. The issue is, I can't find any.
2020/08/14
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/516607", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/260868/" ]
There's probably enough force from detaching the terminals to rip off a SMD connector, which is why you can't find any. Something like this: <https://www.digikey.com/product-detail/en/keystone-electronics/967/36-967-ND/2745660> could be connected with through-holes to the component side of your board from the other end.
There are leaf contacts which have SMD versions. This requires your enclosure to properly support the battery. [Leaf contacts on Digikey](https://www.digikey.com/products/en/battery-products/battery-holders-clips-contacts/86?FV=-8%7C86&quantity=0&ColumnSort=0&page=1&k=Leaf%20contact&pageSize=100&pkeyword=Leaf%20contact)
516,607
I intend to build my own USB rechargeable 9V battery, [kinda like this one.](https://www.akkushop-austria.at/media/image/e3/bc/a9/Trustfire-9V-Block_600x600.jpg) My main issue with those is that they usually use 2 Li-Ion batteries in series, which produces an insufficient voltage for my application. So I've created my own version with an integrated boost converter, I'll see if the noise is low enough, otherwise I guess I'll have to add a linear regulator, and consistently overshoot with the boost converter. I'd love to fit the terminals for the battery on the backside of the PCB, because it has pretty much the same size as the top/bottom side of a 9V cell, and the backside of my PCB is empty anyways. The issue is, I can't find any.
2020/08/14
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/516607", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/260868/" ]
There's probably enough force from detaching the terminals to rip off a SMD connector, which is why you can't find any. Something like this: <https://www.digikey.com/product-detail/en/keystone-electronics/967/36-967-ND/2745660> could be connected with through-holes to the component side of your board from the other end.
You should be able to find 9 volt battery connectors with wire leads at any hobby electronics shop. Amazon sells a pack of 10 for C$8.00. You will have to swap polarity if you use one of these on a power source rather than on a load.
48,229,216
About 2 months ago I was able to copy text from my pc clipboard and paste it into an app running on Android Studio emulator simply doing ctrl+c on pc and pasting it into a TextView. Now I'm using the new version Android Studio 3.0 and I can't do that. When I copy text from my pc the emulator ignore it: the clipboard of my pc and the one of the emulator don't communicate. Maybe with the new update I have to change something in the settings of the emulator but I have found nothing about it (except for the option "Enable clipboard sharing" that is allowed).
2018/01/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48229216", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9050592/" ]
I confirm issue. There is a bug report about this [on issuetracker](https://issuetracker.google.com/issues/71417569). I confirm solution of toggling switch "Enable clipboard sharing" in emulator -> three dots -> settings. If you disable and re-enable switch, clipboard sharing works again.
This is a bug, as of Android Studio 3. Here is a quick-fix. 1. Start Android Studio 2. Start the AVD 3. Click the three dots, down on the sidebar 4. Click Settings 5. Toggle the switch "Enable clipboard sharing". 6. C&P should work again Tested with: Android Studio 3.0.1, AVD API Version 26 [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XF11R.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XF11R.png)
48,229,216
About 2 months ago I was able to copy text from my pc clipboard and paste it into an app running on Android Studio emulator simply doing ctrl+c on pc and pasting it into a TextView. Now I'm using the new version Android Studio 3.0 and I can't do that. When I copy text from my pc the emulator ignore it: the clipboard of my pc and the one of the emulator don't communicate. Maybe with the new update I have to change something in the settings of the emulator but I have found nothing about it (except for the option "Enable clipboard sharing" that is allowed).
2018/01/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48229216", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9050592/" ]
I confirm issue. There is a bug report about this [on issuetracker](https://issuetracker.google.com/issues/71417569). I confirm solution of toggling switch "Enable clipboard sharing" in emulator -> three dots -> settings. If you disable and re-enable switch, clipboard sharing works again.
@AlfaSpider answer is correct , after enabling the setting still issue exist , please do **wipe data** option from Device Manager window
48,229,216
About 2 months ago I was able to copy text from my pc clipboard and paste it into an app running on Android Studio emulator simply doing ctrl+c on pc and pasting it into a TextView. Now I'm using the new version Android Studio 3.0 and I can't do that. When I copy text from my pc the emulator ignore it: the clipboard of my pc and the one of the emulator don't communicate. Maybe with the new update I have to change something in the settings of the emulator but I have found nothing about it (except for the option "Enable clipboard sharing" that is allowed).
2018/01/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48229216", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9050592/" ]
I confirm issue. There is a bug report about this [on issuetracker](https://issuetracker.google.com/issues/71417569). I confirm solution of toggling switch "Enable clipboard sharing" in emulator -> three dots -> settings. If you disable and re-enable switch, clipboard sharing works again.
The solution that always works for me is to Restart Android directly from the emulator or the other option is from the Device Manager in Android Studio with the option "Cold boot now".
48,229,216
About 2 months ago I was able to copy text from my pc clipboard and paste it into an app running on Android Studio emulator simply doing ctrl+c on pc and pasting it into a TextView. Now I'm using the new version Android Studio 3.0 and I can't do that. When I copy text from my pc the emulator ignore it: the clipboard of my pc and the one of the emulator don't communicate. Maybe with the new update I have to change something in the settings of the emulator but I have found nothing about it (except for the option "Enable clipboard sharing" that is allowed).
2018/01/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48229216", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9050592/" ]
This is a bug, as of Android Studio 3. Here is a quick-fix. 1. Start Android Studio 2. Start the AVD 3. Click the three dots, down on the sidebar 4. Click Settings 5. Toggle the switch "Enable clipboard sharing". 6. C&P should work again Tested with: Android Studio 3.0.1, AVD API Version 26 [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XF11R.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XF11R.png)
@AlfaSpider answer is correct , after enabling the setting still issue exist , please do **wipe data** option from Device Manager window
48,229,216
About 2 months ago I was able to copy text from my pc clipboard and paste it into an app running on Android Studio emulator simply doing ctrl+c on pc and pasting it into a TextView. Now I'm using the new version Android Studio 3.0 and I can't do that. When I copy text from my pc the emulator ignore it: the clipboard of my pc and the one of the emulator don't communicate. Maybe with the new update I have to change something in the settings of the emulator but I have found nothing about it (except for the option "Enable clipboard sharing" that is allowed).
2018/01/12
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/48229216", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9050592/" ]
This is a bug, as of Android Studio 3. Here is a quick-fix. 1. Start Android Studio 2. Start the AVD 3. Click the three dots, down on the sidebar 4. Click Settings 5. Toggle the switch "Enable clipboard sharing". 6. C&P should work again Tested with: Android Studio 3.0.1, AVD API Version 26 [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XF11R.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XF11R.png)
The solution that always works for me is to Restart Android directly from the emulator or the other option is from the Device Manager in Android Studio with the option "Cold boot now".
438
We've currently got the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag which has been used with varying degrees of appropriety. I do think [Human Factors and or Ergonomics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) are on topic here, but due to the scope I'm not sure "Human Factors" makes much sense as a tag. Some suggested alternates were [usability](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/usability "show questions tagged 'usability'"), [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (technically ergonomics can cover cognitive issues as well) and [user-experience](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/user-experience "show questions tagged 'user-experience'"). While the tag would effectively be most helpful for us over at the [User Experience](https://ux.stackexchange.com/) site, I feel UX is a bit too broad and would be out of place as a tag here. But if we pick another tag it could be aliased into the master tag for easier searching. I'd also personally consider these *distinct* from Human Computer Interaction, though very related and occasionally overlapping, Human Factors isn't necessarily computer interaction.
2012/09/12
[ "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/438", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/users/19/" ]
I agree that ergonomics and human factors are on topic for this site. And I think they represent important fields that deserve a tag. Here's a definition of the fields: > > “Ergonomics and human factors use knowledge of human abilities and > limitations to the design of systems, organizations, jobs, machines, > tools, and consumer products, for safe, efficient, and comfortable > human use” > > > – Helander, 1997, p.4 adaptation of Chapanis, 1995. My understanding is that human factors and ergonomics have different emphases but that not much would be lost if we treated them as synonyms. I agree that human computer interaction is in some respects a sub-field of human factors / ergonomics. If the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag is causing problems, then perhaps [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") would be more unique. Alternatively, we could just retag questions that have incorrectly been tagged.
I'm not even sure what [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") is supposed to be for. The term completely confuses me. When I hear it, I think human factors as in, "Global warming is considered by most to be largely the result of human factors." In that usage it might apply to our site in the context of an experiment, as in "How can I test *x* without human factos interfering with my experiment?" You made the point that [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") is supposed to be used for "ergonomics" and [the Wikipedia article you linked to](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) says > > The two terms "human factors" and "ergonomics" are essentially synonymous > > > Based on that, I say we use [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'"). Yet that tag doesn't even apply to either of the two [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") questions we have right now. I vote we just burninate the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag. **Edit:** What confuses me most is [this section of the Wikipedia article](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics#Etymology) showing a picture of what i think of when I hear *ergonomics*. But Ben commented below > > Ergonomics if anything is more confusing as it's generally used to mean making physical things comfortable > > > Which confuses me because I thought that was what we were talking about with usability of things. So I *still* vote we get rid of [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") because it's confusing. But I am no longer sure it should be replaced with [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'")... or anything at all. I am looking for suggestions from other community members. Please post your own answer with thoughts!
438
We've currently got the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag which has been used with varying degrees of appropriety. I do think [Human Factors and or Ergonomics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) are on topic here, but due to the scope I'm not sure "Human Factors" makes much sense as a tag. Some suggested alternates were [usability](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/usability "show questions tagged 'usability'"), [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (technically ergonomics can cover cognitive issues as well) and [user-experience](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/user-experience "show questions tagged 'user-experience'"). While the tag would effectively be most helpful for us over at the [User Experience](https://ux.stackexchange.com/) site, I feel UX is a bit too broad and would be out of place as a tag here. But if we pick another tag it could be aliased into the master tag for easier searching. I'd also personally consider these *distinct* from Human Computer Interaction, though very related and occasionally overlapping, Human Factors isn't necessarily computer interaction.
2012/09/12
[ "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/438", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/users/19/" ]
I'm not even sure what [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") is supposed to be for. The term completely confuses me. When I hear it, I think human factors as in, "Global warming is considered by most to be largely the result of human factors." In that usage it might apply to our site in the context of an experiment, as in "How can I test *x* without human factos interfering with my experiment?" You made the point that [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") is supposed to be used for "ergonomics" and [the Wikipedia article you linked to](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) says > > The two terms "human factors" and "ergonomics" are essentially synonymous > > > Based on that, I say we use [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'"). Yet that tag doesn't even apply to either of the two [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") questions we have right now. I vote we just burninate the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag. **Edit:** What confuses me most is [this section of the Wikipedia article](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics#Etymology) showing a picture of what i think of when I hear *ergonomics*. But Ben commented below > > Ergonomics if anything is more confusing as it's generally used to mean making physical things comfortable > > > Which confuses me because I thought that was what we were talking about with usability of things. So I *still* vote we get rid of [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") because it's confusing. But I am no longer sure it should be replaced with [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'")... or anything at all. I am looking for suggestions from other community members. Please post your own answer with thoughts!
From [wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics): > > Human factors and Ergonomics (HF&E) is a **multidisciplinary** field > incorporating contributions from psychology, engineering, industrial > design, graphic design, statistics, operations research and > anthropometry. > > > Those parts of human factors which apply to this site (psychology) most likely have a narrower suitable tag already. If we allow a [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag (or a [hci](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/hci "show questions tagged 'hci'") tag for that matter), it would mainly be useful as a way to see what point of view a question is coming from. This would make it [a meta tag which is discouraged on Stack Exchange](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2010/08/the-death-of-meta-tags/). On the other hand, personally I am very much interested in human-computer interaction. It would make sense for me to filter all those questions on the site related to the topic. However, this would be a bad filter, as certainly many more questions on this site are useful for HCI. My guess is a relevant search query does the job equally well. Therefore I suggest **we don't allow *any* tags from multidisciplinary fields** which incorporates aspects from cognitive sciences.
438
We've currently got the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag which has been used with varying degrees of appropriety. I do think [Human Factors and or Ergonomics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) are on topic here, but due to the scope I'm not sure "Human Factors" makes much sense as a tag. Some suggested alternates were [usability](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/usability "show questions tagged 'usability'"), [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (technically ergonomics can cover cognitive issues as well) and [user-experience](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/user-experience "show questions tagged 'user-experience'"). While the tag would effectively be most helpful for us over at the [User Experience](https://ux.stackexchange.com/) site, I feel UX is a bit too broad and would be out of place as a tag here. But if we pick another tag it could be aliased into the master tag for easier searching. I'd also personally consider these *distinct* from Human Computer Interaction, though very related and occasionally overlapping, Human Factors isn't necessarily computer interaction.
2012/09/12
[ "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/438", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/users/19/" ]
I'm not even sure what [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") is supposed to be for. The term completely confuses me. When I hear it, I think human factors as in, "Global warming is considered by most to be largely the result of human factors." In that usage it might apply to our site in the context of an experiment, as in "How can I test *x* without human factos interfering with my experiment?" You made the point that [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") is supposed to be used for "ergonomics" and [the Wikipedia article you linked to](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) says > > The two terms "human factors" and "ergonomics" are essentially synonymous > > > Based on that, I say we use [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'"). Yet that tag doesn't even apply to either of the two [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") questions we have right now. I vote we just burninate the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag. **Edit:** What confuses me most is [this section of the Wikipedia article](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics#Etymology) showing a picture of what i think of when I hear *ergonomics*. But Ben commented below > > Ergonomics if anything is more confusing as it's generally used to mean making physical things comfortable > > > Which confuses me because I thought that was what we were talking about with usability of things. So I *still* vote we get rid of [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") because it's confusing. But I am no longer sure it should be replaced with [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'")... or anything at all. I am looking for suggestions from other community members. Please post your own answer with thoughts!
Although this topic is quite old, and over the years the tag [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") has gained some traction on this site (I would not go as far to say that it has manifested itself) I would like to give my opinion, given that the topic does not show a clear consensus. My reasoning is exactly the same as Josh's, but I want to argue that the human factors tag ís useful, and should therefore stay. As is stated, human factors and ergonomics are practically synonyms, although ergonomics hints at the physical interaction between human and environment. For that reason, I would not like an ergonomics tag. I myself, and with me my colleagues and former professors, identify ourselfs as human factors experts, not ergonomists. Then what is the field of human factors exactly? It's the study of, for instance, attention, workload, situation awareness, fatigue and cognitive control (multitasking ability), **in relation with task performance**. The idea is that these concepts are studied and how they change during particular tasks, environments or during the use of tools/automation. Given the fact that automation is becoming a bigger and bigger part of our lives, human factors are too. So, in short, let's use [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") as a tag, and place [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (which is non-existent as I just see now) as a synonym. The site focuses on cognitive sciences, so we should choose for the tag that is most closely related to cognition.
438
We've currently got the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag which has been used with varying degrees of appropriety. I do think [Human Factors and or Ergonomics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) are on topic here, but due to the scope I'm not sure "Human Factors" makes much sense as a tag. Some suggested alternates were [usability](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/usability "show questions tagged 'usability'"), [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (technically ergonomics can cover cognitive issues as well) and [user-experience](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/user-experience "show questions tagged 'user-experience'"). While the tag would effectively be most helpful for us over at the [User Experience](https://ux.stackexchange.com/) site, I feel UX is a bit too broad and would be out of place as a tag here. But if we pick another tag it could be aliased into the master tag for easier searching. I'd also personally consider these *distinct* from Human Computer Interaction, though very related and occasionally overlapping, Human Factors isn't necessarily computer interaction.
2012/09/12
[ "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/438", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/users/19/" ]
I agree that ergonomics and human factors are on topic for this site. And I think they represent important fields that deserve a tag. Here's a definition of the fields: > > “Ergonomics and human factors use knowledge of human abilities and > limitations to the design of systems, organizations, jobs, machines, > tools, and consumer products, for safe, efficient, and comfortable > human use” > > > – Helander, 1997, p.4 adaptation of Chapanis, 1995. My understanding is that human factors and ergonomics have different emphases but that not much would be lost if we treated them as synonyms. I agree that human computer interaction is in some respects a sub-field of human factors / ergonomics. If the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag is causing problems, then perhaps [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") would be more unique. Alternatively, we could just retag questions that have incorrectly been tagged.
From [wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics): > > Human factors and Ergonomics (HF&E) is a **multidisciplinary** field > incorporating contributions from psychology, engineering, industrial > design, graphic design, statistics, operations research and > anthropometry. > > > Those parts of human factors which apply to this site (psychology) most likely have a narrower suitable tag already. If we allow a [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag (or a [hci](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/hci "show questions tagged 'hci'") tag for that matter), it would mainly be useful as a way to see what point of view a question is coming from. This would make it [a meta tag which is discouraged on Stack Exchange](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2010/08/the-death-of-meta-tags/). On the other hand, personally I am very much interested in human-computer interaction. It would make sense for me to filter all those questions on the site related to the topic. However, this would be a bad filter, as certainly many more questions on this site are useful for HCI. My guess is a relevant search query does the job equally well. Therefore I suggest **we don't allow *any* tags from multidisciplinary fields** which incorporates aspects from cognitive sciences.
438
We've currently got the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag which has been used with varying degrees of appropriety. I do think [Human Factors and or Ergonomics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) are on topic here, but due to the scope I'm not sure "Human Factors" makes much sense as a tag. Some suggested alternates were [usability](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/usability "show questions tagged 'usability'"), [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (technically ergonomics can cover cognitive issues as well) and [user-experience](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/user-experience "show questions tagged 'user-experience'"). While the tag would effectively be most helpful for us over at the [User Experience](https://ux.stackexchange.com/) site, I feel UX is a bit too broad and would be out of place as a tag here. But if we pick another tag it could be aliased into the master tag for easier searching. I'd also personally consider these *distinct* from Human Computer Interaction, though very related and occasionally overlapping, Human Factors isn't necessarily computer interaction.
2012/09/12
[ "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/438", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/users/19/" ]
I agree that ergonomics and human factors are on topic for this site. And I think they represent important fields that deserve a tag. Here's a definition of the fields: > > “Ergonomics and human factors use knowledge of human abilities and > limitations to the design of systems, organizations, jobs, machines, > tools, and consumer products, for safe, efficient, and comfortable > human use” > > > – Helander, 1997, p.4 adaptation of Chapanis, 1995. My understanding is that human factors and ergonomics have different emphases but that not much would be lost if we treated them as synonyms. I agree that human computer interaction is in some respects a sub-field of human factors / ergonomics. If the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag is causing problems, then perhaps [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") would be more unique. Alternatively, we could just retag questions that have incorrectly been tagged.
Although this topic is quite old, and over the years the tag [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") has gained some traction on this site (I would not go as far to say that it has manifested itself) I would like to give my opinion, given that the topic does not show a clear consensus. My reasoning is exactly the same as Josh's, but I want to argue that the human factors tag ís useful, and should therefore stay. As is stated, human factors and ergonomics are practically synonyms, although ergonomics hints at the physical interaction between human and environment. For that reason, I would not like an ergonomics tag. I myself, and with me my colleagues and former professors, identify ourselfs as human factors experts, not ergonomists. Then what is the field of human factors exactly? It's the study of, for instance, attention, workload, situation awareness, fatigue and cognitive control (multitasking ability), **in relation with task performance**. The idea is that these concepts are studied and how they change during particular tasks, environments or during the use of tools/automation. Given the fact that automation is becoming a bigger and bigger part of our lives, human factors are too. So, in short, let's use [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") as a tag, and place [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (which is non-existent as I just see now) as a synonym. The site focuses on cognitive sciences, so we should choose for the tag that is most closely related to cognition.
438
We've currently got the [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag which has been used with varying degrees of appropriety. I do think [Human Factors and or Ergonomics](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics) are on topic here, but due to the scope I'm not sure "Human Factors" makes much sense as a tag. Some suggested alternates were [usability](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/usability "show questions tagged 'usability'"), [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (technically ergonomics can cover cognitive issues as well) and [user-experience](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/user-experience "show questions tagged 'user-experience'"). While the tag would effectively be most helpful for us over at the [User Experience](https://ux.stackexchange.com/) site, I feel UX is a bit too broad and would be out of place as a tag here. But if we pick another tag it could be aliased into the master tag for easier searching. I'd also personally consider these *distinct* from Human Computer Interaction, though very related and occasionally overlapping, Human Factors isn't necessarily computer interaction.
2012/09/12
[ "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/438", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://cogsci.meta.stackexchange.com/users/19/" ]
Although this topic is quite old, and over the years the tag [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") has gained some traction on this site (I would not go as far to say that it has manifested itself) I would like to give my opinion, given that the topic does not show a clear consensus. My reasoning is exactly the same as Josh's, but I want to argue that the human factors tag ís useful, and should therefore stay. As is stated, human factors and ergonomics are practically synonyms, although ergonomics hints at the physical interaction between human and environment. For that reason, I would not like an ergonomics tag. I myself, and with me my colleagues and former professors, identify ourselfs as human factors experts, not ergonomists. Then what is the field of human factors exactly? It's the study of, for instance, attention, workload, situation awareness, fatigue and cognitive control (multitasking ability), **in relation with task performance**. The idea is that these concepts are studied and how they change during particular tasks, environments or during the use of tools/automation. Given the fact that automation is becoming a bigger and bigger part of our lives, human factors are too. So, in short, let's use [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") as a tag, and place [ergonomics](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ergonomics "show questions tagged 'ergonomics'") (which is non-existent as I just see now) as a synonym. The site focuses on cognitive sciences, so we should choose for the tag that is most closely related to cognition.
From [wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_factors_and_ergonomics): > > Human factors and Ergonomics (HF&E) is a **multidisciplinary** field > incorporating contributions from psychology, engineering, industrial > design, graphic design, statistics, operations research and > anthropometry. > > > Those parts of human factors which apply to this site (psychology) most likely have a narrower suitable tag already. If we allow a [human-factors](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/human-factors "show questions tagged 'human-factors'") tag (or a [hci](https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/hci "show questions tagged 'hci'") tag for that matter), it would mainly be useful as a way to see what point of view a question is coming from. This would make it [a meta tag which is discouraged on Stack Exchange](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2010/08/the-death-of-meta-tags/). On the other hand, personally I am very much interested in human-computer interaction. It would make sense for me to filter all those questions on the site related to the topic. However, this would be a bad filter, as certainly many more questions on this site are useful for HCI. My guess is a relevant search query does the job equally well. Therefore I suggest **we don't allow *any* tags from multidisciplinary fields** which incorporates aspects from cognitive sciences.
239,262
I want to configure SMTP on my web server, so that any email sent through the SMTP server is relayed to a remote SMTP Server. The IIS SMTP server would have to use SMTP authentication, and use the host name, username and password (as if configuring a normal email client). Does anybody know if this is possible?
2008/10/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/239262", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1982/" ]
Yes, it' completely possible, and relatively easy to configure. I've got a couple of articles about SmartHosting on my web site that will probably help: <http://www.christopherlewis.com/SmartHosting/SMTPSmartHosting.htm> and <http://www.christopherlewis.com/SmartHosting/SMTPSmartHostingPt2.htm> They're written towards Exchange 2003, but Exchange 2003 used IIS's SMTP engine, so the settings are the same. Bascially, you right click the SMTP site, select properties, Delivery tab, Outbound security, and enter your credientials in the Basic Authentication fields. Back on the Delivery tab, you then click Advanced and enter the remote SMTP server name in the SmartHost field. **Editing** ----------- The links above are no longer available. Try <http://intellitect.com/configuring-windows-smtp-server-on-windows-2008-for-relay/>.
HTH and answers your needs <http://www.cmsconnect.com/praetor/webhelpg2/Chapter_2_-_Pre-installation_considerations/Configuring_the_SMTP_Server.htm>
239,262
I want to configure SMTP on my web server, so that any email sent through the SMTP server is relayed to a remote SMTP Server. The IIS SMTP server would have to use SMTP authentication, and use the host name, username and password (as if configuring a normal email client). Does anybody know if this is possible?
2008/10/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/239262", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1982/" ]
Yes, it' completely possible, and relatively easy to configure. I've got a couple of articles about SmartHosting on my web site that will probably help: <http://www.christopherlewis.com/SmartHosting/SMTPSmartHosting.htm> and <http://www.christopherlewis.com/SmartHosting/SMTPSmartHostingPt2.htm> They're written towards Exchange 2003, but Exchange 2003 used IIS's SMTP engine, so the settings are the same. Bascially, you right click the SMTP site, select properties, Delivery tab, Outbound security, and enter your credientials in the Basic Authentication fields. Back on the Delivery tab, you then click Advanced and enter the remote SMTP server name in the SmartHost field. **Editing** ----------- The links above are no longer available. Try <http://intellitect.com/configuring-windows-smtp-server-on-windows-2008-for-relay/>.
I think you can only set outbound relays for specific domains, not blanket coverage. <http://www.isaserver.org/articles/smtprelayinboundoutbound.html> EDIT: I've not done this before, buy maybe worth a try: From the Server properties, you could try selelcting the 'Delivery' Tab, then advanced. In the Smart Host, type the outgoing SMTP relay IP / domain. Select OK, and then select 'Outboud Security' and enter your username / password in the basic authentication box.
56,734,856
I have a few domains hosted on the same server. I have added the record for the SPF and DKIM, however, when I d the SPF record check, it said the record is not found. When an email is sent out under that domain, the SPF is neutral, and DKIM is failed (temperror (no key for signature)) For the SPF, I use the same value for each of the domain names: v=spf1 +a +mx -all +a:xxx.domain.com
2019/06/24
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/56734856", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1767592/" ]
You should use some online SPF/DKIM record checkers to check your records, to make sure they are published as expected. Here is an [SPF record checker](https://dmarcly.com/tools/spf-record-checker). This not only checks the existence of the SPF record, but also the syntax, DNS lookup limit, etc. Here is a [DKIM record checker](https://dmarcly.com/tools/dkim-record-checker). Note that after you save the settings, it takes up to a couple of hours for it to propagate across the DNS (although usually much faster).
Make sure you have added value with double quotes.
28,947,321
I Just cant mange this - Help Im trying to do something but just cant manage it. If you look at the image below you will see Username, Sponsor, Referral 1, Referral 2. IMAGE of spreadsheet - <http://imgur.com/60Omdp7> Now what i want to do with a formula is E&F or how ever i can do it to search Sponsor for using the corresponding usersname and if there is none i want to place No referrals in the referral 1 & referral 2. There will only ever be 2 referrals. Ive spent hours doing it but cant get it right. I've tried Arrayformula, lookup and loads of other ways but new to spreadsheets and cant master this
2015/03/09
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28947321", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1429836/" ]
Purchase [Apple Developer's](https://developer.apple.com/support/compare-memberships/) Enterprise Program and you can distribute to anyone without submitting to AppStore and also without UDID's as well.
Have you tried the [Hockey App](https://hockeyapp.net/features/distribution/) or [TestFlight](https://developer.apple.com/testflight/) for releasing your app to a selected number of audience ?