qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
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1,248 | Bernard von NotHaus (the creator of the [Liberty Dollar](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liberty_Dollar)) was convicted of violating a U.S. federal law that forbids the minting of a currency by anyone in the U.S. besides the federal government. Might it be claimed that bitcoins are also a currency and their users or creators violate that same law? | 2011/09/25 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1248",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/492/"
] | The convictions, currently under appeal, are for
* making coins resembling and similar to United States coins
* issuing, passing, selling, and possessing Liberty Dollar coins
* issuing and passing Liberty Dollar coins intended for use as current money
* conspiracy against the United States
The essenges of bitcoin is a cryptographically signed message and therefore bears no resemblance to United States coins. The Casascius physical bitcoin and Bitbills are the closest things and nowhere do they come close to a U.S. coin. The Bitcoin medals / silver 1 ounce rounds at My Bitcoin Mint or MJB Monetary Metals are simply silver commodities no different than the thousands of other silver medals and rounds produced.
There are private currencies in use in certain locales. Berkshares in Massachusetts and Potomac currency near D.C. even, for instance. Their issuance has been left unchallenged.
So far, there has been no determination as to what Bitcoin is. Is it a commodity? A foreign exchange currency? A stored value (regulated under the definition of prepaid access?) But there is little association between Bitcoin and a U.S. coin. | There is no evidence to suggest that law applies to Bitcoin. See also [What is the current legal status of Bitcoin?](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/131/what-is-the-current-legal-status-of-bitcoin-around-the-world) |
1,248 | Bernard von NotHaus (the creator of the [Liberty Dollar](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liberty_Dollar)) was convicted of violating a U.S. federal law that forbids the minting of a currency by anyone in the U.S. besides the federal government. Might it be claimed that bitcoins are also a currency and their users or creators violate that same law? | 2011/09/25 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1248",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/492/"
] | The court where NotHaus was tried is a District court (trial court). In the US federal system, trial court decisions are *persuasive* authority only - this means that other courts can read them and discuss them and use them as guidance, but they are not required to follow them the way they would be an opinion from a Circuit Court of the US Supreme Court.
Also, trial courts make two kinds of determinations - regarding *issues of law*, and *issues of fact*.
Issues of fact are going to be specific to that particular case and aren't meaningfully precedent for any other circumstance. An example would be "we find that Col. Mustard killed Miss Scarlet in the kitchen with a lead pipe."
Issues of law could be applied to other cases - e.g., "the Court finds that a lead pipe is a deadly weapon."
So, it's possible that the court in the NotHaus case ruled on issues of law in a fashion that could be extended to other cases - but many of the rulings were likely very fact-specific (and thus inapplicable to other cases), and even rulings on legal issues will function as suggestions to other trial courts.
If NotHaus appeals his conviction, the appeal is more likely to result in binding precedent; but even that would only be binding on other courts within that appellate circuit, for the rest of the US it would just be persuasive (not mandatory).
The bare fact that NotHaus was convicted is not, in itself, any sort of legal precedent, though it may be a clue about the US government's feelings about alternative currencies. | There is no evidence to suggest that law applies to Bitcoin. See also [What is the current legal status of Bitcoin?](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/131/what-is-the-current-legal-status-of-bitcoin-around-the-world) |
1,248 | Bernard von NotHaus (the creator of the [Liberty Dollar](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liberty_Dollar)) was convicted of violating a U.S. federal law that forbids the minting of a currency by anyone in the U.S. besides the federal government. Might it be claimed that bitcoins are also a currency and their users or creators violate that same law? | 2011/09/25 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1248",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/492/"
] | There are many complementary currencies in use around the United States quite openly and without government interference, including BerkShares, Ithaca Dollars and similar hyper-local currencies, various bartering or time swapping systems like LETS or Time Dollars, etc. The case you are referring to revolved around minting coins that could easily be confused with US money and allegedly circulating (and encouraging others to do so) to local businesses while passing them off as US money (by a lie of omission, if nothing else).
It may well be that Bitcoin faces legal challenges in various countries, including the US, but this particular case will have set no precedent in that regard. | The court where NotHaus was tried is a District court (trial court). In the US federal system, trial court decisions are *persuasive* authority only - this means that other courts can read them and discuss them and use them as guidance, but they are not required to follow them the way they would be an opinion from a Circuit Court of the US Supreme Court.
Also, trial courts make two kinds of determinations - regarding *issues of law*, and *issues of fact*.
Issues of fact are going to be specific to that particular case and aren't meaningfully precedent for any other circumstance. An example would be "we find that Col. Mustard killed Miss Scarlet in the kitchen with a lead pipe."
Issues of law could be applied to other cases - e.g., "the Court finds that a lead pipe is a deadly weapon."
So, it's possible that the court in the NotHaus case ruled on issues of law in a fashion that could be extended to other cases - but many of the rulings were likely very fact-specific (and thus inapplicable to other cases), and even rulings on legal issues will function as suggestions to other trial courts.
If NotHaus appeals his conviction, the appeal is more likely to result in binding precedent; but even that would only be binding on other courts within that appellate circuit, for the rest of the US it would just be persuasive (not mandatory).
The bare fact that NotHaus was convicted is not, in itself, any sort of legal precedent, though it may be a clue about the US government's feelings about alternative currencies. |
1,248 | Bernard von NotHaus (the creator of the [Liberty Dollar](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liberty_Dollar)) was convicted of violating a U.S. federal law that forbids the minting of a currency by anyone in the U.S. besides the federal government. Might it be claimed that bitcoins are also a currency and their users or creators violate that same law? | 2011/09/25 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/1248",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/492/"
] | The convictions, currently under appeal, are for
* making coins resembling and similar to United States coins
* issuing, passing, selling, and possessing Liberty Dollar coins
* issuing and passing Liberty Dollar coins intended for use as current money
* conspiracy against the United States
The essenges of bitcoin is a cryptographically signed message and therefore bears no resemblance to United States coins. The Casascius physical bitcoin and Bitbills are the closest things and nowhere do they come close to a U.S. coin. The Bitcoin medals / silver 1 ounce rounds at My Bitcoin Mint or MJB Monetary Metals are simply silver commodities no different than the thousands of other silver medals and rounds produced.
There are private currencies in use in certain locales. Berkshares in Massachusetts and Potomac currency near D.C. even, for instance. Their issuance has been left unchallenged.
So far, there has been no determination as to what Bitcoin is. Is it a commodity? A foreign exchange currency? A stored value (regulated under the definition of prepaid access?) But there is little association between Bitcoin and a U.S. coin. | The court where NotHaus was tried is a District court (trial court). In the US federal system, trial court decisions are *persuasive* authority only - this means that other courts can read them and discuss them and use them as guidance, but they are not required to follow them the way they would be an opinion from a Circuit Court of the US Supreme Court.
Also, trial courts make two kinds of determinations - regarding *issues of law*, and *issues of fact*.
Issues of fact are going to be specific to that particular case and aren't meaningfully precedent for any other circumstance. An example would be "we find that Col. Mustard killed Miss Scarlet in the kitchen with a lead pipe."
Issues of law could be applied to other cases - e.g., "the Court finds that a lead pipe is a deadly weapon."
So, it's possible that the court in the NotHaus case ruled on issues of law in a fashion that could be extended to other cases - but many of the rulings were likely very fact-specific (and thus inapplicable to other cases), and even rulings on legal issues will function as suggestions to other trial courts.
If NotHaus appeals his conviction, the appeal is more likely to result in binding precedent; but even that would only be binding on other courts within that appellate circuit, for the rest of the US it would just be persuasive (not mandatory).
The bare fact that NotHaus was convicted is not, in itself, any sort of legal precedent, though it may be a clue about the US government's feelings about alternative currencies. |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | While the linked video is explained as an amateur (high school) orchestra in which the musicians haven't fully developed their intonation, there are situations in which classical musicians play deliberately out of tune. (Of course, since they typically do this at the composer's instruction, one could say they really aren't out of tune at all.)
#### Microtonality
The prime examples of "out-of-tuneness" would be those in the realm of microtonal music. Microtonality broadly refers to contemporary music (and sometimes music from non-Western cultures) that is composed outside the accustomed equal-tempered scale.
One example: Krzysztof Penderecki's *Threnody for the Victims of Hiroshima*. In this piece, the instruments are, by intention, out of tune with each other.
#### Detuning to achieve a specific pitch
Traditionally, the lowest pitch on a string bass is E, but there are scores that require an Eb. To do this, the bass player retunes the E string to Eb. Technically, the string is now "out of tune", but also plays an accurately tuned Eb.
See [How do you play a low Eb on a double bass?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/117252/70803)
#### Peg scordatura
Sometimes a composer will ask a string player to "detune" their instrument for some passage of music.
For more on this, plus some examples of other "detuned" instrument and pieces of music that employ the technique, see [Are there pieces that require retuning an instrument mid-performance?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/111293/70803)
### Toy instruments
Some composers or ensembles work with toy instruments which are (more or less) inherently out of tune. One example, John Cage's *Suite for Toy Piano*.
#### "Correcting" for equal temperament
The compromise that equal temperament makes (12-TET, specifically) is that most intervals are "out of tune" in comparison to their more sonorous "just" relationships. When I sang in unaccompanied choirs, the voice with the chordal third would often adjust their pitch up or down, depending on the needs of the chord. Similarly with fifths. String, brass, and woodwind ensembles will do this as well. (Basically, as long as there's no piano. ;-))
One post that discusses this is [Making part of a triad chord sharper, but is it counted as minor?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/40580/70803)
#### Temperaments
There is a strong case to be made that the only "in tune" scenarios are those adhering to "just" intonation, meaning that intervals are integer ratios of frequencies. A "temperament" is a tuning in which those ratios are adjusted — "tempered" — to achieve some musical purpose. For example, 12-tone equal temperament — the adjustment of intervals such that 12 equal-sized semitones divide each octave — allows for the practical use of 12 different keys, but only by making most intervals slightly out of tune in comparison to their just ideals.
In this way, one could say that all classical musicians — pianists especially — play out of tune as a matter of course. (But, then, is it really out of tune...?) | Aside from what Aaron already said(which is all correct), there is a certain practice that some people frown upon, but many others think it's fine. In instruments that can manipulate their intonation on the spot, like the violin, a soloist might sharpen or flatten tendency tones to create stronger tension/desire to the resolution. For example, a leading tone can be slightly sharpened, and a subdominant can be slightly flattened if it goes to the mediant. This only works for tones that resolve by semitone, and only in a solo or small chamber context, as an orchestral context would create a dissonant clash between the person doing this and the rest of the section. |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | While the linked video is explained as an amateur (high school) orchestra in which the musicians haven't fully developed their intonation, there are situations in which classical musicians play deliberately out of tune. (Of course, since they typically do this at the composer's instruction, one could say they really aren't out of tune at all.)
#### Microtonality
The prime examples of "out-of-tuneness" would be those in the realm of microtonal music. Microtonality broadly refers to contemporary music (and sometimes music from non-Western cultures) that is composed outside the accustomed equal-tempered scale.
One example: Krzysztof Penderecki's *Threnody for the Victims of Hiroshima*. In this piece, the instruments are, by intention, out of tune with each other.
#### Detuning to achieve a specific pitch
Traditionally, the lowest pitch on a string bass is E, but there are scores that require an Eb. To do this, the bass player retunes the E string to Eb. Technically, the string is now "out of tune", but also plays an accurately tuned Eb.
See [How do you play a low Eb on a double bass?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/117252/70803)
#### Peg scordatura
Sometimes a composer will ask a string player to "detune" their instrument for some passage of music.
For more on this, plus some examples of other "detuned" instrument and pieces of music that employ the technique, see [Are there pieces that require retuning an instrument mid-performance?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/111293/70803)
### Toy instruments
Some composers or ensembles work with toy instruments which are (more or less) inherently out of tune. One example, John Cage's *Suite for Toy Piano*.
#### "Correcting" for equal temperament
The compromise that equal temperament makes (12-TET, specifically) is that most intervals are "out of tune" in comparison to their more sonorous "just" relationships. When I sang in unaccompanied choirs, the voice with the chordal third would often adjust their pitch up or down, depending on the needs of the chord. Similarly with fifths. String, brass, and woodwind ensembles will do this as well. (Basically, as long as there's no piano. ;-))
One post that discusses this is [Making part of a triad chord sharper, but is it counted as minor?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/40580/70803)
#### Temperaments
There is a strong case to be made that the only "in tune" scenarios are those adhering to "just" intonation, meaning that intervals are integer ratios of frequencies. A "temperament" is a tuning in which those ratios are adjusted — "tempered" — to achieve some musical purpose. For example, 12-tone equal temperament — the adjustment of intervals such that 12 equal-sized semitones divide each octave — allows for the practical use of 12 different keys, but only by making most intervals slightly out of tune in comparison to their just ideals.
In this way, one could say that all classical musicians — pianists especially — play out of tune as a matter of course. (But, then, is it really out of tune...?) | All that, with no conductor in sight!
I'd put it down to possibly not enough rehearsal time, or an inexperienced orchestra. There's always this sort of intonation/tuning problem with either. Playing in tune with other strings takes years to get right - playing one string instrument by itself in tune is enough of a challenge, and they did really well with a challenging piece.
It's true that choirs and string orchestras sometimes do move slightly 'off key', particularly the more amateur choirs, when there's no reference point like a piano to follow, but the better ones will all tend to move all together, rather like tempo changes with no conductor to keep time. But your 'off key' I guess is meant for 'out of tune with each other' - something subtly different. |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | While the linked video is explained as an amateur (high school) orchestra in which the musicians haven't fully developed their intonation, there are situations in which classical musicians play deliberately out of tune. (Of course, since they typically do this at the composer's instruction, one could say they really aren't out of tune at all.)
#### Microtonality
The prime examples of "out-of-tuneness" would be those in the realm of microtonal music. Microtonality broadly refers to contemporary music (and sometimes music from non-Western cultures) that is composed outside the accustomed equal-tempered scale.
One example: Krzysztof Penderecki's *Threnody for the Victims of Hiroshima*. In this piece, the instruments are, by intention, out of tune with each other.
#### Detuning to achieve a specific pitch
Traditionally, the lowest pitch on a string bass is E, but there are scores that require an Eb. To do this, the bass player retunes the E string to Eb. Technically, the string is now "out of tune", but also plays an accurately tuned Eb.
See [How do you play a low Eb on a double bass?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/117252/70803)
#### Peg scordatura
Sometimes a composer will ask a string player to "detune" their instrument for some passage of music.
For more on this, plus some examples of other "detuned" instrument and pieces of music that employ the technique, see [Are there pieces that require retuning an instrument mid-performance?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/111293/70803)
### Toy instruments
Some composers or ensembles work with toy instruments which are (more or less) inherently out of tune. One example, John Cage's *Suite for Toy Piano*.
#### "Correcting" for equal temperament
The compromise that equal temperament makes (12-TET, specifically) is that most intervals are "out of tune" in comparison to their more sonorous "just" relationships. When I sang in unaccompanied choirs, the voice with the chordal third would often adjust their pitch up or down, depending on the needs of the chord. Similarly with fifths. String, brass, and woodwind ensembles will do this as well. (Basically, as long as there's no piano. ;-))
One post that discusses this is [Making part of a triad chord sharper, but is it counted as minor?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/40580/70803)
#### Temperaments
There is a strong case to be made that the only "in tune" scenarios are those adhering to "just" intonation, meaning that intervals are integer ratios of frequencies. A "temperament" is a tuning in which those ratios are adjusted — "tempered" — to achieve some musical purpose. For example, 12-tone equal temperament — the adjustment of intervals such that 12 equal-sized semitones divide each octave — allows for the practical use of 12 different keys, but only by making most intervals slightly out of tune in comparison to their just ideals.
In this way, one could say that all classical musicians — pianists especially — play out of tune as a matter of course. (But, then, is it really out of tune...?) | The other answers have given lots of reasons why classical musicians might go off pitch. But in this case, most of the issue is simply as Todd Wilcox and Tim wrote: the orchester is inexperienced, they didn't mean to play out of tune, still it happened.
But I would say a bit more about that, more as an apology on behalf of these musicians than anything.
First: specifically for the cello introduction but also the rest
– Well, to begin, this is a high school student who has perhaps never played in front of an audience of the size they were facing here. And then she has to begin this piece *all alone*, with literally every eyeball in the room upon her. Easy to see how that can affects one's performance. (Maybe not so much for the kind of personality who plays lead guitar in a metal band, but orchestra musicians tend to fall a bit more on the shy side.) Even nerves aside – string instruments are tricky enough to play accurate under the best of conditions, but when you've just taken your seat, maybe the position isn't quite right, maybe there's something wrong with the chair, etc. etc..
Professional musicians have the experience from hundreds of public performances to guide them through such adversities, and even they get it wrong sometimes, and/or they're hyper-sensitive about the temperature backstage and whatnot because they know the dangers.
(Well, and there's also musicians who are super-relaxed badasses that just step on stage and kill it every time, but it's a big skill.)
Second, intonation isn't everything.
We're living in a world where so much music is hyper-corrected. Leaving aside the question of whether the predominant 12-edo tuning is even a good ideal – often other aspects of a performance are far more important than ideal pitch. This piece is a *rock song*. For sure an unusual one and in a different arrangement, but it doesn't change the fact that it's much more about powerful expression and rhythmic energy, than about clean intonation. And that's frankly something many orchestras totally suck at, even professional ones. MHS is doing a pretty good job at it I have to say, at least until about 2:30 where the tempo starts dragging a bit (probably bow arms getting tired). Even in the melody, there's a lot of simply anger and desperation. This can involve phrasing, effects like portamento (sliding/bending into- or out of notes), but also simply a certain not-giving-a-damn about intonation.
In summary: these musicians did the best job that could realistically be expected from them in the situation. |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | While the linked video is explained as an amateur (high school) orchestra in which the musicians haven't fully developed their intonation, there are situations in which classical musicians play deliberately out of tune. (Of course, since they typically do this at the composer's instruction, one could say they really aren't out of tune at all.)
#### Microtonality
The prime examples of "out-of-tuneness" would be those in the realm of microtonal music. Microtonality broadly refers to contemporary music (and sometimes music from non-Western cultures) that is composed outside the accustomed equal-tempered scale.
One example: Krzysztof Penderecki's *Threnody for the Victims of Hiroshima*. In this piece, the instruments are, by intention, out of tune with each other.
#### Detuning to achieve a specific pitch
Traditionally, the lowest pitch on a string bass is E, but there are scores that require an Eb. To do this, the bass player retunes the E string to Eb. Technically, the string is now "out of tune", but also plays an accurately tuned Eb.
See [How do you play a low Eb on a double bass?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/117252/70803)
#### Peg scordatura
Sometimes a composer will ask a string player to "detune" their instrument for some passage of music.
For more on this, plus some examples of other "detuned" instrument and pieces of music that employ the technique, see [Are there pieces that require retuning an instrument mid-performance?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/111293/70803)
### Toy instruments
Some composers or ensembles work with toy instruments which are (more or less) inherently out of tune. One example, John Cage's *Suite for Toy Piano*.
#### "Correcting" for equal temperament
The compromise that equal temperament makes (12-TET, specifically) is that most intervals are "out of tune" in comparison to their more sonorous "just" relationships. When I sang in unaccompanied choirs, the voice with the chordal third would often adjust their pitch up or down, depending on the needs of the chord. Similarly with fifths. String, brass, and woodwind ensembles will do this as well. (Basically, as long as there's no piano. ;-))
One post that discusses this is [Making part of a triad chord sharper, but is it counted as minor?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/40580/70803)
#### Temperaments
There is a strong case to be made that the only "in tune" scenarios are those adhering to "just" intonation, meaning that intervals are integer ratios of frequencies. A "temperament" is a tuning in which those ratios are adjusted — "tempered" — to achieve some musical purpose. For example, 12-tone equal temperament — the adjustment of intervals such that 12 equal-sized semitones divide each octave — allows for the practical use of 12 different keys, but only by making most intervals slightly out of tune in comparison to their just ideals.
In this way, one could say that all classical musicians — pianists especially — play out of tune as a matter of course. (But, then, is it really out of tune...?) | Yes it is a thing. If you go into modern practice of old music (baroque and prior) it is quite common to see intentional out-of-tuneness for effect. And even more that that slight shifts from intonation can influence the character of a piece and are thus rather common. But in this case this is simply because these are *not* fully trained classical musicians, this is a high school orchestra.
This is the actual recording of the string quartet this arrangement came from: |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | While the linked video is explained as an amateur (high school) orchestra in which the musicians haven't fully developed their intonation, there are situations in which classical musicians play deliberately out of tune. (Of course, since they typically do this at the composer's instruction, one could say they really aren't out of tune at all.)
#### Microtonality
The prime examples of "out-of-tuneness" would be those in the realm of microtonal music. Microtonality broadly refers to contemporary music (and sometimes music from non-Western cultures) that is composed outside the accustomed equal-tempered scale.
One example: Krzysztof Penderecki's *Threnody for the Victims of Hiroshima*. In this piece, the instruments are, by intention, out of tune with each other.
#### Detuning to achieve a specific pitch
Traditionally, the lowest pitch on a string bass is E, but there are scores that require an Eb. To do this, the bass player retunes the E string to Eb. Technically, the string is now "out of tune", but also plays an accurately tuned Eb.
See [How do you play a low Eb on a double bass?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/117252/70803)
#### Peg scordatura
Sometimes a composer will ask a string player to "detune" their instrument for some passage of music.
For more on this, plus some examples of other "detuned" instrument and pieces of music that employ the technique, see [Are there pieces that require retuning an instrument mid-performance?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/111293/70803)
### Toy instruments
Some composers or ensembles work with toy instruments which are (more or less) inherently out of tune. One example, John Cage's *Suite for Toy Piano*.
#### "Correcting" for equal temperament
The compromise that equal temperament makes (12-TET, specifically) is that most intervals are "out of tune" in comparison to their more sonorous "just" relationships. When I sang in unaccompanied choirs, the voice with the chordal third would often adjust their pitch up or down, depending on the needs of the chord. Similarly with fifths. String, brass, and woodwind ensembles will do this as well. (Basically, as long as there's no piano. ;-))
One post that discusses this is [Making part of a triad chord sharper, but is it counted as minor?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/40580/70803)
#### Temperaments
There is a strong case to be made that the only "in tune" scenarios are those adhering to "just" intonation, meaning that intervals are integer ratios of frequencies. A "temperament" is a tuning in which those ratios are adjusted — "tempered" — to achieve some musical purpose. For example, 12-tone equal temperament — the adjustment of intervals such that 12 equal-sized semitones divide each octave — allows for the practical use of 12 different keys, but only by making most intervals slightly out of tune in comparison to their just ideals.
In this way, one could say that all classical musicians — pianists especially — play out of tune as a matter of course. (But, then, is it really out of tune...?) | Another example of deliberately playing out of tune I'd like to bring to the table is perhaps one of the most stunning pieces on the classical guitar: Nikita Koshkin's *Usher Waltz*. This piece was inspired by the novel *The Fall of the House of Usher*, and the composer deliberately wrote out of tune passages to showcase the absurdity that the story has fallen into. Here is an example performance, and the out-of-tune "Bartok pizzacatos" start at 3:50: |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | Aside from what Aaron already said(which is all correct), there is a certain practice that some people frown upon, but many others think it's fine. In instruments that can manipulate their intonation on the spot, like the violin, a soloist might sharpen or flatten tendency tones to create stronger tension/desire to the resolution. For example, a leading tone can be slightly sharpened, and a subdominant can be slightly flattened if it goes to the mediant. This only works for tones that resolve by semitone, and only in a solo or small chamber context, as an orchestral context would create a dissonant clash between the person doing this and the rest of the section. | Yes it is a thing. If you go into modern practice of old music (baroque and prior) it is quite common to see intentional out-of-tuneness for effect. And even more that that slight shifts from intonation can influence the character of a piece and are thus rather common. But in this case this is simply because these are *not* fully trained classical musicians, this is a high school orchestra.
This is the actual recording of the string quartet this arrangement came from: |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | All that, with no conductor in sight!
I'd put it down to possibly not enough rehearsal time, or an inexperienced orchestra. There's always this sort of intonation/tuning problem with either. Playing in tune with other strings takes years to get right - playing one string instrument by itself in tune is enough of a challenge, and they did really well with a challenging piece.
It's true that choirs and string orchestras sometimes do move slightly 'off key', particularly the more amateur choirs, when there's no reference point like a piano to follow, but the better ones will all tend to move all together, rather like tempo changes with no conductor to keep time. But your 'off key' I guess is meant for 'out of tune with each other' - something subtly different. | Yes it is a thing. If you go into modern practice of old music (baroque and prior) it is quite common to see intentional out-of-tuneness for effect. And even more that that slight shifts from intonation can influence the character of a piece and are thus rather common. But in this case this is simply because these are *not* fully trained classical musicians, this is a high school orchestra.
This is the actual recording of the string quartet this arrangement came from: |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | The other answers have given lots of reasons why classical musicians might go off pitch. But in this case, most of the issue is simply as Todd Wilcox and Tim wrote: the orchester is inexperienced, they didn't mean to play out of tune, still it happened.
But I would say a bit more about that, more as an apology on behalf of these musicians than anything.
First: specifically for the cello introduction but also the rest
– Well, to begin, this is a high school student who has perhaps never played in front of an audience of the size they were facing here. And then she has to begin this piece *all alone*, with literally every eyeball in the room upon her. Easy to see how that can affects one's performance. (Maybe not so much for the kind of personality who plays lead guitar in a metal band, but orchestra musicians tend to fall a bit more on the shy side.) Even nerves aside – string instruments are tricky enough to play accurate under the best of conditions, but when you've just taken your seat, maybe the position isn't quite right, maybe there's something wrong with the chair, etc. etc..
Professional musicians have the experience from hundreds of public performances to guide them through such adversities, and even they get it wrong sometimes, and/or they're hyper-sensitive about the temperature backstage and whatnot because they know the dangers.
(Well, and there's also musicians who are super-relaxed badasses that just step on stage and kill it every time, but it's a big skill.)
Second, intonation isn't everything.
We're living in a world where so much music is hyper-corrected. Leaving aside the question of whether the predominant 12-edo tuning is even a good ideal – often other aspects of a performance are far more important than ideal pitch. This piece is a *rock song*. For sure an unusual one and in a different arrangement, but it doesn't change the fact that it's much more about powerful expression and rhythmic energy, than about clean intonation. And that's frankly something many orchestras totally suck at, even professional ones. MHS is doing a pretty good job at it I have to say, at least until about 2:30 where the tempo starts dragging a bit (probably bow arms getting tired). Even in the melody, there's a lot of simply anger and desperation. This can involve phrasing, effects like portamento (sliding/bending into- or out of notes), but also simply a certain not-giving-a-damn about intonation.
In summary: these musicians did the best job that could realistically be expected from them in the situation. | Yes it is a thing. If you go into modern practice of old music (baroque and prior) it is quite common to see intentional out-of-tuneness for effect. And even more that that slight shifts from intonation can influence the character of a piece and are thus rather common. But in this case this is simply because these are *not* fully trained classical musicians, this is a high school orchestra.
This is the actual recording of the string quartet this arrangement came from: |
127,235 | Can anyone explain to me what's going on?:
I am not and have never been a professional classical musician, but I don't think you need to be one to see that something is definitely wrong here — starting from the very intro by cello and then throughout the whole piece. And I am more than assured that performers themselves realize that. And that's what puzzles me greatly. They, nevertheless, perform it as if it were exactly the way it is supposed to be. And it doesn't seem to be any kind of joke on their part either.
Is there any more or less reasonable explanation to this? This act reminded me of my first experience of having one kind of French cheese. It smelled like nothing less than a piece of well-rotten remains of a corpse. However, before I was ready to vomit, one good person explained to me that that was a special French delicacy and was, in fact, good for health. Well, while I was still doubtful about how it was good for health, at least I got some explanation.
So, is there any similar plausible explanation for this case? | 2023/02/03 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/127235",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/82163/"
] | Another example of deliberately playing out of tune I'd like to bring to the table is perhaps one of the most stunning pieces on the classical guitar: Nikita Koshkin's *Usher Waltz*. This piece was inspired by the novel *The Fall of the House of Usher*, and the composer deliberately wrote out of tune passages to showcase the absurdity that the story has fallen into. Here is an example performance, and the out-of-tune "Bartok pizzacatos" start at 3:50: | Yes it is a thing. If you go into modern practice of old music (baroque and prior) it is quite common to see intentional out-of-tuneness for effect. And even more that that slight shifts from intonation can influence the character of a piece and are thus rather common. But in this case this is simply because these are *not* fully trained classical musicians, this is a high school orchestra.
This is the actual recording of the string quartet this arrangement came from: |
81,700 | I want to take some video of a friend with a motor disorder while he is sleeping. We are doing this to help get information about what happens while he sleeps.
I have a tripod and set up my iPad to video tape. But as soon as I turned off the light, the iPad could record nothing. I thought the iPad camera mode might have some way to brighten the image so that I could record, but nothing happened.
What is the least costly way to film my friend in the dark? | 2016/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/81700",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/54008/"
] | If trying other cards has not worked ([as indicated in comments](https://photo.stackexchange.com/q/81698/75526#comment140065_81698)), then the problem is not the card, it's the camera. You will need to get it repaired or at very least disassembled and cleaned by a specialist. | It might be the card, it might be the camera. Check for dirty contacts on both. If that doesn't help, try the card in a card reader attached to a computer, try a different card in the camera. Now you know where the problem lies, yes? If it's the card (and the pictures on it matter) there is free software that MIGHT be able to retrieve them. |
81,700 | I want to take some video of a friend with a motor disorder while he is sleeping. We are doing this to help get information about what happens while he sleeps.
I have a tripod and set up my iPad to video tape. But as soon as I turned off the light, the iPad could record nothing. I thought the iPad camera mode might have some way to brighten the image so that I could record, but nothing happened.
What is the least costly way to film my friend in the dark? | 2016/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/81700",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/54008/"
] | If trying other cards has not worked ([as indicated in comments](https://photo.stackexchange.com/q/81698/75526#comment140065_81698)), then the problem is not the card, it's the camera. You will need to get it repaired or at very least disassembled and cleaned by a specialist. | I was dealing with the exact same problem. I took a Q-Tip and wiped the contacts off on the card. Worked like a champ!! The camera would read other cards and my computer would read the one the camera didn't like. So give it a try. Seems the camera may be a little more sensitive to the condition of the contacts. Good Luck! |
81,700 | I want to take some video of a friend with a motor disorder while he is sleeping. We are doing this to help get information about what happens while he sleeps.
I have a tripod and set up my iPad to video tape. But as soon as I turned off the light, the iPad could record nothing. I thought the iPad camera mode might have some way to brighten the image so that I could record, but nothing happened.
What is the least costly way to film my friend in the dark? | 2016/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/81700",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/54008/"
] | >
> We had this happen to our 6D and it was the circuit board. Sent to
> Canon for repair and $400 - $600 later it came back working. I
> believe on this occasion they should have ate the cost, but it wasn't
> my camera and I didn't handle the return.
>
>
>
***Here are some things we checked before sending in for repair:***
**Check that the card is formatted properly (WARNING!)**
* Check that the card is formatted properly for your camera. Some cards come formatted differently (FAT32, exFAT, etc). Generally I would use a computer to check the card for anything i needed first then format in the camera using the *low level format* option. Don't format your stuff dude, that would suck.
**Check that the card isn't damaged or in locked mode**
* I understand locked mode shouldn't do anything, but why not check. Also, if you wrote on the card with a pen, or it is damaged then it might be the card.
**Check another card**
* Plop in another card that is compatible with your camera.
**Make sure the card is compatible with your camera**
* Cameras and cards are not all created equal. Some cameras can not use cards if they are 'too good' for your camera, and some cameras can not read or see cards that are 'too basic' for your camera bus.
+ *Here are some basic guidelines for choosing a card that matches your camera:*
+ [Sandisk SD Card Recommendations](https://kb.sandisk.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/2520/~/sd%2Fsdhc%2Fsdxc-specifications-and-compatibility)
+ [SD and Compact Flash Card Numbers Explained](https://www.bhphotovideo.com/explora/computers/tips-and-solutions/numbers-your-memory-card)
+ *(I will convert this to static content soon and set a reference, can't right now)*
**Check that you are using a Canon battery**
* I know this sounds strange, but I recall we had problems with non-Canon batteries (el cheapo) and card read errors. Not sure why.
**Power down the camera, pull the battery**
* Power down the camera, pull the battery and wait a minute then reinsert
**Check the card contacts and clean them**
* The contacts can have bad contact with the camera contacts for a number of reasons. Clean the contacts properly and try again. Also, check the camera contacts in the slot using a flashlight to ensure there isn't anything like fuzz stuck in the port or damaged pins.
**Call Canon Tech Support, Send for Repair**
* Although there might be more things to check, at this point we thought it was time to get the manufacturer involved. So we called, then sent it in. Now it works.
Hope you get good luck and it is simple. Last note. Check the video record after you think it is fixed. Even after we got ours working temporarily we noticed it would have a write error in a short amount of time while recording video. | It might be the card, it might be the camera. Check for dirty contacts on both. If that doesn't help, try the card in a card reader attached to a computer, try a different card in the camera. Now you know where the problem lies, yes? If it's the card (and the pictures on it matter) there is free software that MIGHT be able to retrieve them. |
81,700 | I want to take some video of a friend with a motor disorder while he is sleeping. We are doing this to help get information about what happens while he sleeps.
I have a tripod and set up my iPad to video tape. But as soon as I turned off the light, the iPad could record nothing. I thought the iPad camera mode might have some way to brighten the image so that I could record, but nothing happened.
What is the least costly way to film my friend in the dark? | 2016/08/05 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/81700",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/54008/"
] | >
> We had this happen to our 6D and it was the circuit board. Sent to
> Canon for repair and $400 - $600 later it came back working. I
> believe on this occasion they should have ate the cost, but it wasn't
> my camera and I didn't handle the return.
>
>
>
***Here are some things we checked before sending in for repair:***
**Check that the card is formatted properly (WARNING!)**
* Check that the card is formatted properly for your camera. Some cards come formatted differently (FAT32, exFAT, etc). Generally I would use a computer to check the card for anything i needed first then format in the camera using the *low level format* option. Don't format your stuff dude, that would suck.
**Check that the card isn't damaged or in locked mode**
* I understand locked mode shouldn't do anything, but why not check. Also, if you wrote on the card with a pen, or it is damaged then it might be the card.
**Check another card**
* Plop in another card that is compatible with your camera.
**Make sure the card is compatible with your camera**
* Cameras and cards are not all created equal. Some cameras can not use cards if they are 'too good' for your camera, and some cameras can not read or see cards that are 'too basic' for your camera bus.
+ *Here are some basic guidelines for choosing a card that matches your camera:*
+ [Sandisk SD Card Recommendations](https://kb.sandisk.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/2520/~/sd%2Fsdhc%2Fsdxc-specifications-and-compatibility)
+ [SD and Compact Flash Card Numbers Explained](https://www.bhphotovideo.com/explora/computers/tips-and-solutions/numbers-your-memory-card)
+ *(I will convert this to static content soon and set a reference, can't right now)*
**Check that you are using a Canon battery**
* I know this sounds strange, but I recall we had problems with non-Canon batteries (el cheapo) and card read errors. Not sure why.
**Power down the camera, pull the battery**
* Power down the camera, pull the battery and wait a minute then reinsert
**Check the card contacts and clean them**
* The contacts can have bad contact with the camera contacts for a number of reasons. Clean the contacts properly and try again. Also, check the camera contacts in the slot using a flashlight to ensure there isn't anything like fuzz stuck in the port or damaged pins.
**Call Canon Tech Support, Send for Repair**
* Although there might be more things to check, at this point we thought it was time to get the manufacturer involved. So we called, then sent it in. Now it works.
Hope you get good luck and it is simple. Last note. Check the video record after you think it is fixed. Even after we got ours working temporarily we noticed it would have a write error in a short amount of time while recording video. | I was dealing with the exact same problem. I took a Q-Tip and wiped the contacts off on the card. Worked like a champ!! The camera would read other cards and my computer would read the one the camera didn't like. So give it a try. Seems the camera may be a little more sensitive to the condition of the contacts. Good Luck! |
18,047 | My dog has dry spots and I want to get a good shampoo. I saw a lot of shampoo online, but I know a lot of the benefits can be misleading. So, I'd like to what ingredients I should look for in dog shampoo. Currently, to combat the dry skin, I'm using coconut oil.
My dog is a pitbull, three years old, pretty big, short coat. I haven't really shampooed him yet, I just adopted him. He was neutered 3 days ago, so I'm waiting a week before I give him a bath to let the wound heal first. | 2017/08/16 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/18047",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/10163/"
] | For dry skin I highly recommend Oatmeal based shampoo. Oatmeal shampoo will moisturize your dogs skin as well as soften his coat. It also smells great if oatmeal is your thing.
It doesn't really matter what brand you go for. Just look for oatmeal in the ingredients (the first brand that comes to mind though is Whole Earth Oatmeal Shampoo for Dogs if you want a brand suggestion). You can also make oatmeal shampoo at home with plenty if recipes online and fairly cheap ingredients for how much you make. | Dry skin can be caused by a few things:
1. Low-quality diet
2. Allergies
3. Diseases such as [hypothyroidism](http://www.petmd.com/dog/conditions/endocrine/c_dg_hypothyroidism) or [cushings disease](http://www.petmd.com/dog/conditions/endocrine/c_dg_hyperadrenocorticism).
Pitbulls are notorious for allergies, if you notice excessive itching, hair loss, chronic ear infections, browned paws (from excessive licking) I would consult your veterinarian.
I'm a big fan of the [DOUXO line](https://www.douxo.com/uk), these shampoos actually strengthen the skin barrier and not just moisturize it like oatmeal based shampoos. It contains the patented molecule [Phytosphingosine](https://pubchem.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/compound/phytosphingosine#section=Top), a fundamental component of ceramides, found naturally in the skin and ensures the cohesion of the skin barrier.
You can buy these shampoos at your veterinarian, they are pricier than your regular oatmeal shampoos but they actually focus on repairing the skin vs moisturizing. Well worth the money. |
20,918 | My friend recent bought a house.
All the rooms are wired for CAT5.
In the garage theirs a networking panel that has some sort of punch panel and then all the CAT5 cable routed to the rooms.
Problem we are having is that the RJ-45 connectors that are currently on ends in the panel to connect to a router/modem etc. for some reason dont fit. They are very hard to connect/disconnect. We actually broke 1 because it got stuck in the Cisco router we were using.
Any info on abnormal RJ-45 connectors?
Also, the CAT5 cable that is routed through the house is using some non-standard wire color.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/A5GHP.jpg)
Instead of these colors, the wires we have are as follows: Wire 1 is a light green, 2 is Dark Green, 3 is yellow, 4 is Dark Blue, 5 is light blue, 6 is orange, 7 is tan and 8 is brown.
I havent been able to find any information on this type of color scheme for CAT5 wiring.
We want to cut the current RJ-45 ends and put new RJ-45 connectors on the cables to fit.
Anyone have any information on wiring order or know anything about this color scheme or weird fitting RJ-45 connectors? | 2015/08/26 | [
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/20918",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/17524/"
] | As far as the RJ45 modular connectors go I have seen cheap ones not fit well. I like Leviton stuff myself.
I have seen colors messed up like this. The way wiring code works White/Green Green/White with first color being the dominate one, so this would be your translation.
Light Green = White / Green
Dark Green = Green /White
Yellow = White / Orange
Dark Blue = Blue / White
Light Blue = White / Blue
Orange = Orange /White
Tan = White / Brown
Brown = Brown /White
There are 2 color codes 568A w/g g/w w/o bl/w w/bl o/w w/br br/w and there is 568B that the orange and green pair are swapped and it goes w/o o/w w/g bl/w w/bl g/w w/br br/w. You need to look where the cable is punched to the patch panel It was say 568A or B. Unless your router needs a crossover (most don't any more) you wire the RJ45 modulator end the same as it is punched on the panel. Hold the end you hand with the clip away from you and the left side is pin 1.
I hope this helps | just get yourself new RJs and repalce every RJ you have . non-standard connections will drive you nuts . |
34,689,709 | I just had a quick question on how processors and threads work. According to my current understanding, a core can only perform 1 process at a time. But we are able to produce a thread pool(lets say 30) with a larger number than the number of cores that we posses(lets say 4) and have them run concurrently. How is this possible if we are only have 4 cores? I am also able to run my 30 thread program on my local computer and also continue to perform other activities on my computer such as watch movies or browse the internet.
I have read somewhere that scheduling of threads occurs and that sort of gives the illusion that these 30 threads are running concurrently by the 4 cores. Is this true and if so can someone explain how this works and also recommend some good reading on this?
Thank you in advance for the help. | 2016/01/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/34689709",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5765683/"
] | Processes vs Threads
--------------------
In days of old, each process had precisely one *thread* of execution, so processes were scheduled onto cores directly (and in these old days, there was almost only one core to schedule onto). However, in operating systems that support threading (which is almost all moderns OS's), it is *threads*, not processes that are scheduled. So for the rest of this discussion we will talk exclusively about threads, and you should understand that each running process has one or more threads of execution.
Parallelism vs Concurrency
--------------------------
When two threads are running in **parallel**, they are both running *at the same time*. For example, if we have two threads, A and B, then their parallel execution would look like this:
CPU 1: A ------------------------->
CPU 2: B ------------------------->
When two threads are running **concurrently**, their execution *overlaps*. Overlapping can happen in one of two ways: either the threads are executing at the same time (i.e. in parallel, as above), or their executions are being interleaved on the processor, like so:
CPU 1: A -----------> B ----------> A -----------> B ---------->
So, *for our purposes*, parallelism can be thought of as a special case of concurrency\*
Scheduling
----------
>
> But we are able to produce a thread pool(lets say 30) with a larger number than the number of cores that we posses(lets say 4) and have them run concurrently. How is this possible if we are only have 4 cores?
>
>
>
In this case, they can run concurrently because the CPU scheduler is giving each one of those 30 threads some share of CPU time. Some threads *will* be running in parallel (if you have 4 cores, then 4 threads will be running in parallel at any one time), but all 30 threads will be running concurrently. The reason you can then go play games or browse the web is that these new threads are added to the thread pool/queue and also given a share of CPU time.
Logical vs Physical Cores
-------------------------
>
> According to my current understanding, a core can only perform 1 process at a time
>
>
>
This is not *quite* true. Due to very clever hardware design and pipelining that would be much too long to go into here (plus I don't understand it), it is possible for one physical core to actually be executing *two completely different threads of execution at the same time*. Chew over that sentence a bit if you need to -- it still blows my mind.
This amazing feat is called simultaneous multi-threading (or popularly Hyper-Threading, although that is a proprietary name for a specific instance of such technology). Thus, we have **physical cores**, which are the actual hardware CPU cores, and **logical cores**, which is the number of cores the operating system tells software is available for use. Logical cores are essentially an abstraction. In typical modern Intel CPUs, each physical core acts as two logical cores.
>
> can someone explain how this works and also recommend some good reading on this?
>
>
>
I would recommend *Operating System Concepts* if you really want to understand how processes, threads, and scheduling all work together.
* The precise meanings of the terms *parallel* and *concurrent* are hotly debated, even [here in our very own stack overflow](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1050222/concurrency-vs-parallelism-what-is-the-difference). What one means by these terms depends a lot on the application domain. | In short, your understanding of a core is correct. A core can execute 1 thread (aka process) at a time.
However, your program doesn't **really** run 30 threads at once. Of those 30 threads, only 4 are running at a time, and the other 26 are waiting. The CPU will schedule threads and give each thread a slice of time to run on a core. So the CPU will make all the threads take turns running.
**A common misconception:**
>
> Having more threads will make my program run faster.
>
>
>
FALSE: Having more threads will **NOT** always make your program run faster. It just means the CPU has to do more switching, and in fact, having too many threads will make your program run *slower* because of the overhead caused by switching out all the different processes. |
34,689,709 | I just had a quick question on how processors and threads work. According to my current understanding, a core can only perform 1 process at a time. But we are able to produce a thread pool(lets say 30) with a larger number than the number of cores that we posses(lets say 4) and have them run concurrently. How is this possible if we are only have 4 cores? I am also able to run my 30 thread program on my local computer and also continue to perform other activities on my computer such as watch movies or browse the internet.
I have read somewhere that scheduling of threads occurs and that sort of gives the illusion that these 30 threads are running concurrently by the 4 cores. Is this true and if so can someone explain how this works and also recommend some good reading on this?
Thank you in advance for the help. | 2016/01/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/34689709",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5765683/"
] | Processes vs Threads
--------------------
In days of old, each process had precisely one *thread* of execution, so processes were scheduled onto cores directly (and in these old days, there was almost only one core to schedule onto). However, in operating systems that support threading (which is almost all moderns OS's), it is *threads*, not processes that are scheduled. So for the rest of this discussion we will talk exclusively about threads, and you should understand that each running process has one or more threads of execution.
Parallelism vs Concurrency
--------------------------
When two threads are running in **parallel**, they are both running *at the same time*. For example, if we have two threads, A and B, then their parallel execution would look like this:
CPU 1: A ------------------------->
CPU 2: B ------------------------->
When two threads are running **concurrently**, their execution *overlaps*. Overlapping can happen in one of two ways: either the threads are executing at the same time (i.e. in parallel, as above), or their executions are being interleaved on the processor, like so:
CPU 1: A -----------> B ----------> A -----------> B ---------->
So, *for our purposes*, parallelism can be thought of as a special case of concurrency\*
Scheduling
----------
>
> But we are able to produce a thread pool(lets say 30) with a larger number than the number of cores that we posses(lets say 4) and have them run concurrently. How is this possible if we are only have 4 cores?
>
>
>
In this case, they can run concurrently because the CPU scheduler is giving each one of those 30 threads some share of CPU time. Some threads *will* be running in parallel (if you have 4 cores, then 4 threads will be running in parallel at any one time), but all 30 threads will be running concurrently. The reason you can then go play games or browse the web is that these new threads are added to the thread pool/queue and also given a share of CPU time.
Logical vs Physical Cores
-------------------------
>
> According to my current understanding, a core can only perform 1 process at a time
>
>
>
This is not *quite* true. Due to very clever hardware design and pipelining that would be much too long to go into here (plus I don't understand it), it is possible for one physical core to actually be executing *two completely different threads of execution at the same time*. Chew over that sentence a bit if you need to -- it still blows my mind.
This amazing feat is called simultaneous multi-threading (or popularly Hyper-Threading, although that is a proprietary name for a specific instance of such technology). Thus, we have **physical cores**, which are the actual hardware CPU cores, and **logical cores**, which is the number of cores the operating system tells software is available for use. Logical cores are essentially an abstraction. In typical modern Intel CPUs, each physical core acts as two logical cores.
>
> can someone explain how this works and also recommend some good reading on this?
>
>
>
I would recommend *Operating System Concepts* if you really want to understand how processes, threads, and scheduling all work together.
* The precise meanings of the terms *parallel* and *concurrent* are hotly debated, even [here in our very own stack overflow](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1050222/concurrency-vs-parallelism-what-is-the-difference). What one means by these terms depends a lot on the application domain. | Java do not perform **Thread scheduling**, it leaves this on **Operating System** to perform Thread scheduling.
For **computationally intensive** tasks, It is recommended to have thread pool size equal to number of cores available. But for **I/O bound** tasks we should have larger number of threads. There are many other variations, if both type of tasks are available and needs CPU time slice.
>
> a core can only perform 1 process at a time
>
>
>
Yes, but they can **multitask** and create an **illusion** that they are processing more than one process at a time
>
> How is this possible if we are only have 4 cores? I am also able to
> run my 30 thread program on my local computer and also continue to
> perform other activities on my computer
>
>
>
This is possible due to **multitasking** (which is **concurrency**). Lets say you started 30 threads and OS is also running 50 threads, all 80 threads will share 4 CPU cores by getting CPU time slice one by one (one thread per core at a time). Which means on average each core will run 80/4=20 threads concurrently. And you will feel all threads/processes are running at the same time.
>
> can someone explain how this works
>
>
>
All of this happens at **OS level**. If you are a programmer then you should not worry about this. But if you are a student of OS then pick any OS book & learn more about Multi-threading at OS level in detail or find some good research paper for depth. One thing you should know that each OS handle these things in different way (but generally concepts are same)
There are some languages like **Erlang**, which use green threads (or processes), due to which they get the ability to map and schedule threads on their own eliminating OS. So, do some research on **green threads** as well if you are interested.
**Note:** You can also research on **actors** which is another **abstraction** over threads. Languages like Erlang, Scala etc use actors to accomplish tasks. One thread can have hundred of actors; each actor can perform different task (similar to threads in java).
This is a very **vast and active research topic** and there are many things to learn. |
25,939,273 | I noticed that while I was playing a video on YouTube (in Chrome), an HTML5 game that I'm developing with CreateJS was running half the framerate it usually does.
By itself, on desktop - no problem at running *60fps*.
With the YouTube video running? *30fps!*
Odd thing is, I can't seem to reproduce the issue on a different machine. Could it have something to do with the way different graphic-cards/drivers responds to the **requestAnimationFrame** call? | 2014/09/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/25939273",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/468206/"
] | Oracle [Java SE Embedded](http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/embedded/embedded-se/overview/index.html) and Oracle [Java ME Embedded](http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/embedded/javame/embed-me/overview/index.html) are both Oracle products. Since I'm just an engineer (and this is StackOverflow) I'll confine my comments to the technologies and set aside market positioning and licensing topics. For information on those topics please visit the linked product pages, or contact me and I can put you in touch with someone.
Java SE Embedded is (or can be, depending upon configuration) a full Java SE runtime, just like the JRE/JDK for the desktop. It features the HotSpot JVM with JIT compiler and the full set of Java SE class libraries, or to reduce static footprint, it can be configured to support one of the three compact profiles defined in Java SE 8. It also supports platforms not supported by desktop Java, such as a variety of ARM processors, with hard or soft floating point, on several embedded Linux configurations. Typical configurations include 32MB of RAM and 10MB-48MB of static space, depending on which compact profile or full JRE is selected.
Java ME Embedded is targeted at much smaller embedded configurations than SE Embedded. It has a JVM with a JIT compiler (the "Monty" JVM) but which is designed for low overhead and space efficiency instead of optimized runtime performance. There are also certain JVM and Java Language features not present in ME 8 compared to SE 8, such as user-defined classloaders, reflection, JNI, invokedynamic, method handles, and lambda expressions. Java ME 8 also features a radically subsetted class library, much smaller even than the SE 8 Compact-1 profile. Typical configurations will have 128K of RAM and 1MB of static footprint. For a complete specification of this environment (JVM subset spec, language subset spec, and class library APIs) see the [JSR-360 Specification](https://jcp.org/en/jsr/detail?id=360). (Requires click-through license.)
There is some work underway to support lambda expressions in this environment; see the [JVMLS 2014 talks page](http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/javase/community/jlssessions-2255337.html) and look for "Closures on Embedded JVM" by Oleg Pliss. Note that this is early work, and there are no committed product plans to support lambdas in the ME 8 environment. | exactly as Stuart says you can find the same in java oracle se embedded FAQ : Q: How does it differ from Java ME?
Java ME and Java SE Embedded address different segments of the embedded market. The Java ME CLDC and CDC offerings are designed for resource-limited devices including cell phones, handsets and media players. The APIs of CLDC and CDC are more limited than Java SE but enable these ME offerings to support devices with small footprints. Java SE Embedded provides the rich functionality of Java SE and is targeted at higher-end embedded devices - generally, those devices with at least 32MB RAM and 32MB of ROM. |
51,426 | I have read many novels and found that the writers do not follow basic phrase structure rules while constructing a sentence. For example, they may write a sentence with only one word like "Fear" And sometimes, they may come up with a compound sentence made up of imperative and interrogative.
Is this allowed, or should writers follow accepted grammar rules? | 2020/06/05 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/51426",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/44592/"
] | *The purpose of all writing is to communicate.* The target of the writing may be the author (to write is to think, to think is to write), a few people, or the masses. The time frame may be the-things-to-do-this-afternoon or timeless philosophy. But it is always to communicate.
What has to be in place for that to happen? *A common understanding must exist between the author and the reader.* That might be language. It might be expected sentence structure. Perhaps the organization of the material. Forms of punctuation. We define these rules, not because they represent some Platonic ideal, but because we have found that a common understanding of these rules fosters communication. We have to have rules because human language is plastic. Without the rules, it is chaos and incomprehension.
But why do writers violate the rules? Well, there are thousands of rules, too many for any one person to learn, understand, and apply. So, perhaps ignorance is an excuse. But perhaps it goes back to that overriding desire to communicate. Writing the same thing in the same way, time after time, turns the reader off. Blah, Blah, Blah! The writer knowing this, changes things up. Different words. Different sentence lengths. Different metaphors. Different phrasings. And so on. Something new and shiny to catch the attention of a reader drowning in a sea of blandness.
Can that be over done? Oh, my, yes, it can and is and almost certainly will be done again and again throughout the annuals of time. I could go on but you get my point.
A poor writer never fully masters the rules. A good writer masters the rules and follows them. A great writer masters the rules but knows when to break them in pursuit of more effective communication.
*Learn the rules.* Read widely and critically. Ask questions? Did this writer break a rule? Did it help or hinder the flow of communication between the writer and the reader? Could you have re-written the material to follow the rules? Would the re-write be as effective? Is there a way to break the rules in a more effective manner? Is there a better way to communicate? Find that way. | It’s not necessary, but breaking conventional grammar rules can be a good tool depending on how it’s applied.
For example, if a story is written in the first person and stream-of thought-narration is used, using sentence fragments or run-on sentences at certain points could give the readers a better understanding of the characters mental state, as long as it doesn’t confuse the readers.
I am not sure whether your question is addressing only breaking the rules in narration parts, but another example of where writers might not pay attention to the rules is in dialogue. If a character doesn’t speak in proper grammar, the writer will likely convey that as well. Even if the character doesn’t have “poor grammar,” the writer will likely not have the characters speak in formal English because that isn’t vernacular in most areas. |
51,426 | I have read many novels and found that the writers do not follow basic phrase structure rules while constructing a sentence. For example, they may write a sentence with only one word like "Fear" And sometimes, they may come up with a compound sentence made up of imperative and interrogative.
Is this allowed, or should writers follow accepted grammar rules? | 2020/06/05 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/51426",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/44592/"
] | *The purpose of all writing is to communicate.* The target of the writing may be the author (to write is to think, to think is to write), a few people, or the masses. The time frame may be the-things-to-do-this-afternoon or timeless philosophy. But it is always to communicate.
What has to be in place for that to happen? *A common understanding must exist between the author and the reader.* That might be language. It might be expected sentence structure. Perhaps the organization of the material. Forms of punctuation. We define these rules, not because they represent some Platonic ideal, but because we have found that a common understanding of these rules fosters communication. We have to have rules because human language is plastic. Without the rules, it is chaos and incomprehension.
But why do writers violate the rules? Well, there are thousands of rules, too many for any one person to learn, understand, and apply. So, perhaps ignorance is an excuse. But perhaps it goes back to that overriding desire to communicate. Writing the same thing in the same way, time after time, turns the reader off. Blah, Blah, Blah! The writer knowing this, changes things up. Different words. Different sentence lengths. Different metaphors. Different phrasings. And so on. Something new and shiny to catch the attention of a reader drowning in a sea of blandness.
Can that be over done? Oh, my, yes, it can and is and almost certainly will be done again and again throughout the annuals of time. I could go on but you get my point.
A poor writer never fully masters the rules. A good writer masters the rules and follows them. A great writer masters the rules but knows when to break them in pursuit of more effective communication.
*Learn the rules.* Read widely and critically. Ask questions? Did this writer break a rule? Did it help or hinder the flow of communication between the writer and the reader? Could you have re-written the material to follow the rules? Would the re-write be as effective? Is there a way to break the rules in a more effective manner? Is there a better way to communicate? Find that way. | When did grammar rules and 'phrase structure' rules become the same?
The correct answer is no, a writer does not have to follow perfect English per some English dept or professor, nor from any handbook that has no official status and of which there are many that do not all agree.
What the writer needs to do is be clear to the reader. And since you mentioned novelist it is far more likely to effectively use what you do not think is proper grammar. |
51,426 | I have read many novels and found that the writers do not follow basic phrase structure rules while constructing a sentence. For example, they may write a sentence with only one word like "Fear" And sometimes, they may come up with a compound sentence made up of imperative and interrogative.
Is this allowed, or should writers follow accepted grammar rules? | 2020/06/05 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/51426",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/44592/"
] | It’s not necessary, but breaking conventional grammar rules can be a good tool depending on how it’s applied.
For example, if a story is written in the first person and stream-of thought-narration is used, using sentence fragments or run-on sentences at certain points could give the readers a better understanding of the characters mental state, as long as it doesn’t confuse the readers.
I am not sure whether your question is addressing only breaking the rules in narration parts, but another example of where writers might not pay attention to the rules is in dialogue. If a character doesn’t speak in proper grammar, the writer will likely convey that as well. Even if the character doesn’t have “poor grammar,” the writer will likely not have the characters speak in formal English because that isn’t vernacular in most areas. | When did grammar rules and 'phrase structure' rules become the same?
The correct answer is no, a writer does not have to follow perfect English per some English dept or professor, nor from any handbook that has no official status and of which there are many that do not all agree.
What the writer needs to do is be clear to the reader. And since you mentioned novelist it is far more likely to effectively use what you do not think is proper grammar. |
104,079 | I have an old Sprint iPhone 4s that hasn't been under contract for around a year now and I have a friend on T-Mobile whose contract doesn't end for another year. He still has a flip phone so I want to give him the old iPhone. Is there a way to unlock the iPhone if it is no longer under contract? | 2013/10/03 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/104079",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/58643/"
] | Assuming your account was in good standing while the phone was under contract with Sprint, you would have to call Sprint Customer Care to get it unlocked. See [Sprint clarifies iPhone 4S unlocking policy](http://www.macworld.com/article/1163003/sprint_clarifies_iphone_4s_unlocking_policy.html) on Macworld.
Sprint customer care representatives on its forums state that unlocking is done primarily for international use. Call Sprint World Wide on (888) 226-7212 to get it done.
Also see the following on the Sprint community forums:
[Unlock iPhone 4S](http://community.sprint.com/baw/thread/132351)
[i need my iphone 4s unlock](http://community.sprint.com/baw/thread/132667) | In order to unlock - you will need to jailbreak it first. If you did want to jailbreak your iphone 4s as well,then jailbreak gives you to complete control to download whatever apps you want. That information is best for you that have an to unlock their iPhone. |
104,079 | I have an old Sprint iPhone 4s that hasn't been under contract for around a year now and I have a friend on T-Mobile whose contract doesn't end for another year. He still has a flip phone so I want to give him the old iPhone. Is there a way to unlock the iPhone if it is no longer under contract? | 2013/10/03 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/104079",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/58643/"
] | Unlocking is trivial with carrier support.
Here is Apple's article on how to proceed technically once your carrier has unlocked the device:
* <http://support.apple.com/kb/HT5014>
We have a nice thread on this Sprint to T-Mobile shift here:
* [Getting an unlocked iPhone 4/4S to work on T-Mobile](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/27969/getting-an-unlocked-iphone-4-4s-to-work-on-t-mobile) | Assuming your account was in good standing while the phone was under contract with Sprint, you would have to call Sprint Customer Care to get it unlocked. See [Sprint clarifies iPhone 4S unlocking policy](http://www.macworld.com/article/1163003/sprint_clarifies_iphone_4s_unlocking_policy.html) on Macworld.
Sprint customer care representatives on its forums state that unlocking is done primarily for international use. Call Sprint World Wide on (888) 226-7212 to get it done.
Also see the following on the Sprint community forums:
[Unlock iPhone 4S](http://community.sprint.com/baw/thread/132351)
[i need my iphone 4s unlock](http://community.sprint.com/baw/thread/132667) |
104,079 | I have an old Sprint iPhone 4s that hasn't been under contract for around a year now and I have a friend on T-Mobile whose contract doesn't end for another year. He still has a flip phone so I want to give him the old iPhone. Is there a way to unlock the iPhone if it is no longer under contract? | 2013/10/03 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/104079",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/58643/"
] | Unlocking is trivial with carrier support.
Here is Apple's article on how to proceed technically once your carrier has unlocked the device:
* <http://support.apple.com/kb/HT5014>
We have a nice thread on this Sprint to T-Mobile shift here:
* [Getting an unlocked iPhone 4/4S to work on T-Mobile](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/27969/getting-an-unlocked-iphone-4-4s-to-work-on-t-mobile) | In order to unlock - you will need to jailbreak it first. If you did want to jailbreak your iphone 4s as well,then jailbreak gives you to complete control to download whatever apps you want. That information is best for you that have an to unlock their iPhone. |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | You can do it with [ScreenToaster](http://www.screentoaster.com/) without installing any software (kind of).
Otherwise if you prefer a traditional application [Jing](http://www.jingproject.com/) and [Screen2EXE](http://www.screen-record.com/screen2exe.htm) are both free. | [Wink](http://www.debugmode.com/wink/) is freeware. From their homepage:
>
> Wink is a Tutorial and Presentation creation software, primarily aimed at creating tutorials on how to use software (like a tutor for MS-Word/Excel etc). Using Wink you can capture screenshots, add explanations boxes, buttons, titles etc and generate a highly effective tutorial for your users.
>
>
> |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | try UVScreenCamera, i think it's normal | You can do it with [ScreenToaster](http://www.screentoaster.com/) without installing any software (kind of).
Otherwise if you prefer a traditional application [Jing](http://www.jingproject.com/) and [Screen2EXE](http://www.screen-record.com/screen2exe.htm) are both free. |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | try UVScreenCamera, i think it's normal | Camtasia studio does a great job.
In the case the app is cross-platform (java, web-based) you can ask a pal with a Mac to use Screenium, Snapz Pro or ScreenFlow. |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | Camtasia studio does a great job.
In the case the app is cross-platform (java, web-based) you can ask a pal with a Mac to use Screenium, Snapz Pro or ScreenFlow. | You can do it with [ScreenToaster](http://www.screentoaster.com/) without installing any software (kind of).
Otherwise if you prefer a traditional application [Jing](http://www.jingproject.com/) and [Screen2EXE](http://www.screen-record.com/screen2exe.htm) are both free. |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | try UVScreenCamera, i think it's normal | [Wink](http://www.debugmode.com/wink/) is freeware. From their homepage:
>
> Wink is a Tutorial and Presentation creation software, primarily aimed at creating tutorials on how to use software (like a tutor for MS-Word/Excel etc). Using Wink you can capture screenshots, add explanations boxes, buttons, titles etc and generate a highly effective tutorial for your users.
>
>
> |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | Camtasia studio does a great job.
In the case the app is cross-platform (java, web-based) you can ask a pal with a Mac to use Screenium, Snapz Pro or ScreenFlow. | Static screen shots? Maybe Wink will work for you as well:
[Problem Steps Recorder tool to make tutorials](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/876889/steps-recorder-tool-to-make-tutorials) |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | Camtasia studio does a great job.
In the case the app is cross-platform (java, web-based) you can ask a pal with a Mac to use Screenium, Snapz Pro or ScreenFlow. | [Wink](http://www.debugmode.com/wink/) is freeware. From their homepage:
>
> Wink is a Tutorial and Presentation creation software, primarily aimed at creating tutorials on how to use software (like a tutor for MS-Word/Excel etc). Using Wink you can capture screenshots, add explanations boxes, buttons, titles etc and generate a highly effective tutorial for your users.
>
>
> |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | Camtasia studio does a great job.
In the case the app is cross-platform (java, web-based) you can ask a pal with a Mac to use Screenium, Snapz Pro or ScreenFlow. | There are lots of screen recording tools around, both free and professional ones, but I haven’t seen anything like ScreenToaster before. It's very nice applications for screen recording. |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | You can do it with [ScreenToaster](http://www.screentoaster.com/) without installing any software (kind of).
Otherwise if you prefer a traditional application [Jing](http://www.jingproject.com/) and [Screen2EXE](http://www.screen-record.com/screen2exe.htm) are both free. | There are lots of screen recording tools around, both free and professional ones, but I haven’t seen anything like ScreenToaster before. It's very nice applications for screen recording. |
876,887 | I need to record a demo of our application. Can anyone recommend a good screen recorder?
I have tried CamStudio, but it's throwing errors. Any other good free software I should try? | 2009/05/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/876887",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/22702/"
] | try UVScreenCamera, i think it's normal | Static screen shots? Maybe Wink will work for you as well:
[Problem Steps Recorder tool to make tutorials](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/876889/steps-recorder-tool-to-make-tutorials) |
128,152 | I recently discovered that an acquaintance of mine (Bob) might be applying for a position in the same group that I'm in. While I am on good terms with Bob, he is *not* very personable and I do *not* want to be working with him.
Here is the situation:
* Bob already works in the same (large) company as me, in a different group on another floor. We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while.
* I have been at the company for just over a year. Bob has been here about half a year longer. We are both inexperienced hires, and if he were to join my group, we would have the same title.
* I don't know for certain if he will be applying for a spot on my team or another team, but I have strong reason to believe it would be mine. He has not applied (given his resume) yet, but probably will soon.
* Being hired into my group would be a career shift for Bob. He studied a similar area, but wants to transition to the career path that I'm on.
* While I think if interviewed, he might do well enough on technical portions, I don't think his technical skills are on par with a similar candidate who studied in my field. For this inexperienced position I don't think that will have a major impact. I don't think he would do well on soft skill portions of the interview.
* I think that if hired, Bob would be tolerable to my other team members, but not liked by at least a couple of them (about 9-16 on the team, if you count a closely related team). I would probably be the person onboarding him.
* I really like my job and my team, and I think Bob being put on my team would change that.
**Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns? If so, how do I do it? And what if I find out for sure that he has applied for my team?**
---
Some specific examples of Bobs disagreeableness:
* Aggressively dismissing my advice to him because he thinks I am less competent in our mutual hobby. He generally does not respect people unless he views them as 'superior'.
* Talking over people, or not following social cues when a conversation has shifted.
* Charlie came up to me and said "So I got into an argument with Bob the other day..." I interjected "Let me give you a piece of advice-" and he immediately fired back "Don't get into an argument with Bob?" "Yep."
* In general, he is arrogant, condescending, and difficult to talk to. Many others pick up on this very quickly, it is definitely not just me. | 2019/02/05 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/128152",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/99171/"
] | >
> Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns?
>
>
>
**In short, no.**
Unless you are in a position to approve or make recommendations for new team members, I would stay out of it, especially since Bob has not officially applied.
You may be entirely correct about Bob, but it is simply too risky to complain about a peer based on what appears to be a gut feeling.
The main reason you give for not recommending Bob is that he is "not personable," which is highly subjective. Your other criticisms don't seem to have basis in fact -- you don't point to any specific circumstances in which Bob failed or performed poorly.
There's no harm in providing unsolicited positive feedback, but unsolicited negative feedback can come back to hurt you.
Let's say, for example, you were to approach your boss and say everything you say here. And let's say your boss hires Bob anyway, and he's a great fit with the team. That could make you look petty, wrong, or otherwise not credible. Your boss may value your opinion less after that.
Then there's Bob -- if Bob finds out about your feedback it's likely he'd be blindsided and react negatively to you. Especially if your feedback cost Bob a new opportunity. Bob may then tell his story to others, and suddenly you have a poor reputation among a number of people you wouldn't have before.
Certainly if your boss asks you about Bob, you can give feedback, but even in that case, make sure any negative comments are grounded in objective fact as much as possible. You'll probably want to cast those as "reservations" or "concerns" rather than flat-out telling your boss not to hire Bob.
If Bob does end up on your team, make sure to keep careful record of your interactions -- after all, it's more appropriate for you to provide negative (albeit constructive) feedback when you're working with that person directly on a regular basis. | The answer is simple.
* You never managed him,
* you never worked with him in *professional capacity* ("We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while" is not "work") and
* you are not in-charge of the hiring process.
Thus ***you never get to pass comments, let alone negative, before or during the allotment process.***
You have no idea how he behaves / interacts with his "team" - it may significantly differ when working in a professional capacity and talking to someone outside the professional zone.
You have an idea of his behavior is a plus for you, keep an eye out for the allotment process and if Bob get selected for the position, do your part as you would have done for anyone else being appointed. In case the behavior is as you "expected" (i.e., not very professional), make careful note of the interaction and you can bring it up to the team superior / management , as necessary. |
128,152 | I recently discovered that an acquaintance of mine (Bob) might be applying for a position in the same group that I'm in. While I am on good terms with Bob, he is *not* very personable and I do *not* want to be working with him.
Here is the situation:
* Bob already works in the same (large) company as me, in a different group on another floor. We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while.
* I have been at the company for just over a year. Bob has been here about half a year longer. We are both inexperienced hires, and if he were to join my group, we would have the same title.
* I don't know for certain if he will be applying for a spot on my team or another team, but I have strong reason to believe it would be mine. He has not applied (given his resume) yet, but probably will soon.
* Being hired into my group would be a career shift for Bob. He studied a similar area, but wants to transition to the career path that I'm on.
* While I think if interviewed, he might do well enough on technical portions, I don't think his technical skills are on par with a similar candidate who studied in my field. For this inexperienced position I don't think that will have a major impact. I don't think he would do well on soft skill portions of the interview.
* I think that if hired, Bob would be tolerable to my other team members, but not liked by at least a couple of them (about 9-16 on the team, if you count a closely related team). I would probably be the person onboarding him.
* I really like my job and my team, and I think Bob being put on my team would change that.
**Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns? If so, how do I do it? And what if I find out for sure that he has applied for my team?**
---
Some specific examples of Bobs disagreeableness:
* Aggressively dismissing my advice to him because he thinks I am less competent in our mutual hobby. He generally does not respect people unless he views them as 'superior'.
* Talking over people, or not following social cues when a conversation has shifted.
* Charlie came up to me and said "So I got into an argument with Bob the other day..." I interjected "Let me give you a piece of advice-" and he immediately fired back "Don't get into an argument with Bob?" "Yep."
* In general, he is arrogant, condescending, and difficult to talk to. Many others pick up on this very quickly, it is definitely not just me. | 2019/02/05 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/128152",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/99171/"
] | >
> Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns?
>
>
>
**In short, no.**
Unless you are in a position to approve or make recommendations for new team members, I would stay out of it, especially since Bob has not officially applied.
You may be entirely correct about Bob, but it is simply too risky to complain about a peer based on what appears to be a gut feeling.
The main reason you give for not recommending Bob is that he is "not personable," which is highly subjective. Your other criticisms don't seem to have basis in fact -- you don't point to any specific circumstances in which Bob failed or performed poorly.
There's no harm in providing unsolicited positive feedback, but unsolicited negative feedback can come back to hurt you.
Let's say, for example, you were to approach your boss and say everything you say here. And let's say your boss hires Bob anyway, and he's a great fit with the team. That could make you look petty, wrong, or otherwise not credible. Your boss may value your opinion less after that.
Then there's Bob -- if Bob finds out about your feedback it's likely he'd be blindsided and react negatively to you. Especially if your feedback cost Bob a new opportunity. Bob may then tell his story to others, and suddenly you have a poor reputation among a number of people you wouldn't have before.
Certainly if your boss asks you about Bob, you can give feedback, but even in that case, make sure any negative comments are grounded in objective fact as much as possible. You'll probably want to cast those as "reservations" or "concerns" rather than flat-out telling your boss not to hire Bob.
If Bob does end up on your team, make sure to keep careful record of your interactions -- after all, it's more appropriate for you to provide negative (albeit constructive) feedback when you're working with that person directly on a regular basis. | It would be very brave to do so, and I mean brave in the exact same way a British MP means it when referring to another MP.
Not only would giving such an action be inappropriate, it would reflect far worse on you than on "bob".
If I were approached by someone talking down about another employee, I'd lose all respect for the person approaching me. I'd view that person as petty, unprofessional, manipulative, and untrustworthy.
In the business world, we have to get along with all types. You do not get to pick and choose who you get to deal with, and wanting to avoid someone because you find them less than personable demonstrates both a lack of professionalism and maturity.
If I were your manager, I'd simply tell you to deal with it, and I'd be very disappointed in you.
Learn to deal with Bob, he may surprise you, if not, you still have to get along. |
128,152 | I recently discovered that an acquaintance of mine (Bob) might be applying for a position in the same group that I'm in. While I am on good terms with Bob, he is *not* very personable and I do *not* want to be working with him.
Here is the situation:
* Bob already works in the same (large) company as me, in a different group on another floor. We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while.
* I have been at the company for just over a year. Bob has been here about half a year longer. We are both inexperienced hires, and if he were to join my group, we would have the same title.
* I don't know for certain if he will be applying for a spot on my team or another team, but I have strong reason to believe it would be mine. He has not applied (given his resume) yet, but probably will soon.
* Being hired into my group would be a career shift for Bob. He studied a similar area, but wants to transition to the career path that I'm on.
* While I think if interviewed, he might do well enough on technical portions, I don't think his technical skills are on par with a similar candidate who studied in my field. For this inexperienced position I don't think that will have a major impact. I don't think he would do well on soft skill portions of the interview.
* I think that if hired, Bob would be tolerable to my other team members, but not liked by at least a couple of them (about 9-16 on the team, if you count a closely related team). I would probably be the person onboarding him.
* I really like my job and my team, and I think Bob being put on my team would change that.
**Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns? If so, how do I do it? And what if I find out for sure that he has applied for my team?**
---
Some specific examples of Bobs disagreeableness:
* Aggressively dismissing my advice to him because he thinks I am less competent in our mutual hobby. He generally does not respect people unless he views them as 'superior'.
* Talking over people, or not following social cues when a conversation has shifted.
* Charlie came up to me and said "So I got into an argument with Bob the other day..." I interjected "Let me give you a piece of advice-" and he immediately fired back "Don't get into an argument with Bob?" "Yep."
* In general, he is arrogant, condescending, and difficult to talk to. Many others pick up on this very quickly, it is definitely not just me. | 2019/02/05 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/128152",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/99171/"
] | >
> Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns?
>
>
>
**In short, no.**
Unless you are in a position to approve or make recommendations for new team members, I would stay out of it, especially since Bob has not officially applied.
You may be entirely correct about Bob, but it is simply too risky to complain about a peer based on what appears to be a gut feeling.
The main reason you give for not recommending Bob is that he is "not personable," which is highly subjective. Your other criticisms don't seem to have basis in fact -- you don't point to any specific circumstances in which Bob failed or performed poorly.
There's no harm in providing unsolicited positive feedback, but unsolicited negative feedback can come back to hurt you.
Let's say, for example, you were to approach your boss and say everything you say here. And let's say your boss hires Bob anyway, and he's a great fit with the team. That could make you look petty, wrong, or otherwise not credible. Your boss may value your opinion less after that.
Then there's Bob -- if Bob finds out about your feedback it's likely he'd be blindsided and react negatively to you. Especially if your feedback cost Bob a new opportunity. Bob may then tell his story to others, and suddenly you have a poor reputation among a number of people you wouldn't have before.
Certainly if your boss asks you about Bob, you can give feedback, but even in that case, make sure any negative comments are grounded in objective fact as much as possible. You'll probably want to cast those as "reservations" or "concerns" rather than flat-out telling your boss not to hire Bob.
If Bob does end up on your team, make sure to keep careful record of your interactions -- after all, it's more appropriate for you to provide negative (albeit constructive) feedback when you're working with that person directly on a regular basis. | Approaching your boss with this concern when you only speculate about him being interested in joining your team is a social no-go.
However, in many companies the team is asked for an opinion on a new candidate to join them in the hope to keep team spirits high and have teams that like working with each other. If your company has such a process that would be the right moment to mention concerns about Bob being a bad fit for your team culture. You should however be careful in judging his professional behaviour based solely on your non-professional interactions. Many people can perfectly switch to acting differently when they are in their professional role.
If your company doesn't have such a process you could - independently of this concrete issue - try to establish such a process, e.g. by suggesting it to your manager. |
128,152 | I recently discovered that an acquaintance of mine (Bob) might be applying for a position in the same group that I'm in. While I am on good terms with Bob, he is *not* very personable and I do *not* want to be working with him.
Here is the situation:
* Bob already works in the same (large) company as me, in a different group on another floor. We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while.
* I have been at the company for just over a year. Bob has been here about half a year longer. We are both inexperienced hires, and if he were to join my group, we would have the same title.
* I don't know for certain if he will be applying for a spot on my team or another team, but I have strong reason to believe it would be mine. He has not applied (given his resume) yet, but probably will soon.
* Being hired into my group would be a career shift for Bob. He studied a similar area, but wants to transition to the career path that I'm on.
* While I think if interviewed, he might do well enough on technical portions, I don't think his technical skills are on par with a similar candidate who studied in my field. For this inexperienced position I don't think that will have a major impact. I don't think he would do well on soft skill portions of the interview.
* I think that if hired, Bob would be tolerable to my other team members, but not liked by at least a couple of them (about 9-16 on the team, if you count a closely related team). I would probably be the person onboarding him.
* I really like my job and my team, and I think Bob being put on my team would change that.
**Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns? If so, how do I do it? And what if I find out for sure that he has applied for my team?**
---
Some specific examples of Bobs disagreeableness:
* Aggressively dismissing my advice to him because he thinks I am less competent in our mutual hobby. He generally does not respect people unless he views them as 'superior'.
* Talking over people, or not following social cues when a conversation has shifted.
* Charlie came up to me and said "So I got into an argument with Bob the other day..." I interjected "Let me give you a piece of advice-" and he immediately fired back "Don't get into an argument with Bob?" "Yep."
* In general, he is arrogant, condescending, and difficult to talk to. Many others pick up on this very quickly, it is definitely not just me. | 2019/02/05 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/128152",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/99171/"
] | The answer is simple.
* You never managed him,
* you never worked with him in *professional capacity* ("We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while" is not "work") and
* you are not in-charge of the hiring process.
Thus ***you never get to pass comments, let alone negative, before or during the allotment process.***
You have no idea how he behaves / interacts with his "team" - it may significantly differ when working in a professional capacity and talking to someone outside the professional zone.
You have an idea of his behavior is a plus for you, keep an eye out for the allotment process and if Bob get selected for the position, do your part as you would have done for anyone else being appointed. In case the behavior is as you "expected" (i.e., not very professional), make careful note of the interaction and you can bring it up to the team superior / management , as necessary. | It would be very brave to do so, and I mean brave in the exact same way a British MP means it when referring to another MP.
Not only would giving such an action be inappropriate, it would reflect far worse on you than on "bob".
If I were approached by someone talking down about another employee, I'd lose all respect for the person approaching me. I'd view that person as petty, unprofessional, manipulative, and untrustworthy.
In the business world, we have to get along with all types. You do not get to pick and choose who you get to deal with, and wanting to avoid someone because you find them less than personable demonstrates both a lack of professionalism and maturity.
If I were your manager, I'd simply tell you to deal with it, and I'd be very disappointed in you.
Learn to deal with Bob, he may surprise you, if not, you still have to get along. |
128,152 | I recently discovered that an acquaintance of mine (Bob) might be applying for a position in the same group that I'm in. While I am on good terms with Bob, he is *not* very personable and I do *not* want to be working with him.
Here is the situation:
* Bob already works in the same (large) company as me, in a different group on another floor. We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while.
* I have been at the company for just over a year. Bob has been here about half a year longer. We are both inexperienced hires, and if he were to join my group, we would have the same title.
* I don't know for certain if he will be applying for a spot on my team or another team, but I have strong reason to believe it would be mine. He has not applied (given his resume) yet, but probably will soon.
* Being hired into my group would be a career shift for Bob. He studied a similar area, but wants to transition to the career path that I'm on.
* While I think if interviewed, he might do well enough on technical portions, I don't think his technical skills are on par with a similar candidate who studied in my field. For this inexperienced position I don't think that will have a major impact. I don't think he would do well on soft skill portions of the interview.
* I think that if hired, Bob would be tolerable to my other team members, but not liked by at least a couple of them (about 9-16 on the team, if you count a closely related team). I would probably be the person onboarding him.
* I really like my job and my team, and I think Bob being put on my team would change that.
**Is it appropriate to approach my boss (or someone else? HR?) and express my concerns? If so, how do I do it? And what if I find out for sure that he has applied for my team?**
---
Some specific examples of Bobs disagreeableness:
* Aggressively dismissing my advice to him because he thinks I am less competent in our mutual hobby. He generally does not respect people unless he views them as 'superior'.
* Talking over people, or not following social cues when a conversation has shifted.
* Charlie came up to me and said "So I got into an argument with Bob the other day..." I interjected "Let me give you a piece of advice-" and he immediately fired back "Don't get into an argument with Bob?" "Yep."
* In general, he is arrogant, condescending, and difficult to talk to. Many others pick up on this very quickly, it is definitely not just me. | 2019/02/05 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/128152",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/99171/"
] | The answer is simple.
* You never managed him,
* you never worked with him in *professional capacity* ("We occasionally chat on the company messaging program. We talk outside of work every once in a while" is not "work") and
* you are not in-charge of the hiring process.
Thus ***you never get to pass comments, let alone negative, before or during the allotment process.***
You have no idea how he behaves / interacts with his "team" - it may significantly differ when working in a professional capacity and talking to someone outside the professional zone.
You have an idea of his behavior is a plus for you, keep an eye out for the allotment process and if Bob get selected for the position, do your part as you would have done for anyone else being appointed. In case the behavior is as you "expected" (i.e., not very professional), make careful note of the interaction and you can bring it up to the team superior / management , as necessary. | Approaching your boss with this concern when you only speculate about him being interested in joining your team is a social no-go.
However, in many companies the team is asked for an opinion on a new candidate to join them in the hope to keep team spirits high and have teams that like working with each other. If your company has such a process that would be the right moment to mention concerns about Bob being a bad fit for your team culture. You should however be careful in judging his professional behaviour based solely on your non-professional interactions. Many people can perfectly switch to acting differently when they are in their professional role.
If your company doesn't have such a process you could - independently of this concrete issue - try to establish such a process, e.g. by suggesting it to your manager. |
70,404 | There are quite some houses and clothes for sale, but I do not have any money. What is the fastest way to get money in GTA San Andreas? | 2012/05/27 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/70404",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/26351/"
] | Running taxi missions can get you a small nest egg, which you then want to invest in the horse races - the odds of winning are pretty unrealistic. I seem to remember it being the same odds of success regardless of the odds on the horse.
Save your game before you start, and then bet the max you can on the longest-shot horse. If your horse wins, save, if not, reload your old save. In a couple of runs at this you'll have enough cash to clear the rest of the game easily. | Two things I use to make money really quickly (other than what the other answers cover) are:
* Burglary missions, and
* Taking Gang Area
**Burglary**
If you park the van relatively near two houses/ apartment doors, you can alternate between them, as the state of a house is reset when you enter another one.
* Only steal TVs, as this nets you the most cash per item.
* Don't bother sneaking. The TV is in front of you and you get 10 seconds to leave once you've woken them up.
* Jog in, grab TV, leave, drop off TV, go to other door. Rinse and Repeat.
I've gotten upwards of $20k in a 'night' like this
**Gang Area**
Taking over gang area not only nets you a greater passive 'gang' income (next to your house), but you can pick up the money that the Ballas/Vagos drop when you kill them.
This has the added benefit of upping your skills with guns. In the harder areas (more filled colour) the enemies drop SMGs and AK-47s by the last wave - I'm usually maxed out in at least these two guns (possibly machine pistols as well) by the time I leave for San Fierro.
If you have trouble taking over area, I've got a few tips:
* **Start with the lighter-shaded areas** (mostly the industrial areas below Grove Street, but also in the shopping district (away from the residential area) and the beach in the south-west of Los Santos) The enemies will be fewer in number and usually wont get assault weapons (SMG, AK-47) on the third wave.
* **Take enemies from a distance** - if a few of them have reached a range from which they can fire at you, you'll die quickly. Try to kite them as much as possible.
* **Enemies spawn behind you** - Mostly. They always spawn along the footpaths out of your line of sight (behind the camera)
+ This includes side streets behind you as well.
+ They will also tend to stick to footpaths until they are in range of hitting you - use this as an early warning to back away.
* **Collect what you can** at the end of a wave, and face away from where you want them to spawn.
+ For most roads I tend to alternate ends to fight on, this way I can run through all the ammo/money and health/armour pickups whilst the enemies begin to spawn behind me.
* **Complete the Ambulance missions** if you feel like you just don't have enough health. It'll take around 30-40 minutes (real-time) but it completely maxes out your health bar, with an added 50% extra. Worth it for most of the game, not just gang area.
+ Try to grab armour pickups as well. you can also up armour to 150% by completing Police missions, but this isn't as useful as the Ambulance missions.
* **Switch to your other weapon, it's faster than reloading.** (Thanks Sgt. Foley) The game doesn't keep track of magazine status. If you use a gun down to 1 bullet left, and switch out and back, the magazine is reloaded. Take advantage of this. It is actually faster than reloading. |
70,404 | There are quite some houses and clothes for sale, but I do not have any money. What is the fastest way to get money in GTA San Andreas? | 2012/05/27 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/70404",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/26351/"
] | The fastest way is to steal a tank from the military base play the 'Vigilante' missions.
I earned half a million in under half an hour doing this, without cheating. | The fastest way to get money in GTA Sa is: Roulette, of course.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/u0YEy.jpg)
Put your bet in 50/50 like: Red/Black, Even/Odd.
You can win 1 million dollar in 1 seconds.
Here is the one million dollar trick: If you win, save game, if you lose, don't save. |
70,404 | There are quite some houses and clothes for sale, but I do not have any money. What is the fastest way to get money in GTA San Andreas? | 2012/05/27 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/70404",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/26351/"
] | If you have no problem with using cheat codes, this cheat adds full health and armour, and gives you $250,000!
>
> HESOYAM
>
>
> | If you start at the downtown hospital, head right, then turn right at the first road, on your left-hand side you'll find an outdoor "mall" or concourse. In here, you can hide from the police helicopter, and cars cannot get at you. There's also a soda machine that you can use to heal yourself.
Run around in circles here, taking out everyone and all cops; you'll get a pile of handguns, and money from all the citizens wandering around, and if you're careful, you'll never get wasted. |
70,404 | There are quite some houses and clothes for sale, but I do not have any money. What is the fastest way to get money in GTA San Andreas? | 2012/05/27 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/70404",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/26351/"
] | If you start at the downtown hospital, head right, then turn right at the first road, on your left-hand side you'll find an outdoor "mall" or concourse. In here, you can hide from the police helicopter, and cars cannot get at you. There's also a soda machine that you can use to heal yourself.
Run around in circles here, taking out everyone and all cops; you'll get a pile of handguns, and money from all the citizens wandering around, and if you're careful, you'll never get wasted. | You can kill drug dealers for a quick influx of cash - They drop anything up to $2k. Note however that (despite cleaning up the streets) you actually lose a point in respect for each dealer you kill. This doesn't add up to much, you can kill enemy gang members to make up for it, but just be aware.
The dealers that I know of are:
* White guys wearing white hoodies (He is mostly found around Grove Street).
* A Black guy with checked shirts. He is difficult to find though, as he looks very much like civilians.
* Another Black guy wearing a beanie and black t-shirt.
If you stand near them, they will say something like "What'cha need?", which you can respond positively or negatively. They're usually armed with a pistol, so if you plan on taking them out, do so quickly. |
70,404 | There are quite some houses and clothes for sale, but I do not have any money. What is the fastest way to get money in GTA San Andreas? | 2012/05/27 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/70404",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/26351/"
] | Running taxi missions can get you a small nest egg, which you then want to invest in the horse races - the odds of winning are pretty unrealistic. I seem to remember it being the same odds of success regardless of the odds on the horse.
Save your game before you start, and then bet the max you can on the longest-shot horse. If your horse wins, save, if not, reload your old save. In a couple of runs at this you'll have enough cash to clear the rest of the game easily. | The fastest way is to steal a tank from the military base play the 'Vigilante' missions.
I earned half a million in under half an hour doing this, without cheating. |
10,571,114 | Is there any iOS Storyboard equivalent for Android development?
iOS Storyboard is fantastic that saves us a lot of time writing code. It is almost like a direct wireframe/prototype to final development too.
Anything on Android development which can perform the same? | 2012/05/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10571114",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919222/"
] | Honestly I dont think there is. Although I am sure you can find tools to allow you to create the workflow between screens of your application. | **UPDATE**
>
> Navigation Editor isn't available in Android Studio starting from
> version 2.0. It was an experimental feature and we may re-visit it in
> the future. Information on this page is left for archive purposes.
>
>
>
---
Android tools team just launched an early prototype of Navigation Editor for Android Applications, which they're planning to release next year
As of now, it'll be available to try/use in Android Studio.
Get all the information on Android tools website: <http://tools.android.com/navigation-editor> |
58,129,768 | I am using **VSCode 1.38.1** and I connect to a remote docker environment running sshd with SSH using the **Remote - SSH 0.46.1** extension.
Everything works smoothly and I can install/uninstall extensions in the remote docker container with the VSCode.
However, I cannot find a way to use the **Settings Sync 3.4.3** (latest) extension to sync my extensions/settings in the remote docker container.
It seems that it can be installed only locally and not on the Remote SSH environment. Is there any way to use it with the remote environment?
Also, could you please suggest me an alternative settings syncing extension? I have also tried **Syncing 3.0.9** extension which can be installed remotely but when I download the extensions/settings from the gist file it loops forever.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gKZrV.png). | 2019/09/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/58129768",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3763715/"
] | By creating a symbolic link from .vscode-server to .vscode in the remote environment everything works smoothly. Also, only the Syncing extensions 3.0.1 version works correctly with syncing. | I try the same way, it looks still not working.
I am connecting the remote linux server(not container), the remote server specific setting is not synced to gist after "Upload/Update Settings", it looks only local PC setting uploaded to gist.
did you try to configure remote specific setting (which is not same as local PC) and sync it? |
72,606 | I am new to this Arduino community
I noticed on youtube that while the prototype is complete people purchase new ATmega328p chips and flash bootloaders into them using in-system-programmers so that the chip could actually understand and interpret the instructions that are written in the high-level language if I am right(No I was wrong, it's actually the compiler that sits on Arduino). so I thought what if we could burn the atmega328p bootloader into any other microcontroller. So that we could program it in Arduino programming language(C/C++). Is this possible? sorry if I am dumb, but I wanted to know. And can anyone tell me whether could we use ATmega328p for production purposes(consumer electronics)? Thanks in advance. | 2020/02/18 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/72606",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/59230/"
] | The answer needs to have multiple parts:
**Yes, in principle you can create a bootloader for any microcontroller, which acts like the Arduino's.**
Please be aware that there are different bootloaders, not just the common STK500 compatible one. Each of these bootloaders implements a certain protocol to transfer the binary code to the target system.
Additionally, some protocols also include commands to restart the microcontroller, to set configuration registers, and maybe more.
You need to read the bootloader's documentation to become familiar with its capabilities.
But it is your decision whether such a bootloader on a non-AVR system or an non-Arduino-AVR system is good for you.
**No, the bootloader does *not* enable the microcontroller to "understand" the high-level language.**
The standard Arduino IDE uses the specific compiler for the target microcontroller to translate the C++ source code to machine language. The resulting binary commonly runs on this target microcontroller only.
The bootloader just implements the protocol. In general, it is completely unaware of the meaning of the transferred data.
Microcontrollers in general use different processors with possibly different machine languages, contain different kinds of memory of different sizes, include different sets of different peripherals. But you know this for sure. You need to write and compile your source code for the specific part you're targeting.
**Yes, you can use ATmega328P for a consumer product, as Michel already said.**
You need to take the common measures that you take with *any* part of your product, though. | You cannot just load a sketch into any microcontroller, because every microcontroller has different memory layout, peripherals, ways of uploading, FLASH size etc.
You can use the atMega (or any microcontroller) for production purposes though. Of course each MCU type has operation conditions (like min/max temperature), so in e.g. automotive or military environments not all MCUs are allowed to be used, but for consumer electronics, afaik all MCUs can be used (meaning they will pass by themselves the needed certifications, which may not be true for components added and the circuit/enclosure resulting out of it). |
63,442 | As a pianist who have only experienced classical music yet, I recently got my hands on [The jazz theory book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1883217040), because I am curious about this kind of music that is totally new to me.
The theory is focused on chords progressions and the scales that complements them, which led me to wonder a few things :
* Why choose to describe music with chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be played in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.).
I understand that different chords convey differents feelings or emotions, and can be descriptive of the particular progression of a piece but there is so much more to it !
* How exactly do jazz pianists use chords progressions when playing a lead sheet ?
I would be surprised to ear that they just play chords with the left hand while playing the melody in the right hand, as indicated in the sheet music.
Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play all the (important ?) stuff that is missing on the sheet ? | 2017/11/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/63442",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/45304/"
] | >
> Why choose to describe music whith chord progressions ?
>
>
>
Keep in mind that a lot of Jazz is based on the premise of putting your own spin on existing songs (standards). The melody and chord progression is typically the only part that stays the same between those interpretations. And even those vary.
So lead sheets convey only the parts you need to know—the kernel of the tune. Sometimes that *does* include more than just chords and melody like an intro or bass ostinato that is an important part of the tune. The rest is open to interpretation.
>
> Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why
> improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
>
>
>
It works the other way around.
>
> In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play
>
>
>
Yes, mostly. The way you *comp* a piece may not be true improv each time. *Maybe* you know generally what voicings you might play because you've played the tune before. But the rhythm is much more up in the air especially given that you should be interacting with the rest of the band and playing off of their rhythms.
But it doesn't *have to be* that way when you're starting out. Feel free to write out exact arrangements if that helps you. | " Why choose to describe music whith chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be play in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.). "
And that, in a nutshell, is what jazz is about. Finding the million different things that can be played over a certain chord sequence. 'Jazz' can also include sticking to the composed melody and re-harmonising. Or in going off at tangents only vaguely suggested by the original song. But mostly it's based on the chord sequence. Great jazz musicians invent alternative melodies. Lesser ones just run up and down 'the scale of the chords'. |
63,442 | As a pianist who have only experienced classical music yet, I recently got my hands on [The jazz theory book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1883217040), because I am curious about this kind of music that is totally new to me.
The theory is focused on chords progressions and the scales that complements them, which led me to wonder a few things :
* Why choose to describe music with chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be played in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.).
I understand that different chords convey differents feelings or emotions, and can be descriptive of the particular progression of a piece but there is so much more to it !
* How exactly do jazz pianists use chords progressions when playing a lead sheet ?
I would be surprised to ear that they just play chords with the left hand while playing the melody in the right hand, as indicated in the sheet music.
Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play all the (important ?) stuff that is missing on the sheet ? | 2017/11/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/63442",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/45304/"
] | As you've suggested, there's a lot of improvisation in jazz. Almost everything is open to interpretation by the musicians--including melodies, rhythms, feels, and specific voicings for each chord. For most genres of jazz, the chords are usually the *most* fixed/immutable component of a song. (That said, chords are not completely unchanging. Chord substitutions and [playing outside](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Outside_(jazz)) both introduce on-the-fly changes to the chord progression.)
In addition, there is a rich tradition in jazz of learning by listening to famous recordings. This old tradition extends far into modern-day jazz. As a simple example, imagine you're on a jazz gig with some musicians you've never played with before. The saxophonist calls the tune Autumn Leaves. One of the first things you would ask before the group starts playing is, "Do you want to play the Miles intro?" Everyone would know this intro because it's such an iconic version of the tune.
Turning our attention back to lead sheets: you're on a gig and there are ~300 or more songs you might be asked to play. Only some of these songs have famous intros, feels, rhythms, etc. that you're expected to know from famous jazz recordings. From a publisher's perspective, it wouldn't make a lot of sense to write out all of those introductions along with the chord changes. What if a song has two *different* famous interpretations? What if, over time, musicians change which interpretation they favor? There is likely just too much subjectivity in picking and choosing particular arrangements to include in a book with lead sheets/chord changes. And doing so would abandon the original song's core, which the sheet music is supposed to represent.
In many cases, pianists use lead sheets to jog their memory. They know the songs well and know how the recordings sound, and can use that as a guide. But they haven't memorized every single chord and thus use the lead sheet as a memory aid when they forget a chord or two. In other cases, a band might start playing a tune that the pianist has never heard of. The lead sheet provides the essential bones/structure from which the pianist can then improvise his/her part to match the dynamic of the group he/she is playing with.
So a jazz pianist likely isn't improvising *everything* when he/she looks at a leadsheet. Certain things are remembered from recordings, while other things are created spontaneously. This isn't as intimidating a feat as it sounds--one achieves this on-the-spot improvisation by drawing *very heavily* on the practice one has done. Taking rhythm as an example: one must improvise rhythms to use when playing chords behind the melody. But many of the candidate rhythms comes from a relatively small handful of rhythmic figures that sound good (e.g., dotted quarter followed by an eighth note). So practicing these known rhythmic figures makes the left hand automatic when supporting the right hand and its melody. | " Why choose to describe music whith chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be play in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.). "
And that, in a nutshell, is what jazz is about. Finding the million different things that can be played over a certain chord sequence. 'Jazz' can also include sticking to the composed melody and re-harmonising. Or in going off at tangents only vaguely suggested by the original song. But mostly it's based on the chord sequence. Great jazz musicians invent alternative melodies. Lesser ones just run up and down 'the scale of the chords'. |
63,442 | As a pianist who have only experienced classical music yet, I recently got my hands on [The jazz theory book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1883217040), because I am curious about this kind of music that is totally new to me.
The theory is focused on chords progressions and the scales that complements them, which led me to wonder a few things :
* Why choose to describe music with chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be played in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.).
I understand that different chords convey differents feelings or emotions, and can be descriptive of the particular progression of a piece but there is so much more to it !
* How exactly do jazz pianists use chords progressions when playing a lead sheet ?
I would be surprised to ear that they just play chords with the left hand while playing the melody in the right hand, as indicated in the sheet music.
Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play all the (important ?) stuff that is missing on the sheet ? | 2017/11/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/63442",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/45304/"
] | >
> Is the lack of information given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
>
>
>
On the contrary, there is *plenty* of information present on the lead sheet, and the chord[progression]s tell the soloists what scales are most appropriate **when** they improvise. As you might expect, the 1, 3, 5 and 7 (chord tones) are the most attractive tones in a melody. | " Why choose to describe music whith chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be play in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.). "
And that, in a nutshell, is what jazz is about. Finding the million different things that can be played over a certain chord sequence. 'Jazz' can also include sticking to the composed melody and re-harmonising. Or in going off at tangents only vaguely suggested by the original song. But mostly it's based on the chord sequence. Great jazz musicians invent alternative melodies. Lesser ones just run up and down 'the scale of the chords'. |
63,442 | As a pianist who have only experienced classical music yet, I recently got my hands on [The jazz theory book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1883217040), because I am curious about this kind of music that is totally new to me.
The theory is focused on chords progressions and the scales that complements them, which led me to wonder a few things :
* Why choose to describe music with chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be played in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.).
I understand that different chords convey differents feelings or emotions, and can be descriptive of the particular progression of a piece but there is so much more to it !
* How exactly do jazz pianists use chords progressions when playing a lead sheet ?
I would be surprised to ear that they just play chords with the left hand while playing the melody in the right hand, as indicated in the sheet music.
Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play all the (important ?) stuff that is missing on the sheet ? | 2017/11/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/63442",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/45304/"
] | As you've suggested, there's a lot of improvisation in jazz. Almost everything is open to interpretation by the musicians--including melodies, rhythms, feels, and specific voicings for each chord. For most genres of jazz, the chords are usually the *most* fixed/immutable component of a song. (That said, chords are not completely unchanging. Chord substitutions and [playing outside](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Outside_(jazz)) both introduce on-the-fly changes to the chord progression.)
In addition, there is a rich tradition in jazz of learning by listening to famous recordings. This old tradition extends far into modern-day jazz. As a simple example, imagine you're on a jazz gig with some musicians you've never played with before. The saxophonist calls the tune Autumn Leaves. One of the first things you would ask before the group starts playing is, "Do you want to play the Miles intro?" Everyone would know this intro because it's such an iconic version of the tune.
Turning our attention back to lead sheets: you're on a gig and there are ~300 or more songs you might be asked to play. Only some of these songs have famous intros, feels, rhythms, etc. that you're expected to know from famous jazz recordings. From a publisher's perspective, it wouldn't make a lot of sense to write out all of those introductions along with the chord changes. What if a song has two *different* famous interpretations? What if, over time, musicians change which interpretation they favor? There is likely just too much subjectivity in picking and choosing particular arrangements to include in a book with lead sheets/chord changes. And doing so would abandon the original song's core, which the sheet music is supposed to represent.
In many cases, pianists use lead sheets to jog their memory. They know the songs well and know how the recordings sound, and can use that as a guide. But they haven't memorized every single chord and thus use the lead sheet as a memory aid when they forget a chord or two. In other cases, a band might start playing a tune that the pianist has never heard of. The lead sheet provides the essential bones/structure from which the pianist can then improvise his/her part to match the dynamic of the group he/she is playing with.
So a jazz pianist likely isn't improvising *everything* when he/she looks at a leadsheet. Certain things are remembered from recordings, while other things are created spontaneously. This isn't as intimidating a feat as it sounds--one achieves this on-the-spot improvisation by drawing *very heavily* on the practice one has done. Taking rhythm as an example: one must improvise rhythms to use when playing chords behind the melody. But many of the candidate rhythms comes from a relatively small handful of rhythmic figures that sound good (e.g., dotted quarter followed by an eighth note). So practicing these known rhythmic figures makes the left hand automatic when supporting the right hand and its melody. | >
> Why choose to describe music whith chord progressions ?
>
>
>
Keep in mind that a lot of Jazz is based on the premise of putting your own spin on existing songs (standards). The melody and chord progression is typically the only part that stays the same between those interpretations. And even those vary.
So lead sheets convey only the parts you need to know—the kernel of the tune. Sometimes that *does* include more than just chords and melody like an intro or bass ostinato that is an important part of the tune. The rest is open to interpretation.
>
> Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why
> improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
>
>
>
It works the other way around.
>
> In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play
>
>
>
Yes, mostly. The way you *comp* a piece may not be true improv each time. *Maybe* you know generally what voicings you might play because you've played the tune before. But the rhythm is much more up in the air especially given that you should be interacting with the rest of the band and playing off of their rhythms.
But it doesn't *have to be* that way when you're starting out. Feel free to write out exact arrangements if that helps you. |
63,442 | As a pianist who have only experienced classical music yet, I recently got my hands on [The jazz theory book](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1883217040), because I am curious about this kind of music that is totally new to me.
The theory is focused on chords progressions and the scales that complements them, which led me to wonder a few things :
* Why choose to describe music with chord progressions ?
I mean, it doesn't carry that much informations. The chords themselves can be played in a million possible ways (with inversions, arpeggios, rythm, voicing, dynamics, etc.).
I understand that different chords convey differents feelings or emotions, and can be descriptive of the particular progression of a piece but there is so much more to it !
* How exactly do jazz pianists use chords progressions when playing a lead sheet ?
I would be surprised to ear that they just play chords with the left hand while playing the melody in the right hand, as indicated in the sheet music.
Is the lack of informations given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
In other words, do jazz pianists have to improvise over every bar of their lead sheets, by deciding on the fly of the way they are going to play all the (important ?) stuff that is missing on the sheet ? | 2017/11/05 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/63442",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/45304/"
] | As you've suggested, there's a lot of improvisation in jazz. Almost everything is open to interpretation by the musicians--including melodies, rhythms, feels, and specific voicings for each chord. For most genres of jazz, the chords are usually the *most* fixed/immutable component of a song. (That said, chords are not completely unchanging. Chord substitutions and [playing outside](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Outside_(jazz)) both introduce on-the-fly changes to the chord progression.)
In addition, there is a rich tradition in jazz of learning by listening to famous recordings. This old tradition extends far into modern-day jazz. As a simple example, imagine you're on a jazz gig with some musicians you've never played with before. The saxophonist calls the tune Autumn Leaves. One of the first things you would ask before the group starts playing is, "Do you want to play the Miles intro?" Everyone would know this intro because it's such an iconic version of the tune.
Turning our attention back to lead sheets: you're on a gig and there are ~300 or more songs you might be asked to play. Only some of these songs have famous intros, feels, rhythms, etc. that you're expected to know from famous jazz recordings. From a publisher's perspective, it wouldn't make a lot of sense to write out all of those introductions along with the chord changes. What if a song has two *different* famous interpretations? What if, over time, musicians change which interpretation they favor? There is likely just too much subjectivity in picking and choosing particular arrangements to include in a book with lead sheets/chord changes. And doing so would abandon the original song's core, which the sheet music is supposed to represent.
In many cases, pianists use lead sheets to jog their memory. They know the songs well and know how the recordings sound, and can use that as a guide. But they haven't memorized every single chord and thus use the lead sheet as a memory aid when they forget a chord or two. In other cases, a band might start playing a tune that the pianist has never heard of. The lead sheet provides the essential bones/structure from which the pianist can then improvise his/her part to match the dynamic of the group he/she is playing with.
So a jazz pianist likely isn't improvising *everything* when he/she looks at a leadsheet. Certain things are remembered from recordings, while other things are created spontaneously. This isn't as intimidating a feat as it sounds--one achieves this on-the-spot improvisation by drawing *very heavily* on the practice one has done. Taking rhythm as an example: one must improvise rhythms to use when playing chords behind the melody. But many of the candidate rhythms comes from a relatively small handful of rhythmic figures that sound good (e.g., dotted quarter followed by an eighth note). So practicing these known rhythmic figures makes the left hand automatic when supporting the right hand and its melody. | >
> Is the lack of information given in a lead sheet the reason why improvisation is such a big part of playing jazz ?
>
>
>
On the contrary, there is *plenty* of information present on the lead sheet, and the chord[progression]s tell the soloists what scales are most appropriate **when** they improvise. As you might expect, the 1, 3, 5 and 7 (chord tones) are the most attractive tones in a melody. |
10,416,835 | I have a simple Windows Service project. I have followed instructions located at <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/zt39148a.aspx> including adding custom actions.
When run my build in Release mode for the setup project. I run the .msi onto the server I would like for the service to run on. When I open the Services Manager, the service appears. I can even manually start the service and it runs exactly as I need it to.
However, I would like for this service to run every 5 minutes, so I set up a task in Task Scheduler and point the .exe of my windows service to the task. However, when the task scheduler runs my windows service, I get the following error:
**Service cannot be started. The service process could not connect to the service controller**
I've done a lot of research on this but haven't come up with anything. Does anyone have any ideas on what might be causing this? | 2012/05/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10416835",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/159272/"
] | OK, that won't work. You can't run your service's exe directly like that from the Task Scheduler. You should [use the "Net start" command](http://www.coretechnologies.com/WindowsServices/FAQ.html#StartStopFromCommandLine) to start the service.
Be sure to check the "Run with highest privileges box" in your scheduled task to avoid UAC if you are on Windows Vista or later. | My answer didn't format properly in the comments so I wanted to let everyone know in the event that they came across this. Basically, I just created a .bat file and then within that .bat file, I put the following two lines:
NET START MyServiceName
NET STOP MyServiceName
The NET STOP command is synchronous and will wait for the service to complete before it stops the service.
Thanks for the help! |
102,593 | I'm playing Minecraft on the Xbox, and the only way to identify current position is by looking at the map.
The X and Z co-ordinates are what they are, as you only take up one block in those dimensions. However, I'm unsure how to interpret the Y co-ordinate. Is it at my head or my feet?
I found [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/72441/using-the-map-item-on-minecraft-xbox-360), which answers a lot about Xbox maps, but not the Y in relation to my character.
This matters for the purpose of finding proper depth for optimal ore-hunting, plus it would be nice to know. | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/102593",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/30989/"
] | The easiest trick to solo Hyperius is to use the Evil Masher Glitch/Exploit. It hasn't been patched yet, but it's been around a long time. Basically, the Evil Masher is an assault rifle with sub-par stats, a reward from Marcus's mission (Kai).
When reloading however, there is a chance to "power up" the weapon. Taken from the BL Wikia:
>
> There are at least six possible outcomes to Evil Smasher reloading:
>
>
> * Power up level 1, indicated by the power-up sound and explosion. Slight increase in power and reduced recoil for bullets in the next
> clip. No change in clip size.
> * Power up level 2, indicated by a louder power-up sound cue, and explosion larger than that of level 1. All round improved weapon stats
> compared with level 1. In particular next clip increases in size to
> about 30.
> * Power up level 3, louder cues than level 2, high stats than level 2, in particular clip size increases to about 50.
> * Power up level 4, the previous trend continues. All round improvement to level 3, in particular clip size increases to about 70.
> * Power up level 5, similar as before but bigger and better. In particular clip size increases to about 90.
> * Nothing. No sound or explosion. Weapon returns to base stats for the next clip.
>
>
>
As for the glitch:
>
> As soon as the power-up sound and visual cue occur on Evil Smasher,
> and if player swap Evil Smasher right away, the power-up effects of
> Evil Smasher will now apply to the newly swapped weapon, and stacks on
> top of the weapon's other properties. ALL weapons in active slots now
> inherit ALL of Evil Smasher's special property of powering up (i.e.
> chance to power-up after reload, with same explosion and power-up
> sound).
>
>
> Take this example. Say when reloading Evil Smasher, the cues indicate
> the next clip with be at the highest power-up level. If the player
> switches immediately to, say, Infinity, before Evil Smasher finishes
> reloading, Infinity now has increased clip size, improved damage, fire
> rate and recoil reduction proportional to Evil Smasher highest
> power-up level. Even though the normal Infinity property of having
> clip size of 1 is "overwritten" by Evil Smasher power-up, Infinity's
> other original properties (never using ammo and bullet spread looks
> like infinity symbol) remain.
>
>
> When combined with the Infinity repeater pistol in the stated manner
> and The Bee, and due to the dramatical increase to fire rate, the
> player can kill any of the Invincible foes in a matter of seconds
> (usually less than five seconds, even on True Vault Hunter Mode). For
> example, Voracidous the Invincible can be killed before Chief Ngwatu
> spawns, and Hyperius the Invincible even before his loader minions
> have time to make it invulnerable. This exploit has, as such, game
> breaking effects. Also, when using this glitch with Voracidous, he
> will instantly respawn after going outside of the fightning area,
> without the need to pay Eridium again or rezone.
>
>
> This power-up effect applies to all weapons in active slots until the
> current game session ends, or switching back to Evil Smasher. It does
> not go away even after respawn, fast travel or entering inventory
> menu. In multiplayer session, the clip count may reset to base stat
> after fast travel, still all Evil Smasher properties remain.
>
>
> This glitch is most noticeable for weapons with low clip count, such
> as Rocket Launcher and Sniper Rifle. Rocket Launcher under this glitch
> can easily have clip size above 27, more than the maximum a normal
> backpack can hold
>
>
> | I personally when fighting him alone went for his robots first and then targeted him he has a shield that makes it so I think you have to do it that way. I used corrosive rocket launchers and a turtle shield and managed to kill him by myself |
15,187 | I'd like to take an existing application (written in OCaml) and create an Emacs "interface" for it (like, for example, the Emacs GDB mode). I would prefer to do this without writing a ton of Lisp code. In MVC terms, I'd like for the View to be Emacs, but for the Model and Controller to remain (primarily) OCaml.
Does anybody know of a way to write Emacs extensions in a language other than Lisp? This could either take the form of bindings to the Emacs extension API in some other language (e.g., making OCaml a first-class Emacs extension language) or an Emacs interaction mode where, for example, the extension has a pipe into which it can write Emacs Lisp expressions and read out result values. | 2008/08/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15187",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1412/"
] | <http://www.emacswiki.org/cgi-bin/emacs-en?CategoryExtensionLanguage> is a list of all non-Elisp extension languages you can use.
It does appear to be dynamic language centric.
<http://common-lisp.net/project/slime/> is missing from that list, as it is not quite an extension language, but an Elisp-Common Lisp bridge. Its source code would show how to communicate back and forth over sockets.
A similar IDE for Erlang is Distel, at <http://fresh.homeunix.net/~luke/distel/> (currently down) and <https://github.com/massemanet/distel>.
Good luck! | There is no "Extension API". Emacs Lisp is way in there, and it ain't moving.
You can run Emacs commands from your other process. Have a look at Gnuserv.
There are plenty of applications where Emacs is the View for a Model/Controller in a separate process. The Emacs GDB interface is a good example. I'm not sure of a simpler example, maybe sql-postgresql? |
15,187 | I'd like to take an existing application (written in OCaml) and create an Emacs "interface" for it (like, for example, the Emacs GDB mode). I would prefer to do this without writing a ton of Lisp code. In MVC terms, I'd like for the View to be Emacs, but for the Model and Controller to remain (primarily) OCaml.
Does anybody know of a way to write Emacs extensions in a language other than Lisp? This could either take the form of bindings to the Emacs extension API in some other language (e.g., making OCaml a first-class Emacs extension language) or an Emacs interaction mode where, for example, the extension has a pipe into which it can write Emacs Lisp expressions and read out result values. | 2008/08/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15187",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1412/"
] | <http://www.emacswiki.org/cgi-bin/emacs-en?CategoryExtensionLanguage> is a list of all non-Elisp extension languages you can use.
It does appear to be dynamic language centric.
<http://common-lisp.net/project/slime/> is missing from that list, as it is not quite an extension language, but an Elisp-Common Lisp bridge. Its source code would show how to communicate back and forth over sockets.
A similar IDE for Erlang is Distel, at <http://fresh.homeunix.net/~luke/distel/> (currently down) and <https://github.com/massemanet/distel>.
Good luck! | Try [PyMacs](https://github.com/pinard/Pymacs), which allows extending Emacs in Python.
*edit*: updated link. |
15,187 | I'd like to take an existing application (written in OCaml) and create an Emacs "interface" for it (like, for example, the Emacs GDB mode). I would prefer to do this without writing a ton of Lisp code. In MVC terms, I'd like for the View to be Emacs, but for the Model and Controller to remain (primarily) OCaml.
Does anybody know of a way to write Emacs extensions in a language other than Lisp? This could either take the form of bindings to the Emacs extension API in some other language (e.g., making OCaml a first-class Emacs extension language) or an Emacs interaction mode where, for example, the extension has a pipe into which it can write Emacs Lisp expressions and read out result values. | 2008/08/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15187",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1412/"
] | <http://www.emacswiki.org/cgi-bin/emacs-en?CategoryExtensionLanguage> is a list of all non-Elisp extension languages you can use.
It does appear to be dynamic language centric.
<http://common-lisp.net/project/slime/> is missing from that list, as it is not quite an extension language, but an Elisp-Common Lisp bridge. Its source code would show how to communicate back and forth over sockets.
A similar IDE for Erlang is Distel, at <http://fresh.homeunix.net/~luke/distel/> (currently down) and <https://github.com/massemanet/distel>.
Good luck! | From the statically typed languages side, there is something that looks quite performant and well featured for Haskell:
<https://github.com/knupfer/haskell-emacs>
there is also probably something useful for Scala to be reused from the Ensime project (has a bridge for both Emacs and Vim):
<https://github.com/ensime/ensime-server>
Furthermore, a quick google search revealed another potential candidate for extending Emacs with a classic FP language, OCaml; the project has a lot of `.ml` source files so there's got to be an Emacs-OCaml bridge somewhere:
<https://github.com/the-lambda-church/merlin> |
15,187 | I'd like to take an existing application (written in OCaml) and create an Emacs "interface" for it (like, for example, the Emacs GDB mode). I would prefer to do this without writing a ton of Lisp code. In MVC terms, I'd like for the View to be Emacs, but for the Model and Controller to remain (primarily) OCaml.
Does anybody know of a way to write Emacs extensions in a language other than Lisp? This could either take the form of bindings to the Emacs extension API in some other language (e.g., making OCaml a first-class Emacs extension language) or an Emacs interaction mode where, for example, the extension has a pipe into which it can write Emacs Lisp expressions and read out result values. | 2008/08/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15187",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1412/"
] | Try [PyMacs](https://github.com/pinard/Pymacs), which allows extending Emacs in Python.
*edit*: updated link. | There is no "Extension API". Emacs Lisp is way in there, and it ain't moving.
You can run Emacs commands from your other process. Have a look at Gnuserv.
There are plenty of applications where Emacs is the View for a Model/Controller in a separate process. The Emacs GDB interface is a good example. I'm not sure of a simpler example, maybe sql-postgresql? |
15,187 | I'd like to take an existing application (written in OCaml) and create an Emacs "interface" for it (like, for example, the Emacs GDB mode). I would prefer to do this without writing a ton of Lisp code. In MVC terms, I'd like for the View to be Emacs, but for the Model and Controller to remain (primarily) OCaml.
Does anybody know of a way to write Emacs extensions in a language other than Lisp? This could either take the form of bindings to the Emacs extension API in some other language (e.g., making OCaml a first-class Emacs extension language) or an Emacs interaction mode where, for example, the extension has a pipe into which it can write Emacs Lisp expressions and read out result values. | 2008/08/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15187",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1412/"
] | From the statically typed languages side, there is something that looks quite performant and well featured for Haskell:
<https://github.com/knupfer/haskell-emacs>
there is also probably something useful for Scala to be reused from the Ensime project (has a bridge for both Emacs and Vim):
<https://github.com/ensime/ensime-server>
Furthermore, a quick google search revealed another potential candidate for extending Emacs with a classic FP language, OCaml; the project has a lot of `.ml` source files so there's got to be an Emacs-OCaml bridge somewhere:
<https://github.com/the-lambda-church/merlin> | There is no "Extension API". Emacs Lisp is way in there, and it ain't moving.
You can run Emacs commands from your other process. Have a look at Gnuserv.
There are plenty of applications where Emacs is the View for a Model/Controller in a separate process. The Emacs GDB interface is a good example. I'm not sure of a simpler example, maybe sql-postgresql? |
39,142 | While we do some server maintenance, how might be prohibit our users from editing or adding content but not put the site in offline mode. That is, we'd like to have content browseable but temporarily prohibit content from changing. | 2012/08/06 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/39142",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/5966/"
] | I have never used this module, but seems to do what you want: [Read only mode](http://drupal.org/project/readonlymode/). | I haven't done this (seems to be the common thread here!) but [Boost](https://drupal.org/project/boost) has a feature for running entirely without the database. It also has a crawler to ensure pages are cached. Note the warning!  |
286,018 | There was [this question on Aviation.SE](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/32506/15982) which I though was unclear about what they were asking (initial revision).
I went to flag to close but accidentally clicked the wrong reason.
After reading the Meta.SE post on [Cancel misclicked flags](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/281010/335608) I saw I could retract my flag, which I did.
When I went to re-flag with the intended reason, I wasn't allowed to flag the question as I'd retracted the flag.
The post has now been closed as off topic.
Was I right to retract my flag or would it be helpful to have the flag even with the wrong reason? | 2016/10/19 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/286018",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/335608/"
] | In some cases you do want to retract your flag when you have second thoughts. If you accidentally flagged something as spam, you should retract the flag.
If you flagged as unclear when it is actually too broad, I would leave it as is. If a question warrants closure, generally the close reason picked isn't the most important thing. Your flag does set things in motion, so it is better to leave the flag if you believe something has to be done with a post. | Adding to @PatrickHofman's great answer, you need to note that even if you raised the flag with the right reason, it could be declined by a moderator if (s)he (personally) doesn't agree with your reason as evidenced in this Meta question on Japanese SE, [Can I ask why my flag was declined?](https://japanese.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1612/can-i-ask-why-my-flag-was-declined).
Until I asked that question, I didn't know how flagging works exactly. Now, I know and my advice to you is you don't have to worry about flagging for whatever reason unless you raise the wrong flag as your hobby because
1. Even if it is rare, your right flag could be declined by a moderator.
2. Even if one or two of your flags are declined, no big deal. You will see the warning when you try to raise another flag and all you have to do is paying a little extra attention next time.
3. Flagging doesn't affect your reputation points. The worst case scenario is you are blocked from flagging for a very short period of time. You will learn as time goes by and it won't happen again unless you repeat the same mistake.
Yes, you did the right thing. Even if you hadn't retracted the flag, other users would have taken care of the question. |
8,432 | In English, most loanwords from Japanese are pronounced similarly to the Japanese word. It isn't an exact match, for example with "karaoke" the pronunciation of the second "a" differs between English and Japanese, but it's fairly similar.
Likewise, many languages that are unrelated to English, but are not from East Asia, have a similar pronunciation as the Japanese word. For example, according to Wiktionary, the Hebrew word for origami is אוֹרִיגָמִי (origami). (I don't know whether Hebrew got the word from English, or directly from Japanese)
It seems that the pronunciation of the Chinese translation of words that, in English, are loanwords from Japanese, is radically different from the pronunciation of the word in Japanese.
I don't speak Chinese, but it meant that when I was speaking in English with Taiwanese people who were native speakers of Chinese but reasonably fluent in English, they didn't understand some Japanese loanwords I used.
I'm finding it a little hard to find good examples, but "origami" seems to be one. None of the Chinese translations of origami seem to have a similar pronunciation to the Japanese word. (I could be mistaken though - maybe the pronunciations of the Chinese words "摺紙", "折紙", "折纸", "折紙藝術", and "折纸艺术" are the closest thing you could have to pronouncing the syllables of "origami" in the Chinese language)
Is this the case? If so, why?
Is it because Chinese speakers take the written form of the Japanese word, turn it into a written Chinese word, and then pronounce the word the way they would pronounce a native Chinese word that was written the way it was written?
Alternatively, are words that are Japanese loanwords in English derived from Japanese words that are ultimately derived from Chinese words, and it's the Japanese word that's "different" in pronunciation, not the Chinese word?
In addition, in which languages is the pronunciation of words that are loanwords in English greatly different from the pronunciation in Japanese? For example, does this happen in Korean? | 2014/06/22 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/8432",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/421/"
] | Yes as you speculate, when Chinese borrows a Japanese word, its pronunciation is often determined by the Chinese characters, no matter how it is pronounced in Japan. This results in loanwords that sound totally different, especially when they are native Japanese words, rather than Sino-Japanese words (i.e. Japanese-coined words that are made of Chinese-originated roots), as is the case in your example of *origami*. Other examples include *torikeshi* (ja) / *quxiao* (zh) (取消 'cancellation'), and *tetsuzuki* (ja) / *shouxu* (zh) (手続/手续 'procedure'). This often happens in proper names as well. For example, the auto manufacturer *Suzuki* is pronounced *Lingmu* in Chinese.
Korean also has words that are borrowed from Japanese as the form of Chinese characters. Examples include *toriatsukai* (ja) / *chwuykup* (ko) (取扱/취급 'handling'), and *hagaki* (ja) / *yepse* (ko) (葉書/엽서, 'postcard'). However, proper names in Japanese are usually borrowed phonologically in Korean. | Yes it is the case. Chinese usually read a Japanese loan word according to the pronunciation of the characters in Chinese.
>
> "they didn't understand some Japanese loanwords I used"
>
>
>
That's because English borrow a Japanese word by its pronunciation, while Chinese borrow the same Japanese word by its meaning.
The main reason is that Chinese and Japanese both use Chinese characters in their writing system. Japanese use Chinese characters to coin new words for new concepts, just like Europeans coin new words with Latin or Greek roots. Even though the pronunciation of the same Chinese character are different between Chinese and Japanese, the meaning is usually the same. Take origami(折り紙) as example, ori(折り) means folding, gami(紙) means paper. In Chinese, 折 also means folding, 紙 also means paper. After all, 拆 and 紙 in Japanese are just adopted Chinese characters, so it's not strange they share the same meaning. To a Chinese native speaker, it's the characters making up the word that make sense, rather than the Japanese pronunciation of the word.
>
> "Alternatively, are words that are Japanese loanwords in English
> derived from Japanese words that are ultimately derived from Chinese
> words, and it's the Japanese word that's "different" in pronunciation,
> not the Chinese word?"
>
>
>
The answer to this question is: It's not the Japanese word that are ultimately derived from Chinese, it's the characters or morphemes out of which the Japanese word are built that are derived from Chinese. Japanese use these Chinese derived morphemes to coin new words, which may not exist in Chinese.
Another example is proper names. As @Yoshi Asao mentioned, when Japanese proper names are translated to Chinese, the characters making up the word are usually kept intact and pronounced according to the Chinese pronunciation of the characters. Refer to the "Japanese names in Chinese" part of [Japanese name](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Japanese_name#Japanese_names_in_Chinese). Take Japanese Nobel laureate [Hideki Yukawa](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hideki_Yukawa) as an example. It's written as 湯川秀樹 in Japanese, 湯川秀樹 in tranditional Chinese, and 汤川秀树 in simplified Chinese. It's read as Yukawa Hideki in Japanese. But in Chinese, it's read as Tāng Chuān Xiù Shù, just how a Chinese speaker will read 汤川秀树 in Chinese.
Chinese characters are logograms. A logogram is a written character that represents concept rather than sound. When Chinese borrow new word from all other languages, not specific to Japanse, it prefers free translation to phonetic translation. Take telephone as an example. When the word telephone was first introduced to Chinese in 1920s, it was phonetically translated to 德律风(délǜfēng), but later 电话(literally means "eletric speech"), built out of native Chinese morphemes according the meaning of telephone, became prevalent, bacause it's more comprehensible to Chinese native speakers, and it's easy to see the logic behind the word. Interestingly, the word 电话 was first coined in Japanese and later borrowed to Chinese, but almost no Chinese native speaker will notice this fact unless someone else tell him about that explicitly. |
773,349 | I have got a Jibx bean which is used as both input and output to a webservice. The bean is very large and complex with deep parent child relationship. The webservice does not return the request object but returns a new bean with some properties populated. I would like to merge my request and the response. I tried using Dozer (it just replaces the my request object with the response i.e. the original request properties are lost! Ditto for BeanUtils.copyProperties). The object graph is too big and deep to do a isNull check on all the properties.
I have considered converting the beans into XMLs and merging them using the EL4J XML Merge
any other suggestions. | 2009/04/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/773349",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | By "too big and deep to do a isNull check" I'm assuming that you don't want to hardcode those checks. Nor should you.
However, the beautiful thing about beans is that they can be inspected, and you can write an automated check to work your way through the object graph, check for null, and update if not.
Yes, that's CPU intensive. But certainly no more CPU intensive than generating XML and attempting to merge it. | As the object is a bean, why not associate the bean with the request and when replying use the request bean? I'm not advocating pushing objects that might just be interface objects deep into your system, but keeping hold of the request bean and making it the response bean too.
I'm not sure what I understand the deepness argument either, but if the input layout means that the logic to populate the response is complex you might want to build up the response population code before the properties are calculated: as the system is determining which properties to calculate it can also build up a strategy for placing those properties back into a response bean. This might be as simple as a strategy pattern, in more complex situations you might consider a bytecode modification library.
Another approach would be to simplify your interface so the properties in the XML are similar and the "deepness" is removed: making all properties similar would then allow property checking and population to be managed with a simple loop.
Converting to XML defeats the object somewhat of using the framework in the first place. Perhaps, if XML is easier Jibx is not the easiest solution for the problem. What are you able to change in your specification? |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | AFAIK C++ Boost libraries - <http://boost.org/> - have broadly covered code base, and a policy that every new piece of code must have unit tests with it. Might be worth checking. | I wouldn't call it extensively, but [wxWidgets](http://www.wxwidgets.org/) does some UnitTest with [CppUnit](http://cppunit.sourceforge.net). |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | AFAIK C++ Boost libraries - <http://boost.org/> - have broadly covered code base, and a policy that every new piece of code must have unit tests with it. Might be worth checking. | The [Bazaar](http://bazaar-vcs.org/) version control system is obsessive about automated testing. Unit testing, feature testing, integration testing, blackbox testing, test doubles testing, testing framework testing, parameterized test suites, platform-specific tests, etc.
This has all sorts of nice consequences for the project, but I must refrain here from undue VCS fanboying.
EDIT: oops, I did not notice you said you were interested in C++. Bazaar is a Python project. |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | AFAIK C++ Boost libraries - <http://boost.org/> - have broadly covered code base, and a policy that every new piece of code must have unit tests with it. Might be worth checking. | The [Chromium](http://code.google.com/chromium/) project. |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | AFAIK C++ Boost libraries - <http://boost.org/> - have broadly covered code base, and a policy that every new piece of code must have unit tests with it. Might be worth checking. | The [trucov](http://code.google.com/p/trucov/) project is an open source tool used to verify unit test coverage. The tool itself is [extensively](http://code.google.com/p/trucov/wiki/Final_Package_Report) unit tested using [google's test framework](http://code.google.com/p/googletest/).
*Disclaimer*: though I did not write the project myself I did mentor the students who did. |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | The [Chromium](http://code.google.com/chromium/) project. | I wouldn't call it extensively, but [wxWidgets](http://www.wxwidgets.org/) does some UnitTest with [CppUnit](http://cppunit.sourceforge.net). |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | The [Chromium](http://code.google.com/chromium/) project. | The [Bazaar](http://bazaar-vcs.org/) version control system is obsessive about automated testing. Unit testing, feature testing, integration testing, blackbox testing, test doubles testing, testing framework testing, parameterized test suites, platform-specific tests, etc.
This has all sorts of nice consequences for the project, but I must refrain here from undue VCS fanboying.
EDIT: oops, I did not notice you said you were interested in C++. Bazaar is a Python project. |
236,156 | Programming is learned by writing programs. But code reading is said to be another good way of learning. I would like to improve my unit-testing skills by reading, examining real-world code. Could you recommend any open source projects where the source is extensively tested with unit tests?
I'm interested in code written in C++. | 2008/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/236156",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26449/"
] | The [Chromium](http://code.google.com/chromium/) project. | The [trucov](http://code.google.com/p/trucov/) project is an open source tool used to verify unit test coverage. The tool itself is [extensively](http://code.google.com/p/trucov/wiki/Final_Package_Report) unit tested using [google's test framework](http://code.google.com/p/googletest/).
*Disclaimer*: though I did not write the project myself I did mentor the students who did. |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | If there is a way to run the experiment setup at a lower current temporarily, one could pick any two exposed spots on any conductor in the setup, attach a voltmeter, calibrate with a known current, and use that length of conductor as an intrinsic shunt. | Most other answers have assumed you want to measure 10KA **continuously**. However, your referenced use shows that it is only for a **pulse** of around 5 milliseconds. Because of this short time, the only way you can get a measurement is by using a storage scope to capture the waveform.
You also need a sensor connected to the 'scope. Whether it is a shunt or a clamp, is not very important, as long as it "matches" the 'scope being used.
Proper safety measures should be implemented and followed (as in the referenced experiment). |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | My company has provided current meters up to 15kA for plating baths. They just used [shunts](http://www.lumel.com.pl/en/our_offer/measuring_instruments/boczniki_pomiarowe/art34,b4-shunts-1a-15ka-nominal-current-50mv-voltage-drops.html) (50mV or 60mV = 15kA IIRC).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RYQgb.jpg)
If your current has much high frequency component you may need to take special precautions- it doesn't take much inductance to cause problems.
Also note that 10kA \* 50mV drop is 500W so they will dissipate a fair bit of power at full current.
Both the above problems can be reduced or avoided by using the LEM sensors suggested by JohnD (+1), however the cost may be higher in cases where a relatively steady DC current is to be measured. | >
> What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
>
>
>
your discharge current probably wouldn't get anywhere near that kind of current.
with that said, a current transformer would be my way of going it: simple, effective, and cheap: just need a piece of wire looping around the conductor.
having it calibrated however can be tricky.
short of that, try some hall effect sensors -> keeping it away from the conductor. i'm not sure about their dynamic characteristics - something likely important here.
another idea: assuming that you aren't going to sustain 10,000amp, you are likely to use skinny wires here. with that, you can just pick up two points and measure the voltage drop over the two points. self-heating wouldn't be a problem unless the current is sustained over a period of time.
basically the conductor itself is a sampling resistor.
it wouldn't work if you are using beefy copper bars as the conduit. |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | Most other answers have assumed you want to measure 10KA **continuously**. However, your referenced use shows that it is only for a **pulse** of around 5 milliseconds. Because of this short time, the only way you can get a measurement is by using a storage scope to capture the waveform.
You also need a sensor connected to the 'scope. Whether it is a shunt or a clamp, is not very important, as long as it "matches" the 'scope being used.
Proper safety measures should be implemented and followed (as in the referenced experiment). | My suggestion would be to either measure the displacement of the ring/the force, and work back to the current.
Or you could just build one beauty of an electromagnet...and measure it's field from the other side of your classroom... |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | I worked on an electric locomotive starter years ago, running the companion alternator in reverse to start the engine with a 3 phase IGBT inverter that we developed. We easily got 10kA per phase of current to break the stiction of the locomotive diesel engine. We measured phase current (for vector control purposes) with closed loop hall current sensors from LEM corporation.
You can find current sensors up to 20kA on their website, they can do custom sensors too if you want to buy a lot of them:
[LEM current sensors](http://www.lem.com/hq/en/content/view/13/86/) | Most other answers have assumed you want to measure 10KA **continuously**. However, your referenced use shows that it is only for a **pulse** of around 5 milliseconds. Because of this short time, the only way you can get a measurement is by using a storage scope to capture the waveform.
You also need a sensor connected to the 'scope. Whether it is a shunt or a clamp, is not very important, as long as it "matches" the 'scope being used.
Proper safety measures should be implemented and followed (as in the referenced experiment). |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | My company has provided current meters up to 15kA for plating baths. They just used [shunts](http://www.lumel.com.pl/en/our_offer/measuring_instruments/boczniki_pomiarowe/art34,b4-shunts-1a-15ka-nominal-current-50mv-voltage-drops.html) (50mV or 60mV = 15kA IIRC).
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RYQgb.jpg)
If your current has much high frequency component you may need to take special precautions- it doesn't take much inductance to cause problems.
Also note that 10kA \* 50mV drop is 500W so they will dissipate a fair bit of power at full current.
Both the above problems can be reduced or avoided by using the LEM sensors suggested by JohnD (+1), however the cost may be higher in cases where a relatively steady DC current is to be measured. | Most other answers have assumed you want to measure 10KA **continuously**. However, your referenced use shows that it is only for a **pulse** of around 5 milliseconds. Because of this short time, the only way you can get a measurement is by using a storage scope to capture the waveform.
You also need a sensor connected to the 'scope. Whether it is a shunt or a clamp, is not very important, as long as it "matches" the 'scope being used.
Proper safety measures should be implemented and followed (as in the referenced experiment). |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | Regarding the general part of the question of how to measure extremly large currents, there are also devices called FOCS which use the faraday effect to determine the magnetic field of the wire and then calculate the current. For example [ABB](http://new.abb.com/power-electronics/focs) sells such devices for measuring up to 500 kA DC. See also: <http://www.ee.co.za/wp-content/uploads/legacy/ABB%20Innovation%20in%20high%20DC.pdf> | When I was 13 I did a similar experiment, and what I did was make a pair of manifolds of copper with copper pipes soldered between the manifolds. Effectively a shunt. Then I put a hall clamp on it and used a scope to measure the pulse, and integrated the area under the curve.
I am sure there are lots of better ways to do it, but to a 13 yo with a scope and household tools, this worked. Perhaps you could use two copper bus bar and create welding wire shunts between them.
Running to the scrap metal place and electronics junk surplus store in the city always got lots of interesting stuff, and for the most part, they just gave it to me. |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | Regarding the general part of the question of how to measure extremly large currents, there are also devices called FOCS which use the faraday effect to determine the magnetic field of the wire and then calculate the current. For example [ABB](http://new.abb.com/power-electronics/focs) sells such devices for measuring up to 500 kA DC. See also: <http://www.ee.co.za/wp-content/uploads/legacy/ABB%20Innovation%20in%20high%20DC.pdf> | My suggestion would be to either measure the displacement of the ring/the force, and work back to the current.
Or you could just build one beauty of an electromagnet...and measure it's field from the other side of your classroom... |
301,719 | What is the standard way to measure a current of about 10,000 A? DC clamp meters seem to have only scales up to 2,000 A.
**Edit**
Some background of this question:
I am a high school physics teacher and I am trying to improve some classical experiments using high currents from ultra-capacitor discharge.
In particular I am looking for a good way to measure the discharge current of a ultra capacitor for very short times like in this "jumping ring" experiment:
[A safe and effective modification of Thomson’s jumping ring experiment](http://www.rose-hulman.edu/~moloney/Ph425/0143-0807_33_6_1625JumpingRing.pdf)
The second motivation for this question was just because I just want to know it out of curiosity for my background knowledge of what is the usual way to measure such high currents today. | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/301719",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/7602/"
] | If there is a way to run the experiment setup at a lower current temporarily, one could pick any two exposed spots on any conductor in the setup, attach a voltmeter, calibrate with a known current, and use that length of conductor as an intrinsic shunt. | My suggestion would be to either measure the displacement of the ring/the force, and work back to the current.
Or you could just build one beauty of an electromagnet...and measure it's field from the other side of your classroom... |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | AFAIR, DISQLite uses the obj files of Sqlite, and compile them with Delphi and produce more features than the original one, and using the same sqlite DB format, hence you can read the DISQLite database file by it by other languages that has support for Sqlite drivers.
Also one more feature with DISQLite you don't have to distribute the Sqlite DLL.
DISQLite support database size up to 2TB, so it could handle your requires without problems.
Another options I would consider is FireBird embedded version,and if you would like to scale it more, you can change to full FireBird server without much effort.
But I think both Sqlite & DISQLite will perform better than Firebird.
I use [Audcom Sqlite components](http://www.aducom.com/cms/news.php) to access Sqlite databases, and you can compile it with Sqlite objs file so you will not have deploy sqlite dll. | I can suggest you writing your own implementation. If you don't need complex SQL queries, the simplest (and probably the fastest) implementation is file-based storage. |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | I can suggest you writing your own implementation. If you don't need complex SQL queries, the simplest (and probably the fastest) implementation is file-based storage. | DISQLLite has two versions with the free one limited to personal and non-commerical usage. So this could be one of the deciding factor as SQLite is free opensource implementation without free/paid versions.
Both of the database would be able to handle data ranging in GBs. SQLite is available in pre-compiled binary i.e. DLL which can be distributed along your application. However, with the source code available you can also compile it within your application and use it without the need for DLL.
The advantage of using the DLL module (at times) is when some of the bugs are resolved you would simply be required to replace the DLL at the client machine instead of recompiling the whole application.
I feel SQLite would be a better option for yor requirement. Speed of database is not entirely based on the type of database. Hardware like harddisk access speed, available processing power, RAM etc also play an important role in speeding up database. |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | I can suggest you writing your own implementation. If you don't need complex SQL queries, the simplest (and probably the fastest) implementation is file-based storage. | Note that the DISQLLite personal version has some limitations and I don't think that the price for the professional version (Euro 149.99 without source) is worth it when anyone can just implement a SQLite wrapper for free.
I was using DISQLite personal for a freeware product and had to implement a database change in a new version release. The personal version does not support 'ALTER' so I was faced with having to purchase the full version. So I ditched DISQLite and just went with a good SQLite wrapper. Only go for DISQLite if you're prepared to pay for the full version.
[SQLite4Delphi](http://sqlite4delphi.sourceforge.net/) might be a better option, or at least point you to a more cost-effective solution. |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | I can suggest you writing your own implementation. If you don't need complex SQL queries, the simplest (and probably the fastest) implementation is file-based storage. | Take a look at our [SynBigTable unit](http://blog.synopse.info/category/Open-Source-Projects/Synopse-BigTable). It's will be [much faster than SQLite](http://synopse.info/forum/viewtopic.php?pid=1011#p1011), and seems to fit exactly your purpose.
And if you need a native SQLite implementation, take a look at our [SQLite3 framework](http://blog.synopse.info/category/Open-Source-Projects/SQLite3-Framework): it's free and OpenSource, without any external dll. And has some more features than the closed DiSQLite (like Delphi native classes for implementing SQL functions or Virtual tables).
For the performance POV, the bottleneck won't be the wrapper you're using, but the disk access, and how you set up your database. Don't forget to use [indexes](http://www.sqlite.org/lang_createindex.html) to retrieve your data as fast as possible. Then even 10 GB of data won't be a problem for SQLite, whatever wrapper you are using. |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | AFAIR, DISQLite uses the obj files of Sqlite, and compile them with Delphi and produce more features than the original one, and using the same sqlite DB format, hence you can read the DISQLite database file by it by other languages that has support for Sqlite drivers.
Also one more feature with DISQLite you don't have to distribute the Sqlite DLL.
DISQLite support database size up to 2TB, so it could handle your requires without problems.
Another options I would consider is FireBird embedded version,and if you would like to scale it more, you can change to full FireBird server without much effort.
But I think both Sqlite & DISQLite will perform better than Firebird.
I use [Audcom Sqlite components](http://www.aducom.com/cms/news.php) to access Sqlite databases, and you can compile it with Sqlite objs file so you will not have deploy sqlite dll. | DISQLLite has two versions with the free one limited to personal and non-commerical usage. So this could be one of the deciding factor as SQLite is free opensource implementation without free/paid versions.
Both of the database would be able to handle data ranging in GBs. SQLite is available in pre-compiled binary i.e. DLL which can be distributed along your application. However, with the source code available you can also compile it within your application and use it without the need for DLL.
The advantage of using the DLL module (at times) is when some of the bugs are resolved you would simply be required to replace the DLL at the client machine instead of recompiling the whole application.
I feel SQLite would be a better option for yor requirement. Speed of database is not entirely based on the type of database. Hardware like harddisk access speed, available processing power, RAM etc also play an important role in speeding up database. |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | AFAIR, DISQLite uses the obj files of Sqlite, and compile them with Delphi and produce more features than the original one, and using the same sqlite DB format, hence you can read the DISQLite database file by it by other languages that has support for Sqlite drivers.
Also one more feature with DISQLite you don't have to distribute the Sqlite DLL.
DISQLite support database size up to 2TB, so it could handle your requires without problems.
Another options I would consider is FireBird embedded version,and if you would like to scale it more, you can change to full FireBird server without much effort.
But I think both Sqlite & DISQLite will perform better than Firebird.
I use [Audcom Sqlite components](http://www.aducom.com/cms/news.php) to access Sqlite databases, and you can compile it with Sqlite objs file so you will not have deploy sqlite dll. | Note that the DISQLLite personal version has some limitations and I don't think that the price for the professional version (Euro 149.99 without source) is worth it when anyone can just implement a SQLite wrapper for free.
I was using DISQLite personal for a freeware product and had to implement a database change in a new version release. The personal version does not support 'ALTER' so I was faced with having to purchase the full version. So I ditched DISQLite and just went with a good SQLite wrapper. Only go for DISQLite if you're prepared to pay for the full version.
[SQLite4Delphi](http://sqlite4delphi.sourceforge.net/) might be a better option, or at least point you to a more cost-effective solution. |
2,040,266 | What are the differences between [SQLite](http://www.sqlite.org/) and [DISQLite](http://www.yunqa.de/delphi/doku.php/products/sqlite3/index) and why would I want to pick one over the other?
My context is that I am dealing with a large database (could be up to 10 GB), the critical part of which is in one very simple table with a single indexed field and one text field up to a few KB in size. My development tool is Delphi 2009 and the database will be embedded in my .exe.
My main criteria is speed. This would be for a software application running on a typical Windows computer, say with Windows 7 and 4 GB of RAM.
If you want to suggest another database tool, please tell me why it would be better than these two for my application, especially on the speed frontier. | 2010/01/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2040266",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/30176/"
] | AFAIR, DISQLite uses the obj files of Sqlite, and compile them with Delphi and produce more features than the original one, and using the same sqlite DB format, hence you can read the DISQLite database file by it by other languages that has support for Sqlite drivers.
Also one more feature with DISQLite you don't have to distribute the Sqlite DLL.
DISQLite support database size up to 2TB, so it could handle your requires without problems.
Another options I would consider is FireBird embedded version,and if you would like to scale it more, you can change to full FireBird server without much effort.
But I think both Sqlite & DISQLite will perform better than Firebird.
I use [Audcom Sqlite components](http://www.aducom.com/cms/news.php) to access Sqlite databases, and you can compile it with Sqlite objs file so you will not have deploy sqlite dll. | Take a look at our [SynBigTable unit](http://blog.synopse.info/category/Open-Source-Projects/Synopse-BigTable). It's will be [much faster than SQLite](http://synopse.info/forum/viewtopic.php?pid=1011#p1011), and seems to fit exactly your purpose.
And if you need a native SQLite implementation, take a look at our [SQLite3 framework](http://blog.synopse.info/category/Open-Source-Projects/SQLite3-Framework): it's free and OpenSource, without any external dll. And has some more features than the closed DiSQLite (like Delphi native classes for implementing SQL functions or Virtual tables).
For the performance POV, the bottleneck won't be the wrapper you're using, but the disk access, and how you set up your database. Don't forget to use [indexes](http://www.sqlite.org/lang_createindex.html) to retrieve your data as fast as possible. Then even 10 GB of data won't be a problem for SQLite, whatever wrapper you are using. |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | Ketchup, OED, 1711
------------------
The OED says:
>
> Etymology: apparently < Chinese (Amoy dialect) *kôechiap* or *kê-tsiap* brine of pickled fish or shell-fish (Douglas *Chinese Dict*. 46/1, 242/1). Malay *kēchap* (in Dutch spelling *ketjap*), which has been claimed as the original source (Scott *Malayan Wds. in English* 64–67), may be from Chinese.
>
>
> The Japanese *kitjap*, alleged in some recent dicts., is an impossible form for that language. (? error for *Javanese*.)
>
>
>
Their earliest quotation is 18th century:
>
> 1711 C. Lockyer *Acct. Trade India* 128 Soy comes in Tubbs from Jappan, and the best Ketchup from Tonquin; yet good of both sorts are made and sold very cheap in China.
>
>
>
But they have an earlier quotation for *catchup*:
>
> 1699 B. E. *New Dict. Canting Crew*, Catchup, a high East-India Sauce.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1701
-------------
I found a 10-year antedating in *[The mysteries of opium reveal'd](http://books.google.com/books?id=XylFAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA350&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&ved=0CE0Q6AEwBQ)* by John Jones (1701) which uses it twice. First on page 350:
>
> 
>
>
> 
>
>
> III The *Vehicle* in *Vomiting* should be small in *Quantity*, pleasant, comfortable, and warming, lest you should by either *Quantity* or *Quality* give any offence to the Stomach; pleasing it answers the same *Intent* with the *Opiate* it self, and has often good *Effect* without *Opium* ; for, indeed, every *Pleaser* is proportionably an *Opiate*, and *Opium* is only such in an *intense* and permanent *manner*; therefore the *Vehicle* must be agreeable, as *Wine, Hippocras* or *Wine* burnt with *Spices*, *Rosemary, &c* or the best *Cordials*, or *Wine* with some ***Ketchup***, *Caviare*, or *Anchovis*, or a little *old Cheese* dissolved in it upon the Fire, according as the Person likes *one* or the *other*; which last (tho' not used in common *Practice*) are of very great *Benefit*, where they are pleasing and well liked of.
>
>
>
And page 358:
>
> 
>
>
> As to *Diet*, it must be Nourishing, Warming, Comforting, and Titillating, with *realishing* and *high Sauces, Oisters, Anchovy, Caviare, Cockles, **Ketchup**, Mango's, Garlick, Onions, Leeks, Bear Garlick, Rocket, Sives, Shelot, Ginger, Aromaticks, Roots of Satyrion, Feaverfew, Goats-beard, Silver-weed, Skirrets, Parsnips,* and *Artichoaks*.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1708
-------------
A later antedating gives a hint of the content, in *[Philosophical Transactions of the Royal Society of London](http://books.google.com/books?id=b8kwAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA2268&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&redir_esc=y#v=thumbnail&q=Ketchup%20%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&f=false)* (1708 - Volume 25 - Page 2268):
>
> 
>
>
> *Soia*, of which ***Ketchup*** is made, is the Seed of: *Indian Phaseolus*; ...
>
>
> | ### Etymology:
First, the Amoy pronunciation of *鮭汁* is *kê-chiap*, meaning *salmonidae juice*.
Then, the pronunciation travels to Malaysia, and use the spelling *kechap*, and changes the meaning into *tomato sauce*.
Next, the pronunciation travels to the Netherlands, and spells as *ketchup*.
Finally, English use the *ketchup* spelling from Dutch. |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | Supposed to be a maritime-related deal, with traders from the British East India company returning to the West from Malaysia bringing a recipe for something called kicap (pronounced: "kee-chap," with variable spellings and ingredients). Circa 17th cent. Of note is that the original was probably the same thing now available in Asian markets, called Nampla or Nuk-nam, a fermented fish sauce.
[Supporting link here.](http://books.google.com/books?id=KXaX4tUEOOsC&pg=PA58&lpg=PA58&dq=malaysia%20keechap&source=bl&ots=fZ6kHWHac4&sig=3emKIdZngM0fr6Bb0_9PI7GrSh4&hl=en&ei=r3HITaGxEeXr0QHCg_T_Bw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBgQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q&f=false)
Also of interest is modern-day usage of both "catsup" and "ketchup." | Ketchup 果子汁is a Taiwanese word that means fruit juice. The name was brought back to Europe by the Dutch in the early 17th Century when Taiwan was a Dutch colony.
Along with ketchup, tea was brought back to Europe, the word "tea" came from Taiwanese.
* Taiwanese *te*
* Dutch *thee*
* German *tee*
* French *the*
* Spanish *te*
* English *tea* |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | To supplement @The Raven's solid answer, I offer these:
* [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=ketchup):
>
> **ketchup**
> 1711, from Malay *kichap*, from Chinese (Amoy dialect) *koechiap* "brine of fish." *Catsup* (earlier *catchup*) is a failed attempt at Anglicization, still in use in U.S. Originally a fish sauce, early English recipes included among their ingredients mushrooms, walnuts, cucumbers, and oysters (Johnson, 1755, defines *catsup* as "A kind of pickle, made from mushrooms"). Modern form of the sauce began to emerge when U.S. seamen added tomatoes.
>
>
>
* An [Ngram](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=catsup,%20ketchup&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) of catsup (blue line)
vs. ketchup (red line).
* And a [quote](http://books.google.com/books?id=YkkhgGoE3_cC&printsec=frontcover&dq=the%20man%20who%20ate%20everything&hl=en&src=bmrr&ei=2Y3ITZ2PI5TUgQfE6fT-BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&sqi=2&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=Amoy&f=false) from Jeffrey Steingarten's excellent *The Man Who Ate Everything*:
>
> Where did ketchup get its start? The most popular theory is that the word itself defives from *kôe-chiap* or *ké-tsiap* in the Amoy dialect of China, where it meant the brine of pickled fish or shellfish. Some people prefer the Malaysian word *ketchap* (spelled *ketjap* by the Dutch), which may have come from the Chinese in the first place. In either case, sometime in the late seventeenth century, the name (and perhaps some samples and a recipe or two) arrived in England, where it first appeared in print as "catchup" in 1690 and then as "ketchup" in 1711, at least according to the *Oxford English Dictionary*. These exotic Asian names struck an evocative chord among the British, who quickly appropriated the names for their own pickled anchovies or oysters, long in popular use and probably descendants of the fishy, fermented Roman sauces, *garum* and *liquamen.*
>
>
> | This is undocumented, but I heard that the term 'ketchup' originated with spice traders who travelled in Southeast Asia/ Hong Kong/ Canton province. In Cantonese, the term 'chup' means literally 'sauce'. In the provincial areas of Canton, tomatoes are called "Fan Ke". In a slang phrase, Ke-Chup or Ket-Chup means tomato sauce. |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | Ketchup, OED, 1711
------------------
The OED says:
>
> Etymology: apparently < Chinese (Amoy dialect) *kôechiap* or *kê-tsiap* brine of pickled fish or shell-fish (Douglas *Chinese Dict*. 46/1, 242/1). Malay *kēchap* (in Dutch spelling *ketjap*), which has been claimed as the original source (Scott *Malayan Wds. in English* 64–67), may be from Chinese.
>
>
> The Japanese *kitjap*, alleged in some recent dicts., is an impossible form for that language. (? error for *Javanese*.)
>
>
>
Their earliest quotation is 18th century:
>
> 1711 C. Lockyer *Acct. Trade India* 128 Soy comes in Tubbs from Jappan, and the best Ketchup from Tonquin; yet good of both sorts are made and sold very cheap in China.
>
>
>
But they have an earlier quotation for *catchup*:
>
> 1699 B. E. *New Dict. Canting Crew*, Catchup, a high East-India Sauce.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1701
-------------
I found a 10-year antedating in *[The mysteries of opium reveal'd](http://books.google.com/books?id=XylFAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA350&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&ved=0CE0Q6AEwBQ)* by John Jones (1701) which uses it twice. First on page 350:
>
> 
>
>
> 
>
>
> III The *Vehicle* in *Vomiting* should be small in *Quantity*, pleasant, comfortable, and warming, lest you should by either *Quantity* or *Quality* give any offence to the Stomach; pleasing it answers the same *Intent* with the *Opiate* it self, and has often good *Effect* without *Opium* ; for, indeed, every *Pleaser* is proportionably an *Opiate*, and *Opium* is only such in an *intense* and permanent *manner*; therefore the *Vehicle* must be agreeable, as *Wine, Hippocras* or *Wine* burnt with *Spices*, *Rosemary, &c* or the best *Cordials*, or *Wine* with some ***Ketchup***, *Caviare*, or *Anchovis*, or a little *old Cheese* dissolved in it upon the Fire, according as the Person likes *one* or the *other*; which last (tho' not used in common *Practice*) are of very great *Benefit*, where they are pleasing and well liked of.
>
>
>
And page 358:
>
> 
>
>
> As to *Diet*, it must be Nourishing, Warming, Comforting, and Titillating, with *realishing* and *high Sauces, Oisters, Anchovy, Caviare, Cockles, **Ketchup**, Mango's, Garlick, Onions, Leeks, Bear Garlick, Rocket, Sives, Shelot, Ginger, Aromaticks, Roots of Satyrion, Feaverfew, Goats-beard, Silver-weed, Skirrets, Parsnips,* and *Artichoaks*.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1708
-------------
A later antedating gives a hint of the content, in *[Philosophical Transactions of the Royal Society of London](http://books.google.com/books?id=b8kwAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA2268&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&redir_esc=y#v=thumbnail&q=Ketchup%20%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&f=false)* (1708 - Volume 25 - Page 2268):
>
> 
>
>
> *Soia*, of which ***Ketchup*** is made, is the Seed of: *Indian Phaseolus*; ...
>
>
> | This is undocumented, but I heard that the term 'ketchup' originated with spice traders who travelled in Southeast Asia/ Hong Kong/ Canton province. In Cantonese, the term 'chup' means literally 'sauce'. In the provincial areas of Canton, tomatoes are called "Fan Ke". In a slang phrase, Ke-Chup or Ket-Chup means tomato sauce. |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | This is undocumented, but I heard that the term 'ketchup' originated with spice traders who travelled in Southeast Asia/ Hong Kong/ Canton province. In Cantonese, the term 'chup' means literally 'sauce'. In the provincial areas of Canton, tomatoes are called "Fan Ke". In a slang phrase, Ke-Chup or Ket-Chup means tomato sauce. | Ketchup 果子汁is a Taiwanese word that means fruit juice. The name was brought back to Europe by the Dutch in the early 17th Century when Taiwan was a Dutch colony.
Along with ketchup, tea was brought back to Europe, the word "tea" came from Taiwanese.
* Taiwanese *te*
* Dutch *thee*
* German *tee*
* French *the*
* Spanish *te*
* English *tea* |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | Supposed to be a maritime-related deal, with traders from the British East India company returning to the West from Malaysia bringing a recipe for something called kicap (pronounced: "kee-chap," with variable spellings and ingredients). Circa 17th cent. Of note is that the original was probably the same thing now available in Asian markets, called Nampla or Nuk-nam, a fermented fish sauce.
[Supporting link here.](http://books.google.com/books?id=KXaX4tUEOOsC&pg=PA58&lpg=PA58&dq=malaysia%20keechap&source=bl&ots=fZ6kHWHac4&sig=3emKIdZngM0fr6Bb0_9PI7GrSh4&hl=en&ei=r3HITaGxEeXr0QHCg_T_Bw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBgQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q&f=false)
Also of interest is modern-day usage of both "catsup" and "ketchup." | To supplement @The Raven's solid answer, I offer these:
* [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=ketchup):
>
> **ketchup**
> 1711, from Malay *kichap*, from Chinese (Amoy dialect) *koechiap* "brine of fish." *Catsup* (earlier *catchup*) is a failed attempt at Anglicization, still in use in U.S. Originally a fish sauce, early English recipes included among their ingredients mushrooms, walnuts, cucumbers, and oysters (Johnson, 1755, defines *catsup* as "A kind of pickle, made from mushrooms"). Modern form of the sauce began to emerge when U.S. seamen added tomatoes.
>
>
>
* An [Ngram](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=catsup,%20ketchup&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) of catsup (blue line)
vs. ketchup (red line).
* And a [quote](http://books.google.com/books?id=YkkhgGoE3_cC&printsec=frontcover&dq=the%20man%20who%20ate%20everything&hl=en&src=bmrr&ei=2Y3ITZ2PI5TUgQfE6fT-BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&sqi=2&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=Amoy&f=false) from Jeffrey Steingarten's excellent *The Man Who Ate Everything*:
>
> Where did ketchup get its start? The most popular theory is that the word itself defives from *kôe-chiap* or *ké-tsiap* in the Amoy dialect of China, where it meant the brine of pickled fish or shellfish. Some people prefer the Malaysian word *ketchap* (spelled *ketjap* by the Dutch), which may have come from the Chinese in the first place. In either case, sometime in the late seventeenth century, the name (and perhaps some samples and a recipe or two) arrived in England, where it first appeared in print as "catchup" in 1690 and then as "ketchup" in 1711, at least according to the *Oxford English Dictionary*. These exotic Asian names struck an evocative chord among the British, who quickly appropriated the names for their own pickled anchovies or oysters, long in popular use and probably descendants of the fishy, fermented Roman sauces, *garum* and *liquamen.*
>
>
> |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | Supposed to be a maritime-related deal, with traders from the British East India company returning to the West from Malaysia bringing a recipe for something called kicap (pronounced: "kee-chap," with variable spellings and ingredients). Circa 17th cent. Of note is that the original was probably the same thing now available in Asian markets, called Nampla or Nuk-nam, a fermented fish sauce.
[Supporting link here.](http://books.google.com/books?id=KXaX4tUEOOsC&pg=PA58&lpg=PA58&dq=malaysia%20keechap&source=bl&ots=fZ6kHWHac4&sig=3emKIdZngM0fr6Bb0_9PI7GrSh4&hl=en&ei=r3HITaGxEeXr0QHCg_T_Bw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBgQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q&f=false)
Also of interest is modern-day usage of both "catsup" and "ketchup." | This is undocumented, but I heard that the term 'ketchup' originated with spice traders who travelled in Southeast Asia/ Hong Kong/ Canton province. In Cantonese, the term 'chup' means literally 'sauce'. In the provincial areas of Canton, tomatoes are called "Fan Ke". In a slang phrase, Ke-Chup or Ket-Chup means tomato sauce. |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | Supposed to be a maritime-related deal, with traders from the British East India company returning to the West from Malaysia bringing a recipe for something called kicap (pronounced: "kee-chap," with variable spellings and ingredients). Circa 17th cent. Of note is that the original was probably the same thing now available in Asian markets, called Nampla or Nuk-nam, a fermented fish sauce.
[Supporting link here.](http://books.google.com/books?id=KXaX4tUEOOsC&pg=PA58&lpg=PA58&dq=malaysia%20keechap&source=bl&ots=fZ6kHWHac4&sig=3emKIdZngM0fr6Bb0_9PI7GrSh4&hl=en&ei=r3HITaGxEeXr0QHCg_T_Bw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBgQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q&f=false)
Also of interest is modern-day usage of both "catsup" and "ketchup." | Ketchup, OED, 1711
------------------
The OED says:
>
> Etymology: apparently < Chinese (Amoy dialect) *kôechiap* or *kê-tsiap* brine of pickled fish or shell-fish (Douglas *Chinese Dict*. 46/1, 242/1). Malay *kēchap* (in Dutch spelling *ketjap*), which has been claimed as the original source (Scott *Malayan Wds. in English* 64–67), may be from Chinese.
>
>
> The Japanese *kitjap*, alleged in some recent dicts., is an impossible form for that language. (? error for *Javanese*.)
>
>
>
Their earliest quotation is 18th century:
>
> 1711 C. Lockyer *Acct. Trade India* 128 Soy comes in Tubbs from Jappan, and the best Ketchup from Tonquin; yet good of both sorts are made and sold very cheap in China.
>
>
>
But they have an earlier quotation for *catchup*:
>
> 1699 B. E. *New Dict. Canting Crew*, Catchup, a high East-India Sauce.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1701
-------------
I found a 10-year antedating in *[The mysteries of opium reveal'd](http://books.google.com/books?id=XylFAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA350&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&ved=0CE0Q6AEwBQ)* by John Jones (1701) which uses it twice. First on page 350:
>
> 
>
>
> 
>
>
> III The *Vehicle* in *Vomiting* should be small in *Quantity*, pleasant, comfortable, and warming, lest you should by either *Quantity* or *Quality* give any offence to the Stomach; pleasing it answers the same *Intent* with the *Opiate* it self, and has often good *Effect* without *Opium* ; for, indeed, every *Pleaser* is proportionably an *Opiate*, and *Opium* is only such in an *intense* and permanent *manner*; therefore the *Vehicle* must be agreeable, as *Wine, Hippocras* or *Wine* burnt with *Spices*, *Rosemary, &c* or the best *Cordials*, or *Wine* with some ***Ketchup***, *Caviare*, or *Anchovis*, or a little *old Cheese* dissolved in it upon the Fire, according as the Person likes *one* or the *other*; which last (tho' not used in common *Practice*) are of very great *Benefit*, where they are pleasing and well liked of.
>
>
>
And page 358:
>
> 
>
>
> As to *Diet*, it must be Nourishing, Warming, Comforting, and Titillating, with *realishing* and *high Sauces, Oisters, Anchovy, Caviare, Cockles, **Ketchup**, Mango's, Garlick, Onions, Leeks, Bear Garlick, Rocket, Sives, Shelot, Ginger, Aromaticks, Roots of Satyrion, Feaverfew, Goats-beard, Silver-weed, Skirrets, Parsnips,* and *Artichoaks*.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1708
-------------
A later antedating gives a hint of the content, in *[Philosophical Transactions of the Royal Society of London](http://books.google.com/books?id=b8kwAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA2268&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&redir_esc=y#v=thumbnail&q=Ketchup%20%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&f=false)* (1708 - Volume 25 - Page 2268):
>
> 
>
>
> *Soia*, of which ***Ketchup*** is made, is the Seed of: *Indian Phaseolus*; ...
>
>
> |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | To supplement @The Raven's solid answer, I offer these:
* [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=ketchup):
>
> **ketchup**
> 1711, from Malay *kichap*, from Chinese (Amoy dialect) *koechiap* "brine of fish." *Catsup* (earlier *catchup*) is a failed attempt at Anglicization, still in use in U.S. Originally a fish sauce, early English recipes included among their ingredients mushrooms, walnuts, cucumbers, and oysters (Johnson, 1755, defines *catsup* as "A kind of pickle, made from mushrooms"). Modern form of the sauce began to emerge when U.S. seamen added tomatoes.
>
>
>
* An [Ngram](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=catsup,%20ketchup&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) of catsup (blue line)
vs. ketchup (red line).
* And a [quote](http://books.google.com/books?id=YkkhgGoE3_cC&printsec=frontcover&dq=the%20man%20who%20ate%20everything&hl=en&src=bmrr&ei=2Y3ITZ2PI5TUgQfE6fT-BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&sqi=2&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=Amoy&f=false) from Jeffrey Steingarten's excellent *The Man Who Ate Everything*:
>
> Where did ketchup get its start? The most popular theory is that the word itself defives from *kôe-chiap* or *ké-tsiap* in the Amoy dialect of China, where it meant the brine of pickled fish or shellfish. Some people prefer the Malaysian word *ketchap* (spelled *ketjap* by the Dutch), which may have come from the Chinese in the first place. In either case, sometime in the late seventeenth century, the name (and perhaps some samples and a recipe or two) arrived in England, where it first appeared in print as "catchup" in 1690 and then as "ketchup" in 1711, at least according to the *Oxford English Dictionary*. These exotic Asian names struck an evocative chord among the British, who quickly appropriated the names for their own pickled anchovies or oysters, long in popular use and probably descendants of the fishy, fermented Roman sauces, *garum* and *liquamen.*
>
>
> | Ketchup, OED, 1711
------------------
The OED says:
>
> Etymology: apparently < Chinese (Amoy dialect) *kôechiap* or *kê-tsiap* brine of pickled fish or shell-fish (Douglas *Chinese Dict*. 46/1, 242/1). Malay *kēchap* (in Dutch spelling *ketjap*), which has been claimed as the original source (Scott *Malayan Wds. in English* 64–67), may be from Chinese.
>
>
> The Japanese *kitjap*, alleged in some recent dicts., is an impossible form for that language. (? error for *Javanese*.)
>
>
>
Their earliest quotation is 18th century:
>
> 1711 C. Lockyer *Acct. Trade India* 128 Soy comes in Tubbs from Jappan, and the best Ketchup from Tonquin; yet good of both sorts are made and sold very cheap in China.
>
>
>
But they have an earlier quotation for *catchup*:
>
> 1699 B. E. *New Dict. Canting Crew*, Catchup, a high East-India Sauce.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1701
-------------
I found a 10-year antedating in *[The mysteries of opium reveal'd](http://books.google.com/books?id=XylFAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA350&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&ved=0CE0Q6AEwBQ)* by John Jones (1701) which uses it twice. First on page 350:
>
> 
>
>
> 
>
>
> III The *Vehicle* in *Vomiting* should be small in *Quantity*, pleasant, comfortable, and warming, lest you should by either *Quantity* or *Quality* give any offence to the Stomach; pleasing it answers the same *Intent* with the *Opiate* it self, and has often good *Effect* without *Opium* ; for, indeed, every *Pleaser* is proportionably an *Opiate*, and *Opium* is only such in an *intense* and permanent *manner*; therefore the *Vehicle* must be agreeable, as *Wine, Hippocras* or *Wine* burnt with *Spices*, *Rosemary, &c* or the best *Cordials*, or *Wine* with some ***Ketchup***, *Caviare*, or *Anchovis*, or a little *old Cheese* dissolved in it upon the Fire, according as the Person likes *one* or the *other*; which last (tho' not used in common *Practice*) are of very great *Benefit*, where they are pleasing and well liked of.
>
>
>
And page 358:
>
> 
>
>
> As to *Diet*, it must be Nourishing, Warming, Comforting, and Titillating, with *realishing* and *high Sauces, Oisters, Anchovy, Caviare, Cockles, **Ketchup**, Mango's, Garlick, Onions, Leeks, Bear Garlick, Rocket, Sives, Shelot, Ginger, Aromaticks, Roots of Satyrion, Feaverfew, Goats-beard, Silver-weed, Skirrets, Parsnips,* and *Artichoaks*.
>
>
>
Ketchup, 1708
-------------
A later antedating gives a hint of the content, in *[Philosophical Transactions of the Royal Society of London](http://books.google.com/books?id=b8kwAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA2268&dq=Ketchup%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&hl=en&sa=X&ei=e6YdUr_ZM-iG4gS-pYGoAw&redir_esc=y#v=thumbnail&q=Ketchup%20%20OR%20Kitchup%20OR%20kee-chup&f=false)* (1708 - Volume 25 - Page 2268):
>
> 
>
>
> *Soia*, of which ***Ketchup*** is made, is the Seed of: *Indian Phaseolus*; ...
>
>
> |
24,530 | What is the etymology of the word *ketchup*? I've tried searching on Google without a definitive answer. | 2011/05/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/24530",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8355/"
] | To supplement @The Raven's solid answer, I offer these:
* [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=ketchup):
>
> **ketchup**
> 1711, from Malay *kichap*, from Chinese (Amoy dialect) *koechiap* "brine of fish." *Catsup* (earlier *catchup*) is a failed attempt at Anglicization, still in use in U.S. Originally a fish sauce, early English recipes included among their ingredients mushrooms, walnuts, cucumbers, and oysters (Johnson, 1755, defines *catsup* as "A kind of pickle, made from mushrooms"). Modern form of the sauce began to emerge when U.S. seamen added tomatoes.
>
>
>
* An [Ngram](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=catsup,%20ketchup&year_start=1700&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3) of catsup (blue line)
vs. ketchup (red line).
* And a [quote](http://books.google.com/books?id=YkkhgGoE3_cC&printsec=frontcover&dq=the%20man%20who%20ate%20everything&hl=en&src=bmrr&ei=2Y3ITZ2PI5TUgQfE6fT-BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&sqi=2&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=Amoy&f=false) from Jeffrey Steingarten's excellent *The Man Who Ate Everything*:
>
> Where did ketchup get its start? The most popular theory is that the word itself defives from *kôe-chiap* or *ké-tsiap* in the Amoy dialect of China, where it meant the brine of pickled fish or shellfish. Some people prefer the Malaysian word *ketchap* (spelled *ketjap* by the Dutch), which may have come from the Chinese in the first place. In either case, sometime in the late seventeenth century, the name (and perhaps some samples and a recipe or two) arrived in England, where it first appeared in print as "catchup" in 1690 and then as "ketchup" in 1711, at least according to the *Oxford English Dictionary*. These exotic Asian names struck an evocative chord among the British, who quickly appropriated the names for their own pickled anchovies or oysters, long in popular use and probably descendants of the fishy, fermented Roman sauces, *garum* and *liquamen.*
>
>
> | Ketchup 果子汁is a Taiwanese word that means fruit juice. The name was brought back to Europe by the Dutch in the early 17th Century when Taiwan was a Dutch colony.
Along with ketchup, tea was brought back to Europe, the word "tea" came from Taiwanese.
* Taiwanese *te*
* Dutch *thee*
* German *tee*
* French *the*
* Spanish *te*
* English *tea* |
46,459,180 | I am trying to add a splash screen to an xcode project?
It may potentially be an animation with sound effects.
Can anyone help?
Thank you guys. | 2017/09/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/46459180",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8634577/"
] | According to apple's guideline it is not possible to use gif as splash screen or launch image.
If you are using story board for launch screen (> ios 7) then you can use jpg but below or equal version to ios 7, you have only option is png.
You can achieve animation kind of startup by making your first view controller animated and make it work as splash scree. In this case you should not set any splash image of launch screen storyboard(or set black background color), so it will show black screen for a second when app will be launching and then your first view controller will be animate and your app will got startup with animation or gif.
Hope this will help :) | Basically - you can't make animated splash screen. However - you can duplicate it (LaunchScreen) in storyboard and make it as entrance VC of your app. Than when view gets loaded - start your animation.
As a final result you will have "animating splash screen": App starts -> static launch screen -> transition to entrance VC which won't be visible by user because scenes look the same -> entrance VC view is loaded so as animation.
For sum up: treat your launch screen's xib as first frame of an animation |
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