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83,279
I had enabled a views accordion for a field in view. On displaying it in a page its not working and I got an error "$(...).accordion is not a function". Can any one help me in solving this?
2013/08/22
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/83279", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/20043/" ]
Install the [jQuery Update](https://www.drupal.org/project/jquery_update) module and set jQuery of your website to `1.7+`.
It seems like your jQuery libraries are creating conflict. Try to use 'jQuery' instead of '$'. Else you can use a simple line of code to avoid jQuery library conflict. <https://forum.jquery.com/topic/multiple-versions-of-jquery-on-the-same-page>. This link would be helpful.
11,227,104
I've coded a few ABAP programs and created a some messages in a custom message class, they are under an specific Transport Request/Task. I need to translate all translatable strings (Messages, Text Symbols, Selection Texts, etc) of the objects found in that Transport Request/Task. Is there any tool (transaction, program, etc) to sequentially translate all those strings without manually exploring the objects one by one?
2012/06/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11227104", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/236871/" ]
Use a [translation worklist](http://help.sap.com/saphelp_NW04/helpdata/en/77/571a1f492011d1894a0000e829fbbd/frameset.htm). It might be sensible to group the objects to be translated into separate packages for this - this also facilitates packaging and delivery of later versions.
You can use tcode SE63 in order to translate your messages, programs, screens basically everything. For example you can use this path in order to translate your text elements in an ABAP program: > > se63 -> Translation -> ABAP Objects -> Short Texts -> ABAP Texts -> > REPT Text Elements. > > > Write down your program's name and its main language and the target language. Go for it. Hope it was helpful. Talha
6
The answers to many questions on this site will depend on the specific culture in which the OP lives. The norms of interpersonal contact vary a lot from one culture to another. (I realised this when I read [this question](https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/q/11/25); in Britain, if someone bumps into you in the street, you'd probably apologise even if it wasn't your fault, but that might be considered strange or excessively polite in other countries.) How should we clarify and clearly distinguish between different cultures in questions on this site? Should we always leave comments asking the OP where they come from? Should we create tags like [united-states](https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/united-states "show questions tagged 'united-states'") to add to every question? Should we vote to close as "unclear" if a question doesn't include this information?
2017/06/27
[ "https://interpersonal.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6", "https://interpersonal.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.meta.stackexchange.com/users/25/" ]
Like I said here: > > Social skills and norms, traditions, values... etc vary so much depending on where you are and the culture of that region. Pakistani social norms will be different from Canadian norms, which themselves will be different from those of South Africa. > > > ### So, what does that mean? Questions that ask the same thing are still different if they ask about a different cultural framework. The answers to those questions would be starkly different. The key here is being culturally relative - recognizing that cultures are different, and that the answer from one culture should not apply to another culture. Such behaviour would be severely damaging to users and this site. Therefore, cultural differences are *extremely* important. They change everywhere. We can't ignore them. So what does it all entail? **Questions must distinguish culture.** Questions should ideally indicate where they are, and what culture they are trying to work with. This can be done through tags, but it *must* also be done through the question as well. You can be asking about Canada, but as a pluralistic, multicultural country, there will be subcultures, countercultures... you get the point. Details need to be specified in the question. Indian-Canadian culture is quite different from what you might expect. Questions that can't do this should be closed. Not doing this could drive an culturally imperialist tone to this site, where people might also mistakenly take answers and apply them everywhere. --- This answer is evolving; we have to actually see what happens to the site too!
You can specify in the answer which locale/culture you're referring to, provided the OP hasn't specified. Alternatively, or perhaps additionally, we could make tags such as [united-states-culture](https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/united-states-culture "show questions tagged 'united-states-culture'"), to specify wthe locale.
26,320
Wordperfect 5.1 (for DOS) doesn't work without modification under Vista. How can I get it to work (as well as possible) under Windows Vista?
2008/09/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26320", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/23864/" ]
**Run it inside [DOSBox](http://www.dosbox.com/).** That should solve your problems. Their emulation is quiet decent, they have solved problems with EMS/DOS4GW/whatever etc. I think it should run any DOS application pretty much OK.
I would suggest creating a Virual Machine running DOS. You can download Virtual PC for free [here](http://www.microsoft.com/windows/downloads/virtualpc/default.mspx). You will need a copy of DOS to do the install.
26,320
Wordperfect 5.1 (for DOS) doesn't work without modification under Vista. How can I get it to work (as well as possible) under Windows Vista?
2008/09/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26320", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/23864/" ]
I would suggest creating a Virual Machine running DOS. You can download Virtual PC for free [here](http://www.microsoft.com/windows/downloads/virtualpc/default.mspx). You will need a copy of DOS to do the install.
Maybe DosBox does work. It works fine with most Dos Games and Programmes. It's free and still beeing improved <http://www.dosbox.com/>
26,320
Wordperfect 5.1 (for DOS) doesn't work without modification under Vista. How can I get it to work (as well as possible) under Windows Vista?
2008/09/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26320", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/23864/" ]
I would suggest creating a Virual Machine running DOS. You can download Virtual PC for free [here](http://www.microsoft.com/windows/downloads/virtualpc/default.mspx). You will need a copy of DOS to do the install.
Also info at <http://www.columbia.edu/~em36/wpdos/vista.html>
26,320
Wordperfect 5.1 (for DOS) doesn't work without modification under Vista. How can I get it to work (as well as possible) under Windows Vista?
2008/09/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26320", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/23864/" ]
**Run it inside [DOSBox](http://www.dosbox.com/).** That should solve your problems. Their emulation is quiet decent, they have solved problems with EMS/DOS4GW/whatever etc. I think it should run any DOS application pretty much OK.
Maybe DosBox does work. It works fine with most Dos Games and Programmes. It's free and still beeing improved <http://www.dosbox.com/>
26,320
Wordperfect 5.1 (for DOS) doesn't work without modification under Vista. How can I get it to work (as well as possible) under Windows Vista?
2008/09/16
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26320", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/23864/" ]
**Run it inside [DOSBox](http://www.dosbox.com/).** That should solve your problems. Their emulation is quiet decent, they have solved problems with EMS/DOS4GW/whatever etc. I think it should run any DOS application pretty much OK.
Also info at <http://www.columbia.edu/~em36/wpdos/vista.html>
23,436
Yesterday I did put some water with a dissolved soap in an aluminum pan. I think the soap is a Dove like this one: <https://www.dove.com/content/dam/unilever/dove/brazil/portuguese/pack_shot/front/skin_cleansing/skin_cleansing/sabonete_dove_original_90g/fop_original_90g_derm_seal_-_83344562-1147482-png.png.ulenscale.490x490.png> It stayed there for many hours. Now when it was going to be used for cook, a mildly strong soap smell remained on it. It was then washed with water to try to remove it. Then, some vinegar was used somehow during some time (I didn't use it) to try to remove it without success. What are the options. Use hot water? Sunshine? Lemon?. Vinager for a longer time period ? sodium bicarbonate ? What else might work. Thank for the answers.
2020/04/04
[ "https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/23436", "https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com", "https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/31035/" ]
I would ask you to try using butter (not margarine) to neutralize the residual odour of Dove™ skin cleanser. The butter is an intermediate step. The concept is that the fats in the butter will bond with the organic base of the "soap" film coating the aluminum pan. When removed, the butter will pull the odour with it. The butter is then removed as you normally would remove food residue. * At room temperature, rub a small amount of butter (1-2 teaspoon) over the dry surface of the pan. Work a thin layer over the whole pan into every crevice. **Note**: I used warm *GHEE* (clarified butter) and applied it with my fingers. * Wipe the pan dry with a paper towel. (To remove the butter.) Be thorough. * Wash the pan as you would after normal use. Good luck UPDATE: This did not work with a plastic cup that I used for the experiment. When dry, the odour returned. You may have better results with better your metal pan.
Facial soap like Dove contains oils that adhere to the skin as a surface film, and to the container with which the soap and water mixture has come in contact. You can remove that film by scrubbing with scouring powder or another soap that does not contain oils- like dishwashing liquid, which is designed to remove oily films.
23,436
Yesterday I did put some water with a dissolved soap in an aluminum pan. I think the soap is a Dove like this one: <https://www.dove.com/content/dam/unilever/dove/brazil/portuguese/pack_shot/front/skin_cleansing/skin_cleansing/sabonete_dove_original_90g/fop_original_90g_derm_seal_-_83344562-1147482-png.png.ulenscale.490x490.png> It stayed there for many hours. Now when it was going to be used for cook, a mildly strong soap smell remained on it. It was then washed with water to try to remove it. Then, some vinegar was used somehow during some time (I didn't use it) to try to remove it without success. What are the options. Use hot water? Sunshine? Lemon?. Vinager for a longer time period ? sodium bicarbonate ? What else might work. Thank for the answers.
2020/04/04
[ "https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/23436", "https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com", "https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/31035/" ]
I would ask you to try using butter (not margarine) to neutralize the residual odour of Dove™ skin cleanser. The butter is an intermediate step. The concept is that the fats in the butter will bond with the organic base of the "soap" film coating the aluminum pan. When removed, the butter will pull the odour with it. The butter is then removed as you normally would remove food residue. * At room temperature, rub a small amount of butter (1-2 teaspoon) over the dry surface of the pan. Work a thin layer over the whole pan into every crevice. **Note**: I used warm *GHEE* (clarified butter) and applied it with my fingers. * Wipe the pan dry with a paper towel. (To remove the butter.) Be thorough. * Wash the pan as you would after normal use. Good luck UPDATE: This did not work with a plastic cup that I used for the experiment. When dry, the odour returned. You may have better results with better your metal pan.
Try using Lemon with Baking soda, it removes the odour from surface. Coat the pan with the baking powder and then rub it using lemon. Leave it as it is for at least 15-20 min and then wash it.
1,388,254
I have never been good at solving recurrence relations. Part of the reason is that I have never found a book that is good at explaining the strategies for solving them; The books just give formulas for solving recurrence relations of specific forms. So, what books do you recommend to learn how to solve recurrence relations?
2015/08/07
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1388254", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/226362/" ]
Here I'd like to draw attention to *[The Concrete Tetrahedron](https://www.maa.org/press/maa-reviews/the-concrete-tetrahedron)* by M. Kauers and P. Paule. This book puts the focus on four strongly connected types of mathematical objects * recurrences * generating functions * symbolic sums * asymptotic estimations and the interplay between them. The connections and structural properties of these four regions are analysed starting with polynomials as the most simple application and going step by step, i.e. chapter by chapter to more complex objects. The authors cover * Polynomials * *[C-finite Sequences](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constant-recursive_sequence)* * *[Hypergeometric Series](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypergeometric_function#The_hypergeometric_series)* * *[Algebraic Functions](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_function)* * *[Holonomic Sequences and Power Series](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holonomic_function)* and in each of these chapters the four regions and their interplay is discussed. Btw. the term **Concrete** in the title of the book is a reverence to *[Concrete Mathematics](https://www.csie.ntu.edu.tw/%7Er97002/temp/Concrete%20Mathematics%202e.pdf)* by R. L. Graham, D. Knuth and O. Patashnik which is explicitly stated by the authors in section 1.6: * The attribute concrete is a reference to the book "Concrete Mathematics" by Graham, Knuth, and Patashnik [24], where a comprehensive introduction to the subject is provided. Following the authors of that book, we understand concrete not in contrast to abstract, but as a blend of the two words con-tinuous and dis-crete, for it is both continuous and discrete mathematics that is applied when solving concrete problems.
RECURRENCE AND TOPOLOGY, John M. Alongi, Gail S. Nelson, Graduate Studies in Mathematics,Volume 85, American Mathematical Society. Providence, Rhode Island. Publication Year: 2007 ISBN-10: 0-8218-4234-X ISBN-13: 978-0-8218-4234-8 [www.ams.org/bookpages/gsm-85](http://www.ams.org/bookpages/gsm-85)
10,199
Consider a system of many point particles each having a certain mass and electric charge and certain initial velocity. This system is completely governed by the laws of gravitation and electromagnetic field. If this system is left on its own without any external influence, any physical quantity like velocity of a particle or electric field at a point, of this system will vary smoothly with time and space. (keeping aside any singularities that could occur eventually). My question is whether any such system which is governed by such laws of physics (except ofcourse QM) would remain smooth until the occurrence of a singularity, in the absence of any external influence. PS : please feel free to edit/suggest changes to the question in case if it could make it more meaningful.
2011/05/21
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/10199", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/540/" ]
This would be chemical energy that is converted to heat. The heat from the wick melts the wax which gets absorbed in the wick and then gets burnt (which is really oxidation) to produce heat energy as well as light energy.
The energy transforms from chemical energy to heat and light energy. Because when the candle burns a chemical reaction occurs, and produces heat and light.
149,491
If a Bard has concerns that a statue or corpse is actually a dormant construct or an undead, can they cast the Message cantrip, and target the statue/corpse to determine if either is indeed a creature? The Spell Target is "one creature/level". The Saving Throw & Spell Resistance is "none" and "no".
2019/06/07
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/149491", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/36939/" ]
The [*message*](https://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/m/message/) spell doesn't provide feedback ==================================================================================================== A caster doesn't know automatically when he's cast a spell on an invalid target; instead, nothing happens and the spell just fails. (On [Spell Failure](https://www.d20pfsrd.com/Magic/#TOC-Spell-Failure) says, "If you ever try to cast a spell in conditions where the characteristics of the spell cannot be made to conform, the casting fails and the spell is wasted.") And that failure could've come about due to a variety of circumstances. The only feedback a caster typically receives from *any* spell is the feedback from a spell that has both a *Target* entry and has a *Saving Throw* entry other than *none*. In that case, the caster learns *only* if the target succeeds on the saving throw against the spell. Other information must be gleaned from observation, special abilities, and as the result of the spell itself coming into effect. (See also Magic on [Saving Throws](https://www.d20pfsrd.com/Magic/#TOC-Saving-Throw).) (Note that the *message* spell has a *Saving Throw* entry of *none*; further, were the spell to have, for example, the entry *Saving Throw: Will negates*, an invalid target just wouldn't make the saving throw—therefore neither succeeding nor failing—, and the caster would still receive no feedback.) This means that the simple act of casting the spell *message* on the typical wholly inanimate and totally-not-a-creature corpse or statue does not somehow provide feedback to the caster that reveals the spell failed—the caster lacks a heads-up display that flashes *Invalid Target*, for instance. However, because a typical wholly inanimate and totally-not-a-creature corpse or statue can't and won't be *replying* using the effect of the *message* spell, the caster may still surmise that target's nature.
Probably Not ============ A reading of the entry for this spell does not specify that the caster knows if the message is failed to be received, however if the target talked back to you, using its option to do so, it would certainly give it away. The overview rules on magic do not specify that you have any knowledge of the spell failing that I could find (unless the creature passed a saving throw against a targeted spell, and message does not offer a saving throw), so I would say, in general: No, you couldn't use this to determine if a statue or corpse is a creature reliably.
97,043
Why is an antenna is used in this electronic [electroscope circuit](http://amasci.com/emotor/chargdet.html)? I would like to do this as my mini project.
2014/01/20
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/97043", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/35832/" ]
The antenna is used to pick up an electric field (*not* the same thing as a radio signal). It can be any length but I'd expect that the further away from the ground plane of the circuit the "stronger" a field you will get. The "optional" 1Mohm resistor is really ought to be included otherwise you risk damaging the FET through electrostatic discharge.
it's not really an antenna in the normal sense .... it's a metal so it's a sea of electrons, when there's an electric field around they all get attracted down one end leaving the other end with the opposite charge, since it's connected to the gate of the FET the FET turns on or off, depending on the charge As mentioned above a 1M resistor on the gate would probably be a good idea
97,043
Why is an antenna is used in this electronic [electroscope circuit](http://amasci.com/emotor/chargdet.html)? I would like to do this as my mini project.
2014/01/20
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/97043", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/35832/" ]
I called it "antenna" in my article, but really it's just one plate of a capacitor. The second capacitor-plate is the entire JFET source/drain circuit, which is connected to the ground surface ...or the surface of whatever battery is being used. The input of this JFET circuit is actually a capacitive divider circuit, with the parallel capacitor being the JFET's gate-source capacitance ~5pF, and the smaller series-input capacitor being the dielectric space between the gate lead and a charged object nearby. This smaller space-capacitance value is far below 1pF, so the input section is dividing by more than 5x. In other words, if the gate wire is tiny, the capacitive divider is dividing too much! The FET becomes very insensitive to external e-field signals. And, if the gate-wire is several feet long, the divider is dividing too little. In that case the circuit is completely overloaded by ambient 60Hz fields, AM radio transmitters, distant thunderstorm VLF static, etc, and the LED just lights up uselessly. A 2cm "electrode" works fine (just use the transistor's gate lead itself.) Or, for less sensitivity, snip the gate lead shorter. Even try cutting it off entirely, that way you're still using the remaining (1mm?) gate lead inside the plastic TO92 transistor package. On a low-humidity day, try adding a foot-long "antenna," such as an alligator clip-lead attached to the JFET gate. If the ambient 60Hz field in your location doesn't overload the circuit, you'll find that the LED still turns on and off even when you stand 15ft away and comb your hair. Try simply lifting one shoe slightly off the carpet! Hint: connect a 10pF capacitor between the JFET's gate and source. (Or try a 3.3pf, or 0.5pf, etc.) You'll find that this visibly decreases the sensitivity, as well as slowing down the usual recovery-time. The added capacitor demonstrates the existence of this capacitive-divider effect, since you've increased the gate-source capacitance without changing the series capacitance of the space around the gate wire. Perhaps even connect a 20pF trimmer capacitor between gate and source, so you can smoothly adjust the sensitivity. As @Hoets points out, this circuit is *TOO* cheap and simple. It doesn't give linear results or bi-polar output. (It was intended as one cheap pixel in a [300-cell display matrix](http://amasci.com/electrom/electrom.html), an e-fields physics exhibit.) A JFET op amp would work better. Try a unity-gain voltage follower circuit, using a floating input pin as the "antenna," with output to red/green LEDs or an actual panel meter display. Schematics on several other sites are listed in [the article links.](http://amasci.com/emotor/chargdet.html#15)
it's not really an antenna in the normal sense .... it's a metal so it's a sea of electrons, when there's an electric field around they all get attracted down one end leaving the other end with the opposite charge, since it's connected to the gate of the FET the FET turns on or off, depending on the charge As mentioned above a 1M resistor on the gate would probably be a good idea
222,843
I was reading about diodes and I know that they have a certain parasitic capacitance. Now, according to Wikipedia, > > At low frequencies parasitic capacitance can usually be ignored, but > in high frequency circuits it can be a major problem. > > > I have trouble understanding what exactly happens, so if you could come with some explanations that'd be great. Is this because when it comes to capacitors, voltage lags behind, or is it something else?
2016/03/15
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/222843", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/103697/" ]
Often you want to use a diode to block currents flowing in a certain direction. But the parasitic capacitor will pass high-frequency current signals, regardless of phase. Often you want to use a diode to provide a high-impedance in normal operation (while providing a path to divert unwanted signals like ESD strikes). The parasitic capacitance causes the diode to pass high-frequency signals rather than block them.
You have to realize that all electromagnetic fields are continuous to infinity and operate on the principle of superposition (2 fields interact with each other to make a resultant field) so when you put components in near locations they undergo mutual effects. As boards get smaller the distances get closer. The reality is the field strength falls off over long distances but electronics components on a board are near each other. It's no accident components are placed co-planar on a circuit board - electrical and magnetic field are at right angles. One way electrical fields interact is capacitive coupling. At DC ( zero frequency zero phase ) capacitors rise to Vcc / Vss or whatever the resultant transient response is. So at DC they charge to create a field but frequencies above DC pass through a capacitor. Why is this important, depending on your type of transistor like a BJT or FET semiconductor, your diode activates a field at the doping region threshold. Complex models of a diode have a capacitor at the junction. That field shown below [![Diode and fields](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gWnk2.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gWnk2.png) requires a capacitive charge to keep the semiconductor in conductance known as the charge carrying current: [![Charge Carrying Current](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0yrZ6.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0yrZ6.png) where the first term is the charge due to current and the second is the junction charge on the diode itself. Since a diode is connected to conductors above and below or right and left of the device that junction capacitor can also act like an RC filter at higher frequencies when combined with a load.
222,843
I was reading about diodes and I know that they have a certain parasitic capacitance. Now, according to Wikipedia, > > At low frequencies parasitic capacitance can usually be ignored, but > in high frequency circuits it can be a major problem. > > > I have trouble understanding what exactly happens, so if you could come with some explanations that'd be great. Is this because when it comes to capacitors, voltage lags behind, or is it something else?
2016/03/15
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/222843", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/103697/" ]
Often you want to use a diode to block currents flowing in a certain direction. But the parasitic capacitor will pass high-frequency current signals, regardless of phase. Often you want to use a diode to provide a high-impedance in normal operation (while providing a path to divert unwanted signals like ESD strikes). The parasitic capacitance causes the diode to pass high-frequency signals rather than block them.
At low frequencies capacitors appear as open circuits, which can be ignored. At higher frequencies their impedance starts to decrease, so they can't be ignored any more. This has nothing to do with the diode, it is common to all parasitic capacitors.
222,843
I was reading about diodes and I know that they have a certain parasitic capacitance. Now, according to Wikipedia, > > At low frequencies parasitic capacitance can usually be ignored, but > in high frequency circuits it can be a major problem. > > > I have trouble understanding what exactly happens, so if you could come with some explanations that'd be great. Is this because when it comes to capacitors, voltage lags behind, or is it something else?
2016/03/15
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/222843", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/103697/" ]
You have to realize that all electromagnetic fields are continuous to infinity and operate on the principle of superposition (2 fields interact with each other to make a resultant field) so when you put components in near locations they undergo mutual effects. As boards get smaller the distances get closer. The reality is the field strength falls off over long distances but electronics components on a board are near each other. It's no accident components are placed co-planar on a circuit board - electrical and magnetic field are at right angles. One way electrical fields interact is capacitive coupling. At DC ( zero frequency zero phase ) capacitors rise to Vcc / Vss or whatever the resultant transient response is. So at DC they charge to create a field but frequencies above DC pass through a capacitor. Why is this important, depending on your type of transistor like a BJT or FET semiconductor, your diode activates a field at the doping region threshold. Complex models of a diode have a capacitor at the junction. That field shown below [![Diode and fields](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gWnk2.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gWnk2.png) requires a capacitive charge to keep the semiconductor in conductance known as the charge carrying current: [![Charge Carrying Current](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0yrZ6.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0yrZ6.png) where the first term is the charge due to current and the second is the junction charge on the diode itself. Since a diode is connected to conductors above and below or right and left of the device that junction capacitor can also act like an RC filter at higher frequencies when combined with a load.
At low frequencies capacitors appear as open circuits, which can be ignored. At higher frequencies their impedance starts to decrease, so they can't be ignored any more. This has nothing to do with the diode, it is common to all parasitic capacitors.
24,696
I do not allow users to login to my blog, but I would like to enable facebook connect for those who do not want to enter their details in the comments fields all the time. How should I start doing it? Enable on wordpress settings user logins, when implement facebook comment and thats it?
2011/08/02
[ "https://wordpress.stackexchange.com/questions/24696", "https://wordpress.stackexchange.com", "https://wordpress.stackexchange.com/users/7552/" ]
Try the new beta version of my Simple Facebook Connect plugin. <http://plugins.svn.wordpress.org/simple-facebook-connect/branches/new-sfc/> I prefer this comment implementation over others as mine does not create WordPress users directly from Facebook connected users when just used for commenting.
Use Facebook connect plugin <http://wordpress.org/extend/plugins/wp-facebookconnect/>
22,774
I have a 19 liter carboy, and put a 18 liter wort. 10 hours later I woke up and noticed carboy overflow krausen all over it. I am concerned whether air lock will clogged down and explode. I will not have a hose for another 6-7 hours, so blow-off tube is not an answer. I cleaned the air lock a few times, and it keeps overflowing, I see krausen in the airlock. I am wondering what could be a solution? I am either thinking removing air lock completely for next 10 hours, or siphoning some of the wort to give some head space.
2018/04/10
[ "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/22774", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/14496/" ]
Few tricks for temporary fix. Swirling every so often can get kausen to drop back in. Nitrile glove with a pin hole in a finger will work for a DYI air relief cover, should limit the mess. Latex will work too but not recommended due to their odor.
You could do either of your suggestions, or if your carboy fits in a bucket, just let it overflow through the airlock until the blowoff tube arrives.
22,774
I have a 19 liter carboy, and put a 18 liter wort. 10 hours later I woke up and noticed carboy overflow krausen all over it. I am concerned whether air lock will clogged down and explode. I will not have a hose for another 6-7 hours, so blow-off tube is not an answer. I cleaned the air lock a few times, and it keeps overflowing, I see krausen in the airlock. I am wondering what could be a solution? I am either thinking removing air lock completely for next 10 hours, or siphoning some of the wort to give some head space.
2018/04/10
[ "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/22774", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/14496/" ]
You could do either of your suggestions, or if your carboy fits in a bucket, just let it overflow through the airlock until the blowoff tube arrives.
You could remove the cap and tape a piece of foil or plastic wrap partially over the opening. I’ve done this with Saisons to prevent back pressure stalling fermentation.
22,774
I have a 19 liter carboy, and put a 18 liter wort. 10 hours later I woke up and noticed carboy overflow krausen all over it. I am concerned whether air lock will clogged down and explode. I will not have a hose for another 6-7 hours, so blow-off tube is not an answer. I cleaned the air lock a few times, and it keeps overflowing, I see krausen in the airlock. I am wondering what could be a solution? I am either thinking removing air lock completely for next 10 hours, or siphoning some of the wort to give some head space.
2018/04/10
[ "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/22774", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/14496/" ]
Few tricks for temporary fix. Swirling every so often can get kausen to drop back in. Nitrile glove with a pin hole in a finger will work for a DYI air relief cover, should limit the mess. Latex will work too but not recommended due to their odor.
Have you considered using [FermCap](https://www.northernbrewer.com/fermcap-s-1-oz)? It will reduce the Krausen without hurting the beer.
22,774
I have a 19 liter carboy, and put a 18 liter wort. 10 hours later I woke up and noticed carboy overflow krausen all over it. I am concerned whether air lock will clogged down and explode. I will not have a hose for another 6-7 hours, so blow-off tube is not an answer. I cleaned the air lock a few times, and it keeps overflowing, I see krausen in the airlock. I am wondering what could be a solution? I am either thinking removing air lock completely for next 10 hours, or siphoning some of the wort to give some head space.
2018/04/10
[ "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/22774", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/14496/" ]
Few tricks for temporary fix. Swirling every so often can get kausen to drop back in. Nitrile glove with a pin hole in a finger will work for a DYI air relief cover, should limit the mess. Latex will work too but not recommended due to their odor.
You could remove the cap and tape a piece of foil or plastic wrap partially over the opening. I’ve done this with Saisons to prevent back pressure stalling fermentation.
22,774
I have a 19 liter carboy, and put a 18 liter wort. 10 hours later I woke up and noticed carboy overflow krausen all over it. I am concerned whether air lock will clogged down and explode. I will not have a hose for another 6-7 hours, so blow-off tube is not an answer. I cleaned the air lock a few times, and it keeps overflowing, I see krausen in the airlock. I am wondering what could be a solution? I am either thinking removing air lock completely for next 10 hours, or siphoning some of the wort to give some head space.
2018/04/10
[ "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/22774", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com", "https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/users/14496/" ]
Have you considered using [FermCap](https://www.northernbrewer.com/fermcap-s-1-oz)? It will reduce the Krausen without hurting the beer.
You could remove the cap and tape a piece of foil or plastic wrap partially over the opening. I’ve done this with Saisons to prevent back pressure stalling fermentation.
288,360
We are planning to move to SP online and have a small site with a big document library having versioning enabled. We don't need to invest in a paid tool for such small site and are thinking to use SharePoint free migration tool from the Microsoft. Does the SP Migration Tool support files migration with version?
2020/12/29
[ "https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/288360", "https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com", "https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/94218/" ]
If you are talking about [SharePoint Migration Tool](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepointmigration/introducing-the-sharepoint-migration-tool?WT.mc_id=M365-MVP-5002973) **(SPMT)**, so the answer is **YES**. The **Version** is a supported item in SharePoint Migration Tool, and it will be preserved based on your setting. * **Migrate file version history:** If set to Off, only the most recent version of the file will be migrated. If set to On, you can choose whether to keep all versions or limit it to a specific number. * **Keep all versions** If set to On, all versions of a file will be migrated. * **Number of versions to migrate** Enter a number to limit the number of file versions migrated. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7PHZ9.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7PHZ9.png) > > Read more, about supported items and how to use SPMT at **[SharePoint Migration Tool](https://debug.to/34/sharepoint-migration-tool)** > > >
Keeping versions/Version History is fully [supported](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepointmigration/what-is-supported-spmt#features) while using SPMT. One more thing you should know, if you choose to migrate all versions with the contents, make sure you have all documents/items approved/published when you have versioning enabled, since the **draft** items (which are in status of “*Pending*”) will be migrated as well.
8,491,173
Well, the question is; "Write a C code that finds zero of a function y = ax + b, without solving the equation. The zero will be found within the precision limit ϵ = 10 - 3. You'll start at x=0, and move x in the proper direction until |y|< ϵ." I'm a newbie, to programming, and don't know anything about this ϵ thing either. Help me out!!
2011/12/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8491173", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1067005/" ]
It means you have to solve the inequality |ax+b| < 10^-3 by trying different values for x. Since this is a linear function it's easy. Start with a random number at x and then increase it or decrease it depending on the result of ax+b. I.e. if you move to one direction and the results go more away then you should follow the opposite direction. You will have to develop an algorithm that decides the increments/decrements of x.
|y| < 10⁻³, or well, -0.001 < y < 0.001. You must increase or decrease x (starting from 0, as you've said) in order to make y to take a value between -0.001 and 0.001. About ϵ, a.k.a. epsilon, is used to denote a very small value. For this problem, ϵ denotes a tolerance value, as it's not needed y to take a strict value of 0.
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
Your approach might work but WebDAV might fit the bill as well.
scp (in PuTTY's PSCP or WinSCP), WebDAV, or rsync are probably your best options. Set (as a scheduled task) and forget! +1 for a Mom who's nagging you about providing you with an offsite-backup!
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
An alternate suggestion that might help - It seems as though you might be over complicating the issue. There are multiple simple backup utilities for Windows, not withstanding your Norton solution. Admittedly it's a little low-tech, but it seriously fulfills the "offsite" requirement AND removes the network from the equation, to protect against timeouts, lags, dropped VPN connections, etc. while you're backing up. Using two like-sized external drives, label one "Week 1" and the other "Week 2". Connect the "Week 1" drive to the computer, configure it to perform a weekly full followed by incrementals, silently in the background. Have your mum remove the drive and set it aside. On Thursday or whaetver, stop by to raid the fridge, do a little laundry and connect up the drive labeled "Week 2". Doublecheck, make sure that the drive has assumed the same drive letter and your backup software sees it. Grab and toss the "Week 1" drive on top of the clean shirts and socks in the laundry basket, on your way out the door. Keep it aside, safe and away from danger. This is your mum's `offline storage'. Rinse, repeat. You've just created a smaller version of what most businesses do every week with their data. If you've got space to spare or your mum's HD isn't that big and a lot of files don't change that often, feel free to juggle and tweak the times/config a bit if a.) you don't do laundry at home all that much and/or you're comfortable storing more than a week's worth of data on a drive like that.
scp (in PuTTY's PSCP or WinSCP), WebDAV, or rsync are probably your best options. Set (as a scheduled task) and forget! +1 for a Mom who's nagging you about providing you with an offsite-backup!
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
This doesn't really answer the question but I'm a fan of [Mozy](http://mozy.com) for off-site backup. * Unlike Dropbox (which I do like too for sharing/syncing files), your files can be in any combination of directories. * Backups happens automatically in the background so you don't need to think about it * Backups are incremental - only changed files need to get sent * Like Dropbox, Mozy stores previous versions (up to a month?) so you're not in trouble even if you "backed up" files *after* they went wonky. * Your data will be encrypted with your own key (generated within Mozy client upon install) before it is sent over the wire, and you can optionally store this key with Mozy for safekeeping if you trust them enough and are afraid of losing your key. * And unlike the homebrew approach of copying files to another machine at home, your backups are truly off-site.
If you prefer a commercial version (because of the suppport) to Dokan-SSH, you can try ExpanDrive for Windows [ExpanDrive for Windows website](http://www.expandrive.com/windows)
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
It looks like there is a package that supports sshfs on Windows, it's called Dokan: <http://dokan-dev.net/en/> EDIT: in light of your recent edit you may find PSCP sufficient. PSCP is a command-line scp program from PuTTY: <http://www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~sgtatham/putty/download.html> You could dump all files to be backed up to a certain directory on your Windows machine, then have a script scp those files to your VPS.
Seems like a sensible idea to me. I've done this before. There is a slight snag in that your local windows machine is probably already running it's own file sharing server (so you can't bind to localhost:139 when forwarding) and I you can't specify which port to connect to for file sharing. Really simple solution is to disable file sharing on your windows machine, or Samba over SSH without disabling local file sharing
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
I just tested WinSCP for you, it works with nothing but an open SSH port on the server--was very straight-forward. It doesn't allow a true mount from looks of things, it gives you one of those left/right copy things instead. I bet there is an SSHFS client for windows out there somewhere though if you really need that. Edit: There is an old program from Novel that will do this, it's apparently free, but I haven't tested it. You might give it a try: http://www.novell.com/coolsolutions/qna/999.html
scp (in PuTTY's PSCP or WinSCP), WebDAV, or rsync are probably your best options. Set (as a scheduled task) and forget! +1 for a Mom who's nagging you about providing you with an offsite-backup!
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
This doesn't really answer the question but I'm a fan of [Mozy](http://mozy.com) for off-site backup. * Unlike Dropbox (which I do like too for sharing/syncing files), your files can be in any combination of directories. * Backups happens automatically in the background so you don't need to think about it * Backups are incremental - only changed files need to get sent * Like Dropbox, Mozy stores previous versions (up to a month?) so you're not in trouble even if you "backed up" files *after* they went wonky. * Your data will be encrypted with your own key (generated within Mozy client upon install) before it is sent over the wire, and you can optionally store this key with Mozy for safekeeping if you trust them enough and are afraid of losing your key. * And unlike the homebrew approach of copying files to another machine at home, your backups are truly off-site.
I use a VPN for this. The file server runs poptop. Windows machines connect to it via the built in VPN client. SAMBA to share the folder, and voila. Use WINS for naming for extra credit so the Windows machines don't need shortcuts to things like \192.168.0.x\sharename on the desktop.
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
It looks like there is a package that supports sshfs on Windows, it's called Dokan: <http://dokan-dev.net/en/> EDIT: in light of your recent edit you may find PSCP sufficient. PSCP is a command-line scp program from PuTTY: <http://www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~sgtatham/putty/download.html> You could dump all files to be backed up to a certain directory on your Windows machine, then have a script scp those files to your VPS.
Use [rsync for Windows](http://www.brentnorris.net/rsyncntdoc.html) to backup data on your Windows machine
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
Seems like a sensible idea to me. I've done this before. There is a slight snag in that your local windows machine is probably already running it's own file sharing server (so you can't bind to localhost:139 when forwarding) and I you can't specify which port to connect to for file sharing. Really simple solution is to disable file sharing on your windows machine, or Samba over SSH without disabling local file sharing
You can also install [Windows Services for UNIX](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/interopmigration/bb380242.aspx) on your Windows machine and access your Linux box via NFS
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
Your approach might work but WebDAV might fit the bill as well.
rsync does not actually mount a filesystem but nonetheless lets you list contents of directories and transfer files to and from a Linux machine. rsync for Windows can be found, for example, in rsync.zip archive [there](http://www.brentnorris.net/rsyncntdoc.html)
18,343
I was going to attempt Samba over SSH, any better ideas? Edit: My mom has been bugging me to do some offsite backing up of her files. She currently uses [Norton Ghost](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghost_%28software%29). I have a VPS that I use for some other stuff and I figured that I could just setup a FTP server and let Norton connect to that for some offsite backing up action. But for some unknown reason, Norton doesn't handle SFTP or FTPS, so I have to figure out how to automatically mount a Linux drive on Windows or get Norton working with SFTP. Edit: Thanks for all your help guys (girls?)!
2009/06/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/18343", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/7705/" ]
I just tested WinSCP for you, it works with nothing but an open SSH port on the server--was very straight-forward. It doesn't allow a true mount from looks of things, it gives you one of those left/right copy things instead. I bet there is an SSHFS client for windows out there somewhere though if you really need that. Edit: There is an old program from Novel that will do this, it's apparently free, but I haven't tested it. You might give it a try: http://www.novell.com/coolsolutions/qna/999.html
I use a VPN for this. The file server runs poptop. Windows machines connect to it via the built in VPN client. SAMBA to share the folder, and voila. Use WINS for naming for extra credit so the Windows machines don't need shortcuts to things like \192.168.0.x\sharename on the desktop.
220,685
My client's Salesforce codebase/metadata is fairly large and we're hoping to switch to SFDX. Figuring out which components go into which artifact is going to be a challenge - I expect we'll have a "main" artifact with most of the components and then a couple of other artifacts for things that are clearly dependency free. Anyway, I digress! Is the idea with SFDX that you would have 1 repo per artifact or should you have 1 repo with all artifacts in separate folders i.e. 1 repo per production org? If it's the latter are there any sample repos out there with multiple artifacts?
2018/06/06
[ "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/220685", "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com", "https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/13686/" ]
Andrew Fawcett has provided us with [an open source demo](https://github.com/afawcett/dx-di-demo) you can clone and peruse. Generally speaking, all of the artifacts related to your application should exist in one repo. This allows you to have dependencies and help automate the deployment process. Of course, the general exception is that you have a repo so large that it takes forever to push, pull, clone, etc, it might be worth it to split it up into multiple repos. This generally complicates matters and should only be used as a last resort.
On our ISV project we use **"NVIE" git branches** <https://nvie.com/posts/a-successful-git-branching-model/> So **one repo** , but **multiple branches** :) We also have one SFDX Project ( folder ) by "artifact" * **Source** : + Dev branch (and its sub-branches for developments) + Quali branch + Pre-prod branch + Prod branch * Packaging : managed package, ISV specific, not applicable to clients not building ISVs If you need to deploy only parts of SFDX project into an org, you can filter it using your own package.xml files and this [sfdx metadatas filtering plugin](https://github.com/nvuillam/sfdx_metadatas_filtering) * **Publishing** in Dev branch is made via **Pull Requests** from Dev Sub branches * **Merging** of branches from Dev to Quali , Quali to Pre-prod , Pre-prod to prod can be managed automatically with **Jenkins Jobs**
25,920
I'm thinking of putting a large wall paper with an astronomical motive on a wall. I found quite a number of wall papers by various vendors, but most of them are obviously computer generated images, which is a no-go. It must be an image of an astronomical object, a nebula or a galaxy. (There's also a size requirement, not under 236 x 370 cm, so please do not suggest I use a printed image fitting a common frame format). Now I found this wall paper. To my eyes it does not obviously look like CGI. But there are no diffraction artifacts visible for the bright stars; perfect circles it seems. Can anyone identify the object? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EPckV.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EPckV.jpg)
2018/04/15
[ "https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/25920", "https://astronomy.stackexchange.com", "https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/6593/" ]
This appears to be one of Sergii Tsololo's more convincing efforts in the synthetic "space" image genre. It is listed on various stock photo sites as "[Blue and purple space galaxy](http://www.alamy.com/stock-photo-blue-purple-space-galaxy-55997572.html)," or with added 4-way spikes, "[Blue space starfield with flares](http://www.alamy.com/stock-photo-blue-purple-space-galaxy-55997572.html)." A real astrophoto would identify the subject and not be tagged "abstract" or "fantasy." To check it another way, I submitted the image to [Astrometry.net](http://nova.astrometry.net/), whose plate solver failed to match the field within their 10 minute time limit. When I submitted an amateur photo of the [Trifid Nebula](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trifid_Nebula) as a control, Astrometry.net found a solution in less than 1 second.
> > I'm thinking of putting a large wall paper with an astronomical motive on a wall. I found quite a number of wall papers by various vendors, but most of them are obviously computer generated images, which is a no-go. > > > Buyer beware. Huge printers are expensive, few places have them; you don't want wallpaper that's too skinny or paper that's not actually "wallpaper". If you check that *artists* work he photographs a lot of vegetables too. > > Can anyone identify the object? > > > Getty Images identifies it as: "[Space galaxy - Blue and purple space galaxy](https://www.gettyimages.co.uk/detail/photo/space-galaxy-royalty-free-image/91633822)", by 'sololos', Creative #: 91633822. That is most likely the original source. It's also available in a smaller size from the same person at iStock and is called: "[Constellations. Cepheus (Cep) - Stock image](https://www.istockphoto.com/ca/photo/constellations-cepheus-gm485169533-38602092)". The image is purchased by various places to use unrestricted, for example the [Irish Times wrote an article](https://www.irishtimes.com/news/science/supermassive-irish-scientist-offers-explanation-for-black-holes-1.3008747) and used the image. The "Large" size (assuming that's the size used by the place you plan on purchasing a **copy** from, to produce their enlarged version) is 4327 x 3245 px (36.64 x 27.47 cm) 300 dpi | 14.0 MP - a 14MP image blown up to 236 x 370 cm will be quite grainy close up. Every pixel will be a 10x10 block, if *that* was printed at 300 DPI (don't count on it) then 10 pixels would be 1/30th of an inch (~ 1mm). It's more likely to be 1/4 of that resolution, or 4x4 mm blocks. The [Wikipedia webpage for Cepheus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cepheus_(constellation)) and the [Hubble Telescope image](http://www.spacetelescope.org/images/heic0810cf/) for Cepheus cause me to wonder if the image is correctly titled. [![Cepheus](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uAbdE.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uAbdE.jpg) Credit: NASA, ESA, the Hubble Heritage Team (STScI/AURA)-ESA/Hubble Collaboration and A. Evans (UVA, Charlottesville/NRAO/SBU) A 7.2 megabyte 3600x2749 (9.9MP) .TIF file of the [constellation Cepheus](http://chandra.harvard.edu/photo/2009/cepb/) is also available from the Chandra X-ray Observatory. By starting with a known source, and using a high quality format, you can find somewhere that makes huge prints, and end up with something that won't devalue your property. As an example, [one place, wants $400](http://www.pictorem.com/mural-print.html?width-cm=370&height-cm=236&go=get%20price) to create wallpaper. Shop around and check reviews if you only pay a couple of hundred bucks you'll probably be wasting a couple of hundred bucks; it depends upon what you want it to look like **and** most importantly how close you intend to view it.
40,440
I made caramel on my induction cooktop. The temperature was correct, but the caramel texture is grainy, like all of the sugar didn't dissolve properly. Do I need a different thermometer? I used a Wilton clip-on stainless steel mercury thermometer. Or does the cooking time need to be adjusted? The recipe I am using is: 1cup butter,2 1/4cup brown sugar, dash salt,1cup light corn syrup,1can sweetened condensed milk,1teaspoon vanilla. Melt butter in heavy 3 qt. saucepan. Add brown sugar and salt. Stir until thoroughly combined. Stir in corn syrup and mix well. Gradually add milk stirring constantly. Cook and stir over med. heat until candy reaches 245F remove from heat and stir in vanilla. Pour into 9x9 pan. Let set 24 hours. Cut into squares, wrap in wax paper. I am close to sea-level.
2013/12/20
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40440", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22043/" ]
I noticed that you're stirring constantly. Generally with candy you want to stir as little as possible, since it causes sugar crystals to form in the syrup. In addition to making the candy grainier, they reduce the overall lifespan- even after the candy has cooled the (larger) crystals will continue to grow, causing the candy to slowly revert back into flavoured sugar. Once the sugar is fully dissolved, you want to disturb it as little as possible. You will still have to do some stirring, otherwise the milk solids will burn. It'll help a bit to mix in the corn syrup at the same time as the sugar. Corn syrup is an *invert sugar*, meaning it gets in the way of crystallization and slows it down. If your caramel is still coming out grainy, try adding half a teaspoon of lemon juice. Your candy will be slightly gummier, but the acid in the lemon will inhibit crystallization and reduce the graininess.
Your thermometer should be fine, the graininess probably has more to do with technique than temperature. There's quite a bit of controversy as to when and how to stir and what to do about sugar crystals that form along the sides of the pan. Just to be sure about your thermometer, test it with boiling water. If you're at or near sea-level the thermometer should read 100C or 212F. If your thermometer is fine, then we need to take a harder look at technique. Edit: Looking at your recipe and considering your change in cooktop, I can only see a possible problem if the candy reaches 245F more quickly than you are used to. Try lowering the temp a bit at that stage so that it takes longer for the candy to reach 245F. It may take some getting used to, but induction should perfect for candy making. It pretty much goes without saying, so I am assuming no considerable change in your ingredients.
40,440
I made caramel on my induction cooktop. The temperature was correct, but the caramel texture is grainy, like all of the sugar didn't dissolve properly. Do I need a different thermometer? I used a Wilton clip-on stainless steel mercury thermometer. Or does the cooking time need to be adjusted? The recipe I am using is: 1cup butter,2 1/4cup brown sugar, dash salt,1cup light corn syrup,1can sweetened condensed milk,1teaspoon vanilla. Melt butter in heavy 3 qt. saucepan. Add brown sugar and salt. Stir until thoroughly combined. Stir in corn syrup and mix well. Gradually add milk stirring constantly. Cook and stir over med. heat until candy reaches 245F remove from heat and stir in vanilla. Pour into 9x9 pan. Let set 24 hours. Cut into squares, wrap in wax paper. I am close to sea-level.
2013/12/20
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40440", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22043/" ]
Your thermometer should be fine, the graininess probably has more to do with technique than temperature. There's quite a bit of controversy as to when and how to stir and what to do about sugar crystals that form along the sides of the pan. Just to be sure about your thermometer, test it with boiling water. If you're at or near sea-level the thermometer should read 100C or 212F. If your thermometer is fine, then we need to take a harder look at technique. Edit: Looking at your recipe and considering your change in cooktop, I can only see a possible problem if the candy reaches 245F more quickly than you are used to. Try lowering the temp a bit at that stage so that it takes longer for the candy to reach 245F. It may take some getting used to, but induction should perfect for candy making. It pretty much goes without saying, so I am assuming no considerable change in your ingredients.
I own a bakery and made Caramel weekly. I finally purchased an induction burner for the back of the bakery so as to not have to carry boiling sugar down a long corridor. First my staff and then myself experienced repeated failures, i.e. graininess every time we used the induction burner. We finally went back to the gas range and everything went perfectly well. Not once was it possible to reproduce the smooth dark, rich caramel we used at the bakery when using the induction burner. I wish I knew why, I used the same pot, the same technique, same temperature, and ingredients. A mystery till this day but also a very dependable result- unusable grainy mess. I hope you find your answer. If you had previous success making caramel, and changed nothing other than the induction burner it may well be something with the way an induction burning heats the sugar crystals not anything you did incorrectly. I can only speak to my own experience but I will never attempt caramel with an induction burner again. I hope this helps.
40,440
I made caramel on my induction cooktop. The temperature was correct, but the caramel texture is grainy, like all of the sugar didn't dissolve properly. Do I need a different thermometer? I used a Wilton clip-on stainless steel mercury thermometer. Or does the cooking time need to be adjusted? The recipe I am using is: 1cup butter,2 1/4cup brown sugar, dash salt,1cup light corn syrup,1can sweetened condensed milk,1teaspoon vanilla. Melt butter in heavy 3 qt. saucepan. Add brown sugar and salt. Stir until thoroughly combined. Stir in corn syrup and mix well. Gradually add milk stirring constantly. Cook and stir over med. heat until candy reaches 245F remove from heat and stir in vanilla. Pour into 9x9 pan. Let set 24 hours. Cut into squares, wrap in wax paper. I am close to sea-level.
2013/12/20
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40440", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22043/" ]
Your thermometer should be fine, the graininess probably has more to do with technique than temperature. There's quite a bit of controversy as to when and how to stir and what to do about sugar crystals that form along the sides of the pan. Just to be sure about your thermometer, test it with boiling water. If you're at or near sea-level the thermometer should read 100C or 212F. If your thermometer is fine, then we need to take a harder look at technique. Edit: Looking at your recipe and considering your change in cooktop, I can only see a possible problem if the candy reaches 245F more quickly than you are used to. Try lowering the temp a bit at that stage so that it takes longer for the candy to reach 245F. It may take some getting used to, but induction should perfect for candy making. It pretty much goes without saying, so I am assuming no considerable change in your ingredients.
I solved the problem of grainy caramel made with condensed milk by: taking the grainy caramel off the cooktop and decanting the entire batch into my high power blender (2200w) for 3 minutes on the highest setting. Not only did the graininess disappear completely but the heat generated by my amazing blender continued to cook my caramel. Now the caramel filling for my banoffee pie is PERFECT and ready for the bananas and whipped cream! I've never before made caramel with condensed milk. Next time I'm just going to use my blender from the beginning.
40,440
I made caramel on my induction cooktop. The temperature was correct, but the caramel texture is grainy, like all of the sugar didn't dissolve properly. Do I need a different thermometer? I used a Wilton clip-on stainless steel mercury thermometer. Or does the cooking time need to be adjusted? The recipe I am using is: 1cup butter,2 1/4cup brown sugar, dash salt,1cup light corn syrup,1can sweetened condensed milk,1teaspoon vanilla. Melt butter in heavy 3 qt. saucepan. Add brown sugar and salt. Stir until thoroughly combined. Stir in corn syrup and mix well. Gradually add milk stirring constantly. Cook and stir over med. heat until candy reaches 245F remove from heat and stir in vanilla. Pour into 9x9 pan. Let set 24 hours. Cut into squares, wrap in wax paper. I am close to sea-level.
2013/12/20
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40440", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22043/" ]
I noticed that you're stirring constantly. Generally with candy you want to stir as little as possible, since it causes sugar crystals to form in the syrup. In addition to making the candy grainier, they reduce the overall lifespan- even after the candy has cooled the (larger) crystals will continue to grow, causing the candy to slowly revert back into flavoured sugar. Once the sugar is fully dissolved, you want to disturb it as little as possible. You will still have to do some stirring, otherwise the milk solids will burn. It'll help a bit to mix in the corn syrup at the same time as the sugar. Corn syrup is an *invert sugar*, meaning it gets in the way of crystallization and slows it down. If your caramel is still coming out grainy, try adding half a teaspoon of lemon juice. Your candy will be slightly gummier, but the acid in the lemon will inhibit crystallization and reduce the graininess.
I own a bakery and made Caramel weekly. I finally purchased an induction burner for the back of the bakery so as to not have to carry boiling sugar down a long corridor. First my staff and then myself experienced repeated failures, i.e. graininess every time we used the induction burner. We finally went back to the gas range and everything went perfectly well. Not once was it possible to reproduce the smooth dark, rich caramel we used at the bakery when using the induction burner. I wish I knew why, I used the same pot, the same technique, same temperature, and ingredients. A mystery till this day but also a very dependable result- unusable grainy mess. I hope you find your answer. If you had previous success making caramel, and changed nothing other than the induction burner it may well be something with the way an induction burning heats the sugar crystals not anything you did incorrectly. I can only speak to my own experience but I will never attempt caramel with an induction burner again. I hope this helps.
40,440
I made caramel on my induction cooktop. The temperature was correct, but the caramel texture is grainy, like all of the sugar didn't dissolve properly. Do I need a different thermometer? I used a Wilton clip-on stainless steel mercury thermometer. Or does the cooking time need to be adjusted? The recipe I am using is: 1cup butter,2 1/4cup brown sugar, dash salt,1cup light corn syrup,1can sweetened condensed milk,1teaspoon vanilla. Melt butter in heavy 3 qt. saucepan. Add brown sugar and salt. Stir until thoroughly combined. Stir in corn syrup and mix well. Gradually add milk stirring constantly. Cook and stir over med. heat until candy reaches 245F remove from heat and stir in vanilla. Pour into 9x9 pan. Let set 24 hours. Cut into squares, wrap in wax paper. I am close to sea-level.
2013/12/20
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40440", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22043/" ]
I noticed that you're stirring constantly. Generally with candy you want to stir as little as possible, since it causes sugar crystals to form in the syrup. In addition to making the candy grainier, they reduce the overall lifespan- even after the candy has cooled the (larger) crystals will continue to grow, causing the candy to slowly revert back into flavoured sugar. Once the sugar is fully dissolved, you want to disturb it as little as possible. You will still have to do some stirring, otherwise the milk solids will burn. It'll help a bit to mix in the corn syrup at the same time as the sugar. Corn syrup is an *invert sugar*, meaning it gets in the way of crystallization and slows it down. If your caramel is still coming out grainy, try adding half a teaspoon of lemon juice. Your candy will be slightly gummier, but the acid in the lemon will inhibit crystallization and reduce the graininess.
I solved the problem of grainy caramel made with condensed milk by: taking the grainy caramel off the cooktop and decanting the entire batch into my high power blender (2200w) for 3 minutes on the highest setting. Not only did the graininess disappear completely but the heat generated by my amazing blender continued to cook my caramel. Now the caramel filling for my banoffee pie is PERFECT and ready for the bananas and whipped cream! I've never before made caramel with condensed milk. Next time I'm just going to use my blender from the beginning.
40,440
I made caramel on my induction cooktop. The temperature was correct, but the caramel texture is grainy, like all of the sugar didn't dissolve properly. Do I need a different thermometer? I used a Wilton clip-on stainless steel mercury thermometer. Or does the cooking time need to be adjusted? The recipe I am using is: 1cup butter,2 1/4cup brown sugar, dash salt,1cup light corn syrup,1can sweetened condensed milk,1teaspoon vanilla. Melt butter in heavy 3 qt. saucepan. Add brown sugar and salt. Stir until thoroughly combined. Stir in corn syrup and mix well. Gradually add milk stirring constantly. Cook and stir over med. heat until candy reaches 245F remove from heat and stir in vanilla. Pour into 9x9 pan. Let set 24 hours. Cut into squares, wrap in wax paper. I am close to sea-level.
2013/12/20
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40440", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22043/" ]
I solved the problem of grainy caramel made with condensed milk by: taking the grainy caramel off the cooktop and decanting the entire batch into my high power blender (2200w) for 3 minutes on the highest setting. Not only did the graininess disappear completely but the heat generated by my amazing blender continued to cook my caramel. Now the caramel filling for my banoffee pie is PERFECT and ready for the bananas and whipped cream! I've never before made caramel with condensed milk. Next time I'm just going to use my blender from the beginning.
I own a bakery and made Caramel weekly. I finally purchased an induction burner for the back of the bakery so as to not have to carry boiling sugar down a long corridor. First my staff and then myself experienced repeated failures, i.e. graininess every time we used the induction burner. We finally went back to the gas range and everything went perfectly well. Not once was it possible to reproduce the smooth dark, rich caramel we used at the bakery when using the induction burner. I wish I knew why, I used the same pot, the same technique, same temperature, and ingredients. A mystery till this day but also a very dependable result- unusable grainy mess. I hope you find your answer. If you had previous success making caramel, and changed nothing other than the induction burner it may well be something with the way an induction burning heats the sugar crystals not anything you did incorrectly. I can only speak to my own experience but I will never attempt caramel with an induction burner again. I hope this helps.
114,545
I have developed [this android application](https://market.android.com/details?id=net.mindfsck.PosAff) and I am looking to port it to iOS. My questions are: 1) I am planning to finance the iOS development with the money earn't from the android sales which is about $200 at the moment. Would it be reasonable to get the project done for this amount even if it is outsourced to elance or odesk etc? 2) I have heard the code quality for outsourced iOS projects to be bad, I dont want any memory leaks and crashes because of overflows etc. 3) I currently dont have a full time job so I can technically do the project myself, however I dont have a apple pc or iPhone (dont really want to get them either). I know C pretty well but I haven't really released a major C project that must be 100% stable. How many hours to learn iOs and do the port? And would it be worth my time taking into consideration that if I do enjoy it I may get into it fulltime. 4) What would the demand be like for someone that can do Android and iOS? Thanks
2011/10/15
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/114545", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/38721/" ]
$200 would pay for maybe half a day's work from a decent iOS developer. I'd recommend investing in a Mac (you can do development without an iPhone, at least to begin with) and learn how to do the port yourself. The employment opportunities for someone who can do both platforms are enormous. (also, iPhone owners tend to be much more willing to spend money on apps, so the additional sales alone may make doing the port yourself a worthwhile investment)
well why you thinking about other people to port your application ? It has many disadvantages 1) You giving away your android code. 2) What if you update your app , you cant sure weather the first person who worked for it will available again , you will end up searching for another guy, who has to understand previous code in order to add any new functionality . on the flip side If u really coded that android app yourself then learning objective c is not that difficult.Oh wait you talking about hours to learn ios programming ? are you kidding ? . My suggestion is learn objective-c ,and do it yourself ,it may take some time but trust me in long term you will be benefited. Resources to learn ios programming : 1)Beginning iOS 5 Application Development (book) 2)If you need sample code about a particular class,Browse through apple documentation code. (its pretty good) P.S : You can use VMware to install mac on windows (but its illegal according to apple world!) ,Try to learn and code in that virtual machine until you get enough money to buy a new macbook pro ( you can find used ones cheap in craiglist)
114,545
I have developed [this android application](https://market.android.com/details?id=net.mindfsck.PosAff) and I am looking to port it to iOS. My questions are: 1) I am planning to finance the iOS development with the money earn't from the android sales which is about $200 at the moment. Would it be reasonable to get the project done for this amount even if it is outsourced to elance or odesk etc? 2) I have heard the code quality for outsourced iOS projects to be bad, I dont want any memory leaks and crashes because of overflows etc. 3) I currently dont have a full time job so I can technically do the project myself, however I dont have a apple pc or iPhone (dont really want to get them either). I know C pretty well but I haven't really released a major C project that must be 100% stable. How many hours to learn iOs and do the port? And would it be worth my time taking into consideration that if I do enjoy it I may get into it fulltime. 4) What would the demand be like for someone that can do Android and iOS? Thanks
2011/10/15
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/114545", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/38721/" ]
well why you thinking about other people to port your application ? It has many disadvantages 1) You giving away your android code. 2) What if you update your app , you cant sure weather the first person who worked for it will available again , you will end up searching for another guy, who has to understand previous code in order to add any new functionality . on the flip side If u really coded that android app yourself then learning objective c is not that difficult.Oh wait you talking about hours to learn ios programming ? are you kidding ? . My suggestion is learn objective-c ,and do it yourself ,it may take some time but trust me in long term you will be benefited. Resources to learn ios programming : 1)Beginning iOS 5 Application Development (book) 2)If you need sample code about a particular class,Browse through apple documentation code. (its pretty good) P.S : You can use VMware to install mac on windows (but its illegal according to apple world!) ,Try to learn and code in that virtual machine until you get enough money to buy a new macbook pro ( you can find used ones cheap in craiglist)
You should look into PhoneGap and see if it will help you with porting it to iOS. You don't need a Mac to do the port because PhoneGap basically turns your app into an HTML5 app that can run on practically any device.
183,419
I always see voltmeters connected in parallel with a component, but what happens if you connect it in series? I think it's due to the high resistance of a voltmeter but I don't *really* see why this would be a problem: It just means that the current going through the circuit is shifted down a level, but all things remain the same right? (Sorry if this is wrong, I just started learning circuits.) Thanks Note: I already saw [this](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/143204/why-are-ammeters-used-in-series-and-voltmeters-in-parallel) but I didn't understand the explanations there.
2015/05/11
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/183419", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/63672/" ]
> > I think it's due to the high resistance of a voltmeter but I don't really see why this would be a problem: It just means that the current going through the circuit is shifted down a level, but all things remain the same right? > > > Ideally, a voltmeter should have such a high resistance that it's equivalent to an open circuit. This means that when connected to some device in series, essentially no current will flow through it, and no current will reach the device being tested. Usually that means the device won't operate in a normal way.
@Jdeep - the voltmeter should read close to the output potential of the cell/battery, assuming the other components in the circuit have a total resistance that is significantly smaller than that of the voltmeter (which is the case a lot of the time, given the large typical resistance of a voltmeter).
94,713
I am looking to sharpen a knife, and i seem to be out of oil... Is there a quick hack or home substitute i could use for this? I have 3-in-1 oil (white bottle) but aside from that (in terms of tool oil) all i have is the standard home/cooking stuff, Vegetable, Mineral, Olive, etc.
2016/07/20
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/94713", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/46948/" ]
I regularly use 3-in-1 on my oilstones, to no ill effect. A commercial honing oil is thinner, but as long as it can float the metal particles, you're good. You can clean some out with a spray of WD-40, if it's starting to fill up. (The knife aficionados are going to hate this answer. It's got 3-in-1 and WD-40 in the same paragraph.)
Most commercial honing oils are heavy "naphthenic" oils and "light" mineral oil. Which basically means a thinned (mixture of) oil(s). The weight of mineral oil is a matter of carbon chain length. The longer the chain, the heavier and thicker (more viscous) the oil is. Now, mineral oil comes from petroleum. Honing oil is not like food grade mineral oil (which is comparable in viscosity, but has chain length of about 29 carbons; whereas vegetable oils have carbon lengths of usually 12 - 18 carbons). Honing-mineral oil is lighter in viscosity and has shorter chains than food grade mineral oil (like 17 - 27 carbons). And naptha, technically isn't really an oil at all (again, oils are chains of carbons). Naphtha looks like a figure 8, of carbons. But heavy naphthenic oils would be a slurry of naphtha and other substances with similar boiling points. However, I've seen people use spit, grape jelly, tongue oil, 3-in-1, baby oil, used motor oil, and used transmission fluid to sharpen blades. So, I suppose it doesn't matter very much what you use... but I would recommend oils derived from petroleum, especially because (besides being more viscous than good honing oil) vegetable oils contain fatty acids, which can incite rusting (not as bad as saliva though). With all that being said, viscosity is probably the next most important characteristic. If I were making a commercial or professional use honing oil, I would aim for a viscosity like that of commercial blends (about 9 centistokes at 40°C). Again, commercial blends are a mixture of *heavy* naphtha (viscosity of about 0.55 centistokes at 40°C) *light* mineral oil with a nominal viscosity of 70 (or 12.61 cStokes at 40°C). Note: the nominal viscosity of mineral oil (70-355) is nothing like motor oil (eg 10W30 has viscosity of about 64 cSt at 40°C... at 100°C it's about 10 cSt). Baby oil has a nominal viscosity of about 72 (or 13 cStokes at 40°C). Naphtha for lighers has a viscosity of about 0.3 cStokes at 40°C. Mixing different weights might achieve a similar effect... but if you could use something else having a viscosity in between 0.3 cSt and 13 cSt (at 40°C), I think it would work a little better. So, for what it's worth, kerosene (defined as 10 - 16 carbon chain molecules) has a viscosity of 1.46 cSt @ 40°C and deisel has a viscosity of about 7.9 @ 40°C. The viscosity of one particular *base* for a commercial honing oil (ingredients are listed as Mineral oil, Petroleum Distillates- Hydrotreated, and (mild) Light Naphthenic) is listed at 9.15cSt. So, I would try a mixture like: * 6 parts baby oil (13cSt) * 2 parts naphtha for lighters (0.3cSt) * 1 part deisel- 1D grade fuel (1.46cSt, very rough average) * 1 part kerosene (7.9cSt) Mathematically estimating the viscosity: (6x13 + 2x0.3 + 1.46 + 7.9)/10 = (roughly) 8.8 cSt. This is not really the way to determine viscosity (which depends on density of the liquids... in this example, it's being ignored), but it should be close (like within 10%).
159,975
Barad-dûr was a stupendously tall tower in Mordor and home to the Dark Lord Sauron. Apart from the big man himself, who actually lived there, though? It's hard to imagine such a huge building lying largely empty. Were there orcs who were assigned to stay there? I'd include people who worked in Barad-dûr or those who stayed there from time to time as well as any permanent residents. I have no specific time period in mind.
2017/05/21
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/159975", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/64888/" ]
**Orcs** From *The Two Towers*, Book III, Chapter 9, "Flotsam and Jetsam": > > 'All this about the Orcs of Barad-dûr, Lugbúrz as they call it, makes me uneasy,' said Aragorn. > > > The books are full of other references, particularly to the name Lugbúrz, and it's clear that in addition to Orcs the high command of Sauron's forces also dwell there. For example, from the earlier chapter "The Uruk-hai": > > 'You seem to know a lot,' said Ugluk. 'More than is good for you, I guess. Perhaps those in Lugbúrz might wonder how, and why.' > > >
As a small addition to Victim of Circumstance's answer, from [thelandofshadow.com](http://www.thelandofshadow.com/barad-dur-history/): > > The tower was full of treasure, weapons, armor, materials, great stores, **barracks for the footsoldiers** of the tower (on the lower levels), and rooms for **high-ranking captains like the Mouth of Sauron**. > > > From [tolkiengateway.com](https://tolkiengateway.net/wiki/Barad-d%C3%BBr): > > Around T.A. 1050 Sauron returned and secretly made a stronghold at Dol Guldur.[3] Gandalf did not discover that Sauron was the master of Dol Guldur until T.A. 2850, and in T.A. 2941 the White Council attacked the fortress. Sauron retreated to Barad-dûr, which the Nazgûl had prepared for him, and began to rebuild it in **T.A. 2951. From then on Sauron stayed in Barad-dûr** and conducted his war on the free people of Middle-earth from there. > > >
28,271
Suppose we have a smooth dynamical system on $R^n$ (defined by a system of ODEs). Assuming that the system has a finite set of fixed points, I am interested in knowing (or obtaining references about) what is the behaviour of its fixed point structure under perturbations of the ODEs. More specifically, i would like to know under which conditions the total number of fixed points remains the same. By perturbations I mean generic changes in the system of equations... the more general the better. I am sorry if the question is too basic, my interest comes from the study of the so-called renormalization flow in field theories. In particular, it would be important for me to generate an intuition about the conditions under which the approximations performed over a dynamical system alters its fixed point structure.
2010/06/15
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/28271", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/6091/" ]
A good reference for this sort of thing is Guckenheimer and Holmes, *Nonlinear Oscillations, Dynamical Systems, and Bifurcations of Vector Fields*, Springer-Verlag, 1983, if you're not already familiar with it (and even if you are, for that matter). Chapter 3 in particular is relevant to your question.
A little bit more general than the previous answer: Given a singularity of a vector field such that the derivative is invertible, the singularity persists under perturbations. This is because the zero of the vector field in this case is transversal (so, it persist by C1 perturbations). Otherwise, depending on the local structure in a local neighborhood, it can be "removed" after perturbation (in the case the index is zero) or bifurcate in more than one singularity (in the case the index is non zero and the singularity is not hyperbolic). Generic singularities are hyperbolic in the dissipative setting. In the conservative one, one may have elliptic singularities robustly, but generically these will be also persistent. This being local, may be studied in Rn as well as in a manifold.
28,271
Suppose we have a smooth dynamical system on $R^n$ (defined by a system of ODEs). Assuming that the system has a finite set of fixed points, I am interested in knowing (or obtaining references about) what is the behaviour of its fixed point structure under perturbations of the ODEs. More specifically, i would like to know under which conditions the total number of fixed points remains the same. By perturbations I mean generic changes in the system of equations... the more general the better. I am sorry if the question is too basic, my interest comes from the study of the so-called renormalization flow in field theories. In particular, it would be important for me to generate an intuition about the conditions under which the approximations performed over a dynamical system alters its fixed point structure.
2010/06/15
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/28271", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/6091/" ]
A little bit more general than the previous answer: Given a singularity of a vector field such that the derivative is invertible, the singularity persists under perturbations. This is because the zero of the vector field in this case is transversal (so, it persist by C1 perturbations). Otherwise, depending on the local structure in a local neighborhood, it can be "removed" after perturbation (in the case the index is zero) or bifurcate in more than one singularity (in the case the index is non zero and the singularity is not hyperbolic). Generic singularities are hyperbolic in the dissipative setting. In the conservative one, one may have elliptic singularities robustly, but generically these will be also persistent. This being local, may be studied in Rn as well as in a manifold.
If you are just interested in the number of the fixed points of the flow, you can just put your question in terms of zeros of the vector field; in this case the right tool is the topological degree, which is stable under small perturbations of the field in the uniform norm; and in absolute value is (generically) a lower bound on the number of the zeros. Of course, if the vector field is variational (it's the gradient if a functional) much stronger invariants are available (all the Morse complex machinery).
28,271
Suppose we have a smooth dynamical system on $R^n$ (defined by a system of ODEs). Assuming that the system has a finite set of fixed points, I am interested in knowing (or obtaining references about) what is the behaviour of its fixed point structure under perturbations of the ODEs. More specifically, i would like to know under which conditions the total number of fixed points remains the same. By perturbations I mean generic changes in the system of equations... the more general the better. I am sorry if the question is too basic, my interest comes from the study of the so-called renormalization flow in field theories. In particular, it would be important for me to generate an intuition about the conditions under which the approximations performed over a dynamical system alters its fixed point structure.
2010/06/15
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/28271", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/6091/" ]
A little bit more general than the previous answer: Given a singularity of a vector field such that the derivative is invertible, the singularity persists under perturbations. This is because the zero of the vector field in this case is transversal (so, it persist by C1 perturbations). Otherwise, depending on the local structure in a local neighborhood, it can be "removed" after perturbation (in the case the index is zero) or bifurcate in more than one singularity (in the case the index is non zero and the singularity is not hyperbolic). Generic singularities are hyperbolic in the dissipative setting. In the conservative one, one may have elliptic singularities robustly, but generically these will be also persistent. This being local, may be studied in Rn as well as in a manifold.
In order to develop your intuition, you might want to start with a flow having no fixed points -- so a constant nonzero vector field, say in the plane. Perturb it by a nice vector field, eg. polynomial (or polynomial times a positive function decaying to zero at infinity) until you get zeros for your vector field. Now, what is it you want to show, or preserve? Do you want to estimate how big the perturbation need be (in terms of the size of the initial nonzero vector field) in order for zeros to be created? I think you need to be a bit more specific about where you are headed, or what restrictions there are on your initial vector field and its allowed perturbations to get anywhere here.
28,271
Suppose we have a smooth dynamical system on $R^n$ (defined by a system of ODEs). Assuming that the system has a finite set of fixed points, I am interested in knowing (or obtaining references about) what is the behaviour of its fixed point structure under perturbations of the ODEs. More specifically, i would like to know under which conditions the total number of fixed points remains the same. By perturbations I mean generic changes in the system of equations... the more general the better. I am sorry if the question is too basic, my interest comes from the study of the so-called renormalization flow in field theories. In particular, it would be important for me to generate an intuition about the conditions under which the approximations performed over a dynamical system alters its fixed point structure.
2010/06/15
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/28271", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/6091/" ]
A good reference for this sort of thing is Guckenheimer and Holmes, *Nonlinear Oscillations, Dynamical Systems, and Bifurcations of Vector Fields*, Springer-Verlag, 1983, if you're not already familiar with it (and even if you are, for that matter). Chapter 3 in particular is relevant to your question.
If you are just interested in the number of the fixed points of the flow, you can just put your question in terms of zeros of the vector field; in this case the right tool is the topological degree, which is stable under small perturbations of the field in the uniform norm; and in absolute value is (generically) a lower bound on the number of the zeros. Of course, if the vector field is variational (it's the gradient if a functional) much stronger invariants are available (all the Morse complex machinery).
28,271
Suppose we have a smooth dynamical system on $R^n$ (defined by a system of ODEs). Assuming that the system has a finite set of fixed points, I am interested in knowing (or obtaining references about) what is the behaviour of its fixed point structure under perturbations of the ODEs. More specifically, i would like to know under which conditions the total number of fixed points remains the same. By perturbations I mean generic changes in the system of equations... the more general the better. I am sorry if the question is too basic, my interest comes from the study of the so-called renormalization flow in field theories. In particular, it would be important for me to generate an intuition about the conditions under which the approximations performed over a dynamical system alters its fixed point structure.
2010/06/15
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/28271", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/6091/" ]
A good reference for this sort of thing is Guckenheimer and Holmes, *Nonlinear Oscillations, Dynamical Systems, and Bifurcations of Vector Fields*, Springer-Verlag, 1983, if you're not already familiar with it (and even if you are, for that matter). Chapter 3 in particular is relevant to your question.
In order to develop your intuition, you might want to start with a flow having no fixed points -- so a constant nonzero vector field, say in the plane. Perturb it by a nice vector field, eg. polynomial (or polynomial times a positive function decaying to zero at infinity) until you get zeros for your vector field. Now, what is it you want to show, or preserve? Do you want to estimate how big the perturbation need be (in terms of the size of the initial nonzero vector field) in order for zeros to be created? I think you need to be a bit more specific about where you are headed, or what restrictions there are on your initial vector field and its allowed perturbations to get anywhere here.
28,271
Suppose we have a smooth dynamical system on $R^n$ (defined by a system of ODEs). Assuming that the system has a finite set of fixed points, I am interested in knowing (or obtaining references about) what is the behaviour of its fixed point structure under perturbations of the ODEs. More specifically, i would like to know under which conditions the total number of fixed points remains the same. By perturbations I mean generic changes in the system of equations... the more general the better. I am sorry if the question is too basic, my interest comes from the study of the so-called renormalization flow in field theories. In particular, it would be important for me to generate an intuition about the conditions under which the approximations performed over a dynamical system alters its fixed point structure.
2010/06/15
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/28271", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/6091/" ]
If you are just interested in the number of the fixed points of the flow, you can just put your question in terms of zeros of the vector field; in this case the right tool is the topological degree, which is stable under small perturbations of the field in the uniform norm; and in absolute value is (generically) a lower bound on the number of the zeros. Of course, if the vector field is variational (it's the gradient if a functional) much stronger invariants are available (all the Morse complex machinery).
In order to develop your intuition, you might want to start with a flow having no fixed points -- so a constant nonzero vector field, say in the plane. Perturb it by a nice vector field, eg. polynomial (or polynomial times a positive function decaying to zero at infinity) until you get zeros for your vector field. Now, what is it you want to show, or preserve? Do you want to estimate how big the perturbation need be (in terms of the size of the initial nonzero vector field) in order for zeros to be created? I think you need to be a bit more specific about where you are headed, or what restrictions there are on your initial vector field and its allowed perturbations to get anywhere here.
287,229
I dual booted ubuntu 12.04 LTS with Windows 8, but I wanted to get rid of ubuntu. So I got EasyBCD (on windows 8) and removed Ubuntu following a tutorial on youtube, then I got rid of the Ubuntu partitions. After restarting my Sony Vaio, it went to grub rescue and I'm not sure what to do. Help please! Much appreciated!! I installed ubuntu using a USB.
2013/04/28
[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/287229", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/153228/" ]
You need to use a windows installation cd and restore the bootloader on the MBR through the recovery environment or using the startup repair option under advanced settings. Here is a guide <http://www.redmondpie.com/how-to-fix-windows-8-mbr-master-boot-record/> Related support article: (unfortunately I could only find one for ~windows 7 but the previous guide is very straightforward) <http://support.microsoft.com/kb/927392#method1>
Install again Ubuntu "alongside" of Windows 8, now entering Windows 8. Install this software on Windows (is free): <http://download.cnet.com/MiniTool-Partition-Wizard-Home-Edition/3000-2094_4-10962200.html?part=dl-6285158&subj=dl&tag=button> Run the software, right click in your disk and after in "Rebuild MBR", after click in "Apply" in top, now you can delete the partitions by Ubuntu **with that software, it's not necessary to run Ubuntu**, and after click in Apply. Good luck!
83,045
Let's say I have some layers and a single different one, or a group of layers I want to export merged together, in a way that every single exported layer is merged with a specific layer or group of layers. In the example below I have some layers which need to be exported into JPG or PNG, merged with the very top layer called "Blurred". In my case, I want to export the layers (Jan 8 + Blurred) and (Layer 10 + Blurred) and so on. Acting as exporting layers merged with a master layer called "Blurred". My question in a simple way: how to apply a Master layer(s)/Group(s) in Photoshop to be exported with every layer I have? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6ec8X.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6ec8X.png)
2017/01/11
[ "https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/83045", "https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com", "https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/33194/" ]
How about this method: We have a text layer on top and 3 coloured layers beneath: [![The Layers](https://i.stack.imgur.com/b3jBD.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/b3jBD.png) Open the Timeline panel and select "Make Frames From Layers" from the menu. Delete the last frame, select all the remaining frames and turn on the top layer in the Layers panel. Now we have thumbnails of the files we need! [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/voYws.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/voYws.png) Select "Flatten Frames Into Layers" from the Timeline menu. Each of the flattened frames are added as new layers. Turn on all of these new layers (and nothing else) and select "File/Scripts/Export Layers To Files". Make sure to select "Visible Layers Only". I wouldn't save the document afterwards.
[![you can have something like this](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wSwFV.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wSwFV.png) Maybe you can create groups for both layers "layer 10" and "Jan 8" and copy paste Blurred layer inside of them, that way if you make a change in blurred smart object it gonna appear on both groups, then just export every group selecting both and right click > export as Please look at the image above as example
107,341
<https://www.google.com/search?q=western+musical+instruments> Will it be very few western musical instruments that can be played by human beings with one hand only? Example : Mouth organ.
2020/11/07
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/107341", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/71313/" ]
Bugles are one-handed. Trumpets, tenor and French horns would be playable to *some* extent. The pipe of a pipe and tabor! Flexatones are lovely things. I've seen virtuoso bass guitarists play whole pieces with one hand. At [OHMI](https://www.ohmi.org.uk/instruments.html) (One handed musical Instruments) there are all kinds of instruments and *adapted* instruments. The one-handed clarinets and Chapman Sticks look good. They also have supports for the trumpet and trombone.
Keyboard instruments such as piano, plucking instruments such as harp, .... many can be played with one hand only.
107,341
<https://www.google.com/search?q=western+musical+instruments> Will it be very few western musical instruments that can be played by human beings with one hand only? Example : Mouth organ.
2020/11/07
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/107341", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/71313/" ]
Bugles are one-handed. Trumpets, tenor and French horns would be playable to *some* extent. The pipe of a pipe and tabor! Flexatones are lovely things. I've seen virtuoso bass guitarists play whole pieces with one hand. At [OHMI](https://www.ohmi.org.uk/instruments.html) (One handed musical Instruments) there are all kinds of instruments and *adapted* instruments. The one-handed clarinets and Chapman Sticks look good. They also have supports for the trumpet and trombone.
Drums. Rick Allen, the drummer with Def Leppard, lost an arm in a car crash may years ago, but has carried on ever since (using an adapted kit, but nothing that any drummer couldn't put together using midi)
107,341
<https://www.google.com/search?q=western+musical+instruments> Will it be very few western musical instruments that can be played by human beings with one hand only? Example : Mouth organ.
2020/11/07
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/107341", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/71313/" ]
Bugles are one-handed. Trumpets, tenor and French horns would be playable to *some* extent. The pipe of a pipe and tabor! Flexatones are lovely things. I've seen virtuoso bass guitarists play whole pieces with one hand. At [OHMI](https://www.ohmi.org.uk/instruments.html) (One handed musical Instruments) there are all kinds of instruments and *adapted* instruments. The one-handed clarinets and Chapman Sticks look good. They also have supports for the trumpet and trombone.
Three hole pipe. Usually used in conjunction with a drum to form the pipe and tabor, but the pipe part is a one-hander
107,341
<https://www.google.com/search?q=western+musical+instruments> Will it be very few western musical instruments that can be played by human beings with one hand only? Example : Mouth organ.
2020/11/07
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/107341", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/71313/" ]
Keyboard instruments such as piano, plucking instruments such as harp, .... many can be played with one hand only.
Three hole pipe. Usually used in conjunction with a drum to form the pipe and tabor, but the pipe part is a one-hander
107,341
<https://www.google.com/search?q=western+musical+instruments> Will it be very few western musical instruments that can be played by human beings with one hand only? Example : Mouth organ.
2020/11/07
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/107341", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/71313/" ]
Drums. Rick Allen, the drummer with Def Leppard, lost an arm in a car crash may years ago, but has carried on ever since (using an adapted kit, but nothing that any drummer couldn't put together using midi)
Three hole pipe. Usually used in conjunction with a drum to form the pipe and tabor, but the pipe part is a one-hander
1,252,282
I have successfully removed Intel ME from the firmware by reflashing the BIOS using corna's tool: * <https://github.com/corna/me_cleaner> However I am still concerned about SMM. Intel ME and AMT vulnerabilities are horrible and classified as ring -3, however the SMM module also has plenty of vulnerabilities and possible rootkits and are classified as ring -2 vulnerability. I would like to remove or disable completely the SMM module as well. It is an Acer-Aspire laptop with an Insyde BIOS on it. I don't know to what degree the removal of the ME system affected the SMM module, do I need to remove the SMM as well? Is it possible at all? If so please tell me whether there are any other similar tools like corna's tool for ME that can remove the SMM as well.
2017/09/20
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1252282", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/769660/" ]
The best solution is to buy hardware you trust. The primary example is [CoreBoot](https://www.coreboot.org/). There are system integrators who sell CoreBoot based computers. If you buy from System76 or Purism you are supporting people who are building free and open firmware so you don't have to go down the path you are on. **ADDITIONAL READING:** * <https://puri.sm/projects/coreboot/> * <https://opensource.com/article/19/11/coreboot-system76-laptops>
[System Management Mode (SMM)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/System_Management_Mode): > > SMM is entered via the SMI (system management interrupt), which is invoked by: > > > * Motherboard hardware or chipset signaling via a designated pin SMI# of the processor chip. This signal can be an independent event. > * Software SMI triggered by the system software via an I/O access to a location considered special by the motherboard logic (port 0B2h is > common). > * An I/O write to a location which the firmware has requested that the processor chip act on. > > > This means that triggering SMM is a motherboard function, so depending on the motherboard firmware to be either enabled or not. The motherboard firmware itself is digitally protected from modification. SMM is specifically not an [Intel Management Engine (ME)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intel_Management_Engine) function. The SMM code that is triggered is part of the BIOS, which itself cannot be modified without possessing the manufacturer's digital key. SMM can however be subverted by changing the SMI interrupt address to point to code introduced by the attacker. All these actions require the attacker to operate inside kernel mode in order to subvert the SMI address and SMM code, and exploits do exist for that, as you have noted above. However, beside the intellectual satisfaction of such an exploit, its utility is doubtful: * Any SMM exploit will not survive a reboot * Subverting SMM requires the attacker to operate in kernel space, therefore to already be in control of the computer * The SMI interrupt is not called by Windows, so subverting it is not useful. My belief is that disabling or disactivating SMM is not possible, but its presence in your computer (if it's present) is not a vulnerability that an attacker would need (or bother) to attack. Because SMM is opaque to the operating system, it is not possible to test in Windows its presence or its correct functionality. Microsoft requires motherboard vendors to deliver a robust and secure platform, where SMM code was carefully analyzed and protected. To that effect, the vendor must confirm to Windows via the ACPI that certain security best practices have been implemented in SMM. For details see the article [Understanding the Windows SMM Security Mitigation Table (WSMT)](https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/design/device-experiences/oem-uefi-wsmt).
52,327
I refer to this question (which is protected, but I cannot answer because it is 'protected') [What are the differences between tone, note, and pitch?](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/3262/what-are-the-differences-between-tone-note-and-pitch). In it, Matthew Read accepts Kos' comment "I believe that note is more than a "named pitch", because it also carries information about the temporal length... Doesn't it? – Kos" and agrees that "note" is a named pitch with temporal information. Thus, 'tone' could be defined as (named/unnamed) note with information about timbre. A sound produced electronically consisting of a note on a single pitch could be a tone - perhaps a 'pure' tone, one without overtones. All other methods of producing sound have overtones so calling them whole tone or semitone on any instrument is correct.
2017/01/17
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/52327", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/36114/" ]
'Tone' is a word with at least 3 distinct meanings: * **a synonym for' timbre'** * **a note or sound - often an electronically-produced one.** * **an interval of a certain size (i.e. two semitones!)** * ...and probably more.... > > Can 'tone' be defined as "note with information about timbre"? > > > No, that isn't commonly-understood as a precise, *single* definition. It sounds like a blurring-together of the first two meanings above.
> > Thus, 'tone' could be defined as (named/unnamed) note with information > about timbre > > > No. As you referenced, *note* means a tone or pitch **with temporal information.**, as in *half-**note***, *quarter-**note*** etc. *Tone* has no connection to temporal information, as is clear from @topomorto 's definition. *Note* should not be connected to timbre at all. Many instruments, with a very wide variety of timbres, can all play exactly the same *notes*. A violin and a clarinet, for example, might play from identical notations, although their timbres are very different. “a note with information about timbre” is closer to *pitch* than to *tone*, which is usually understood to mean an abstract sound - an audio frequency - lacking information about timbre or time. *Pitch* is a *tone* **with** information about timbre. But again, *pitch*, like *tone*, has no connection to time, which is the essence of *note*: a discreet period in relative musical time.
38,101,336
I've tried the following: Deleting the fields Name and Type, saving the template (red square in screenshot) Selecting the field on the left tree and pressing delete (green in screenshot) Using the Builder Options menu and pressing Remove button (blue in screenshot) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/icU4C.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/icU4C.png) After any of these actions, the field would magically reappear. I've also tried renaming the field and the old name comes back. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? I thought it would be the easiest thing to delete a property.
2016/06/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/38101336", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/521446/" ]
If you are using Ucommerce you need to delete from product definition field not from Sitecore templates. UCommerce is using a data provider to bring product fields from ucommerce db to Sitecore db. That's the reason why fields are reaper in Sitecore. Please check here how to add and delete product definition fields : <http://docs.ucommerce.net/ucommerce/v6.9/getting-started/catalog-foundation/product-definitions.html>
You need to save the template after making these changes. Use Ctrl+S or click Save in the Home ribbon. To remove a field, you can also right click > delete in the Content Tree.
43,313
Given a bad balanced RGB image (in terms of white balance), how can I choose the proper color balance that needs to be applyed (as a RGB vector where 128,128,128 is the neutral)? Same question for a YUV image.
2013/10/11
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/43313", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/21665/" ]
If you have a known white or grey point, you want to calculate the ratio between the colors so that each is given a factor to multiply by. For example, in your 250,245,255 reference it would be 1.02, 1.0625, 1 since multiplying the sampled values for white would produce an actual white. (255,255,255). Since the sensor should be linearly responsive, this same ratio should be consistent for the entire light range. The exact math may vary a bit though depending on what type of entry your camera takes, but the principal is generally the same that you are trying to adjust the color channel's values by a factor to reach the corrected value.
> > Given a bad balanced RGB image (in terms of white balance), how can I choose the proper color balance that needs to be applyed (as a RGB vector where 128,128,128 is the neutral)? > > > The answer is, you can't, at least not without human judgement. If you have an RGB image with an incorrect white balance, there is no way to detemine what the correct white balance would have been computationally, with the RGB data alone. You would need a human brain that can interpret what's in the image and what areas of it should be white or neutral, from their own experience knowing what colours things should be. So you can never do this without some level of human guesswork or common sense for each image. Often the easiest way to do this is to identify an area of the image that should be white or neutral grey, and adjusting the white balance such that that area is pushed towards neutral grey. Image editing programs typically have a tool for doing this. However, if there is nothing that really *is* neutral grey in that picture, then you will simply have to adjust it by eye based on the un-scientific approach of "what looks right". If you were present when the picture was taken you could have held a grey card in front of the camera, lit by the same light source as the image you took and with the same white balance setting on-camera. But if you had the ability to do that, you probably also have had the ability to get the white balance right on the day.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
In one of the projects I worked, when it turned into Scrum, our earlier project manager alternatively took the roles of Product Owner and Scrum Master. It sort of worked for the 6 months I spent with that team, although it was not ideal (for me). He was the kind of guy who wanted to keep things under tight control, but did it fairly well (i.e. letting the team do its job and make its decisions when it was appropriate). The background of this was that the company was in a dire financial situation, although we (the team) got to know about it only some time later. So there was a reason to keep everything under tight control, to ensure that only the absolutely necessary stuff is being built, and the first version of the product is delivered on time.
One of the main problems with the traditional project manager role is that it separates authority from responsibility. The PM has complete authority over the project organization - (s)he decides what tasks need to be done, by whom, in what order, etc. But (s)he's not held accountable for the completion of these tasks or the quality of software that is produced. The team members are the only ones responsible. This creates a huge communication overhead, as to put back authority and decision in sync with operational work, team members constantly have to report everything that is done to the PM in addition to the rest of the team. It also creates a feeling of dispossession, powerlessness and a loss of purpose with the team members, which is a large source of frustration and discouragement. Agile somehow puts these notions back together - the authority over work organization is held by the team as a whole (through release, iteration and daily meetings) so that everyone feels like they can have a say in the matter, in return of which each of the team members has to take responsibility for producing quality software that works and make a strong commitment towards that goal. You could thus theoretically get rid of the project manager. Once you've said that, there are still duties traditionally assigned to the PM which still need to be taken care of though - lunivore described them quite accurately. As [this article](http://flowchainsensei.wordpress.com/2012/04/09/lay-off-the-managers/) suggests, in truly multi-skilled teams, one thing you could do is discard the project manager role, redistribute its duties among the team members and have former PMs become regular team members.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
I'd be fair and say that in my view what works for me is the Scrum master acting as the Project manager as well. Being a Scrum master isnt a full time job - once the team is mature the scrum master doesnt even need to attend the daily stand ups. There are more and more vacancies that I see for a Project Manager/ Scrum Master where companies do not want to differentiate these roles - rather have the same person handle both roles - ie: an Agile project manager.
One of the main problems with the traditional project manager role is that it separates authority from responsibility. The PM has complete authority over the project organization - (s)he decides what tasks need to be done, by whom, in what order, etc. But (s)he's not held accountable for the completion of these tasks or the quality of software that is produced. The team members are the only ones responsible. This creates a huge communication overhead, as to put back authority and decision in sync with operational work, team members constantly have to report everything that is done to the PM in addition to the rest of the team. It also creates a feeling of dispossession, powerlessness and a loss of purpose with the team members, which is a large source of frustration and discouragement. Agile somehow puts these notions back together - the authority over work organization is held by the team as a whole (through release, iteration and daily meetings) so that everyone feels like they can have a say in the matter, in return of which each of the team members has to take responsibility for producing quality software that works and make a strong commitment towards that goal. You could thus theoretically get rid of the project manager. Once you've said that, there are still duties traditionally assigned to the PM which still need to be taken care of though - lunivore described them quite accurately. As [this article](http://flowchainsensei.wordpress.com/2012/04/09/lay-off-the-managers/) suggests, in truly multi-skilled teams, one thing you could do is discard the project manager role, redistribute its duties among the team members and have former PMs become regular team members.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
Maybe you should present things like this: > > The project manager did not disappear in **Scrum**. He is still there. There is **three** of them now! > > > * **The Scrum Master**: he manages the process and solve impediments. That was the responsibility of the project manager before. * **The Product Owner**: he manages the backlog. That was the responsibility of the project manager before when he predicted everything in Microsoft Project. * **The Team**: self manage its production. Who and how a given user story is converted into a potentially releasable product increment. That was the responsibility of the project manager when he assigned tasks.
The Scrum roles are quite well defined (if they seem vague it is because they are meant to be applicable in different types of organizations), and since Scrum teams are always (well, commonly) of about the same size - i.e. not very big - it is relatively easy to agree on what they encompass, even if that varies depending on the underlying organization. Reading the question, answers and comments above, it seems obvious that the definition of the project manager role is much more difficult to nail down. I am sure that you can find a nice and compendious general definition of a PM's role, but what that actually means in real life is a totally different story. Anyway, as it works at my job, the project managers are very seldom involved with the actual "Scrumming". They are not allowed to be Scrum masters (a local conflict-of-interest rule that we all are quite happy about), and they are only product owners in exceptional cases. So where I work, the project managers are still there, doing pretty much what they always have done. Meaning that they keep the project on track, act as a filter against too much paranoia and micro-management tendencies from "above", solving problems that need a more clout than we posses to solve, and so on. I'm sure that this is quite different at other places, but for us it works great. **Edit**: Maybe I should clarify that for us, a Scrum team does not *replace* a project team. One or more Scrum teams are started to perform the actual development work *for* (and usually in) a project. The Scrum team(s) can (and probably always do) consist of the old team members, except for the project leader :-)
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
Maybe you should present things like this: > > The project manager did not disappear in **Scrum**. He is still there. There is **three** of them now! > > > * **The Scrum Master**: he manages the process and solve impediments. That was the responsibility of the project manager before. * **The Product Owner**: he manages the backlog. That was the responsibility of the project manager before when he predicted everything in Microsoft Project. * **The Team**: self manage its production. Who and how a given user story is converted into a potentially releasable product increment. That was the responsibility of the project manager when he assigned tasks.
For me this comes from a lack of understanding of what a Project Manager does and the rather generic nature of the PM title. I'm not an expert on SCRUM but I've always seen the SCRUM Master as replacing the development manager / team leader rather than the Project Manager. Project Managers (as defined by methodologies such as PRINCE2 - which is pretty much compatible with Agile methodologies) really aren't anything to do with the development process, they're looking after the project from a broader delivery perspective covering more than just the IT build. There are lots of things that sit within the Project Manager role that aren't covered elsewhere within Scrum (managing and monitoring the business case, managing the business stakeholders, elements of the project outside of the IT build such as reworking business processes, support, training and so on). If your PM is the guy who looks after the developers and doesn't do much more than that (for instance on projects which are largely IT only where the scope is pretty well defined) then it may well be that he's not going to be needed on a SCRUM project. But before someone says you don't need a PM for SCRUM, I'd want a pretty clear explanation of how the non-IT elements of the project are being covered and in particular who is managing the business case (because the users wanting it and it being something that should be done are different things). It may be that the PM ends up sitting more on the business side of the project - the Product Owner may well take on more of the PM's role than the Scrum Master but I think it's unlikely that he'll be gone entirely.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
There are a few things that a Project Manager can do that a Scrum Master or Product Owner might not be able to. * Project Managers usually have extensive experience in running projects (surprise!). * They are aware of common pitfalls, and can spot them and help head them off before they happen. * They are usually experienced negotiators, and can support other team members in discussions around deadlines, scope and conflicting requirements (very important if the PO is fairly new in the role). * They can manage the money. They have the power to hire and fire, and can help if someone on the team is incapable of performing in their role (through arranging training, counselling out, etc). * They can help ensure that the project fits effectively into a larger programme of work. * They can get stuff out of the team's way. * They can help guide company policies to be effective alongside Scrum (for instance, if testers are still being measured by the number of bugs found). * They can manage governance. * They can move the furniture. * Their vocabulary is that of the larger enterprise, and they can discuss the project - and the Scrum approach - in terms of risk, impact, ROI, options and differentiation. * They can explain to the board why the sudden transparency and occasional news of failure, coming through a sea of green reports, is good and useful to know. * A good PM can help you feel safe, sound cool and look great. Scrum doesn't mandate having a PM. But you might want to have one anyway.
I'd be fair and say that in my view what works for me is the Scrum master acting as the Project manager as well. Being a Scrum master isnt a full time job - once the team is mature the scrum master doesnt even need to attend the daily stand ups. There are more and more vacancies that I see for a Project Manager/ Scrum Master where companies do not want to differentiate these roles - rather have the same person handle both roles - ie: an Agile project manager.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
Maybe you should present things like this: > > The project manager did not disappear in **Scrum**. He is still there. There is **three** of them now! > > > * **The Scrum Master**: he manages the process and solve impediments. That was the responsibility of the project manager before. * **The Product Owner**: he manages the backlog. That was the responsibility of the project manager before when he predicted everything in Microsoft Project. * **The Team**: self manage its production. Who and how a given user story is converted into a potentially releasable product increment. That was the responsibility of the project manager when he assigned tasks.
There are a few things that a Project Manager can do that a Scrum Master or Product Owner might not be able to. * Project Managers usually have extensive experience in running projects (surprise!). * They are aware of common pitfalls, and can spot them and help head them off before they happen. * They are usually experienced negotiators, and can support other team members in discussions around deadlines, scope and conflicting requirements (very important if the PO is fairly new in the role). * They can manage the money. They have the power to hire and fire, and can help if someone on the team is incapable of performing in their role (through arranging training, counselling out, etc). * They can help ensure that the project fits effectively into a larger programme of work. * They can get stuff out of the team's way. * They can help guide company policies to be effective alongside Scrum (for instance, if testers are still being measured by the number of bugs found). * They can manage governance. * They can move the furniture. * Their vocabulary is that of the larger enterprise, and they can discuss the project - and the Scrum approach - in terms of risk, impact, ROI, options and differentiation. * They can explain to the board why the sudden transparency and occasional news of failure, coming through a sea of green reports, is good and useful to know. * A good PM can help you feel safe, sound cool and look great. Scrum doesn't mandate having a PM. But you might want to have one anyway.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
For me this comes from a lack of understanding of what a Project Manager does and the rather generic nature of the PM title. I'm not an expert on SCRUM but I've always seen the SCRUM Master as replacing the development manager / team leader rather than the Project Manager. Project Managers (as defined by methodologies such as PRINCE2 - which is pretty much compatible with Agile methodologies) really aren't anything to do with the development process, they're looking after the project from a broader delivery perspective covering more than just the IT build. There are lots of things that sit within the Project Manager role that aren't covered elsewhere within Scrum (managing and monitoring the business case, managing the business stakeholders, elements of the project outside of the IT build such as reworking business processes, support, training and so on). If your PM is the guy who looks after the developers and doesn't do much more than that (for instance on projects which are largely IT only where the scope is pretty well defined) then it may well be that he's not going to be needed on a SCRUM project. But before someone says you don't need a PM for SCRUM, I'd want a pretty clear explanation of how the non-IT elements of the project are being covered and in particular who is managing the business case (because the users wanting it and it being something that should be done are different things). It may be that the PM ends up sitting more on the business side of the project - the Product Owner may well take on more of the PM's role than the Scrum Master but I think it's unlikely that he'll be gone entirely.
I'd be fair and say that in my view what works for me is the Scrum master acting as the Project manager as well. Being a Scrum master isnt a full time job - once the team is mature the scrum master doesnt even need to attend the daily stand ups. There are more and more vacancies that I see for a Project Manager/ Scrum Master where companies do not want to differentiate these roles - rather have the same person handle both roles - ie: an Agile project manager.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
**Project manager:** a role within a traditional organization or enterprise. **Scrum master:** a role within a software development team using the Scrum methodology. Talking about project manager vs. scrum master is really talking about apples and oranges because the roles have different contexts. I've never heard of an organization that has "Scrum master" as an official title or pay grade. And project managers on any project, Scrum or otherwise, are often somewhat removed from day-to-day software development activities. Exactly what a project manager does and how much his/her role overlaps with that of a Scrum master or project owner depends heavily on the size and nature of the project, but there are certainly tasks normally attributed to a project manager that aren't specifically part of the Scrum master or project owner roles. On a small project it may be possible to expand the duties of the Scrum master or project owner roles to include those tasks (hiring, firing, purchasing, contract management, interfacing with higher-level executives, etc.). On a larger project, software development is just one part of project management, and the duties of the project manager and those of the Scrum master are unlikely to overlap much at all. A project manager should be the Scrum master's interface to the organization. The Scrum master should be the project manager's interface to the team. **So, are project managers useful in Scrum?** No, project managers are useful outside Scrum. They're not part of the Scrum software development methodology, but they provide the resources that allow Scrum to work.
The Scrum roles are quite well defined (if they seem vague it is because they are meant to be applicable in different types of organizations), and since Scrum teams are always (well, commonly) of about the same size - i.e. not very big - it is relatively easy to agree on what they encompass, even if that varies depending on the underlying organization. Reading the question, answers and comments above, it seems obvious that the definition of the project manager role is much more difficult to nail down. I am sure that you can find a nice and compendious general definition of a PM's role, but what that actually means in real life is a totally different story. Anyway, as it works at my job, the project managers are very seldom involved with the actual "Scrumming". They are not allowed to be Scrum masters (a local conflict-of-interest rule that we all are quite happy about), and they are only product owners in exceptional cases. So where I work, the project managers are still there, doing pretty much what they always have done. Meaning that they keep the project on track, act as a filter against too much paranoia and micro-management tendencies from "above", solving problems that need a more clout than we posses to solve, and so on. I'm sure that this is quite different at other places, but for us it works great. **Edit**: Maybe I should clarify that for us, a Scrum team does not *replace* a project team. One or more Scrum teams are started to perform the actual development work *for* (and usually in) a project. The Scrum team(s) can (and probably always do) consist of the old team members, except for the project leader :-)
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
Maybe you should present things like this: > > The project manager did not disappear in **Scrum**. He is still there. There is **three** of them now! > > > * **The Scrum Master**: he manages the process and solve impediments. That was the responsibility of the project manager before. * **The Product Owner**: he manages the backlog. That was the responsibility of the project manager before when he predicted everything in Microsoft Project. * **The Team**: self manage its production. Who and how a given user story is converted into a potentially releasable product increment. That was the responsibility of the project manager when he assigned tasks.
This question smells of [Scrumbut](http://www.scrum.org/scrumbut "'reasons why teams can’t take full advantage of Scrum...'"). Scrum is a subset of what is contained in a project management method (Prince2/PMP etc). In fact, if you look at the Prince2 process MP (managing product delivery), all the elements of Scrum can be contained there. The Scrum Master does not want to get bogged down in meetings with vendors, personnel, legal, finance, suppliers, executives or [BAU](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Business_as_usual_%28business%29 "business as usual") activity. They need to concentrate on removing impediments from the team on the current sprint, not negotiating how much an employment agency can cream off contractor rates in FY2011/12 or validating the escrow agreement with vendor x. If your Scrum Master is doing the above, you are not running Scrum, you are running Scrumbut. From experience the best combination is to have a Scrum Master for each team-lead and a project manager to coordinate the scrum masters in a Scrum of scrums fashion. Having a project manager in this role more effective due to reasons given above and their depth of experience. In turn, these project managers report into a Portfolio/Program Manager etc and all in the chain of command are at least certified Scrum Masters. Remember that Scrum is a tool for managing product delivery, at a layer of abstraction it can be used to run projects, but there are already far better processes out there for that.
40,465
There are three roles defined in Scrum: Team, Product Owner and Scrum Master. There is no project manager, instead the **project manager job is spread across the three roles**. For instance: * **The Scrum Master:** Responsible for the process. Removes impediments. * **The Product Owner:** Manages and prioritizes the list of work to be done to maximize ROI. Represents all interested parties (customers, stakeholders). * **The Team:** Self manage its work by estimating and distributing it among themselves. Responsible for meeting their own commitments. So in Scrum, there is no longer a single person responsible for project success. There is no command-and-control structure in place. That seems to baffle a lot of people, specifically those not used to agile methods, and of course, PM's. I'm really interested in this and what your experiences are, as I think this is one of the things that can make or break a Scrum implementation. ***Do you agree with Scrum that a project manager is not needed? Do you think such a role is still required? Why?***
2011/01/27
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/40465", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/5692/" ]
There are a few things that a Project Manager can do that a Scrum Master or Product Owner might not be able to. * Project Managers usually have extensive experience in running projects (surprise!). * They are aware of common pitfalls, and can spot them and help head them off before they happen. * They are usually experienced negotiators, and can support other team members in discussions around deadlines, scope and conflicting requirements (very important if the PO is fairly new in the role). * They can manage the money. They have the power to hire and fire, and can help if someone on the team is incapable of performing in their role (through arranging training, counselling out, etc). * They can help ensure that the project fits effectively into a larger programme of work. * They can get stuff out of the team's way. * They can help guide company policies to be effective alongside Scrum (for instance, if testers are still being measured by the number of bugs found). * They can manage governance. * They can move the furniture. * Their vocabulary is that of the larger enterprise, and they can discuss the project - and the Scrum approach - in terms of risk, impact, ROI, options and differentiation. * They can explain to the board why the sudden transparency and occasional news of failure, coming through a sea of green reports, is good and useful to know. * A good PM can help you feel safe, sound cool and look great. Scrum doesn't mandate having a PM. But you might want to have one anyway.
One of the main problems with the traditional project manager role is that it separates authority from responsibility. The PM has complete authority over the project organization - (s)he decides what tasks need to be done, by whom, in what order, etc. But (s)he's not held accountable for the completion of these tasks or the quality of software that is produced. The team members are the only ones responsible. This creates a huge communication overhead, as to put back authority and decision in sync with operational work, team members constantly have to report everything that is done to the PM in addition to the rest of the team. It also creates a feeling of dispossession, powerlessness and a loss of purpose with the team members, which is a large source of frustration and discouragement. Agile somehow puts these notions back together - the authority over work organization is held by the team as a whole (through release, iteration and daily meetings) so that everyone feels like they can have a say in the matter, in return of which each of the team members has to take responsibility for producing quality software that works and make a strong commitment towards that goal. You could thus theoretically get rid of the project manager. Once you've said that, there are still duties traditionally assigned to the PM which still need to be taken care of though - lunivore described them quite accurately. As [this article](http://flowchainsensei.wordpress.com/2012/04/09/lay-off-the-managers/) suggests, in truly multi-skilled teams, one thing you could do is discard the project manager role, redistribute its duties among the team members and have former PMs become regular team members.
9,864
Is it generally possible to change a credit card from one "specialty" to another, **without changing the credit card number or expiry date**? For example, is it possible to switch from a [TD Drivers Rewards Visa](http://www.tdcanadatrust.com/tdvisa/drivers_rewards.jsp) card to a [TD Platinum Travel Visa](http://www.tdcanadatrust.com/tdvisa/platinumtravel.jsp) card? Or, if TD Bank doesn't allow this, would you generally expect banks to allow this sort of change? Obviously, you cannot change from a visa card to a mastercard; this necessarily would involve changing the credit card number. Also, for the sake of this academic exercise, assume the person switching would qualify for the new card.
2011/07/27
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/9864", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/3983/" ]
It depends on if a new card would share the same [bank identification number](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Bank_Identification_Numbers). The first digits of your credit card identify what bank issues the card. Looking over the list on wikipedia, some banks have multiple numbers based on card type. If that is the case, you would need a new number.
Every Card type comes with its set of reward and other features. Today the systems that are in Bank are not geared up to change the type and keep the card number same. The reason being that for newer transactions they can still do it, however the historical transactions will become a mess, for example the rewards points calculated using older card type etc. Hence its easier for Banks to issue a new card number, close out the old number and transfer whatever is the balance. This is more clearner and easier for existing card Systems in Banks. Across Banks its just not possible for lot more reasons
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
You can only teach someone to fish if they want to learn how to fish. Yes many questions show far deeper issues that simply the question that is being asked, however the people who ask those questions can easily be split into 2 categories: * Those who care * Those who don't The people who don't care are never going to take a blind bit of notice - both you and they are better off if you just give them the fish and let them go on their merry way, The people who care on the other hand generally tend to be the people who will figure out these sorts of lessons themselves anyway, given enough time. More importantly, these people also tend to be the sort of people who **learn best if they figure something out for themselves.** You can tell them that parsing xml with regular expressions is a bad idea, but they won't really **know** why until they try to do it themselves, fail, and then *realise* why its a bad idea.
I usually provide an answer, then expand on it to discuss alternatives or ask more questions about what the use case may be that seems to be driving them towards whatever is causing me to wonder about the question. The reason I try to provide an answer is that, in a very real sense, the question stands on its own. It's not mere the OP whose problem it is that you are trying to help, but everyone who comes after them -- with whatever motivations -- who might be helped. In some cases, though, my answer might be along the lines of -- don't do that, it's just wrong. Sometimes you get punished for trying to improve a person's practices instead of simply answering the question. If you can't deal with that, then just move on, I suppose.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
I usually try to do a bit of both, where I feel it's appropriate. For homework questions I'm much more likely to give "fishing hints" rather than giving a whole fish. For "I need this for my job" questions I try to give the "fishing" bit first and *then* give the answer - that helps to stop people from only reading as far as the bit they need right now :) Admittedly there are time pressures here - it's a lot quicker *just* to give the fish, so sometimes that will have to do... but not usually for homework questions, as that's not really helping anyone.
I usually provide an answer, then expand on it to discuss alternatives or ask more questions about what the use case may be that seems to be driving them towards whatever is causing me to wonder about the question. The reason I try to provide an answer is that, in a very real sense, the question stands on its own. It's not mere the OP whose problem it is that you are trying to help, but everyone who comes after them -- with whatever motivations -- who might be helped. In some cases, though, my answer might be along the lines of -- don't do that, it's just wrong. Sometimes you get punished for trying to improve a person's practices instead of simply answering the question. If you can't deal with that, then just move on, I suppose.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Look, we've seen this [all the time](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1890472/jquery-css-add-color-to-un-ordered-list-items). What I try to do, is check if it is a duplicate (that generally this kind of simple questions have) and if there is none, provide as complete an answer as I can. I start explaining the background knowledge needed, later explaining the specifics for the OP situation and finally, I give them the fish, if I consider that it should be given (the OP is not asking how to do something illegal or technically stupid). Giving the fish in the last part of the question is important. Even if most people rush through questions/answers looking for the relevant information, the OP has a high chance of seen the introductory explanation, which could even say *don't do this, because ~~it's evil~~this, this and this*. Let's try get people to learn something new every day, not just make them practice copy n' paste.
Usually some people inevitably **come to the rescue** by throwing fish even in spite of an accepted quick solution. Sometimes the total fish carnage is quite respectful. In general most of us like **to know reasons why**, and we understand by leaving background info we are helping out still, even if a solution has already been accepted or even if we realize we're not apt to get many points. **Future visitors** to the pages will reap the benefits. The example cited by the author here might be filled out even more in the future - it won't necessarily always remain a quick fix. That's one of the beauties of SO. **Other side of the coin** Likewise where a quick answer is oft given for points sake (I do it too), when the author wants even more info, he/she can draw in more explanation by way of not accepting a solution and asking more comment questions pending acceptance.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Look, we've seen this [all the time](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1890472/jquery-css-add-color-to-un-ordered-list-items). What I try to do, is check if it is a duplicate (that generally this kind of simple questions have) and if there is none, provide as complete an answer as I can. I start explaining the background knowledge needed, later explaining the specifics for the OP situation and finally, I give them the fish, if I consider that it should be given (the OP is not asking how to do something illegal or technically stupid). Giving the fish in the last part of the question is important. Even if most people rush through questions/answers looking for the relevant information, the OP has a high chance of seen the introductory explanation, which could even say *don't do this, because ~~it's evil~~this, this and this*. Let's try get people to learn something new every day, not just make them practice copy n' paste.
I usually try to do a bit of both, where I feel it's appropriate. For homework questions I'm much more likely to give "fishing hints" rather than giving a whole fish. For "I need this for my job" questions I try to give the "fishing" bit first and *then* give the answer - that helps to stop people from only reading as far as the bit they need right now :) Admittedly there are time pressures here - it's a lot quicker *just* to give the fish, so sometimes that will have to do... but not usually for homework questions, as that's not really helping anyone.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Look, we've seen this [all the time](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1890472/jquery-css-add-color-to-un-ordered-list-items). What I try to do, is check if it is a duplicate (that generally this kind of simple questions have) and if there is none, provide as complete an answer as I can. I start explaining the background knowledge needed, later explaining the specifics for the OP situation and finally, I give them the fish, if I consider that it should be given (the OP is not asking how to do something illegal or technically stupid). Giving the fish in the last part of the question is important. Even if most people rush through questions/answers looking for the relevant information, the OP has a high chance of seen the introductory explanation, which could even say *don't do this, because ~~it's evil~~this, this and this*. Let's try get people to learn something new every day, not just make them practice copy n' paste.
You can only teach someone to fish if they want to learn how to fish. Yes many questions show far deeper issues that simply the question that is being asked, however the people who ask those questions can easily be split into 2 categories: * Those who care * Those who don't The people who don't care are never going to take a blind bit of notice - both you and they are better off if you just give them the fish and let them go on their merry way, The people who care on the other hand generally tend to be the people who will figure out these sorts of lessons themselves anyway, given enough time. More importantly, these people also tend to be the sort of people who **learn best if they figure something out for themselves.** You can tell them that parsing xml with regular expressions is a bad idea, but they won't really **know** why until they try to do it themselves, fail, and then *realise* why its a bad idea.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Look, we've seen this [all the time](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1890472/jquery-css-add-color-to-un-ordered-list-items). What I try to do, is check if it is a duplicate (that generally this kind of simple questions have) and if there is none, provide as complete an answer as I can. I start explaining the background knowledge needed, later explaining the specifics for the OP situation and finally, I give them the fish, if I consider that it should be given (the OP is not asking how to do something illegal or technically stupid). Giving the fish in the last part of the question is important. Even if most people rush through questions/answers looking for the relevant information, the OP has a high chance of seen the introductory explanation, which could even say *don't do this, because ~~it's evil~~this, this and this*. Let's try get people to learn something new every day, not just make them practice copy n' paste.
Great question indeed. I think you've already stumbled on one of the key points in the discussion: differentiating between a simple question with a simple answer and a question indicating there's a bigger problem. For the simple questions, the simple answer is probably best. As you've stated, the person posing the question is likely just looking for a quick fix. For the questions suggesting a bigger problem, I try to help them see the bigger problem and understand it. If I succeed, then they will be able to answer their own question once they understand the larger issue. That makes them a better developer/architect/whatever. As one of my teachers once said, my goal is not to teach you this particular set of rules and facts but to teach you to think. Once you can think, the rules and facts are easy to apply.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Great question indeed. I think you've already stumbled on one of the key points in the discussion: differentiating between a simple question with a simple answer and a question indicating there's a bigger problem. For the simple questions, the simple answer is probably best. As you've stated, the person posing the question is likely just looking for a quick fix. For the questions suggesting a bigger problem, I try to help them see the bigger problem and understand it. If I succeed, then they will be able to answer their own question once they understand the larger issue. That makes them a better developer/architect/whatever. As one of my teachers once said, my goal is not to teach you this particular set of rules and facts but to teach you to think. Once you can think, the rules and facts are easy to apply.
Usually some people inevitably **come to the rescue** by throwing fish even in spite of an accepted quick solution. Sometimes the total fish carnage is quite respectful. In general most of us like **to know reasons why**, and we understand by leaving background info we are helping out still, even if a solution has already been accepted or even if we realize we're not apt to get many points. **Future visitors** to the pages will reap the benefits. The example cited by the author here might be filled out even more in the future - it won't necessarily always remain a quick fix. That's one of the beauties of SO. **Other side of the coin** Likewise where a quick answer is oft given for points sake (I do it too), when the author wants even more info, he/she can draw in more explanation by way of not accepting a solution and asking more comment questions pending acceptance.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
I usually try to do a bit of both, where I feel it's appropriate. For homework questions I'm much more likely to give "fishing hints" rather than giving a whole fish. For "I need this for my job" questions I try to give the "fishing" bit first and *then* give the answer - that helps to stop people from only reading as far as the bit they need right now :) Admittedly there are time pressures here - it's a lot quicker *just* to give the fish, so sometimes that will have to do... but not usually for homework questions, as that's not really helping anyone.
You can only teach someone to fish if they want to learn how to fish. Yes many questions show far deeper issues that simply the question that is being asked, however the people who ask those questions can easily be split into 2 categories: * Those who care * Those who don't The people who don't care are never going to take a blind bit of notice - both you and they are better off if you just give them the fish and let them go on their merry way, The people who care on the other hand generally tend to be the people who will figure out these sorts of lessons themselves anyway, given enough time. More importantly, these people also tend to be the sort of people who **learn best if they figure something out for themselves.** You can tell them that parsing xml with regular expressions is a bad idea, but they won't really **know** why until they try to do it themselves, fail, and then *realise* why its a bad idea.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Great question indeed. I think you've already stumbled on one of the key points in the discussion: differentiating between a simple question with a simple answer and a question indicating there's a bigger problem. For the simple questions, the simple answer is probably best. As you've stated, the person posing the question is likely just looking for a quick fix. For the questions suggesting a bigger problem, I try to help them see the bigger problem and understand it. If I succeed, then they will be able to answer their own question once they understand the larger issue. That makes them a better developer/architect/whatever. As one of my teachers once said, my goal is not to teach you this particular set of rules and facts but to teach you to think. Once you can think, the rules and facts are easy to apply.
I usually provide an answer, then expand on it to discuss alternatives or ask more questions about what the use case may be that seems to be driving them towards whatever is causing me to wonder about the question. The reason I try to provide an answer is that, in a very real sense, the question stands on its own. It's not mere the OP whose problem it is that you are trying to help, but everyone who comes after them -- with whatever motivations -- who might be helped. In some cases, though, my answer might be along the lines of -- don't do that, it's just wrong. Sometimes you get punished for trying to improve a person's practices instead of simply answering the question. If you can't deal with that, then just move on, I suppose.
32,716
When you are answering questions here as well as in the real life what do you do if you feel there is a bigger issue/misunderstanding behind a simple(?) question asked? Sometimes the straight answer is pretty obvious. Just give the person asking the fix they want and be done with it. But what if the question shows that there is a bigger issue in play here? What if you know that even the right answer to the question will not solve the asker's real problem? What do you do? Ignore the question? Answer it and move on? Or try to explain the bigger context and related issues? So many people asking questions here are in just for a quick fix (and I fully appreciate this - some of them are under considerable pressure) so they ignore - or even downvote answers which are more complex than what they expect. But isn't it better to teach them to fish rather than giving them the correct answers which you know will not solve their problems? **Edit** It looks like it is time to select the "correct answer". It seems that everybody is pretty much of the same opinion - it is necessary to do both. Not that this is something unexpected for me \_ I have to admit that the question was as much a question as an expression of some frustration. Frustration not because my feeling offended/rejected - not that, frustration because people just skip over important stuff not realizing that they set themselves up for more problems, problems which would've been easily averted if they just pay attention. @Charles Stewart: What prompted the question? - It was multiple encounters more or less relevant to the topic. The one which stood out for me is [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1642853/good-f-programming-books/1681128#1681128). [F#](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F_Sharp_%28programming_language%29) is a beautiful language, but so many people out there think that it is C# with slightly different syntax. They have no idea how far from truth this is. Anyway - going back to the answer - All of them are good ones, but according to the rules I can only select one and will go with the crowd.
2009/12/11
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/32716", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/140269/" ]
Look, we've seen this [all the time](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1890472/jquery-css-add-color-to-un-ordered-list-items). What I try to do, is check if it is a duplicate (that generally this kind of simple questions have) and if there is none, provide as complete an answer as I can. I start explaining the background knowledge needed, later explaining the specifics for the OP situation and finally, I give them the fish, if I consider that it should be given (the OP is not asking how to do something illegal or technically stupid). Giving the fish in the last part of the question is important. Even if most people rush through questions/answers looking for the relevant information, the OP has a high chance of seen the introductory explanation, which could even say *don't do this, because ~~it's evil~~this, this and this*. Let's try get people to learn something new every day, not just make them practice copy n' paste.
I usually provide an answer, then expand on it to discuss alternatives or ask more questions about what the use case may be that seems to be driving them towards whatever is causing me to wonder about the question. The reason I try to provide an answer is that, in a very real sense, the question stands on its own. It's not mere the OP whose problem it is that you are trying to help, but everyone who comes after them -- with whatever motivations -- who might be helped. In some cases, though, my answer might be along the lines of -- don't do that, it's just wrong. Sometimes you get punished for trying to improve a person's practices instead of simply answering the question. If you can't deal with that, then just move on, I suppose.
163,992
My friends and I are currently raising a startup that will launch our first product at the end of Q3 this year. Apart from the freelance marketing team, this startup consists of three developers, which is two of my friends and I. My roles cover a lot of things, from code to sales. One of our developer having a 9-5 job at another company and another one working as a part-time coder at the hospital. We've been working on our product for nine months. And up until two months ago, the team is solid and seems enthusiastic. We have at least one feature pull-requested every day and we maintain daily reports via google meet. One day, one of our coders started to miss the deadline. He promised will open a pull request the next day or two, but simply didn't happen. He also started to not attend the daily report. After waiting for half sprint (one week), I ask him again on his task. He said his work in the company really takes all his time and energy. I can't verify whether it's true or not. But again, he promised to deliver his task at the weekend. Which, as you might guess, didn't happen. In fact, every time I discuss his commitment on this project, he always says that he is enthusiastic and fully committed. I just tired hearing positive answer from him but no action is really taken. So after realizing he might fail in a row of three sprints, I carry on, no longer remind or ask about his task, and take over all of his tickets. I also hope my other friend didn't do the same thing. But just last week, I started to see similar symptoms, again. We live in 3rd world country and our startup expense is paid by our own pocket. We're sensitive to the cost, it's hard to project personal expense at the time of this COVID-19 pandemic, and hiring is the last thing we want to do. Just by hiring a junior developer, we projected that we'll meet our end of the runway in 5-7 months. These two guys are (or maybe was) the one sharing the same vision with me. It's hard to find people that have the same vision as you are. I left my 9-5 job to build this startup. I have to take any action before things fall apart. Should I carry on, act as a single-fighter developer? Or there might be something else I need to do? ADDITION: I think some people misunderstood the situation. This startup initiated by three co-founders. All three are coming from developers background. So it's not me forcing people to code for the product for free. Each of us know that no one will get any buck before we acquired a customer.
2020/09/17
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/163992", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/91555/" ]
> > Should I carry on, act as a single-fighter developer? Or there might be something else I need to do? > > > You need to gather with your friends and have a good talk about the future of this project and the commitment they are willing to take. Together each one of you can decide if they are still able to commit to the project, and decide accordingly. Do this, so you are not left guessing or in the dark, and so you can then see if the option left is for you to do this solo. Be polite but firm and serious. Also, regarding your second friend, you've "just" seen "symptoms" of similar behavior. That doesn't necessarily mean that this friend is also burdened by their job at the hospital. Again, talk with both of them: with your first friend to see if they are still willing to commit to the project, and to the second friend to check what happened last week (so you know if they will not be able to continue before more time passes). Do this ASAP, as according to my knowledge Q3 of this year ends in 15 days right?
CEO does not build. CEO does sales. with sales, your team will see potential and get excited. Do not stay on to be the only developer. You should not be a developer at all. You should be selling your product, and raising funds.
163,992
My friends and I are currently raising a startup that will launch our first product at the end of Q3 this year. Apart from the freelance marketing team, this startup consists of three developers, which is two of my friends and I. My roles cover a lot of things, from code to sales. One of our developer having a 9-5 job at another company and another one working as a part-time coder at the hospital. We've been working on our product for nine months. And up until two months ago, the team is solid and seems enthusiastic. We have at least one feature pull-requested every day and we maintain daily reports via google meet. One day, one of our coders started to miss the deadline. He promised will open a pull request the next day or two, but simply didn't happen. He also started to not attend the daily report. After waiting for half sprint (one week), I ask him again on his task. He said his work in the company really takes all his time and energy. I can't verify whether it's true or not. But again, he promised to deliver his task at the weekend. Which, as you might guess, didn't happen. In fact, every time I discuss his commitment on this project, he always says that he is enthusiastic and fully committed. I just tired hearing positive answer from him but no action is really taken. So after realizing he might fail in a row of three sprints, I carry on, no longer remind or ask about his task, and take over all of his tickets. I also hope my other friend didn't do the same thing. But just last week, I started to see similar symptoms, again. We live in 3rd world country and our startup expense is paid by our own pocket. We're sensitive to the cost, it's hard to project personal expense at the time of this COVID-19 pandemic, and hiring is the last thing we want to do. Just by hiring a junior developer, we projected that we'll meet our end of the runway in 5-7 months. These two guys are (or maybe was) the one sharing the same vision with me. It's hard to find people that have the same vision as you are. I left my 9-5 job to build this startup. I have to take any action before things fall apart. Should I carry on, act as a single-fighter developer? Or there might be something else I need to do? ADDITION: I think some people misunderstood the situation. This startup initiated by three co-founders. All three are coming from developers background. So it's not me forcing people to code for the product for free. Each of us know that no one will get any buck before we acquired a customer.
2020/09/17
[ "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/163992", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com", "https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/91555/" ]
> > I have to take any action before things fall apart. > > > It's already fallen apart, I'm surprised it took 9 months. You need to make a decision to carry on solo or slowly watch it turn into dust. You also need to make sure you have sole ownership and can cut the others out if you need to. Realistically this was doomed to failure in the third World. You cannot expect that sort of commitment from people who are focused on making a living, unless you are paying them as full time employees.
CEO does not build. CEO does sales. with sales, your team will see potential and get excited. Do not stay on to be the only developer. You should not be a developer at all. You should be selling your product, and raising funds.
548,434
Is Big Bang Theory the only one to explain the creation of the Universe? I have read about Big-Bang Theory explaining the creation of Universe. Is there no other theory to explain the creation of Universe? If there is another theory please explain it to me. I will appreciate your help
2020/05/01
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/548434", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
"Multiverse" theories provide for universes (including our own) to be "local": There is no way to escape whichever one that all of us occupy, because such "local universes" are "causally separated" from each other, with the scales of space and time differing so greatly between them that we cannot travel from one to another, either because we would not fit into those in one spatial direction from our own, or because processes of subatomic decay (that have already been observed) would prevent both us and any of our conceivable descendants (even including robotic beings into whom our nervous systems might've been transferred) from lasting long enough to interact with whatever vastly larger inhabitants they might contain. The latter is the situation characterizing the Conformal Cyclic Cosmology mentioned earlier, and the former is the situation characterizing some "bouncing" cosmologies, which are generally "inflationary", meaning that each "locality's" Big Bang is almost exponentially more intense at the beginning than it had originally been thought to be, but tapers off into the nearly inertial expansion that we see as having occurred relatively nearby (but far outside our solar system) today. The most popular of the bouncing cosmologies may be Nikodem J. Poplawski's "Cosmology with torsion", which is described in a paper by that name, along with many others he's written between 2010 and 2020, all available free on the "Arxiv" website maintained by Cornell University: Some of them have also been carried in the printed journals endorsed by PSE. In "Cosmology with torsion", Poplawski describes it as "an alternative to cosmic inflation", but it's generally considered to be a version of inflation, whose older and more plainly "mainstream" version depends on a field of subatomic particles visualized by Alan Guth, who, in the 1980's, greatly simplified the original Big Bang theory by postulating such a field, which would have caused the spatial expansion (the "bang" itself), before deteriorating, at different times in the different sorts of localities I've mentioned, into the subatomic particles (mainly photons and electrons) that we see today. Although the primordial "inflaton" particles would have had some characteristics similar to the Higgs boson, the chances of any one of them being observed today would plainly be extremely low. As you mention a creation event, it would be the local big bang in the inflationary cosmologies I've just described: Poplawski's cosmology situates each of the local big bangs as occurring in one or another of the black holes for which much astronomical evidence has accumulated. (That evidence, however, only sustains the existence of the black holes themselves, not whatever might be going on "inside" them.) His theory is more complex, mathematically, than Guth's, although simplified plain-English descriptions of it may seem more plausible to laypersons, such as myself. In such descriptions, the spin of fermions materialized through the gravitational field of a star collapsing, after the nearly complete expenditure of the nuclear fuel whose energy had provided the outward pressure that had previously resisted that collapse, interacts with the spin of the much larger stellar fermions themselves, with the interaction reversing and accelerating the trajectories of the newly-materialized fermions outward to form a local universe, within the black hole, whose shape is analogous to a three-dimensional version of the surface of a sphere, and with that local universe thereafter continuing to expand more-or-less inertially, although much more slowly than the larger-scaled "parenting" local universe, within which the star that had eventually collapsed into the black hole had once formed, would itself be continuing a much larger version of just such an expansion: In effect, new particulate matter on a smaller scale is created in a reversal of processes involved in nuclear fusion, with some concentrated remnant of each collapsed star's original matter perhaps remaining at the center of its volume. Because the Borde-Guth-Vilenkin Theorem of 2003 requires that the inflationary (i.e., almost exponentially rapid) spatial expansion (which greatly simplifies the formation of the elements in the Periodic Table) must have either occurred in a single temporal direction or in a continuous balancing between expansion and contraction, Guth's version of inflation may seem more plausible in a society (ours) that was raised with some familiarity with a one-and-only big bang, which is the concept that prevailed in cosmology from the 1950's into the 1980's. It is also sometimes (incorrectly) identified with spiritual beliefs in general, although, even in the West, at least one major religion considers that time has always existed, which is a possibility consistent with the "balancing" mentioned in my previous sentence.
I am no expert in cosmology, but I do know about shockwaves and the Big Bang is just a shockwave in a compressible medium. It is fundamental that shockwaves lose information, and so observations made after a shock has passed allow only a limited reconstruction of what went before. There are apparently solutions to the Einstein equations that describe an explosion inside a pre-existing medium, and the post-shock properties are said to be indistinguishable from those of a shock that propagates into nothingness. See Smoller, J. and Temple, B., 2004. Cosmology, black holes and shock waves beyond the Hubble length. Methods and Applications of Analysis, 11(1), pp.077-132. I believe that this is not taken seriously by cosmologists but I dont know why.
548,434
Is Big Bang Theory the only one to explain the creation of the Universe? I have read about Big-Bang Theory explaining the creation of Universe. Is there no other theory to explain the creation of Universe? If there is another theory please explain it to me. I will appreciate your help
2020/05/01
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/548434", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
"Multiverse" theories provide for universes (including our own) to be "local": There is no way to escape whichever one that all of us occupy, because such "local universes" are "causally separated" from each other, with the scales of space and time differing so greatly between them that we cannot travel from one to another, either because we would not fit into those in one spatial direction from our own, or because processes of subatomic decay (that have already been observed) would prevent both us and any of our conceivable descendants (even including robotic beings into whom our nervous systems might've been transferred) from lasting long enough to interact with whatever vastly larger inhabitants they might contain. The latter is the situation characterizing the Conformal Cyclic Cosmology mentioned earlier, and the former is the situation characterizing some "bouncing" cosmologies, which are generally "inflationary", meaning that each "locality's" Big Bang is almost exponentially more intense at the beginning than it had originally been thought to be, but tapers off into the nearly inertial expansion that we see as having occurred relatively nearby (but far outside our solar system) today. The most popular of the bouncing cosmologies may be Nikodem J. Poplawski's "Cosmology with torsion", which is described in a paper by that name, along with many others he's written between 2010 and 2020, all available free on the "Arxiv" website maintained by Cornell University: Some of them have also been carried in the printed journals endorsed by PSE. In "Cosmology with torsion", Poplawski describes it as "an alternative to cosmic inflation", but it's generally considered to be a version of inflation, whose older and more plainly "mainstream" version depends on a field of subatomic particles visualized by Alan Guth, who, in the 1980's, greatly simplified the original Big Bang theory by postulating such a field, which would have caused the spatial expansion (the "bang" itself), before deteriorating, at different times in the different sorts of localities I've mentioned, into the subatomic particles (mainly photons and electrons) that we see today. Although the primordial "inflaton" particles would have had some characteristics similar to the Higgs boson, the chances of any one of them being observed today would plainly be extremely low. As you mention a creation event, it would be the local big bang in the inflationary cosmologies I've just described: Poplawski's cosmology situates each of the local big bangs as occurring in one or another of the black holes for which much astronomical evidence has accumulated. (That evidence, however, only sustains the existence of the black holes themselves, not whatever might be going on "inside" them.) His theory is more complex, mathematically, than Guth's, although simplified plain-English descriptions of it may seem more plausible to laypersons, such as myself. In such descriptions, the spin of fermions materialized through the gravitational field of a star collapsing, after the nearly complete expenditure of the nuclear fuel whose energy had provided the outward pressure that had previously resisted that collapse, interacts with the spin of the much larger stellar fermions themselves, with the interaction reversing and accelerating the trajectories of the newly-materialized fermions outward to form a local universe, within the black hole, whose shape is analogous to a three-dimensional version of the surface of a sphere, and with that local universe thereafter continuing to expand more-or-less inertially, although much more slowly than the larger-scaled "parenting" local universe, within which the star that had eventually collapsed into the black hole had once formed, would itself be continuing a much larger version of just such an expansion: In effect, new particulate matter on a smaller scale is created in a reversal of processes involved in nuclear fusion, with some concentrated remnant of each collapsed star's original matter perhaps remaining at the center of its volume. Because the Borde-Guth-Vilenkin Theorem of 2003 requires that the inflationary (i.e., almost exponentially rapid) spatial expansion (which greatly simplifies the formation of the elements in the Periodic Table) must have either occurred in a single temporal direction or in a continuous balancing between expansion and contraction, Guth's version of inflation may seem more plausible in a society (ours) that was raised with some familiarity with a one-and-only big bang, which is the concept that prevailed in cosmology from the 1950's into the 1980's. It is also sometimes (incorrectly) identified with spiritual beliefs in general, although, even in the West, at least one major religion considers that time has always existed, which is a possibility consistent with the "balancing" mentioned in my previous sentence.
The Big Bang model doesn't actually explain the creation of the universe. It only explains what happened afterwards. In Alan Guth's words, it did not say "what 'banged', how it 'banged', or what caused it to 'bang'". Explaining the moment of creation itself is a separate question that, to my knowledge, is very speculative because we don't have solid experimental evidence for physics theories that work at those energies. If you're interested in speculation, then take a look at [Eternal inflation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eternal_inflation). At the popular level, look at Alexander Vilenkin's book *[Many Worlds In One](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0809067226)*. At the more technical level, look at Alan Guth's paper *[Eternal inflation and its implications](https://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0702178)* or Sergei Winitzki's monograph *[Eternal Inflation](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/9812832394)*.
385,241
Some times when I start a file download (direct not p2p) I get download speeds way more than what was promised to me, but then it gradually decreases to a more (un)acceptable speed. Is it the file hosting server slowing the speed as a measure to DOS attack or is it my ISP realizing its mistake late ? And also why is the decline gradual and not abrupt ?
2012/02/02
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/385241", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/55019/" ]
Your ISP probably has a "boost". So, when you start the download it boosts your speed way up for the first couple of megs (this is common). Or the site you are connecting to could be doing the same thing.
It is possible that the server itself is throttling it. Some servers may prefer to throttle a client's connection except for the first few bytes (or KB, MB). This is more usual in FTP servers though. In this way clients downloading a small file has better user experience, and clients downloading a big file will not slow the server down too much.
385,241
Some times when I start a file download (direct not p2p) I get download speeds way more than what was promised to me, but then it gradually decreases to a more (un)acceptable speed. Is it the file hosting server slowing the speed as a measure to DOS attack or is it my ISP realizing its mistake late ? And also why is the decline gradual and not abrupt ?
2012/02/02
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/385241", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/55019/" ]
The calculation of download speed is prone to several issues that result in it giving a relatively inaccurate report at various times. The beginning of the download is perhaps most inaccurate. When you click the download link, depending on your browser and your settings you'll have to go through a process choosing where the file is to go on your computer. While you're working on this, your browser is actually downloading the file in the background to temporary storage. The download speed calculator will normally start calculating from when it first opens, which is after the file may have been downloading for a little while, which means it's got a whole of data to account for in it's calculation, but only a little bit of time, so the speed appears very, very high. As the time the download window is open comes closer to the amount of time the download has been actually been running, the download speed numbers become more and more accurate. You can test this by starting a download and letting the file save dialog prompt stay on your screen for a minute, allowing a large amount of data to download, then once you hit save you'll probably see some pretty impressive download speeds that have absolutely no bearing on reality. ISP Boost can also affect the speed numbers, as Opsin notes in his response, as can different download types and server types. Your ISP is not "realizing it's mistake" and you'll find, very clearly printed in all the small text of your agreement with the ISP, that they only promise "up to" the speed you're paying for. Depending on your ISP and connection type, you're sharing throughput with many other subscribers (if it's cable, you're sharing with everybody watching Chuck episodes after dinner too) and this will affect how much effective throughput you've got. If your ISP does not throttle BitTorrent, running a well seeded Torrent can get you the closest to your actual throughput of any type of download. Also, mid-day downloads of very large files from large sites like Microsoft.com will be a reasonably accurate throughput, as their hosting servers are pretty fast and well configured.
It is possible that the server itself is throttling it. Some servers may prefer to throttle a client's connection except for the first few bytes (or KB, MB). This is more usual in FTP servers though. In this way clients downloading a small file has better user experience, and clients downloading a big file will not slow the server down too much.
62,675
*Originally posted in the English Stack Exchange, but was suggested to post here.* I see it all the time in Facebook posters and memes where each row of text is of a different sized font, but with the margins justified. There are even [animations that use this feature](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QU7usI5HBWo). What is this called? Sample usage: "How to [*my word*]" as a google query. --- *Reason for asking: I am sure that there must be an automated way of doing this feature without a compass and slide rule, and that such a feature should be "googleable".* *(The content in these examples happens to be religious as I randomly took the examples from my Facebook feed. However, I have seen this feature in political memes and animated infomercials.)* This example has both vertical and horizontally aligned text. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dY3OU.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dY3OU.jpg)
2015/11/01
[ "https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/62675", "https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com", "https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/53075/" ]
This type of graphic art is generally known as **Typography**. Typography is the art and technique of arranging type to make written language both readable and appealing. However, Typography is a general term as it is used to refer to the structure and consistency of typefaces (fonts). The type of artwork you are looking at is also generally known as a **Typographic Design** in which words of a phrase or quote are arranged in creative ways by manipulating the size, spacing, thickness, and type of font usually to match the "meaning" of the phrase or quote. Here is an example of a Typographic Design that uses a quote: <https://www.behance.net/gallery/21925843/Quote-Typography-1-Imagination> You can begin searching on Google "Online Typography Maker" or "Online Typography Generator" and find online tools to create such a design. I have found one for you: <http://typographymaker.com/> However, I believe that online tools have very limited features and that you should start getting familiar with actual graphic design software such as Adobe Photoshop or Adobe Illustrator which will help you create much more powerful designs.
> > This example has both vertical and horizontally aligned text. > > > That's pretty much it. There's no other specific term for this. It's a style that's been used in various ways throughout history going back to handwritten illuminated manuscripts by the monks. Of more recent history, this was a style popular during the wood-type era where one had access to a wide variety of types to make the forced justification that much easier.
52,222,674
I try to run my lambda function with localstack. I installed awscli-local and localstack > > pip3 install awscli-local > > > pip3 install --user localstack --ignore-installed six > > > And then I started localstack > > LAMDBA\_EXECUTOR=docker localstack start --docker > > > When I now want to create my lambda function > > aws lambda create-function --function-name Test --zip-file > fileb://myLambda.zip --handler index.handler --runtime > 'nodejs6.10' --endpoint <http://localhost:4574> --role admin > > > I get this error > > An error occurred (ResourceConflictException) when calling the > CreateFunction operation: Function already exist: Test > > > Listing the functions returns nothing > > aws lambda list-functions --endpoint <http://localhost:4574> > > > Does someone know why localstack thinks that the function is already there?
2018/09/07
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/52222674", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4465464/" ]
You can invoke lambdas directly in localstack from the [Commandeer App](https://getcommandeer.com). It installs localstack under the hood with docker. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kL7K2.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kL7K2.png) There is a button on the lambda detail that allows you to specify the payload and then view the cloudwatch logs. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hucJn.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hucJn.png)
I'm also seeing this issue. Though it does not happen each time I try to create a lambda in localstack. What I have noticed is that lambda create seems to take a rather long time and cause a lot of CPU consumption on my mac while it is creating the lambda. My initial guess is that because of the time being take to create the ambda, something is timing out during the lambda creation and it's as if the creation is retried internally and it finds the lambda exits. If I query for the lambda after receiving this error message with `awslocal`, I see it exists. I am running this on a MBP with 32Gb of memory and upped the allocation of resources to the Docker engine to 16Gb and 8 processors in hopes of solving this with additional resources, but that has not seemed to help. Suggestions welcome.
355,460
If a wireless network does not assign an ip address/gateway ( automatic connection settings) automatically after connection, how can I find/setup correct ip and gateway address after connecting to the network?
2011/11/09
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/355460", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/104700/" ]
You could try listening on the wifi interface with [wireshark](http://www.wireshark.org/download.html). If anything else on the network knows the gateway, you'll see ARP requests for it. You'll at least get an idea of the network range from the traffic you see.
Sounds like DHCP is disabled. The default IP address of most routers is 192.168.0.1, check your documentation for your router if this is not the case. Different manufacturors certainly use different defaults. Also if the network has been setup it's very likely whoever administrates it will have changed it from default.
3,734,089
I am developing an App where I would need to perform HTTP Request using C#. Had in been PHP, I could use the HttpRequest class. Which class or group of class is best matched for the PHP HttpRequest by which I could make GET and POST Request.
2010/09/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3734089", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/326820/" ]
You can use [QTextEdit](http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.6/qtextedit.html) and [QSyntaxHighlighter](http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.6/qsyntaxhighlighter.html) together to get text editing features with syntax highlighting. See Qt's richtext\syntaxhighlighter example. QtScript is based on the ECMAScript scripting language as is JavaScript, so I guess you could use JavaScript syntax highlighting without any big problems. So if you don't want to code the new QSyntaxHighlighter from scratch, maybe you could use this [JavaScript editing widget](http://ariya.blogspot.com/2010/09/minimalistic-javascript-editing-widget.html).
Try [stealing the official one](http://svn://labs.trolltech.com/svn/qtscript/qtscriptdebug), you want src/editor/scripthighlighter.h and src/editor/scripthighlighter.cpp
3,734,089
I am developing an App where I would need to perform HTTP Request using C#. Had in been PHP, I could use the HttpRequest class. Which class or group of class is best matched for the PHP HttpRequest by which I could make GET and POST Request.
2010/09/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3734089", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/326820/" ]
You can use [QTextEdit](http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.6/qtextedit.html) and [QSyntaxHighlighter](http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.6/qsyntaxhighlighter.html) together to get text editing features with syntax highlighting. See Qt's richtext\syntaxhighlighter example. QtScript is based on the ECMAScript scripting language as is JavaScript, so I guess you could use JavaScript syntax highlighting without any big problems. So if you don't want to code the new QSyntaxHighlighter from scratch, maybe you could use this [JavaScript editing widget](http://ariya.blogspot.com/2010/09/minimalistic-javascript-editing-widget.html).
* Full-fledged code editor widget: [QCodeEdit](http://qcodeedit.org/) * Very simple solution: [QtScript highlighter](http://www.qtcentre.org/threads/25501-QtScript-script-text-editor-for-Qt-4-4-3-with-Syntax-Highlighter) (MultiLineCommentHighlighter class is defined [here](http://www.qtcentre.org/archive/index.php/t-25483.html))
3,734,089
I am developing an App where I would need to perform HTTP Request using C#. Had in been PHP, I could use the HttpRequest class. Which class or group of class is best matched for the PHP HttpRequest by which I could make GET and POST Request.
2010/09/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3734089", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/326820/" ]
You can use [QTextEdit](http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.6/qtextedit.html) and [QSyntaxHighlighter](http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.6/qsyntaxhighlighter.html) together to get text editing features with syntax highlighting. See Qt's richtext\syntaxhighlighter example. QtScript is based on the ECMAScript scripting language as is JavaScript, so I guess you could use JavaScript syntax highlighting without any big problems. So if you don't want to code the new QSyntaxHighlighter from scratch, maybe you could use this [JavaScript editing widget](http://ariya.blogspot.com/2010/09/minimalistic-javascript-editing-widget.html).
Try KatePart of KDE: <http://kate-editor.org/about-katepart/> To quote: > > KatePart is a fast and feature-rich text editor component with many advanced features. It implements the KTextEditor interfaces, a common interface collection for text editor components in KDE, allowing it to be selected as the editor in applications that lets the user chose from different implementations, and it can use KTextEditor plug-ins. > > > KatePart is originally based on code from the KDE 1 richtext editor widget, but has been almost completely rewritten over the years. It is the default text editor widget in Kate and KWrite and also the default to display text in Konqueror. A lot of other applications use it as text editing component, too, like KDevelop. > > >
3,734,089
I am developing an App where I would need to perform HTTP Request using C#. Had in been PHP, I could use the HttpRequest class. Which class or group of class is best matched for the PHP HttpRequest by which I could make GET and POST Request.
2010/09/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3734089", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/326820/" ]
See [QScintilla](http://www.riverbankcomputing.co.uk/software/qscintilla/intro). It has Javascript highlighting and (auto-)completion support built-in.
Try [stealing the official one](http://svn://labs.trolltech.com/svn/qtscript/qtscriptdebug), you want src/editor/scripthighlighter.h and src/editor/scripthighlighter.cpp