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1,687,912
Has anyone checked out a copy of Drupal 7 yet? What do people think? I'm pretty excited about the PDO and all of the designers I work with a very excited about the new admin interface/structure. Do we have any Drupal core developers here on Stack Overflow?
2009/11/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1687912", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/197375/" ]
It looks good, and the API is now frozen so module developers can get going before the final release. A lot of the strength of Drupal comes from the modules and until they are on D7 it won't have a huge amount of benefit over D6. The architectural changes are good and the api changes generally seem to be a step in the right direction. Personal favourite is RDF in core. [Eaton](https://stackoverflow.com/users/19411/eaton) is still the top Drupal answerer on SO, and has done a lot of work on Drupal [Greggles](https://stackoverflow.com/users/56791/greggles) has dabbled in SO and is part of the Drupal security team
I finally got around to signing up on SO, and I'm a core contributor. I'm obviously biased, but I think Drupal 7 is even more of an improvement over D6 than D6 was over D5. The easiest way to give it a spin is to sign up for a [Drupal Gardens](http://www.drupalgardens.com) account. It'll take a little while to get an invite though.
1,687,912
Has anyone checked out a copy of Drupal 7 yet? What do people think? I'm pretty excited about the PDO and all of the designers I work with a very excited about the new admin interface/structure. Do we have any Drupal core developers here on Stack Overflow?
2009/11/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1687912", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/197375/" ]
It looks good, and the API is now frozen so module developers can get going before the final release. A lot of the strength of Drupal comes from the modules and until they are on D7 it won't have a huge amount of benefit over D6. The architectural changes are good and the api changes generally seem to be a step in the right direction. Personal favourite is RDF in core. [Eaton](https://stackoverflow.com/users/19411/eaton) is still the top Drupal answerer on SO, and has done a lot of work on Drupal [Greggles](https://stackoverflow.com/users/56791/greggles) has dabbled in SO and is part of the Drupal security team
Drupal Gardens is now in public beta; it is free, and you can export your site at any time. Check out the [FAQ if you know Drupal](http://www.drupalgardens.com/content/how-do-drupal-7-and-drupal-gardens-differ).
1,687,912
Has anyone checked out a copy of Drupal 7 yet? What do people think? I'm pretty excited about the PDO and all of the designers I work with a very excited about the new admin interface/structure. Do we have any Drupal core developers here on Stack Overflow?
2009/11/06
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1687912", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/197375/" ]
I finally got around to signing up on SO, and I'm a core contributor. I'm obviously biased, but I think Drupal 7 is even more of an improvement over D6 than D6 was over D5. The easiest way to give it a spin is to sign up for a [Drupal Gardens](http://www.drupalgardens.com) account. It'll take a little while to get an invite though.
Drupal Gardens is now in public beta; it is free, and you can export your site at any time. Check out the [FAQ if you know Drupal](http://www.drupalgardens.com/content/how-do-drupal-7-and-drupal-gardens-differ).
43,931
My Banjo is fair to good quality and strings 1, 2, 3, and 5 all go up 1/2 step per fret as they are supposed to. The 4th string is tuned to D and I tune it quite flat and it doesn't go up 1/2 step, it continually goes sharp as I go higher up the frets. I see no obvious problems. Could it be something wrong wit the string itself? I haven't tried a different string.
2016/04/28
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/43931", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/28225/" ]
Are you sure the bridge is rightly positioned? Banjo intonation can some times be tricky, requiring the bridge to be positioned in a slightly oblique orientation to allow proper intonation of both the low and high strings. Try the harmonics at the octave fret in both the treble and bass D strings (1 and 4 counting upwards) making sure they give the same pitch as the pressed fret. If not, adjust slightly the bridge position **independently** for each extremity string. If the harmonic at mid point of the string has lower pitch than the pressed octave (12th) fret, then the string is shorter in length than it should be. Move the bridge slightly outwards (to the back of the banjo's pan) to make the string just a tiny bit longer. In the opposite case move bridge inwards. Once you adjust the bridge position for one string (say, #1 or high D), keep that position fixed (as if the point where the string touches the bridge was a fixed rotation axis) while adjusting the position for the other string (#4/low D). Finally check the middle and drone strings to make sure there isn't any problem. Since we cannot adjust the intonation of each string individually, adjusting a banjo's intonation is always a compromise. When you're satisfied with the intonation you got, don't be afraid to get a pencil and make a couple of small light marks on the skin marking the bridge position, so that you can quickly recover the position of the bridge when you change the strings or if it gets displaced by any reason. Don't be suprised if the bridge ends up tilted by a few degrees, that's normal. If however you find that you cannot get an acceptable intonation by this process or the bridge ends up ridiculously skewed, then there should be other problems, like suggested by the other answer.
If, by the 4th D string, you mean the lowest string of the banjo (there is some confusion about the numbering of banjo strings), then it's most likely that the string is at fault- it's probably not wound heavily enough. Are you sure it's the right kind of string?
31,815
I was on about 87 kg to 88 kg. With my height of 1,94 m, it was pretty damn good in terms of my BMI :) I nearly hit exactly the middle of the target value of a mid-twenty male. However, I started to train for a run a few weeks ago. I'm running nearly every second day (8 to 11 km) and do a few push-ups (20) and sit-ups (30) twice per day. I noticed that I've gained about 3 kg! Okay, I just would've thought "Yep, have to be the additional muscles" but it concerns me, that my BMI is out of range. Is the BMI reliable when it comes to added muscle mass? Should I try to stay in the target range regardless of the training?
2016/08/18
[ "https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/31815", "https://fitness.stackexchange.com", "https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/23303/" ]
BMI is just an average target, being healthy and fit varies per person. I used to be really underweight according to BMI measurements while feeling fine and working out almost daily (cycling, running) and eating properly. I've started doing weight training about 2 years ago and gained about 20kg (44lbs) in muscle, and according to BMI I am now your average joe, even thought I'm very muscular, and able to do things that most people in my gym cannot. What I'm trying to point out is that BMI isn't a 100% accurate measurement. Gaining a couple of pounds/kg is a good thing, don't let it put you off. You are getting healthier from doing a mix of cardio and weight training, that's for damn sure.
The respondanse have been correct, B.M.I is a flawed way of measuring fat to bone/muscle. Hip to waist measurements provide far a better idea of how much fat you carry. More sophisticated techniques give accurate measurements but are costly. What to do??? Not always easy to do, but simple to quantify, use more calories in exercise than consumed by mouth will ALWAYS do the job. A more simple take home message " Don't eat it if it takes too much effort to burn off" David W Cornwall
31,815
I was on about 87 kg to 88 kg. With my height of 1,94 m, it was pretty damn good in terms of my BMI :) I nearly hit exactly the middle of the target value of a mid-twenty male. However, I started to train for a run a few weeks ago. I'm running nearly every second day (8 to 11 km) and do a few push-ups (20) and sit-ups (30) twice per day. I noticed that I've gained about 3 kg! Okay, I just would've thought "Yep, have to be the additional muscles" but it concerns me, that my BMI is out of range. Is the BMI reliable when it comes to added muscle mass? Should I try to stay in the target range regardless of the training?
2016/08/18
[ "https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/31815", "https://fitness.stackexchange.com", "https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/23303/" ]
No, do not use BMI to gauge your fitness level. First of all, and I love pointing this out; the person who invented the BMI scale said that it should NOT be used to indicate the level of fatness in a person. Second of all, it was invented between 1830 and 1850. Our knowledge of the human body has evolved so much now, that it's a marvel that it's still being used. BMI categories are generally regarded as a tool for measuring whether sedentary individuals are underweight, overweight or obese with **various exceptions**, such as: athletes, children, the elderly, and the infirm. Look at that list of exceptions. The term "athletes" in this regard is really anyone who actively works out. Sources and extra reading: * Adolphe Quetelet — The Average Man and Indices of Obesity * [Commentary: Origins and evolution of body mass index (BMI): continuing saga](http://ije.oxfordjournals.org/content/early/2014/03/29/ije.dyu061.full)
The respondanse have been correct, B.M.I is a flawed way of measuring fat to bone/muscle. Hip to waist measurements provide far a better idea of how much fat you carry. More sophisticated techniques give accurate measurements but are costly. What to do??? Not always easy to do, but simple to quantify, use more calories in exercise than consumed by mouth will ALWAYS do the job. A more simple take home message " Don't eat it if it takes too much effort to burn off" David W Cornwall
36,786,329
I'm debugging C++ program compiled with MSVC under Windows. I want to investigate issue linked with multi threading. So I put ASSERT in my code and when program reaches ASSERT it displays window about ASSERT (Standart [Abort], [Retry], [Ignore] window) with proposal to pause program in debugger. I press [Retry] button and program pauses. BUT while I was pressing the button other threads continue to execute. So the question is how to immediately stop the program when it reaches some point to see what other threads was doing at that time?
2016/04/22
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36786329", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2000124/" ]
Select Device in-place of Simulator and then make Archive . [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1yhgt.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1yhgt.png)
[![enter image description here][1]][1] [1]: <http://i.stack.imgur.com/VQB3K.png> you need to select the 'Generic Ios device' and the go for product -> Archive
36,786,329
I'm debugging C++ program compiled with MSVC under Windows. I want to investigate issue linked with multi threading. So I put ASSERT in my code and when program reaches ASSERT it displays window about ASSERT (Standart [Abort], [Retry], [Ignore] window) with proposal to pause program in debugger. I press [Retry] button and program pauses. BUT while I was pressing the button other threads continue to execute. So the question is how to immediately stop the program when it reaches some point to see what other threads was doing at that time?
2016/04/22
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36786329", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2000124/" ]
Select Device in-place of Simulator and then make Archive . [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1yhgt.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1yhgt.png)
select device as Generic IOS Device in devices tab Goto Project -> Archive -> building of your project start after this organiser window will open in organiser window there is an option "Export" click on that and save your IPA on to your location
329,253
I am trying to understand pMOSFET. I searched online tutorial saying that pMOSFET is like a closed switch if V(gs) < V(threshold), like a open switch if V(gs) > V(threshold), V(threshold) typically -1.5V. But when I do an online simulation, it show the following result. Does anyone know why the left one has current from Drain to Source but the right one doesn't ? Left one does't satisfy V(gs) < V(threshold) condition to closed the switch, but still has current flows. And why sometimes the gate, drain or source is in green, sometimes in shadow ? [![pMOSFET](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BAzZA.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BAzZA.png)
2017/09/14
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/329253", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/161908/" ]
MOSFETs have a **body diode** which will conduct when the MOSFET is "backwards biased": in the case of a PMOS, when the drain-source voltage is greater than a diode drop. It helps to have a MOSFET symbol which has the body diode included: [![PMOS with body diode](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YuZLm.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YuZLm.jpg) This is an inherent "feature" or MOSFETs: in order to make MOSFETs work reliably, they end up with this body diode. In many applications: H-bridges, ideal rectifiers, etc, they come in handy, in others, not so much. However, that is simply part of the fun of using MOSFETs. For more information, see [Wikipedia: MOSFET body diode](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power_MOSFET#Body_diode) and [Digikey: Intrinsic Body Diodes](https://www.digikey.com/en/articles/techzone/2016/sep/the-significance-of-the-intrinsic-body-diodes-inside-mosfets). So, don't connect your MOSFETs upside-down :)
In a P-channel MOSFET, the source needs to be more positive than the drain, otherwise the terminals switch roles. That means that in figure 1, the bottom electrode is acting as the source even though it is supposed to be the drain. In this case, Vgs is -5, since the gate is at 0V and the source is at +5. Second, the MOSFET has a body diode that will conduct if the drain-to-source voltage is reversed. So even if you applied 5V to the gate -- which would turn off the MOSFET channel, you would still have conduction via the body diode.
540,910
While loading YouTube videos on Ubuntu 14.4 my screen goes black and yet everything still works, lights on the keyboard and the video plays. No amount of pressing buttons (ctrl+alt+f1, power button, mouse clicks etc..) can get the screen to turn on again. I've had ubuntu 14.4 for a few months now and this error started appearing yesterday and continues to black screen whenever i load YouTube. The only fix I can find is by hard shutting down the computer and restarting. That gets the screen to work, yet if i load youtube it repeats. My computer (laptop) is fairly old now and it maybe be a hardware error, yet i've been on 14.4 for a few months now and unless it was a new update i doubt it's my hardware. I'm not the only one having this problem: [Laptop screen goes black, but laptop still running](https://askubuntu.com/questions/534883/laptop-screen-goes-black-but-laptop-still-running) <https://askubuntu.com/questions/538392/laptop-running-ubuntu-14-04-screen-goes-black-while-playing-youtube-videos> I believe this error needs serious attention now and it may be due to a recent update as most people who have this error have posted on it recently. Here are my pc specs: [http://i.imgur.com/YlsHtuH](https://i.imgur.com/YlsHtuH) I'm willing to provide any information possible and thanks in advance for your interest in this problem! edit: I have found that if i don't have the tab with the video open, the screen doesn't black out. -des
2014/10/24
[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/540910", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/185988/" ]
As @AE indicates you can turn off hardware acceleration in chrome in the settings by chrome://settings/ -> 'advanced settings' -> untick 'use hardware acceleration' and restart chrome. In Firefox It's here: ![firefox-disable-accel](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1SW7l.png) A restart may be required here as well.
I think your problem maybe caused by adobe-flash. You can update your adobe flash plugin(<https://get.adobe.com/cn/flashplayer/>) or watch Youtube videos in a html5 format(recommended).(turn it on at <https://www.youtube.com/html5>) Hope can help you.
310,385
Which term is the correct one in British English for descring degrees in Celcius scale? I've always refered to it with minus, for instance: In Siberia there are minus 50 degrees. But today I saw [this](https://youtu.be/Fz4ZMLsPzqM) video in which the author is saying "negative 50" when refering to Celcius degrees. So, in short, I'd love to know wheather in British English we should say negative 50 degrees or minus 50 degrees.
2022/02/26
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/310385", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/12430/" ]
"It is minus fifty" (not there are minus fifty) Saying "negative fifty" is a slightly more scientific alternative. Both "minus" and "negative" are used.
You can have below-zero temperatures in Fahrenheit as well as Celsius. The usual spelling of the C degree name is Celsius. That's how the Swedish scientist (Anders Celsius) who invented the C scale spelled his name. 0 degrees F is minus 17.78 degrees Celsius, so 'sub zero temperatures' in Fahrenheit countries (the US and Liberia) is seriously cold. I don't think it gets that cold in Liberia. The lowest recorded temperature in Monrovia is 59.0°F (15°C), Minus 40 degrees is the same temperature in Celsius and Fahrenheit.
53,767,231
I've built an AWS CodePipeline to build and deploy containers into Fargate managed EC2 instances. Ref [AWS CodePipeline](https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/ecs-cd-pipeline.html) One of the services is a web server and I'm attempting to access it from the public which is possible via a public assigned IP address; however, that's not very useful as each deployed container receives a fresh IP address. I understand it's possible to setup Elastic IP addresses or point a domain to the container service but I'd think there is an easier way. EC2 instances can be launched with the option of providing a Public DNS... Is it possible to launch container services with a static public DNS record? If so, how?
2018/12/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/53767231", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3294568/" ]
Although it's not free, normally if you want a public DNS name to an ECS service (fargate or EC2) you'd front it with a load balancer (which can also do SSL termination, if you so desire). Because of that, AWS makes it easy to create a load balancer or add your service to an existing target group when you're setting up a service. I don't think you can change that after the fact, so you may need to recreate the service. Finally, when you have a load balancer in front of the ECS service, you just need to set up a CNAME or an A ALIAS in Route53 (if you're using Route53) to direct a DNS name to that load balancer. AWS has [a walkthrough](https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/compute/microservice-delivery-with-amazon-ecs-and-application-load-balancers/) from 2016 on the AWS Compute Blog quickly describing how to set up an ECS service and expose it using an Application Load Balancer. There is [another path](https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/architecture/field-notes-serverless-container-based-apis-with-amazon-ecs-and-amazon-api-gateway/) -- using ECS Service Discovery and AWS CloudMap, you can use an API Gateway. Your load balancing options are more limited, but API Gateways are billed based on usage rather than hours, so it can potentially save costs on lower-volume services. You can also use a single API Gateway in front of multiple ECS services, which some people are going to want to do anyway. This approach is less commonly employed, but might be the right path for some uses.
You can use [ECS Service Discovery](https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/service-discovery.html) for registering your containers in a private DNS namespace - unfortunately this is not possible with public DNS. But, what you can do, is to have a script * fetch your containers' public IP after redeployment and * upsert your public Route 53 record set with that IP. [In this article](https://medium.com/@andreas.pasch/automatic-public-dns-for-fargate-managed-containers-in-amazon-ecs-f0ca0a0334b5), we describe how to do exactly that by using a generic lambda function.
53,767,231
I've built an AWS CodePipeline to build and deploy containers into Fargate managed EC2 instances. Ref [AWS CodePipeline](https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/ecs-cd-pipeline.html) One of the services is a web server and I'm attempting to access it from the public which is possible via a public assigned IP address; however, that's not very useful as each deployed container receives a fresh IP address. I understand it's possible to setup Elastic IP addresses or point a domain to the container service but I'd think there is an easier way. EC2 instances can be launched with the option of providing a Public DNS... Is it possible to launch container services with a static public DNS record? If so, how?
2018/12/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/53767231", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3294568/" ]
Although it's not free, normally if you want a public DNS name to an ECS service (fargate or EC2) you'd front it with a load balancer (which can also do SSL termination, if you so desire). Because of that, AWS makes it easy to create a load balancer or add your service to an existing target group when you're setting up a service. I don't think you can change that after the fact, so you may need to recreate the service. Finally, when you have a load balancer in front of the ECS service, you just need to set up a CNAME or an A ALIAS in Route53 (if you're using Route53) to direct a DNS name to that load balancer. AWS has [a walkthrough](https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/compute/microservice-delivery-with-amazon-ecs-and-application-load-balancers/) from 2016 on the AWS Compute Blog quickly describing how to set up an ECS service and expose it using an Application Load Balancer. There is [another path](https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/architecture/field-notes-serverless-container-based-apis-with-amazon-ecs-and-amazon-api-gateway/) -- using ECS Service Discovery and AWS CloudMap, you can use an API Gateway. Your load balancing options are more limited, but API Gateways are billed based on usage rather than hours, so it can potentially save costs on lower-volume services. You can also use a single API Gateway in front of multiple ECS services, which some people are going to want to do anyway. This approach is less commonly employed, but might be the right path for some uses.
When I set up an ECS Fargate service for the first time, the setup wizard seems to have automatically (?) created a load balancer for me. I was able to access the web app that I created via the URL at Amazon ECS -> Clusters -> {my cluster} -> {my service} -> Target Group Name (under Load Balancing in the Details tab) -> {my target group} -> Load Balancer -> DNS Name
53,767,231
I've built an AWS CodePipeline to build and deploy containers into Fargate managed EC2 instances. Ref [AWS CodePipeline](https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/ecs-cd-pipeline.html) One of the services is a web server and I'm attempting to access it from the public which is possible via a public assigned IP address; however, that's not very useful as each deployed container receives a fresh IP address. I understand it's possible to setup Elastic IP addresses or point a domain to the container service but I'd think there is an easier way. EC2 instances can be launched with the option of providing a Public DNS... Is it possible to launch container services with a static public DNS record? If so, how?
2018/12/13
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/53767231", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3294568/" ]
You can use [ECS Service Discovery](https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/service-discovery.html) for registering your containers in a private DNS namespace - unfortunately this is not possible with public DNS. But, what you can do, is to have a script * fetch your containers' public IP after redeployment and * upsert your public Route 53 record set with that IP. [In this article](https://medium.com/@andreas.pasch/automatic-public-dns-for-fargate-managed-containers-in-amazon-ecs-f0ca0a0334b5), we describe how to do exactly that by using a generic lambda function.
When I set up an ECS Fargate service for the first time, the setup wizard seems to have automatically (?) created a load balancer for me. I was able to access the web app that I created via the URL at Amazon ECS -> Clusters -> {my cluster} -> {my service} -> Target Group Name (under Load Balancing in the Details tab) -> {my target group} -> Load Balancer -> DNS Name
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
Yes, but I'm not sure what this has to do with C++ or programming. A binary image could be an image where pixels are only either red or blue. Binary Image: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binary_image> Grayscale Image: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grayscale>
Yes, A binary image is one that consists of pixels that can have one of exactly two colors, usually black and white. It is also called bi-level or two-level. A gray scale image is a kind of black and white or gray monochrome are composed exclusively of shades of gray.
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
Yes, the one is grayscale, e.g. gray scales from 0.255, the binary imange is binary, that means black(0) or white(1). EDIT: Convert grayscale to binary. Directly converting color images (like RGB) to binary is not that easy, because you have to handle every color channel within the image seperatly. Converting to binary is done using a ceratin threshold. E.g. you can say, all pixels with gray > 125 will become white, the others black. There are several thresholding algorithm out there, but maybe the most common is Otsu. You can find it here [Thresholding by Otsu](http://homepages.inf.ed.ac.uk/rbf/CVonline/LOCAL_COPIES/MORSE/threshold.pdf)
Yes, but I'm not sure what this has to do with C++ or programming. A binary image could be an image where pixels are only either red or blue. Binary Image: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binary_image> Grayscale Image: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grayscale>
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
Yes, the one is grayscale, e.g. gray scales from 0.255, the binary imange is binary, that means black(0) or white(1). EDIT: Convert grayscale to binary. Directly converting color images (like RGB) to binary is not that easy, because you have to handle every color channel within the image seperatly. Converting to binary is done using a ceratin threshold. E.g. you can say, all pixels with gray > 125 will become white, the others black. There are several thresholding algorithm out there, but maybe the most common is Otsu. You can find it here [Thresholding by Otsu](http://homepages.inf.ed.ac.uk/rbf/CVonline/LOCAL_COPIES/MORSE/threshold.pdf)
A binary image has only two values for each pixel, 0 and 1 corresponding to black and white (or vice versa). A gray scale image has a certain number (probably 8) bits of information per pixel, hence, 256 possible grey values. Of course, a grey scale image has a binary representation, but the smallest size of information is not a bit, so we don't call it a binary image. **edit** Assuming you want to convert in Matlab, use [`im2bw`](http://www.mathworks.com/access/helpdesk/help/toolbox/images/im2bw.html). If you're not using Matlab, the idea of binarization is explained on that page as well. It's not difficult to port, it boils down to comparing every pixel to a threshold value.
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
Yes, but I'm not sure what this has to do with C++ or programming. A binary image could be an image where pixels are only either red or blue. Binary Image: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binary_image> Grayscale Image: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grayscale>
Yes **Binary Image** A binary image is a black and white image where each **pixel value is either 0 or 1.** The value 0 represents background or black and the value 1 represents foreground or white. **Grayscale Image** A grayscale image is a black and white image with various shades of gray. The pixel value of a grayscale image is represented as an 8 bit signed integer. i.e values between 0 and 255. The pixel value of the grayscale image represents the brightness of the pixel. **The value 0 is black, the value 255 is white, and the values in between makeup different shades of gray.**
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
Yes, the one is grayscale, e.g. gray scales from 0.255, the binary imange is binary, that means black(0) or white(1). EDIT: Convert grayscale to binary. Directly converting color images (like RGB) to binary is not that easy, because you have to handle every color channel within the image seperatly. Converting to binary is done using a ceratin threshold. E.g. you can say, all pixels with gray > 125 will become white, the others black. There are several thresholding algorithm out there, but maybe the most common is Otsu. You can find it here [Thresholding by Otsu](http://homepages.inf.ed.ac.uk/rbf/CVonline/LOCAL_COPIES/MORSE/threshold.pdf)
**Black and White** image contains only **two levels**. **Gray image** represent by black and white shades or combination of levels for **e.g.** **8 bit gray image** means total **2^8 levels** form black to **white 0 = black and 255 is White**.
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
Yes, the one is grayscale, e.g. gray scales from 0.255, the binary imange is binary, that means black(0) or white(1). EDIT: Convert grayscale to binary. Directly converting color images (like RGB) to binary is not that easy, because you have to handle every color channel within the image seperatly. Converting to binary is done using a ceratin threshold. E.g. you can say, all pixels with gray > 125 will become white, the others black. There are several thresholding algorithm out there, but maybe the most common is Otsu. You can find it here [Thresholding by Otsu](http://homepages.inf.ed.ac.uk/rbf/CVonline/LOCAL_COPIES/MORSE/threshold.pdf)
Yes, A binary image is one that consists of pixels that can have one of exactly two colors, usually black and white. It is also called bi-level or two-level. A gray scale image is a kind of black and white or gray monochrome are composed exclusively of shades of gray.
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
A binary image has only two values for each pixel, 0 and 1 corresponding to black and white (or vice versa). A gray scale image has a certain number (probably 8) bits of information per pixel, hence, 256 possible grey values. Of course, a grey scale image has a binary representation, but the smallest size of information is not a bit, so we don't call it a binary image. **edit** Assuming you want to convert in Matlab, use [`im2bw`](http://www.mathworks.com/access/helpdesk/help/toolbox/images/im2bw.html). If you're not using Matlab, the idea of binarization is explained on that page as well. It's not difficult to port, it boils down to comparing every pixel to a threshold value.
**Black and White** image contains only **two levels**. **Gray image** represent by black and white shades or combination of levels for **e.g.** **8 bit gray image** means total **2^8 levels** form black to **white 0 = black and 255 is White**.
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
**Black and White** image contains only **two levels**. **Gray image** represent by black and white shades or combination of levels for **e.g.** **8 bit gray image** means total **2^8 levels** form black to **white 0 = black and 255 is White**.
Yes, A binary image is one that consists of pixels that can have one of exactly two colors, usually black and white. It is also called bi-level or two-level. A gray scale image is a kind of black and white or gray monochrome are composed exclusively of shades of gray.
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
**Black and White** image contains only **two levels**. **Gray image** represent by black and white shades or combination of levels for **e.g.** **8 bit gray image** means total **2^8 levels** form black to **white 0 = black and 255 is White**.
Yes **Binary Image** A binary image is a black and white image where each **pixel value is either 0 or 1.** The value 0 represents background or black and the value 1 represents foreground or white. **Grayscale Image** A grayscale image is a black and white image with various shades of gray. The pixel value of a grayscale image is represented as an 8 bit signed integer. i.e values between 0 and 255. The pixel value of the grayscale image represents the brightness of the pixel. **The value 0 is black, the value 255 is white, and the values in between makeup different shades of gray.**
3,123,129
is there any difference between grey scale image and binary image?
2010/06/26
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3123129", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/375297/" ]
A binary image has only two values for each pixel, 0 and 1 corresponding to black and white (or vice versa). A gray scale image has a certain number (probably 8) bits of information per pixel, hence, 256 possible grey values. Of course, a grey scale image has a binary representation, but the smallest size of information is not a bit, so we don't call it a binary image. **edit** Assuming you want to convert in Matlab, use [`im2bw`](http://www.mathworks.com/access/helpdesk/help/toolbox/images/im2bw.html). If you're not using Matlab, the idea of binarization is explained on that page as well. It's not difficult to port, it boils down to comparing every pixel to a threshold value.
Yes, A binary image is one that consists of pixels that can have one of exactly two colors, usually black and white. It is also called bi-level or two-level. A gray scale image is a kind of black and white or gray monochrome are composed exclusively of shades of gray.
76,394
I play electric guitar and today I had an experience where the guitar would give very slight tingling sensations - I wouldn't quite call any of them a bad shock because none of them really hurt badly, but it was noticeable. My question is: how to I test if the outlet we use is grounded properly. My bassist who uses the same power strip also said he gets little shocks from his bass. We play at football games and we are on those metal bleachers doing pep band crap which requires us to use an extension cord that connects to a power strip - everything that is connected is three prong including the amps. Is this a situation where it's dangerous enough that I shouldn't plug in again until I know the reason why and fix it?
2015/10/17
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/76394", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/38364/" ]
YES, you should not plug in without testing the ground, and you really should be protected by a GFI when playing outdoors. It is dangerous because you could be shocked or even electrocuted by playing without a ground or with a faulty ground. The guitar player for The Yardbirds was killed this way, look it up. You can test for ground with an inexpensive plug-in device you can buy at any hardware store. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vzpO4.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vzpO4.jpg)
You could test the ground. Sometimes grounds are deliberately disconnected for audio / video equipment to eliminate noise problems. (Obviously that is a bad way to fix noise problems!) There are other wiring faults that could cause this issue, and some of them you can't count on an inexpensive outlet tester to find. So don't assume you're safe if the little tester says you are. You can get outlet strips and other portable devices that have GFCI built in, they are reasonably priced, not hard to find, and they can help protect you in situations like this.
19,854,777
In hadoop definitive guide : **a 1 MB file stored with a block size of 128 MB uses 1 MB of disk space, not128 MB**. what does this mean ? does it use 1MB of size in a block of 128MB or 1MB is used and reamining 127MB is free to occupy by some other file ?
2013/11/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19854777", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2961307/" ]
This is often a misconception about HDFS - the block size is more about how a single file is split up / partitioned, not about some reserved part of the file system. Behind the schemes, each block is stored on the DataNodes underlying files system as a plain file (and an associated checksum). If you look into the data node folder on your disks you should be able to find the file (if you know the file's block ID and data node allocations - which you can discover from the NameNode Web UI). So back to your question, a 1MB file with a block size of 16MB/32MB/128MB/512MB/1G/2G (you get the idea) will still only be a 1MB file on the data nodes disk. The difference between the block size and the amount of data stored in that block is then free for the underlying file system to use as it sees fit (by HDFS, or something else).
Hadoop Block size is Hadoop Storage Concept. Every Time When you store a File in Hadoop it will divided into the block sizes and based on the replication factor and data locality it will be distributed over the cluster. **For Details you can find my answer here** [Small files and HDFS blocks](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8562934/small-files-and-hdfs-blocks/46242588#46242588)
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
Critical Hits ============= When you score a critical hit (roll a natural 20 on the attack roll), you roll double damage. Therefore, you'll probably want to bring a **second** weapon die, depending on what weapon you'll be using. Greatswords and mauls are a 2d6 weapon, so you may want **four** d6s if you plan to use one of those. Half-orcs and barbarians each have a feature that grants one extra weapon die on a critical hit, so you may want another one extra if you'll play a half-orc or barbarian, or another two extra if you'll play a half-orc barbarian. For clarity, a weapon's die can be a d4, d6, d8, d10, d12, or 2d6. Spells ====== Damage-dealing spells like *fireball* usually require several dice to be rolled. Most spells require a number of dice equal to the **spell level plus one or two**. *Fireball* and *lightning bolt* are notable exceptions; they each are 3rd-level spells, but deal 8d6 damage. Spells with attack rolls can score critical hits, but most spells that require attack rolls are cantrips. Spells that provide a save DC (like *fireball*) cannot score critical hits. Spells tend to use d6s and d8s, but some (like *magic missile*) use d4s and some (like *inflict wounds*) use d10s. Spell damage does not passively increase as your character gains levels, but lower level spells can be cast with higher level slots. This usually adds one damage die per increased slot level. Cantrips ======== Cantrips do increase passively as your character gains levels (unrelated to which class, in case of multiclassing). Cantrips all deal **one** die of damage from levels 1-4, **two** dice from levels 5-10, **three** dice from levels 11-16, and **four** dice from levels 17-20. Most cantrips require attack rolls and therefore can score critical hits. Most cantrips deal 1d6 or 1d8 damage, but some (*vicious mockery*) deal 1d4 and some (*firebolt* and *eldritch blast*) deal 1d10. Advantage/Disadvantage ====================== Most situational modifiers have been replaced with the advantage/disadvantage mechanic. For advantage events you will roll two d20s and take the better, for disadvantage you will roll two d20s and take the worse. These are frequent enough that you will certainly want to bring **two** d20s. d100 ==== Occasionally, you may need to roll two d10s to emulate a d100 roll. Unless you are the DM or are playing a Wild Magic sorcerer, this event will be extremely rare. Class Features ============== Bardic Inspiration ------------------ Bards can distribute **up to 5** bardic inspiration dice to their allies. These dice are **d6s**, but they upgrade a die size (d8s, d10s, then finally d12s) every five levels. Superiority Dice ---------------- Battlemaster Fighters have special abilities that add a die to something (usually an attack or damage roll). At first you need **four d8s**, but at the number and size of the dice increase as you level (capping out at six d12s). Divine Smite ------------ Paladins can expend a spell slot to deal additional damage on a melee weapon attack. Like many spells, the damage equals a number of **d8s equal to the spell level plus one**. It deals an additional d8 of damage to undead and fiends. Colossus Slayer --------------- Hunter Rangers can take this option to deal an **additional d8** of damage to already-injured targets. Sneak Attack ------------ Rogues will often deal additional damage equal to **half their level in d6s** (rounded up). Wild Magic ---------- Wild Magic Sorcerers will probably roll a **d100** a few times each session to determine the additional effects of their spellcasting.
This really depends on the level of the characters, if starting with level 1's then the basic 7 dice set, or pair of each is more than enough to cover you for a while. At level 5 you get access to extra attacks and to level 3 spells. There might be a need to add additional dice, lightning bolt/fireball damage starts off at 8d6. Having multiple dice is always useful for speeding up game play, but you're not throwing around massive damage spells or attacks every combat round, and with the mechanics of spell damage being based on the level slot you are not throwing around tons of dice for a level 1 magic missile. I play with my family and while still low level they each have their own base dice set and I have a few extras as the DM and it's been more than sufficient. A pair of each dice and a couple extra D6's will hold you over without slowing down game-play. I have not run any games above level 10, but a few extra dice D6 and D8 again and any dice related to your primary weapons would probably help speed things up a bit.
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
Yes === You should bring extra dice to *any* roleplaying event. In large numbers. There are many situations where you need more dice and they are for the most part independent of the actual system you are playing: * Maybe 5 enemies attack. All with the same stats. Roll 5 dice. * Maybe all 5 hit and the character needs to dodge 5 times. Roll 5 dice. * Maybe someone forgot their dice. Just give them half of yours. * Maybe you got a bonus and your grenade or fireball does double damage. Roll all the dice together. And finally, if the enemy evil boss monster has just one life left, the barbarian is taking a swing with it's double-bladed laser axe of instant doom aaaand... *you roll your single die a bit too enthusiastically... off the table, over the floor and under the cupboard*. That's it. The die is gone. End of epic scene. **Or** you just ignore that one die, take the next and kill the big bad evil guy. Dice are dirt cheap. You need to make sure you buy *dice* and not *brand names*. If you do, a hundred will cost you less than a meal at your favorite burger place. Bringing only a set amount of dice because "I don't need more" is like bringing a set amount of candy because "I will not want more". Yeah. Like that ever worked :)
This really depends on the level of the characters, if starting with level 1's then the basic 7 dice set, or pair of each is more than enough to cover you for a while. At level 5 you get access to extra attacks and to level 3 spells. There might be a need to add additional dice, lightning bolt/fireball damage starts off at 8d6. Having multiple dice is always useful for speeding up game play, but you're not throwing around massive damage spells or attacks every combat round, and with the mechanics of spell damage being based on the level slot you are not throwing around tons of dice for a level 1 magic missile. I play with my family and while still low level they each have their own base dice set and I have a few extras as the DM and it's been more than sufficient. A pair of each dice and a couple extra D6's will hold you over without slowing down game-play. I have not run any games above level 10, but a few extra dice D6 and D8 again and any dice related to your primary weapons would probably help speed things up a bit.
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
The dice I always seem to be short on are d4s. For healing potions and magic missiles, mostly. Two d20s is essential, for rolling with advantage. But seriously folks, there's no such thing as "too many dice" :-)
This really depends on the level of the characters, if starting with level 1's then the basic 7 dice set, or pair of each is more than enough to cover you for a while. At level 5 you get access to extra attacks and to level 3 spells. There might be a need to add additional dice, lightning bolt/fireball damage starts off at 8d6. Having multiple dice is always useful for speeding up game play, but you're not throwing around massive damage spells or attacks every combat round, and with the mechanics of spell damage being based on the level slot you are not throwing around tons of dice for a level 1 magic missile. I play with my family and while still low level they each have their own base dice set and I have a few extras as the DM and it's been more than sufficient. A pair of each dice and a couple extra D6's will hold you over without slowing down game-play. I have not run any games above level 10, but a few extra dice D6 and D8 again and any dice related to your primary weapons would probably help speed things up a bit.
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
Critical Hits ============= When you score a critical hit (roll a natural 20 on the attack roll), you roll double damage. Therefore, you'll probably want to bring a **second** weapon die, depending on what weapon you'll be using. Greatswords and mauls are a 2d6 weapon, so you may want **four** d6s if you plan to use one of those. Half-orcs and barbarians each have a feature that grants one extra weapon die on a critical hit, so you may want another one extra if you'll play a half-orc or barbarian, or another two extra if you'll play a half-orc barbarian. For clarity, a weapon's die can be a d4, d6, d8, d10, d12, or 2d6. Spells ====== Damage-dealing spells like *fireball* usually require several dice to be rolled. Most spells require a number of dice equal to the **spell level plus one or two**. *Fireball* and *lightning bolt* are notable exceptions; they each are 3rd-level spells, but deal 8d6 damage. Spells with attack rolls can score critical hits, but most spells that require attack rolls are cantrips. Spells that provide a save DC (like *fireball*) cannot score critical hits. Spells tend to use d6s and d8s, but some (like *magic missile*) use d4s and some (like *inflict wounds*) use d10s. Spell damage does not passively increase as your character gains levels, but lower level spells can be cast with higher level slots. This usually adds one damage die per increased slot level. Cantrips ======== Cantrips do increase passively as your character gains levels (unrelated to which class, in case of multiclassing). Cantrips all deal **one** die of damage from levels 1-4, **two** dice from levels 5-10, **three** dice from levels 11-16, and **four** dice from levels 17-20. Most cantrips require attack rolls and therefore can score critical hits. Most cantrips deal 1d6 or 1d8 damage, but some (*vicious mockery*) deal 1d4 and some (*firebolt* and *eldritch blast*) deal 1d10. Advantage/Disadvantage ====================== Most situational modifiers have been replaced with the advantage/disadvantage mechanic. For advantage events you will roll two d20s and take the better, for disadvantage you will roll two d20s and take the worse. These are frequent enough that you will certainly want to bring **two** d20s. d100 ==== Occasionally, you may need to roll two d10s to emulate a d100 roll. Unless you are the DM or are playing a Wild Magic sorcerer, this event will be extremely rare. Class Features ============== Bardic Inspiration ------------------ Bards can distribute **up to 5** bardic inspiration dice to their allies. These dice are **d6s**, but they upgrade a die size (d8s, d10s, then finally d12s) every five levels. Superiority Dice ---------------- Battlemaster Fighters have special abilities that add a die to something (usually an attack or damage roll). At first you need **four d8s**, but at the number and size of the dice increase as you level (capping out at six d12s). Divine Smite ------------ Paladins can expend a spell slot to deal additional damage on a melee weapon attack. Like many spells, the damage equals a number of **d8s equal to the spell level plus one**. It deals an additional d8 of damage to undead and fiends. Colossus Slayer --------------- Hunter Rangers can take this option to deal an **additional d8** of damage to already-injured targets. Sneak Attack ------------ Rogues will often deal additional damage equal to **half their level in d6s** (rounded up). Wild Magic ---------- Wild Magic Sorcerers will probably roll a **d100** a few times each session to determine the additional effects of their spellcasting.
In my experience (I have a 5th level Ranger/Rogue in my current group), and if getting more dice isn't a hassle, I would for sure bring **2 D20(for when you need advantage or disadvantage), 1D12, 1D10, 1D8, 1D6, 1D4** for each player. *Additionally* I would look at each player to see what their most common attack is. For my ranger I use a short bow, with Hunter's mark, and Colossus damage often. (2D6 and 1D8) So as far as additional dice it all depends on what characters and their attack rolls they use the most. From the sessions we have played together we have 10D6 for a fireball and then borrow others dice when we score a critical and roll double or just roll it twice. In conclusion if I was a new GM I would again bring **2 D20,1D12,1D8,1D6,1D4, per player and have 1D12, 1D10, 2d8, 10D6, 2D4** on the side so they are quick to grab and use for when players score critical hits or when their attacks involve multiple dice. These are the dice I have used most often in my games. You could always have even more dice on the side if you are worried but that is where I would start.
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
Critical Hits ============= When you score a critical hit (roll a natural 20 on the attack roll), you roll double damage. Therefore, you'll probably want to bring a **second** weapon die, depending on what weapon you'll be using. Greatswords and mauls are a 2d6 weapon, so you may want **four** d6s if you plan to use one of those. Half-orcs and barbarians each have a feature that grants one extra weapon die on a critical hit, so you may want another one extra if you'll play a half-orc or barbarian, or another two extra if you'll play a half-orc barbarian. For clarity, a weapon's die can be a d4, d6, d8, d10, d12, or 2d6. Spells ====== Damage-dealing spells like *fireball* usually require several dice to be rolled. Most spells require a number of dice equal to the **spell level plus one or two**. *Fireball* and *lightning bolt* are notable exceptions; they each are 3rd-level spells, but deal 8d6 damage. Spells with attack rolls can score critical hits, but most spells that require attack rolls are cantrips. Spells that provide a save DC (like *fireball*) cannot score critical hits. Spells tend to use d6s and d8s, but some (like *magic missile*) use d4s and some (like *inflict wounds*) use d10s. Spell damage does not passively increase as your character gains levels, but lower level spells can be cast with higher level slots. This usually adds one damage die per increased slot level. Cantrips ======== Cantrips do increase passively as your character gains levels (unrelated to which class, in case of multiclassing). Cantrips all deal **one** die of damage from levels 1-4, **two** dice from levels 5-10, **three** dice from levels 11-16, and **four** dice from levels 17-20. Most cantrips require attack rolls and therefore can score critical hits. Most cantrips deal 1d6 or 1d8 damage, but some (*vicious mockery*) deal 1d4 and some (*firebolt* and *eldritch blast*) deal 1d10. Advantage/Disadvantage ====================== Most situational modifiers have been replaced with the advantage/disadvantage mechanic. For advantage events you will roll two d20s and take the better, for disadvantage you will roll two d20s and take the worse. These are frequent enough that you will certainly want to bring **two** d20s. d100 ==== Occasionally, you may need to roll two d10s to emulate a d100 roll. Unless you are the DM or are playing a Wild Magic sorcerer, this event will be extremely rare. Class Features ============== Bardic Inspiration ------------------ Bards can distribute **up to 5** bardic inspiration dice to their allies. These dice are **d6s**, but they upgrade a die size (d8s, d10s, then finally d12s) every five levels. Superiority Dice ---------------- Battlemaster Fighters have special abilities that add a die to something (usually an attack or damage roll). At first you need **four d8s**, but at the number and size of the dice increase as you level (capping out at six d12s). Divine Smite ------------ Paladins can expend a spell slot to deal additional damage on a melee weapon attack. Like many spells, the damage equals a number of **d8s equal to the spell level plus one**. It deals an additional d8 of damage to undead and fiends. Colossus Slayer --------------- Hunter Rangers can take this option to deal an **additional d8** of damage to already-injured targets. Sneak Attack ------------ Rogues will often deal additional damage equal to **half their level in d6s** (rounded up). Wild Magic ---------- Wild Magic Sorcerers will probably roll a **d100** a few times each session to determine the additional effects of their spellcasting.
Yes === You should bring extra dice to *any* roleplaying event. In large numbers. There are many situations where you need more dice and they are for the most part independent of the actual system you are playing: * Maybe 5 enemies attack. All with the same stats. Roll 5 dice. * Maybe all 5 hit and the character needs to dodge 5 times. Roll 5 dice. * Maybe someone forgot their dice. Just give them half of yours. * Maybe you got a bonus and your grenade or fireball does double damage. Roll all the dice together. And finally, if the enemy evil boss monster has just one life left, the barbarian is taking a swing with it's double-bladed laser axe of instant doom aaaand... *you roll your single die a bit too enthusiastically... off the table, over the floor and under the cupboard*. That's it. The die is gone. End of epic scene. **Or** you just ignore that one die, take the next and kill the big bad evil guy. Dice are dirt cheap. You need to make sure you buy *dice* and not *brand names*. If you do, a hundred will cost you less than a meal at your favorite burger place. Bringing only a set amount of dice because "I don't need more" is like bringing a set amount of candy because "I will not want more". Yeah. Like that ever worked :)
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
Critical Hits ============= When you score a critical hit (roll a natural 20 on the attack roll), you roll double damage. Therefore, you'll probably want to bring a **second** weapon die, depending on what weapon you'll be using. Greatswords and mauls are a 2d6 weapon, so you may want **four** d6s if you plan to use one of those. Half-orcs and barbarians each have a feature that grants one extra weapon die on a critical hit, so you may want another one extra if you'll play a half-orc or barbarian, or another two extra if you'll play a half-orc barbarian. For clarity, a weapon's die can be a d4, d6, d8, d10, d12, or 2d6. Spells ====== Damage-dealing spells like *fireball* usually require several dice to be rolled. Most spells require a number of dice equal to the **spell level plus one or two**. *Fireball* and *lightning bolt* are notable exceptions; they each are 3rd-level spells, but deal 8d6 damage. Spells with attack rolls can score critical hits, but most spells that require attack rolls are cantrips. Spells that provide a save DC (like *fireball*) cannot score critical hits. Spells tend to use d6s and d8s, but some (like *magic missile*) use d4s and some (like *inflict wounds*) use d10s. Spell damage does not passively increase as your character gains levels, but lower level spells can be cast with higher level slots. This usually adds one damage die per increased slot level. Cantrips ======== Cantrips do increase passively as your character gains levels (unrelated to which class, in case of multiclassing). Cantrips all deal **one** die of damage from levels 1-4, **two** dice from levels 5-10, **three** dice from levels 11-16, and **four** dice from levels 17-20. Most cantrips require attack rolls and therefore can score critical hits. Most cantrips deal 1d6 or 1d8 damage, but some (*vicious mockery*) deal 1d4 and some (*firebolt* and *eldritch blast*) deal 1d10. Advantage/Disadvantage ====================== Most situational modifiers have been replaced with the advantage/disadvantage mechanic. For advantage events you will roll two d20s and take the better, for disadvantage you will roll two d20s and take the worse. These are frequent enough that you will certainly want to bring **two** d20s. d100 ==== Occasionally, you may need to roll two d10s to emulate a d100 roll. Unless you are the DM or are playing a Wild Magic sorcerer, this event will be extremely rare. Class Features ============== Bardic Inspiration ------------------ Bards can distribute **up to 5** bardic inspiration dice to their allies. These dice are **d6s**, but they upgrade a die size (d8s, d10s, then finally d12s) every five levels. Superiority Dice ---------------- Battlemaster Fighters have special abilities that add a die to something (usually an attack or damage roll). At first you need **four d8s**, but at the number and size of the dice increase as you level (capping out at six d12s). Divine Smite ------------ Paladins can expend a spell slot to deal additional damage on a melee weapon attack. Like many spells, the damage equals a number of **d8s equal to the spell level plus one**. It deals an additional d8 of damage to undead and fiends. Colossus Slayer --------------- Hunter Rangers can take this option to deal an **additional d8** of damage to already-injured targets. Sneak Attack ------------ Rogues will often deal additional damage equal to **half their level in d6s** (rounded up). Wild Magic ---------- Wild Magic Sorcerers will probably roll a **d100** a few times each session to determine the additional effects of their spellcasting.
The dice I always seem to be short on are d4s. For healing potions and magic missiles, mostly. Two d20s is essential, for rolling with advantage. But seriously folks, there's no such thing as "too many dice" :-)
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
Yes === You should bring extra dice to *any* roleplaying event. In large numbers. There are many situations where you need more dice and they are for the most part independent of the actual system you are playing: * Maybe 5 enemies attack. All with the same stats. Roll 5 dice. * Maybe all 5 hit and the character needs to dodge 5 times. Roll 5 dice. * Maybe someone forgot their dice. Just give them half of yours. * Maybe you got a bonus and your grenade or fireball does double damage. Roll all the dice together. And finally, if the enemy evil boss monster has just one life left, the barbarian is taking a swing with it's double-bladed laser axe of instant doom aaaand... *you roll your single die a bit too enthusiastically... off the table, over the floor and under the cupboard*. That's it. The die is gone. End of epic scene. **Or** you just ignore that one die, take the next and kill the big bad evil guy. Dice are dirt cheap. You need to make sure you buy *dice* and not *brand names*. If you do, a hundred will cost you less than a meal at your favorite burger place. Bringing only a set amount of dice because "I don't need more" is like bringing a set amount of candy because "I will not want more". Yeah. Like that ever worked :)
In my experience (I have a 5th level Ranger/Rogue in my current group), and if getting more dice isn't a hassle, I would for sure bring **2 D20(for when you need advantage or disadvantage), 1D12, 1D10, 1D8, 1D6, 1D4** for each player. *Additionally* I would look at each player to see what their most common attack is. For my ranger I use a short bow, with Hunter's mark, and Colossus damage often. (2D6 and 1D8) So as far as additional dice it all depends on what characters and their attack rolls they use the most. From the sessions we have played together we have 10D6 for a fireball and then borrow others dice when we score a critical and roll double or just roll it twice. In conclusion if I was a new GM I would again bring **2 D20,1D12,1D8,1D6,1D4, per player and have 1D12, 1D10, 2d8, 10D6, 2D4** on the side so they are quick to grab and use for when players score critical hits or when their attacks involve multiple dice. These are the dice I have used most often in my games. You could always have even more dice on the side if you are worried but that is where I would start.
65,236
I will be playing my first 5e session here soon. I got to skim the basic rules PDF, so I know that it plays a bit like 3.5 with some modernization. (*Please don't stone me if I'm oversimplifying that*.) I'd like to know what I should bring in my dicebag. *I know that it's usually best to have one of each dice in D&D, regardless.* That's not the point. The point is that I'd like to know if gameplay can be improved/hastened by having multiples of any of the dice. For example, casting *fireball* in 3.5e without a big stack of d6's was a *very slow task*. Likewise, there were many, many instances in 4e where multiple dice of the same kind were rolled. Especially so for damage rolls on Encounter/Daily powers: [2w], [3w], etc. **Would be wise to bring extra dice of certain types?** I'm open for **theory** based on your understanding of the rules and what **may** come up as much as I'm interested in **personal experience**.
2015/07/24
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/65236", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/15152/" ]
The dice I always seem to be short on are d4s. For healing potions and magic missiles, mostly. Two d20s is essential, for rolling with advantage. But seriously folks, there's no such thing as "too many dice" :-)
In my experience (I have a 5th level Ranger/Rogue in my current group), and if getting more dice isn't a hassle, I would for sure bring **2 D20(for when you need advantage or disadvantage), 1D12, 1D10, 1D8, 1D6, 1D4** for each player. *Additionally* I would look at each player to see what their most common attack is. For my ranger I use a short bow, with Hunter's mark, and Colossus damage often. (2D6 and 1D8) So as far as additional dice it all depends on what characters and their attack rolls they use the most. From the sessions we have played together we have 10D6 for a fireball and then borrow others dice when we score a critical and roll double or just roll it twice. In conclusion if I was a new GM I would again bring **2 D20,1D12,1D8,1D6,1D4, per player and have 1D12, 1D10, 2d8, 10D6, 2D4** on the side so they are quick to grab and use for when players score critical hits or when their attacks involve multiple dice. These are the dice I have used most often in my games. You could always have even more dice on the side if you are worried but that is where I would start.
74,959
What color should a deletion confirmation message be? This is related to the question *[Should 'yes, delete it' be red, or green?](//ux.stackexchange.com/questions/49991/should-yes-delete-it-be-red-or-green)*, but different because this question asks about a passive confirmation message and not the active delete button. One might say green, the typical success color, but the delete button was red and it looks weird. Making the message red, because you just deleted something, also makes no sense because red is supposed to be for errors. In my specific case it's about rejecting or accepting proposals. The options are: ![Green background / success](https://i.snag.gy/a3X7C.jpg) (success) ![Red background / danger](https://i.snag.gy/YYFCX.jpg) (danger) ![Yellow background / warning](https://i.snag.gy/KFDbL.jpg) (warning) ![Blue background / info](https://i.snag.gy/5jNMR.jpg) (info) Making *rejected* bold puts more emphasis on the difference between *rejected* and *accepted*. The text could also be changed to "You have *successfully* rejected the proposal," which also puts more emphasis on the actual action regardless of the color. Using no color, a grey background with black text, looks weird. It doesn't look like a notification anymore at all, so I don't really consider it an option. Finally someone suggested having no message at all, since the proposal will be deleted from the list of proposals. That deletion in itself should be enough feedback, according to that person. I personally disagree, though. It feels weird. Overall, I lean towards green or blue (success or info). Red messages should be a failure of some kind, and the yellow warning also makes me feel like there is additional action I should take. Green doesn't look like a rejection (the reject button is red, the approve button is green) and blue also feels off for some reason. Which option should be used?
2015/03/17
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/74959", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/17283/" ]
I would recommend moving away from colour for confirmation messages in this case. I say this because it can be confusing for the user especially since you are using red and green for "Reject" and "Accept" so when they have successfully done an action moving from red to green can be disorientating and unworthy extra cognitive overflow. Take a look at Google how they are doing it with what they call snackbars and toasts. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8mgxP.png) By eliminating colour and using language such as "Successfully" like you mentioned it becomes less about the mental model associated with certain colours and more about the message. **Edit:** Have just seen Daniel answered with a very similar solution! If you have other messages then you pretty much have to follow the pattern you have created. So if this is considered a successful completion of an action and all other actions that are successful get a green message, then this needs to get a green message.
![Inbox Notification](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NRqQl.png) I find that the grey background with white text gives a very neutral feel and looks good on the eye as well. Unless it's good or bad, I would avoid green or red.
74,959
What color should a deletion confirmation message be? This is related to the question *[Should 'yes, delete it' be red, or green?](//ux.stackexchange.com/questions/49991/should-yes-delete-it-be-red-or-green)*, but different because this question asks about a passive confirmation message and not the active delete button. One might say green, the typical success color, but the delete button was red and it looks weird. Making the message red, because you just deleted something, also makes no sense because red is supposed to be for errors. In my specific case it's about rejecting or accepting proposals. The options are: ![Green background / success](https://i.snag.gy/a3X7C.jpg) (success) ![Red background / danger](https://i.snag.gy/YYFCX.jpg) (danger) ![Yellow background / warning](https://i.snag.gy/KFDbL.jpg) (warning) ![Blue background / info](https://i.snag.gy/5jNMR.jpg) (info) Making *rejected* bold puts more emphasis on the difference between *rejected* and *accepted*. The text could also be changed to "You have *successfully* rejected the proposal," which also puts more emphasis on the actual action regardless of the color. Using no color, a grey background with black text, looks weird. It doesn't look like a notification anymore at all, so I don't really consider it an option. Finally someone suggested having no message at all, since the proposal will be deleted from the list of proposals. That deletion in itself should be enough feedback, according to that person. I personally disagree, though. It feels weird. Overall, I lean towards green or blue (success or info). Red messages should be a failure of some kind, and the yellow warning also makes me feel like there is additional action I should take. Green doesn't look like a rejection (the reject button is red, the approve button is green) and blue also feels off for some reason. Which option should be used?
2015/03/17
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/74959", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/17283/" ]
![Inbox Notification](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NRqQl.png) I find that the grey background with white text gives a very neutral feel and looks good on the eye as well. Unless it's good or bad, I would avoid green or red.
**The message indicates a successful action, so if you're using color cues, this message should use the color of success: green, in your case**. The danger color (red, in this example) should be used when the user is *about to do* something destructive (e.g. "Are you sure you want to delete this?"), but the message you're asking about is for when the user has already *done* it. **The danger has passed, so you shouldn't use color cues that could indicate danger still being present**. Unless, of course, the situation is dangerous for some other reason.
74,959
What color should a deletion confirmation message be? This is related to the question *[Should 'yes, delete it' be red, or green?](//ux.stackexchange.com/questions/49991/should-yes-delete-it-be-red-or-green)*, but different because this question asks about a passive confirmation message and not the active delete button. One might say green, the typical success color, but the delete button was red and it looks weird. Making the message red, because you just deleted something, also makes no sense because red is supposed to be for errors. In my specific case it's about rejecting or accepting proposals. The options are: ![Green background / success](https://i.snag.gy/a3X7C.jpg) (success) ![Red background / danger](https://i.snag.gy/YYFCX.jpg) (danger) ![Yellow background / warning](https://i.snag.gy/KFDbL.jpg) (warning) ![Blue background / info](https://i.snag.gy/5jNMR.jpg) (info) Making *rejected* bold puts more emphasis on the difference between *rejected* and *accepted*. The text could also be changed to "You have *successfully* rejected the proposal," which also puts more emphasis on the actual action regardless of the color. Using no color, a grey background with black text, looks weird. It doesn't look like a notification anymore at all, so I don't really consider it an option. Finally someone suggested having no message at all, since the proposal will be deleted from the list of proposals. That deletion in itself should be enough feedback, according to that person. I personally disagree, though. It feels weird. Overall, I lean towards green or blue (success or info). Red messages should be a failure of some kind, and the yellow warning also makes me feel like there is additional action I should take. Green doesn't look like a rejection (the reject button is red, the approve button is green) and blue also feels off for some reason. Which option should be used?
2015/03/17
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/74959", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/17283/" ]
![Inbox Notification](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NRqQl.png) I find that the grey background with white text gives a very neutral feel and looks good on the eye as well. Unless it's good or bad, I would avoid green or red.
Already there are couple of good answers urging you from moving away from colors. I do agree with them. Considering the color blindness/cultural relations, **colors should always be used as a secondary mode of conveying any information**. But then again, if you are working with an application which already has alerts for success, failure which are using color cues then you would want to be consistent. In that scenario, **I'd stick with color in which all successes are shown**. It is a confirmation of a user action. I will augment the message with a appropriate symbol of Info, Success tick or a wrong cross or anything else as applicable. In addition, if you use red, assuming it is used across application for error, quickly initiates a response from user. s/he expects ways to correct any error that s/he must have encountered/made. In this case there is no error, so it would be a false alarm. **You would not want to create a system which is not consistent and programatically, deliberately creates false alarms**. This will also have an impact on your other error messages. Users will have some intellectual load to process to differentiate from a negative confirmation vs an actual error. **Furthermore you are assuming a rejection or any negative, deleting action is inherently dangerous/bad etc. Which definitely may not be the case**. An error message which differs from norm will give an impression that the action user performed is somehow considered in a bad light. You would not want to do that. The answers which steer clear of colors also show it in a message agnostic way. Your notifications and alerts should not vary on the content. Those should be more generic in nature, fundamentally denoting a success or failure of an operation.
74,959
What color should a deletion confirmation message be? This is related to the question *[Should 'yes, delete it' be red, or green?](//ux.stackexchange.com/questions/49991/should-yes-delete-it-be-red-or-green)*, but different because this question asks about a passive confirmation message and not the active delete button. One might say green, the typical success color, but the delete button was red and it looks weird. Making the message red, because you just deleted something, also makes no sense because red is supposed to be for errors. In my specific case it's about rejecting or accepting proposals. The options are: ![Green background / success](https://i.snag.gy/a3X7C.jpg) (success) ![Red background / danger](https://i.snag.gy/YYFCX.jpg) (danger) ![Yellow background / warning](https://i.snag.gy/KFDbL.jpg) (warning) ![Blue background / info](https://i.snag.gy/5jNMR.jpg) (info) Making *rejected* bold puts more emphasis on the difference between *rejected* and *accepted*. The text could also be changed to "You have *successfully* rejected the proposal," which also puts more emphasis on the actual action regardless of the color. Using no color, a grey background with black text, looks weird. It doesn't look like a notification anymore at all, so I don't really consider it an option. Finally someone suggested having no message at all, since the proposal will be deleted from the list of proposals. That deletion in itself should be enough feedback, according to that person. I personally disagree, though. It feels weird. Overall, I lean towards green or blue (success or info). Red messages should be a failure of some kind, and the yellow warning also makes me feel like there is additional action I should take. Green doesn't look like a rejection (the reject button is red, the approve button is green) and blue also feels off for some reason. Which option should be used?
2015/03/17
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/74959", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/17283/" ]
I would recommend moving away from colour for confirmation messages in this case. I say this because it can be confusing for the user especially since you are using red and green for "Reject" and "Accept" so when they have successfully done an action moving from red to green can be disorientating and unworthy extra cognitive overflow. Take a look at Google how they are doing it with what they call snackbars and toasts. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8mgxP.png) By eliminating colour and using language such as "Successfully" like you mentioned it becomes less about the mental model associated with certain colours and more about the message. **Edit:** Have just seen Daniel answered with a very similar solution! If you have other messages then you pretty much have to follow the pattern you have created. So if this is considered a successful completion of an action and all other actions that are successful get a green message, then this needs to get a green message.
**The message indicates a successful action, so if you're using color cues, this message should use the color of success: green, in your case**. The danger color (red, in this example) should be used when the user is *about to do* something destructive (e.g. "Are you sure you want to delete this?"), but the message you're asking about is for when the user has already *done* it. **The danger has passed, so you shouldn't use color cues that could indicate danger still being present**. Unless, of course, the situation is dangerous for some other reason.
74,959
What color should a deletion confirmation message be? This is related to the question *[Should 'yes, delete it' be red, or green?](//ux.stackexchange.com/questions/49991/should-yes-delete-it-be-red-or-green)*, but different because this question asks about a passive confirmation message and not the active delete button. One might say green, the typical success color, but the delete button was red and it looks weird. Making the message red, because you just deleted something, also makes no sense because red is supposed to be for errors. In my specific case it's about rejecting or accepting proposals. The options are: ![Green background / success](https://i.snag.gy/a3X7C.jpg) (success) ![Red background / danger](https://i.snag.gy/YYFCX.jpg) (danger) ![Yellow background / warning](https://i.snag.gy/KFDbL.jpg) (warning) ![Blue background / info](https://i.snag.gy/5jNMR.jpg) (info) Making *rejected* bold puts more emphasis on the difference between *rejected* and *accepted*. The text could also be changed to "You have *successfully* rejected the proposal," which also puts more emphasis on the actual action regardless of the color. Using no color, a grey background with black text, looks weird. It doesn't look like a notification anymore at all, so I don't really consider it an option. Finally someone suggested having no message at all, since the proposal will be deleted from the list of proposals. That deletion in itself should be enough feedback, according to that person. I personally disagree, though. It feels weird. Overall, I lean towards green or blue (success or info). Red messages should be a failure of some kind, and the yellow warning also makes me feel like there is additional action I should take. Green doesn't look like a rejection (the reject button is red, the approve button is green) and blue also feels off for some reason. Which option should be used?
2015/03/17
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/74959", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/17283/" ]
I would recommend moving away from colour for confirmation messages in this case. I say this because it can be confusing for the user especially since you are using red and green for "Reject" and "Accept" so when they have successfully done an action moving from red to green can be disorientating and unworthy extra cognitive overflow. Take a look at Google how they are doing it with what they call snackbars and toasts. ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8mgxP.png) By eliminating colour and using language such as "Successfully" like you mentioned it becomes less about the mental model associated with certain colours and more about the message. **Edit:** Have just seen Daniel answered with a very similar solution! If you have other messages then you pretty much have to follow the pattern you have created. So if this is considered a successful completion of an action and all other actions that are successful get a green message, then this needs to get a green message.
Already there are couple of good answers urging you from moving away from colors. I do agree with them. Considering the color blindness/cultural relations, **colors should always be used as a secondary mode of conveying any information**. But then again, if you are working with an application which already has alerts for success, failure which are using color cues then you would want to be consistent. In that scenario, **I'd stick with color in which all successes are shown**. It is a confirmation of a user action. I will augment the message with a appropriate symbol of Info, Success tick or a wrong cross or anything else as applicable. In addition, if you use red, assuming it is used across application for error, quickly initiates a response from user. s/he expects ways to correct any error that s/he must have encountered/made. In this case there is no error, so it would be a false alarm. **You would not want to create a system which is not consistent and programatically, deliberately creates false alarms**. This will also have an impact on your other error messages. Users will have some intellectual load to process to differentiate from a negative confirmation vs an actual error. **Furthermore you are assuming a rejection or any negative, deleting action is inherently dangerous/bad etc. Which definitely may not be the case**. An error message which differs from norm will give an impression that the action user performed is somehow considered in a bad light. You would not want to do that. The answers which steer clear of colors also show it in a message agnostic way. Your notifications and alerts should not vary on the content. Those should be more generic in nature, fundamentally denoting a success or failure of an operation.
740,432
I bought a new HD (1 TB) which was my D drive. I want the new HD to be C drive and someone helped me to change that. Now my new HD is C drive but with 2 OS (Windows 7 and Vista). My old HD is now D drive also with Windows 7 on it. So now I have 3 OS on my PC. How can I delete Vista on drive C and the other Win 7 on drive D. I only want the Windows 7 on the C drive. Windows 7 Ultimate must be my main and only OS. So..... When I delete the "Windows old" directory it should work fine or do I still have to do the boot ini thing? Where do I get this bcd?
2014/04/11
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/740432", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/314769/" ]
Boot up the machine using a Linux LiveCD, such as Ubuntu. Then you should be able to edit the disk partitions with `gparted` and delete one. You can then create a new partition in the free space, or expand one of the other ones to fill it. The problem with using Disk Manager through Windows, is you may find it impossible to edit the disk that's currently in use.
When you install another copy of windows on partition which already contains windows, the old one is moved to windows.old directory. All you have to do to get rid of it is deleting this directory. Second step is fixing your boot.ini file. The easiest way is using 3rd party software like easyBCD to remove spare entries. Be careful though - deleting wrong entries will make your PC unbootable and you'll need windows installation disk to fix it.
740,432
I bought a new HD (1 TB) which was my D drive. I want the new HD to be C drive and someone helped me to change that. Now my new HD is C drive but with 2 OS (Windows 7 and Vista). My old HD is now D drive also with Windows 7 on it. So now I have 3 OS on my PC. How can I delete Vista on drive C and the other Win 7 on drive D. I only want the Windows 7 on the C drive. Windows 7 Ultimate must be my main and only OS. So..... When I delete the "Windows old" directory it should work fine or do I still have to do the boot ini thing? Where do I get this bcd?
2014/04/11
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/740432", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/314769/" ]
Boot up the machine using a Linux LiveCD, such as Ubuntu. Then you should be able to edit the disk partitions with `gparted` and delete one. You can then create a new partition in the free space, or expand one of the other ones to fill it. The problem with using Disk Manager through Windows, is you may find it impossible to edit the disk that's currently in use.
If you want to delete vista then log in using windows 7 and go to run and type `msconfig`without quote. **System Configuration** windows will be open then see in **Boot**. If there is vista present in the list then you can delete it. and after restart you can format your vista drive using cmd. In case Vista is not present in System Configuration > Boot list then log on using Windows 7 and delete the partition which has windows vista then repair your startup using windows 7 bootable disk.
1,874,696
Five boys and three girls are to be seated in a row such that no two girls sit side by side?
2016/07/29
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1874696", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/356805/" ]
I'm assuming there is individuality between the girls and the boys, so we can generalize arrangements such that there is no need to remove cases of congruent order. The above scenario is identical to the statement: arrange 8 people in 8 seats, remove scenarios where 3 girls are sitting side by side. To arrange 8 people in 8 seats is simple, it's 8! The scenarios where 3 girls sit together, we can imagine them as one single entity, and that entity has 3 different arrangements. In other words, this scenario is also identical to the product of arranging 6 people in 6 different seats - 6! - and the arrangements of the 3 girls, 3! Combining the two statements, we get: 8! - (6!3!) = 36000
So you should first try to count how many ways can everybody be seated without any constraint. Keep in mind that we don't care about specific people, namely (boy 1 on chair 1, boy 2 on chair 2) is exactly the same as (boy 2 on chair 1, boy 1 on chair 2). Then you can just remove from this total the number of ways you can sit all girls side by side. This is really easy to picture in your mind. (Actually it is not mentioned whether boys and girls are supposed to be distinguishable or not, here I assumed they are not)
26,681
I created a few macros in Excel 2007 and I saved them in the **personal macro workbook**. Since then, I've deleted the macros. *Note: You have to unhide the workbook, delete the macro and then hide it again to accomplish this.* Now, every time I open Excel, create/edit a workbook and click the close/exit (red X) button, Excel acts like a just closed the workbook and not the whole application. So I have to click the close/exit button one more time. I think this is because every time Excel is opened, the personal macro workbook is opened also (only hidden). Then, when you close it, the macro workbook stays open for whatever reason. It's annoying to have to double-click to close the application. Any ways to fix this?
2009/08/20
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26681", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/45675/" ]
You can also hold down Shift as you click the "X" to close all open workbooks and Excel completely.
You can close Excel using ALT F4 - this will close Excel completely
26,681
I created a few macros in Excel 2007 and I saved them in the **personal macro workbook**. Since then, I've deleted the macros. *Note: You have to unhide the workbook, delete the macro and then hide it again to accomplish this.* Now, every time I open Excel, create/edit a workbook and click the close/exit (red X) button, Excel acts like a just closed the workbook and not the whole application. So I have to click the close/exit button one more time. I think this is because every time Excel is opened, the personal macro workbook is opened also (only hidden). Then, when you close it, the macro workbook stays open for whatever reason. It's annoying to have to double-click to close the application. Any ways to fix this?
2009/08/20
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/26681", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/45675/" ]
One more solution: click on the 'Office Button' in the upper left hand corner of your screen - right click on 'Exit Excel' - then choose 'Add to Quick Access Toolbar'. This will place an 'X' on your toolbar which only needs to be clicked once to close Excel completely.
You can close Excel using ALT F4 - this will close Excel completely
19,210
My PC's ATX power supply stopped working. I opened it and noticed that it makes a high pitch sound when turned on. I can't figure out which component in the power supply makes that sound, so that I can replace it.
2011/09/08
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/19210", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/4906/" ]
**Instant Death:** **WARNING - PC Power supplies have lethal voltages internally both when mains voltage is applied and also for a variable period of time after being turned off.** **Lurking death** **A power supply that has been turned off for many minutes MAY contain voltages that can kill you.** If you don't know what you are doing and what precautions to take then if you "play" with such devices you may not live long enough to learn. --- The most likely source of the noise is "magnetostriction" of the switched mode power supply transformer core. The core is driven at excessive currents and/or with an unusual waveform and acts as an audio transducer as the core is magneticallly squeezed thn released by the alternating current. It is likely that the fault is **not** in the core itself but is caused by either oscillations being at a lower than usual frequency and/or the supply being overloaded by a fault. Be aware that outputs MAY be non mains isolated. They are usually but ... . Turn supply OFF. Connect DC meter to a psu output. Turn on psu. Measure voltage. Repeat for all outputs. --- Remove mains power. Leave to stand for say 30 minutes. Treat the psu as if it is still alive. It may be. Examine the pcb, looking for unusual signs. * Capacitors with ruptured (broken) tops or split cans. * Charred, brown or blackened resistors. * Cratering in plastic bodies of power transistors. * Burnt circuit. Main power supply caps are a good start to look at - but expensive to replace. --- **Discharging high voltage capacitors:** Capacitors can remain charged for hours in some cases. Seconds to minutes is more common. If there is a concern that capacitors may have retained charge they can be discharged by "shorting" or (preferably) by using a resistor with two probes. Don't try this at home if not competent and confident with such things. Eye damage (wear goggles) and electric shock are a possible danger. * Turn off the power !!! * Wear safety goggles. Spark discharge can throw very small pieces of metal further than you may be happy with. Usually only a danger to eyes unless the capacitor is seriously huge. * Be SURE the power is off !!!!!! * Use an insulated wire or test lead with 2 bare ends. Ideally have a resistor in the middle large enough to limit current and small enough to discharge the largest cap quickly enough. Most pepole just use a piece of insulated wire or a test probe. Be aware of the exciting nature of spark discharge. * Is the power really really off ? !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! * Short between earth (chassis etc) and possible high voltage point. Note that power MUST be removed ! :-( and that in very rare cases damage may be caused (not usual) AND that the "zap" and spark of a substantial discharge can make you jump and hurt yourself on something sharp. This is more likely than you'd credit until you've discharged a really large capacitor this way. **Note obvious shock hazards if doing this!** **WARNING** - **Capacitors that have been discharged can "regrow" some charge** after a while. This can be enough to give you a shock. Two dischargings a few minutes apart is usually enough to remove most of the charge but be aware of the possibility.
The sound could come from a capacitor or a transformer, though that is not necessarily the part that is defective. Personally I wouldn't mess with a switched power supply (it is very dangerous and a repair is unlikely to succeed) and buy a new one.
19,210
My PC's ATX power supply stopped working. I opened it and noticed that it makes a high pitch sound when turned on. I can't figure out which component in the power supply makes that sound, so that I can replace it.
2011/09/08
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/19210", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/4906/" ]
The sound could come from a capacitor or a transformer, though that is not necessarily the part that is defective. Personally I wouldn't mess with a switched power supply (it is very dangerous and a repair is unlikely to succeed) and buy a new one.
How exactly has it stopped working? Have you tested the output for voltage? Is the fan working? It is quite likely a coil/transformer that is whining due to a e.g. shorted output transistor, bad capacitors or faulty load, causing excess current/pulse skipping which produces audible frequencies. Make sure you have removed all the loads to confirm they are not the problem. As mentioned already, I would really just replace it, as they are nasty things to work with even with the proper tools and one problem can often be caused by another less obvious one. The capacitors can hold a lot of charge after power has been removed which can be very dangerous unless discharged properly. There are troubleshooting guides out there but often they contain bad information and still need a thorough knowledge of SMPS and the right equipment to be sure of decent results.
19,210
My PC's ATX power supply stopped working. I opened it and noticed that it makes a high pitch sound when turned on. I can't figure out which component in the power supply makes that sound, so that I can replace it.
2011/09/08
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/19210", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/4906/" ]
**Instant Death:** **WARNING - PC Power supplies have lethal voltages internally both when mains voltage is applied and also for a variable period of time after being turned off.** **Lurking death** **A power supply that has been turned off for many minutes MAY contain voltages that can kill you.** If you don't know what you are doing and what precautions to take then if you "play" with such devices you may not live long enough to learn. --- The most likely source of the noise is "magnetostriction" of the switched mode power supply transformer core. The core is driven at excessive currents and/or with an unusual waveform and acts as an audio transducer as the core is magneticallly squeezed thn released by the alternating current. It is likely that the fault is **not** in the core itself but is caused by either oscillations being at a lower than usual frequency and/or the supply being overloaded by a fault. Be aware that outputs MAY be non mains isolated. They are usually but ... . Turn supply OFF. Connect DC meter to a psu output. Turn on psu. Measure voltage. Repeat for all outputs. --- Remove mains power. Leave to stand for say 30 minutes. Treat the psu as if it is still alive. It may be. Examine the pcb, looking for unusual signs. * Capacitors with ruptured (broken) tops or split cans. * Charred, brown or blackened resistors. * Cratering in plastic bodies of power transistors. * Burnt circuit. Main power supply caps are a good start to look at - but expensive to replace. --- **Discharging high voltage capacitors:** Capacitors can remain charged for hours in some cases. Seconds to minutes is more common. If there is a concern that capacitors may have retained charge they can be discharged by "shorting" or (preferably) by using a resistor with two probes. Don't try this at home if not competent and confident with such things. Eye damage (wear goggles) and electric shock are a possible danger. * Turn off the power !!! * Wear safety goggles. Spark discharge can throw very small pieces of metal further than you may be happy with. Usually only a danger to eyes unless the capacitor is seriously huge. * Be SURE the power is off !!!!!! * Use an insulated wire or test lead with 2 bare ends. Ideally have a resistor in the middle large enough to limit current and small enough to discharge the largest cap quickly enough. Most pepole just use a piece of insulated wire or a test probe. Be aware of the exciting nature of spark discharge. * Is the power really really off ? !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! * Short between earth (chassis etc) and possible high voltage point. Note that power MUST be removed ! :-( and that in very rare cases damage may be caused (not usual) AND that the "zap" and spark of a substantial discharge can make you jump and hurt yourself on something sharp. This is more likely than you'd credit until you've discharged a really large capacitor this way. **Note obvious shock hazards if doing this!** **WARNING** - **Capacitors that have been discharged can "regrow" some charge** after a while. This can be enough to give you a shock. Two dischargings a few minutes apart is usually enough to remove most of the charge but be aware of the possibility.
How exactly has it stopped working? Have you tested the output for voltage? Is the fan working? It is quite likely a coil/transformer that is whining due to a e.g. shorted output transistor, bad capacitors or faulty load, causing excess current/pulse skipping which produces audible frequencies. Make sure you have removed all the loads to confirm they are not the problem. As mentioned already, I would really just replace it, as they are nasty things to work with even with the proper tools and one problem can often be caused by another less obvious one. The capacitors can hold a lot of charge after power has been removed which can be very dangerous unless discharged properly. There are troubleshooting guides out there but often they contain bad information and still need a thorough knowledge of SMPS and the right equipment to be sure of decent results.
114,190
I'm making something using butter beans (*fasiola gigandes*) which will be cooked for a long time (12+ hours) in a casserole dish with liquid covering them. Normally I would soak the beans first for a long time before discarding the water and using them. Can I reduce/skip the soaking stage given that they will be soaking and cooking in the oven for a long time?
2021/02/09
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/114190", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/36356/" ]
I use a slow cooker almost every time I cook dried beans, and I don't recommend cutting down on soaking. I typically soak overnight (with a little bicarbonate of soda), and start cooking in the morning, so 10-12 hours soaking + 8-12 hours cooking, avoiding adding (much) acid/salt until towards the end. It's possible your beans soften more easily than mine, but with a much shorter soak (say 4 hours, and 10 hours cooking, because I forgot to soak them overnight) I've found several types to be barely edible - I ended up cooking down my chilli , blending it, and eating it as bean burgers.
**I have gotten away with no soak many times.** I often cook beans overnight. I think if you cook for 6 hours + the beans are so soft that soaking in advance does not make much difference. Usually for long cooks I use kidney, red, pinto, turtle beans or black eyed peas. Even with those tough beans and no soak about half have become mush by the end. I have this thought that butter beans are a little more delicate. I think 12 hours will make them all mush.
103,740
I have this question: since the CMO on board a starship is generally the captain's own private physician, is there anything in the regulations that says a CMO can't call the captain by his real first name in certain instances? Like when the captain feels stressed, or is afraid about something? I"m not talking about meeting him/her in a bar or on the street and saying "Hello...." But when they're on duty and there are times when the captain's first name is used. I understand that some would answer that for the CMO to call the captain by their first name should only come after they've developed a lot of trust over the years, but I contend that sometimes the CMO has that prerogative to call the captain, or even a crewman, by his/her first name during a medical procedure or when they're alone and the person wants to talk to him privately about a medical issue..
2015/09/26
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/103740", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/44166/" ]
How the captain is addressed, based on the various series we have available, is dependent on your relationship with said captain. As you said, Bones and Kirk have an informal relationship. Most captains in the Star Trek franchise (who are a main character) have at least one member of the crew they are particularly close to, usually due to a prior relationship. This is good for storytelling. Picard has Beverly Crusher, who is indeed his Chief Medical Officer. She regularly uses his first name, and he reciprocates. Sisko has Jadzia Dax, who regularly calls him Ben or Benjamin, but she is not his CMO. Janeway has Tuvok, who I don't recall ever addressing her informally, but Chakotay does on quite a few occasions. Note, not all first officers are in the habit of doing this, with Riker very rarely using Picard's first name for example. I think Chakotay is supposed to be closer to Janeway due to their isolation as commanding officers far away from the rest of Starfleet. Back to the point: neither Janeway or Sisko's CMOs have a regular tendency to use their captains' first names. Captain Archer has this closer than usual relationship with his first officer, who doesn't often use his first name, but neither does his CMO. To summarise: Some characters have a close, somewhat less formal relationship with their captain (to a point) and are on first-name terms. This appears to be the Chief Medical Officer on more than one occasion but it does not seem that there is any regulation that accounts for this. Indeed, some doctors would appear somewhat out of character in treating their captain informally in my opinion. Note: The Starfleet CMO has some intruiging rights and responsibilities, such as the ability to relieve the captain of duty in extreme conditions, but this does not mean that they out rank him/her. Saying that, I'm sure they can address the captain however that captain feels comfortable during intimate medical procedures!
I think the answer is in the respective ranks. As CMO, the doctor is usually a captain in their own right. This is a command safety procedure. The CMO has the right, even the duty, to place the captain on administrative leave if he/she deems it necessary. This is a current naval safety procedure. Therefore, unless speaking to the captain in his official capacity, the CMO does not need to use his/her rank. Keep also in mind the limits on propriety.
103,740
I have this question: since the CMO on board a starship is generally the captain's own private physician, is there anything in the regulations that says a CMO can't call the captain by his real first name in certain instances? Like when the captain feels stressed, or is afraid about something? I"m not talking about meeting him/her in a bar or on the street and saying "Hello...." But when they're on duty and there are times when the captain's first name is used. I understand that some would answer that for the CMO to call the captain by their first name should only come after they've developed a lot of trust over the years, but I contend that sometimes the CMO has that prerogative to call the captain, or even a crewman, by his/her first name during a medical procedure or when they're alone and the person wants to talk to him privately about a medical issue..
2015/09/26
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/103740", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/44166/" ]
In most cases, the medical staff on a starship are outside the chain of command as they are specialists with their own command structure headed by Star Fleet's Surgeon General. In some cases, medical officers can take command courses if they wish (both Deanna Troi and Beverly Crusher do so at one point if I remember correctly). The CMO is generally considered to be the Captain's peer as he or she would be the only officer that is not considered to be wholly under the captain's command since the CMO does have the legal authority and duty to relieve the captain if he or she becomes physically or mentally unable to perform his or her duties. Whether or not the CMO addresses the captain by their first name would be up to the individuals involved. Kirk was more intimate with his senior officers and tended to be more informal, not to mention he had a much smaller crew (465 including 75 officers) while Picard was more traditional and formal. Picard almost never used anyone's given name and usually referred to his CMO as "Doctor". Picard also had a much larger crew requiring a greater degree of formality to ensure discipline was maintained (Enterprise D had a total crew of 1014 including 310 officers excluding the civilian family members which brought the total number on board to around 3000 if I remember correctly).
I think the answer is in the respective ranks. As CMO, the doctor is usually a captain in their own right. This is a command safety procedure. The CMO has the right, even the duty, to place the captain on administrative leave if he/she deems it necessary. This is a current naval safety procedure. Therefore, unless speaking to the captain in his official capacity, the CMO does not need to use his/her rank. Keep also in mind the limits on propriety.
103,740
I have this question: since the CMO on board a starship is generally the captain's own private physician, is there anything in the regulations that says a CMO can't call the captain by his real first name in certain instances? Like when the captain feels stressed, or is afraid about something? I"m not talking about meeting him/her in a bar or on the street and saying "Hello...." But when they're on duty and there are times when the captain's first name is used. I understand that some would answer that for the CMO to call the captain by their first name should only come after they've developed a lot of trust over the years, but I contend that sometimes the CMO has that prerogative to call the captain, or even a crewman, by his/her first name during a medical procedure or when they're alone and the person wants to talk to him privately about a medical issue..
2015/09/26
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/103740", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/44166/" ]
How the captain is addressed, based on the various series we have available, is dependent on your relationship with said captain. As you said, Bones and Kirk have an informal relationship. Most captains in the Star Trek franchise (who are a main character) have at least one member of the crew they are particularly close to, usually due to a prior relationship. This is good for storytelling. Picard has Beverly Crusher, who is indeed his Chief Medical Officer. She regularly uses his first name, and he reciprocates. Sisko has Jadzia Dax, who regularly calls him Ben or Benjamin, but she is not his CMO. Janeway has Tuvok, who I don't recall ever addressing her informally, but Chakotay does on quite a few occasions. Note, not all first officers are in the habit of doing this, with Riker very rarely using Picard's first name for example. I think Chakotay is supposed to be closer to Janeway due to their isolation as commanding officers far away from the rest of Starfleet. Back to the point: neither Janeway or Sisko's CMOs have a regular tendency to use their captains' first names. Captain Archer has this closer than usual relationship with his first officer, who doesn't often use his first name, but neither does his CMO. To summarise: Some characters have a close, somewhat less formal relationship with their captain (to a point) and are on first-name terms. This appears to be the Chief Medical Officer on more than one occasion but it does not seem that there is any regulation that accounts for this. Indeed, some doctors would appear somewhat out of character in treating their captain informally in my opinion. Note: The Starfleet CMO has some intruiging rights and responsibilities, such as the ability to relieve the captain of duty in extreme conditions, but this does not mean that they out rank him/her. Saying that, I'm sure they can address the captain however that captain feels comfortable during intimate medical procedures!
In most cases, the medical staff on a starship are outside the chain of command as they are specialists with their own command structure headed by Star Fleet's Surgeon General. In some cases, medical officers can take command courses if they wish (both Deanna Troi and Beverly Crusher do so at one point if I remember correctly). The CMO is generally considered to be the Captain's peer as he or she would be the only officer that is not considered to be wholly under the captain's command since the CMO does have the legal authority and duty to relieve the captain if he or she becomes physically or mentally unable to perform his or her duties. Whether or not the CMO addresses the captain by their first name would be up to the individuals involved. Kirk was more intimate with his senior officers and tended to be more informal, not to mention he had a much smaller crew (465 including 75 officers) while Picard was more traditional and formal. Picard almost never used anyone's given name and usually referred to his CMO as "Doctor". Picard also had a much larger crew requiring a greater degree of formality to ensure discipline was maintained (Enterprise D had a total crew of 1014 including 310 officers excluding the civilian family members which brought the total number on board to around 3000 if I remember correctly).
5,810,551
the thing I am asking is like this,say I went to webpage but I dont like the font-face they used or the font-size or may be the background color, can I change it from my pc using any local css? In firefox, there is a plugin firebug, using which I can do some changes temporarily, but I want it to remain unless I change it manually,even though just only for my pc. Now, my idea is telling I have to develop a browser plugin. I want to design a system where user with disability such as vision impairment or color-blindness can modify the site according to their needs. Some good web sites do give this privileges to change font-size or color,but in my case I want to make something universal. Is there any suggestion?
2011/04/27
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5810551", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/728115/" ]
yes, I remember an extension for firefox: [greasemonkey](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/greasemonkey/). It's easy to change color and other styles of standard elements, like background, headers (h1, ...), paragraph, ... but I don't know about custom css class that are widely used across web sites. So at the end probably it's difficult to write a general script that works for every website. It is based on javascripts, so it is very powerfull
You could use [Greasemonkey](https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/greasemonkey/), and associate a Javascript with every page you want to modify.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
> > I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? > > > It is the only sensible way > > Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? > > > You can generate CSS with JavaScript. (Not advisable for general styling). You can use [JSSS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JavaScript_Style_Sheets) if you're only targeting Netscape 4.x.
You're also able to style HTML with HTML-attributes itself, but this way is pretty impractical and old-fashioned. Most of these techniques are deprecated and the functionality is VERY limited.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
JavaScript is a scripting language, not a styling language. While you can use JavaScript to apply CSS, it's still CSS, not JavaScript, that's defining the styles. There exist HTML presentational attributes from [a long time ago](http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html32), but those have been superseded by CSS. You can still use them, not that you would want to, considering they'll most likely get translated to CSS anyway. There also exist CSS preprocessors with custom languages, such as [Sass/SCSS](http://sass-lang.com), [LESS](http://lesscss.org) and [Stylus](http://learnboost.github.com/stylus), but they all compile to CSS as well, because that's what's actually implemented by browsers. So even if you use these preprocessors, at the end of the day you're still "writing" CSS.
As mentioned previously, CSS is not the only way to stylize HTML but definitely the standard. If you're looking for a more programmatic way utilizing JavaScript you can look into [less](http://lesscss.org/) which (taken directly from the webpage) ...extends CSS with dynamic behavior such as variables, mixins, operations and functions and functions map one-to-one with JavaScript code, allowing you to manipulate values however you want.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
> > I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? > > > It is the only sensible way > > Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? > > > You can generate CSS with JavaScript. (Not advisable for general styling). You can use [JSSS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JavaScript_Style_Sheets) if you're only targeting Netscape 4.x.
I suppose the correct answer to your question is no, because html includes some basic style elements itself. But CSS is the best way to style your documents and you absolutely should learn and use it. Once you're comfortable using CSS, try using a framework such as [Twitter bootstrap](http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/) to make your life easier.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
> > I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? > > > It is the only sensible way > > Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? > > > You can generate CSS with JavaScript. (Not advisable for general styling). You can use [JSSS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JavaScript_Style_Sheets) if you're only targeting Netscape 4.x.
It's not the only way but the recommended way. You can include styling in your html tags but it becomes messy. That's why CSS was invented so use it !
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
It's not the only way but the recommended way. You can include styling in your html tags but it becomes messy. That's why CSS was invented so use it !
As mentioned previously, CSS is not the only way to stylize HTML but definitely the standard. If you're looking for a more programmatic way utilizing JavaScript you can look into [less](http://lesscss.org/) which (taken directly from the webpage) ...extends CSS with dynamic behavior such as variables, mixins, operations and functions and functions map one-to-one with JavaScript code, allowing you to manipulate values however you want.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
You're also able to style HTML with HTML-attributes itself, but this way is pretty impractical and old-fashioned. Most of these techniques are deprecated and the functionality is VERY limited.
As mentioned previously, CSS is not the only way to stylize HTML but definitely the standard. If you're looking for a more programmatic way utilizing JavaScript you can look into [less](http://lesscss.org/) which (taken directly from the webpage) ...extends CSS with dynamic behavior such as variables, mixins, operations and functions and functions map one-to-one with JavaScript code, allowing you to manipulate values however you want.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
JavaScript is a scripting language, not a styling language. While you can use JavaScript to apply CSS, it's still CSS, not JavaScript, that's defining the styles. There exist HTML presentational attributes from [a long time ago](http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html32), but those have been superseded by CSS. You can still use them, not that you would want to, considering they'll most likely get translated to CSS anyway. There also exist CSS preprocessors with custom languages, such as [Sass/SCSS](http://sass-lang.com), [LESS](http://lesscss.org) and [Stylus](http://learnboost.github.com/stylus), but they all compile to CSS as well, because that's what's actually implemented by browsers. So even if you use these preprocessors, at the end of the day you're still "writing" CSS.
You're also able to style HTML with HTML-attributes itself, but this way is pretty impractical and old-fashioned. Most of these techniques are deprecated and the functionality is VERY limited.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
JavaScript is a scripting language, not a styling language. While you can use JavaScript to apply CSS, it's still CSS, not JavaScript, that's defining the styles. There exist HTML presentational attributes from [a long time ago](http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html32), but those have been superseded by CSS. You can still use them, not that you would want to, considering they'll most likely get translated to CSS anyway. There also exist CSS preprocessors with custom languages, such as [Sass/SCSS](http://sass-lang.com), [LESS](http://lesscss.org) and [Stylus](http://learnboost.github.com/stylus), but they all compile to CSS as well, because that's what's actually implemented by browsers. So even if you use these preprocessors, at the end of the day you're still "writing" CSS.
I suppose the correct answer to your question is no, because html includes some basic style elements itself. But CSS is the best way to style your documents and you absolutely should learn and use it. Once you're comfortable using CSS, try using a framework such as [Twitter bootstrap](http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/) to make your life easier.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
JavaScript is a scripting language, not a styling language. While you can use JavaScript to apply CSS, it's still CSS, not JavaScript, that's defining the styles. There exist HTML presentational attributes from [a long time ago](http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html32), but those have been superseded by CSS. You can still use them, not that you would want to, considering they'll most likely get translated to CSS anyway. There also exist CSS preprocessors with custom languages, such as [Sass/SCSS](http://sass-lang.com), [LESS](http://lesscss.org) and [Stylus](http://learnboost.github.com/stylus), but they all compile to CSS as well, because that's what's actually implemented by browsers. So even if you use these preprocessors, at the end of the day you're still "writing" CSS.
> > I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? > > > It is the only sensible way > > Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? > > > You can generate CSS with JavaScript. (Not advisable for general styling). You can use [JSSS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JavaScript_Style_Sheets) if you're only targeting Netscape 4.x.
14,692,027
I am a beginner web-designer. I know the basics of HTML, CSS and Javascript. I know that CSS used to style HTML docs, but is that the only way ? Can I use JavaScript to style HTML, somehow ? Or Is there any other way rather than CSS ?
2013/02/04
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14692027", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
JavaScript is a scripting language, not a styling language. While you can use JavaScript to apply CSS, it's still CSS, not JavaScript, that's defining the styles. There exist HTML presentational attributes from [a long time ago](http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html32), but those have been superseded by CSS. You can still use them, not that you would want to, considering they'll most likely get translated to CSS anyway. There also exist CSS preprocessors with custom languages, such as [Sass/SCSS](http://sass-lang.com), [LESS](http://lesscss.org) and [Stylus](http://learnboost.github.com/stylus), but they all compile to CSS as well, because that's what's actually implemented by browsers. So even if you use these preprocessors, at the end of the day you're still "writing" CSS.
It's not the only way but the recommended way. You can include styling in your html tags but it becomes messy. That's why CSS was invented so use it !
58,190
Scientific literature has items called letters, communications and journal papers. They all seem quite similar in terms of format and content. What are the differences between them?
2015/11/14
[ "https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/58190", "https://academia.stackexchange.com", "https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/30698/" ]
At my university in the USA, it would likely be illegal for the instructor or the TAs of the particular class to participate in this. There is just too much of a (perceived) conflict of interest since they are evaluating you for a grade for the class. However, there would not be anything barring you from approaching a graduate student who was a **former** TA for the class; nor would there be a problem in approaching an instructor at **another** institution or someone who is at your institution who is **not** teaching your section of your class that term. You could even ask an upperclass student who took the class last year to tutor you. Your department secretary may be able to connect you with a grad student who needs a few extra dollars and isn't in the conflict-of-interest position to tutor you directly. Or post something in your local craiglist or student bulletin board system.
The appropriate way to do it is explain what you want, and why you are willing to pay for it. You have to be careful to not say something like "I want to pass this course, and I'm willing to pay you to make that happen", since that would look like an offer of a bribe which would be illegal. It is not illegal to pay a person for personal tutoring. That is the point at which your concern should end. It is possible that university regulations forbid an employee from accepting such an offer, but it is the employee's responsibility to make that determination, not yours. If it is forbidden, or if the employee would simply feel uncomfortable with the appearance of conflict of interest, s/he can tell you so and may be able to point you to an alternative tutor.
365,280
I recently marked over $100$ assignments for a multivariable calculus course. One question which a lot of people did poorly was proving a given set was open. Aside from issues relating to rigour and logic (or lack thereof), I noticed an issue that I wasn't as aware of before this experience. A lot of students used English words incorrectly (from a mathematical point of view) when writing sentences within their proof. Some of the words/phrases I am referring to are: * As * Assume * Let * Suppose * Hence * Therefore * Such that * There exists > > Is anyone aware of a reference which explains how to use these words and phrases (and others that frequently occur) in a mathematical context? > > >
2013/04/18
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/365280", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/39599/" ]
Charles Wells, *The Handbook of Mathematical Discourse*; it’s available as a PDF [here](https://www.abstractmath.org/Handbook/handbook.pdf). His site [abstractmath.org](http://www.abstractmath.org/MM/MMIntro.htm) may also be useful.
Again ('cos I've recommended it before) I can very warmly recommend getting your students to beg/borrow/buy and then **read** the excellent > > Daniel J. Velleman, *How to Prove it: A Structured Approach* (CUP, 1994 and much reprinted, and now into a second edition). > > > From the blurb: "Many students have trouble the first time they take a mathematics course in which proofs play a significant role. This new edition of Velleman's successful text will prepare students to make the transition from solving problems to proving theorems by teaching them the techniques needed to read and write proofs." And in doing that, the most important thing, Velleman's book should get students to understand the lingo properly as they better understand what they are doing when they make a supposition here, draw an inference there, use a quantifier, etc.
365,280
I recently marked over $100$ assignments for a multivariable calculus course. One question which a lot of people did poorly was proving a given set was open. Aside from issues relating to rigour and logic (or lack thereof), I noticed an issue that I wasn't as aware of before this experience. A lot of students used English words incorrectly (from a mathematical point of view) when writing sentences within their proof. Some of the words/phrases I am referring to are: * As * Assume * Let * Suppose * Hence * Therefore * Such that * There exists > > Is anyone aware of a reference which explains how to use these words and phrases (and others that frequently occur) in a mathematical context? > > >
2013/04/18
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/365280", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/39599/" ]
Charles Wells, *The Handbook of Mathematical Discourse*; it’s available as a PDF [here](https://www.abstractmath.org/Handbook/handbook.pdf). His site [abstractmath.org](http://www.abstractmath.org/MM/MMIntro.htm) may also be useful.
I'm using > > Franco Vivaldi *Mathematical Writing* (Springer Undergraduate Mathematics Series) > > > which I find very useful. It contains many definitions of basic mathematical objects (sets, maps...) as well as examples of proves.
365,280
I recently marked over $100$ assignments for a multivariable calculus course. One question which a lot of people did poorly was proving a given set was open. Aside from issues relating to rigour and logic (or lack thereof), I noticed an issue that I wasn't as aware of before this experience. A lot of students used English words incorrectly (from a mathematical point of view) when writing sentences within their proof. Some of the words/phrases I am referring to are: * As * Assume * Let * Suppose * Hence * Therefore * Such that * There exists > > Is anyone aware of a reference which explains how to use these words and phrases (and others that frequently occur) in a mathematical context? > > >
2013/04/18
[ "https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/365280", "https://math.stackexchange.com", "https://math.stackexchange.com/users/39599/" ]
Again ('cos I've recommended it before) I can very warmly recommend getting your students to beg/borrow/buy and then **read** the excellent > > Daniel J. Velleman, *How to Prove it: A Structured Approach* (CUP, 1994 and much reprinted, and now into a second edition). > > > From the blurb: "Many students have trouble the first time they take a mathematics course in which proofs play a significant role. This new edition of Velleman's successful text will prepare students to make the transition from solving problems to proving theorems by teaching them the techniques needed to read and write proofs." And in doing that, the most important thing, Velleman's book should get students to understand the lingo properly as they better understand what they are doing when they make a supposition here, draw an inference there, use a quantifier, etc.
I'm using > > Franco Vivaldi *Mathematical Writing* (Springer Undergraduate Mathematics Series) > > > which I find very useful. It contains many definitions of basic mathematical objects (sets, maps...) as well as examples of proves.
1,135
I dropped my iPhone earlier today. The screen is now full of cracks but the phone still functioning. Is there any cases of DIY style repair being performed? Can anyone share their repair steps for this?
2010/09/04
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/1135", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
I went through this myself a couple of weeks ago. Stupid tile floor in my office wouldn't catch my phone at 9.81m/s2. I ended up taking my phone into a mobile repair shop and had them replace the screen (voiding my warranty in the process), but was a hell of a lot cheaper than doing it myself. Took all of about 15 minutes. Your profile doesn't list where you live, but any Apple Authorized repair shop can do it for you (or send it away for repair if they can't do it in house). That said, it is possible to do the repair yourself. iPhone 3GS glass replacement kits can easily be purchased on eBay and from any other number of resellers. The process for doing it yourself isn't easy, but depending on your own level of handiness, you could do it yourself. There are some excellent video guides for DIY iPhone glass replacement on YouTube. For example: <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4mboB8p-sdw>
eBay is a great option for repair kits, you can get them sent globally no matter where you are. Unless perhaps if you are a Nigerian businessman.... Otherwise you can choose an aftermarket iPhone screen repair service, if you are in Perth then www.buddhaiphonerepair.com is a fantastic way to go.
648,376
I have several Amazon AWS EC2 virtual machines that I created on AWS EC2. They were not imported, they were created there. I would like to export these machines in order to achieve local backups, and a local testing environment. I have looked a lot of places, and found tons of information that says you can only export a VM from EC2 if you imported into EC2 originally. I have also found information that says you can only import into EC2 if the machine was originally exported from EC2. My question is, is it possible to export a VM that was built on EC2, and somehow get it locally. I have read that you have to back it up to an S3 Bucket, and then download it, but Amazon's [documentation](http://aws.amazon.com/ec2/vm-import/) says that you can only export it from there if it was originally imported. Here are the links on serverfault that I found this question asked, but not answered. [Copy an Amazon EC2 Instance to use locally](https://serverfault.com/questions/505705/copy-an-amazon-ec2-instance-to-use-locally) [Archiving Amazon AWS instances](https://serverfault.com/questions/565382/archiving-amazon-aws-instances)
2014/12/01
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/648376", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/155268/" ]
1. Yes pfsense is the perfect tool what you are trying to accomplish, and much more. 2 & 3. pfsense has certain packages that can help e.g. squid proxy and squid guard. [A simple howto to install squid, squid guard, ACL and blacklisting.](https://www.howtoforge.com/pfsense-squid-squidguard-traffic-shaping-tutorial)
Definitely use Squid proxy. It understands URL's. Most free firewalls just understand IP addresses and ports right now. You can do simple IP based filters for source IP's (admins vs normal users) You can do regex based destination url filters (for blacklist/whitelists) You can do use authentication to do more sophisticated filtering The squid docs can be tough going but check out <https://workaround.org/squid-acls> for a relatively easy intro.
22,876
After the passing of Denethor, Gandalf says the following: > > Though the Stewards deemed that it was a secret kept only by themselves, long ago I guessed that here in the White Tower, one at least of the Seven Seeing Stones was preserved. In the days of his wisdom Denethor did not presume to use it, nor to challenge Sauron, knowing the limits of his own strength. But his wisdom failed; and I fear that as the peril of his realm grew he looked into the Stone and was deceived: far too often, I guess, since Boromir departed. > > > This seems to be just well informed speculation by Gandalf but I am wondering if perhaps there was some critical event that was a key factor in Denethor starting to use the Palantir? I cannot find anything referring to it in the LOTR appendices - is anything regarding this matter mentioned elsewhere?
2012/09/01
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/22876", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7910/" ]
Well, we have an obvious upper bound of TA 2988 (from Appendices A & B): > > 2988 Finduilas dies young. > > > ‘After [Finduilas'] death Denethor became more grim and silent than before, and would sit long alone in his tower deep in thought, foreseeing that the assault of Mordor would come in his time. It was afterwards believed that needing knowledge, but being proud, and trusting in his own strength of will, he dared to look in the palantír of the White Tower. > > > We have a lower bound, also from Appendix A, of "before his sons grew to manhood": > > ‘In this way Denethor gained his great knowledge of things that passed in his realm, and far beyond his borders, at which men marvelled; but he bought the knowledge dearly, being aged before his time by his contest with the will of Sauron. Thus pride increased in Denethor together with despair, until he saw in all the deeds of that time only a single combat between the Lord of the White Tower and the Lord of the Barad-dûr, and mistrusted all others who resisted Sauron, unless they served himself alone. > > > **‘So time drew on to the War of the Ring, and the sons of Denethor grew to manhood.** > > > His sons were born TA 2978 and 2983, so it's likely that his first viewing through the palantir took place between TA 2988 and 2998. The reason I give them 20 years for manhood is because that's when Aragorn was adjudged to have entered his manhood as a slower aging Dunedain by Elrond: > > 'when Estel was only twenty years of age, ... Elrond looked at him and was pleased, for he saw that he was fair and noble and was early come to manhood. > > > So that ten year gap is the most likely case for when he started using it, triggered by the death of his wife. Interestingly, that actually puts him earlier than Saruman and his entrapment: > > c. 3000 Saruman dares to use the palantír of Orthanc, but becomes ensnared by Sauron, who has the > Ithil Stone. > > >
Appendix A4 (“Gondor and the Heirs of Anárion”) does tell that story. Denethor's wife, [Finduilas](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finduilas_of_Dol_Amroth), died a few years he became Steward. > > After her death Denethor became more grim and silent than before, and would sit long alone in his tower deep in thought, foreseeing that the assault of Mordor would come in his time. > > > Finduilas was from [Dol Amroth](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dol_Amroth) in [Belfalas](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bay_of_Belfalas), and disliked the walled city of Minas Tirith and the proximity of the shadow of Mordor. After her death, Denethor became or remained obsessed with the proximity of Mordor. This, as well as the political and strategic developments, led him to believe that a direct confrontation with Mordor was imminent. > > It was afterwards believed that needing knowledge, but being proud, and trusting in his own strength of will, he dared to look in the *palantír* of the White Tower. > > > The palantír had not been used since the fall of [Minas Ithil](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minas_Morgul) to Mordor, almost a thousand years before. > > In this way Denethor gained his great knowledge of things that passed in his realm, and far beyond his borders, at which men marvelled; but he bought the knowledge dearly, being aged before his time by his contest with the will of Sauron. Thus pride increased in Denethor together with despair, until he saw in all the deeds of that time only a single combat between the Lord of the White Tower and the Lord of the Barad-dûr, and mistrusted all others who resisted Sauron, unless they served himself alone. > > > The appendix does not discuss what drove Denethor to use it more or to directly challenge Sauron. For that, we only have the speculation by Gandalf that you cite.
22,876
After the passing of Denethor, Gandalf says the following: > > Though the Stewards deemed that it was a secret kept only by themselves, long ago I guessed that here in the White Tower, one at least of the Seven Seeing Stones was preserved. In the days of his wisdom Denethor did not presume to use it, nor to challenge Sauron, knowing the limits of his own strength. But his wisdom failed; and I fear that as the peril of his realm grew he looked into the Stone and was deceived: far too often, I guess, since Boromir departed. > > > This seems to be just well informed speculation by Gandalf but I am wondering if perhaps there was some critical event that was a key factor in Denethor starting to use the Palantir? I cannot find anything referring to it in the LOTR appendices - is anything regarding this matter mentioned elsewhere?
2012/09/01
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/22876", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7910/" ]
Well, we have an obvious upper bound of TA 2988 (from Appendices A & B): > > 2988 Finduilas dies young. > > > ‘After [Finduilas'] death Denethor became more grim and silent than before, and would sit long alone in his tower deep in thought, foreseeing that the assault of Mordor would come in his time. It was afterwards believed that needing knowledge, but being proud, and trusting in his own strength of will, he dared to look in the palantír of the White Tower. > > > We have a lower bound, also from Appendix A, of "before his sons grew to manhood": > > ‘In this way Denethor gained his great knowledge of things that passed in his realm, and far beyond his borders, at which men marvelled; but he bought the knowledge dearly, being aged before his time by his contest with the will of Sauron. Thus pride increased in Denethor together with despair, until he saw in all the deeds of that time only a single combat between the Lord of the White Tower and the Lord of the Barad-dûr, and mistrusted all others who resisted Sauron, unless they served himself alone. > > > **‘So time drew on to the War of the Ring, and the sons of Denethor grew to manhood.** > > > His sons were born TA 2978 and 2983, so it's likely that his first viewing through the palantir took place between TA 2988 and 2998. The reason I give them 20 years for manhood is because that's when Aragorn was adjudged to have entered his manhood as a slower aging Dunedain by Elrond: > > 'when Estel was only twenty years of age, ... Elrond looked at him and was pleased, for he saw that he was fair and noble and was early come to manhood. > > > So that ten year gap is the most likely case for when he started using it, triggered by the death of his wife. Interestingly, that actually puts him earlier than Saruman and his entrapment: > > c. 3000 Saruman dares to use the palantír of Orthanc, but becomes ensnared by Sauron, who has the > Ithil Stone. > > >
More is said in Unfinished Tales concerning this matter. > > ...when and why Denethor had dared to use the Stone was and remains a matter of conjecture. > > > His 'grimness' was first observable to others after his wife Finduilas died in 2988, but it seems fairly plain that he had at once turned to the Stone as soon as he came to power, having long studied the matter of the palantiri and the traditions regarding them and their use... > > > From The Palantiri, UT If this is true, then he started using the palantir in 2984 when he succeeded his father.
6,193,607
For some reason when I try to compile my code, I get this error: fatal error: direct.h: No such file or directory compilation terminated. I'm on linux using g++ (GCC) 4.6.0 20110509 (Red Hat 4.6.0-7)
2011/05/31
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6193607", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
`direct.h` is part of the Digital Mars compiler, not gcc. Most of its functions have similar names on linux that's posix standarized. Read the manpage for e.g. [getcwd](http://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/functions/getcwd.html) , [rmdir](http://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/functions/rmdir.html), [mkdir](http://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/functions/mkdir.html) ,or clarify your question as to which functions you need. As a start, just remove the include and see what other errors you are getting, and work from there.
Commonly, is a C/C++ header file provided by Microsoft Windows, so it cannot works in linux. [reference at wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct.h) You can use unistd.h to replace the actions in direct.h like mkdir, rmdir, etc.
6,193,607
For some reason when I try to compile my code, I get this error: fatal error: direct.h: No such file or directory compilation terminated. I'm on linux using g++ (GCC) 4.6.0 20110509 (Red Hat 4.6.0-7)
2011/05/31
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6193607", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
`direct.h` is part of the Digital Mars compiler, not gcc. Most of its functions have similar names on linux that's posix standarized. Read the manpage for e.g. [getcwd](http://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/functions/getcwd.html) , [rmdir](http://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/functions/rmdir.html), [mkdir](http://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/functions/mkdir.html) ,or clarify your question as to which functions you need. As a start, just remove the include and see what other errors you are getting, and work from there.
I took SWMM5 source code and modify the files following the readme and some small fixes. It seems in linux you do not need direct.h at all for the CLE version. I have tested several of the examples provided by EPA <https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/2014-05/epaswmm5_apps_manual.zip> You can get the files [from here](https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B6SXwdLnLLLYUjFyZnZzdHBOWnM). Let me know if something is not working.
6,193,607
For some reason when I try to compile my code, I get this error: fatal error: direct.h: No such file or directory compilation terminated. I'm on linux using g++ (GCC) 4.6.0 20110509 (Red Hat 4.6.0-7)
2011/05/31
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6193607", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/" ]
Commonly, is a C/C++ header file provided by Microsoft Windows, so it cannot works in linux. [reference at wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct.h) You can use unistd.h to replace the actions in direct.h like mkdir, rmdir, etc.
I took SWMM5 source code and modify the files following the readme and some small fixes. It seems in linux you do not need direct.h at all for the CLE version. I have tested several of the examples provided by EPA <https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/2014-05/epaswmm5_apps_manual.zip> You can get the files [from here](https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B6SXwdLnLLLYUjFyZnZzdHBOWnM). Let me know if something is not working.
547,009
> > He is a pedant, a sesquipedalianist, an ambivert. > > > Is this grammatically correct? I am not sure about the use of "a sesquipedalianist".
2020/09/19
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/547009", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/399135/" ]
"He is a pedant, sesquipedalianist, and an ambivert" can be rewritten more compactly as "He is a pedant, sesquipedalianist, and ambivert". You should group together items in a list that require the same indefinite article, and only use it once at the start. Whether you use 'a' or 'an' at the beginning of a list to suit the first item, you do not need to insert the other indefinite article if one of the subsequent items would require it if written or spoken alone. He is an observer, optician, driver, and sculptor. "Accrue: to come to one as a gain, addition, or increment." American Heritage Dictionary (1992) [Repeat indefinite articles](https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/repeat-indefinite-article-use-a-strawberry-an-apple-or-a-cranberry.2528143/)
Yes. These are the rules for a/an articles: 1. ***A*** before words starting with consonant sounds. e.g. A man, a university, a yacht... 2. ***An*** before words starting with vowel sounds. e.g. An animal, an error... So the sentence is grammatically correct.
141,004
I want to help a friend upgrading her macbook pro macbook 2012 MD101 from 4GB RAM and HDD to 8GB RAM and SSD. Since I am not a mac guy myself, I need to ask you guys what is the compatible RAM modules for this particular mac model. Further more. As far as I know RAM modules should be 204pin SODIMM 1.5 volt? Also does any kind of SSD drive would work (I assume so but again please confirm).
2014/08/05
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/141004", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/86863/" ]
As long as you can confirm the laptop is indeed from mid-2012 (later models have the memory soldered in), then these specs should work for you with either a 13" or 15" laptop (Apple started soldering memory in 17" laptops after 2011): * 204-pin * PC3-12800 DDr3 1600 MHz type RAM (Found at <http://support.apple.com/kb/HT1270>) As far as hard drives go, I'd personally recommend a Crucial SSD, but yes, any solid state drive will work. Hope this helps!
I just put a Crucial MX-100 512GB in a 2011 model and was impressed by the performance. Measured faster than the Samsung 840 in my 2012 model. It came with the spacer needed to fit the 7mm drive snugly into the 9mm space on the MBP. If you are going to the trouble to add memory, you might as well spend the extra $75 and go to 16GB.
792
In recent times i found that one user is basically copy pasting posts from arbitrary/unknown blogs as answers.Many of his answers are like that with [this](https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/17295/4732) being a typical example. How to deal with them(such answers)? I don't think we should allow this to continue.What do the rules say on this matter? For Instance this is a popular mantra: > > **Om namo bhagavate vAsudevAya > shAntAkAram bhujaga shayanam padmanAbham suresham | > vishwAdhAram gagana sadRsham meghavarNam shubhAngam ||** > > > The Devata of this Mantra is Vishnu and it is well known that this Mantra is for Vishnu. Now, let's suppose I created a *xyz* blog and explained this in this way: > > The Devata of this mantra is Vishnu and it is one of the name of Shiva of Shiva Sahasranama. So, this Mantra is showing Vishnutwo of Sriman Mahadeva (Lord Shiva). > > > **Om Namo=** Om represents Pranava who is Sriman Mahadeva himself and Namo here represents Lord is to be saluted. It is also seen in Namakam that Lord is to be saluted. > > > **Bhagavate=** Lord Shiva is Bhagvan as proclaimed in many scriptures, Moreover Vedas only address Sriman Mahadeva as Bhagvan for eg. See Atharvasiras, Svetasvatara etc... > > > **Vãsudevãya=** Vasudeva means who resides in everything. It is Lord Shiva who resides in everything through his AshtaMurty form. This is well described in Shatapatha and Kaushikti Brahmanas of Vedas. > > **Shãntãkãram=** who is peaceful. This denotes the very nature of Lord SadaShiva. > > > **Bhujagasayanam=** It is Sriman Mahadeva who resides in serpent as Amsha in the form of Vishnu. > > > **Padmanãbham=** This denotes presence of Sriman Mahadeva in Padmanabha temple. > > > **Suresham =** Sriman Mahadeva is the God of God (Devadeva) it is well known. > > > **Vishwãdharam =** Sriman Mahadeva in the form of Linga is the base of this world > > > **Gaganasadrishm=** need not to be explained whose name is Digambara and Vyomakesha > > > **Meghavarnam=** It represents Nila Lohita form of Shiva. We see both blue and red coloured cloud. > > > **Subhangam=** Sriman Mahadeva has all bodily organ nice. It is also explained in Rudra Suktas of RigVeda and also in Taittariya Aranyakas Mantras like 'Namo hiranyabahave hiranyavarnaya ...' > > > **Lakshmikantam=** It is well known that MahaLakshmi is well known Shakti of Shiva denoting Rajas The other Shaktis beibg Mahakali and Mahasaraswati. One can check Varaha Purana and Shiva Purana for this. > > > **Kamalanayanam=** Sriman Mahadeva has nice eyes like that of lotus > > > **Yogividdhyranagamyam =** It is Shiva who is meditated by Yogi. > > > **Vande Vishnum=** I salute the all pervasive one > > **BhavaBhayaHaram:** Oh Bhava (Shiva) destroy our Bhaya. > > **SarvaLokaikaNãtham=** who is Lord of all worlds. > > > > Thus it is proved that 'Om Namo Bhagvate Vãsudevaya ... ' mantra is for Shiva and not for Vishnu. > > > Now from that same blog I copied that content and pasted here and answered questions. **Is this accepted in this Site?**
2017/02/26
[ "https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/792", "https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/users/4732/" ]
Blogs which give Blog owner's interpretations shouldn't be allowed and answers which cite them as sources should be deleted. For example, if a blog has exact Vedic Verses or Puranic verses, we can cite them in answers (without citing blog in answer) as these verses are not influenced by Blog author's intepretation. Similarly, if a blog has a particular Acharya's interpretation, we can quote them in answer without citing blog name or link. But we shouldn't allow blog owner's personal interpretations. Coming to [this answer](https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/17295/4732) on Sri Rudram, this answer is completely copy pasted from a blog. But Blog owner's post explains how Sri Ranga Ramanuja and Sri Parashara Bhattar are interpreting each word of the Sri Rudram. However, it would be still better ,as said above, if OP cites exact quotes of Acharyas and can explain them in his own words. So, i think it will be better if OP edits his answer mentioning exact commentaries and explain them instead of copy pasting them **completely** from some blog. Other users can help OP in getting exact commentaries of Acharyas.
Simple Solution: **Use your voting power**! --- If you don't use it enough, you've only yourself to blame in the long run! And when you downvote somebody's answer, don't forget to explain your reasons in comments. Always give feedback why you didn't like it. Also, before voting, you can leave a comment and wait for the user to clarify his or her position i.e., delay your voting. Anonymous downvoting has to be absolutely avoided irrespective of your personal beliefs. > > What do the rules say on this matter? > > > If you were thinking 'flag it for deletion', that's not allowed. As per current rules, anyone can write an answer citing a blog and it's valid for the site. That's why I proposed in my answer [here](https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/a/790/2995) that blogs should not be used as a reference going forward. (That brings up another interesting question, are websites like [kamakoti.org](http://kamakoti.org/) and [hindupedia.com](http://www.hindupedia.com/en/Main_Page) blogs? Who will decide what's a 'blog' and what's an authentic 'website?') But when the original blog owner writes the same answer here on Hinduism.SE he or she can choose to reference his blog or simply copy-paste it here. Some people might call it self-promotion, but I don't think of it like that. We should look at the content first and see if it answers the question before we jump to any conclusions. Also, take a look at this meta post: [Should a famous Hindu Swamiji, Guru, Indologist, Hindu book writer etc. were to join this forum](https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/q/677) Here's some advice from [this](https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/q/48) excellent FAQ ([The copy-paste issue, Hinduism version](https://hinduism.meta.stackexchange.com/q/48)): > > tl;dr Please stop posting answers that are just copied out of Wikipedia or some random blog. If you see these things and they don't cite a source, flag (either "very low quality" or "other" and specify that the post is plagiarized) and downvote. **Even if they do cite a source, consider downvoting.** > > >
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
GAC only helps with .NET assemblies. There a lot of other applications which are not written in .NET. What else problems exist? * Other applications holding files open * Other applications holding network connections open * Other applications holding devices open * Other applications slowing down the machine so that an unexpected timeout somewhere may occur leaving the work interrupted * Other applications modifying files and settings in the system the installer would expect to stay unchanged during the process (consider it transactional integrity) Why risk failing the installation process when it is sooo easy to stop other applications and just wait out a few minutes? Go have a cup of coffee in the meantime. :)
The possibility of conflict between application being installed and already running one is very small. These days most applications are based around concept of sandbox and they don't need to step out of it during installation process (or normal usage). But lets suppose while installing some software, a change needs to be made to a file that is very likely to be already open by another application. You have two choices here: 1. check if the file is open/locked, figure out which process is holding a lock, display a nice dialog asking to close that specific application 2. just ask the person to close all the applications and you're on a safe side with no extra effort Sadly, the second option gets picked up most of the time.
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
maybe the installer is just overly paranoid? in all honesty, I have never ever closed all programs when an installer asked me to do so and never ever got into trouble. Might just be luck though.
it's hedging. i never bother, and have had no trouble. the only exception is installing a plugin when the targeted app (IE, FireFox, Visual Studio, etc) is still open
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
GAC only helps with .NET assemblies. There a lot of other applications which are not written in .NET. What else problems exist? * Other applications holding files open * Other applications holding network connections open * Other applications holding devices open * Other applications slowing down the machine so that an unexpected timeout somewhere may occur leaving the work interrupted * Other applications modifying files and settings in the system the installer would expect to stay unchanged during the process (consider it transactional integrity) Why risk failing the installation process when it is sooo easy to stop other applications and just wait out a few minutes? Go have a cup of coffee in the meantime. :)
You can't overwrite a DLL or EXE that is in use by another app. The better written prompts say "look, either close stuff that is using things I want to update (and gives you a list) or continue the install and we'll have to reboot after to replace the DLL/EXE then." The lazy ones just blindly tell you to close every single thing you have running, just in case. I hate rebooting. I hate closing stuff I'm using. Sometimes I just keep right on rolling and don't close anything that's running. I have a bit of a guess if things might share a DLL, so for example if I am updating Word I'll agree to close Outlook, but not Foxit Reader, I know they're probably independent. I pay more attention to non-lazy prompts (that tell me what the conflict involves) than to lazy ones, which may as well say "may contain peanuts" for all the thought that has gone into them.
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
You can't overwrite a DLL or EXE that is in use by another app. The better written prompts say "look, either close stuff that is using things I want to update (and gives you a list) or continue the install and we'll have to reboot after to replace the DLL/EXE then." The lazy ones just blindly tell you to close every single thing you have running, just in case. I hate rebooting. I hate closing stuff I'm using. Sometimes I just keep right on rolling and don't close anything that's running. I have a bit of a guess if things might share a DLL, so for example if I am updating Word I'll agree to close Outlook, but not Foxit Reader, I know they're probably independent. I pay more attention to non-lazy prompts (that tell me what the conflict involves) than to lazy ones, which may as well say "may contain peanuts" for all the thought that has gone into them.
A lot of times that message is just inserted as default text for the installation system being used. 9 out of 10 times it can be ignored. Its just that 10th time you have to worry about :-) imo, in addition to the technical reasons DevArt summarized nicely, it was probably put in there originally so that end users dont go screaming to vendors about lost work if the installer crashes Windows and causes them to lose important spreadsheets and documents that were being worked on - *a not too uncommon occurrance back in the day* when installing software.
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
You can't overwrite a DLL or EXE that is in use by another app. The better written prompts say "look, either close stuff that is using things I want to update (and gives you a list) or continue the install and we'll have to reboot after to replace the DLL/EXE then." The lazy ones just blindly tell you to close every single thing you have running, just in case. I hate rebooting. I hate closing stuff I'm using. Sometimes I just keep right on rolling and don't close anything that's running. I have a bit of a guess if things might share a DLL, so for example if I am updating Word I'll agree to close Outlook, but not Foxit Reader, I know they're probably independent. I pay more attention to non-lazy prompts (that tell me what the conflict involves) than to lazy ones, which may as well say "may contain peanuts" for all the thought that has gone into them.
The possibility of conflict between application being installed and already running one is very small. These days most applications are based around concept of sandbox and they don't need to step out of it during installation process (or normal usage). But lets suppose while installing some software, a change needs to be made to a file that is very likely to be already open by another application. You have two choices here: 1. check if the file is open/locked, figure out which process is holding a lock, display a nice dialog asking to close that specific application 2. just ask the person to close all the applications and you're on a safe side with no extra effort Sadly, the second option gets picked up most of the time.
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
A lot of times that message is just inserted as default text for the installation system being used. 9 out of 10 times it can be ignored. Its just that 10th time you have to worry about :-) imo, in addition to the technical reasons DevArt summarized nicely, it was probably put in there originally so that end users dont go screaming to vendors about lost work if the installer crashes Windows and causes them to lose important spreadsheets and documents that were being worked on - *a not too uncommon occurrance back in the day* when installing software.
it's hedging. i never bother, and have had no trouble. the only exception is installing a plugin when the targeted app (IE, FireFox, Visual Studio, etc) is still open
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
maybe the installer is just overly paranoid? in all honesty, I have never ever closed all programs when an installer asked me to do so and never ever got into trouble. Might just be luck though.
The possibility of conflict between application being installed and already running one is very small. These days most applications are based around concept of sandbox and they don't need to step out of it during installation process (or normal usage). But lets suppose while installing some software, a change needs to be made to a file that is very likely to be already open by another application. You have two choices here: 1. check if the file is open/locked, figure out which process is holding a lock, display a nice dialog asking to close that specific application 2. just ask the person to close all the applications and you're on a safe side with no extra effort Sadly, the second option gets picked up most of the time.
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
GAC only helps with .NET assemblies. There a lot of other applications which are not written in .NET. What else problems exist? * Other applications holding files open * Other applications holding network connections open * Other applications holding devices open * Other applications slowing down the machine so that an unexpected timeout somewhere may occur leaving the work interrupted * Other applications modifying files and settings in the system the installer would expect to stay unchanged during the process (consider it transactional integrity) Why risk failing the installation process when it is sooo easy to stop other applications and just wait out a few minutes? Go have a cup of coffee in the meantime. :)
it's hedging. i never bother, and have had no trouble. the only exception is installing a plugin when the targeted app (IE, FireFox, Visual Studio, etc) is still open
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
You can't overwrite a DLL or EXE that is in use by another app. The better written prompts say "look, either close stuff that is using things I want to update (and gives you a list) or continue the install and we'll have to reboot after to replace the DLL/EXE then." The lazy ones just blindly tell you to close every single thing you have running, just in case. I hate rebooting. I hate closing stuff I'm using. Sometimes I just keep right on rolling and don't close anything that's running. I have a bit of a guess if things might share a DLL, so for example if I am updating Word I'll agree to close Outlook, but not Foxit Reader, I know they're probably independent. I pay more attention to non-lazy prompts (that tell me what the conflict involves) than to lazy ones, which may as well say "may contain peanuts" for all the thought that has gone into them.
it's hedging. i never bother, and have had no trouble. the only exception is installing a plugin when the targeted app (IE, FireFox, Visual Studio, etc) is still open
34,028
What kind of problems arise from installing a new program while other programs are running? I'd imagine the GAC solved a lot of the old problems of shared dll's being locked. So what kind of issues still arise? I can see issues with upgrading a single program for sure, but outside of this its hard to see why apps would stomp on eachother's toe's.
2011/01/05
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/34028", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/11107/" ]
A lot of times that message is just inserted as default text for the installation system being used. 9 out of 10 times it can be ignored. Its just that 10th time you have to worry about :-) imo, in addition to the technical reasons DevArt summarized nicely, it was probably put in there originally so that end users dont go screaming to vendors about lost work if the installer crashes Windows and causes them to lose important spreadsheets and documents that were being worked on - *a not too uncommon occurrance back in the day* when installing software.
The possibility of conflict between application being installed and already running one is very small. These days most applications are based around concept of sandbox and they don't need to step out of it during installation process (or normal usage). But lets suppose while installing some software, a change needs to be made to a file that is very likely to be already open by another application. You have two choices here: 1. check if the file is open/locked, figure out which process is holding a lock, display a nice dialog asking to close that specific application 2. just ask the person to close all the applications and you're on a safe side with no extra effort Sadly, the second option gets picked up most of the time.
341,294
Does it describe the contents of the questions to which it is applied? and is it unambiguous? ============================================================================================= [plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/plugins "show questions tagged 'plugins'") [tag wiki](https://stackoverflow.com/tags/plugins/info): > > A plug-in (or plugin) is a set of software components that adds specific abilities to a larger software application. If supported, plug-ins enable customizing the functionality of an application. > > > This description doesn't give us any real reason why we should use the tag, only what a plugin is by its definition. Is the concept described even on-topic for the site? ==================================================== While a plugin pattern could be useful for the site, most of the questions are going to be either too broad or opinion based. Does the tag add any meaningful information to the post? ======================================================== The only information this tag adds is that the question is about a problem with a plugin, this can in most questions also be made clear by the context of the other tags invoked. Does it mean the same thing in all common contexts? =================================================== No, because most people use this tag for the platform/language specific plugin, while in broad sense of the meaning it is still a plugin, there are significant differences between the implementations, and therefore you cannot be a [plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/plugins "show questions tagged 'plugins'") expert. --- This tag should really be burninated because it is almost always misused when any kind of plugin is involved in the question, and therefore the tag should be replaced with more specific tags or removed altogether from questions.
2017/01/11
[ "https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/341294", "https://meta.stackoverflow.com", "https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/1542723/" ]
There's a few problems here 1. 18k+ questions. A while back, [we burninated the godaddy tag](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/331817/should-we-burninate-godaddy). That was ~2000 questions (the largest successful burnination to date AFAIK), and we wound up locking the tag at the end, instead of retagging about 200 questions. It took well over a month of concerted effort, and the scope really took its toll, since there was inevitable controversy over some of the closed/deleted questions. This would be the largest burnination ever, and my bet is **it would take about a year to complete** (and I'm being optimistic there). 2. Some of the other plugin tags mentioned in comments are synonyms of base tags (like [wordpress-plugin](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/wordpress-plugin "show questions tagged 'wordpress-plugin'") is a synonym of [wordpress](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/wordpress "show questions tagged 'wordpress'")). It actually doesn't make sense to go backwards in those places. 3. While [plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/plugins "show questions tagged 'plugins'") can't really stand on its own, it does qualify tags. The problem is trying to go purely with a hyphen tag solution (i.e. [jquery-plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/jquery-plugins "show questions tagged 'jquery-plugins'")) is you would have a **massive** bloat of tags. Plugins exist everywhere, and writing or working with them is an on-topic reason to use SO. Trying to make one for every tag under the sun doesn't make sense. I'd actually argue some of the hyphen tags should go away and make them use this generic. The case for blacklisting here is weak at best. But I just don't see the need for a full blown burnination here.
> > While a plugin pattern could be useful for the site, most of the questions are going to be either too broad or opinion based. > > > I think plugin development is very on topic for this side and doesn't has to be too broad or opinion based. These ones doesn't look too broad to me. [Design Pattern for implementing plugins in your application?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/177140/design-pattern-for-implementing-plugins-in-your-application) or [How to create a pluginable Java program?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/25449/how-to-create-a-pluginable-java-program) There are lots of software packages that enable different kinds of modifications. Sometimes you will actually modify the core product and sometimes you will only write a plugin. On example is [liferay](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/liferay "show questions tagged 'liferay'") where there seems to be no [liferay-plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/liferay-plugins "show questions tagged 'liferay-plugins'") (yet). You could create a tag for everyone of those, but I'd assume that generates much more rarely used tags and some really misleading ones. Misleading ones could be [java-plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/java-plugins "show questions tagged 'java-plugins'") or [.net-plugins](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/.net-plugins "show questions tagged '.net-plugins'"). The name would suggest you are writing a plugin for [java](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/java "show questions tagged 'java'") or [.net](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/.net "show questions tagged '.net'") however you probably want to build your own product with api support. This one probably doesn't even have a known name yet and would disqualify for its own tag. Looking at the tag even 380 people seem to find it so useful that they follow it. I would rather keep it than creating an even larger mess.
87,637
I’m 19 and working as a stripper part time right now and I make 60k a year, and I plan on doing so for the next 7 years. I have 15k saved up, but it’s just in a bank account. I’m also in college majoring in nursing. I have scholarships and my parents are paying for the rest of my school costs so I won’t have any student loans. I don’t have any debt or loans or anything, and I’m pretty frugal. I don’t know anything about investing or stocks, so I was wondering what I should do? I’ve heard about Roth IRAs and how it’s beneficial for young workers whose tax brackets will go up later in life, but would it be good for me since nurses make not much more than I’m making right now? What other kinds of options are there for low risk high interest?
2017/11/28
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/87637", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/65107/" ]
From what I have seen, every retail financial advisor who charges as a percentage of wealth is charging what I would consider to be an unreasonable fee and I continue to be amazed how many people pay this. Somehow 1% or more of your assets every year sounds like a reasonable amount while the dollar equivalent would have people running out of their offices. Financial advisors will charge you as much as they can get away with. It's up to you to avoid getting taken advantage of. The nature of financial advising is that there is some work to do up front and then after that you just stay the course. An hourly rate for financial advice will likely be high, but still cheaper than letting them actually manage your investments. Moreover, advisors who also invest for you will typically put your money in funds that have an annual 12b-1 fee, which is an additional fee--often large-- that the mutual fund continually charges you and then passes along to your advisor. Financial advisors greatly increase their revenue by selling the idea of you handing over the keys and they take care of everything for you. Most of the value they provide is in the advice they give, which can be had for much less, but most of the revenue comes from them performing very simple services like allocating your money across a few mutual funds. **If instead of handing over your investments to them, you pay them for advice and then do the investing yourself, you will save a great deal**. If your current possible advisors will not give you an hourly rate, then find another. Consider the following as well: Pretty good financial advice **can be had for free in many cases**. The company managing your 401(k) will have someone on staff who you can meet with for free and will (again for free) provide some pretty good guidance. If you have a broker account of any type, they will have people on staff who can give you guidance. It just may not be "investment advice" from a legal point of view, but the content will not be much different. You can open an account at futureadvisor.com or personalcapital.com and their website will investigate your current accounts and give automated advice, again for free. You can go to bogleheads.org and ask those guys for advice and they will give you pretty good guidance for free. The most useful role for retail financial advisors is to help people who are unable to manage their own affairs, like people experiencing mental decline or people who have personalities that are highly unsuited to the management of money. If you have any willingness at all to learn and manage your own affairs, you can likely get the advice/information you seek for free, or at least for very little money. At your income and apparent cognitive level, I think it would be very unwise to pay $3,000 per year or anything like it for financial services, even if this rate is common enough to be "standard practice."
You are interviewing two advisors who are pricing their services differently than the one you used 15 years ago. They aren't spending x hours and giving you a report and walking through it in a short meeting. You then executed their plan over the next 10+ years. These two are proposing a continuing set of services, because they are proposing an annual fee. One risk is that they will be sending you advice every month to justify their regular fee. This could lead to conflicting advice. But if you are comfortable with executing a basic plan based on an advisors set of rules developed with your goals and situation, you should be looking for an advisor that will generate the type of plan you paid for 15 years ago. Not one that is basing it on a percentage of your wealth. Yes it will be more than the $300 you paid 15 years ago, but it won't be 10 times the cost either. They should be able to explain their fee based on the number of hours.
1,281,449
I've got a project where I need to generate PDF reports from a template. The report will have a header, details and a footer, and can potentially run on multiple pages. I was going to use iTextSharp for that. For the templates i was thinking of two options: * PDF Form template * HTML template Can you comment on the pros and cons of these two options? Can you suggest how to create PDF Form templates using some free software? Thanks in advance.
2009/08/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1281449", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10793/" ]
Yes you can. But first install VS 6.0 , Then VS 2008. Else VS 6 will mess around with defaults of VS2008. VS 2008 is Vs 6 aware but not vice versa.
Nope, but I'd recommend installing them starting from the earliest version first.
1,281,449
I've got a project where I need to generate PDF reports from a template. The report will have a header, details and a footer, and can potentially run on multiple pages. I was going to use iTextSharp for that. For the templates i was thinking of two options: * PDF Form template * HTML template Can you comment on the pros and cons of these two options? Can you suggest how to create PDF Form templates using some free software? Thanks in advance.
2009/08/15
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1281449", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10793/" ]
Yes you can. But first install VS 6.0 , Then VS 2008. Else VS 6 will mess around with defaults of VS2008. VS 2008 is Vs 6 aware but not vice versa.
Yes you can, I'm running VS 6.0, VS 2003, 2005 and 2008 on Vista Business. I'd suggest installing them in that order. In addition make sure you install the service packs for each environment after the main install to avoid conflicts, e.g. VS 6.0, VS 6.0 SP1, VS 2003, VS 2003 SP1, VS 2003 SP2, etc.
39,566
What I know about metabolism is that,during exercise body uses carbohydrate first then fats and then protein,so my question is why does body prefer glucose first as fuel for energy and what makes glucose biochemically preferred molecule to be metabolized first
2015/10/14
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/39566", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/19374/" ]
None of them can be directly use for energy. We all talk about aerobic oxidation, which is the major process for metabolism. They all need to go into the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA cycle) and oxidation phosphorylation to produce ATP, which is the energy used in organism. For glucose, they can break down into two pyruvate and enter the TCA cycle. That is the fastest pathway organism use to produce energy. For fat, since they have long carbon skeleton chain, they cut off 2 carbon compounds from the fatty acid every time. And under a series of process, it become pyruvate and go into the TCA cycle. So it really takes long time and complicated pathway to oxidate the whole fatty acid molecules. For protein, it is much more complicated. Since protein is not energy store form, it need to become a energy store form first. First it need to be degraded into amino acid, and different amino acids takes different procedure to go into the TCA cycle. Here is the picture I found on the book by John L. Tymoczko, Jeremy M. Berg and Lubert Stryer. [![Fates of the carbon skeleton of amino acids](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ySsh1.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ySsh1.png) In sum, glucose is the fastest energy form that body can use to take metabolism, oxidate fatty acid or proteins take much more complicated pathway.
I already forget all of the structure of carbohydrate, fat and also protein. But I still remember the reason for body using order of these compounds is related to the structure. None all of carbohydrate can be directly used, only simple carbohydrate, like glucose, can be directly used. For fat, it can be turn by carbohydrate for storage, and of course they are storage form, then they won't be easy for using. Even fat need to be used, they will turn to be carbohydrate again then using. For proteins are another story, they aren't storage form, but they have some ability to form carbohydrate. So if the body is very starving and there is no other resource, the body will begin turn the protein to carbohydrate for using.
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Nope. Nobody has the right to usurp your time. In fact, it is rude of someone to expect that you drop everything to answer every single follow-up question they may possibly have. You are here for your enjoyment, not out of a debt to anyone.
In the specific case you describe I second what J.M. said. In my opinion the most apt course of action is to state that you do not wish to elaborate. This has several advantages: 1. OP knows there is no point in waiting for you to reply. 2. Others will know that you decided actively not to elaborate further and this might very well inform what they do. It is common for other user to step in and provide additional details. I do this frequently. I do this to avoid the wait until the original answerer comes back. I usually would not if I knew they actively do not want to give more information out of some pedagogical consideration. Thus, leaving considerations of etiquette it is efficient to be explicit regarding your intentions. It depends on context but, generally, I do feel it is a bit impolite not to acknowledge a request. Not to do what is requested is fair game, but at least you should say so. Of course, such as there can be exceptions, if there were earlier interactions or the answer is explicit about it not being developed etc. I also agree with hardmath that if you find yourself often in that situation you may want to look into the choice of the questions you answer. The point of the site actually is for the most part to give ready-to-use answers. This is a vague notion, but it still means that it is in principle not at all unreasonable that somebody asks for further details. Certainly, some user behave in unreasonable ways, but one request for further details is pretty reasonable and should be treated as such and not as an attempt to "usurp [ones] time" etc.
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Nope. Nobody has the right to usurp your time. In fact, it is rude of someone to expect that you drop everything to answer every single follow-up question they may possibly have. You are here for your enjoyment, not out of a debt to anyone.
It depends on the circumstance. If you post one comment or answer (a hint, as you say) and the OP requests further clarification in the comments and you choose not to reply, I believe that is rude. Facilitating mathematical discussion is the reason we have a "commenting" system; if you're uninterested in discussing, don't answer in the first place. If you've given a hint and you believe further hints will lead to an answer, explicitly say so; you don't need to ignore. From a pedagogic standpoint (this is based on my personal experience tutoring), in most cases, it's possible to elaborate on hints without giving a full solution. On the other hand, if after several comments it's clear that the discussion is going nowhere and it's fruitless for you to comment any further, in this case, I feel, not replying would be appropriate, though it's best to explicitly say you will not comment any further.
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Nope. Nobody has the right to usurp your time. In fact, it is rude of someone to expect that you drop everything to answer every single follow-up question they may possibly have. You are here for your enjoyment, not out of a debt to anyone.
I believe that simply choosing not to reply is a bit rude. I would support leaving a comment such as "Please put more effort into this question. I would rather not post a full solution" instead of not replying.
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Nope. Nobody has the right to usurp your time. In fact, it is rude of someone to expect that you drop everything to answer every single follow-up question they may possibly have. You are here for your enjoyment, not out of a debt to anyone.
I understand your point that sometimes you feel that the student is not giving a minimum effort, and it is true that you have no moral obligation to reply and elaborate. The best course of action however, in my eyes, as a student, is to reply by saying something along the lines of: "what I have written is a direct basic application using the definition of this or that, revise them and I promise the hint should largely be sufficient".
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Nope. Nobody has the right to usurp your time. In fact, it is rude of someone to expect that you drop everything to answer every single follow-up question they may possibly have. You are here for your enjoyment, not out of a debt to anyone.
Think about what you would want, if you were asking the question. (You should be able to figure out the answer from this fairly good hint.)
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
In the specific case you describe I second what J.M. said. In my opinion the most apt course of action is to state that you do not wish to elaborate. This has several advantages: 1. OP knows there is no point in waiting for you to reply. 2. Others will know that you decided actively not to elaborate further and this might very well inform what they do. It is common for other user to step in and provide additional details. I do this frequently. I do this to avoid the wait until the original answerer comes back. I usually would not if I knew they actively do not want to give more information out of some pedagogical consideration. Thus, leaving considerations of etiquette it is efficient to be explicit regarding your intentions. It depends on context but, generally, I do feel it is a bit impolite not to acknowledge a request. Not to do what is requested is fair game, but at least you should say so. Of course, such as there can be exceptions, if there were earlier interactions or the answer is explicit about it not being developed etc. I also agree with hardmath that if you find yourself often in that situation you may want to look into the choice of the questions you answer. The point of the site actually is for the most part to give ready-to-use answers. This is a vague notion, but it still means that it is in principle not at all unreasonable that somebody asks for further details. Certainly, some user behave in unreasonable ways, but one request for further details is pretty reasonable and should be treated as such and not as an attempt to "usurp [ones] time" etc.
It depends on the circumstance. If you post one comment or answer (a hint, as you say) and the OP requests further clarification in the comments and you choose not to reply, I believe that is rude. Facilitating mathematical discussion is the reason we have a "commenting" system; if you're uninterested in discussing, don't answer in the first place. If you've given a hint and you believe further hints will lead to an answer, explicitly say so; you don't need to ignore. From a pedagogic standpoint (this is based on my personal experience tutoring), in most cases, it's possible to elaborate on hints without giving a full solution. On the other hand, if after several comments it's clear that the discussion is going nowhere and it's fruitless for you to comment any further, in this case, I feel, not replying would be appropriate, though it's best to explicitly say you will not comment any further.
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
In the specific case you describe I second what J.M. said. In my opinion the most apt course of action is to state that you do not wish to elaborate. This has several advantages: 1. OP knows there is no point in waiting for you to reply. 2. Others will know that you decided actively not to elaborate further and this might very well inform what they do. It is common for other user to step in and provide additional details. I do this frequently. I do this to avoid the wait until the original answerer comes back. I usually would not if I knew they actively do not want to give more information out of some pedagogical consideration. Thus, leaving considerations of etiquette it is efficient to be explicit regarding your intentions. It depends on context but, generally, I do feel it is a bit impolite not to acknowledge a request. Not to do what is requested is fair game, but at least you should say so. Of course, such as there can be exceptions, if there were earlier interactions or the answer is explicit about it not being developed etc. I also agree with hardmath that if you find yourself often in that situation you may want to look into the choice of the questions you answer. The point of the site actually is for the most part to give ready-to-use answers. This is a vague notion, but it still means that it is in principle not at all unreasonable that somebody asks for further details. Certainly, some user behave in unreasonable ways, but one request for further details is pretty reasonable and should be treated as such and not as an attempt to "usurp [ones] time" etc.
I believe that simply choosing not to reply is a bit rude. I would support leaving a comment such as "Please put more effort into this question. I would rather not post a full solution" instead of not replying.
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
In the specific case you describe I second what J.M. said. In my opinion the most apt course of action is to state that you do not wish to elaborate. This has several advantages: 1. OP knows there is no point in waiting for you to reply. 2. Others will know that you decided actively not to elaborate further and this might very well inform what they do. It is common for other user to step in and provide additional details. I do this frequently. I do this to avoid the wait until the original answerer comes back. I usually would not if I knew they actively do not want to give more information out of some pedagogical consideration. Thus, leaving considerations of etiquette it is efficient to be explicit regarding your intentions. It depends on context but, generally, I do feel it is a bit impolite not to acknowledge a request. Not to do what is requested is fair game, but at least you should say so. Of course, such as there can be exceptions, if there were earlier interactions or the answer is explicit about it not being developed etc. I also agree with hardmath that if you find yourself often in that situation you may want to look into the choice of the questions you answer. The point of the site actually is for the most part to give ready-to-use answers. This is a vague notion, but it still means that it is in principle not at all unreasonable that somebody asks for further details. Certainly, some user behave in unreasonable ways, but one request for further details is pretty reasonable and should be treated as such and not as an attempt to "usurp [ones] time" etc.
I understand your point that sometimes you feel that the student is not giving a minimum effort, and it is true that you have no moral obligation to reply and elaborate. The best course of action however, in my eyes, as a student, is to reply by saying something along the lines of: "what I have written is a direct basic application using the definition of this or that, revise them and I promise the hint should largely be sufficient".
25,686
Suppose that I posted, as an answer, a fairly good hint to a question, but the OP still can't solve it on their own, and they ask me for further details. Would it be rude if I did not reply? The only reason I'd choose to do that would be foreseeing that it would lead to me eventually giving out a detailed, complete answer, and I don't want to do that because it is the kind of questions where the details can be easily filled in if the student understands the underlying material well.
2017/01/15
[ "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/25686", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
In the specific case you describe I second what J.M. said. In my opinion the most apt course of action is to state that you do not wish to elaborate. This has several advantages: 1. OP knows there is no point in waiting for you to reply. 2. Others will know that you decided actively not to elaborate further and this might very well inform what they do. It is common for other user to step in and provide additional details. I do this frequently. I do this to avoid the wait until the original answerer comes back. I usually would not if I knew they actively do not want to give more information out of some pedagogical consideration. Thus, leaving considerations of etiquette it is efficient to be explicit regarding your intentions. It depends on context but, generally, I do feel it is a bit impolite not to acknowledge a request. Not to do what is requested is fair game, but at least you should say so. Of course, such as there can be exceptions, if there were earlier interactions or the answer is explicit about it not being developed etc. I also agree with hardmath that if you find yourself often in that situation you may want to look into the choice of the questions you answer. The point of the site actually is for the most part to give ready-to-use answers. This is a vague notion, but it still means that it is in principle not at all unreasonable that somebody asks for further details. Certainly, some user behave in unreasonable ways, but one request for further details is pretty reasonable and should be treated as such and not as an attempt to "usurp [ones] time" etc.
Think about what you would want, if you were asking the question. (You should be able to figure out the answer from this fairly good hint.)