qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
1,630,519 | for example, I want the textfield input number only. my idea is when the user typing, it will call a javascript to check whether it is valid, if it is not valid, I delete the text which is just entered. But I think it is very complex to do so. Is there any simple way to do so? | 2009/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1630519",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/148978/"
] | Put a validation on submit. | I think, like o.k.w said, jQuery Masking would be a good choice because of 2 things:
1. jQuery is solid and fast
2. Masking is more user friendly than just deleting user input on the fly without any notification. Masking gives them a graphical reference of what type of input is expected and what the input might look like. |
1,630,519 | for example, I want the textfield input number only. my idea is when the user typing, it will call a javascript to check whether it is valid, if it is not valid, I delete the text which is just entered. But I think it is very complex to do so. Is there any simple way to do so? | 2009/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1630519",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/148978/"
] | JQuery Masking could be a good choice: <http://digitalbush.com/projects/masked-input-plugin/> | The script to do this is here. It's a pretty common requirement.
<http://javascript.internet.com/forms/validate-numeric-only.html> |
1,630,519 | for example, I want the textfield input number only. my idea is when the user typing, it will call a javascript to check whether it is valid, if it is not valid, I delete the text which is just entered. But I think it is very complex to do so. Is there any simple way to do so? | 2009/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1630519",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/148978/"
] | JQuery Masking could be a good choice: <http://digitalbush.com/projects/masked-input-plugin/> | I think, like o.k.w said, jQuery Masking would be a good choice because of 2 things:
1. jQuery is solid and fast
2. Masking is more user friendly than just deleting user input on the fly without any notification. Masking gives them a graphical reference of what type of input is expected and what the input might look like. |
8,410,608 | I am having a String like "A AND B OR C AND ( D OR E)". I just want to parse the logical expression here, is there any Java Api for the same.
Here A,B,C... are in the form of string,string,string (i.e key,value,operator) | 2011/12/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8410608",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/588747/"
] | First you will need to fix the grammar of the expression that you are going to accept. What you have written:
>
> "A AND B OR C AND ( D OR E)"
>
>
>
is an example string of your language. So first you will need to define your language which can be defined using [BNF](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backus%E2%80%93Naur_Form). This would give you complete understanding of the your own language.
And then any aribitrary expression that you input need to be parsed. You can create an [expression tree](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parse_tree)
And finally you will need to evaluate the expression tree.
A reasonable example of how it can be done is given in this [article](http://www.dreamincode.net/forums/topic/37428-converting-and-evaluating-infix-postfix-and-prefix-expressions-in-c/) | Use Spring Expression - supports AND OR NOT |
369,016 | I want to build into mt ASP.NET application the ability for users to fill up forms, but the forms are not something I can hard-code into my (Enterprise) software.
So I need one screen that lets end users create the forms. Doing it the 2.0 way, I just love what PollDaddy did in their survey editor (great job guys!). How do I replicate that? (don't worry pollDaddy, my app has nothing to do with survey and I am not at all in your domain (-: )
Since you need to login to the site to play with it, I made a 20 sec video of how it looks like. Please see below and tell me how to best replicate this (as simple as using JQuery tip? use an entire open source project? Buy something?)
Requirements are:
* support multiple types of elements (like multiple choice, free text, comboBox)
* drag and drop
* editing of order
*click image for video or [here](http://revver.com/video/1376799/affiliate/24133/pd-editor-example/)*
[http://frame.revver.com/frame/120x90/1376799.jpg](http://revver.com/video/1376799/affiliate/24133/pd-editor-example/) | 2008/12/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/369016",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/350/"
] | The [AJAX control toolkit](http://www.asp.net/ajax/ajaxcontroltoolkit/samples/) is free and would work for some of this items shown in the video. However, JQuery has tons of plugins it is easy to extend and even easier to use. I would suggest starting there and extending it where needed.
Good Luck | You could build it yourself using an AJAX framework like ASP.NET AJAX or even telerik controls. You could use jQuery but ASP.NET AJAX is free and embeds well with ASP.NET pages. You could buy something, but I've yet to encounter packages as such. |
4,602,427 | On his blog Scott Kovatch writes:
>
> Without getting into too much detail, typing ‘java MyAWTCode’ from a Terminal window violates a whole lot of assumptions about what an application is on Mac OS X, and needs a lot of cooperation between the AWT and the Process Manager to sort it out.
> <http://skovatch.wordpress.com/2011/01/03/secret-smoke-screens/>
>
>
>
Out of curiosity - what assumptions are violated? Surely this is just a candidate for an API call with callbacks? | 2011/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4602427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/15441/"
] | Sure, I can elaborate on that a bit.
The Process Manager starts with the assumption that all applications that present a UI on Mac OS X are bundled, are packaged in a folder named Application.app, binary in Contents/MacOS/Application, and most importantly, have an Info.plist to get things like the name of the application that will be shown in the application menu. When you run a Java application from the command line (Swing or SWT) there is no Info.plist, so we had to create a CFDictionary to be passed off to a private SPI that would register the application, give it a proper name in the Dock -- as opposed to just 'java' -- and could be force-quit.
Even then, it's not perfect, because the Dock also assumes it can store an alias to the bundled application when you right-click and choose Keep In Dock, but since there isn't one that fails silently. There's no way to store a shortcut or command line to start the application like Windows can.
The SWT just calls TransformProcessType, which is a start but is nowhere near sufficient to turn a Java application into a full UI application. For doing pure SWT testing and development it's enough to get you going. When you create an Eclipse RCP-based application for deployment you end up with a bundled application with the Eclipse launcher, and plugins and features, and you're ready to go.
Of course, if you go the extra mile and package your Java application into a bundle, this is all moot, but the vast majority of developers coming from other platforms don't bother and just want to run an executable JAR file or even a folder of class files with a shell script. | I am not sure what he had in mind, but I guess a big difference is the file structure: a normal MacOS X application is a bundle with the structure NameOfTheApp.app/Contents/MacOS/NameOfTheApp , and specific files in the Contents directory. When we use the terminal with a "java" command, the JVM has to create a "virtual" application specific to the Java code, and handle all the MacOS events for it. Also, when you open an application twice in the Finder, it simply activates the application the second time, while you need to launch separate applications every time you use "java MyAWTCode". |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | >
> Moonshine is any alcohol that is made illegally. It is usually make in
> small batches
>
>
>
In most cases if you are able to buy 'Moonshine' from a store it is generally not real moonshine
I believe that it's called moonshine because it was illegal to make, so it was usually distributed at night time under the moonlight hence the name 'Moonshine'. It was popular to make as they could produce a high % drink very quickly but in most places there is a legal amount of time you have to distill an alcohol for. Moonshiners did not adhere to these rules hence why the drink was illegal.
In places where moonshine has been legalized I would not consider it moonshine anymore as that just means they have allowed the distillers to bottle after any time they want in the processes instead of giving a set time for minimum distillation .
There are some legal Moonshine distilleries that label their alcohol as moonshine but most of these are playing on the growing trend of moonshine as all of these are still legit distilleries. They pay all the taxes and ship out there product so this is perfectly legal and they call it moonshine. While this is not a original moonshine, as it is all legal. Moonshine can be any really high proof alcohol but once that alcohol is sold and distributed legally it just becomes the same as any-other spirit and loses the true nature of being moonshine.
[source](http://www.distillingliquor.com/2015/01/21/types-of-alcohol/) | Moonshine derives (supposedly) its name from transporting it at night to avoid detection.
Moonshine was made a lot in the mountains because of the inaccessibility of where the mountain-folk would hide the Stills and the abundance of fresh mountain springs. They could also make the moonshine high proof to maximize cost/drunk ratio (I know it sounds close minded but not a ton of reasons to buy high proof alcohol).
Liquor is measured in proof which is just 2x the alcohol % listed - 40% Vodka is 80Proof. There is not commercial grade 200 proof moonshine mainly because of physics.
>
> This is because ethanol is not an ordinary mixture, it’s an azeotrope. Instead of boiling purely and separately at two different temperatures, its vapor will form a certain proportion. Steam from alcohol is 95.57 percent alcohol. Get a pot of 95.57 percent ethanol boiling and the steam will be 95.57 percent ethanol right down until the last drop evaporates.
> [Source](http://io9.gizmodo.com/why-cant-you-make-liquor-thats-100-percent-pure-alcohol-1701953611)
>
>
>
There are probably other moonshiners across the country; but, the origin is steeped in the Appalachian Mountains. Junior Johnson (a NASCAR Driver) started his own line of spirits and has "moonshine." They aren't over 100 proof though... |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Generally, when people refer to "moonshine" and they are referring to what can be purchased legally, they are really referring to "white whiskey" (a.k.a. un-aged whiskey), or whiskey that has not been aged in an oak barrel.
Most whiskey is fermented from either all-corn, or corn and an other grain (like rye), but there are some boutique type whiskeys that use other grains like quinoa, spelt, flax, etc. Technically any grain can be used to make whiskey, but it doesn't become "whiskey" until it has been placed in an oak barrel. There are only a few other "rules" like the proof at which it is distilled. Whiskey has to come out of the still at 95% ABV (190 Proof) and then cut with water to nothing lower than 40% ABV (i.e. 80 Proof or higher).
Vodka can be made from corn, but unlike whiskey, it can be made from really anything that can be fermented. Some of the most common starts for Vodka are potatoes, wheat, rye, and a few other grains, but Vodka can be made from virtually anything else that can ferment like grapes (Ciroc vodka), tomatoes, cucumbers, donuts, you name it. I have seen almond vodka and even milk vodka (as in vodka fermented from almonds and from milk respectively). Vodka has to come out of the still at >95% ABV, but as long as it is cut with water to at the minimum of 80 poof (40% ABV) or higher, it's vodka. No matter what it started with.
The same exact corn "vodka" can be called whiskey it is comes out at the 95% ABV and then is placed in oak barrels. Note that I wrote "placed" and not "aged" in oak. Whiskey has no age requirement, so the "white whiskeys" you see that do not read "moonshine" have at least touched oak. If you see that the label reads "moonshine whiskey", it has touched oak too, if it just reads "moonshine" and has not ever touched an oak barrel, then technically is it strong grain vodka, but "moonshine" sounds more renegade I suppose. Corn "vodka" that comes out of the still at 96%ABV or higher, but doesn't touch oak is still Vodka, but technically could also be called "Moonshine".
Whiskey can be called "bourbon" if it is made in the USA, from 51% corn. It has to come out of the still at no more than 160 proof/80%ABV and it goes into the barrel at 125 Proof (62.5%ABV), and it has to be in the oak for at least 4 years in bonded warehouses under the U.S. government record. Thanks to the [Bottle-in-bond Act of 1897](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bottled_in_bond). | >
> Moonshine is any alcohol that is made illegally. It is usually make in
> small batches
>
>
>
In most cases if you are able to buy 'Moonshine' from a store it is generally not real moonshine
I believe that it's called moonshine because it was illegal to make, so it was usually distributed at night time under the moonlight hence the name 'Moonshine'. It was popular to make as they could produce a high % drink very quickly but in most places there is a legal amount of time you have to distill an alcohol for. Moonshiners did not adhere to these rules hence why the drink was illegal.
In places where moonshine has been legalized I would not consider it moonshine anymore as that just means they have allowed the distillers to bottle after any time they want in the processes instead of giving a set time for minimum distillation .
There are some legal Moonshine distilleries that label their alcohol as moonshine but most of these are playing on the growing trend of moonshine as all of these are still legit distilleries. They pay all the taxes and ship out there product so this is perfectly legal and they call it moonshine. While this is not a original moonshine, as it is all legal. Moonshine can be any really high proof alcohol but once that alcohol is sold and distributed legally it just becomes the same as any-other spirit and loses the true nature of being moonshine.
[source](http://www.distillingliquor.com/2015/01/21/types-of-alcohol/) |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | >
> Moonshine is any alcohol that is made illegally. It is usually make in
> small batches
>
>
>
In most cases if you are able to buy 'Moonshine' from a store it is generally not real moonshine
I believe that it's called moonshine because it was illegal to make, so it was usually distributed at night time under the moonlight hence the name 'Moonshine'. It was popular to make as they could produce a high % drink very quickly but in most places there is a legal amount of time you have to distill an alcohol for. Moonshiners did not adhere to these rules hence why the drink was illegal.
In places where moonshine has been legalized I would not consider it moonshine anymore as that just means they have allowed the distillers to bottle after any time they want in the processes instead of giving a set time for minimum distillation .
There are some legal Moonshine distilleries that label their alcohol as moonshine but most of these are playing on the growing trend of moonshine as all of these are still legit distilleries. They pay all the taxes and ship out there product so this is perfectly legal and they call it moonshine. While this is not a original moonshine, as it is all legal. Moonshine can be any really high proof alcohol but once that alcohol is sold and distributed legally it just becomes the same as any-other spirit and loses the true nature of being moonshine.
[source](http://www.distillingliquor.com/2015/01/21/types-of-alcohol/) | As a detail and hopefully and appropriately informative aside for this topic:
In chemistry lab there are two alcohol solvents used:
1. Medical Grade (surgical alcohol) = 95% Alcohol (getting that last 0.57% is very time consuming to achieve)
2. (benzene) Alcohol = 98% Alcohol (with 2% benzene still in solution with the alcohol)
[Benzene is used to drive off or get all of the 5% of water out of distilled alcohol](https://www.google.com/search?q=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol&oq=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol). The (benzene) Alcohol will make you sick because of the benzene.
Surgical alcohol provides the most wonderful drunk. It is a body drunk with zero dizziness.
Dizziness comes from the long chain fusel oil(s) (alcohols) in fermented alcohol. Fusel oil alcohols are not present in surgical alcohol. All fusel oil alcohols boil off at a different, slightly higher temperature than ethanol (drinking alcohol). Sloppy or rushed distilling gets the higher temperature fusel oil alcohols coming over with the ethanol. Really sloppy and very rushed distilling gets the first run methyl alcohol, methanol . . . which causes permanent eyesight loss. Long chain alcohols cause much of the hangover effect of headaches.
Yeasts produce fusel oils when they struggle to produce higher percentage alcohol levels in wines and beers.
[https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL+OIL+ALCOHOLS](https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL%20OIL%20ALCOHOLS) |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | >
> Moonshine is any alcohol that is made illegally. It is usually make in
> small batches
>
>
>
In most cases if you are able to buy 'Moonshine' from a store it is generally not real moonshine
I believe that it's called moonshine because it was illegal to make, so it was usually distributed at night time under the moonlight hence the name 'Moonshine'. It was popular to make as they could produce a high % drink very quickly but in most places there is a legal amount of time you have to distill an alcohol for. Moonshiners did not adhere to these rules hence why the drink was illegal.
In places where moonshine has been legalized I would not consider it moonshine anymore as that just means they have allowed the distillers to bottle after any time they want in the processes instead of giving a set time for minimum distillation .
There are some legal Moonshine distilleries that label their alcohol as moonshine but most of these are playing on the growing trend of moonshine as all of these are still legit distilleries. They pay all the taxes and ship out there product so this is perfectly legal and they call it moonshine. While this is not a original moonshine, as it is all legal. Moonshine can be any really high proof alcohol but once that alcohol is sold and distributed legally it just becomes the same as any-other spirit and loses the true nature of being moonshine.
[source](http://www.distillingliquor.com/2015/01/21/types-of-alcohol/) | If you want to be a traditionalist, it's not really Moonshine unless it was produced illegally, without all the proper taxes and such. Anything you buy in the store could more accurately be called white liquor, grain liquor or corn liquor, depending on the mash stock.
A key feature of both legally and illegally produced Moonshine is that it's unaged. It goes straight from the still into the jar or jug. This facet was born of the need to make quick profits, the need to minimize the amount of evidence on hand in the event of a raid, and by extension, get your liquor into the hands of paying customers before the revenuers could find it.
Physically speaking, there is no real difference between vodka and moonshine. Both are unaged neutral spirits, usually cut with water to increase volume and produce a more drinkable product. The difference is mostly geographic. Moonshine, at least commercial varieties, can easily be called American Vodka, much like Poitin could be called Irish vodka. |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Generally, when people refer to "moonshine" and they are referring to what can be purchased legally, they are really referring to "white whiskey" (a.k.a. un-aged whiskey), or whiskey that has not been aged in an oak barrel.
Most whiskey is fermented from either all-corn, or corn and an other grain (like rye), but there are some boutique type whiskeys that use other grains like quinoa, spelt, flax, etc. Technically any grain can be used to make whiskey, but it doesn't become "whiskey" until it has been placed in an oak barrel. There are only a few other "rules" like the proof at which it is distilled. Whiskey has to come out of the still at 95% ABV (190 Proof) and then cut with water to nothing lower than 40% ABV (i.e. 80 Proof or higher).
Vodka can be made from corn, but unlike whiskey, it can be made from really anything that can be fermented. Some of the most common starts for Vodka are potatoes, wheat, rye, and a few other grains, but Vodka can be made from virtually anything else that can ferment like grapes (Ciroc vodka), tomatoes, cucumbers, donuts, you name it. I have seen almond vodka and even milk vodka (as in vodka fermented from almonds and from milk respectively). Vodka has to come out of the still at >95% ABV, but as long as it is cut with water to at the minimum of 80 poof (40% ABV) or higher, it's vodka. No matter what it started with.
The same exact corn "vodka" can be called whiskey it is comes out at the 95% ABV and then is placed in oak barrels. Note that I wrote "placed" and not "aged" in oak. Whiskey has no age requirement, so the "white whiskeys" you see that do not read "moonshine" have at least touched oak. If you see that the label reads "moonshine whiskey", it has touched oak too, if it just reads "moonshine" and has not ever touched an oak barrel, then technically is it strong grain vodka, but "moonshine" sounds more renegade I suppose. Corn "vodka" that comes out of the still at 96%ABV or higher, but doesn't touch oak is still Vodka, but technically could also be called "Moonshine".
Whiskey can be called "bourbon" if it is made in the USA, from 51% corn. It has to come out of the still at no more than 160 proof/80%ABV and it goes into the barrel at 125 Proof (62.5%ABV), and it has to be in the oak for at least 4 years in bonded warehouses under the U.S. government record. Thanks to the [Bottle-in-bond Act of 1897](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bottled_in_bond). | Moonshine derives (supposedly) its name from transporting it at night to avoid detection.
Moonshine was made a lot in the mountains because of the inaccessibility of where the mountain-folk would hide the Stills and the abundance of fresh mountain springs. They could also make the moonshine high proof to maximize cost/drunk ratio (I know it sounds close minded but not a ton of reasons to buy high proof alcohol).
Liquor is measured in proof which is just 2x the alcohol % listed - 40% Vodka is 80Proof. There is not commercial grade 200 proof moonshine mainly because of physics.
>
> This is because ethanol is not an ordinary mixture, it’s an azeotrope. Instead of boiling purely and separately at two different temperatures, its vapor will form a certain proportion. Steam from alcohol is 95.57 percent alcohol. Get a pot of 95.57 percent ethanol boiling and the steam will be 95.57 percent ethanol right down until the last drop evaporates.
> [Source](http://io9.gizmodo.com/why-cant-you-make-liquor-thats-100-percent-pure-alcohol-1701953611)
>
>
>
There are probably other moonshiners across the country; but, the origin is steeped in the Appalachian Mountains. Junior Johnson (a NASCAR Driver) started his own line of spirits and has "moonshine." They aren't over 100 proof though... |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Moonshine derives (supposedly) its name from transporting it at night to avoid detection.
Moonshine was made a lot in the mountains because of the inaccessibility of where the mountain-folk would hide the Stills and the abundance of fresh mountain springs. They could also make the moonshine high proof to maximize cost/drunk ratio (I know it sounds close minded but not a ton of reasons to buy high proof alcohol).
Liquor is measured in proof which is just 2x the alcohol % listed - 40% Vodka is 80Proof. There is not commercial grade 200 proof moonshine mainly because of physics.
>
> This is because ethanol is not an ordinary mixture, it’s an azeotrope. Instead of boiling purely and separately at two different temperatures, its vapor will form a certain proportion. Steam from alcohol is 95.57 percent alcohol. Get a pot of 95.57 percent ethanol boiling and the steam will be 95.57 percent ethanol right down until the last drop evaporates.
> [Source](http://io9.gizmodo.com/why-cant-you-make-liquor-thats-100-percent-pure-alcohol-1701953611)
>
>
>
There are probably other moonshiners across the country; but, the origin is steeped in the Appalachian Mountains. Junior Johnson (a NASCAR Driver) started his own line of spirits and has "moonshine." They aren't over 100 proof though... | As a detail and hopefully and appropriately informative aside for this topic:
In chemistry lab there are two alcohol solvents used:
1. Medical Grade (surgical alcohol) = 95% Alcohol (getting that last 0.57% is very time consuming to achieve)
2. (benzene) Alcohol = 98% Alcohol (with 2% benzene still in solution with the alcohol)
[Benzene is used to drive off or get all of the 5% of water out of distilled alcohol](https://www.google.com/search?q=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol&oq=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol). The (benzene) Alcohol will make you sick because of the benzene.
Surgical alcohol provides the most wonderful drunk. It is a body drunk with zero dizziness.
Dizziness comes from the long chain fusel oil(s) (alcohols) in fermented alcohol. Fusel oil alcohols are not present in surgical alcohol. All fusel oil alcohols boil off at a different, slightly higher temperature than ethanol (drinking alcohol). Sloppy or rushed distilling gets the higher temperature fusel oil alcohols coming over with the ethanol. Really sloppy and very rushed distilling gets the first run methyl alcohol, methanol . . . which causes permanent eyesight loss. Long chain alcohols cause much of the hangover effect of headaches.
Yeasts produce fusel oils when they struggle to produce higher percentage alcohol levels in wines and beers.
[https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL+OIL+ALCOHOLS](https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL%20OIL%20ALCOHOLS) |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Generally, when people refer to "moonshine" and they are referring to what can be purchased legally, they are really referring to "white whiskey" (a.k.a. un-aged whiskey), or whiskey that has not been aged in an oak barrel.
Most whiskey is fermented from either all-corn, or corn and an other grain (like rye), but there are some boutique type whiskeys that use other grains like quinoa, spelt, flax, etc. Technically any grain can be used to make whiskey, but it doesn't become "whiskey" until it has been placed in an oak barrel. There are only a few other "rules" like the proof at which it is distilled. Whiskey has to come out of the still at 95% ABV (190 Proof) and then cut with water to nothing lower than 40% ABV (i.e. 80 Proof or higher).
Vodka can be made from corn, but unlike whiskey, it can be made from really anything that can be fermented. Some of the most common starts for Vodka are potatoes, wheat, rye, and a few other grains, but Vodka can be made from virtually anything else that can ferment like grapes (Ciroc vodka), tomatoes, cucumbers, donuts, you name it. I have seen almond vodka and even milk vodka (as in vodka fermented from almonds and from milk respectively). Vodka has to come out of the still at >95% ABV, but as long as it is cut with water to at the minimum of 80 poof (40% ABV) or higher, it's vodka. No matter what it started with.
The same exact corn "vodka" can be called whiskey it is comes out at the 95% ABV and then is placed in oak barrels. Note that I wrote "placed" and not "aged" in oak. Whiskey has no age requirement, so the "white whiskeys" you see that do not read "moonshine" have at least touched oak. If you see that the label reads "moonshine whiskey", it has touched oak too, if it just reads "moonshine" and has not ever touched an oak barrel, then technically is it strong grain vodka, but "moonshine" sounds more renegade I suppose. Corn "vodka" that comes out of the still at 96%ABV or higher, but doesn't touch oak is still Vodka, but technically could also be called "Moonshine".
Whiskey can be called "bourbon" if it is made in the USA, from 51% corn. It has to come out of the still at no more than 160 proof/80%ABV and it goes into the barrel at 125 Proof (62.5%ABV), and it has to be in the oak for at least 4 years in bonded warehouses under the U.S. government record. Thanks to the [Bottle-in-bond Act of 1897](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bottled_in_bond). | As a detail and hopefully and appropriately informative aside for this topic:
In chemistry lab there are two alcohol solvents used:
1. Medical Grade (surgical alcohol) = 95% Alcohol (getting that last 0.57% is very time consuming to achieve)
2. (benzene) Alcohol = 98% Alcohol (with 2% benzene still in solution with the alcohol)
[Benzene is used to drive off or get all of the 5% of water out of distilled alcohol](https://www.google.com/search?q=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol&oq=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol). The (benzene) Alcohol will make you sick because of the benzene.
Surgical alcohol provides the most wonderful drunk. It is a body drunk with zero dizziness.
Dizziness comes from the long chain fusel oil(s) (alcohols) in fermented alcohol. Fusel oil alcohols are not present in surgical alcohol. All fusel oil alcohols boil off at a different, slightly higher temperature than ethanol (drinking alcohol). Sloppy or rushed distilling gets the higher temperature fusel oil alcohols coming over with the ethanol. Really sloppy and very rushed distilling gets the first run methyl alcohol, methanol . . . which causes permanent eyesight loss. Long chain alcohols cause much of the hangover effect of headaches.
Yeasts produce fusel oils when they struggle to produce higher percentage alcohol levels in wines and beers.
[https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL+OIL+ALCOHOLS](https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL%20OIL%20ALCOHOLS) |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | Generally, when people refer to "moonshine" and they are referring to what can be purchased legally, they are really referring to "white whiskey" (a.k.a. un-aged whiskey), or whiskey that has not been aged in an oak barrel.
Most whiskey is fermented from either all-corn, or corn and an other grain (like rye), but there are some boutique type whiskeys that use other grains like quinoa, spelt, flax, etc. Technically any grain can be used to make whiskey, but it doesn't become "whiskey" until it has been placed in an oak barrel. There are only a few other "rules" like the proof at which it is distilled. Whiskey has to come out of the still at 95% ABV (190 Proof) and then cut with water to nothing lower than 40% ABV (i.e. 80 Proof or higher).
Vodka can be made from corn, but unlike whiskey, it can be made from really anything that can be fermented. Some of the most common starts for Vodka are potatoes, wheat, rye, and a few other grains, but Vodka can be made from virtually anything else that can ferment like grapes (Ciroc vodka), tomatoes, cucumbers, donuts, you name it. I have seen almond vodka and even milk vodka (as in vodka fermented from almonds and from milk respectively). Vodka has to come out of the still at >95% ABV, but as long as it is cut with water to at the minimum of 80 poof (40% ABV) or higher, it's vodka. No matter what it started with.
The same exact corn "vodka" can be called whiskey it is comes out at the 95% ABV and then is placed in oak barrels. Note that I wrote "placed" and not "aged" in oak. Whiskey has no age requirement, so the "white whiskeys" you see that do not read "moonshine" have at least touched oak. If you see that the label reads "moonshine whiskey", it has touched oak too, if it just reads "moonshine" and has not ever touched an oak barrel, then technically is it strong grain vodka, but "moonshine" sounds more renegade I suppose. Corn "vodka" that comes out of the still at 96%ABV or higher, but doesn't touch oak is still Vodka, but technically could also be called "Moonshine".
Whiskey can be called "bourbon" if it is made in the USA, from 51% corn. It has to come out of the still at no more than 160 proof/80%ABV and it goes into the barrel at 125 Proof (62.5%ABV), and it has to be in the oak for at least 4 years in bonded warehouses under the U.S. government record. Thanks to the [Bottle-in-bond Act of 1897](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bottled_in_bond). | If you want to be a traditionalist, it's not really Moonshine unless it was produced illegally, without all the proper taxes and such. Anything you buy in the store could more accurately be called white liquor, grain liquor or corn liquor, depending on the mash stock.
A key feature of both legally and illegally produced Moonshine is that it's unaged. It goes straight from the still into the jar or jug. This facet was born of the need to make quick profits, the need to minimize the amount of evidence on hand in the event of a raid, and by extension, get your liquor into the hands of paying customers before the revenuers could find it.
Physically speaking, there is no real difference between vodka and moonshine. Both are unaged neutral spirits, usually cut with water to increase volume and produce a more drinkable product. The difference is mostly geographic. Moonshine, at least commercial varieties, can easily be called American Vodka, much like Poitin could be called Irish vodka. |
5,198 | With the legalization of moonshine in many US states I've been wondering what are the big differences between Moonshine and Vodka?
Both are clear spirits made from whatever grains/starches are available. Both can be fairly high proof.
Is it all just an Appalachian that is tied to their origin? | 2016/07/13 | [
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/questions/5198",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com",
"https://beer.stackexchange.com/users/4637/"
] | If you want to be a traditionalist, it's not really Moonshine unless it was produced illegally, without all the proper taxes and such. Anything you buy in the store could more accurately be called white liquor, grain liquor or corn liquor, depending on the mash stock.
A key feature of both legally and illegally produced Moonshine is that it's unaged. It goes straight from the still into the jar or jug. This facet was born of the need to make quick profits, the need to minimize the amount of evidence on hand in the event of a raid, and by extension, get your liquor into the hands of paying customers before the revenuers could find it.
Physically speaking, there is no real difference between vodka and moonshine. Both are unaged neutral spirits, usually cut with water to increase volume and produce a more drinkable product. The difference is mostly geographic. Moonshine, at least commercial varieties, can easily be called American Vodka, much like Poitin could be called Irish vodka. | As a detail and hopefully and appropriately informative aside for this topic:
In chemistry lab there are two alcohol solvents used:
1. Medical Grade (surgical alcohol) = 95% Alcohol (getting that last 0.57% is very time consuming to achieve)
2. (benzene) Alcohol = 98% Alcohol (with 2% benzene still in solution with the alcohol)
[Benzene is used to drive off or get all of the 5% of water out of distilled alcohol](https://www.google.com/search?q=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol&oq=Benzene%20is%20used%20to%20drive%20off%20or%20get%20all%20of%20the%205%25%20of%20water%20out%20of%20distilled%20alcohol). The (benzene) Alcohol will make you sick because of the benzene.
Surgical alcohol provides the most wonderful drunk. It is a body drunk with zero dizziness.
Dizziness comes from the long chain fusel oil(s) (alcohols) in fermented alcohol. Fusel oil alcohols are not present in surgical alcohol. All fusel oil alcohols boil off at a different, slightly higher temperature than ethanol (drinking alcohol). Sloppy or rushed distilling gets the higher temperature fusel oil alcohols coming over with the ethanol. Really sloppy and very rushed distilling gets the first run methyl alcohol, methanol . . . which causes permanent eyesight loss. Long chain alcohols cause much of the hangover effect of headaches.
Yeasts produce fusel oils when they struggle to produce higher percentage alcohol levels in wines and beers.
[https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL+OIL+ALCOHOLS](https://www.google.com/search?q=FUSEL%20OIL%20ALCOHOLS) |
55,158 | I've recently noticed that most of my activity with Google and its services goes through a local Google Global Cache server set up by our ISP. Since I don't fully trust the ISP, this has become a big concern for me.
Is it possible for the provider to read the encrypted requests that pass through GGC, thus getting access to my mail, documents, search queries and perhaps even password? | 2014/04/08 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/55158",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/43723/"
] | As described [here](https://peering.google.com/about/getting_ggc.html):
>
> Once registered and qualified by Google, we will send you a simple agreement for joining the GGC program. After you have electronically signed this agreement, Google will *ship you servers that you install in your facility* and attach to your network. Google will work with you to configure the servers and bring them into service.
>
>
>
Emphasis is mine. What this means is that your ISP can *potentially* inspect all the Google queries that the GGC is supposed to cache -- but this entails "opening" some tangible servers shipped by Google themselves. I suppose this would be a flagrant breach of the contractual agreement between the ISP and Google, so chances are that your ISP won't do that. Unless Google agrees, of course. Even if your local Law enforcement agencies insist on eavesdropping on you, it is probable that Google will be involved. | Your search queries are definitely very easily accessed as you can see by the [recent DNS interception in Turkey](http://googleonlinesecurity.blogspot.com/2014/03/googles-public-dns-intercepted-in-turkey.html).
How much information they are able to get depends on how extensive the interception is. Your search queries are the easiest for them to see. Use [DuckDuckGo](https://duckduckgo.com/) while signed out of Google in an incognito browser for more secure search queries.
As far as other requests, if "they" really want to see it, I'm sure "they" could get to it other ways, not only through your ISP... |
41,403,674 | I'm searching for pointers to structs in the memory of a program, that are 4 bytes away from each other, but the amount can vary. I'm pretty sure that after the structs comes some other variable that's not a pointer.
I figured if I tried to use that next variable as a pointer and apply to it the highest offset the struct I'm looking for can have, GetProcessMemory(I'm doing this in c++ btw) would fail, and I'd know it's not the thing I'm looking for and that the "list" of pointers to structs I'm looking for ends there.
But that seems unreliable since it could happen that that next variable would have a value that pointed to another valid struct and GetProcessMemory would **NOT** fail, so I'm asking if there's a better way.
CheatEngline seems to do it pretty flawlessly, so what am I missing?
Thank you in advance. | 2016/12/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41403674",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5352316/"
] | GCS provides strong read-after-write consistency. If you upload a new version of an object and then download it back, you will always get the new version of the object.
However, by default, when a publicly readable object is fetched, GCS responds with a "Cache-Control" header allowing caching for up to 1 hour. Google itself, your web browser, or some firewall between you and Google may decide based on that header to cache your object. You can check to see if this is the problem by fetching the object again and tacking some bogus URL parameter onto the end of the request, like "?avoidTheCaches=1".
You can prevent this from happening by setting the object's "cacheControl" property to something like "private" or "max-age=0". You can set this property as part of an upload. You can also modify the property for an existing object, but if the resource has already been cached, you'll have to wait out the hour before you'll see the new version. | You can go to the object in your console, click on "Edit Metadata", then enter what you want in the "Cache control" field. If you want no caching at all, you can add the string `no-store`.
Documentation on the allowed values is [here](https://cloud.google.com/storage/docs/metadata#cache-control). |
60,070,913 | Usually we can get data using ODBC connector in Power BI. Is there any way to get the data using the JDBC connector? | 2020/02/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/60070913",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/12843669/"
] | Unfortunately there is no native support for JDBC.
You can upvote the feature request for JDBC [at this link](https://ideas.powerbi.com/forums/265200-power-bi-ideas/suggestions/7262643-support-jdbc-data-sources)
There are options that convert your JDBC connection in to an ODBC one, known as JDBC to ODBC bridges. [Oracle has one](https://download.oracle.com/otn_hosted_doc/jdeveloper/904preview/jdk14doc/docs/guide/jdbc/getstart/bridge.doc.html) and [here is a Progress option](https://www.progress.com/tutorials/jdbc/use-your-custom-jdbc-driver-with-microsoft-power-bi). Once configured you can then use the PowerBI ODBC connector. | Since Power BI is not coded in java its not easy to support JDBC (you will see only ODBC or .net based connectors in PBI). If Microsoft ever wants to add support for JAVA in Power BI then they might have to do via some sort of bridge.
If you are open for 3rd party solution then [here is one option by ZappySys](https://zappysys.com/api/integration-hub/jdbc-connector/power-bi)
This same problem happens in many non java apps like Excel, MS Access, Informatica PowerCenter they all are not coded in JAVA so cant support loading java libs / runtime. |
149,192 | The basic meaning of overhead is "above one's head"
However, in business field, usually An overhead cost or expense.
‘overheads, such as lighting, equipment, and any little extras, are paid for out of a centralized fund’
[Overhead (business) - Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Overhead_(business))[Overhead (business) - Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Overhead_(business))
In computing field,
In computer science, overhead is any combination of excess or indirect computation time, memory, bandwidth, or other resources that are required to perform a specific task.[Overhead (computing) - Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Overhead_(computing))
So the key extending meaning is 'indirect and excess'.
I really unable to relate the meaning to "above one's head"?
What can I discern might be 'dangerous', 'pressing', 'important' above one's head?
Is there a fable or a proverb about this? | 2017/12/05 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/149192",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/64925/"
] | The key is not, as you say, "indirect and excess" but "unavoidable costs incurred when performing work". It is the same for brick-and-mortar business establishments and for digital computation. The "work" may be different but the *core* concept of **overhead** is the same.
A business needs lights; a program needs electrical power; a business needs records, a program needs persistent memory, and so on.
As a mnemonic, the overhead of a brick-and-mortar business is "the roof overhead" (think part for whole, so the building and everything that goes with the physical establishment: rents, upkeep and maintenance, utilities, etc); a program's overhead likewise is the physical place where its work gets done, the computer and all of its associated resources (memory, CPU cycles, bandwidth, etc). | You are referring to the word in two different forms.
Overhead as a business cost is a ***noun***.
Overhead as in 'Birds flying overhead' is an ***adverb***.
More [here](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/overhead#Etymology_2) |
15,505 | I was reading this [article](http://www.riagenic.com/archives/526) about Metro UI designs, and I was struck by this statement:
>
> Example, if you look under the hood of a new car, you will see areas
> colored yellow whereas the rest is the same color of the engine etc.
> Car manufacturers do this on purpose, they want you to touch yellow
> yourself but if it is not yellow and you are not mechanically minded –
> leave alone.
>
>
>
The author recommends using a color like Yellow as the **secondary color** as a means to draw people’s attention to the fact "I’m ok if you touch this, you won’t break anything if you do" thinking .I am a little unsure about this mentality that if you see something which is marked a different color other than the primary or background color,you would immediately mark it as a safe.
What are your views on it? | 2011/12/28 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/15505",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5113/"
] | That example illustrates some cognitive psychology, named here as grouping. Works splendid!
More examples of visual cues:
<http://www.eruptingmind.com/depth-perception-cues-other-forms-of-perception/>
Perhaps you had something else in mind? If so, please elaborate your question.
Edit: Gestallt principles that is how it's called:
<http://www.interaction-design.org/encyclopedia/gestalt_principles_of_form_perception.html> | Color-coding is ages-old and nothing revolutionary. It's present almost everywhere in technology: from peripheral connectors to input devices to wiring to the aforementioned cars.
Traditional rules for color-coding are 1) all these go together and 2) touch these things and don't touch those at all, both of which we already follow by styling active & inactive elements differently. Meanwhile, the article suggests applying colors as "touch these without reservations and expect something more dangerous to happen if you touch those", which makes no sense at all since potentially damaging controls shouldn't be exposed to the end-user to begin with. |
15,505 | I was reading this [article](http://www.riagenic.com/archives/526) about Metro UI designs, and I was struck by this statement:
>
> Example, if you look under the hood of a new car, you will see areas
> colored yellow whereas the rest is the same color of the engine etc.
> Car manufacturers do this on purpose, they want you to touch yellow
> yourself but if it is not yellow and you are not mechanically minded –
> leave alone.
>
>
>
The author recommends using a color like Yellow as the **secondary color** as a means to draw people’s attention to the fact "I’m ok if you touch this, you won’t break anything if you do" thinking .I am a little unsure about this mentality that if you see something which is marked a different color other than the primary or background color,you would immediately mark it as a safe.
What are your views on it? | 2011/12/28 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/15505",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5113/"
] | I think the example from the post makes reference to a key concept: grouping by color (probably described by a [Gestalt Principle](http://www.vanseodesign.com/web-design/gestalt-principles-of-perception/), but I can't find a reference to it now).
**In a site that has a prominent hue, an alternative hue will appear to be highlighted.**
Take as an example [this A/B testing](http://blog.hubspot.com/blog/tabid/6307/bid/20566/The-Button-Color-A-B-Test-Red-Beats-Green.aspx).
Both green and red are bright colors, but because the general hue of the site is green, the red button —which would normally convey caution— had better conversions.
The same happens with the car example: the motor is something that you don't need to touch. Anything that has te same color as the engine is *grouped* —psychologically— together. Whatever stands out, be it in yellow or any other color, will be likely to get the user's attention. | That example illustrates some cognitive psychology, named here as grouping. Works splendid!
More examples of visual cues:
<http://www.eruptingmind.com/depth-perception-cues-other-forms-of-perception/>
Perhaps you had something else in mind? If so, please elaborate your question.
Edit: Gestallt principles that is how it's called:
<http://www.interaction-design.org/encyclopedia/gestalt_principles_of_form_perception.html> |
15,505 | I was reading this [article](http://www.riagenic.com/archives/526) about Metro UI designs, and I was struck by this statement:
>
> Example, if you look under the hood of a new car, you will see areas
> colored yellow whereas the rest is the same color of the engine etc.
> Car manufacturers do this on purpose, they want you to touch yellow
> yourself but if it is not yellow and you are not mechanically minded –
> leave alone.
>
>
>
The author recommends using a color like Yellow as the **secondary color** as a means to draw people’s attention to the fact "I’m ok if you touch this, you won’t break anything if you do" thinking .I am a little unsure about this mentality that if you see something which is marked a different color other than the primary or background color,you would immediately mark it as a safe.
What are your views on it? | 2011/12/28 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/15505",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5113/"
] | As the original author, i'll add my reasons:
It has to do with the fact pattern recognition is a built in component within humans, once we identify a familiar pattern it then becomes easier to seed.
The thing is, most users don't turn up to the average software as UX virgins? that is to say they aren't using a computer for the first time (some solutions are excluded of course). Typically the mainstream UX out there is often a horrible or confusing experience, all the primary / secondary color selection does is encourage that the user pick-up on the differences between chrome colors and input colors. Input colors = good!
It has a bit to do with extraneous cognitive load meets gestalt's laws of organisation. | That example illustrates some cognitive psychology, named here as grouping. Works splendid!
More examples of visual cues:
<http://www.eruptingmind.com/depth-perception-cues-other-forms-of-perception/>
Perhaps you had something else in mind? If so, please elaborate your question.
Edit: Gestallt principles that is how it's called:
<http://www.interaction-design.org/encyclopedia/gestalt_principles_of_form_perception.html> |
15,505 | I was reading this [article](http://www.riagenic.com/archives/526) about Metro UI designs, and I was struck by this statement:
>
> Example, if you look under the hood of a new car, you will see areas
> colored yellow whereas the rest is the same color of the engine etc.
> Car manufacturers do this on purpose, they want you to touch yellow
> yourself but if it is not yellow and you are not mechanically minded –
> leave alone.
>
>
>
The author recommends using a color like Yellow as the **secondary color** as a means to draw people’s attention to the fact "I’m ok if you touch this, you won’t break anything if you do" thinking .I am a little unsure about this mentality that if you see something which is marked a different color other than the primary or background color,you would immediately mark it as a safe.
What are your views on it? | 2011/12/28 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/15505",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5113/"
] | I think the example from the post makes reference to a key concept: grouping by color (probably described by a [Gestalt Principle](http://www.vanseodesign.com/web-design/gestalt-principles-of-perception/), but I can't find a reference to it now).
**In a site that has a prominent hue, an alternative hue will appear to be highlighted.**
Take as an example [this A/B testing](http://blog.hubspot.com/blog/tabid/6307/bid/20566/The-Button-Color-A-B-Test-Red-Beats-Green.aspx).
Both green and red are bright colors, but because the general hue of the site is green, the red button —which would normally convey caution— had better conversions.
The same happens with the car example: the motor is something that you don't need to touch. Anything that has te same color as the engine is *grouped* —psychologically— together. Whatever stands out, be it in yellow or any other color, will be likely to get the user's attention. | Color-coding is ages-old and nothing revolutionary. It's present almost everywhere in technology: from peripheral connectors to input devices to wiring to the aforementioned cars.
Traditional rules for color-coding are 1) all these go together and 2) touch these things and don't touch those at all, both of which we already follow by styling active & inactive elements differently. Meanwhile, the article suggests applying colors as "touch these without reservations and expect something more dangerous to happen if you touch those", which makes no sense at all since potentially damaging controls shouldn't be exposed to the end-user to begin with. |
15,505 | I was reading this [article](http://www.riagenic.com/archives/526) about Metro UI designs, and I was struck by this statement:
>
> Example, if you look under the hood of a new car, you will see areas
> colored yellow whereas the rest is the same color of the engine etc.
> Car manufacturers do this on purpose, they want you to touch yellow
> yourself but if it is not yellow and you are not mechanically minded –
> leave alone.
>
>
>
The author recommends using a color like Yellow as the **secondary color** as a means to draw people’s attention to the fact "I’m ok if you touch this, you won’t break anything if you do" thinking .I am a little unsure about this mentality that if you see something which is marked a different color other than the primary or background color,you would immediately mark it as a safe.
What are your views on it? | 2011/12/28 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/15505",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/5113/"
] | As the original author, i'll add my reasons:
It has to do with the fact pattern recognition is a built in component within humans, once we identify a familiar pattern it then becomes easier to seed.
The thing is, most users don't turn up to the average software as UX virgins? that is to say they aren't using a computer for the first time (some solutions are excluded of course). Typically the mainstream UX out there is often a horrible or confusing experience, all the primary / secondary color selection does is encourage that the user pick-up on the differences between chrome colors and input colors. Input colors = good!
It has a bit to do with extraneous cognitive load meets gestalt's laws of organisation. | Color-coding is ages-old and nothing revolutionary. It's present almost everywhere in technology: from peripheral connectors to input devices to wiring to the aforementioned cars.
Traditional rules for color-coding are 1) all these go together and 2) touch these things and don't touch those at all, both of which we already follow by styling active & inactive elements differently. Meanwhile, the article suggests applying colors as "touch these without reservations and expect something more dangerous to happen if you touch those", which makes no sense at all since potentially damaging controls shouldn't be exposed to the end-user to begin with. |
43,089,847 | The Service Fabric Team announced in their [blog post](https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/announcing-azure-service-fabric-5-5-and-sdk-2-5/) that Service Fabric now supports *Refresh Mode* in Preview when debugging on a 1 Node cluster in Visual Studio 2015.
I've just installed the new Service Fabric SDK from the Web Platform Installer and have a .Net Core Web Application Service I'd like to try this out with.
Is there anything else I need to do to configure the Service/Application for Refresh Mode? I haven't noticed any new controls as such in Visual Studio. I can only hit *Debug* as normal. | 2017/03/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43089847",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2463810/"
] | As the [announce](https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/announcing-azure-service-fabric-5-5-and-sdk-2-5/) states about Refresh application debug mode in Visual Studio 2015 as follows:
>
> In conjunction with ASP.NET Core integration support, we’ve added a new **application debug mode** to the Service Fabric Application project. Refresh Mode allows you to quickly iterate between writing code and debugging and supports edit and refresh for ASP.NET Core services, so you can now develop ASP.NET Core services in Service Fabric the same way you would outside of Service Fabric.
>
>
>
Though LoekD has pointed it out, I also tried to install Azure Service Fabric 5.5 and SDK 2.5, you could find the **Refresh Application (Preview)** as follows:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Mv8t1.png) | It's a new option in the Application Debug Mode values, in the properties of your SF Application project.
(from the detailed release notes document) |
359,762 | I using a TI buck regulator (LM21212) to power a bunch of components on my board at a certain voltage. When calculating stability, do I need to take into account all the decoupling capacitors (e.g. 0.1 uF and 0.01 uF) that I have placed next to all the components that is powered by the regulator? | 2018/03/05 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/359762",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/180124/"
] | Practically speaking, it's safe to ignore the decoupling capacitors around your circuit when designing a switching power supply. Pedantically, those capacitors will have some affect on the power supply, but they're negligible. Here's a few reasons why:
1. Most of the decoupling capacitors are electrically "far away". Your power supply is switching fast (probably 100's of kHz or MHz). The natural RC filter that is created by the length of copper trace and the distant 0.1uF capacitor makes it virtually unnoticed to the local LC filter happening right at the output of your power supply.
2. The output capacitance of switching regulators are typically large. Probably in the 10's or 100's of uF. The few tenths and hundredths of uF peppered around your circuit is lost in the noise of that bulk capacitance. In fact, the manufacturing tolerances on the big capacitors (5% - 20%, usually) will be larger than all the decoupling capacitors combined.
3. Your design should be stable enough where that little bit of extra capacitance doesn't affect stability margins. In other words, if your power supply is so close to instability that it is relying on a few tenths of uF, you've designed a poor power supply. | It depends what your specs are for step load response for transient delay and amplitude as well as ringing. Since every contributing dynamic and/or reactive part affects voltage ripple, it cannot be ignored.
Depending on your noisy immunity spec, you must specify worst case Ripple Voltage with a budget from each source. Then test and verify your design and qualified parts with step load response and ripple according to the design needs and phase margin if ringing is excessive.
The good part is the IC spec includes a PID compensation filter design. |
13,332 | I've heard and read about how recording/mixing engineers in the music business analyze each others mixes to learn the techniques used to make a certain track sound so good or what the latest trend/style is being used for them to incorporate in their work. They listen to how the track is balanced, panned and where each instrument fits in the frequency spectrum and so on, I'm guessing the same applies to a film or video game?, what else is there to look for? | 2012/03/31 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/13332",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/6524/"
] | *light spoilers ahead for We Own the Night, Inglorious Basterds and Michael Clayton ahead*
Be careful not to get too lost in the technical details. Be mindful of the overall purpose of the sound design. I brought this up in another question a couple years ago... the movie, We Own the Night, starring Joaquin Phoenix and Mark Wahlberg has a very compelling car chase sequence in the rain where the viewer gets the sense of claustrophobia as the unwilling passenger in the car that's being chased thanks to great editing and sound design.
In Inglorious Basterds, the scene where the Nazi officer gets beaten to death with a bat is pretty intense. You get this great buildup as Sgt. Donny Donowitz beats his bat against the wall of this long tunnel for an eternity... before he even appears on screen. Accompanying his entrance is this epic music that heralds the Bear Jew and just when the tension and music builds up to its highest point, the music is pulled out and all we hear are the cheers of the American Soldiers and the brutal pummeling of the twitching Nazi officer. It kind of makes for a rather dystopic experience if your sensitive to such brutality. At the same time, the movie does not really tell you how to feel about the scene. It's pretty much determined by how you feel about the situation as it unfolded.
Lastly, there's a scene in Michael Clayton near the end where Michael's Car blows up in the background. You see his car in the distance and out of focus blow up and almost a second later you hear the explosion. Perhaps someone accidentally slipped the explosion SFX behind a second or so by accident. Or, was it done on purpose to create a surreal effect. As if to ask yourself, "Did my car just blow up?" only to get the affirmative answer a half second later with the explosion. Or perhaps that happened as recorded because light travels faster than sound and to get that delay, Michael was far enough away from the effect to watch that delay occur (*shrug*)
Anyway, my point is to also consider the context or the role sound design plays in supporting or telling the story. | I found it effective to use Adobe Audition and XMind (mind mapping tool).
In Audition I am able to see both waveform and spectrum at the same time. I set markers at the in and out points of certain audio sections that I'm interested in and then use Marque Tool to listen to exact frequency range of the sound. I can reverse, de-noise, make it louder.
In XMind I have a template mindmap for this kind of task with several sections that I need to fill in, like Melody, Harmony, Rhythm, Instruments, FX, Structure, Mix, Automation, Stats etc. I tried to use simple lists and spreadsheets for this but I'm a visual person and mindmaps just work better for me. |
13,332 | I've heard and read about how recording/mixing engineers in the music business analyze each others mixes to learn the techniques used to make a certain track sound so good or what the latest trend/style is being used for them to incorporate in their work. They listen to how the track is balanced, panned and where each instrument fits in the frequency spectrum and so on, I'm guessing the same applies to a film or video game?, what else is there to look for? | 2012/03/31 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/13332",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/6524/"
] | The music engineering world is very different from a technical standpoint because the music usually stands on its own, giving the engineers, producers and artists free reign (more or less) to make choices without penalty. On the other hand, film and game sound design must work harmoniously with visual elements to tell a story (as Hubert described above). It's quite easy to get in the habit of listening to the finer details of the mix (panning, processing, reverbs, etc.), but remember that the ordinary listener appreciates sound design as a whole gesture and not as a sum of parts. Moreover, many designers strive to design that way too, trumping slight imperfections in the mix with contextual intent.
When watching films and playing games, sit back, turn off the lobe of your brain that says "whoa what's the reverb tail on that", and just enjoy the experience first. Try to listen without expectations, and then when you listen again and check out the detail you'll have a better understanding of why the designers made the decisions they did. | I found it effective to use Adobe Audition and XMind (mind mapping tool).
In Audition I am able to see both waveform and spectrum at the same time. I set markers at the in and out points of certain audio sections that I'm interested in and then use Marque Tool to listen to exact frequency range of the sound. I can reverse, de-noise, make it louder.
In XMind I have a template mindmap for this kind of task with several sections that I need to fill in, like Melody, Harmony, Rhythm, Instruments, FX, Structure, Mix, Automation, Stats etc. I tried to use simple lists and spreadsheets for this but I'm a visual person and mindmaps just work better for me. |
112,888 | Many cooks/chefs recommend resting meat. There's a saying of "rest for the same length of time it was cooked".
For steaks this is fine, a 6 or so min cooking time means 6 mins at room temp is okay. But what about a full chicken or turkey? Depending on the size, they're cooked for 2-3 hours or more. Surely it's not safe to let those sit at room temperature for 2-3 hours?
It could rest at room temperature, for example, one hour, then the remaining time in the fridge, but this makes the meat cold, and in fact loses the "freshly cooked" essence to a degree.
So if you want to rest a chicken or turkey for the 3 hours of cooking time, must half of that be in the fridge to avoid bacteria growth? Or is there a better way than the fridge which seems to make chicken/turkey a little tougher after it's been cooled? | 2020/11/29 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/112888",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/20465/"
] | There is a rule of thumb
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RSIN5.png)
This is not the full story
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dDT86.png)
A cooked turkey should be at 72C. When you take it out of the oven it will start cooling down. As it cools into the 40s bacteria will have good conditions to grow. The turkey is sterile because of cooking but bacteria can attach to exposed surfaces. Cutting the turkey will expose more, and probably your hands will spread bacteria.
It follows that a whole turkey is safer, especially if it is covered, since the inside of the bird will have no bacteria, only the outside.
So the 2 hour rule, which states a turkey rested for 3 hours must be eaten and not refrigerated is not really a one size fits all fact. But it's a rule of thumb when you don't have a lab and culture tests. Ignoring such rules is at your own risk but you can use common sense.
At home you might happily rest a turkey for 3 hours but in a commercial setting this could violate local laws if you kept the leftovers and someone got sick, you wouldn't have a defence and could be criminally liable for failing to follow defined rules. Most commercial health and safety rules err on the side of being more conservative than is necessary, because a dry turkey is better than people getting sick and suing you. Remember that bacteriology is about numbers and we might talk about 6.5D reductions (10^6.5) and McDonalds might use a higher level, and an expensive restaurant is almost certainly on a lower level as shown by many food poisoning cases in fancy restaurants. That's because McDonalds have a huge number of customers so even 1 in 10 million getting sick might be too much for their lawyers, whereas if you are cooking at home then you won't even eat that many meals in your whole life, so probably follow less stringent standards and get sick rarely. | I don't think there is a consensus on how long you should rest meat, be it a turkey, chicken or steak or other meats.
Personally, I think the 3 hours is a little bit on the extreme side of it, but I don't see anything wrong or unsafe if the turkey was cooked to a good temperature.
Remember that meat will continue to carry the heat for a while and that a bigger piece of meat will keep the temperature for a longer time than a small one.
In the case of a turkey, it can keep warm (above bacteria temperature) for a while ( in a normal temperature kitchen, YMMV if you have a really cold temperature)
Anecdotal, I usually let my chicken rest for 5, 10 minutes in the cooking pan while I prepare the rest of the meal (finish up veggies, prepare the sauce...)
(disclaimer, I've not done a thorough search) USDA and the CDC don't talk about bacteria that much except when storing leftovers.
<https://www.usda.gov/media/blog/2016/11/22/how-cook-thanksgiving-turkey>
<https://www.fsis.usda.gov/wps/portal/fsis/topics/food-safety-education/get-answers/food-safety-fact-sheets/poultry-preparation/lets-talk-turkey/CT_Index>
[https://www.usda.gov/media/blog/2011/05/25/cooking-meat-check-new-recommended-temperatures#:~:text=%E2%80%9CRest%20time%E2%80%9D%20is%20the%20amount,rise%2C%20which%20destroys%20harmful%20bacteria](https://www.usda.gov/media/blog/2011/05/25/cooking-meat-check-new-recommended-temperatures#:%7E:text=%E2%80%9CRest%20time%E2%80%9D%20is%20the%20amount,rise%2C%20which%20destroys%20harmful%20bacteria).
<https://www.cdc.gov/foodsafety/communication/holiday-turkey.html> |
836,144 | I have two devices in the same broadcast domain. My PC and an Avaya IP Control Unit.
My IP is **10.168.10.154/22**.
Avaya Device IP is **192.168.10.99/23**.
I am able to ping this device and don't understand how.
1. The Avaya Device has no gateway set.
2. Even if it did, there are no routes on the Cisco router to any **192.168.x.x** networks. The switches all have L3 functions turned off.
3. The MAC Address shown from "arp -a" on my PC is the same MAC Address shown in the MAC Address Table of the switch the Avaya Device is connected to. So I think I can safely assume there is no ARP Proxy.
4. Route Print on my local machine shows: **192.168.10.99 255.255.255.255** On-link **10.168.10.154** 26
5. Tracert shows: Tracing route to **192.168.10.99** over a maximum of 30 hops
1 \* 1 ms <1 ms **192.168.1.99**
Even more odd, my PC seems to be the only device that can ping the Avaya device. My PC has one physical interface, and it has no sub-interfaces. There is a virtual inteface created by VirtualBox, but it resides in the 192.168.56.0/24 network so I'm not sure it's relevant. Possibly worth mentioning is that this is a MacMini running Bootcamp, so maybe this is a function of Bonjour? | 2017/03/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/836144",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/158670/"
] | >
> Route Print on my local machine shows: 192.168.10.99 255.255.255.255 On-link
> 10.168.10.154 26
>
>
>
That is why, the On-link routes are accessible locally without any gateway, many times they are created when you connect via dial-up (to Avaya device maybe). You have to find out why this route is being created. Maybe it was just a left over or was added manually in the past as a persistent route, Try deleting the route, ping, then reboot and ping to see it was not created again somehow. | It looks to me like you have an additional ip address assigned to your NIC.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ItJ0x.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zktPU.png) |
394,806 | I was walking to school (England) with my eight-year-old talking about stuff she'd been doing the day before. At some point she said that something had been "...funner..." than something else.
I did not immediately realise that 'fun' is, historically at least, a noun and NOT an adjective. So I was wondering in my head why 'fun' (as an adjective) sounded wrong when made into the standard comparative for a single syllable adjective (i.e. 'funner').
I have since looked 'fun' up and realise that 'officially' 'fun' is not an adjective (see OED, and <https://grammarianism.wordpress.com/2015/06/05/can-fun-be-an-adjective/>).
I'm wondering whether adjectival usage is increasing. Whether it is regional (I'm guessing it's an American import); And whether, adjectivally, it is commoner to say *funner* and *funnest*, or *more fun* and *most fun*. The latter sound better to me, presumably because they are usages that are found when fun is used as a noun. | 2017/06/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/394806",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/103961/"
] | Nowadays it's common to use "fun" as an adjective.
Fun is used for talking about something that is enjoyable
or someone that you enjoy being with.
1) Barcelona is a fun city.
2) Our day at the beach was really fun.
The examples are collected from Macmillan dictionary. And by saying " more /most fun ", you will be in the safe side.
<http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/who-says-fun-cant-be-an-adjective> : This article is worth a read. | No, definitely not!
I might say it is the 'most fun city', but it is not really my (British)style.
I would be more likely to say "I had more fun in Barcelona than in any other city"
I can spare the extra time and ink for a more 'elegant' sentence! |
238,635 | I will be explaining what I think:
A battery acts like a pump which provides energy to do work on negative charges to move them towards the negative terminal, and hence creating an electric field. Now, due to this field, when a wire is connected to make a circuit, electrons move from negative to positive terminal, thereby making electric current. Now, if I put more and more resistors in the circuit, the electrons will have to do more and more work. Let me explain in more detail: Suppose there is only 1 resistor. Then, electrons will flow through it, they will loose some of their energy(to produce some desired effect like light or heat), but, because they are under the influence of the electric field, they will again gain some more energy. Now, if I add more resistors, the activity will be the same. Electrons will loose energy, and then again gain some through the electric field. Then, why does a battery drain faster in more resistors? Battery is just pumping charge from positive to negative terminal, what else is it doing? Why does it drain quicker?
(For good explanation, viewers can consider resistors to be bulbs)
NOTE: Resistors are being added in series! | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/238635",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/87129/"
] | If you add more resistors in series the effect will be the opposite of what you say: the battery will last longer. A battery has a certain rated capacity, written in mAh (milliamps times hours). Divide this capacity by the current you are drawing and you will get how much will that battery last in hours, at the same current draw. More resistance means less current, so you obtain more battery life. Think of this water analogy: how much will it take for a water reservoir to empty if you drain it? The more water you take out per time, the faster it empties. | The power consumed by your circuit determines how fast the battery drains. P = I \* E: power (Watts) is found by multiplying the current (Amps) by the voltage (Volts). Since your battery has a (reasonably) constant voltage under normal operation, current is the variable here.
I = E / R, amps = volts / ohms. If we combine these two equations, we get P = E ^ 2 / R. Since the voltage doesn't change, when the resistance goes up, the current and the power go down. So, adding series resistance to the circuit will make your battery last longer. |
238,635 | I will be explaining what I think:
A battery acts like a pump which provides energy to do work on negative charges to move them towards the negative terminal, and hence creating an electric field. Now, due to this field, when a wire is connected to make a circuit, electrons move from negative to positive terminal, thereby making electric current. Now, if I put more and more resistors in the circuit, the electrons will have to do more and more work. Let me explain in more detail: Suppose there is only 1 resistor. Then, electrons will flow through it, they will loose some of their energy(to produce some desired effect like light or heat), but, because they are under the influence of the electric field, they will again gain some more energy. Now, if I add more resistors, the activity will be the same. Electrons will loose energy, and then again gain some through the electric field. Then, why does a battery drain faster in more resistors? Battery is just pumping charge from positive to negative terminal, what else is it doing? Why does it drain quicker?
(For good explanation, viewers can consider resistors to be bulbs)
NOTE: Resistors are being added in series! | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/238635",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/87129/"
] | If you add more resistors in series the effect will be the opposite of what you say: the battery will last longer. A battery has a certain rated capacity, written in mAh (milliamps times hours). Divide this capacity by the current you are drawing and you will get how much will that battery last in hours, at the same current draw. More resistance means less current, so you obtain more battery life. Think of this water analogy: how much will it take for a water reservoir to empty if you drain it? The more water you take out per time, the faster it empties. | Case 1:
They are connected in series - the more you add the higher the resistance, the less current - longer life
Rtot = R1 + R2 + ... RN
Case 2:
They are connected in parallel - the more you add the lower the resistance, more current - shorter life
1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ... 1/RN
Case 3:
Mixed series/parallel connection - who knows! Requires circuit analysis (such as Thevenin or Norton equivalent circuit) |
238,635 | I will be explaining what I think:
A battery acts like a pump which provides energy to do work on negative charges to move them towards the negative terminal, and hence creating an electric field. Now, due to this field, when a wire is connected to make a circuit, electrons move from negative to positive terminal, thereby making electric current. Now, if I put more and more resistors in the circuit, the electrons will have to do more and more work. Let me explain in more detail: Suppose there is only 1 resistor. Then, electrons will flow through it, they will loose some of their energy(to produce some desired effect like light or heat), but, because they are under the influence of the electric field, they will again gain some more energy. Now, if I add more resistors, the activity will be the same. Electrons will loose energy, and then again gain some through the electric field. Then, why does a battery drain faster in more resistors? Battery is just pumping charge from positive to negative terminal, what else is it doing? Why does it drain quicker?
(For good explanation, viewers can consider resistors to be bulbs)
NOTE: Resistors are being added in series! | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/238635",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/87129/"
] | The power consumed by your circuit determines how fast the battery drains. P = I \* E: power (Watts) is found by multiplying the current (Amps) by the voltage (Volts). Since your battery has a (reasonably) constant voltage under normal operation, current is the variable here.
I = E / R, amps = volts / ohms. If we combine these two equations, we get P = E ^ 2 / R. Since the voltage doesn't change, when the resistance goes up, the current and the power go down. So, adding series resistance to the circuit will make your battery last longer. | Case 1:
They are connected in series - the more you add the higher the resistance, the less current - longer life
Rtot = R1 + R2 + ... RN
Case 2:
They are connected in parallel - the more you add the lower the resistance, more current - shorter life
1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ... 1/RN
Case 3:
Mixed series/parallel connection - who knows! Requires circuit analysis (such as Thevenin or Norton equivalent circuit) |
1,021,571 | Can I use access 2007 VBA references with impunity (specifically, as far as the base language and old com interfaces are concerned) to develop VBA based solutions for access 2003?
Or is there some new/modified syntax added to the language that I need to be aware of?
Has the object model been enhanced drastically in office 2007?
Any other caveats? | 2009/06/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1021571",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/51103/"
] | The VBA language itself has not been changed between the recent versions of Microsoft Office (and is probably not going to change in the future either). The version of VBA from Access2000 onwards is VBA6.
The object model of the Office applications however is slighty modified. Microsoft usually only extends the OM by additional methods and properties. As far as Access is concerned, I cannot give you any details but you will find a list of modifications here:
>
> * [Object Model Changes Since Microsoft Office 2003](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb243750.aspx) (Access Developer Reference)
> * [New Objects, Collections, and Enumerations](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb243753.aspx)
>
>
>
In general, VBA solutions developed against a certain version of Office will work with a newer version. The devil lies in the details though. Due to bug fixing and new features the applications might behave *slighty* different than the older version. The only way to find out if everything still works is exhaustive testing. | If you are compiling your accdb/mdb to accde/mde, you want to make sure you compile them in the same version as your main applicaiton. I've had some trouble using Access 2003 MDE's with Access 2007 (and obviously vice versa). |
512 | I'm interested in investing in power functions based trains, but want to automate switching points. Is this possible? What is the cheapest / easiest way of achieving this? | 2011/11/02 | [
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/512",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/users/134/"
] | There is a pure way of changing the points at a track. It requires as few pieces as you like: a motor and two technic beam/bricks. This [video](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WoNiq5FCd9U) demonstrates the principles of point changing with a NXT motor and will work with PF and RCX.
[](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WoNiq5FCd9U&feature=player_detailpage#t=35s)
You can use Mindstorms to program the events that trigger the points to change. It will cost you extra, but there are benefits. | One elegant solution is to use pneumatic elements, as a [small pneumatic pump](http://www.bricklink.com/catalogItem.asp?P=x191c01) is enough to move the lever. If you're lazy to figure out how, you can [buy a kit from a fan](http://www.blokbricks.com/contents/en-us/p104.html?lmd=40799.435417) which will allow you to control 2 points (you'll need one more pump to generate the pressure). With the included instructions, you can build more controls if you have the parts, or simply buy more kits. (He also sells compatible pneumatic hose by the meter, and his custom waggons are nice as well).
His design is very compact, probably much more than you'll be able to get with electrical power; plus, it saves energy. The only drawback in my opinion is the hoses which you'll need to run from your control station to each point, which are slightly larger that electrical cables.
---
Another typical solution is to use a motor which controls the point. This will take more place, and you have to be careful that the motor doesn't run too far (use a [clutch gear](http://www.bricklink.com/catalogItem.asp?P=60c01)). One promising way is to use the new small linear actuator: [](http://www.bricklink.com/catalogItem.asp?P=92693c01) which should behave more or less like the mini pneumatic pump; but of course any other Technical solution should be good. Use your imagination, or dive into [BrickShelf](http://www.brickshelf.com/cgi-bin/search.cgi?q=remote+points&stype=fi) in search of inspiration.
Of course, you'll need to run electrical wires, or use infrared receivers, but then you'll be limited in the number of points you can control. Note that sometimes, the configuration of your layout means that pairs of switches can be controlled together (think of a bypass to change from one track to the other), so that you can spare some control channels, or wires.
--
Non-LEGO solutions can be achieved with about anything, including solenoids (electrical actuators), which LEGO doesn't produce. One other elegant solution I can think of is to use bike brake cable, but I have no real idea if that would be easy to do. |
512 | I'm interested in investing in power functions based trains, but want to automate switching points. Is this possible? What is the cheapest / easiest way of achieving this? | 2011/11/02 | [
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/512",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/users/134/"
] | One elegant solution is to use pneumatic elements, as a [small pneumatic pump](http://www.bricklink.com/catalogItem.asp?P=x191c01) is enough to move the lever. If you're lazy to figure out how, you can [buy a kit from a fan](http://www.blokbricks.com/contents/en-us/p104.html?lmd=40799.435417) which will allow you to control 2 points (you'll need one more pump to generate the pressure). With the included instructions, you can build more controls if you have the parts, or simply buy more kits. (He also sells compatible pneumatic hose by the meter, and his custom waggons are nice as well).
His design is very compact, probably much more than you'll be able to get with electrical power; plus, it saves energy. The only drawback in my opinion is the hoses which you'll need to run from your control station to each point, which are slightly larger that electrical cables.
---
Another typical solution is to use a motor which controls the point. This will take more place, and you have to be careful that the motor doesn't run too far (use a [clutch gear](http://www.bricklink.com/catalogItem.asp?P=60c01)). One promising way is to use the new small linear actuator: [](http://www.bricklink.com/catalogItem.asp?P=92693c01) which should behave more or less like the mini pneumatic pump; but of course any other Technical solution should be good. Use your imagination, or dive into [BrickShelf](http://www.brickshelf.com/cgi-bin/search.cgi?q=remote+points&stype=fi) in search of inspiration.
Of course, you'll need to run electrical wires, or use infrared receivers, but then you'll be limited in the number of points you can control. Note that sometimes, the configuration of your layout means that pairs of switches can be controlled together (think of a bypass to change from one track to the other), so that you can spare some control channels, or wires.
--
Non-LEGO solutions can be achieved with about anything, including solenoids (electrical actuators), which LEGO doesn't produce. One other elegant solution I can think of is to use bike brake cable, but I have no real idea if that would be easy to do. | I just found this link on another forum.
This is a set of instructions for using a medium power functions motor to switch the point. It is quite compact and is compatible with the infrared receiver.
(page 7 of 8)
<http://www.flickr.com/photos/whoward69/3731639719/in/set-72157621512518259/> |
512 | I'm interested in investing in power functions based trains, but want to automate switching points. Is this possible? What is the cheapest / easiest way of achieving this? | 2011/11/02 | [
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/512",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/users/134/"
] | There is a pure way of changing the points at a track. It requires as few pieces as you like: a motor and two technic beam/bricks. This [video](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WoNiq5FCd9U) demonstrates the principles of point changing with a NXT motor and will work with PF and RCX.
[](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WoNiq5FCd9U&feature=player_detailpage#t=35s)
You can use Mindstorms to program the events that trigger the points to change. It will cost you extra, but there are benefits. | I just found this link on another forum.
This is a set of instructions for using a medium power functions motor to switch the point. It is quite compact and is compatible with the infrared receiver.
(page 7 of 8)
<http://www.flickr.com/photos/whoward69/3731639719/in/set-72157621512518259/> |
35,636,377 | I have a Universal application in Swift 2.0 developed in XCode 7.
On the storyboard simulated metrics, I have the 'size' set to 'iPhone 4.7-inch'.
When I run the application on my device (iPhone 5s), none of the labels are aligned and the toolbar is out of view. -This is also the case when I run using the iPad device in XCodes simulator.
Image of what the view controller contains ...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jiOof.png)
From the snippet above, when I run this VC on my iPhone there is no margin on the right side, and the toolbar is cropped off.
Can anyone advise how I can make a universal application show all the content in the VC, on all devices. Or how I would simply show the toolbar ... | 2016/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35636377",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5330854/"
] | That's what auto layout (*constraints*) is for.
>
> On the storyboard simulated metrics, I have the 'size' set to 'iPhone 4.7-inch'.
>
>
>
That's irrelevant, and indeed misleading, since in means that only on the iPhone 4.7-inch will your app look like the storyboard design — unless you use auto layout.
iPhones come in many screen sizes. Basically, you have no way of knowing, as you design, *what* the screen size will actually be! Auto layout is the solution. Auto layout allows your interface elements to adjust *automatically* as the app launches on a particular size screen. iPads can serve as an extension of this — i.e., just an even larger size screen — or you can even use *conditional constraints* to make the interface quite different on the iPad from the iPhone, if desired - all designed in a single storyboard. | Maybe you are using auto layout and auto constraint. You could deactivate this in opening the storyboard, open up right panel , go to "show the file inspector" section and under Interface Builder Document uncheck auto layout and auto constraint
[Image here](http://i.stack.imgur.com/4FN5X.png)
Select your item view, go into "Show the size inspector" and there you can set your autoresizing for all devices |
61,742 | What, if any, ability does a priest or bishop have in order to stop a brother priest who has confessed to molestation of minors, according to Canon Law?
Very often I hear, and am personally aware of local priests, being re-assigned; so presumably some action can be taken in response to a confession like this. What can a priest do without breaking the seal of the sacrament? What is the strongest action he can take to stop the molester? | 2018/01/16 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/61742",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/20611/"
] | Canon law is very explicit on this...
The priest can't betray the person confessing (983.1)
>
> The sacramental seal is inviolable; therefore it is **absolutely forbidden** for a confessor to betray in any way a penitent in words or in **any manner and for any reason**.
>
>
> Sacramentale sigillum inviolabile est; quare **nefas** est confessario verbis vel alio quovis et quavis modo de causa aliquatenus prodere paenitentem.
>
>
>
Considering these rules, if the priest confessing sexual attacks only ever discloses it in the sacrament of reconciliation, **he is free from any disciplinary action from the bishop**.
If he were to disclose such abuses **outside** the sacrament of reconciliation, (or get caught), **only then** is he vulnerable to disciplinary actions.
Let's say the Bishop was suspicious about a priest and decided to tell a random person to eavesdrop on the confession...
Canon Law 983.2 covers that
>
> The interpreter, if there is one, and all others who in any way have knowledge of sins from confession are also obliged to observe secrecy.
>
>
>
The priest facing disciplinary actions as a result of such abuses (hopefully) either **got caught** or disclosed it **outside the sacrament of reconciliation**.
The priest hearing this confession can encourage him to give himself up.
What if the Priest told the guy confessing that his penance is giving himself up?
Using the example of another type of sin, (murder) [Fr. Charles Grondin answered this question saying...](https://forums.catholic.com/t/can-a-priest-require-you-turn-yourself-into-the-police-as-penance/343813)
>
> To require that someone turn himself in to the police would be to require him to reveal his confession to a third party. While the sinner is free to do so if he chooses, to require it would appear to be the equivalent of the priest revealing the contents of the confession via a secondary source. In light of canon 984, the priest only knows who the murderer is based on the confession. **To require the penitent to turn himself in to the police would be to use that information to the detriment of the penitent**. And if the absolution is essentially conditional upon this requirement it would seem to also violate canon 980. If someone is not sufficiently contrite the confessor can simply withhold absolution. If the penitent is sufficiently contrite the priest can most certainly encourage him to turn himself in to the police but **to require someone to reveal their confession to another would violate canon law**.
>
>
> Can. 980 If the confessor is in no doubt about the penitent's disposition and the penitent asks for absolution, it is not to be denied or delayed.
>
>
> Can. 984 §1. A confessor is prohibited completely from using knowledge acquired from confession to the detriment of the penitent even when any danger of revelation is excluded.
>
>
> | Oregon, USA, passed a law requiring the breaking of confidentiality in cases of child abuse/molestation.
Psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers, teachers, and attorneys all signed on board. The Catholic Church was the only hold out.
It did not do the Church well in the social structure of such a liberal state. The Church (according to media reports) lost their challenge in the state supreme court, but the Church's response was that it would take the risk of a priest's imprisonment for failing to report rather than violate the Sacrament.
The Sacrament is inviolable.
As for moving priests around, this is ubiquitous, not just confined to abuse cases. The typical tenure of a priest at any particular parish is 6 years. There have been some egregious examples which the Church has paid millions of dollars over. |
47,301,777 | I want to record phone screen in a video format.
Is there a way to record my screen using ARcore android SDK?? | 2017/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/47301777",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8943551/"
] | Do you want the recording functionality to be built into your app? If not, just use something like the [DU Recorder](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.duapps.recorder) App. Worked well for me for recording Google Tango Apps. Haven't tested it with ARCore, but should work as well. | Try to see if this works for you - <https://stackoverflow.com/a/31547690/855984>
The only thing that sucks about it is that you'll need to be tethered via USB cable to control the recording.
Android Studio will sample whatever it is you are seeing on your device provided that you're the owner of the process. Won't work for ripping other stuff visuals like Netflix for example. |
47,301,777 | I want to record phone screen in a video format.
Is there a way to record my screen using ARcore android SDK?? | 2017/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/47301777",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8943551/"
] | Do you want the recording functionality to be built into your app? If not, just use something like the [DU Recorder](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.duapps.recorder) App. Worked well for me for recording Google Tango Apps. Haven't tested it with ARCore, but should work as well. | I was successfully able to record the phone screen by using a recordablesurfaceview in place of the GLSurfaceView. see: <https://github.com/UncorkedStudios/recordablesurfaceview>. The OnDrawFrame is called twice by recordablesurfaceview, once to render to the screen and the second time to record the video. Once the video is saved you can upload it to the server as you desire. |
28,650,198 | Forking on Github or Bitcket creates a repo's copy under your own account.
Does this mean that forking is a server-side action? I was unable to find "fork command" inside Git.
If it's not a server-side action, what are the steps to fork a local Git repository with full history and tags? | 2015/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28650198",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/437039/"
] | *Forking* is not a technical operation but a process which happens in software development:
>
> [...] a project fork happens when developers take a copy of source code from one software package and start independent development on it, creating a distinct and separate piece of software.
>
>
>
*source: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fork_%28software_development%29>*
Therefore, strictly speaking there isn't the notion of *forking* in git. That said, in order to fork a project that's in a Git repository, you have to `git-clone` it. | Forking is just copying the whole repo. `git clone` is how you do it locally. Or you could literally just copy the entire repo.
See also [Are git forks actually git clones?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/6286571/git-fork-is-git-clone) |
28,650,198 | Forking on Github or Bitcket creates a repo's copy under your own account.
Does this mean that forking is a server-side action? I was unable to find "fork command" inside Git.
If it's not a server-side action, what are the steps to fork a local Git repository with full history and tags? | 2015/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28650198",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/437039/"
] | *Forking* is not a technical operation but a process which happens in software development:
>
> [...] a project fork happens when developers take a copy of source code from one software package and start independent development on it, creating a distinct and separate piece of software.
>
>
>
*source: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fork_%28software_development%29>*
Therefore, strictly speaking there isn't the notion of *forking* in git. That said, in order to fork a project that's in a Git repository, you have to `git-clone` it. | There is a great summary of forking on [GitHub](https://help.github.com/articles/fork-a-repo/), but essentially you are creating a copy of their repo so you can make your own changes to it without affecting the source repo.
This means you can build upon what someone else has done but alter it to your own ends. |
28,650,198 | Forking on Github or Bitcket creates a repo's copy under your own account.
Does this mean that forking is a server-side action? I was unable to find "fork command" inside Git.
If it's not a server-side action, what are the steps to fork a local Git repository with full history and tags? | 2015/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28650198",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/437039/"
] | *Forking* is not a technical operation but a process which happens in software development:
>
> [...] a project fork happens when developers take a copy of source code from one software package and start independent development on it, creating a distinct and separate piece of software.
>
>
>
*source: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fork_%28software_development%29>*
Therefore, strictly speaking there isn't the notion of *forking* in git. That said, in order to fork a project that's in a Git repository, you have to `git-clone` it. | The representation of **Fork** in Github is a git configuration with some server side logics for **Pull Requests** features.
**Commands to simulate a github fork in git commands:**
>
> git clone externalrepo
>
>
> git remote rename origin external
>
>
> create a empty repositories (could be any server, but when you use *github fork* is create in your account)
>
>
> git remote add origin yourownrepo
>
>
> git push origin
>
>
>
This is the basic git commands to simulate a fork, and **yes a fork live in a server** because a git only local is useless.
The extra feature from github is know that **your repo** is a fork of the **original repo** to automatically make pull request easy.
**Extra information**
One pull request is only a notification to **original repository** to see a specific branch on **your repo** and integrate:
You can simulate a pull request acceptance with the next git commands:
>
> git add remote pr11111 yourownrepo
>
>
> git checkout originalbranch //to be integrated
>
>
> git pull pr11111 yourbranch //the branch requested to pull
>
>
> git merge pr11111 yourbranch
>
>
> |
28,650,198 | Forking on Github or Bitcket creates a repo's copy under your own account.
Does this mean that forking is a server-side action? I was unable to find "fork command" inside Git.
If it's not a server-side action, what are the steps to fork a local Git repository with full history and tags? | 2015/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28650198",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/437039/"
] | Forking is just copying the whole repo. `git clone` is how you do it locally. Or you could literally just copy the entire repo.
See also [Are git forks actually git clones?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/6286571/git-fork-is-git-clone) | There is a great summary of forking on [GitHub](https://help.github.com/articles/fork-a-repo/), but essentially you are creating a copy of their repo so you can make your own changes to it without affecting the source repo.
This means you can build upon what someone else has done but alter it to your own ends. |
28,650,198 | Forking on Github or Bitcket creates a repo's copy under your own account.
Does this mean that forking is a server-side action? I was unable to find "fork command" inside Git.
If it's not a server-side action, what are the steps to fork a local Git repository with full history and tags? | 2015/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28650198",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/437039/"
] | The representation of **Fork** in Github is a git configuration with some server side logics for **Pull Requests** features.
**Commands to simulate a github fork in git commands:**
>
> git clone externalrepo
>
>
> git remote rename origin external
>
>
> create a empty repositories (could be any server, but when you use *github fork* is create in your account)
>
>
> git remote add origin yourownrepo
>
>
> git push origin
>
>
>
This is the basic git commands to simulate a fork, and **yes a fork live in a server** because a git only local is useless.
The extra feature from github is know that **your repo** is a fork of the **original repo** to automatically make pull request easy.
**Extra information**
One pull request is only a notification to **original repository** to see a specific branch on **your repo** and integrate:
You can simulate a pull request acceptance with the next git commands:
>
> git add remote pr11111 yourownrepo
>
>
> git checkout originalbranch //to be integrated
>
>
> git pull pr11111 yourbranch //the branch requested to pull
>
>
> git merge pr11111 yourbranch
>
>
> | There is a great summary of forking on [GitHub](https://help.github.com/articles/fork-a-repo/), but essentially you are creating a copy of their repo so you can make your own changes to it without affecting the source repo.
This means you can build upon what someone else has done but alter it to your own ends. |
609,872 | Is it safe to use the HTTP status code [308 Permanent Redirect](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc7238) ([suggestion](https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/draft-reschke-http-status-308-07)) in server responses? The issue with 301 Moved Permanently is that it only works with GET requests (to be fair: POST will transform to GET which is NOT an option).
The status code is very newish in "RFC time" so what would you suggest?
What would a browser do if its not aware of 308? Would it find the location and do 302? | 2014/07/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/609872",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/98811/"
] | <https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Status/308>
The RFC 7538 proposal have wide support today. It's safe.
308 instead 301. 307 instead 302.
move != redirect
Move reminds a specific address and/or file moved. Redirect is a new location or address. | To end this: No it is not safe to use that status code. See comments for details.
>
> 308 is not a standard - it's a proposal, still in the experimental stage. Browers should fall back to a 300 interpretation of any 301-399 error that they don't specifically understand.
>
>
>
Some browsers just fail completely on that status code. |
609,872 | Is it safe to use the HTTP status code [308 Permanent Redirect](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc7238) ([suggestion](https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/draft-reschke-http-status-308-07)) in server responses? The issue with 301 Moved Permanently is that it only works with GET requests (to be fair: POST will transform to GET which is NOT an option).
The status code is very newish in "RFC time" so what would you suggest?
What would a browser do if its not aware of 308? Would it find the location and do 302? | 2014/07/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/609872",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/98811/"
] | Although 308 is now a standard (<https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc7538>), **it is not currently Safe** [Edit] (as of 3 April 2019), especially for desktop applications, but may be almost safe in some specific regions (e.g. India), or for applications targeted at tablets and mobile devices.
The lack of safety is because IE 11 on Windows 7 and 8.1 does not support it. In IE 11 the site just appears to hang. Luckily the IE that shipped with Windows 10 does support it, so it will be just a case of waiting until the general populous moves on from Windows 7 (Win 7 has only just been surpassed by Win 10 in global usage stats, Win 8 is significantly less popular than both) [Edit] or your company makes a decision to no longer support it (which you can make a very strong case for from 14th January 2020 when [Windows 7 loses even long term support](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/windowsforbusiness/end-of-windows-7-support)), and even more so from 15th June 2022 when IE itself will no longer be supported (see [the download page for it](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=41628)).
All other modern browsers support it (Chrome, Firefox, Safari, Edge, Opera).
[Edit] Usage stats from March 2019 to help make your decision:
* 36.52% of desktop users are still on Windows 7
* 9.83% of desktop users were on IE; as Win10 pushed Edge so much, I'd assume most of these users to be on Win 7.
[Edit] Usage stats from March 2022:
* 24.79% of desktop users are still on Windows 7
* 4.84% of desktop users were on IE; as Win10 pushed Edge so much, I'd assume most of these users to be on Win 7. Ref [netmarketshare](https://netmarketshare.com/browser-market-share.aspx?options=%7B%22filter%22%3A%7B%22%24and%22%3A%5B%7B%22deviceType%22%3A%7B%22%24in%22%3A%5B%22Desktop%2Flaptop%22%5D%7D%7D%5D%7D%2C%22dateLabel%22%3A%22Trend%22%2C%22attributes%22%3A%22share%22%2C%22group%22%3A%22browserVersion%22%2C%22sort%22%3A%7B%22share%22%3A-1%7D%2C%22id%22%3A%22browsersDesktopVersions%22%2C%22dateInterval%22%3A%22Monthly%22%2C%22dateStart%22%3A%222018-04%22%2C%22dateEnd%22%3A%222019-03%22%2C%22segments%22%3A%22-1000%22%7D)
So, a decision to use 308 would affect less than 5% of desktop users as of this edit (2022-03-11). If your application is geared more towards tablets/mobile devices, this value will be significantly lower. Similarly if your app is specifically for the Indian market.
You can test if your browser supports 308 redirects here: <https://webdbg.com/test/308/> | To end this: No it is not safe to use that status code. See comments for details.
>
> 308 is not a standard - it's a proposal, still in the experimental stage. Browers should fall back to a 300 interpretation of any 301-399 error that they don't specifically understand.
>
>
>
Some browsers just fail completely on that status code. |
61,866 | They are very small and look like the earliest stages of thrip larva, but I have never seen an adult thrip, even though I see these guys often, so I don't think that's what they are. They walk on legs and have antennas. I find them in the bottom of tropical plant pots inside, and also in the bottom of veggie pots on the balcony in the summer. They do harm the plants where they live (slow unhealthy growth).
*Edited to add more details:*
The biggest ones are only 2mm long, which is why it's so hard to get a good picture. They start much smaller, and there can be hundreds of tiny dots/threads in the bits of liquid in the tray under the pot. They have 6 legs, and can jump when trying to avoid a stream of water. They are slightly off-white compared to a pure white piece of paper. They are somewhat bulbous like thrip larva, and they can be a bit transparent.
What are they, and how should I get rid of them?
Thanks!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fFSBw.jpg) | 2022/02/20 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/61866",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/29668/"
] | After the top part of the central leader of a Leyland spruce is broken, the tree will grow multiple leaders. These leaders compete for dominance, but often the result is several leaders growing alongside. This leads to the loss of the slender shape of the tree, and result in a V-shaped or further irregular shaped tree, which may be problematic, e.g., during snowfall.
So, it is recommended that after multiple leaders are developed, those be allowed to grow up to a point, and when it is clear that the healthiest or the most beautiful of those leaders will thrive further, the rest are trimmed off.
There are even [guides](https://homeguides.sfgate.com/cut-top-leyland-cypress-trees-67225.html) about how to cut back the top of Leyland cypress trees. | It will develop another leader, maybe a few, and continue grow. |
18,725 | How far should lay followers go, to help others?
There is no denying that we all have innate desire to ease suffering of others, but when it’s done without right understanding it may lead to a higher suffering to the assisted person. On the other had if it’s done with right understanding and with the aim to assist the others to grow in Dharma then it is fruitful.
As an example, let’s say your friend is grieved for not being able to celebrate New-Year in Paris with his fiancée because he wasn’t able to save up enough money. If you restore in relieving his grievance you could give him money, but this could be adding fuel on fire. A true teacher of the Dharma will correct his view and relieve him from clinging, however, most of us don’t have that kind of ability: we are in a dark, trying to correct our own view, and the virtues we call virtues are but a guess work.
The point that I’m trying to get at is that on some cases the so-called suffering which we trying to prevent on other people could be a wake-up call or a learning curve, and by preventing it we could be hindering the person from realizing the first noble truth.
Sometimes these so called virtues extend even further in the name of compassion and we find ourselves teaching and arguing about Dharma to correct other. There may be many other cases as well. So how should we curb our act not to hurt others and ourselves in the name of virtues? | 2017/01/01 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/18725",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The most important things is to get [Panna](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Praj%C3%B1%C4%81_(Buddhism)) yourself as much as you can. You can achieve it by either reading Tripitaka or consulting monks about wholesome and unwholesome acts or both.
Passionate or compassionate about others is generally speaking wholesome act. But it has it own merit as well as harm to helper and helped if improper intention or volition.
To be specific to your question,
Donation is good to donor as long as donor have no attachment to things donated and have [Metta](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mett%C4%81) to donee that he/she will free from sufferings. That is the very minimum requirements to have mind in donor. (There are many more details about making donation to the best, you can consult in Tripitaka and/or a well taught monks). In this case donor won't worry about how donee will use donated material/money.
For mental or verbal assistance,
Try to make your friend cheerful by encouraging, assisting to understand sufferings are not persisting. Try to do some activities and distracting him/her from thinking negative ideas if you are persuasive enough (you can either read some from Buddha's teachings or other religious teachings and non-religious self-help. The more you read, the more persuasive you are. Words have power).
For helping other people from clinging, you are absolutely right. No one, except Sammasam Buddha is the best because people with different hobby, desire, volition, perception and attitude need different delicate guidance to right path. We can only recommend some right ways to soothe sufferings. You can recommend him/her to do some meditation/Vipasana. Let him/her find what is bothering by himself/herself. How he/she can understand sufferings and how Buddha's Dhamma can guide him/her right way to end sufferings. There is nothing wrong if you are pushing someone to get to know Buddha's Dhamma as long as you put Metta on the people you are pushing. I read in Buddha's past life, he was pulled from hair to bring in front of Buddha and to get to know prior Buddha and Buddha teachings. But in this age of personal freedom, communities and societies don't go details to true intention of pushing someone hard and is not appreciated. | >
> *...by preventing it we could be hindering the person from realizing the first noble truth.*
>
>
>
It is very difficult to actually prevent another person from suffering. Generally, people are destined to suffering because of their strong wrong views & opinions. Otherwise, they have a positive intuition or wisdom, which allows us to help them.
Buddhism does not believe each person can attain enlightenment therefore we should try our best to prevent suffering because only a small minority of people will realise the 1st noble truth.
For many, suffering leads to a cycle of more suffering, which is why so many people use drugs & alcohol to annihilate their suffering.
>
> *Sometimes these so called virtues extend even further in the name of compassion and we find ourselves teaching and arguing about Dharma to
> correct other. There may be many other cases as well. So how should we
> curb our act not to hurt others and ourselves in the name of virtues?*
>
>
>
We cannot hurt people with the Dharma teachings. When people are hurt in Dharma discussion or debate, it is because they are using the teachings in the wrong way, i.e., for egoism (as explained in the Alagaddupama Sutta). |
41,784 | I download lots of lectures from iTunes U. The problem is, they usually come with video and there is no audio-only version for many.
How can I, using any software available for Snow Leopard, free or paid, extract the audio from a series of video files and end up with a series of audio files?
Any ideas? | 2012/02/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/41784",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/1377/"
] | Please try it with [VLC](http://www.videolan.org/), see [Extract Audio](http://wiki.videolan.org/Extract_audio) in the Videolan wiki. | I use AudioHijack Pro it costs money though. I can rip audio from DVDs and Internet streams. |
41,784 | I download lots of lectures from iTunes U. The problem is, they usually come with video and there is no audio-only version for many.
How can I, using any software available for Snow Leopard, free or paid, extract the audio from a series of video files and end up with a series of audio files?
Any ideas? | 2012/02/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/41784",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/1377/"
] | You can import the clip into iMovie, then export it as an AIF audio file using the iMovie Share menu's Quicktime export feature. Then you can import the AIF file into iTunes. Once it's in iTunes, you can create a much more compact MP3 version. All rather cumbersome. Too bad iTunes U doesn't just upload audio versions of all the lectures. The video files are big and unwieldy and difficult to use on an iPod. | I use AudioHijack Pro it costs money though. I can rip audio from DVDs and Internet streams. |
41,784 | I download lots of lectures from iTunes U. The problem is, they usually come with video and there is no audio-only version for many.
How can I, using any software available for Snow Leopard, free or paid, extract the audio from a series of video files and end up with a series of audio files?
Any ideas? | 2012/02/26 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/41784",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/1377/"
] | Old question, but one you can do that nobody mentioned is, download a bunch of Video Lectures using Itunes U.
Add the selections to a Playlist in iTunes.
Right click the Playlist and select Burn Playlist to Disc:
There will be Disc Formats : Audio CD. and MP3 Cd.
selecting either of those options will strip just the audio out of the disc. Selecting Mp3 CD will give you the list of Mp3 files you were after.
The only catch is you have to write them to disc first. But it requires no third party tools or downloads and if your car doesn't have an easy audio hookup for the iPhone you can play them right off the CD. | I use AudioHijack Pro it costs money though. I can rip audio from DVDs and Internet streams. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | [Evince](http://projects.gnome.org/evince/) does that...it's for Linux, but hey you never said anything about the OS: ;) | Since no OS is mentioned: Preview on Mac OS X does it by default. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | Acrobat Reader
 | **[PDF-Xchange Viewer](http://www.docu-track.com/home/prod_user/PDF-XChange_Tools/pdfx_viewer/)** does just that (and not only for the last opened document, but all documents). In addition you can create your own bookmarks.
PDF-Xchange Viewer is freeware and a portable version is available. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | [Evince](http://projects.gnome.org/evince/) does that...it's for Linux, but hey you never said anything about the OS: ;) | **[PDF-Xchange Viewer](http://www.docu-track.com/home/prod_user/PDF-XChange_Tools/pdfx_viewer/)** does just that (and not only for the last opened document, but all documents). In addition you can create your own bookmarks.
PDF-Xchange Viewer is freeware and a portable version is available. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | [**Foxit Reader**](http://www.foxitsoftware.com/pdf/reader/reader3.php) does that and it's free!
 | **[PDF-Xchange Viewer](http://www.docu-track.com/home/prod_user/PDF-XChange_Tools/pdfx_viewer/)** does just that (and not only for the last opened document, but all documents). In addition you can create your own bookmarks.
PDF-Xchange Viewer is freeware and a portable version is available. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | [Evince](http://projects.gnome.org/evince/) does that...it's for Linux, but hey you never said anything about the OS: ;) | [Okular](http://okular.kde.org/) |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | [**Foxit Reader**](http://www.foxitsoftware.com/pdf/reader/reader3.php) does that and it's free!
 | Since no OS is mentioned: Preview on Mac OS X does it by default. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | Acrobat Reader
 | Since no OS is mentioned: Preview on Mac OS X does it by default. |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | Acrobat Reader
 | [**Foxit Reader**](http://www.foxitsoftware.com/pdf/reader/reader3.php) does that and it's free!
 |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | [Evince](http://projects.gnome.org/evince/) does that...it's for Linux, but hey you never said anything about the OS: ;) | [Sumatra](http://blog.kowalczyk.info/software/sumatrapdf/free-pdf-reader.html) does that to all PDF files by default.
>
> Sumatra PDF is a free PDF, XPS, DjVu, CHM, Comic Book (CBZ and CBR)
> reader for Windows.
>
>
> |
99,021 | Do you know any PDF reader which remembers the last page for each document?
The usage scenario should be something like this:
* A new PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF file is opened on page 0
* Reading, reading, reading ... Reading finished at page 37.
* Reader closed
...
* The same PDF file is loaded into the reader
* The PDF File is opened on page 37
I don't need multiple bookmarks. Just one is enough. Any tips? | 2010/01/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/99021",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/11659/"
] | Acrobat Reader
 | [Evince](http://projects.gnome.org/evince/) does that...it's for Linux, but hey you never said anything about the OS: ;) |
48,386 | I'm moving to Canada from New York and I'm just checking in baggage along with plastic storage boxes. I'm trying to figure out the safest and most secure way to close the boxes. Any suggestions? Is this even possible? I'm flying Air Canada. I'd really appreciate feedback, packing is stressful enough. | 2015/05/28 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/48386",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/30087/"
] | You are flying FROM New York, hence you are at the mercy of TSA. And if the scanners show anything suspicious looking in your boxes, they will open them to inspect, in which case your duct tape, plastic wrap, etc will be cut open and useless.
What I usually do with boxes and cases like that is to get some compression straps for backpacking that are long enough to wrap around in either dimension and then strap the box shut (with straps going both directions and buckles on top of the lid). I then use duct tape to wrap around the case over the compression straps just below the lid. That way when TSA undoes the straps, they are right there ready to be refastened. I also tape a polite note, under where the buckles are, addressed to TSA, 'thanking them for their service protecting we travelers and asking them to be sure the straps are tightened down again' (not the exact wording ;-). It comes through just fine and I am often flying much further internationally.
This doesn't really address theft, but realistically when you consider how many bags get checked every day versus the number of actual thefts, air travel is relatively safe. And common sense says not to pack anything of value in a storage tote that is being checked. | Be aware that baggage handling systems are known not to be too gentle. It could pretty happily put your box upside down in a cart on a steep incline while heading to another part of the building at 30 km/h. When it gets there, it is usually tipped off the cart at speed and down a steep chute to the waiting luggage handlers below.
If my impression of your plastic box is correct (I'm thinking transparent IKEA ones), there are plenty of protruding edges and sharp corners it could get caught on. I'd advise using plenty of duct tape or IMHO taking cardboard boxes that are less likely to crack, better at absorbing impact and flush on the sides. I'd advise putting the heavy stuff at the bottom to encourage it to stay upright as desired if it is tall. |
48,386 | I'm moving to Canada from New York and I'm just checking in baggage along with plastic storage boxes. I'm trying to figure out the safest and most secure way to close the boxes. Any suggestions? Is this even possible? I'm flying Air Canada. I'd really appreciate feedback, packing is stressful enough. | 2015/05/28 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/48386",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/30087/"
] | You are flying FROM New York, hence you are at the mercy of TSA. And if the scanners show anything suspicious looking in your boxes, they will open them to inspect, in which case your duct tape, plastic wrap, etc will be cut open and useless.
What I usually do with boxes and cases like that is to get some compression straps for backpacking that are long enough to wrap around in either dimension and then strap the box shut (with straps going both directions and buckles on top of the lid). I then use duct tape to wrap around the case over the compression straps just below the lid. That way when TSA undoes the straps, they are right there ready to be refastened. I also tape a polite note, under where the buckles are, addressed to TSA, 'thanking them for their service protecting we travelers and asking them to be sure the straps are tightened down again' (not the exact wording ;-). It comes through just fine and I am often flying much further internationally.
This doesn't really address theft, but realistically when you consider how many bags get checked every day versus the number of actual thefts, air travel is relatively safe. And common sense says not to pack anything of value in a storage tote that is being checked. | I can't possibly comment on what you're likely to experience with the TSA, however I can recommend good storage bin for air travel.
Before moving to the UK from Canada in 2010, I bought two [24 gallon Rubbermaid ActionPackers](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B00002N6SQ "amazon.com") and a 4 pack of padlocks (all with the same key). I filled them both with my hand tools that I couldn't bear to leave behind, and also a couple blankets or pillows or something to keep things from bashing around too much.
I brought one bin and my parents brought the other a few weeks later. We flew the same route, Air Canada to YYZ and then IcelandAir to LHR via KEF.
Both bins and contents survived perfectly intact. None of the locks were cut by security in any of the three countries we passed through. My parents and I had keys on us at all times just in case we were required to open the bins, but nothing came of it. The only friction in the entire process was being asked to bring it to the oversized baggage drop. They x-rayed it in front of us and asked what was in it, but that was all.
The ActionPackers are a bit pricey compared to other similar sized bins but they're sturdy and lockable, plus you'll end up with a good quality bin at the end of it.
If you're worried about the TSA opening it up, you might be able to use the TSA approved locks, however you'd have to test this yourself as I don't have any TSA locks on me. I'm not sure of the minimum lock throat depth the ActionPackers require either. |
281,394 | Is it possible for a third party app to access macOS's clipboard content?
I am asking in relation to copy & paste sensitive data such as passwords and sensitive file content. | 2017/04/20 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/281394",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/234813/"
] | No security for data that is in one of the system clipboards is possible by design. This appears to be changing with 2020 features in publicly announced betas where [Apple potentially will notify us each time an app copies content out of the clipboard](https://www.macrumors.com/2020/06/23/ios-14-clipboard-pasted-notifications/). Some very common apps appear to be abusing the privilege and even if your password manager clears the contents quickly, this could easily be abused to steal keystrokes and passwords or other sensitive data.
The macOS clipboard is a public billboard open to all processes. Clipboard is the mechanism to let all apps read / modify shared data.
Practically you can Either restrict your set of apps installed to those you trust with the data you put in the clipboard or don't restrict sensitive content by never placing it into the clipboard so that the least trusted app only gets data you can permit it to see / log / capture / exfiltrate.
From here, the rabbit hole for developers and security minded people using macOS begins with an overview of secure text input options within programs to prevent key loggers in addition to pasteboard snoopers from grabbing secure input:
* [Technical Note TN2150: Using Secure Event Input Fairly](https://developer.apple.com/library/content/technotes/tn2150/_index.html)
* [insecure keyboard entry](http://bitsplitting.org/2014/12/09/insecure-keyboard-entry/) - a blog post by Daniel Jalkut
* [How secure is “Secure Keyboard Entry” in Mac OS X's Terminal?](https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/47749/how-secure-is-secure-keyboard-entry-in-mac-os-xs-terminal)
* <https://arstechnica.com/gadgets/2020/06/tiktok-and-53-other-ios-apps-still-snoop-your-sensitive-clipboard-data/>
There are some things you can do, however, to mitigate this. Freely available and trustworthy software can show you event taps, key loggers, exfiltration and just communication attempts so you can catch a program that might do things you don’t expect.
* <https://objective-see.com/products/reikey.html>
* <https://objective-see.com/products/lulu.html>
ReiKey and LuLu are two I would start with to secure yourself and thereby your clipboard contents. | Any process with sufficient permissions can read your clipboard at any time, and you can't easily prevent this. Security is always a trade-off with usability, and this is the choice that most (but not all) OSes take when implementing the clipboard.
Some apps that store sensitive data (e.g. [1Password](https://1password.com)) implement a timeout such that any information you copy out of that application is cleared from the clipboard a short time later. If you'd like to do something like that globally, you could look at the answers to [this previous question](https://apple.stackexchange.com/q/55146/2841) for ideas. |
60,580 | For example, several missions have been launched just to find ice at the lunar poles. Why do astronomers and space agencies care so much about there being ice somewhere? | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/60580",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/49512/"
] | Ice is very important for future missions. Ice is frozen water so if you send some humans there, you can save a lot of weight by using the water already in the area.
Water is H2O. This means that you can split the Hydrogen and oxygen and then converted it into rocket fuel. H would be the fuel and O the oxidiser.
The final thing is that water means that there could be life. Scientists already suspect that there might be bacteria on Europa (a moon of Jupiter). That would have great scientific purposes. | Water is the big one.
Why?
Because it's made up of Hydrogen and Oxygen, which in turn are the primary materials needed for ongoing spaceflight.
Hydrogen/Oxygen can be liquefied and used as rocket fuel.
We need oxygen to breathe, water to drink, and you can use both to grow more food.
So as long as you have water and a way to generate power, you have all the raw materials you need to operate a space base. Or a refueling station. Or whatever you want. |
60,580 | For example, several missions have been launched just to find ice at the lunar poles. Why do astronomers and space agencies care so much about there being ice somewhere? | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/60580",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/49512/"
] | Ice is very important for future missions. Ice is frozen water so if you send some humans there, you can save a lot of weight by using the water already in the area.
Water is H2O. This means that you can split the Hydrogen and oxygen and then converted it into rocket fuel. H would be the fuel and O the oxidiser.
The final thing is that water means that there could be life. Scientists already suspect that there might be bacteria on Europa (a moon of Jupiter). That would have great scientific purposes. | Other answers have discussed water already, so I'll mention other ices.
Life needs enormous quantities of carbon and nitrogen, respectively found in the ices methane and ammonia, plus nitrogen is itself an ice in some environments. In fact, ammonia is even more useful to life than elemental nitrogen, although certain bacteria can convert nitrogen to other compounds. Carbon dioxide, also found as an ice, has [any number of chemical applications](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_dioxide#Applications) (including production of the [also very useful carbon monoxide](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_monoxide#Use)), biological or otherwise.
There are also non-biological applications, such as using hydrocarbons to make plastics. These are useful for 3D printing that would be vital to automate the scaling of *in situ* construction. As an added bonus, plastic would provide a lightweight construction option in low-gravity environments.
The ices can even be used as fuel: burning methane in oxygen makes carbon dioxide, which photosynthesis needs as fuel, and burning ammonia in oxygen makes nitrogen (which may be included in artificial Earth-like air) and water. True, this won't be what powers a settlement, partly due to the question of where the oxygen comes from, partly because we'd get far more power from solar, *geo*thermal (in some locations, for want of a better prefix), fission or even fusion one day. But chemical fuels can be convenient in certain contexts. Besides, some ices contain hydrogen, which would be important in a fusion economy.
There are also sulphur-compound ices, such as hydrogen sulphide and sulphur dioxide. Sulphur is another vital element in biology. It may also be useful to trigger a greenhouse effect (e.g. [on Mars](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terraforming_of_Mars#Use_of_fluorine_compounds), where its compounds are abundant), as sulphur hexafluoride is the most potent known greenhouse gas, plus it's non-toxic at low levels.
In light of the above ideas, the most biologically important element ices *don't* provide is phosphorus. |
60,580 | For example, several missions have been launched just to find ice at the lunar poles. Why do astronomers and space agencies care so much about there being ice somewhere? | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/60580",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/49512/"
] | It will cost a lot to send even a few liters of water to the Moon, hundreds of thousands of dollars per liter. Water is also probably the best source of breathable air. Humans on the Moon (or on Mars) will need to consume quite a bit of water per day, so any water obtained *in situ* on the Moon (or on Mars) will represent a significant savings. | Water is the big one.
Why?
Because it's made up of Hydrogen and Oxygen, which in turn are the primary materials needed for ongoing spaceflight.
Hydrogen/Oxygen can be liquefied and used as rocket fuel.
We need oxygen to breathe, water to drink, and you can use both to grow more food.
So as long as you have water and a way to generate power, you have all the raw materials you need to operate a space base. Or a refueling station. Or whatever you want. |
60,580 | For example, several missions have been launched just to find ice at the lunar poles. Why do astronomers and space agencies care so much about there being ice somewhere? | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/60580",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/49512/"
] | It will cost a lot to send even a few liters of water to the Moon, hundreds of thousands of dollars per liter. Water is also probably the best source of breathable air. Humans on the Moon (or on Mars) will need to consume quite a bit of water per day, so any water obtained *in situ* on the Moon (or on Mars) will represent a significant savings. | Other answers have discussed water already, so I'll mention other ices.
Life needs enormous quantities of carbon and nitrogen, respectively found in the ices methane and ammonia, plus nitrogen is itself an ice in some environments. In fact, ammonia is even more useful to life than elemental nitrogen, although certain bacteria can convert nitrogen to other compounds. Carbon dioxide, also found as an ice, has [any number of chemical applications](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_dioxide#Applications) (including production of the [also very useful carbon monoxide](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_monoxide#Use)), biological or otherwise.
There are also non-biological applications, such as using hydrocarbons to make plastics. These are useful for 3D printing that would be vital to automate the scaling of *in situ* construction. As an added bonus, plastic would provide a lightweight construction option in low-gravity environments.
The ices can even be used as fuel: burning methane in oxygen makes carbon dioxide, which photosynthesis needs as fuel, and burning ammonia in oxygen makes nitrogen (which may be included in artificial Earth-like air) and water. True, this won't be what powers a settlement, partly due to the question of where the oxygen comes from, partly because we'd get far more power from solar, *geo*thermal (in some locations, for want of a better prefix), fission or even fusion one day. But chemical fuels can be convenient in certain contexts. Besides, some ices contain hydrogen, which would be important in a fusion economy.
There are also sulphur-compound ices, such as hydrogen sulphide and sulphur dioxide. Sulphur is another vital element in biology. It may also be useful to trigger a greenhouse effect (e.g. [on Mars](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terraforming_of_Mars#Use_of_fluorine_compounds), where its compounds are abundant), as sulphur hexafluoride is the most potent known greenhouse gas, plus it's non-toxic at low levels.
In light of the above ideas, the most biologically important element ices *don't* provide is phosphorus. |
60,580 | For example, several missions have been launched just to find ice at the lunar poles. Why do astronomers and space agencies care so much about there being ice somewhere? | 2022/10/07 | [
"https://space.stackexchange.com/questions/60580",
"https://space.stackexchange.com",
"https://space.stackexchange.com/users/49512/"
] | Water is the big one.
Why?
Because it's made up of Hydrogen and Oxygen, which in turn are the primary materials needed for ongoing spaceflight.
Hydrogen/Oxygen can be liquefied and used as rocket fuel.
We need oxygen to breathe, water to drink, and you can use both to grow more food.
So as long as you have water and a way to generate power, you have all the raw materials you need to operate a space base. Or a refueling station. Or whatever you want. | Other answers have discussed water already, so I'll mention other ices.
Life needs enormous quantities of carbon and nitrogen, respectively found in the ices methane and ammonia, plus nitrogen is itself an ice in some environments. In fact, ammonia is even more useful to life than elemental nitrogen, although certain bacteria can convert nitrogen to other compounds. Carbon dioxide, also found as an ice, has [any number of chemical applications](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_dioxide#Applications) (including production of the [also very useful carbon monoxide](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_monoxide#Use)), biological or otherwise.
There are also non-biological applications, such as using hydrocarbons to make plastics. These are useful for 3D printing that would be vital to automate the scaling of *in situ* construction. As an added bonus, plastic would provide a lightweight construction option in low-gravity environments.
The ices can even be used as fuel: burning methane in oxygen makes carbon dioxide, which photosynthesis needs as fuel, and burning ammonia in oxygen makes nitrogen (which may be included in artificial Earth-like air) and water. True, this won't be what powers a settlement, partly due to the question of where the oxygen comes from, partly because we'd get far more power from solar, *geo*thermal (in some locations, for want of a better prefix), fission or even fusion one day. But chemical fuels can be convenient in certain contexts. Besides, some ices contain hydrogen, which would be important in a fusion economy.
There are also sulphur-compound ices, such as hydrogen sulphide and sulphur dioxide. Sulphur is another vital element in biology. It may also be useful to trigger a greenhouse effect (e.g. [on Mars](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terraforming_of_Mars#Use_of_fluorine_compounds), where its compounds are abundant), as sulphur hexafluoride is the most potent known greenhouse gas, plus it's non-toxic at low levels.
In light of the above ideas, the most biologically important element ices *don't* provide is phosphorus. |
82,447 | I have some kidney beans that I soaked overnight to cook the next day but didn't get a chance and accidentally left them out and it's been fairly hot lately. Some of the beans started to get little sprouts poking out. There's also a little bit of a smell. Is it still safe to cook the batch or have I wasted a bunch of beans? | 2017/06/17 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/82447",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/58619/"
] | This is totally safe to eat as long as you cook them. The taste and the texture would be a little bit different than what you use to though.
Here is an [article](http://www.living-foods.com/articles/largebeans.html) about the safety of eating sprouted beans. | Personally, I would *not* cook & serve those beans. Beans have such an "acid-y" (not a word, I know) kind of taste anyways, which can & does show up in the final result despite the salt and spices you add...
Then there's the gas issue from those little buggers! Suppose the chemical changes in the bean which resulted in baby sprouts also results in more digestibility issues?
Dried beans cooked into soups & stews are the most under appreciated protein in the world. Seriously. I would not risk turning any of your family or friends into bean-haters; Especially since they are the last affordable but high-quality food. |
82,447 | I have some kidney beans that I soaked overnight to cook the next day but didn't get a chance and accidentally left them out and it's been fairly hot lately. Some of the beans started to get little sprouts poking out. There's also a little bit of a smell. Is it still safe to cook the batch or have I wasted a bunch of beans? | 2017/06/17 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/82447",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/58619/"
] | This is totally safe to eat as long as you cook them. The taste and the texture would be a little bit different than what you use to though.
Here is an [article](http://www.living-foods.com/articles/largebeans.html) about the safety of eating sprouted beans. | Whether they're okay to eat depends on whether they've started to spoil. You said there's a bit of a smell. Sprouting beans shouldn't have a bad smell. If any feel at all slimy or mushy (not just softer like soaked beans are), I'd err on the side of caution and discard them. You posted your question on June 17 and it's now June 21 so you've likely already used or tossed them. But in future for you or anyone else who reads this, sprouted beans are safe unless they've started rotting, even a little. |
82,447 | I have some kidney beans that I soaked overnight to cook the next day but didn't get a chance and accidentally left them out and it's been fairly hot lately. Some of the beans started to get little sprouts poking out. There's also a little bit of a smell. Is it still safe to cook the batch or have I wasted a bunch of beans? | 2017/06/17 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/82447",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/58619/"
] | Whether they're okay to eat depends on whether they've started to spoil. You said there's a bit of a smell. Sprouting beans shouldn't have a bad smell. If any feel at all slimy or mushy (not just softer like soaked beans are), I'd err on the side of caution and discard them. You posted your question on June 17 and it's now June 21 so you've likely already used or tossed them. But in future for you or anyone else who reads this, sprouted beans are safe unless they've started rotting, even a little. | Personally, I would *not* cook & serve those beans. Beans have such an "acid-y" (not a word, I know) kind of taste anyways, which can & does show up in the final result despite the salt and spices you add...
Then there's the gas issue from those little buggers! Suppose the chemical changes in the bean which resulted in baby sprouts also results in more digestibility issues?
Dried beans cooked into soups & stews are the most under appreciated protein in the world. Seriously. I would not risk turning any of your family or friends into bean-haters; Especially since they are the last affordable but high-quality food. |
42,627 | One of the settings I've been working on is a retro-futuristic world with a technology level and aesthetic of the early cold war era, something quite similar to the setting of the Alien franchise in terms of technology.
One of the reasons that technology has changed so much since then is the rapid development of computer chips. If they had never been developed, or were impossible to use, we might be very close to that technology level today.
If computer chips were prevented through the use of a 'suppression field' by malevolent aliens, could this have negative impacts on human biology? The field would work by interfering with, or preventing, the n-p junction interactions in computer chips. I don't have enough knowledge of the human nervous system to be sure, so any info will be appreciated. | 2016/05/31 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/42627",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/10738/"
] | First, we must help the aliens a little, by figuring out how such chip suppression can be done, in order to have a way to find out the possible health effects. There does indeed exist a way to mess up the n-p junctions: [Silicon doping](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Doping_%28semiconductor%29), the proses of creating either n-silicon or p-silicon, is an extremely fragile process, as the required concentration of impurities is very low. Imagine to try make a chip somewhere with a tiny but constant influx of neutrons. Even though you can temporarily create a working chip, it degrades rather quickly, because the impurities caused by the neutron collisions destroy the carefully calibrated junctions. There are of course problems with how strong the neutron beam has to be depending of the actual chip design, so the aliens must be able to regulate the strength of it.
Does this constant radiation also affect humans? In the same way as it causes tiny impurities in the silicon, it also does the same with the human body. The biggest problem with that would be degeneration of DNA, inflicting a permanent and generally not curable damage to our, as well as other species. | Does it have to be a suppression field or is any effort by aliens to screw up computer tech ok?
Computer chips are difficult and expensive to make. Chip fabs cost billions to build. They're also easily contaminated. Quantities of copper vapor too low to quickly detect with the best instruments can be enough to destroy chips partially through fabrication.
So what if instead of trying to violate/suppress the laws of physics the aliens simply released swarms of little nanobots which attempt to contaminate any high tech production facilities and sabotage any working high tech devices?
If they encounter a chip fab or something that might be a chip fab they crawl into the machines and release metal dusts of many elements and/or gum up the works any way they can.
More clunky, bulky technology is mostly unaffected while the more precise and delicate the device the more easily destroyed.
If they encounter something that may be a computer they try to lay down metal whiskers across junctions to short circuit them.
Computer chips work for a little while if you're lucky but sooner or later some of these bots burrow into them and kill them.
This would pretty much destroy the computer industry. Some organizations might be able to build small scale fabs in sealed locations and keep a small number of machines running but it would mean almost zero computers in everyday life.
The effects on health would then be easier to guess. Lots of nanobots would probably be bad for your health, especially breathing them in. It could even make being around high-tech devices hazardous for humans if they swarm towards them. |
104,636 | Some studies have shown that serif versus sans-serif on a computer display is not what affects readability and the practical differences between the two font styles are largely inconclusive.
I observed some designers prefer to use serif fonts only for titles or important elements and that make me ask: The font style on a CTA affect user's decisions? | 2017/02/07 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/104636",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/72956/"
] | According to [this](https://blog.kissmetrics.com/how-typography-affects-conversions/) post by Kissmetrics:
>
> As far as research goes, there is no ironclad answer as to whether serif or sans serif is better. But, as far as general consensus goes, when it comes to reading online, sans serif typefaces are easier to read because they are simple and legible even in small sizes. This means people can spend more time focusing on the message than deciphering the typeface.
> Sans serifs are recommended for the body of the copy and serifs for the title and subtitles.
>
>
>
We can arrive a conclusion that sans serif typefaces are better for CTA moments, where people need to spend more on focusing on the message (and in this case, the message that your CTA trigger needs to give). | I think you're talking about an [article by Alex Poole](http://alexpoole.info/blog/which-are-more-legible-serif-or-sans-serif-typefaces/). Anyhow, it basically says the same as you: in the battle of serif vs. sans-serif, there is not a decisive winner when it comes to legibility. They both have their pros and cons.
But size does matter in this case.
Sans-serif is better when using a small font-size, because serif fonts tend to "smear".
And sans-serif is also better in big font-size, think huge, like in advertisement billboards. Sans-serif is more legible from a distance.
So when your CTA button is small or huge, a sans-serif font would be the better choice from a usability perspective.
But other than that I think it's primarily an aesthetic choice. Does it fit the design?
We could say that when it doesn't fit the design, the design will look incoherent and that might affect the opinion of the visitor about the company causing them to abandon the site. They could be of opinion the company might invest as less thought and effort in everything they do as they did on the design of their website. |
104,636 | Some studies have shown that serif versus sans-serif on a computer display is not what affects readability and the practical differences between the two font styles are largely inconclusive.
I observed some designers prefer to use serif fonts only for titles or important elements and that make me ask: The font style on a CTA affect user's decisions? | 2017/02/07 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/104636",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/72956/"
] | According to [this](https://blog.kissmetrics.com/how-typography-affects-conversions/) post by Kissmetrics:
>
> As far as research goes, there is no ironclad answer as to whether serif or sans serif is better. But, as far as general consensus goes, when it comes to reading online, sans serif typefaces are easier to read because they are simple and legible even in small sizes. This means people can spend more time focusing on the message than deciphering the typeface.
> Sans serifs are recommended for the body of the copy and serifs for the title and subtitles.
>
>
>
We can arrive a conclusion that sans serif typefaces are better for CTA moments, where people need to spend more on focusing on the message (and in this case, the message that your CTA trigger needs to give). | "Will serif or sans-serif fonts change the user decision/behavior on a call-to-action?"
The short answer is no. The serif may affect readability, and there is something to be said about aesthetics, but at the time of this post (2017) there is no conclusive evidence that a serif font influences user decisions.
The rule of thumb is that sans-serif is more readable for small text and digital reading (think eBook). Serif fonts can help readability in "real world" tangible books (rumor has it these still exist in buildings called libraries). Most Call-to-Actions are some form of the button or smaller element on the page and thus do not contain large text, therefore sans-serif is probably the way to go.
However, largely differing font families (whether serif or not) can create different impressions on the user. Imagine if Amazon changed its font sitewide to Lucinda Cursive or something radical -- at the aggregate level, analytics would quickly show that user behavior is affected.
Hope this helps to clarify. |
104,636 | Some studies have shown that serif versus sans-serif on a computer display is not what affects readability and the practical differences between the two font styles are largely inconclusive.
I observed some designers prefer to use serif fonts only for titles or important elements and that make me ask: The font style on a CTA affect user's decisions? | 2017/02/07 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/104636",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/72956/"
] | According to [this](https://blog.kissmetrics.com/how-typography-affects-conversions/) post by Kissmetrics:
>
> As far as research goes, there is no ironclad answer as to whether serif or sans serif is better. But, as far as general consensus goes, when it comes to reading online, sans serif typefaces are easier to read because they are simple and legible even in small sizes. This means people can spend more time focusing on the message than deciphering the typeface.
> Sans serifs are recommended for the body of the copy and serifs for the title and subtitles.
>
>
>
We can arrive a conclusion that sans serif typefaces are better for CTA moments, where people need to spend more on focusing on the message (and in this case, the message that your CTA trigger needs to give). | I would avoid using serif for the call to actions unless you have a very good reason! Sans serif is easier to read, more modern. Serif is more likely to be used in a header, where it's larger text and ultimately more legible AND suits the design values of the brand (e.g. perhaps more traditional values) |
104,636 | Some studies have shown that serif versus sans-serif on a computer display is not what affects readability and the practical differences between the two font styles are largely inconclusive.
I observed some designers prefer to use serif fonts only for titles or important elements and that make me ask: The font style on a CTA affect user's decisions? | 2017/02/07 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/104636",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/72956/"
] | "Will serif or sans-serif fonts change the user decision/behavior on a call-to-action?"
The short answer is no. The serif may affect readability, and there is something to be said about aesthetics, but at the time of this post (2017) there is no conclusive evidence that a serif font influences user decisions.
The rule of thumb is that sans-serif is more readable for small text and digital reading (think eBook). Serif fonts can help readability in "real world" tangible books (rumor has it these still exist in buildings called libraries). Most Call-to-Actions are some form of the button or smaller element on the page and thus do not contain large text, therefore sans-serif is probably the way to go.
However, largely differing font families (whether serif or not) can create different impressions on the user. Imagine if Amazon changed its font sitewide to Lucinda Cursive or something radical -- at the aggregate level, analytics would quickly show that user behavior is affected.
Hope this helps to clarify. | I think you're talking about an [article by Alex Poole](http://alexpoole.info/blog/which-are-more-legible-serif-or-sans-serif-typefaces/). Anyhow, it basically says the same as you: in the battle of serif vs. sans-serif, there is not a decisive winner when it comes to legibility. They both have their pros and cons.
But size does matter in this case.
Sans-serif is better when using a small font-size, because serif fonts tend to "smear".
And sans-serif is also better in big font-size, think huge, like in advertisement billboards. Sans-serif is more legible from a distance.
So when your CTA button is small or huge, a sans-serif font would be the better choice from a usability perspective.
But other than that I think it's primarily an aesthetic choice. Does it fit the design?
We could say that when it doesn't fit the design, the design will look incoherent and that might affect the opinion of the visitor about the company causing them to abandon the site. They could be of opinion the company might invest as less thought and effort in everything they do as they did on the design of their website. |
104,636 | Some studies have shown that serif versus sans-serif on a computer display is not what affects readability and the practical differences between the two font styles are largely inconclusive.
I observed some designers prefer to use serif fonts only for titles or important elements and that make me ask: The font style on a CTA affect user's decisions? | 2017/02/07 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/104636",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/72956/"
] | I think you're talking about an [article by Alex Poole](http://alexpoole.info/blog/which-are-more-legible-serif-or-sans-serif-typefaces/). Anyhow, it basically says the same as you: in the battle of serif vs. sans-serif, there is not a decisive winner when it comes to legibility. They both have their pros and cons.
But size does matter in this case.
Sans-serif is better when using a small font-size, because serif fonts tend to "smear".
And sans-serif is also better in big font-size, think huge, like in advertisement billboards. Sans-serif is more legible from a distance.
So when your CTA button is small or huge, a sans-serif font would be the better choice from a usability perspective.
But other than that I think it's primarily an aesthetic choice. Does it fit the design?
We could say that when it doesn't fit the design, the design will look incoherent and that might affect the opinion of the visitor about the company causing them to abandon the site. They could be of opinion the company might invest as less thought and effort in everything they do as they did on the design of their website. | I would avoid using serif for the call to actions unless you have a very good reason! Sans serif is easier to read, more modern. Serif is more likely to be used in a header, where it's larger text and ultimately more legible AND suits the design values of the brand (e.g. perhaps more traditional values) |
104,636 | Some studies have shown that serif versus sans-serif on a computer display is not what affects readability and the practical differences between the two font styles are largely inconclusive.
I observed some designers prefer to use serif fonts only for titles or important elements and that make me ask: The font style on a CTA affect user's decisions? | 2017/02/07 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/104636",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/72956/"
] | "Will serif or sans-serif fonts change the user decision/behavior on a call-to-action?"
The short answer is no. The serif may affect readability, and there is something to be said about aesthetics, but at the time of this post (2017) there is no conclusive evidence that a serif font influences user decisions.
The rule of thumb is that sans-serif is more readable for small text and digital reading (think eBook). Serif fonts can help readability in "real world" tangible books (rumor has it these still exist in buildings called libraries). Most Call-to-Actions are some form of the button or smaller element on the page and thus do not contain large text, therefore sans-serif is probably the way to go.
However, largely differing font families (whether serif or not) can create different impressions on the user. Imagine if Amazon changed its font sitewide to Lucinda Cursive or something radical -- at the aggregate level, analytics would quickly show that user behavior is affected.
Hope this helps to clarify. | I would avoid using serif for the call to actions unless you have a very good reason! Sans serif is easier to read, more modern. Serif is more likely to be used in a header, where it's larger text and ultimately more legible AND suits the design values of the brand (e.g. perhaps more traditional values) |
17,277,427 | Should I use MySQL with SSL protocol if my web application and database are on the same machine? | 2013/06/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17277427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1688894/"
] | There is no definitive answer to about when you should use MySQL over SSL. If your website isn't dealing with sensitive information, then you most likely don't need it.
However, if you deal with information such as payment info (or similar sensitive info) coming back and forth from your scripting language and MySQL, then you will most likely *have* to use SSL to encrypt the information going trough the network.
Even if you secure your script and your database, a person who has access to the network or the machine in question can sniff the traffic on MySQL's default port (3306) using `tcpdump` program, and therefore obtain all info going between your website and the db.
If you need to comply to certain certificates, then you will be required to ensure MySQL over SSL because you have a potential security hole and if anything goes wrong, it can be used against you to blame you for misconduct.
If you have a simple website, then using SSL is simply an overkill and you can safely ignore it for the moment. | That depends on how much you trust the other users on that machine. If you don't use SSL, the logins will be passed as cleartext, and potentially sniffable by anyone else on that machine. |
17,277,427 | Should I use MySQL with SSL protocol if my web application and database are on the same machine? | 2013/06/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17277427",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1688894/"
] | If MySQL and the client application run on the same machine, then the best idea would be to have them communicate via a [Unix domain socket](http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.6/en/server-options.html#option_mysqld_socket). I don't think one can spy communications on this channel without kind of rewriting some low-level system calls. SSL simply does not apply in this case.
Even if you use a local TCP connection, being spied is very unlikely, I believe you need root privileges to sniff loopback. | That depends on how much you trust the other users on that machine. If you don't use SSL, the logins will be passed as cleartext, and potentially sniffable by anyone else on that machine. |
66,703 | I am working for a company for the last 3 years, they sponsored me on Tier 2 General.
My UK visa will expire in July of this year, the company was supposed to renew their COS allocations in January but they still haven't done it.
Here are the reasons I have been told for this:
* HR was too busy, they applied in March but it was rejected for reasons not known to me
* Their immigration lawyer was too busy
In the same period as above they were able to get another newly-hired (less than one year) employee restricted COS for their visa (This process is far tougher than what they need to do for me).
I re-informed my manager about my concerns but nothing much has changed.
HR deceived me by saying that they received COS allocations in March but later on we found out that their request was rejected by Home Office.
This is a small company and I am desperate to get my visa extended otherwise my residence clock will be reset and I won't be able to come back for a year.
I tried explaining my problems to my manager and HR but they just don't seem to be taking matter as seriously as they ought to.
**Summary**
* HR doesn't seem to be understanding the urgency of the situation
* My manager doesn't let me talk to HR about immigration. He wants me to go through him for unknown reasons
Maybe there is something else going on which I am not sure about?
I believe I am a productive part of my team but you never know what is going on in other people's hearts.
**Questions**
* I have very little time and I am desperate to get my visa extended. Should I involve company's CEO as it's a small company of less then 50 people. If yes, then what should I say?
* I have been told by the manager that if I speak to the CEO and if he gets angry over the matter, I might get fired (I am not sure how true this is).
**Not so related concerns**
* In worst case scenario if I couldn't extend my visa, I will have very little time to tell my landlord about leaving the house I rented.
* Similarly getting vaccination for my family including less than a year old son.
and other travel related issues etc. | 2016/05/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/66703",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/50254/"
] | You can hope for a miracle if the CEO knows and likes you personally, and it sounds like you can't make things worse so you might as well try, but the CEO would generally let lower management decide whether you were worth the trouble. Delegation is why multiple layers of management exist, after all.
Make plans assuming you will lose this appeal. | Ask your CEO if he has time to discuss some Problems that you could not solve with your Manager.
You can't drop the bom on him. Ask him if he has time for your Problems related to x. Seeing as you are a relatively small Company he might even know what you are talking about from the start.
Honestly you should have started this process sooner and or pushed more.
I am assuming that if you lose your visa that you AND your familiy have to leave. I would not like it to have my 1 year old on a plane (Seeing as you are likely not european). |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | We are not here to judge users (though educating them might sometimes be adequate...). While posts and comments clearly implying the necessity of piracy should be removed due to the legal implications, the mere fact that someone uses a pirated version of a game does not render an otherwise valid question suddenly invalid. Any traces relating to piracy should however be removed, and as long as the question remains valid for legally obtainable versions of a game it should remain here.
While the question mentioned here is posted by someone who admitted they pirated the game, we should not make quick conclusions - as a false positive take [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/q/44403/88) where I was not the only one to first assume that one [meanwhile very established user](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/15095/ender) was asking us on *how* to actively pirate a specific game. And would we have been too paranoid about this back then, we'd probably have driven away one quite helpful user. | [SE's policy is to not dictate to us how to handle piracy, so studiously avoiding even the possibility of being involved in helping someone using a pirated game isn't *our* concern.](http://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/10889506#10889506) That means my concerns about exposure to liability aren't relevant – SE has lawyers (while I don't) and have presumably consulted them and made an informed policy about how to handle this. If they're not worried, then I'm not worried.
(I would delete this answer normally since now it doesn't address the question, but I'll leave it for those who can't see deleted posts and their comments.)
We expose the company that runs the SE network to legal liability internationally if we knowingly leave open a question about pirated content. It is not actually known if doing this *is* illegal of us, but it is not worth out time or the company's money to hash this out with a day (months) in court in potentially many jurisdictions.
If a question is about a pirated game, we must close it or risk financially ruining all of SE. Piracy-related questions, with any smidge of piratical activity in the question, are off topic for good reason. We have zero wiggle room to hash out here.
Unless we want to bring in SE's legal council, of course. I don't think that's a good idea though. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | As I see it, closing a question **strictly** because the asker admits (or implies) the use of an illegal copy, is a misuse of close votes.
There are two major problems that arise from this, "Piracy == Close" policy. The first has been demonstrated by Sterno, who re-asked the question that sparked this whole debate.
Ignoring the comments and edit history of each question, here are each of the question bodies:
**Question 1:**
>
> I'm doing quest Discerning the Transmundane on xbox 360 version
> 1.0.0.0. I've killed orcs, falmer, high elves, and dark elves but I can't harvest their blood. I can only search them(loot).
>
>
> What am I doing wrong?
>
>
>
**Question 2:**
>
> I'm doing quest Discerning the Transmundane and I'm on level 15.
>
>
> I've killed orc, falmer, high elves, and dark elves but I can't
> harvest their blood, I can only search them(loot).
>
>
> I'm playing on the xbox360, game version 1.0.0.
>
>
>
One of these questions is still open, and the other has (at time of writing) been put on hold as off-topic. Which is which? Does it matter?
Voting on a question (up, down, or close) should be done based on the merits of the question alone. Before voting to close, ask yourself: "Would this question be acceptable if it was asked by someone else or without the last paragraph?". If the answer to that is, "yes", then you should not be closing the question, you should be fixing it!
The second problem with such a strict policy is one of community stigma and retroactive consequences.
To use a personal example, I have asked [one hundred and thirty six](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:336%20%5Bskyrim%5D) questions and answers in the Skyrim tag.
If, tomorrow, I were to admit that I have never owned a legitimate copy of Skyrim, and every single one of those was based on a pirated version of the game, what should happen? I'd have admitted to using a pirated copy, which means that all 21 of those questions should be closed? That all 115 of my answers should be deleted and invalidated? Should I never be allowed to ask a question in the [skyrim](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/skyrim "show questions tagged 'skyrim'") tag again?
We don't judge the *source* of Arqade's content, we judge it's *quality*. I suppose I'm advocating for a specific, "Don't Ask, Don't Tell" policy -- as long as you're not actively advocating to pirate content (or looking for us to help you do so), you're welcome to share your knowledge, or ask questions.
And I'm going to have to strongly disagree with Badp about identifying pirated content. With the rare exception, I'd be willing to wager that the vast majority of questions on Arqade would be identical *regardless* of the copyright status of your game.
And I'm going to have to disagree that "version 1.0.0.0" or its like can be used as a reliable indicator, as well; people without wi-fi may never update games on their console, Steam Users can prevent automatic updates of their library, and when developers release stand-alone patches, even pirated versions can be "up to date".
I agree with [Agent86](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/a/7548/336) -- if all references to pirated content can be removed from a question (or answer), that should be done, and the question let stand. If that means the only right answer becomes, "Update the game to the latest version", I am okay with that. | We are not here to judge users (though educating them might sometimes be adequate...). While posts and comments clearly implying the necessity of piracy should be removed due to the legal implications, the mere fact that someone uses a pirated version of a game does not render an otherwise valid question suddenly invalid. Any traces relating to piracy should however be removed, and as long as the question remains valid for legally obtainable versions of a game it should remain here.
While the question mentioned here is posted by someone who admitted they pirated the game, we should not make quick conclusions - as a false positive take [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/q/44403/88) where I was not the only one to first assume that one [meanwhile very established user](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/15095/ender) was asking us on *how* to actively pirate a specific game. And would we have been too paranoid about this back then, we'd probably have driven away one quite helpful user. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | One of the founding principles of the network is to focus not on people, but on information. It's why we disallow discussion, why votes are focused on posts and not people, and a host of other components we have enabled to improve the quality of our Q&A above all. A great question asked for stupid reasons (though this tends to be done more often on, say, Stack Overflow) is still a great question. Following from this, our general approach on things is to judge not on *intent*, but on *content*.
Let's thusly delve into the problems where this started - someone openly (and, typically, stupidly) admits that they're yohoho-ing all up ins with their wares when asking a question about a problem they faced in the game. We know the user is a salty seadog but since we judge on content, we look at the question. The fact that the game is pirated is actually considered pertinent data at this start because until evidence is shed otherwise, we have no ability to ascertain whether or not that data is relevant to the problem. There's basically three ways this can go from here.
* The problem has nothing to do with it being a pirated copy, and is a legitimate problem that normal gamers also run into. I agree with Raven and agent here. **This eliminates the pirate-ness from being pertinent data and it can thus be removed from the question, leaving us a legitimate question**. Requiring a landlubber to re-ask the question is not only focusing on the user instead of the post, but it also creates extra work for several parties that serves no benefit to our goal of content generation. The question is a legitimate question and should live as such, and the original asker is irrelevant. If anyone else could've asked it, it's them who decided *not* to ask it in the first place.
* The problem is entirely because it's a pirated copy. Basically, **if the problem's identity boils down to "You're a pirate and getting a real copy of the game would fix this problem", that's all we can offer**. I would venture that support for pirated copies are not in the scope of our knowledge, in the same way that [news is outside of our scope](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7286/what-is-considered-future-here/7290#7290). If we wish to be anti-piracy, then allowing for a subset community of Pirates Helping Pirates with their copies of the game is not really conducive to our end goals. I mean, it even abbreviates to PHP. Point is that this lets us be a safe harbor for pirates to work with each other - they have other places they can do this, just like people can visit news centers to get news.
I personally don't think that should leave the question open. For the same reason we shouldn't point people at news sites as an Answer to a speculation question, I don't think we really benefit by having "You're a pirate and that's why you can't have nice things" as an Answer. Both of these are general advice that we can and do give without people needing to ask. **I would suggest that we close this scenario as Off-Topic when we identify it as such**.
* The problem exists in normal copies, but the solution doesn't apply to the original asker because it persists for different reasons because pirates. We should cater to the normal game problem and provide solutions for those. We won't be able to help the asker directly since, again, PHP is bad. Just like dealing with someone who asked the wrong question to solve a problem they have (the XY problem as it's commonly known elsewhere), the route here is to work with the asker on how to break this down - we basically give them the choice between the two routes above. **We can either remove the piracy references and focus the question on the legitimate problem and they accept that it won't solve their own copy, or we leave it as focusing on the pirated version which warrants closure.** Leaving it open to address the proper question does mean we probably lose the capability to have an accepted answer, but in most cases we can have a highly voted correct answer that is enough of an indication of how things go.
This all relies on us making the identification of the scenario in the first place, though, and this may not be immediately apparent or even for a while it may not be apparent. Anecdotally, it actually doesn't take very long for folks to identify whether something exists as a normal copy problem versus a pirate-only problem. Someone venturing to answer the question tends to also identify it as a real-copy problem. Until such happens, a simple comment along the lines of "We do not perform support for pirated copies of games, so unless this also is a problem in normal copies, it is unlikely that we will be able to provide a solution for you." addresses everything nicely. Then we let it sit, either as is or until we get the necessary identifying information. We are of no obligation to do any research on our own part, and I venture that we shouldn't waste any of our time and effort to do such, ***if*** we believe that it is most likely a result of being a pirate. If it isn't a prevalent problem that exists outside of pirates, then the question will languish, it won't attract votes, and and it will be reaped for inactivity eventually, which is even less work on our part to clean up. There's plenty of time for people who would know and can prove the legitimacy of a question to speak up in its defense.
In summary, **the mention of piracy does not invalidate a problem until it is identified that piracy is the root of the problem**, is how I would approach it. This makes it mostly in-line with a lot of what agent86 and Raven Dreamer are saying, though I do differ in that I do believe that questions wherein we identify that piracy is, indeed, the root of the problem, that we are better served to simply close these rather than post answers which equivalently amount to "stop being a pirate".
...y'know, half the reason I held off for so long was because I wanted to write less but this still feels like a monstrously long post. | I'm not very clear on what policy or practice has been established or agreed upon.
The impression I have in the mixture of answers and ensuing comments was: *the onus should be on site members to differentiate between intent and content by encouraging edits and semantics as a means to mitigate negative reaction and sentiment.*
That idea seems like rationalizing a zero-sum to get stop-loss.
I feel the policy shouldn't be to deal with it case by case, but to avoid it altogether regardless of how grey-the area is until it's no longer grey. I typically don't like a closed policy of system, but it is of benefit in some areas.
The following examples are why I think having a strict policy is a better alternative to what I understand the feeling to be.
A (now closed) question regarding Minecraft would not launch was posted a few days ago. The asker was told support would only be given for "vanilla" versions and the official launcher. Okay, cool. In this case, there's no support in official capacity for launchers other than what's packaged with Minecraft.
The next day, another Minecraft Launcher question was asked: [Do I have a cracked Launcher?](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/297226/do-i-have-a-cracked-launcher/297241#297241)
This is not directly a piracy question but it isn't clear whether the subtext of the question was motivated to learn ways to side-step or develop additional practice to thwart piracy. The nature of the question is unclear, but the semantics of it make it answerable. I answered based on the semantic presentation.
Another example:
[Can you share Steam game files](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/297440/can-you-share-steam-game-files/297441#297441) - was answered with a reminder the recipients would need to have license to use the software once the transfer of files was completed.
[Giving the steam Game Data to a friend](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/295994/giving-the-steam-game-data-to-the-friend) - has an accepted answer reminding the asker would have to provide license keys to the recipients.
These linked questions have two important and opposing details: onus of responsibility for obtaining license. It appears this difference is from rules within specific titles but in level of understanding by the person answering *and* lack of official support for the act to clearly define a solvent answer.
If the question about how to handle piracy is somewhat contingent upon semantics and content, then so too should be the answer. When the official source of the product in question has no answers on what or how to do something with the product, regardless of how the question is worded, we should refrain from giving an answer that leads to questionably legal outcome or encourages use of the service or product outside the scope supported by the source.
I don't think it gets any simpler than that. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | One of the founding principles of the network is to focus not on people, but on information. It's why we disallow discussion, why votes are focused on posts and not people, and a host of other components we have enabled to improve the quality of our Q&A above all. A great question asked for stupid reasons (though this tends to be done more often on, say, Stack Overflow) is still a great question. Following from this, our general approach on things is to judge not on *intent*, but on *content*.
Let's thusly delve into the problems where this started - someone openly (and, typically, stupidly) admits that they're yohoho-ing all up ins with their wares when asking a question about a problem they faced in the game. We know the user is a salty seadog but since we judge on content, we look at the question. The fact that the game is pirated is actually considered pertinent data at this start because until evidence is shed otherwise, we have no ability to ascertain whether or not that data is relevant to the problem. There's basically three ways this can go from here.
* The problem has nothing to do with it being a pirated copy, and is a legitimate problem that normal gamers also run into. I agree with Raven and agent here. **This eliminates the pirate-ness from being pertinent data and it can thus be removed from the question, leaving us a legitimate question**. Requiring a landlubber to re-ask the question is not only focusing on the user instead of the post, but it also creates extra work for several parties that serves no benefit to our goal of content generation. The question is a legitimate question and should live as such, and the original asker is irrelevant. If anyone else could've asked it, it's them who decided *not* to ask it in the first place.
* The problem is entirely because it's a pirated copy. Basically, **if the problem's identity boils down to "You're a pirate and getting a real copy of the game would fix this problem", that's all we can offer**. I would venture that support for pirated copies are not in the scope of our knowledge, in the same way that [news is outside of our scope](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7286/what-is-considered-future-here/7290#7290). If we wish to be anti-piracy, then allowing for a subset community of Pirates Helping Pirates with their copies of the game is not really conducive to our end goals. I mean, it even abbreviates to PHP. Point is that this lets us be a safe harbor for pirates to work with each other - they have other places they can do this, just like people can visit news centers to get news.
I personally don't think that should leave the question open. For the same reason we shouldn't point people at news sites as an Answer to a speculation question, I don't think we really benefit by having "You're a pirate and that's why you can't have nice things" as an Answer. Both of these are general advice that we can and do give without people needing to ask. **I would suggest that we close this scenario as Off-Topic when we identify it as such**.
* The problem exists in normal copies, but the solution doesn't apply to the original asker because it persists for different reasons because pirates. We should cater to the normal game problem and provide solutions for those. We won't be able to help the asker directly since, again, PHP is bad. Just like dealing with someone who asked the wrong question to solve a problem they have (the XY problem as it's commonly known elsewhere), the route here is to work with the asker on how to break this down - we basically give them the choice between the two routes above. **We can either remove the piracy references and focus the question on the legitimate problem and they accept that it won't solve their own copy, or we leave it as focusing on the pirated version which warrants closure.** Leaving it open to address the proper question does mean we probably lose the capability to have an accepted answer, but in most cases we can have a highly voted correct answer that is enough of an indication of how things go.
This all relies on us making the identification of the scenario in the first place, though, and this may not be immediately apparent or even for a while it may not be apparent. Anecdotally, it actually doesn't take very long for folks to identify whether something exists as a normal copy problem versus a pirate-only problem. Someone venturing to answer the question tends to also identify it as a real-copy problem. Until such happens, a simple comment along the lines of "We do not perform support for pirated copies of games, so unless this also is a problem in normal copies, it is unlikely that we will be able to provide a solution for you." addresses everything nicely. Then we let it sit, either as is or until we get the necessary identifying information. We are of no obligation to do any research on our own part, and I venture that we shouldn't waste any of our time and effort to do such, ***if*** we believe that it is most likely a result of being a pirate. If it isn't a prevalent problem that exists outside of pirates, then the question will languish, it won't attract votes, and and it will be reaped for inactivity eventually, which is even less work on our part to clean up. There's plenty of time for people who would know and can prove the legitimacy of a question to speak up in its defense.
In summary, **the mention of piracy does not invalidate a problem until it is identified that piracy is the root of the problem**, is how I would approach it. This makes it mostly in-line with a lot of what agent86 and Raven Dreamer are saying, though I do differ in that I do believe that questions wherein we identify that piracy is, indeed, the root of the problem, that we are better served to simply close these rather than post answers which equivalently amount to "stop being a pirate".
...y'know, half the reason I held off for so long was because I wanted to write less but this still feels like a monstrously long post. | [SE's policy is to not dictate to us how to handle piracy, so studiously avoiding even the possibility of being involved in helping someone using a pirated game isn't *our* concern.](http://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/10889506#10889506) That means my concerns about exposure to liability aren't relevant – SE has lawyers (while I don't) and have presumably consulted them and made an informed policy about how to handle this. If they're not worried, then I'm not worried.
(I would delete this answer normally since now it doesn't address the question, but I'll leave it for those who can't see deleted posts and their comments.)
We expose the company that runs the SE network to legal liability internationally if we knowingly leave open a question about pirated content. It is not actually known if doing this *is* illegal of us, but it is not worth out time or the company's money to hash this out with a day (months) in court in potentially many jurisdictions.
If a question is about a pirated game, we must close it or risk financially ruining all of SE. Piracy-related questions, with any smidge of piratical activity in the question, are off topic for good reason. We have zero wiggle room to hash out here.
Unless we want to bring in SE's legal council, of course. I don't think that's a good idea though. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | One of the founding principles of the network is to focus not on people, but on information. It's why we disallow discussion, why votes are focused on posts and not people, and a host of other components we have enabled to improve the quality of our Q&A above all. A great question asked for stupid reasons (though this tends to be done more often on, say, Stack Overflow) is still a great question. Following from this, our general approach on things is to judge not on *intent*, but on *content*.
Let's thusly delve into the problems where this started - someone openly (and, typically, stupidly) admits that they're yohoho-ing all up ins with their wares when asking a question about a problem they faced in the game. We know the user is a salty seadog but since we judge on content, we look at the question. The fact that the game is pirated is actually considered pertinent data at this start because until evidence is shed otherwise, we have no ability to ascertain whether or not that data is relevant to the problem. There's basically three ways this can go from here.
* The problem has nothing to do with it being a pirated copy, and is a legitimate problem that normal gamers also run into. I agree with Raven and agent here. **This eliminates the pirate-ness from being pertinent data and it can thus be removed from the question, leaving us a legitimate question**. Requiring a landlubber to re-ask the question is not only focusing on the user instead of the post, but it also creates extra work for several parties that serves no benefit to our goal of content generation. The question is a legitimate question and should live as such, and the original asker is irrelevant. If anyone else could've asked it, it's them who decided *not* to ask it in the first place.
* The problem is entirely because it's a pirated copy. Basically, **if the problem's identity boils down to "You're a pirate and getting a real copy of the game would fix this problem", that's all we can offer**. I would venture that support for pirated copies are not in the scope of our knowledge, in the same way that [news is outside of our scope](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7286/what-is-considered-future-here/7290#7290). If we wish to be anti-piracy, then allowing for a subset community of Pirates Helping Pirates with their copies of the game is not really conducive to our end goals. I mean, it even abbreviates to PHP. Point is that this lets us be a safe harbor for pirates to work with each other - they have other places they can do this, just like people can visit news centers to get news.
I personally don't think that should leave the question open. For the same reason we shouldn't point people at news sites as an Answer to a speculation question, I don't think we really benefit by having "You're a pirate and that's why you can't have nice things" as an Answer. Both of these are general advice that we can and do give without people needing to ask. **I would suggest that we close this scenario as Off-Topic when we identify it as such**.
* The problem exists in normal copies, but the solution doesn't apply to the original asker because it persists for different reasons because pirates. We should cater to the normal game problem and provide solutions for those. We won't be able to help the asker directly since, again, PHP is bad. Just like dealing with someone who asked the wrong question to solve a problem they have (the XY problem as it's commonly known elsewhere), the route here is to work with the asker on how to break this down - we basically give them the choice between the two routes above. **We can either remove the piracy references and focus the question on the legitimate problem and they accept that it won't solve their own copy, or we leave it as focusing on the pirated version which warrants closure.** Leaving it open to address the proper question does mean we probably lose the capability to have an accepted answer, but in most cases we can have a highly voted correct answer that is enough of an indication of how things go.
This all relies on us making the identification of the scenario in the first place, though, and this may not be immediately apparent or even for a while it may not be apparent. Anecdotally, it actually doesn't take very long for folks to identify whether something exists as a normal copy problem versus a pirate-only problem. Someone venturing to answer the question tends to also identify it as a real-copy problem. Until such happens, a simple comment along the lines of "We do not perform support for pirated copies of games, so unless this also is a problem in normal copies, it is unlikely that we will be able to provide a solution for you." addresses everything nicely. Then we let it sit, either as is or until we get the necessary identifying information. We are of no obligation to do any research on our own part, and I venture that we shouldn't waste any of our time and effort to do such, ***if*** we believe that it is most likely a result of being a pirate. If it isn't a prevalent problem that exists outside of pirates, then the question will languish, it won't attract votes, and and it will be reaped for inactivity eventually, which is even less work on our part to clean up. There's plenty of time for people who would know and can prove the legitimacy of a question to speak up in its defense.
In summary, **the mention of piracy does not invalidate a problem until it is identified that piracy is the root of the problem**, is how I would approach it. This makes it mostly in-line with a lot of what agent86 and Raven Dreamer are saying, though I do differ in that I do believe that questions wherein we identify that piracy is, indeed, the root of the problem, that we are better served to simply close these rather than post answers which equivalently amount to "stop being a pirate".
...y'know, half the reason I held off for so long was because I wanted to write less but this still feels like a monstrously long post. | We are not here to judge users (though educating them might sometimes be adequate...). While posts and comments clearly implying the necessity of piracy should be removed due to the legal implications, the mere fact that someone uses a pirated version of a game does not render an otherwise valid question suddenly invalid. Any traces relating to piracy should however be removed, and as long as the question remains valid for legally obtainable versions of a game it should remain here.
While the question mentioned here is posted by someone who admitted they pirated the game, we should not make quick conclusions - as a false positive take [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/q/44403/88) where I was not the only one to first assume that one [meanwhile very established user](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/15095/ender) was asking us on *how* to actively pirate a specific game. And would we have been too paranoid about this back then, we'd probably have driven away one quite helpful user. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | When I think of the "no piracy" policy, I think of avoiding situations where we're suggesting an illegal or questionably legal activity to further another illegal or questionably legal activity.
We *close questions to prevent answers -* in this case, the "evil" of the answer is the furtherance of this illegal activity. I have no issues with this and support it as a policy.
If there's a question, and the "piracy" is either implied, suggested, or otherwise suspected, I tend to view it through the lens of whether or not other people could be legitimately in this situation. After all, DRM issues and anti-piracy checks *can* occur to legitimate buyers, and glitches arise in all games regardless of how they were acquired.
If I can either assume good faith or cross out the irrelevant portions of the question, I suggest we proceed without closing. Especially in cases where it's up to the community to judge the actions and intentions of the asker beyond what's present in the question, I'm inclined to let things pass. However, if the piracy and the question's issue are intertwined and inseparable, and valid answers will only condone further bad acts, then close.
If we take a look at a similar situation where, say, a user is leaving good answers but then going on a curse-filled litany at the end of every answer, we would probably edit the curses out, and leave the answers as is. Then we'd deal with the user's behavioral issue separately from the post.
If we close valid questions on the basis that piracy is tangential to the asker's situation, we are punishing the user *by proxy* by punishing the question. "You're a pirate, evildoer, and therefore unworthy of an answer to your question, no matter how valid the question is." I really kind of hate punishing users by proxy, as I don't think it works well and it causes all sorts of issues.
Instead, perhaps we should punish the user directly for their misdeeds, and allow the question to stand - that way, the benefit for the answer is reaped by all, while the punishment for the negative activity is felt directly by the user. | In general, the pirated version of a game really is a different game from the "public" one.
* The public version gets updates, the pirated usually doesn't.
* The public version integrates with Steam, Origin and pals, the pirated thinks it does but it doesn't.
* The public version passes any internal anti-piracy checks, the pirated doesn't and may have "[extra](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QDKguXtrSxU) [super](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_fI6cVBD9Ok)-[special](http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_detailpage&v=ZinR10DC3-Q&t=10) [seriously](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=e91q5BtlxK0) [explosive](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tA2pJeuz7IQ) [features](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BmyoV1bkXNI)" as a result.
* The public version can play in MP, the pirated doesn't.
* The public version is one and only one, while multiple different pirated versions of one game can be published, and the user probably doesn't know what version they've got (at best we'll get "uh, it's the one with the most active torrents")
* We explicitly chose not to support pirated versions of a game, and all of the variables they introduce.
For this reason, the asker may not be helped by an answer that is otherwise correct. This is a problem because:
* The asker is the one and only person who gets to accept an answer
* The asker doesn't have the version of the game we support and answer to to check if the answer works or not
At the end of the day, we aren't going to run out of question numbers. If the question also applies to legitimate customers of the game, let *them* ask instead. Let them get the reputation from the question; let them exercise the duty of accepting an answer; let them get in touch with answerers, regardless of reputation, with the comment area.
Sure, we *can* make exceptions to these rules where it makes sense, and my close vote was just a regular user's 5th close vote. But this is an area where I'm a little less lenient than usual. :) |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | When I think of the "no piracy" policy, I think of avoiding situations where we're suggesting an illegal or questionably legal activity to further another illegal or questionably legal activity.
We *close questions to prevent answers -* in this case, the "evil" of the answer is the furtherance of this illegal activity. I have no issues with this and support it as a policy.
If there's a question, and the "piracy" is either implied, suggested, or otherwise suspected, I tend to view it through the lens of whether or not other people could be legitimately in this situation. After all, DRM issues and anti-piracy checks *can* occur to legitimate buyers, and glitches arise in all games regardless of how they were acquired.
If I can either assume good faith or cross out the irrelevant portions of the question, I suggest we proceed without closing. Especially in cases where it's up to the community to judge the actions and intentions of the asker beyond what's present in the question, I'm inclined to let things pass. However, if the piracy and the question's issue are intertwined and inseparable, and valid answers will only condone further bad acts, then close.
If we take a look at a similar situation where, say, a user is leaving good answers but then going on a curse-filled litany at the end of every answer, we would probably edit the curses out, and leave the answers as is. Then we'd deal with the user's behavioral issue separately from the post.
If we close valid questions on the basis that piracy is tangential to the asker's situation, we are punishing the user *by proxy* by punishing the question. "You're a pirate, evildoer, and therefore unworthy of an answer to your question, no matter how valid the question is." I really kind of hate punishing users by proxy, as I don't think it works well and it causes all sorts of issues.
Instead, perhaps we should punish the user directly for their misdeeds, and allow the question to stand - that way, the benefit for the answer is reaped by all, while the punishment for the negative activity is felt directly by the user. | I'm not very clear on what policy or practice has been established or agreed upon.
The impression I have in the mixture of answers and ensuing comments was: *the onus should be on site members to differentiate between intent and content by encouraging edits and semantics as a means to mitigate negative reaction and sentiment.*
That idea seems like rationalizing a zero-sum to get stop-loss.
I feel the policy shouldn't be to deal with it case by case, but to avoid it altogether regardless of how grey-the area is until it's no longer grey. I typically don't like a closed policy of system, but it is of benefit in some areas.
The following examples are why I think having a strict policy is a better alternative to what I understand the feeling to be.
A (now closed) question regarding Minecraft would not launch was posted a few days ago. The asker was told support would only be given for "vanilla" versions and the official launcher. Okay, cool. In this case, there's no support in official capacity for launchers other than what's packaged with Minecraft.
The next day, another Minecraft Launcher question was asked: [Do I have a cracked Launcher?](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/297226/do-i-have-a-cracked-launcher/297241#297241)
This is not directly a piracy question but it isn't clear whether the subtext of the question was motivated to learn ways to side-step or develop additional practice to thwart piracy. The nature of the question is unclear, but the semantics of it make it answerable. I answered based on the semantic presentation.
Another example:
[Can you share Steam game files](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/297440/can-you-share-steam-game-files/297441#297441) - was answered with a reminder the recipients would need to have license to use the software once the transfer of files was completed.
[Giving the steam Game Data to a friend](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/295994/giving-the-steam-game-data-to-the-friend) - has an accepted answer reminding the asker would have to provide license keys to the recipients.
These linked questions have two important and opposing details: onus of responsibility for obtaining license. It appears this difference is from rules within specific titles but in level of understanding by the person answering *and* lack of official support for the act to clearly define a solvent answer.
If the question about how to handle piracy is somewhat contingent upon semantics and content, then so too should be the answer. When the official source of the product in question has no answers on what or how to do something with the product, regardless of how the question is worded, we should refrain from giving an answer that leads to questionably legal outcome or encourages use of the service or product outside the scope supported by the source.
I don't think it gets any simpler than that. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | In general, the pirated version of a game really is a different game from the "public" one.
* The public version gets updates, the pirated usually doesn't.
* The public version integrates with Steam, Origin and pals, the pirated thinks it does but it doesn't.
* The public version passes any internal anti-piracy checks, the pirated doesn't and may have "[extra](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QDKguXtrSxU) [super](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_fI6cVBD9Ok)-[special](http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_detailpage&v=ZinR10DC3-Q&t=10) [seriously](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=e91q5BtlxK0) [explosive](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tA2pJeuz7IQ) [features](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BmyoV1bkXNI)" as a result.
* The public version can play in MP, the pirated doesn't.
* The public version is one and only one, while multiple different pirated versions of one game can be published, and the user probably doesn't know what version they've got (at best we'll get "uh, it's the one with the most active torrents")
* We explicitly chose not to support pirated versions of a game, and all of the variables they introduce.
For this reason, the asker may not be helped by an answer that is otherwise correct. This is a problem because:
* The asker is the one and only person who gets to accept an answer
* The asker doesn't have the version of the game we support and answer to to check if the answer works or not
At the end of the day, we aren't going to run out of question numbers. If the question also applies to legitimate customers of the game, let *them* ask instead. Let them get the reputation from the question; let them exercise the duty of accepting an answer; let them get in touch with answerers, regardless of reputation, with the comment area.
Sure, we *can* make exceptions to these rules where it makes sense, and my close vote was just a regular user's 5th close vote. But this is an area where I'm a little less lenient than usual. :) | [SE's policy is to not dictate to us how to handle piracy, so studiously avoiding even the possibility of being involved in helping someone using a pirated game isn't *our* concern.](http://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/10889506#10889506) That means my concerns about exposure to liability aren't relevant – SE has lawyers (while I don't) and have presumably consulted them and made an informed policy about how to handle this. If they're not worried, then I'm not worried.
(I would delete this answer normally since now it doesn't address the question, but I'll leave it for those who can't see deleted posts and their comments.)
We expose the company that runs the SE network to legal liability internationally if we knowingly leave open a question about pirated content. It is not actually known if doing this *is* illegal of us, but it is not worth out time or the company's money to hash this out with a day (months) in court in potentially many jurisdictions.
If a question is about a pirated game, we must close it or risk financially ruining all of SE. Piracy-related questions, with any smidge of piratical activity in the question, are off topic for good reason. We have zero wiggle room to hash out here.
Unless we want to bring in SE's legal council, of course. I don't think that's a good idea though. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | As I see it, closing a question **strictly** because the asker admits (or implies) the use of an illegal copy, is a misuse of close votes.
There are two major problems that arise from this, "Piracy == Close" policy. The first has been demonstrated by Sterno, who re-asked the question that sparked this whole debate.
Ignoring the comments and edit history of each question, here are each of the question bodies:
**Question 1:**
>
> I'm doing quest Discerning the Transmundane on xbox 360 version
> 1.0.0.0. I've killed orcs, falmer, high elves, and dark elves but I can't harvest their blood. I can only search them(loot).
>
>
> What am I doing wrong?
>
>
>
**Question 2:**
>
> I'm doing quest Discerning the Transmundane and I'm on level 15.
>
>
> I've killed orc, falmer, high elves, and dark elves but I can't
> harvest their blood, I can only search them(loot).
>
>
> I'm playing on the xbox360, game version 1.0.0.
>
>
>
One of these questions is still open, and the other has (at time of writing) been put on hold as off-topic. Which is which? Does it matter?
Voting on a question (up, down, or close) should be done based on the merits of the question alone. Before voting to close, ask yourself: "Would this question be acceptable if it was asked by someone else or without the last paragraph?". If the answer to that is, "yes", then you should not be closing the question, you should be fixing it!
The second problem with such a strict policy is one of community stigma and retroactive consequences.
To use a personal example, I have asked [one hundred and thirty six](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:336%20%5Bskyrim%5D) questions and answers in the Skyrim tag.
If, tomorrow, I were to admit that I have never owned a legitimate copy of Skyrim, and every single one of those was based on a pirated version of the game, what should happen? I'd have admitted to using a pirated copy, which means that all 21 of those questions should be closed? That all 115 of my answers should be deleted and invalidated? Should I never be allowed to ask a question in the [skyrim](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/skyrim "show questions tagged 'skyrim'") tag again?
We don't judge the *source* of Arqade's content, we judge it's *quality*. I suppose I'm advocating for a specific, "Don't Ask, Don't Tell" policy -- as long as you're not actively advocating to pirate content (or looking for us to help you do so), you're welcome to share your knowledge, or ask questions.
And I'm going to have to strongly disagree with Badp about identifying pirated content. With the rare exception, I'd be willing to wager that the vast majority of questions on Arqade would be identical *regardless* of the copyright status of your game.
And I'm going to have to disagree that "version 1.0.0.0" or its like can be used as a reliable indicator, as well; people without wi-fi may never update games on their console, Steam Users can prevent automatic updates of their library, and when developers release stand-alone patches, even pirated versions can be "up to date".
I agree with [Agent86](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/a/7548/336) -- if all references to pirated content can be removed from a question (or answer), that should be done, and the question let stand. If that means the only right answer becomes, "Update the game to the latest version", I am okay with that. | One of the founding principles of the network is to focus not on people, but on information. It's why we disallow discussion, why votes are focused on posts and not people, and a host of other components we have enabled to improve the quality of our Q&A above all. A great question asked for stupid reasons (though this tends to be done more often on, say, Stack Overflow) is still a great question. Following from this, our general approach on things is to judge not on *intent*, but on *content*.
Let's thusly delve into the problems where this started - someone openly (and, typically, stupidly) admits that they're yohoho-ing all up ins with their wares when asking a question about a problem they faced in the game. We know the user is a salty seadog but since we judge on content, we look at the question. The fact that the game is pirated is actually considered pertinent data at this start because until evidence is shed otherwise, we have no ability to ascertain whether or not that data is relevant to the problem. There's basically three ways this can go from here.
* The problem has nothing to do with it being a pirated copy, and is a legitimate problem that normal gamers also run into. I agree with Raven and agent here. **This eliminates the pirate-ness from being pertinent data and it can thus be removed from the question, leaving us a legitimate question**. Requiring a landlubber to re-ask the question is not only focusing on the user instead of the post, but it also creates extra work for several parties that serves no benefit to our goal of content generation. The question is a legitimate question and should live as such, and the original asker is irrelevant. If anyone else could've asked it, it's them who decided *not* to ask it in the first place.
* The problem is entirely because it's a pirated copy. Basically, **if the problem's identity boils down to "You're a pirate and getting a real copy of the game would fix this problem", that's all we can offer**. I would venture that support for pirated copies are not in the scope of our knowledge, in the same way that [news is outside of our scope](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7286/what-is-considered-future-here/7290#7290). If we wish to be anti-piracy, then allowing for a subset community of Pirates Helping Pirates with their copies of the game is not really conducive to our end goals. I mean, it even abbreviates to PHP. Point is that this lets us be a safe harbor for pirates to work with each other - they have other places they can do this, just like people can visit news centers to get news.
I personally don't think that should leave the question open. For the same reason we shouldn't point people at news sites as an Answer to a speculation question, I don't think we really benefit by having "You're a pirate and that's why you can't have nice things" as an Answer. Both of these are general advice that we can and do give without people needing to ask. **I would suggest that we close this scenario as Off-Topic when we identify it as such**.
* The problem exists in normal copies, but the solution doesn't apply to the original asker because it persists for different reasons because pirates. We should cater to the normal game problem and provide solutions for those. We won't be able to help the asker directly since, again, PHP is bad. Just like dealing with someone who asked the wrong question to solve a problem they have (the XY problem as it's commonly known elsewhere), the route here is to work with the asker on how to break this down - we basically give them the choice between the two routes above. **We can either remove the piracy references and focus the question on the legitimate problem and they accept that it won't solve their own copy, or we leave it as focusing on the pirated version which warrants closure.** Leaving it open to address the proper question does mean we probably lose the capability to have an accepted answer, but in most cases we can have a highly voted correct answer that is enough of an indication of how things go.
This all relies on us making the identification of the scenario in the first place, though, and this may not be immediately apparent or even for a while it may not be apparent. Anecdotally, it actually doesn't take very long for folks to identify whether something exists as a normal copy problem versus a pirate-only problem. Someone venturing to answer the question tends to also identify it as a real-copy problem. Until such happens, a simple comment along the lines of "We do not perform support for pirated copies of games, so unless this also is a problem in normal copies, it is unlikely that we will be able to provide a solution for you." addresses everything nicely. Then we let it sit, either as is or until we get the necessary identifying information. We are of no obligation to do any research on our own part, and I venture that we shouldn't waste any of our time and effort to do such, ***if*** we believe that it is most likely a result of being a pirate. If it isn't a prevalent problem that exists outside of pirates, then the question will languish, it won't attract votes, and and it will be reaped for inactivity eventually, which is even less work on our part to clean up. There's plenty of time for people who would know and can prove the legitimacy of a question to speak up in its defense.
In summary, **the mention of piracy does not invalidate a problem until it is identified that piracy is the root of the problem**, is how I would approach it. This makes it mostly in-line with a lot of what agent86 and Raven Dreamer are saying, though I do differ in that I do believe that questions wherein we identify that piracy is, indeed, the root of the problem, that we are better served to simply close these rather than post answers which equivalently amount to "stop being a pirate".
...y'know, half the reason I held off for so long was because I wanted to write less but this still feels like a monstrously long post. |
7,546 | 
There's been a lot of talk recently about what it means to support piracy and pirated games. A very recent example is [this question](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/127918/why-cant-i-harvest-blood-for-discerning-the-transmundane), in which a user asks a question that turns out to be a valid problem for a legitimate copy of the game, but in which he admitted in the comments that he's using a pirated version.
Even after it was clear that this problem exists in non-pirated copies, the question was still closed due to the mention of piracy.
Is the simple mention of piracy enough? Does the question need to be more intrinsically tied up with piracy? Where do we draw the line? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7546",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/users/3062/"
] | As I see it, closing a question **strictly** because the asker admits (or implies) the use of an illegal copy, is a misuse of close votes.
There are two major problems that arise from this, "Piracy == Close" policy. The first has been demonstrated by Sterno, who re-asked the question that sparked this whole debate.
Ignoring the comments and edit history of each question, here are each of the question bodies:
**Question 1:**
>
> I'm doing quest Discerning the Transmundane on xbox 360 version
> 1.0.0.0. I've killed orcs, falmer, high elves, and dark elves but I can't harvest their blood. I can only search them(loot).
>
>
> What am I doing wrong?
>
>
>
**Question 2:**
>
> I'm doing quest Discerning the Transmundane and I'm on level 15.
>
>
> I've killed orc, falmer, high elves, and dark elves but I can't
> harvest their blood, I can only search them(loot).
>
>
> I'm playing on the xbox360, game version 1.0.0.
>
>
>
One of these questions is still open, and the other has (at time of writing) been put on hold as off-topic. Which is which? Does it matter?
Voting on a question (up, down, or close) should be done based on the merits of the question alone. Before voting to close, ask yourself: "Would this question be acceptable if it was asked by someone else or without the last paragraph?". If the answer to that is, "yes", then you should not be closing the question, you should be fixing it!
The second problem with such a strict policy is one of community stigma and retroactive consequences.
To use a personal example, I have asked [one hundred and thirty six](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/search?q=user:336%20%5Bskyrim%5D) questions and answers in the Skyrim tag.
If, tomorrow, I were to admit that I have never owned a legitimate copy of Skyrim, and every single one of those was based on a pirated version of the game, what should happen? I'd have admitted to using a pirated copy, which means that all 21 of those questions should be closed? That all 115 of my answers should be deleted and invalidated? Should I never be allowed to ask a question in the [skyrim](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/skyrim "show questions tagged 'skyrim'") tag again?
We don't judge the *source* of Arqade's content, we judge it's *quality*. I suppose I'm advocating for a specific, "Don't Ask, Don't Tell" policy -- as long as you're not actively advocating to pirate content (or looking for us to help you do so), you're welcome to share your knowledge, or ask questions.
And I'm going to have to strongly disagree with Badp about identifying pirated content. With the rare exception, I'd be willing to wager that the vast majority of questions on Arqade would be identical *regardless* of the copyright status of your game.
And I'm going to have to disagree that "version 1.0.0.0" or its like can be used as a reliable indicator, as well; people without wi-fi may never update games on their console, Steam Users can prevent automatic updates of their library, and when developers release stand-alone patches, even pirated versions can be "up to date".
I agree with [Agent86](https://gaming.meta.stackexchange.com/a/7548/336) -- if all references to pirated content can be removed from a question (or answer), that should be done, and the question let stand. If that means the only right answer becomes, "Update the game to the latest version", I am okay with that. | In general, the pirated version of a game really is a different game from the "public" one.
* The public version gets updates, the pirated usually doesn't.
* The public version integrates with Steam, Origin and pals, the pirated thinks it does but it doesn't.
* The public version passes any internal anti-piracy checks, the pirated doesn't and may have "[extra](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QDKguXtrSxU) [super](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_fI6cVBD9Ok)-[special](http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_detailpage&v=ZinR10DC3-Q&t=10) [seriously](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=e91q5BtlxK0) [explosive](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tA2pJeuz7IQ) [features](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BmyoV1bkXNI)" as a result.
* The public version can play in MP, the pirated doesn't.
* The public version is one and only one, while multiple different pirated versions of one game can be published, and the user probably doesn't know what version they've got (at best we'll get "uh, it's the one with the most active torrents")
* We explicitly chose not to support pirated versions of a game, and all of the variables they introduce.
For this reason, the asker may not be helped by an answer that is otherwise correct. This is a problem because:
* The asker is the one and only person who gets to accept an answer
* The asker doesn't have the version of the game we support and answer to to check if the answer works or not
At the end of the day, we aren't going to run out of question numbers. If the question also applies to legitimate customers of the game, let *them* ask instead. Let them get the reputation from the question; let them exercise the duty of accepting an answer; let them get in touch with answerers, regardless of reputation, with the comment area.
Sure, we *can* make exceptions to these rules where it makes sense, and my close vote was just a regular user's 5th close vote. But this is an area where I'm a little less lenient than usual. :) |
64,141 | I have an app that has tiny tiny writing that I need to read and I can't take a hundred screenshots to zoom in to read each one and the developer has yet to fix it but I was wondering if there was a way to have a magnifying thingy on top of this app and move it around the screen to enlarge whatever I can't read in realtime. Any tips? And, the text is not able to be copied or pasted etc.
OS: 4.1
Phone: S3 | 2014/02/23 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/64141",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/32491/"
] | If your Android version is 4.1 (Jelly Bean) or greater, you can find magnification gestures under your system settings.
1. Go to *Settings*
2. *Accessibility*
3. *Magnification Gestures*
Info:
* [Magnification Gestures](http://www.abilitynet.org.uk/mcmw/magnification-gestures-android-jelly-bean-4-2-2/)
* [Usage](https://support.google.com/nexus/answer/2929058?hl=en) | It may/may not solve OP's problem depending on the OP's resources, but it could be helpful for the other android users for other alternatives. You could record the screen of your mobile using a screen recording app and view it on a large computer/tv screen to view the text clearly.
Alternatively, you could also use an emulator such as Bluestacks and install the app you want to zoom and view it on your computer screen or a projector to make the small objects and text clearly on a larger screen. |
2,877,916 | I've always followed the logic: if assert fails, then there is a bug. Root cause could either be:
* Assert itself is invalid (bug)
* There is a programming error (bug)
* (no other options)
I.E. Are there any other conclusions one could come to? Are there cases where an assert would fail and there is no bug? | 2010/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2877916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126494/"
] | Yes, there is a bug in the code.
*[Code Complete](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0735619670)*
>
> Assertions check for conditions that
> should never occur. [...]
>
>
> If an
> assertion is fired for an anomalous
> condition, the corrective action is
> not merely to handle an error
> gracefully- the corrective action is
> to change the program's source code,
> recompile, and release a new version
> of the software.
>
>
> A good way to
> think of assertions is as executable
> documentation - you can't rely on them
> to make the code work, but they can
> document assumptions more actively
> than program-language comments can.
>
>
> | If assert fails there is a bug in either the caller or callee. Why else would there be an assertion? |
2,877,916 | I've always followed the logic: if assert fails, then there is a bug. Root cause could either be:
* Assert itself is invalid (bug)
* There is a programming error (bug)
* (no other options)
I.E. Are there any other conclusions one could come to? Are there cases where an assert would fail and there is no bug? | 2010/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2877916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126494/"
] | Yes, there is a bug in the code.
*[Code Complete](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0735619670)*
>
> Assertions check for conditions that
> should never occur. [...]
>
>
> If an
> assertion is fired for an anomalous
> condition, the corrective action is
> not merely to handle an error
> gracefully- the corrective action is
> to change the program's source code,
> recompile, and release a new version
> of the software.
>
>
> A good way to
> think of assertions is as executable
> documentation - you can't rely on them
> to make the code work, but they can
> document assumptions more actively
> than program-language comments can.
>
>
> | If you are trying to be logically inclusive about all the possibilities, remember that electronic circuitry is known to be affected by radiation from space. If the right photon/particle hits in just the right place at just the right time, it can cause an otherwise logically impossible state transition.
The probability is vanishingly small but still non-zero. |
2,877,916 | I've always followed the logic: if assert fails, then there is a bug. Root cause could either be:
* Assert itself is invalid (bug)
* There is a programming error (bug)
* (no other options)
I.E. Are there any other conclusions one could come to? Are there cases where an assert would fail and there is no bug? | 2010/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2877916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126494/"
] | That's a good question.
My feeling is, if the assert fails due to your code, then it is a bug. The assertion is an expected behaviour/result of your code, so an assertion failure will be a failure of your code. | No. An assertion failure means something happened that the original programmer did not intend or expect to occur.
This can indicate:
* A bug in your code (you are simply calling the method incorrectly)
* A bug in the Assertion (the original programmer has been too zealous and is complaining about you doing something that is quite reasonable and the method will actually handle perfectly well.
* A bug in the called code (a design flaw). That is, the called code provides a contract that does not allow you to do what you need to do. The assertion warns you that you can't do things that way, but the solution is to extend the called method to handle your input.
* A known but unimplemented feature. Imagine I implement a method that could process positive and negative integers, but I only need it (for now) to handle positive ones. I know that the "perfect" implementation would handle both, but until I actually *need* it to handle negatives, it is a waste of effort to implement support (and it would add code bloat and possibly slow down my application). So I have considered the case but I decide not to implement it until the need is proven. I therefore add an assert to mark this unimplemented code. When I later trigger the assert by passing a negative value in, I know that the additional functionality is now needed, so I must augment the implementation. Deferring writing the code until it is actually required thus saves me a lot of time (in most cases I never imeplement the additiona feature), but the assert makes sure that I don't get any bugs when I try to use the unimplemented feature. |
2,877,916 | I've always followed the logic: if assert fails, then there is a bug. Root cause could either be:
* Assert itself is invalid (bug)
* There is a programming error (bug)
* (no other options)
I.E. Are there any other conclusions one could come to? Are there cases where an assert would fail and there is no bug? | 2010/05/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2877916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126494/"
] | Yes, there is a bug in the code.
*[Code Complete](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0735619670)*
>
> Assertions check for conditions that
> should never occur. [...]
>
>
> If an
> assertion is fired for an anomalous
> condition, the corrective action is
> not merely to handle an error
> gracefully- the corrective action is
> to change the program's source code,
> recompile, and release a new version
> of the software.
>
>
> A good way to
> think of assertions is as executable
> documentation - you can't rely on them
> to make the code work, but they can
> document assumptions more actively
> than program-language comments can.
>
>
> | I can think of one case that wouldn't really class as a bug:
An assert placed to check for something external that normally should be there. You're hunting something nutty that occurs on one machine and you want to know if a certain factor is responsible.
A real world example (although from before the era of asserts): If a certain directory was hidden on a certain machine the program would barf. I never found any piece of code that should have cared if the directory was hidden. I had only very limited access to the offending machine (it had a bunch of accounting stuff on it) so I couldn't hunt it properly on the machine and I couldn't reproduce it elsewhere. Something that was done with that machine (the culprit was never identified) occasionally turned that directory hidden.
I finally resorted to putting a test in the startup to see if the directory was hidden and stopping with an error if it was. |
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