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5,498,692 | I have an MSSQL database which I am considering porting to CouchDB or MongoDB. I have a many-to-many relationship within the SQL db which has hundreds of thousands rows in the xref table, corresponding to tens of thousands of rows in the tables on each side of the relationship. Will CouchDB and/or MongoDB be able to handle this data, and what would be the best way of formatting the relevant documents for performant querying? Thanks very much. | 2011/03/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5498692",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/603355/"
] | For CouchDB, I would highly recommend reading [this article](http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/EntityRelationship) about Entity Relationships.
One thing I would note in CouchDB is to be careful of attempting to "normalize" a non-relational data model. The document-based storage offers you a great deal of flexibility, and it's seldom the best idea to abstract everything into as many "document types" as you can think of. Many times, it's best to leave much of your data within the same document unless you have clear cases where separate entities exist.
One common use-case of many-to-many relationships is implementing tagging. There are [articles](http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/How_to_implement_tagging) about different methods you can use to accomplish this in CouchDB. It may apply to your requirements, it may not, but it's probably worth a read. | Since the 'collection' model of MongoDB is similar to tables you can of course maintain
the m:n relationship inside a dedicated mapping collection (using the \_id of the related documents of the referenced documents from other collections).
If you can: consider redesign your application using embedded documents.
<http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Schema+Design>
In general: try to turn off your memories to a RDBMS when working with MongoDB.
Blindly copying the database design from RDBMS to MongoDB is neither helpful nor adviceable nor will it work in general. |
81,724 | Would it be possible that Voldemort knew that Harry carried a piece of his soul in him before he tried to kill Harry? In knowing what Voldemort knew, we are able to tell more about the core motivation that Voldemort had in wanting to kill Harry. Yes, we know that he wanted to kill Harry in order to prove that he could not be stopped/megalomania or whatever, but was he willing to kill a part of himself in order to achieve that?
As per the question, when Voldemort killed Harry, wouldn't he be able to deduce that there are only two fragments of his soul left, in the snake and his own body? | 2015/02/15 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/81724",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/38374/"
] | **I believe not.**
In the final book, when Dumbledore explains the piece of soul embedded within Harry, these are his exact words (emphasis mine):
>
> Part of Lord Voldemort lives inside Harry, and it is that which gives him the power of speech with snakes, and a connection with Lord Voldemort’s mind that he has never understood. And while that fragment of soul, **unmissed by Voldemort**, remains attached to and protected by Harry, Lord Voldemort cannot die.
>
>
> — *Deathly Hallows*, chapter 33 (*The Prince’s Tale*)
>
>
>
Of course, there’s no way Dumbledore can be sure – I think it’s unlikely he just asked Voldemort – but his guesses when it comes to horcruxes and soul fragments have been remarkably accurate up to this point, so this one seems reasonable too.
This makes sense, given what else we’ve seen of Voldemort’s awareness of his other horcruxes/soul pieces. His soul was so fragmented and broken that he seemed completely disconnected from them, to the point that he didn’t realise several pieces had been destroyed. It follows that he wouldn’t notice that another part had disappeared (especially when it coincided with the loss of physical body; he had other things on his mind).
He knew that Harry had a connection with him, but I don’t think there’s any evidence that he knew this connection was as substantial as to be a piece of his soul. Otherwise he’d probably have been much more cautious of killing Harry. He *might* have worked it out after he tried to kill Harry in the Forest, given the way he was knocked prone, but of course by that point it was too late. | No, the Dark Lord didn’t know a piece of his soul was in Harry.
===============================================================
When Dumbledore explains to Harry what happened when they meet in King’s Cross, he tells Harry that the Dark Lord didn’t know he’d left part of his soul behind along with his body.
>
> “You were the seventh Horcrux, Harry, the Horcrux he never meant to make. He had rendered his soul so unstable that it broke apart when he committed those acts of unspeakable evil, the murder of your parents, the attempted killing of a child. **But what escaped from that room was even less than he knew.** He left more than his body behind. He left part of himself latched to you, the would-be victim who had survived.”
> *- Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows, Chapter 35 (King’s Cross)*
>
>
>
Additionally, the Dark Lord doesn’t feel when the Horcruxes are destroyed, so it’s unlikely that he’d feel that another piece of his soul was missing from the main part.
>
> “Does Voldemort know when a Horcrux is destroyed, sir? Can he feel it?’ Harry asked, ignoring the portraits.
>
>
> ‘A very interesting question, Harry. I believe not. I believe that Voldemort is now so immersed in evil, and these crucial parts of himself have been detached for so long, he does not feel as we do.”
> *- Harry Potter and the Half-Blood Prince, Chapter 23 (Horcruxes)*
>
>
>
Despite that, up until the day before the Dark Lord’s death when he discovered that most of his Horcruxes were destroyed, the Dark Lord believed he would feel it if anything happened to his soul.
>
> “But surely if the boy had destroyed any of his Horcruxes, he, Lord Voldemort, would have known, would have felt it? He, the greatest wizard of them all, he, the most powerful, he, the killer of Dumbledore and of how many other worthless, nameless men: how could Lord Voldemort not have known, if he, himself, most important and precious, had been attacked, mutilated?”
> *- Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows, Chapter 27 (The Final Hiding Place)*
>
>
>
Because of this, it seems unlikely that the Dark Lord ever figured out that a piece of his soul was in Harry, since he’d presume he’d know where all the pieces of his soul were. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | There is a key difference between liquids and powders:
* Liquids have internal cohesion and can be sucked, but with a powder, you need a carrying medium.
* The internal friction in a powder will usually be far higher than in a liquid.
In practice, this means that to pump a powder, you inject air or another gas as fluidizing agent. The pumped or blown air carries the powder, like a dust-storm within the pipe. | You can pump both liquids and powders into a "mold" using [injection molding](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Injection_moulding).
It works more easily with liquids, but it can also be done with small particles such as powders that are injected into heated molds with sufficient force. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | There is a key difference between liquids and powders:
* Liquids have internal cohesion and can be sucked, but with a powder, you need a carrying medium.
* The internal friction in a powder will usually be far higher than in a liquid.
In practice, this means that to pump a powder, you inject air or another gas as fluidizing agent. The pumped or blown air carries the powder, like a dust-storm within the pipe. | Yes you can pump powders using a diaphragm pump. The above comments all focus on alternate ways to transport powder they are not talking about pumping. Check out powder pumping with a diaphragm pump on youtube. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | I believe it's termed "injecting" not "pumping" but yes, it's certainly possible.
Coal fired electric power plants grind the coal to a very fine dust and then blow the dust into the central burner.
[This particular article](http://www.netl.doe.gov/File%20Library/Research/Coal/major%20demonstrations/cctdp/Round3/bethstl.pdf) is a summary of some DOE research for a Blast Furnace Granulated Coal Injection System Demonstration Project.
And [this article](http://www.nfpa.org/~/media/Files/Research/Research%20Foundation/foundation%20proceedings/david_snell.pdf) discusses some of the hazards from a National Fire Protection Association perspective. Coal dust having the particular dangerous property of being explosive and all that...
As far as specifics regarding danger, I suspect it will vary depending upon the material(s) involved in the powder. | In food process you can "pump" powder with vacuum, sugar works very well, and some other products need sometimes some technical adjustment (pression or open/close cycles valves) .
But water in the pipes is ban and last point it's only for small quantities and short distance 20meters max i think. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | I believe it's termed "injecting" not "pumping" but yes, it's certainly possible.
Coal fired electric power plants grind the coal to a very fine dust and then blow the dust into the central burner.
[This particular article](http://www.netl.doe.gov/File%20Library/Research/Coal/major%20demonstrations/cctdp/Round3/bethstl.pdf) is a summary of some DOE research for a Blast Furnace Granulated Coal Injection System Demonstration Project.
And [this article](http://www.nfpa.org/~/media/Files/Research/Research%20Foundation/foundation%20proceedings/david_snell.pdf) discusses some of the hazards from a National Fire Protection Association perspective. Coal dust having the particular dangerous property of being explosive and all that...
As far as specifics regarding danger, I suspect it will vary depending upon the material(s) involved in the powder. | You may also look into pneumatic conveying. It involves [fluidization of the particles](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fluidization).
This simply uses pressure differential to move any bulk material. It's used a lot in industrial applications. You can read a [summary of those systems, here](http://www.nol-tec.com/answers-to-eight-common-questions.html). |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | While pumping powders as a mix with swiftly moving gas is viable, one of frequently used alternatives for both powders and granular materials is [Archimedes' Screw](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Archimedes%27_screw).
Essentially, a helix in a diagonal pipe making the material "pour/roll" upwards the curve, allowing lifting it a long distance. This solution is frequently used in farming equipment for transporting grain or granulates. While it doesn't provide "pressure" for moving it through inert pipes, a "pipeline" of such screws can go a long way, and while it restricts transport angle, it provides a viable alternative especially for heavier materials where extreme air flows would be required to move them. | We have dry cement bulkers truck running on local roads, feeding dry cement to mixer factory where it is turned into wet mixed cement. Pump air into the truck to 'blow' cement out.
This [video](http://youtube.com/watch?v=p74BAe-OYq0) shows cement and sand are 'blow' by air. Powder (cement/sand) are placed in closed container. Air blow in and powder come out on, says, 2 to 3 inch diameter, tubing. Powder can be transferred in construction site, at horizontal and vertical distance of tens of meters. You can see the blue air-compressor in the video. Here is a similar [video](http://youtube.com/watch?v=p74BAe-OYq0). |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | In food process you can "pump" powder with vacuum, sugar works very well, and some other products need sometimes some technical adjustment (pression or open/close cycles valves) .
But water in the pipes is ban and last point it's only for small quantities and short distance 20meters max i think. | We have dry cement bulkers truck running on local roads, feeding dry cement to mixer factory where it is turned into wet mixed cement. Pump air into the truck to 'blow' cement out.
This [video](http://youtube.com/watch?v=p74BAe-OYq0) shows cement and sand are 'blow' by air. Powder (cement/sand) are placed in closed container. Air blow in and powder come out on, says, 2 to 3 inch diameter, tubing. Powder can be transferred in construction site, at horizontal and vertical distance of tens of meters. You can see the blue air-compressor in the video. Here is a similar [video](http://youtube.com/watch?v=p74BAe-OYq0). |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | I believe it's termed "injecting" not "pumping" but yes, it's certainly possible.
Coal fired electric power plants grind the coal to a very fine dust and then blow the dust into the central burner.
[This particular article](http://www.netl.doe.gov/File%20Library/Research/Coal/major%20demonstrations/cctdp/Round3/bethstl.pdf) is a summary of some DOE research for a Blast Furnace Granulated Coal Injection System Demonstration Project.
And [this article](http://www.nfpa.org/~/media/Files/Research/Research%20Foundation/foundation%20proceedings/david_snell.pdf) discusses some of the hazards from a National Fire Protection Association perspective. Coal dust having the particular dangerous property of being explosive and all that...
As far as specifics regarding danger, I suspect it will vary depending upon the material(s) involved in the powder. | While pumping powders as a mix with swiftly moving gas is viable, one of frequently used alternatives for both powders and granular materials is [Archimedes' Screw](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Archimedes%27_screw).
Essentially, a helix in a diagonal pipe making the material "pour/roll" upwards the curve, allowing lifting it a long distance. This solution is frequently used in farming equipment for transporting grain or granulates. While it doesn't provide "pressure" for moving it through inert pipes, a "pipeline" of such screws can go a long way, and while it restricts transport angle, it provides a viable alternative especially for heavier materials where extreme air flows would be required to move them. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | While pumping powders as a mix with swiftly moving gas is viable, one of frequently used alternatives for both powders and granular materials is [Archimedes' Screw](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Archimedes%27_screw).
Essentially, a helix in a diagonal pipe making the material "pour/roll" upwards the curve, allowing lifting it a long distance. This solution is frequently used in farming equipment for transporting grain or granulates. While it doesn't provide "pressure" for moving it through inert pipes, a "pipeline" of such screws can go a long way, and while it restricts transport angle, it provides a viable alternative especially for heavier materials where extreme air flows would be required to move them. | Yes you can pump powders using a diaphragm pump. The above comments all focus on alternate ways to transport powder they are not talking about pumping. Check out powder pumping with a diaphragm pump on youtube. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | While pumping powders as a mix with swiftly moving gas is viable, one of frequently used alternatives for both powders and granular materials is [Archimedes' Screw](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Archimedes%27_screw).
Essentially, a helix in a diagonal pipe making the material "pour/roll" upwards the curve, allowing lifting it a long distance. This solution is frequently used in farming equipment for transporting grain or granulates. While it doesn't provide "pressure" for moving it through inert pipes, a "pipeline" of such screws can go a long way, and while it restricts transport angle, it provides a viable alternative especially for heavier materials where extreme air flows would be required to move them. | In food process you can "pump" powder with vacuum, sugar works very well, and some other products need sometimes some technical adjustment (pression or open/close cycles valves) .
But water in the pipes is ban and last point it's only for small quantities and short distance 20meters max i think. |
1 | Is it possible to "pump" a powder the same way liquids can be pumped?
If so, what are the challenges? If not, what are some alternatives? | 2015/01/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/1",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/9/"
] | There is a key difference between liquids and powders:
* Liquids have internal cohesion and can be sucked, but with a powder, you need a carrying medium.
* The internal friction in a powder will usually be far higher than in a liquid.
In practice, this means that to pump a powder, you inject air or another gas as fluidizing agent. The pumped or blown air carries the powder, like a dust-storm within the pipe. | We have dry cement bulkers truck running on local roads, feeding dry cement to mixer factory where it is turned into wet mixed cement. Pump air into the truck to 'blow' cement out.
This [video](http://youtube.com/watch?v=p74BAe-OYq0) shows cement and sand are 'blow' by air. Powder (cement/sand) are placed in closed container. Air blow in and powder come out on, says, 2 to 3 inch diameter, tubing. Powder can be transferred in construction site, at horizontal and vertical distance of tens of meters. You can see the blue air-compressor in the video. Here is a similar [video](http://youtube.com/watch?v=p74BAe-OYq0). |
144,575 | Near the beginning of Star Trek Beyond, the Enterprise docks inside the new Yorktown base. As it's shown flying inside we see numerous support structures, each of which seems to hold a large number of what I can only call "skyscrapers", though given the setting that term seems to not quite fit. As we only see a small part of the base in this way, the full base could potentially hold enough space to dwarf any major city now on Earth. But is there any indication for what the population actually might be? | 2016/11/05 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/144575",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2530/"
] | "*Millions*", according to Krall.
>
> **Sulu:** *You're going to attack Yorktown.*
>
>
> **Krall:** ***Millions of souls from every Federation world** holding hands. It's a perfect target.*
>
>
> Star Trek Beyond
>
>
>
Unfortunately, he doesn't specify *how many* millions. | If you look at a scene where Kirk and Krall fight, you can count 100 buildings per column. Multiplying by 6 columns and 1 million per building, you get nearly 600 million souls. |
200 | Today, for the second time in the last week or so, I've had a windfall of upvotes -- upwards of a dozen at a time. Each time all the votes have been within a few minutes of each other, which leads me to believe the same person is upvoting a bunch of my answers in the same session. Maybe I'm just looking a gift horse in the mouth and someone liked one of my answers enough to go through and upvote many others, but it seems a little fishy. Is anyone else seeing this kind of thing? | 2010/11/05 | [
"https://diy.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/200",
"https://diy.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.meta.stackexchange.com/users/169/"
] | I wasn't responsible today, but I did spend a couple days a week or two ago trying to find interesting questions and answers to max out my votes for the day. Mostly in response to [this](https://diy.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/176/chat-room-doesnt-exist) and [this](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/68079/please-do-not-close-gis-se) and [this](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2010/10/vote-early-vote-often/). You often have excellent answers, so if anyone else was doing the same I wouldn't be surprised if you were bumped. | I checked your upvotes and I do not see anything suspicious; just a bunch of votes from known users. We did have another user report the same thing but I searched and could not find anything suspicious at that time either.
I know my usage of this site is similar to @Steve Jackson's. I come in and read through new questions and vote up the good answers and questions in one session. So that type of usage (and I bet that is a similar pattern for others) could explain why you got a bunch of upvotes all at once. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | Ideally, you want something that will absorb the heat from the too hot meat until the meat cools down enough, then re-emits it to help hold the meat near serving temperature until it is time to cut.
You won't get that with something that conducts all the heat away (metal table), or absorbs it never to return (stone countertop).
That means a ceramic/earthenware dish of appropriate size, isolated from other thermal conductors. The larger the piece of meat, the heavier the ideal dish. For thin steaks, I use a thin table plate set on a hot pad. For roasts, a heavy serving platter.
The meat will lose some of it's energy to the air through radiation and convection (sped up if the skin is moist). A loose piece of aluminum foil over it will help slow the rate of both. | Pull the meat off the grill about 5 to 10 degrees below the desired tem because the meat wil continue to "cook" and rise in temp....so after 5 to 10 minutes your meat will be ready to carve and serve.... |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | Straight after it comes out of the pan it will usually be too hot to eat. Regardless of resting or not, you can't fully taste things which are too hot, they need to come down to a comfortable temperature before you eat them.
Some things you can do to stop the meat being too cold when you serve it:
* You can rest the meat wrapped in foil, this will stop it from getting too cool too quickly if you are not ready to serve once its had the time to rest.
* you can rest it and then warm it again before you eat it, either under a hot grill for a little, or in an oven.
* serve it with a hot sauce which will warm the meat
* serve it on a warmed plate which will stop it cooling more too quickly on the table
Although I think you are worrying too much about nothing IMHO. Even once rested the meat will still be at a good temperature, especially as you have not cut it yet and most of the heat will be retained in the middle of the meat. | If you've cooked the meat in the oven, then turn off the heat and leave the door open ajar. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | For me the secret to resting is all about core temperature. Let's take a beef fillet steak for an example. There is no way the meat can dry out under 55 C due to the structure of the fibers and you can also not overcook a steak when the core temperature does not rise above 50/55 C according to personal tastes.
For this reason I let steaks rest in an oven pre heated to 50 C myself. This reduces the loss of temperature from the product while ensuring that the steak will not overcook during the resting period. Simply turn them over after half of the resting time (I tend to rest mine for about 6 minutes) and enjoy! | When you are talking about a roast then I tent for at least 10 minutes and sometimes as long as 20 minutes, the meat is hot and juicy. But I have the same problem with cut meat such as a breast of duck. The answer seems to be to add a hot sauce over what is now room temperature meat. The larger the pieces you cut the warmer the meat will stay, cut it thin and it cools instantly. So I have started to create gravies, etc to bring the meat back to temp. If its beef tenderloin I have used hot butter, with some shallots. Gordon Ramsey has some excellent sauces on youtube. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | For me the secret to resting is all about core temperature. Let's take a beef fillet steak for an example. There is no way the meat can dry out under 55 C due to the structure of the fibers and you can also not overcook a steak when the core temperature does not rise above 50/55 C according to personal tastes.
For this reason I let steaks rest in an oven pre heated to 50 C myself. This reduces the loss of temperature from the product while ensuring that the steak will not overcook during the resting period. Simply turn them over after half of the resting time (I tend to rest mine for about 6 minutes) and enjoy! | Just leave it on a cutting board for a few minutes. See [importance-of-resting-grilling](http://www.seriouseats.com/2009/12/how-to-have-juicy-meats-steaks-the-food-lab-the-importance-of-resting-grilling.html)
Slice to serve, and transfer to heated serving plate |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | Ideally, you want something that will absorb the heat from the too hot meat until the meat cools down enough, then re-emits it to help hold the meat near serving temperature until it is time to cut.
You won't get that with something that conducts all the heat away (metal table), or absorbs it never to return (stone countertop).
That means a ceramic/earthenware dish of appropriate size, isolated from other thermal conductors. The larger the piece of meat, the heavier the ideal dish. For thin steaks, I use a thin table plate set on a hot pad. For roasts, a heavy serving platter.
The meat will lose some of it's energy to the air through radiation and convection (sped up if the skin is moist). A loose piece of aluminum foil over it will help slow the rate of both. | many large joints and cuts can actually rise in temperature by between about 5 and ten degrees centigrade after being removed from the oven. use a probe. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | Resting your meat, contrary to many of the answers here, has nothing to do with allowing it to cool to a more palatable temperature before enjoying. This may happen a litte during the process but it in no way exists as the basis for employing the method of (tenting &) resting.
Simply put, as the term itself implies, 'resting' allows the meat to relax. As it does so its juices are evenly reabsorbed through-out the whole of the meat.
As meat cooks its juices are forced toward the middle of the pc. If you cut into meat, steak for example, immediately after cooking the potential for juicy goodness is lost as the majority of these juices escape and pool upon your plate. However, on the other hand, as the meat relaxes while resting the juices are reabsorbed through out the whole of the meat so that they may be savored in each and every bite.
I suggest you do a little research, on the internet perhaps, to familiarize yourself with the technique and steps involved. It is relatively simple but there are a few things you'll want to keep in mind. You'll want to 'tent' the meat when 'resting' however its important to do so in a manner which allows some movement of air and avoids excess condensation gathering on the meat. There will also be a certain amount of 'carry over' cooking that will take place after the meat is removed from the heat source as residual heat continues to radiate through out. On avg', depending on its size, the meat may cook an additional 3°-15°. Therefore it's important to remove the meat from the oven, stove, bbq etc' ahead of the desired temperature to prevent over cooking. Ultimately, like most things, a little education and some hands-on experience are key ingredients here for that perfect dish. | What happens when you leave any food out? It gets cold. None of the suggestions furnished are helpful. For crying out aloud, foil! Reheating, foil, hot ceramic plates all have the same problem when it comes to steak - they extend the cooking process which is NOT what you want. Rest by all means if it's a cold cut you're after. Resting meat seems to be a fancy excuse to cover for serving cold food which is meant to be eaten hot. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | Straight after it comes out of the pan it will usually be too hot to eat. Regardless of resting or not, you can't fully taste things which are too hot, they need to come down to a comfortable temperature before you eat them.
Some things you can do to stop the meat being too cold when you serve it:
* You can rest the meat wrapped in foil, this will stop it from getting too cool too quickly if you are not ready to serve once its had the time to rest.
* you can rest it and then warm it again before you eat it, either under a hot grill for a little, or in an oven.
* serve it with a hot sauce which will warm the meat
* serve it on a warmed plate which will stop it cooling more too quickly on the table
Although I think you are worrying too much about nothing IMHO. Even once rested the meat will still be at a good temperature, especially as you have not cut it yet and most of the heat will be retained in the middle of the meat. | Just dont worry too much about it. Let it sit for a few minutes on a room temp plate then eat. How hard is that? You can leave in the oven set to the desired temp also as long as its not still "cooking". Meat cooks a little after taking off the heat. I always stop cooking it about 5 degrees under what im aiming for. Ive made so many steaks and I know for sure most people dont even know what doneness they want,. You cant go wrong by undercooking, but an overdone steak just gets tossed. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | Resting your meat, contrary to many of the answers here, has nothing to do with allowing it to cool to a more palatable temperature before enjoying. This may happen a litte during the process but it in no way exists as the basis for employing the method of (tenting &) resting.
Simply put, as the term itself implies, 'resting' allows the meat to relax. As it does so its juices are evenly reabsorbed through-out the whole of the meat.
As meat cooks its juices are forced toward the middle of the pc. If you cut into meat, steak for example, immediately after cooking the potential for juicy goodness is lost as the majority of these juices escape and pool upon your plate. However, on the other hand, as the meat relaxes while resting the juices are reabsorbed through out the whole of the meat so that they may be savored in each and every bite.
I suggest you do a little research, on the internet perhaps, to familiarize yourself with the technique and steps involved. It is relatively simple but there are a few things you'll want to keep in mind. You'll want to 'tent' the meat when 'resting' however its important to do so in a manner which allows some movement of air and avoids excess condensation gathering on the meat. There will also be a certain amount of 'carry over' cooking that will take place after the meat is removed from the heat source as residual heat continues to radiate through out. On avg', depending on its size, the meat may cook an additional 3°-15°. Therefore it's important to remove the meat from the oven, stove, bbq etc' ahead of the desired temperature to prevent over cooking. Ultimately, like most things, a little education and some hands-on experience are key ingredients here for that perfect dish. | Heat your plate in microwave then put steak on it to rest, with door closed, lovely and juicy. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | If you've cooked the meat in the oven, then turn off the heat and leave the door open ajar. | Resting your meat, contrary to many of the answers here, has nothing to do with allowing it to cool to a more palatable temperature before enjoying. This may happen a litte during the process but it in no way exists as the basis for employing the method of (tenting &) resting.
Simply put, as the term itself implies, 'resting' allows the meat to relax. As it does so its juices are evenly reabsorbed through-out the whole of the meat.
As meat cooks its juices are forced toward the middle of the pc. If you cut into meat, steak for example, immediately after cooking the potential for juicy goodness is lost as the majority of these juices escape and pool upon your plate. However, on the other hand, as the meat relaxes while resting the juices are reabsorbed through out the whole of the meat so that they may be savored in each and every bite.
I suggest you do a little research, on the internet perhaps, to familiarize yourself with the technique and steps involved. It is relatively simple but there are a few things you'll want to keep in mind. You'll want to 'tent' the meat when 'resting' however its important to do so in a manner which allows some movement of air and avoids excess condensation gathering on the meat. There will also be a certain amount of 'carry over' cooking that will take place after the meat is removed from the heat source as residual heat continues to radiate through out. On avg', depending on its size, the meat may cook an additional 3°-15°. Therefore it's important to remove the meat from the oven, stove, bbq etc' ahead of the desired temperature to prevent over cooking. Ultimately, like most things, a little education and some hands-on experience are key ingredients here for that perfect dish. |
2,743 | Having read [this question](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/623/why-should-i-rest-meat-after-cooking) I am persuaded that resting meat is good for its flavour. But if the meat has a good temperature straight after it's been cooked, it seems as though it will be too cold after resting it for a few minutes.
How do you rest meat in such a way that it is not too cold for eating? | 2010/07/22 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/2743",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/686/"
] | many large joints and cuts can actually rise in temperature by between about 5 and ten degrees centigrade after being removed from the oven. use a probe. | Heat your plate in microwave then put steak on it to rest, with door closed, lovely and juicy. |
24,838 | On an interview aired in 1959 Bertrand Russel, talking about religious beliefs said: *"...it seems to me a fundamental dishonesty to hold a belief because is useful and not because is true."*
The open statement in Jeremy Bentham's book **An Introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation** published in 1789 is the following:
>
> Nature has placed mankind under the governance of two sovereign masters, pain and pleasure. It is for them alone to point out what we ought to do… By the principle of utility is meant that principle which approves or disapproves of every action whatsoever *according to the tendency it appears to have to augment or diminish the happiness of the party whose interest is in question*: or, what is the same thing in other words to promote or to oppose that happiness. I say of every action whatsoever, and therefore not only of every action of a private individual, but of every measure of government.
>
>
>
My question: **Don't the principles of Utilitarianism oppose the view of Bertrand Russel?** In fact, as far as I understand the principles of Utilitarianism, that an action is considered "good" or "moral" by its utility, meaning that every action is good and moral if it provides happiness. | 2015/07/06 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/24838",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/6049/"
] | The quote from Russell is in conflict, not with Utilitarianism, but with some versions of Pragmatism, in particular with William James' Pragmatist Theory of Truth.
Note that Bentham's quote refers to the good and the right in *actions*; while Russell's quote refers to the holding and to the truth of *beliefs*. Those are two different areas. A rational person is usually supposed to hold a belief in proportion to the evidence that supports that belief, regardless of any practical consequences that the belief may have. And so, utilitarians are not usually expected to hold the view, that Russell's quote opposes, that a *belief* should be held according to its consequences.
Some others, however, have indeed held that view about beliefs. One such thinker, with whom Russell personally debated, was William James. In the essay [The Will to Believe (1897)](http://www.gutenberg.org/files/26659/26659-h/26659-h.htm) James developed an argument, according to which it is allowed and justified, in some cases, to hold a belief even when one doesn't have sufficient epistemic evidence in its favor. The main class of beliefs that James had in mind were religious beliefs. The basic idea of his argument was, that if we have to wait for evidence, we are bound to miss the benefits that some (e.g. religious) beliefs could bring about. In later publications, James developed the *Will to Believe* argument into a general theory of truth. He came to hold that a "true" belief was just a belief which was beneficial to hold, in the long run. This received the title "the pragmatist theory of truth".
Russell opposed James' theories, on various grounds. One of his arguments was that, even if some (e.g. religious) beliefs were beneficial, what gave them their psychological power was the that the believer believed that they were really (i.e. not in the pragmatist sense) true.
>
> Suppose I say there was such a person as Columbus, everyone will agree that what I say is true. But why is it true? Because of a certain man of flesh and blood who lived 450 years ago—in short, because of the causes of my belief, not because of its effects. With James's definition, it might happen that ‘A exists’ is true although in fact A does not exist. I have always found that the hypothesis of Santa Claus ‘works satisfactorily in the widest sense of the word’; therefore ‘Santa Claus exists’ is true, although Santa Claus does not exist. James says (I repeat): ‘If the hypothesis of God works satisfactorily in the widest sense of the word, it is true.’ This simply omits as unimportant the question whether God really is in His heaven; if He is a useful hypothesis, that is enough. God the Architect of the Cosmos is forgotten; all that is remembered is belief in God, and its effects upon the creatures inhabiting our petty planet. No wonder the Pope condemned the pragmatic defence of religion.
> ([*History of Western Philosophy*](https://books.google.co.il/books?id=Ey94E3sOMA0C) p.728)
>
>
> | I think it helps to include [more of the transcript](http://staringatemptypages.blogspot.com/2010/02/in-memory-of-bertrand-russell.html) than you provided. For example, when pressed on the practical benefits of moral rules coming from religion, Russell responds:
>
> Yes, but those rules are generally quite mistaken. A great many of them do more harm than good. And they would probably be able to find a rational morality that they could live by if they dropped this irrational traditional taboo morality that comes down from savage ages.
>
>
>
So, Russell seems to be saying that pursuing the truth will lead one to right living/more happiness/more utility.
Just as a contrast, I was recently reading [a book by Holly Ordway](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1586179993), who is an author and professor who also has spent a large amount of time investigating similar questions. The attitude that she took when investigating the same questions was what you suggest: even if the truth left her materially worse off, she wanted the truth anyway. Therefore, the attitude you suggest is possible, and has been held by others. |
43,373 | I have a [Dell laptop D530](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dell_Latitude#Latitude_D5x0_series) with a 2.2 GHz [T7500 processor](http://ark.intel.com/Product.aspx?id=29761).
What's the fastest processor upgrade I can put in this laptop? | 2009/09/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43373",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | Intel® Core™2 Duo Processor
Up to T7700 (2.40 GHz, 4 MB L2 Cache, 800 MHz FSB).
[Source](http://www.dell.com/us/en/corp/notebooks/latit_d530/pd.aspx?refid=latit_d530&s=corp) | Me thinks you've just answered your own question.
Notebook processors are usually soldered to the board, and non-upgradable. Even if it were
possible with severe desoldering and hacking, the availability of mobile processors and the extreme chance it will b0rk your entire system makes it dangerous and non-feasible. |
43,373 | I have a [Dell laptop D530](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dell_Latitude#Latitude_D5x0_series) with a 2.2 GHz [T7500 processor](http://ark.intel.com/Product.aspx?id=29761).
What's the fastest processor upgrade I can put in this laptop? | 2009/09/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43373",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | Just a comment on the D530 CPU, it uses a ZIF socket secured to the motherboard with a cam screw so it should be easily replaceable. | Me thinks you've just answered your own question.
Notebook processors are usually soldered to the board, and non-upgradable. Even if it were
possible with severe desoldering and hacking, the availability of mobile processors and the extreme chance it will b0rk your entire system makes it dangerous and non-feasible. |
43,373 | I have a [Dell laptop D530](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dell_Latitude#Latitude_D5x0_series) with a 2.2 GHz [T7500 processor](http://ark.intel.com/Product.aspx?id=29761).
What's the fastest processor upgrade I can put in this laptop? | 2009/09/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43373",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | Intel® Core™2 Duo Processor
Up to T7700 (2.40 GHz, 4 MB L2 Cache, 800 MHz FSB).
[Source](http://www.dell.com/us/en/corp/notebooks/latit_d530/pd.aspx?refid=latit_d530&s=corp) | Just a comment on the D530 CPU, it uses a ZIF socket secured to the motherboard with a cam screw so it should be easily replaceable. |
43,373 | I have a [Dell laptop D530](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dell_Latitude#Latitude_D5x0_series) with a 2.2 GHz [T7500 processor](http://ark.intel.com/Product.aspx?id=29761).
What's the fastest processor upgrade I can put in this laptop? | 2009/09/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43373",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | Intel® Core™2 Duo Processor
Up to T7700 (2.40 GHz, 4 MB L2 Cache, 800 MHz FSB).
[Source](http://www.dell.com/us/en/corp/notebooks/latit_d530/pd.aspx?refid=latit_d530&s=corp) | Isn't it possible to install a T7800 CPU into the D530? It's the fastest CPU of this product line (runs on 2.6 GHz, everything else is just like T7700). And what about the [Penryn CPUs](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Penryn_%28microprocessor%29)? Yes, they are 45 nm (as oposed to the 65 nm T7xxx), but the [Santa Rosa](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Opteron#Opteron_.2890_nm_SOI.2C_DDR2.29) platform should be compatible with them...? |
43,373 | I have a [Dell laptop D530](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dell_Latitude#Latitude_D5x0_series) with a 2.2 GHz [T7500 processor](http://ark.intel.com/Product.aspx?id=29761).
What's the fastest processor upgrade I can put in this laptop? | 2009/09/18 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43373",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | Just a comment on the D530 CPU, it uses a ZIF socket secured to the motherboard with a cam screw so it should be easily replaceable. | Isn't it possible to install a T7800 CPU into the D530? It's the fastest CPU of this product line (runs on 2.6 GHz, everything else is just like T7700). And what about the [Penryn CPUs](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Penryn_%28microprocessor%29)? Yes, they are 45 nm (as oposed to the 65 nm T7xxx), but the [Santa Rosa](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Opteron#Opteron_.2890_nm_SOI.2C_DDR2.29) platform should be compatible with them...? |
54,729 | Genesis 1:5 says that God ended the first creative day with the expression, "the evening and morning were the first day". Each successive day ends with the same expression. Does this indicate that the creative days were 24 hours in length? | 2021/01/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54729",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/23470/"
] | There are two indications that the "days" of Gen 1 are literal 24-hour days:
* The regular repetition of formula, "and there was evening and morning, the nth day".
* The use of the specific numeral associated with the word "day", first day, second day, third day, etc.
The latter point needs further comment.
The Hebrew word "day" is יוֹם (yom). It is used in at least two distinct senses in the OT. (The BDB entry is too large to reproduce here so I will summarize).
* an indefinite period of time or a time past, eg, Gen 3;14, 17, 4:3, 14, 5:1, 11, 6:4, 9:29, 18:11, etc.
* When accompanied by a numeral, the word ALWAYS means a literal 24 hour period of time, eg, Gen 2:3, 7:4, 11, 12, 17, 8:3, 4, 12, 14, 17:12, etc.
In summarizing this situation,. it was Professor Barr (at Oxford) who wrote to to Mr David C C Watson in Illinois, dated 23 April 1984, who said -
>
> “… probably, so far as I know, there is no professor of Hebrew or Old
> Testament at any world-class university who does not believe that the
> writer(s) of Genesis 1–11 intended to convey to their readers the
> ideas that creation took place in a series of six days which were the
> same as the days of 24 hours we now experience, the figures contained
> in the Genesis genealogies provided by simple addition a chronology
> from the beginning of the world up to later stages in the biblical
> story, Noah’s flood was understood to be world-wide and extinguish all
> human and animal life except for those in the ark.”
>
>
>
I agree. The writer of Genesis writes about literal 24 hour periods of time. | The expression 'day' is defined within the context of the passage. The definition is 'the evening and the morning were the first day' and so on.
Thus 'day' means 'evening and morning'.
And therefore 'day' contains 'night' within it. The daytime brackets the night period.
That is to say, light contains the darkness. Light brackets the darkness. Light surrounds the darkness.
And the darkness, though it be present, does not prevent the morning breaking into a new day.
There is the closure of one phase, then a period of darkness. Then another period, a new phase, begins. This, all of this, is 'day'.
And the first three days cannot be measured in terms of time. There was no sun. There was no moon. *And there was no observer on earth to observe the event.*
It is impossible, under such circumstances, to state any calculated data whatsoever about the events. To do so, is just speculation. |
54,729 | Genesis 1:5 says that God ended the first creative day with the expression, "the evening and morning were the first day". Each successive day ends with the same expression. Does this indicate that the creative days were 24 hours in length? | 2021/01/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54729",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/23470/"
] | Nowhere in the Genesis account of creating the heavens and the earth does the phrase “24 hours” crop up. Only after God creates light, then makes a division between light (which he calls Day) and darkness (which he calls Night) do we get the statement, “And the evening and the morning were the first day.” Please note that Day One does not mention the planet we live on, which is called Earth. The Earth is mentioned in 1:1 – does this mean it was already created before Day One started? Some think so. The Hebrew word for that can also, equally, be translated as ‘land’ and it is not till verse 9 that we get the first use of the word ‘land’ where God causes land to arise as the waters covering the planet are “gathered together unto one place”.
I mention this because you specifically asked about creating the earth in SIX 24 hour days. But what if the Earth had already been created, and then days one to six began, God bringing light out of darkness, order out of chaos, and life out of lifelessness?
Naturally, mention of evening and morning (night and day) causes all readers to think of what we presently know as a full, 24 hour day. But have Earth days always been of 24 hour duration? Here is what Professor Bob White, Geophysicist (and a Christian), says in answer to the question 'Did God do all this within six 24-hour days?':
>
> "The six days are a literary device of a week's hard work. In any
> case, as a geologist I find it amusing to reflect that when the Earth
> was created it was spinning much faster than it does now, so one day
> lasted only about five hours. Due to the gravitational pull of the
> moon and the tides, which absorb energy, the Earth's rotation has been
> slowing down ever since, so actually six 24-hour periods wouldn't fit
> either!" *God, the Big Bang & bunsen burning issues*, p150, Ed. Nigel
> Bovey (Authentic 2008)
>
>
>
To back that up, we know from lasers (one planted on the moon) that over thousands of years, interacting planets slow down. The moon's orbit continues to vary because Earth's rotation is slowing it down due to 'tidal braking'. And now I quote:
>
> "Tidal bulges interact with the Moon's gravitation to produce a
> decelerating torque that slows the Earth's rotation, causing an
> increase in the length of the day.
>
>
> The equal and opposite reaction is a torque exerted by the Earth on
> the Moon's orbit that increases its angular momentum. This is achieved
> by an increase in the distance between the Moon from the Earth,
> pushing it 1.25 inches farther away each year, and a decrease in the
> rotation rate of the Moon about the Earth, which increases the length
> of the month.
>
>
> The Earth's rotation decelerates more rapidly than that of the Moon,
> so eventually the angular velocities of the Earth and the Moon will be
> equal, a condition called synchronous rotation. At that point, a
> billion or so years hence, an Earth day and month will be equal, at
> about 47 current Earth days, and the Moon's distance from the Earth
> will be 135 per cent of its current value. Then, for millions of
> years, one side of the Earth will face the Moon. Half the world will
> see the Moon, while the other half will never see it...
>
>
> The Sun's tidal pull on Earth is only half as strong as the Moon's, so
> as the Moon departs, the Sun will grow relatively more influential.
> Ultimately, it will make Earth spin even slower, and the Moon will
> start falling toward us. It will break apart before it reaches 10,000
> miles away because its silicate rocks are only half as dense as the
> Earth's heavier materials." Colin Francis, Cheltenham, Glos. UK in
> *"Answers to Correspondents"* in the Daily Mail newspaper, Monday 13
> February 2012
>
>
>
Of course, God is sovereign, and we know he has promised that the present Earth and Heavens will be replaced with "a new Heavens and a new Earth, in which righteousness will dwell." (2 Peter 3:10-13)
When you look at the different meanings of the ancient Hebrew word for 'day', you see that the six days of creation need not be the usual meaning of an Earth day. In Gen. 2:4 (KJV) all six 'days' are called "in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens." The six days become one day. And in verse 17 God warns Adam that "in the day you eat" (of the forbidden fruit) "you will surely die". But we know Adam lived for 930 years. Clearly a 'day' has various meanings. The Bible states that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years - that seems to fit Adam's dying before he reached 1,000 years - a day in God's sight.
To answer your question, then, the Bible does not say the Earth was created in six 24 hour Earth days, or even in one 24 hour Earth day. | The expression 'day' is defined within the context of the passage. The definition is 'the evening and the morning were the first day' and so on.
Thus 'day' means 'evening and morning'.
And therefore 'day' contains 'night' within it. The daytime brackets the night period.
That is to say, light contains the darkness. Light brackets the darkness. Light surrounds the darkness.
And the darkness, though it be present, does not prevent the morning breaking into a new day.
There is the closure of one phase, then a period of darkness. Then another period, a new phase, begins. This, all of this, is 'day'.
And the first three days cannot be measured in terms of time. There was no sun. There was no moon. *And there was no observer on earth to observe the event.*
It is impossible, under such circumstances, to state any calculated data whatsoever about the events. To do so, is just speculation. |
54,729 | Genesis 1:5 says that God ended the first creative day with the expression, "the evening and morning were the first day". Each successive day ends with the same expression. Does this indicate that the creative days were 24 hours in length? | 2021/01/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54729",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/23470/"
] | When we interpret a text, we ask questions about the author’s intent. What happens if we ask a text for information that the author never intended to give us?
**Chronological precision**
Ancient writers didn’t have a clear way to convey the idea of a “billion”, so we shouldn’t expect the expressions 13.7 billion or 4.6 billion to show up in Genesis. (note that this statement is true regardless of how old you believe the earth is). Even if the author believed the events described had an extremely long duration, they wouldn’t have been able to assign a number to it.
Ancient timekeepers didn’t measure days by machine; they used the sun. So we shouldn’t expect expressions like 24 hours or 1,440 minutes to show up in Genesis either. If the text is referring to literal days, they would be solar days, not 24-hour days.
**What solar reference?**
“Evening”, “morning”, and “day" in ancient times are usually references to the sun. The question ultimately asked by the OP is whether that is what they refer to in Genesis 1.
Verses 14-16 may too often be overlooked:
>
> 14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to
> divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for
> seasons, and for days, and years:
>
>
> 15 And let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give
> light upon the earth: and it was so.
>
>
> 16 And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day,
> and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.
>
>
>
Why should we interpret “evening”, “morning”, and “day” as solar references, when the sun wasn’t giving light to the earth prior to verse 15?
**A lesson from learning another language – the power of metaphor**
When you learn to speak another language you sometimes encounter a concept for which you do not know the word in the new language. What do you do? You talk around the word. You provide descriptors. You compare it to something.
When ancient writers sought to describe something they didn’t have the tools to explain, they often used metaphor. (Abraham’s seed would be as the sand of the sea, John’s scorpions, Nehemiah’s chariots, etc). And it’s not because they were unintelligent; you and I would do the same thing if we saw the technology thousands of years from now.
The 7 days of creation are explicitly a metaphor for the Jewish week, ending on the Sabbath. Should the temporal markers in this metaphor be taken literally? Perhaps not...because it's a metaphor. It says the creation took place in 6 steps.
Is it a bad thing if “day” is a metaphor here? I don’t think so. Why should it be any more concerning than the hundreds of other metaphors in the Bible? This is not to say that metaphor is our default assumption in interpreting a text. But since the common usage of the terms “evening”, “morning”, and “day”, don’t work with vs 15, we should consider metaphor. It’s certainly more charitable to the author than assuming they were ignorant or committed a major oversight.
**Squeezing blood from a turnip**
But what if we really want to know the duration of the creation!
A fascinating example can be found in Irenaeus of Lyons. He is our earliest surviving source who mentions all 4 Gospels by name. Those interested in the chronology of the Gospels have regularly scoured Irenaeus’ writings looking for chronological information. Although some of his writings about the Gospels have been interpreted as chronological statements, the Greek reference to time [here](https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0103301.htm) is vague, and may not have been intended to say anything about chronology at all.
And so we’re left trying to squeeze chronological information out when perhaps none was put there to begin with. There’s a risk of doing the same thing with Genesis.
**Why isn’t the author more specific?**
Certainly, the concept of a long duration of time could have been communicated even without specifying a 13.7 billion year age of the universe, if supplying chronology was the intention. Since a long duration wasn’t specified, two options stand out to me as most interesting:
* The author did not know the duration of time (e.g. perhaps a vision
of the Creation was given and the author was describing the vision)
* The duration of time was not considered to be of primary importance
**What might the author be saying?**
The writer appears to be interested in what happened and in what order; asking for a more precise chronology does not seem fair to the author’s intentions. We may well be asking the text for more chronological information than it was ever intended to convey.
Perhaps the author considered it more important to tell people they were made in the image of God, then to discuss the age of the earth. Which one is likely to have a greater effect on the way people live their lives? | The expression 'day' is defined within the context of the passage. The definition is 'the evening and the morning were the first day' and so on.
Thus 'day' means 'evening and morning'.
And therefore 'day' contains 'night' within it. The daytime brackets the night period.
That is to say, light contains the darkness. Light brackets the darkness. Light surrounds the darkness.
And the darkness, though it be present, does not prevent the morning breaking into a new day.
There is the closure of one phase, then a period of darkness. Then another period, a new phase, begins. This, all of this, is 'day'.
And the first three days cannot be measured in terms of time. There was no sun. There was no moon. *And there was no observer on earth to observe the event.*
It is impossible, under such circumstances, to state any calculated data whatsoever about the events. To do so, is just speculation. |
54,729 | Genesis 1:5 says that God ended the first creative day with the expression, "the evening and morning were the first day". Each successive day ends with the same expression. Does this indicate that the creative days were 24 hours in length? | 2021/01/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54729",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/23470/"
] | There are two indications that the "days" of Gen 1 are literal 24-hour days:
* The regular repetition of formula, "and there was evening and morning, the nth day".
* The use of the specific numeral associated with the word "day", first day, second day, third day, etc.
The latter point needs further comment.
The Hebrew word "day" is יוֹם (yom). It is used in at least two distinct senses in the OT. (The BDB entry is too large to reproduce here so I will summarize).
* an indefinite period of time or a time past, eg, Gen 3;14, 17, 4:3, 14, 5:1, 11, 6:4, 9:29, 18:11, etc.
* When accompanied by a numeral, the word ALWAYS means a literal 24 hour period of time, eg, Gen 2:3, 7:4, 11, 12, 17, 8:3, 4, 12, 14, 17:12, etc.
In summarizing this situation,. it was Professor Barr (at Oxford) who wrote to to Mr David C C Watson in Illinois, dated 23 April 1984, who said -
>
> “… probably, so far as I know, there is no professor of Hebrew or Old
> Testament at any world-class university who does not believe that the
> writer(s) of Genesis 1–11 intended to convey to their readers the
> ideas that creation took place in a series of six days which were the
> same as the days of 24 hours we now experience, the figures contained
> in the Genesis genealogies provided by simple addition a chronology
> from the beginning of the world up to later stages in the biblical
> story, Noah’s flood was understood to be world-wide and extinguish all
> human and animal life except for those in the ark.”
>
>
>
I agree. The writer of Genesis writes about literal 24 hour periods of time. | "Does the Bible say the earth was created in six 24 hour days?"
If you mean in these explicit words, - the answer is **NO**, but the word Bible and Trinity are not in the Bible.
If you mean "Does the Bible teach a literal 6 day creation, and can we find corroborating evidence from scripture?, - then absolutely **YES**!
There are four common red herrings which are used to prop up the notion that the creation account doesn't mean what it plainly says. Let's break it down.
In every case - these fallacious arguments violate basic one or more rules of sound Hermeneutics.
* 1. Take other verses out of context - specifically 2 Peter 3:8 "Thousand years is as a day."
* 2. Ignore or disregard the literary context of Genesis
* 3. Use the argument that Yom can be used to mean era, generation.
* 4. Scripture interprets Scripture. They fail to cross-reference and look at the other clear passages which shed light on the Creation story.
>
> "The first thing to note is that the context has nothing to do with the days of creation. Also, it is not defining a day because it doesn’t say ‘a day is a thousand years’. The correct understanding is derived from the context—the Apostle Peter’s readers should not lose heart because God seems slow at fulfilling His promises because He is patient, and also because He is not bound by time as we are. The text says ‘one day is like [or as] a thousand years’—the word ‘like’ (or ‘as’) shows that it is a figure of speech, called a simile, to teach that God is outside of time (because He is the Creator of time itself). In fact, the figure of speech is so effective in its intended aim precisely because the day is literal and contrasts so vividly with 1000 years—to the eternal Creator of time, a short period of time and a long period of time may as well be the same."
>
> <https://creation.com/2-peter-38-one-day-is-like-a-thousand-years>
>
>
>
Secondly, those who suggest that the Creation account is symbolic, or intended to be a metaphor - not literal days, ignore the fact that Genesis is **Historic Genre**, and furthermore, even secular non-Christian scholars of Hebrew agree that the style of Genesis is not at all like poetry or wisdom literature, and is written in a historic narrative style, with specific events happening on specific days of the Hebrew calendar, and specific real geographical places and real historical leaders and kings.
The Old Testament is divided into three groups or divisions, - Historical, Poetic or Wisdom and Prophets, and Genesis is in the Historical section.
Third, people often say that the word Yom, which is Hebrew for Day, is just like the English word day, and that it can mean era, or generation, as in the phrase "In George Washington's day, electric lights had not yet been invented" or "In Noah's day, sin was rampant on the earth."
While the word "Yom" can be translated to mean era or generation, - explicit passages always supercede or take priority over vague or less specific passages.
In the Genesis account, each day is marked by having an evening and a morning, and this is significant because Hebrew days go from sunset to sunset, unlike our day, which starts at midnight, but we count starting from the daylight period.
Additionally, every time the word day is preceded with an ordinal number, like first day, second, third day, 12th day or 40th day etc, it is always a literal day, never an era or generation.
Fourth - and most importantly, those who say that the days are 1000 years, or even worse - unknown, indefinite periods of time, even millions of years **totally undermine and destroy the Biblical doctrine of the Sabbath.**
The entire doctrine of a Sabbath day is six days of work, followed by a 7th day of rest. God modeled this and illustrated this with the creation week.
The notion of man working for six years and then not working for another year is patently absurd, and even grows more ludicrous with longer periods.
Man should work for sixty years non-stop, and then rest for ten years.
The problem is even compounded when you realize the conundrum that is presented for those who say that the days were 1000 year periods, because it's impossible to explain how plants and animals could live for 4000 years without the sun.
Furthermore, even secular Macro-evolutionists agree that mutations are at least 100x more harmful to a species than helpful.
It's the same logic that by inbreeding, once in a while it produces a child-prodigy with genius level intelligence. This is in fact true, but no one wants to actually encourage their sons or daughters or loved ones to do this, because we know that the mutations are far more harmful than the one-in-ten-thousand type odds that it will produce a Bionic Einstein baby.
This is the classic example of Occam's Razor - the most straightforward answer is usually the correct one.
The doctrine of marriage, sabbath, Salvation, end times, and many others have their foundation in Genesis, and when you undermine the foundation, the entire structure is compromised. |
54,729 | Genesis 1:5 says that God ended the first creative day with the expression, "the evening and morning were the first day". Each successive day ends with the same expression. Does this indicate that the creative days were 24 hours in length? | 2021/01/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54729",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/23470/"
] | Nowhere in the Genesis account of creating the heavens and the earth does the phrase “24 hours” crop up. Only after God creates light, then makes a division between light (which he calls Day) and darkness (which he calls Night) do we get the statement, “And the evening and the morning were the first day.” Please note that Day One does not mention the planet we live on, which is called Earth. The Earth is mentioned in 1:1 – does this mean it was already created before Day One started? Some think so. The Hebrew word for that can also, equally, be translated as ‘land’ and it is not till verse 9 that we get the first use of the word ‘land’ where God causes land to arise as the waters covering the planet are “gathered together unto one place”.
I mention this because you specifically asked about creating the earth in SIX 24 hour days. But what if the Earth had already been created, and then days one to six began, God bringing light out of darkness, order out of chaos, and life out of lifelessness?
Naturally, mention of evening and morning (night and day) causes all readers to think of what we presently know as a full, 24 hour day. But have Earth days always been of 24 hour duration? Here is what Professor Bob White, Geophysicist (and a Christian), says in answer to the question 'Did God do all this within six 24-hour days?':
>
> "The six days are a literary device of a week's hard work. In any
> case, as a geologist I find it amusing to reflect that when the Earth
> was created it was spinning much faster than it does now, so one day
> lasted only about five hours. Due to the gravitational pull of the
> moon and the tides, which absorb energy, the Earth's rotation has been
> slowing down ever since, so actually six 24-hour periods wouldn't fit
> either!" *God, the Big Bang & bunsen burning issues*, p150, Ed. Nigel
> Bovey (Authentic 2008)
>
>
>
To back that up, we know from lasers (one planted on the moon) that over thousands of years, interacting planets slow down. The moon's orbit continues to vary because Earth's rotation is slowing it down due to 'tidal braking'. And now I quote:
>
> "Tidal bulges interact with the Moon's gravitation to produce a
> decelerating torque that slows the Earth's rotation, causing an
> increase in the length of the day.
>
>
> The equal and opposite reaction is a torque exerted by the Earth on
> the Moon's orbit that increases its angular momentum. This is achieved
> by an increase in the distance between the Moon from the Earth,
> pushing it 1.25 inches farther away each year, and a decrease in the
> rotation rate of the Moon about the Earth, which increases the length
> of the month.
>
>
> The Earth's rotation decelerates more rapidly than that of the Moon,
> so eventually the angular velocities of the Earth and the Moon will be
> equal, a condition called synchronous rotation. At that point, a
> billion or so years hence, an Earth day and month will be equal, at
> about 47 current Earth days, and the Moon's distance from the Earth
> will be 135 per cent of its current value. Then, for millions of
> years, one side of the Earth will face the Moon. Half the world will
> see the Moon, while the other half will never see it...
>
>
> The Sun's tidal pull on Earth is only half as strong as the Moon's, so
> as the Moon departs, the Sun will grow relatively more influential.
> Ultimately, it will make Earth spin even slower, and the Moon will
> start falling toward us. It will break apart before it reaches 10,000
> miles away because its silicate rocks are only half as dense as the
> Earth's heavier materials." Colin Francis, Cheltenham, Glos. UK in
> *"Answers to Correspondents"* in the Daily Mail newspaper, Monday 13
> February 2012
>
>
>
Of course, God is sovereign, and we know he has promised that the present Earth and Heavens will be replaced with "a new Heavens and a new Earth, in which righteousness will dwell." (2 Peter 3:10-13)
When you look at the different meanings of the ancient Hebrew word for 'day', you see that the six days of creation need not be the usual meaning of an Earth day. In Gen. 2:4 (KJV) all six 'days' are called "in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens." The six days become one day. And in verse 17 God warns Adam that "in the day you eat" (of the forbidden fruit) "you will surely die". But we know Adam lived for 930 years. Clearly a 'day' has various meanings. The Bible states that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years - that seems to fit Adam's dying before he reached 1,000 years - a day in God's sight.
To answer your question, then, the Bible does not say the Earth was created in six 24 hour Earth days, or even in one 24 hour Earth day. | "Does the Bible say the earth was created in six 24 hour days?"
If you mean in these explicit words, - the answer is **NO**, but the word Bible and Trinity are not in the Bible.
If you mean "Does the Bible teach a literal 6 day creation, and can we find corroborating evidence from scripture?, - then absolutely **YES**!
There are four common red herrings which are used to prop up the notion that the creation account doesn't mean what it plainly says. Let's break it down.
In every case - these fallacious arguments violate basic one or more rules of sound Hermeneutics.
* 1. Take other verses out of context - specifically 2 Peter 3:8 "Thousand years is as a day."
* 2. Ignore or disregard the literary context of Genesis
* 3. Use the argument that Yom can be used to mean era, generation.
* 4. Scripture interprets Scripture. They fail to cross-reference and look at the other clear passages which shed light on the Creation story.
>
> "The first thing to note is that the context has nothing to do with the days of creation. Also, it is not defining a day because it doesn’t say ‘a day is a thousand years’. The correct understanding is derived from the context—the Apostle Peter’s readers should not lose heart because God seems slow at fulfilling His promises because He is patient, and also because He is not bound by time as we are. The text says ‘one day is like [or as] a thousand years’—the word ‘like’ (or ‘as’) shows that it is a figure of speech, called a simile, to teach that God is outside of time (because He is the Creator of time itself). In fact, the figure of speech is so effective in its intended aim precisely because the day is literal and contrasts so vividly with 1000 years—to the eternal Creator of time, a short period of time and a long period of time may as well be the same."
>
> <https://creation.com/2-peter-38-one-day-is-like-a-thousand-years>
>
>
>
Secondly, those who suggest that the Creation account is symbolic, or intended to be a metaphor - not literal days, ignore the fact that Genesis is **Historic Genre**, and furthermore, even secular non-Christian scholars of Hebrew agree that the style of Genesis is not at all like poetry or wisdom literature, and is written in a historic narrative style, with specific events happening on specific days of the Hebrew calendar, and specific real geographical places and real historical leaders and kings.
The Old Testament is divided into three groups or divisions, - Historical, Poetic or Wisdom and Prophets, and Genesis is in the Historical section.
Third, people often say that the word Yom, which is Hebrew for Day, is just like the English word day, and that it can mean era, or generation, as in the phrase "In George Washington's day, electric lights had not yet been invented" or "In Noah's day, sin was rampant on the earth."
While the word "Yom" can be translated to mean era or generation, - explicit passages always supercede or take priority over vague or less specific passages.
In the Genesis account, each day is marked by having an evening and a morning, and this is significant because Hebrew days go from sunset to sunset, unlike our day, which starts at midnight, but we count starting from the daylight period.
Additionally, every time the word day is preceded with an ordinal number, like first day, second, third day, 12th day or 40th day etc, it is always a literal day, never an era or generation.
Fourth - and most importantly, those who say that the days are 1000 years, or even worse - unknown, indefinite periods of time, even millions of years **totally undermine and destroy the Biblical doctrine of the Sabbath.**
The entire doctrine of a Sabbath day is six days of work, followed by a 7th day of rest. God modeled this and illustrated this with the creation week.
The notion of man working for six years and then not working for another year is patently absurd, and even grows more ludicrous with longer periods.
Man should work for sixty years non-stop, and then rest for ten years.
The problem is even compounded when you realize the conundrum that is presented for those who say that the days were 1000 year periods, because it's impossible to explain how plants and animals could live for 4000 years without the sun.
Furthermore, even secular Macro-evolutionists agree that mutations are at least 100x more harmful to a species than helpful.
It's the same logic that by inbreeding, once in a while it produces a child-prodigy with genius level intelligence. This is in fact true, but no one wants to actually encourage their sons or daughters or loved ones to do this, because we know that the mutations are far more harmful than the one-in-ten-thousand type odds that it will produce a Bionic Einstein baby.
This is the classic example of Occam's Razor - the most straightforward answer is usually the correct one.
The doctrine of marriage, sabbath, Salvation, end times, and many others have their foundation in Genesis, and when you undermine the foundation, the entire structure is compromised. |
54,729 | Genesis 1:5 says that God ended the first creative day with the expression, "the evening and morning were the first day". Each successive day ends with the same expression. Does this indicate that the creative days were 24 hours in length? | 2021/01/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54729",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/23470/"
] | When we interpret a text, we ask questions about the author’s intent. What happens if we ask a text for information that the author never intended to give us?
**Chronological precision**
Ancient writers didn’t have a clear way to convey the idea of a “billion”, so we shouldn’t expect the expressions 13.7 billion or 4.6 billion to show up in Genesis. (note that this statement is true regardless of how old you believe the earth is). Even if the author believed the events described had an extremely long duration, they wouldn’t have been able to assign a number to it.
Ancient timekeepers didn’t measure days by machine; they used the sun. So we shouldn’t expect expressions like 24 hours or 1,440 minutes to show up in Genesis either. If the text is referring to literal days, they would be solar days, not 24-hour days.
**What solar reference?**
“Evening”, “morning”, and “day" in ancient times are usually references to the sun. The question ultimately asked by the OP is whether that is what they refer to in Genesis 1.
Verses 14-16 may too often be overlooked:
>
> 14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to
> divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for
> seasons, and for days, and years:
>
>
> 15 And let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give
> light upon the earth: and it was so.
>
>
> 16 And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day,
> and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.
>
>
>
Why should we interpret “evening”, “morning”, and “day” as solar references, when the sun wasn’t giving light to the earth prior to verse 15?
**A lesson from learning another language – the power of metaphor**
When you learn to speak another language you sometimes encounter a concept for which you do not know the word in the new language. What do you do? You talk around the word. You provide descriptors. You compare it to something.
When ancient writers sought to describe something they didn’t have the tools to explain, they often used metaphor. (Abraham’s seed would be as the sand of the sea, John’s scorpions, Nehemiah’s chariots, etc). And it’s not because they were unintelligent; you and I would do the same thing if we saw the technology thousands of years from now.
The 7 days of creation are explicitly a metaphor for the Jewish week, ending on the Sabbath. Should the temporal markers in this metaphor be taken literally? Perhaps not...because it's a metaphor. It says the creation took place in 6 steps.
Is it a bad thing if “day” is a metaphor here? I don’t think so. Why should it be any more concerning than the hundreds of other metaphors in the Bible? This is not to say that metaphor is our default assumption in interpreting a text. But since the common usage of the terms “evening”, “morning”, and “day”, don’t work with vs 15, we should consider metaphor. It’s certainly more charitable to the author than assuming they were ignorant or committed a major oversight.
**Squeezing blood from a turnip**
But what if we really want to know the duration of the creation!
A fascinating example can be found in Irenaeus of Lyons. He is our earliest surviving source who mentions all 4 Gospels by name. Those interested in the chronology of the Gospels have regularly scoured Irenaeus’ writings looking for chronological information. Although some of his writings about the Gospels have been interpreted as chronological statements, the Greek reference to time [here](https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0103301.htm) is vague, and may not have been intended to say anything about chronology at all.
And so we’re left trying to squeeze chronological information out when perhaps none was put there to begin with. There’s a risk of doing the same thing with Genesis.
**Why isn’t the author more specific?**
Certainly, the concept of a long duration of time could have been communicated even without specifying a 13.7 billion year age of the universe, if supplying chronology was the intention. Since a long duration wasn’t specified, two options stand out to me as most interesting:
* The author did not know the duration of time (e.g. perhaps a vision
of the Creation was given and the author was describing the vision)
* The duration of time was not considered to be of primary importance
**What might the author be saying?**
The writer appears to be interested in what happened and in what order; asking for a more precise chronology does not seem fair to the author’s intentions. We may well be asking the text for more chronological information than it was ever intended to convey.
Perhaps the author considered it more important to tell people they were made in the image of God, then to discuss the age of the earth. Which one is likely to have a greater effect on the way people live their lives? | "Does the Bible say the earth was created in six 24 hour days?"
If you mean in these explicit words, - the answer is **NO**, but the word Bible and Trinity are not in the Bible.
If you mean "Does the Bible teach a literal 6 day creation, and can we find corroborating evidence from scripture?, - then absolutely **YES**!
There are four common red herrings which are used to prop up the notion that the creation account doesn't mean what it plainly says. Let's break it down.
In every case - these fallacious arguments violate basic one or more rules of sound Hermeneutics.
* 1. Take other verses out of context - specifically 2 Peter 3:8 "Thousand years is as a day."
* 2. Ignore or disregard the literary context of Genesis
* 3. Use the argument that Yom can be used to mean era, generation.
* 4. Scripture interprets Scripture. They fail to cross-reference and look at the other clear passages which shed light on the Creation story.
>
> "The first thing to note is that the context has nothing to do with the days of creation. Also, it is not defining a day because it doesn’t say ‘a day is a thousand years’. The correct understanding is derived from the context—the Apostle Peter’s readers should not lose heart because God seems slow at fulfilling His promises because He is patient, and also because He is not bound by time as we are. The text says ‘one day is like [or as] a thousand years’—the word ‘like’ (or ‘as’) shows that it is a figure of speech, called a simile, to teach that God is outside of time (because He is the Creator of time itself). In fact, the figure of speech is so effective in its intended aim precisely because the day is literal and contrasts so vividly with 1000 years—to the eternal Creator of time, a short period of time and a long period of time may as well be the same."
>
> <https://creation.com/2-peter-38-one-day-is-like-a-thousand-years>
>
>
>
Secondly, those who suggest that the Creation account is symbolic, or intended to be a metaphor - not literal days, ignore the fact that Genesis is **Historic Genre**, and furthermore, even secular non-Christian scholars of Hebrew agree that the style of Genesis is not at all like poetry or wisdom literature, and is written in a historic narrative style, with specific events happening on specific days of the Hebrew calendar, and specific real geographical places and real historical leaders and kings.
The Old Testament is divided into three groups or divisions, - Historical, Poetic or Wisdom and Prophets, and Genesis is in the Historical section.
Third, people often say that the word Yom, which is Hebrew for Day, is just like the English word day, and that it can mean era, or generation, as in the phrase "In George Washington's day, electric lights had not yet been invented" or "In Noah's day, sin was rampant on the earth."
While the word "Yom" can be translated to mean era or generation, - explicit passages always supercede or take priority over vague or less specific passages.
In the Genesis account, each day is marked by having an evening and a morning, and this is significant because Hebrew days go from sunset to sunset, unlike our day, which starts at midnight, but we count starting from the daylight period.
Additionally, every time the word day is preceded with an ordinal number, like first day, second, third day, 12th day or 40th day etc, it is always a literal day, never an era or generation.
Fourth - and most importantly, those who say that the days are 1000 years, or even worse - unknown, indefinite periods of time, even millions of years **totally undermine and destroy the Biblical doctrine of the Sabbath.**
The entire doctrine of a Sabbath day is six days of work, followed by a 7th day of rest. God modeled this and illustrated this with the creation week.
The notion of man working for six years and then not working for another year is patently absurd, and even grows more ludicrous with longer periods.
Man should work for sixty years non-stop, and then rest for ten years.
The problem is even compounded when you realize the conundrum that is presented for those who say that the days were 1000 year periods, because it's impossible to explain how plants and animals could live for 4000 years without the sun.
Furthermore, even secular Macro-evolutionists agree that mutations are at least 100x more harmful to a species than helpful.
It's the same logic that by inbreeding, once in a while it produces a child-prodigy with genius level intelligence. This is in fact true, but no one wants to actually encourage their sons or daughters or loved ones to do this, because we know that the mutations are far more harmful than the one-in-ten-thousand type odds that it will produce a Bionic Einstein baby.
This is the classic example of Occam's Razor - the most straightforward answer is usually the correct one.
The doctrine of marriage, sabbath, Salvation, end times, and many others have their foundation in Genesis, and when you undermine the foundation, the entire structure is compromised. |
22,310,002 | I need to create a responsive layout, but I'm confused on how to start. I've looked up and found many resources, but it's all very overwhelming. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to get started? I can build a html/css website, but have never done anything in regards to mobile.
A few questions:
1) I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct?
2) Should I start off with a template (or a grid, is that the correct term?) If so, any recommendations? (I've found some, but apparently I can't post links due to lack of rep)
This is the basic setup of the layout: <http://oi57.tinypic.com/2en0rdf.jpg>
3) Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must?
4) What's the best way to test the layout? I've come across a couple (can't post links due to not having not rep
5) I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point?
Thank you. | 2014/03/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22310002",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3403328/"
] | >
>
> >
> > 1) I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct?
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
Yes, it is much harder to take a complicated desktop layout and convert it to a simpler mobile layout than vice-versa.
>
>
> >
> > 2) Should I start off with a template (or a grid, is that the correct term?) If so, any recommendations? (I've found some, but apparently I can't post links due to lack of rep) This is the basic setup of the layout: <http://oi57.tinypic.com/2en0rdf.jpg>
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
Yes, to start I highly recommend you go with a framework like [Bootstrap](http://getbootstrap.com/) or [Foundation](http://foundation.zurb.com/) which have responsive grids.
>
>
> >
> > 3 && 4) Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must? What's the best way to test the layout? I've come across a couple (can't post links due to not having not rep
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The best tool is a browser that you can slowly resize and watch how the elements rearrange as you resize it. There are also websites that will display your page at different device widths. For example <http://quirktools.com/screenfly/>.
>
>
> >
> > 5) I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point?
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
Yes, [Bootstrap](http://getbootstrap.com/) or [Foundation](http://foundation.zurb.com/) or any other framework out there is a good starting point. Look at how they do responsive layouts and use that to learn from. | 1: I build for 1080p widescreen and move down. Everyone I know has a different opinion.
---
2: You can do a template, but you don't need one. In general, templates make things easier, but limit your control over your site, and your flexibility.
---
3: Two free ones:
<http://blog.teamtreehouse.com/beginners-guide-to-responsive-web-design>
<http://www.palantir.net/blog/scalable-navigation-patterns-responsive-web-design>
---
4: With Media Queries, you can do initial testing by resizing your browser, which is great. Final mobile testing will need to be done with an emulator, or an actual smartphone. You need to decide also if you want to support pre-4.0 Android.
Another good resource is <http://browsershots.org/>. It's free, and will show you your site in a massive range of browsers.
---
5: Bootstrap ... the same implications apply for part 2. Makes your life easier but limits flexibility. |
22,310,002 | I need to create a responsive layout, but I'm confused on how to start. I've looked up and found many resources, but it's all very overwhelming. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to get started? I can build a html/css website, but have never done anything in regards to mobile.
A few questions:
1) I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct?
2) Should I start off with a template (or a grid, is that the correct term?) If so, any recommendations? (I've found some, but apparently I can't post links due to lack of rep)
This is the basic setup of the layout: <http://oi57.tinypic.com/2en0rdf.jpg>
3) Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must?
4) What's the best way to test the layout? I've come across a couple (can't post links due to not having not rep
5) I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point?
Thank you. | 2014/03/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22310002",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3403328/"
] | Let me try explain a little for you :
1. I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct? Some people start from smaller device to biggest (phone to desktop), but this is not a must. If you already have deep learning in coding responsive site you can start from Big to Small. But the reason behind start from small to bigger screen is if your page fit with the small screen then its easier to make it fit on bigger screen. So you take focus first on small.
2. Should I start off with a template? If so, any recommendations? Depend on you, if you dont want to make your hand dirty coding lots of element to fit your requirement you can using template. But for better understanding you may use grid CSS framework without UI styling like simplegrid or unsemantic 960.
3. Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must? I'm not sure i can recommend. But do research, buy some book, start practicing and ask some expert for help if meet rock stone.
4. What's the best way to test the layout? If you coding using netbeans IDE they have built in tester with resolution option (Desktop & Mobile), or from browser plugin, on Firefox you can use Developer Kit and press Ctrl + Shift + M to activating screen simulator. And if you on chrome you can use Extension called Ripple, its have many device as a simulator.
5. I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point? Any CSS Framework is good, but the most famous is Bootstrap & Zurb Foundation.
Good Luck to you, | >
>
> >
> > 1) I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct?
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
Yes, it is much harder to take a complicated desktop layout and convert it to a simpler mobile layout than vice-versa.
>
>
> >
> > 2) Should I start off with a template (or a grid, is that the correct term?) If so, any recommendations? (I've found some, but apparently I can't post links due to lack of rep) This is the basic setup of the layout: <http://oi57.tinypic.com/2en0rdf.jpg>
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
Yes, to start I highly recommend you go with a framework like [Bootstrap](http://getbootstrap.com/) or [Foundation](http://foundation.zurb.com/) which have responsive grids.
>
>
> >
> > 3 && 4) Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must? What's the best way to test the layout? I've come across a couple (can't post links due to not having not rep
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The best tool is a browser that you can slowly resize and watch how the elements rearrange as you resize it. There are also websites that will display your page at different device widths. For example <http://quirktools.com/screenfly/>.
>
>
> >
> > 5) I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point?
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
Yes, [Bootstrap](http://getbootstrap.com/) or [Foundation](http://foundation.zurb.com/) or any other framework out there is a good starting point. Look at how they do responsive layouts and use that to learn from. |
22,310,002 | I need to create a responsive layout, but I'm confused on how to start. I've looked up and found many resources, but it's all very overwhelming. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to get started? I can build a html/css website, but have never done anything in regards to mobile.
A few questions:
1) I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct?
2) Should I start off with a template (or a grid, is that the correct term?) If so, any recommendations? (I've found some, but apparently I can't post links due to lack of rep)
This is the basic setup of the layout: <http://oi57.tinypic.com/2en0rdf.jpg>
3) Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must?
4) What's the best way to test the layout? I've come across a couple (can't post links due to not having not rep
5) I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point?
Thank you. | 2014/03/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22310002",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3403328/"
] | Let me try explain a little for you :
1. I've read you should build for mobile then move up, is this correct? Some people start from smaller device to biggest (phone to desktop), but this is not a must. If you already have deep learning in coding responsive site you can start from Big to Small. But the reason behind start from small to bigger screen is if your page fit with the small screen then its easier to make it fit on bigger screen. So you take focus first on small.
2. Should I start off with a template? If so, any recommendations? Depend on you, if you dont want to make your hand dirty coding lots of element to fit your requirement you can using template. But for better understanding you may use grid CSS framework without UI styling like simplegrid or unsemantic 960.
3. Can you recommend any tutorials or tools that are a must? I'm not sure i can recommend. But do research, buy some book, start practicing and ask some expert for help if meet rock stone.
4. What's the best way to test the layout? If you coding using netbeans IDE they have built in tester with resolution option (Desktop & Mobile), or from browser plugin, on Firefox you can use Developer Kit and press Ctrl + Shift + M to activating screen simulator. And if you on chrome you can use Extension called Ripple, its have many device as a simulator.
5. I've read about people using bootstrap, but I've used it in past projects and it seemed a little bloated. Although, it could be a good starting point? Any CSS Framework is good, but the most famous is Bootstrap & Zurb Foundation.
Good Luck to you, | 1: I build for 1080p widescreen and move down. Everyone I know has a different opinion.
---
2: You can do a template, but you don't need one. In general, templates make things easier, but limit your control over your site, and your flexibility.
---
3: Two free ones:
<http://blog.teamtreehouse.com/beginners-guide-to-responsive-web-design>
<http://www.palantir.net/blog/scalable-navigation-patterns-responsive-web-design>
---
4: With Media Queries, you can do initial testing by resizing your browser, which is great. Final mobile testing will need to be done with an emulator, or an actual smartphone. You need to decide also if you want to support pre-4.0 Android.
Another good resource is <http://browsershots.org/>. It's free, and will show you your site in a massive range of browsers.
---
5: Bootstrap ... the same implications apply for part 2. Makes your life easier but limits flexibility. |
303,329 | I want to blow apples down from trees in order to collect them, but have only managed to mash the basic weapon attack button 'Y' to swing horizontally, without being able to change my aim along the vertical axis (pitch?). I can even change my camera, and it still won't aim any higher.
So now I have to climb the tree and hope that I can hit the apples, see, and not fall off from the branch there. | 2017/03/16 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/303329",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/56698/"
] | Answer
------
I took the crazy idea of trying to throw the leaf using the 'RB' throw button, and it actually did not throw the leaf like I wanted! Instead, it blew in my currently facing direction with that familiar reticle.
### Etc.
So that seems to be the answer, and in case you **actually** wanted to throw your leaf, well, I guess I don't know if you can do that in the game currently. :P
This wasn't a huge issue, but wanted to post in case anyone else was searching for the answer by chance. I was a bit too protective of my items in the beginning of the game, coupled with the durability factor, and didn't want to lose my leaf! Then I found it's a common and replenishable item from destroying trees, and I'm not even sure if it has limited durability to worry about. | You don't need to throw to aim it.
Like any other weapon, all you need to do is face the direction you want the wind to go. You can actually charge the swing, using stamina, and get an awesome gust of wind. |
275,035 | I have come across it in the six episode of the first season of *Rick and Morty*. Here is the context:
>
> Jerry: Ahhh, well, (gets another jar of sauce out of the cupboard) I remember feeling that way about a young lady named your mom, and that's not an **urban diss**, your mom was my Jessica. I remember the first time I saw her, I thought...
>
>
> | 2021/02/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/275035",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/60696/"
] | *Urban diss* is not a common phrase. It's made up of these two parts:
>
> **diss** noun
>
>
> *slang*
>
> : an insulting expression of disrespect or criticism
> // … a much loved and much hated album; earning some equally passionate critical raves and *disses*.
> — Brett Milano
>
>
>
<https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/diss>
>
> **urban**
>
>
> *adjective*
>
> ...
>
> **4** of or relating to the experience, lifestyle, or culture of African Americans living in economically depressed inner-city neighborhoods:
> *Their first album had a hard, urban vibe.*
>
>
>
<https://www.dictionary.com/browse/urban>
Together, this would mean: *...and that [comment about your mother] is not an insult of a type that's associated with African American culture...*
---
Why does Jerry say this?
1. He intends to clarify that when he said, "I remember feeling that way about a young lady *named your mom*", he was not making a ["yo momma" joke](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maternal_insult). He wants to say that he was speaking literally.
2. This character is meant to seem painfully unhip.
* This use of *urban* is marked. Popular perception seems to hold that only people who use *urban* as a sort of euphemism for *Black* are out-of-touch. It sounds like something a politician, or a marketing executive might say.
* *Diss*, especially as a noun, is similarly marked. This word came to mainstream attention sometime in the 90s. You might have been cool if you used *diss* in 1998. In 2013 (when this episode first aired), and if you were a parent, using this word would make you look like you were trying hard to seem cool, but were very behind the times. | Urban diss = inner-city put-down or insult. "Your mom" (yo' momma) is a type of joke. Example: Yo' momma's so fat that she has her own zip code! |
6,359,873 | I have a really old, Access 97 app which needs to be modernized. I'd like to make something more modern, but it would likely be a bit to expensive to rewrite the whole applikation to a real winapp (or webapp). So the idea now is to upgrade to Access 2010. However we tried the automatic upgrade tool, and that broke. The app is rather big with 40+ forms and modules.
I just want to know if someone have a real world experience from a similar situation and/or has any advice as if it's a likely dead end to try to upgrade. Or better - should be possible.
Also - I might need some help, if someone can advice of a company that are good at these kinds of tasks. | 2011/06/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6359873",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/409971/"
] | There have been a lot of changes between Access 97 and 2010. Each upgrade (97 to 2003, 2003 to 2007, etc.) had quirks that you needed to be aware of. The conversions weren't usually simple tasks, especially when you had a complicated database with lots of things going on. Taking the leap from 97 directly to 2010 will be almost impossible in your situation. However, it can be done if you take it slow and address the problems at each stage. The issue is that it might take more time than you are willing to give to it.
In my search for answers for you, I came across companies that did this type of conversion for you. This, to me, is one more indication that this isn't something you just let a wizard do (otherwise, who would pay for the service). Here is one of the companies I found:
<http://www.consultdmw.com/convert-access-97-database.htm>
I've never used them so I'm not endorsing them. I'm just using them as an example.
There are also resources out there of people that have walked down this path and shared their experience. These might be valuable to you in determining if you want to go down this path and if so, what to look out for. Here is an example:
<http://chentiangemalc.wordpress.com/2011/03/24/upgrading-access-97-application-to-access-2010/> | I don't have Access 2010 and don't know about that automatic upgrade tool you mentioned. With Access 2007, I can import objects into a new empty MDB from an earlier version database in stages.
First import tables, and verify data imported correctly.
Next import standard and class modules. Run Debug->Compile, and fix any errors the compiler complains about. Might have to add references as needed.
Then import the forms and run Debug->Compile again.
Same for reports, if any.
Best case, you would have few fixes needed to get it running with 2010. If the amount of fixup work is unreasonable, then consider farming it out to a service.
But I suggest you at least try the manual import method first. You shouldn't have to invest too much time to see whether it's worthwhile to continue. |
1,425,705 | Is there any free code generating tool that can connect to crm server and create code for selected entities? The code should use SDK assemblies.
**UPDATE:**
@friism
C# code if possible, each entity one class and each attribute one property so it's not necessary to use Properties collection. That's basically what I had in mind, when I started searching, but perhaps there is better solution out there. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1425705",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41384/"
] | Supposedly this [MSCRM Developer Toolkit](http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/E2DevTkt) contains a code generation feature. I haven't used it. I tried installing - but I had some installation issues. Maybe you'll have more luck. | The MSCRM Developer Toolkit contains a code generation feature. AND it's a huge pain to install. |
1,425,705 | Is there any free code generating tool that can connect to crm server and create code for selected entities? The code should use SDK assemblies.
**UPDATE:**
@friism
C# code if possible, each entity one class and each attribute one property so it's not necessary to use Properties collection. That's basically what I had in mind, when I started searching, but perhaps there is better solution out there. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1425705",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41384/"
] | Supposedly this [MSCRM Developer Toolkit](http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/E2DevTkt) contains a code generation feature. I haven't used it. I tried installing - but I had some installation issues. Maybe you'll have more luck. | We have a library called XrmLinq, it does exactly what LINQ to SQL does, generates classes by looking at the entities in crm. Take a look <http://www.xrmlinq.com> |
1,425,705 | Is there any free code generating tool that can connect to crm server and create code for selected entities? The code should use SDK assemblies.
**UPDATE:**
@friism
C# code if possible, each entity one class and each attribute one property so it's not necessary to use Properties collection. That's basically what I had in mind, when I started searching, but perhaps there is better solution out there. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1425705",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41384/"
] | Supposedly this [MSCRM Developer Toolkit](http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/E2DevTkt) contains a code generation feature. I haven't used it. I tried installing - but I had some installation issues. Maybe you'll have more luck. | The CRM SDK (4.0.0012) now includes a free code-gen tool and LINQ query provider.
Shan |
1,425,705 | Is there any free code generating tool that can connect to crm server and create code for selected entities? The code should use SDK assemblies.
**UPDATE:**
@friism
C# code if possible, each entity one class and each attribute one property so it's not necessary to use Properties collection. That's basically what I had in mind, when I started searching, but perhaps there is better solution out there. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1425705",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41384/"
] | We have a library called XrmLinq, it does exactly what LINQ to SQL does, generates classes by looking at the entities in crm. Take a look <http://www.xrmlinq.com> | The MSCRM Developer Toolkit contains a code generation feature. AND it's a huge pain to install. |
1,425,705 | Is there any free code generating tool that can connect to crm server and create code for selected entities? The code should use SDK assemblies.
**UPDATE:**
@friism
C# code if possible, each entity one class and each attribute one property so it's not necessary to use Properties collection. That's basically what I had in mind, when I started searching, but perhaps there is better solution out there. | 2009/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1425705",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/41384/"
] | We have a library called XrmLinq, it does exactly what LINQ to SQL does, generates classes by looking at the entities in crm. Take a look <http://www.xrmlinq.com> | The CRM SDK (4.0.0012) now includes a free code-gen tool and LINQ query provider.
Shan |
113,758 | There is one grid-view in our web application. But as you can see, group and category are eating up the space.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/igMwB.png)
Is there any better ideas for such layouts?
Even if there is total change in the layout, that will be fine.
I tried to search for better alternatives but I couldn't find. | 2017/11/23 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/113758",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/93053/"
] | I think you should also try a card layout. For example:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a7nIY.png)
This layout provides multiple benefits:
* **Aids quick scanning**
+ Cards are easier to scan compared to tables.
* **Easily adapt to small screens**
+ Cards will work better on mobile/smaller devices in this case compared to tables, as they can be organized to scroll in a single column.
* **Edit/delete buttons are positioned close to the items they modify**
+ In the original version, you'd notice that the edit/trash icons are a bit ambiguous. It is not clear what the icons will edit or remove. In general, [actions/buttons should be close to the things they act on](https://www.nngroup.com/articles/closeness-of-actions-and-objects-gui/).
* **Removes Icon cluster**
+ You don't have to show the icons in multiple rows. Using cards, icons can be shown (or emphasized) on hover and directly where they are needed. | You may try a tree hierachy style organization. Something like this :
[download bmml source](/plugins/mockups/download?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fCKN26.png) – Wireframes created with [Balsamiq Mockups](http://www.balsamiq.com/products/mockups) |
9,441,387 | When trying to run my project I get this error and I don´t know what it means :
>
> \_OBJC\_CLASS\_$\_MyWindowController", referenced from:
> objc-class-ref in AppDelegate.
>
> ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture x86\_64
> clang: error: linker command failed with exit code 1 (use -v to see invocation)
>
>
>
What does it mean and how can I get rid of it?
Any ideas? | 2012/02/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9441387",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/981969/"
] | Select the application target, go to the **Build Phases** tab and make sure **MyWindowController.m** is in **Compile Sources**, otherwise add it.
Also, if you use a **xib** file associated with it, make sure it is in **Copy Bundle Resources**. | Check to see if the framework that your MyWindowController object is based on has been added to your project.
Good luck! |
62,827 | I have bunch of objects that I want to position next to each other in a scene. When they are next to each other, there is an apparent seam between them due to different normal directions. The normal directions are this way, of course, because the two objects are of a different mesh.
**Is there a way to manually change the direction of normals for specific vertices like in 3DS Max, Maya, etc.?**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D2G60.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/62827",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/30404/"
] | I think it is answered by Anthony Forwood:
>
> The Blend4Web add-on allows you to manually edit normals.
>
>
>
The add-on itself can be downloaded from [here](https://www.blend4web.com/en/downloads/). Documentation on how to use it can be seen [here](https://www.blend4web.com/doc/en/normal_editor.html). | The only method that I know of is to influence the normals by using the Normal Edit Modifier and it works only if you have two or more objects and not one object with several submeshes.
1. In Object Mode, select Object1, go to "Properties Window -> Data"
and enable "Auto Smooth".
2. With Object1 still selected, go to "Properties Window -> Modifiers
-> Add Modifier -> Modifiy -> Normal Edit".
3. Keep "Radial"and under "Target Object" select Object2.
4. Repeat steps 1-3 for Object2, only with Object1 as target.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iZVMW.gif)
Since gif isn't suitable to display the "before" and "after" images, here's a jpeg to illustrate the difference.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eJ864.jpg)
I only tested this once with Leadwerks Game Engine and there it seemed to work. |
62,827 | I have bunch of objects that I want to position next to each other in a scene. When they are next to each other, there is an apparent seam between them due to different normal directions. The normal directions are this way, of course, because the two objects are of a different mesh.
**Is there a way to manually change the direction of normals for specific vertices like in 3DS Max, Maya, etc.?**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D2G60.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/62827",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/30404/"
] | The only method that I know of is to influence the normals by using the Normal Edit Modifier and it works only if you have two or more objects and not one object with several submeshes.
1. In Object Mode, select Object1, go to "Properties Window -> Data"
and enable "Auto Smooth".
2. With Object1 still selected, go to "Properties Window -> Modifiers
-> Add Modifier -> Modifiy -> Normal Edit".
3. Keep "Radial"and under "Target Object" select Object2.
4. Repeat steps 1-3 for Object2, only with Object1 as target.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/iZVMW.gif)
Since gif isn't suitable to display the "before" and "after" images, here's a jpeg to illustrate the difference.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eJ864.jpg)
I only tested this once with Leadwerks Game Engine and there it seemed to work. | Go into edit mode select the vertex or vertices you want to edit and press `ALT`+`n` this will bring up a list of options allowing you to edit the normal or normals |
62,827 | I have bunch of objects that I want to position next to each other in a scene. When they are next to each other, there is an apparent seam between them due to different normal directions. The normal directions are this way, of course, because the two objects are of a different mesh.
**Is there a way to manually change the direction of normals for specific vertices like in 3DS Max, Maya, etc.?**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/D2G60.png) | 2016/09/11 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/62827",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/30404/"
] | I think it is answered by Anthony Forwood:
>
> The Blend4Web add-on allows you to manually edit normals.
>
>
>
The add-on itself can be downloaded from [here](https://www.blend4web.com/en/downloads/). Documentation on how to use it can be seen [here](https://www.blend4web.com/doc/en/normal_editor.html). | Go into edit mode select the vertex or vertices you want to edit and press `ALT`+`n` this will bring up a list of options allowing you to edit the normal or normals |
4,136,713 | In my quest for knowledge I sometimes find myself scouring the source of a page only to find that the javascript method im looking for isnt on the page directly. That said I think it must be on one of the linked javascript pages. However I dont really want to have to look through each individual file to find the line. Is there a tool that can do this for me?
Preferably in firefox as an add-on I was thinking...
Cheers,
Pete | 2010/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4136713",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/223863/"
] | Have you checked out [Firebug](http://getfirebug.com/)? | yes.. Firebug in Firefox | IE developer toolbar for IE | Developer toolbar for Firefox are great tools for indepth check of JS/CSS/HTML |
4,136,713 | In my quest for knowledge I sometimes find myself scouring the source of a page only to find that the javascript method im looking for isnt on the page directly. That said I think it must be on one of the linked javascript pages. However I dont really want to have to look through each individual file to find the line. Is there a tool that can do this for me?
Preferably in firefox as an add-on I was thinking...
Cheers,
Pete | 2010/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4136713",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/223863/"
] | Have you checked out [Firebug](http://getfirebug.com/)? | We ran into a similar challenge while developing/editing our WordPress sites (i.e. not being able to search all CSS/PHP/JS files at once). As a solve, we built a plugin to allow us to do just that. If this question is related to a WordPress site, the plugin might help - rather than searching in Firebug and then having to jump back onto WordPress, you can search all and edit directly in WordPress. Plugin is called [WP Backend File Search](https://www.wpbackendfilesearch.com/). |
4,136,713 | In my quest for knowledge I sometimes find myself scouring the source of a page only to find that the javascript method im looking for isnt on the page directly. That said I think it must be on one of the linked javascript pages. However I dont really want to have to look through each individual file to find the line. Is there a tool that can do this for me?
Preferably in firefox as an add-on I was thinking...
Cheers,
Pete | 2010/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4136713",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/223863/"
] | yes.. Firebug in Firefox | IE developer toolbar for IE | Developer toolbar for Firefox are great tools for indepth check of JS/CSS/HTML | We ran into a similar challenge while developing/editing our WordPress sites (i.e. not being able to search all CSS/PHP/JS files at once). As a solve, we built a plugin to allow us to do just that. If this question is related to a WordPress site, the plugin might help - rather than searching in Firebug and then having to jump back onto WordPress, you can search all and edit directly in WordPress. Plugin is called [WP Backend File Search](https://www.wpbackendfilesearch.com/). |
64,254 | I have a friend (yes it's actually a friend and not me) who lost his password for their Bitcoin-qt wallet and can't access is Bitcoin. The wallet is installed on the hard drive of a MacBook and he doesn't know any of the characters Does anyone know how we can get this coin back without his wallet password? | 2017/12/05 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/64254",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/67104/"
] | >
> As seen from the example image, we actually could not know that transaction-3 is located under that specific block and leaf-node since a light client only downloads the merkle root
>
>
>
As a light client, you would be given the branch/path of the tree which corresponds to the transaction you wish to know about, not just the merkle root. By giving you the transaction itself, and the branch of the tree, it lets you verify that the transaction was indeed part of that merkle root. Otherwise there is no way to tell, it is not possible to extra transaction IDs from a merkle root without being given the tree of transactions themselves. A merkle root is just a hash, a 'summary' and commitment to the transactions, it doesn't actually contain any information. | From a previous [Stack answer](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/10479/what-is-the-merkle-root).
"We start with just our transaction and its sibling (if it has one) and calculate the hash of those two and verify that it matches the expected value. From that we can ask for the sibling branch of that and calculate the hash of that and verify it. And continue with this process, up the tree. Which only takes ten verifications for 868 transactions. (That's one of the great things about trees, they can hold a lot of values with only a relatively small number of layers.)"
So if we start at TX3, we can work our way up the tree to the merkle root and verify that the transaction took place. |
71,676,845 | I was wondering if there are any generic procedures to secure content of docker containers to extracting sensible source code.
At the moment, I secure my Python application naively by encrypting and decrypting sources based on a licenses.
Is there any solution that is independent from the content of the docker container? Like adding a license registry to docker?
I was thinking about a procedure that checks a license server in the beginning of the startup. | 2022/03/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/71676845",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18618326/"
] | The short answer here is that there is not a generic method for securing the contents of your containers without encrypting the contents.
Since the nature of Docker is open, the main security with Docker images is controlling who can access the image (e.g. private image hosting), which depends on the security of your method of distribution.
However, you can encrypt the layers of your images using other tools, such as ocicrypt. There are efforts to modify the containerd used by Docker and for images whose layers are encrypted by ocicrypt.
Overview article:
<https://developer.ibm.com/articles/encrypted-container-images-for-container-image-security-at-rest/>
Code:
<https://github.com/containerd/imgcrypt>
<https://github.com/containers/ocicrypt> | you can use Cosign <https://github.com/sigstore/cosign>, it's used for Container Signing, Verification and Storage in an OCI registry. |
260,583 | iPhone 7
iOS 10.1.1
Gmail 5.0.3
Chrome 54.0.2840.91
When trying to open a link directly within the gmail app, it opens in safari instead of chrome. This used work just fine until the latest update of gmail.
I looked in the gmail settings under google apps, to use the app instead of the browser. There is no option for Chrome where I imagine it should be.
I can't find any other option to make chrome the default browser instead of safari.
Help?
UPDATE: As of 11/26/2016, the problem seems to have been fixed. Links from my gmail app open up in chrome again. | 2016/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/260583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/210076/"
] | I'm not sure if the following procedure is exactly what you tried, or if you did something differently – but maybe this helps anyways:
* Run the Gmail app.
* Click the little menu icon in the upper left (three parallel stripes).
* Click the Settings gear icon.
* Click "Google Apps" near the bottom (you may have to scroll down).
* Turn "Chrome" on or off at your preference. On means links will go to Chrome; off means they'll go to Safari.
…as described [here](https://discussions.apple.com/thread/6593227?start=0&tstart=0).
Update: sorry to say, but it looks like this is actually no longer possible in iOS 10: *"iOS 10 won't let you select default apps for third-party apps that handle email, calendar, web browsing, …."* (from [here](http://www.businessinsider.com/ios-10-wont-let-you-select-default-third-party-apps-2016-6?IR=T)) | Problem resolved itself by as early as 11/26/2016.
Gmail: 5.0.7
Chrome: 55.0.2883.79
iOS: 10.1.1 |
260,583 | iPhone 7
iOS 10.1.1
Gmail 5.0.3
Chrome 54.0.2840.91
When trying to open a link directly within the gmail app, it opens in safari instead of chrome. This used work just fine until the latest update of gmail.
I looked in the gmail settings under google apps, to use the app instead of the browser. There is no option for Chrome where I imagine it should be.
I can't find any other option to make chrome the default browser instead of safari.
Help?
UPDATE: As of 11/26/2016, the problem seems to have been fixed. Links from my gmail app open up in chrome again. | 2016/11/10 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/260583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/210076/"
] | iOS 10 isn't the problem - the "old" gmail app still opened links in chrome well after updating to iOS 10. This didn't become an issue until updating to Gmail's version 5 that this became an issue. | Problem resolved itself by as early as 11/26/2016.
Gmail: 5.0.7
Chrome: 55.0.2883.79
iOS: 10.1.1 |
116,576 | Let's say you are navigating a list, grid or dropdown with the keyboard arrows. Pressing the arrows changes the temporarily "selected" item, and pressing enter **selects** it (a bit like the element on a webpage). Since the action of selecting the item is confirming your choice, navigating the list can't also be called "selecting".
What is the terminology for navigating and changing the state of the temporarily "selected" item without changing or saving the value? I'm struggling to find a concise term to explain the action of navigating the list. "Navigate with the arrow keys" doesn't seem like the right word and doesn't seem to be very well understood, and "Change the temporarily selected item with the arrow key" is way too long. | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/116576",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/113067/"
] | When the user navigates to an item on the dropdown list, that item is 'active' or 'in focus.'
Personally, I prefer 'in focus' when talking about tabbing through an interface or using the arrow keys, because it most accurately describes the visual feedback in the UI.
Microsoft calls this 'input focus' in their UI glossary: <https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb226821(v=vs.85).aspx> | Since it's a bit like using the mouse to move the cursor to the intended item (and maybe your UI would highlight the item which is currently hovered over) and clicking it to confirm your selection, I would like to suggest something along the lines of
>
> Move the cursor with the arrow keys
>
>
>
I'm not sure if there's a widely understood term for this. |
116,576 | Let's say you are navigating a list, grid or dropdown with the keyboard arrows. Pressing the arrows changes the temporarily "selected" item, and pressing enter **selects** it (a bit like the element on a webpage). Since the action of selecting the item is confirming your choice, navigating the list can't also be called "selecting".
What is the terminology for navigating and changing the state of the temporarily "selected" item without changing or saving the value? I'm struggling to find a concise term to explain the action of navigating the list. "Navigate with the arrow keys" doesn't seem like the right word and doesn't seem to be very well understood, and "Change the temporarily selected item with the arrow key" is way too long. | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/116576",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/113067/"
] | When the user navigates to an item on the dropdown list, that item is 'active' or 'in focus.'
Personally, I prefer 'in focus' when talking about tabbing through an interface or using the arrow keys, because it most accurately describes the visual feedback in the UI.
Microsoft calls this 'input focus' in their UI glossary: <https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb226821(v=vs.85).aspx> | How about:
>
> Browse the menu with the arrow keys
>
>
>
---
Alternatively you could guide the user with a visual such as:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lnbIY.gif)
[Source](https://demos.telerik.com/aspnet-ajax/calendar/accessibility-and-internationalization/keyboardnavigation/defaultcs.aspx) |
116,576 | Let's say you are navigating a list, grid or dropdown with the keyboard arrows. Pressing the arrows changes the temporarily "selected" item, and pressing enter **selects** it (a bit like the element on a webpage). Since the action of selecting the item is confirming your choice, navigating the list can't also be called "selecting".
What is the terminology for navigating and changing the state of the temporarily "selected" item without changing or saving the value? I'm struggling to find a concise term to explain the action of navigating the list. "Navigate with the arrow keys" doesn't seem like the right word and doesn't seem to be very well understood, and "Change the temporarily selected item with the arrow key" is way too long. | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/116576",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/113067/"
] | When the user navigates to an item on the dropdown list, that item is 'active' or 'in focus.'
Personally, I prefer 'in focus' when talking about tabbing through an interface or using the arrow keys, because it most accurately describes the visual feedback in the UI.
Microsoft calls this 'input focus' in their UI glossary: <https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb226821(v=vs.85).aspx> | The usual convention is to refer to the **active** state, which precedes the selected state.
<https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/sel_active.asp> |
116,576 | Let's say you are navigating a list, grid or dropdown with the keyboard arrows. Pressing the arrows changes the temporarily "selected" item, and pressing enter **selects** it (a bit like the element on a webpage). Since the action of selecting the item is confirming your choice, navigating the list can't also be called "selecting".
What is the terminology for navigating and changing the state of the temporarily "selected" item without changing or saving the value? I'm struggling to find a concise term to explain the action of navigating the list. "Navigate with the arrow keys" doesn't seem like the right word and doesn't seem to be very well understood, and "Change the temporarily selected item with the arrow key" is way too long. | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/116576",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/113067/"
] | When the user navigates to an item on the dropdown list, that item is 'active' or 'in focus.'
Personally, I prefer 'in focus' when talking about tabbing through an interface or using the arrow keys, because it most accurately describes the visual feedback in the UI.
Microsoft calls this 'input focus' in their UI glossary: <https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb226821(v=vs.85).aspx> | The technical term is *focus* ("you can move focus with the arrow keys") or *active* ("you can change the active item with the arrow keys").
However, I note that in your question, you seem to be seeking input on what *user-facing text* would be helpful to explain to a user that they can move in the list with arrow keys.
In the case of user-facing text, I don't think either *focus* or *active* are adequate, as they only have that specific meaning in a programming context. I'd use something like: "you can move through the list with arrow keys" or maybe even simpler "Try arrow keys to move through list items". (Or, frankly, I probablywouldn't use any text at all, and this way people who are already familiar with arrow keys will use them, and others who likely aren't about to try it for the first time ever won't have to read about it, but that's not the question here.) |
116,576 | Let's say you are navigating a list, grid or dropdown with the keyboard arrows. Pressing the arrows changes the temporarily "selected" item, and pressing enter **selects** it (a bit like the element on a webpage). Since the action of selecting the item is confirming your choice, navigating the list can't also be called "selecting".
What is the terminology for navigating and changing the state of the temporarily "selected" item without changing or saving the value? I'm struggling to find a concise term to explain the action of navigating the list. "Navigate with the arrow keys" doesn't seem like the right word and doesn't seem to be very well understood, and "Change the temporarily selected item with the arrow key" is way too long. | 2018/03/13 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/116576",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/113067/"
] | When the user navigates to an item on the dropdown list, that item is 'active' or 'in focus.'
Personally, I prefer 'in focus' when talking about tabbing through an interface or using the arrow keys, because it most accurately describes the visual feedback in the UI.
Microsoft calls this 'input focus' in their UI glossary: <https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb226821(v=vs.85).aspx> | I would call this keyboard navigation or tabbed navigation (if the below is done)
One suggestion I would make is to keep it consistent with the WCAG recommendations for navigating through the grid.
Thoughts? |
1,371,788 | I have a web service and an outsource company will use my service. I don't want to open my service to the internet. I want to give only wsdl file to the outsource company. They use Delphi. Is this possible importing a wsdl file in Delphi offline? | 2009/09/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1371788",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/33417/"
] | Yes is possible, Delphi can import a WSDL file stored locally.
In Delphi Win32 Go to
File->New->Others->Delphi projects->WebServices->WSDL Importer
Then you get a dialog that prompts you for the location of the WSDL file. From the WSDL, Delphi generates a unit with interfaces for the classes and objects exposed by the webservice. after that creates the file with the name of the service with the extension '.pas'.
In Delphi .Net Go to
Project->Add Web Reference
Select the file to import and press "Add reference"
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EXZTM.jpg)
Bye. | Sure!
Just provide them with the wsdl as a file. The WSDL Importer can import from a URL or from a file. |
181,053 | Is it proper grammar to write July 17th or would it be the 17th of July? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/181053",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/82335/"
] | the **late-night** part comes from:
[Late-night talk show](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Late-night_talk_show)
>
> A late-night talk show is a subgenre of the talk show genre. In
> American television at least, it is specifically a kind of
> comedy-oriented talk and variety show that airs late at night.
> Characteristics of the genre include topical monologues in which the
> host makes fun of the day's news, comedy sketches, celebrity
> interviews, and musical performances.
>
>
>
and **punchline**
>
> The climactic phrase or statement of a joke, producing a sudden
> humorous effect.
>
>
>
Basically late-night punch line just means the butt of a joke on a talk show.
note: late-night jokes are not the classiest.
**edit**:
The sentence "*went from potential presidential contender to late-night punch line*" means that the South Carolina governor originally was very highly esteemed, even to the point that people thought he was going to be the next president but, and I don't know what happened, something happened and he turned into a joke. No it does not mean that he went from an unknown to becoming the popular object of late night TV - but that on his way 'up the ladder' he crashed and burned. | The proper parsing is: "The governor went from X to Y." X equals "presidential contender." Y equals "late night punch line."
So the phrase means, "The governor used to be a Presidential contender. Now he is a late night punch line (aka, a "joke.")
There is no such phrase as "contender to late night punch line." That is to say, "contender" is connected to "Presidential," not to "late night punch line."
The reason was revelations about his personal life, specifically his dating a woman not his wife, in a state where marital fidelity is particularly highly valued.
From the linked article, "Before his love affair became international news,"
he was a potential candidate for President of the United States (presidential contender). Afterward, he was a "joke," or verbal "punching bag" on late night shows. |
46,618,085 | I would like to modify my WordPress theme without changing the code. Specifically, I would like to show the number of minutes required to read the post, How can I do that?
Similare to showing posting date and author. | 2017/10/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/46618085",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8712965/"
] | Go to your Dashboard>Appearance>Themes>Customize
Make sure to install theme that has more than standard options. | You can install a plugin as per: <https://www.shoutmeloud.com/estimated-reading-time-wordpress-posts.html>
There is a full installation and configuration tutorial here and you will get your desired result of showing how many minutes it will take to a read a post. |
387 | When using IFTTT, it's trivial to connect one trigger (*if this*) to one event/output (*then that*). However, I'm interested in using IFTTT for a slightly more complex query, along the lines of *"if this happens 3 times, do that"*.
A [Quora question](https://www.quora.com/Can-you-use-two-or-more-triggers-and-actions-on-IFTTT-How-can-I-do-that/answer/Hans-Andersson-1) discusses this and suggests Numerous as a channel which can be used for more complex triggers, but it turns out that Numerous [had to shut down due to lack of funding](http://blog.numerousapp.com/2016/02/02/numerous-shutting-down-on-may-1.html) several months ago.
A similar question [was asked on Reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/ifttt/comments/43wpwo/are_there_any_good_alternatives_to_numerous_for/) with no satisfying answer, so I'm asking here in the hope that there is a better solution to my problem: **How can I chain triggers in more complex queries with IFTTT?** Is this even possible now that Numerous has shut down, or will I have to use an alternative service? | 2016/12/18 | [
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/questions/387",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/users/12/"
] | Update May 2019. [Stringify is shutting down](https://www.stringify.com/stringifyshuttingdown/).
I've only just discovered this platform, but <https://www.stringify.com/> appears to support both logic processing,
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ew3q8.png)
and [sequential actions](https://search.stringify.com/flows/NL8Me0MZX7qCrmlamNgn) in it's flows. It can interact with IFTTT. | In fact you are searching for a IFTTT equivalent with internal variables and eventually fork actions to store a counter for example...
* [Tasker](http://tasker.dinglisch.net/) handles all that but runs only on phones and has only phone events (it can do http call though)
* [Netvibes](http://www.netvibes.com/) manages multiple triggers and actions, but if you want vars you must perform a GET/POST with information through the HTTP call feature |
387 | When using IFTTT, it's trivial to connect one trigger (*if this*) to one event/output (*then that*). However, I'm interested in using IFTTT for a slightly more complex query, along the lines of *"if this happens 3 times, do that"*.
A [Quora question](https://www.quora.com/Can-you-use-two-or-more-triggers-and-actions-on-IFTTT-How-can-I-do-that/answer/Hans-Andersson-1) discusses this and suggests Numerous as a channel which can be used for more complex triggers, but it turns out that Numerous [had to shut down due to lack of funding](http://blog.numerousapp.com/2016/02/02/numerous-shutting-down-on-may-1.html) several months ago.
A similar question [was asked on Reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/ifttt/comments/43wpwo/are_there_any_good_alternatives_to_numerous_for/) with no satisfying answer, so I'm asking here in the hope that there is a better solution to my problem: **How can I chain triggers in more complex queries with IFTTT?** Is this even possible now that Numerous has shut down, or will I have to use an alternative service? | 2016/12/18 | [
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/questions/387",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/users/12/"
] | In fact you are searching for a IFTTT equivalent with internal variables and eventually fork actions to store a counter for example...
* [Tasker](http://tasker.dinglisch.net/) handles all that but runs only on phones and has only phone events (it can do http call though)
* [Netvibes](http://www.netvibes.com/) manages multiple triggers and actions, but if you want vars you must perform a GET/POST with information through the HTTP call feature | IFTTT have now launched a [maker platform](https://ifttt.com/blog/2017/05/calling-all-makers) which appears to support filters and chaining. I've not yet worked out if it has timers and cloud side variables/storage. |
387 | When using IFTTT, it's trivial to connect one trigger (*if this*) to one event/output (*then that*). However, I'm interested in using IFTTT for a slightly more complex query, along the lines of *"if this happens 3 times, do that"*.
A [Quora question](https://www.quora.com/Can-you-use-two-or-more-triggers-and-actions-on-IFTTT-How-can-I-do-that/answer/Hans-Andersson-1) discusses this and suggests Numerous as a channel which can be used for more complex triggers, but it turns out that Numerous [had to shut down due to lack of funding](http://blog.numerousapp.com/2016/02/02/numerous-shutting-down-on-may-1.html) several months ago.
A similar question [was asked on Reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/ifttt/comments/43wpwo/are_there_any_good_alternatives_to_numerous_for/) with no satisfying answer, so I'm asking here in the hope that there is a better solution to my problem: **How can I chain triggers in more complex queries with IFTTT?** Is this even possible now that Numerous has shut down, or will I have to use an alternative service? | 2016/12/18 | [
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/questions/387",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/users/12/"
] | Update May 2019. [Stringify is shutting down](https://www.stringify.com/stringifyshuttingdown/).
I've only just discovered this platform, but <https://www.stringify.com/> appears to support both logic processing,
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ew3q8.png)
and [sequential actions](https://search.stringify.com/flows/NL8Me0MZX7qCrmlamNgn) in it's flows. It can interact with IFTTT. | [Zapier](http://www.zapier.com) is another tool you can use if you are not aware:
>
> Zapier moves info between your web apps automatically, so you can focus on your most important work.
>
>
>
There is a [list of integrations here](https://zapier.com/zapbook/)—most are related to web applications rather than IoT devices, although you can integrate with AWS Lambda (or similar services) which might be useful in an IoT environment. |
387 | When using IFTTT, it's trivial to connect one trigger (*if this*) to one event/output (*then that*). However, I'm interested in using IFTTT for a slightly more complex query, along the lines of *"if this happens 3 times, do that"*.
A [Quora question](https://www.quora.com/Can-you-use-two-or-more-triggers-and-actions-on-IFTTT-How-can-I-do-that/answer/Hans-Andersson-1) discusses this and suggests Numerous as a channel which can be used for more complex triggers, but it turns out that Numerous [had to shut down due to lack of funding](http://blog.numerousapp.com/2016/02/02/numerous-shutting-down-on-may-1.html) several months ago.
A similar question [was asked on Reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/ifttt/comments/43wpwo/are_there_any_good_alternatives_to_numerous_for/) with no satisfying answer, so I'm asking here in the hope that there is a better solution to my problem: **How can I chain triggers in more complex queries with IFTTT?** Is this even possible now that Numerous has shut down, or will I have to use an alternative service? | 2016/12/18 | [
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/questions/387",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/users/12/"
] | Update May 2019. [Stringify is shutting down](https://www.stringify.com/stringifyshuttingdown/).
I've only just discovered this platform, but <https://www.stringify.com/> appears to support both logic processing,
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ew3q8.png)
and [sequential actions](https://search.stringify.com/flows/NL8Me0MZX7qCrmlamNgn) in it's flows. It can interact with IFTTT. | IFTTT have now launched a [maker platform](https://ifttt.com/blog/2017/05/calling-all-makers) which appears to support filters and chaining. I've not yet worked out if it has timers and cloud side variables/storage. |
387 | When using IFTTT, it's trivial to connect one trigger (*if this*) to one event/output (*then that*). However, I'm interested in using IFTTT for a slightly more complex query, along the lines of *"if this happens 3 times, do that"*.
A [Quora question](https://www.quora.com/Can-you-use-two-or-more-triggers-and-actions-on-IFTTT-How-can-I-do-that/answer/Hans-Andersson-1) discusses this and suggests Numerous as a channel which can be used for more complex triggers, but it turns out that Numerous [had to shut down due to lack of funding](http://blog.numerousapp.com/2016/02/02/numerous-shutting-down-on-may-1.html) several months ago.
A similar question [was asked on Reddit](https://www.reddit.com/r/ifttt/comments/43wpwo/are_there_any_good_alternatives_to_numerous_for/) with no satisfying answer, so I'm asking here in the hope that there is a better solution to my problem: **How can I chain triggers in more complex queries with IFTTT?** Is this even possible now that Numerous has shut down, or will I have to use an alternative service? | 2016/12/18 | [
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/questions/387",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com",
"https://iot.stackexchange.com/users/12/"
] | [Zapier](http://www.zapier.com) is another tool you can use if you are not aware:
>
> Zapier moves info between your web apps automatically, so you can focus on your most important work.
>
>
>
There is a [list of integrations here](https://zapier.com/zapbook/)—most are related to web applications rather than IoT devices, although you can integrate with AWS Lambda (or similar services) which might be useful in an IoT environment. | IFTTT have now launched a [maker platform](https://ifttt.com/blog/2017/05/calling-all-makers) which appears to support filters and chaining. I've not yet worked out if it has timers and cloud side variables/storage. |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | Another reason you can use vinegar in a bread recipe - to produce a sourdough. Under traditional methods of making a sourdough bread, one keeps a 'sour' (sponge) or a piece of dough from the days previous production, which acts as a starter for the current bread. In many of todays commercial bakeries (grocery stores, etc.), sours are not kept from day to day, and powdered substitutes are used. They are normally just a glorified acetic acid (in a powdered form). So, you can just use vinegar to produce the same results. | It might also, in addition to something like bicarbonate soda act as a raising agent for some types of bread - the reaction of the vinegar with the bicarb causing gas release causing rising.
This is only a guess however |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | When I asked this question - [Is there anything I can add to homemade bread to preserve it?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/7804/is-there-anything-i-can-add-to-homemade-bread-to-preserve-it) - Arafangion said that one commercial bread company now uses vinegar as a preservative. This is his answer to my question:
>
> "One commercial bread company has
> switched preservatives... They use
> vinegar (I suspect ordinary white
> vinegar).
>
>
> Maybe you could give a little bit of
> vinegar a go and see how that works?
> You can still smell it if you sniff
> and sandwiches do have a faint vinegar
> flavour, but it seems to work well
> enough for the company and it
> apparently hasn't sabotaged the
> product line...
>
>
> Then again, it /is/ commercial
> bread..."
>
>
> | In making faster no-Knead bread Jim Lahey suggest adding 4 drops or up to 1/4 tsp of red wine vinegar to the basic recipe. Improve gluten development and flavor. See the video with Mark Bittman here:
<http://www.nytimes.com/2008/10/08/dining/08mini.html?ref=dining> |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | If it contained a high amount of rye flour, an acid would be needed for the bread to leaven. This is because bread with lots of rye rises due to polysaccharates called "pentosans" (if i remember correctly) being sticky and holding in the carbon dioxide bubbles. With heat, an enzyme in rye called "amylase" will start eating up the pentosans, unless the amylase is deactivated with acidity (wheat flour uses a protein called "gluten" to trap bubbles, and its amylase is deactivated with heat anyhow). The acidity is traditionally lactic acid, produced by lactobacilli bacteria in sourdough, but could be vinegar.
If it's mostly wheat flour (i.e. if you have to knead it), the vinegar would just be for flavour. | When I asked this question - [Is there anything I can add to homemade bread to preserve it?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/7804/is-there-anything-i-can-add-to-homemade-bread-to-preserve-it) - Arafangion said that one commercial bread company now uses vinegar as a preservative. This is his answer to my question:
>
> "One commercial bread company has
> switched preservatives... They use
> vinegar (I suspect ordinary white
> vinegar).
>
>
> Maybe you could give a little bit of
> vinegar a go and see how that works?
> You can still smell it if you sniff
> and sandwiches do have a faint vinegar
> flavour, but it seems to work well
> enough for the company and it
> apparently hasn't sabotaged the
> product line...
>
>
> Then again, it /is/ commercial
> bread..."
>
>
> |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | When I asked this question - [Is there anything I can add to homemade bread to preserve it?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/7804/is-there-anything-i-can-add-to-homemade-bread-to-preserve-it) - Arafangion said that one commercial bread company now uses vinegar as a preservative. This is his answer to my question:
>
> "One commercial bread company has
> switched preservatives... They use
> vinegar (I suspect ordinary white
> vinegar).
>
>
> Maybe you could give a little bit of
> vinegar a go and see how that works?
> You can still smell it if you sniff
> and sandwiches do have a faint vinegar
> flavour, but it seems to work well
> enough for the company and it
> apparently hasn't sabotaged the
> product line...
>
>
> Then again, it /is/ commercial
> bread..."
>
>
> | It might also, in addition to something like bicarbonate soda act as a raising agent for some types of bread - the reaction of the vinegar with the bicarb causing gas release causing rising.
This is only a guess however |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | Another reason you can use vinegar in a bread recipe - to produce a sourdough. Under traditional methods of making a sourdough bread, one keeps a 'sour' (sponge) or a piece of dough from the days previous production, which acts as a starter for the current bread. In many of todays commercial bakeries (grocery stores, etc.), sours are not kept from day to day, and powdered substitutes are used. They are normally just a glorified acetic acid (in a powdered form). So, you can just use vinegar to produce the same results. | I've found that a lower pH (more acidity) weakens the gluten and makes the crumb less chewey or less rubbery.
Certainly one thing to try before taking the step of adding vinegar to a bread recipe is to replace any bread flour with general purpose flour instead -- it should have the same effect. |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | Another reason you can use vinegar in a bread recipe - to produce a sourdough. Under traditional methods of making a sourdough bread, one keeps a 'sour' (sponge) or a piece of dough from the days previous production, which acts as a starter for the current bread. In many of todays commercial bakeries (grocery stores, etc.), sours are not kept from day to day, and powdered substitutes are used. They are normally just a glorified acetic acid (in a powdered form). So, you can just use vinegar to produce the same results. | In making faster no-Knead bread Jim Lahey suggest adding 4 drops or up to 1/4 tsp of red wine vinegar to the basic recipe. Improve gluten development and flavor. See the video with Mark Bittman here:
<http://www.nytimes.com/2008/10/08/dining/08mini.html?ref=dining> |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | If it contained a high amount of rye flour, an acid would be needed for the bread to leaven. This is because bread with lots of rye rises due to polysaccharates called "pentosans" (if i remember correctly) being sticky and holding in the carbon dioxide bubbles. With heat, an enzyme in rye called "amylase" will start eating up the pentosans, unless the amylase is deactivated with acidity (wheat flour uses a protein called "gluten" to trap bubbles, and its amylase is deactivated with heat anyhow). The acidity is traditionally lactic acid, produced by lactobacilli bacteria in sourdough, but could be vinegar.
If it's mostly wheat flour (i.e. if you have to knead it), the vinegar would just be for flavour. | It might also, in addition to something like bicarbonate soda act as a raising agent for some types of bread - the reaction of the vinegar with the bicarb causing gas release causing rising.
This is only a guess however |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | In making faster no-Knead bread Jim Lahey suggest adding 4 drops or up to 1/4 tsp of red wine vinegar to the basic recipe. Improve gluten development and flavor. See the video with Mark Bittman here:
<http://www.nytimes.com/2008/10/08/dining/08mini.html?ref=dining> | It might also, in addition to something like bicarbonate soda act as a raising agent for some types of bread - the reaction of the vinegar with the bicarb causing gas release causing rising.
This is only a guess however |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | If it contained a high amount of rye flour, an acid would be needed for the bread to leaven. This is because bread with lots of rye rises due to polysaccharates called "pentosans" (if i remember correctly) being sticky and holding in the carbon dioxide bubbles. With heat, an enzyme in rye called "amylase" will start eating up the pentosans, unless the amylase is deactivated with acidity (wheat flour uses a protein called "gluten" to trap bubbles, and its amylase is deactivated with heat anyhow). The acidity is traditionally lactic acid, produced by lactobacilli bacteria in sourdough, but could be vinegar.
If it's mostly wheat flour (i.e. if you have to knead it), the vinegar would just be for flavour. | I've found that a lower pH (more acidity) weakens the gluten and makes the crumb less chewey or less rubbery.
Certainly one thing to try before taking the step of adding vinegar to a bread recipe is to replace any bread flour with general purpose flour instead -- it should have the same effect. |
9,907 | Yesterday I made bread based on a recipe I found on the flour bag. It contained both rye and wheat flour but also three tablespoons of vinegar. I've never seen it used in bread before, why is it there? | 2010/12/09 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/9907",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1870/"
] | I've found that a lower pH (more acidity) weakens the gluten and makes the crumb less chewey or less rubbery.
Certainly one thing to try before taking the step of adding vinegar to a bread recipe is to replace any bread flour with general purpose flour instead -- it should have the same effect. | It might also, in addition to something like bicarbonate soda act as a raising agent for some types of bread - the reaction of the vinegar with the bicarb causing gas release causing rising.
This is only a guess however |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | You could use an API like Yahoo's [Spelling Suggestion](http://developer.yahoo.com/search/web/V1/spellingSuggestion.html) as any easy way of completing it with out having to roll your own. | An index is a list of words, and the place they occur. E.g. games occurs on row 123 and 456. If you have such a list with all words, you can easily search for the word that matches best. This way, you could match gmes with games.
However, this is not possible with the index MySQL provides. |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | An index is a list of words, and the place they occur. E.g. games occurs on row 123 and 456. If you have such a list with all words, you can easily search for the word that matches best. This way, you could match gmes with games.
However, this is not possible with the index MySQL provides. | Another option would be the [PHP Pspell functions](http://www.php.net/manual/en/ref.pspell.php) in particular [pspell\_suggest](http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.pspell-suggest.php), but you need to install the [aspell library](http://aspell.net/) on the server. |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | You could use an API like Yahoo's [Spelling Suggestion](http://developer.yahoo.com/search/web/V1/spellingSuggestion.html) as any easy way of completing it with out having to roll your own. | if you're not planning to rely on 3rd party sites, you definitely need your own dictionary with levenshtein algorithm to find out how close the user entries are to the dictionary terms |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | You could use an API like Yahoo's [Spelling Suggestion](http://developer.yahoo.com/search/web/V1/spellingSuggestion.html) as any easy way of completing it with out having to roll your own. | Another option would be the [PHP Pspell functions](http://www.php.net/manual/en/ref.pspell.php) in particular [pspell\_suggest](http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.pspell-suggest.php), but you need to install the [aspell library](http://aspell.net/) on the server. |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | You could use an API like Yahoo's [Spelling Suggestion](http://developer.yahoo.com/search/web/V1/spellingSuggestion.html) as any easy way of completing it with out having to roll your own. | You could use Yahoo Spelling API etc. if your queries are very generic. But if you have a domain specific vocabulary then you are better off using [Apache Solr](http://lucene.apache.org/solr/).
You can use it to index your 2MM records, easy! And use it as a search server with faceting etc. It also generate a spell-checker index out of your records which you can use for your "did you mean"? or the auto-suggest feature. It is also exceedingly simple to integrate into any language because of its RESTful API
Bottom-line: if you are looking for a long-term solution that can handle several things, in addition to spell-checking, such as search/auto-suggest/faceting etc. Solr is the way to go. |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | if you're not planning to rely on 3rd party sites, you definitely need your own dictionary with levenshtein algorithm to find out how close the user entries are to the dictionary terms | Another option would be the [PHP Pspell functions](http://www.php.net/manual/en/ref.pspell.php) in particular [pspell\_suggest](http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.pspell-suggest.php), but you need to install the [aspell library](http://aspell.net/) on the server. |
3,415,428 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How does the Google “Did you mean?” Algorithm work?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/307291/how-does-the-google-did-you-mean-algorithm-work)
>
>
>
I have a database table with about 2 million records. I'm using mysql fulltext to searching but users very often enter bad words ex gmes -> should be games so I need a library with PHP wrappers to have feature like in google 'did you mean' What should I use? | 2010/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3415428",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/296123/"
] | You could use Yahoo Spelling API etc. if your queries are very generic. But if you have a domain specific vocabulary then you are better off using [Apache Solr](http://lucene.apache.org/solr/).
You can use it to index your 2MM records, easy! And use it as a search server with faceting etc. It also generate a spell-checker index out of your records which you can use for your "did you mean"? or the auto-suggest feature. It is also exceedingly simple to integrate into any language because of its RESTful API
Bottom-line: if you are looking for a long-term solution that can handle several things, in addition to spell-checking, such as search/auto-suggest/faceting etc. Solr is the way to go. | Another option would be the [PHP Pspell functions](http://www.php.net/manual/en/ref.pspell.php) in particular [pspell\_suggest](http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.pspell-suggest.php), but you need to install the [aspell library](http://aspell.net/) on the server. |
208 | Just like the title says. Myself and a few other users have used Wikipedia as a reference while others use IMDb/articles/etc.
We should establish here and now if this is a valid way to reference points/answers or not.
My personal beliefs is that Wikipedia is not as bad as everyone says with referencing items and should any doubt arise, a person can simply use what the statement's citation for where the quote/idea/source came from and by that regard, still make the point valid.
Also something that should be decided here is what we can/can't use as a reference. Do we restrict to IMDb or is any credible movie reporting site valid. What qualifies as a credible site, etc. All this should be in our FAQ as well so that we can instruct new users who want to answer questions. | 2012/01/10 | [
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/208",
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | Wikipedia varies in the quality of its content, and each movie page will vary in the number of supporting references. However a reference to Wikipedia is better than no reference at all, and compliments the factual detail of IMDB. This is particularly true when wanting to give someone an outline of a plot, which is often better on Wikipedia. | Wikipedia may have weaknesses, but I support having it as a valid reference because, on top of having own content, it also lists other (likely more authoritative) references. One other pro is that it is far cleaner than the UI mess that is IMDb. |
222,007 | Every time I boot my system I get software update notifications for Java, Adobe Reader and my Creative Soundblaster card.
I then install the updates, but every time I reboot, it says that there are updates for them again. This has been happening for a couple months. It's annoying.
Anyone know any way to resolve this? | 2010/12/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/222007",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/59161/"
] | Perhaps try running the updaters with explicit Administrator permission (right-click the app and select 'Run As Administrator')?
Another option is to uninstall and reinstall the applications themselves. | Yes, disable the updaters or download the latest version of this software directly from the website and install it. I'd suggest the second option for security.
Java updater can be disabled in **Control Panel -> Java**.
Adobe Updater can be disabled by opening Reader and going to **Edit -> Preferences -> Updater**.
Creative should have something similar although I do not have the software. |
222,007 | Every time I boot my system I get software update notifications for Java, Adobe Reader and my Creative Soundblaster card.
I then install the updates, but every time I reboot, it says that there are updates for them again. This has been happening for a couple months. It's annoying.
Anyone know any way to resolve this? | 2010/12/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/222007",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/59161/"
] | Perhaps try running the updaters with explicit Administrator permission (right-click the app and select 'Run As Administrator')?
Another option is to uninstall and reinstall the applications themselves. | Look into the [Task Scheduler](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/aa383614%28v=vs.85%29.aspx) as well as the options of the updaters, you can change the event that decides when to check for updates to something on a weekly basis rather than on boot. |
55,088 | I've just remove my mudguards from my Ti frame and as usual I have put the bolts back into the frame where the thread goes into a tube - for example in the chain-stay bridge and brake bridge.
I used anti-seize on the threads and did not do them up tight.
Should I be doing this?
I do it because it looks a bit neater and I suppose to stop water getting int but I thought that maybe I am just risking ruining my frame if the bolt gets stuck in there.
Thanks | 2018/06/05 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/55088",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/10367/"
] | I usually plug the hole with appropriate size hardware. I add a dab of anti-seize compound. My reasoning (other than appearance) is that while the frame is aluminum or carbon the threaded insert is typically steel and there fore subject to rust. | I leave mudguard, waterbottle mount etc. bolts in the frame, with appropriate grease, anti-seize applied. I do this mostly so I can find them when I need to mount the component again. |
55,088 | I've just remove my mudguards from my Ti frame and as usual I have put the bolts back into the frame where the thread goes into a tube - for example in the chain-stay bridge and brake bridge.
I used anti-seize on the threads and did not do them up tight.
Should I be doing this?
I do it because it looks a bit neater and I suppose to stop water getting int but I thought that maybe I am just risking ruining my frame if the bolt gets stuck in there.
Thanks | 2018/06/05 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/55088",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/10367/"
] | I usually plug the hole with appropriate size hardware. I add a dab of anti-seize compound. My reasoning (other than appearance) is that while the frame is aluminum or carbon the threaded insert is typically steel and there fore subject to rust. | You should plug the with something for two reasons:
1) to prevent water ingress into the frame
2) the brazing or frame threads are usually bare metal so they will rust easily
It’s easy to put a bolt into them or a plastic or rubber plug (if you’re a weight weenie) |
18,309 | I would like a lock for a garage door (roll up style). I would like the lock to be something I can control electronically, and also I would like it to retain it's state when the power is removed.
The power requirement seems to rule out any type of electromagnetic lock, and I considered a solenoid, but I'm not sure if I can get one that stays in the current position when the power is removed.
I think there are two types that will work - one with a latch on a solenoid (<https://www.adafruit.com/product/1512>) or possibly a small linear actuator that could be extended through a plate to lock the door. Are there any other options I'm overlooking? | 2017/12/02 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/18309",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/13797/"
] | You can get latching solenoids which fire back and forth given a current pulse. They stay in position when the current is removed. | You could consider using a motor/servo set-up. These would only use power when they're actually opening/closing the lock. For a small lock there's plenty of servo controlled units (from looking mostly for central locking on cars [like this](https://www.ebay.co.uk/i/112350866434?chn=ps&adgroupid=47842945425&rlsatarget=pla-380312364851&abcId=1129946&adtype=pla&merchantid=110247205&poi=&googleloc=1007080&device=c&campaignid=974959912&crdt=0). They need a controller to drive the servo though.
That said, a linear actuator would also work, but would need to know when it was fully closed/opened. Whether that be by limit/reed switches or the like. |
12,757 | What definition does contemporary analytic philosophy give of 'concept'? And what is the difference between a concept of something and a conception of something? Then what's the difference between concept, conception and theory?
I'm trying to establish an epistemological priority like conception>concept>theory. | 2014/05/26 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/12757",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/4872/"
] | The word "game" makes a good metaphor for the interaction between people in a society where there is gain and lose and where the interactions are not happening chaotically but in more or less systematic ways and according to social norms some of which are clear to articulate about while others are implicit. But I think that the use of the word "game" became widely used after the publication of the popular book "Games People Play: The Psychology of Human Relationships" in 1964 by the psychiatrist Eric Berne which became bestseller and of which millions of copies were sold since its publication. | It is probably a reference to mathematical "Game Theory" which studies conflict and cooperation between intelligent rational decision-makers seeking particular positive outcomes, subject to a fixed set of rules. If you think of the "set of rules" as those of a given society and of the "players" as the members of that society, then their interactions, decisions, aspirations, etc., which are the subject of Sociology, can be thought of as a "game" in the sense of Game Theory. The word "game" in this context is not meant to diminish the "seriousness" of the subject being studied or the seriousness with which the subjects being studied behave and act. |
109,890 | Long and short is really in the question title. For a language which compiles to an intermediate language like MSIL or Java byte-code, if there's concern about something like reverse engineering or hacking to disable security features, should AOT (ahead of time) compilation be considered rather than just obfuscation? Obviously, there's a bit of wiggle room in this question as there's no one answer I wouldn't imagine, but when would you start looking at performing an AOT compilation before distributing something versus sending it out obfuscated?
For anyone that stumbles across this and isn't familiar:
Wikipedia Entry on AOT Compilers: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AOT_compiler>
Mono AOT Compiler feature: <http://www.mono-project.com/AOT> | 2011/09/21 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/109890",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/20850/"
] | Its my understanding that .NET assemblies (and, I assume java .class files, too) include a hash value of some sort. If the hash value fails when the .class or assembly is loaded then, I believe, its rejected and an exception is thrown. So, if someone did decide to take a hex editor to an assembly or .class file, they'd have to know how the hash value was calculated and update that part of the file with the correct value as well.
In addition, .NET assemblies can also be [Strongly Named](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/wd40t7ad.aspx) which can also help in ensuring an assemblies integrity and provenance. | It'll be a lot harder to maintain different versions. You should either use a language like C++ or if you're stuck with Java, you can use a custom class loader instead of just obfuscating. All code can be RE'd with time; I'd just trust the law to do your work for you and obfuscate. |
109,890 | Long and short is really in the question title. For a language which compiles to an intermediate language like MSIL or Java byte-code, if there's concern about something like reverse engineering or hacking to disable security features, should AOT (ahead of time) compilation be considered rather than just obfuscation? Obviously, there's a bit of wiggle room in this question as there's no one answer I wouldn't imagine, but when would you start looking at performing an AOT compilation before distributing something versus sending it out obfuscated?
For anyone that stumbles across this and isn't familiar:
Wikipedia Entry on AOT Compilers: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AOT_compiler>
Mono AOT Compiler feature: <http://www.mono-project.com/AOT> | 2011/09/21 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/109890",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/20850/"
] | >
> should AOT (ahead of time) compilation be considered rather than just obfuscation?
>
>
>
Although probably not your intent, that can be interpreted as "should we use AOT compilation as opposed to obfuscation", which implies that AOT compilation > obfuscation. This is not necessarily the case, in fact, I would argue that good obfuscation is better than AOT compilation, since it will at least slightly irritate the person doing the RE in assembly. In the long run though, neither will be of much help; anything can be cracked, given enough time. | It'll be a lot harder to maintain different versions. You should either use a language like C++ or if you're stuck with Java, you can use a custom class loader instead of just obfuscating. All code can be RE'd with time; I'd just trust the law to do your work for you and obfuscate. |
109,890 | Long and short is really in the question title. For a language which compiles to an intermediate language like MSIL or Java byte-code, if there's concern about something like reverse engineering or hacking to disable security features, should AOT (ahead of time) compilation be considered rather than just obfuscation? Obviously, there's a bit of wiggle room in this question as there's no one answer I wouldn't imagine, but when would you start looking at performing an AOT compilation before distributing something versus sending it out obfuscated?
For anyone that stumbles across this and isn't familiar:
Wikipedia Entry on AOT Compilers: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AOT_compiler>
Mono AOT Compiler feature: <http://www.mono-project.com/AOT> | 2011/09/21 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/109890",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/20850/"
] | Don't distribute. Expose via the web or something like Citrix. Bloomberg have built a multi-billion dollar business doing that and their users love it. (Well we don't seem to be able to provide much comfort with AOT or Obfuscation). | It'll be a lot harder to maintain different versions. You should either use a language like C++ or if you're stuck with Java, you can use a custom class loader instead of just obfuscating. All code can be RE'd with time; I'd just trust the law to do your work for you and obfuscate. |
1,316,223 | My CPU cooler is too big so i cant get my motherboard out to clean it it's like 7 years old and I need to get the dust out. I have tried to take it out without taking off the motherboard but it doesn't fit. | 2018/04/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1316223",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/897689/"
] | **That is a bad idea! Continue reading...**
You need physical contact to move heat efficiently from the **CPU** heatspreader to the heatsink. The role of **thermal paste** is to "fill in the gaps" and allow for better transfer of heat from the heatspreader to the heatsink.
**What will happen if I don't put a thermal paste in my processor and heatsink?**
Things don't work as efficiently as they should. Your CPU's operating temperature will be higher. It may need to slow itself down (thermal throttling) to stop from overheating and failing.
Does this mean that your CPU will burn out and die? No. Does it mean that it is more likely to? Yes. Does it mean that your CPU will throttle? No. Does it mean that it is more likely to? Yes. Can you run your CPU without thermal paste for years and still have an operating computer? Yes. Is it a good idea to try? No.
The truth is that properly applied thermal paste is an important component of a cooling system and going without it is a *bad idea*. It's also a good idea to service your CPU every now and then (once every year or two) and replace dried and cracked thermal compound with a fresh application. If you find that thermal paste wasn't applied to your CPU when it was assembled, that's bad, but it isn't the end of the world. Modern CPUs will attempt to shut down before reaching a temperature at which damage occurs, and before that, they will slow themselves down. | Yes, you should replace the compound if you remove the heatsink.
Thermal paste is generally either a near-fluid or putty like compound when applied. Over time it "sets" into a solid due to heat and forms an effective seal between the CPU case and heatsink.
When you remove the heatsink you break that seal and create gaps in the compound. As the compound is no longer malleable it cannot reflow into gaps when you refit the heatsink and can easily end up with air bubbles and poor contact between the CPU and heatsink. |
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