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Which of the following abnormalities can be diagnosed in the I st trimester of pregnancy?
|
A: Anencephaly B: Encephalocele C: Meningocele D: Microcephaly
| 0
|
A 50 years old female on junk food diet presented with point hemorrhages in scalp, bleeding in joints and erythemataous lesions in the skin. X-ray of knee joint was suggestive of hemahrosis. Problem lies with:
|
A: Hydroxylation of proline and lysine B: Carboxylation of glutamic acid C: Carboxylation of coagulation factors D: Platelet aggregation defect
| 0
|
In a 60 yr old hypertensive male with renal failure, renal biopsy shows onion skin appearance. The most likely diagnosis is
|
A: Hyaline arteriosclerosis B: Thrombophlebitis obliterans C: Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis D: Arteriosclerosis obliterans
| 2
|
The inter-arch distance measured when the occlusal rims are in uniform contact is:
|
A: Freeway space B: Vertical dimension of occlusion C: Vertical dimension of rest D: Christensen's space
| 1
|
Which of the following is used by RBCs in the fasting state?
|
A: Glucose B: Alanine C: Ketone body D: Fatty acid
| 0
|
A condition where there is loss of interdental bone on facial and lingual plate, without involvement of radicular bone is:
|
A: Ledge B: Crater C: Intrabony defect D: Reverse architecture
| 3
|
Till what age tetracycline should not be given to prevent discoloration
|
A: 3 year B: 8 year C: 12 year D: 18 year
| 1
|
A 50 year old tall thin smoker presents with dyspnoea and palpitations. ECG was done. Diagnosis:
|
A: Atrial fibrillation B: Multifocal atrial tachycardia C: AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia D: Monomorphic VT
| 1
|
Which of the following is not a feature of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis –
|
A: Rheumatoid nodule B: Spikes of high fever C: Uveitis D: Raynaud's phenomenon
| 3
|
For an unbounded amalgam restoration, what should be done before copal varnish is applied ?
|
A: Dentine desensitiser is applied B: Smear layer is left intact C: Smear layer is modified D: After removal of enamel smear layer only
| 0
|
In CPITN index zero score means:
|
A: Gingival bleeding B: Grade 1 mobility of teeth C: Healthy tooth D: Spontaneous bleeding
| 2
|
A five year old male child presents with complaints of fever and abdominal distension. IIe is having vomiting for the last five days. On examination there are 6–8 Pus Cell/hpf in urine. WBC count shows 78% neutrophils. What is the best line of management –
|
A: Send urine for culture and sensitivity and wait for results B: Send urine for culture and sensitivity and start I.V. antibiotics immediately C: Send urine for culture, do an USG and start chloroquine D: Radio nucleotide studies
| 1
|
A doctor who performed the autopsy on a 26-year-old married woman, committing suicide found the cause of death to be aluminium phosphide poisoning. She was summoned in a cou of law where he willingly hides this information. This is punishable under which section?
|
A: IPC 193 B: CrPC 175 C: CrPC 69 D: IPC 189
| 0
|
Loading dose MgSO4 (IV) to be prepared as
|
A: 4 ml 50% w/v plus 16 ml NS B: 8 ml 50% w/v plus 12 ml NS C: 12 ml 50% w/v plus 8 ml NS D: 16 ml 50% w/v plus 4 ml NS
| 1
|
Apoprotein B-48 is found in
|
A: VLDL B: LDL C: HDL D: Chylomicrons
| 3
|
If the distribution of intra-ocular pressure (IOP) seen in 100 glaucoma patients has an average 30 mm with a SD of 1.0, what is the lower limit of the average IOP that can be expected 95% of times?
|
A: 26 B: 28 C: 32 D: 259
| 1
|
The radiographic view of choice for diagnosing horizontally favorable and unfavorable # is:
|
A: OPG B: Occlusal C: Lateral Oblique view D: Transpharyngeal
| 2
|
Which type of Hb is not affected by Rh isoimmunisation:
|
A: Anti C B: Anti E C: Anti lewis D: Anti D
| 2
|
The ETDRS cha is used for visual evaluation in diabetic patients. What does ETDRS stand for
|
A: Extended treatment for diabetic retinopathy study B: Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study C: Emergency treatment for diabetic retinopathy study D: Emerging treatment for diabetic retinopathy study
| 1
|
Working side contact means:
|
A: Contact on lateral movement. B: Contact on medial movement. C: No contact on lateral movement. D: None of the above.
| 0
|
What percentage of accessory canals found in apical third of the root
|
A: 74% B: 54% C: 94% D: 60%
| 0
|
The resolving power of a microscope depends upon all of the following except:
|
A: Size of the apeure B: Focal length of the eyepiece C: Thickness of the film D: Wavelength of light source used
| 2
|
Which type of trauma is associated with destruction of protective layer?
|
A: Intrusion B: Extrusion C: Avulsion D: Lateral luxation
| 0
|
During diagnostic laparoscopy for undescended testis, there are absent testicular vessels. What should be done next?
|
A: Explore fuher B: Nothing is to be done C: Inguinal exploration D: Scrotal examination
| 2
|
Excessive occlusal forces can be superimposed in all cases, except
|
A: Normal periodontium with normal height of bone B: Normal periodontium with reduced height of bone C: Marginal periodontitis with reduced height of bone D: Marginal periodontitis with normal height of bone
| 3
|
The reverse bevel incision is made to
|
A: Allow atraumatic reflection of the gingival margin B: Remove the infected tissue in the sulcus C: Provide access to the alveolar crest D: All of the above
| 1
|
Partial veneer crown is contraindicated in
|
A: Long teeth B: Short teeth C: Tipped teeth D: Tapered teeth
| 1
|
Target sign is seen in?
|
A: Spontaneous CSF Rhinorrhea B: Traumatic CSF Rhinorrhea C: Both D: None
| 1
|
LA deposited in Inferior alveolar nerve block at
|
A: Sigmoid notch B: Coronoid notch C: Lingula D: Groove of mandibular neck
| 2
|
In extraction, best time to administer analgesics is:
|
A: Before anaesthesia wears off B: Prior to extraction C: When pain is moderate to severe D: After anaesthesia wears off
| 0
|
Mantle dentin is a layer next to:
|
A: DE] B: Pulp C: Dentin D: Enamel
| 0
|
The wave ' V ' in BERA represents activity in which of the following ?
|
A: Lateral lemniscus B: Superior olivary complex C: Cochlear nerve D: Cochlear nucleus
| 0
|
Preconceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect:
|
A: Vitamin A B: Folate C: Vitamin E D: Vitamin C
| 1
|
Lower 2nd molar has
|
A: ‘+’ shape B: Distorted ‘+’ shape C: Y shaped D: H shaped
| 0
|
Failure of partial dentures due to poor clasp design can best be avoided by:
|
A: Using stress breakers B: Using bar type clasps C: Altering tooth contours D: Clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support
| 2
|
In excitable cells, repolarization is closely associated with one of the following events:
|
A: Na+ efflux B: Na+ influx C: K+ efflux D: K+ influx
| 2
|
Hapten is?
|
A: Antigenic and proteinaceous substance B: Protein and non antigenic C: Nonprotein and antigenic D: Nonprotein and non antigenic
| 0
|
Right trochlear nerve palsy can lead to all except:
|
A: Diplopia on upward gaze and adduction B: Right head tilt C: Exotropia D: Hyperopia
| 1
|
The lingual extension of a Lower denture is Limited by all of the following (except)
|
A: Modiolus B: Mylohyoid muscle C: Origin of genioglossus D: Sublingual salivary glands
| 0
|
Patient with history of tachyarrhythmias is on implantable cardioveer defibrillator. He develops shock. Best method to know the position and integrity of ICD is:
|
A: CECT B: MRI C: USG D: Plain radiograph
| 0
|
Morris retractor is most commonly used to retract
|
A: Left hypochondrium B: Right hypochondrium C: Hernia surgery D: None
| 0
|
Which of the following is not true about H. influenza?
|
A: Rarely presents as meningitis in children less than 2 months of age B: Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence C: Requires factor V and X for growth D: Most common invasive disease of H. influenza is meningitis
| 1
|
Which drug is not given in Wilson disease?
|
A: Trientine B: Calcium C: Penicillamine D: Zinc
| 1
|
Bullet fingerprinting is:
|
A: Human fingerprints on bullet B: Primary marking C: Secondary marking D: Distoed bullet
| 2
|
Following intracoronal bleaching immediate composite restoration required, what has to be done:
|
A: Treat with catalase B: Wait for 7 days is mandatory C: Treat with H2O2 for 3 minutes D: Not possible
| 0
|
Which of the following is developed from the 1st arch:
|
A: Stylohyoid ligament. B: Spenomandibular ligament. C: Stapes. D: Styloid process.
| 1
|
A 70 years old male patient presents with amblyopia, exeional chest pain, episodic tachycardia and extra systoles on FCC. What is the probable cause?
|
A: Cocaine poisoning B: Chronic nicotine poisoning C: Arsenophagia D: Cannabis ingestion
| 1
|
All of the following reflex appear at birth except:
|
A: Landau reflex B: Babinski reflex C: Startle reflex D: Moro's reflex
| 0
|
A child had repeated vomiting and developed metabolic alkalosis. The treatment given is –
|
A: Ringer lactate B: I.V. normal saline and potassium C: ORS D: I.V. Normal saline
| 1
|
Most used selective medium for streptococcus rnutans is
|
A: Mac conkey medium B: Mitus salivarius bacitracin agar C: Nutrient agar D: Tellurite medium
| 1
|
Which characteristic of orthodontic wire describe energy storage capacity?
|
A: Range B: Resilience C: Formability D: Proportional limit
| 1
|
Thickness of luting cement is:
|
A: 20-40 μ B: 10-20 μ C: 60-80 μ D: 1-2 μ
| 0
|
Midface is defined as the portion between:
|
A: Hairline to subnasale B: Glabella to subnasale C: Glabella to menton D: Subnasale to menton
| 1
|
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones is primarily under inhibitory control of hypothalamus.
|
A: TSH B: GRH C: Somatostatin D: Prolactin
| 3
|
Buccal coil spring used to regain space between 1st premolar and 1st molar causes following common post treatment complication:
|
A: Pain B: Gingival irritation C: Tendency of 1st premolar to rotate D: Tendency of 1st premolar to intrude
| 2
|
Direct inter dental wiring is also known as:
|
A: Risdon's wiring B: Gilmer's wiring C: Eyelet wiring D: Col. Stouts wiring
| 1
|
On biopsy report of CGCG on the basis of histologically & morphological similarities differential diagnosis is made between:
|
A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Hyperparathyroidism C: Osteitis deformans D: Hyperthyroidism
| 1
|
Best fluid for factor VIII replacement is:
|
A: fresh whole blood B: cryoprecipitate C: FFP D: Platelet concentrate
| 1
|
Which of the following feature is not seen in tongue thrusting?
|
A: Spaced dentition B: Crowding and crossbite C: Open bite D: Flush terminal plane
| 1
|
Best way to monitor perfusion of free flap:
|
A: Pulse oximeter B: Laser doppler velocimetery C: Prick test D: Flourescin & dermo flourometer
| 2
|
Which of the following structures is not of ectodermal origin:
|
A: Hunter-schreger bands B: Enamel spindles C: Enamel tufts D: Enamel lamellae
| 1
|
Paradoxical undressing seen in -
|
A: Immersion syndrome B: Heat cramps C: Hypothermia D: Heat exhaustion
| 2
|
The single most effective method of reducing patient
somatic exposure when taking radiograph is to use:
|
A: A lead apron B: Speed E film C: Added filtration D: An open ended, shielded cone
| 1
|
There is a swelling in a patient with respect to maxillary LI region, since last 48 hours, the swelling is hot & palpable & rebounds on pressure, the treatment of choice is
|
A: Incision & drainage B: Antibiotic coverage C: Antibiotics of heat only D: Aspiration
| 0
|
True about occulomotor nerve are all except
|
A: Carries parasympathetic fibres B: Causes constriction of pupils C: Supplies inferior oblique muscle D: Passes through inferior orbital fissure
| 3
|
In a free gingival graft, what happens to epithelium of the graft? It:
|
A: Remains as such B: Proliferates C: Degenerates D: Has to be removed by the surgeon
| 2
|
A boy is suffering from acute pyelonephritis. The most specific investigation is
|
A: Histopathological examination B: Leucocyte esterase test C: Nitrite test D: Bacteria in gram stain
| 0
|
Setting expansion of grey MTA when mixed with water is?
|
A: 0.68% B: 0.12% C: 1.02% D: 0.80%
| 2
|
All of the following syndromes are associated with uniparental disomy except-
|
A: Prader-Willi syndrome B: Russell-Silver syndrome C: Bloom syndrome D: Angelman syndrome
| 2
|
Which of the following has a male:female ratio of 1:1?
|
A: Rheumatoid ahritis B: Gout C: Seronegative spondyloahritis D: Polymyalgia rheumatica
| 2
|
A diabetic and hypeensive patient taking several drugs presented with septicemia. Serum creatinine levels are 5.7 mg/dL. Which of the following drug should be stopped?
|
A: Insulin B: Metoprolol C: Linagliptin D: Metformin
| 3
|
Drug of choice for Rheumatic fever prophylaxis in penicillin allergic patient –
|
A: Erythromycin B: Clindamycin C: Vancomycin D: Gentamycin
| 0
|
Placement of graft will be failure in which class of recession
|
A: class I B: Class II C: Class III D: Class IV
| 3
|
The vascular supply of the periodontal ligament is:
|
A: Greatest in the middle-third of a single rooted tooth B: Greatest in the middle-third of a multirooted tooth C: A net-like plexus that runs closer to the cementum than to the bone D: A net-like plexus that runs closer to the bone than to the cementum
| 3
|
Commonest cause of TMJ ankylosis is
|
A: Trauma B: Development disturbances C: Infections D: Atrophy
| 0
|
To prevent sensitivity caused by acid etching and to protect pulp in deep cavities which of the following should be used.
|
A: Ca(OH)2 liner B: ZOE C: Light cured GIC liner D: Varnish
| 0
|
All are true about rheumatic fever, except –
|
A: Common in poor socioeconomic group B: Develops after streptococcal pharyngitis C: Communicable disease D: Seen in 5–15 years of children
| 2
|
The case of biliary duct stricture with retching and vomiting, given 3mg morphine epiduraly daily, one day 12 mg mistakenly dose of epidural, morphine given. Not present:-
|
A: Itching B: Urinary retention C: Increase vomiting D: Overstimulation of respiratory centre
| 3
|
Bonding agents have hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups. The hydrophobic group binds which structure?
|
A: Calcium in enamel B: Hydroxyapatite group in hard tissue C: Resin in restoration D: Collagen in dentin
| 2
|
A patient on 300 mg of aspirin will show all the following except:
|
A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way B: Prolonged bleeding time C: Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2 D: Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2
| 0
|
Antimalarial drug used for causal prophylaxis act at which stage of developmental cycle
|
A: Gametogony B: Erythrocytic schizogony C: Pre-erythrocytic schizogony D: Exo-erythrocytic schizogony
| 2
|
A 3-year-old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is
|
A: Cherubism B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Central giant cell granuloma
| 0
|
Normal WBC count
|
A: 4,000-11,000 B: 40000 -80000 C: 13000-17000 D: 1000-3000
| 0
|
Provision of WHO mental action gap are all, except:
|
A: Human rights B: Communication regarding care and career C: Screening family members D: Social suppo
| 2
|
Retraction of the protruded mandible is done by
|
A: Medial Pterygoid B: Lateral pterygoid C: Masseter D: Temporalis
| 3
|
Methacholine acts at which receptor?
|
A: M1 B: M2 C: M3 D: M4
| 1
|
Name the curve which passes through the cusps of all the posteriors, reaches to condyle:
|
A: Curve of Wilson. B: Anti monsoon curve. C: Monsoon curve. D: Curve of spee.
| 3
|
4 yr old child has 0.2 ppm fluoride in drinking water. The child can be administered:
|
A: 1 mg tab/day B: Rinses 0.2% NaF C: Topical application of fluoride D: Fluoride containing dentifrices
| 0
|
Which or tile following is true about antigenic drift?
|
A: It is seen only in influenza virus type A B: It is a result of framesshift mutation C: It mostly affects the matrix protein D: It mostly affects the matrix protein
| 3
|
Most commonly used technique for determination of working length of a 8 year old child patient of teeth maxillary central incisor:
|
A: Tactile sensation B: Moisture on paperpoint C: Digital D: None
| 1
|
A Iaday 35 years old lactating mother Presented with a Painful breast lump. Most appropriate initial investigation should be:
|
A: Mammography B: USG C: MRI D: X-ray
| 1
|
Which of the following is caused by Amphotericin B
|
A: Hypo kalemia B: Hyperkalemia C: Hypermagnesemia D: Hyponatremia
| 0
|
The most common curvature of the palatal root of maxillary first molar is:
|
A: Facial B: Lingual C: Distal D: Mesial
| 0
|
A new marker for mantle cell lymphoma especially useful in Cyclin DI negative cases is:
|
A: SOX 11 B: Annexin V C: MYD88 D: ITRA I
| 0
|
Type of skull seen in Beckwith hypoglycemic syndrome and fanconi syndrome:
|
A: Platycephaly. B: Microcephaly. C: Anencephaly. D: Brachcephaly.
| 1
|
Centre of rotation during intrusion is at:
|
A: Infinity B: Middle third of tooth C: CEJ D: Outside the tooth
| 3
|
Koebner phenomenon is seen in
|
A: Impetigo B: Pemphigoid C: Erythema multiforme D: Psoriasis
| 3
|
Most abundant cells in Cell rich zone
|
A: Fibroblasts B: Odontoblasts C: Ameloblasts D: Undifferentiated mesencymal cells
| 0
|
Countercurrent mechanism is not seen in:
|
A: Kidney B: Testes C: Eye D: Intestine
| 2
|
Which component of cement causes allergic contact dermatitis??
|
A: Cobalt B: Nickel C: Iron D: Chromium
| 3
|
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