id stringlengths 36 36 | question stringlengths 8 990 | A stringlengths 1 284 | B stringlengths 1 250 | C stringlengths 1 278 ⌀ | D stringlengths 1 297 ⌀ | choice_num int64 2 9 | target stringclasses 6
values | category int64 1 3 | E stringlengths 1 604 ⌀ | F stringclasses 14
values | G stringclasses 3
values | H stringclasses 3
values | I stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
0a9092c4-cc37-5fdd-b315-594dff5c5a46 | Which of the following causes an increase in the ionized calcium concentration? | Increased serum albumin | Alkalosis | Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma | Acidosis | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
52342534-652b-5339-990b-8b89e2316044 | Which of the following statements is true regarding the preoperative preparation for a patient with pheochromocytoma? | Selective α1 -blockers have a longer duration of action compared with phenoxybenzamine. | β-Blockade should be initiated before α-blockade. | Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in patients with pheochromocytoma. | The primary side effect of phenoxybenzamine is orthostatic hypotension. | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
1b5ebcb5-efa9-5727-ab41-899046f7d0fb | Which of the following steroids lacks mineralocorticoid activity? | Hydrocortisone | Dexamethasone | Methylprednisolone | Prednisone | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
423f2d0d-10b9-5550-b416-2050b7df9030 | 19. In which of the following patients is stress dose steroid administration | A 67-year-old man on prednisone 10 mg daily for 5 days for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation presenting for laparoscopic cholecystectomy | A 40-year-old woman on prednisone 2.5 mg daily for 6 years for systemic lupus erythematosus presenting for total knee arthroplasty | A 23-year-old man on prednisone 20 mg daily for ulcerative colitis presenting for subtotal colectomy | A 56-year-old woman on prednisone 40 mg daily for rheumatoid arthritis presenting for superficial lymph node biopsy | 4 | C | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
c1283ad7-42cd-55da-ab63-1adf7cdf3a78 | Which of the following correctly describes a physiologic effect of glucocorticoids? | Increase in eosinophils and basophils | Decreased protein catabolism | Sensitization to insulin | Promotion of gluconeogenesis | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
27f4d8a9-d0d4-5e5e-a5f3-cc08fd1a6248 | Which of the following characteristics is most consistent with nonketotic hyperosmolar coma? | Metabolic acidosis | Hypokalemia | Skeletal muscle weakness | Profound hyperglycemia >600 mg/dL | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
65b1d2cd-e0e6-53f2-a9f3-190a5a4852f0 | Long-term type 1 diabetes is associated with which of the following anesthetic complications? | Malignant hyperthermia | Difficult airway | Pseudocholinesterase deficiency | Anaphylaxis to local anesthetics | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
66052a1c-f3fe-5c08-bede-5a36c94008f3 | Which of the following statements is true of glucose metabolism in the perioperative period? | Glucagon levels are decreased. | Blood glucose levels in nondiabetic patients may rise as much as 60 mg/dL. | Catecholamines inhibit gluconeogenesis. | ACTH levels are decreased. | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
32574c1c-4ccb-5b4f-b438-c38efefc3d07 | In which of the following scenarios is it acceptable to administer metformin therapy? | The night before elective surgery | In the presence of NYHA class II heart failure | The morning a patient will undergo CT scan with IV contrast | In a patient with pyelonephritis who remains normotensive | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
97552047-84fc-58a6-9eec-987f550e94b4 | Which of the following statements is true regarding the cardiac risk in patients with diabetes mellitus? | Diabetic patients reliably present with classic angina symptoms in the setting of acute myocardial infarction. | Aspirin therapy is recommended for diabetic patients in the absence of known coronary disease. | Routine stress testing is indicated for all diabetic patients to identify silent ischemia. | ACE inhibitors should be avoided in diabetes because they are at risk of diabetic nephropathy. | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
557a70cc-1b04-5e62-bafd-a55444698b05 | The process of glycolysis converts glucose into what molecule? | NADPH | Acetyl-CoA | Pyruvate | Lactate | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
4bd79704-403b-5c05-a7ac-77885f031c2e | 27. Which molecule is common to carbohydrate, lipid, and amino acid metabolism and does directly enter the Krebs cycle for further metabolism? | Acetyl-CoA | Pyruvate | Citrate | Succinyl-CoA | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
3fb44b19-d1f1-554b-bdb6-1d08ac1988d5 | Which of the following molecules accelerates the Krebs cycle via activation of pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase? | Citrate | ATP | NADH | Calcium | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
3d82c877-f973-5c93-8c17-521d663e2eb2 | Which of the following is the final acceptor of electrons in the electron transport chain? | NADH | NAD+ | Oxygen | FADH+ | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
97cf3577-fecc-502d-b53c-758b27b77616 | Which of the following organs is/are responsible for gluconeogenesis? | Liver only | Kidney only | Brain | Liver and kidney | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
9454e8ce-f874-52fe-833a-13e5ed9f6658 | Which of the following is the mechanism of action of simvastatin in lowering lipid levels? | Prevention of intestinal absorption of triacylglycerides (TAGs) | HMG-CoA reductase inhibition | PCSK9 inhibition | Upregulation of β-oxidation of fatty acids | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
5280a74b-c7d3-5e69-b08a-6a202ee89b2c | Which of the following is true of lipid digestion? | Cholecystokinin speeds gastric motility. | TAGs are absorbed unchanged in the small intestine. | Emulsification of lipids occurs primarily in the small intestine. | Lipids diffuse into enterocytes unchanged because of their water solubility. | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
08ab5d85-c1b3-54da-8e0b-7a967dcf1db2 | Patients with pancreatic exocrine insufficiency are at risk for which vitamin deficiency? | Thiamine | Pyridoxine | Vitamin B12 | Vitamin D | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
bfbc5d3d-9d6e-53d2-a0e0-1bbf5c40884f | Which of the following statements is true with regard to lipid metabolism in the liver? | The liver may package TAGs into very-low-density lipoproteins for transport to other tissues. | The liver can extract energy from ketones via ketoacyl-CoA transferase. | Insulin activates β-oxidation of fatty acids in the liver. | When there is a deficiency in glycogen, the liver converts glucose to TAGs for storage. | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
438c91a2-4cc8-5e9d-ae32-bec01b44c50b | 35. Which organ is unable to utilize fatty acid oxidation in times of starvation and thus relies primarily on ketone metabolism? | Heart | Liver | Brain | Muscle | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
8cd5aa45-10fd-5749-800e-b594d0667cd3 | Which of the following statements is true regarding cholesterol metabolism? | Bile salts are recirculated through enterohepatic circulation several times a day. | Cholesterol is converted into bile salts in the gall bladder. | Bile salts are excreted into the colon. | Cholesterols are hydrophilic molecules. | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
fb56bf4b-7c88-5009-bc69-bec39627fd79 | Which of the following is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe in lowering lipid levels? | Prevention of intestinal absorption of TAGs | HMG-CoA reductase inhibition | PCSK9 inhibition | Upregulating β-oxidation of fatty acids | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
326875f7-9eb9-51b8-a1ec-019f1adf6050 | Inhaled nitric oxide (NO) produces pulmonary vasodilation via increased concentration of which of the following substances? | Calcium | Atrial natriuretic peptide | Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) | Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
77fc4e14-504c-5e92-aa58-495d1fca6b65 | Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, will have which of the following effects? | Increase the intracellular level of cAMP | Increase the intracellular level of cGMP | Decrease the intracellular level of cAMP | Decrease the intracellular level of cGMP | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
f4882c75-f69b-5ec5-8a79-ff7f104c3d53 | Activation of the β1 -adrenergic receptor will increase the concentration of which of the following secondary messengers? | Cyclic guanosine monophosphate | Cyclic adenosine monophosphate | Ca 2+ | Inositol triphosphate (IP3 ) | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
d108d930-1daa-5af1-a350-2f67c2a42d04 | Acetylcholine (Ach) binds to which subunit of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAchR) on the skeletal muscle? | α | β | γ | δ | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
26147abf-0ab1-5b4b-b5bf-a9f0b4621856 | Which of the following is the correct sequence of signals, leading to skeletal muscle contraction? | Release of Ach → ligand-gated Na + channels → motor nerve depolarization → voltage-gated Ca ++ channels → muscle depolarization | Motor nerve depolarization → voltage-gated Ca ++ channels → release of Ach → ligand-gated Na + channels → muscle depolarization | Motor nerve depolarization → ligand-gated Na + channels → release of Ach → voltage-gated Ca ++ channels → muscle depolarization | Ligand-gated Na + channels → voltage-gated Ca ++ channels → release of Ach → motor nerve depolarization → muscle depolarization | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
12b13e09-a62e-5aab-85f5-a76ca888fea3 | All of the following conditions may increase extrajunctional acetylcholine receptors (AchRs), EXCEPT which one? | Severe burn | Prolonged ICU stay | Stroke | Renal failure | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
de45b5ba-54f6-5294-8195-34c3258a59e2 | The effect of Ach at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is terminated by which of the following mechanisms? | Break down by acetylcholinesterase | Break down by pseudocholinesterase | Degradation by tissue esterase | Reuptake into the nerve terminal | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
0d3d9164-6e47-553b-bcd3-4026111d407c | 5. How many Ach molecules must bind to each postsynaptic receptor on muscle cells to induce conformational change? | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
6042e6a4-ad35-5994-a0e2-45b36a16d151 | All of the following drugs inhibit nAchRs EXCEPT which one? | α-Bungarotoxin | Curare | Pancuronium | Atropine | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
180544e1-cd65-5d0f-a468-2dd742a6b106 | Ca +2 binding to which component of the NMJ induces muscle contraction? | Actin | Thin filaments | Troponin | Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
d3883a5f-9946-5fd7-a142-d7862136c82c | Which of the following structures of the skeletal muscle does not change in length as the muscle contracts? | A band | I band | H zone | Z line | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
53abfdd5-a5ab-5709-a190-b771b1a9a8eb | Which subunit of the nAchR is present in receptors located at the endplate | β | γ | δ | ε | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
6a50e318-18ac-562c-ae52-a75978a23ec0 | Which of the following is the resting potential of the skeletal muscle cell? | −90 mV | −70 mV | −50 mV | 0 mV | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
d0b646aa-a0cf-577a-adba-aa26d8a6eaa5 | Which of the following agents leads to an increase of Ach release from motor neuron terminals? | Calcium channel blockers | Magnesium | Tetanus toxin | Botulinum toxin | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
20e6a087-b407-5a78-b42f-15ce68ef46b6 | Synthesis of Ach is facilitated by which enzyme? | Acetylcholinesterase | Choline acetyltransferase | Choline kinase | Choline transporter | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
84207d85-73ae-5d2e-b7f6-d567129086e4 | 13. Which of the following is the correct configuration of voltage-gated sodium channels in the repolarization phase immediately after the peak of an action potential? | Activation and inactivation gates both open | Activation gate open, inactivation gate closed | Activation gate closed, inactivation gate open | Activation and inactivation gates both closed | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
dcf08f50-2b5c-5015-9e7c-52537651e43d | Tetanic fade following administration of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers (NMBs) indicates the inhibition of which group of receptors? | Presynaptic nAchR | Postsynaptic nAchR | Presynaptic calcium channels | Postsynaptic calcium channels | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
535013b0-01a0-5c1b-8b85-f1cbf168b3c1 | Potential adverse effects of succinylcholine include all of the following | Myalgia | Aspiration | Increased intraocular pressure | Anaphylaxis | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
b00a3661-34d8-5811-80e6-decf62f79ab7 | Which of the following statements provides the most accurate explanation behind the "faster onset" of rocuronium as compared with cisatracurium? | Rocuronium is less potent. | Rocuronium is more potent. | Rocuronium is ultrashort acting. | Rocuronium is long acting. | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
54cd671a-a918-5966-8fd9-9e18141dfdaf | Which of the following agents belongs to the group of benzylisoquinolinium NMBs? | Rocuronium | Cisatracurium | Vecuronium | Succinylcholine | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
45ac23e4-707d-56b0-8201-2b05c045855c | Compared with its precursor atracurium, what is the main advantage of cisatracurium? | Rapid, organ-independent degradation | Faster onset | Longer duration because of active metabolites | Decreased histamine release | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
1dde24f4-41ab-55a6-94f8-ce1e221ca57e | When a long-duration depolarizing NMB (eg, pancuronium) is added at the end of an intermediate-duration NMB (eg, rocuronium) block, how will the recovery pattern change? | Recovery will be similar to rocuronium. | Recovery will be similar to pancuronium. | Recovery will be synergistically prolonged, significantly longer than pancuronium. | Recovery will be antagonistically shortened, significantly shorter than rocuronium. | 4 | A | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
d44dfadd-73d3-552c-ab86-1d12904f6223 | Compared with the phase I block elicited by succinylcholine, the phase II block has which of the following characteristics? | Same twitch strength with repetitive stimulation | Posttetanic potentiation | Similarity with depolarizing block | Posttetanic depression | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
2f1ba421-ae99-558c-be7e-566bf0016105 | 21. Which statement regarding the phase II block that can be associated with succinylcholine administration is true? | Phase II block occurs only after prolonged exposure to succinylcholine. | Receptor desensitization is a mechanism responsible for phase II block. | Inhalation anesthetics delay the onset of phase II block. | Phase II block results in train-of-four (TOF) fade but not tetanic fade. | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
cf9d4ddd-5e1b-5db8-8650-52ba83021002 | A patient was maintained on a succinylcholine infusion for 8 hours during surgery and does not regain spontaneous ventilation 30 minutes after the infusion was discontinued. TOF yields 1 twitch. Which of the following is the best course of action? | Give neostigmine. | Send pseudocholinesterase activity test. | Give naloxone. | Wait for spontaneous recovery. | 4 | D | 3 | null | null | null | null | null |
c526c925-cd8f-5c88-bca3-39165f2825a0 | Which mechanism best explains the fasciculations often seen preceding a phase I block by succinylcholine? | Activation of presynaptic nAchR | Activation of postsynaptic nAchR | Prolonged muscle depolarization | Prolonged muscle repolarization | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
d96f3a35-db60-5a4d-9888-75438d0b1847 | A patient on succinylcholine infusion has a TOF ratio of 0.3. What does this tell about the patient's degree of paralysis? | Patient is in phase I block. | Patient is in phase II block. | Patient is recovering from block. | Cannot tell from given information. | 4 | B | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
14f86c97-64ee-527f-b8d1-115f76c54b69 | Monitoring the TOF to assess the quality of a neuromuscular blockade offers what advantage over single twitch monitoring? | TOF offers objective assessment of fade. | TOF ratio correlates with the amount of stimulating current applied. | TOF does not require baseline measurement. | TOF is best at detecting the onset of neuromuscular blockade. | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
6132e1c3-39d2-5cbc-ae92-4343884d22dd | When the TOF ratio is 0.7, what portion of the AchRs is still blocked? | 25% | 50% | 75% | 95% | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
4ff0e835-3552-5798-99d3-716a87b78538 | A TOF yields 0 twitch. Repeated 1 Hz stimulation following a 5-second 50 Hz tetanus produces 1 twitch. Assuming the patient was given an intermediateacting NMB, how much time is expected until recovery to TOF twitch count of 1? | 1-2 minutes | 5-10 minutes | 20-30 minutes | >1 hour | 4 | C | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
49ff5b5c-0de7-5f5e-a462-9eca8330aee3 | 28. Compared with TOF, what is an advantage of double-burst stimulation (DBS) for monitoring of neuromuscular blockade? | Easier to detect fade | Does not use tetanic stimuli | Ability to immediately apply a repeat stimulus | Smaller current | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
384a4cb1-5c58-557a-9154-efac08b712a4 | Side effects of neostigmine include all of the following EXCEPT which one? | Salivation | Tachycardia | Nausea/vomiting | Bowel motility | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
c5685d82-1108-5503-827d-4dc7e5bafc47 | How long would a patient with a dibucaine number of 20 be expected to remain paralyzed after an intubating dose of succinylcholine? | 4 minutes | 40 minutes | 4 hours | 4 days | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
5fff6467-2f2a-5947-987f-ded6fcd05c8f | What differentiates Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) from myasthenia gravis? | Patients with LEMS often have autonomic dysfunction. | LEMS results from autoantibodies to the postsynaptic AchRs. | Patients with LEMS feel more proximal than distal weakness. | Patients with LEMS get progressively fatigued with repetitive use of muscles. | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
a0ebfcaf-6d6b-5f94-8aa2-fc2d600700f5 | In patients with myasthenia gravis, which factor best predicts the risk of requiring prolonged intubation and mechanical ventilator support? | Age of illness onset | Involvement of muscle groups | Dosage of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor at home | Circulating autoantibody level | 4 | C | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
a0a13a0b-de7e-519b-bf6a-da9578152d3f | How do patients with myasthenia gravis react to depolarizing NMBs and nondepolarizing NMBs? | Sensitive to depolarizing, but insensitive to nondepolarizing NMBs | Insensitive to depolarizing, but sensitive to nondepolarizing NMBs | Sensitive to both depolarizing and nondepolarizing NMBs | Insensitive to both depolarizing and nondepolarizing NMBs | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
d66fb32e-6a02-565c-bbc9-1957c367b663 | A patient with myasthenia gravis presents with muscle weakness and respiratory failure. What is the best way to differentiate a myasthenia crisis from a cholinergic crisis? | Presence or absence of GI symptoms | Pupillary exam | Tensilon test | Excessive sweating | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
7e29109e-a782-5049-af07-c3951d77a47d | What is the inheritance pattern of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)? | Autosomal dominant | Autosomal recessive | X-linked dominant | X-linked recessive | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
804c4185-0303-5e8e-9415-715cd5536446 | 36. For patients with myotonic dystrophy, prolonged muscle contraction (myotonia) can be triggered by exposure to all of the following agents EXCEPT which one? | Succinylcholine | Rocuronium | Potassium | Neostigmine | 4 | B | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
60aaaed5-4bbe-591d-8ee2-c6e42f405391 | Which intravenous anesthetic agent should be avoided in patients with mitochondrial myopathy? | Propofol | Etomidate | Ketamine | Dexmedetomidine | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
72019bfe-9bec-5f04-9966-4d254d122ea7 | Malignant hyperthermia is a known risk for patients with the following conditions EXCEPT which one? | King Denborough syndrome | Multiminicore disease | Central core disease | Central cord syndrome | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
15d89010-3b34-536b-985a-ec5ab970c575 | Which intravenous fluid should be avoided in patients with mitochondrial disorder? | Normal saline | Lactated Ringer (LR) | Dextrose | Albumin | 4 | B | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
219b7490-11e7-52ad-9ed2-fddf2a75ef8c | Psuedocholinesterase activity is increased in which of the following conditions? | Pregnancy | Liver failure | Obesity | Malignancy | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
6865a162-81ed-58a8-86e5-0b0e240f17a5 | A researcher designs a study examining the relationship between the gender of patients and the development of phantom limb pain. In this example, "gender" is best described as which of the following types of variables? | Continuous | Dichotomous | Ordinal and dichotomous | Nominal and dichotomous | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
3ba83abb-5b8d-5fca-aba7-4518ddc2267e | A researcher designs a study with the purpose of investigating postoperative analgesic and blood pressure effects when acetaminophen was administered preoperatively. One hundred patients are randomized to receive either acetaminophen or a placebo pill. Systolic blood pressure measurements are recorded in each group, both before their operative procedure and postoperatively. What type of statistical test would be best utilized to analyze data for this study? | Paired t-test | Unpaired (Student) t-test | Chi-squared | ANOVA | 4 | A | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
181a188e-7098-51b1-8b8e-2392099efa38 | A researcher designs a study that examines the relationship between red hair and postoperative nausea and vomiting. Which of the following statistical tests | Paired t-test | Unpaired (Student) t-test | Chi-squared | ANOVA | 4 | C | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
493bf095-37ca-5cb0-826e-236fa96be54c | A researcher performs a study comparing the average heart rate of 4 groups of patients receiving different doses of a new β-blocker. Which of the following statistical tests is most appropriate to analyze the data from this study? | Paired t-test | Unpaired (Student) t-test | Chi-squared | ANOVA | 4 | D | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
43e9629d-7887-5cd7-a593-c7dc10db4fce | 5. The probability of a newborn baby developing respiratory distress with a mother who is a smoker is 0.2 What are the odds of a newborn baby developing respiratory distress with a mother who is a smoker ? | 0.1 | 0.25 | 1 | 4 | 4 | B | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
b6164e9e-c81d-5274-9ac6-dc0a43b8de55 | A highly sensitive test is defined as which of the following? | A test that correctly classifies those with the disease | A test that correctly excludes those without the disease | A test that if negative indicates the true absence of the disease | A test that if positive indicates the true presence of the disease | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
57daf25f-78bd-53fa-ab9e-f2f26ceabdb1 | A highly specific test is defined as which of the following? | A test that correctly classifies those with the disease | A test that correctly excludes those without the disease | A test that if negative indicates the true absence of the disease | A test that if positive indicates the true presence of the disease | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
94fc812f-25f7-58be-944f-f046b91db848 | A test with a high positive predictive value (PPV) is defined as which of the following? | A test that correctly classifies those with the disease | A test that correctly excludes those without the disease | A test that if negative indicates the true absence of the disease | A test that if positive indicates the true presence of the disease | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
657083d9-acc2-5152-89ac-ade610bbdf8a | A test with a high negative predictive value is best described as which of the following? | A test that correctly classifies those with the disease | A test that correctly excludes those without the disease | A test that if negative indicates the true absence of the disease | A test that if positive indicates the true presence of the disease | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
4ffab09c-edf4-5368-ad56-9db9b8e799dd | In which type of observational study are subjects chosen and followed over a period to observe the outcome of interest? | Cohort | Case-control studies | Cross-sectional studies | Case series | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
2d85a6e9-3a47-512f-bc13-af62a46e200b | A survey is devised with the intent to compare patient satisfaction and anesthetic type (general or regional anesthesia). This inquiry is best described as which type of study design? | Cohort | Case-control | Cross-sectional | Randomized trial | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
6f50d02f-773e-55fd-8692-2cca1a8e1f13 | 13. A type I error is defined as which of the following? | Incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis | Correctly rejecting the null hypothesis | Incorrectly accepting the null hypothesis | Incorrectly rejecting the alternative hypothesis | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
7f3ada42-e493-56a2-adde-f739e200155e | A study is being designed to examine the impact of a new analgesic on postoperative pain. Patients will be randomized to receive either the new analgesic or placebo, and average postoperative pain scores will be compared in the 2 patient groups. An increase in sample size will be required if which of the following factors is increased? | Standard deviation | α | β | Effect size | 4 | A | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
919dfe3f-395a-5869-9f76-6d1dd2de4395 | The number needed to treat (NNT) is defined as which of the following? | The risk of the outcome in the experimental group | The difference in risk in the treatment and control groups | The number of patients who need to be treated to decrease the adverse outcome by 10% | The number of patients who need to be treated to prevent 1 adverse outcome | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
bf9d10f6-d0b0-5910-b08b-50d8f8cabe71 | An investigator is interested in comparing the differences in survival over time for patients who receive general anesthesia versus regional anesthesia for prostatectomies. Which of the following statistics would be most appropriate to analyze these data? | Relative risk | Hazard ratio (HR) | Odds ratio | Rate ratio | 4 | B | 2 | null | null | null | null | null |
74938152-3c98-56a5-8058-818e5e3b316b | In a randomized control trial, the term "crossover" refers to which of the following? | Patients who drop out of the trial | Patients who do not receive treatment during the course of the trial | Patients who receive a sequence of different treatments during the trial | Patients who do not end up receiving an assigned treatment and instead are enrolled in another randomized control trial | 4 | C | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
a9f0e0eb-75b2-5474-9228-eea3d0abe091 | In a single-blinded randomized control trial, the individuals being blinded to receiving treatment are which of the following? | Subjects only | Investigators only | Statistician only | Subjects and investigators | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
b47851e4-ca76-5490-8f40-990b97328344 | 20. In statistical tests the P-value is defined as which of the following? | The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis | The probability of obtaining a test statistic value equal to or more extreme than the actual test statistics given the null hypothesis is true | The probability of accepting the null hypothesis | The probability of obtaining a test statistic value less extreme than the test statistics given the null hypothesis is true | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
3de2842f-5ac4-5fe7-bcc4-5f8304c7d626 | You perform thromboelastography for your hemorrhaging patient who has sustained massive abdominal trauma and it reveals a prolonged R time. Which of the following is an appropriate initial therapy to manage the patient's suspected coagulopathy? | Platelets | Fresh frozen plasma | Tranexamic acid | Cryoprecipitate | 5 | B | 2 | Packed red blood cells | null | null | null | null |
11fa4608-471d-56ec-adbd-49a7be88dbcd | A 26-year-old patient with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura and a platelet count of 51 000 per microliter is scheduled for urgent appendectomy. Which thromboelastographic parameter do you expect to be altered in this patient? | Reaction (R) time | Kinetic (K) time | α angle | Maximum amplitude (MA) | 5 | D | 2 | Fibrinolysis (F) | null | null | null | null |
965eb423-d717-5a3f-91c1-867a7a438ed2 | 4. TEG is performed and reveals an increased R time and decreased MA. These abnormalities are most suggestive of which of the following coagulation deficits? | Decreased platelets | Decreased clotting factors | Decreased fibrinogen | Increased fibrinolysis | 5 | E | 2 | Both decreased platelets and decreased clotting factors | null | null | null | null |
0555dcfb-033b-5416-9bcd-24184aec7bdc | A patient is receiving blood product transfusions after undergoing aortic valve replacement. Despite the transfusions, the surgeons still note that their field is very "oozy." TEG is performed, which reveals a decreased α angle. Which blood product should be administered next? | Platelets | Fresh frozen plasma | Tranexamic acid | Cryoprecipitate | 5 | D | 3 | Packed red blood cells | null | null | null | null |
2624a1d4-49ee-5f04-b0ff-645760f589c9 | The complication rate (vascular complications and nerve injuries) associated with insertion of arterial lines closest to which of the following? | 3-18 per 10 patients | 3-18 per 100 patients | 3-18 per 1000 patients | 3-18 per 10 000 patients | 5 | D | 1 | 3-18 per 100 000 patients | null | null | null | null |
16c7afba-a36c-5819-8ac1-baa73775e6b7 | Which nerve is at greatest risk of suffering an injury during arterial catheter insertion into the brachial artery? | Median nerve | Radial nerve | Ulnar nerve | Musculocutaneous nerve | 5 | A | 1 | Axillary nerve | null | null | null | null |
1fb3db44-d115-5ca7-9577-e5f3f9612bf5 | A "flush test" is performed to assess damping of an arterial line pressuremonitoring system. A system with an appropriate dynamic response will have which of the following responses to rapid flushing? | One large oscillation before a return to baseline | One large and 1 small oscillation before a return to baseline | One large and 3 small oscillations before a return to baseline | Several large and several small oscillations before a return to baseline | 5 | B | 1 | A square wave | null | null | null | null |
2f4afaab-46a5-50c2-bcf9-b9f8f003e942 | Which of the following is most likely to produce underdamping in an arterial pressure monitoring system? | Excessive tubing length | Bubbles in the tubing system | Kink in the arterial catheter | Thrombus at the tip of the arterial catheter | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
81a96f64-4cb6-5100-9460-690ca5c1eab3 | 10. How does the systolic pressure measured in the dorsalis pedis artery differ from that measured in the aorta? | 5 mm Hg lower than the aorta | 5 mm Hg higher than the aorta | 20 mm Hg higher than the aorta | 20 mm Hg lower than the aorta | 5 | C | 1 | The same systolic pressure as the aorta | null | null | null | null |
849f9a29-8bc5-5ee2-8488-05fe97e4c009 | Which component of a central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is most likely to be absent in a patient with a junctional rhythm? | a-wave | x-descent | c-wave | Diastole descent | 5 | A | 2 | v-wave | null | null | null | null |
2e6a9c77-7105-5cef-8b1c-900293a231cf | A patient with severe tricuspid regurgitation would be expected to have which of the following CVP tracing abnormalities? | Cannon a-wave | Tall c-v wave, diastole | Exaggerated x-descent | Exaggerated y-descent | 4 | B | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
cd453c90-5e98-5387-ba45-c4a2835c893d | Where is the right internal jugular vein typically located in relation to the right carotid artery in the lower neck? | Posterior and medial | Anterior and medial | Posterior and lateral | Anterior and lateral | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
ad58e752-361a-5439-83a3-bf2136e6964b | For insertion of a peripherally inserted central catheter, which vein is preferred, matched with its anatomical location? | Cephalic vein, lateral | Cephalic vein, medial | Basilic vein, lateral | Basilic vein, medial | 4 | D | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
9afc5c67-415c-598c-8e8e-4aed27c060cb | Which of the following is the most common cause of death associated with iatrogenic pulmonary artery rupture (PAR)? | Anoxia | Hemorrhagic shock | Cardiac tamponade | Myocardial infarction | 4 | A | 1 | null | null | null | null | null |
96139dc6-342c-5a5b-bbc0-f4840d343ab8 | 17. A 65-kg patient is receiving volume-controlled ventilation with a tidal volume of 400 mL and frequency of 14 breaths per minute. The measured peak airway pressure is 18 cm H2O, with a plateau pressure of 12 cm H2O, and the PEEP is 2 cm H2O. What is the static compliance of the patient's lung compliance? | 40 mL/cm H2O | 67 mL/cm H2O | 25 mL/cm H2O | 25 cm H2O/L | 6 | A | 2 | 15 cm H2O/L | 40 cm H2O/L | null | null | null |
31e53e79-ac63-5544-92f0-5f2ce511382c | For a euvolemic patient with normal lung compliance and cardiac function, delivery of positive pressure ventilation (PPV) would be most likely to have which of the following hemodynamic effects? | Decreased preload, decreased afterload, and increased cardiac output | Decreased preload, increased afterload, and decreased cardiac output | Decreased preload, increased afterload, and increased cardiac output | Increased preload, decreased afterload, and decreased cardiac output | 6 | A | 3 | Increased preload, decreased afterload, and increased cardiac output | Increased preload, increased afterload, and decreased cardiac output | null | null | null |
2b38ad39-1833-5b4c-8814-79704fafd75b | 21. A patient is breathing steadily at a minute ventilation of 10 L/min while receiving supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at a rate of 6 L/min. What is the approximate FiO2 delivered to the patient during inspiration? | 0.15-0.21 | 0.21-0.28 | 0.28-0.38 | 0.38-0.46 | 5 | D | 2 | 0.46-0.52 | null | null | null | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.