MrMaxMind99/medmcqa · Datasets at Hugging Face

problem stringlengths 66 960	correct_option stringclasses 4 values	opa stringlengths 1 89	opb stringlengths 1 127	opc stringlengths 1 93	opd stringlengths 1 109
Blow-out fracture of orbit is characterized by all except: Options: A) Diplopia B) Tear drop" sign C) Positive forced duction test D) Exophthalmos	D	Diplopia	Tear drop" sign	Positive forced duction test	Exophthalmos
Patient with pelvic fracture presents with anuria. After 24 hrs bladder is not palpable. Possible diagnosis includes:a) Bulbar urethral injuryb) Posterior urethral injuryc) Extraperitoneal rupture of bladderd) Intraperitoneal rupture of bladder Options: A) ab B) bc C) bd D) cd	D	ab	bc	bd	cd
Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis will have all of the following features, except ? Options: A) Microscopic haematuria B) Raised blood urea level C) Raised serum creatinine level D) Hypoalbuminaemia	D	Microscopic haematuria	Raised blood urea level	Raised serum creatinine level	Hypoalbuminaemia
Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation is Options: A) 2, 4-DNP B) BAL C) TTFA D) Rotenone	A	2, 4-DNP	BAL	TTFA	Rotenone
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides - Options: A) Levobunolol B) Bimatoprost C) Brinzolamide D) Brimonidine	C	Levobunolol	Bimatoprost	Brinzolamide	Brimonidine
All are causes of Antepaum hemorrhage (APH) except : Options: A) Placenta pre B) Abruptio placenta C) Circumvallate placenta D) Battledore placenta	D	Placenta pre	Abruptio placenta	Circumvallate placenta	Battledore placenta
In which of the following cancer screening is least useful? Options: A) Breast B) Cervix C) Colo rectal cancer D) Lung	D	Breast	Cervix	Colo rectal cancer	Lung
Left Kidney is preferred for transplantation because Options: A) Longer renal Vein B) Higher location C) Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations D) To prevent damage to liver	A	Longer renal Vein	Higher location	Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations	To prevent damage to liver
Soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, the treatment of choice is: Options: A) Local excision B) Excision and bone grafting C) Amputation D) Radiotherapy	B	Local excision	Excision and bone grafting	Amputation	Radiotherapy
Spalding 'sign' occurs because of: Options: A) Mummification B) Maceration C) Hanging D) Drowning	B	Mummification	Maceration	Hanging	Drowning
Buccolingual positioning of mandibular Canal can be assessed by: Options: A) Horizontal 0 and -20 degree. B) Horizontal 0 and -15 degree. C) Vertical 0 and -20 degree. D) Vertical 0 and -15 degree.	C	Horizontal 0 and -20 degree.	Horizontal 0 and -15 degree.	Vertical 0 and -20 degree.	Vertical 0 and -15 degree.
In the mitogen activated protein kinase pathway, the activation of RAS is counteracted by- Options: A) Protein kinase C B) GTPase activating protein C) Phosphatidylinositol D) Inositol triphosphate	B	Protein kinase C	GTPase activating protein	Phosphatidylinositol	Inositol triphosphate
At 30 days of intrauterine life Options: A) Hea stas beating B) Cerebellum develops C) Optical vesicle appears D) Pinna appears	C	Hea stas beating	Cerebellum develops	Optical vesicle appears	Pinna appears
Commonest cause of non traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage Options: A) Idiopathic B) Berry aneurysm rupture C) Hypertension D) AV malformation	B	Idiopathic	Berry aneurysm rupture	Hypertension	AV malformation
The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is: Options: A) Tetracyclines B) Polypeptide antibiotics C) Fluoroquinolones D) Macrolides	D	Tetracyclines	Polypeptide antibiotics	Fluoroquinolones	Macrolides
Which of the following most commonly cause intraorbital metastasis in female : Options: A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Ovarian cancer D) Endometrial cancer	A	Breast cancer	Cervical cancer	Ovarian cancer	Endometrial cancer
Raynaud's phenomenon what change is seen in vessels initial stage - Options: A) No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis) B) Thrombosis C) Fibrinoid necrosis D) Hyaline sclerosis	A	No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis)	Thrombosis	Fibrinoid necrosis	Hyaline sclerosis
The most common malignancy that produces ichthyosis? Options: A) Hodgkin's disease B) Mycosis fungoides C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) Carcinoma breast	A	Hodgkin's disease	Mycosis fungoides	Kaposi's sarcoma	Carcinoma breast
A 4-year-old male child presents with fever, anemia and azotemia after an episode of dysentery 9 days earlier. The commonest organism responsible for this condition is? Options: A) Meningococcus B) E.coli C) E. histolytica D) Staphylococcus	B	Meningococcus	E.coli	E. histolytica	Staphylococcus
To create a porto-caval shunt in a patient with portal hypertension, which of the following venous anastomosis should be performed? Options: A) Superior mesenteric vein to inferior mesenteric vein B) Right gastric vein to left gastric vein C) Right gastric vein to right gastric vein D) Left splenic vein to left renal vein	D	Superior mesenteric vein to inferior mesenteric vein	Right gastric vein to left gastric vein	Right gastric vein to right gastric vein	Left splenic vein to left renal vein
All are the pharmacologic therapeutic options for achalasia, EXCEPT: Options: A) Nitrates B) Beta blockers C) Botulinum toxin D) Sildenafil	B	Nitrates	Beta blockers	Botulinum toxin	Sildenafil
Presence of Epstein Barr virus in hairy Leukoplakia can be demonstrated using following methods EXCEPT - Options: A) Tzanck smear B) Polymerase chain reaction C) In situ hybridization D) Electron microscopy	A	Tzanck smear	Polymerase chain reaction	In situ hybridization	Electron microscopy
Deficiency of enzyme in Tay–Sack disease – Options: A) Galactosidase B) Hexosaminidase C) Acid lipase D) Glucosidase	B	Galactosidase	Hexosaminidase	Acid lipase	Glucosidase
Artery palpable at the anterior border of masseter is _________ artery Options: A) Maxillary B) Facial C) Lingual D) Superficial temporal	B	Maxillary	Facial	Lingual	Superficial temporal
Translation occurs in : Options: A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Cytoplasm	A	Ribosomes	Mitochondria	Nucleus	Cytoplasm
For every 10-degree Celsius raise in the temperature, the rate of most of the enzymatic reactions: Options: A) Halves B) Doubles C) Quadruples D) Increases 10-fold	B	Halves	Doubles	Quadruples	Increases 10-fold
Profuse expectoration of two months durations and clubbing may be seen - Options: A) Sarcoidosis B) Polyarteritis nodosa C) Pulmonary artery hypertension D) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis	D	Sarcoidosis	Polyarteritis nodosa	Pulmonary artery hypertension	Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
An example of a tumour suppressor gene is- Options: A) Myc B) Fos C) Ras D) RB	D	Myc	Fos	Ras	RB
MC comp. of talus is Options: A) Avascular necrosis B) Non union C) Osteoahritis of ankle joint. D) Osteoahritis of subtalar joint.	A	Avascular necrosis	Non union	Osteoahritis of ankle joint.	Osteoahritis of subtalar joint.
A fifty-year-old man, presents to his local physician complaining that he often feels as if the room is spinning when he gets up from a recumbent position or turns his head. He has not lost consciousness and has had no chest pain. He has no cardiac history and a recent treadmill test showed no abnormalities. On examination, the sensation can be produced by rapidly turning the head. It can be reproduced many times, but it eventually ceases. Nystagmus is elicited. Hearing is normal. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for this patient's symptoms? Options: A) Aberrant stimulation of hair cells B) Hair cell death in the semicircular canals C) Insufficient cardiac output D) Insufficient cerebral perfusion	A	Aberrant stimulation of hair cells	Hair cell death in the semicircular canals	Insufficient cardiac output	Insufficient cerebral perfusion
Which of the following method of protein separation is not dependent on molecular size ? Options: A) Gel filtration chromatography B) Ultracentrifugation C) Ion-exchange chromatography D) SDS-PAGE	C	Gel filtration chromatography	Ultracentrifugation	Ion-exchange chromatography	SDS-PAGE
Haemopoietic malignancy is seen in Options: A) HTLV -1 B) EBV C) Parvo B19 D) HHV - 8	A	HTLV -1	EBV	Parvo B19	HHV - 8
Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these histological changes? Options: A) Antigen stimulation B) Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue C) Tumour transformation D) Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue	A	Antigen stimulation	Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue	Tumour transformation	Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue
Painless burn in hand is seen in: Options: A) SLE B) Syringomyelia C) Mononeuritis multiplex D) Diabetes mellitus	B	SLE	Syringomyelia	Mononeuritis multiplex	Diabetes mellitus
A 6 year old mentally retarded male patient presents with hepatosplenomegaly, coarse facial features, corneal clouding, large tongue, prominent forehead, joint stiffness, short stature and skeletal dysplasia. What is the diagnosis? Options: A) Hurler’s Disease B) Hunter Disease C) Natowicz syndrome D) Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome	A	Hurler’s Disease	Hunter Disease	Natowicz syndrome	Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome
This is a paramyxovirus and causes the syndrome known as croup. Options: A) Measles virus B) Influenza virus C) Respiratory syncytial virus D) Parainfluenza virus	D	Measles virus	Influenza virus	Respiratory syncytial virus	Parainfluenza virus
A young female on antidepressants presents to the emergency with altered sensorium and hypotension, ECG reveals wide QRS complexes and right axis deviation. Next best step for the management of this patient: Options: A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Hemodialysis C) Fomepizole D) Flumazenil	A	Sodium bicarbonate	Hemodialysis	Fomepizole	Flumazenil
Eednaton agent is: Options: A) Corynebacterium B) Pseudomonas C) Mycoplasma D) Gonococcus	C	Corynebacterium	Pseudomonas	Mycoplasma	Gonococcus
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen in myasthenia gravis? Options: A) Type 1 hypersensitivty reaction B) Type 2 hypersensitivty reaction C) Type 3 hypersensitivty reaction D) Type 4 hypersensitivty reaction	B	Type 1 hypersensitivty reaction	Type 2 hypersensitivty reaction	Type 3 hypersensitivty reaction	Type 4 hypersensitivty reaction
Limey bile is Options: A) Present in the CBD B) Thin and clear C) Like toothpaste emulsion in the gallbladder D) Bacteria rich	C	Present in the CBD	Thin and clear	Like toothpaste emulsion in the gallbladder	Bacteria rich
A 5 year lod child is assessed to have developmental age of one year. His developmental patient would be Options: A) 100 B) 80 C) 20 D) 60	C	100	80	20	60
Which is NOT a documentation test for ovulation in women of reproductive age? Options: A) Fern test B) Basal body temperature C) Hysteroscopy D) LH surge	C	Fern test	Basal body temperature	Hysteroscopy	LH surge
A 15-year-old female was referred to an oral surgeon for extraction of an impacted tooth 23, which is located in area apical to teeth 22 and 24, which was found on routine X-rays. How would the oral surgeon decide as to where the impacted tooth lay with respect to being either buccal or palatal to teeth 22 and 24? Options: A) Waters view B) Use of panoramic radiograph C) Application of the SLOB rule D) Lateral head radiograph	C	Waters view	Use of panoramic radiograph	Application of the SLOB rule	Lateral head radiograph
Recurrent toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis, all are true except: Options: A) Manifests at an average age of 25 years B) The infestation is acquired by eating the undercooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite C) Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar D) There may be associated iritis	B	Manifests at an average age of 25 years	The infestation is acquired by eating the undercooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite	Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar	There may be associated iritis
All of the following statements about angiotensin II are TRUE, EXCEPT: Options: A) Autoregulation of GFR B) Release aldosrerone C) Secreted from endothelium D) Constriction of afferent aeriole	C	Autoregulation of GFR	Release aldosrerone	Secreted from endothelium	Constriction of afferent aeriole
All of the following drugs are used in prophylaxis of migraine except Options: A) Propanolol B) Flunarizine C) Tapiramate D) Levetiracetam	D	Propanolol	Flunarizine	Tapiramate	Levetiracetam
In psychiatry, personal history does not include: Options: A) Food preference B) Academic history C) Occupational history D) Marital history	A	Food preference	Academic history	Occupational history	Marital history
Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA does not require Options: A) Thiamine B) TPP C) Pyridoxine D) FAD	C	Thiamine	TPP	Pyridoxine	FAD
Which waves is predominantly seen in EEG with eyes closed in normal alert adult? Options: A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Theta waves D) Delta waves	A	Alpha waves	Beta waves	Theta waves	Delta waves
Embgryological development of the human vertebra is from - Options: A) Somite B) Endoderm C) Ectoderm D) None	A	Somite	Endoderm	Ectoderm	None
Surfactant is made up of which of the following: Options: A) Degradable products B) Mucoprotein C) Fibrinogen D) Phospholipid	D	Degradable products	Mucoprotein	Fibrinogen	Phospholipid
False about gallstone ileus Options: A) 90% patients give history of biliary disease B) Causes 1% of all SBO ; around 25% cases in >70 years C) Tumbling obstruction D) Fistula is mostly formed between duodenum and gallbladder	A	90% patients give history of biliary disease	Causes 1% of all SBO ; around 25% cases in >70 years	Tumbling obstruction	Fistula is mostly formed between duodenum and gallbladder
Failure of rupture of bucconasal membrane leads to? Options: A) Choanal atresia B) Rhinophyma C) Crooked nose D) Epistaxis	A	Choanal atresia	Rhinophyma	Crooked nose	Epistaxis
Viruses causing hearing loss are all except - Options: A) Measles B) Mumps C) Rubella D) Rota virus	D	Measles	Mumps	Rubella	Rota virus
All of the following are true about development EXCEPT? Options: A) Development is a continuous process B) Depends on functional maturation of nervous system C) Ceain primitive reflexes have to be lost before relevant milestones attained D) Limb control precedes trunk and head control	D	Development is a continuous process	Depends on functional maturation of nervous system	Ceain primitive reflexes have to be lost before relevant milestones attained	Limb control precedes trunk and head control
Which among the following is/are pure beta emitter(s) : Options: A) I-131 B) Samarium C) Radium-226 D) Phosphorus-32	D	I-131	Samarium	Radium-226	Phosphorus-32
During first, 3-4 month of gestation erythrocytes are formed by Options: A) Yolk sac B) Liver C) Spleen D) Bone marrow	A	Yolk sac	Liver	Spleen	Bone marrow
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for Options: A) Breast carcinoma B) Penile cacinoma C) Retroperitoneal sarcoma D) Hepatic carcinoma	A	Breast carcinoma	Penile cacinoma	Retroperitoneal sarcoma	Hepatic carcinoma
A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, pulseless left lower extremity. He complains of left leg paresthesia and is unable to dorsiflex his toes. Following a successful popliteal embolectomy, with restoration of palpable pedal pulses, the patient is still unable to dorsi- flex his toes. The next step in management should be Options: A) Electromyography (EMG) B) Measurement of anterior compartment pressure C) Elevation of the left leg D) Immediate fasciotomy	D	Electromyography (EMG)	Measurement of anterior compartment pressure	Elevation of the left leg	Immediate fasciotomy
Sulphur granules in actinomycosis consist of ? Options: A) Monophils + neutrophils B) Monophils + lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Bacterial particles	D	Monophils + neutrophils	Monophils + lymphocytes	Eosinophils	Bacterial particles
The following are function of restriction endonuclease, EXCEPT: Options: A) Cut both the strands of double stranded DNA B) The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are sticky C) The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are blunt D) It is non specific to base pairs	D	Cut both the strands of double stranded DNA	The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are sticky	The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are blunt	It is non specific to base pairs
Best treatment of subdural haemotoma in a deteriorating patient- Options: A) By UV Mannitol B) Oxygenation C) Use of steroids D) Surgical evacuation	D	By UV Mannitol	Oxygenation	Use of steroids	Surgical evacuation
Increased cardiac oxygen demand is caused by – Options: A) Ketamine B) Nitrous oxide C) Thiopentone D) Halothane	A	Ketamine	Nitrous oxide	Thiopentone	Halothane
"Calcinosis universalis" is due to Options: A) Dystrophic calcification B) Idiopathic calcification C) Metastatic calcification D) Benign calcification	B	Dystrophic calcification	Idiopathic calcification	Metastatic calcification	Benign calcification
Preservation of brain is not required in - Options: A) Alkaloid poisoning B) Organophosphorus poisoning C) Volatile organic poisoning D) Heavy metal poisoning	D	Alkaloid poisoning	Organophosphorus poisoning	Volatile organic poisoning	Heavy metal poisoning
The following are contraindicated in renal failure except: Options: A) Pancuronium B) Pethidine C) Enflurane D) Midazolam	D	Pancuronium	Pethidine	Enflurane	Midazolam
Which among the following is the MOST common site of salivary gland calculi formation? Options: A) Parotid B) Submandibular C) Sublingual D) Minor salivary glands	B	Parotid	Submandibular	Sublingual	Minor salivary glands
The maximum number of death in children occur in following age group Options: A) 2-5 years B) 1-2 years C) first 7 days D) 6 months - 12 months	C	2-5 years	1-2 years	first 7 days	6 months - 12 months
Shortest diameter of pelvic outlet: Options: A) Antero-posterior B) Inter tuberous C) Oblique D) Inter-spinous	B	Antero-posterior	Inter tuberous	Oblique	Inter-spinous
False about Kerley's A lines Options: A) Lines are 2-6 cm in length B) These are found in mid and upper zones C) These are due to thick interlobar septa D) Transverse lines at lung base perpendicular to pleura	D	Lines are 2-6 cm in length	These are found in mid and upper zones	These are due to thick interlobar septa	Transverse lines at lung base perpendicular to pleura
Ampicillin prophylaxis is given in - Options: A) Rectal surgery B) Splenectomy C) Head and neck surgery D) Biliary surgery	A	Rectal surgery	Splenectomy	Head and neck surgery	Biliary surgery
All are causes of Pulmonary Infiltrates with Eosinophilia with known etiology, EXCEPT: Options: A) Allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis B) Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome C) Parasitic infestations D) Loeffler's syndrome	D	Allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis	Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome	Parasitic infestations	Loeffler's syndrome
Which of the following abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa: Options: A) Thiamine B) Carbidopa C) Pyridoxine D) Benserazide	C	Thiamine	Carbidopa	Pyridoxine	Benserazide
Anakinra is a - Options: A) IL - 1 antagonist B) IL - 2 antagonist C) IL - 6 antagonist D) IL - 10 antagonist	A	IL - 1 antagonist	IL - 2 antagonist	IL - 6 antagonist	IL - 10 antagonist
Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent? Options: A) Neurosurgery B) Day care surgery C) Patients with coronary artery disease D) In neonates	B	Neurosurgery	Day care surgery	Patients with coronary artery disease	In neonates
Enteropathy type T cell lymphoma is associated with - Options: A) M.A.L. Toma B) Celiac Sprue C) Menetrier disease D) Crohn's disease	B	M.A.L. Toma	Celiac Sprue	Menetrier disease	Crohn's disease
Skin grafting is not contraindicated in? Options: A) Streptococcus B) Seroma C) Wound edges are well approximated D) Cellulitis	C	Streptococcus	Seroma	Wound edges are well approximated	Cellulitis
A male with azoospermia found to have normal FSH & testosteron levels & normal size testes. Probable cause is Options: A) Vas obstruction B) Kaltman syndrome C) Undescended testis D) Klinefeltor's syndrome	A	Vas obstruction	Kaltman syndrome	Undescended testis	Klinefeltor's syndrome
Which of the following is not given in ophthalmia neonatorum – Options: A) Erythromycin locally B) Tetracycline 1% C) Penicillin locally D) Silver nitrate	D	Erythromycin locally	Tetracycline 1%	Penicillin locally	Silver nitrate
Changes in the gingiva during pregnancy are attributed to Options: A) Changes in the hormonal level B) Altered microorganisms C) Altered immunological responses level D) All the above	A	Changes in the hormonal level	Altered microorganisms	Altered immunological responses level	All the above
How long should a palatal crib should be worn by a patient being extracted for thumb sucking habit Options: A) One week B) One month C) Three months D) Six months or longer	D	One week	One month	Three months	Six months or longer
Common bile duct stones will manifest all except - Options: A) Distended gall bladder B) Jaundice C) Itching D) Clay coloured stools	A	Distended gall bladder	Jaundice	Itching	Clay coloured stools
A newborn with respiratory distress was noted to have marked nasal flaring, audible grunting, minimal intercostal chest retarction. The respiratory rate was 30/min. The Silverman score of this child would be? NOT RELATED- MEDICINE Options: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6	D	1	2	3	6
Which papillae are completely keratinized Options: A) Fungiform B) Filiform C) Circumvallate D) Foliate	B	Fungiform	Filiform	Circumvallate	Foliate
True about hepatitis with HCV is: Options: A) Present with fulminant liver failure B) Chronicity is not seen C) Genotyping helps in treatment duration D) Feco/oral transmission	C	Present with fulminant liver failure	Chronicity is not seen	Genotyping helps in treatment duration	Feco/oral transmission
Bence jones proteins are - Options: A) Heavy chain IgG B) Present in bone marrow C) Seen in lymphoma D) Light chain IgG	D	Heavy chain IgG	Present in bone marrow	Seen in lymphoma	Light chain IgG
Orientia Tsutsugamushi causes: Options: A) Epidemic typhus B) Endemic typhus C) Scrub typhus D) Q fever	C	Epidemic typhus	Endemic typhus	Scrub typhus	Q fever
Which of the following is not a point mutation- Options: A) Silent mutation B) Nonsense mutation C) Frame shift mutation D) Mis-sense mutation	C	Silent mutation	Nonsense mutation	Frame shift mutation	Mis-sense mutation
Grey Turner's sign in seen in: March 2005 Options: A) Acute appendicitis B) Acute pancreatitis C) Acute cholecystitis D) Acute hepatitis	B	Acute appendicitis	Acute pancreatitis	Acute cholecystitis	Acute hepatitis
A 43-year-old man sustains a fracture of the tibia. There are no neurologic or muscular lesions noted on careful examination. An above-knee cast is applied. After 6 weeks, the plaster is removed. It is noted that he has a foot drop and is unable to extend his ankle because of pressure injury to which of the following? Options: A) Posterior tibial nerve B) Saphenous nerve C) Femoral nerve D) Deep fibula (peroneal) nerve	D	Posterior tibial nerve	Saphenous nerve	Femoral nerve	Deep fibula (peroneal) nerve
Which of the following is a capnophilic bacteria? Options: A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Haemophilus influenzae	D	Staphylococcus aureus	Mycobacterium	Clostridium	Haemophilus influenzae
Cereals are rich in which amino acid ? Options: A) Lysine B) Threonine C) Tiyptophan D) Methionine	D	Lysine	Threonine	Tiyptophan	Methionine
Which toxin acts by ADP ribosylation- Options: A) Botulinum toxin B) Shiga toxin C) V.cholerae toxin D) All	C	Botulinum toxin	Shiga toxin	V.cholerae toxin	All
IFN-a and IFN-b are produced by the virus-infected cell due to the interaction of virus nucleic acid with which of the following? Options: A) C3 (third component of complement) B) Defensins C) TLR pathway D) IL-12	C	C3 (third component of complement)	Defensins	TLR pathway	IL-12
Tumor appears at the earliest after birth. Options: A) Cystic hygroma B) Branchial cyst C) Lymphoma D) Sternomastoid tumor	A	Cystic hygroma	Branchial cyst	Lymphoma	Sternomastoid tumor
Saponification means hydrolysis of fats by Options: A) Acid B) Alkali C) Water D) Enzymes	B	Acid	Alkali	Water	Enzymes
A 20-year-old young girl, presents with history of rapidly developing hirsutism and amenorrhea with change in voice. To establish a diagnosis you would like to proceed with which of the following tests in blood: Options: A) 17 OH progesterone B) DHEA C) Testosterone D) LH + FSH estimation	C	17 OH progesterone	DHEA	Testosterone	LH + FSH estimation
Vitamin not deficient in celiac disease is? Options: A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin B 12 C) Folic acid D) Vitamin A	C	Vitamin D	Vitamin B 12	Folic acid	Vitamin A
An elderly male presented with uncontrolled hypertension and sign of renal failure on biopsy shows medial thickening of arteries with onion skin appearance is diagnostic of? Options: A) Thrombo-angioobliterans B) Arteriosclerosis obliterans C) Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis D) Hyaline arteriosclerosis	C	Thrombo-angioobliterans	Arteriosclerosis obliterans	Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis	Hyaline arteriosclerosis
Which of the following is not a feature of Syndenham's chorea? Options: A) Hypotonia B) Unintelligible speech C) Emotional lability D) Seizures	D	Hypotonia	Unintelligible speech	Emotional lability	Seizures

Blow-out fracture of orbit is characterized by all except: Options: A) Diplopia B) Tear drop" sign C) Positive forced duction test D) Exophthalmos

D

Diplopia

Tear drop" sign

Positive forced duction test

Exophthalmos

Patient with pelvic fracture presents with anuria. After 24 hrs bladder is not palpable. Possible diagnosis includes:a) Bulbar urethral injuryb) Posterior urethral injuryc) Extraperitoneal rupture of bladderd) Intraperitoneal rupture of bladder Options: A) ab B) bc C) bd D) cd

D

ab

bc

bd

cd

Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis will have all of the following features, except ? Options: A) Microscopic haematuria B) Raised blood urea level C) Raised serum creatinine level D) Hypoalbuminaemia

D

Microscopic haematuria

Raised blood urea level

Raised serum creatinine level

Hypoalbuminaemia

Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation is Options: A) 2, 4-DNP B) BAL C) TTFA D) Rotenone

A

2, 4-DNP

BAL

TTFA

Rotenone

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides - Options: A) Levobunolol B) Bimatoprost C) Brinzolamide D) Brimonidine

C

Levobunolol

Bimatoprost

Brinzolamide

Brimonidine

All are causes of Antepaum hemorrhage (APH) except : Options: A) Placenta pre B) Abruptio placenta C) Circumvallate placenta D) Battledore placenta

D

Placenta pre

Abruptio placenta

Circumvallate placenta

Battledore placenta

In which of the following cancer screening is least useful? Options: A) Breast B) Cervix C) Colo rectal cancer D) Lung

D

Breast

Cervix

Colo rectal cancer

Lung

Left Kidney is preferred for transplantation because Options: A) Longer renal Vein B) Higher location C) Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations D) To prevent damage to liver

A

Longer renal Vein

Higher location

Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations

To prevent damage to liver

Soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, the treatment of choice is: Options: A) Local excision B) Excision and bone grafting C) Amputation D) Radiotherapy

B

Local excision

Excision and bone grafting

Amputation

Radiotherapy

Spalding 'sign' occurs because of: Options: A) Mummification B) Maceration C) Hanging D) Drowning

B

Mummification

Maceration

Hanging

Drowning

Buccolingual positioning of mandibular Canal can be assessed by: Options: A) Horizontal 0 and -20 degree. B) Horizontal 0 and -15 degree. C) Vertical 0 and -20 degree. D) Vertical 0 and -15 degree.

C

Horizontal 0 and -20 degree.

Horizontal 0 and -15 degree.

Vertical 0 and -20 degree.

Vertical 0 and -15 degree.

In the mitogen activated protein kinase pathway, the activation of RAS is counteracted by- Options: A) Protein kinase C B) GTPase activating protein C) Phosphatidylinositol D) Inositol triphosphate

B

Protein kinase C

GTPase activating protein

Phosphatidylinositol

Inositol triphosphate

At 30 days of intrauterine life Options: A) Hea stas beating B) Cerebellum develops C) Optical vesicle appears D) Pinna appears

C

Hea stas beating

Cerebellum develops

Optical vesicle appears

Pinna appears

Commonest cause of non traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage Options: A) Idiopathic B) Berry aneurysm rupture C) Hypertension D) AV malformation

B

Idiopathic

Berry aneurysm rupture

Hypertension

AV malformation

The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is: Options: A) Tetracyclines B) Polypeptide antibiotics C) Fluoroquinolones D) Macrolides

D

Tetracyclines

Polypeptide antibiotics

Fluoroquinolones

Macrolides

Which of the following most commonly cause intraorbital metastasis in female : Options: A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Ovarian cancer D) Endometrial cancer

A

Breast cancer

Cervical cancer

Ovarian cancer

Endometrial cancer

Raynaud's phenomenon what change is seen in vessels initial stage - Options: A) No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis) B) Thrombosis C) Fibrinoid necrosis D) Hyaline sclerosis

A

No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis)

Thrombosis

Fibrinoid necrosis

Hyaline sclerosis

The most common malignancy that produces ichthyosis? Options: A) Hodgkin's disease B) Mycosis fungoides C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) Carcinoma breast

A

Hodgkin's disease

Mycosis fungoides

Kaposi's sarcoma

Carcinoma breast

A 4-year-old male child presents with fever, anemia and azotemia after an episode of dysentery 9 days earlier. The commonest organism responsible for this condition is? Options: A) Meningococcus B) E.coli C) E. histolytica D) Staphylococcus

B

Meningococcus

E.coli

E. histolytica

Staphylococcus

To create a porto-caval shunt in a patient with portal hypertension, which of the following venous anastomosis should be performed? Options: A) Superior mesenteric vein to inferior mesenteric vein B) Right gastric vein to left gastric vein C) Right gastric vein to right gastric vein D) Left splenic vein to left renal vein

D

Superior mesenteric vein to inferior mesenteric vein

Right gastric vein to left gastric vein

Right gastric vein to right gastric vein

Left splenic vein to left renal vein

All are the pharmacologic therapeutic options for achalasia, EXCEPT: Options: A) Nitrates B) Beta blockers C) Botulinum toxin D) Sildenafil

B

Nitrates

Beta blockers

Botulinum toxin

Sildenafil

Presence of Epstein Barr virus in hairy Leukoplakia can be demonstrated using following methods EXCEPT - Options: A) Tzanck smear B) Polymerase chain reaction C) In situ hybridization D) Electron microscopy

A

Tzanck smear

Polymerase chain reaction

In situ hybridization

Electron microscopy

Deficiency of enzyme in Tay–Sack disease – Options: A) Galactosidase B) Hexosaminidase C) Acid lipase D) Glucosidase

B

Galactosidase

Hexosaminidase

Acid lipase

Glucosidase

Artery palpable at the anterior border of masseter is _________ artery Options: A) Maxillary B) Facial C) Lingual D) Superficial temporal

B

Maxillary

Facial

Lingual

Superficial temporal

Translation occurs in : Options: A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Cytoplasm

A

Ribosomes

Mitochondria

Nucleus

Cytoplasm

For every 10-degree Celsius raise in the temperature, the rate of most of the enzymatic reactions: Options: A) Halves B) Doubles C) Quadruples D) Increases 10-fold

B

Halves

Doubles

Quadruples

Increases 10-fold

Profuse expectoration of two months durations and clubbing may be seen - Options: A) Sarcoidosis B) Polyarteritis nodosa C) Pulmonary artery hypertension D) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

D

Sarcoidosis

Polyarteritis nodosa

Pulmonary artery hypertension

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

An example of a tumour suppressor gene is- Options: A) Myc B) Fos C) Ras D) RB

D

Myc

Fos

Ras

RB

MC comp. of talus is Options: A) Avascular necrosis B) Non union C) Osteoahritis of ankle joint. D) Osteoahritis of subtalar joint.

A

Avascular necrosis

Non union

Osteoahritis of ankle joint.

Osteoahritis of subtalar joint.

A fifty-year-old man, presents to his local physician complaining that he often feels as if the room is spinning when he gets up from a recumbent position or turns his head. He has not lost consciousness and has had no chest pain. He has no cardiac history and a recent treadmill test showed no abnormalities. On examination, the sensation can be produced by rapidly turning the head. It can be reproduced many times, but it eventually ceases. Nystagmus is elicited. Hearing is normal. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for this patient's symptoms? Options: A) Aberrant stimulation of hair cells B) Hair cell death in the semicircular canals C) Insufficient cardiac output D) Insufficient cerebral perfusion

A

Aberrant stimulation of hair cells

Hair cell death in the semicircular canals

Insufficient cardiac output

Insufficient cerebral perfusion

Which of the following method of protein separation is not dependent on molecular size ? Options: A) Gel filtration chromatography B) Ultracentrifugation C) Ion-exchange chromatography D) SDS-PAGE

C

Gel filtration chromatography

Ultracentrifugation

Ion-exchange chromatography

SDS-PAGE

Haemopoietic malignancy is seen in Options: A) HTLV -1 B) EBV C) Parvo B19 D) HHV - 8

A

HTLV -1

EBV

Parvo B19

HHV - 8

Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these histological changes? Options: A) Antigen stimulation B) Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue C) Tumour transformation D) Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue

A

Antigen stimulation

Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue

Tumour transformation

Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue

Painless burn in hand is seen in: Options: A) SLE B) Syringomyelia C) Mononeuritis multiplex D) Diabetes mellitus

B

SLE

Syringomyelia

Mononeuritis multiplex

Diabetes mellitus

A 6 year old mentally retarded male patient presents with hepatosplenomegaly, coarse facial features, corneal clouding, large tongue, prominent forehead, joint stiffness, short stature and skeletal dysplasia. What is the diagnosis? Options: A) Hurler’s Disease B) Hunter Disease C) Natowicz syndrome D) Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome

A

Hurler’s Disease

Hunter Disease

Natowicz syndrome

Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome

This is a paramyxovirus and causes the syndrome known as croup. Options: A) Measles virus B) Influenza virus C) Respiratory syncytial virus D) Parainfluenza virus

D

Measles virus

Influenza virus

Respiratory syncytial virus

Parainfluenza virus

A young female on antidepressants presents to the emergency with altered sensorium and hypotension, ECG reveals wide QRS complexes and right axis deviation. Next best step for the management of this patient: Options: A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Hemodialysis C) Fomepizole D) Flumazenil

A

Sodium bicarbonate

Hemodialysis

Fomepizole

Flumazenil

Eednaton agent is: Options: A) Corynebacterium B) Pseudomonas C) Mycoplasma D) Gonococcus

C

Corynebacterium

Pseudomonas

Mycoplasma

Gonococcus

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen in myasthenia gravis? Options: A) Type 1 hypersensitivty reaction B) Type 2 hypersensitivty reaction C) Type 3 hypersensitivty reaction D) Type 4 hypersensitivty reaction

B

Type 1 hypersensitivty reaction

Type 2 hypersensitivty reaction

Type 3 hypersensitivty reaction

Type 4 hypersensitivty reaction

Limey bile is Options: A) Present in the CBD B) Thin and clear C) Like toothpaste emulsion in the gallbladder D) Bacteria rich

C

Present in the CBD

Thin and clear

Like toothpaste emulsion in the gallbladder

Bacteria rich

A 5 year lod child is assessed to have developmental age of one year. His developmental patient would be Options: A) 100 B) 80 C) 20 D) 60

C

100

80

20

60

Which is NOT a documentation test for ovulation in women of reproductive age? Options: A) Fern test B) Basal body temperature C) Hysteroscopy D) LH surge

C

Fern test

Basal body temperature

Hysteroscopy

LH surge

A 15-year-old female was referred to an oral surgeon for extraction of an impacted tooth 23, which is located in area apical to teeth 22 and 24, which was found on routine X-rays. How would the oral surgeon decide as to where the impacted tooth lay with respect to being either buccal or palatal to teeth 22 and 24? Options: A) Waters view B) Use of panoramic radiograph C) Application of the SLOB rule D) Lateral head radiograph

C

Waters view

Use of panoramic radiograph

Application of the SLOB rule

Lateral head radiograph

Recurrent toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis, all are true except: Options: A) Manifests at an average age of 25 years B) The infestation is acquired by eating the undercooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite C) Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar D) There may be associated iritis

B

Manifests at an average age of 25 years

The infestation is acquired by eating the undercooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite

Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar

There may be associated iritis

All of the following statements about angiotensin II are TRUE, EXCEPT: Options: A) Autoregulation of GFR B) Release aldosrerone C) Secreted from endothelium D) Constriction of afferent aeriole

C

Autoregulation of GFR

Release aldosrerone

Secreted from endothelium

Constriction of afferent aeriole

All of the following drugs are used in prophylaxis of migraine except Options: A) Propanolol B) Flunarizine C) Tapiramate D) Levetiracetam

D

Propanolol

Flunarizine

Tapiramate

Levetiracetam

In psychiatry, personal history does not include: Options: A) Food preference B) Academic history C) Occupational history D) Marital history

A

Food preference

Academic history

Occupational history

Marital history

Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA does not require Options: A) Thiamine B) TPP C) Pyridoxine D) FAD

C

Thiamine

TPP

Pyridoxine

FAD

Which waves is predominantly seen in EEG with eyes closed in normal alert adult? Options: A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Theta waves D) Delta waves

A

Alpha waves

Beta waves

Theta waves

Delta waves

Embgryological development of the human vertebra is from - Options: A) Somite B) Endoderm C) Ectoderm D) None

A

Somite

Endoderm

Ectoderm

None

Surfactant is made up of which of the following: Options: A) Degradable products B) Mucoprotein C) Fibrinogen D) Phospholipid

D

Degradable products

Mucoprotein

Fibrinogen

Phospholipid

False about gallstone ileus Options: A) 90% patients give history of biliary disease B) Causes 1% of all SBO ; around 25% cases in >70 years C) Tumbling obstruction D) Fistula is mostly formed between duodenum and gallbladder

A

90% patients give history of biliary disease

Causes 1% of all SBO ; around 25% cases in >70 years

Tumbling obstruction

Fistula is mostly formed between duodenum and gallbladder

Failure of rupture of bucconasal membrane leads to? Options: A) Choanal atresia B) Rhinophyma C) Crooked nose D) Epistaxis

A

Choanal atresia

Rhinophyma

Crooked nose

Epistaxis

Viruses causing hearing loss are all except - Options: A) Measles B) Mumps C) Rubella D) Rota virus

D

Measles

Mumps

Rubella

Rota virus

All of the following are true about development EXCEPT? Options: A) Development is a continuous process B) Depends on functional maturation of nervous system C) Ceain primitive reflexes have to be lost before relevant milestones attained D) Limb control precedes trunk and head control

D

Development is a continuous process

Depends on functional maturation of nervous system

Ceain primitive reflexes have to be lost before relevant milestones attained

Limb control precedes trunk and head control

Which among the following is/are pure beta emitter(s) : Options: A) I-131 B) Samarium C) Radium-226 D) Phosphorus-32

D

I-131

Samarium

Radium-226

Phosphorus-32

During first, 3-4 month of gestation erythrocytes are formed by Options: A) Yolk sac B) Liver C) Spleen D) Bone marrow

A

Yolk sac

Liver

Spleen

Bone marrow

Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for Options: A) Breast carcinoma B) Penile cacinoma C) Retroperitoneal sarcoma D) Hepatic carcinoma

A

Breast carcinoma

Penile cacinoma

Retroperitoneal sarcoma

Hepatic carcinoma

A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, pulseless left lower extremity. He complains of left leg paresthesia and is unable to dorsiflex his toes. Following a successful popliteal embolectomy, with restoration of palpable pedal pulses, the patient is still unable to dorsi- flex his toes. The next step in management should be Options: A) Electromyography (EMG) B) Measurement of anterior compartment pressure C) Elevation of the left leg D) Immediate fasciotomy

D

Electromyography (EMG)

Measurement of anterior compartment pressure

Elevation of the left leg

Immediate fasciotomy

Sulphur granules in actinomycosis consist of ? Options: A) Monophils + neutrophils B) Monophils + lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Bacterial particles

D

Monophils + neutrophils

Monophils + lymphocytes

Eosinophils

Bacterial particles

The following are function of restriction endonuclease, EXCEPT: Options: A) Cut both the strands of double stranded DNA B) The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are sticky C) The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are blunt D) It is non specific to base pairs

D

Cut both the strands of double stranded DNA

The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are sticky

The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are blunt

It is non specific to base pairs

Best treatment of subdural haemotoma in a deteriorating patient- Options: A) By UV Mannitol B) Oxygenation C) Use of steroids D) Surgical evacuation

D

By UV Mannitol

Oxygenation

Use of steroids

Surgical evacuation

Increased cardiac oxygen demand is caused by – Options: A) Ketamine B) Nitrous oxide C) Thiopentone D) Halothane

A

Ketamine

Nitrous oxide

Thiopentone

Halothane

"Calcinosis universalis" is due to Options: A) Dystrophic calcification B) Idiopathic calcification C) Metastatic calcification D) Benign calcification

B

Dystrophic calcification

Idiopathic calcification

Metastatic calcification

Benign calcification

Preservation of brain is not required in - Options: A) Alkaloid poisoning B) Organophosphorus poisoning C) Volatile organic poisoning D) Heavy metal poisoning

D

Alkaloid poisoning

Organophosphorus poisoning

Volatile organic poisoning

Heavy metal poisoning

The following are contraindicated in renal failure except: Options: A) Pancuronium B) Pethidine C) Enflurane D) Midazolam

D

Pancuronium

Pethidine

Enflurane

Midazolam

Which among the following is the MOST common site of salivary gland calculi formation? Options: A) Parotid B) Submandibular C) Sublingual D) Minor salivary glands

B

Parotid

Submandibular

Sublingual

Minor salivary glands

The maximum number of death in children occur in following age group Options: A) 2-5 years B) 1-2 years C) first 7 days D) 6 months - 12 months

C

2-5 years

1-2 years

first 7 days

6 months - 12 months

Shortest diameter of pelvic outlet: Options: A) Antero-posterior B) Inter tuberous C) Oblique D) Inter-spinous

B

Antero-posterior

Inter tuberous

Oblique

Inter-spinous

False about Kerley's A lines Options: A) Lines are 2-6 cm in length B) These are found in mid and upper zones C) These are due to thick interlobar septa D) Transverse lines at lung base perpendicular to pleura

D

Lines are 2-6 cm in length

These are found in mid and upper zones

These are due to thick interlobar septa

Transverse lines at lung base perpendicular to pleura

Ampicillin prophylaxis is given in - Options: A) Rectal surgery B) Splenectomy C) Head and neck surgery D) Biliary surgery

A

Rectal surgery

Splenectomy

Head and neck surgery

Biliary surgery

All are causes of Pulmonary Infiltrates with Eosinophilia with known etiology, EXCEPT: Options: A) Allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis B) Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome C) Parasitic infestations D) Loeffler's syndrome

D

Allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis

Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome

Parasitic infestations

Loeffler's syndrome

Which of the following abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa: Options: A) Thiamine B) Carbidopa C) Pyridoxine D) Benserazide

C

Thiamine

Carbidopa

Pyridoxine

Benserazide

Anakinra is a - Options: A) IL - 1 antagonist B) IL - 2 antagonist C) IL - 6 antagonist D) IL - 10 antagonist

A

IL - 1 antagonist

IL - 2 antagonist

IL - 6 antagonist

IL - 10 antagonist

Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent? Options: A) Neurosurgery B) Day care surgery C) Patients with coronary artery disease D) In neonates

B

Neurosurgery

Day care surgery

Patients with coronary artery disease

In neonates

Enteropathy type T cell lymphoma is associated with - Options: A) M.A.L. Toma B) Celiac Sprue C) Menetrier disease D) Crohn's disease

B

M.A.L. Toma

Celiac Sprue

Menetrier disease

Crohn's disease

Skin grafting is not contraindicated in? Options: A) Streptococcus B) Seroma C) Wound edges are well approximated D) Cellulitis

C

Streptococcus

Seroma

Wound edges are well approximated

Cellulitis

A male with azoospermia found to have normal FSH & testosteron levels & normal size testes. Probable cause is Options: A) Vas obstruction B) Kaltman syndrome C) Undescended testis D) Klinefeltor's syndrome

A

Vas obstruction

Kaltman syndrome

Undescended testis

Klinefeltor's syndrome

Which of the following is not given in ophthalmia neonatorum – Options: A) Erythromycin locally B) Tetracycline 1% C) Penicillin locally D) Silver nitrate

D

Erythromycin locally

Tetracycline 1%

Penicillin locally

Silver nitrate

Changes in the gingiva during pregnancy are attributed to Options: A) Changes in the hormonal level B) Altered microorganisms C) Altered immunological responses level D) All the above

A

Changes in the hormonal level

Altered microorganisms

Altered immunological responses level

All the above

How long should a palatal crib should be worn by a patient being extracted for thumb sucking habit Options: A) One week B) One month C) Three months D) Six months or longer

D

One week

One month

Three months

Six months or longer

Common bile duct stones will manifest all except - Options: A) Distended gall bladder B) Jaundice C) Itching D) Clay coloured stools

A

Distended gall bladder

Jaundice

Itching

Clay coloured stools

A newborn with respiratory distress was noted to have marked nasal flaring, audible grunting, minimal intercostal chest retarction. The respiratory rate was 30/min. The Silverman score of this child would be? NOT RELATED- MEDICINE Options: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6

D

1

2

3

6

Which papillae are completely keratinized Options: A) Fungiform B) Filiform C) Circumvallate D) Foliate

B

Fungiform

Filiform

Circumvallate

Foliate

True about hepatitis with HCV is: Options: A) Present with fulminant liver failure B) Chronicity is not seen C) Genotyping helps in treatment duration D) Feco/oral transmission

C

Present with fulminant liver failure

Chronicity is not seen

Genotyping helps in treatment duration

Feco/oral transmission

Bence jones proteins are - Options: A) Heavy chain IgG B) Present in bone marrow C) Seen in lymphoma D) Light chain IgG

D

Heavy chain IgG

Present in bone marrow

Seen in lymphoma

Light chain IgG

Orientia Tsutsugamushi causes: Options: A) Epidemic typhus B) Endemic typhus C) Scrub typhus D) Q fever

C

Epidemic typhus

Endemic typhus

Scrub typhus

Q fever

Which of the following is not a point mutation- Options: A) Silent mutation B) Nonsense mutation C) Frame shift mutation D) Mis-sense mutation

C

Silent mutation

Nonsense mutation

Frame shift mutation

Mis-sense mutation

Grey Turner's sign in seen in: March 2005 Options: A) Acute appendicitis B) Acute pancreatitis C) Acute cholecystitis D) Acute hepatitis

B

Acute appendicitis

Acute pancreatitis

Acute cholecystitis

Acute hepatitis

A 43-year-old man sustains a fracture of the tibia. There are no neurologic or muscular lesions noted on careful examination. An above-knee cast is applied. After 6 weeks, the plaster is removed. It is noted that he has a foot drop and is unable to extend his ankle because of pressure injury to which of the following? Options: A) Posterior tibial nerve B) Saphenous nerve C) Femoral nerve D) Deep fibula (peroneal) nerve

D

Posterior tibial nerve

Saphenous nerve

Femoral nerve

Deep fibula (peroneal) nerve

Which of the following is a capnophilic bacteria? Options: A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Haemophilus influenzae

D

Staphylococcus aureus

Mycobacterium

Clostridium

Haemophilus influenzae

Cereals are rich in which amino acid ? Options: A) Lysine B) Threonine C) Tiyptophan D) Methionine

D

Lysine

Threonine

Tiyptophan

Methionine

Which toxin acts by ADP ribosylation- Options: A) Botulinum toxin B) Shiga toxin C) V.cholerae toxin D) All

C

Botulinum toxin

Shiga toxin

V.cholerae toxin

All

IFN-a and IFN-b are produced by the virus-infected cell due to the interaction of virus nucleic acid with which of the following? Options: A) C3 (third component of complement) B) Defensins C) TLR pathway D) IL-12

C

C3 (third component of complement)

Defensins

TLR pathway

IL-12

Tumor appears at the earliest after birth. Options: A) Cystic hygroma B) Branchial cyst C) Lymphoma D) Sternomastoid tumor

A

Cystic hygroma

Branchial cyst

Lymphoma

Sternomastoid tumor

Saponification means hydrolysis of fats by Options: A) Acid B) Alkali C) Water D) Enzymes

B

Acid

Alkali

Water

Enzymes

A 20-year-old young girl, presents with history of rapidly developing hirsutism and amenorrhea with change in voice. To establish a diagnosis you would like to proceed with which of the following tests in blood: Options: A) 17 OH progesterone B) DHEA C) Testosterone D) LH + FSH estimation

C

17 OH progesterone

DHEA

Testosterone

LH + FSH estimation

Vitamin not deficient in celiac disease is? Options: A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin B 12 C) Folic acid D) Vitamin A

C

Vitamin D

Vitamin B 12

Folic acid

Vitamin A

An elderly male presented with uncontrolled hypertension and sign of renal failure on biopsy shows medial thickening of arteries with onion skin appearance is diagnostic of? Options: A) Thrombo-angioobliterans B) Arteriosclerosis obliterans C) Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis D) Hyaline arteriosclerosis

C

Thrombo-angioobliterans

Arteriosclerosis obliterans

Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

Hyaline arteriosclerosis

Which of the following is not a feature of Syndenham's chorea? Options: A) Hypotonia B) Unintelligible speech C) Emotional lability D) Seizures

D

Hypotonia

Unintelligible speech

Emotional lability

Seizures