problem stringlengths 66 960 | correct_option stringclasses 4
values | opa stringlengths 1 89 | opb stringlengths 1 127 | opc stringlengths 1 93 | opd stringlengths 1 109 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
All the following drugs are hallucinogens except
Options:
A) Mescaline
B) Phencyclidine
C) Ketamine
D) Pentostatin | D | Mescaline | Phencyclidine | Ketamine | Pentostatin |
Exposure keratopathy is due to involvement of which cranial nerve: March 2012
Options:
A) 4th cranial nerve
B) 5th cranial nerve
C) 6th cranial nerve
D) 7th cranial nerve | D | 4th cranial nerve | 5th cranial nerve | 6th cranial nerve | 7th cranial nerve |
Marked endocapillary proliferation is seen in renal biopsy from -
Options:
A) Membranous glomerulonephritis
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
D) Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis | D | Membranous glomerulonephritis | Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis | Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis | Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis |
Omeprazol is used in the treatment of
Options:
A) Peptic Ulcer
B) Amoebiasis
C) Malaria
D) Cholera | A | Peptic Ulcer | Amoebiasis | Malaria | Cholera |
Vocal cords are supplied by?
Options:
A) External laryngeal nerve
B) Internal laryngeal nerve
C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D) Vagus nerve | C | External laryngeal nerve | Internal laryngeal nerve | Recurrent laryngeal nerve | Vagus nerve |
False about Keshan's disease
Options:
A) Due to excess of selenium
B) Endemic cardiomyopathy in China
C) Due to increased diet of maize
D) Most common in children and women of child bearing age | A | Due to excess of selenium | Endemic cardiomyopathy in China | Due to increased diet of maize | Most common in children and women of child bearing age |
Not a common feature of Duchene muscular dystrophy is?
Options:
A) X- linked recessive
B) Gower sign positive
C) Distal muscle involvement
D) Pseudo hypertrophy | C | X- linked recessive | Gower sign positive | Distal muscle involvement | Pseudo hypertrophy |
All are true about syndrome X except
Options:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypoinsulinemia
C) Abdominal obesity
D) Hyperiglyceridemia | B | Hyperglycemia | Hypoinsulinemia | Abdominal obesity | Hyperiglyceridemia |
Fracture of lateral condyle of humerus is seen in age group of?
Options:
A) 2-3 years
B) 5-15 years
C) 15-25 years
D) 35- 45 years | B | 2-3 years | 5-15 years | 15-25 years | 35- 45 years |
Not an Aberration of Normal Development and Involution (ANDI) NOT RELATED-GYN
Options:
A) Fibroadenoma
B) Duct ectasia
C) Cyclical mastalgia
D) Intraductal papilloma | D | Fibroadenoma | Duct ectasia | Cyclical mastalgia | Intraductal papilloma |
The resting membrane potential of a cell:
Options:
A) Is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+
B) Falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATPase in membrane is inhibited
C) Is equal to the equilibrium potential for K+
D) Is equal to the equilibrium potential of Na+ | A | Is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+ | Falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATPase in membrane is inhibited | Is equal to the equilibrium potential for K+ | Is equal to the equilibrium potential of Na+ |
Abnormalities of copper metabolism are implicated in the pathogenesis of all the following except -
Options:
A) Wilson's disease
B) Monkes' Kinky-hair syndrome
C) Indian childhood cirrhosis
D) Keshan disease | D | Wilson's disease | Monkes' Kinky-hair syndrome | Indian childhood cirrhosis | Keshan disease |
With chronic use in seizure state, the adverse effects of this drug include coarsening of facial features,hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia:
Options:
A) Carbomazepine
B) Ethosuximide
C) Gabapentin
D) Phenytoin | D | Carbomazepine | Ethosuximide | Gabapentin | Phenytoin |
Indications of FESS -a) Inverted papilloma b) Nasal Allergic polyposisc) Mucoceled) Ca maxilla
Options:
A) ab
B) bc
C) acd
D) abc | D | ab | bc | acd | abc |
Incidence of primary open-angle glaucoma in population over 40 years of age is about:
Options:
A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 200
C) 1 in 500
D) 1 in 1000 | A | 1 in 100 | 1 in 200 | 1 in 500 | 1 in 1000 |
Gluten sensitive enteropathy is strongly associated with:-
Options:
A) Blood group B
B) HLA-DQ3
C) HLA-DR4
D) HLA-DQ2 | D | Blood group B | HLA-DQ3 | HLA-DR4 | HLA-DQ2 |
The most common lysosomal storage disorder is
Options:
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Taysach's disease
C) Wolman disease
D) Niemann pick's disease | A | Gaucher's disease | Taysach's disease | Wolman disease | Niemann pick's disease |
A 30-year -old male from West Bengal presents to you with hyperkeratosis, and transverse nail lines. Most likely cause is
Options:
A) Chronic arsenic poisoning
B) Chronic lead poisoning
C) Chronic mercury poisoning
D) Acute arsenic poisoning | A | Chronic arsenic poisoning | Chronic lead poisoning | Chronic mercury poisoning | Acute arsenic poisoning |
False statement regarding this condition:
Options:
A) Associated with HLA DR4, DR5, DQ3
B) Exclamation mark seen
C) Spares grey and white hairs
D) Itching and scaling seen | D | Associated with HLA DR4, DR5, DQ3 | Exclamation mark seen | Spares grey and white hairs | Itching and scaling seen |
A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for new symptoms of confusion and sleep disturbance. He is not able to provide any history but his partner notes that he has cirrhosis due to chronic alcoholism She states that he has maintained abstinence from alcohol for the past 3 months. His medications inclu... | D | spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) | spironolactone | nadolol | gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding |
A 69-year-old woman, with poor dietary habits and alcoholism, is found to have a macrocytic anemia with hyper segmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
Options:
A) red blood cell vitamin levels
B) plasma vitamin levels
C) bone marrow
D) Schilling test | A | red blood cell vitamin levels | plasma vitamin levels | bone marrow | Schilling test |
Average gain of height in first year ?
Options:
A) 25 cms
B) 50 cms
C) 75 cms
D) 100 cms | A | 25 cms | 50 cms | 75 cms | 100 cms |
Keratin of skin and nail differ because of
Options:
A) Disulphide bond
B) Covalent bond
C) Vander Waal bond
D) Hydrogen bond | A | Disulphide bond | Covalent bond | Vander Waal bond | Hydrogen bond |
Which of the following is anti apoptotic gene
Options:
A) C-myc
B) P53
C) Bcl-2
D) Bax | C | C-myc | P53 | Bcl-2 | Bax |
All of the following are true about minimal change nephrotic disease except
Options:
A) Response to steroids
B) Selective proetinuria
C) IgG deposition in the mesangium
D) Common in the age group 2-9 years | C | Response to steroids | Selective proetinuria | IgG deposition in the mesangium | Common in the age group 2-9 years |
The killing range of a military rifle is about -
Options:
A) 100 yards
B) 600 yards
C) 1000 yards
D) 300 yards | B | 100 yards | 600 yards | 1000 yards | 300 yards |
All of the following represent disorders or protein misfolding, EXCEPT:
Options:
A) Alzheimer's disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease | B | Alzheimer's disease | Tuberculosis | Cystic fibrosis | Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease |
Which of the following ligament is not attached to talus
Options:
A) Talonavicular ligament
B) Spring ligament
C) Deltoid ligament
D) Cervical ligament | B | Talonavicular ligament | Spring ligament | Deltoid ligament | Cervical ligament |
On mammogram all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except
Options:
A) Spiculation
B) Microcalcification
C) Macrocalcification
D) Irregular mass | C | Spiculation | Microcalcification | Macrocalcification | Irregular mass |
During incision & drainage of ischiorectal abscess, which nerve is/are affected/injured :
Options:
A) Superior rectal nerve
B) Inferior rectal nerve
C) Superior gluteal nerve
D) Inferior gluteal nerve | B | Superior rectal nerve | Inferior rectal nerve | Superior gluteal nerve | Inferior gluteal nerve |
Level V cervical nodes includes:
Options:
A) Upper jugular nodes
B) Middle jugular nodes
C) Lower jugular nodes
D) Posterior triangle nodes | D | Upper jugular nodes | Middle jugular nodes | Lower jugular nodes | Posterior triangle nodes |
All are risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma Except
Options:
A) Primary sclerosing cholangitis.
B) Hepatolithiasis
C) Liver flukes
D) Primary biliary cirrhosis | D | Primary sclerosing cholangitis. | Hepatolithiasis | Liver flukes | Primary biliary cirrhosis |
The main action of muscle "GameIlius" is:
Options:
A) Medial rotation of thigh
B) Lateral rotation of thigh
C) Flexion of hip
D) Extension of hip | B | Medial rotation of thigh | Lateral rotation of thigh | Flexion of hip | Extension of hip |
Most important risk factor of recurrence of febrile seizure is -
Options:
A) Age of onset < 2 years
B) Family history
C) Seizure at time of fever peak
D) Long prolonged fever prior to seizure | B | Age of onset < 2 years | Family history | Seizure at time of fever peak | Long prolonged fever prior to seizure |
Most common joint to be dislocated in the body is-
Options:
A) Shoulder
B) Hip
C) Elbow
D) Knee | A | Shoulder | Hip | Elbow | Knee |
Watson Swartz Test is usually used to diagnose -
Options:
A) Hemochromatosis
B) Acute intermittent porphyria
C) Wilson's disease
D) All of the above | B | Hemochromatosis | Acute intermittent porphyria | Wilson's disease | All of the above |
The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is
Options:
A) Its potential to cause agranulocytosis
B) High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects
C) Production of hyperprolactinemia
D) Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia | A | Its potential to cause agranulocytosis | High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects | Production of hyperprolactinemia | Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia |
Sjogren's syndrome refers to disease of ?
Options:
A) Parotid glands
B) Thyroid disease
C) Parathyroid glands
D) Multiple endocrine neoplasia | A | Parotid glands | Thyroid disease | Parathyroid glands | Multiple endocrine neoplasia |
A man presented with difficulty walking and urinary incontinence. On examination, his pupils were nonreactive to bright light but constricted when focusing on a near object. What is the diagnosis?
Options:
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Tabes dorsalis
C) Parinaud's syndrome
D) Sarcoidosis | B | Multiple sclerosis | Tabes dorsalis | Parinaud's syndrome | Sarcoidosis |
Trachoma is caused by which serotype of chlamydia trachomatis?
Options:
A) D to K
B) A, B, C
C) L1 L2 L3
D) All of the above | B | D to K | A, B, C | L1 L2 L3 | All of the above |
After head injury, biconvex, lenticular shape hematoma in CT scan is characterstic of which of the following ?
Options:
A) Extradural haemorrhage
B) Subdural haemorrhage
C) Intracerebral hematoma
D) Diffuse-axonal injury | A | Extradural haemorrhage | Subdural haemorrhage | Intracerebral hematoma | Diffuse-axonal injury |
Which of the following not causes lens dislocation:
Options:
A) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B) Marfan's syndrome
C) Sulphite oxidase deficiency
D) Diabetes mellitus | D | Ehlers-Danlos syndrome | Marfan's syndrome | Sulphite oxidase deficiency | Diabetes mellitus |
The most common side effect of IUD insertion is -
Options:
A) Bleeding
B) Pain
C) Pelvic
D) Ectopic pregnancy | A | Bleeding | Pain | Pelvic | Ectopic pregnancy |
Which of the following is/are not included in management of intra aicular fracture: Ahrodesis Excision Aspiration K- wire Plaster of paris cast
Options:
A) 1,2,3
B) 2,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) None | D | 1,2,3 | 2,4,5 | 1,2,3,4 | None |
Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
Options:
A) AUG codon
B) UAA codon
C) UAG codon
D) UGA codon | A | AUG codon | UAA codon | UAG codon | UGA codon |
A 60-year-old woman has a history of being treated for endometrial cancer with surgery and radiation 5 years ago. She now presents with a large necrotic tumor that follows the course of the sciatic nerve. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
Options:
A) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
B) Solitary... | A | Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor | Solitary neurofibroma | Neurofibromatosis type 2 | Schwannoma |
HCV virus is ?
Options:
A) Enveloped DNA
B) Enveloped RNA
C) Nonenveloped DNA
D) Nonenveloped RNA | B | Enveloped DNA | Enveloped RNA | Nonenveloped DNA | Nonenveloped RNA |
Apparant volume of distribution of a drug less than 5 liters implies that the drug is predominantly in which of the following compament?
Options:
A) Extracellular fluid
B) Total body water
C) Intracellular fluid
D) Intravascular fluid | A | Extracellular fluid | Total body water | Intracellular fluid | Intravascular fluid |
In JVP y descent is absent and X wave is prominent? Thiscsuggests:
Options:
A) Restictive cardiomyopathy
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Constrictive pericarditis
D) Right Ventricular Failure | B | Restictive cardiomyopathy | Cardiac tamponade | Constrictive pericarditis | Right Ventricular Failure |
A child was taken for CECT Chest and contrast was injected : the child had swelling which gradually increased. There is numbness. There is a pain on passive extension of fingers. He is not allowing you to touch the arm. Pulse was present. What will you do?
Options:
A) High Dose Prednisolone
B) Arterial Thrombectomy
C)... | C | High Dose Prednisolone | Arterial Thrombectomy | Immediate Fasciotomy | Antihistamines / Anticoagulants |
Which of the following is not a prerequisite for transvaginal sonography (TVS)?
Options:
A) Consent
B) Full bladder
C) Empty bladder
D) Lithotomy position | B | Consent | Full bladder | Empty bladder | Lithotomy position |
Cholinergic drugs are used in all the following conditions except
Options:
A) Cobra Bite
B) Post operative paralytic ileus
C) Glaucoma
D) Bradycardia | D | Cobra Bite | Post operative paralytic ileus | Glaucoma | Bradycardia |
Post prandial motility is maximum in
Options:
A) Transverse colon
B) Rectum
C) Descending colon
D) Sigmoid colon | D | Transverse colon | Rectum | Descending colon | Sigmoid colon |
Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by -
Options:
A) Enteropathogenic E. coli
B) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
C) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
D) Enteroinvasive E. coli | C | Enteropathogenic E. coli | Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli | Enterotoxigenic E. coli | Enteroinvasive E. coli |
'Turkish saddle' refers to:
Options:
A) Pituitary gland
B) Amygdaloid body
C) Hypothalamus
D) Uncus | A | Pituitary gland | Amygdaloid body | Hypothalamus | Uncus |
Most common cause of convulsion on the First day of life in a newborn is -
Options:
A) Anoxia
B) Head Injury
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypocalcemia | A | Anoxia | Head Injury | Hypoglycemia | Hypocalcemia |
The most common source of pulmonary embolism is :
Options:
A) Amniotic fluid embolism
B) Renal artery embolism
C) Large veins of leg
D) Cardio thoracic surgery | C | Amniotic fluid embolism | Renal artery embolism | Large veins of leg | Cardio thoracic surgery |
Which ONE of the following is TRUE about a competitive antagonism ?
Options:
A) Antagonism cannot be completely reversed by increased dose of the agonist
B) An agonist cannot displace an antagonists from the receptor
C) Agonists and antagonists bind to the same receptor
D) Dose–response curve of an agonists shifts to t... | C | Antagonism cannot be completely reversed by increased dose of the agonist | An agonist cannot displace an antagonists from the receptor | Agonists and antagonists bind to the same receptor | Dose–response curve of an agonists shifts to the left in the presence of an antagonist |
Nephrotic syndrome is the hall mark of the following primary kidney diseases except
Options:
A) Membranous Glomerulopathy
B) IgA nephropathy
C) Minimal change disease
D) Focal segmental Glomerulosclerosis | B | Membranous Glomerulopathy | IgA nephropathy | Minimal change disease | Focal segmental Glomerulosclerosis |
Patient with massive hemorrhage presents to the ER after A. What's not to be done?
Options:
A) Massive transfusion of fluid challenge
B) IV crystalloid 2L, within few minutes
C) Early tranexamic acid recommended
D) Check coagulation with thromboelastography, if available | B | Massive transfusion of fluid challenge | IV crystalloid 2L, within few minutes | Early tranexamic acid recommended | Check coagulation with thromboelastography, if available |
Ideally immunization against poliomyelitis should be staed at: September 2004
Options:
A) Bih
B) 6 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 9 months | A | Bih | 6 weeks | 12 weeks | 9 months |
Major reason for H5N1 not to become a global pandemic is
Options:
A) Man to man transmission is rare
B) Route of transmission is not respiratory
C) Does not cause serious disease among humans
D) Restricted to few countries only | A | Man to man transmission is rare | Route of transmission is not respiratory | Does not cause serious disease among humans | Restricted to few countries only |
In a case of myasthenia gravis, CT Chest shows anterior mediastinal mass. Diagnosis is?
Options:
A) Retrosternal goiter
B) Thymic Hyperplasia
C) Hilar Lymphadenopathy
D) Aoic Aneurysm | B | Retrosternal goiter | Thymic Hyperplasia | Hilar Lymphadenopathy | Aoic Aneurysm |
Flapping Tremors may be associated with all of the following, Except
Options:
A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Uremia
C) CO2 Narcosis
D) Thyrotoxicosis | D | Hepatic encephalopathy | Uremia | CO2 Narcosis | Thyrotoxicosis |
End product of glycolysis in RBC is
Options:
A) Pyruvate
B) Lactic acid
C) Acetyl CoA
D) Oxaloacetate | B | Pyruvate | Lactic acid | Acetyl CoA | Oxaloacetate |
Which route of drug administration avoids first pass hepatic metabolism and is used with drug preparation that slowly releases drugs for periods as long as seven days ?
Options:
A) Topical
B) Transdermal
C) Sublingual
D) Oral | B | Topical | Transdermal | Sublingual | Oral |
Which of the following is not an application of screw feed technique
Options:
A) 80% volume reduction
B) Pathological wastes are removed
C) Weight is decreased by 20-30%
D) Based on non-burn thermal treatment | B | 80% volume reduction | Pathological wastes are removed | Weight is decreased by 20-30% | Based on non-burn thermal treatment |
The classic triad of brucellosis include all, except
Options:
A) Fever with profuse night sweats
B) Meningoencephalitis
C) Ahralgia
D) Hepatosplenomegaly | B | Fever with profuse night sweats | Meningoencephalitis | Ahralgia | Hepatosplenomegaly |
As per 'Rule of Nine', each lower limb accounts for how much % of total body surface area:
Options:
A) 1%
B) 9%
C) 18%
D) 27% | C | 1% | 9% | 18% | 27% |
All are true regarding LH surge except
Options:
A) LH surge acts rapidly on both granulosa and theca cells of preovulatory follicle
B) LH surge initiates re - entry of oocyte into meiosis
C) Ovulation occurs 24 hours after LH surge
D) Mean duration of LH surge is 48 hours | C | LH surge acts rapidly on both granulosa and theca cells of preovulatory follicle | LH surge initiates re - entry of oocyte into meiosis | Ovulation occurs 24 hours after LH surge | Mean duration of LH surge is 48 hours |
Midazolam dose in children is (through Im)
Options:
A) 0.5 mg/kg
B) 0.25 mg/kg
C) 0.1 mg/kg
D) 2.5 mg/kg | C | 0.5 mg/kg | 0.25 mg/kg | 0.1 mg/kg | 2.5 mg/kg |
Improvement in nasal patency by retracting the lateral part of the cheek and thus testing the vestibular component of nose is -
Options:
A) Epley's maneuver
B) Cottle's test
C) Schwartz maneuver
D) Helmich maneuver | B | Epley's maneuver | Cottle's test | Schwartz maneuver | Helmich maneuver |
Atalanto axial joint is -
Options:
A) Pivot joint
B) Bicondylar
C) Ball & Socket
D) Ellipsoid joint | A | Pivot joint | Bicondylar | Ball & Socket | Ellipsoid joint |
The increase in the threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are applied in succession is called
Options:
A) Adaptation
B) Accomodation
C) Initiation
D) Resistance | B | Adaptation | Accomodation | Initiation | Resistance |
60 year old diabetic female presented with burning sensation to spicy food. Intraoral examination revealed multiple periodontal abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern with occasional erosive areas inside the lace pattern.
Provisional diagnosis for this lady will be
Options:
A) Oral hairy Leukoplakia
B) Oral lich... | B | Oral hairy Leukoplakia | Oral lichen planus | Oral squamous cell carcinoma | Oral pemphigus |
Which among the following is the epithelial lining of vagina?
Options:
A) Stratified squamous non-keratinized
B) Columnar
C) Stratified squamous keratinized
D) Cuboidal | A | Stratified squamous non-keratinized | Columnar | Stratified squamous keratinized | Cuboidal |
Adverse effect of phenytoin include the following except-
Options:
A) Lymphadenopathy
B) Ataxia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hirsutism | C | Lymphadenopathy | Ataxia | Hypercalcemia | Hirsutism |
Portal vein formed by the union of-
Options:
A) Splenic and inferior mesenteric veins
B) Splenic and superior mesenteric veins
C) Right and left hepatic veins
D) Hepatic and splenic veins | B | Splenic and inferior mesenteric veins | Splenic and superior mesenteric veins | Right and left hepatic veins | Hepatic and splenic veins |
Treatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis detected in Ist trimester of pregnancy:
Options:
A) Defer till second trimester
B) Sta cat. I immediately
C) Sta cat. II immediately
D) Sta cat. III immediately | B | Defer till second trimester | Sta cat. I immediately | Sta cat. II immediately | Sta cat. III immediately |
ALL of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia
EXCEPT
Options:
A) it is unilateral
B) it is of throbbing nature
C) it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc
D) occurs in bouts | B | it is unilateral | it is of throbbing nature | it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc | occurs in bouts |
Vaccine against capsulated organism given how many weeks before splenectomy ?
Options:
A) 1 week
B) 2 week
C) 4 week
D) 6 week | B | 1 week | 2 week | 4 week | 6 week |
Which of the following organism shows satellitism in cultures?
Options:
A) Haemophilus
B) Streptococcus
C) Klebsiella
D) Proteus | A | Haemophilus | Streptococcus | Klebsiella | Proteus |
Longest acting drug among the following drugs for over reactive bladder:
Options:
A) Oxybutynin
B) Trospium
C) Solifenacin
D) Flavoxate | C | Oxybutynin | Trospium | Solifenacin | Flavoxate |
The following regarding colostomy are true except?
Options:
A) A colostomy is an aificial opening made in large Bowel to dive the faeces to the exterior
B) Temporary colostomy is established to defunction an anastomosi
C) Permanent colostomy is formed after the resection of Rectum by the abdominoperinea technique
D) Do... | D | A colostomy is an aificial opening made in large Bowel to dive the faeces to the exterior | Temporary colostomy is established to defunction an anastomosi | Permanent colostomy is formed after the resection of Rectum by the abdominoperinea technique | Double barreled colostomy is commonly done nowadays |
A 70-year-old man with a prior anterior MI comes for his routine evaluation. He feels well and has no symptoms. He is taking metoprolol 100 mg bid, aspirin 81 mg od, enalapril 10 mg bid, and simvastatin 40 mg od for secondary prevention.Select the characteristic ECG finding.
Options:
A) prolonged PR interval
B) broad-n... | A | prolonged PR interval | broad-notched P wave in lead II | short QT interval | short PR interval |
EDTA is used for poisoning with:
Options:
A) Cyanide
B) Lead
C) Mercury
D) Phosphorus | B | Cyanide | Lead | Mercury | Phosphorus |
Leukemoid reaction is seen in:
Options:
A) Acute infection
B) Erythroleukemia
C) Myelomatosis
D) Hemorrhage | A | Acute infection | Erythroleukemia | Myelomatosis | Hemorrhage |
A child presents with respiratory distress. A vascular ring is suspected. Investigation of choice is:
Options:
A) PET
B) CT
C) MR1
D) Angiography | C | PET | CT | MR1 | Angiography |
During cesarean section under general endotracheal anaesthesia, venous air embolism
Options:
A) Is associated with high end-tidal CO2
B) Should be treated with nitrous oxide
C) Is associated with expired nitrogen
D) Induces severe hypertension | C | Is associated with high end-tidal CO2 | Should be treated with nitrous oxide | Is associated with expired nitrogen | Induces severe hypertension |
All of the following are true regarding chronic myeloid leukemia, except?
Options:
A) Philadelphia chromosome
B) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) are the drug of choice
C) Most cases present in blast phase
D) Sea-blue histiocytes are seen in the bone marrow | C | Philadelphia chromosome | Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) are the drug of choice | Most cases present in blast phase | Sea-blue histiocytes are seen in the bone marrow |
Dryopithecus pattern is the characteristic feature of:
Options:
A) Permanent mandibular 1st molar.
B) Permanent mandibular 3rd molar.
C) Permanent maxillary 2nd molar.
D) Permanent maxillary canine. | A | Permanent mandibular 1st molar. | Permanent mandibular 3rd molar. | Permanent maxillary 2nd molar. | Permanent maxillary canine. |
drug with teratogenic potential is
Options:
A) carbamezepine
B) clonazepam
C) risperidone
D) olanzapine | A | carbamezepine | clonazepam | risperidone | olanzapine |
Theres is an outbreak of MRSA infection in a ward. What is the best way to control the infection -
Options:
A) Vancomycin given empirically to all patients
B) Fumigation of ward frequently
C) Washing hand before and after attending patients
D) Wearing masks before any invasive procedure in ICU | C | Vancomycin given empirically to all patients | Fumigation of ward frequently | Washing hand before and after attending patients | Wearing masks before any invasive procedure in ICU |
Best antagonist of morphine is
Options:
A) Nalorphine
B) Naloxone
C) Buprenorphine
D) Pentazocine | B | Nalorphine | Naloxone | Buprenorphine | Pentazocine |
Which of the following carcinoma is familial -
Options:
A) Breast
B) Prostate
C) Cervix
D) Vaginal | A | Breast | Prostate | Cervix | Vaginal |
All of the following drug inhibit the cell wall synthesis except:
Options:
A) Penicillin
B) Fosfomycin
C) Vancomycin
D) Tetracycline | D | Penicillin | Fosfomycin | Vancomycin | Tetracycline |
Establishment of fetoplacental circulation seen at-
Options:
A) 11 to 13 days
B) 20 to 22 days
C) 7 days
D) 25 to 26 days | B | 11 to 13 days | 20 to 22 days | 7 days | 25 to 26 days |
Denominator for calculating perinatal moality rate is: September 2009
Options:
A) 1000 bihs
B) 1000 live bihs
C) 1000 still bihs
D) 1000 population | B | 1000 bihs | 1000 live bihs | 1000 still bihs | 1000 population |
The glabella may show the remains of the
Options:
A) Anterior fontanel
B) Posterior fontanel
C) Metopic suture
D) Lambdoid suture | C | Anterior fontanel | Posterior fontanel | Metopic suture | Lambdoid suture |
Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except -
Options:
A) Renal failure
B) Patient on metformin
C) Dehydration
D) Obesity | D | Renal failure | Patient on metformin | Dehydration | Obesity |
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