problem stringlengths 66 960 | correct_option stringclasses 4 values | opa stringlengths 1 89 | opb stringlengths 1 127 | opc stringlengths 1 93 | opd stringlengths 1 109 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
What is the function of chordae tendineae?
Options:
A) Opens A-V valve
B) Prevents regurgitation
C) Helps contraction of papillary muscles
D) Passes action potential to papillary muscles | B | Opens A-V valve | Prevents regurgitation | Helps contraction of papillary muscles | Passes action potential to papillary muscles |
Not a cause of upper GIT bleeding
Options:
A) Meckel's diveiculum
B) Mallory Weiss Syndrome
C) Gastric antral vascular ectasia
D) Poal hypeension | A | Meckel's diveiculum | Mallory Weiss Syndrome | Gastric antral vascular ectasia | Poal hypeension |
Lemon sign is seen in :
Options:
A) Spina bifida
B) Anencephaly
C) Agenesis of corpus callosum
D) Cystic hygroma | A | Spina bifida | Anencephaly | Agenesis of corpus callosum | Cystic hygroma |
The differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow include the following except -
Options:
A) Megaloblastic anemia
B) Myelodysplasia
C) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
D) Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia | D | Megaloblastic anemia | Myelodysplasia | Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria | Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia |
Which of the following parasite does not enter into the body by skin penetration :
Options:
A) Dracunculus
B) Necatar Americana
C) Ancylostoma duodenale
D) Stronglyoides | A | Dracunculus | Necatar Americana | Ancylostoma duodenale | Stronglyoides |
Seminoma is best treated by
Options:
A) Radiation alone
B) Radiation and surgery
C) Radiation and chemotherapy
D) Surgery alone | B | Radiation alone | Radiation and surgery | Radiation and chemotherapy | Surgery alone |
Which of the following is a method of breaking bad news: March 2009
Options:
A) Burst
B) Spread
C) Spike
D) Dive | C | Burst | Spread | Spike | Dive |
Which of the following is a sonographic finding of a fetus with Down's syndrome?
Options:
A) 'Sandal gap'
B) Mild renal pelvis dilation
C) Nasal bone absence
D) All of the above | D | 'Sandal gap' | Mild renal pelvis dilation | Nasal bone absence | All of the above |
This drug depolarizer cell membranes of aerobic Gram Positive Bacteria. It is effective against vancomycin resistance entercoccal infection. It may cause myopathy especially in patients taking stating .it is
Options:
A) Teicoplann
B) Daptomycin
C) Linezolid
D) Streptogramin | B | Teicoplann | Daptomycin | Linezolid | Streptogramin |
Uterine-cervix ratio up to 10 years of age:
Options:
A) 3:02
B) 2:01
C) 3:01
D) 1:02 | D | 3:02 | 2:01 | 3:01 | 1:02 |
LCAT is induced by ?
Options:
A) Apo A-I
B) Apo B-48
C) Apo B-100
D) Apo C-II | A | Apo A-I | Apo B-48 | Apo B-100 | Apo C-II |
An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage disposal for a small community is –
Options:
A) River outfall
B) Oxidation pond
C) Trickling filter
D) Activated sludge | B | River outfall | Oxidation pond | Trickling filter | Activated sludge |
Retraction of tympanic membrane touching the promontory. It is called -
Options:
A) Mild retraction
B) Severe retraction
C) Atelectasis
D) Adhesive otitis | C | Mild retraction | Severe retraction | Atelectasis | Adhesive otitis |
AV node is situated in
Options:
A) Opening of SVC
B) Interventricular septum
C) Koch's triangle
D) Interatrial septum | C | Opening of SVC | Interventricular septum | Koch's triangle | Interatrial septum |
Which hormone inhibits FSH secretion in feedback-
Options:
A) Testosterone
B) Progesterone
C) Inhibin
D) None | C | Testosterone | Progesterone | Inhibin | None |
Drug not given in pregnancy -
Options:
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Penicillin
C) Methyldopa
D) Labetalol | A | ACE inhibitors | Penicillin | Methyldopa | Labetalol |
In Marfan&;s syndrome which of the following is affected
Options:
A) Collagen
B) Fibrillin
C) Actin
D) Fibronectin | B | Collagen | Fibrillin | Actin | Fibronectin |
Which is an acidic amino acid?
Options:
A) Asparagine
B) Glutamine
C) Aspartate
D) Glycine | C | Asparagine | Glutamine | Aspartate | Glycine |
A young female presented with halo's abdominal pain and amnesia she is likely to be suffering from
Options:
A) Conversion disorder
B) Dissociative disorder
C) Depresonalization disorder
D) Mania | B | Conversion disorder | Dissociative disorder | Depresonalization disorder | Mania |
The most common cyst of the oral region is -
Options:
A) Dentigerous cyst
B) Keratosis cyst
C) Dermoid cyst
D) Periapical cyst | D | Dentigerous cyst | Keratosis cyst | Dermoid cyst | Periapical cyst |
Causes of chronic tropical pancreatitis is
Options:
A) Parasitic infection
B) Cassava Ingestion
C) Idiopathic
D) Genetic | B | Parasitic infection | Cassava Ingestion | Idiopathic | Genetic |
A patient presents with cheek ca of 2.5 cm size close to and involving the alveolus with a single mobile cervical lymph node of 6 cm size. What is the TNM staging -
Options:
A) T3N2
B) T3N3
C) T4N2
D) T4N3 | D | T3N2 | T3N3 | T4N2 | T4N3 |
Body temperature regulation centre is located at-
Options:
A) Pituitary
B) Thalamus
C) Hypothalamus
D) Basal gonglia | C | Pituitary | Thalamus | Hypothalamus | Basal gonglia |
Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except -
Options:
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Small-vessel vasculitis
C) Disseminated gonococcal infection
D) Acute meningococcemia | A | Thrombocytopenia | Small-vessel vasculitis | Disseminated gonococcal infection | Acute meningococcemia |
Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic fever (RP) according to modified Jones criteria –
Options:
A) ASO titre
B) Past history of Rheumatic fever
C) Fever
D) Subcutaneous nodules | C | ASO titre | Past history of Rheumatic fever | Fever | Subcutaneous nodules |
A 5-year-old child is exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A month later the child's tuberculin skin test is positive. The child then develops fever, inspiratory stridor, and nonproductive cough. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on the chest radiograph of this child?
Options:
A) Hilar lymphadenopathy
B) Miliary pulmonary nodules
C) Pneumonic consolidation
D) Upper lobe cavitation | A | Hilar lymphadenopathy | Miliary pulmonary nodules | Pneumonic consolidation | Upper lobe cavitation |
APGAR score - include all except ?
Options:
A) Hea rate
B) Respiratory rate
C) Muscle tone
D) Color | B | Hea rate | Respiratory rate | Muscle tone | Color |
The conjugation of bilirubin to glucuronic acid in the liver;
Options:
A) Converts a hydrophilic compound to a hydrophobic one
B) Converts a hydrophobic compound to a hydrophilic one
C) Enables the bilirubin molecule to cross the cell membrane
D) Is increased during neonatal jaundice | B | Converts a hydrophilic compound to a hydrophobic one | Converts a hydrophobic compound to a hydrophilic one | Enables the bilirubin molecule to cross the cell membrane | Is increased during neonatal jaundice |
Which of the following is a duty of multipurpose worker male: March 2010
Options:
A) He will visit schools at regular interval in the PHC
B) Organizes staff meetings
C) Regularly visit to every house in his area
D) Attends patients in the OPD | C | He will visit schools at regular interval in the PHC | Organizes staff meetings | Regularly visit to every house in his area | Attends patients in the OPD |
Treatment of stage III carcinoma ovary: March 2013
Options:
A) Total hysterectomy
B) Total hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
C) Debulking surgery + removal of tumour
D) None of the above | C | Total hysterectomy | Total hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy | Debulking surgery + removal of tumour | None of the above |
In which condition intensity of systolic murmur is incre ased-
Options:
A) Hyperophic cardiomathy
B) Severe AS
C) MS
D) AR | B | Hyperophic cardiomathy | Severe AS | MS | AR |
The condition where glistening spots are found in tubal serosa:
Options:
A) Walthard cell nests
B) Metastases from ovary
C) Paraovarian cysts
D) Tubal fibrosis | C | Walthard cell nests | Metastases from ovary | Paraovarian cysts | Tubal fibrosis |
The concentration of hydrocioinone for treating cholasma should be-
Options:
A) 1%
B) lto 2 %
C) 2 to 5 %
D) 10% | C | 1% | lto 2 % | 2 to 5 % | 10% |
While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along
Options:
A) Upper border of the rib
B) Lower border of the rib
C) In the center of the intercostal space
D) In anterior pa of intercostal space | A | Upper border of the rib | Lower border of the rib | In the center of the intercostal space | In anterior pa of intercostal space |
Sutural separation seen in
Options:
A) Diastatic fracture
B) Penetrating fracture
C) Cut fracture
D) Performing fracture | A | Diastatic fracture | Penetrating fracture | Cut fracture | Performing fracture |
Late onset endothalmitis after lens implantation is caused by -
Options:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Pseudomonas
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Propionibacterium acne | A | Staphylococcus epidermidis | Pseudomonas | Streptococcus pyogenes | Propionibacterium acne |
BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except?
Options:
A) Lead
B) Organic mercury
C) Cadmium
D) Arsenic | C | Lead | Organic mercury | Cadmium | Arsenic |
Which of the following is not a secretory pa of kidney?
Options:
A) Collecting tubule
B) PCT
C) DCT
D) Loop of Henle | A | Collecting tubule | PCT | DCT | Loop of Henle |
True about lower motor neuron palsy of Vllth nerve:
Options:
A) Other motor cranial nerves also involves
B) Melkersson's syndrome cause recurrent paralysis
C) Eye protection done
D) All | D | Other motor cranial nerves also involves | Melkersson's syndrome cause recurrent paralysis | Eye protection done | All |
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by: March 2013
Options:
A) HHV 6
B) HHV 7
C) HHV 8
D) All of the above | C | HHV 6 | HHV 7 | HHV 8 | All of the above |
False about Criggler najar syndrome?
Options:
A) Absence of UDPG enzyme
B) Normal liver biopsy
C) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
D) Type 1 is more severe | C | Absence of UDPG enzyme | Normal liver biopsy | Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia | Type 1 is more severe |
Closing of midline diastema by using a removable appliance
Options:
A) Reciprocal single simple anchorage
B) Reciprocal simple compound anchorage
C) Reciprocal stationary single anchorage
D) Reciprocal stationary compound anchorage | A | Reciprocal single simple anchorage | Reciprocal simple compound anchorage | Reciprocal stationary single anchorage | Reciprocal stationary compound anchorage |
A 2-day-old newborn is brought to the physician because of vomiting. Physical examination shows a small mass about the size of an olive in the epigastric area.
Which of the following conditions is this child likely to exhibit?
Options:
A) Biliary stenosis
B) Duodenal atresia
C) Non-bilious vomiting
D) Pancreas divisum | C | Biliary stenosis | Duodenal atresia | Non-bilious vomiting | Pancreas divisum |
Which pigment accumulates in brown atrophy of hea?
Options:
A) Melanin
B) Lipofuscin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Hemozoin | B | Melanin | Lipofuscin | Hemosiderin | Hemozoin |
Most stable amino acid at physiological pH is
Options:
A) Histidine
B) Lysine
C) Arginine
D) Glycine | A | Histidine | Lysine | Arginine | Glycine |
A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is –
Options:
A) Tracheoesophageal fistula
B) Tetralogy of fallot
C) Respiratory distress syndrome
D) None of the above | A | Tracheoesophageal fistula | Tetralogy of fallot | Respiratory distress syndrome | None of the above |
Which organelle is involved in the case of sphinghomyelin deficiency:
Options:
A) Lysosome
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Cell membrane | A | Lysosome | Nucleus | Mitochondria | Cell membrane |
What is the longest duration of function of primary teeth
Options:
A) 6 yr
B) 8 yr
C) 10 yr
D) 12 yr | C | 6 yr | 8 yr | 10 yr | 12 yr |
The (EEG) curves are called:
Options:
A) Delta curves
B) Berger's Rhythm
C) Berger's Rhythm
D) REM Rhythm | B | Delta curves | Berger's Rhythm | Berger's Rhythm | REM Rhythm |
Which of the following are Chemoreceptors?
Options:
A) Rods
B) Cones
C) Taste buds
D) Muscle spindle | C | Rods | Cones | Taste buds | Muscle spindle |
A 57-year-old man presents with hemoptysis and generalized weakness. His symptoms began with small-volume hemoptysis 4 weeks ago. Over the past 2 weeks, he has become weak and feels "out of it." His appetite has diminished, and he has lost 10 lb of weight. He has a 45-pack-year history of cigarette smoking. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies reveal a mild anemia and a serum sodium value of 118 mEq/L. Chest x-ray shows a 5-cm left, mid-lung field mass with widening of the mediastinum suggesting mediastinal lymphadenopathy. MR scan of the brain is unremarkable. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Options:
A) Bronchial carcinoid
B) Adenocarcinoma of the lung
C) Small cell carcinoma of the lung
D) Lung abscess | C | Bronchial carcinoid | Adenocarcinoma of the lung | Small cell carcinoma of the lung | Lung abscess |
A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is
Options:
A) Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure
B) Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
C) Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
D) Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha | B | Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure | Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy | Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy | Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha |
Gustilo Anderson classification is used for ?
Options:
A) Compound fractures
B) Closed fractures
C) Distal end radius fractures
D) Femur head fractures | A | Compound fractures | Closed fractures | Distal end radius fractures | Femur head fractures |
Minocycline is not used in the 3 mix antibiotic paste because of only one adverse effect
Options:
A) Discolouration of crown
B) Roots become brittle
C) It reaches out readily
D) It has least antimicrobial effect | A | Discolouration of crown | Roots become brittle | It reaches out readily | It has least antimicrobial effect |
Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada (VKH) syndrome is:
Options:
A) Chronic granulomatous uveitis
B) Chronic non-granulomatous uveitis
C) Acute purulent uveitis
D) None | A | Chronic granulomatous uveitis | Chronic non-granulomatous uveitis | Acute purulent uveitis | None |
Which of the following anesthetic agents causes a rise in the Intracranial pressure
Options:
A) Sevoflurane
B) Thiopentone sodium
C) Lignocaine
D) Propofol | A | Sevoflurane | Thiopentone sodium | Lignocaine | Propofol |
Argyll Robeson Pupil results from the lesion of:
Options:
A) Accessory ganglion
B) Ciliary ganglion
C) Tectum region
D) Lateral geniculate body | C | Accessory ganglion | Ciliary ganglion | Tectum region | Lateral geniculate body |
Tension band wiring is done in following except?
Options:
A) Fracture patella
B) Fracture olecranon
C) Colie's Fracture
D) Fracture medial malleolus | C | Fracture patella | Fracture olecranon | Colie's Fracture | Fracture medial malleolus |
In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids, the voice abnormality that is seen is -
Options:
A) Rhinolalia clausa
B) Rhinolalia aperta
C) Hot potato voice
D) Scatacto voice | A | Rhinolalia clausa | Rhinolalia aperta | Hot potato voice | Scatacto voice |
Vector for Kala-azar -
Options:
A) Flea
B) Tsetse fly
C) Sand fly
D) Tick | C | Flea | Tsetse fly | Sand fly | Tick |
Positive sense nucleic acid genome is found in -
Options:
A) Polio virus
B) Papovavirus
C) Influenza
D) Picornavirus | A | Polio virus | Papovavirus | Influenza | Picornavirus |
Codex ali Men tarius is related to -
Options:
A) Water purity
B) Milk purity
C) Air pollution
D) Food stardardization | D | Water purity | Milk purity | Air pollution | Food stardardization |
Which index is used to score the outcome of treatment in patients with cleft lip and palate?
Options:
A) Index of Orthodontic Treatment Complexity (IOTC)
B) Summer’s Index
C) Index of Complexity Outcome and Need (ICON)
D) Goslon Yardstick | D | Index of Orthodontic Treatment Complexity (IOTC) | Summer’s Index | Index of Complexity Outcome and Need (ICON) | Goslon Yardstick |
ELISA test when compraed to western blot technique is -
Options:
A) Less sensitive, less Specific
B) More sensitive, More specific
C) Less sensitive, more specific
D) More sensitive less psecific | D | Less sensitive, less Specific | More sensitive, More specific | Less sensitive, more specific | More sensitive less psecific |
The professional antigen presenting cells ?
Options:
A) B cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) T cells
D) NK cells | B | B cells | Dendritic cells | T cells | NK cells |
Each milliliter of red cells contains ....... mg of elemental iron:
Options:
A) 1 mg
B) 2 mg
C) 3 mg
D) 4 mg | A | 1 mg | 2 mg | 3 mg | 4 mg |
who gave the concept of la belle indiffernce
Options:
A) seligman
B) lorenz
C) freud
D) bleuler | C | seligman | lorenz | freud | bleuler |
A 25 year old primigravide with mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation is under labor. She wants normal delivery which would be the best way to provide analgesia in this lady
Options:
A) Inhalational analgesia
B) Intravenous opioids
C) Spinal anesthesia
D) Neuraxialblockde analgesia | D | Inhalational analgesia | Intravenous opioids | Spinal anesthesia | Neuraxialblockde analgesia |
Local anaesthetics acts by inhibiting: March 2012
Options:
A) Sodium channels
B) Potassium channels
C) Calcium channels
D) Magnesium channels | A | Sodium channels | Potassium channels | Calcium channels | Magnesium channels |
Which polyp has maximum malignant potential ?
Options:
A) Sessile
B) Pedunculated
C) Superficial spreading
D) Any of the above | A | Sessile | Pedunculated | Superficial spreading | Any of the above |
A child can Sit in Tripod position at which month?
Options:
A) 5 months
B) 6 months
C) 8 months
D) 9 months | B | 5 months | 6 months | 8 months | 9 months |
The most important aspect in treating Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is to:
Options:
A) Administer heparin
B) Administer platelets
C) Treat the underlying disease process
D) Achieve normal levels of fibrinogen | C | Administer heparin | Administer platelets | Treat the underlying disease process | Achieve normal levels of fibrinogen |
All of the following are common cause of post splenectomy infections except: September 2009
Options:
A) H.influenza
B) Ecoli
C) Klebsiella
D) Streptococcus | C | H.influenza | Ecoli | Klebsiella | Streptococcus |
A 37-year-old man repos that after a sudden financial loss, he had a bout of illness in which he felt sad and nervous and fearful, could not sleep or eat properly. He also began to hear voices telling him that he was useless and should kill himself. His symptoms stopped after approximately one week. He has had no similar episodes. Medical history includes no psychiatric conditions. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and results of laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Schizophreniform disorder
B) Brief psychotic disorder
C) Schizo-affective disorder
D) Schizophrenia | B | Schizophreniform disorder | Brief psychotic disorder | Schizo-affective disorder | Schizophrenia |
Mutation in which of the following chromosome is associated with meningioma ?
Options:
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 19
C) Chromosome 22
D) Chromosome 9q | C | Chromosome 1 | Chromosome 19 | Chromosome 22 | Chromosome 9q |
True about Brenner tumor:a) Usually bilateralb) Resembles fibromac) Accounts for 20% of all ovarian tumorsd) Common in postmenopausal age group
Options:
A) c
B) bd
C) ab
D) ac | B | c | bd | ab | ac |
The best technique useful for initial viral load estimation is
Options:
A) Real time PCR
B) Widal test
C) Electrophoresis
D) Immunofluoresence | A | Real time PCR | Widal test | Electrophoresis | Immunofluoresence |
Intrinsic factor is produced by
Options:
A) Argentaffin cells
B) Oxyntic cells
C) Chief cells
D) Antral cells | B | Argentaffin cells | Oxyntic cells | Chief cells | Antral cells |
All the following familial syndromes are associated with development of pheochromocytomas except ?
Options:
A) Sturge-Weber syndrome
B) Von Recklinghausen disease
C) MEN Type II
D) Prader-Willi syndrome | D | Sturge-Weber syndrome | Von Recklinghausen disease | MEN Type II | Prader-Willi syndrome |
Glutathione reductase assay is helpful in assessing the deficiency of
Options:
A) Niacin
B) Vit B5
C) Pyridoxine
D) Riboflavin | D | Niacin | Vit B5 | Pyridoxine | Riboflavin |
Fibrosis is due to-
Options:
A) TGF-b
B) TNF-a
C) IL - 7
D) IL -10 | A | TGF-b | TNF-a | IL - 7 | IL -10 |
A term baby was brought with complaints of breathing difficulty. He was born normally to primigravida. Mother's antenatal period and labour record were normal. On examination he was in respiratory distress. Abdomen was flat. There was no organomegaly. The most likely cause is –
Options:
A) Congenital heart disease with dextrocardia
B) Respiratory distress syndrome
C) Diaphragmatic hernia
D) Aspiration pneumonia | C | Congenital heart disease with dextrocardia | Respiratory distress syndrome | Diaphragmatic hernia | Aspiration pneumonia |
Which of the following is an essential medium ?
Options:
A) MacConkey agar
B) Nutrient agar
C) Deoxycholate citrate agar
D) Selenite F broth | B | MacConkey agar | Nutrient agar | Deoxycholate citrate agar | Selenite F broth |
Which is not true about thoracic outlet syndrome ?
Options:
A) Radial Nerve is commonly affected
B) Neurological features are most common
C) Resection of Pt rib relieves symptom
D) Positive Adson's test | A | Radial Nerve is commonly affected | Neurological features are most common | Resection of Pt rib relieves symptom | Positive Adson's test |
Best level of anesthesia for LSCS:
Options:
A) T8
B) T10
C) T6
D) T4 | D | T8 | T10 | T6 | T4 |
The common cause of bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia is:
Options:
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Lead toxicity
C) Diphtheria
D) Diabetes mellitus | A | Multiple sclerosis | Lead toxicity | Diphtheria | Diabetes mellitus |
Which of the following anaesthetic agent causes adrenal suppression –
Options:
A) Etomidate
B) Thiopentone
C) Ketamine
D) Propofol | A | Etomidate | Thiopentone | Ketamine | Propofol |
Iopanoic acid is used in -
Options:
A) Myelography
B) Bronchography
C) Hysterosalpingography
D) Cholecystography | D | Myelography | Bronchography | Hysterosalpingography | Cholecystography |
Blister formation in burn case is in –
Options:
A) Intraepidennal
B) Subepidermal
C) Subdermal
D) Subfascial | B | Intraepidennal | Subepidermal | Subdermal | Subfascial |
All of the following take pa in male gential tract development except
Options:
A) SRY
B) SOX-9
C) FGF-9
D) WNT-4 | D | SRY | SOX-9 | FGF-9 | WNT-4 |
The concavity at the root of the nose is used as a third point of reference with
Options:
A) Whipmix average axis facebow
B) Hanau
C) Dentatus
D) Kayo | A | Whipmix average axis facebow | Hanau | Dentatus | Kayo |
Cranial nerves III, IV, V, VI lesions are associated with
Options:
A) Sphenoparietal sinus
B) Occipital sinus
C) Occipital sinus
D) Cavernous sinus | D | Sphenoparietal sinus | Occipital sinus | Occipital sinus | Cavernous sinus |
In a healthy individual on a normal diet, which of the following ion is completely absorbed in tubules
Options:
A) Na+
B) K+
C) Cl-
D) HCO3- | D | Na+ | K+ | Cl- | HCO3- |
When a posterior occlusal amalgam makes multiple
contacts with an occluding tooth surface, behaves as though it is in:
Options:
A) Flexion
B) Compression
C) Shear
D) Diametral compression | A | Flexion | Compression | Shear | Diametral compression |
Preoperative investigation to be done in down's syndrome posted for surgery
Options:
A) CT
B) MRI
C) X-ray of hand
D) Echo | D | CT | MRI | X-ray of hand | Echo |
Selective V2 receptor agonist useful for the treatment of central diabetes insipidus is :
Options:
A) Arginine vasopressin
B) Desmopressin
C) Lypressin
D) Terlipressin | B | Arginine vasopressin | Desmopressin | Lypressin | Terlipressin |
Puscher retinopathy is seen in patients with ?
Options:
A) Complication of chronic pancreatitis
B) Occlusion of anterior retinal aery
C) Head trauma
D) Diabetes mellitus | C | Complication of chronic pancreatitis | Occlusion of anterior retinal aery | Head trauma | Diabetes mellitus |
Parasympathetic supply is from
Options:
A) C234
B) T234
C) L234
D) S234 | D | C234 | T234 | L234 | S234 |
The main advantage of RPD over FPD in replacing bilateral lost teeth is
Options:
A) Cross arch stabilization
B) Aesthetics
C) Less expensive
D) Comfort to the patient | A | Cross arch stabilization | Aesthetics | Less expensive | Comfort to the patient |
Modified radical mastoidectomy is indicated in all except -
Options:
A) Safe CSOM
B) Unsafe CSOM with attticoantra! disease
C) Coalescent mastoiditis
D) Limited mastoid pathology | A | Safe CSOM | Unsafe CSOM with attticoantra! disease | Coalescent mastoiditis | Limited mastoid pathology |
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