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Which fibers are affected earliest in spinal anaesthesia?
[ "Sensory", "Motor", "Sympathetic preganglionic", "Vibration" ]
C
Local anaesthetic solution injected into the subarachnoid space blocks conduction of impulses along all nerves with which it comes in contact, although some nerves are more easily blocked than others. Stimulation of the motor nerves causes muscles to contract and when they are blocked, muscle paralysis results. Sensory...
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Casper's Dictum is used for
[ "Identification of Body", "Estimation of time since death", "Establishing cause of death", "Establishing weapon of Injury" ]
B
B i.e. Estimation of time since death
train
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Highest yield for parasite in case of Kala azar is obtained on:
[ "Bone marrow aspiration", "Splenic tap", "Peripheral smear", "None of the above" ]
B
Splenic aspiration is one of the most sensitive and widely used procedure and sensitivity may be as high as 95-97%. As a prerequisite for deciding splenic aspiration it is essential to determine prothrombin time and platelet count. If the prothrombin time is more than 5 seconds longer than the control sample and the to...
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Schedule-3 of MCI includes-
[ "MBBS degree of indian universities", "DNB degree", "Diploma of CPS", "MBBS degree of foreign universities" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Diploma of CPS Schedules of MCI Act MCI was established in 1934 and MCI act was revised in 1956, 1964, 1993, 1999, and 2002. The schedules of MCI includes list of medical degrees recognized by MCI :- Schedule 1 :- Includes list of recognised degrees awarded by Indian universities(' ") and also DNB awa...
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Intraepidermal IgG deposition is seen in -
[ "Pemphigous", "Bullous pemphigoid", "Herpes genitalis", "Not recalled" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pemphigus * Bullae and vesicles are formed due to a collection of fluid in the skin and the fluid collection occurs at sites where the cohesion of the skin is weak i.e.SubcornealIntraepidermal due to the separation of individual keratinocytesDermo-epidermal junctionClassification of bullous disorders ...
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Neurofibromatosis, type 1 patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following malignant neoplasms?
[ "Ganglioneuroma", "Glioblastoma multiforme", "Neurofibrosarcoma", "Serous cystadenocarcinoma" ]
C
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), Appearance of a neurofibrosarcoma in a neurofibroma. Neurofibrosarcoma, also known as peripheral nerve sheath tumor, is a malignant tumor that develops in the cells surrounding the peripheral nerves. NF1 also associated with neurogenic tumors, including meningioma, optic glioma, and pheo...
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Complications of aerosol steroids use include :
[ "Oral candidiasis", "Cushing's syndrome", "Decreased ACTH", "Systemic complications" ]
A
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6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is aEUR'
[ "CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency", "Familial glucocoicoid deficiency", "Cushing syndrome", "Insulinoma" ]
B
Familial glucocoicoid deficiency Familial glucocoicoid deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive condition. It is characterized by adrenal insufficiency. The pathological examination of the adrenal gland reveals that:- This causes low coisol concentration because the zona fasciculata is primarily responsible for glucoco...
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All are features of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis except –
[ "abdominal distension", "Increased bowel sound", "Metabolic acidosis", "Pneumoperitoneum" ]
B
Bowel sounds are diminished or absent.
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True about corynebacterium diphtheria includes all of the following except:
[ "Deep invasion is not seen", "Elek's test is done for toxigenicity", "Metachromatic granules are seen", "Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change" ]
D
Ans. (d) Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change "Corynebacteriophage beta carries the structural gene (tox+) encoding diphtheria toxin and a family of closely related corynebacteriophage are responsible for toxigenic conversion of tox- C.diphtheria to tox+ phenotype." Elek's gel precipitation test is in vitro t...
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Which drug doesn't include DMARD:
[ "Chloroquine", "Vincristine", "Azathioprine", "Leflunomide" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vincristine Drugs used for Rheumatoid arthritisDisease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)Biologic response modifier (BRMs)Adjuvant drugs1. Immunosuppresants - Methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporineo TNF a - inhibitors Etanercept, Infliximab,o Corticosteroids2. SulfasalazineAdalimumab 3. Choloroq...
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Which of the following involved in iron absorption is synthesized by liver and secreted through bile in the intestine?
[ "Apofertin", "Transferrin", "Apotransferrin", "All of the above" ]
C
Ans. c. (Apotransferrin). (Ref. Guyton physiology 11th ed., 425-426).Mechanism of absorption of Iron from the small Intestinal Tract# The liver secretes moderate amounts of apotransferrin into bile, which flows via bile duct into duodenum, where the apotransferrin binds with free iron and with certain iron compounds, s...
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Which of the following is indication for using raloxifine:
[ "Chronic renal failure", "Hypothyroidism", "Renal dystrophy", "Post-menopausal osteoporosis" ]
D
Ans. D. Post-menopausal osteoporosisRaloxifine has antioestrogenic effect on breast and endometrial tissue and estrogenic effect on bone. Therefore, it inhibits the bone resorption and indicated for the use in post-menopausal osteoporosis.
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The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in –
[ "White matter", "Grey matter", "Thalamus", "Basal ganglia" ]
A
Multiple sclerosis is primary demyelinating disease of white matter.
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Maximum urine osmolality in preterm neonate:
[ "200", "400", "500", "800" ]
C
c. 500(Ref: Nelson 20/e 349; Pediatric Urology By John G. Gearhart pg 15-20)Premature infants have an even more limited capacity to concentrate their urine than those born at term, with a maximum urine osmolality of about 500mOsm/kgH2 O.
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Child of 9 months, which reflex is most abnormal ?
[ "Asymmetric neck reflex", "Parachute reflex", "Righting reflex", "None" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Asymmetric neck reflex o Asymmetric tonic neck reflex is prominant between 2nd and 4th months. o Persistence of this reflex beyond the age of 6 - 9 months or a constant tonic neck posture are abnormal and usually indicate spastic cerebral palsy.
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What is the most common oppounistic infection in aids?
[ "Tuberculosis", "Cryptococcosis", "Pneumocystitis cannii", "Histoplasmosis" ]
A
Globally ,tuberculosis is the most common cause of moality & morbidity in HIV-infected patients . When CD4 count is less than 500cells/cubic millimeter ,tuberculosis may occur in an HIV patient .It is the most common cause of admission in patients with mild immune suppression . Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 877
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Annular pancreas, true is -
[ "Complete or paial rotation failure", "Congenital", "Normal histology", "All" ]
D
Answer 'a' i.e. Complete or paial rotation failure; 'b' i.e. Congential ; 'c' i.e. Normal histology Annular pancreas is a congenital anamoly resulting from failure of normal clockwise rotation of the ventral pancreas. The histology of pancreatic tissue is normal.
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Primary prevention includes all, except:
[ "Marriage counselling", "Health education", "Self breast examination", "Health promotion" ]
C
Pap smear and self breast examination are screening methods Ref: Park, 20th Edition, Page 39
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Burr cell is seen in "I -
[ "Uremia", "Hepatocellular carcinoma", "Gastric carcinoma", "Ovarian carcinoma" ]
A
Burr cells are cell fragments having one or more spines.They are paicularly found in uraemia. Echinocyte, in human biology and medicine, refers to a form of red blood cell that has an abnormal cell membrane characterized by many small, evenly spaced thorny projections. A more common term for these cells is burr cells R...
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The following are related to fetal souffle except.
[ "It is soft blowing murmur synchronous with the fetal heart sounds", "It is due to rush of blood through the compressed umbilical arteries", "It is heard in about 15% cases", "When present is diagnostic of pregnancy" ]
B
Ans. is b, i.e. It is due to rush of blood through the compressed umbilical arteriesRef. Dutta 9/e, p 64Funic or fetal souffle is due to rush of blood through the umbilical arteries. It is a soft, blowing murmur synchronous with the fetal heart sounds.
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Which of the following statements related to gastric injury is not true
[ "Mostly related to penetrating trauma", "Treatment is simple debridement and suturing", "Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury", "Heals well and fast" ]
C
A gastric injury is usually related to mostly to penetrating trauma, and it heals well and fast due to increased vascularity.The treatment for gastric injury is mainly simple debridement and suturing.but blood in the stomach is not always indicative of trauma only.it can be due to other reasons also.ABDOMINAL TRAUMA ca...
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In replantation surgery all the following types of injuries have the best outlook regarding survival and return of function except
[ "Clean sharp guillotine amputations", "Minimal local crush amputations", "Avulsion amputation with minimal proximal distal vascular injury", "Crush injuries with avulsed vessels" ]
D
In Clean sharp guillotine amputations, Minimal local crush amputations, Avulsion amputation with minimal proximal distal vascular injury have the best outlook regarding survival and return of function after replantation. Crushed and avulsed vessels require debridement and the use of interpositional vein grafts and the ...
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During the ear examination, cough occurs due to stimulation of
[ "Hypoglossal", "Trochlear", "Trigeminal", "Vagus" ]
D
Arnold nerve. It is an auricular branch of jugular ganglion of the vagus.  It supplies the skin of posterior part of pinna on the medial surface of the concha, and posterior wall of the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane. The auricular nerve is the afferent limb of the Ear-Cough or Arnold Reflex.
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Platelets can be stored at
[ "20-24oC for 5 days", "20-24oC for 8 days", "4-8oC for 5 days", "4-8oC for 8 days" ]
A
. Shelf-life 5 days Storage temperature range 20-24 oC Comments Platelets components must be agitated gently and continuously in a single layer on a platelet agitator.
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Oil red Or staining is used for
[ "Frozen section", "Glutaraldehyde fixed specimen", "Alcohol fixed specimen", "Formalin fixed specimen" ]
A
ref Bancroft histology 7/e p83 Fresh cryostat sections must be used for oil red o stain
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All of the following are good prognostic factors for childhood. All except -
[ "Hyperdiploidy", "Female sex", "Pre B cell ALL", "All" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pre B-Cell ALL o Pre B cell ALL has poor prognosis.
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Hemangioma of the rectum
[ "Common tumor", "Fatal hemorrhage not seen", "Ulcerative colitis like symptoms seen", "None" ]
C
Hemangioma of Rectum: Hemangioma of the rectum is an uncommon cause of serious hemorrhage When localized in the lower pa of the rectum or anal canal, a hemnagioma can be excised When the lesion is diffuse, or lying in the upper pa of the rectum, the symptoms simulate ulcerative colitis Diagnosis is often missed for a l...
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Which is not a feature of neoplastic cell?
[ "Hyperchromasia", "Pleomorphism", "Atypical mitoses", "Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio 1:4" ]
D
Ans: d (Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio 1:4)The hallmark of malignant transformation is anaplasia.The morphological changes in anaplasia are:-1) Pleomorphism: by both cell & nuclei2) Abnormal nuclear morphology: HyperchromasiaNuclear cytoplasmic ratio approaches 1:1 (normal is 1:4 or 1:6)Large nucleoli3) Large no of mitoses4...
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All of the following may be associated with the use of Beta agonist in preterm labour, EXCEPT:
[ "Hyperkalemia", "Hyperglycemia", "Tachycardia", "Relaxation of uterine muscles" ]
A
Beta 2 agonists stimulate the uptake of potassium into the cells which results in hypokalemia and not hyperkalemia as mentioned above. Beta 2 agonists administered in the parenteral form or as nebulisation can be used in the management of hyperkalemia by promoting cellular intake. Ref: Harrison's Textbook of Internal M...
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red leg disease is caused by ?
[ "aeromonas", "pseudomonas", "histoplasmosis", "shigella hemolyticus" ]
A
REDLEG Aeromonas is the most common cause of clinical bacterial diseases in amphibians and has been associated with the syndrome known as redleg disease The first thing to do, however, is to isolate the affected animal. Check temps, water quality, humidity and lighting. ref : ananthanaryana 9th ed
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Post menopausal estrogen production is due to :
[ "Peripheral aromatization of androstenedione", "Adrenal - direct production", "Ovarian tumor", "Ovary testosterone secretion" ]
A
In menopause estrogen levels decrease by 66%. Main source of estrogen production postmenopausaly is by peripheral aromatization of androstenedione. Main estrogen after menopause - oestrone.
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Length of human intestine is about ?
[ "5 meter", "8 meter", "12 meter", "15 meter" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 8 meterLength of human intestine is 7.5 meter to 8.5 meter :-Small intestine -6 to 7 meterLarge intestine - 1-5 meter
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Single tooth cross bite can be treated by:
[ "Removable or fixed appliances", "Expansion appliance", "Extraoral elastic", "Head gear" ]
A
null
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Mainly included in child survival index ?
[ "MMR", "IMR", "Moality between 1 to 4 yr. age", "Under 5 moality" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Under 5 moality
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Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus is:
[ "Desmopressin", "Leuprolide", "Thiazide diuretics", "Insulin" ]
A
Ans. (A) Desmopressin(Ref: CMDT 2010/996)*Desmopressin is treatment of choice for central diabetes insipidus.*It acts selectively at V2 receptors to increase urine concentration and decrease urine flow in a dose-dependent manner.*It is also more resistant to degradation than AVP and has a three to fourfold longer durat...
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Propranolol is contraindicated in a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
[ "Nifedipine", "Aspirin", "Verapamil", "Isosorbide mononitrate" ]
C
null
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The dye in Fluorescent microscopy?
[ "Thioflavin T", "Congo Red", "Brilliant Blue", "Auramine" ]
D
Auramine Rhodamine is the Dye for Fluorescent microscopy. Smears are stained with Auramine phenol or Auramine Rhodamine fluorescent dyes and when examined under UV illumination the bacilli will appear as bright rods against a dark background. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition; Pg no...
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Reciprocal anchorage is offered by
[ "Activator", "Inter maxillary elastics", "Maxillary expansion appliance", "Catalan's appliance" ]
C
null
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Congenital pit in optic nerve causes
[ "Macular retinal detachmnet", "Visual field defects", "Central serous retinopathy", "All of the above" ]
D
Optic disc pit - vision is normal in the absence of complications. The disc is often larger than normal and contains a greyish round or oval pit of variable size , usually temporal but occasionally central. Visual field defects are common and may mimic glaucoma. Serous macular detachment develops in about half of eyes ...
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Which of the following surface glycoprotein is most often expressed in human hematopoietic stem cells
[ "CD22", "CD40", "CD15", "CD34" ]
D
Ref Robbins 9/e p590 CD34 derives its name from the cluster of differentiation protocol that identifies cell surface antigens. CD34 was first described on hematopoietic stem cells independently by Civin et al. and Tindle et al. as a cell surface glycoprotein and functions as a cell-cell adhesion factor. It may also med...
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Erythrasma is caused by ?
[ "Comybacterium", "Staphylococcus", "Streptococcus", "Herpes Virus" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cornybacterium Erythrasma is a skin disease that causes brown, scaly skin patches. It is caused by the Gram-positivebacterium Corynebacteriumminutissimum. It is prevalent among diabetics and the obese, and in warm climates; it is worsened by wearing occlusive clothing.
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Largest carpal bone is
[ "Capitate", "Hamate", "Pisiform", "Scaphoid" ]
A
CARPAL BONES:-8 in number.Proximal row:-1. Scaphoid- boat-shaped.2. Lunate- moon shape/ crescentic.3. Triquetral-pyramidal.4. Pisiform-pea shaped.Distal row:-1. Trapezium - quadrilateral 2. Trapezoid- shoe shaped.3. Capitate- largest carpal bone.4. Hamate- wedge-shaped.{Reference: Vishram Singh, pg no.33}
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Fanconi's syndrome is caused by-
[ "Cephalosporins", "Chloramphenicol", "Decreased pseudocholinesterase", "Old and degraded tetracycline" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Old and degraded tetracycline o A fanconi syndrome like condition is produced by outdated tetracyclines due to proximal tubular damage caused by degraded products ---> epitetracycline, anhydrotetracycline, and epianhydrotetracycline.
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All of the following are true about lymph node metastasis except?
[ "Delphian:-Pretracheal", "Virchow's node:- Left Supraclavicular LN", "Rotter's :- retropharyngeal lymph node", "Sister Mary Joseph nodule:- not a lymph node cutaneous metastatic deposit around umbilicus" ]
C
Impoant Lymph nodes Rotter's nodes - Interpectoral nodes (CA breast) Rouvier Nodes - Retropharyngeal Nodes (CA Nasopharynx) Delphian nodes - Pre-Cricoid / pre-tracheal / Pre-laryngeal lymph nodes Irish nodes - Nodes in left axilla (CA stomach) Sister Mary joseph nodes - Periumbilical metastatic cutaneous nodules Vircho...
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Memory disturbance of ECT recovers in
[ "Few days to few weeks", "Few weeks to few months", "Few months to few year", "Permanent" ]
B
B i.e. Few weeks to few months
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In management of thyroglossal cyst
[ "Nodes of neck are removed", "Sternocleidomastoid muscle is dissected", "Central poion of thyroid is excised", "Subtotal thyroidectomy is done" ]
C
Thyroglossal cyst is managed by Sistrunk operation in which the cyst is completely excised along with the thyroglossal tract. Since the thyroglossal tract is intimately related to the hyoid bone, the central poion of the hyoid bone is also removed. Ref : S. Das Op. Surgery 4/e p201
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Which is not a feature of SIADH?
[ "Euvolemia", "Urine Osmolality > 100 mosm/ kg", "Low urine sodium", "Treatment is fluid restriction" ]
C
SIADH - Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion: * Euvolemia * Urine osmolality > 100 mosm/kg * High urine sodium (>20-30 meq/L) * Treatment is water restriction.
train
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Exopthalmos not present in
[ "Thyrotoxicosis", "Blow in fracture", "Blow out fracture", "None of the above" ]
C
null
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Endocrine functions associated with kidneys include all of the following except _____
[ "image_question", "image_question", "image_question", "image_question" ]
B
ANP is secreted by the hea. Endocrine/Paracrine functions of the kidney: Substance Site of secretion Renin Granular cells or juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells) of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Erythropoetin Interstitial cells in the peritubular capillary bed Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) Renal medullary interstitial cell...
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Selenocysteine is associated with ?
[ "Carbonic anhydrase", "Catalase", "Deiodinase", "Transferase" ]
C
Selenocysteine is considered as 21 standard amino acid.It is present at the active site of some enzymes that catalyze redox reactions, e.g. thioredoxin reductase, glutathione peroxidase, and the deiodinase (conves thyroxin to triiothyronine).
train
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Ayer's T Piece is:
[ "Mapelson A circuit", "Mapelson B circuit", "Mapelson D circuit", "Mapelson E circuit" ]
D
Ans. D. Mapleson E. (Ref. Paul's Clinical Anesthesia/Pg. 671)The Mapleson E is a modification of Ayre's T-piece, which was developed in 1937 by Phillip Avre for use in paediatric patients undergoing cleft palate repair or intracranial surgery.ConstructionA three-way T-tube whose limbs are connected to (F) the fresh gas...
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Consider the following - Goodpasture syndrome Myasthenia gravis Guillain-Barre syndrome In which of the above conditions may plasmapheresis be useful?
[ "1 only", "1 and 2 only", "2 and 3 only", "1, 2, and 3" ]
D
Three general types of plasmapheresis can be distinguished: Autologuous, removing blood plasma, treating it in some way, and returning it to the same person, as a therapy. Exchange, removing blood plasma and exchanging it with blood products to be donated to the recipient. This type is called plasma exchange (PE, PLEX,...
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Best screening test for cervical cancer
[ "Pap smear", "VIA test (Visual inspection with acetic acid)", "Both of the above", "None of the above" ]
B
null
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Patient having tooth fracture without involving pulp having sensitivity is due to
[ "Fluid flow in dentinal tubules", "Stimulation of nerve ending", "Due to extensive pressure created by occlusal contacts", "Due to change in intrapulpal pressure" ]
A
null
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All are seen in Henoch schonlein purpura except ?
[ "Thrombocytopenia", "Glomerulonephritis", "Ahralgia", "Abdominal pain" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., ThrombocytopeniaClinical manifestations of H.S.Purpura Constitutional symptomsFever, fatigue, malaise, Anorexia, weight loss. SkinThe hallmark of this disease is rash begining as pinkish maculopapules that initially blanch on pressure and progress to petechiae or purpura which are characterized by cli...
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True about Bacterial vaginosis :
[ "Fishy odour discharge", "Grey discharge", "Clue cells found", "All of these" ]
D
All of these Grey discharge; Clue cells found; Fishy odour discharge; and Caused by Gardenella vaginalis
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The term 'myopia' refers to:
[ "Near sightedness", "Far sightedness", "Constriction of the pupil", "Dilation of the pupil" ]
A
null
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Liver is divided into eight segments. Right hepatic duct drains all of the following segments, EXCEPT:
[ "Segment VIII", "Segment III", "Segment V", "Segment VI" ]
B
The right hepatic duct drains the bile ducts from segments V, VI, VII, and VIII, which constitute the right liver. The left hepatic duct directly drains the bile ducts to segments II, III, and IV, which constitute the left liver. Segment I (caudate) is drained by several small ducts. Ref: Principles and Practice of Gas...
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Thanatology deals with?
[ "Death", "Snakes", "Poison", "Fingerprints" ]
A
ANSWER: (A) DeathREF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh Kumar Rao. Page 115.The term Thanatology is of Greek origin; Thanatos meaning death and logus meaning the science. In other words it means the subject which deals with scientific study of death, types of death, the various events or changes th...
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Natural history of disease is studied with ?
[ "Longitudinal studies", "Cross-sectional studies", "Both", "None" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Longitudinal studies Longitudinal studies In this type of study observations are repeated in the same population over a prolonged period of time by means of follow up examinations. They are useful to Study the natural history of disease For identifying risk factors of disease For finding out incidence...
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Subaoic stenosis is not associated with?
[ "Ventricular septal defect", "Aoic regargitation", "Patent ductus aeriosus", "Coarctation of aoa" ]
B
Subvalvular aoic stenosis (AS) is a rare congenital hea defect in which the left ventricle is narrowed below the level of the aoic valve resulting in obstruction to blood flow out of the hea. The condition is also known as subaoic stenosis. Aoic stenosis can be caused by congenital bicuspid aoic valve, scarred aoic val...
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Marker of small cell cancer of lung is
[ "Chromogranin", "Cytokeratin", "Dermin", "Vimentin" ]
A
Small cell cancer of lung  Tumor cells are small round or spindle shaped with prominent nuclear molding. They will have scant cytoplasm, ill-defined cell borders, finely granular nuclear chromatin (salt and pepper pattern) and abesnt or inconspicuous nucleoli. Azzopardi effect is characteristic of small cell cancer of...
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Acute onset of blurred vision and absent pupillary response with rapidly progressive descending muscular weakness manifesting as quadriparesis in an afebrile 20 year old male with preserved sensorium is -
[ "Porphyria", "Botulism", "Polio", "Diphtheria" ]
B
Ans. is tb' i.e., Botulism Remember these important points about Botulismo Acute onset of weakness in muscles innervated by cranial nerve with prominent bulbar palsy (4D's) i.e. -# Diplopia# Dysphonia# Dysphagia# Dysarthriao Descending symmetrical weakness occurs often leading to weakness,o Sensory' abnormalities are a...
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All of the following statements about penicillin binding proteins are true EXCEPT:
[ "Present on cell surface", "Mutation in PBPs gives rise to resistance", "There are target site of vancomycin", "The MRSA have acquired a PBP which has very high affinity for Beta lactam antibiotics." ]
D
PENICILLIN-G (BENZYL PENICILLIN) Antibacterial spectrum PnG is a narrow spectrum antibiotic; activity is limited primarily to gram-positive bacteria and few others. Bacterial resistance Many bacteria are inherently insensitive to PnG because in them the target enzymes and PBPs are located deeper under lipoprotein barri...
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Statutory Rape is :
[ "Rape of an insane women", "Rape of another persons wife", "Rape in police custody", "Rape of under 15 years" ]
D
D i.e. Rape of under 15 yeas age
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After subtotal colectomy for toxic megacolon in CD, lowest recurrence is with:
[ "Complete proctectomy with Brooke ileostomy", "Ileorectal anastomosis", "Koch's pouch", "IPAA" ]
A
Ans. (a) Complete proctectomy with Brooke ileostomy* Creation of Kock's continent ileostomy pouch is not done nowadays.* Brooke's ilesotomy is the done commonly in emergency cases after total colectomy and proctectomy.
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The commonest cause of acute pancreatitis is
[ "Biliary calculi", "Alcohol abuse", "Infective", "Idiopathic" ]
A
Major cause of acute pancreatitis is biliary calculi(50-70% of patients) A careful search of aetiology is must before labelling idiopathic and no more than 20% cases should fall into this category. Bailey & Love 26th edition,1127,1128.
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Which is true of Ulcerative colitis -
[ "String sign of kantor positive", "Skip lesions are seen", "Rectum is always involved", "Fistulas are common" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rectum is always involved
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Best Test for intestinal malabsorption
[ "D-xylose test", "NBT-PABA TEST", "Fecal fatestimation", "Schilling test" ]
A
null
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Supine hypotension syndrome occurs in :
[ "Obesity", "Ascites", "Early pregnancy", "Advanced pregnancy" ]
D
Advanced pregnancy
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Opisthotonus is seen in poisoning with -
[ "Opium", "Strychnine", "Snake", "Scorpion" ]
B
Clinical features of STRYCHNOS NUX VOMICA * If seeds are swallowed uncrushed, the hard pericarp resist digestion and seeds are passed in feces without any poisonous symptoms. * With crushed seeds, symptoms begin to appear within 15 to 30 minutes. * Bitter taste in mouth * Sense of uneasiness, restlessness, fear and anx...
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Marker for menopause transition is:
[ "Menstrual irregularity", "Hot flushes", "| bone mass", "Cessation of menstruation" ]
A
Ans. is a, i.e. Menstrual irregularityRef: Williams gynae 3rd/ed, p472There is only one marker of menopausal transition, is menstrual irregularity. The cycles have long intervals (greater than 60 days).
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True about paget's disease -a) Common in young girl 10-16 yr of ageb) ↑ALPc) Associated with hypercalcemia & hypophosphatemiad) More common in femalee) Associated with chondrosarcoma
[ "ab", "ad", "be", "ce" ]
C
Paget's disease occurs after 40 years of age and is more common in males. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is raised and calcium & phosphate are normal. The usual malignancy complicating Paget's disease is osteosarcoma. There are some reports of cases of chondrosarcoma as a complication of Paget's disease.
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Savita is 32 weeks pregnant presents in causality and diagnosed as a case of APH. Vitals are unstable with BP 80/60 which of the following is next step in M/n:
[ "Careful observation", "Blood transfusion", "Medical induction of labor", "Immediate cesarean section" ]
B
Ans. is b, i.e. Blood transfusionRef. Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 259; Fernando Arias 3/e, p 342, fig. 13.2Unstable vitals (BP =80/60) belong most probably to moderate category bleeding.In Mild cases - Vitals remain stable.Severe cases - Patient is in shock with very low or unrecordable B.P.The gestational age of patient is 32 w...
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Among the following who was the personal pshysician of Gautam Buddha
[ "Susthruta", "Charak", "Jeevaka", "Nagarjuna" ]
C
Jeevaka, the legendary physician and surgeon, figures in the Buddhist literature and is immoalized because of the traditional account that he treated Lord Buddha and became his disciple. He also donated an ARAMA or resting place for the Buddhist monks. This came to be known as Jeevakarama which existed for centuries.
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A 50 year old normal looking lady, Sita has Ca cervix of stage between II - III. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
[ "Surgery and radiotherapy", "Radiotherapy and chemotherapy", "Radiotherapy alone", "Chemotherapy" ]
B
Best method of management of cervical cancer stage IIb and above (advanced stage) includes use of external radiation, brachytherapy implants and concurrent chemosensitization. Cisplatin based chemotherapy along with radiotherapy is the best treatment of choice in advanced stage cervical cancer. FIGO Stage IA-1: Is mana...
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The following are the features of "dystocia dystrophica syndrome" except
[ "They have normal fertility", "The patient is stockily built with short thighs", "Android pelvis is common", "Often have difficult labour" ]
A
Dystocia dystrophia syndrome Charecteristic features Short  Stocky Subfertile Android pelvis  Delayed menarche Masculine hairline
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Transcription refers to
[ "the process where an mRNA is used as a template for protein production.", "the process where a DNA sequence is copied into RNA for the purpose of gene expression.", "the process where DNA wraps around histones to form a nucleosome.", "the process of replication of DNA prior to cell division." ]
B
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What is present in the retropharyngeal space -
[ "Platysma", "Loose areolar tissue & lymph nodes", "Vertebrae", "Hypoglossal nerve" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Loose areolar tissue & lymph nodes o Retropharyngeal space lies behind the pharynx, i.e. between buccopharyngeal fascia covering pharyngeal constrictor muscles (anteriorly) and prevertebral fascia covering the prevertebral muscles (posteriorly),o So, retropharyngeal space lies behind the pharyngeal co...
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All of the following drugs cause amorphous whorl like corneal deposits except:
[ "Chloroquine", "Amiodarone", "Indomethacin", "Chlorpromazine" ]
D
Ans. d. Chlorpromazine (Ref: Goodman Gillman 12/e p1793; Khurana 5/e p69; Parsons 21/e p214)Amorphous whorl like corneal deposit suggests a case of vortex keratopathy. All the mentioned drugs cause this condition except chlorpromazine."The cornea, the conjunctiva, and even the eyelids can be affected by systemic medica...
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In DNA structure, maximum number of bonds are seen amongst which of the following pair:
[ "A-T", "G-C", "A-G", "C-T" ]
B
DNA is a double-stranded molecule twisted into a helix (think of a spiral staircase).Each spiraling strand, comprised of a sugar-phosphate backbone and attached bases, is connected to a complementary strand by non-covalent hydrogen bonding between paired bases.The bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C) and gu...
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Coronal suture completely fuses by the age of:
[ "20yrs.", "30 yrs.", "40 yrs.", "45 yrs." ]
D
Actually Coronal suture completely fuses by 50-60 years, but the maximum age given in this question is 45 years and hence the answer. Age from Skull Sutures- Two halves of mandible unite at- 2 years. Metopic suture (2 halves of frontal bone) closes at: 3 years. Coronal, Sagittal, Lambdoid sutures sta to close on inner ...
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Normal Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP) is:
[ "6-12 mm Hg", "10-14 mm Hg", "12-18 mm Hg", "18-25 mm Hg" ]
A
Answer is A (6-12 mm Hg): Capillary Wedge Pressure is between 6 to 12 mmHg. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) (Normal = 6 to 12 mm Hg) PCWP is recorded when the PA catheter balloon is inflated and wedged in a branch of the pulmonary aery. PCWP reflects left atrial pressure When there is no obstruction between t...
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Who takes care of the blind data surveys register ?
[ "District Health Society", "State Health Society", "Central Program Division, DGHS", "Village Health Guide" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e.,District Health Society [Ref class="normal">Composition of the district health societyThe District Health Society has a maximum of 15 members. Chairman, Vice-Chairman, Member Secretary, Technical Advisor, and other Members like Medical Superintendent! Civil Surgeon of Distt. Hospital, District Educatio...
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APGAR scale in infant measures
[ "Respiratory, Neurological, and Circulatory system", "Respiratory, Neurologic, renal system", "Neurological, renal, digestive system", "Respiratory, Neurological and digestive system" ]
A
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Bull's eye lesion in the macula is seen in:
[ "Chloroquine", "Hydroxychloroquine", "Quinine", "Sulfamethoxazole" ]
A
1. Autosomal-dominant, benign, concentric annular macular dystrophy 2. Ceroid lipofuscinosis *3. Chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine retinopathy 4. Cone dystrophy 5. Hereditary ataxia 6. NARP syndrome 7. Spielmeyer-Vogt syndrome (Batten-Mayou syndrome) *8. Stargardt disease (or fundus flavimaculatus) 9. Trauma 10. Unknow...
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Fascia covering the rectus abdominis muscle is-
[ "Rectus Sheath", "Peritoneum", "Scarpa's Fascia", "Buck's Fascia" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectus sheath Rectus sheath* It is an aponeurotic sheath enclosing rectus abdominis muscle formed by aponeuroses of the three flat abdominal muscles. Rectus sheath has two walls - (i) anterior and (ii) posterior.* Anterior wall is complete and its composition is variable as follows -i) Above costal ma...
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Which of the following may NOT resolve spontaneously?
[ "Erythema toxicum", "Powine stain", "Capillary hemangioma", "Cephalhematoma" ]
B
Powine stain: Defect of dermal capillaries. Represent progressive ectasia of the superficial venous plexus. Lesions grow darker with age as the vessels become more ectatic. Face is commonly involved. They do not resolve spontaneously. Treatment: 585-nm pulsed dye LASER. Capillary haemangioma (strawberry marks/ angioma)...
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Dumping syndrome is associated with-
[ "Reduction of part of stomach", "Decreased gastric secretion", "Hyperglycemia", "Decreased absorption" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reduction of part of stomach Dumping syndrome -o Symptom complex that occurs following ingestion of a meel wrhen part of stomach has been removed or the pyloric sphincter mechanism has been disrupted.o Dumping syndrome refers to a constellation of post-prandial symptoms occuring due to accelerated emp...
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Which of the following is not a calcium channel blockers
[ "Enalapril", "Nifedipine", "Verapamil", "Diltiazem" ]
A
Refer kDT 7/e p562 Calcium channel blockers are prescription medications that relax blood vessels and increase the supply of blood and oxygen to the hea while also reducing the hea's workload. Examples of calcium channel blockers include: Amlodipine (Norvasc)
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Putrefaction is delayed in poisoning due to -a) Carbolic acidb) Organophosphoursc) Leadd) Nux vomica
[ "b", "c", "ad", "ab" ]
C
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A 30-year-old male presented with hip pain for last 6 months. Hip X-ray is as shown below. What is the likely diagnosis?
[ "Giant cell tumor", "Simple Bone Cyst", "Adamantinoma", "Ewing's sarcoma" ]
A
Radiographic findings often are diagnostic. The characteristic x ray findings of GCT are: Eccentric Expansile Lobulated Lytic Metaphyseal NO matrix calcification of periosteal new bone formation
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A patient came to the gynecology OPD with complaints of foul-smelling frothy vaginal discharge and intense itching. On examination, she had strawberry cervix. Which of the following statements is false regarding the causative organism?
[ "image_question", "image_question", "image_question", "image_question" ]
A
The given clinical picture is suggestive of Trichomonas vaginalis infection. Trichomonas vaginalis is the only protozoa with one stage in its life cycle ie., trophozoite form (No cyst stage is seen). Other options: It is an obligate parasite and cannot live without close association with vaginal, urethral or prostatic ...
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Topical Mitomycin C is useful in treatment of?
[ "Angiofibroma", "Tracheal stenosis", "Skull base Ostemyelitis", "Laryngeal carcinoma" ]
B
Laryngotracheal stenosis treated by serial dilatation using Jackson bronchoscopes. Laser have tendency to recur and hence adjuvant methods are done to decrease the rate of restenosis. Mitomycin C is an example of one of these adjunctive agents. It is a chemical derived from the Streptomyces caespitosus bacterium. It is...
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Presence of budding capsulated yeast in CSF is
[ "Histoplasma capsulatum", "Coccidiomyces immitis", "Cryptococcus neoformans", "Blastomycetes" ]
C
(C) Cryptococcus neoformans # Cryptococcus neoformans is round or ovoid budding cell, 4-30 mm in diameter with polysaccharide capsule,> Infection is acquired by inhalation causes pulmonary cryptococcosis, (cryptococcal meningitis is most serious type of infection seen in AIDS patients.)> Diagnosis is established by dem...
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With respect to ticlopidine, clopidogrei:
[ "Is more likely to cause formation of antiplatelet antibodies", "15 less likely to cause neutropenia", "Is more likely to cause severe bleeding", "Has a greater antiplatelet effect" ]
B
(Ref: KDT 6/e p610) Ticlopidine and clopidogrel are ADP antagonists and are used as antiplatelet drugs. Antiplatelet action, chances of bleeding and formation of antibodies is similar with these two agents. Clopidogrel is better tolerated because it is less likely to cause severe neutropenia and thrombocy topenia as co...
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Which opioid does not require kidney & liver for metabolism -
[ "Remifentanyl", "Sufentanil", "Alfentanyl", "Fentanyl" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Remifentanylo Fentanyl80-100 times more potent than morphine.It is used in anaesthesia as neuroleptic analgesia^'anaesthesia.Transderma! patch is used in cancer or other types of chronic pain.It causes postoperative muscle rigidity,o AlfentanylAlfentanyl is seldom used now.It is shortest actingo Remif...
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Major sign for AIDS surveillance in WHO case definition ?
[ "> 10% weight loss", "Cough > 1 month", "Generalized lymphadenopathy", "Disseminated Herpes" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., > 10% weight loss WHO case definition for AIDS surveillance For the purpose of AIDS surveillance an adult or adolescent (six years of age) is considered to have AIDS if at least 2 of the following major signs are present in combination with one minor sign. Major Signs Weight loss > 10 % of body weight...
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All are caused by RNA viruses, EXCEPT:
[ "HIV", "Dengue", "Herpangina", "Fifth disease" ]
D
Fifth disease also known as erythema infectiosum is caused by erythovirus (Parvovirs) B19. Parvoviruses are linear, non segmented single stranded DNA virus. The various manifestations of human parvovirus B19 infection is; Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) Polyahritis Aplastic crisis Chronic anemia Congenital infecti...
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