question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
value | dataset stringclasses 6
values | subject stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
A patient presented with gradually progressive painless mass since 10 yrs. It is firm to nodular & variable in consistency at each site. Most probable diagnosis is? | [
"Dermoid cyst",
"Sebaceous cyst",
"Pleomorphic adenoma",
"Malignancy"
] | C | Pleomorphic Adenoma: M/C benign tumor of salivary glands. M/C seen in 30-40 y/o females. Arises from parotid, mandibular and other salivary glands. Presents as a parapharyngeal tumor in the oropharynx. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Police inquest is A/E - | [
"Senior head constable can investigate",
"Most common inquest",
"Panchnama has to be signed by IO",
"IO may not summon"
] | D | The investigating officer may summon the person.
The investigating officer is at the rank of head-constable or above (usually a sub-inspector).
Panchnama is signed by investigating officer and witness.
Police inquest is the most common type of inquest in India. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common age group affected with Infantile Colic is between | [
"0-3 months",
"4-6 months",
"7-9 months",
"10-12 months"
] | A | Infantile colicRule of threeCrying > 3 hours/day---- > 3 days/week for > 3 weeks.Facial grimacing, drawing up of legs and passing flatus.An infant usually outgrows colic by 3 to 4 months of age(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Paediatrics 19thedition, pg no: chapter - 11) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis | [
"Penicillin",
"Metronidazole",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Vancomycin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following about phenytoin is true | [
"It follows zero order kinetics",
"Not a hepatic enzyme inducer",
"It is excreted unchanged in urine",
"It is not teratogenic"
] | A | It follows zero order kinetics [Ref KDT 6th/e p. 403-405J There are three pharmacokinetic characteristic of phenytoin: -- Marked binding to serum protein - Nonlinearity of its elimination kinetics (1t.follows saturation kinetics) - Metabolism by the CY P'S Phenytoin follows saturation kinetics: ? - At their therapeutic concentrations most of the drugs occupy only a small fraction of their metabolizing sites so their metabolic rate increases as the drug concentration increase. - In such cases the metabolic rate of the drug is a constant fraction of the drug present in the body (rather than a constant amount of drug/h) i.e., the drug has a specific half life. This is.first order kinetics. For example If the concentration of the drug is 500 mg at time zero - After metabolism at 1 hr the drug concentration would be -4250mg - After metabolism at 2hr the drug concentration would be 125 mg However - When most of the enzymes are occupied metabolism occurs at a maximal rate i.e., it is saturated and does not change in propoion to the drug concentration i.e., a fixed amount of drug is metabolized per unit time. This is zero order kinetics. For example - Drug concentration at time zero --> 500 mg - After metabolism at 1 hr --> 450 mg - After metabolism at 2 hr --> 400 mg As the drug concentration increases metabolic sites and their metabolism shifts from first order to zero order. The drug whose kinetic changes from first order to zero at therapeutic concentration are said to follow zero? order kinetics saturation kinetics now small increase in drug dose produces marked side effects. - Phenvtoin is one of the few drug whose elimination varies as a function of its concentration i.e., the rate is nonlinear, as the drug concentration increases the kinetics shift to zero order. Phenytoin is hydroxylated extensively in the liver and this process becomes saturated at about doses needed for therapeutic effects. - Thus phenytoin at low doses exhibit. - First order kinetics - As the therapeutic concentration increases - Zero order kinetic develops. - Now a small increment in dose produces dispropoionate rise in steady state plasma concentration. - Thus dose increments should become smaller as the dose increased. Enzyme induction and inhibition We have seen above that the metabolism of phenytoin is saturable i.e., the enzymes metabolizing it gets saturated. - Because its metabolism is saturable, the other drugs that are metabolized by these enzymes can inhibit the metabolism of phenytoin and increase its concentration. Conversely the degradation rate of other drugs that are substrates for these enzymes can be inhibited by phenytoin. One such drug is warfarin - And addition of phenytoin to a patient receiving warfarin can lead to bleeding disorders. Another mechanism for drug interaction in phenytoin:- It arises from phenytoins ability to induce diverse CYPs. -Phenytoin is a potent inducer of hepatic enzymes that metabolize other drugs. - Coadministration of phenytoin and medication metabolized by these enzymes can lead to an increased degradation of such medication. - Of paicular note in this regard are oral contraceptive. - Treatment with phenytoin could enhance the metabolism of oral contraceptives and lead to unplanned pregnancy. Phenytoin is highly bound to proteins (90%) mainly albumin - Small variations in the percentage of phenytoin that is bound dramatically affect the absolute amount of free (active) drug. Therefore increased propoion of free drug are evident in Patients with hypoalbuminemia, uremic patients and neonates. TeratoRenic effects of phenytoin The total plasma level decreases when the percentage that is bound decreases as in uremia or hypoalbuminemia. Phenytoin is metabolized to Arene oxide compound that is responsible for its teratogenic effect (Fetal hydantion syndrome) :- - Hypoplastic phalanges - Cleft palate - Hair lip - Microcephaly | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a hemolytic anemia: | [
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Thalassemia",
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a post paum patient the blood volumes becomes normal after non pregnant state in | [
"2 weeks",
"4 weeks",
"6 weeks",
"10 weeks"
] | A | 2 weeks | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug can result in cerebellar toxicity? | [
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Cisplatin",
"Cytarabine",
"Actinomycin D"
] | C | Cytarabine is pyrimidine analogue At higher dose it is known to cause cerebellar toxicity like ataxia, dysahria. other side effects- myelosuppression,mucositis,nausea and vomiting. Cyclophosphamide causes hemorrhagic cystitis Cisplatin is most emetogenic anticancer drug. Actinomycin D and doxorubicin can cause vomiting,stomatitis,diarrhoea,erythema,desquamation of skin,alopecia and bone marrow suppression. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Exudative pleural effusion is seen in: March 2005 | [
"Pneumonia",
"Nephrotic syndrome",
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Cirrhosis"
] | A | Ans. A: PneumoniaTransudative pleural effusions are defined as those effusions that are caused by systemic factors that alter the balance of the formation and absorption of pleural fluid (e.g., left ventricular failure, renal failure, hepatic failure, and cirrhosis). Exudative pleural effusions, by contrast, are caused by alterations in local factors that influence the formation and absorption of pleural fluid (e.g., bacterial pneumonia, cancer, pulmonary embolism, and viral infection. According to Light's criteria, a pleural effusion is likely exudative if at least one of the following exists:The ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is greater than 0.5The ratio of pleural fluid LDH and serum LDH is greater than 0.6Pleural fluid LDH is greater than 0.7 times the normal upper limit for serumAdditional evaluation is needed to determine the cause of the excess fluid, and pleural fluid amylase, glucose, pH and cell counts are obtained.Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of esophageal rupture, pancreatic pleural effusion, or cancer.Glucose is decreased with cancer, bacterial infections, or rheumatoid pleuritis.Pleural fluid pH is low in empyema (<7.2) and may be low in cancer.If cancer is suspected, the pleural fluid is sent for cytology.The fluid is also sent for Gram staining and culture, and, if suspicious for tuberculosisThe most common causes of exudative pleural effusions are bacterial pneumonia, cancer (with lung cancer, breast cancer, and lymphoma causing approximately 75% of all malignant pleural effusions), viral infection, and pulmonary embolism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TB burden is highest in which country | [
"China",
"India",
"Pakistan",
"Bangladesh"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., India o Tuberculosis remains a worldwide public health problem despite the fact that the causative organism was discovered more than 100 years ago and highly effective drugs and vaccine are available making TB a preventable and curative disease. o India is the highest TB burden country in the world and accounts for nearly one-fifth (20%) of global burden of TB, 2/3rd of cases in SEAR. o Eight out of ten of all those struck by tuberculosis are in economically productive age group of 15-49 years. o Since the national repoing system is defective, the only reliable source of information on the magnitude of the TB problem has been the population sample surveys. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Newborn chest X-ray with respiratory distress shows multiple air containing lesions in left hemithorax and mediastinal shift is suggestive of: | [
"Neonatal emphysema",
"Diaphragmatic hania",
"Pneumatoceles",
"Congenital lung cysts"
] | B | Ans. Diaphragmatic hania | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following factors affect pulse pressure? | [
"Stroke volume",
"Compliance of aoa",
"Ejection fraction",
"All"
] | D | Two major factors affect the pulse pressure: (1) the stroke volume output of the hea and (2) the compliance (total distensibility) of the aerial tree. A third, less impoant factor is the character of ejection from the hea during systole. Ref: Guyton's physiology, 11th edition, page 73 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The laboratory evidence of flare in SLE is: | [
"Increase in titre of anti-dsDNA",
"Increase in titre of ANA",
"Increase in anti-Sm",
"Elevation of ESR"
] | A | SLE FLARE: LAB RESULTS Increases in quantities of anti-dsDNA herald a flare, paicularly of nephritis or vasculitis It may be associated with declining levels of C3 or C4 complement. Antibodies to Sm is specific for SLE and assist in diagnosis; anti-Sm antibodies do not correlate with disease activity or clinical manifestations. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2735 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Hitler intended to improve German race by killing the weak and defective"- this is an example of: | [
"Positive eugenics",
"Negative eugenics",
"Euthenics",
"Gene therapy"
] | B | Negative eugenics has little application in civilized world. People suffering from serious hereditary diseases may be sterilized or otherwise debarred from producing children. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 767. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not one of the proximate principles of food? | [
"Protein",
"Fat",
"Carbohydrate",
"Vitamin"
] | D | Proximate principles of food form the major bulk of food. In Indian diet, they contribute to total energy intake in following percentage Protein: 7 to15 % Fat: 10 to 30 % Carbohydrate: 65 to 80% Ref: Park 22nd edition, page 564. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following type of fracture is known as, "fracture-a la signature"? | [
"Gutter fracture",
"Depressed fracture",
"Ring fracture",
"Sutural fracture"
] | B | Depressed fractures are known as "fractures a la signature" (signature fractures), as their pattern often resembles the weapon or agent which caused it. These fractures are caused by local deformation of the skull. In this, fractured bone is driven inwards into the skull cavity. Gutter fractures are formed when pa of the thickness of the bone is removed so to form a gutter, e.g., in oblique bullet wounds. Ring or foramen fractures are fractures which encircle the skull in such a manner that the anterior third is separated at its junction with the middle and posterior third. Diastatic or sutural fractures in which separation of the sutures occur only in young persons, due to blow on head with blunt weapon. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 216-217. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4-week-old boy is brought to your OPD by his mother because he has had increasing amounts of vomiting over the past week. Initially it staed as "spitting up" after a few meals a day, but now the baby is having projectile vomiting after every meal. She says the vomitus is non-bloody and non- bilious and the baby appears hungry after he vomits. This is her first child and she is not sure if this is normal. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show: Sodium: 140 mEq/L Potassium: 3.0 mEq/L Chloride: 87 mEq/L Bicarbonate: 30 mEq/L At this time the most appropriate next step is to | [
"do nothing",
"obtain an abdominal radiograph",
"obtain an abdominal ultrasound",
"order a barium enema"
] | C | This baby has presented with the typical picture of pyloric stenosis. Projectile nonbilious vomiting is seen in viually all patients. Patients also often develop a hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis from the persistent vomiting. On exam, the upper abdomen may be distended after feeding and prominent peristaltic waves from left to right may be seen. The classic physical exam finding of an "olive-shaped" mass in the epigastric area is not always felt. An ultrasound is the least invasive, safest diagnostic test. The typical appearance on ultrasound is a hypoechoic ring with a hyperdense center. The pyloric muscle thickness measures greater than 4mm. Since this patient has the symptoms of pyloric stenosis, it is inappropriate to do nothing (choice A). A plain film of the abdomen (choice B) will most likely appear normal unless there is a complete obstruction of the pyloric outlet. Again, this study would expose the baby to unnecessary radiation. And, in this case, it would not help you to establish the diagnosis. A barium enema (choice D) will not help to make the diagnosis in this patient. The fact that the vomitus is nonbilious puts the point of obstruction prior to the entrance of the sphincter of Oddi. A study performed from below will not help to see what is happening so high in the intestinal tract. If you suspected intussusception (paroxysmal abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, heme-positive stool, and sausage-shaped mass in upper mid abdomen on palpation), then a barium enema (or air enema) would be both diagnostic and therapeutic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Apex locator reading 00? | [
"0.5-1 mm",
"0.75-1 mm",
"0.25-0.mm",
"0.5-0.75 mm"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
With respect to National Health Policy 2017, which of the following is true- | [
"Shift focus from maternal and child health to non-communicable diseases",
"Primary health care package which excludes geriatric health care, palliative care",
"Greater emphasis on maternal and child health services",
"Work towards centralizing Health Care across India"
] | A | Ans- Shift focus from maternal and child health to non-communicable diseases National Health Policy 2017 The Union Cabinet on 15.3.2017, has approved the National Health Policy, 2017 (NHP, 2017). Objective: The Policy seeks to reach everyone in a comprehensive integrated way to move towards wellness. It aims at achieving universal health coverage and delivering quality health care services to all at an affordable cost. Goal: The policy envisages as its goal the attainment of the highest possible level of health and well- being for all at all ages, through a preventive and promotive health care orientation in all developmental policies, and universal access to good quality healthcare services without anyone having to face financial hardship as a consequence. Shift focus from maternal and child health to non communicable diseases. Targets: The Policy has assigned specific quantitative targets aimed at reduction of disease prevalence/incidence under 3 broad components viz. (a) health status and programme impact, (b) health system performance and (c) health systems strengthening, aligned to the policy objectives. Key Features: 1. The policy recognizes the pivotal role of SDGs. 2. It commits highest professionalism, ethics and integrity in the entire health care delivery system. 3. It is patient-centric, dynamic, adaptive, decentralized and promises to deliver equitable, universal, affordable, accountable, quality health care. 4. It supports medical pluralism and recognizes AYUSH in the health care delivery system. 5. A multistakeholder approach with partnership & participation of all non- health ministries and communities. 6. The NHP, 2017 advocates a positive and proactive engagement with the private sector for critical gap filling towards achieving national goals. 7. The policy proposes raising public health expenditure to 2.5% of the GDP in a time bound manner. 8. This policy denotes important change from very selective to comprehensive primary health care package which includes geriatric health care, palliative care and rehabilitative care services. The facilities which start providing the larger package of comprehensive primary health care will be called "Health and Wellness Centers" Primary care must be assured. To provide comprehensive care, the policy recommends a matching human resources development strategy, effective logistics support system and referral backup. 2/3rd resources to primary health care. 9. The policy aspires to provide at the district level most of the secondary care which is currently provided at a medical college hospital. 10. Aims to have at least two beds per thousand population distributed in such a way that it is accessible within golden hour rule. 11. Purchasing care after due diligence from non-Government hospitals as a short-term strategy till public systems are strengthened. 12. It seeks to ensure improved access and affordability of quality secondary and tertiary care services through a combination of public hospitals and strategic purchasing in healthcare deficit areas from accredited non-governmental healthcare providers, achieve significant reduction in out of pocket expenditure due to healthcare costs, reinforce trust in public healthcare system and influence operation and growth of private healthcare industry as well as medical technologies in alignment with public health goals. 13. Policy recognizes the need for an information system with comprehensive data on availability and utilization of services not only in public hospitals but also in nongovernment sector hospitals. 14. The policy advocates extensive deployment of digital tools for improving the efficiency and outcome of the healthcare system and proposes establishment of National Digital Health Authority (NDHA) to regulate, develop and deploy digital health across the continuum of care. To help in developing family health cards (to provide digital access to patient data) 15. To strengthen the Human resources, the policy advocates review of Medical Syllabus in light of new emerging diseases, National level entry examination for medical education, establishing more AIIMS like institute to keep a continuous flow of faculty to medical college's and biomedical research, capacity building, and Skill development programme. 16. Policy has recommended incentive for doctors serving in remote area, also development of Public health cadre to manage the health programme. 17. Identified seven areas for inter sectoral action & people's campaign under "Swasth Nagrik Abhiyan" has been identified so that people stay healthy & rely less on hospital care. 18. The policy advocates for Clinical Establishment ACT 2010 to be implemented with provision for special medical tribunal committee for speedy resolution of complaints. There is the provision of regulatory rule in the field of availability and pricing of the medical technologies and drugs, clinical research, clinical trial, food safety, vaccine safety. 19. The policy advocates a progressively incremental assurance based approach. 20. National Health Care Standard Organization: formulate guidelines & protocols for health care. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child of 3 years will be able to: March 2009 | [
"Copy circle",
"Ride bicycle",
"Copy cross",
"Copy triangle"
] | A | Ans. A: Copy Circle Copying a circle: 3 years Rides tricycle: 3 years Copies cross: 4 years Copying triangle: 5 years | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selenite F broth is: | [
"Indicator medium",
"Selective medium",
"Enrichment medium",
"Enriched medium"
] | C | Ans. C. Enrichment medium. (Textbook of Microbiology by Ananthanarayan 7th/Pg. 37Enrichment medium is the one in which substances which have a stimulating effect on the bacteria to be grown or an inhibitory effect on those to be suppressed are incorporated so that an absolute increase in the no. of thewanted bacterium relative to other occurs. Selenite-F Broth is used as an enrichment medium for the isolation of Salmonella from feces, urine, water, foods. Other e.g. include tetrathionate broth (in which tetrathionate inhibits conforms while allowing typhoid-paratyphoid bacilli to grow freely).Selenite-F BrothApproximate Formula* Per Liter Purified WaterPancreatic Digest of Casein......................5.0 gLactose..............................................4.0 gSodium Selenite....................................4.0 gSodium Phosphate.................................10.0 g | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cubitus valgus is seen in | [
"# Intercondylar of humerus",
"# of the olecranon",
"# Head of the radius",
"# Lateral condyle of humerus"
] | D | Fractures commonly showing cubitus valgus deformity due to malunion :
Fracture lateral condyle humerus
Monteggia Fracture Dislocation
Complications of lateral condylar humerus fractures
Cubitus valgus
Cubitus Pseudovirus (lateral spur)
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
Osteonecrosis of the trochlea | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 37-year-old man suffers a traumatic injury to the axilla that damages the thoracodorsal nerve. Which of the following movements of the arm or scapula could be affected in this patient? | [
"Abduction",
"Adduction",
"Flexion",
"Lateral rotation"
] | B | Adduction o Latissimus dorsi is supplied by the thoraco-dorsal nerve. o Latissimus dorsi help us in scratching the opposite scapulai.e., it leads to adduction, extension & medial rotation at the shoulder joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
In comparison to amalgam restoration, composite restorations are _____. | [
"Stronger",
"More technique-sensitive",
"More resistant to occlusal forces",
"Not indicated for Class II restorations"
] | B | Composite restorations are more technique sensitive than amalgam restorations because the bonding process is very specific (requiring exact, correct usage of the various materials and an isolated, non contaminated field), and the insertion and contouring of composites are more demanding and time-consuming. Composites are not stronger than amalgam and have similar wear resistance compared to amalgams. Composites are indicated for Class II restorations. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasopharyngeal Ca is caused by - | [
"EBV",
"papillomavirus",
"papillomavirus",
"Adenovirus"
] | A | Epstein- Barr virus is closely associated with nasopharyngeal cancer. Specific viral markers are being developed to screen people in high incidence areas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which nerve is most at risk in the injury in the accompanying radiograph? | [
"Median nerve",
"Radial nerve",
"Posterior interosseous nerve",
"Ulnar nerve"
] | B | The radiograph demonstrates a transverse fracture of the distal half of the humeral shaft. The radial nerve runs in a groove on the posterior aspect of the humerus as it courses into the forearm compartment and is therefore at high risk of injury. If the nerve injury is apparent before any manipulation has been done, the fracture should be reduced; the nerve injury should be observed since the nerve function will likely improve with time. If the nerve injury is only present after reduction, immediate surgical exploration is warranted because the nerve might be trapped in the fracture site. At this level of the arm, the ulnar and median nerves are well protected by muscle. The posterior interosseous nerve is a distal branch of the radial nerve and may be injured in fractures near the radial head, but it is in no danger from injuries at the level seen in this radiograph. There is no "ascending circumflex brachial nerve." | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the Krebs cycle, Malonate competitively inhibits | [
"Isocitrate dehydrogenase",
"Succinate thiokinase",
"Succinate dehydrogenase",
"a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase"
] | C | The first dehydrogenation reaction, forming fumarate, is catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase, which is bound to the inner surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane. The enzyme contains FAD and iron-sulfur (Fe-S) protein, and directly reduces ubiquinone in the electron transpo chain. This is inhibited by Malonate Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 163 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Some times the following diastolic sounds heard during cardiac auscullation - | [
"S3",
"S4",
"Opening snap",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are ectodermal in origin except | [
"External acoustic meatus",
"Anal canal",
"Sebaceous gland",
"Bone marrow"
] | D | Human embryology; 10th edition; Inderbier Singh; Page no 95 Derived from ectoderm Epithelium of skin, hair follicle, sweat gland, sebaceous gland, mammary glandEpithelium over cornea and conjunctiva, external acoustic meatus, outer surface of the tympanic membraneSome pa of the mouth, the lower pa of the anal canal, terminal pa of the urethra, female external genitalia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thalassemia gives protection against ? | [
"Filaria",
"Kala-azar",
"Malaria",
"Leptospirosis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Malaria Types of anemia, that have protective effect against R falciparum malaria : - G6PD deficiency, Sickle cell anemia, Thalassemia, HbC, Pyruvate kinase deficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all of the following conditions except? | [
"Renal failure",
"Patient on metformin",
"Dehydration",
"Obesity"
] | D | Obesity is not a contra-indication for the administration of radio-contrast agent. Ref: Radiologic Technology at a Glance By Theresa S. Reid-Paul; pages 66. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is - | [
"Solitary adenoma",
"Chief cell hyperplasia",
"Multiple adenoma",
"Werner's syndrome"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the most common microorganism found in pediatric subacute infec ve endocarditis? | [
"Staph aureus",
"Strep viridans",
"E. coli",
"Pneumococci"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bilateral ovarian cancer with; capsule breached: ascites positive for malignant cells. Stage is : | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Stage I Bilateral involvement and malignant ascites is seen in category C of all stages i.e., Stage I Stage II and Stage III. As no mention is made whether disease extend beyond ovaries; Stage lc can be designated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most potent cycloplegic among the following | [
"Tropicamide",
"Cyclopentolate",
"Atropine",
"Umeclidinum"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 19-year-old primigravida has vaginal bleeding and an enlarged-for-dates uterus. In addition, no fetal heart sounds are heard. The ultrasound is seen in the Illustration. The most likely diagnosis of this woman's condition is | [
"Sarcoma botryoides",
"Tuberculous endometritis",
"Adenocarcinoma of the uterus",
"Hydatidiform mole"
] | D | Ans. D. Hydatidiform moleThe history, clinical picture, and ultrasound of the woman in the question are characteristic of hydatidiform mole. The most common initial symptoms include an enlarged-for-dates uterus and continuous or intermittent bleeding in the first two trimesters. Other symptoms include hypertension, proteinuria, and hyperthyroidism. Hydatidiform mole is 10 times as common in the Far East as in North America, and it occurs more frequently in women over 45 years of age. A tissue sample would show a villus with hydropic changes and no vessels. Grossly, these lesions appear as small, clear clusters of grapelike vesicles, the passage of which confirms the diagnosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is malignant hydatid disease - | [
"Malignant changes into hydatid cyst",
"Infection with E. multilocularis",
"Hydatid disease in immunocompromised host",
"Caused by Echino.granulosus"
] | B | Echinococcus multilocularis Hydatid disease: Liver is the common organ affected (98% of cases). The disease may resemble a slowly growing carcinomaand may cause symptoms of intrahepatic poal hypeension. Hepatomegaly and hypeension. Cyst appears as solid, film mass with irregular outer layer and has an ability to migrate rapidly to other organs so that it mimics a malignant tumor Man is an accidental intermediate host. Definitive agent- Foxes and wolves (and also dogs and cats). Intermediate hosts- Small wild rodents like squirrels, voles, mice, etc. . This disease is found in Russia, Kazakhstan, china etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 64 year old hypeensive obsese female was undergoing surgery for fracture femur under general anaesthesia. Intra-operatively her end-tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm of Hg, followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%. What could be the most probable cause? | [
"Fat embolism",
"Hypovolemia",
"Bronchospasm",
"Myocardial infarction"
] | A | A i.e. Fat embolism | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epidermal growth factor is required for: | [
"Epithelium proliferation and tooth eruption",
"Angiogenesis",
"Collagen formation",
"Fibroblast formation"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is true regarding retroveed uterus : | [
"Causes menorrhagia",
"Associated with endometriosis",
"It is a cause of infeility",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Associated with endometriosis; It is a cause of infeility; Causes menorrhagia; and Associated with PID The usual position of the uterus is one of anteversion and anteflexion, in which the body of the uterus is bent forward at its junction with cervix. Retroversion is a condition in which axis of cervix is directed upward and backward (instead of forward). Causes Seen in 20% of patients Mobile retroversion Fixed retroversion Retroversion can never be * Prolapse * PID congenital (it is always developmental) * Puerperium * Pelvic tumors malformation as the uterus is without * Fibroid * Chocolate cyst of ovary version and flexion at bih. * Ovarian cyst * Pelvic endometriosis (pushes uterus backward) Symptoms : Mobile retroversion is usually symptomless, main disadvantage being increased risk of perforation of the uterus at the time of instrumentation. Symptoms which can be seen are : Spasmodic dysmenorrheadeg Pelvic congestion syndrome causing : - Congestive dysmenorrhea - Polymenorrhagia - Premenstrual low backache - Dyspareunia (it is the most specific and genuine complain in case of retroversion) - Leucorrhoea Infeility as cervix is directed forward away from the seminal pool and the ejaculation of semen directly into the external os. Aboion : can cause aboion between 10th to 14th week. Treatment : If retroversion is mobile no treatment is required. In patient complaining of dyspareunia backache with retroveed uterus Hodge pessary may be used to keep uterus in anteveed position. Surgical management : - Modified Gilliams operation - Plication of round ligamentdeg - Baldy webster open9tiondeg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sexual gratification obtained by contact of private pas in | [
"Masochism",
"Transvestism",
"Fetichism",
"Frotteurism"
] | D | Frotteurism In this, sexual gratification is obtained by contact. The person is obtaining the gratification by rubbing his private pas against a female's body. It is punishable according to Sec 354A IPC Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 312 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are signs of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome – | [
"Intercostal retraction",
"RR > 60/ min",
"PH < 7.2",
"All of these"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monteggia fracture is a: | [
"Fracture of atlas",
"Fracture of radial styloid",
"Fracture of proximal 1/3 of ulna with dislocation of proximal radioulnar joint",
"Fracture of distal 1/3 of radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint"
] | C | Fractures between the proximal third of the ulna and the base of olecranon combined with dislocation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint. Direction of dislocation of radial head is used for classification. Bado's classification is used to classify monteggia fracture | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensitivity of central chemorecepter in COPD - | [
"Decreased to H+",
"Increased to H+",
"Increased to PCO2",
"Increased to PO2"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Decreased to H+ o Primary stimulus for central chemoreceptors is an increase in hydrogen ion concentration (H) in CSF. o But, central chemoreceptors are depressed in hypoxia (COPD causes hypoxic hypoxia). "Central chemoreceptors are not stimulated by hypoxia; rather like any other cells, they are depressed by- hypoxia " ___ Priciples of medical physiology o Thus, COPD will cause depression of central chemoreceptors to other stimuli as it causes hypoxic hypoxia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements about asbestosis | [
"Causes Lung Ca",
"Pleural mesothelioma",
"Peritoneal mesothelioma",
"All of the above"
] | D | Answer is D (All of the above) : Asbestosis may be associated with Bronchogenic carcinoma, Mesotheliomas (pleural and peritoneal) and Pulmonary fibrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dependency' ratio includes - | [
"Less than 15 years",
"Less than85 years",
"30-50 years",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Less than 15 years Dependency ratiooThe proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependent on the economically productive age group {15-64 years).o The ratio of combined age group 0-14 years plus 65 years and above to the 15-65 years age group is known as total dependency ratio.o It is also referred to as the societal dependency ratio and reflects the need for a society to provide for their younger and older population groups. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following neurotransmitters are decreased in alzheimers disease? | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Norepinephrine",
"Coicotropin",
"All the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the aboveRef - Niraj Ahuja &/e p. 25; Dementia by Brown and Hilhn like p. 60 ]Neurotransmitters in Alzheimer's disease:Acetylcholine has a major role in memory functions and deficiency in cholinergic functioning is associated with memory disturbances paicularly sho term memory.In Alzheimer's disease there loss of cells in the nucleus basalis of meyer net results in marked reduction in choline acetyltransferase (CHAT), an enzyme involved in the synthesis of acetylcholine + Decreased Acetylcholine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38 years old female, mother of a child with Down's syndrome became pregnant again. The method of assessing the risk of Down's syndrome in the present pregnancy is: | [
"Maternal alpha fetoprotein",
"Material HCG",
"USG",
"Chorionic villus biopsy"
] | D | Chorionic villus sampling is generally performed at 11-12 weeks' gestation. Tissue obtained by chorionic villus sampling provides DNA for molecular analysis and contains dividing cells (cytotrophoblasts) that can be rapidly evaluated by FISH. The primary advantage of villous biopsy is that results are available earlier in pregnancy, which lessens parental anxiety when results are normal. It also allows earlier and safer methods of pregnancy termination when results are abnormal. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 13. Prenatal Diagnosis and Fetal Therapy. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Suntentaculum tali is present on | [
"Talus",
"Navicular",
"Calcaneus",
"Cuneiform"
] | C | Sustentaculum tali is a bony projection present on Calcaneus, on medial surface. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During laryngoscopy and endo-tracheal intubation which of the maneuver is not performed – | [
"Flexion of the neck",
"Extension of Head at the atlanto-occipital joint",
"The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors",
"In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted by the tip"
] | C | Upper incisor teeth have to be protected by a guard and the leverage of teeth should be avoided.
"Loose, filled or capped teeth, especially upper incisors, may be protected by a guard".
— Lee | train | med_mcqa | null |
Theodore Croll 1986 is associated with: | [
"Use of 18% hydrochloric acid and pumice - microabrasion",
"Use of 12 fluted bur to remove the defects",
"Bleaching techniques",
"Dakin's solution"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not used in lepra reaction? | [
"Chloroquin",
"Rifampicin",
"Clofazimine",
"Thalidomide"
] | B | Rifampicin REF: Rook's 7' ed p. 29.1-29.14 Treatment of lepra reactions according to severity Type 1 Type 2 Mild NSAIDS NSAIDS Moderate Nsaids , Coicosteroids NSAIDS , Clofazimine, Thalidomide, Chloroquine Severe NSAIDS . Coicosteroids Thalidomide , Coicosteroids , Parenteral antimony | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rx of DI- | [
"ADH",
"Thiazide",
"Loop diuretics",
"Insulin"
] | A | Diabetes insipidus form is treated with a man-made hormone called desmopressin (DDAVP, Minirin, others). This medication replaces the missing anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) and decreases urination. You can take desmopressin as a nasal spray, as oral tablets or by injection. ref - Davidson's medicine 23e p687-688 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which acts on nuclear receptors | [
"Glucocorticoids",
"Thyroxine",
"Progesterone",
"Insulin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thyroxine Hormones with intracellular receptors (Group I hormones)* Cytoplasmic :- Glucocorticoids (cortisol/cortisone), mineralocorticoids, androgens, progestins.* Nucleus :- Estrogen, Thyroid hormones (T3, T4), retinoic acid, Vitamin D (Calcitriol or 1,25 (OH)2 D3). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute pyelonephritis is diagnosed by? | [
"Focal scar in renal cortex",
"Septicaemia",
"Altered renal function",
"Chills, fever, flank pain"
] | D | Classically, acute pyelonephritis has an acute onset with chills, fever, loin pain, lumbar tenderness, dysuria and frequency of micturition.
Urine will show abundance of bacteria, pus cells and pus cell casts in the urinary sediment.
Institution of specific antibiotics, after identification of bacteria by culture followed by sensitivity test, eradicates the infection in majority of patients.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 669 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false regarding brittle bone disease? | [
"It is caused by defects in type 2 collagen",
"Predominantly autosomal-dominant inheritance is seen",
"Blue sclerae and deafness may be associated",
"Bisphosphonates are useful in the treatment"
] | A | Brittle bone disease is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta (OI). It is due to defects in type 1 collagen, not type 2 collagen. There are 12 types of OI, with type 1 being the most common. Triad of fragile bones, blue sclera and deafness is known as van der Hoeve syndrome. Treatment includes bisphosphonate therapy and ohopedic rehabilitation. Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition pgno: 3737 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anitskov's cells are modified: | [
"Neutrophils",
"Macrophages",
"Lymphocytes",
"Eosinophils"
] | B | Ans: b (Macrophages) Ref: Robbins, p. 593In acute rheumatic fever, focal inflammatory lesions found in the heart are called Ashoff bodies. They consist of foci of swollen eosinophils, collagen surrounded by lymphocytes, but occasionally they contain plasma cells and plump macrophages. These plump macrophages are called Anitschkow cells.They are pathognonomic of rheumatic fever.Some other important cells:-LEcell- Neutrophil in SLETart cell- lymphocyte in SLELangerhan'scell- Ag presenting cells in epidermis (modified macrophages)Langhan's cell- Giant cells in granulomaGlitter cells- leucocytes in pyelonephritisGitter cells- microglia in CNSFlame cells- plasma cells in multiple myelomaFoam cells- lipid containing macrophages in leprosyHofbauer cells- placentaArmani Ebstein cells- Epithelial cells of PCT in DM | train | med_mcqa | null |
Before pubey, what is the ratio between the cervical length & uterine body? | [
"1:02",
"2:01",
"1:03",
"1:04"
] | B | Ratio of cervix : uterus length , Before pubey it is 2: 1 After pubey it is 1: 2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ketoconazole: | [
"Antifungal agent",
"Antibacterial",
"Antiviral agent",
"Chemotherapeutic agent"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following patients would enalapril be the best first line agent for high blood pressure control ? | [
"A 62 year old man with renal artery stenosis",
"A 32 year old pregnant female",
"A 41 year old woman with hyperkalemia",
"A 56 year old diabetic woman"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tetralogy of fallots includes all except | [
"Pulmonary stenosis",
"VSD",
"ASD",
"RVH"
] | C | TOF include VSD,RVH,PS Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:420 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anaesthetic agent is known to cause dissociative anaesthesia? | [
"Ketamine",
"Thiopentone",
"Suxamethonium",
"Diazepam"
] | A | Ketamine is known to cause dissociative anaesthesia. Its primary sites of action are in the cerebral coex, thalamocoical pathways, and limbic system and not in the brainstem. Ketamine anaesthesia produces a trance like state with associated amnesia, sedation and analgesia. With this, patient appears dissociated from the environment but the eyes remain open and spontaneous involuntary movements can occur. The vital functions of brainstem are preserved. Side effects of ketamine includes: Hypeension Diplopia Nystagmus Dizziness Confusion Seizures Cardiac arrhythmias Nausea,vomiting and sedation Psychomimetic reactions Distressing psychic emergence phenomena Ref: Pediatric Anesthesia edited by Bruno Bissonnette page 378. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about Polio - | [
"Descending paralysis",
"Bilateral symmetrical",
"Non-progressive",
"LMN type paralysis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
By using Ultrasonogram the smallest size of gallstone which can be confidently diagnosed is of size: | [
"1.5 mm",
"3 mm",
"5mm",
"10 mm"
] | A | Ultrasonography of the gallbladder is very accurate in the identification of cholelithiasis. Stones as small as 1.5 mm in diameter may be confidently identified provided that firm criteria are used. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2619 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristics of smooth and cardiac muscle include all of the following EXCEPT? | [
"Gap junctions",
"Central nuclei",
"Branching fibers",
"Perinuclear organelles"
] | C | Cardiac muscle consists of long, branching fibers whereas smooth muscle cells or fibers are unbranched. Cardiac muscle is striated and resembles skeletal muscle in its arrangement of contractile elements. Cardiac fibers that are specialized to conduct impulses are called Purkinje fibers. Central nuclei, one per cell, are common to smooth and cardiac muscle. Skeletal muscle has multiple nuclei per cell.
Gap junctions are a component of the cardiac muscle intercalated disk, in addition to desmosomes and a fascia adherens (zonula adherens) Gap junctions join smooth muscle cells, allowing for a wavelike spread of contraction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pleural effusion with very low glucose is | [
"Malignancy",
"Tuberculosis",
"SLE",
"Rheumatoid ahritis"
] | D | Rheumatoid ahritis produces an exudative pleural effusion with predominant lymphocytes,positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies,and very low glucose in pleural . Pleural involvement is the most frequent manifestation of rheumatoid ahritis (RA) in the chest. The effusion is an exudate and is characterized by low pH and glucose level, and high lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) and cell count low glucose also seen in malignancy,and tubercular effusion. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 580 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are TRUE statements about talipes equinovarus, EXCEPT: | [
"Inversion of the foot",
"Adduction of the forefoot",
"Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita causes it",
"Treatment should sta after 3 months"
] | D | In congenital clubfoot or talipes equinovarus, there is more or less rigid inversion of the hind foot, adduction of the forefoot, and limited dorsiflexion- an equ deformity. Initial treatment is always nonoperative and should be staed as soon as possible, probably the day baby is born. Also know: Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita is a congenital condition characterized by multiple soft tissue contracture leading to various deformities occurring at various joints of upper and lower limbs including CTEV, but mostly several deformities coexists, it is a much rarer condition than idiopathic CTEV deformity. Ref: CSDT 11/e, Page 1195-96 ; Maheshwari 3/e, Page 193-97 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lathyrism is seen with eating of: Kerala 08 | [
"Red gram",
"Kesari dhal",
"Mushrooms",
"Sausages"
] | B | Ans. Kesari dhal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maintenance fluid for a child weighing 10 kg ? | [
"1500 ml/day",
"1000m1/day",
"750m1/day",
"500m1/day"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1000m1/day o Up to 10 kg, the requirement is 100 ml/kg/day. o So, Maintenance fluid for a 10 kg child is 1000 ml/kg/day. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Finding on histopathological examination in the liver in case of malaria is - | [
"Microabscess formation",
"Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around periportal area laden with pigments",
"Non caseating granuloma",
"Non specific finding of neutrophilic infiltration"
] | B | In severe infections with Plasmodium falciparum, the vital organs are packed with erythrocytes containing a mature form of the parasite.
There is abundant intra and extraerythrocytic pigment and organs such as liver, spleen and placenta may be grey black in colour.
Liver and spleen in severe malaria
The liver is generally enlarged and maybe black from malarial pigment.
There is congestion of the centrilobular capillaries with sinusoidal dilatation and kupffer cell hyperplasia
The Kupffer cells are heavily laden with malarial pigment, parasites and cellular debris.
Sequestration of parasitized erythrocytes is associated with variable cloudy swelling of the hepatocytes and perivenous ischemic change and sometimes centrizonal necrosis.
Hepatic glycogen is often present despite hypoglycemia.
The spleen is often dark or black from malarial pigment, enlarged, soft and friable.
It is full of erythrocytes containing mature and immature parasites.
There is evidence of reticular hyperplasia and architectural reorganization.
The soft and acutely enlarged spleen of acute lethal infections contrasts with the hard fibrous enlargement associated with repeated malaria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
who gave the concept of heirachy of needs | [
"freud",
"maslow",
"lorenz",
"seligman"
] | B | ABRAHAM MASLOW Gave the hierarchy of needs It is also called as hierarchy of motivation According to Maslow the basic needs should be met to move on to the next stage Once the basic step is attained, we work on to the higher stage The final stage is self-actualization, that is acceptance of your positives, negatives, sho comings, doing things that you are good at and working with satisfaction. Ref, kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, pg no. 485 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stages of death was given by | [
"Ronald Ross",
"Kurt - Schneider",
"Kubler Ross",
"Sigmond Freud"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reading and writing skills of a moderate mentally retarded child: | [
"Reasonable",
"Basic",
"Minimal",
"None"
] | B | Learning disability Mild disability Moderate disability Severe/profound disability IQ level 69-50 49-35 <35 % of cases 85% 10% 5% Self-care Independent Need some help Limited Language Reasonable Limited Basic/none Reading & writing Reasonable Basic Minimal/none Ability to work Semi-skilled Unskilled, supervised Basic-tasks, supervised Social skills Normal Moderate Few | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following skin changes are associated with Diabetes Mellitus except | [
"Acanthosis Nigricans",
"Granuloma annulare",
"Necrobiosis lipiodica",
"Salmon patch"
] | D | Salmon patch is associated with "Sturge - Weber" syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shingles is the other name for ? | [
"Herpes simplex",
"Varicella?zoster",
"Herpes Zoster",
"Herpes labialis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Herpes Zoster Herpes zoster is also referred to as shingles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epleys maneuvear - | [
"Positional vertigo",
"Otosclerosis",
"ASOM",
"CSOM"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Positional vertigoo Epley's maneuver (vestibular exercise) is used in BPPV.Treatment of BPPVo The definitive treatment of BPPV requires that crystals causing inflammation in the semicircular canals should 1 removed.o This can be done by the Eplev maneuvers (vestibular exercise), where the head is taken through a series of positic changes that allow the crystals to be emptied out of the canal.o Several medications, including common motion sickness remedies, may relieve symptoms of BPPV and may be us< for less severe episodes of vertigo or in addition to the Epley maneuvers,o These medications are meclizine, dimenhydramine, diazepam.o Surgery for BPPV is reserved for the most severe cases which are intractable and which are not associate with other pathology.o Posterior semicircular canal occlusion is the simplest procedure w hich addresses the cause of the dizziness its source.o The posterior semicircular canal is surgically plugged. This prevents any loose particles from causing vertigo. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ectopic pregnancy all are useful for diagnosis except | [
"Culdocentesis",
"USG",
"Beta HCG",
"Flat abdomen"
] | D | Ans) d (Flat abdomen) Ref Williams 22nd ed pg 259All except flat abdomen are useful for diagnosing ectopic pregnancy.Ectopic pregnancyCommonest site - AmpullaCommonest cause - PID (Salpingitis)Other causes - IUCD (Progestasert)- Tubal surgery- Adhesion following pelvic surgery- ARTPrevious ectopic -10% chance of recurrent ectopicModes of termination of tubal pregnancy--- Tubal abortion (most common)- Tubal rupture- Tubal mole- Continuation of pregnancyUterus in ectopic - Decidua without Chorionic villusArias- Stella reaction - Typical adenomatous change of endometrial glandsTubal mptureMost common in isthmic regionIsthmic mpture - 6-8wksAmpullary mpture - 8-12 wksInterstitial mpture - 16wksTriad- AmenorrhoeaAbdominal pain - Most constant feature of triadVaginal bleedingOther symptoms - Nausea, vomiting, fainting attacksInvestigation of choice - TVSAbsence of intrauterine pregnancy with a positive pregnancy testFluid in pouch of douglasAdnexial mass clearly separated from ovaryRarely cardiac pulsationOthers - beta HCG, laparoscopy, D & CS. progesterone>25mg/ml- Intra uterine <5mg/ml- AbnormalStudiford criteria - Primary abdominal pregnancySpiegelberg criteria - Ovarian pregnancyPaalman and Me Elin criteria- Cervical pregnancyDmgs used - Methotrexate KC1 Hyperosmolar glucose Ru-486. Indication for Methotrexate in ectopic pregnancy(1) Patient haemodynamically stable(2) Tubal diameter <4cm without cardiac activities(3) Beta-HCG levelSurgery - Linear salpingostomy- Linear salpingotomy- Salpingectomy- Milking of tube | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common variety of scleritis is: | [
"Non-necrotizing anterior diffuse",
"Non-necrotizing anterior nodular",
"Anterior necrotizing with inflammation",
"Anterior necrotizing without inflammation"
] | A | Ans. Non-necrotizing anterior diffuse | train | med_mcqa | null |
ADH is secreted by | [
"Hypothalamus",
"Posterior pituitary",
"Anterior pituitary",
"Pineal gland"
] | A | Vasopressin a hormone secreted by cells of the hypothalamic nuclei and stored in the posterior pituitary for release as necessary; it stimulates contraction of the muscular tissues of the capillaries and aerioles, raising the blood pressure, and increases peristalsis, exes some influence on the uterus, and influences resorption of water by the kidney tubules, resulting in concentration of urine. Its rate of secretion is regulated chiefly by the osmolarity of the plasma. Also prepared synthetically or obtained from the posterior pituitary of domestic animals; used as an anti-diuretic. Called also antidiuretic hormone.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-313 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During normal vaginal delivery, deep transverse arrest occurs. Ventous was employed for the safe delivery. This mother may have the following type of pelvis: | [
"Flat sacrum and convergent side walls",
"Gynaecoid",
"Platypelloid",
"Anthropoid"
] | A | Criteria for the deep transverse arrest: The head is deep into the cavity. The sagittal suture is placed in the transverse bispinous diameter and, There is no progress in descent of the head even after 1/2 -1 hour following full dilatation of the cervix. Causes of deep transverse arrest: Faulty pelvic architecture such as prominent ischial spines, flat sacrum, and convergent side walls Deflexion of the head Weak uterine contraction Laxity of the pelvic floor muscles Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by DC Dutta, 6th edition, Page 372. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pre-school children, the percentage of thumb sucking is: | [
"<10%",
"10-20%",
"<50%",
">50%"
] | D | According to a longitudinal study, which took data from a good number of studies, the average rate of non-nutritive sucking is about 70-80% in the preschool age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs can be used in hypertensive emergency -a) Trimethaphan b) I.V. hydralazinec) Indapamided) Sublingual nifedipine | [
"abc",
"acd",
"bcd",
"bd"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Otosclerosis treatment includes all except - | [
"Sodium fluoride",
"Hearing Aids",
"Stapedectomy",
"Radicalmastoidectomy"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Radical mastoidectomyTreatment of otosclerosiso Treatment options for otosclerosis includeObservationOtosclerosis may slowiy get wrorse. The condition may not require treatment until patient has severe hearing problem, e.g. unilateral disease or mild conductive hearing loss. Hearing loss typically progresses and ultimately requires some intervention.Medical therapySodium fluoride has been tried to hasten the maturity of active focus and arrest further cochlear loss. Although efficacy has not been proved. Other drugs which have been tried are bisphosphonates (Alendronate, etidronate, risedronate, zolendronate), calcium and vitamin D. but benefits have not been proven.HearingAidHearing Aid may be used to treat hearing loss. This will not cure or prevent hearing loss from getting wrorse, but may help to relieve some of the symptoms.SurgerySurgical management is the treatment of choice.Following surgeries are usedStapedectomy with a placement of prosthesisHere, complete stapes is removed and is replaced by a prosthesis. Traditionally it is considered as the treatment of choice.StapedotomyHere, a laser is used to make a hole in stapes to allow the placement of a prosthesis. It is now increasingly becoming the procedure of choice.C) Lemperts fenestration procedureFenestration of the lateral semicircular canal is done. It is reserved for cases where footplate cannot be mobilized during stapedectomy.D) Stapes mobilizationIt can be tried in those cases only in which there is partial ankylosis of stapes footplate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trisomy 18 is known as - | [
"Edward Syndrome",
"Patau sundrome",
"Cat eye syndrome",
"Down's syndrome"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Edward Syndrome Name of syndromeTrisomyEdward18Patau13Cat eye22Down's21 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for panic attack is? | [
"Beta blockers",
"Benzodiazepines",
"TCAs",
"Neuroleptics"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e. Benzodiazepines Treatment of Panic disorders* Two most effective treatment are:-A. Pharmacotherapy : - The cornerstone of drug therapy is antidepressants. SSRIs (Fluoxetine or other) are the preferred agents. Because therapeutic effect of antidepressants takes some time to develop, initially Benzodiazepines are given along with antidepressants to provide immediate relief from anxiety and panic attack. So, DOC of acute panic attack is benzodiazepine.Drug used for Panic disordersi) SSRIs: - Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertaline, Fluvoxamine, Citalopram.ii) TCAs: - Clomipramine, imipramine.iii) BZDs: - Alprazolam, Clonazepam, Diazepam, Lorazepam.iv) MAOIs: - Tranylcypromine, Phenelzinev) RIMAs: - Moclobemide, Brofaraminevi) Atypical antidepressants: - Venalafaxinevii) Other: - Valproic acid, inositolB. Cognitive - Behavioral therapy: - Combination of cognitive or behavioral therapy with pharamacotherapy is more effective than either approach alone.* Other therapies include family therapy, insight-oriented psychotherapy (psychoanalysis and psychodynamic therapy).Remember* Drug of choice for panic disorders - SSRIs* Drug of choice for acute panic attack - Benzodiazepines | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following types of hepatitis carries the worst prognosis in pregnancy? | [
"Hepatitis A",
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis C",
"Hepatiitis E"
] | D | Ans-D i.e., Hepatitis E o Hepatitis E has the highest risk of maternal mortality among all the types of hepatitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Helmet Cells are characteristic of | [
"Hemolytic uremic syndrome",
"Polysplenia",
"Spherocytosis",
"Acanthocytosis"
] | A | Schistocytes are typically irregularly shaped, jagged, and have two pointed ends. A true schistocyte does not have central pallor.
Helmet cells are also known as schistocytes / triangle cells / burr cells are a Feature of microangiopathic diseases including disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), thrombotic microomgiopathies (TTP), mechanical artificial heart valves and hemolytic Uremic syndrome (HUS). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A brief 30-point questionnaire test is done for | [
"Peabody Individual Achievement Test",
"Mini-mental state examination",
"Stanford-Binet Test",
"Wide-Range Achievement Test"
] | B | (B) Mini-mental state examination # Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Folstein test is a brief 30-point questionnaire test that is used to screen for cognitive impairment. It is commonly used in medicine to screen for dementia. It is also used to estimate the severity of cognitive impairment at a given point in time and to follow the course of cognitive changes in an individual over time, thus making it an effective way to document an individual's response to treatment.CategoryPossible points DescriptionOrientation to time 5 From broadest to most narrow. Orientation to time has been correlated with future decline.Orientation to place 5From broadest to most narrow. This is sometimes narrowed down to streets, and sometimes to floor.Registration 3Repeating named promptsAttention and calculation 5Serial sevens, or spelling "world" backwards. It has been suggested that serial sevens may be more appropriate in a population where English is not the first language.Recall 3Registration recallLanguage 2Name a pencil and a watchRepetition 1Speaking back a phraseComplex commands 6 Varies.Can involve drawing figure shown.# Interpretation: Any score greater than or equal to 25 points (out of 30) is effectively normal (intact). Below this, scores can indicate severe (=9 points), moderate (10-20 points) or mild (21-24 points). Raw score may also need to be corrected for educational attainment and age. Low to very low scores correlate closely with the presence of Dementia, although other mental disorders can also lead to abnormal findings on MMSE testing. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are precancerous lesions for carcinoma oral cavity except:- | [
"Erythroplakia",
"Speckled erythroplakia",
"Discoid lupus erythematosus",
"Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis"
] | C | Conditions Associated with Malignant Transformation High - risk Lesions Medium - risk Lesions Low risk or Equivocal - risk Lesions Erythroplakia Speckled Erythroplakia Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis Oral submucous fibrosis Syphilitic glossitis Sideropenic dysphagia (Paterson - Kelly syndrome) Oral lichen planus Discoid lupus erythematosus Discoid keratosis congenital | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lamotrigine and topiramate can be used for | [
"Depression",
"OCD",
"Bipolar disorder",
"Mania"
] | C | lithium is used for EUPHORIC MANIA Valproate is used for RAPID CYCLING lamotrigine is used for BIPOLAR DEPRESSION carbamazepine causes STEVEN JOHNSONS SYNDROME topiramate causes WEIGHT LOSS AND RENAL STONES etc are used apa from lithium for bipolar disorder Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 620 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are seen in 22q 11.2 deletion syndrome except | [
"B cell immunodeficiency",
"Learning disabilities",
"Increased incidence of psychiatric disorders like schizophrenia in adulthood",
"Facial abnormalities"
] | B | (A) B cell immunodeficiency # DiGeorge syndrome or 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, which has several presentations including DiGeorge syndrome (DGS), DiGeorge anomaly, velo-cardio-facial syndrome, Shprintzen syndrome, conotruncal anomaly face syndrome, Strong syndrome, congenital thymic aplasia, and thymic hypoplasia, is a syndrome caused by the deletion of a small piece of chromosome 22.> Salient features Mnemonic CATCH-22 of DiGeorge's syndrome, with the chromosomal abnormality is found on the 22 chromosome: Cardiac Abnormality (especially tetralogy of Fallot) Abnormal facies Thymic aplasia Cleft palate Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to floor space standards, the half unit is considered at child age of? | [
"<12 months",
"1-5 years",
"1-10 years",
"10-20 years"
] | C | Overcrowding is the situation in which more people are living in a single dwelling thanthere is space for so that,the movemwnt is restricted,privacy secluded,hygiene impossible,rest and sleep difficult. The accepted stardards are -persons per room -floor space: according to floor space standard baby under 12 months is not counted and 1- 10 years is cointed as half a unit -sex sepaeration Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 752 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a recently approved drug for post paum depression | [
"Brexanolone",
"Calpacizumab",
"Solriamfetol",
"Siponimod"
] | A | The uses of above drugs are:Brexanolone: Post paum depressionCalpacizumab: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraSolriamfetol: Excessive sleepiness in narcolepsy or sleep apneaSiponimod: Mutliple sclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vitamin deficiency causes methylmalonic aciduria? | [
"Vitamin B1",
"Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin B6",
"Vitamin B5"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin B12 * Methylmalonyl-CoA is accumulated and excreted in urine as methylmalonic acid (methylmalonate) in vitamin B12 deficiency, i.e. methylmalonic aciduria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Premature menopause is when menopause occurs before | [
"55 years",
"50 years",
"45 years",
"40 years"
] | C | Premature menopause is when menopause occurs before 45 years. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A helix is placed for: | [
"Activation",
"Increasing the flexibility and range",
"Esthetics",
"Retention"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is Not true regarding gastric outlet obstruction | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hypochloremia",
"Alkaline urine",
"Metabolic alkalosis"
] | C | Ans is 'c' ie Alkaline urine | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Hartnup's disease which of the following is excreted in the urine: | [
"Ornithine",
"Glycine",
"Tryptophan",
"Cystine"
] | C | Ans. (c) TryptophanRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 308, 557; Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 435e-2* Hartnup disease is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by impaired neutral amino acid transport in the apical brush border membrane of the small intestine and the proximal tubule of the kidney.* Patients of hartnup disease present with pellagra like skin eruptions, cerebellar ataxia, and gross aminoaciduria.* Amino acids which are retained within the intestinal lumen due to impaired transport, are converted by bacteria to indolic compounds that can be toxic to the CNS. Amino acid like Tryptophan is converted to indole in the intestine.* Following absorption, indole is converted to 3-hvdroxyindole (i.e, indoxyl, indican) in the liver, where it is conjugated with potassium sulfate or glucuronic acid. Subsequently, it is transported to the kidneys for excretion (i.e, indicanuria).* Other tryptophan degradation products which are excreted in urine are: kynurenine and serotonin.* In these patients Tubular renal transport is also defective, contributing to gross aminoaciduria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Conn’s syndrome: | [
"Most often, patients have elevated BP",
"Usual treatment of BP, treat almost all symptoms",
"Muscle twitching is not associated with it",
"All of the above"
] | A | → Most often, patients have higher than normal blood pressure.
→ The usual treatment for high blood pressure, doesn't generally help treat hyperaldosteronism.
Signs such as,
Lack of muscle strength
Night time voiding
Headache
Increased thirst
Muscle twitching and cramps
Paralysis that comes and goes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mania is characterized by -a) Paranoid delusionb) Loss of orientationc) High self esteemd) Loss of insight | [
"abc",
"ad",
"bc",
"acd"
] | D | Paranoid delusions (delusion of persecution) may occur secondary to the delusions of persecution (e.g. I am so great that people are against me).
Manic patients have high self esteem.
Insight is absent.
Patient is alert & well oriented. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.