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Which of the following is an infective form of Ascaris? | [
"Coracidium",
"Filariform larvae",
"Rhabditiform larvae",
"Embryonated egg"
] | D | Eggs are fertilized before release and embryonate to the second stage (larval stage) inside the egg, which is then ingested by a new host to start a new infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following radiograph shows: | [
"Fusion in 22",
"Gemination in 22",
"Concrescence in 22",
"Dilaceration in 21"
] | B | Gemination
Geminated teeth are anomalies which arise from an attempt at the division of a single tooth germ by an invagination, with resultant incomplete formation of two teeth. The structure is usually one with two completely or incompletely separated crowns that have a single root and root canal. It is seen in deciduous as well as permanent dentition, and in some reported cases, appears to exhibit a hereditary tendency. It is not always possible to differentiate between gemination and a case in which there has been a fusion between a normal tooth and a supernumerary tooth.
Radiological signs
The tooth has a notched incisal margin with a confluent or partially joined pulp canal system. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following glucose transpoer present in myocyte which is stimulated by insulin? | [
"GLUT 1",
"GLUT 2",
"GLUT 3",
"GLUT 4"
] | D | Glucose transpoer 4 (GLUT 4) is found in two major insulin target tissues: skeletal muscle and adipose tissue. It is sequestered mainly within an intracellular compament of these cells and thus does not function as a glucose transpoer until insulin signaling causes translocation of GLUT 4 to the cell membrane, where it facilitates glucose entry into these tissues after a meal. In muscle, exercise also drives GLUT 4 translocation to the cell surface by activating AMPK. GLUT 1 is present in all human tissues. GLUT 2 is a major transpoer of glucose in hepatic, intestinal, and renal tubular cells. GLUT 3 is found in all tissues, and it is the major glucose transpoer on neurons. Ref: German M.S. (2011). Chapter 17. Pancreatic Hormones and Diabetes Mellitus. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds), Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle spared in ERB's palsy? | [
"Deltoid",
"Brachialis",
"Biceps",
"Coracobrachilis"
] | D | Root value involved in ERB's palsy is C5 and C6 which gives supply to Axillary nerve & Musculocutaneous nerve.Coracobrachialis is supplied by C7 and hence spared. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for MRSA infection: | [
"Vancomycin",
"Streptomycin",
"Cefixime",
"Amoxicillin"
] | A | Ans. A. VancomycinMethicillin resistant staphylococcus infection is serious infection where penicillin group of dugs don't work. Vancomycin is given parenterally for MRSA. Other drugs which can be given are telavancin, delbavancin, teicoplanin, daptomycin, linezolid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is seen in the peripheral smear of a patient who has underwent splenectomy - | [
"Howell-Jolly bodies",
"Eosinophilia",
"Macrocytosis",
"Thrombocytopenia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surgeon excise a poion of liver to the left of the attachment of the falciform ligament. The segments that have been resected are | [
"Segment 1a and 4",
"Segment 1 and 4b",
"Segment 2 and 3",
"Segment 1 and 3"
] | C | Segmental anatomy of the liver Understanding the internal anatomy of the liver has greatly facilitated safe liver surgery. Couinaud, a French surgeon,described the liver as being divided into eight segments . Each of these segments can be considered as a functional unit, with a branch of the hepatic aery, poal vein and bile duct, and drained by a branch of the hepatic vein. It is the concept of these segments as distinct functional units that guides 'anatomical' liver resection. The overall anatomy of the liver is divided into a functional right and left 'unit'along the line between the gallbladder fossa and the middle hepatic vein (Cantlie's line). Liver segments (V-VIII) to the right of this line are supplied by the right hepatic aery and the right branch of the poal vein, and drain bile the right hepatic duct. To the left of this line (segments I-IV), functionally, is the left liver, which is supplied by the left branch of the hepatic aery and the left poal vein branch, and drains bile the left hepatic duct. Resections can be performed of indi- vidual segments or of the whole of the left or right hemiliver Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pg no :1153 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intrusion is best produced by | [
"Light intermittent forces",
"Heavy intermittent forces",
"Light continuous forces",
"Heavy continuous forces"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An old patient of tubercular meningitis is not responding to treatment. A new combination of drugs has to be prescribed for a prolonged period. Which one of the following should not be prescribed in this case - | [
"Rifampicin",
"Ofoxacin",
"Dehydrostreptomycin",
"Pyraxinamide"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following, EXCEPT: | [
"Malignant hypeension",
"Polyaeritis nodosa",
"Diabetic glomerulosclerosis",
"Aschoff's nodule"
] | C | Fibrinoid necrosis is a type of connective tissue necrosis seen paicularly in autoimmune diseases (eg, rheumatic fever, polyaeritis nodosa, and systemic lupus erythematosus). Collagen and smooth muscle in the media of blood vessels are especially involved. Fibrinoid necrosis of aerioles also occurs in accelerated (malignant) hypeension. Fibrinoid necrosis is characterized by loss of normal structure and replacement by a homogeneous, bright pink-staining necrotic material that resembles fibrin microscopically. Areas of fibrinoid necrosis contain various amounts of immunoglobulins and complement, albumin, breakdown products of collagen, and fibrin. Also Know: Fat Necrosis: Fat necrosis most characteristically occurs in acute pancreatitis when pancreatic enzymes are liberated from the ducts into surrounding tissue. Pancreatic lipase acts on the triglycerides in fat cells, breaking these down into glycerol and fatty acids, which complex with plasma calcium ions to form calcium soaps. Liquefactive Necrosis: Liquefaction of necrotic cells results when lysosomal enzymes released by the necrotic cells cause rapid liquefaction. Lysis of a cell as a result of the action of its own enzymes is autolysis. Liquefactive necrosis is typically seen in the brain following ischemia. Coagulative Necrosis: In this type of necrosis, the necrotic cell retains its cellular outline, often for several days. The cell, devoid of its nucleus, appears as a mass of coagulated, pink-staining, homogeneous cytoplasm. Coagulative necrosis typically occurs in solid organs, such as the kidney, hea (myocardium), and adrenal gland, usually as a result of deficient blood supply and anoxia. It is also seen with other types of injury, eg, coagulative necrosis of liver cells due to viruses or toxic chemicals, and coagulative necrosis of skin in burns. Ref: Chandrasoma P., Taylor C.R. (1998). Chapter 1. Cell Degeneration & Necrosis. In P. Chandrasoma, C.R. Taylor (Eds), Concise Pathology, 3e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phenomenon in which porcelain appears different under varying light condition is: | [
"Translucency",
"Refractive optics",
"Metamerism",
"Opacification"
] | C | Metamerism
Phenomenon in which the color of an object under one type of light source appears to change when illuminated by a different light source.
Light rays can also be dispersed, giving a color or shade that varies in different teeth. The dispersion can vary with the wavelength of the light.
Therefore, the appearance of the teeth may vary according to whether they are viewed in direct sunlight, reflected daylight, tungsten light, or fluorescent light. This phenomenon is called metamerism.
Ref:Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 464 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with all except | [
"EHEC",
"Shigella",
"Campylobacter",
"Vibrio cholera"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Vibrio cholera Infections associated with hemolytic uremic syndromeShigella dysenteriae type IEnterohemorrhagic E coliCampylobacter jejuniStreptococcus pneumoniaeHIVRememberThe organism responsible for diarrhoeal illness that precedes HUS varies according to the region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
String of beads appearance on angiography is seen in | [
"Fibromuscular dysplasia",
"Renal stones",
"Bladder stones",
"All of the above"
] | A | String of beads or pile of plates appearance is seen in fibromuscular dysplasia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of hydatid cyst | [
"Excision of cyst",
"Percutaneous drainage",
"Conservative management",
"None"
] | B | Puncture - aspiration- injection -reaspiration (PAIR) done percutaneously because it is safe, less invasive, easier to do with low morbidity and moality. Reference: SRB 5th edition page no. 604 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of burns includes:a) No bandage to head & neckb) Immediate application of ice cold waterc) Superficial burns without blister- no need of dressingd) Escharotomy done for peripheral circumscribed lesions | [
"acd",
"ad",
"bc",
"bde"
] | A | Management of burn:
Ist degree burn - First degree wounds are minor with minimal loss of barrier function. These wounds require no dressing and are treated with topical salves to reduce pain. Oral NSAID, can be given for pain control.
2nd degree burn - Second degree wounds can be treated with daily dressing changes and topical antibiotics, cotton gauze, and elastic wraps. Alternatively the wounds can be treated with a temporary biologic or synthetic covering to close the wound.
Deep 2nd degree & 3rd degree burns - Deep second degree and third degree burns are treated by excision and grafting. Initially dressing is used to check bacterial proliferation and provide occlusion until surgery is done.
About option 'a' i.e. ' No bandage to head & neck'
There are two methods of burn wound management with topical agents:
1) Open or exposure method
- no dressings are applied over the wound after application of the topical agent to the wound
2) Closed method
- an occlusive dressing is applied over the agent and is usually changed twice daily.
The closed method is the preferred method except for places where it is difficult to apply the dressing material like - face & perineum.
About option 'b' i.e. 'Immediate application of ice cold water'.
Iced water should never be used, even on the smallest of burns. If ice or cold water is used on larger burns, systemic hypothermia often follows, and the associated cutaneous vasoconstriction can extend the thermal damage (Schwartz 8/e,p 192)
Room temperature water can be poured on the wound within 15 minutes of injury to decrease the depth of the wound but any subsequent measures to cool the wound are avoided to prevent hypothermia during resuscitation (Sabiston 18/e, p 566) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elderly persons taking antipsychotics are especially susceptible to all of the following side effects except? | [
"Tardive dyskinesia",
"Paresthesias",
"Dry mouth",
"Akathisia"
] | B | Ans. B. ParesthesiasParesthesias, which are spontaneous tingling sensations, are not typically a side effect of antipsychotics. Elderly persons, particularly if they have organic brain disease, are especially susceptible to the side effects of antipsychotics, which include dry mouth, tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and a toxic confusional state. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by disfiguring and involuntary buccal and lingual masticatory movements; akathisia is a restlessness marked by a compelling need for constant motion. Choreiform body movements, which are spasmodic and involuntary movements of the limbs and the face, and rhythmic extension and flexion movements of the fingers may also be noticeable. Examination of the patient's protruded tongue for fine tremors and vermicular (worm-like) movements is a useful diagnostic procedure. A toxic confusional state, also called a central anticholinergic syndrome, is characterized by a marked disturbance in short-term memory, impaired attention, disorientation, anxiety, visual and auditory hallucinations, increased psychotic thinking, and peripheral anticholinergic side effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
he brilliantly transilluminant tumour in the neck may be - | [
"Branchial cyst",
"Thyroglossal cyst",
"Sternomastoid tumour",
"Cystic hygroma"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cystic hygroma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzyme replacement therapy is used for- | [
"Gaucher's disease",
"Krabbe's disease",
"Metachromatic leukodystrophy",
"Tay Sach's disease"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher's disease * Alglucerase (ceredase) is used in the treatment of Gaucher's disease.* Enzyme replacement therapy (ERT) is also available for Fabry's disease, Type I, Type II and Type VI Mucoploysaccharidosis, Pompe's disease and ADA deficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which valve is least affected in Rheumatic fever?( | [
"Pulmonary valve",
"Tricuspid valve",
"Mitral valve",
"Aoic valve"
] | A | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:147 Valve Involvement in Rheumatic Hea Disease Mitral valve alone 50% Aoic valve alone 15-20% Mitral and Aoic valves together 35-40% Mitral, Aoic and Tricuspid valves 2-3% Pulmonary valve is viually never involved. In RHD, mitral valve is most commonly involved followed by involvement of the aoic valve as the pressure gradient across the mitral valve is the greatest, followed by that across the aoic valve. So, the mitral valve is more susceptible to develop pathological changes than the aoic valve | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest cause for moality in Iver levis operations - | [
"Pulmonary atelectasis",
"Anastomotic leak",
"Thoracic duct fistula",
"Subdiaphragmatic collection"
] | B | Ivor Lewis operation - is subtotal esophagectomy done for Ca esophagus in the lower third of esophagus. Pa of stomach and esophagus are resected and remnants of both anastomosed. Anastomotic leak is the most logical answer. I have also confirmed it from Senior residents of surgery. Ref : Bailey & love, 25/e p1033 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common presentations of juvenile Hypothyroidism | [
"Growth retardation",
"Mental retardation within 2 years",
"Delayed pubey",
"Umbilical Hernia"
] | A | Most common presentation of juvenile hypothyroidism is growth retardation. others include delayed skeletal maturation,delayed dental development,delayed pubey, myopathy and pseudohyperophy,enlarged sella,pseudomotor cerebri. Usually due to hormonal synthesis defect such as TPO or to c -erb A mutation PE : goiter, delayed maturation, testicular enlargement/precocious menarche NOT usually MR- recovery is general rule with thyroxine Reference: OP Ghai ,essential paediatrics ,8 th edition.page no 517 | train | med_mcqa | null |
DNA restriction fragments are separated by ? | [
"Paper chromatography",
"Agarose gel electrophoresis",
"Thin-layer chromatography",
"Ultracentrifugation"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Agarose gel electrophoresis DNA is cut into large fragments, using restriction enzymes. These fragments are then separated by gel electrophoresis (either agarose or polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling? | [
"CO2",
"O2",
"NO",
"N2"
] | C | Nitric Oxide (NO) is a major signaling molecule in neurons and in the immune system, either acting within the cell in which it is produced or by penetrating cellmembranes to affect adjacent cells. Nitric oxide is generated from arginine by the action of nitric oxidesynthases (NOS) Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg 29 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shortest acting non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker- | [
"Mivacurium",
"Pancuronium",
"Succinylcholtne",
"Rapacurium"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mivacurium | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pattern for the metallic framework of a removable partial denture is fabricated from: | [
"Inlay wax type-II",
"Boxing wax",
"Modeling wax",
"Casting wax"
] | D | Dental waxes can also be classified in one of three types, pattern wax (inlay, casting, and baseplate types), processing wax (boxing, utility, and sticky types), and impression wax (bite registration and correction types).
Casting wax is used for partial denture frameworks and other metal frameworks.
Ref: Phillip’s 12th edition page 195. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12 year old girl with the mood and emotional liability has a golden brown discoloration in descement membrane. Most likely diagnosis is ? | [
"Fabry's disease",
"Wilson's disease",
"Glycogen storage disease",
"Acute rheumatic fever"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Wilson's disease Emotional liability, tremors (Neurological symptoms) with brown discoloration of descemet's membrane of coenea suggest the diagnosis of Wilson's disease. Wilson's disease ? o It occurs due to reduced mobilization of copper from lysosomes in liver cells for excretion into the bile. o Abnormal gene for Wilson's disease is on long arm of chromosome 13 (AR). Clinical features ? o Younger patient likely to develop hepatic involvement. o Later on Neurologic manifestation like tremor, dystonia, behavioral changes also develops. o K-F rings may be absent in young patients with liver diseases but are always present in patient with neurologic symptoms. o Hemolysis may be an initial manifestation. Sensory changes never occur. Diagnosis ? o Decrease ceruloplasmin level o Liver biopsy | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70 yr old man presents with 10 prosopagnosia loss of memory, 3rd person hallucination for 1 month. On examination deep Tendon reflexes are increased, mini-mental examination score is 20/30. What is most likely diagnosis: | [
"Dissociated Dementia",
"Schizophrenia",
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Psychotic disorder"
] | C | C i.e. Alzheimer's diseaseDuration of 1 month only, is enough to rule out schizophrenia, in which duration should be at least 6 monthsIn psychiatric disorders like schizophrenia & psychosis, there may never be organic symptoms like increased tendon reflexes.Features of Alzheimer dementia areMemory impairment without impairment of consciousnessAnosognosia (Unaware of his problem) Prosopagnosia (difficulty in identifying known faces)Focal neurological signs (ex asymmetrical hyperreflexia or weakness)Primitive reflexes (ex grasp, snout, suck, Palmo-mental, & tonic foot reflexes)Frontal lobe signsAphasia (language disturbance)Apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function)Agnosia (failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function)Disturbance in executive functioning (i.e. planning, organizing, sequencing, abstracting) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Father of public health is related to which disease? | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Cholera",
"Malaria",
"Plague"
] | B | Father of public Health : John Snow, identified Cholera.
Father of modern epidemiology : John Snow.
Father of Medicine / first true epidemiologist : Hippocrates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Healing with calcification is a feature of - | [
"Cryptococcosis",
"Mucomycosis",
"Aspergillosis",
"Histoplasmosis"
] | D | Answer- D. HistoplasmosisIn the immunocompetent host, macrophages, lymphocytes, and epithelial cells eventually organize and form granulomas that contain the histoplasma organisms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eagle syndrome is also known as - | [
"Styalgia",
"Ludwig's Angina",
"Pharyngeal bursitis",
"Amourosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Styalgia StyalgiaChronic throat pain along the anatomic course of thyrohyoid ligament.It is also called Eagle's syndromeIt is related to unrecognised elongation of styloid process, a clacified stylohoid ligament, or stylohyoid muscle tendinitis.Elongated styloid process protrudes into the tonsillar fossa and puts pressure on the trigeminal, glossopharyngeal,vagus or facial nerves. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The minimally acceptable restoration for an endodontically treated maxillary first premolar is: | [
"An onlay",
"An MOD amalgam",
"A full cast crown",
"An occlusal amalgam"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding diptheria toxin except : | [
"Toxin blocks elongation of protein",
"Beta lysogenic strain produces toxin",
"Iron is critical for toxin production",
"Toxin is necessary for local wound production"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal couesy of one doctor towards another is according to : | [
"Medical etiquette",
"Medical ethics",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | A i.e. Medical etiquette Hippocratic oath, is restated by World Association in modern style and is known as Declaration of GenevaQ. It is followed by Medical council of India as code of EthicsQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by | [
"Paralysis of one side of the face",
"Uncontrollable twitching of muscles",
"Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration",
"Prolonged episodes of pain on one side of the face"
] | C | Trigeminal neuralgia or "Fothergill's disease" is characterized by searing, stabbing or lancinating type of pain that is initiated when the patient touches the "Trigger Zone". The term "tic doulourex" is applied only when the patient suffers from spasmodic contractions of facial muscles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following antihistaminic agents lack anticholinergic property, except: | [
"Promethazine",
"Astemizole",
"Levo-cetrizine",
"Loratidine"
] | A | All the drugs listed in the question are second generation anti-histaminic agents, except promethazine.
Anticholinergic action: Many H1 blockers in addition antagonize the muscarinic actions of Ach. The antimuscarinic action can be graded as: | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are seen in Tuberous sclerosis except – | [
"Iris nodule",
"Renal cortical cyst",
"Rhabdomyoma of heart and lung",
"Adenoma sebaceum"
] | A | Iris nodule (Lisch nodule) is seen in neurofibromatosis (not in tuberous sclerosis). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dopamine at 1-2 Microgram/ Kg/ min produces- | [
"Renal vasodilatation",
"Positive ionotropic effect",
"Mesenteric vasoconstriction",
"Generalised vasoconstriction"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Renal vasodilatation o Dopamine produces dose dependent action: At low dose (1-2 mg/kg/min) causes dilation of renal and mesentric vessels - often referred as renal dose:At moderately high dose (2-10 pm/kg/min) produces a positive ionotropic effect by stimulating b1 receptor on heart - cardiac dose.At high doses (> 10 pm/kg/min) produces vasoconstriction by stimulating a, receptors - vascular dose. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the investigation of choice in a case of stricture esophagus caused by corrosive poisoning ? | [
"Endoscopy",
"Barium meal",
"Pharyngoscopy",
"X rays"
] | A | The corrosive injury is more common in females. Most of the patients were of younger ages. Acid ingestion was more common than alkali ingestion, and most had suicidal intentions. Early upper G.I. endoscopy has a definite role in diagnosing the severity of the injury and in planning the management. The best time to assess the injury is by 12-48 hours of ingestion of the corrosive substances. Most of the patients with corrosive injuries can be managed conservatively with follow up for the stricture, which is the most common complication that is often treated by dilatation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Present in human milk - | [
"CaCO3",
"Ca & P",
"K lactate",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ca & P NutrientContent /100 mlMacronutrientso Calories67 kcalo Proteins1 lgo Fat3.5 go Lactose7.0 gMinerals / Micronutrientso Sodium0.9mEqo Potassium1.4mEqo Calcium35 mgo Phosphorus15mgo Iron30-50 go Zinc120 gVitaminso Vitamin A60 go Vitamin C5.2 mg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common location of accessory spleen? | [
"Hilum of spleen",
"Greater omentum",
"Lesser omentum",
"None"
] | A | Accessory spleen may be found at :- i) Hilum of spleen (most common site). ii) Tail of pancrease. iii) Derivatives of dorsal mesogastrium :- Greater omentum, gastrophrenic ligament, gastrosplenic ligament, linorenal ligament. iv) Broad ligament of uterus (in males) and spermatic cord (in female); both left side. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following carcinoma is familial | [
"Breast",
"Prostate",
"Cervix",
"Vaginal"
] | A | Familial cancers these cancers may occur at higher frequency in ceain families without a clearly defined pattern of transmission. Viually all the common types of cancers that occur sporadically have also been repoed to occur in familial forms. examples include carcinomas of breast brain colon melanoma ovary lymphomas features that characterize familial cancers include early age at onset, tumors arising in two or more close relatives of the index case, and sometimes, multiple or bilateral tumors. Ref : Robbin's basis 8/e p275 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Animal reservoir is seen in all except - | [
"Rabies",
"Yellow fever",
"Influenza",
"Measles"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In retinal detachment: | [
"Effusion of fluid into the suprachoroidal space",
"Retinoschisis",
"Separation of sensory retina from pigment epithelium",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. Separation of sensory retina from pigment epithelium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT true about Bronchoalveolar carcinoma? | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Stromal invasion with desmoplasia",
"Preservation of Alveolar structure",
"Grows along pre-existing anatomical structures"
] | B | Ans. b (Stromal invasion with desmoplasia) (Ref. Robbins 7th/76l)By definition, bronchioalveolar ca do not demonstrate destruction of alveolar architecture or stromal invasion with desmoplasia, features that would merit their classification as frank adenocarcinomas.BRONCHIOLOALVEOLAR CARCINOMAS (BACS)# Included as a subtype of adenocarcinomas in the current WHO classification of lung tumors.# Involve peripheral parts of the lung, either as a single nodule or, more often, as multiple diffuse nodules that may coalesce to produce pneumonia-like consolidation.# The key feature of BACs is their growth along preexisting structures and preservation of alveolar architecture.# The tumor cells grow in a monolayer on top of the alveolar septa, which serves as a scaffold (this has been termed a "lepidic" growth pattern, an allusion to the neoplastic cells resembling butterflies sitting on a fence).# The two subtypes of BACs are:- Mucinous (comprising tall, columnar cells with prominent cytoplasmic and intra-alveolar mucin) and- Non-mucinous# The "cell of origin" for peripheral adenocarcinomas have now identified a population of multipotent cells at the bronchioalveolar duct junction, termed bronchioalveolar stem cells (BASCs). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In population of 9000, 2100 were alcoholics out of which 70 alcoholics developed cirrhosis, 23 non-alcoholics developed cirrhosis. Calculate attribute risk | [
"90%",
"70%",
"60%",
"40%"
] | B | ATTRIBUTABLE RISK Attributable risk (AR) is the difference in incidence rates of disease (or death) between an exposed group and non- exposed group. Some authors use the term "risk difference" to attributable risk. Total population =9000 No.of alcoholics =2100 No.of alcoholics developed cirrhosis =70 No.of Non-alcoholics developed cirrhosis =23 AR= 70-23/70 x100 = 67%(approx) Attributable risk indicates to what extent the disease under study can be attributed to the exposure. The figure in our example indicates that the association between alcohol and liver cirrhosis is causal, 67 per cent of the cirrhosis among alcoholics was due to their alcoholism. This suggests the amount of disease that might be eliminated if the factor under study could be controlled or eliminated. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 78 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posthumous child means: March 2003 | [
"A child born after death of his/her father",
"A child born after death of his/her mother",
"A child born after aificial insemination",
"A child born after full term"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. A child born after death of his/ her father | train | med_mcqa | null |
In heat stroke, skin will be: September 2012 | [
"Warm",
"Normal",
"Cold",
"Cyanosis"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Warm Heat stroke presents with a hypehermia of greater than 40.6 degC (105.1 degF) in combination with confusion and a lack of sweating. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following structure passes through the triangular interval of the arm? | [
"Radial nerve",
"Axillary nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Ulnar Nerve"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radial nerve RegionBoundariesContentsUpper triangular space of armSuperior: Teres minorInferior : Teres majorLateral: Long head of tricepsCircumflex scapular arteryLower triangular space of armSuperior: Teres majorMedial: Long head of tricepsLateral; Shaft of humerusRadial nerveProfunda brachii vesselsQuadrangular space of armSuperior: Teres minor, subscapularis, joint capsuleInferior :Teres majorMedial: Long head of tricepsLateral: Surgical neck of humerusAxillary nervePosterior circumflex humeral vessels | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of the following drug is FALSE | [
"Amphotericin B -- Ergosterol inhibition",
"Capsofungin -- 3,4 glucans",
"Fluconozole -- Mitosis inhibition",
"Flucytosin -- Pyrimidine metabolism inhibition"
] | C | (C) Fluconozole - Mitosis inhibition > Antifungal activity of Amphotericin B depends principally on its binding to a sterol moiety, primarily ergosterol that is present in the membrane of sensitive fungi. By virtue of their interaction with these sterols, polyenes appear to form pores or channels that increase the permeability of the membrane, allowing leakage of a variety of small molecules. At concentrations achieved following systemic administration, the major effect of imidazoles and triazoles on fungi is inhibition of 14-a-sterol demethylase, a microsomal cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzyme. Imidazoles and triazoles thus impair the biosynthesis of ergosterol for the cytoplasmic membrane and lead to the accumulation of 14-a-methylsterols. These rnethylsterols may disrupt the close packing of acyl chains of phospholipids, impairing the functions of certain membrane-bound enzyme systems such as ATPase and enzymes of the electron transport system and thus inhibiting growth of the fungi. All susceptible fungi are capable of deaminating flucytosine to 5-fluorouracil, a potent antimetabolite that is used in cancer chemotherapy. Fluorouracil is metabolized first to 5-fluorouracil-ribose monophosphate (5-FUMP) by the enzyme uracil phosphoribosyl transferase (UPRTase, also called uridine monophosphate pyrophosphorylase). As in mammalian cells, 5-FUMP then is either incorporated into RNA (via synthesis of 5-fluorouridine triphosphate) or metabolized to 5-fluoro2'- deoxyuridine-5'-monophosphate (5-FdUMP), a potent inhibitor of thymidylate synthetase.DNA synthesis is impaired as the ultimate result of this latter reaction. The selective action of flucytosine is due to the lack or low levels of cytosine deaminase in mammalian cells, which prevents metabolism to fluorouracil.Lanosterolfluconazole-demythylaze ergosterol | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about nitrous oxide except ? | [
"Laughing gas",
"Causes megaloblastic anemia",
"Causes diffusion hypoxia",
"Good muscle relaxant"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Good muscle relaxant Nitrous oxide N,O It is also called laughing gas. It has good analgesic but poor muscle relaxant activity. Second gas effect and diffusion hypoxia occur with N20 only. N20 is the only anaesthetic repoed to produce hematologic toxicity and neurotoxicity with long term administration. Both toxicities are the result of the interaction of N20 with vit B12. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False positive Electric Pulp Test is due to all except | [
"Anxiety",
"Liquefactive necrosis of pulp",
"Pain killer last night",
"Tooth wet by saliva and surrounding tissues"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is also called as "minimal brain dysfunction syndrome"? | [
"Dyslexia",
"ADHD",
"Mental retardation",
"Down's syndrome"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marcus Gunn pupil along with proptosis indicates: | [
"Involvement of ciliary ganglion",
"Compression of optic nerve",
"Compression of inferior division of 3rd nerve",
"Compression of sympathetic nerves of the eyeball"
] | B | Ans. Compression of optic nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most strongly implicated premalignant condition of the oral cavity is | [
"Fordyce spots",
"Erythroplakia",
"Median rhomboid glossitis",
"Erythema multiforme"
] | B | ConditionUsual locationClinical featuresCourseFordyce spotsBuccal and labial mucosaNumerous small yellowish spots just beneath the mucosa; no symptoms; due to hyperplasia of sebaceous glandsbenignErythroplakiaFloor of mouth in men; tongue and buccal mucosa in womenVelvety, reddish plaqueHigh risk for squamous cell cancerMedian rhomboid glossitisMedian posterior poion of tongueCongenital abnormality of tongue with ovoid, denuded areabenignErythema multiformeOral mucosa Intraoral ruptured bullae surrounded by inflammatory areas; lips may show hemorrhagic crustsNot a premalignant condition(Ref: Harrison's 18/e p217, table 32.1-32.4) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biospy revealed deposition of extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of- | [
"Non branching filaments of indefinitive length",
"Cross banded fibres with 67 m periodicity",
"Weber Palade bodies",
"Concentric whorls of lamellar structures"
] | A | Restrictive cardiomyopathy along with deposition of extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material suggest the diagnosis of Amyloidosis
Myocardial involvement with amyloid is a common cause of secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy. Amyloid is a pathological proteinaceous substance deposited between cells in various tissues and organs of the body.
With the light microscopic and standard tissue stains amyloid appears as an amorphous, eosinophilic, hyaline extracellular substance, that with progressive accumulation encroaches on and produces pressure atrophy of adjacent cells.
Physical nature of amyloid :
Electron microscopy
On electron microscopy, amyloid is seen to be made up largely of non branching fibrils of indefinite length and a diameter of approximately 7.5 to 10 nm
X-ray crystallography and infrared spectrum
This demonstrates a characteristic cross β pleated sheet conformation | train | med_mcqa | null |
While extracting a maxillary third molar, it is noted that one of the root is missing, the root tip is most likely to be in the: | [
"Pterygomandibular space.",
"Maxillary sinus.",
"Infratemporal space.",
"Submandibular space."
] | C | The location of root tip will depend on the position of 3rd molar. For Mandibular 3rd molar, if the tooth is vertically positioned, the root tip is most likely in the submandibular space.
If the tooth is in mesioangular or horizontal position, it will be located in pterygomandibular space.
Maxillary third molar is usually pushed into the infratemporal space. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cidofovir can be used for : | [
"Respiratory papillomatosis",
"Herpes simplex",
"CMV",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osmotic pressure of 1 mol of ideal solute relative to pure water is | [
"6.5 atm.",
"22.4 atm.",
"4 atm.",
"2 atm."
] | B | According to the Van't Hoff equation, an ideal solution containing 1 mole of dissolved paicles per liter of solvent at 0deg C will have an osmotic pressure of 22.4 atm Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg159 | train | med_mcqa | null |
String sign is seen in – | [
"Crohns disease",
"TB of the ileocaecal region",
"Idiopathic hyperophic pyloric stenosis",
"All of the above"
] | D | String sign → Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, Ileocecal tuberculosis.
String sign of Kantor → Crohn's disease
String of bead sign → Small bowel obstruction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which does not causes megaloblastic anemia? | [
"Phenytoin",
"Chloroquine",
"Sulfasalazine",
"Alcohol"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Newborn Cardiac output is _________ | [
"200ml/kg/min",
"250ml/kg/min",
"300ml/kg/min",
"350ml/kg/min"
] | D | Normal mean (2 SD) cardiac output is 231 (77) ml/kg/min. Technical difficulties in measuring aoic diameter accurately limit direct comparison between infants Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute Otitis media in Children is most commonly due to | [
"Morexiello catarrhalis",
"H. influenza",
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Staphylococcus aureus"
] | C | (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae # Causative Organisms of ASOM:> Most common organisms in infants and young children are Streptococcus pneumoniae (30%), Haemophilus influenzae (20%) and Moraxella catarrhalis (12%).> Other organisms include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus & sometimes Pseudomonas aeruginosa.> In about 18-20%, no growth is seen.> Many of the strains of H. influenzae & Moraxella catarrhalis are ft-lactamase producing. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tinea versicolor is caused by: | [
"Malassezia furfurCandida",
"Candida",
"Trichophyton rubra",
"Trichophyton mentagrophyte"
] | A | Malassezia furfur | train | med_mcqa | null |
VDRL test performed on the patient having painless penile ulcer for 2 week is reactive at a dilution of 1:4 (4dilutions). The patient also repos to you that he has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis A which one of the following actions would be most appropriate? | [
"Order a confirmatory test such as FTA test",
"Order a rapid plasma region (RPR) test",
"Perform a spinal tap to rule out CNS syphilis",
"Repeat the VDRL test"
] | A | This patient appears to have primary syphilis, as evidenced by a penile chancre that was not tender. One ofthe differences between syphilis and herpes simplex virus (HSV) is that an HSV lesion is excruciatingly painful. Treponemal organisms may be seen microscopically in the lesion if the lesion is scraped. If not treated, the chancre will disappear and the patient will be asymptomatic until he/she exhibits the signs/symptoms of secondary syphilis, which include a disseminated rash and systemic involvement such as meningitis, hepatitis, or nephritis. There are two kinds of tests for the detection of syphilis antibodies: non- specific tests such as the RPR and VORL, and specific tests such as the FT A, TPHA (T pallidum hemagglutination test), and the MHTP (microhemagglutination-T pallidum). The difference is that the nonspecific tests use a cross- reactive antigen known as cardiolipin, while the specific tests use a T pallidum antigen. Although the nonspecific tests are sensitive, they lack specificity and often cross- react in patients who have diabetes, hepatitis, or infectious mononucleosis, or who are pregnant. Some patients, especially those with autoimmune diseases, will have both nonspecific (RPR) and specific tests (FTA) positive even if they do not have syphilis. Resolution of such a situation can be done by molecular methods for T pallidum, such as PCR, or by the immobilization test using live spirochetes and the patient's serum. In the TPI test, the spirochetes will die in the presence of specific antibody. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following germ cell tumor is malignant - | [
"Leydig cell tumor",
"Sertoli cell tumor",
"Seminoma",
"Dermoid cyst"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Seminoma [Ref: Devita p. 983}o Among the given options only options c & d are germ cell tumors. Seminoma is malignant while dermoid cyst is benign.Germ cell tumoursMalignantBenignGerminoma (seminoma, dysgerminoma),Mature teratoma,embryonal carcinoma, endodermal sinusdermoid cysttumor (yolk sactumor), choriocarcinoma, immature teratoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spinal cord in adults terminates at which level of veebrae? | [
"Upper border of L1",
"Upper border of L3",
"Lower border of L1",
"Lower border of L3"
] | C | Spinal cord in adults terminates at the lower border of the L1 veebra. In children , it usually terminates at the upper border of the L3 veebra. Structure/ Space Terminal extent Spinal cord at bih L3 upper border Spinal cord at 2 years L1 lower border Adult spinal cord L1 lower border Filum terminale 1st coccygeal segment Filum terminale internum, Dural sac S2 lower border Filum terminale externum 1st coccygeal segment Piameter 1st coccygeal segment Subarachnoid sheath and space, subdural space S2 lower border Cervical enlargement C3-T2 spinal segments Lumbar enlargement L1-S3 spinal segments Ref: Snell's Clinical Neuroanatomy 8th edition Pgno: 136 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 36-year female complaints of abdominal pain & constipation since 5 years. She has on & off rectal bleed when she tries to defecate forcefully. The most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Crohn's disease",
"Tuberculous intestine",
"Irritable bowel syndrome"
] | D | The findings are consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn's disease would typically have perianal fistulae while ulcerative colitis has periods of acute disease and quiescent periods: the acute periods are severe and may lead to significant impairement. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is most common cause of vitreous haemorrhage in children? | [
"Diabetic Retinopathy",
"Trauma",
"Eales disease",
"Coat's disease"
] | B | Trauma is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in children. Vitreous Hemorrhage Blood in vitreous cavity Causes: Intraocular surgery Ocular tumors Trauma Vasculitis Proliferative diabetic retinoopathy Neovascularization Intravitreal injections Most Common Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in children: Trauma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following muscles are used for the retraction of scapula, EXCEPT: | [
"Trapezius",
"Rhomboideus major",
"Rhomboideus minor",
"Levator scapula"
] | D | The levator scapula muscle attaches to the cervical veebrae and the superior angle of the scapula, causing elevation and downward rotation of the scapula. Trapezius elevates, retracts, depresses, and rotates scapula. The rhomboid muscles attach to the spinous processes of C7-T5 and the medial border of the scapula, resulting in scapular retraction. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 1. Back. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During this phenomenon (arrow mark), changes in hormone levels noted are, | [
"Increased estrogen, increased progesterone",
"Decreased estrogen, increased progesterone",
"Decreased estrogen, decreased progesterone",
"Increased estrogen, decreased progesterone"
] | D | Ans. (d) Increased estrogen, decreased progesterone(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.403)LH surge happen 24 - 36 hrs before ovulationAt that time, there is increased estrogen, decreased progesterone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Depth of anaesthesia can be best assessed by - | [
"Pulse oximeter",
"End-tidal pCO2",
"Bispectral index",
"Acid blood gas analysis"
] | C | A bispectral index (BIS) monitor is commonly utilized to assess depth of sedation when administering sedative, hypnotic, or anesthetic agents during surgical and medical procedures. The depth of sedation is calculated by measuring cerebral electric activity an electroencephalogram (EEG). The BIS algorithm processes the frontal EEG and conves the signal to a waveform on the BIS monitor 100 to 90-awake and responding appropriately to verbal stimulation 80 to 70-responsive to loud commands or mild shaking 70 to 60-intense tactile stimulation is needed for a response 60 to 40-unresponsive to verbal stimulus; general anesthesia obtained with a low chance for explicit recall less than 40-deep hypnotic state; possible protective responses still intact. less than 20-burst suppression (EEG pattern characterized by cycles of high-voltage electrical movement alternating with cycles of no activity in the brain); respiratory drive is limited, but possible protective responses still intact. 0-totally suppressed EEG (flat line). Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 36 month old girl shows frontal bossing and wrist enlargement. Diagnosis is - | [
"Rickets",
"Scurvy",
"Beri Beri",
"Osteomalacia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., RicketsClinical features of ricketso Clinical manifestations of rickets are usually manifested by 6 months of age. Rickets is unusual below the age of 3 months.Clinical features of rickets are :o Skull: Craniotabes (earliest manifestation), frontal and parietal bossing; widened sutures; delayed closure of anterior fontanel; Caput quadratum or hot cross-bun skull; soft skull with ping-pong ball like feelo Chest: Rachitic rosary (prominent costochondral junction); pectus craniatum (pigeon breast); Harrison's groove (horizontal depression along lower border of chest corresponding to insertion of diaphragm)o TeathDelayederuption;enamelhypoplasia;dentalcaries.o Limbs and joints : Bone pain & tenderness (most common manifestation); coxa vara; genu valgus) or genu varus; bowing of legs (tibia), femur, radus & ulna; widening of wrist, elbow, knee & ankle; windswept deformity; string-of-pearls deformity (Saucage-like enlargement of ends of phalanges and metacarpals with constrictions at joints); double malleoli sign (two medial malleoli are palpable instead of one). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mania is characterized by all except - | [
"Hypersomnia",
"Pressure of speech",
"High self esteem",
"Delusion of grandeur"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypersomnia o Insomnia and not hypersomnia is a feature in mania.Diagnostic criteria for maniao Three or more of the following for at least 1 weeki) Inflated self esteem or grandiosityv) Distractibilityii) Decreased need for sleepvi) Psychom otor agitation or Increased goal directed activitiesiii) Overtalkativenessvii) Excessive involvement in pleasurable activitiesiv) Flight of ideas Important symptoms of mamaElevated mood Euphoria, elation, exatlation, ectasv, high self esteem.Thought & speech Pressure of speech (Talkativeness), flight of ideas, delusion of grandeur, delusion of persecution, distractibility.Increased psychomotor activity'Overactiveness, restlessness, increased energy.Goal directed activity Patient is alert, trying to do many things at one time.Psychotic features Delusions and hallucination.Other Increased sexual drive, aggressive behavior, decreased need for sleep (insomnia), spending excessive money, increased appetite, impaired judgement, social & occupational dysfunction, absent insight. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not true regarding the colour of bruise - | [
"4th day - bluish black to brown",
"7 -12 days - green",
"1stday - red",
"2 weeks - normal"
] | B | At first: Red (oxyhemoglobin)
Few hours to 3 days: blue (reduced hemoglobin)
4th day: Bluish-black to brown (hemosiderin)
5-6 days: Greenish (haematoidin)
7-12 days: Yellow (Bilirubin)
2 weeks : Normal (absorption of pigment) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atractiloside act as ? | [
"Uncoupler",
"Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation",
"Inhibitor of complex I of ETC",
"Inhibitor of complex III of ETC"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylationInhibitors of electron transpo chain?Inhibitors of respiratory chain may be divided into three groups : ?1. Inhibitors of electron transpo chain properThese inhibitors inhibit the flow of electrons through the respiratory chain. This occurs at following sites.Complex I (NADH to CoQ) is inhibited by : - Barbiturates (amobarbital), Piericidin A (an antibiotic), rotenone (an insectiside), chlorpromazine (a tranquilizer), and guanethidine (an ntihypeensive). These inhibitors block the transfer of reducing equivalents from FeS protein to CoQ.Complex II is inhibited by : - Carboxin and TTFA inhibit transfer of electon from FADH2 to CoQ, whereas malanate competitively inhibit from succinate to complex II. Complex III (Cytochrome b to cytochrome CI) is inhibited by : - Dimercaprol, antimycin A, BAL(British antilewisite), Naphthyloquinone. These inhibitors block the transfer of electrons from cytochrome b to cytochromeComplex IV (cytochrome C oxidase) is inhibited by : - Carbon monoxide, CN-, H2S and azide (N3-). These inhibitors block the transfer of electrons from cytochrome aa3 to molecular oxygen and therefore can totally arrest cellular respiration.2. Inhibitors of oxidative phosphorylationThese compounds directly inhibit phosphorylation of ADP to ATP. Oligomycin inhibits Fo component of F0F, ATPase. Atractiloside inhibits translocase, a transpo protein that transpos ADP into mitochondria for phosphorylation into ATP.3. UncouplesAs the name suggests, these componds block the coupeling of oxidation with phosphorylation. These compounds allow the transfer of reducing equivalents in respiratory chain but prevent the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP by uncoupling the linkage between ETC and phosphorylation. Thus the energy instead of being trapped by phosphorylation is dissipated as heat. Uncouplers may be :-Natural :- Thermogenin, thyroxineSynthetic :- 2, 4-dinitrophenol (2, 4-DNP), 2, 4-dinitrocresol (2, 4-DNC), and CCCP (chlorocarbonylcyanidephenyl hydrazone). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice in duct papilloma of breast is ? | [
"Simple mastectomy",
"Microdochectomy",
"Local wide excision",
"Chemotheapy"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e., Microdochectomy Duct Papilloma Intraductal papillomas are true polyps of epithelium-lined breast ducts. They are benign lesions. They are not precancerous lesions. Mostly they are solitary and located under the areola (within 4-5 cm of nipple orifice) In general these lesions are less than 1 cm in size but can grow large to 4 to 5 cm. Most common presentation is bloody discharge from the nipple. Treatment - complete excision of the duct involved along with the tumor known as Microdochectomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wrist drop is due to injury of - | [
"Ulnar nerve",
"Radial nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Musculocutaneous nerve"
] | B | Radial nerve injury
- High radial nerve palsy- Injury above the spiral groove.
o Paralysis of all muscles supplied by radial nerve.
o Clinical features
Wrist drop, finger drop, thumb drop
Extension affected of- elbow, wrist, thumb and fingers
Sensation affected of- posterior surface of arm and forearm and lower lateral half of forearm.
- Low radial nerve palsy- Injury below the spiral groove.
o Type I- Injury between spiral groove and elbow.
Elbow extensors are spared- Triceps and Anconeus.
Wrist, thumb and finger extensors paralysed- wrist drop, thumb drop, finger drop.
Loss of sensation on dorsal side of first web space.
o Type II- Injury below the elbow joint.
Elbow and wrist extensors spared
Thumb and finger extensors paralysed.(extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, extensor indicis, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis)- Thumb drop and finger drop.
Loss of sensation on dorsal side of first web space. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal vital capacity of lungs is- | [
"500ml",
"1200ml",
"3000 ml",
"4700 ml"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4700 ml Respiratory Volumes and Capacities for an Average Young Adult Male Measurement Typical value Definition Respiratory volumes 1. Tidal volume (TV) 500 ml Amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed, quiet breathing 2. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) 3000 ml Amount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort 3. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) 1200 ml Amount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort 4. Residual volume (RV) 1200 ml Amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration, keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspiration Respiratory Capacities 5. Vital capacity (VC) 4700 ml Amount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV+TV+IRV); used to assess strength of thoracic muscles as well as pulmonary function 6. Inspiratory capacity (IC) 3500 ml Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV) 7. Functional residual capacity (FRC) 2400 ml Amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV) 8. Total lung capacity (TLC) 5900 ml Maximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV + VC) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Single best parameter to assess gestational age in first trimester? | [
"CRL (Crown Rump Length)",
"BPD (Biparietal diameter)",
"HC (Head Circumference)",
"FL (Femur Length)"
] | A | Best parameter to assess gestational age- First trimester - CRL (Crown Rump Length) Second trimester - BPD (Biparietal Diameter) Third trimester - BPD (Biparietal Diameter) Best Overall - CRL (Crown Rump Length) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 15-year-old boy feels that the di has hung onto him whenever he passes through the diy street. He knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once, but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think so. The most likely diagnosis is:Gujarat 07 | [
"OCD",
"Conduct disorder",
"Agoraphobia",
"Adjustment disorder"
] | A | Ans. OCD | train | med_mcqa | null |
Catalase test is used to differentiate ? | [
"Staphylococcus aureus from staphylococcus epidermidis",
"Staphylococci from streptococci",
"Streptococcus pyogenes from other streptococci",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Staphylococci from streptococci The catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci (catalase-positive) from streptococci (catalase-negative). The enzyme, catalase, is produced by bacteria that respire using oxygen, and protects them from the toxic by-products of oxygen metabolism | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Creutzfcldt-Jakob disease are true, EXCEPT | [
"It is a neurodegenerative disease",
"It is caused by infectious proteins",
"Myoclonus is rarely seen",
"Brain biopsy is specific for diagnosis"
] | C | (C) Myoclonus is rarely seen # Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a neurodegenerative disease caused by Prions> Myoclonus is seen in 90% of patients with Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease.> Prions are infectious proteinaceous material devoid of detectable amount of nucleic acids.> Characteristics of diseases caused by Prions - Diseases are confined to central nervous system Basic pathology is - Neurodegeneration - Spongiform encephalopathy> Presence of Amyloid plaques in brain Hosts shows no inflammatory response (Disease is almost always fatal)> Clinical features (Symptoms): Usually presents in middle ages Rapidly progressive dementia Myoclonic fasciculations (seen in 90%) Ataxia Somnolence> Characteristic EEC pattern - Paroxysms with high voltage and slow waves | train | med_mcqa | null |
All organisms shows bipolar staining except - | [
"Calymmatobacter granulomatis",
"Y. pestis",
"Pseudomonas mallei",
"H. influenzae"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., H. influenzae Bipolar staining (safety pin appearance)o Some bacteria display a safety pin appearance due to the accumulation of dye at the poles of the cells,o This characteristic is called bipolar staining.o Bacteria showing bipolar staining are-1. Calymmatobacter granulomatis (Donovani granulomatis)4. Vibrio parahemolyticus2 Pseudomonas mallei5. Yersinia pestis3. Pseudomonas pseudomallei6. H. ducreyi | train | med_mcqa | null |
The adaption stage of a pedicle soft tissue graft takes | [
"0-3 days",
"1-3 days",
"0-4 days",
"1-2 days"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about diabetes in pregnancy except | [
"Macrosomia",
"lUGR",
"Congenital anomalies",
"Neonatal hyperglycemia"
] | D | Neonatal Effects of Diabetic complicated Pregnancy Respiratory Distress Syndrome Delayed lung maturation 2. Hypoglycemia Newborns of a diabetic mother experience a rapid drop in plasma glucose concentration after delivery Mainly attributed tohyperinsuliniemia produced by hyperplasia of the fetal b-islet cells induced by chronic maternal hyperglycemia Low glucose concentrations--defined as < 45 mg/dL--are paicularly common in newborns of women with unstable glucose concentrations during labor Prompt recognition and treatment of the hypoglycemic newborn minimizes adverse sequelae. 3. Hypocalcemia Defined as a total serum calcium concentration < 8 mg/dL in term newborns Cause has not been explained Theories include aberrations in magnesium-calcium economy, asphyxia, and preterm bih 4. Hyperbilirubinemia and Polycythemia Major contributing factor is newborn polycythemia, which increases the bilirubin load Polycythemia is thought to be a fetal response to relative chronic hypoxia Sources of this fetal hypoxia are hyperglycemia-mediated increase in maternal affinity for oxygen and fetal oxygen consumption Together with insulin-like growth factors, hypoxia leads to increased fetal erythropoietin levels and red cell production. 5. Cardiomyopathy Mainly hyperophic cardiomyopathy that primarily affects the interventricular septum In severe cases, this cardiomyopathy may lead to obstructive cardiac failure Most affected newborns are asymptomatic following bih, and hyperophy resolves in the months after delivery Relief from maternal hyperglycemia is presumed to promote this resolution Conversely, fetal cardiomyopathy may progress to adult cardiac disease. 6. Long-Term Cognitive Development Intrauterine metabolic conditions have been linked to neurodevelopment in offspring Autism spectrum disorders or developmental delay were more common in children of diabetic women 7. Inheritance of Diabetes The risk of developing type 1 diabetes if either parent is affected is 3 to 4 percent Type 2 diabetes has a much stronger genetic component. If both parents have type 2 diabetes, the risk of developing it approaches 40 percent Reference: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 57 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coronary blood flow (Right ventricle), true is: | [
"500 mL/min",
"Maximum during systole",
"Adenosine decreases it",
"More than skin"
] | B | Although maximum blood flow occurs during diastole in left ventricle, in right ventricle it is maximum during systole.
Because diastole is shorter when the heart rate is high, left ventricular coronary flow is reduced during tachycardia. On the other hand, the pressure differential between the aorta and the right ventricle, and the differential between the aorta and the atria, are somewhat greater during systole than during diastole. Consequently, coronary flow in those parts of the heart is not appreciably reduced during systole. Flow in the right and left coronary arteries is shown in figure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is the most frequent manifestation of MEN 1? | [
"Parathyroid hyperplasia",
"Pituitary adenoma",
"Adrenal adenoma",
"Bronchial carcinoids"
] | A | MEN 1 is an autosomal dominant disorder due to a defect in 11q13, which encodes for a 610-amino-acid nuclear protein, menin. Patients with MEN1 develop hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia in 95-100% of cases, pituitary adenomas in 54-80%, adrenal adenomas in 27-36%, bronchial carcinoids in 8%. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3060. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DIC is commonly seen in- | [
"M1 AML",
"M2 AML",
"M3 AML",
"M4 AML"
] | C | Answer is C (M3-AML) DIC or DI VC may occur in any subgroup of AML but is especially common in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia or M3- .4,VIL of FAB classification. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25 years old nulliparous woman with third degree uterine descent but no cystocele or rectocele or enetrocele is best treated with : | [
"Fothergill's repair",
"Abdominal sling operation",
"Amputation of the cervix and reconstruction",
"Lefo's operation"
] | B | Abdominal sling operation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antisperm antibody testing is not needed if the sperm are to be used for- | [
"ICSI",
"GIFT",
"ZIFT",
"IVF"
] | A | Antisperm antibody testing is not needed if the sperm are to be used for Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI). Antisperm antibody testing Using the immunobead test, washed spermatozoa are exposed and assessed for binding to labeled beads. In the mixed agglutination reaction, human red blood cells sensitized with human immunoglobulin G (IgG) are mixed with the paner's semen. Spermatozoa that are coated with antibodies form mixed agglutinates with the red blood cells Anti sperm antibodies cause agglutination of sperms and hence the sperms are'nt free to move and feilise the oocyte. This test is therfore impoant before A procedures except ICSI because here the sperm is directly injected into the oocyte cytoplasm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Twin pregnancy of the same age and sex rules out ? | [
"Superfetation",
"Maternal twins",
"Superfecundation",
"None of the above"
] | A | Superfetation It is the simultaneous occurrence of more than one stage of developing offspring in the same animal. In mammals, it manifests as the formation of an embryo from a different estrous cycle while another embryo or fetus is already present in the uterus. Ref : Dutta book of obstetrics 8th Ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sodium content in reduced osmolarity ORS is: September 2006 | [
"1.5 grams/liter",
"2.5 grams/liter",
"3.5 grams/liter",
"4.5 grams/liter"
] | B | Ans. B: 2.5 grams/liter | train | med_mcqa | null |
Corticosteroid with maximum sodium retaning potential is: | [
"Dexamethasone",
"Prednisolone",
"Aldosterone",
"Betamethasone"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Singer's nodule is MOST common seen at: | [
"Junction of ant 2/3 and post 1/3 of vocal cords",
"Junction of ant 1/3 and post 2/3 of vocal cords",
"Any where",
"Middle of ant 1/3 and 2/3 of vocal cords"
] | B | Singers nodules are commonly seen at the junction of the anterior one third and posterior two third of the vocal cord. This site corresponds to the middle of the membranous cords and represents the maximum point of vibratory impact during speaking and singing. Singers nodule represents a non neoplastic, vascular stromal reaction primarily to vocal abuse. They affect both sexes and all age groups with a peak incidence between 20 and 50 years of age. Symptoms usually range from breaking of voice to hoarseness. Indirect laryngoscopy is used to confirm the diagnosis. At laryngoscopy the nodules appear as white, pearly gray, tan or red growths that rarely exceed 15 mm in greatest dimension. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Isotope Renogram - | [
"Study of renin mechanism",
"Contrast study of kidneys, ureter and bladder",
"Utilised in mapping the anatomy of kidneys",
"Graphic representation of radioactivity of kidneys"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Botulism is most commonly seen with | [
"Food with preservatives",
"Home canned food",
"Commercially canned food",
"Unpasteurized milk"
] | B | The source of botulism is usually preserved food, meat, and meat products. Proteolytic varieties of clostridium botulinum can digest food, which then appears spoiled. The cans are often inflated and show bubbles on opening. Non-proteolytic varieties leave food unchanged. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 269 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In below elbow amputation the length of stump should be | [
"10 -15 cm",
"15 - 20 cm",
"20 - 25 cm",
"5 - 10 cm"
] | B | Level of amputation
For an amputation in a limb, ideal levels were suggested which gave the stump an optimum length to facilitate subsequent prosthetic fitting.
For example :
Above knee amputation : 25-30 cm as measured from the tip of greater trochanter.
Below knee amputation : 15 cm as measured from the tibial tubercle.
Above elbow amputation : 20 cm as measured from the tip of greater tuberosity.
Below elbow amputation : 18 cm as measured from the tip of olecranon.
However, with the recent developments in the fabrication and fitting of prosthesis, it is not necessary to stick to these stump lengths. The viability of the tissue is the main criteria for determining the level of amputation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with lesions as shown.Which condition would you rule out? | [
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Sarcoidosis",
"SLE",
"Hyperthyroidism"
] | A | The above image shows presence of Necrobiosis lipoidica which is seen in Diabetes Mellitus.
It is characterized well circumscribed, yellowish - brown, ulcerative lesions over shins due to diabetic microangiopathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase - | [
"Disulfiram",
"Fomepizole",
"Methyl alcohol",
"Zolpidem"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fomepizole o Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase and the drug of choice for methanol poisoning.Noteo Disulfiram also inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, but it is non-specific inhibitor. Its main action is due to inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for a schizophrenic patient with poor oral absorption is? | [
"Haloperidol",
"Fluphenazine",
"Clozapine",
"Olanzapine"
] | B | Ans- B Fluphenazine Depot fluphenazine is used in cases with poor oral absorption. Clozapine used as an oral drug in resistant schizophrenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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