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Allograft is between -
[ "Graft from genetically identical person", "Individuals of same species with different genetic identity", "Graft from self", "Members of different species" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Individuals of same species with different genetic identity Based on donor, graft may be:-a) A utograft (autogenic graft): Graft from self.b) Isograft (syngraft) : Graft from genetically identical person, e.g. identical twin.c) Allograft (homograft or allogenic graft): Graft from genetically unrelated member of same species.d) Xenograft (heterograft): Graft from different species.Also remembero Orthoptic graft - Graft applied in anatomically normal site eg. Skin graft.o Heterotopic graft - Graft applied in anatomically abnormal site.
train
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Angular vein infection causes thrombosis in?
[ "Cavernous sinus", "Suprasaggital sinus", "Inferior saggital sinus", "Straight sinus" ]
A
ANSWER: (A) Cavernous sinusREF: Gray's anatomy 40th ed ch: 29Angular vein is related to the danger area of the face. It is formed by junction of supra orbital and supra trochlear vein. It can be seen 8mm medial to medial canthus. it pierces orbucalis oculi. It drains into anterior facial vein. Angular vein communicates with the cavernous sinus through a communicating vein and it gives a tributary to formation of superiorophthalmic vein. Deep facial vein from the pterygoid plexus joins the anterior facial vein. The pterygoid plexus is connected to cavernous sinus through communicating veins which pass through foramen of vesalvius.
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Amongst the following cause of dementia, neurofibrillary tangles, senile plaques and amyloid angiopathy are associated with: September 2003
[ "Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease", "Vascular dementia", "Niemann Pick disease", "Alzheimer's disease" ]
D
Ans. D i.e. Alzheimer's disease
train
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If MC/MF is less than 1, but greater than 0, movement of the tooth will be:
[ "Pure tipping", "Torque", "Controlled tipping", "None of the above" ]
C
null
train
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Testementary capacity refers to -
[ "Ability to make a valid will", "Criminal liability", "Right to vote", "Ability to give evidence" ]
A
Testamentary capacity is defined as the capacity of a person to make a valid will.
train
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Resolution of corpus luteum occurs because of:
[ "Increased levels of progesterone", "Increased levels of estrogen", "Decreased levels of LH", "Decreased levels of FSH" ]
C
Continued corpus luteum function depends on continued LH production. In the absence of this stimulation, the corpus luteum will invariably regress after 12 to16 days and form scar-like corpora albicans. In the absence of pregnancy, the corpus luteum regresses, and estrogen and progesterone levels wane. If pregnancy occurs, HCG from the placenta will mimic LH action and the corpus luteum continues to secrete progesterone.
train
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Smokeless gun powder is composed of:
[ "KMnO4", "HCN", "Nitrocellulose", "Sulphur" ]
C
C i.e. Nitro cellulose
train
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The largest fraction of the total body fluid is:
[ "Extracellular fluid", "Intracellular fluid", "Plasma", "Whole blood" ]
B
null
train
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Pleural calcification is seen commonly in
[ "Silicosis", "Asbestosis", "Hyperparathyroidism", "Bronchogenic carcinoma" ]
B
null
train
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Neuro lathyrism results due to
[ "Aflatoxin", "Pyruvic acid", "BOAA", "Sanguinarine" ]
C
null
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Following acute pharyngitis, a patient was on broad spectrum antibiotics. One week later he developed watery diarrhoea with a foul odour and abdominal cramps. Antibiotic induced colitis is confirmed. What is the most common cause of antibiotic induced colitis?
[ "Esch. coli", "Clostridium difficile", "Salmonella", "Campylobacter jejuni" ]
B
Clostridium difficile is the major known cause of nosocomial antibiotic-associated diarrhea and colitis. The organism elaborates at least four toxins, including toxin A (an enterotoxin) and toxin B (a cytotoxin). Symptoms and signs include diarrhea, which is usually watery, occasionally bloody, and has a characteristic foul odor; abdominal cramps; vomiting; fever; and leukocytosis. Demonstration of C difficile cytotoxin in the stool is sensitive and specific. Ref: Chang G.J., Shelton A.A., Welton M.L. (2010). Chapter 30. Large Intestine. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e.
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Diffusion hypoxia is a type of ...............hypoxia
[ "Anemic", "Histotoxic", "Stagnant", "Hypoxic" ]
D
Hypoxic hypoxia also called aerial hypoxiais a result of insufficient oxygen available to the lungs. Diffusion hypoxia occurs during recovery from nitrous oxide anesthesia when nitrous oxide is suddenly cut off. Nitrous oxide diffuses from the blood to the alveoli and replaces the oxygen which reduces alveolar O2 concentration, resulting in relative hypoxemia. This can be avoided by providing supplemental O2 for the first 10 minutes of recovery. Diffusion hypoxia is less common with xenon because its rate of diffusion from the blood to the alveoli is slower.
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Which of the following drugs is effective against Pseudomonas infection ?
[ "Ampicillin", "Ceftriaxone", "Colistin", "Cefixime" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Colistin o Polypeptides like colistin and polymyxin B are effective against pseudomonas. o Carbenicillin, ticarcillin, piperacillin, azlocillin and mezlocillin are the penicillins effective against pseudomonas whereas cefoperazone, ceftazidime, cefepime and cefpirome are cephalosporins effective against pseudomonas.
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Nasolacrimal duct opens into -
[ "Superior", "Inferior", "Middle", "Sphenoethmoid recess" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Inferior meatus o The nasal conchae or turbinates are curved bony projections directed downwards and medially.The inferior concha is the largest and is an independent bone.The middle concha is also a projection from the medial surface of ethmoiod.The superior concha is the smallest and also arises from the medial surface of the ethmoid.o The meatuses of the nose are passages beneath the overhanging conchae.i) The inferior meatus -Lies underneath the inferior conchaLargestThe nasolacrimal duct opens near its anterior part. The opening is guarded by Hansen's valve,ii) The middle meatus -o Lies underneath the middle concha. It presents the following features :The ethmoidal bulla is a rounded elevation produced by the underlying middle ethmoidal sinuses.The hiatus semilunaris is a deep circular sulcus below the bulla.The infundibulum is a short passage at the anterior end of the hiatusOpening of the frontal sinus is at the anterior end of the hiatusOpening of the maxillary sinus is at the posterior part of the hiatusOpening of the middle ethmoidal sinus is present at the upper margin of the bulla,iii) The Superior meatus -Lies below the superior conchaShortest and shallowest of the 3 meatusesReceives the openings of the posterior ethmoidal air cellsThe sphenoethmidal recess is a triangular fossa just above the superior concha. It receives the opening of the sphenoidal air sinus.Coronal section through the middle cranial fossa showing the relations of the cavernous sinuso Each cavernous sinus is a large venous space situated in the middle cranial fossa on either side of the body of the sphenoid bone. Its interior is divided into a number of trabeculae or caverns,o The floor of the sinus is formed by the endosteal dura mater. The lateral wall, roof and medial wall are formed by the meningeal dura mater.Structures in the lateral wall of the sinus from above downwards:l. Oculomotor nerve2 Trochlear nerveOphthalmic nerve - in the anterior part of the sinus, it divides into the lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary nerve.Maxillary nerve - it leaves the sinus by passing through the foramen rotundum on its way to the pterygopalatine fossa.Trigeminal ganglion - the ganglion and its dural cave project into the posterior part of the lateral wall of the sinus.Structures passing through the centre of the sinus :1. Internal carotid artery with the venous and sympathetic plexus around it.2 Abducent nerve, inferolateral to the internal carotid artery.Part of lateral nasal wallOpeningsInferiorNasolacrimal ductMiddleFrontal sinus, Maxillary sinus, Anterior ethmoidal sinusSuperiorPosterior ethmoidal sinusSphenoethmoidal recessSphenoid sinus
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Following analgesic combination should be avoided
[ "Aspirin and Codeine", "Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene", "Ibuprofen and Paracetamol", "Ibuprofen and Diclofenac" ]
D
null
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A patient presents in the causality with history of abdominal pain. On examination the person is in shock, with severe abdominal tenderness and guarding. There was also one episode of bloody diarrhoea. He gives a history of recurrent abdominal pain soon after taking food which persists for about 3 hours after food. He also has a history of MI about 5 years back. What is your diagnosis?
[ "Acute thrombotic mesenteric vascular occlusion", "Acute pancreatitis", "Acute duodenal ulcer perforation", "Acute appendicitis" ]
A
The person has had recurrent episodes of abdominal angina as shown by the pain after food intake. He also has a history of MI which also suggests that he has atherosclerosis. The bloody diarrhoea is again suggestive of mesenteric vascular occlusion in this patient. Ref: Manipal Millennium Edition, Page 429; S.Das, Edition 5, Page 354
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Following is true about behcet's disease except ?
[ "It shows presence of aphthous ulceration, genital ulceration and uveitis", "Uveitis is bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis with hypopyon", "It has good visual prognosis", "Chlorambucil can be used to control the disease" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., It has good visual prognosis BEHCET'S DISEASE It is an idiopathic multisystem disease characterised by recurrent, non-granulomatous uveitis, aphthous ulceration, genital ulcerations and erythema multiforme. Etiology It is still unknown; the basic lesion is an obliterative vasculitis probably caused by circulating immune complexes. The disease typically affects the young men who are positive for HLA-B5 1. Clinical features Uveitis seen in Behcet's disease is typically bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis associated with hypopyon. It may also be associated with posterior uveitis, vitritis, periphlebitis retinae and retinitis in the form of white necrotic infiltrates. Treatment No satisfactory treatment is available, and thus the disease has got comparatively poor visual prognosis. Coicosteroids may by helpful initially but ultimate response is poor. In some cases the disease may be controlled by chlorambucil.
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Antiglaucoma drug which acts by increasing uveo- sclerol outflow -
[ "Apraclonidine", "Latanoprost", "Timolol", "Brinzolamide" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Latanoprost Drugs used in open-angle glaucoma MechanismMethods of AdministrationCholinomimetics Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate, demecariumCiliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular meshwork, increased outflowTopical drops of gel; plastic film slow-release insertAlpha agonists UnselectiveEpinephrine, dipivefrinIncreased outflowTopical dropsAlpha2-selectiveDecreased aqueous secretion ApraclonidineBrimonidine Topical, postlaser only TopicalBeta-blockers Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol, levobunolol, metipranololDecreased aqueous secretion from the ciliary epitheliumTopical dropsDiuretics Dorzolamide, brinzolamideDecreased aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3TopicalAcetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, Methazolamide OralProstaglandins Lantanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost, unoprostoneIncreased outflowTopical
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In bronchiectasis all of the following are seen except:
[ "Clubbing", "Wheezing", "Heamoptysis", "Recurring bouts of cough" ]
B
null
train
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True about cremasteric reflex?
[ "Afferent: genital branch of genitofemoral nerve", "Efferent: genital branch of genitofermoral nerve", "Efferent: femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve", "Afferent: pudendal nerve" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Efferent : genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
train
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Inferior thyroid aery is related to
[ "Superior laryngeal nerve", "Recurrent laryngeal", "Glossopharyngeal nerve", "XII nerve" ]
B
The inferior thyroid aery is a branch of thyrocervical trunk. It runs first upwards then medially and finally downwards to reach the lower pole of the gland. During its course, it passes behind the carotid sheath and the middle cervical sympathetic ganglion; and in front of the thyroid veebral vessels; and gives off branches to adjacent structures Its terminal pas is intimately related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, while proximal pa is away from the nerve. The aery divides into 4 to 5 glandular branches which pierce the fascia separately to reach the lower pa of the gland. One ascending branch anastomoses with the posterior branch of the superior thyroid aery, and supplies the parathyroid glands. Ref BDC volume 3 :sixth edition :pg 143
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Integrins are associated with all except
[ "Rolling", "Adhesion", "Arrest", "Transmigration of cells" ]
A
Rolling is associated with selectins Integrins are associated with adhesion, arrest, transmigrationRobbins 9th /e p 76
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Initial drug of choice in a child with status epilepticus-
[ "Lorazepam", "Phenobarbitone", "Valproate", "Phenvtoin" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lorazepam o Status epilepticus implies prolong single seizure or multiple episode of seizure lasting for more than 30 min.o Management include -i) Ensure adequate vitals, systemic & cerebral oxygenation,ii) Terminate seizureiii) Prevent seizure reccuranceiv) Establish diagnosis and treat underlying disorder,o To terminate seizure, Benzodiazepin are used,o So initially Benzodiazepine like diazepam, Lorazepam or midazolam,o Lorazepam is preferred over diazepam as longer action & minimal depresion.
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Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except :
[ "Hodgkin’s disease", "Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma", "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "Multiple myeloma" ]
D
null
train
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The WHO permissible limit of arsenic in drinking water is:-
[ "0.01 mg/L", "0.001 mg/L", "0.01 microgram/L", "0.1 mg/L" ]
A
WHO permissible limit of arsenic content in drinking water is 0.01 mg/L
train
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Delayed dentition is seen in all/except –
[ "Down syndrome", "Congenital hypothyroidism", "Rickets", "All of above" ]
D
null
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Gene for folate carrier protein is located on chromosome
[ "Chromosome 21", "Chromosome 5", "Chromosome 10", "Chromosome 9" ]
A
Folate cofactors are one-carbon donors essential for the biosynthesis of purines and thymidylate. Mammalian cells are devoidof folate biosynthesis and are therefore folate auxotrophs that take up folate vitamins primarily via the reduced folate carrier (RFC). The gene for RFC is located on chromosome 21.
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All of the following are true about blood pressure measurement, EXCEPT:
[ "Cuff width should be 40% of arm. circumference", "Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fouh Korotkoff sound", "Small cuff measures spuriously elevated Diastolic blood pressure", "Monckeberg's sclerosis causes pseudohypeension" ]
B
The length and width of the blood pressure cuff bladder should be 80% and 40% of the arm's circumference, respectively. Use of an inappropriately small cuff, resulting in marked overestimation of true blood pressure, or an inappropriately large cuff, resulting in underestimation of true blood pressure. Systolic and diastolic pressures are defined by the first and fifth Korotkoff sounds, respectively. Monckeberg's sclerosis causes pseudohypeension due to vascular stiffening. Ref: O'Gara P.T., Loscalzo J. (2012). Chapter 227. Physical Examination of the Cardiovascular System. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
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A female, Lalita, aged 26 yrs accidentally takes 100 tablets of paracetamol. What is treatment of choice -
[ "Lavage with charcoal", "Dialysis", "Alkaline diuresis", "Acetyl cysteine" ]
D
Gastric lavage and hemodialysis are used in paracetamol poisoning. But the treatment of choice is N-acetyl cysteine.
train
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Pelger Huet anamoly shows presence of -
[ "Hyposegmented neutrophil", "Hypersegmented neutrophil", "Unsegmented neutrophil", "None of the above" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyposegmented neutrophil Pelger Huet anomalyo It is a genetic disorder with an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern,o It is a blood laminopathy associated with the lamin B receptor.o It is characterized by a white blood cell type known as a neutrophil whose nucleus is hyposegmented.o Heterozygotes are clinically normal, although their neutrophils may be mistaken for immature cells, which may cause mistreatment in a clinical setting.o Homozygotes tend to have neutrophils with rounded nuclei that do have some functional problems.
train
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Hybrid layer was given by
[ "Nakabyashi", "Bunocore", "Burnam", "Kim et al" ]
A
null
train
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Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway?
[ "Immune complex", "Lipopolysaccharide", "Exotoxin", "Zymosan" ]
A
Ans: A (Immune complex) Ref: Ananthnarayan R, Partiker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press: 2009.Explanation:Complement-pathwaysClassic pathway - Acquired immunity (Activated by antigen antibody complex)Alternate complement pathway - Innate immunity (Activated by various substances like bacterial endotoxins, fungal cell wall components like zymosan)Mannan/Mannose Binding Lectin pathway (MBL Pathway) - Innate immunity (Activated by the binding of mannose-binding lectin (MBL) to mannose residues on glycoproteins or carbohydrates on the surface of microorganisms including certain Salmonella, Listeria, and Neisseria strains, as well as Cryptococcus neoformans and Candida albicans.)Sources of ComplementClassical pathwayC1-epithelium & fibroblastsC3, C4. C6 -C9 -LiverCl -C5 -Macrophages (stimulated by phagocytic events)CI esterase -LiverAlternate pathwayFactor B. D. H. I. P -Macrophages (stimulated by phagocytic events)
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Avascular structure of the eye is -
[ "Conjuctiva", "Ciliary body", "Cornea", "Retina" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Cornea o Lens and cornea are avascular structures of eye, that's why fluorescein angiography can't be used to identify lesions.
train
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Hormonal levels in PCOD :
[ "LH decreases", "LH increases, FSH increases", "Insulin decreases", "Testosterone increases" ]
D
Hormones increased in PCOS : 1.Androgens(testosterone,Androstenodione,DHEAS) 2.Luteinizing hormone(LH>10IUml) 3.Estrogen(Estrone>Oestradiol,increased E2/E1 ratio) 4. Insulin (10m IU/L due to insulin resistance) 5.Prolactin (in some patients) 6.increased LDL/cholesterol and triglycerides. Hormones which decreases in PCOS : 1.Follicle stimulating hormone(FSH) 2.Progesterone 3.Sex hormone binding Globulin. 4.HDL and Apoprotein A-I. Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 16th edition page 432
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Which of the following is seen in Ulcerative colitis?
[ "Cryptitis", "Crypt loss", "Crypt branching", "Proliferating mucosa" ]
A
. Cryptitis
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All of the following is true about peritonsillar abscess except?
[ "Bulge in soft palate", "Does not involve floor of mouth", "Abscess is collected lateral to the superior constrictor", "Trismus is commonly associated" ]
C
Peritonsillar abscess is a collection of pus outside the capsule in peritonsillar area between capsule (medially) and superior constrictor muscle (laterally). So, pus collection is medial to superior constrictor (not laterally).
train
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All of the following are direct acting agents for HCV infections except?
[ "Ledipasvir", "Beclabuvir", "Entecavir", "Paritaprevir" ]
C
Entecavir is used for treatement of hepatitis B HEPATITIS C: Previously treated with Interferons and Ribavarin this treatment was very toxic now we use all oral agents for the treatment DIRECT ACTING AGENTS ARE: PROTEASE(NS-3A/4) INHIBITORS NS-5A INHIBITORS NS-5B INHIBITORS TELAPREVIR SIMPREVIR BOCEPREVIR GRAZOPREVIR PARITAPREVIR ELBASVIR LEDIPASVIR DACLATASVIR OMBITASVIR PIMBRENTASVIR SOFOSBUVIR DASABUVIR BECLABUVIR
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Maximum influence of local milieu on ionization is on
[ "Histidine", "Protine", "Glycine", "Lysine" ]
A
Depending upon localized pH of its environment (local milieu), histidine can serve both proton donor and acceptor.
train
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Zoster recurrence occur after infection with -
[ "HSV 1", "HSV 2", "Varicella", "Small pox" ]
C
repeated
train
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rate limiting enzyme in TCA cycle produce how many atp/gtp?
[ "1", "4", "3", "10" ]
A
ratelimiting enzyme in TCA cycle is SUCCINATE THIOKINASE which is responsible for subtrate level phosphorylation one GTP is produced in this step imp point : when ever a enzyme with KINASE suffix produce ATP. ref : vasudevan 7th ed
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Oligodendrocytes are impoant in
[ "Myelin formation", "Blood brain barrier", "Phagocytosis", "Collagen synthesis" ]
A
Oligodendrocytes:According to their distribution they may be of intrafscicular,or perineural. The intrafascicular cells are found in the myelinated tracts.The perineuronal cells are seen on the surface of the somata of the neurons. REF.BDC Handbook of general anatomy,4th edition
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Sterols are metabolized to
[ "Coenzyme A", "VIt A", "Vit D", "Vit E" ]
C
Vitamin D is derived from 7-dehydrocholesterol by the action of UV radiations 7 dehydrocholesterol, an intermediate of a minor pathway of cholesterol synthesis The cis double bond is isomerized to a trans double bond to give rise to vitamin D3 or cholecalciferol Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 469
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Full thickness skin graft can be taken from the following sites except -
[ "Elbow", "Back of neck", "Supraclavicular area", "Upper eyelids" ]
B
Ans. is 'Back of neck'
train
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Under the integrated Child Development Scheme, which among the following services are provided?
[ "Immunization \\/ Supplementary nutrition \\/ Primary school education", "Primary school education \\/ Health check up", "Immunization \\/ Supplementary nutrition \\/ Health check up", "Immunization \\/ Supplementary nutrition \\/ Primary school education \\/ Health check up" ]
C
The ICDS seeks to lay a solid foundation for the devolopment of nation's human resource by providing an integrated package of early childhood services. These consist of : Immunization Supplementary nutrition Health check ups Medical refferal services Nutrition and health education for women Non-formal education of children upto age of 6 years,and pregnant and nursing mothers in rural,urban ,slums and tribal areas Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 591
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A 25 years old female complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She has a history of asthma and allergy. On examination, multiple ethmoidal polyps are noted with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions in both the nasal cavities. A biopsy is taken and the material is cultured which show the growth of many hyphae and pseudohyphae with dichotomous branching typically at 45°. Which of the following is the most likely responsible organism?
[ "Aspergillus fumigatus", "Rhizopus", "Mucor", "Candida" ]
A
Information provided in this question are : - Recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge, bilateral nasal blockage. H/O asthma and allergy Hyphae with dichotomous branching at 45°C. All suggest the diagnosis of Aspergillus fumigatus. Most common type of fungal infection of the nose and paranasal sinuses are due to Aspergillus. The most common fungus causing an allergy is aspergillus. Aspergillus has septate hyphae that branch typically at 45°C (V-shaped).
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Hypervitaminosis of which of the following will cause bony abnormalities?
[ "Vit A", "Vit D", "Vit C", "Vit E" ]
A
HYPERVITAMINOSIS A: Chronic hypervitaminosis A results from excessive ingestion of preformed vitamin A (retinol or retinyl ester), generally for several weeks or months. Toxicity can be induced in adults and children with chronic daily intakes of 15,000 mg and 6,000 mg, respectively. Signs of subacute or chronic toxicity can include a headache; vomiting; anorexia; dry, itchy desquamating skin; seborrheic cutaneous lesions; fissuring at the corners of the mouth; alopecia and/or coarsening of the hair; bone abnormalities; swelling of the bones; enlargement of the liver and spleen; diplopia; increased intracranial pressure; irritability; stupor; limited motion; and dryness of the mucous membranes; desquamation of the palms and the soles of the feet. Radiographs may show hyperostosis affecting several long bones, especially in the middle of the shafts. As there is no antidote for hypervitaminosis A, the prevention of this condition is most impoant. Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 48 Vitamin A Deficiencies and Excess
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The advantage of bladder drainage over enteric drainage after pancreatic transplantation is better monitoring of
[ "HBA IC levels", "Amylase levels", "Glucose levels", "Electrolyte levels" ]
B
The specific complications of enteric drainage include intra-abdominal sepsis and adhesive small intestinal obstruction.Bladder drainage of the exocrine pancreas may result in the following complications:* bladder/duodenal anastomotic leaks;* cystitis (owing to effect of pancreatic enzymes);* urethritis/urethral stricture;* reflux pancreatitis;* urinary tract infection;* haematuria;* metabolic acidosis (due to loss of bicarbonate in the urine).Urinary drainage of the pancreas has the advantage that urinary amylase levels can be used to monitor for graft rejection. However, after bladder drainage, urinary complications are commonBailey and Love 26th edition pg: 1427
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Frei's test is used in diagnosing which of the following condition?
[ "Lymphogranuloma venereum", "Lymphogranuloma inguinale", "Donovanosis", "Soft chancre" ]
A
Frei's test is used in the diagnosis of Lymphogranuloma venereum. NAATS is currently recommended by the CDC as the diagnostic assay of choice. Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted infection of lymphatic tissue caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1, L2, and L3. It is transmitted through sexual contact with men more frequently affected than women. The most common presentation in heterosexuals is the presence of a tender, usually unilateral inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Ref: Gaydos C.A., Quinn T.C. (2012). Chapter 176. Chlamydial Infections. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds),Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
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Vitamin K is required for: March 2005
[ "Chelation", "Transamination", "Carboxylation", "None of the above" ]
C
Ans. C: Carboxylation The function of vitamin K in the cell is to conve glutamate in proteins to gamma-carboxyglutamate (gla). Within the cell, vitamin K undergoes electron reduction to a reduced form of vitamin K (called vitamin K hydroquinone) by the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (or VKOR). Another enzyme then oxidizes vitamin K hydroquinone to allow carboxylation of Glutamate to gamma carboxyglutamate; this enzyme is called the gamma-glutamyl carboxylase or the vitamin K-dependent carboxylase. The carboxylation reaction will only proceed if the carboxylase enzyme is able to oxidize vitamin K hydroquinone to vitamin K epoxide at the same time; the carboxylation and epoxidation reactions are said to be coupled reactions.
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VAN (vein, artery, nerve) sequence is present in intercostal space at:
[ "Upper border of rib", "Middle border of rib", "Lower border of rib", "Middle portion of intercostal space" ]
C
Ans. C Lower border of ribRef: Snell's Clinical Anatomy, pg. 41* There are 11 intercostal spaces within the thoracic wall. The spaces are tilled in by 3 layers of intercostal muscles and their related fasciae and are bounded superiorly and inferiorly by the adjacent ribs.* The costal groove is located along the inferior border of each rib (upper aspect of the intercostal space) and provides protection for the vein which is most superior and the nerve which is inferior in the groove (VAN).
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In a well fed state, the activity of CPT-I in outer mitochondrial membrane is inhibited by:
[ "Glucose", "Pyruvate", "Acetyl CoA", "Malonyl CoA" ]
D
Ans is 'd' i.e. Malonyl CoA "Malonyl-CoA, the initial intermediate in fatty acid biosynthesis formed by acetyl-CoA carboxylase in the fed state, is a potent inhibitor of CPT-I"Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I (CPT-I) is the rate limiting enzyme in the process of beta-oxidation of fatty acids.Beta-oxidation is the process by which fatty acids, in the form of Acyl-CoA molecules, are broken down in mitochondria to generate Acetyl-CoA.Under normal conditions, acetyl-CoA is further oxidized in the citric acid cycle (TCA cycle) to produce energy. However, if the amounts of acetyl-CoA generated in fatty-acid b-oxidation challenge the processing capacity of the TCA cycle or if activity in the TCA cycle is low due to low amounts of intermediates such as oxaloacetate, acetyl-CoA is then used instead in biosynthesis of ketone bodies via acetoacyl-CoA and b-hydroxy-b-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG- CoA).Beta-oxidation of fatty acids is caused when there is low blood glucose levels in the blood, after exhaustion of cellular carbohydrate stores, such as glycogen. In well fed state fatty acids are esterified.The entry of fatty acids into the oxidative pathway is regulated by carnitine palmitoyltransferase-I (CPT-I).In a well fed state the CPT-I activity is low, leading to depression of fatty acid oxidation. In state of starvation, CPT-I activity is high, leading to fatty acid oxidation.CPT-I is inhibited by Malonyl-CoA.Malonyl-CoA is the initial intermediate in fatty acid biosynthesis formed by acetyl-CoA carboxylase in the fed state.In well fed state, free fatty acids are nearly all esterified to acylglycerols.In starvation Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is inhibited directly by acyl-CoA, and malonyl-CoA decreases, releasing the inhibition of CPT-I and allowing more acyl-CoA to be beta-oxidized.Thus, beta-oxidation from free fatty acids is controlled by the CPT-I gateway into the mitochondria, and the balance of the free fatty acid uptake not oxidized is esterified.Role of Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I in fatty acid oxidation: The inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to fatty acids. CPT-I helps in the transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria.
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In a 3 year old child, most common cause of hepatitis B is -
[ "Pin prick", "Saliva exchange", "Perinatal", "Blood transfusion" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Blood transfusion "Children usually acquire infection indirectly, through parenteral route from hepatitis B contaminated blood transfusion". Other modes of transmission in children : - i) Sharing of contaminated hypodermic needles used for multiple doses of infection. ii) Shaving razors. iii) Sexual contact Adolescent boy & girls.
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Which one of the following is the contraceptive method of choice for a commercial sex worker :
[ "OC pills", "IUCD", "Tubectomy", "Barrier method" ]
D
Barrier method
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Commonest cause of female pseudo hermaphroditism is:
[ "Virlizing ovarian tumor", "Ovarian dysgenesis", "Exogenous androgen", "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia" ]
D
The most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism is congenital (virilizing) adrenal hyperplasia (CVAH or CAH). Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 2124 and 15th Edition, Page 2178 ; Textbook of Gynecology By D C Dutta, 4th Edition, Page 42 ; Transgenderism and Intersexuality in Childhood and Adolescence: Making Choices By Peggy Tine Cohen-Kettenis, Friedemann Pfafflin, 2003, Page 40
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True about torsion of testis is all except
[ "Presents with sudden pain in testis", "Commonly associated with pyuria", "Doppler U/S shows decreased blood flow to testis", "Simultaneous orchidpexy of the other side should also be done" ]
B
Pyuria is associated with epidydimo-orchitis, not with torsion of testis. Torsion is the twisting of the testis on the spermatic cord, resulting in strangulation of the blood supply and infarction of testis. It is seen commonly in adolescents (10-25 yrs) Symptoms - it presents as sudden agonizing pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting are very common. It must be differentiated from epidydimo-orchitis by: Prehn's sign - on elevation of testis the: pain increases -in torsion pain decreases in epidydimoorchitis Colour Doppler-detects the decreased blood flow to testis in torsion. It is the inv. of choice to exclude torsion from the epididymo-orchitis. Tc99m peechnate scan - it demonstrates decreased blood flow Management Immediate surgical exploration is indicated if testicular torsion is suspected because if treated within the first 4 to 6 hrs of onset of symptoms, the chances of testicular salvage is high. During surgical exploration the testis is detorsed to restore blood flow to the testicle. If ble, orchipexy of the affected and the contralateral testis is done. If the affected testicle is nonble, orchiectomy of the affected testicle and orchipexy of the contralateral testis is done. If the operating facility is not immediately available, manual detorsion can be tried. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p1379
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Epstein Barr virus causes all the following, except:
[ "Infectious mononucleosis", "Measles", "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "Non Hodgkin's lymphoma" ]
B
null
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Fetal nuchal skin thickness is useful in detecting:
[ "Fetal infection", "Down syndrome", "Anencephaly", "Hydrops fetalis" ]
B
Nuchal thickness should be less than 3 mm in 12 to 13 weeks It should be < 6 mm after 14 weeks and it is called as nuchal fold Nuchal thickness/fold > 6 mm after 14 weeks is suggestive of down's syndrome
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A patient presents with Thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infection. The most probable diagnosis is:
[ "Wiskott Aldrich syndrome", "Chediak-Higashi syndrome", "Job's syndrome", "Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia" ]
A
Answer is A (Wiskott Aldrich syndrome) Thrumbocytopenia, Eczema and Recurrent Infections (Immunodeficiency) represents the charachteristic triad of Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome.
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Breast conservation surgery is contraindicated in
[ "Tumor > 4 cm", "Multicentric tumor", "Axillary LN involvement", "All of the above" ]
D
.Contraindications * Tumour > 4 cm * Positive axillary nodes > N1 * Tumour margin is not free of tumour after breast conservative surgery needs MRM * Poorly differentiated tumour * Multicentric tumour * Tumour/breast size ratio is more (centeral tumour) * Tumour beneath the nipple * Extensive intraductal carcinoma Ref; (page no;553 ) 5th edition of SRB&;S manual of Surgery
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Physiological changes in pregnancy :
[ "Decreased residual volume", "Decreased GFR", "Decreased Cardiac output", "Increased Haematocrit" ]
A
*The functional residual capacity and residual volume are decreased due to elevated diaphragm. GFR increases by 50% Cardiac output increases by 40% Hemoglobin and hematocrit decreases. Reference : William's Textbook of Obstetrics 24th edition page 62
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Impoant indicator for socioeconomic health
[ "Maternal moality rate", "Perinatal moality rate", "Under 5 moality rate", "Infant moality rate" ]
D
Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed
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Which of the following nerves innervates the deltoid muscle?
[ "Axillary", "Dorsal scapular", "Long thoracic", "Suprascapular" ]
A
The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle, as well as provides sensation over the lateral pa of the arm.The dorsal scapular nerve innervates the rhomboids and levator scapulae muscles.The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior. Injury to this results in winging of the scapula.The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscle.
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The antiviral drug recommended for treatment of Herpes Zoster infection of Trigeminal nerve distribution in an immunocompromised host is
[ "Fomivirsen", "Vidarabin", "Famciclovir", "Entecavir" ]
C
null
train
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Pulmonary fibrosis is noted with all except :
[ "Busulfan", "Bleomycin", "Nitrofurantoin", "Bumetanide" ]
D
null
train
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All the following disorders are inherited except:
[ "Protein S deficiency", "Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome", "Protein C deficiency", "Factor V Leiden mutation" ]
B
Ans: B (Anti phospholipid antibody syndrome) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition, Harrison's Online > Chapter 117. Arterial and Venous Thrombosis >Explanation:Heritable Causes of Arterial and Venous ThrombosisArterial ThrombosisPlatelet ReceptorsIntegrinsP1A2 polymorphismGPIVGPIbThrombin receptorRedox EnzymesPlasma glutathione peroxidaseEndothelial nitric oxide synthaseParaoxonaseHomocysteineCystathionine -synthase5.10-methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) 'Venous ThrombosisProcoagulant Proteins* FibrinogenProthrombinProtein C Anticoagulant PathwayFactor V LeidenThrombomodulinFibrinolytic Proteins with Known PolymorphismsTissue plasminogen activator (tPa)Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI-1)HomocysteineCystathionine-synthase5,10-methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR)Acquired Causes of Venous ThrombosisSurgeryNeurosurgeryMajor abdominal surgeryMalignancyAntiphospholipid syndromeOtherTraumaPregnancyLong-haul travelObesityOral contraceptives/hormone replacementMyeloproliferative disordersPolycythemia vera
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Which of the following is not involved in formation of perineal body ?
[ "Superficial transverse perenei", "Deep transverse perenei", "Bulbocavernosus", "Levator ani" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2nd to fouhThyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland situated in front and sides of lower pa of neck opposite C5-T4 veebrae. The weight of thyroid gland is approximately 25 gm. The gland is made of :-i) Right and left lobesii) Isthmusiii) Pyramidal lobeThe gland lies against veebrae C5 to T1. Each lobe extends from the middle of thyroid cailage to the 4th or 5th tracheal ring. The isthmus lies against the 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings.
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A 35 yr old lady with normal PT and increased a PIT. 2 year back, she was operated for cholecystectomy & did not have any bleeding episoe. What is next investigation for clinical diagnosis aEUR'
[ "Factor VIII assay", "Anti viper venom assay", "Platelet aggregation test", "Ristocetin Cofactor assay" ]
B
Anti viper venom assay The only clue given in the question is patient with prolonged APTT and no clinical bleeding. First we, look at the causes of isolated prolongation of APTT. Causes of isolated prolongation of PT Heparin - Lupus anticoagulant - Coagulation factor deficiency (factor V111, IX and XI, XII, prekallikrein, high molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) Specific coagulation factor inhibitors (antibodies against .factor VIII or IX) Now we look for those causes of prolonged APTT which are not associated with bleeding Now we move on to the options and find out which among them will cause prolongation of PTT with no bleeding. Factor Ville assay:- Factor Ville or intrinsic factor VIII can be ruled out because its deficiency is associated with bleeding. Platelet aggregation tests :? Platelet aggregation test measures platelet function Any defect in platlet function will cause clinical bleeding Platelet .function defect does not affect PTT (it affects bleeding time, BT) Ristocetin co-factor assay :- Ristocetin co:factor assays are used to detect Von wilebrand's disease Von wilebrands disease cause prolongation of PTT but it is also associated with clinical bleeding so it can be ruled out. Russel viper venom test (Dilute Russel viper venom test) (dRVVT) Dilute Russel viper venom test is one of the test to detect lupus anticoagulant. Lupus anticoagulant is associated with prolongation in PTT and thrombosis (no bleeding) Lupus anticoagulant Lupus anticoagulants are acquired inhibitors directed against phospholipid binding proteins and are a common cause of APTT prolongation In Vivo, Lupus anticoagulant do not interfere with coagulation factor complex .formation on the platelet surface and are not usually associated with bleeding tendency, instead they are frequently associated with thrombosis. In Vitro, This prolongation results in paradoxical prolongation of phospholipid based clotting assays such as P77, kaolin clotting time and Dilute Russel viper venom antibody (dRVVT testing). A panel of test is required to confirm the presence of lupus antico- agulant These are:? - PTT - Kaolin clotting time - Dilute Russel viper Venom test (DRVT) These are phospholipid dependent tests We have already discussed that Lupus anticoagulant act against phospholipids and in vitro this inhibition leads to prolongation of phospholipid dependent assays. Follow up testing is performed to confirm or exclude the presence of lupus anticoagulant:-These may include :- Mixing study - An equal volume of patient plasma is mixed with normal pooled plasma and a PTT or DRVVT is performed on this mixture. The basic principle is that the normal plasma contributes a sufficient amount of clotting factor to correct .for a factor deficiency. - A mixing study that corrects the APTT is characteristic of a coagulation factor where as one that does not correct indicates a factor inhibitor. Correction neutralization (with phospholipids) :? - An excess of pho.spholipid is added to the patient sample and APII, DRVVT is performed. - The basic principle behind this is that lupus anticoagulant is directed against phospholipid. Hence phospholipid dependent assays are prolonged. - When excess phospholipid is added it overcomes the LA inhibition and corrects the test.
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Positive nitrogen balance is seen in
[ "Malignancy", "Pregnancy", "Uncontrolled Diabetes mellitus", "Burns" ]
B
null
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A dental floss is applied to the distal bow of a clamp, its function is:
[ "To facilitate the removal of the clamp", "To prevent aspiration of clamp", "To anchor the dam as cervically as possible", "To stabilize the clamp" ]
B
null
train
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All are tuning fork test except-
[ "Schwaback test", "Grants test", "Rinne's test", "Weber's test" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Grants test Assessment of hearingo Assessment of hearing is done by following methodsClinical tests : - Tuning fork testsAudiometric testsSpecial testsClinical testingAudiometric testsSpecial testso Finger friction testo Pure tone audiometryo Recruitmento Watch testo Speech audiometryo Short increment sensitivity test (SISI)o Speech testo BekesyAudimetryo Threshold tone decay test* Electrocochleography (EcoG)* Auditory' brainstem resposne (ABR)o Tuning fork tests* Rinne test* Weber test* Absolute bone conduction (ABC)* Schwabach's test* Bing test* Gelle's testo Impedance audiometry# Tympanometry# Acoustic reflex measurmento Otoacoustic emission (OAEs)o Central auditory' tests
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Wahin Finkeldy cells are found in:-
[ "Measles", "Mumps", "Molluscum contagiosum", "Herpes simplex infection" ]
A
Measles is caused by measles virus which has a characteristic feature of both intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion bodies. The other name of such inclusion bodies is wahrin finkeldey cells and in molluscum contagiosum virus molluscum bodies are a feature.
train
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Biphasic action potential of mixed nerve except?
[ "All or none phenomenon", "Two or more positive peaks", "Refractory period", "Recorded on surface" ]
B
Ans. is'b'i.e., Two or more positive peaksAction potential when recorded by putting two electrodes on the surface of a neuron (instead of putting on surface and one intracellularly), shows a biphasic response, i.e. Biphasic action potential.As the wave of depolarization reached the first electrode, this electrode becomes negative and an upward deflection (Peak) is recorded.
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Which of the following is not true about the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
[ "Acts on mid brain, ascending reticular formation and limbic system", "It exerts effects through the GABA A receptors", "It increases conductance of Cl- channels", "It has GABA mimetic action" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., It has GABA mimetic action Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines (BZDs)* Muscle relaxation is produced by action on medulla.* Ataxia is due to action on cerebellum.* BZDs acts on GABAA receptors.* GABAa receptor has 5 subunits a / b, b, a / g.* GABA binding site is on b. subunit, while BZDs binding site is on a / g subunit.* BZDs receptor increase the conductance of Cl channel.* BZDs do not themselves increase Cl conductance, i.e. they have only GABA facilitatory but no GABA mimetic action. (Barbiturates have both GABA facilitatory and GABA mimetic actions).Effect on CNS* In contrast to barbiturates, BZDs are not general depressant, but exert relatively selective anxiolytic, hypnotic, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effects.* The antianxiety action of BZDs is not dependent on their sedative property - with chronic administration relief of anxiety is maintained, but drowsiness wanes off due to development of tolerance.* Stage 2 sleep is increased, while REM, Stage 3 & 4 sleep are decreased.* Nitrazepam is the only benzodiazepine, which increases REM sleep.* Clonazepan and diazepam have more marked muscle relaxant property.* Clonazepam, diazepam, nitrazepam and flurazepam have more prominent anticonvulsant activity than other BZDs.* Diazepam (but not other BZDs) has analgesic action.* Diazepam produces short lasting coronary dilatation on i.v. injection.* Diazepam decreases nocturnal gastric secretion and prevents stress ulcers.
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True about Branchial cyst is: March 2013 (h)
[ "Cysts are more common than sinuses", "Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system", "Causes dysphagia and hoarseness", "Sinus should always be operated" ]
B
Ans. B i.e. Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
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In Ecological studies, the unit of Observation is the
[ "Population", "Patient", "Individual", "Case" ]
A
(A) Population[?]ECOLOGICAL STUDIESoCross-sectional, Case-control & Cohort studies and Trials (and not just population case-series) could also be analyzed in relation to such 'ecological' variables and such units of analysis.oMost ecological analyses are based on population case-series.oEcological analyses are subject to the ecological fallacy.oIn an ecological study, the units of analysis are groups of people rather than individuals.oEcological studies can also be done by comparing populations in different places at the same time or in a time series, by comparing the same population in one place at different times.oIn ecological studies the unit of observation is the population or community.oDisease rates and exposures are measured in each of a series of populations and their relation is examined.oOften the information about disease and exposure is abstracted from published statistics and therefore does not require expensive or time.oEcological Concept:-Deficiencies in the biomedical concept gave rise to other concepts.-Ecologists put forward an attractive hypothesis which viewed health as a dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment, and disease a maladjustment of the human organism to environment.-Health implies the relative absence of pain and discomfort and a continuous relative adaptation & adjustment to the environment to ensure optimal function.oHuman ecology is a subset of more general science of ecologyoHuman ecosystem includes in addition to the natural environment, all the dimensions of the man-made environment - physical, chemical, biological.Other Options[?]Patient:-A patient is any recipient of health care services.-Patient is most often ill or injured & in need of treatment by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physiotherapist, physician assistant, psychologist, dentist, podiatrist, veterinarian, or other health care provider.[?]Concept of Disease-A condition in which body health is impaired, a departure from a state of health, an alteration of the human body interrupting the performance of vital functions.-Ecological point of view: disease is defined as 'a maladjustment of the human organism to the human organism to the environment-Sociological point of view: disease is considered a social phenomenon, occurring in all societies and defined & fought in terms of the particular cultural forces prevalent in the society.-Simple definition 'disease is just the opposite of health1[?]Case:-A case is defined as 'a person in the population or study group identified as having the particular disease, health disorder or condition under investigation.-A variety of criteria (E.g. clinical, biochemical, laboratory) may be used to identify cases.-Primary case refers to the first case of a communicable disease introduced into the population unit being studied.-Index case refers to the first case to come to the attention of investigator; it is not always the primary case.-Secondary cases are those developing from contact with primary case.-Suspect case is an individual (or group of individuals) who has all of the signs and symptoms of a disease or condition, yet has not been diagnosed as having the disease or had the cause of the symptoms connected tot he suspected pathogen.
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A young motorcyclist falls on the grounds leads to Creek&;s in lands. Which of the following nerve severance leads to cause to death
[ "Hypoglossal nerve", "Vagus nerve", "Maxillary nerve", "Accessory nerve" ]
B
Vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve. The fibres of the cranial root of the accessory nerve are also distributed through it. The vagus nerve bears two ganglia, superior and inferior. The superior ganglion is rounded and lies in the jugular foramen. The inferior ganglion is cylindrical and lies near the base of the skull. Ref:BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition.
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During starvation, which of the following is depleted first?
[ "Muscle glycogen", "Liver glycogen", "Adipose tissue", "Muscle proteins" ]
B
In the fasting state, as the concentration of glucose in the poal blood coming from the small intestine falls, insulin secretion decreases, and skeletal muscle and adipose tissue take up less glucose. The increase in secretion of glucagon by a cells of the pancreas inhibits glycogen synthetase and activates glycogen phosphorylase in the liver leading to glycogenolysis. The resulting glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed by glucose 6-phosphatase, and glucose is released into the bloodstream for use by the brain and erythrocytes. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Chapter 14; Page no: 148
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Which of the following is both synthesized and stored in the hypothalamus?
[ "ADH", "Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)", "LH", "Somatostatin" ]
D
The inhibitory hormone Somatostatin is both synthesized and stored in the hypothalamus. Both TSH and LH are synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland. ADH is synthesized in the hypothalamus but is stored in the posterior pituitary gland. Somatomedin (IGF-1) is synthesized in the liver
train
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Which of the following is not of prognostic significance to choroidal melanoma ?
[ "Presence of retinal detachment", "Size of the tumour", "Cytology of the tumor cells", "Presence of extraocular extension" ]
A
Prognosis of choroidal melanoma depends upon :- Cell type Size of tumor Location of tumor Evidence of invasion (extrascleral or vortex vein) Age of the patient Cytology Chromosomal abnormalities.
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Major current for depolarization in Purkinje fiber is of:
[ "Na+", "Ca++", "K+", "Cl-" ]
A
Purkinje fiber is a fast-response type or rapidly depolarizing fiber. The rapid depolarization is due a rapid influx of Na+ through the fast Na+ channels. Major current for depolarization in pacemaker cells is due to Ca++
train
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Which of the following is a highly emetogenic chemotherapy drug :
[ "5–Fluorouracil", "Paclitaxel", "Vincristine", "Cisplatin" ]
D
null
train
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A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland, called as:
[ "Mucocele.", "Ranula.", "Dermoid cyst.", "Dentigerous cyst." ]
B
null
train
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The condition in which the occlusal plane of the teeth lies nearer the Frankfurt plane than it does in normal occlusion is called
[ "Abstraction", "Contraction", "Protraction", "None of the above" ]
D
null
train
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The first heart sound is loud in all the following except
[ "Mitral stenosis", "Anemia", "Thyrotoxicosis", "Mitral valve calcification" ]
D
null
train
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Aim of damage control laparotomy are
[ "Arrest hemorrhage", "Control contamination", "Prevent coagulopathy", "All of the above" ]
D
null
train
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Most common salivary gland involved by stone is
[ "Parotid", "Submandibular", "Minor", "None" ]
B
Eighty percent of all salivary stones occur in the submandibular gland, 10% occur in parotid, 7% in the sublingual and the remainder occurs in minor salivary glands" Eighty percent of submandibular stones are radio-opaque and can be identified on plain radiographs. In contrast parotid stones are usually radiolucent and rarely visible on plain radiography. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p755
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Which of the following tumor is least radiosensitive hence it is ineffective for radiotherapy?
[ "Ewing's sarcoma", "Osteosarcoma", "Wilms tumor", "Neuroblastoma" ]
B
Osteosarcoma is radioresistant; radiation therapy has no role in the routine management. Preoperative chemotherapy followed by limb-sparing surgery (which can be accomplished in >80% of patients) followed by postoperative chemotherapy is standard management. Ref: Patel S.R., Benjamin R.S. (2012). Chapter 98. Soft Tissue and Bone Sarcomas and Bone Metastases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
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First step in control of cholera epidemic-
[ "ORS therapy", "Provision of safe water", "Verification of diagnosis", "Chemoprophylaxis" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Verification of diagnosis o First stem in control of any epidemic is verification of diagnosis.Control of cholera (WHO guidelines)o Measures taken to control cholera epidemic are1) Verification of diagnosis : Identification of V. cholera 01 in stools of few patients is sufficient. It is not necessary to culture stools of all cases or contacts.2) Notification : Cholera is notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Under the International health Regulations, cholera is notifiable to WHO within 24 hours of its occurrence by national government. An area is declared free of cholera when twice the incubation period (i.e., 10 days) has elapsed since the death, recovery or isolation of the last case.3) Early case finding4) Establishment of treatment centers.5) Rehydration therapy : Oral (ORS) or intravenous.6) Adjunct to therapy : Antibiotic should be given as soon as vomiting has stoped. Doxycyclone (tetracycline) in single dose is the treatment of choice in adults. In children, cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice. Furazolidine is preferred in pregnant females.7) Epidemiological investigation : Epidemiological studies.8) Sanitation measures: As water is the most important vehicle, provision of safe water (chlorination or boiling) is most important. Other important measures are proper excreta disposal, food sanitation and disinfection of stools/vomits/clothes etc by cresol.9) Chemoprophylaxis : Chemoprophylaxis to close contact is indicated. Mass chemoprophylaxis is not advised. Drug of choice is tetracycline.10) Vaccination : They are of no value in controlling epidemic.11) Health education : The most effective prophylactic measure.
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All of the following are true EXCEPT
[ "Absence from the diet of ceain amino acids that are present in most proteins is not deleterious to human health", "Tetrahydrobiopterin is involved in tryptophan biosynthesis", "Selenocysteine is an essential component of several mammalian proteins", "Intermediates of the citric acid cycle and of glycolysis a...
B
Analyse each option:- Nutritionally non-essential amino acids can be synthesised in the body. So, their absence from the diet in proteins is not deleterious to human health - option a is correct statement. Selenocysteine is present in Thioredoxin reductase, Glutathione peroxidase, 5' deiodinase, Selenoprotein P - option c is correct statement. Oxaloacetate and alpha ketoglutarate are precursors of aspaate and glutamate. 3-phosphoglycerate is the precursor of serine which in turn can produce glycine - option d is also correct. We are left with option b. Tetrahydrobiopterin is needed for tyrosine biosynthesis, not for tryptophan. Moreover, tryptophan cannot be synthesized in human body!
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All the following structures pass through Sinus of Morgagni except
[ "Auditory tube", "Ascending Palatine aery", "Tensor Veli Palatini", "Palatine branch of Ascending Pharyngeal aery" ]
C
The large gap between the upper concave border of the superior constrictor and the base of the skull is semilunar and is known as the sinus of Morgagni. It is closed by the upper strong pa of the pharyngobasilar fascia.The structures passing through this gap are: (a) The auditory tube; (b) the levator veli palatini muscle; and (c) the ascending palatine aeryReference: Dutta Head and Neck; 5th edition; Page no: 295
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All of the following drugs are associated with pure red cell aplasia except
[ "Phenytoin", "Azathioprine", "Chloramphenicol", "Ethambutol" ]
D
null
train
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Maximum dose of lignocaine given with adrenaline for infiltration anaesthesia is :
[ "3 mg/kg", "5 mg/kg", "7 mg/kg", "10 mg/kg" ]
C
null
train
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In Bier's block anaesthetic agent given by which route
[ "Intravenous", "Peribulbar region", "Retrobulbar area", "Dermal" ]
A
Biers&;s block is intravenous regional anaesthesia
train
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Which of the following is true about Eruption of teeth __________
[ "Premolar appear in Primary dentition", "Incisors appear first in secondary dentition", "3rd molar is last to develop", "Hypothyroidism delays dentition" ]
B
Eruption times vary from child to child.The first teeth begin to break through the gums at about 6 months of age. Usually, the first two teeth to eruptare the two bottom central incisors (the two bottom front teeth). Next, the top four front teeth emerge. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
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A new method of caries detection, which is based on the principle of fluorescence:
[ "FOTI.", "DIAGNOdent.", "Cariogra.", "All of the above." ]
B
The principle of FOTI (Fiber Optic Transillumination) is that there is a different index of light transmission for decayed and sound tooth. Since tooth decay has a lower index of light transmission than the sound tooth structure, an area of decay shows up as a darkened shadow. The use of FOTI is proved to be effective in the anterior region. DIAGNOdent is a new method of caries detection, which is based on the principle of fluorescence. The system has a range of -9 to 99 with -9 being the value where the tooth is the healthiest. The advantage lies in the early, precavitation stage of caries detection.
train
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Unnatural sexual offences is/are - (
[ "Sodomy", "Adultery", "Rape", "Incest" ]
A
Ref:Textbook of Forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.404 As per sec.377IPC "Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman,or animal shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be libale to fine."this section covers all offence which have come to be clubbed under the trem"Unatural Sexual offences".examples are sodomy, buccal coitus, bestiality etc.
train
med_mcqa
null
Cause of dysphonia and hoarseness of voice includes
[ "Thiamine", "Pyridoxine", "Vitamin B12", "Folic Acid" ]
A
(A) Thiamine # WERNICKE-KORSAKOFF SYNDROME, which combines Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff psychosis, occurs in some alcoholics who do not consume foods fortified with thiamin.> Wernicke encephalopathy consists of psychomotor slowing or apathy, nystagmus, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, impaired consciousness, and, if untreated, coma and death. It probably results from severe acute deficiency superimposed on chronic deficiency.> Korsakoff psychosis consists of mental confusion, dysphonia, and confabulation with impaired memory of recent events. It probably results from chronic deficiency and may develop after repeated episodes of Wernicke encephalopathy.
train
med_mcqa
null
Local anaesthetics act by inhibiting -
[ "Influx of K+", "Efflux of K+", "Influx of Na+", "Efflux of Na+" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Influx of Na+ The LAs block nerve conduction by decreasing the entry (influx) of Na+ ions during upstroke of action potential.
train
med_mcqa
null
During the formation of hydroxyproline and hydroxylsine, the essential factors required is/are:
[ "Pyridoxal phosphate", "Ascorbic acid", "Thiamine pyrophosphate", "Methylcobalamine" ]
B
B i.e. Ascorbic acid
train
med_mcqa
null
Which of the following does not contain carotene?
[ "Potato", "Tomato", "Carrot", "Spinach" ]
A
Beta carotene is the pro-vitamin of vitamin A .It is present in plant tissues.It has two beta iodine rings connected by a pollyprenoid chain.One molecule of beta carotene can give rise to two molecules of vitamin A ;but it may produce only in biological systems. Vegetable sources contain the yellow pigment beta carotene.Carrot contains significant quantity of beta carotene.Papaya , mango, pumpkins gre.en leafy vegetables (spinach,amaranath) are other good sources of vitamin A . Reference:DM VASUDEVAN Textbook SEVENTH EDITION; PAGENO: 464, 469.
train
med_mcqa
null