question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The most rapidly bactericidal drug for M-Leprae is? | [
"Dapsone",
"Clofazimine",
"Ethionamide",
"Rifampicin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rifampicin o Rifampicin is the only drug that is highly bactericidal against M. leprae. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with pulmonary fibrosis comes to emergency with arrhythmia. Which anti-arrhytmia drug should be avoided? | [
"Lignocaine",
"Procainamide",
"Amiodarone",
"Verapamil"
] | C | Amiodarone should be avoided in a patient with pulmonary fibrosis who comes to emergency with arrhythmia. Adverse effects of Amiodarone: The Thyroid (hypo and hypehyroidism) Peripheryof Peripheralneuropathy My Myocardial depression Lung Lungfibrosis Liverand LiverToxicity Corneais Cornealmicrodeposits Photosensitive Photosensitivity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice of Desmoid tumour is | [
"Surgery",
"Chemotherapy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Surgery + Radiotherapy"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epsilon waves are most specific for | [
"Hypothermia",
"Hypokalemia",
"Arrythmogenic Rv Cardiomyopathy",
"PSVT"
] | C | Epsilon waves are most specific for arrythmogenic Rv Cardiomyopathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transitional objects appear at the age of: | [
"2-5 yrs",
"5-10 yrs",
"6 months - 2 years",
"Less than 6 months"
] | C | Transitional objects are the objects that provide comfo to the infants, in the absence of mothers. Different type of objects can act as transitional objects, with 'blankets' being the most common one. Transitional objects usually develop around six months, though different authors differ about the exact age of their appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following used as a reference for a study through a period of time | [
"Base line data",
"Prevalence",
"Incidence",
"Rate"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve injured in inferior dislocation of shoulder is: | [
"Axillary nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Radial nerve"
] | A | Reference: Apley's System of Orthopaedics and Fractures 9th edition, Page 743Explanation:Inferior dislocation of the shoulder or luxatio erectaIt is a rare type of dislocation caused by forceful hyper abduction. which causes the humerus to hitch on the acromion and the humeral head to be levered out of its socket and displace into the axilla.The patient presents with the arm held erect in hyper abduction. This is also called subglenoid variety.As the force is of high intensity, the soft tissue injuries are marked and includes avulsion of the capsule and surrounding tendons, rupture of muscles, fractures of the glenoid or proximal humerus and damage to the brachial plexus and axillary artery.The nerve commonly injured here is the axillary which has a short fixed course from the back of the plexus, around the medial side of the neck to the back - a course which makes it difficult for the nerve to escape traction when the humeral head is displaced.Axillary nerve involvement causes paralysis of the deltoid and the teres minor and loss of sensation of skin covering the lateral aspect of the inferior part of the deltoid regimental badge anaesthesia'. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The best parameter to measure air pollution is: | [
"SO2",
"CO2",
"CO",
"N10"
] | A | SO2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old man with a Lefort III fracture
complains of blood tinged watery discharge from his nose 2 days after the trauma. CT scan confirms NOE fracture as well.
The most common complication of CSF rhinorrhea is | [
"Brain herniation",
"Blindness",
"Ascending Meningitis",
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by | [
"Streptococcus viridans",
"Haemolytic streptococci",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Nisseria"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following electrocardiographic findings may represent manifestations of digitalis intoxication, creepr. | [
"Bigeminy",
"Junctional tachycardia",
"Atrial flutter",
"Atrial tachycardia with variable block"
] | C | Answer is C (Atrial flutter) "Digitalis is Projibrillatory but its administration does not cause Atrial Flutter" Digitalis causes several disturbances in cardiac rhythm. Various manifestations seen are elaborated in the table below. Atrial Flutter has notably not been mentioned. Manifestations of digitalis toxicity Cardiac manifestations Extracardiac manifestations Disturbance in cardiac rhythm Ventricular premature beats Bigeminy Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation A.V. Block of varying degree of severity may occur. Anorexia, nausea vomiting (earliest sign) Weight loss Cachexia NeuralgiasQ GynaecomastiaQ Yellow visionQ Deliriums Non paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with variable A. V. Block is characteristic of Digitalis intoxication Also remember :Mobile type II block is not seen in digitalis intoxication CI | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following structures forms the boundary of triangle of auscultation? | [
"Trapezius",
"Latissimus dorsi",
"Rhomboids major",
"Medial border of scapula"
] | C | The structures forming the boundary of triangle of auscultation are lower pa of medial border of scapula laterally, lateral margin of trapezius medially, and latissimus dorsi below. Winging of scapula is a deformity in which the veebral border and inferior angle of scapula protrude posteriorly due to paralysis of serratus anterior muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth is seen in | [
"Hypophosphatasia",
"Hypophosphaterria",
"Hyper phosphtasia",
"Hyperparathryroidism"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child was given Ringer's lactate due to severe blood loss by a road accident. What is the potassium content of Ringers' lactate in mEq/L? | [
"1",
"2",
"4",
"6"
] | C | Composition in 1 Litre of Ringer's lactate: Sodium 130 mEq/L Potassium 4 mEq/L Calcium 3.5 mEq/L Chloride 110 mEq/L Lactate 27 mEq/L Ref: Oski's Pediatrics: Principles And Practice By Julia A. McMillan, Ralph David Feigin, 4th edition, Page 64. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Universal finding in Asthma is | [
"Hypoxia",
"Hypercarbia",
"Respiratory acidosis",
"Metabolic Acidosis"
] | A | Answer is A (Hypoxia) Hypoxia is a universal finding during acute exacerbation's Hypoxia is a universal finding during acute exacerbations. Most Asthmatics have hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis. - Harrison Hvpoxia is the universal finding in Asthma Hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis is seen in most asthmatic patients Hypercarbia and Respiratory acidosis are very late features of Asthma and sign severe obstruction and respiratory failure. These are not universal findings in Asthma. Metabolic acidosis is not a feature of Asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non parametric test used to compare the medians of two independent samples: | [
"t-test",
"Chi square test",
"Mann Whitney U test",
"Z test."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Doxycycline is used in the treatment of the following diseases? | [
"Leptospirosis",
"Q fever",
"Borreliosis",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding superantigens except? | [
"Activate very large numbers of B cells",
"Bind outside the antibody binding groove",
"Are medium sized proteins",
"Cause release of cytokines"
] | A | Superantigens activate very large number of T cells. NON -MHC restricted They are medium sized proteins which Attach to TCR on lateral side on Vb (Variable) domain, outside the antibody binding groove. They cause release of cytokines that induce >20% of T lymphocytes activation resulting in massive proliferation of T lymphocytes. They have high resistance to proteases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 27 year old male patient is referred for resection of pheochromocytoma. Which of the following medications should the patient be taking prior to surgery | [
"Propranolol",
"Labetalol",
"Phenoxybenzamine",
"Hydralazine"
] | C | Phenoxybenzamine is non selective alpha antagonist, which prevents vasoconstriction. If patient receives beta blocker without alpha blockade, he will experience alpha mediated vasoconstriction that would result in very high blood pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The fixative used in histopathology - | [
"10% buffered neutral formalin",
"Bouins fixative",
"Glutaraldehyde",
"Ethyl alcohol"
] | A | HISTOPATHOLOGY LABORATORY. Tissue cassettesalong with the unique number are given in the gross room to thetissue sample is carried throughout laboratory procedures.Majority of histopathology depaments use automated tissueprocessors. having 12 separate stages completing thecycle in about 18 hours by overnight schedule as under:10% formalin for fixation;ascending grades of alcohol (70%, 95% through 100%) fordehydration for about 5 hours in 6-7 jars,xylene/toluene/chloroform for clearing for 3 hours in twojars; andparaffin impregnation for 6 hours in two thermostat-fittedwax baths. HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 10 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tuft of hair over the lumbosacral region in a new born is suggestive of ? | [
"Spina bifida occulta",
"Sinus tract",
"Tumor",
"Any of the above"
] | D | Ans. d. Any of the aboveTufts of hair over the lumbosacral spine suggest an underlying abnormality, such as occult spina bifida, a sinus tract, or a tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The time taken for air to reach the descending colon in a normal infant is | [
"1-2 hours",
"3-4 hours",
"5-6 hours",
"8-9 hours"
] | D | The time taken to reach the descending colon in an infant is 7-9 hrs approximately Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Middle cranial fossa is supplied by all EXCEPT | [
"Maxillary nerve",
"Mandibular nerve",
"Ophthalmic nerve",
"Posterior ethmoidal nerve"
] | D | Posterior ethmoidal nerve supplies the duramater at the floor of anterior (not middle) cranial fossa. Middle cranial fossa is supplied by meningeal branches of ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular divisions of trigeminal nerve. Meningeal branch of the maxillary nerve (in the anterior pa) and the mandibular nerve in the posterior pa. Medially ophthalmic nerve gives sensory branches. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A non ventilated preterm baby in incubator is under observation. Which is the best way to monitor the baby's breathing and detect apnaea ? | [
"Infrared throraric movement study",
"Capnography",
"Nasal digital temperature monitoring",
"Impedence technique"
] | D | The respiratory monitor based on impednace technique measures changes in the electrical resistance during breathing. The electrode is fixed on the chest wall to pick up signals which are displayed as respiratory rate.
Capnography - lit is a simple non invasive method to assess arterial CO,.
It is used to assess the placement of ET tube in esophagus or trachea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient presents with deep Desmoid tumor of abdominal wall. She is probably screened for | [
"Breast cancer",
"Pancreatic cancer",
"Colonic polyps",
"Lung cancer"
] | C | Desmoid tumour is a tumour arising from the musculoaponeurotic layer of abdomen, below the level of the umbilicus. It is unencapsulated, hard, fibroma, presently classified under aggressive fibromatosis. 80% of cases occur in females, commonly after deliveries. It is often associated with the familial polyposis colon (FAP), osteomas, odontomes epidermal cysts--Gardner's syndrome. Desmoid tumour is 1000 times more common in FAP. Hence this patient should be screened for colonic polyps Reference : page 742 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the first proven vector of a virus disease? | [
"Aedes aegypti",
"Anopheles stephensi",
"Anopheles culicifacies",
"Culex fatigans"
] | A | Aedes aegypti has an impoant position in the history of preventive medicine. It is the first proved vector of a viral disease. It causes yellow fever. Chapter: Environment and health Ref: Park 21st edition page: 711 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not an essential amino acid? | [
"Tryptophan",
"Threonine",
"Histidine",
"Cystein"
] | D | Ans: d (Cystein) Ref: Vasydevan, 4th ed, p. 5th ed, p. 191; Harper, p. 28Essential amino acids:PhenylalanineLeucineLysineValineIsoleucineThreonineMethionineTryptophanSemi essential amino acids:ArginineHistidineAmino acids with basic side chain:(or positively charged amino acids)Arginine - most basic amino acidLysineHistidineAmino acids with acidic side chain:(or negatively charged amino acids)Aspartate / AspargineGlutamate / Glutamine Amino acids with side chain containing sulphur:CysteineMethionineAmino acids producing hypoglycaemia:Leucine by increasing insulin secretionArginineAmino acids with aromatic side chain:i) Phenyl alanineii) Tyrosineiii) Tryptophaniv) HistidineAmino acids with aliphatic side chain:GlycineAlanineValineLeucineIsoleucineIminoacid:ProlineSelenocysteineNOTE: 21st amino acid--selenocysteine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ovarian cyst in postpartum patient, treatment is: | [
"Immediate removal",
"Removal after 2weeks",
"Removal after 6 weeks",
"Removal after 3 months"
] | A | As discussed in the text, ovarian tumour in puerperium should be immediately removed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypocalcemia due to calcitonin is by | [
"Decreased excretion in kidney",
"Decreased bone resorption",
"Decreased intestinal reabsorption",
"Decreased renal reabsorption"
] | B | Calcitonin lowers circulating calcium and phosphate levels. It exes its calcium-lowering effect by inhibiting bone resorption. This action is direct, and calcitonin inhibits the activity of osteoclasts in vitro. It also increases Ca2+ excretion in the urine. More hormone is secreted in young individuals, and it may play a role in skeletal development. In addition, it may protect the bones of the mother from excess calcium loss during pregnancy. Bone formation in the infant and lactation are major drains on Ca2+ stores, and plasma concentrations of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol are elevated in pregnancy. They would cause bone loss in the mother if bone resorption were not simultaneously inhibited by an increase in the plasma calcitonin level. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gaucher's disease is due to enzyme deficiency of | [
"Glucocerebrosidase",
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Hexosaminidase",
"Ceramidase"
] | A | (A) Glucocerebrosidase# Gaucher disease refers to a duster of autosomal recessive disorders resulting from mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase. This disease is the most common lysosomal storage disorder.> This affected gene encodes glucocerebrosidase, an enzyme that normally cleaves glucose residue from ceramide> As a result, glucocerebroside accumulates principally in the phagocytic cells of the body but in some forms also in the central nervous system.> Glucocerebrosides derived mainly from the cell membranes of leukocytes and erythrocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The safe- limit of fluorine in drinking water is | [
"0.2 -0.5 mg/ L",
"0.5 - 0.8 mg/L",
"0.8-1.2 mg/L",
"1.2-2.0 mg/L"
] | B | B. i.e. (0.5 - 0.8 mg/L) (494,586- Park 19th) (540 - Park 20th)FLUORINE - often called two - edged sword*** The recommend level of fluoride in drinking water in this country is accepted as 0.5 - 0.8 mg/L* Use of fluoride - to prevention of dental caries*** Fluorine is essential for the normal mineralization of bones and formation of dental enamel* Intemperate countries where the water intake is low, the optimum level of fluoride in drinking water is accepted as 1 - 2 mg per litre | train | med_mcqa | null |
In achalasia cardia, true is: | [
"Pressure at distal end increased with no peristalsis",
"Low pressure at LES with no peristalsis",
"Pressure > 50 mmHg with peristalsis",
"Pressure at the distal end increased with normal relaxation"
] | A | Answer is A (Pressure at distal end increased with no peristalsis): Achalasia is characterized by an increased pressure of LES and absence of esophageal peristalsis. Physiological /Manometric features of Achalasia Elevated Resting pressure of LES (>45 mmHg)Q Incomplete LES relaxation (in response to swallowing)Q Absence of distal esophageal peristalsis | train | med_mcqa | null |
DDT is a type of: | [
"Natural insecticide",
"Synthetic insecticide",
"Organophosphate insecticide",
"None of the above"
] | B | DDT (Dichloro-diphenyl-trichlorothane): DDT is a synthetic insecticide. First synthesized by: 'Ziedler' & Insecticidal propeies are discovered by: 'Paul Muller'. DDT contains active component:para para isomer. Mechanism of action: Contact poison, inhibits Acetylcholinestrase enzyme. Types of insecticides: Natural insecticides : Pyrethrum ; Rotenone; Derris; Nicotine; Mineral oils. Synthetic insecticides: Organo-chlorlne compounds DDT;Methoxychlor; HCH (BHC); Lindane; Chlordane; Heptachlor; Kepone; Mirex etc. Organo-phosphorous insecticides Chlohion ;Ronnel; Diazinon; Trichlorfon; Dioxathion; Dichlorvos; Demethoate; Abate (OMS-786); Malathion (OMS-1); Gardona; Fenthion (OMS-2) ; Chlorpyrifos; Methyl parathion; Fenitrothion (OMS-43); Parathion Dicapthon (OMS-214) etc. Carbamates Carbary; Dimetilan; Pyrolan; Propoxur (OMS-33) etc. Synthetic pyrethroids Resmethrin; Bioresmethrin; Pothrin etc. Repellents Meta-diethyltoluamide; Benzyl benzoate; Indalone; Dimethyl phthalate; Ethyl hexanediol etc. Stomach poisons: Paris green; sodium fluoride etc. Fumigants: Hydrogen cyanide; methyl bromide; sulphur dioxide; carbon disulphate etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve depolarization is due to | [
"Opening of sodium channels",
"Opening of chloride channels",
"Opening of potassium channels",
"Opening of calcium channels"
] | A | When sodium ion enters a cell the potential goes positive side and this is depolarization phase. (REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 26) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Squeeze technique is used for | [
"Erectile dysfunction",
"Premature ejaculation",
"Retrograde ejaculation",
"Antegrade ejaculation"
] | B | (B) Premature Ejaculation[?]Specific Techniques & Exercises:Various techniques useful to treat various sexual dysfunctions.In Premature Ejaculation, useful exercise known as the squeeze technique is used to raise the threshold of penile excitability.Man or the woman stimulates the erect penis until the earliest sensations of impending ejaculation are felt.At this point, the woman forcefully squeezes the coronal ridge of the glans, the erection is diminished, and ejaculation is inhibited.This technique eventually raises the threshold of the sensation of ejaculatory inevitability and allows the man to focus on sensations of arousal without anxiety and develop confidence in his sexual performance.A variant of the exercise is the stop-start technique developed by James H. Semans, in which the woman stops all stimulation of the penis when the man first senses an impending ejaculation. No squeeze is used.Presence or absence of circumcision has no bearing on a man's ejaculatory control.Glans is equally sensitive in the two states.Sex therapy has been most successful in the treatment of premature ejaculation.A man with a sexual desire disorder or male erectile disorder is sometimes told to masturbate to prove that full erection and ejaculation are possible.Male orgasmic disorder is managed initially by extravaginal ejaculation and then by gradual vaginal entry after stimulation to a point near ejaculation.Most importantly, the early exercises forbid ejaculation to remove the pressure to climax and allow the man to immerse himself in sexual pleasuring.Behavioral Therapy for PE:Originally popular due to lack of biologically based treatments.Squeeze technique:Masters & Johnson (1970); Squeezing of the glans penisStop-Start Technique:Semans (1956; Kaplan (1983); Pause sexual stimulation at impending ejaculationFactors influencing success:Heightened male awareness of sexual sensations.Decreased emphasis on coitus.Practicing the squeeze technique when masturbating:The aim of these pelvic floor muscle exercises is to restore erectile function by strengthening the bulbocavernosus muscle & ischiocavernosus muscle.Other Options[?]Erectile Dysfunction:Oral phentolamine and apomorphine have proved effective as potency enhancers in men with minimal erectile dysfunction.Sildenafil is not effective in all cases of erectile dysfunction.Cream consists of three vasoactive substances known to be absorbed through the skin: aminophylline, isosorbide dinitrate, and co-dergocrine mesylate, which is a mixture of ergot alkaloids.Gel containing alprostadil & an additional ingredient, which temporarily makes the outer layer of the skin more permeable.[?]Retrograde Ejaculation:Retrograde ejaculation always has an organic cause. It can develop after genitourinary surgery and is also associated with medications that have anticholinergic adverse effects, such as the phenothiazines, especially thioridazine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The tensile strength of the wound starts and increases after | [
"Immediately after suturing",
"3 to 4 days",
"7-10 days",
"6 months"
] | B | Wounds do not begin to gain tensile strength from collagen until 5 - 7 days.
Wound achieves around 20 % by 3 weeks, and around 60 % by four months.
Scar tissue continues to remodel for at least 6 - 12 months after an injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Billoh's cord are present in which pa of spleen? | [
"White pulp",
"Red pulp",
"Both",
"Capsule"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Red pulp Histology of spleen Spleen has a capsule which is mainly composed of collagen with some elastin. Trabeculae are septae pass inwards from the capsule. Spleen is mainly composed of two pas : White pulp : The white pulp of the spleen is formed of mass of T and B lymphocytes surrounding central aery, arranged as lymphoid nodule. Each nodule is also called Malpigian bodies. Marginal zone surrounds the white pulp and contains antigen presenting cells as macrophages. Red pulp : Red pulp is made up of a mesh of leaky sinusoids (vascular sinuses) through which the red cells are squeezed. Adjacent blood spaces contain blood cells and arranged in cords called splenic cords of billoh. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Apa from Escherichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is- | [
"Bacteroides",
"Klebsiella",
"Peptostreptococcus",
"Pseudomonas"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Bacteroides | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following differential cyanosis found? | [
"VSD with reversal of shunt",
"PDA with reversal of shunt",
"ASD with reversal of shunt",
"Tetralogy of Fallot"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., PDA with reversal of shunt | train | med_mcqa | null |
Froment's sign is due to | [
"Ulnar nerve injury",
"Median nerve injury",
"Radial nerve injury",
"Intercostobrachial nerve injury"
] | A | Ans: A Ulnar nerve injury(Ref: Maheshwari 4h/e p. 65)Ulnar nerve injury:Adductor pollicis will be paralysed.Shows 'Froment's sign'or the'book test'.Procedure:The patient is asked to grasp a book between the thumb and index finger. Normally, a person will grasps book firmly with thumb extended, taking full advantage of adductor pollicis and the first dorsal interosseous muscles.Patient will hold the book by using the flexor pollicis longus (supplied by median nerve) in place of the inter-phalangeal joint of the thumb.This becomes more pronounced if the examiner tries to pull the book out while the patient tries to hold it. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for chlamydial infection in pregnancy is: | [
"Doxycycline",
"Tetracycline",
"Erythromycin",
"Ciprofloxacin"
] | C | ERYTHROMYCIN It was isolated from Streptomyces erythreus in 1952. Since then it has been widely employed, mainly as alternative to penicillin. Water solubility of erythromycin is limited, and the solution remains stable only when kept in cold. Uses A . As an alternative to penicillin 1 . Streptococcal pharyngitis, tonsillitis, mastoiditis and community acquired respiratory infections caused by pneumococci and H. influenzae respond equally well to erythromycin. It is an alternative drug for prophylaxis of rheumatic fever and SABE. However, many bacteria resistant to penicillin are also resistant to erythromycin. 2. Diphtheria: acute stage as well as for carriers-7 day treatment. Some prefer it over penicillin. Antitoxin is the primary treatment. 3. Tetanus: as an adjuvant to antitoxin, toxoid therapy. 4. Syphilis and gonorrhoea: only if other alternative drugs, including tetracyclines also cannot be used: relapse rates are higher. 5. Leptospirosis: 250 mg 6 hourly for 7 days in patients allergic to penicillins. B. As a first choice drug for 1 . Atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae: rate of recovery is hastened. 2. Whooping cough: a 1-2 week course of erythromycin is the most effective treatment for eradicating B. peussis from upper respiratory tract. However, effect on the symptoms depends on the stage of disease when treatment is staed. (a) Prophylactic: during the 10 day incubation period-disease is prevented. (b) Catarrhal stage: which lasts for about a week-erythromycin may abo the next stage or reduce its duration and severity. (c) Paroxysmal stage: lasting 2-4 weeks-no effect on the duration and severity of &;croup&; despite eradication of the causative organism. (d) Convalescent stage: during which &;croup&; gradually resolves (4-12 weeks)-is not modified. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and chloramphenicol are the alternative antimicrobials. Cough sedatives are not very effective. Coicosteroids may reduce the duration of paroxysmal stage but increase the risk of superinfections and carrier stage; should be reserved for severe cases only. Adrenergic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock ? | [
"Adrenaline",
"Antihistaminic",
"Glucocoicoids",
"Epinephrine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenaline o First adrenaline should be given im to raise the blood pressure and to dilate the bronchi. o If the treatment is delayed and shock has developed, adrenaline should be given i.v. by slow injection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bone resorption is enhanced by: | [
"PGD2",
"PGF2",
"PGE2",
"PGI2"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Longest extraocular muscle is | [
"Superior Rectus",
"Inferior rectus",
"Superior Oblique",
"Inferior oblique"
] | C | Superior oblique is the longest extraocular muscle Extraocular muscles: Shoest tendon among rectus- MR Muscle having least distance from limbus - MR Superior oblique is longest muscle Inferior oblique is smallest muscle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug not given for malaria prophylaxis is? | [
"Chloroquine",
"Proguanil",
"Doxycycline",
"Aesunate"
] | D | Aesunate REF: Types of malaria prophylaxis: (A) Primary Prophylaxis: Use of anti-malaria drugs at recommended dosage, staed 2-20 days before depaure to a malarious area and continued for the duration of stay and for 1-4 weeks after return. Causal prophylaxis: This prevents the establishment of infection in the liver by inhibiting the pre-erythrocytic schizogony. Primaquine and proguanil are effective as causal prophylactic drugs. Suppressive prophylaxis: Use of blood schizonticides suppresses the blood forms of the malaria parasite and thus protects against clinical illness. However, P. vivax and P. ovale may cause relapses from the hypnozoites and to prevent this, terminal prophylaxis may be needed. (B) Terminal Prophylaxis: Terminal prophylaxis is the administration of Primaquine for two weeks after returning from travel to tackle the hypnozoites of P. vivax and P. ovale that can cause relapses of malaria. It is indicated only for persons who have had prolonged exposure in malaria-endemic regions, such as expatriates and long-term travellers like missionaries and Peace Corps volunteers. Primaquine is administered after the traveller leaves an endemic area and usually in conjunction with Chloroquine during the last 2 weeks of the 4-week period of prophylaxis after exposure in an endemic area has ended Drugs used in malaria prophylaxis and their doses: Drugs Dosage Pros and Cons Adults Children Atovaquone plus Adult Pediatric tablet of 62.5 Daily dosing; only have to Proguanil(Malarone) tablet of mg atovaquone and 25 mg continue for 7 days after 250 mg proguanil: exposure; not in pregnancy and atovaquone and 100 mg proguanil - 1 tab. daily 5-8 kg: 1/2 tablet daily >8-10 kg: 3/4 tablet daily >10-20 kg: 1 tablet daily >20-30 kg: 2 tablets daily lactation >30-40 kg: 3 tablets daily >40 kg: 1 adult tablet daily Chloroquine 300 mg base 5mg/kg base weekly; Long-term safety known; (Tablet with 150mg base) once weekly maximum 300 mg Chloroquine resistance repoed from most pas of the world; not for persons with epilepsy, psoriasis Proguanil 200 mg daily < 2 yrs: 50 mg/day; Used in combination 2-6 yrs:100 mg/d 7-9 yrs: 150 mg/day; >9 yrs: 200 mg/d Doxycycline(100mg) 100mg once 1.5mg base/kg once daily Daily dosing required; not in daily (max. 100 mg) pregnancy and lactation < 25kg or <8 yr: Not given 25-35kg or 8-10 yr: 50mg 36-50kg or 11-13 yr: 75mg >50kg or >14 yr: 100mg Mefloquine(Tablet with 250 mg base <15 kgs: 5mg of salt/kg; Weekly dosing; occasional repos 250mg base, 274mg salt) once weekly 15-19 kg: % tab/wk; 20-30 kg: 1/2 tab/wk; 31-45 kg: 3/4 tab/wk; >45 kg: 1 tab/wk of severe intolerance; not in first trimester of pregnancy, breast feeding, high altitudes or deep sea diving, patients with epilepsy, psychosis, hea blocks, receiving 13 blockers | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most reliable criteria in Guastafson method of age estimation is - | [
"Attrition",
"Secondary dentin deposition",
"Transparency of root",
"Cementum apposition"
] | C | Transparency of root is the most reliable criterion in Gustafson's method. | train | med_mcqa | null |
P wave in ECG is due to : | [
"Ventricular depolarization",
"Atrial repolarization",
"Ventricular repolarization",
"Atrial depolarization"
] | D | Ans. (d) Atrial depolarizationECG findingSignificanceP waveAtrial DepolarizationQRSVentricular depolarizationT waveVentricular repolarizationU waveDelayed repolarization of papillary musclesPR intervalSpread of impulse from SAN to AVNST segmentIso-electric segment | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 8-year-old child presented with pain at shoulder and arm. A X-ray reveals a uniform well-defined lucent lesion at the metaphysis. Most likely diagnosis is?(AIIMS 2016) | [
"Simple bone cyst",
"Aneurysmal bone cyst",
"Giant cell tumour",
"Osteoid osteoma"
] | A | Ans. A Simple bone cystLucent geographic lesion seen in humeral metaphysis in a child is most commonly a simple bone cyst. Trapdoor signQ/Fallen fragment signQ/Hinged fragment signQ may be seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcium enters the cardiac cell during: | [
"Rapid upstroke of the action potential",
"Down slope of the action potential",
"Plateau phase of the action potential",
"Slow diastolic depolarization (phase 4) of the action potential"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wof are components of Waldeyer&;s ring | [
"Lingual tonsil",
"Nasopharyngeal tonsil",
"Tubal tonsil",
"All of the above"
] | D | WALDEYER'S RING Scattered throughout the pharynx in its subepithelial layer is the lymphoid tissue which is aggregated at places to form masses, collectively called Waldeyer's ring. The masses are: 1. Nasopharyngeal tonsil or the adenoids 2. Palatine tonsils or simply the tonsils 3. Lingual tonsil 4. Tubal tonsils (in fossa of Rosenmuller) 5. Lateral pharyngeal bands 6. Nodules (in posterior pharyngeal wall). Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-238,239 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not found in cerebral palsy is: | [
"Hypotonia",
"Microcephaly",
"Ataxia",
"Flaccid paralysis"
] | D | Ans. D. Flaccid paralysisFlaccid paralysis is not a feature of Cerebral palsy. Flaccid paralysis is a feature of lower motor neuron disease.Cerebral palsy is a static encephalopathy and a disorder of posture and movement often associated with:* A deficit in the motor, language, and social milestones* Microcephaly is a feature of cerebral palsy because of insult to the developing brain.* Dystonic CP is associated with hypotonia* Extrapyramidal CP is associated with ataxia* It is an upper motor neuron disease characterized by rigidity and scissoring gait.* Spastic cerebral palsy is the common type (65%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year old Lady presents with unilateral dermatonic distribution of vesicular eruptions. associated with severe pain. The most likely diagnosis is | [
"Herpes zoster",
"Chicken pox",
"Recurrent herpes simplex infection",
"Infectious mononucleosis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An AIIDS patients presents with fistula-in-ano. His CD4 count is below 50. What is the treatment of choice - | [
"Seton",
"Fistulectomy",
"None",
"Both"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Seton | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marginal metal angle for cast inlay is: | [
"130-140 degree",
"30-40 degree",
"90-100 degree",
"Less than 30 degree"
] | B | DIFFERENES BETWEEN INLAY AND AMALGAM RESTORATIONS: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Form the normal bacterial flora of the conjunctiva | [
"Corynebacterium xerosis",
"E. Coli",
"Streptococci",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. Corynebacterium xerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The substance used in OCG is | [
"Iopanoic acid",
"Sodium diatrozite",
"Meglumine iodothalamate",
"Biligraffin"
] | A | Iopanoic acid is used in oral cholecystography Biligraffin is used in IV cholangiography Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1487 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hormone replacement therapy (H) is indicated in: | [
"women with breast cancer",
"Osteoporosis",
"women with uterine cancer",
"previous history of thromboembolic episode"
] | B | H Indications symptomatic women who suffer from oestrogen defeciency(therapeutic) high risk cases for menopausal complications like cardiovascular disease,osteoporosis,stroke,alzheimers disease,colonic cancer(prophylactic) premature menopause,spontaneous or following surgery(tubectomy,hysterectomy) gonadal dysgenesis in adolescents(therapeutic0 women demanding H as prophylaxis. SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:70,16 th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following muscle is known as safety muscle of larynx? | [
"Cricothyroid",
"Thyroarytenoid",
"Lateral cricoarytenoid",
"Posterior cricoarytenoid"
] | D | Posterior cricoarytenoid is known as safety muscle of larynx. It is so called because being the only abductor of the vocal cords it keeps the rima glottis open to allow air to enter the lungs. Adductors of vocal cord are: Cricothyroid Thyroarytenoids Lateral cricoarytenoid Transverse arytenoids Relaxant of vocal cords: Vocalis Thyroarytenoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug with no mood stabilizing propey is - | [
"Lithium",
"Lamotrigine",
"Imipramine",
"Carbamazepine"
] | C | Ans. C. ImipramineThe 5 individual drugs that can be used as mood stabilizers are:LithiumCarbamazePineLamotrigineValproateAsenapine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bipolar staining is characteristic of - | [
"Yersinia pestis",
"Proteus mirabilis",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa",
"All of the above"
] | A | Option a, b, c, d Bipolar staining (safety pin appearance): with both ends densely stained and a clear central area of the bacteria. 1. Yersinia pestis 2. Vibrio parahaemolyticus 3. Calymmatobacterium (Donovania) granulomatis 4. H. Ducreyi 5. Pasteurella multocida 6. Burkholderia species | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first line antileprosy drugs include all except? | [
"Dapsone",
"Thiacetazone",
"Clofazimine",
"Rifampicin"
] | B | B. i.e. Thiacetazone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which stage of LGV infection is associated with bubo | [
"First stage",
"Second stage",
"Third stage",
"Throughout all stages"
] | B | LGV infection:Primary stage:Small, painless, papulovesicular (Ext.genitalia)Usually unnoticedI/P: 3 days to 5 weeksSecondary stage:About 2 weeks later- lymphatic spread to draining lymph nodesMen -Inguinal L.N women -Intrapelvic & Para rectal nodesBubo(enlarge, suppurate, adherent to the skin)- break down- sinuses - discharging pusHemorrhagic proctitis with Regional L.NThird stage: Chronic (several years)Scarring & lymphatic blockageRectal strictures & elephantiasis of vulva (ESTHIOMENE)(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p420-421) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The syndrome associated with deficiency of Dermatan sulfate, heparan sulfate, chondroitin 4-sulfate and chondroitin 6-sulfate is | [
"Hunter syndrome",
"Morquio syndrome B",
"Sly syndrome",
"Hurler syndrome"
] | C | Disease name Abbretion Enzyme Defective GaG(s) affected Symptoms Sly syndrome MPS VII b-Glucuronidase Dermatan sulfate, heparan sulfate, chondroitin 4-sulfate, chondroitin 6-sulfate Skeletal dysplasia, sho stature, hepatomegaly, cloudy cornea Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no:639; Table: 50-8 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia, Except: | [
"Diagnosed on routine blood tests",
"Leukocytosis is prominent",
"Can present as acute leukemia",
"T lymphocyte CLL is more common"
] | D | Answer is D (T lymphocyte CLL is more common) The most common form of CLL is a B-cell CLL. The most common form of Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia is a B-cell CLL B cell CLL is more common than T cell CLL. CLL is diagnosed on routine blood tests/Leukocytosis Typical (B cell) CLL is often found incidentally when a complete blood count is done for another reasons. The diagnosis is usually made when an increased number of circulating lymphocytes (T WBC count) is found on routine complete blood counts. CLL does not normally present as an acute Leukemia Transformation of CLL into acute Leukemias has been repoed in a few studies but such transformation is extremely rare, and there is no convincing evidence that CLL ever transforms into an Acute Leukemia. 'There is no convincing evidence that CLL ever transforms into ALL' | train | med_mcqa | null |
40 year old with koilonychia, iron deficiency and dysphagia, Diagnosis is | [
"Plummer Vinson syndrome",
"Achalasia cardia",
"ZES",
"None"
] | A | Plummer Winson syndrome Classical Features: Dysphagia Iron Deficiency Anaemia Glossitis Angular Stomatitis Koilonychia Achlorhydria Atrophy of mucous membrane of the alimentary canal Predominantly affects females past 40 years Predisposes to development of carcinoma in - Tongue, Buccal mucosa, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 388) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Opacity around colonies of clostridium perfringens is due to | [
"Theta toxin",
"Lecithinase",
"Desmolase",
"Cytokinin"
] | B | Alpha toxin is produced by all thoracic clostridium perfringes. Alpha toxin is lecithinase C. Demonstrated by Nagler's reaction. Nagler reaction; When Clostridium perfringes are grown in media containing 6 % agar, Fildes peptic digest of sheep blood and 20% human serum, with antitoxin spread on one half of plate, colonies in the other half without antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. No opacity around the colonies on the half of plate with antitoxin. This is due to the specific neutralization of the alpha-toxin or lecithinase C. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 259 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is | [
"Eosin stain",
"Hematoxylin stain",
"Ninhydrin stain",
"Blue stain"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following factors is most impoant in the subsequent development of genital prolapse? | [
"Poor tissue quality",
"Chronic straining at bowel movements",
"Menopause",
"Childbih trauma"
] | D | Most impoant cause of prolapse in India is Child bih related trauma/ Bad conduct of Labour Atonicity Menopause Congenital weakness Multiparity Bih injuries Prolonged labour Perineal tear Pudendal nerve injury Operative delivery Multiparity Big baby Raised intra-abdominal pressure Chronic bronchitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by | [
"Recurrent laryngeal nerve",
"Inferior laryngeal nerve",
"Superior laryngeal nerve",
"Nerve of galen"
] | C | Ref BDC volume 3;sixth edition pg 257 All intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid which is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raccoon eyes are associated with: | [
"Orbital cellulitis",
"Head injury",
"Conjunctivitis",
"None of the above"
] | B | Extravasation of blood results in ecchymosis behind the ear, known as Battle's sign. A fracture of the anterior skull base can result in anosmia (loss of smell from damage to the olfactory nerve), CSF drainage from the nose (rhinorrhea), or periorbital ecchymoses, known as raccoon eyes. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 42. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The iron preparation that can be given intravenously is - | [
"Ferrous sulphate",
"Iron dextran",
"Iron sorbitol citric acid complex",
"Colloidal ferric hydroxide"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron dextran o Iron dextran can be given i.m. or i.v., while iron-sorbitol-citric acid is given only i.m. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph nodes are positive in a patient of Ca Breast. Which of the following represents the stage of malignancy in this patient? | [
"II",
"III B",
"III C",
"IV"
] | C | Stage IIIC: Any T, Metastasis in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node(s) and M0. Patients with disseminated metastases should be considered for palliative systemic treatment. Ref: Hunt K.K., Newman L.A., Copeland E.M., Bland K.I. (2010). Chapter 17. The Breast. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ranson scoring for acute pancreatitis includes - | [
"Age>55yr",
"WBO 16000/ul",
"Sequestration fluid < 3L",
"BUN> lOmg/dl"
] | A | Acute pancreatitis accounts for 3% of all cases of abdominal pain admitted to hospital. It affects 2-28 per 100 000 of the population and is increasing in incidence. It is a potentially serious condition with an overall moality of 10%. About 80% of all cases are mild and have a ourable outcome. Approximately 98% of deaths from pancreatitis occur in the 20% of patients with severe disease and about one-third of these arise within the first week, usually from multi-organ failure. After this time, the majority of deaths result from sepsis, especially that complicating infected necrosis. At admission, it is possible to predict patients at risk of these complications. Individuals who are predicted to have severe pancreatitis and those with necrosis or other complications should be managed in a specialist centre with an intensive care unit and multidisciplinary hepatobiliary specialists. Glasgow criteria for prognosis in acute pancreatitis* Age >55 years PO2 <8 kPa (60 mmHg) White blood cell count >15x109/L Albumin <32 g/L (3.2 g/dL) Serum calcium <2 mmol/L (8 mg/dL) (corrected) Glucose >10 mmol/L (180 mg/dL) Urea >16 mmol/L (45 mg/dL) (after rehydration) Alanine aminotransferase >200 U/L Lactate dehydrogenase >600U/L Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 837 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindication for surgery in varicose veins:- | [
"DVT",
"Multiple incompetent perforators",
"Ulcer at ankle",
"None"
] | A | DVT is the contraindication for surgery in varicose veins as superficial veins are only channel for drainage of venous blood . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brown discolouration of the mucosa of the stomach is seen in poisoning due to : | [
"Nitric acid",
"Sulphuric acid",
"Hydrochloric acid",
"Mercury"
] | B | B i.e. H2SO4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
At room temperature reconstituted solutions of Thiopentone is stable for- | [
"6 days",
"6 weeks",
"6 hours",
"6 mins"
] | A | The commercially available powder of Thiopentone is stable at room temperature indefinitely. At room temperature (22degC) reconstituted solutions of thiopental remain stable and sterile for at least 6 days. Thiopentone can be reconstituted with Normal saline Glucose Water Cannot be reconstituted with Ringer Lactate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Axonotmesis includes discontinuity in: | [
"Perineurium",
"Epineuri um",
"Endoneurium",
"Axon"
] | D | D i.e. Axon | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antibiotics should be given when with surgery for prophylaxis - | [
"1 hour before",
"1 hour after",
"2 hours before",
"2 hours after"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 hour before Intravenous administration at Induction of Anesthesia is optimal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sclera is thinnest at - | [
"Limbus",
"Equator",
"Anterior to attachment of superior rectus",
"Posterior to attachment of superior rectus"
] | D | Thickness of sclera varies considerably in differentindividuals and with the age of the person. It isgenerally thinner in children than the adults and infemales than the males. Sclera is thickest posteriorly(1mm) and gradually becomes thin when tracedanteriorly. It is thinnest at the inseion of extraocularmuscles (0.3 mm). REF:Comprehensive ophthalmology,20th edition,AK Khurana,pg no.127. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Breastfeeding jaundice typically manifests at | [
"3rd day",
"3rd week",
"3rd month",
"Within 24 hrs"
] | A | O Breast milk jaundice - After the 1st weekO Breastfeeding jaundice - Within the 1st week (3rd or 4th day)O Physiological jaundice - After 24 hoursPathological jaundice - At bih or within 24 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti Snake Venin (ASV) should be given in all these situations with further lab investigations in a child presenting at 4 am except : | [
"Severe pain abdomen but no fang marks",
"Local swelling with fang marks",
"External opthalmoplegia",
"Ptosis with head flexed without bite marks"
] | B | Ans: B (Local swelling with fang marks) Ref: The Pediatric Management of Snakebite: The National Protocol, Indian Pediatrics; 43: 173-6 and Snake Site: Indian Guidelines and Protocol. The Association of Physicians of India Chapter 24 Pg 423 and Clinical Profile of Snake Bite in Children in Rural India. Iran J Pediatr, 2013 Dec; 23(6): 632-636. and Achar Textbook of Pediatrics, 4th edition, Pg: 127Explanation:"Among the neuroparalytic bites 60% patients presented with abdominal pain which was the main presenting complaint."Ref: Clinical Profile of Snake Bite in Children in Rural IndiaAnti-Snake VenomAnti-snake venom (ASV) is the mainstay of treatment.in India, polyvalent ASV, i.e. effective against all the four common species:o Russell's vipero Common Cobrao Common Kraito Saw-scaled ViperIndications for ASV administrationEvidence of systemic envenomationProlonged 20 min whole blood clotting time { >20 WBCT).Signs of spontaneous bleeding.Thrombocytopenia (Platelets < 1 lakh/cumm.Neurological symptomso Ptosiso Opthalmoplegiao Respiratory paralysiso Bulbar paralysiso Cardiac signsRenal problemso Oliguriao UremiaHemoglobinuriaMyoglobinuriaSevere Local SymptomsSwelling rapidly crossing joint.Swelling involving half of bitten limb.Swelling increasing rapidly after removal of tourniquet.Development of Enlarged tender regional lymph node.Features of Krait bite:Unique clinical presentation.Movements are mainly nocturnal.Abdominal pain - Most common initial symptom.Often No Pain.No fang mark.No local swelling.Neurological Symptomso Progressive paralysiso Ptosiso Respiratory muscle failure.Note:ASV should NOT be used without evidence of systemic envenomation or severe local swelling.Purely local swelling is Not an Indication for administering ASV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about blood transfusion reaction - | [
"Complement mediated severe haemolysis",
"Renal blood flow is decreased",
"Transfusion should not be stopped",
"Death is not seen"
] | B | You can have an allergic reaction to a blood transfusion as well. These symptoms can include hives and itching. Another transfusion reaction type is the transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI). This reaction may occur when donor plasma contains antibodies that cause damage to the immune cells in the lungs. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 916 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Distobuccal cusp of 27 falls into: | [
"Embrasure of 37 & 38",
"Embrasure of 36 & 37",
"Mesial pit of 37",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mobile, variegated large lump in the breast of a 20-year old female is most likely to be due to- | [
"Medullary carcinoma",
"Inflammatory carcinoma",
"Cystosacoma phylloides",
"Lobular carcinoma"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Cystosarcoma phylloides | train | med_mcqa | null |
pH= 7.30, pCO2= 38, HCO3 = 18, Diagnosis is? | [
"Metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis",
"Respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis with compensatory metabolic acidosis",
"Metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis"
] | D | Since pH is less, and HCO3 is less, it implies metabolic acidosis Now for compensation pCO2 = HCO3+ 15 = 18 + 15 = 33 The value predicted is not matching with given pCO2 of 38 mmHg. It implies compensation is not there and it is a mixed disorder. Conclusion metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Avascular necrosis of head of femur occurs commonly at : | [
"Subcapital region",
"Transcervical region",
"Subchondral region",
"Trochanteric region"
] | A | Avascular necrosis is common with fractures to the subcapital region. Subcapital fractures damage the ascending vessels, thereby causing avascular necrosis and nonunion. Subcapital is the most common location for a femoral fracture. Ref: Srinivasan R.C., Tolhurst S., Vanderhave K.L. (2010). Chapter 40. Ohopedic Surgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28-year-old male patient is brought to casualty in comatose state with pin-point pupils, reduced respira- tory rate and bradycardia. Most likely diagnosis: UPSC 09; CMC (Vellore) 14 | [
"Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning",
"Opioid poisoning",
"Benzodiazepine poisoning",
"Organophosphorus poisoning"
] | B | Ans. Opioid poisoning | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skin condition which is associated with Subepidermal bullae with inflammatory infiltration | [
"Pemphigus follaceus",
"Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)",
"Epidermolysis bullosa",
"Bullous pemphigoid"
] | D | Bullous pemphigoid is the prototype of subepidermal bullae with inflammation. large bullae develop in the trunk, flexor surfaces and intertriginous regions. Detachment of the epidermis from the underlying basement membrane is related to autoantibodies to desmomal proteins.
Epidermolysis bullosa and PCT manifest subepidermal bullae without inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following presents with unconjugated hyper bilirubinemia | [
"Dubin - Johnson syndrome",
"Gilbert syndrome",
"Rotor's syndrome",
"All of the above"
] | B | Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia - Gilbert syndrome, Crigler najjar syndrome.
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia : Dubin Johnson syndrome, Rotor syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During a routine checkup of a middle aged man's blood sample shows hematocrit of 45% and biconcave red blood cells. Biconcavity of RBCs is a function of which of the following? | [
"Ankyrin",
"Spectrin",
"Band protein",
"Glycophorin- C"
] | B | The biconcave shape is normal and is not a defect. Normal red blood cells are deformable biconcave disks. Their shape is determined by the external environment of the cell, the metabolic activity of the cell, the nature of hemoglobin, the membrane skeleton, and age of the cell. The red blood cell's durability and flexibility are due to its submembranous protein network, the membrane skeleton. The membrane skeleton consists predominantly of four proteins: spectrin, actin, protein 4.1, and ankyrin (also known as syndein). Spectrin is an extrinsic protein located on the cytoplasmic surface of the membrane. It is long and unusually flexible molecule consisting of two structurally and functionally distinct polypeptide chains. The membrane of the RBC comprises a phospholipid bilayer and an underlying two-dimensional network of spectrin molecules. The composite propeies of the phospholipid bilayer and spectrin network result in the biconcave or discocyte morphology of healthy RBCs and give the membrane its elastic and biorheological propeies. Ref: Medical Biochemistry By N. V. Bhagavan, 2001, Page 164 ; High Yield Histopathology by Dudek, 2010, Page 301 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delayed wound healing is seen in all except: | [
"Malignancy",
"Hypeension",
"Diabetes",
"Infection"
] | B | Factors influencing healing of wound. site structure involved mechanism of wounding contamination loss of tissue local factors Systemic factors Factors that inhibit wound healing LOCAL FACTORS Infections Ischemia Foreign body Hematoma Movement Mechanical stress Necrotic tissue Tissue tension Large defect SYSTEMIC FACTORS Diabetes mellitus Ionizing radiations & temperature Advanced age & Malnutrition Vitamin A & C deficiency Mineral ZINC & IRON deficiencies Drugs( Steroids, Doxorubicin) Jaundice Uremia Malignancy HIV and immunosuppressive disease neuropathies | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lining epithelium of the uterine cavity is | [
"Simple squamous epithelium",
"Simple columnar epithelium",
"Stratified squamous epithelium",
"Ciliated columnar epithelium"
] | B | The endometrium, or mucosal lining of the uterus, is composed of a simple columnar epithelium and a lamina propria. The epithelium is composed of nonciliated secretory columnar cells and ciliated cells, whereas the lamina propria houses simple branched tubular glands that extend as far as the myometrium.Ref: Textbook of histology; 4th edition; Chapter 20; Female Reproductive System | train | med_mcqa | null |
RA is best diagnosed by? | [
"IgA RF\\/",
"IgG RF\\/",
"IgM RF\\/",
"Anti CCP antibody"
] | D | to establish diagnosis of rheumatoid ahritis are * Clinical criteria * ESR and CRP * Ultrasound or MRI * Rheumatoid factor and anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies DAVIDSON&;S 22nd EDITION;PAGE NO 1100 | train | med_mcqa | null |
ECV is absolutely contraindicated in all except | [
"Previous LSCS scar",
"Severe preeclampsia",
"Placenta pre",
"Septate uterus"
] | A | Absolute contraindications for ECV Placenta pre Multiple pregnancies IUGR history of antepaum hemorrhage Severe preeclampsia Rupture of membranes Uterine malformations | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about emphysema except: | [
"Cyanosis",
"Barrel-shaped chest",
"Associated with smoking",
"Type 1 respiratory failure"
] | A | OPTION A) CLINICAL FEATURE OF EMPHYSEMA SYMPTOMS; The three most common symptoms in COPD are cough, sputum production, and exeional dyspnea. Activities involving significant arm work, paicularly at or above shoulder level, are paicularly difficult for many patients with COPD . the principal feature is worsening dyspnea on exeion with increasing intrusion on the ability to perform vocational or avocational activities. In the most advanced stages- patients are breathless doing simple activities of daily living. CLINICAL FEATURE OF COPD - EMPHYSEMA The classic presentation of emphysema with no "bronchitic" component. Patients barrel-chested and dyspneic, with prolonged expiration, sitting forward in a hunched-over position. In these patients, air space enlargement is severe and diffusing capacity is low. Dyspnea and hyperventilation are prominent, so that until very late in the disease, gas exchange is adequate and blood gas values are relatively normal. Because of prominent dyspnea and adequate oxygenation of hemoglobin, these patients sometimes are sometimes called "pink puffers." CHRONIC BRONCHITIS -emphysema with pronounced chronic bronchitis and a history of recurrent infections. Dyspnea usually is less prominent, and in the absence of increased respiratory drive the patient retains carbon dioxide, becoming hypoxic and often cyanotic .such patients tend to be obese--hence the designation "blue bloaters." OPTION 2) ON PHYSICAL EXAMINATION Early stages of COPD, patients usually have an entirely normal physical examination. More severe disease, the physical examination - prolonged expiratory phase and may include expiratory wheezing. Signs of hyperinflation 1) barrel chest and enlarged lung volumes with poor diaphragmatic excursion as assessed by percussion. 2)Patients with severe airflow obstruction -use of accessory muscles of respiration, sitting in the characteristic "tripod" position to facilitate the actions of the sternocleidomastoid, scalene, and intercostal muscles. 3 CYANOSIS if emphysema with chronic bronchitis Patients may develop cyanosis, visible in the lips and nail beds. 4) SIGN OF ADVANCED COPD cachexia ,significant weight loss, bitemporal wasting, anddiffuse loss of subcutaneous adipose tissue. Clubbing of the digits is not a sign of COPD. The development of lung cancer is the most likely explanation for newly developed clubbing. OPTION C) RISK FACTORS CIGARETTE SMOKING AIRWAY RESPONSIVENESS AND COPD RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS OCCUPATIONAL EXPOSURE. D)COMPLICATION OF COPD- progressive disease is marked by the development of pulmonary hypeension, sometimes leading to cardiac failure, recurrent infections; and ultimately respiratory failure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT a branch of intracranial part of Internal carotid artery(103 - BDC- 3) 4th edition | [
"Anterior communicating",
"Anterior cerebral",
"Middle cerebral",
"Posterior communicating"
] | A | (Anterior communicating) (103- BDC-3, 4th edition, 750 Snell 8th)Branches of the Internal Carotid Artery* There are no branches in the neck** (Cervical), Many important branches, however are given off in the skull* Cerebral part branches(i) Opthalmic(ii) Anterior cerebral(iii) Posterior communicting(iv) Middle cerebral(v) Anterior choroidal* Of these the opthalmic artery supplies structures in the orbit while the others supply the brain | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total claw hand is seen in the paralysis of: September 2005 | [
"Ulnar and median nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Radial nerve"
] | A | Ans. A: Ulnar and median nerve Claw hand deformity is manifested by flattening of the transverse metacarpal arch and longitudinal arches, with hyperextension of MCP joints and flexion of the PIP and DIP joints; This deformity is produced by imbalance of the intrinsic & extrinsics: i. Intrinsic muscles must be markedly weakened or paralyzed to produce claw deformity; Long extensor muscles hyperextend the MCP joint, & long flexor muscles flex the PIP and DIP joints; weakness of the long flexors (as in high palsy) actually decreases claw fingers; In ulnar nerve palsy, only the medial two fingers develops clawing while all the four fingers develop clawing in combined median and ulnar nerve palsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Target fibres are characteristically seen in a muscle biopsy of - | [
"Dermatomyositis",
"Motor neuron disease",
"Myasthenia gravis",
"Drug induced myopathy"
] | B | Target fibers
During denervation atrophy there is a cytoskeletal reorganization of some muscle cells, which results in a rounded zone of disorganized filaments in the centre of the fiber (target fiber).
Amongst the given options only motor neuron disease can result in denervation of the muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 58-year-old woman has a history of alcohol abuse, coronary artery disease, and atrial fibrillation. Her medications include metoprolol, lisinopril, simvastatin, and warfarin. She develops urinary urgency and frequency and is treated with oxycodone and ciprofloxacin. Three days later she develops a headache, dizziness, vomiting, and has difficulty walking. On neurological examination her strength, sensation (including vibratory sensation), and reflexes are normal. She walks with an uncoordinated, unsteady gait. On testing of coordination in the upper extremities, she displays past pointing and poor rapid alternating movements with her right upper extremity. In the lower extremities, her heel-shin testing also reveals poor coordination on the right. INR is 6.5 (normal <1, therapeutic for warfarin 2.0-3.0). What is the most likely cause of her neurologic findings? | [
"Right cerebellar hemorrhage",
"Multiple small infarcts in the basal ganglia",
"Cerebellar degeneration due to chronic alcohol abuse",
"Posterior column degeneration as a result of vitamin deficiency"
] | A | This patient has evidence of cerebellar dysfunction, most likely due to cerebellar hemorrhage. Many drugs (including ciprofloxacin) interact with warfarin, excessively prolong anticoagulation, and may result in spontaneous hemorrhage. Cerebellar lesions are typically associated with ataxia and dizziness. This patient's bleeding can be localized to the right cerebellar hemisphere since a focal lesion in one lobe of the cerebellum (e.g., a cerebellar tumor, hemorrhage or infarct) causes dyscoordination on the same side of the body (ipsilateral) as the lesion. Infarcts in the basal ganglia would cause extrapyramidal signs with rigidity and uncontrolled movements in addition to discoordination. Midline cerebellar lesions (most commonly alcoholic cerebellar degeneration) cause midline signs (especially gait ataxia) out of proportion to the findings in the extremities. Posterior column disease would cause sensory abnormalities (especially, loss of proprioception and vibratory sensation) rather than problems with coordination. Acute alcohol ingestion and narcotic overdose can cause dizziness and ataxia, often with nystagmus, but would not be expected to cause unilateral dysmetria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clearance- | [
"Refers to the efficacy of elimination of a drug by an organ or whole body",
"Cannot be greater than blood flow to an organ",
"Determines the steady of the drug concentration",
"All the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Clearance of a drug is the theoretical volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed in unit time,o It refers to efficacy of elimination of a drug:Clearance =Rate of eliminationPlasma concentrationo As drug is to be removed from plasma in unit time, clearance can not be greater than blood flow to an organ.o Steady state plasma concentration is determined by t 1/2 . t 1/2 is dependent on clearance :154=0-693 xVCLSo, clearance determines the steady state plasma concentration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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