question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Laryngeal papilloma- | [
"Single",
"Multiple",
"Seen in children",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Single; 'b' i.e., Multiple & 'c' i.e., Seen in children Laryngeal papilloma o Most common benign tumor of larynx Single or multiple irregular, wa like glottic masses. HPV-6 & 11 may be the causative factor. Treatment is with CO2 laser ablation. a-IFN and indole - 3 - carbinole may also be used. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Propofol and thiopentone are: | [
"Inducing agents",
"Maintenance agents",
"Reversing agents",
"Local anaesthetics"
] | A | Ans: a (Inducing agents) Ref: Ajay Yadav, 3rd ed, p. 72Thiopentone is the most commonly used IV anaesthetic agent for induction. Propofol is also used in good centres.Commonly used IV inducing agents:# Thiopentone# Ketamine# Althesin# Opioids# Propofol# Methohexitone# Midazolam | train | med_mcqa | null |
Branch of pharmacology that deals with medicinal drugs that are obtained from plants and other natural resources are known as | [
"Pharmacognosy",
"Pharmacogenetics",
"Pharmacogenomics",
"Pharmacopoeia"
] | A | Ref-K.K.Sharma 2nd/4 Defination | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sputum can be disinfected by all except- | [
"Autoclaving",
"Boiling",
"Sunlight",
"Burning"
] | D | Sputum is best received in gauze or paper handkerchief and destroyed by burning.If the amount is considerable it may be disinfected by boiling or auto claving for 20 minutes at 20 lbs pressure.Alternatively the patient may be asked to spit in a sputum cup half filled with 5 percent creosol.When the cup is full it is allowed to stand for an hour and the contents may be emptied and disposed off.(refer pgno:130 park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rabies in not found in | [
"Lakshadweep Islands",
"Rajasthan",
"Meghalaya",
"Orrisa"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
gordons syndrome is charecterized by by al except ? | [
"hyperkalemia",
"metabolic acidosis",
"low rennin and low aldosterone",
"hypotension"
] | D | * Type II pseudohypoaldosteronism in adults with HT( Gordon&;s syndrome ) .primary defect may be related to "enhanced Cl reabsorption in early distal tubule".../imit Na delivery to more distal tubule, decreased lumen negativity, impaired K secretion due to voltage-shunt effect -- Increased NaC1 reabsorption expand ECF volume...HT and suppress RAAS -- Hyper K contributes to inhibition of renin secretion -- PA..normal or suppressed depending upon balance between inhibitory effect of volume expansion and stimulatory effect of hyperkalemia harrisons 21st ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Baby '0* positive, blood group, mother Rh negative, cord bilirubin 7 mg%, conjugated I now treatment is? | [
"Nothing",
"Stop breast feeding for 48 hours",
"Continue breast feeding and phototherapy",
"Stop breast feed and prepare for exchange blood transfusion"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stop breast tad and prepare for exchange blood transfusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chances of an offspring being affected when one parent is autosomal dominant heterozygote: | [
"25%",
"50%",
"100%",
"None"
] | B | Ans. (b) 50%(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 140; 8th/pg 140)Chances of an offspring being affected when one parent is autosomal dominant heterozygote is 50% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rotation of mid gut loop occurs around: | [
"Superior mesenteric artery",
"Inferior mesenteric artery",
"Middle-colic artery",
"Superior rectal artery"
] | A | Ans. A Superior mesenteric arteryRef: Gray's Anatomy 41st ed. P 1054Rotation of Midgut Loop* Midgut loop has 2 ends: Cranial end and caudal end.* The primary intestinal loop rotates around an axis formed by the superior mesenteric artery* The rotation of midgut occurs when herniated intestinal loop returns back to the abdominal cavity.* It begins at the end of third month of intrauterine life* The primary intestinal loop rotates around an axis formed by the superior mesenteric artery, which divides the midgut loop into 2 segments:* Proximal (prearterial) segment- present cranially# Give rise to: Distal half of duodenum, Jejenum, Ileum except its terminal part* Distal (postarterial) segment- present caudally# Give rise to terminal part of ileum. Cecum, appendix, ascending colon, proximal 2/3rd of transverse colon.In order to return to abdominal cavity, the midgut loop undergoes anticlockwise rotation of 90deg thrice - total rotation of 270deg.# The first 90deg rotation occurs outside abdominal cavity (within umbilicus), remaining 2 rotations in abdominal cavityStepwise midgut rotation | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs are associated with corneal deposition except: September 2009 | [
"Chloroquine",
"Amiodarone",
"Quinacrine",
"Antimony"
] | D | Ans. D: Antimony Amiodarone is an alpha and beta antagonist and is extremely effective in treating otherwise uncontrollable ventricular arrhythmias. One of the impoant side-effect is corneal deposits. The deposits are in the corneal epithelium basal cell layer, and occur in stages (mild, moderate, and severe), which seem to correlate with dosage and duration of treatment. Vision is rarely diminished by these deposits, and if it is, discontinuation of the drug therapy will cause regression of the deposits with eventual return to normal beginning. The deposits look similar to those seen in chloroquine toxicity and Fabry's glycolipidosis. Other adverse effects repoed in the include thyroidopathy, cutaneous pigmentation, and neuromyopathy. Antimalarial drugs including Chloroquine, quinacrine, and hydroxychloroquine can cause changes in the cornea. Symptoms such as halos around lights, glare and light sensitivity may occur. There is no change in the person's visual acuity. Once drug therapy is stopped both subjective symptoms and objective corneal signs disappear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angular oral fissures is treated with- | [
"Riboflavin",
"Pyridoxine",
"Cynocobalamine",
"Vitamin C"
] | A | riboflavin deficiency causes glossitis , angular stomatitis, cheilosis Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 97e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about Medullary breast CA: - | [
"Good prognosis",
"Around 3rd-4th decade",
"BRCA 1",
"Desmoplasia less than typical breast Cancer"
] | D | Ans. (d) Desmoplasia less than typical breast Cancer(Ref. Bailey 27th Page 872)* Medullary cancer is comparatively common in young females* Soft in consistency* Poor prognosis* Triple negative ER, PR and HER 2 Negative tumor* Associated with BRCA 1 commonly* Desmoplasia is more than typical ductal adeno carcinoma breast | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person has fever and pain in thyroid gland. True statement is/are: | [
"Etiology is tubercular",
"T\n3\n & T\n4\n levels are normal",
"Increased ESR",
"Increased TSH"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate management for antrochoanal polyp in children? | [
"Caldwell Luc operation",
"Intranasal polypectomy",
"Coicosteroids",
"Wait and watch"
] | B | Endoscopic intranasal polyp resection is effective and and is the most popular procedure for the removal of antro choanal polyp even in paediatric patients. This procedure involves removal of antral poion of the polyp through the enlarged antrostomy with endoscopic visualization, and the nasopharyngeal poion of the polyp is removed transorally if large or transanally if size permits. Caldwell Luc maxillary antrotomy with intranasal antrostomy approach may be useful for complete removal of antral poion of the polyp for minimizing recurrence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Major signs according to the AIDS case definition of the WHO are all, except: | [
"Prolonged fever more than 1 month",
"Generalized lymphadenopathy",
"Chronic diarrhoea > 1 month",
"Weight loss > 10% of body weight"
] | B | WHO case definition for AIDS: In an adult or adolescent (>12 years) Major Signs: Prolonged fever more than 1 month Chronic diarrhoea > 1 month Weight loss > 10% of body weight Ref: Park, 20th Edition, Page 298. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iodine requirement in pregnancy and lactation is | [
"90 mcg",
"120 mcg",
"150 mcg",
"250 mcg"
] | D | Pre school Children - 90 mcg.
School Children ( 6-12 years ) - 120 mcg.
Adults ( > 12 years ) - 150 mcg.
Pregnancy and lactation - 250 mcg. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lung capillary volume is - | [
"50 ml",
"150 ml",
"300 ml",
"500 ml"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 150 ml o Total capillary blood valume in lung- 104 ml.o Total pulmonary capillary surface area - 70 m2o Volume of blood per alveolus - 4.7 x 10-7 ml.o Capillary surface area per alveolus - 23.4 x l04 cm2o Number of capillary segments - 280 x 109 | train | med_mcqa | null |
When ascitic fluid is a typical transudate but contains more than 250 WBC/Cmm the probable diagnosis is | [
"CHF",
"Tubercular ascites",
"Cirrhosis of liver",
"Cirrhotic ascites with occult peritoneal infection"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
M.C. site of Atopic dermatitis - | [
"Scalp",
"Elbow",
"Antecubital fossa",
"Trunk"
] | C | Most common site for atopic dermatitis varies with age Atopic dermatitis most often occurs where your skin flexes -- inside the elbows, behind the knees and in front of the neck Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2534 Phase age Sites Infantile Bih to 2years Scalp in infants 3-6months manifests as seborrheic dermatitis cheeks, extensors of extremities Childhood 2years till pubey-13years Flexors of extremities popliteal and antecubital fossa Adult After pubey Flexors of extremities | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renshaw inhibition | [
"Feedback facilitation",
"Feed forward inhibition",
"Feed forward facilitation",
"Feedback inhibition"
] | D | The feedback inhibition, also known as Renshaw cell inhibition, is known to occur in spinal alpha motor neurons through an inhibitory inter-neuron. In feedback inhibition, a neuron inhibits that very neuron (s) that excite it. In this way, firing of an action potential by a motor neuron of the spinal cord is followed by a phase of hyperpolarization (inhibition) of not only the same motor neuron but also many others in the neighborhood. The feedback inhibition is thus basically a post-synaptic inhibition but is classified separately because the inhibitor Renshaw cells are activated by collateral of the ventral horn cell rather an afferent neuron. This type of feedback inhibition is also seen in other pas of CNS as well. It serves to limit the excitability of the motor neurons. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 677,678,679 | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about HCG are all except : | [
"Lipoprotein",
"Radioimmunoassay > 6 days of conception",
"Secreted by corpus luteum",
"Non specific a and specific b - subunit"
] | D | Non specific a and specific b - subunit | train | med_mcqa | null |
Newborns as compared to adults eliminate lidocaine: | [
"More rapidly",
"More slowly",
"Variable",
"Equally fast"
] | B | Newborn infants have immature hepatic enzyme systems and hence prolonged elimination of lidocaine, bupivacaine, and ropivacaine. Ref: Miller's anesthesia-7th ed, Chapter 30. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A city with 800 deaths per year. In mouary body is stored for an average duration of 8 days with 80% occupancy in a year. What number of mouary beds are needed per day ? | [
"22",
"17",
"7",
"34"
] | A | Total number of bed = No. of deaths X average duration of storage = 800 X 8 = 6400 beds per year Bed needed Per day = 6400/365 = 17.5 beds per day This is true for 100% occupancy For 80% occupancy = 17/80 X 100 = 22 beds per day | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38-year-old woman complains to her physician of chronic pelvic pain that is much worse during her menstrual periods. Pelvic examination demonstrates an enlarged uterus with multiple palpable masses. Ultrasound shows that a large number of ball-like masses up to 6 cm diameter are present in the uterus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the ball-like masses in her uterus? | [
"Cervical adenocarcinoma",
"Cervical squamous cell carcinoma",
"Leiomyoma",
"Leiomyosarcoma"
] | C | Leiomyomas are benign ball-like masses that commonly form in the uterus. Cervical and uterine carcinomas tend to initially form a fairly superficial layer of cancer on the surface of the endocervix or uterine cavity, which may later become deeply infiltrative. Usually, no ball-like mass is produced. Leiomyosarcomas are very rare tumors, which form masses that are usually less regular in geometry than leiomyomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hydrops fetalis is associated with? | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Parvovirus B 19",
"Malaria",
"Tuberculosis"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Parvovirus B 19REF: Williams Obstetrics 22nd edition Table 29-8, Harrisons Internal Medicine 17th edition Chapter 177. Parvovirus InfectionsB19 infection during pregnancy can lead to hydrops fetalis and/or fetal loss. The risk of transplacental fetal infection is 30%, and the risk of fetal loss (predominantly early in the second trimester) is 9%. The risk of congenital infection is <1%.Infections causing non-immune hydrops:CytomegalovirusToxoplasmosisSyphilisCongenital hepatitisRubellaParvovirus B 19LeptospirosisChagas disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic discharging sinus with bone particle is seen in- | [
"Chronic osteomyelitis",
"Acute osteomyelitis",
"Subacute osteomyelitis",
"Garre's osteomyelitis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chronic osteomyelitis Clinical features of chronic osteomyelitiso The commonest presenting symptom is a chronic discharging sinus, a history of bone piece discharge from the chronic sinus is considered diagnostic of chronic osteomyelitis.o Pain is minimal or absent.o Generalized symptoms of acute osteomyelitis are not present except in acute excacerbations.o On examination there is irregular thickening of bone. Mild tenderness may be seen in deep palpation. Adjacent joint may be stiff.Radiological featureso Following are radiological features : -Thickening and irregularity of the cortices.Patchy sclerosisBone cavity : This is seen as an area of rarefaction surrounded by sclerosis.Sequestrum(Manipal 97): This appears denser than the surrounding normal bone because the decalcification which occurs in normal bone, does not occur in dead bone. Granulation tissue surrounding the sequestrum gives rise to a radiolucent zone around it. A sequestrum may be visible in soft tissue.Involucrum and cloacae may be visible. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common visceral aery aneurysm is: | [
"Hepatic aery",
"Splenic aery",
"Gastric aery",
"None of the above"
] | B | Although splenic aery aneurysm is rare, it is the most common visceral aery aneurysm. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 34. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The major fuel in the brain after several weeks of starvation is: | [
"Glucose",
"Fatty acid",
"b-Hydroxybutyrate",
"Glycerol"
] | C | Ans. C. b-Hydroxybutyrate(Ref: Harper 31/e page 210)In the prolonged fasting stage, 20% of brains energy is met by ketone bodies. Rest by available glucose. But after several weeks of starvation, ketone bodies provide the major metabolic fuel. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are anti craving agent for alcohol except: | [
"Lorazepam",
"Naltrexone",
"Topiramate",
"Acamprosate"
] | A | A. i.e. Lorazepam | train | med_mcqa | null |
Scrub typhus is caused by- | [
"R. tsutsugamushi",
"R. typhi",
"R. akari",
"R. conorii"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., R. tsutsugamushi DiseaseAgentInsect vectorMammalian reservoir1. Typhus group a. Epidemic typhusR. prowazekiiLouseHumansb. Murine typhus (Endemic typhus)R. typhiFleaRodentsc. Scrub typhusR. tsutsugamushiMiteRodents2. Spotted fever group a. Indian tick typhusR.conoriiTickRodents, dogsb. Rocky mountain spotted feverR.rickettsiiTickRodents, dogsc. Rickettsial poxR. akariMiteMice3. Others a. Q feverC.burnetiiNilCattle, sheep, goats.b. Trench feverRocholimaca quintanaLouseHumans | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common complication of TPN? | [
"Catheter related complications",
"Acidosis",
"Acalculous cholecystitis",
"Hypokalemia"
] | A | - Most common complication of central venous catheterization (CVC): catheter related sepsis - Most dangerous complication following CVC: pneumothorax | train | med_mcqa | null |
Materials used for injection thyroplasty are | [
"Collagen",
"Acellular micronized human dermis",
"Gelatin powder",
"All the above"
] | D | Injection of vocal cord with Teflon paste or gelfoam to augment and medialize the paralyzed cord so that the opposite healthy cord can easily approximate Ref: PL Dhingra Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Edition 6, page - 301 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main cytokine, involved in erythma nodosum leprosum (ENL) reaction is - | [
"Interleukin - 2",
"Interferon - gamma",
"Tumor necrosis factor-alpha",
"Macrophage colony stimulating factor"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young man following A presented with proptosis and pain in right eye after four days. On examination there is bruise on forehead and right eye. What is the diagnosis: | [
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis",
"Internal carotid aery aneurysm",
"Carotico-cavernous fistula",
"Fracture of sphenoid"
] | C | Ans. Carotico-cavernous fistula | train | med_mcqa | null |
Civatte bodies are found in: | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatophytosis",
"Vitiligo"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e, Lichen planus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Beta 1 antagonist used in congestive cardiac failure - | [
"Atenolol",
"Metoprolol",
"Salbutamol",
"Terbutaline"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metoprolol b-blockers used in CHF1. Cardioselective b-blockers (b-blockers)o Atenololo Bisoprololo Celiprololo Esmololo Metoprololo Nebivololo Acebutalolo Betoxalol2. Non-selective b-blocker with a-blocking actingo Carvedilolo Dilovalolo Medroxalolo BucindololoLabetalolo Bevantololo Nipradilol o Among all these following three are used most commonly -CarvedilolMetoprololBisoprolol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selenocysteine is derivative of which aminoacid - | [
"Serine",
"Alanine",
"Arginine",
"Glycine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serine o Selenocysteine is considered as 21" standard amino acid. o It is present at the active site of some enzymes that catalyze redox reactions, e.g. thioredoxin reductase, glutathione peroxidase, and the deiodinase (converts thyroxin to triiothyronine). o Biosynthesis of selenocysteine requires cysteine, serine, ATP and a specific t-RNA o Serine provides the carbon skeleton of selenocysteine. o Selenocysteine has a structure similar to cysteine, but containing the trace element selenium in place of sulfur atom of cysteine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Compound that joins glycolysis with glycogenesis and glycogenolysis is | [
"Glucose 1,6 biphosphate",
"Glucose-1-phosphate",
"Glucose-6-phosphate",
"Fructose 1,6 biphosphate"
] | C | Glucose-6-phosphate is an important compound that joins several metabolic pathways viz. glycolysis, glycogenolysis, glycogenesis, gluconeogenesis and pentose phosphate pathway. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of CMV retinitis in AIDS patient is | [
"Amantadine",
"Fludrabine",
"Oseltamivir",
"Valganciclovir"
] | D | Answer- D. ValganciclovirValganciclovir- pro-drug of ganciclovir that is taken orally and is as effective for both induction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are branches of celiac trunk EXCEPT | [
"Right gastric aery",
"Inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery",
"Cystic aery",
"Left gastroepiploic aery"
] | B | Inferior pancreatico-duodenal aery is a branch of the superior mesenteric (not celiac) aery.Celiac trunk is the aery of the foregut. It supplies all derivatives of the foregut that lie in the abdomen. Branches - 1. Left gastric aery - smallest of the three. It gives off-a. Two or three oesophageal branches at the cardiac end of the stomach. b. Numerous gastric branches along the lesser curvature of the stomach 2. Common hepatic aery - gives off-a. The gastroduodenal aery- the gastroduodenal aery runs downwards behind the first pa of duodenum and divides at its lower border into the right gastroepiploic aery and superior pancreaticoduodenal aeries. b. The right gastric aery c. The cystic aery 3. Splenic aery a. Pancreatic branches b. Sho gastric aeries c. Left gastroepiploic aeries | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10-year-old boy presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain. There is a past history of bronchitis but no history of pneumonia. On examination, there has been no significant increase in weight over the past 3 years, with flattening of the growth curve. Trace digital clubbing is noted. Most appropriate test to be ordered at this time is? | [
"Pulmonary function tests",
"Sweat test",
"Chest x-ray",
"Abdominal x-ray"
] | B | Sweat test. The most common cause of digital clubbing in children, other than cyanotic congenital hea disease, is cystic fibrosis. The history of bronchitis and of abdominal pain (probably secondary to malabsorption) is compatible with this diagnosis. Therefore, a sweat test is the best test to order. Pulmonary function tests are not diagnostic but may suggest obstructive pulmonary disease; a chest x-ray may show chronic changes; an abdominal x-ray may show dilated loops of filled bowel; and an IgE level may demonstrate allergies as the etiology of the bronchitis. Only the sweat test is diagnostic | train | med_mcqa | null |
ACRTI-RADS scan for thyroid nodule characteristics include all except: | [
"Margin",
"Echogenicity",
"Vascularity",
"Shape"
] | C | Ans: (c) VascularityColl Radiol 2017 May, 14(5), Page 587-595ACR TI-RADS is a reporting system for thyroid nodules on ultrasound proposed by the American College of Radiology.It is based on the following characteristic of the lesion:CompositionEchogenicityShapeMarginEchogenic fociRecommendationsTR1: No FNAC requiredTR2: No FNAC requiredTR3: >=1.5 cm follow up, >=2.5 cm FNACFollow up: 1, 3 and 5 yearsTR4: >=1.0 cm follow up, >=1.5 cm FNACFollow up: 1,2,3 and 5 yearsTR5: >=0.5 cm follow up, >=1.0 cm FNACAnnual follow up for up to 5 years | train | med_mcqa | null |
In fracture of penis involving rupture of tunica albuginea with intact Buck's fascia following would be noted clinically? | [
"Hematoma involving only the shaft of penis",
"Hematoma involving scrotal and perineal region",
"Penis, scrotum and abdominal wall",
"Penis scrotum and thighs"
] | A | A penile fracture occurs when the tunica albuginea of one or both corpus cavernosum ruptures due to direct trauma to the erect penis. It can be associated with paial or complete urethral rupture, or deep dorsal vein injury. The most common cause is sexual intercourse, but other causes include animal bites, stabbing, bullet wounds, and self-mutilation. On examination, the penis is acutely swollen but flaccid, discolored, and tender. If Buck's fascia remains intact, the hematoma involves the penile shaft only. This results in typical eggplant deformity. If Buck's fascia is disrupted, hematoma can extend to the scrotum, perineum and suprapubic regions. A retrograde urethrogram may be necessary to assure urethral integrity. Surgical treatment consists of hematoma evacuation and suture apposition of the disrupted tunica albuginea. Ref: Nicks B.A., Manthey D.E. (2011). Chapter 96. Male Genital Problems. In J.E. Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler (Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following used as a antibacterial | [
"Lytic bacteriophage",
"Lysogenic bacteriophage",
"Plasmid",
"Transposon"
] | B | B. i.e. (Lysogenic bacteriophage) (461, 56, 60-A 84- CP)* The segments of DNA between chromosomal and extra chromosomal DNA molecules within the cells are Transposons (Jumping genes)* Bacteria may possess extranuclear genetic elements consisting of DNA these cytoplasmic carriers of genetic information are termed PLASMOIDS OR EPISOMES, are capable of autonomous replication (Independent replicons) by their ability to transfer genes from one cell to another* Plasmids have become important vectors in genetic engineering**.BACTERIOPHAGES - are viruses that infect bacteria (Lytic agent was a virus and gave it the name bacterio phage)* Important role in the transmission of genetic information between bacteria by the process of transduction**Lysogenic conversion or phage conversion - used as cloning vectors in genetic manipulations. The presence of high concentrations of phage particles upto 108 per ml in some natural waters suggests that they may have role in the control of bacterial population (Antibacterial) in such environments* Bacteriophages are mostly needed for - Bacterial identification* | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not included in an adoption triad | [
"Adoptive parent",
"Adopted child",
"Hospital from which the child is adopted",
"Bih parent"
] | C | Adoption triad includes : Bih parents Adoptive parents Adopted child Adoption triad does not include the hospital from which the child is adopted. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The statement“The parietal layer develops gradually, becoming prominent when root formation is complete”Is | [
"FALSE",
"TRUE",
"Partially True",
"Can be completely True or False."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In those mammals which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once in a year ; the cycle is termed as : | [
"Follicular",
"Estrous",
"Menstrual",
"Luteal"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e. Estrous Estrous : It is cyclical period of sexual activity in non human female mammals, marked by congestion of and secretion by the uterine mucosa, proliferation of vaginal epithelium, swelling of the vulva, ovulation, and acceptance of the male by the female. During estrus, the animal is said to be "in heat". Also Know 7 Estrus cycle - The sequence from the beginning of one estrus period to the beginning of the next. It includes : * Proestrus Estrus Metestrus followed by Diestrus (period of quiescence). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hepatocelluar carcinoma is caused by | [
"Fumonisins",
"Aflatoxin",
"Ochratoxin",
"Tricho thecenes"
] | B | Aflatoxin produced by A. flavus can cause Hepatoma, Hepatitis, Reye's Syndrome, Hepatocellular carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old diabetic and hypertensive patient on amlodipine and glimepiride is posted for elective AV fistula creation for dialysis in view of acute kidney failure. What is your view as anaesthesiologist with regard to pre-operative orders | [
"Stop amlodipine but continue glimepiride",
"Continue amlodipine , stop glimepiride and switch over to insulin a day prior",
"Stop both amlodipine and glimepiride",
"Put patient on insulin and schedule surgery only after a week."
] | B | Anti hypertensive and oral hypoglycemic drugs should not be stopped. In a major surgery insulin should be started instead of oral hypoglycemic agents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A newborn presents with mid anterior abdominal wall defect. The House-surgeon is told that this swelling has a characteristic feature i.e spontaneous resolution at age of 5 years by his Professor. What could be the diagnosis? | [
"Patent urachus",
"Omphalocele",
"Ectopia vesicae",
"Umbilical hernia"
] | D | (Umbilical hernia) (1317-18- CSDT 12th) (1289,1355 B & L 24th) (980-Baily & Love 25th) * Gastroschisis is the most common abdominal defect (726- Nelson 18th) * Ectopia vesicae (exstrophy of the bladder) - Caused by the incomplete development of the infra-umbilical part of the anterior abdominal wall, associated with incomplete development of the anterior wall of the bladder owing to delayed rupture of the cloacal membrane {penis is epispadic, mons and clitoris are bifid the urethra is open, umbilicus is absent) * Patent urachus - a patent urachus seldom reveals itself until maturity or even old age. This is because the contractions of the bladder commence at the apex of the organ an pass towards the base. * A patent urachus because it opens into the apex of the bladder is closed temporarily during micturition and so the potential urinary system from the bladder is cut off Omphalocele - midline abdominal wall defect. When the defect is less than 4 cm it is termed a hernia of the umbilical cord; when greater than 10 cm it is termed a giant omphalocele Umbilical hernia - a fascial defect at the umbilicus less than 1cm in diameter close spontaneously by 5 years of age in 95% of cases. Greater than 1.5cm in diameter it seldom closes spontaneously. Unlike inguinal hernia, protrusion of bowel through the umbilical defect | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which type of variable “Social Class” is, if it has four categories-I to V and Class I is the highest social class and Class V is the lowest? | [
"Dichotomous",
"Ordinal",
"Nominal",
"Interval"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of these organs are not affected in autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 2? | [
"Parathyroid",
"Thyroid",
"Adrenal",
"Pancreas"
] | C | Ans. (c) Adrenal(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 1130; 8th/pg 1155-1156, Harrison 18th/ chapter 318)Autoimmune polyglandular syndromeDiseaseGeneCharacteristicsAPS-1AIRE (Chr 21q)Autoimmune Poly Endocrinopathy, Candidiasis, and Ectodermal Dystrophy Q (APECED),Hypoparathyroidism, rarely lymphomasAPS-2HLA DR3,CTLA-4Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, premature ovarian failure, vitiligo, type 1 diabetes mellitus, pernicious anemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about cornebacterium diphtheriae is all except? | [
"Deep invasion is not seen",
"Eleks test is done for toxigenicity",
"Metachromatic granules are seen",
"Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change . This has been asked so many times in most of the examinations :? . Toxigenicity of diphtheria is not due to chromosomal change, it is phase mediated. About other options . Diphtheria is a toxemia, the bacilli remain confined to the site of entry, where they multiply and form toxin. . Elek's gel precipitation test is an in vitro test for toxigenicity. . Metachromatic granules (volutin or babes Ernest granules) are seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lambda is meeting point of: | [
"Coronal and sagittal suture",
"Coronal and lambdoid suture",
"Sagittal and lambdoid suture",
"None of the above"
] | C | The lambda is the meeting point between the sagittal and lambdoid sutures. In the foetal skull, this is the site of the posterior fontanelle which closes at two to three months of age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 18yr old male presents with a draining sinus on his left leg with pus discharge and discharge of bony pieces since 3 months. the diagnosis is | [
"Chronic osteomyelitis",
"Ewings sarcoma",
"Osteoid osteoma",
"Cellulitis"
] | A | Chronic osteomyelitis is the most common complication of acute osteomyelitis. If infection persists, pus and tiny sequestrated spicules of bone may continue to discharge through perforation in involucrum(cloacae). The hallmark of chronic osteomyelitis is infected dead bone within a compromised soft-tissue envelope. The infected foci within the bone are surrounded by sclerotic, relatively avascular bone covered by a thickened periosteum and scarred muscle and subcutaneous tissue. This avascular envelope of scar tissue leaves systemic antibiotics essentially ineffective. * Secondary infections are common, and sinus track cultures usually do not correlate with cultures obtained at bone biopsy. * Multiple organisms may grow from cultures taken from sinus tracks and from open biopsy specimens of surrounding soft tissue and bone. symptoms Pain, swelling. Discharging sinus. Bone thickening. Deformity. Joint stiffness. Shoening of limb, Pathological fracture. Sinus track malignancy. ref : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin K dependent clotting factors are | [
"Factor IX and X",
"Factor IV",
"Factor XII",
"Factor I"
] | A | Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, proteins C, and S, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of fetal ventriculomegaly is ? | [
"Arnold Chiari malformation–I",
"Arnold Chiari malformation–II",
"Aqueductal stenosis",
"Dandy Walker malformation"
] | C | Hydrocephalus is characterized by an increased CSF volume with progressive ventricular dilatation (ventriculomegaly).
Obstructive or noncommunicating hydrocephalus/ventriculomegaly develops most commonly in children because of an abnormality of the aqueduct or a lesion in the 4th ventricle.
Obstruction of the aqueduct is the single most common cause of fetal and neonatal hydrocephalus/ ventriculomegaly.
Non obstructive or communicating hydrocephalus most commonly follows a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is usually a result of intraventricular hemorrhage in a premature infant. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Menadione (Vitamin K3) | [
"Can cause hemolysis in a patient with G-6-PD deficiency",
"Is the preparation of choice to antagonize the effect of warfarin overdose",
"Is useful to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn",
"Is given in large doses in patients with severe liver disease"
] | A | Menadione is fat-soluble synthetic vitamin K3. It can cause hemolysis in G-6-PD deficient individuals. In severe hepatic disease, large doses of menadione can further depress liver function. Menadione is not used to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn as it can cause kernicterus, instead phytonadione is used. Phytonadione is also the drug of choice to overcome the toxic effects of warfarin as it acts rapidly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The physiological impoant anion other than chloride is: | [
"Nitrate",
"Phosphate",
"Bicarbonate",
"Sulphate"
] | C | Ionic distribution(mEq/L) of ions in plasma is: Cl- :111 HCO3- : 26.2 PO43- :1 Proteins:17.2 Ref: textbook of physiology(page no:30) Volume 1 AK Jain 7th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Continuous prophylactic anticonvulsant therapy is not needed in a child with febrile convulsion with? | [
"Developmental delay",
"Family history of epilepsy",
"Typical simple Febrile fits",
"Persistent neurological deficit"
] | C | Ans. (c) Typical Simple Febrile fitsRef.: OP Ghai 8th edj556-57* Prolonged anticonvulsant prophylaxis for preventing recurrent febrile convulsions is controversial and no longer recommended for most children.* Antiepileptics such as phenytoin and carbamazepine do not prevent febrile seizures. Phenobarbital prevents recurrent febrile seizures but may also decrease cognitive function in treated children compared with untreated children. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Value of free residual chlorine in Drinking water should be: | [
"0.2 mg/L",
"0.3 mg/L",
"0.4 mg/L",
"0.5 mg/L"
] | D | It's should be minimum 0.5 mg/l (ppm) in drink water >= 1.0 mg /l swimming pool >=2.0 mg/l kill cyclops Measured by chloroscope | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for Obsessive compulsive disorder is | [
"Imipramine",
"Fluoxetine",
"Chlorpromazine",
"Benzodiazepine"
] | B | (B) Fluoxetine # FLUOXETINE (20-80 mg/day) is a good alternative to clomipramine & often preferred these days for its better side-effect profile in the treatment of Obsessive compulsive disorder.> Clomipramine, fluoxetine, and fluvoxamine are approved for the treatment of OCD.> Clomipramine is a TCA that is often tolerated poorly owing to anticholinergic and sedative side effects at the doses required to treat the illness (150 to 250 mg/d).> Its efficacy in OCD is unrelated to its antidepressant activity.> Fluoxetine (40 to 60 mg/d) and fluvoxamine (100 to 300 mg/d) are as effective as clomipramine and have a more benign side-effect profile. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Histogram is used to describe: | [
"Quantitative data of a group of patients.",
"Qualitative data of a group of patients",
"Data collected on nominal scale",
"Data collected on ordinal scale"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Quantitative data of a group of patients Statistical data are of two typesQualitativeQuantitativeQualitative data is one in which the size or magnitude of the characteristic or attribute cannot be measured.there is only one variable i.e. the number of persons and not the characteristic or attribute persons with the same charactersitic are counted to form specific groups or classes. eg: male/female, black/white, urban/suburban/rural, vaccinated/not vaccinated, treated/not treated.as seen in the example the attribute or characteristic, vaccinated/not vaccinated cannot be measured. Only the frequency of persons vaccinated or not vaccinated varies.Qualitative data are represented in Nominal or Ordinal scale.Quantitative data is one in which the characteristic or attribute is variable. It has a magnitude that can be measured. eg. : height, weight, temperature, blood pressure, pulse ratehere there are two variables, both the characteristic i.e. height or weight and frequency of persons. quantitative data are represented on Interval or Ratio scales.The statistical details presented, for easy viewing and understanding, in the form of tables, graphs and diagrams.Quantitative data can be presented through following graphs :Histogram Frequency polygon Frequency curve Line chart or graph Scatter or dot diagramQualitative data can be represented through following diagrams :Bar diagramPie or sector diagramPictogramMap diagram or spot map. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient with hypotension and cardiac disease best antidepressant is - | [
"Venlafaxine",
"Miazapine",
"Duloxetine",
"Cifaloprax"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Miazapine | train | med_mcqa | null |
GFR is measured with which of the following? | [
"Iodohippurate",
"Tc 99m – DTPA",
"Tc 99m – MAG3",
"Tc 99m – DMSA"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pneumocystis carinii is diagnosed by:(2001) | [
"Sputum examination for trophozoites and cyst under microscope",
"Culture",
"Positive serology",
"Growth on artificial media"
] | A | Ans: a | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laryngocele arises from: | [
"Vallecula",
"Laryngeal saccule",
"Laryngeal ventricle",
"Aryepiglottic fold"
] | B | Laryngocele is dilatation of laryngeal saccule. It may be congenital or acquired later in life when conditions exist to increase transglottic pressure, e.g. trumpet blower, glass blower or forceful use of voice. It can also occur if saccule is obstructed by laryngeal carcinoma.Once distended saccule may also appear outside larynx through thyrohyoid membrane presenting as an external laryngocele.Vallecula and aryepiglottic folds are common sites for laryngeal cysts due to blockage of ducts of mucous secreting glands. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease.' | [
"Anti-endomysial antibody",
"Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody",
"Anti-gliadin antibody",
"Anti-reticulin antibody"
] | A | Answer is A (Antiendomysial antibody) Antiendomysial antibodies have a high sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis of celiac sprue and show best performance for detection of celiac sprue. Antiendomysial antibody > Anti tissue transglutaminase antibody > Antireticular antibody> Antigliadin antibody Antigliadin (UP) Anti reticulin LIP Antiendomvsial Anti tissue Antibodies (AGM Antibodies (ARA) Antibiotics (Anti EMA) transglutaminase * First immunological * Second antibody * Antiendomysial antibodies antibody (Anti-tTGA) assay to be tested identified in literature have high sensitivity and * Major breakthrough for were antigliadin was the antireticulin specificity for the serological diagnosis of antibodies. antibodies. diagnosis of celiac disease. celiac disease. * The variability and * There are atleast 5 types * These antibodies are * Antitissue lower accuracy make of antireticulin antibodies directed against transglutaminase them unsuitable for but only one type is endomysium or antibodies (Anti-tTGA ) diagnostic and associated with celiac `Intermyofibril substance' are also highly sensitive screening purposes disease. of smooth muscle. and specific but * Antigliadin assays * These antibodies are not * The antigen recognized by performance of anti have been replaced very sensitive and are not these antibodies is 'tissue EMA is superior to Anti? by more specific and sensitive tests using other antibodies used in routine practice. transglutaminase'. tTGA Anti EMA and Anti-tTGA While the performance of Anti-EMA is superior to Anti - tTGA, the discovery of Anti-tTGA is seen as a major breakthrough. Why ? Anti-EMA Anti - tTGA * * Anti EMA are species specific reacting only with gastrointestinal tract of primates. They are identified using indirect immunoflorescence on frozen section of monkey esophagus. Interpretation of immunoflorescence assay is operator dependent and more liable to errors in less experienced hands. * * * ELISA based assays are available for detection of anti - tTGA. Initial tests used guinea pig antigen but now human recombinant tTGA are available. ELISA based detection is simpler and more accessible diagnostic test Recommended reading : Aicle on 'Diagnosis of celiac disease' by AIIMS faculty published in 'Indian Journal of Pediatric' 2006; volume 73 issue 8 (Available on internet) A recent systemic review of the diagnostic performance of the serological tests repoed in studies from 1996 to 2003 showed that in children: Parameter Anti-EMA Anti-tTGA (Human Recombinant) Specificity 100% (pooled monkey esophagus and human 95 - 95% (pooled + TG guinea pig and umbilical cord) human recombinant) Sensitivity 96% (monkey esophagus) 96% (human recombinant) Anti-tTGA is highly sensitive and specific but performance of anti EMA is superior to Anti-tTGA | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hallucinations which arises when a patient is falling asleep - | [
"Hypnagogic hallucination",
"Hypnopompic hallucination",
"Non specific hallucinations",
"Jactatio nocturna capitis"
] | A | Hallucinations just before falling asleep → hypnagogic hallucinations.
Hallucinations just before awakening →hypnopompic hallucinations. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a procoagulation protein ? | [
"Thrombomodulin",
"Protein C",
"Protein S",
"Thrombin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thrombin Coagulation Cascade o Coagulation cascade is a series of enzymatic conversions, turning inactive proenzymes into activated enzymes and culminating the formation of thrombin. o Thrombin then conves the soluble protein fibrinogen precursor into insoluble fibrous protein fibrin. o The blood coagulation pathway are divided into. 1.Extrinsic --> Activated by tissue factor. 2.Intrinsic --> Activated by factor XII (Hagmen factor). o In vivo coagulation is predominantly occurs extrinsic pathway. o Clotting is regulated by three types of natural anticoagulants. Antithrombin III --> Binds to heparin like molecule on endothelial surface and this complex inhibit factor II (thrombin), IX, X, XI, XIL Protein 'C' & 'S' --> These are Vit K dependent proteins. Thrombomodulin bind to thrombin and this complex activates protein 'C', which then, with the help of protein `S' as a cofactor, inactivates factor V & VIII. Tissue factor pathway --> Secreted by endothelium and inactivates tissue factor VII & factor X. inhibitor ( TFPI) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raspberry tumour is - | [
"Neoplastic",
"Inflamatory",
"Traumatic",
"Congenital"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the alternative for Epinephrine in ACLS? | [
"Low dose dopamine",
"Vasopressin",
"Desmopressin",
"Atropine"
] | B | Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 284
Vasopressin was used as an alternative, but no more used in ACLS
Vasopressin
In high concentrations, it raises blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction, and it has been shown to be effective in asystolic cardiac arrest
Vasopressin also is thought to cause cerebral vessel dilation and theoretically increase cerebral perfusion.
Vasopressin may be given IV/IO or by endotracheal tube.
40 units of vasopressin IV/IO push may be given to replace the first or second dose of epinephrine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment option for glaucoma includes all except: | [
"Trabeculectomy",
"Trabeculotomy",
"Vitrectomy",
"Viscocanalostomy /Sclerectomy"
] | C | C. i.e. Vitrectomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not the action of TGF? | [
"Anti-inflammatory",
"Proliferation of fibrous tissue",
"Inhibition of metalloproteinases",
"Anaphylaxis"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a cultural characteristic of B. anthracis? | [
"Medusa head appearance",
"String of pearl reaction",
"Inverted fir tree appearance",
"Bamboo stick appearance"
] | D | Ans. D. Bamboo stick appearancea. "Medusa head" appearance of colonies on solid medium is seen under microscopeb. "Inverted fir tree" appearance in gelatin stab culture.c. "String of pearl" appearance in culture medium with penicillin.d. Bamboo stick appearance is seen on gram stain as the bacilli form long chains. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is not used in first trimester MTP - | [
"Mifepristone and misoprostol",
"Dilatation and evacuation",
"Extra - amniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate",
"Manual vacuum aspiration"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Extra - amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate Methods of MTP (Medical Termination of pregnancy):A) First Trimester (Up to 12 weeks):1) Medical:o Mifepristoneo Mifepristone and misoprostolo Methotrexate and misoprostolo Tamoxifen and misoprostol2) Surgical:o Menstrual regulationo Vacuum aspiration (MVA or EVA)o Suction evacuation and or curettageo Dilatation and evacuationB) Second Trimester:o Prostaglandins; PGE1 (Misoprostol), 15 methyl PGF2alpha (Carboprost), PGE2 (Dinoprostone).o Dilatation and evacuationo Intrauterine instillation of hyperosmotic solutionsa) Intraamniotic hypertonic urea (40%), saline (20%)b) Extra-amniotic - Ethacridine lactate, Prostaglandins (PGE2, PGF2alpha)o Oxytocin infusiono Hysterotomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unilateral steppage gait occurs in all except | [
"L 5 radiculopathy",
"Sciatic neuropathy",
"Peroneal neuropathy",
"Distal polyneuropathy"
] | A | Steppage Gait, Equine Gait) Seen in patients with foot drop (weakness of foot dorsiflexion), the cause of this gait is due to an attempt to lift the leg high enough during walking so that the foot does not drag on the floor. , causes include peroneal nerve palsy and L5 radiculopathy. Conditions associated with a steppage gait Edit Foot drop Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease Polio Multiple sclerosis Syphilis Guillain-Barre syndrome Spinal disc herniation Anterior Compament Muscle Atrophy Deep fibular nerve Injury Spondylolisthesis Slipped Femoral Epiphysis ALS/PLS Reference Harrison20th edition pg 2245 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Organophosphates bind to | [
"Anionic site of AChEs",
"Esteratic site of AChEs",
"Ach",
"None"
] | B | (Ref: KDT 6/e p99-100) The active region of Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) has two sites i.e. an anionic site and an esteratic site. Anticholinesterase poisoning like Organophosphate compounds binds to esteratic site of AChE. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total dose of Levonorgestrel for emergency contraception | [
"1.5mg single pill",
"1.5 mg pill",
"7.5 mg single pills",
"O. 25 mg two pills"
] | A | Refer KDT 7tg/e Pg 322 Levonorgestrel 0.75mg two doses 12 hours apa or 1.5mg single dose should be taken within 72 hrs of unprotected intercourse for emergency contraception | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin A should be staed at the age of :- | [
"2 months",
"9 months",
"5-6 years",
"None of the above"
] | B | - Accordong to NIS Vit A should be staed at the age of 9 months & from then, should be given for every 6 months till 5yrs of age. - Hence, totally 9 doses of Vit A is given; i.e 17 lakh IU. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most radiosensitive tissue of body among the following is – | [
"Bone marrow",
"Spleen",
"Kidney",
"Brain"
] | A | Bone & cartilage are radioresistant.
Ewing's sarcoma, seminoma and GI epithelium are highly radiosensitive. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug recently approved to be used along with phenteramine in the management of obesity is | [
"Lorcaserin",
"Orlistat",
"Topiramate",
"Sibutramine"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
ALL - L3 cells resembles | [
"Mantle cell lymphoma",
"Burkitt's lymphoma",
"Hodgkin's lymphoma",
"Follicular lymphoma"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The school health programme came into vogue in - | [
"1946",
"1948",
"1950",
"1960"
] | D | parks textbook pf preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *in 1960,government of india constituted a school health committee to assess the standards of health and nutrition of school children and suggest ways and means to improve them . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism that does not contribute to counter current multiplier in nephron | [
"Active transport of sodium and chloride out of thick ascending limb of LOH",
"Water reabsorption in thin descending limb of LOH",
"Sodium reabsorption out of thin descending limb of LOH",
"Urea concentration in collecting duct"
] | C | Ref. Guyton. 13th edition. Page. 435
Countercurrent multiplication in the kidneys is the process of using energy to generate an osmotic gradient that enables you to reabsorb water from the tubular fluid and produce concentrated urine.
The three segments of the loops of Henle have different characteristics that enable countercurrent multiplication.
The thin descending limb is passively permeable to both water and small solutes such as sodium chloride and urea. The tubular fluid becomes steadily more concentrated or hyperosmotic (compared to blood) as it travels down the thin descending limb of the tubule.
The thin ascending limb is passively permeable to small solutes, but impermeable to water, which means water cannot escape from this part of the loop. The tubular fluid becomes steadily more dilute or hyposmotic as it moves up the ascending limb of the tubule.
The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs sodium, potassium and chloride. this segment is also impermeable to water, which again means that water cannot escape from this part of the loop. This segment is sometimes called the “diluting segment” | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 29 years old man with IDDM for the last 14 years develops sudden vision loss, has non–proliferating diabetic retinopathy, cause is – | [
"Macular oedema",
"Vitreous haemorrhage",
"Subretinal haemorrhage",
"Retinal traction"
] | A | Amongst given options, macular edema, vitreous hemorrhage and retinal traction (tractional retinal detachment) are common causes of vision loss in diabetic retinopathy.
Vitreous hemorrhage and tractional retinal detachment occur in Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (while the patient in question has non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy).
So, we are left with macular edema, which is the most common cause of vision loss in NPDR. However you should keep in mind a very important fact that macular edema usually causes gradual loss of vision and sometimes it may cause sudden loss of vision.
"Macular edema, a common cause of gradual loss of vision in diabetics" . — Practical ophthalmics by peter simmock
"Macular edema may cause sudden painless loss of vision, However, a patient with macular edema is likely to have blurred vision with gradual loss of vision". — Basics of ophthalmics | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pat's fracture is fracture of | [
"Lower end of tibia",
"Lower end of tibia + fibula",
"Lower end of tibia + Calcaneum",
"Calcaneum + Talus"
] | B | B i.e. Lower end of tibia + fibula Pott's fracture is bimalleolarQ and cotton's fracture is trimalleolar fractureQ. Name of Fracture Site of Fracture Jefferson's Fracture Atlas veebrae (C1) Hangman's Fracture Axis veebra (C2) Clayshovellers Fracture Spinous process of C7 veebraeQ Monteggia Fracture Dislocation Fracture of proximal third of ulnaQ with disolation of proximal radioulnar jointQ Galleazzi fracture Dislocation Fracture of distal third of radiusQ with dislocation of distal radioulnar jointQ Colle's Fracture Distal metaphyseal fracture of radius with dorsal displacement & angulationQ Smith's fracture (Reverse Colle's) Hand and wrist displaced volarly with respect to forearm in distal metaphyseal fracture of radius. Baon's Fracture Fracture through the aicular surface of distal radius with subluxation of wrist. Chauffer's Fracture Radial styloid fracture Night Stick Fracture Isolated fracture of shaft ulna Bennet's Fracture Dislocation Paial fracture of 1st metacarpal base with trapezium - metacarpal joint dislocationQ Rolando's Fracture Dislocation Comminuted intraaicular (T or V) fractures of base of 1st metacarpal Boxer's fracture Fracture neck of 5th metacarpal Maisonneuve's fracture Ankle fracture a/w spiral fracture of neck of fibula Ator's fracture Fracture neck of talus Pott's Fracture Bimalleolar (medial & lateral malleolar) fractureQ. Cotton's Fracture TrimalleolarQ (medial, lateral & posterior malleolar) fracture. Pilon (explosion) Fracture When a large force drives the talus upwards against the tibial plafondQ, like a pestle (pilon) being struck into a moar, causing damage to the aecular cailage & subchondral bone (into several pieces) Lisfranc's fracture dislocation Fracture dislocation through tarsometatarsal joint Chopa fracture dislocation Through intearsal joints March Fracture Stress fracture of 2nd metatarsal neck Jone's Fracture Fracture of base of 5th metatarsal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Medically most impoant form of UV radiation is - | [
"UV-A",
"UV-B",
"UV-C",
"None of the above"
] | B | B i.e. UV-B | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 75 years female patient with fracture neck of femur 1 month back, presents with 2 days history of altered sensorium & decreased urine output Urea is 140 mg/dl, creatinine is 2 mg/dl, Ca is 15.5 mg/dl. All of will be useful in immediate treatment except - | [
"GiveNS",
"Furosemide",
"Hemodialysis",
"Bisphosphonates"
] | D | Answer is option 4.. Bisphosphonates Bisphosphonates have a delayed onset of action beginning after days and are not recommended in patients with renal failure Furosemide saline and dialysis act immediately Ref Harrison 19/e p2481 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is epitheloid type of nevus cell: | [
"Type A",
"Type B",
"Type C",
"None."
] | A | Type B are lymphocyte like.
Type C are spindle shaped. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An albino girl gets married to a normal boy, What are . An albino girl gets married to a normal boy, What are | [
"None affected, all carriers",
"All normal",
"50% carriers",
"50% affected, 50% carriers"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., None affected, all carriers o Albinism as an autosomal recessive disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 9 year boy presents with nasal obstruction, proptosis, recurrent epistaxis from 3-4 years. Management includes -a) Routine radiological investigationsb) Embolisation alone should be donec) Surgery is treatment of choiced) Embolisation followed by surgerye) Conservative management is sufficient | [
"b",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | D | Nasal obstruction, proptosis and recurrent epistaxis from 3-4 years in a 9 years boy suggest the diagnosis of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
Routine radiological investigations e.g., soft tissue lateral film of nasopharynx; X-rays of paranasal sinus and base of skull; and CT scan (investigation of choice) should be done.
Surgery is the treatment of choice. Preoperative embolization and cryotherapy reduce the vascularity and therefore blood loss at surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Measles elimination criteria? | [
"< 1/1000",
"< 1/10000",
"<1/100000",
"<1/100"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., < 1/100000 WHO defines elimination of measles as the absence of endemic measles for a period of 12 months in the presence of adequate surveillance. One indicater of measles elimination is a sustained measles incidence < 1/100, 000 population. o In 2005, the World Health Assembly set a goal of achieving a 90% reduction in global measles moality by 2010 as compared with level in 2000. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protein purification and separation is done by all Except | [
"Chromatography",
"Precipitation",
"Electrophoresis",
"Densitometry"
] | D | Highly purified protein is essential for the detailed examination of its physical and functional propeies. It may require the successive application of multiple purification techniques. Selective precipitation exploits differences in relative solubility of individual proteins as a function of pH (isoelectric precipitation), polarity (precipitation with ethanol or acetone), or salt concentration (salting out with ammonium sulfate). Chromatographic techniques separate one protein from another based upon the difference in their size (size exclusion chromatography), charge (ion-exchange chromatography), hydrophobicity (hydrophobic interaction chromatography), or ability to bind a specific ligand (affinity chromatography).The most widely used method for determining the purity of a protein is SDS-PAGE--polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE) in the presence of the anionic detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS).Densitometry is a method to quantify the proteinsRef: Harper; 30th edition; Pg: 26 | train | med_mcqa | null |
BCG should be given: September 2005 | [
"Immediately after bih",
"At the age of 1 month",
"At the age of 6 months",
"At the age of 1 year"
] | A | Ans. A: Immediately after bih Bacillus Calmette-Guerin/BCG is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (weakened) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis, that has lost its virulence in humans by being specially cultured in an aificial medium for years. The bacilli have retained enough strong antigenicity to become a somewhat effective vaccine for the prevention of human tuberculosis. It should be given at bih. If missed at bih, it should be given at 6 weeks as per Indian National Immunization Schedule. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary bile acid is? | [
"Deoxycholic acid",
"Lithocholic acid",
"Chenodeoxycholic acid",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chenodeoxycholic acid Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are synthesized from cholesterol in liver. In the intestine some of the primary bile acids are conveed into secondary bile acids, i.e., deoxycholic acid (formed from cholic acid) and lithocholic acid (derived from chenodexoxycholic acid). Glycine and taurine conjugates of these bile acids are called as bile salts. For example, cholic acid is a bile acid, and its glycine conjugate (glycocholic acid) is a bile salt. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic amoebic keratitis is seen in - | [
"E. histolytica",
"Acanthamoeba",
"Naegleria",
"Haemoflagellates"
] | B | ACANTHAMOEBA SP Infection can be acquired by inhalation, ingestion or through traumatised skin or eyes, from contaminated water. It presents chiefly as two chronic conditions-- keratitis and encephalitis Chronic amoebic keratitis or keratouveitis, develops from the entry of the amoebic cyst through abrasions on the cornea. The large majority of such cases have been associated with the use of contact lenses. The picture resembles that of severe herpetic keratitis with a slow relapsing course, but the eye is severely painful in the amoebic infection. TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,CKJ PANIKER,6TH EDITION,PAGE NO33 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Differentiation between epididymo-orchitis and torsion testis can be done with which of the following? | [
"Grey scale US",
"Color Doppler US",
"Angiography",
"MRI"
] | B | Ans BUSG is quick, easily available and can be used to rapidly confirm or rule out diagnosis of torsion testes. Epididymo- orchitis will show increased vascularity while torsion testes while appear pauci/avascular. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the largest and most impoant muscle in the pelvic floor? | [
"Coccygeus",
"External anal sphincter",
"Levator ani",
"Obturator internus"
] | C | The pelvic floor is formed by the large levator ani (with pas including the pubococcygeus, puborectalis, and iliococcygeus) and the much smaller coccygeus. The small external anal sphincter lies below the levator ani and is not technically pa of the pelvic floor. The obturator internus is in the lateral wall of the pelvis. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 38. Anatomy. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basal exudates, infarcts and hydrocephalus are findings observed in Brain imagine studies. The most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Tubercular Meningitis",
"Viral Meningitis",
"Herpes encephalitis",
"Cerebral Malaria"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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