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A patient made a self-diagnosis of athlete's foot (tinea pedis) and began using a product advertised on television. The condition improved but did not clear and then the patient showed himself to a Dermatologist. A skin scraping was sent to the laboratory for culture, including culture for fungi. The fungal culture yielded a slow growing colony, which produced a few small microconidia. This is consistent with isolation of a dermatophyte of the genera | [
"Trichophyton",
"Microsporum",
"Epidermophyton",
"Trichosporon"
] | A | Tinea pedis is Dermatophytic infection of plantar aspect of foot
Caused by T. rubrum, E. floccosum and T. mentagrophytes.
It is frequently seen among individual wearing shoes for long hours.
Warmth and moisture produced by shoes are key factors in maintaining infection.
Trichophyton spp. generally produces abundant Microconidia with few Macroconidia and Microsporum produces few Microconidia.
Even though in this question it is mentioned that the isolate produced few Microconidia, I feel the most appropriate answer is Trichophyton, as Microsporum does not cause T. pedis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Swine Flu pandemic in 2009 was caused due to which strain: September 2010 | [
"H1N1",
"H3N1",
"H5N1",
"H7N1"
] | A | Ans. A: H1N1 Swine flu is also known as swine influenza, hog flu and pig flu. In 2009 the media labeled as "swine flu" the flu caused by 2009's new strain of swine-origin A/H1N1 pandemic virus just as it had earlier dubbed as "an flu" flu caused by the recent Asian-linage HPAI (High Pathogenic An Influenza) H5N1 strain that is still endemic in many wild bird species in several countries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The best method for hemoglobin estimation is - | [
"Sahli's hemoglobinometer",
"Cyanmethemoglobin method",
"Calorimetric method",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Main cause of diarrhea in children of developing country is | [
"EHEC",
"ETEC",
"EAEC",
"EITC"
] | B | Enterotoxigenic E.coli: diarrhea caused by ETEC is endemic in developing countries in the tropics. Common in all age groups. Traveler's diarrhea adheres to the intestinal mucosa which is mediated by colonization factor antigens. Produces enterotoxin which may be heat liable or heat stable. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 285 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non Immune Hydrops Fetalis is caused by: | [
"CMV",
"Parvovirus",
"HSV",
"HIV"
] | B | Non immune hydrops can be caused by a variety of causes. Among the infectious cause, parvovirus can lead to non immune hydrops. Hydrops fetalis refers to excessive accumulation of fluid in at least two fetal body cavities. It can be of two types, immune and non immune. Immune type result from hemolysis of fetal RBC by maternal IgG antibodies to fetal antigen. Non immune type, is the result of any non antibody mediated process that lead to hydrops. Ref: Fetal Medicine : Basic Science and Clinical Practice, 2nd Edition, Page 522; Ian Donald's Practical Obstetric Problems, 6th Edition, Page 218; William's Obstetrics, 23rd Edition, Page 627; Moffet's Pediatric Infectious Diseases : A Problem Oriented Approach, 4th Edition, Pages 377, 643. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Very high intraocular pressure, veically oval mid-dilated pupil and shallow anterior chamber is seen in: | [
"Primary open angle glaucoma",
"Acute primary angle closure glaucoma",
"Malignant glaucoma",
"Pupillary block glaucoma"
] | B | Ans. B: Acute primary angle closure glaucoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of anisocoria when 1% pilocarpine is instilled into the eye with abnormally dilated pupil, pupil remains dilated. Cause of anisocoria maybe- | [
"Adies pupil",
"Pharmacological blockage",
"Uncal herniation",
"Diabetic III cranial nerve palsy"
] | A | Pharmacological tests for suspected parasympathetic palsy. Pilocarpine test is used to determine if a dilated pupil is due to 3rd nerve palsy, pharmacological mydriasis, or tonic pupil. Pupil constricts to low concentration of pilocarpine (0.125%): Adies tonic pupil. Pupil constricts to usual concentration of pilocarpine (1 to 2%): 3rd nerve palsy. Pupil does not constrict with pilocarpine: mydriasis due to parasympathetic drugs, other conditions where dilated pupil does not constrict with pilocarpine are traumatic mydriasis and fixed pupil in irits. Ref AK khurana 6/e p 317 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old light-complexioned male presents with a solitary scaly plaque like lesion on his forearm present for many years. The lesion is 0.5 cm in diameter. Shave biopsy reveals intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma. (Bowen's disease) incompletely excised. Further treatment includes: | [
"Wide excision of the lesions and sentinel node biopsy",
"Referral for local radiation therapy",
"Excision and repair of this area, ensuring clear surgical margins",
"No further treatment indicated"
] | C | Bowen's disease represents an intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma (carcinoma in situ) and is seen in older patients. These lesions tend to have a long clinical course. Adequate excision is the recommended treatment as these lesions can become invasive squamous cell carcinomas and metastatasize. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The test which detects ONLY P. falciparum amongst the following is - | [
"LDH",
"HRP-2",
"Thick blood film",
"QBC"
] | B | Complicated P. falciparum malaria Severe malaria should be considered in any non-immune patient with a parasite count greater than 2% or with complications, and is a medical emergency (see Box 11.54). Management includes early and appropriate antimalarial chemotherapy, active treatment of complications, correction of fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance, and avoidance of harmful ancillary treatments. The treatment of choice is intravenous aesunate. Late haemolysis is a treatment side-effect in some patients. Rectal administration of aesunate is also being developed to allow administration in remote rural areas. Quinine salt is the alternative. Exchange transfusion has not been tested in randomisedcontrolled trials but may be beneficial for non-immune patients with persisting high parasitaemias (>10% circulating erythrocytes). Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) are a critical tool for malaria diagnosis in most endemic areas. The most common RDT target for the detection of Plasmodium falciparum is the antigen histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2). Indeed, parasites( specific for plasmodium falciparum) can delete the genes encoding these proteins and continue to transmit in communities. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1034 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Use of Intraaerial cannula in major surgery : | [
"Measurement of direct intra aerial BP",
"Sample for ABG",
"Drug injection",
"All"
] | D | D. i.e. All | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of endometriosis: | [
"Fallopian tube",
"Cervix",
"Ovary",
"Vagina"
] | C | Most common site of endometriosis is ovary other common sites are: fallopian tubes, pelvic peritoneum, uterosacral ligaments Others sites: Bowel Lung (periodic hemoptysis) Nose (periodic epistaxis) Eyes (periodic subconjuctival hemorrhage) | train | med_mcqa | null |
REPEAT QUESTION. Renal Calculi associated with proteus infection | [
"Triple phosphate",
"Uric Acid",
"Calcium Oxalate",
"Cysteine Stones."
] | A | Triple phosphate or struvite ( Calcium phosphate with ammonium magnesium phosphate ) is smooth and diy white. It grows in alkaline urine. Proteus being urea splitting organism splits urea to give ammonia and co2 whixh makes urine alkaline and promotes stag horn calculus ref : - Bailey and Love 27th edition ,chapter 76 , pg no 1406 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following attains adult size before birth - | [
"Ear ossicles",
"Maxilla",
"Mastoid",
"Parietal bone"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The common cause of bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia is | [
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Multiple sclerosis",
"Lead toxicity",
"Diphtheria"
] | B | Multiple sclerosis It is a demyelinating disorder of unknown etiology, affecting women more often than men, usually in the 15-50 years age group. Pathologically, the condition is characterised by a patchy destruction of the myelin sheaths throughout the central nervous system. Clinical course of the condition: It is marked by remissions and relapses. In this condition, optic neuritis is usually unilateral. Other ocular lesions include bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia and vestibular or cerebellar nystagmus. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:- 310 | train | med_mcqa | null |
On barium swallow which of the following will cause posterior impression: | [
"Left atrium",
"Aoic knuckle",
"Pulmonary sling",
"Aberrant right subclan aery"
] | D | Aberrant right subclan aery Grainger writes? "Congenital vascular lesions rarely cause oesophageal symptoms and are often demonstrated as a chance .finding. These include the impressions caused by aberrant right subclan aeries and right-sided aoic arches. The former produces the classic appearance of a posterior impression on the proximal oesophagus, which on the AP view gives a band-like impression as the k'essel ascends posterior to the oesophagus." Aberrant right subclan aery is a common embryologic abnormality of the aoic arch The aberrant aery arises just distal to the left subclan aery and crosses in the posterior pa of the mediastinum usually behind the esophagus on its way to the right upper extremity. Such course of this aberrant vessel may cause a vascular ring around the trachea and esophaugus. Dysphagia due to an aberrant right subclan aery is termed dysphagia lusoria. Palsy of the recurrent laryngeal nerve is termed Oner's syndrome. Pulmonary aery sling causes anterior indentation of esophagus Pulmonary aery sling is created by anomalous origin of the left pulmonary aery from the posterior aspect of the right pulmonary The anomalous left pulmonary aery courses over the right mainstem bronchus and then from right to left, posterior to the trachea or carina and anterior to the esophagus, to reach the hilum of the left lung. This compresses the lower trachea and right mainstem bronchus, producing upper airway symptoms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common presentation of adult Rhinosporidiosis is? | [
"Halitosis",
"Pain",
"Anosmia",
"Polypoidal mass"
] | D | The most common presentation of adult rhinosporidiosis is the protruding polypoidal mass through the nares and multiple site involvement. In the early stages, the patient may complain of nasal discharge which is often blood tinged and nasal stuffiness. Sometimes, frank epistaxis is the only presenting complaint. In the nose, the disease presents as a leafy, polypoidal mass, pink to purple in colour and attached to the nasal septum or lateral wall. sometimes, it extends into the nasopharynx and may hang behind the soft palate. (Ref: PL DHINGRA diseases of ear, nose and throat, 7th edition, page no 178) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Proctoscope is sterilised by: | [
"Autoclave",
"Glutaraldehyde",
"Formalin",
"Soap"
] | B | Glutaraldehyde | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infectivity of chicken pox last for - | [
"Till the last scab falls of",
"6 days after onset of rash",
"3 days after onset of rash",
"Till the fever subsides"
] | B | The incubation period of chickenpox is about 2 weeks. The patient is considered to be infectious during 2 days before and five days after the onset of lesions. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO:471 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood pressure is defined as the product of: | [
"Systolic pressure x pulse",
"Diastolic pressure x pulse rate",
"Pulse pressure x pulse rate",
"Cardiac output x peripheral resistance"
] | D | D i.e. Peripheral resistance x cardiac output The overall blood flow in circulation of adult at rest is about 5 liter/min which equals to cardiac output because it is the amount of blood pumped by hea per unit time. So Blood pressure = Cardiac output x peripheral resistanceQ or Blood flow (Q) x resistance (R) Venous returnQ = MSFP -- RAP MSFP = Mean systemic filling pressure = Right RAP atrial pressure RVR RVR = Resistance to venous return | train | med_mcqa | null |
Areola and papilla forming secondary mound in adolescent girls is classified under which stage of sexual maturity rating (SMR)? | [
"SMR Stage 2",
"SMR Stage 3",
"SMR Stage 4",
"SMR Stage 5"
] | C | Ans: C (SMR Stage 4) Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition. Pg 651Explanation:Classification of Sex Maturity States in GirlsSMRStagePubic HairBreasts1PreadolescentPreadolescent2Sparse, lightly pigmented, straight, medial border of labiaBreast and papilla elevated as small mound; diameter of areola increased3Darker, beginning to curl, increased amountBreast and areola enlarged, no contour separation4Coarse, curly, abundant, but less than in adultAreola and papilla form secondary mound5Adult feminine triangle, spread to medial surface of thighsMature, nipple projects, areola part of general breast contourClassification of Sex Maturity States in BoysSMRStagePubic HairPenisTestes1NonePreadolescentPreadolescent2Scanty, long,slightlypigmentedMinimal change.' enlargementEnlarged scrotum, pink, texture altered3Darker, starting to curl, small amountLengthensLarger4Resembles adult type, but less quantity; coarse, curlyLarger; glans and breadth increase in sizeLarger, scrotum dark5Adultdistribution, spread to medial surface of thighsAdult sizeAdult size | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schistosomiasis is transmitted by ? | [
"Cyclops",
"Fish",
"Snaile",
"Cattle"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Snails Intermediate host for schistosoma sp. is snail. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post-traumatic cataract: (E. REPEAT 2009) | [
"Christmas tree",
"Rossette cataract",
"Sunflower cataract",
"Shield cataract"
] | B | Ref: Multiple Sources. Kanski and Basak's Essentials in OphthalmologyExplanation:Type of cataractRemarksAfter cataract* Elschnig's pearls* Sommerring's ringAnterior polar cataract* Alport syndromeComplicated cataract* Polychromatic luster* Bread crumb appearanceCupulliform cataract* Senile posterior corticai cataractHeat cataract: Glass blowers cataract* Infrared raysOil drop cataract* GalactosemiaPosterior polar cataract Punctate cataract (Blue dot cataract)* Lowe's syndrome* Most common congenital cataractRadiation cataract* Posteror subcapsular cataractSnow flake cataract* Diabetes mellitusPosterior subcapsular cataract* Stercid induced cataractSunflower cataract* Chalcosis (Excess copper accumulation in lens)Traumatic cataract* Vossius rmc* Rosette cataractZonular (lamellar) cataract* Riders are seen* Hypocalcemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
The best time to treat a cross-bite is: | [
"When the roots are fully developed",
"When the roots are 2/3rd developed",
"Permanent dentition has completely erupted",
"As and when detected"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans? | [
"IgA",
"IgD",
"IgG",
"IgM"
] | C | IgG is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins in the serum, comprising about 80% of the total serum immunoglobulin.
There are four IgG subclasses IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, and IgG4—so numbered according to their decreasing concentrations in serum.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:96 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 57-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with new-onset seizures. She was witnessed by her husband to have a generalized seizure lasting approximately 1 minute. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for over 40 years. In the past 3 months, she has lost 25 lb in weight. On examination, she appears thin and nervous but findings on her neurologic examination are otherwise essentially within normal limits. Plain radiographs of the chest obtained in the emergency department show a 4-cm nodule in the upper lobe of her right lung. To exclude cerebral metastasis as a cause of her seizure, what should the next test requested be? | [
"An electroencephalogram (EEG)",
"A CT scan of the brain with intravenous contrast",
"A spinal tap to measure opening pressure and obtain CSF for cytology",
"An MRI of the brain with intravenous contrast"
] | D | An adult with new onset seizures is considered to have a brain tumor until proved otherwise. The best test available to detect metastatic deposits in the brain is the MRI with intravenous contrast. MRI is exquisitely sensitive in diagnosing brain metastasis, sometimes detecting them by the brain edema they induce even when the lesion itself is too small to be seen. The EEG may likely show the presence of seizure activity and even localize it to a particular region of the brain; it will not, however, answer the question of what pathologic process is responsible. Also, in this case, because a mass lesion is expected, performing a spinal tap is relatively contraindicated for the fear of inducing uncal herniation in a patient who may have increased ICP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lower end of humerus ossifies from how many secondary ossification centers | [
"1",
"2",
"4",
"6"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 4The humerus ossifies from one primary center and 7 secondary centersThe upper end ossifies from 3 secondary centers head (1" year)agreater tubercle (2' year)alesser tubercle (5th year).The lower end ossifies from 4 secondary centers which form 2 epiphyses.The center (fouh center) for medial epicondyle appears at 4-6 years, forms a separate epiphysis and fuses with shaft during 20th year. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During laparoscopy, the preferred site for obtaining cultures in a patient with acute PID is: | [
"Endocervix",
"Endometrium",
"Pouch of Douglas",
"Fallopian tubes"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. Fallopian tubesRef: Telinde Operative Gynae 9th/ed, p678, 679; Dutta Gynecology 6th/ed, p126According to:Dutta Gynae 6th/ed, pl30For identification of organisms in PID the materials are collected from the following available sources:* Discharge from urethra or Bartholin's gland* Cervical canal* Collected pus from the fallopian tubes during laparoscopy or laparotomy.The material so collected is subjected to Gram's stain and culture (aerobic/anaerobic). The findings of Gram-negative diplococci is very much suggestive of gonococcal infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are included in ‘High social safety net’ except | [
"High birth rate",
"High MMR",
"Reduction in institutional delivery",
"High lMR"
] | C | GDP growth for the previous financial year 2003-04 was at 8.5 per cent'.
he Central Statistical Organization Statistics 7.8 percent matches the figures closest and is the single best answer of exclusion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ocular features of retinitis pigmentosa include – | [
"Bony corpuscular appearance",
"Waxy pallor of the optic disc",
"Attenuation of the retinal arterioles",
"All of the above"
] | D | Clinical features of retinitis pigmentosa
Retinal pigmentary changes (Bone spicule intraneural retinal pigmentation) : - Retina studded with small, jet-black spots resembling bone corpuscles with a spidery outline. These pigmentary changes are typically perivascular and retinal veins (never arteries) have a sheath of pigment for part of their course. These changes affect equatorial region initially sparing the posterior pole and periphery. Later in the course of disease whole retina is involved.
Attenuated and thread like retinal arterioles and veins.
Pale and waxy optic disc (consecutive optic atrophy).
Thinning and atrophy of retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) in mid and far peripheral retina with relative sparing of RPE at macula. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dennis brown splint is used for - | [
"CTEV",
"Rocker bottom foot",
"Mannus valgus",
"Maanus varus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CTEV NameUseCramer-wire splintEmergency immobilisationThomas splintFracture femur-anywhereBohler-Braun splintFracture femur-anywhereAluminium splintImmobilization of fingersDennis Brown splintCTEVCock-up splintRadial nerve palsyKnuckle-bender splintUlnar nerve palsyToe-raising splintFoot dropVolkmann's splintVolkmann's ischaemic contracture (VIC)Four-post collarNeck immbilisationAeroplane splintBrachial plexus injurySOMI braceCervical spine injuryASHE (Anterior spinal hyperextension)Dorso-lumbar spinal injury braceTaylor's braceDorso-lumbar immobilisationMilwaukee braceScoliosisBoston braceScoliosisLumbar corsetBackache | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unpaired laryngeal cartilage- | [
"Arytenoid",
"Corniculate",
"Cuneiform",
"Epiglottis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Epiglottis o The skeletal supports of larynx is provided by Six cartilages, 3 out of which are paired (so there are total 9 cartilages). i) Unpaired Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis. ii) PairedArytenoid, Corniculate, cuneiform. | train | med_mcqa | null |
1st drug to be used in absence seizures: | [
"Phenytoin",
"BZD",
"Valproate",
"Carbamazepine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Valproate Choice of antiepileptic drugs (adults) Seizure typeInitial choiceSecond lineTonic-clonicPhenytoin,Carbamazepine,ValproateLamotrigine,OxcarbazepineMyoclonicPartialValproateCarbamazepine,PhenytoinLamotrigineValproate,Lamotrigine,OxcarbazepineAbsenceValproateEthosuximide,LamotrigineUnclassifiableValproateLamotriginePAEDIATRICS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sentinal lymph node for carcinoma penis is know as | [
"Delphian node",
"Darwins node",
"Cabana node",
"Virchan node"
] | C | Cabana Node ⇒ Superficial injuinal node is the sentinal lymph node for carcinoma penis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indications of ECT is/are -a) Psychotic depressionb) Catatonic schizophreniac) Cyclothymiad) Dysthymiae) Post traumatic stress disorder | [
"ac",
"ab",
"ad",
"bc"
] | B | Severe depression with psychotic features (psychotic depression) and catatonic schizophrenia are indications for ECT. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incompatible blood transfusion leads to all except | [
"Increased plasma bilirubin",
"Increased plasma prothrombin",
"Jaundice",
"Renal failure"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The dreaded complication of Rituximab is: | [
"Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy",
"AIDP",
"Bone marrow suppresion",
"Cardiac toxicity"
] | A | The dreaded complication of Rituximab is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy Ref: Harrison's principles of internal medicine, 18th edition ; Page 882. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In b-thalassemia there is: | [
"Excess a-chain",
"Reduced a-chain",
"Excess b-chain",
"Reduced b-chain"
] | D | d. Reduced p-chain(Ref: Ne/sosn's 20/e p 2349, Ghai 8/e p 341)In beta-thalassemia there is reduced b chain and relatively excess chain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Greening refers to: | [
"Greenish discolouration of porcelain due to escaping of silver vapours",
"Also known as wet strength of gypsum product",
"Observed in silica bonded investments due to drying of colloidal silica gel",
"All of the above"
] | A | Discoloration of the porcelain near the cervical region of the metal-ceramic prosthesis has been reported to occur when a silver-containing alloy is used as the substrate.
Color changes included green, yellow-green, yellow-orange, orange and brown hues.
This discoloration phenomenon has generally been called “greening.”
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 380 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antibacterial agent which can be used intranasally as the prophylaxis against recurrent S.aureus infection is: | [
"Cefazolin",
"Mupirocin",
"Gentamicin",
"Moxifloxacin"
] | B | Mupirocin is a simple agent which can be used intranasally as prophylaxis against S.aureus. Ref: Harrisons Edition-18, Page : 1148, Table-133/9. | train | med_mcqa | null |
PIN index of nitrous oxide is? | [
"5-Jan",
"5-Feb",
"5-Mar",
"6-Jan"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) 3-5REF: Morgan 4th ed p, 20PIN INDEX Air1-5NITROUS OXIDEOxygen2-5* Stored in blue cylinder* Pin index: 3-5* Liquid gas* 745 psi pressure* 1590 lit is the volumeNitrous oxide3-5Carbon di oxide1-6Helox2-4Entonox7 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structures passing through the aortic hiatus of diaphragm area) Aortab) Azygos veinc) Hemiazygos veind) Thoracic ducte) Sympathetic trunk | [
"acd",
"abd",
"abc",
"ab"
] | B | Aortic opening
- Level- T12
- At osseoaponeurosis between right and left crus
- Structures transmitted
Aorta
Thoracic duct
Azygos vein | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about fracture of the atlas veebra, except: | [
"Jefferson fracture is the most common type",
"Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases",
"Atlantooccipital fusion may sometimes be needed",
"CT scans should be done for diagnosis"
] | B | B i.e. Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases Jafferson fracture is burst fracture of ring of atlas (Cl) veebraeQ. In most cases it doesn't leads to neurological deficitQ. With the exception of pain or loss of sensation in the greater occipital nerve distribution neurological sequelae are uncommon and more likely to be related to associated injuries. It is most common type of atlas fractureQ. It is cause by axial compression forceQ (with or with out extension force), resulting from a fall on the head from a height or mass falling on head. This mechanism of injury results in a burst fracture of ring of atlas (C1) veebraeQ, that occurs secondary to the occipital condyles being driven into the interior poions of the ring of atlas and driving the lateral masses outwards. Lateral displacement of C1 lateral mass lateral the outer coex of the C2 lateral mass raises concerns for the structural integrity of the transverse atlantal ligament (TAL). The stability of atlas depends on TAL. Due to outward movement of lateral masses, there is no encroachment on the neural canal and, usually, no neurological damageQ. Classical Jafferson's fracture (as described by Jafferson in 1920) was four pa fracture of ring of atlasQ (2 pa of anterior ring & 2 pa of posterior ring). However more common are two pa or three pa fractures. It is tyically diagnosed on plain radiographs - pen mouth (odontoid) view may show asymmetry of the lateral masses of C1 on C2 with overhang. - A bilateral overhang > 6.9 mm suggest disruption of transverse ligament and potential late instability. - On lateral radiograph presumptive evidence of transverse ligament disruption is >4mm atlanto-dens interval. Coronal C T reformation provides the best method of evaluating impoant atlas fracture characteristicsQ. The treatment for isolated atlas injuries is typically nonoperative - Undisplaced stable injuries are managed by semi rigid cervical collar or halo- vest until fracture unites. - Unstable injury wit transverse ligament rupture (> 7mm displacement of lateral mass) is managed by halo traction f/b halovest immobilization for a total of 3 - 4 months. - If a late instability or nonunion is present, atlanto - axial (C1 - C2) ahodesis and atlanto - occipital (cervico- occipital) fusionQ. is done Fracture of atlas are associated with injury elsewhere in cervical spine in upto 50% of cases; odontoid fractures and hangman's fractures in paicular should be excluded. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incubation period depends on all except | [
"Individual susceptibility",
"Infective dose",
"Portal of entry",
"Size of the infective organism"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The primary action of leptin is: | [
"To increase food intake",
"To decrease food intake",
"To increase gastric contraction",
"To increase intestinal motility"
] | B | LEPTIN It is a 167 aa peptide secreted from adipocytes, blood leptin level reflects total body fat. Its primary action: To decrease food intake. It in CNS decreases NPY and alpha MSH. Leptin deficiency may lead to obesity. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, Edition-9, Page-8. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a squamous cell carcinoma marker? | [
"Vimentin",
"Dermin",
"Cytokeratin",
"Glial fibrillary acid protein"
] | C | The presence of cytokeratins detected by immunohistochemistry, points to an epithelial origin (Carcinoma) where as dermin is specific for neoplasm of muscle cell origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about chronic osteomyelitis except ? | [
"Reactive new bone formation",
"Cloaca is an opening in involucrum",
"Involucrum is dead bone",
"Sequestrum is hard and porus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Involucrum is dead bone Pathology in chronic osteomyelitis Chronic osteomyelitis occurs most commonly in long bones. Bone is destroyed or devitalized in the affected pa. Cavities containing pus and pieces of dead bone (sequestra) are surrounded by vascular tissue, and beyond that by areas of sclerosis due to reaction new bone formation, which may take the form of a distinct bony sheath (involucrum) Often sinus track leads to the skin surface; the sinus tends to heal and present down recurrently, but if a sequestrum is present it never heals permanently. This is because sequestra act as substrate for bacterial adhesion in much the same way as foreign implants, ensuring the persistence of infection until they are removed or discharged through perforations in the involucrum and sinuses that drain to the skin. Sequestrum Sequestrum is apiece of dead bone, surrounded by infected granulation tissue trying to eat the sequestrum away. The sequestrum is hard, rough, porus, light in weight and lighter in colour than normal. Normal pattern of bone is lost.(Note : Sequestrum in syphilis and TB is heavier than normal bone because sclerosis usually precedes the death of the bone). On x-ray, sequestra show up as unnatural dense fragments, in contrast to the surrounding osteopenic bone. Involucrum Involucrum is reactive new bone overlying a sequestrum. There may be some holes in the involucrum for pus to drain out. These holes are called cloaca. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false regarding Amestest | [
"Salmonella typhimurium is used",
"Mutated bacteria fail to grow in absence of histidine",
"It is used for testing mutagens",
"Developed by Bruce. N. Ames in 1970s"
] | B | Mutated bacteria can grow even in the absence of Histidine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true of febrile seizures except – | [
"Most commonly seen between 9 months and 5 years",
"Does not last more than 10 minutes",
"Almost invariably develop into epilepsy",
"Prognosis is good"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stage 2 block (Phase II block) is seen with: | [
"Suxamethonium",
"Isoflurane",
"Sevoflurane",
"Enflurane"
] | A | Ref: Miller Textbook of Anaesthesia. 6th edition.Explanation:Succinyl Choline - Mechanism of action1. Phase 1 block (depolarizing)Succinylcholine is the only clinically useful depolarizing blocking drug.Its neuromuscular effects are like those of acetylcholine except that succinylcholine produces a longer effect at the myoneural junction.Succinylcholine reacts with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarization of the motor end plate, and this in turn spreads to the adjacent membranes, causing contractions of muscle motor units.Because succinylcholine is not metabolized effectively at the synapse, the depolarized membranes remain depolarized and unresponsive to subsequent impulses (ie, in a state of depolarizing block).Furthermore, because excitation-contraction coupling requires end plate repolarization ("reprintmg") and repetitive firing to maintain muscle tension, a flaccid paralysis results.This so-called phase 1 (depolarizing) block is thus augmented, not reversed, by cholinesterase inhibitors.2. Phase II block (desensitizing)With continued exposure to succinylcholine, the initial end plate depolarization decreases and the membrane becomes repolarized.Despite this re polarization, the membrane cannot easily be depolarized again because it is desensitized.The mechanism for this desensitizing phase is unclear, but some evidence indicates that channel block may become more important than agonist action at the receptor in phase II of succinylcholine' s neuromuscular blocking action.Later in phase II. the characteristics of the blockade are nearly identical to those of a nondepolarizing block (ie, a nonsustained twitch response to a tetanic stimulus), with reversal by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All cranial nerves are confined to the head and neck with exception of | [
"One",
"Two",
"More than two",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The voice is not affected in - | [
"Unilateral abductor palsy",
"Unilateral adductor palsy",
"Partial abductor palsy",
"Total adductor palsy"
] | A | None of the given option is correct.
Only paralysis in which voice is not affected is bilateral abductor paralysis.
But in this question you can go ahead with unilateral abductor paralysis.
Though the voice is affected in early stages of unilateral abductor paralysis, it gradually improves due to compensation by the healthy cord which crosses the midline to meet the paralysed one. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most likely precursor to bronchiectasis is | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Carcinoma",
"Bronchial adenoma",
"Bronchopneumonia"
] | D | BronchiectasisAbnormal and permanent dilatation of bronchi.The bronchial dilatation of bronchiectasis of is associated with destructive and inflammatory changes in the walls of medium-sized airways, often at the level of segmental or subsegmental bronchi.Types of bronchiectasisCylindrical bronchiectasis Varicose bronchiectasis Saccular (cystic) bronchiectasis Aetiology & pathogenesisBronchiectasis is a consequence of inflammation and destruction of the structural components of the bronchial wall. Infection is the usual cause of inflammation.Adenovirus and influenza virusImpaired host defence mechanisms Carcinoid tumours or foreign body aspirationPrimary ciliary dyskinesia, Kaagener&;s syndrome and cystic fibrosis are also associated with bronchiectasis.Exposure to toxic substances like inhalation of toxic gases such as ammonia or aspiration of acidic gastric contentsClinical Manifestations:Radiographic findingsPersistent or a recurrent cough and purulent sputum productionHemoptysis due to bleeding from friable, inflamed airway mucosa.Massive bleeding from hyperophied bronchial aeries.Physical examination include crackles, rhonchi, and wheeze may be heard, all of which reflect the damaged airway containing significant secretions HRCT is an investigation of choice When seen longitudinally, the airways appears as"tram tracks"; when seen in cross-section, they produce&;ring shadows" Bronchiectasis of relatively proximal airways suggests ABPA, whereas the presence of multiple small nodules (nodular bronchiectasis) suggest infection with M. avium complex(Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18thedition, pg no: 2143-2144) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In glycolysis, the conversion of 1 mol of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to 2 mol of pyruvate results in the formation of: | [
"1 mol NAD+ and 2 mol of ATP",
"2 mol NAD+ and 4 mol of ATP",
"2 mol NADH and 2 mol of ATP",
"2 mol NADH and 4 mol of ATP"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The type mutation that leads to replacement of valine for glutamate in sickle cell disease is? | [
"Point mutation",
"Silent mutation",
"Nonsense mutation",
"None"
] | A | Ans. A. Point mutation. (Ref. Robbin's Pathology8th/pg. 873)Missense mutations and nonsense mutations are examples of point mutations, which can cause genetic diseases such as sickle-cell disease and thalassemia respectively.Point mutations result from the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in the replacement of one amino acid by another in the protein product. The mutation giving rise to sickle cell anemia is an good example.Frameshift mutations may result in severe genetic diseases such as Tay-Sachs disease.# Point mutations. Point mutations result from the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in the replacement of one amino acid by another in the protein product.a) missense mutations: The mutation giving rise to sickle cell anemia is an excellent example of a point mutation that alters the meaning of the genetic code.b) nonsense" mutations: In contrast, certain point mutations may change an amino acid codon to a chain termination codon, or stop codon. Such "nonsense" mutations interrupt translation, and the resultant truncated proteins are rapidly degraded.# Frameshift mutations: Frameshift mutations occur when the insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs alters the reading frame of the DNA strand.# Trinucleotide repeat mutations- characterized by amplification of a sequence of 3 nucleotides.- all affected sequences share the nucleotides guanine (G) and cytosine (C).- Another distinguishing feature of trinucleotide repeat mutations is that they are dynamic (i.e., the degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis).- For example, fragile X syndrome, prototypical of this category of disorders.Additional Educational points:In sickle cell hemoglobin (HbS), Val replaces the a6 Glu of HbA, creating a "sticky patch" that has a complement on deoxyHb (but not on oxyHb). De- oxyHbS polymerizes at low O2 concentrations, forming fibers that distort erythrocytes into sickle shapes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Optic neurities in children all symptoms are present EXCEPT: | [
"Afferent pupillary defect",
"Headache and vomiting",
"Pain on movement of eye ball",
"Sudden visionloss"
] | B | B i.e. Headache and vomiting Papilloedema (not papillitis) is caused by raised intracranial pressure and it presents with headache & vomiting . Features Papillitis (Optic neuritis) Papilloedema Aetiology Inflammation of intraocular pa of optic nerve Q (or optic disc). Non inflammatory Q hydrostatic oedema of optic disc due to raised intracranial pressure Q Laterality Usually unilateral Usually bilateral Onset Sudden Q Insidious Q Loss of vision Sudden and marked Q Depressed light brightness & coloured objects appear faded (pulfrich phenomenon). Gradual Q & negligible in the initial stage Recurrent attacks of transient black out (blurred vision) Q i.e. amaurosis fugax. Pupillary reflex Sluggish and ill sustainedQ Relative afferents papillary defect (RAPD or Marcus Gunn's pupil)Q Visual acquity & pupillary reaction remain normal until optic atrophy sets in Pain Present on ocular movements Q Absent Q Tenderness Present at inseion of medial rectus and superior rectus Q Absent Q Swelling of disc Moderate (2-3 dioptres) Marked (> 3 dioptres) Q Visual field defects Central or centro-cecal scotoma Q Enlargement of blind spot Q and concentric constriction of field Posterior vitreous Fine opacities Clear | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tonometer used for irregular surface of the cornea: | [
"Mackey Marg tonometer",
"Rebound tonometer",
"Dreger's tonometer",
"Maklakov tonometer"
] | A | Ans. a. Mackey Marg tonometer Mackey Marg Tonometer Concept is force required to keep the flat plate of a plunger flush with a surrounding sleeve against the pressure of corneal deformation. It is accurate in eyes with scarred, edematous and irregular cornea Perkin's Tonometer Perkin's Tonometer uses prism as Goldmann but is counterbalanced, so that tonometry is performed in any position. Prism illuminated by battery powered bulbs. Force is adjusted manually. It is poable Dreger's Tonometer Similar to Perkin's but uses different set of prisms and operated with a motor adjusting the force on these prisms Maklakov Tonometer It is constant force tonometer lop is estimated by measuring the area of cornea flattened by a known weight. It consist of dumbbell-shaped metal cylinder with flat end-plates of polished glass on either ends of diameter 10 mm. Tonometers weighing 5, 7.5, 10 and 15 gms are used to measure IOP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The preferred treatment of cubitus varus is | [
"Medial closing wedge osteotomy",
"Lateral closing wedge osteotomy",
"Medial opening wedge osteotomy",
"Lateral opening wedge osteotomy"
] | B | DeformityOsteotomyCubitus varusLateral closing wedge osteotomy, Medial opening wedge osteotomyCubitus valgusMedial closing wedge osteotomy, Lateral opening wedge osteotomy (Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 81) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mr. Surya Kant was prescribed a first generation H1 antihistaminic drug. He should be advised to avoid: | [
"Driving motor vehicles",
"Consuming processed cheese",
"Strenuous physical exertion",
"All of the above"
] | A | First generation antihistaminic agents cause sedation and impairment of psychomotor function. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The protection against small pox by previous infection with cowpox represents - | [
"Antigenic cross-reactivity",
"Antigenic specificity",
"Passive immunity",
"Innate immunity"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about melanoma of the anal canal is ? | [
"Present usually as anal bleeding",
"AP resection gives better result than local excision",
"Local recurrence at the same site after resection",
"Radiosensitive"
] | A | Answer is 'a' i.e. Presents usually as anal bleeding The anal canal is the third most common site for melanoma, following skin and eye. It's a rare tumor comprising less than 1% of anorectal malignancies. It is radioresistant and prognosis is very poor. Clinical presentation - average age is 50 to 60 yrs. - nonspecific symptoms are seen --3 bleeding, pain or anal mass. - usually misdiagnosed as thrombosed hemorrhoids. Treatment Melanoma is resistant to chemotherapy & radiotherapy Surgery offers the only cure but by the time the symptoms appear, the level of invasion precludes surgical cure in most patients. In these patients the disease has metastasized or is deeply invasive. A few patients presents with isolated local or locoregional disease that is potentially resectable for cure. The two surgical procedures used are - Wide local excision and - APR Recurrance is common and usually occurs systemically regardless of the initial surgical procedure. Local resection does not increase the risk of local or regional recurrance and APR offers no survival advantage over local excision. Because of the morbidity associated with APR. wide local excision is recommended for initial t/t of localized melanoma. APR may be required if the tumor involves a significant poion of the anal sphincter or is circumferential. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are cholinergic agents except - | [
"Galantamine",
"Donepezil",
"Tacrine",
"Memantine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Memantine Cognition Enhancers (Cerebroactive drugs) o These are a heterogenous group of drugs developed for use in dementia and other cerebral disorders. o Drugs are 1. Cholinergic activaters --> Tacrine, Rivastigmine, Donepezil, Galantamine. 2. Glutamate (NMDA) antagonist --4 Memanite 3. Miscellaneous --> Piracetam, Pyritinal (pyrithioxine), Piribedil, Dihydroergotoxine (Codergocrine). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a randomized controlled trial, the essential purpose of randomization is - | [
"To produce double blinding",
"To decrease the follow- up period",
"To eliminate the selection bias",
"To decrease the sample size"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., To eliminate the selection bias o Experimental studies are of two types ? i) Randomized controlled trials ii) Non - Randomized Randomized controlled trials (RCT) o Randomization is the hea of RCT. o Randomization is a statistical procedure by which the paicipants are allocated into study group (in which intervention is given) and control group / reference group (in which intervention is not given). o It is woh noting that randomisation is done while dividing the paicipants into study group and control (reference) group, and not while selecting subjects for study, i.e. randomization is done after the sample of subjects has already been selected. o Therefor, each paicipant has 'equal and known chance' of falling into either study group or control group. o Randomization is an attempt to eliminate bias and allow comparability. o It will give the greatest confidence that the groups are comparable so that "like" can be compared with "like". o It ensures that the investigator has no control over allocation of paicipants to either study or control group, thus eliminating what is known as selection bias. o That means, by random allocation, every individual gets an equal chance of being allocated into either group, study (experimental) group or control (reference) group. o Unit of study in RCT: Patient o RCT is of two types: Concurrent parallel design: Comparisons are made between 2 groups: 1) Experimental group: Is exposed to specific medication or intervention 2) Reference group: Is not exposed to specific medication or intervention Crossover design: Comparisons are made between 2 groups: 1) Experimental group: Is exposed to specific medication or intervention Reference group: Is not exposed to specific medication or intervention Then the groups are crossed-over (exposed group now becomes non-exposed and vice-versa). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non granulomatous uveitis- all are causes except | [
"Ankylosing Spondylitis",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Juvenile Idiopathic Ahritis",
"Posner Schlossman Syndrome"
] | B | Answer- B. Sarcoidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auditory hallucinations, features of affect, delusion of persecution occur in - | [
"Depression",
"Hysteria",
"Schizophrenia",
"Anxiety neurosis"
] | C | Auditory hallucination, disturbances of affect and delusion of persecution are seen in schizophrenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is a H2 receptor blocker? | [
"Cimetidine",
"Cetirizine",
"Pyrilamine",
"Atropine"
] | A | Cimetidine was the first H2 receptor antagonist used for the treatment of acid peptic disorders. Cimetidine may have weak anti androgenic side effects resulting in reversible gynecomastia and impotence, primarily in patients receiving high doses for prolonged periods of time. H2 receptor blockers like cimetidine, ranitidine, and famotidine inhibit gastric acid secretion but otherwise share no effects with H1 agents, do not produce significant intoxication. Also Know: Cetirizine have competitive antagonism/inverse agonism at H1 Receptors. It reduces or prevents histamine effects on smooth muscle, immune cells. It is clinically applied for IgE immediate allergies, especially hay fever, uicaria. Ethylenediamines (Prototype: Pyrilamine): These include some of the most specific H1 antagonists. Although their central effects are relatively feeble, somnolence occurs in a fair propoion of patients. GI side effects are quite common. Atropine sulfate, a naturally occurring antimuscarinic drug, competitively antagonizes the effects of acetylcholine and other muscarinic agents. It increases sinus node automaticity and AV conduction by blocking vagal activity. It thus has been termed a parasympatholytic drug. Ref: Skidgel R.A., Erdos E.G. (2011). Chapter 32. Histamine, Bradykinin, and Their Antagonists. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Attachment of the first rib is all except | [
"Scalenus posterior",
"Scalenus anterior",
"Scalenus medius",
"Parietal pleura"
] | A | The first rib has several attachments which are listed below; Anterior scalene muscle: scalene tubercle Middle scalene muscle: between groove for the subclan aery and transverse tubercle Intercostal muscles: from the outer border Subclavius muscle: arises from the distal shaft and first costal cailage First digitation of the serratus anterior muscle Parietal pleura: from the inner border Costoclavicular ligament: anterior to the groove for the subclan vein Ref -<a href=" | train | med_mcqa | null |
The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by the following Except | [
"Trapezius",
"Splenius cervicis",
"Sternocleidomastoid",
"Clavicle"
] | B | Posterior Triangle
The posterior triangle is a space on the side of the neck situated behind the
sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Boundaries
Anterior: Posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
Posterior :Anterior border of trapezius
Inferior or base: Middle one- third of clavicle
Apex lies on the superior nuchal line where the trapezius And sternocleidomastoid meet
Roof : Investing layer
Floor: Formed by a prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia covering
the following muscle: a. splenius capitisb. Levator scapulae; c.
Scalenus medius and occasionally scalenus posterior. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of cerebrovascular accident is : | [
"Embolism",
"Aerial thrombosis",
"Venous thrombosis",
"Haemorrhage"
] | A | Answer is A (Embolism): The most common cause of cerebrovascular accidents is embolism. Harrisons 16th has not classified ischaemic strokes into thrombotic and embolic events but into Atherosclerosis (4%), cardioembolic (17%), & others (64%). Neveheless even others (64%) include most commonly embolic events other than those of cardiac origin such as 'aery to aery embolic strokes' etc. and hence the answer stays the same. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensitivity is used to calculate: | [
"True negative",
"False positive",
"True positive",
"False negative"
] | C | Ans. (c) True positiveSENSITIVITY: Defined as ability of a screening test to identify all those who have disease (cases/ True Posiive) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fleischner sign on barium study is seen in | [
"Ileocecal TB",
"Crohns disease",
"Small bowel carcinoid",
"Typhoid"
] | A | Fleischner sign is seen in Ileocaecal Tuberculosis. In barium X-ray, Narrow ileum with thickened Ileocaecal valve is seen, which is known as Fleischner sign or Inveed umbrella sign. Reference : SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 576 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of meningococcal epidemic? | [
"A",
"C",
"Y",
"W-135"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., A Meningococcal meningitis (cerebrospinal fever) It is an acute communicable disease caused by N. meningitidis. Out of 13 serogroups, group A, B and C are most impoant. Group A is associated with epidemics and group C mostly with localized outbreaks, while group B causes both epidemics and outbreaks. Group 29-E, W-135 and Y also frequently cause meningitis. Reservoir - Human nasopharynx is the only reservoir Source of infection - carriers are the most impoant source of infection, not the clinical cases. Age group - Children between 3 months to 5 years. Outbreaks of meningococcal meningitis occur more frequently in the dry and cold months of the year. Period of communicability - until meningococci are no longer present in discharges from nose and throat. Cases rapidly lose their infectiousness within 24 hours of specific treatment. Meningococcal meningitis is a very fatal disease. In untreated cases moality is 80%. The disease is fatal in 5-10% of cases even with prompt antimicrobial treatment in good health care facility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can cause DIC during pregnancy except : | [
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Amniotic fluid embolism",
"Intrauterine death",
"Abruptio placentae"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Diabetes mellitus DIC is a pathological condition associated with inappropriate activation of coagulation and fibrinolytic system. It is a secondary phenomenon resulting from an underlying disease state. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common disease caused by CMV in a postrenal transplant patients: | [
"Pyelonephritis",
"Meningitis",
"Pneumonia",
"GI ulceration"
] | C | Ans. (c) PneumoniaRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1416* Most common viral infection following kidney transplant is CMV- which presents with Interstitial pneumonia | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Radionuclide imaging, the most useful radio-pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is: March 2011 | [
"Gallium-67",
"Technetium-sulphur-colloid",
"Technetium-99m",
"Technetium-99m linked to Methylene diphosphonate"
] | D | Ans. D: Technetium-99m linked to Methylene diphosphonate Applications of Tc-99m includes bone imaging (99m Tc tagged phosphorous compounds) Scans used for: Hot spot in MI: Technetium scan Pancreatic scanning: Selenium 75 Parathyroids: Sestamibi scan Renal GFR estimation: Tc 99DTPA scan Vesicourethral reflex: MAG3 Tc 99 scan Thyroid scan: 1-131 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45 year old female patient returns to your clinic with complaint of food lodgement in interproximal area of 47. On intraoral examination, 47 is restored with mesio-disto-occlusal amalgam restoration. Which type of matrix is used for this preparation? | [
"Automatrix",
"Compound supported matrix",
"Universal matrix",
"Ivory matrix"
] | A | When little tooth structure remains and deep gingival margins are present, the Tofflemire matrix may not function successfully, and the Automatrix system is beneficial. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Band test is done in ? | [
"RA",
"SLE",
"Scleroderma",
"PAN"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., SLE Band test (Lupus band test) Lupus band test is done upon skin biopsy, with direct immunofluorescence staining, in which, if positive, IgG and complement depositions are found at the dermoepidermal junction. This test can be helpful in distinguishing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) from cutaneous lupus, because in SLE the lupus band test will be positive in both involved and uninvolved skin, whereas with cutaneous lupus only the involved skin will be positive. The minimum criteria for positivity are: In sun-exposed skin : Presence of a band of deposits of IgM along the epidermal basement membrane in 50% of the biopsy, intermediate (2+) intensity or more. In sun protected skin : Presence of interrupted (i.e. less than 50%) deposits of IgM along the epidermal basement membrane, intermediate (2+) intensity or more. The presence of other immunoglobulins (especially IgA) and/or complement proteins (especially C4) increases the specificity of a positive test. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not make up the covering of femoral hernia? | [
"Peritoneum",
"Cribriform fascia",
"External spermatic fascia",
"None of the above"
] | C | The coverings of a femoral hernia are, from within outwards: the peritoneum, femoral septum, femoral sheath, cribriform fascia, superficial fascia and skin. A fibrous covering, the fascia propria, may lie outside the peritoneal sac and is frequently separated from it by adipose tissue.Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 67. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of - | [
"Dohle bodies",
"Hypersegmented neutrophils",
"Spherocytes",
"Howell-Jolly bodies"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Parvovirus in fection what is common in adult- | [
"Bone marrow aplasia",
"PRCA",
"Erythema infectiosum",
"Ahropathy"
] | D | erythema infectiosum followed by lymphadenopathy&ahralgia REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.554 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fredrickson&;s type II hyperlipoproteinemia is due to excess amounts of | [
"VLDL remnants",
"VLDL",
"Floating LDL",
"HDL"
] | B | Defective LDL receptors, Elevated LDL cholesterol which is derived from VLDL, Has coronary high risk and atherosclerosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non motile clostridia is - | [
"Cl. perfringens",
"Cl. novyi",
"Cl. botulism",
"Cl. difficle"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clostridium perfringens | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statement is false regarding Grave's | [
"Hyperophy/hyperplasia is due to TSH-RAbs",
"Cardiac failure is common",
"Goiter is diffuse and vascular",
"Remissions and exacerbations are not infrequent"
] | B | Grave&;s Disease (Diffuse Toxic Goiter)M/C cause of hypehyroidism, caused by stimulatory autoantibodies to TSH-RMore common in females with peak incidence between 40-60 yrsClinical FeaturesHypehyroid symptoms- heat intolerance, increased sweating and thirst, weight loss despite adequate caloric intake.Symptoms of adrenergic stimulation- palpitations, nervousness, fatigue, emotional lability, hyperkinesis, and tremorOlder patients present with CVS complications (CVF and CHF)In Grave's disease- Cardiac toxicity is less and CNS toxicity is more. In secondary thyrotoxicosis cardiac toxicity is more common.(Refer: Schwaz's Principles of surgery, 9th edition, pg no: 1353-1354) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Terminal mandibular molar anchor teeth requiring preparations involving the distal surface; retainer used is | [
"W27",
"W56",
"W7",
"W8"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Geographic lytic lesions in the vault of the skull with bevelled edges are seen with: | [
"Eosinophilic granuloma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Reticular cell carcinoma"
] | A | Ans. Eosinophilic granuloma | train | med_mcqa | null |
An Rh-ye woman became pregnant with Rh+ve fetus. Within few days after bih, the infant developed jaundice, ascites, hepatomegaly and edema. The likely substance (s) deposited in skin and sclera in jaundice is/are given below. Which is the best possible answer- | [
"Biliverdin",
"Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin",
"Unconjugated bilirubin",
"Conjugated bilirubin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubinIt is a case of erythroblastosis fetalis.o In erythroblastosis fetalis there is excessive breakdown of RBC's. Leading to increased production of bilirubin in the blood. This increased bilirubin is predominantly unconjugated but there is some increase in conjugated bilirubin too. "The canalicular mechanisms responsible for bilirubin excretion are also immature at bih, and their maturation may lag behind that of UGT1A1, this can lead to transient conjugated neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, especially in infants with hemolysis". o You should also know this impoant fact.o Hemolysis in otherwise normal individual results in purely unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phagocytic cells in placenta are : | [
"Hofbauer cells",
"Amniogenic cells",
"Hofmann cells",
"Uterine natural killer cells"
] | A | Hofbauer cells are round cells that are capable of phagocytosis and can trap maternal antibodies crossing through the placenta . These cells can express class || major histocompatibility complex molecules. Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 28. | train | med_mcqa | null |
FAST USG focuses on all of the following areas except | [
"Splenic",
"Hepatic",
"Pleura",
"Pelvic"
] | C | Answer- C. PleuraFAST focus only on four areas : -Subxiphoid area (pericardium)Right upper quadrant (liver)Left upper quadrant (spleen)Pelvis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Absence of rhizoids is the characteristic feature of | [
"Rhizopus",
"Absidia",
"Mucor",
"All the above"
] | C | Mucor species can be differentiated from moulds of the genera Absidia, Rhizomucor, and Rhizopus by the shape and inseion of the columella, and the lack of stolons and rhizoids Rhizoids are protuberances that extend from the lower epidermal cells Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 566 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Steroids are indicated in all of the following forms of tuberculosis except. | [
"Meningitis",
"Pericarditis",
"Ileo-caecal tuberculosis",
"Adrenal involvement"
] | C | Ans. (C) Ileo-caecal tuberculosis(Ref: Katzung 10/e p1263; KDT 8/e p319)*If used in intestinal tuberculosis, steroids can result in silent perforation, therefore are contra-indicated in ileo-caecal tuberculosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is of the following is not a content of inguinal canal? | [
"Spermatic cord",
"Round ligament",
"Ilioinguinal nerve",
"Pudendal nerve"
] | D | Contents of inguinal canal: Spermatic cord- in males Round ligament- in females Ilioinguinal nerve Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy – | [
"Well defined lesion",
"A mass of decreased density",
"Areas of speculated microcalcifications",
"Smooth borders"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Streptomycin is useful in treatment of | [
"Granuloma venerum",
"LGV",
"Syphillis",
"Chancroid"
] | A | A i.e. Granuloma venerum | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised: | [
"Serum HCG",
"Serum alphafetoprotein",
"Serum lactic dehydrogenase",
"Serum inhibin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wound attians max tensile strength by | [
"3 months",
"6 months",
"9 months",
"12 months"
] | D | Wound Healing * Different overlapping events:- Inflammatoryphase, proliferative phase and tissue remodeling; some sources cite vascular phase (hemostasis) as first phase. Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:-16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A diabetic patient develops cellulitis due to staphy-lococcus aureus that was found to be methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing.All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT: | [
"Vancomycin",
"Imipenem",
"Teicoplanin",
"Linezolid"
] | B | lmipenem: It is an extremely potent and broad-spectrum Beta-lactam antibiotic whose range of activity includes grampositive cocci, Enterobacteriaceae, Ps. aeruginosa, Listeria as well as anaerobes like Bact. fragilis and Cl. difficile. It is resistant to most Beta-lactamases; inhibits penicillinase producing staphylococci and some MRSA. A limiting feature of imipenem is its rapid hydrolysis by the enzyme dehydropeptidase I located on the brush border of renal tubular cells. An innovative solution to this problem is its combination with cilastatin, a reversible inhibitor of dehydropeptidase I, which has matched pharmacokinetics with imipenem (Half life of both is 1 hr) and protects it.Imipenem has propensity to induce seizures at higher doses and in predisposed patients. Diarrhoea, vomiting and skin rashes are the other side effects. Vancomycin: It is a glycopeptide antibiotic discovered in 1956 as a penicillin substitute which has assumed special significance due to efficacy against MRSA Strep. viridans, Enterococcus and Cl. difficile. It is bactericidal to gram-positive cocci, Neisseria, Clostridia and diphtheroids. However, in hospitals where it has been extensively used for surgical prophylaxis, etc., vancomycin-resistant Staph. aureus (VRSA) and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) have emerged. These nosocomial bacteria are resistant to methicillin and most other antibiotics as well. Linezolid: This is the first member of a new class of svnthetic AMAs &;Oxazolidinones&; which has become available for the treatment of resistant Gram positive coccal (aerobic and anaerobic) and bacillary infections. It is active against MRSA and some VRSA, VRE, penicillin-resistant Strep. pyogenes, Strep. viridans and Strep. pneumoniae, M.tuberculosis, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Clostridia and Bact. Fragilis. It is primarily bacteriostatic,but can exe cidal action against some streptococci, pneumococci and B. fragilis. Gram negative bacteria are not affected. Teicoplanin: It is a newer glycopeptide antibiotic which in fact is a mixture of 6 similar compounds. It is active against gram-positive bacteria only; mechanism of action and spectrum of activity is similar to vancomycin. Notable features are: * It is more active than vancomycin against enterococci, and equally active against MRSA. * Some VRE but not VRSA are susceptible to teicoplanin. * It can be injected i.m. as well; is excreted by kidney; dose needs to be reduced in renal insufficiency; has a very long tth (3--4 days). * Toxicity is less than vancomycin; adverse effects are rashes, fever, granulocytopenia and rarely hearing loss. Reactions due to histamine release are rare (1 in 2500). ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:708,709,732,733 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug is given to prevent IV transmission from mother to child – | [
"Nevirapine",
"Lamivudine",
"Stavudine",
"A bacavir"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6 year old female patient complains of pain due to a decayed lower right 2nd molar. During the treatment, patient becomes uncooperative and throws a tantrum. The dentist then asks the mother to step out of the operatory, after which the child begins to cooperate. The example demonstrated by the dentist falls under which type of conditioning, as described by Skinner? | [
"Positive reinforcement",
"Negative reinforcement",
"Omission",
"Punishment"
] | C | Omission (also called time-out), involves removal of a pleasant stimulus after a particular response. For example, if a child who throws a temper tantrum has his favorite toy taken away for a short time as a consequence of this behavior, the probability of similar misbehavior is decreased. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The gold standard test to diagnose PNH is: | [
"Bone marrow study",
"Sucrose hemolysis test",
"Flow cytometry",
"Genetic study"
] | C | The gold standard test to diagnose PNH today is flow cytometry. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 884 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23 years old female patient presented with sever diffuse hair fall for last 1 month. She had a major accident with severe blood loss 5months back for which she had to be hospitalized for 1 month. She is very anxious that all her hair will fall. Most likely diagnosis is? | [
"Alopecia aerate",
"Telogen effluvium",
"Anagen effluvium",
"Androgenetic alopecia"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Telogen effluvium Points in favor arei) Diffuse hair fallii) History of accident with blood loss (stress)iii) Hair loss after 5 months of accident | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemosiderin contains - | [
"Calcium",
"Iron",
"Magnesium",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron Hemosiderino It is hemoglobin derived, golden yellow to brown, granular or crystalline pigment in which form iron is stored in cells. When there is local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms hemosiderin granules. Thus hemosiderin pigment represents aggregrates of ferritin micelles. Under normal conditions small amounts of hemosiderin can be seen in the mononuclear phagocytes of the bone marrow, spleen and liver, all actively engaged in red cell breakdown. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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