question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Salter's Scale is a useful method employed in the field to measure: | [
"Mid arm Circumference",
"Length at bih",
"Skin fold thickness",
"Bih weight"
] | D | Bathroom weighing scale is unreliable instrument for measuring weight of children For field conditions, Salter's Spring Scale is quite satisfactory as it is easy to carry. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for controlling severe pain in cancer patients is: | [
"Morphine",
"Diclofenac",
"Ibuprofen",
"Codiene"
] | A | Morphine is a potent analgesic and relieves pain without loss of consciousness. Dull aching visceral pain is relieved better than sharp aching pain. Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism cultured in CSOM is | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Staphylococcus epidermidis",
"Staphylococcus pneumonia",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa"
] | D | Pus culture in both aerobic and anaerobic CSOM may show multiple organisms. Common aerobic organisms are Pseudomonas aeruginosa Proteus Escherichia coli Staphylococccus aureus While anaerobes include Bacteroides fragilis Anaerobic streptococcal (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 76) | train | med_mcqa | null |
25(OH) cholecalciferol is converted to 1,25-dihydroxy - cholecalciferol in: | [
"Skin",
"Lung",
"Liver",
"Kidney"
] | D | Ans. D KidneyRef: Ganong, 23rd ed. pg. 674 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following conditions are immediate priorities in the WHO's "Vision - 2020: The Right to sight" except- | [
"Trachoma",
"Epidemic conjunctivitis",
"Cataract",
"Onchocerciasis"
] | B | WHO has identified following five diseases for global elimination: -
Trachoma blindness and transmission
Cataract blindness
Onchocerciasis
Avoidable causes of childhood blindness
Refractive errors and low vision | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which investigation has been performed here to diagnose Edward syndrome? | [
"Karyotype",
"FISH",
"MLPA",
"Microarray"
] | B | - Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)- molecular cytogenetic technique that uses fluorescent probes to test for the presence or absence of specific chromosome regions. - Trisomy 18 ( Edwards Syndrome ) ( Mnemonic--ROCKY MOUNTAIN) * Rocker bottom foot * Overlapping fingers * Cardiac defects * Kidney malformations * MicrocephalY * Mental retardation Patau syndrome- Trisomy13 Down syndrome- Trisomy21 Turner's syndrome- monosomy X0 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sparrow marks are seen in - | [
"Gunshot",
"Windshieldinjury",
"Drowning",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Windshield injuryo Sparrow footmarks are multiple punctate lacerations on face, produced due to shattering of windscreen glass.Car (four-wheeler) injuriesSparrowfootmarks: Multiple punctate lacerations on face are produced due to shattering of windscreen glass into multiple small blunt edged fragments.Hinge fracture : Skull base fracture running along the petrous ridges through sella turcica, i.e. transverse fracture through middle cranial fossa.Ladder tears: Multiple transverse intimal tears in aorta, adjacent to main rupture.Seat belt syndrome: There are contusion, laceration, perforation and avulsions of small intestine, omenta, and mesenteries. There may be rupture of abdominal aorta, spleen, liver, pancreas, caecum; haematoma of lower abdomen; and fracture of lumbar vertebra.Whiplash injury : Acute hyperflexion followed by hyperextension of neck due to violent acceleration or deceleration force applied to (front seat) pessenger.Steering wheel impact type injury: It occurs due to sudden stop of car, throwing forward the driver; and throat may be crushed across top of steering wheel or horn ring. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a side effect of streptomycin? | [
"Phototoxicity",
"Hepatotoxicity",
"Ototoxicity",
"All of the above"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ototoxicity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements regarding ACE iinnhibitor is true. | [
"This inhibit the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1",
"Omission of prior diuretic dose decrease the dose of Postal hypotension",
"Lisinopril is sho acting than Enalapril",
"These are contraindicated in Diabetic patients"
] | B | This group of drug inhibitor enzyme kinases 2 or ACE. So this drug decreases the activity of RAAS. And also potentiate the action of vasodilatory of bradykinin Because these are prevented from conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2. So these can decrease the action of former but not later This group of drug is more effective in sodium depleted state like diuretic use, because activity RAAS is more in such cases. This drug may cause postural hypotension in diuretic treated patient | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of primary amenorrhea are all except | [
"Rokitansky syndrome",
"Sheehan syndrome",
"Kollman syndrome",
"Turner syndrome"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Sheehan syndrome Sheehan syndrome causes secondary amenorrhea.While Rokitansky syndrome, Kallman syndrome & Turner syndrome all are associated with primary amenorrhea Primary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menses:By 13 years of age when there is no visible secondary sexual characteristic development orBy 15 years of age in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inferior ophthalmic vein passes through: | [
"Superior orbital fissure.",
"Inferior orbital fissure",
"Both",
"None."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Black gun powder composition ? | [
"Charcoal 60% + Potassium nitrate 20% + sulphur 20%",
"Charcoal 25% + Potassium nitrate 70% + sulphur 05%",
"Charcoal 15%+ Potassium nitrate 75% + sulphur 10%",
"Charcoal 65% + Potassium nitrate 20% + sulphur 15%"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Charcoal 15% + Potassium nitrate 75% + sulphur 10% The classical gun powder is known as black powder, consists of charcol (15%), Sulphur (10%), and potassium nitrate (75%). Depending on fineness, the black gun powder is designated as FG, FFG, FFFG. etc. (F = fineness). Pyrodex is another gun powder with same components, but with different ratios. Black gun powder produces smoke, i.e. It is smoke producing powder. Smokeless powder, in addition to black powder, has nitrocellulose (single base), or nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine (double base), or nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine plus nitroguanidine (triple base). Semi smokeless powder has 80% black powder and 20% smokeless powder (nitrocellulose). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most impoant step in the repair of an indirect inguinal hernia is - | [
"Herniotomy",
"Narrowing of the internal ring",
"Bassini's repair",
"Transfixation of the neck of the sac"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Narrowing of the internal ring | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti-calculus agent in toothpaste is | [
"Cocoamidopropyl",
"Pyrophosphate",
"Fluoride",
"Lauryl sulphate"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an increased risk of breast cancer?a) Sclerosing adenosisb) Atypical hyperplasiac) Fibroadenomad) Florid hyperplasia | [
"c",
"d",
"bd",
"ac"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The prime objective of doing a medicolegal autopsy is | [
"Time of death",
"Cause of death",
"Manner of death",
"All of the above"
] | D | Objectives of Medicolegal autopsy: Cause of death Time since death Manner of death To establish identity when not known To collect physical evidence To determine live bih and bility in deaths of new born infants. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 29th edition, Chapter 5, page -61. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A nodule of 2 cm in left thyroid diagnosed as papillary Ca. Treatment of choice is: | [
"Hemithyroidectomy",
"Total thyroidectomy",
"Thyroidectomy with radical dissection",
"Radiotherapy"
] | B | Papillary adenocarcinoma accounts for 85% of cancers of the thyroid gland. The tumor usually appears in early adult life and presents as a solitary nodule. For papillary carcinoma over 1 cm, acceptable operations are near-total or total thyroidectomy. For solitary papillary carcinomas less than 1 cm, thyroid lobectomy is adequate treatment. Subtotal or paial lobectomy is contraindicated because the incidence of tumor recurrence is greater and survival is shoer. Ref: Clark O.H. (2010). Chapter 16. Thyroid & Parathyroid. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Froment test is positive in lesion of: | [
"Radial nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Axillary nerve",
"Median nerve"
] | B | Froment sign To perform the test, a patient is asked to hold an object, usually a flat object such as a piece of paper, between their thumb and index finger (pinch grip). The examiner then attempts to pull the object out of the subject's hands. A normal individual will be able to maintain a hold on the object without difficulty. However, with ulnar nerve palsy, the patient will experience difficulty maintaining a hold and will compensate by flexing the FPL (flexor pollicis longus) of the thumb to maintain grip pressure causing a pinching effect. Clinically, this compensation manifests as flexion of the IP joint of the thumb (rather than extension, as would occur with correct use of the adductor pollicis). The compensation of the affected hand results in a weak pinch grip with the tips of the thumb and index finger, therefore, with the thumb in obvious flexion. FPL is normally innervated by the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is primarily bacteriostatic ? | [
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Vancomycin",
"Rifampicin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Hybrid RNA-DNA, DNA is 5CTTAAG3. The sequence of RNA will be | [
"5CTTAAG3",
"5CUUAAG3",
"5GAATTC3",
"5GAAUUC3"
] | B | The RNA transcript with a 5' to 3' polarity is complementary to the template strand with its 3' to 5' polarity.
So, the complementary RNA of template DNA (5'CTTAAG3') will be 3'GAAUUC5' (i.e. 5'CUUAAG3'). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of analgesia is bya) Nociceptin stimulationb) Nocistatin stimulationc) Anandamide receptorsd) Nicotinic & cholinergic receptors | [
"abc",
"acd",
"abd",
"bcd"
] | D | Nocistatin stimuli inhibit nociceptors and produce analgesia.
Anandamide (a cannabinoid) produces analgesic effect by binding to CB1 receptors.
Acetylcholine and nicotinic cholinergic receptors (subunits α4 and β 2) are involved in regulation of pain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In venturi mask maximum O2 concentration attained is | [
"90%",
"100%",
"60%",
"80%"
] | C | Maximum concentration delivered by ventimask (venturimask) is 60%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of dissecting hematoma is | [
"Hypeension",
"Marfan's syndrome",
"Iatrogenic",
"Kawasaki"
] | A | Aoic dissection occurs when blood splays apa the laminar planes of the media to form a blood-filled channel within the aoic wall.Aoic dissection occurs mainly in two age groups: (1)men aged 40 to 60 with antecedent hypeension (more than 90% of cases); and (2) younger patients with connective tissue abnormalities that affect the aoa.Robbins Basic pathology, 9th edition, pg no.346 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aspirin in low doses produces long lasting inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase because: | [
"Platelet contain low quantity of COX",
"Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules",
"Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity",
"Platelet COX is inducible"
] | B | Aspirin in low doses irreversibly inhibits COX enzyme in platelets and the endothelium. Platelets lack nucleus and thus cannot regenerate COX whereas endothelium can synthesize fresh enzyme. Net effect of this process is the inhibition of platelet cox and thus, TXA2 synthesis. Low TXA2 level results in the anti-aggregation of platelets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Helicobacter pylori is not associated with ? | [
"Gastrointestinal lymphoma",
"Gastric cancer",
"Gastric leiomyoma",
"Peptic ulcer"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gastric leiomyoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tuberculin test is reaction of: | [
"Anaphyxis mediated",
"Cell mediated",
"Antibody mediated",
"Immuno complex mediated"
] | B | (Cell mediated): Ref: 196- CP, 160-AN 7thTypes of hypersensitivity reaction and their featuresType of reactionClinical syndromesType I (Anaphylactic IgE or region dependant)Antibodies (cytotropic IgE) dependent(I) Anaphylaxis(II) Atopy1. Theobald Smith phenomenon in animals (Guinea pigs) 2. Prausnitz - Kustner (PK) reaction (GI allergy to certain cooked fish)3. Casoni's test (skin test)Type II (cytotoxic or cell stimulating)Antibody mediated damage - Thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemiaType III (Immune complex or toxic complex disease)1. Arthrus reactions2. Serum sicknessType IV (Delayed or Cell mediated hypersensitivity1. Tuberculin (Lepromin, Frie's test, Histoplamsin and toxoplasmin test,2. Granulomatous type (Mitsuda reaction to leprosy Ag)3. Contact dermatitis (patch test)4. Graft rejection (chronic)5. Jones - Mole reaction (cutaneous basophil hypersensitivity)Type V stimulating type reaction: It is a modification of type II hypersensitivity reaction eg Grave's disease - in which thyroid hormones are produced in excess amountThyroid stimulating antibody (LATs) is a specific thyroid auto antibody to thyroid membrane antigens, LATs can cross placenta which may lead to hyperthyroidism in neonates.Antibody - Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity (ADCO Type VI hyper sensitivity reaction - While most workers prefer include the entity under immediate type (Type I hypersensitivity reaction) because of involvement of circulating Ig. ADCC is mediated through NK cells and the cytoplasmic mechanism is independent of compliment (206-C) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrange the following stages of family cycle in chronological sequence - | [
"Formation, Extension, Complete extension, Dissolution, Contraction, Complete contraction",
"Formation, Extension, Contraction, Complete extension, Coomplete contraction, Dissolution",
"Formation, Contraction, Complete contraction, Extension, Complete extension, Dissolution",
"Formation, Extension, Complete e... | D | Family life cycle Families are not constant; they are ever changing. A normal family-cycle is generally conceived as having six phases Such a model, however, tends to apply only to areas of low moality and requires amendment in high moality situations to reflect the early death of children and even the death of the mother before any of the children are old enough to leave hom.e. Moreover, "leaving home" is essentially an American and European phenomenon that has little relevance in many developing countries in Africa and Asia. A number of variations and exceptions, then, to the typical life- cycle such as the early death of children or one spouse, Divorce, childlessness, etc., need to be taken into account. Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 683 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic EEC pattern seen in surgical tolerance stage of anesthesia is? | [
"Alpha",
"Beta",
"Delta",
"Theta"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Delta | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient suffering from morning stiffness >1 hour, presents with the following abnormality in the X-ray. What can be the most possible diagnosis: | [
"Psoriatic arthritis",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Osteoarthritis",
"Relapsing polychondritis"
] | B | Ans. B Rheumatoid arthritisClassic Swan neck deformityQ (DIP joint flexion and PIP joint extension) with marked changes at the radiocarpal joint. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which aery is not ligated during caecum surgery | [
"Ileocolic",
"Right colic",
"Left colic",
"Right branch of middle colic"
] | D | Right hemicolectomy Carcinoma of the caecum or ascending colon is treated by right hemicolectomy. At open surgery the peritoneum lateral to the ascending colon is incised, and the incision is carried around the hepatic flexure. The right colon and mesentery are elevated, taking care not to injure the ureter, gonadal vessels or the duodenum. The ileocolic aery is ligated close to its origin from the superior mesenteric aery ('high-tie') and divided. Where the right colic aery has a separate origin from the superior mesenteric aery (around 10% of patients) this is separately ligated. The mesentery of the distal 20 cm of ileum and the mesocolon as far as the proximal third of the transverse colon is divided. The greater omentum is divided up to the point of intended division of the transverse colon. When it is clear that there is an adequate blood supply at the resection margins, the right colon is resected, and an anastomosis is fashioned between the ileum and the transverse colon. If the tumour is at the hepatic flexure the resection must be extended fuher along the transverse colon and will involve dividing the right branch of the middle colic aery. Extended right hemicolectomy Carcinomas of the transverse colon and splenic flexure are most commonly treated by an extended right hemicolectomy. The extent of the resection is from the right colon to the descending colon. The mobilisation is as for a right hemicolectomy but dissection continues to take down the splenic flexure and the whole transverse mesocolon is ligated. Some surgeons prefer to perform a left hemicolectomy for a splenic flexure cancer. Left hemicolectomy This is the operation of choice for descending colon and sigmoid cancers . The left half of the colon is mobilised completely along the 'white line' that marks the lateral attachment of the mesocolon. As the sigmoid mesentery is mobilised, the left ureter and gonadal vessels must be identified and protected. The splenic flexure may be mobilised by extending the lateral dissection from below and completed by entering the lesser sac. The inferior mesenteric aery below its left colic branch, together with the related paracolic lymph nodes, is included in the resection by ligating the inferior mesenteric aery close to its origin ('high-tie'). For full mobility the inferior mesenteric vein is also ligated and divided at the lower border of the pancreas. The bowel and mesentery can then be resected to allow a tension-free anastomosis. A temporary diveing stoma may be fashioned upstream, usually by formation of a loop ileostomy. This is usually undeaken if the anastomosis is below the peritoneal reflection of the rectum, because healing is more likely to be impaired distally. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1264 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Morphological features of celiac disease include all except: | [
"Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes",
"Increase in crypt: villous ratio",
"Distended macrophages with PAS positive granules in lamina propria",
"Elongated hyperplastic and touous crypts"
] | C | - Distended macrophages with PAS positive granules in lamina propria is feature of Whipple's disease not celiac disease. - Remaining all features given in other options are features of celiac disease. CELIAC SPRUE: Associated with HLA- DQ2/ DQ8 Caused d/t intestinal immune reaction to gluten - Major storage protein of wheat & similar grains T-cells & antibodies like anti-tissue transglutaminase Ab, anti-gliadin Ab & anti-endomycial Ab are involved. Celiac disease. (A) Advanced cases of celiac disease show complete loss of villi, or total villous atrophy. Note the dense plasma cell infiltrates in the lamina propria. (B) Infiltration of the surface epithelium by T lymphocytes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most halophilic vibrio ? | [
"V cholerae",
"V vulnificus",
"V alginolyticus",
"V parahemolyticus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., V alginolyticus V alginolyticus is most salt tolerant (most halophilic) species of vibrio. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are resected in whipples operation except ? | [
"Duodenum",
"Head of pancreas",
"Neck of pancreas",
"Common bile duct"
] | C | Whipples operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy) is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of pancreas. It includes resection of: - distal stomach - duodenum - gall bladder - proximal jejunum - CBD - regional lymphatics - head of pancreas Restoration of gastrointestinal continuity requires - pancreaticojejunostomy choledochojejunostomy & - gastrojejunostomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by: September 2012 | [
"Chlamydia",
"LGV",
"Syphilis",
"Gardnella vaginalis"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Chlamydia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shell teeth are more common in the_______type of dentinogenesis imperfecta(According to Sheild's classification) | [
"Type 1",
"Type 2",
"Type 3",
"Type 4"
] | C | In type I and type II, the interlocking at DEJ is absent.
Enamel chipps off easily. The defective dentine undergoes rapid attrition, but teeth are not susceptible to caries.
The most striking feature is the partial or total precocious obliteration of pulp chambers by continuous deposition of dentine.
"Shell teeth" refers to a type III - Valiant with thin shell of defective dentine underlying normal enamel. The pulp chambers are wide and large. (Type II according to revised classification)
The features may also resemble as in Type I and Type II. Roots are short with nb signs of resorption.
Shell teeth are more common in this variant of dentinogenesis imperfecta ___ (Kar 01) (Type III)
Absence of pulp chambers is seen in __(Man 97) (Dentinogenesis imperfect) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Theory which says about disease due to social strain | [
"Marxist",
"Parsonian",
"Foucauldian",
"Feminist"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prostaglandin was discovered from | [
"Tear",
"Saliva",
"Seminal fluid",
"Blood"
] | C | Prostaglandins were believed to be pa of the prostatic secretions, and eventually were discovered to be produced by the seminal vesicles. ... The biochemists Sune K. Bergstrom, Bengt I. Samuelsson and John R. Vane jointly received the 1982 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their research on prostaglandins. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Telephone scatologia is considered as a form of: | [
"Voyeurism",
"Exhibitionism",
"Fetichism",
"Sadism"
] | B | Telephone Scatologia :- Making obscene telephone calls for sexual pleasure is known as Telephone Scatologia It is considered a form of Exhibitionism. Vouyrism/Peeping Tom:- by watching the private acts of Female Sadism :- sexual gratification by infliction of pain Fetichism :- sexual gratification with inanimate objects | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shape of stab wound depends on - | [
"Edge of weapon",
"Shape of weapon",
"Width",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., AH of the above o A stab wound is an injury caused by a more or less sharp pointed weapon when it is driven in through the skin and its depth is the greatest dimension.o The size and shape of the stab wound in the skin is dependent on the type of weapon, cutting surface, edge sharpness, width and shape of weapon, body region stabbed, the angle of withdrawal, the direction of thurst, the movement of blade in body, cleavage direction, movement of person stabbed and the condition of tension or relaxation of skin.o With a double-edged weapon the shape of the wound will be elliptical or slit like and both angles will be sharp or pointed.o With a single-edged weapon, the shape will be triangular or wedge shaped and one angle of the wound will be sharp, the other rounded, blunt, or squared-off. Blunt end on the skin may have small splits, so-called "fish-tailing" if the back edge of the blade is heavy,o A spear or another round object causes a circular wound. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal treatment of rhinosporidiosis is | [
"Rifampicin",
"Dapsone",
"Excision with cautery at base",
"Laser"
] | C | Rhinosporodiosis * Rhinosporodiosis is a Fungal Granuloma. * Agent : Rhinosporidium seeberi. * Source : Contaminated water of ponds. Clinical features:- * Leafy polypoidal mass, pink to purple in color studded with while dots (Strawberry appearance). * It is highly vascular and bleeds on touch. * Patients complain of blood tinged nasal discharge/epistaxis Diagnosis:- * Biopsy shows several sporangia filled with spores. * Treatment - Complete excision of mass with diathermy knife and cauterization of base. * Recurrence is common after surgery. Ref:- Dhingra 5th edition pg num:- 174 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of anterior polar cataract – | [
"Diabetes",
"Perforating corneal injury",
"Irradiation",
"Chalcosis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Fecal" leucocytes are absent in all of the following, except: | [
"Giardiasis",
"Cryptosporidiosis",
"Campylobacter infection",
"Clostridium perfringes infection"
] | C | Campylobacter infection | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of IVC obstruction, the collateral which opens up are all except | [
"Superior epigastric & inferior epigastric vein",
"Azygos& ascending lumbar vein",
"Superficial epigastric & ileolumbar vein",
"Lateral thoracic veins & preveebral vein"
] | C | Superficial epigastric vein drains into the femoral vein&ileo lumbar vein drains into common iliac vein Ref: Gray's 39e/p10 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Potassium (K+) is the most abundant intracellular cation. Highest concentration of potassium is seen in: | [
"Bile",
"Pancreatic juice",
"Ileal secretions",
"Rectum"
] | D | There is evidence that active potassium secretion occurs in the distal colon. This secretion combined with potassium in bacteria and colonic mucous in stool may explain the relatively high concentration of potassium, 50-90 mmol/L, in stool. Ref: Essentials of General Surgery, 4e edited by Peter F. Lawrence, Richard M. Bell, Merril T. Dayton, 2006, Page 55. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Friedlanders bacillus also known as: | [
"E. coli Pattern",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa",
"Klebsiella pneumoniae",
"Vibrio parahemolyticus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Klebsiella pneumoniae(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 280 and 8th/e, p. 278)"Klebsiella pneumoniae is also known as Friedlander's bacillus or Bacillus mucosus capsulatus."(Karl Friedlander, 1847-1887, German bacteriologist) - who helped discover the bacterial cause of pneumonia in 1882. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient with jaundice and white stools. Which of the following enzymes is not raised | [
"5' nucleotidase",
"Alkaline phosphatase",
"Glutamate reductase",
"Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase"
] | C | Large increase in gamma glutamyl transferase and ALP ours biliary obstruction (Davidson; page 929) 5&;nucleotidase rise parallels ALP but more specific for diseases of hepatic origin (Harsh mohan page 594) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Kawasaki disease are true, Except: | [
"Immunoglobulin are the treatment of choice",
"Prognosis is good",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Elevated ESR"
] | C | Answer is C (Thrombocytopenia) : Kawasaki disease is associated with thrombocytosis and not thrombocytopenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly ? | [
"Alprostadil",
"Aspirin",
"Ibuprofen",
"Prednisolone"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman is a carrier for an X-linked disease. The disease frequency in the population is 1 in 2,000. What fraction of women in this population are carriers for this particular disease? | [
"1 in 500",
"1 in 1,000",
"1 in 1,500",
"1 in 2,000"
] | B | If one squares p+q=1, the Hardy-Weinberg equation is realized, p2+2pq+q2=1.(1). p2 represents the frequency of AA homozygotes in the population (wild-type).(2). q2 represents the frequency of aa homozygotes in the population (those with the autosomal recessive disease).(3). 2pq represents the frequency of carriers (heterozygotes) in the population.For an X-linked disease, it is important to realize that the disease frequency is the same as the gene frequency. Males only have one X chromosome, so if the disease frequency is 1 in 2,000, then 1 in 2,000 X chromosomes will carry the mutation. As females contain two X chromosomes, 1,000 women will represent 2,000 X chromosomes, so the carrier frequency is 1 in 1,000. Using Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, q=1 in 2,000, p is very close to 1 (1,999/2,000), so 2pq is 1 in 1,000. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in: | [
"Fluorosis",
"Archondoplasia",
"Renal osteodystrophy",
"Marfan s syndrome"
] | C | Renal osteodystrophy may produce a 'rugger jersy' (striped) appearance in lateral X-rays of the spine, due to alternating bonds of increased and decreased bone density. Ref: Apley's System of Ohopedics and Fractures, 8th Edition, Page 124; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1225-29. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The shape of eyeball is | [
"Ovoid",
"Circular",
"Sphero - ovoid",
"Ablate spheroid"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trans-esophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is superior to trans-thoracic echocardiogram (TTE) because of | [
"Convenient",
"Is more sensitive in picking up left ventricular apical thrombus",
"Is more sensitive in picking up atheromatous plaques in ascending thoracic aorta",
"TTE is more sensitive in picking up atrial appendage thrombus"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glottic chink, in cadaveric positions of vocal cords is | [
"3 mm",
"3.5 mm",
"7 mm",
"19 mm"
] | C | Glottic chink It is the distance between the vocal cords. In cadaveric position--the vocal cords are 3.5 mm away from midline, so the distance between them i.e glottic chink is 7 mm. Similary in full abduction it is about 19 mm. Ref:- Mohan Bansal; pg num:- 374 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Internal podalic version is done in | [
"Complete breech delivery",
"Frank breech delivery",
"Delivery of aftercoming twin",
"Preterm breech delivery"
] | C | Internal podalic version is done for only delivery of second twin (Transverse lie). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Accumulation of sphingomyelin in lysosome occurs in which disease - | [
"Niemann-Pick disease",
"Farber's disease",
"Tay Sach's disease",
"Krabbe's disease"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Niemann-Pick disease o Gaucher's disease is due to deficiency of b-glucosidase (glucocerebrosidase).DiseaseEnzyme deficiencyLipid accumulatedTay-sach diseaseHexosaminidase AGM2 gangliosideSandoff diseaseHexosaminidase BGM2 gangliosideNiemann-Pick diseaseSphingomyelinaseSphingomyelineFarber's diseaseCeramidaseAcyl-sphingosine (ceramide)Fabry's diseasea-galactosidaseGlobotrisylceramideKrabbe's diseaseb-galactosidase (Galactosylceramidase)GalactosylceramideGaucher's diseaseb-glucosidase (glucocerebrosidase)GlucosylceramideMetachromatic leukodystrophyArylsulfatase A3-Sulfogalactosylceramide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest lesion in middle mediastinum is | [
"Lipoma",
"Aneurysm",
"Congenital cyst",
"Germ cell tumour"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Variant of Giant cell tumor is? | [
"Ossifying fibroma",
"Non ossifying fibroma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Chondroblastoma"
] | D | Chondroblastoma [Ref This is the best we could find, after long hours of search. "A chondroblastoma is a rare, usually benign, tumor of bone that accounts .for approximately I% of all bone tumors. In 1931, Cadman classified it as a chondromatous variant of giant cell tumors, when he described these lesions in the proximal humerus. A decade later, Jaffe and Lichtenstein renamed the Codman tumor a benign chondroblastoma to emphasize the chondroblastic genesis of the lesion and to distinguish it .from the classic giant cell tumor of bone."- emedicine.inedscape.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young man with T.B presents with massive reccurere haemoptysis. For angiography treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first | [
"Pulmonary aery",
"Bronchial aery",
"Pulmonary vein",
"Superior vena cava"
] | B | More significant hemoptysis can result from the proximity of the bronchial aery and vein to the air-way, with these vessels and the bronchus running together in what is often referred to as the bronchovascular bundle. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 245-246 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about pseudohypoparathyroidtom are true, except - | [
"Decrease Serum PTH",
"Decrease Serum calcium",
"Increase Serum phosphate",
"Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy"
] | A | Answer is option 1 Increase in serum PTH Pseudohypoparathyroidtom leads to end organ resistance to parathormone which in turn leads to decrease in serum Ca++ and increase in serum phosphate. Due to this negative feedback hyperplasia of parathyroid occurs and increase in parathormone secretion occurs Ref Harrison 17/e p2394 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Apical root fracture in an anterior tooth is treated by: | [
"Extraction",
"Splinting for 2-3 months",
"Endodontic treatment",
"All of the above"
] | D | A tooth with its root fractured in its apical third has an excellent prognosis because the pulp in the apical fragment usually remains vital, and the tooth may remain firm in its socket.
A mobile tooth should be splinted.
If the pulp in the coronal fragment remains vital and the tooth is stable, with or without ligation, then no additional treatment is indicated.
In the event of pulpal death in the coronal fragment, endodontic treatment can be done, which is preferably limited to the coronal fragment.
If the tooth fails to recover, the apical root fragment can be removed surgically.
Ref : Grossman’s endodontics,13th edition, pg no:430 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient presents with patchy hair loss with normal looking skin on scalp. Diagnosis is? | [
"Tinea capitis",
"Cicatricial alopecia",
"Alopecia areata",
"Telogen effluvium"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Alopecia areata * Alopecia areata is characterized by patchy hair loss with normal skin. There is no atrophy or scarring.Points in favor arei) Diffuse hair fallii) History of accident with blood loss (stress)iii) Hair loss after 5 months of accident | train | med_mcqa | null |
High Anion Gap Acidosis is seen in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: | [
"Diabetic Ketoacidosis",
"Lactic Acidosis",
"Renal Tubular Acidosis",
"Methanol Poisoning"
] | C | Proximal and distal renal tubular acidosis is associated with non anion gap metabolic acidosis. In this, the reciprocal changes in chloride and bicarbonate result in a normal anion gap. Must know: Causes of high anion gap acidosis are: Lactic acidosis Ketoacidosis: Diabetic, alcoholic, starvation Toxins: Ethylene glycol, methanol, salicylates, propylene glycol and pyroglutamic acid Acute and chronic renal failure Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edn, chapter 47 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the largest skull diameter? | [
"Occipitobregmatic",
"Sub mento regmatic",
"Mento vertical",
"Occipito frontal"
] | C | Ans: c (Mentovertical) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 85Mento vertical extends from mid point of chin to the highest point on sagittal suture.It measures 14cm.Attitudeofhead will be partial extension with brow presentation. DiametersAttitude of the headPresentation1Suboccipito - bregmatic - 9.5 cm (3 3/4 ")Complete flexionVertex2Suboccipito - frontal - 10 cm (4")Incomplete flexionVertex3Occipito - frontal - 11.5 cm (4 1/2 ")Marked deflexionVertex4Mento-vertical - 14 cm (5 1/2 ")Partial extensionBrow5Submento-vertical- 11.5 cm (4 1/2 ")Incomplete extensionFace6Submento-bregmatic-9.5 cm (3 3/4 ")Complete extensionFace | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low glucose in pleural effusion is seen in all, except | [
"Dressler syndrome",
"Empyema",
"Malignant pleural effusion",
"Rheumatoid arthritis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classical cesarean section is indicated in all except : | [
"Post Moam delivery",
"Lower segment fibroid",
"Post RVF repair",
"Post VVF repair"
] | B | Lower segment fibroid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the earliest bony sign of increased intracranial tension? | [
"Erosion of dorsum sella",
"Pineal displacement",
"Widening of sella",
"Copper beaten appearance"
] | A | In general, symptoms and signs that suggest a rise in ICP including headache, vomiting without nausea, ocular palsies, altered level of consciousness, back pain and papilledema. If papilledema is protracted, it may lead to visual disturbances, optic atrophy, and eventually blindness. If mass effect is present with resulting displacement of brain tissue, additional signs may include pupillary dilatation, abducens palsy, and the Cushing's triad are also seen. Bony signs of chronic elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) are (1) diffuse beaten copper pattern (2) dorsum sellae erosion (earliest sign) (3) suture diastasis and (4) abnormalities of venous drainage that paicularly affect the sigmoid-jugular sinus complex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The structures passing posterior to diaphragm are all except ? | [
"Aoa",
"Azygous vein",
"Thoracic duct",
"Greater splanchnic nerve"
] | D | The aoa passess posterior to the diaphragm.Accompanying the aoa through the aoic hiatus is the thoracic duct and the azygous vein.The greater and lesser splanchinic nerves passess through the crura on either side. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inclusion body of CMV is - | [
"Cowdry type A",
"Cowdry type B",
"Intranuclear",
"Cytoplasmic"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intranuclear Cytomegalovirus (CMV)* Also known as salivary gland virus* CMV is the largest virus amongst herpes viruses* They are characterized by enlargment of infected cells (cytomegalic cells) and intranuclear inclusions.* Intranuclear inclusion is eccentrically placed and is surrounded by a halo - owl's eye appearance.* Once infected an individual carries CMV for life* CMV is the most common organism causing intrauterine infection.* CMV is the most common pathogen complicating organ transplantation.Clinical manifestations* Most of the infections in immunocompetent persons are asymptomatic.* Clinical features are divided intoA) Congenital infection# Infection is acquired in pregnancy.# It causes cytomegalic inclusion disease. Most common presentation is petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice. Other features are microcephaly, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, IUGR, prematurity and thrombocytopenia.B) Perinatal infection# Infection is acquired during delivery or postnatally by breast feeding. Most patients are asymptomatic.C) Beyond neonatal period# Most common presentation is heterophile antibody-negative mononucleosis (CMV mononucleosis).D) Immunocompromized host# It causes retinitis, colitis, gastritis, esophagitis, pneumonitis, fever, leukopenia and hepatitis.# Maximum risk of infection after kidney transplant is between 1-4 months after transplantation. Most common presentation is fever, leukopenia and hepatosplenomegaly.# Most common presentation after bone marrow transplantation is interstitial pneumonia.Laboratory diagnosis* Definitive diagnostic test (most specific test) is isolation of virus from urine, saliva, blood or bronchoalveolar washing.* Most sensitive test is PCRfor viral genome (DNA) detection in blood or intraocular fluid (in CMV retinitis).* Serology (IgM or IgG) is not very useful.Treatment* Ganciclovir or valganciclovir are drugs of choice. Foscarnet is used for CMV retinitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about rituximab except? | [
"Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD-20 B cell antigen",
"Most common side effect is infusion reaction",
"First FDA drug approved for resistant lymphomas",
"Dose independent pharmacokinetics"
] | D | Ans. d. Dose independent pharmacokinetics (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2147,18/e p2749; Katzung 12/e p646; htt[://www.isdbweb. org/documents/file/1442_2pdf)Pharmacokinetics of rituximab (monoclonal antibodies) is dose dependent.'The rate of uptake and elimination of antibodies by target-mediated pathways is a function of dose and the expression level of the target, as well as a function of the kinetics of receptor internalization and intracellular catabolism http:// www.isdbweb.org/documents/file/1442_2.pdfRituximabRituximab is a murine-human monoclonal IgG1 (human Fc) that binds to the CD20 molecule on normal and malignant B lymphocytesQMechanism of Action:The mechanism of action includes complement-mediated lysis, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity, and induction of apoptosis in the malignant lymphoma cellsQ.Indications:Approved for relapsed or refractory low-grade or follicular B cell non-Hodgkin's lymphomaQ.Approved for the treatment of refractory RA in combination with methotrexate and has been shown to be more effective for patients with seropositive than seronegative diseaseQ.Side-effects:Associated with mild-to- moderate infusion reactions as well as an increased risk of infectionQ.Notably, there have been isolated reports of a potentially lethal brain disorder, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), in association with rituximab therapy.It has been also shown to cause Tuberculosis.Pharmacokinetics:The rate of uptake and elimination of antibodies by target-mediated pathways is a function of dose and the expression level of the target, as well as a function of the kinetics of receptor internalization and intracellular catabolism.Monoclonal antibodies marketed for therapeutic useAntibodyIsotype/structurePrimary indicationAbciximabChimeric mouse/human FabPrevention of cardiac ischemic complicationsAdalimumabHuman lgG1Rheumatoid arthritisAlemtuzumabCDR-grafted rat/human IgG1B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemiaBasiliximabChimeric mouse/human IgG1Prophylaxis of acute organ rejectionBevacizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG1Colorectal, lung, and breast cancerCertolizumab pegotPEGylated FabCrohn's diseaseCetuximabChimeric mouse/human lgG1Head and neck cancer, colorectal cancerDaclizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG1Prophylaxis of acute organ rejectionEculizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG2/lgG4Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuriaEfalizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG1PsoriasisGemtuzumab ozogamicinCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG4Acute myeloid leukemiaIbritumomab tiuxetanMurine lgG1Non-Hodgkin's lymphomaInfliximabChimeric mouse/human lgG1Rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn's diseaseMuromonab-CD3Murine lgG2aAcute organ rejectionNatalizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG4Multiple sclerosisOmalizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG1AsthmaPativizumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG1Prevention of respiratory tract diseasePanitumumabHuman lgG2Colorectal cancerRanibizumabCDR-grafted human IgG1 FabMacular degenerationRituximabChimeric mouse/human IgG1Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, rheumatoid arthritisTositumomabMurine lgG2aNon-Hodgkin's lymphomaTrastuzumabCDR-grafted mouse/human lgG1Breast cancerCDR, complementarity determining region: IgG, immunoglobulin G. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The minimum concentration of reduced hemoglobin required for cyanosis is | [
"1gm/dl.",
"3 gm/d",
"7 gm/d",
"5 gm/d"
] | D | Cyanosis refers to a bluish colour of the skin and mucous membranes resulting from an increased quantity of reduced hemoglobin, or of hemoglobin derivatives, in the small blood vessels of those areas. It is usually most marked in the lips, nail beds, ears, and malar eminences.
The degree of cyanosis is modified by the colour of the cutaneous pigment and the thickness of the skin, as well as by the state of the cutaneous capillaries.
In some instances, central cyanosis can be detected reliably when the SaO2 has fallen to 85%; in others, particularly in dark-skinned persons, it may not be detected until it has declined to 75%.
The increase in the quantity of reduced hemoglobin in the mucocutaneous vessels that produces cyanosis may be brought about either by an increase in the quantity of venous blood as a result of dilation of the venules and venous ends of the capillaries or by a reduction in the Sa in the capillary blood. In sulhaemoglobmemia cyanosis occurs when its level exceeds 0.5gm/dl A methemogiobm level of 15% (i.e.,1.5gm/dl) 3 is associated with visible cyanosis-Nelson | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all the following metabolic disorders, clinical features are seen due to accumulation of toxic compounds EXCEPT? | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Maple syrup urine disease",
"Urea cycle defects",
"Mitochondrial disorders"
] | D | Clinical features are seen due to accumulation of toxic compounds in: Phenylketonuria, Maple syrup urine disease, Urea cycle defects, organic acidurias & porphyrias. Mitochondrial disorders involve defects of energy production or utilisation in various organs of body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute aortic regurgitation occurs in- | [
"Infective endocarditis",
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Marfan's syndrome",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the biological value of egg protein: | [
"80",
"90",
"100",
"120"
] | C | Ans. (c) 100Ref : K. Park 23rd ed. / 630Biological value is a measure of the proportion of absorbed protein from a food which becomes incorporated into the proteins of the organisms body.Biological value of Proteins in several food products* Whole egg: 100* Cow milk: 91* Beef: 80* Casein: 77* Soy: 74* Wheat gluten: 64 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs due to defect in metabolism of | [
"Cystein",
"Tryptophan",
"Tyrosine",
"Glycine"
] | D | Glycine is the amino acid that has a single hydrogen atom as its side chain. It is the simplest possible amino acid. The chemical formula of glycine is NH2‐CH2‐COOH. Glycine is one of the proteinogenic amino acids. It is encoded by all the codons starting with GG (GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG).
Glycine is a colorless, sweet-tasting crystalline solid. It is the only achiral proteinogenic amino acid. It can fit into hydrophilic or hydrophobic environments, due to its minimal side chain of only one hydrogen atom. The acyl radical is glycyl | train | med_mcqa | null |
Olecranon process of ulna helps in formation of? | [
"Radial notch",
"Trochlear notch",
"Olecranon fossa",
"Coronoid fossa."
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trochlear notch Inner surface of olecranon process forms trochlear notch for aiculation of trochlea of humerus. Radial notch is seen in lateral pa of upper end of shaft (not on olecronon). Olecranon fossa and coronoid fossa are pa of lower end of humerus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most impoant prognostic factor for colorectal carcinoma is | [
"Site of lesion",
"Tumour size & characteristics",
"Age of patient",
"Lymph node status"
] | D | .Secondaries are said to be precocious, wherein liver secondary is first identified, later the primary site is detected (carcinoid tumour/colorectal carcinoma). When primary and liver secondaries are identified at the same time it is called as synchronous secondaries (carcinoma stomach). ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 545 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypocalcemia is associated with: | [
"Metabolic acidosis",
"QT prolongation",
"Hypomagnesemia",
"Myocardial irritability"
] | B | Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, I8ed Explanation:Clinical Manifestations of HypocalcemiaPatients with hypocalcemia may be asymptomatic if the decreases in serum calcium are relatively mild and chronic.Moderate to severe hypocalcemia is associated with paresthesias, usually of the fingers, toes, and circumoral regions due to increased neuromuscular irritability.Chvostek's sign (twitching of the circumoral muscles in response to gentle tapping of the facial nerve just anterior to the ear) may be elicited.Carpal spasm may be induced by inflation of a blood pressure cuff to 20 mmHg above the patient's systolic blood pressure for 3 min (Trousseau's sign).Severe hypocalcemia can induce seizures, carpopedal spasm, bronchospasm. laryngo- spasni. and prolongation of the QT interval.Clinical Manifestations of HypercalcemiaMild hypercalcemia (up to 11-11.5 mg/dL)It is usually asymptomaticRecognized only on routine calcium measurements.Vague neuropsychiatric symptoms, like trouble concentrating, personality changes, or depressionAssc with peptic ulcer disease or nephrolithiasis, and increased fracture risk .More severe hypercalcemia (>12-13 mg/dL)CNS symptoms: Lethargy, stupor, or comaGastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, anorexia, constipation, or pancreatitis).Decreased renal concentrating ability, causing polyuria and polydipsia.Bone pain or pathologic fractures (in longstanding hyperparathyroidism),ECG changes: Bradycardia. AV block, and Short QT interval | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperiglyceridemia is not a feature of-( | [
"Alcoholism",
"Obesity",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Pregnancy"
] | A | Alcoholism, also known as alcohol use disorder (AUD), is a broad term for any drinking of alcohol that results in mental or physical health problems. The disorder was previously divided into two types: alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence. In a medical context, alcoholism is said to exist when two or more of the following conditions are present: a person drinks large amounts of alcohol over a long time period, has difficulty cutting down, acquiring and drinking alcohol takes up a great deal of time, alcohol is strongly desired, usage results in not fulfilling responsibilities, usage results in social problems, usage results in health problems, usage results in risky situations, withdrawal occurs when stopping, and alcohol tolerance has occurred with use. Risky situations include drinking and driving or having unsafe sex, among other things.Alcohol use can affect all pas of the body, but it paicularly affects the brain, hea, liver, pancreas and immune system.This can result in mental illness, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, irregular heabeat, an impaired immune response, liver cirrhosis and increased cancer risk, among other diseases.Drinking during pregnancy can cause damage to the baby resulting in fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.Women are generally more sensitive than men to the harmful physical and mental effects of alcohol. Drinking enough to cause a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.03-0.12% typically causes an overall improvement in mood and possible euphoria (a "happy" feeling), increased self-confidence and sociability, decreased anxiety, a flushed, red appearance in the face and hyperigycerdemia isnot a feature of alcoholism impaired judgment and fine muscle coordination. A BAC of 0.09% to 0.25% causes lethargy, sedation, balance problems and blurred vision. A BAC of 0.18% to 0.30% causes profound confusion, impaired speech (e.g. slurred speech), staggering, dizziness and vomiting. A BAC from 0.25% to 0.40% causes stupor, unconsciousness, anterograde amnesia, vomiting (death may occur due to inhalation of vomit (pulmonary aspiration) while unconscious) and respiratory depression (potentially life-threatening). A BAC from 0.35% to 0.80% causes a coma (unconsciousness), life-threatening respiratory depression and possibly fatal alcohol poisoning. With all alcoholic beverages, drinking while driving, operating an aircraft or heavy machinery increases the risk of an accident; many countries have penalties for drunk driving. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 880 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common intraocular metastasis in females are from which of the following primary tumor? | [
"Breast",
"Ovary",
"Cervix",
"Endometrium"
] | A | Ans. (a) BreastRef: Yanoff 3/e Chapter 8.3 Metastatic cancer to the eye* Metastasis is the most common intraocular malignant lesion.* Most common intraocular site of metastasis is: Choroid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasolacrimal duct opens in- | [
"Inferior Nasal Meatus",
"Superior nasal meatus",
"Middle nasal meatus",
"Maxillary sinus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inferior Nasal Meatus Part of lateral nasal wallOpeningsInferiorNasolacrimal ductMiddleFrontal sinus, Maxillary sinus, Anterior ethmoidal sinusSuperiorPosterior ethmoidal sinusSphenoethmoidal recessSphenoid sinus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal cords is seen in: | [
"Tb larynx",
"Syphilis",
"Achalasia Cardia",
"Lupus"
] | A | Ref: Diseases of the Ear Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra .5th edn .2010 page. 312Explanation:TB LarynxTb larynx is almost secondary to pulmonary lbSeen mostly in middle aged malesBacilli reach the larynx by bronchogenic (via sputum) and hematogenous routeMost commonly posterior part of the larynx is affected i.e. arytenoids, inter arytenoids areaClinical FeaturesWeakness of voice (earliest symptom)Pain radiating to ear due to ulcerationOdynophagiaExamination FindingsMonocorditis - hyperemia of the vocal cord with impairment of adduction (earliest sign)Swelling in the inter arytenoids area giving it a niamiJated appearanceUlceration of the vocal cord - mouse nibbled appearanceUlceration and granulation over the arytenoids and inter arytenoid areaPsuedoedema of the epiglottis - Turban epiglottisPale mucosaSwelling of the false cord and aryepiglotticDiagnosis is by chest x-ray and sputum AFB examinationShould take a biopsy to rule out malignancy in suspected casesTreatment is with ATTLupusAffects the anterior part of larynxFirst epiglottis is affectedPainless and mostly asymptomaticGood prognosisTreatment is with ATTSyphilisCan affect any part any part of larynxLarynx generally affected in the tertiary stageDiagnosed with biopsy and serologyComplication - laryngeal stenosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is : | [
"Ketoconazole",
"Amphotericin B",
"5-Flucytosine",
"Griseofulvin"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the listed statements best characterizes the renal abnormality described as Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease? | [
"Amyloid nephrosis",
"Nodular glomerulosclerosis",
"Glycogen nephrosis",
"Hyaline aeriolosclerosis"
] | B | Diabetes may produce abnormalities that affect any pa of the kidney, such as the glomerulus, the blood vessels (benign nephrosclerosis), the tubules (Armanni-Ebstein lesions, which refers to vacuolization of the cells of the proximal convoluted tubules), the interstitium, and the pelvis (infection leads to pyelonephritis and acute papillary necrosis). Diabetic lesions of the glomerulus include capillary basement thickening, diffuse glomerulosclerosis (increase in mesangium and mesangial cells), and nodular glomerulosclerosis. The latter refers to oval hyaline masses at the periphery of the glomerulus and is also called Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease. Nodular glomeruloscleroses may resemble amyloid, and, if they are present, amyloid staining should be done. Other characteristic lesions found in the glomerulus include "capsular drops" (round nodules found between Bowman's capsule and the parietal epithelium) and "fibrin caps" (subendothelial accumulations along capillary loops). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to following changes in blood | [
"|PC02",
"|PC02",
"|H+",
"|PO2"
] | A | A rise in aerial PCO2 stimulates the RVLM Neurons located near the pial surface of the medulla in the rostral ventrolateral medulla (RVLM) are the central chemoreceptors Carbon dioxide can cross the blood-brain barrier easily and rapidly and causes changes Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No: 562 CO2diffuses readily into CSFand is immediately hydrated to form H2CO3.H2CO3 dissociates to form H+ and HCO3-. So blood pCO2 influences the pH of CSF | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC for Herpes simplex encephalitis: | [
"Acyclovir",
"Inosine prabonex",
"Intravenous immunoglobulins",
"Amphotericin B"
] | A | Ans. (a) AcyclovirRef : Harrison 18th edition,chapter 381 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used to differentiate race in seminal stains? | [
"Serum alkaline phosphatase",
"MHS 5",
"Peptidase A",
"Choline"
] | C | Enzyme Typing: Enzyme markers commonly used in genetic profiling of semen are phosphoglutamase (PGM) and peptidase (Pep A). Pep A is polymorphic in many racial groups and is commonly employed as a racial discriminator. PGM is polymorphic in all populations and can be subdivided into 10 distinct subgroups. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Suture number 2-0 corresponds to diameter of: | [
"0.21 mm",
"0.24 mm",
"0.27mm",
"0.30 mm"
] | D | Answer- (D) 0.30 mmThe available sizes and diameters of suture are:6-0 = 0.07 mm5-0 = 0.10 mm4-0 = 0.15 mm3-0 = 0.20 mm2-0 = 0.30 mm0 = 0.35 mm1 = 0.40 mm2=0.5mm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mass chemoprophylaxis in endemic area is recommended for all of the following, except - | [
"Yaws",
"Leprosy",
"Trachoma",
"Filaria"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Water is a poor conductor of electricity because it is | [
"Non ionised",
"Neutral solution",
"Low specific gravity",
"High specific gravity"
] | A | Ans: a (Non ionised) Reg: Harper's 27th ed/p.5,6Pure water (de ionised water) is a poor conductor of electricity. The electrical conductance of water increases when there are impurities (salts), resulting in more number of ions for electrical conduction.A water molecule is an irregular, slightly skewed tetrahedron with oxygen at its center. It is a strong dipole, with high dielectric constant of 78.5 which enable water to dissolve large quantities of charged compounds such as salts.Water is an excellent nucleophile. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crocodile tears is due to abnormal regeneration of | [
"Facial Nerve",
"Auriculotemporal Nerve",
"Vagus Nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal Nerve"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
There is spontaneous rupture of the Achilles tendon in an 18 year old male. It is most likely to be due to excess stress beyond - | [
"Tendon strength",
"Bone strength",
"Muscle strength",
"Musculotendinous junction strength"
] | A | ACHILLES TENDON RUPTURE: A ripping or popping sensation is felt, and often heard, at the back of the heel. This most commonly occurs in spos requiring an explosive push-off: squash, badminton, football, tennis, netball. The patient will often repo having looked round to see who had hit them over the back of the heel, the pain and collapse are so sudden.The typical site for rupture is at the vascular watershed about 4 cm above the tendon inseion onto the calcaneum. The condition is often associated with poor muscle strength and flexibility, failure to warm up and stretch before spo, previous injury or tendinitis and coicosteroid injection. REF:Apley&;s system of ohopaedics - 9th edn - pg no 615. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multiple pulp stones are seen in | [
"Down's syndrome",
"Elites Danlos syndrome",
"Marfan Syndrome",
"Apert's syndrome"
] | B | Ehler Danlos syndromes:
Includes more than 10 different disorders involving a genetic defect in collagen and connective tissue synthesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest site of Hypertensive bleed is? | [
"Pons",
"Putamen",
"Frontal lobe",
"Thalamus"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) PutamenREF: Harrisons Internal Medicine 17thedition Chapter 364. Cerebrovascular Diseases Table 364-5"Hypertensive intraparenchymal hemorrhage (Hypertensive hemorrhage or Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage) usually results from spontaneous rupture of a small penetrating artery deep in the brain. The most common sites are the basal ganglia (especially the Putamen), thalamus, cerebellum, and pons"CAUSES OF INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGECauseLocationCommentsHead traumaIntraparenchymal: frontal lobes, anterior temporal lobes; subarachnoidCoup and contracoup injury during brain decelerationHypertensivehemorrhagePutamen, globus pallidus, thalamus, cerebellar hemisphere, ponsChronic hypertension produces hemorrhage from small (-100 m) vessels in these regionsTransformation of prior ischemic infarctionBasal ganglion, subcortical regions, lobarOccurs in 1-6% of ischemic strokes with predilection for large hemispheric infarctionsMetastatic brain tumorLobarLung, choriocarcinoma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, thyroid, atrial myxomaCoagulopathyAnyUncommon cause; often associated with prior stroke or underlying vascular anomalyDrugLobar, subarachnoidCocaine, amphetamine, phenvlpropranolamineArteriovenousmalformationLobar, intraventricular, subarachnoidRisk is -2-4% per year for bleedingAneurysmSubarachnoid, intraparenchymal, rarely subduralMycotic and nonmycotic forms of aneurysmsAmyloid angiopathyLobarDegenerative disease of intracranial vessels; linkage to Alzheimer's disease, rare in patients <60Cavernous angiomaIntraparenchymalMultiple cavernous angiomas linked to mutations in KRIT1, CCM2, and PDCD10 genesDural arteriovenous hstulaLobar, subarachnoidProduces bleeding by venous hypertensionCapillary telangiectasiasUsually brainstemRare cause of hemorrhage | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prevalence is a: | [
"Rate",
"Ratio",
"Propoion",
"None of the above"
] | C | Tools of measurement in epidemics: - Rate = x 1000/ 10000/ 100000 ; a is pa of b - Ratio = a/b ; a is not a pa of b - Propoion = x 100 = % ; a is pa of b Prevalence = No. of all current cases of a disease at a time /Estimated total population at that time X 100 Hence, Prevalence is a propoion (Prevalence is NOT a Ratio): Numerator is a pa of denominator & is always expressed in percentage. Incidence is rate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most impoant function of Major Intrinsic Protein 26 (MIP-26) is: | [
"Diffusion barrier",
"Capsule of lens",
"Glucose transpo in lens",
"Transpo of water in lens"
] | D | Major Intrinsic Protein 26 (MIP-26), now known as Aquaporin 0 is found only in the plasma membrane of eye lens fibre cells. Its main function is to maintain transparency of the lens by maintaining a tight cellular junction and/or by water cirulation. Ref: Encyclopedia of Molecular Pharmacology, Volume 1, Springer, 2008, Page 215; Current Medicinal Chemistry Jun 1999, Page 465 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of glial cell is mesodermal in origin - | [
"Macroglial cells",
"Microglial cells",
"Oligodendrocytes",
"Ependymal cells"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Microglial cellso Microglial cells are derived from mesenchymal (mesodermal) cells.Development of cells in CNSCells of originDeveloped mature cellsNeuroepithelial cellso Neuronso Glial cells (Macroglial cells)# Oligodendrocytes# Astrocytes# Ependymal cellsMesenchymal (mesodermal) cellso Microglial cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
The characteristic features of El tor cholera are all except | [
"More of subclinical cases",
"Moality is less",
"Secondary attack rate is high in family",
"El tor vibrio is harder and able to survive longer"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Secondary attack rate is high in family El Tor vibrio . It is much hardier than classical vibrios, capable of surviving in the environment much longer. . The severity of illness is much less, with a large propoion of mild and asymptomatic infections. . Moality is low and the carrier rate is high. . Fewer secondary cases in affected families (secondry attack rate is less) - Park | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child Pugh score is a type of | [
"Nominal",
"Ordinal",
"Quantitative",
"Qualitative"
] | B | Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a complication of PUVA therapy | [
"Skin cancers",
"Premature aging of skin",
"Cataracts",
"Exfoliation"
] | D | Complications of PUVA therapy Sho-term side effects Nausea and vomiting Erythema, pruritus and xerosis Skin pain Pigmentation Central nervous system (CNS) side effects such as headache, dizziness, depression, insomnia and hyperactivity Reactivation of herpes Photo-onycholysis, melanonychia, friction blisters and ankle edema. Long-term side effects Photo aging Eye toxicity: This occurs as psoralens accumulate in the lens with an increased potential for cataract. Cutaneous malignancies: nonmelanoma skin cancer, paicularly squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Men exposed to PUVA have an increased risk of genital skin cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and prostate galnds, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome - | [
"45, XYY",
"46, XY",
"46, XXY",
"46, X"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 46, XXY | train | med_mcqa | null |
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