question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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What is the most common type of this malignancy? | [
"Nodular",
"Pigmented",
"Cystic",
"Superficial"
] | A | Lesion in the given image- Pearly white nodules in the periphery with central umbilication and telangiectatic vessels- BCC Basal Cell Carcinoma: Also called as Rodent ulcer or Tear cancer, Locally Malignant which is slow growing Types of Rodent ulcers are: 1. Nodular (90%) 2. Pigmented 3. Cystic 4. Superficial - MC type -Nodular which has characteristic pearly white nodules in the periphery with central umbilication and telangiectatic vessels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nova T has | [
"Silver core",
"Platinum core",
"Copper core",
"Iron core"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spaghetti and meatball appearance is seen in - | [
"Dermatophytosis",
"Pityriasis versicolor",
"Aspergillosis",
"Candidasis"
] | B | In pityriasis versicolor while doing KOH mount shows a mixture of short , branched hyphae and spores described as spaghetti and meatball appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Myaesthenia gravis is associated with: | [
"Decreased acetylcholine at nerve endings",
"Decreased myosin",
"Absent troponin C",
"Decreased myoneural junction transmission"
] | D | Answer is D (Decreased Myoneural junction transmission): The primary defect in Myaesthenia gravis is decreased transmission across the myoneural junction due to decrease in the number of Acetylcholine receptors. The fundamental defect is Myaesthenia gravis is a decrease in the number of Acetylcholine Receptors at the postsynaptic muscle membrane, which results in decreased efficiency of neuromuscular transmission' -- Harrison | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of hea failure in infancy is | [
"Myocarditis",
"Rheumatic fever",
"Cardiomyopathy",
"Congenital hea disease"
] | D | Most common cause of hea failure in infancy is CHD. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:397 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fundoscopic examination of a child shows salt and pepper appearance. He probably has: | [
"Toxocara",
"Marfan's syndrome",
"Prenatal toxoplasma",
"Prenatal rubella"
] | D | Differential diagnosis of salt and pepper appearance of fundus: Prenatal rubella Prenatal influenza Varicella Mumps Congenital syphilis Ref: Comprehensive Ophthalmology by AK Khurana, 4th edition, Page 495. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dental papilla gives rise to: | [
"Pulp only",
"Pulp and dentin",
"Pulp and periodontal ligament",
"All of the above"
] | B | Components of Tooth Germ During Cap Stage | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the follow ing drug need not be stopped before surgery - | [
"High Dose Aspirin",
"Warfarin",
"Metformin",
"Digitalis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Digitalis PRE-OPERATIVE MODIFICATION OF PRE-EXISTING DRUGS Drug to be stopped Drug which can continue till the day of surgery o High dose Aspirin -1 week before surgery' o Anti anginal (except aspirin) o Oral anticoagulant - 4 days before and switch over to heparin which is stopped 12 hours prior to surgery o Antiepileptics o Antihypertensives (except AT-II antagonists) o Levodopa o Oral hypoglycemic (metformin) - 48 hours before surgery and switch to insulin o Digitalis o Tricyclic antidepressants. o AT-II antagonist (Losartan, Valsartan) - 1 day prior Low Dose Aspirin o Lithium -48-72 hours before surgery o MAO inhibitors - 3 weeks before surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a typical intercostal nerve? | [
"1st",
"3rd",
"7th",
"9th"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3rd * Ventral rami of upper 11th thoracic spinal nerves are known as intercostal nerves and ventral ramus of T12 is known as subcostal nerve.* Upper six intercostal nerves supply thoracic wall whereas lower five intercostal nerves and subcostal nerve supply thoracic and anterior abdominal walls and hence known as thoracoabdominal nerves.* Upper two intercostal nerves also supply the upper limb. Thus only 3rd to 6th are called typical intercostal nerves. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A cut /lesion above the pyramidal tract decussation results in: September 2007 | [
"Paralysis of the opposite half of the body",
"Contralateral loss of propioception",
"Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature",
"Contralateral loss of vibration and joint position"
] | A | Ans. A: Paralysis of the opposite half of the bodyThe Pyramidal Tract/coicspinal tract is group of fibers carries messages for voluntary motor movement to the lower motor neurons in the brain stem and spinal cord.Approximately 80% of the cell bodies of the pyramidal tract are located on the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe (the motor strip). Approximately 20% of the pyramidal tract fibers also originate in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe, in Brodmann's areas 1, 2, and 3. Regardless of the location of their cell bodies, pyramidal tract fibers begin their descent from the coex as a corona radiata (radiating crown) before forming the internal capsule.This tract is direct and monosynaptic which allows messages to be transmitted very rapidly from the central nervous system to the periphery.The fibers of the pyramidal tract that synapse with spinal nerves sending information about voluntary movement to the skeletal muscles form the coico-spinal tract. As they descend through the brain, they form pa of the posterior limb of the internal capsule.At the pyramids in the inferior pa of the medulla, eighty-five to ninety percent of coico-spinal fibers decussate, or cross to the other side of the brain. The remaining ten to fifteen percent continue to descend ipsilaterally. The fibers that decussate are called the lateral coico-spinal tract or the lateral pyramidal tract. Because they descend along the sides of the spinal cord, the uncrossed or direct fibers that synapse with spinal nerves on the ipsilateral side of the body are called the direct pyramidal tract. They may also be referred to as the ventral pyramidal tract or the anterior coico-spinal tract since they travel down the ventral aspect of the spinal cord.The spinal nerves receive only contralateral innervation from the coico-spinal tract. This means that unilateral pyramidal tract lesions above the point of decussation in the pyramids will cause paralysis of the muscles served by the spinal nerves on the opposite side of the body. For example, a lesion on the left pyramidal tract above the point of decussation could cause paralysis on the right side of the body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Breslaus second life test is done on which organ? | [
"Lungs",
"Skin",
"Stomach and intestines",
"Brain"
] | C | Breslau's second life test or stomach bowel test is used to detect presence of air in the stomach and intestine (which float in water if double ligated). Other tests for live bih: Fodere's test (static test): Weight of lungs is 30 g in still born and 60 g in live born. Ploquet's test: Weight of lungs to body (wt of lungs increase after live bih due to blood flowing in them). 1:70 in unrespired lung and 1:35 in respired lung. Wredin's test: Air is present in the middle ear with respiration. Raygat's test (hydrostatic floatation test): Lungs float if child has respired. | train | med_mcqa | null |
To see the bacteria, methods used are - | [
"Microscopy",
"Stained preparations",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | Individual bacterial cells hard to see because
They are too small to be seen by naked eye.
They are almost transparent
So, to be seen they require-
Magnification under microscope
Staining techniques to produce contrast | train | med_mcqa | null |
This kind of graph can be seen in all of the following condition except | [
"Ventilatory malfunction",
"hypoventilation",
"hyperventilation",
"malignant hyperpyrexia"
] | C | In hyperventilation the EtCO2 value will decrease. Increases ETCO2 is seen in thyrotoxicosis, fever (increased CO2production) and high spinal anesthesia (alveolar hypoventilation). Factors affecting ETCO2 Increased ETCO2 Decreased ETCO2 Metabolism Hypehermia Fever Thyrotoxicosis Pain Shivering Metabolism Hypothermia Metabolic acidosis Respiratory Hypoventilation Respiratory depression COPD Paial airway obstruction Rebreathing Respiratory Hyperventilation Total airway obstruction Extubation Circulatory Increased cardiac output (ROSC after cardiac arrest) Hypeension Circulatory Hypotension Cardiac arrest Pulmonary emboli Apparatus malfunction Exhausted CO2 absorber Inadequate fresh gas flow Ventilatory malfunction Apparatus malfunction Circuit disconnection Leak in sampling Ventilatory malfunction | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5 year old child develops non blanching macules, papules and petecheal hemorrhage on lower extremities, mild abdominal pain, and skin biopsy showed IgA deposition along blood vessels and perivascular neutrophilic infiltrate. Most probably diagnosis is | [
"Wegner's granulomatosis",
"Poly airitis nodosa",
"Henoch Schonlein purpura",
"Kawasaki disease"
] | C | C.i.e. Henoch Schonlein purpura | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lung cancer is an industrial hazard in/for- | [
"Chimney sweepers",
"Aniline industry",
"Gas industry",
"Benzol indusntry"
] | C | Lung cancer is a hazard in gas industry, asbestos industry, nickel and chromium work, arsenic roasting plants. (REF. PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION, PAGE NO - 749) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chassar moir surgery is done is case of : | [
"Uterine inversion",
"Vesicovaginal fistula repair",
"Ureterovesical fistula repair",
"Retroveed uterus"
] | B | Chassar moir technique is widely used in repair of vesicovaginal fistula. Vagina and bladder are separated all around by flap splitting method and sutured separately in two layers. Reference: Chapter 18; Genital fistula and urinary incontinence; Shaw&;s textbook of gynecology- 16th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old man had a road traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be: | [
"Pneumonia",
"Congestive heart failure",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Fat Embolism"
] | D | Ans. D. Fat EmbolismThe fat globules released from the bone marrow (due to trauma/orthopedic procedures) are deposited in the pulmonary capillary bed. This causes ischemia and inflammation. The symptoms appear 12-72 hours after the trauma. Initial symptoms are tachycardia and tachypnea. There may be high spiking fever and non-palpable petechiae, especially over upper body.Neurological symptoms like agitation, delirium, stupor and coma can occur. (The fat globules may cross the pulmonary circulation via arteriovenous connections). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foramen Transversarium transmit | [
"Inferior jugular vein",
"Inferior petrosal sinus",
"Sigmoid sinus",
"Veebral aery"
] | D | Foramen transversarium transmits 1st, 2nd, pa of the veebral aery which is present in the cervical veebra Ref: Gray's 40e/p-250-251 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old patient presented with unexplained weight loss and fever. Routine examinations shows elevated liver function tests. USG shows a growth in the liver which is confirmed as fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver. What is NOT true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver? | [
"More common in females",
"It occurs in younger individuals",
"Better prognosis than hepatocellular Ca",
"APF levels > 1000"
] | D | Fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver is typically a disease of younger adults, often teenagers and predominantly females. It is AFP-negative, but patients typically have elevated blood neurotensin levels, normal liver function tests, and no cirrhosis. Radiology is similar for HCC, except that characteristic adult-type poal vein invasion is less common. Although it is often multifocal in the liver, and therefore not resectable, metastases are common, especially to lungs and locoregional lymph nodes, but survival is often much better than with adult-type HCC. Ref: Qamar A.A., Ukomadu C. (2012). Chapter 49. Liver Neoplasms. In R.S. Blumberg, R. Burakoff (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Gastroenterology, Hepatology, & Endoscopy, 2e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total body water is ? | [
"40% of body weight",
"20% of body weight",
"10% of body weight",
"60% of body weight"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e., 60% of body weight | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antral puncture is done through | [
"Superior meatus",
"Inferior meatus",
"Middle meatus",
"All"
] | B | Antral puncture and irrigation: Sinus cavity is irrigated with a cannula passed through the inferior meatus. Removal of pus and exudates helps the sinus mucosa to reve to normal. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 219. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs causing macular toxicity when given intravitreally- | [
"Gentamycin",
"Vancomycin",
"Dexamethasone",
"Ceftazidime"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gentamycino Intravitreal aminoglycosides (gentamycin, amikacin) are a reported cause of macular toxicity.o Aminoglycosides induced macular toxicity is thought to be partially due to the gravity-induced settling of drugs on the macula in supine position.o This may result in a higher concentration of drug locally at the macula. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anti platelet drug is a prodrug | [
"Clopidogril",
"Tirofiban",
"Aspirin",
"Dipyramidole"
] | A | ADP receptors antagonist ,tiplodine and clopidogril are prodrugs Refer kDT 6/e,p605 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is thelUCD of choice in women with menorrhagia? | [
"Lippe's loop",
"Copper-T 200",
"Copper-T 3 8 OA",
"Progesterone containing IUCD"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Progesterone containing IUCD | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the main colonizer of sebaceous gland - | [
"Propionic bacterium acnes",
"Diptheria",
"Strep.pyogens",
"Staph. aureus"
] | A | Propionibacterium acnes are the commonest agent causing acne in teenagers as it has affinity for sebaceous glands.
Lesions in acne develop with in the sebaceous follicle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a patient is allergic to penicillin and antibiotic prescription is an absolute need in endodontic treatment than which of the following antibiotic can be given: | [
"Clindamycin.",
"Clavulanic acid.",
"Doxycycline.",
"Erythromycin."
] | A | “For those patients who are allergic to penicillin or cephalosporin, the recommended antibiotic is clindamycin (600 mg per os, 1 hour before procedure". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Downward and lateral gaze is action of | [
"Inferior oblique",
"Medial rectus",
"Superior oblique",
"Lateral rectus"
] | C | C i.e. Superior oblique | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs cannot cause Pseudotumour Cerebri? | [
"Salicylic acid",
"Nalidixic acid",
"Nalidixic acid",
"Nitrofurantoin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Salicylic acid Conditions associated with Pseudotumor cerebrii Metabolic toxic disorders o Hypervitaminosis A o Nalidixic acid therapy o Amiodarone o Hypovitaminosis A o Iron deficiency o Nitrofurantoin o Prolonged steroid therapy o Hyperparathyroidism o Hypocalcemia o Steroid withdrawal o Adrenal insufficiency o Lead poisoning o Tetracycline therapy o Chronic CO2 retention o Infectious disorders o Poliomyelitis o Guillain bare syndrome o Chronic Otitis media | train | med_mcqa | null |
Length of external auditory meatus is ? | [
"12mm",
"16mm",
"20mm",
"24mm"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 24 mm External auditory canal (External acoustic meatus) External auditory canal is a 'S' shaped canal with length of 24-25 mm and it is divided into two pas :? 1) Cailagenous pa It forms outer/lateral 1/3 (8mm) of the external auditory canal. It has two fissures / deficiencies in the anterior pa called fissure of santorini through which parotid or superficial mastoid infection can appear in the canal and vice versa. Skin covering it is thick and has ceruminous glands (modified apocrine sweat glands), pilosebaceous glands and hair. Since hair is confined to cailaginous pa, furuncles are seen only in the outer third of the canal. 2) Bony pa It forms inner/medial 2/3 (16 mm) of external auditory canal. Skin lining the bony pa is thin and is devoid of hair and ceruminous glands. Isthmus is the narrowest poion of bony canal and is 5 mm lateral to tympanic membrane. Foreign bodies get lodged in isthmus are difficult to remove as it is the narrowest pa. `Foramen of Huschke' is a deficiency present in antero-inferior pa of bony canal in children upto 4 years of age, permitting infection to and from parotid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A middle aged female has a pathological fracture of clavicle and ribs. The X-ray shows periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals and phalanges. Most probable cause is? | [
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Renal Osteodystrophy",
"Osteomalacia"
] | A | The following clinical presentation is suggestive of Hyperparathyroidism The low production of vitamin D3 by kidney leads to low calcium The P.T.H levels rise to compensate for low serum calcium and result in bone resorption. The distinctive bone manifestation of hyperparathyroidism is osteitis fibrosa cystica X-ray changes include resorption of the phalangeal tufts and replacement of the sharp coical outline of the bone in the digits by an irregular outline (sub-periosteal resorption). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A gravida 3 female with H/o 2 previous 2nd trimester abortion presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of cervix. Most appropriate management would be: | [
"Administer dinoprostone and bed rest",
"Administer misoprostol and bed rest",
"Apply fothergill stretch",
"Apply McDonald stitch"
] | D | In this question: A third gravida female is presenting with 2 previous 2nd trimester losses and with funneling of cervix at 22 weeks of gestation which means that the patient has incompetent cervix.
Management of this condition as discussed in previous question is application of Mc Donald stitch.
Women who may have incompetent cervix and require treatment can be divided into 4 groups: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renal blood flow contributes what % of the cardiac output? | [
"15%",
"25%",
"45%",
"50%"
] | B | Ref: W F Ganong. Circulation Through Special Regions. In: Review of Medical Physiology. 21st ed. California: McGraw-Hill Companies; 2003 p 603.Explanation: (See the following table) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Two most impoant tests to be done in a comatose patient with blood glucose of 750 mg/dl will be - | [
"Sr. creatinine",
"Sr. sodium",
"CSF examination",
"Blood pH"
] | A | Comatose patients with blood glucose level of 750 mg/dl suggests the possibility of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state . Lab abnormality in this is marked hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity, prerenal azotemia. Comatose patients with hyperglycemia is also seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Thus blood ph ( to detect acidosis) and serum creatinine for azotemia are most impoant investigations. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28-year-old G1 at 18 weeks has right - sided groin pain which is sharp and occuring with movement. No fever or chills. Local heat helps allete the discomfo. What is the likely etiology of this pain? | [
"Round ligament pain",
"Appendicitis",
"Preterm labor",
"Kidney stone / Urinary tract infection"
] | A | Round ligament pain during pregnancy:- * Round ligament pain is a sharp pain often felt in the lower belly or groin area on one or both sides * It is most often felt during the second trimester * As the pregnancy advances, the round ligament stretches that makes it more likely to become strained * Sudden movements can cause the ligament to tighten quickly, like a rubber band snapping. This causes a sudden & quick jabbing feeling | train | med_mcqa | null |
For MTP, consent should be obtained from | [
"Male paner",
"Male and female paner",
"Female paner",
"No consent needed"
] | C | For medical termination of pregnancy : Only female consent is required Husband consent is not required If the age is less than 18 yrs, consent of parent or guardian is required Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 165. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about sulfonylureas is - | [
"Chlorpropamide is 2nd generation agent",
"Most common side effect is hypoglycemia",
"Effective even after pancreactomy",
"Safe in pregnancy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Most common side effect is hypoglycemiao Sulfonylureas are -1. First generation Tolbutamide, chlorpropamide.2. Second generation Glibenclamide (Glyburide), glipizide, gliclazide, glimpride.Sulfonylureas act byo Sulfonylurease provoke a brisk release of insulin from pancreas. They act on the so called "Sulfonylurea receptors" (SUR1) on pancreatic b-cell membrane - cause depolarization by reducing conductance of ATP sensitive K+ channels. This enhances influx of Ca+2 - degranulation. They do not cause hypoglycemia in pancreatectomized animals and type 1 diabetes (Presence of at least 30% of functional b-cells in essential for their action). A minor action reducing glucagon secretion by increasing insulin and somatostatin release has been demonstratedo Extrahepatic action# On chronic administration they sensitize the target cells (especially the liver) to the action of insulin.# On chronic administration their action on pancrease (to release insuline) declines due to down regulation of sulfonylurea receptors.# But glycemic control is maintained due to extrahepatic action.# Glimepiride exerts beneficial effects with regard to ischemic preconditioning.Sulfonyloreas cause following adverse effectso Hypoglycemia# This is commonest side effect.# More common in elderly, liver and kidney disease.# Chlorpropamide is a frequent culprit due to its long action due to its long action.# Tolbutamide carries lowest risk due to its low potency and short duration of action.# Lower incidence is also reported with glipizide, glibenclamide, glimepiride.o Hypersensitivity# Rashes, photosensitivity, purpura, transient leukopenia, rarely agranulocytosiso Adverse effects specific to particular drug# Cholorpropamide causes cholestasis, dilutional hyponatremia, intolerance to alcohol (disulfiram like reaction). Chlorpropamide causes dilutional hyponatremia by sensitising the kidney to ADH action.# Tolbutamide reduces iodine uptake by thyroid.o Sulfonylureas are not safe during pregnancy - change over to insulin. Sulfonylureas are secreted in milk - should not be given to nursing mothers. Gliclazide has an antiplatelet effect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The immunoglobulin involved in type 1 hypersensitivity reactions is | [
"IgE",
"IgM",
"IgA",
"IgG"
] | A | Ref Robbins 9/e p202 Immediate hypersensitivity is a tissue reaction that occurs rapidly (typically within minutes) after the interaction of antigen with IgE antibody that is bound to the surface of mast cells in a sensitized host. The reaction is initiated by entry of an antigen, which is called an allergen because it triggers allergy. Many allergens are environmental substances that are harmless for most persons on exposure. Some people apparently inherit genes that make them susceptible to allergies. This susceptibility is manifested by the propen- sity of such persons to mount strong TH2 responses and, subsequently, to produce IgE antibody against the aller- gens. The IgE is central to the activation of the mast cells and release of mediators that are responsible for the clinical and pathologic manifestations of the reaction. Immediate hypersensitivity may occur as a local reaction that is merely annoying (e.g., seasonal rhinitis, or hay fever), severely debilitating (asthma), or even fatal (anaphylaxis). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Opioid agonist-antagonist is - | [
"Pethidine",
"Pantazocine",
"Buprenorphine",
"Methadone"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pantazocine Agonist-antagonists (k analgesics) - Nalorphine, Pentazocine, Butorphenol. Paial/weak agonist + x antagonist - Buprenorphine. Pure antagonists - Naloxone, Naltrexone, Nalmefene. o Clinically agonist - Antagonists and paial/weak agonists are analgesics of comparable efficacy to low doses of morphine and they cause low ceiling respiratory depression, and have lower abuse potential. Impoant points about specific agents. Butorphanol (paial agonist & weak antagonsit, x agonist) o Analgesia and respiratory depression have a lower ceiling. o It causes equivalent analgesia but more sedation than morphine. The most outstanding feature is that butorphanol can neither substiture for nor antagonize morphine --> weak interaction with receptors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 14 year old boy comes to the physician with complaints of seizures & some skin macule as shown below. What can be the probable diagnosis? | [
"Sturge weber syndrome",
"Turcot syndrome",
"Tuberous sclerosis",
"Von Hippel disease"
] | C | Ans. C. Tuberous sclerosisa. Above given image shows Ash leaf macule.b. It is the earliest manifestation of Tuberous sclerosis.c. This condition is Autosomal dominant.d. Clinical features of this disease are-- Seizures- Mental disability- Ash leaf macule- Adenoma Sebaceum- Shagreen patch(collagenoma)- Cortical tuberse. On MRI scan, subependymal nodules are seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
McNaughton's rule is related to: | [
"IPC 82",
"IPC 84",
"IPC 87",
"IPC 85"
] | B | - Mc Naughton's rule is related to Criminal responsibility of Insane person - Sec. 84 IPC also deals with the Criminal responsibility of Insane person Section 84 IPC embodies McNaughton rules as follows: "Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to the law." | train | med_mcqa | null |
A seven year old child with recurrent chest infections and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is suspected of having cystic fibrosis Sweat chloride levels have been observed between 40-60 mmo1/1 on two separate occasions. Which of the following test should be performed next to suppo the diagnosis of Cystic fibrosis: | [
"Repeat Sweat chloride levels on a different day",
"Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference",
"Demonstrate an abnormal F508 mutation by DNA analysis",
"Demonstrate an abnormal 72 hour fecal fat"
] | B | Answer is B (Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference) Nasal Potential Difference is a sensitive test of electrolyte transpo (CFTR function) that can be used to suppo or refute a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis when sweat chloride levels are normal or border line and two CF mutations cannot be demonstrated by DNA testing. Diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis Risk Factor For CF PLUS Laboratory Evidence of CFTR Dysfunction * Presence of one or more typical clinical feature * Positive sweat chloride test (> 1 phenotypic symptom) Plus (>60 mcq/l on two occasions) or Or * History of CF in sibling Plus * Identification of 2 CF mutations or or * Positive Neonatal screening test Plus * Abnormal Nasal Potential Difference The patient in question has typical clinical features of cystic fibrosis; however the sweat chloride levels are border line (between 40-60meq/1) on two separate occasions. To establish the diagnosis of cystic. fibrosis, another laboratory evidence demonstrating CFTR dysfunction is therefore required. This can be achieved by demonstration of abnormal CF mutation by DNA analysis or by demonstrating an abnormal nasal potential difference. The diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis requires demonstration of at least two CF mutations and hence demonstration of an abnormal F508 mutation alone is not sufficient to establish the diagnosis of CF An abnormal CFTR nasal potential difference is an established laboratory evidence of CFTR dysfunction and is accepted as a diagnostic criterion to establish the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Length of external auditory canal is? | [
"12 mm",
"24 mm",
"36 mm",
"48 mm"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) 24 mmREF: Dhingra 4th edition page 400'External auditory canal of an adult is 24 mm in length. Outer one-third (8 mm) is cartilaginous and inner two thirds (16 mm) are bony'1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Permanent kidney in humans arise from which of the following embryological structure? | [
"Pronephros",
"Mesonephros",
"Metanephros",
"All of the above"
] | C | In humans metanephros is responsible for the formation of the permanent kidney. The metanephros develop from two sources: ureteric bud from the mesonephric duct and the metanephrogenic cap from the intermediate cell mass of mesenchyme of the lower lumbar and sacral regions.The ureteric bud forms the ureter which dilates to form the pelvis of the ureter. The pelvis then branches to form the major calyces, minor calyces and collecting tubules.Metanephrogenic cap condenses around the ureter and forms the glomerular capsules, proximal and distal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle. Ref: Clinical Anatomy by Regions By Richard S. Snell page 267. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For CD fabrication minimum interarch distance needed? | [
"8 to 10 mm",
"18 to 20 mm",
"28 to 30 mm",
"36 to 40 mm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Peripheral resistance of arteries measures: | [
"Systolic pressure",
"Diastolic pressure",
"Mean pressure",
"Pulse pressure"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common symptom of lung carcinoma | [
"Cough",
"Dyspnoea",
"Weight loss",
"Chest pain"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady with a long stading thyroid nodule is planned for a subtotoal thyroidectomy. Before the surgery the surgeon must check/ do | [
"Serum Calcium levels",
"Serum PTH assay",
"Indirect Larngoscopy",
"Iodine 131 scan"
] | C | Answer- C. Indirect LarngoscopyNerve Damage to recurrent / superior laryngeal nerve is a known complication of thyroidectomy.Hence it is impoant to document the state ofthe vocal cords before surgery to prevent litigation liability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 48-year-old woman complains she has had weakness, fatigue, and easy bruisability for 2 months. She had worked as a technician in a nuclear energy plant for 15 years and was involved in an accident during which she was exposed to considerable radiation. Physical examination reveals an enlarged liver and spleen. What disease should you suspect as a likely cause of her condition? | [
"Chronic myelogenous leukemia",
"Hairy cell leukemia",
"Metastatic carcinoma of the breast",
"Metastatic carcinoma of the stomach"
] | A | The evidence that whole-body radiation can lead to cancer is incontrovertible and comes from animal experiments and studies of the effects of occupational exposure, radiation therapy for nonneoplastic conditions, the diagnostic use of certain radio-isotopes, and the atom bomb explosions. Some survivors of the atom bomb explosions and patients subjected to spinal radiation later developed chronic myelogenous leukemia. Although the other choices may lead to hepatosplenomegaly, they are not linked to acute radiation exposure.Diagnosis: Chronic myelogenous leukemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antimitochondrial antibodies are found in 90% of patients with | [
"Primary biliary cirrhosis",
"Chronic active hepatitis",
"Seminoma",
"Choriocarcinoma"
] | A | The most characteristic immunologic abnormality associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies, which are found in 90% of affected individuals.This antibody is predominantly IgG. Antimitochondrial antibodies also can be detected in persons with other liver diseases but with a much lower frequency (less than 10%) and usually in low titer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except: | [
"Measles",
"Typhoid",
"Hepatitis B",
"Gonorrhoea"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Measles In measles the only source of infection is a case of measles. Carriers are not known to occur.For more see Q no. 31 of Dec 1998. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Facilitated diffusion is characterized by all except: | [
"Vmax",
"Competitive inhibition",
"Requires energy",
"Specificity"
] | C | Facilitated diffusion is a carrier-mediated transpo. ATP is not consumed in this transpo. A conformational change in the carrier molecule causes the substance to be transpoed to the other side of the membrane. Some models hypothesised for the carrier proteins ~ flip-flop model, ferryboat model. Saturability, Specificity and inhibition are the characteristics of the Facilitated diffusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is done by using: | [
"Edrophonium",
"Neostigmine",
"Succinylcholine",
"Atropine"
] | A | Ans. (A) Edrophonium(Ref: KDT 8th/e p120-121)Myasthenia gravis can be differentiated from cholinergic crisis with the help of a short acting anticholinesterase agent, edrophonium. It improves the symptoms in myasthenia gravis whereas worsens the condition in cases of cholinergic crisis. Neostigmine is used for the treatment of myasthenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)less than 0.3 indicates | [
"Normal value",
"Claudication",
"Rest pain",
"Imminent necrosis"
] | D | Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is the ratio of systolic pressure at the ankle to that in the ipsilateral arm.> 1.3Calcified, incompressible aeries that are often found in diabetic patients.0.9 - 1.3 Normal< 0.9 Claudication< 0.5Rest pain< 0.3 Imminent necrosisRef: Bailey and love pg: 945 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement about Schilling's test is false? | [
"Abnormal in pernicious anemia",
"The test is dependent on normal renal function.",
"Abnormal in ileal disease",
"58Co-labeled cobalamin is administered intramuscularly"
] | C | In the Schilling test, 58Co-labeled cobalamin is administered orally, and urine is collected for 24 h. The test is dependent on normal renal and bladder function. Urinary excretion of cobalamin reflects cobalamin absorption, provided that intrahepatic binding sites for cobalamin are fully occupied. To ensure saturation of these binding sites so that all absorbed radiolabeled cobalamin will be excreted in urine, 1 mg of cobalamin is administered intramuscularly 1 h after ingestion of the radiolabeled cobalamin. The Schilling test may yield an abnormal result (usually defined as <10% excretion in 24 h) in pernicious anaemia, chronic pancreatitis, blind loop syndrome, and ileal disease. ref - harriosn's internal medicine 20e pg 2251, 2323t | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding anemia of chronic diseases, all are true except: - | [
"Decreased serum Fe",
"Decreased Ferritin",
"Decreased total Fe binding capacity",
"Increased bone marrow Fe"
] | B | In anemia of chronic inflammation , ferritin is normal or high, reflecting the fact that iron is sequestered within cells and ferritin is being produced as an acute phase reactant. Test Iron deficiency Anemia of chronic disease Thalassemia minor Lead posioning MCV | | | N/| Serum iron | | N | TIBC | | N | Percent saturation | | N | Serum ferritin | | N | RBC count | | | | Reference: - Robbins 10e, pg-456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibrinoid necorsis with neutrophilic infiltration is seen in ? | [
"PAN",
"Giant cell aeritis",
"Takayasu aeritis",
"Wegener's granulomatosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAN | train | med_mcqa | null |
Focal length of head mirror used in ENT-OPD - | [
"9 inch",
"10 inch (25 cm)",
"11 inch",
"12 inch"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are muscles of nose except | [
"Procerus",
"Compressor naris",
"Depressor septi",
"Angularisoris"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., AngularisorisMuscles of nose :- Procerus, compressor naris, dilator naris, depressor septi.Muscles around mouth :- Orbicularis oris, buccinator, levatorlabii superioris alaque nasi, zygomaticus major, levatorlabii superioris, levatorangulioris, zygomaticus minor, depressor angulioris, depressor labiiinferioris, metalis, risorius. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hartnup disease related to - | [
"Rickets symptoms",
"Pellagra symptoms",
"Burning foot syndrome",
"Angular stomatitis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b1 i.e.* Pellagra symptomsHartnup diseaseo It is an inherited disorder in the metabolism of tryptophan.o It is due to defective transport of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids in the intestine and kidney.o This results in deficiency of tryptophan leading to decreased synthesis of niacin and serotonin.o Thus there are pellagra (niacin deficiency}, neurological symptoms (serotonin deficiency) and amino aciduria due to defective transport of amino acids in kidney. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Baby stas speaking sentence of few words at what age? | [
"1 year",
"2 years",
"18 months",
"15 months"
] | B | 2 years REF: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics 17th edition page 1874, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Child Developmental Milestones Age Motor Speech Vision and hearing Additional notes 4-6 weeks When held upright, holds head erect and steady Smiles at parent 6-8 When prone, lifts self by arms; Vocalizes; Cooes Focuses on objects as weeks rolls from side to back. (makes vowel- like noises). well as adults 12-20 Hand regard: Serves to practice weeks following the hand with the eyes.131. Color vision adult-like. emerging visual skills.vil Also observed in blind children.[31 3 Prone:head held up for Makes vowel Follows dangling toy Squeals with delight months prolonged periods. No grasp noises from side to side. appropriately. reflex Turns head round to sound. Follows adults' gaze (joint attention). Sensitivity to binocular cues emerges. Discriminates smile. 5 Holds head steady. Goes for Enjoys vocal months objects and gets them. Objects taken to mouth play; 6 Transfers objects from one Double syllable Localises sound May show 'stranger months hand to the other. Pulls self sounds such as 45 cm lateral to shyness' up to sit and sits erect with mumum' and either ear. Visual suppos. Rolls over prone to `dada'; babbles acuity adult-like supine. Palmar grasp of cube (consonant- vowel combinations) (20/20). Sensitivity to pictorial depth cues (those used by aists to indicate depth) emerges. 9-10 Wiggles and crawls. Sits Babbles tunefully Looks for toys Apprehensive about months unsuppoed. Picks up objects with pincer grasp dropped strangers 1 Stands holding furniture. Babbles 2 or 3 Drops toys, and Cooperates with year Stands alone for a second or two, then collapses with a bump words repeatedly watches where they go dressing, waves goodbye, understands simple commands 18 Can walk alone. Picks up toy jargon'. Many Demands constant months without falling over. Gets up/down stairs holding onto rail. Begins to jump with both feet. Can build a tower of 3 or 4 cubes and throw a ball intelligible words mothering. Drinks from a cup with both hands. Feeds self with a spoon. Most children with autism are diagnosed at this age. 2 Able to run. Walks up and Joins 2-3 words Parallel play. Dry by years down stairs 2 feet per step. in sentences day Builds tower of 6 cubes 3 years Goes up stairs 1-foot per step Constantly Cooperative play. and downstairs 2 feet per step. asks questions. Undresses with Copies circle, imitates cross Speaks in assistance. Imaginary and draws man on request. sentences. companions Builds tower of 9 cubes 4 years Goes down stairs one foot Questioning Dresses and per step, skips on one foot. at its height. undresses with Imitates gate with cubes, copies a cross Many infantile substitutions in speech assistance. Attends to own toilet needs 5 years Skips on both feet and hops. Fluent speech Dresses and Draws a man and copies a triangle. Gives age with few infantile substitutions in speech undresses alone 6 years Copies a diamond. Knows right from left and number of fingers Fluent speech | train | med_mcqa | null |
Method of speech communications after laryngectomy include: | [
"Electrolarynx",
"Oesophageal speech",
"Tracheo-oesophageal speech",
"All"
] | D | Method of speech communications after laryngectomy include: Oesophageal speech Electrolarynx Transoral pneumatic device Tracheo-oesophageal speech - Blom-Singer prosthesis - Panje prosthesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements best describes long acting nitrate preparations? | [
"Tolerance often develops",
"Their effect can be blocked by high doses of beta selective inhibitors",
"Trasdermal patches are more likely to be associated with headaches than are sublingual nitrates",
"Oral preparations are more effective than sublingual ones"
] | A | Nitrates are generalized smooth-muscle dilators whose direct effect on the vasculature cannot be blocked by any currently available agents. Long acting preparations of nitroglycerin may be completely degraded by the liver in some patients and thus are generally less effective than sublingual forms. Because individual variability in metabolism is considerable, doses should be titrated against side effects and should not conform to a rigidly standardized regimen. Tolerance is common and must be considered if a patient fails to respond to a previously efficacious dose. Long-acting preparations such as trans dermal patches are less likely to produce the nitrate-associated side effects of headaches and dizziness than are the more rapidly acting sublingual forms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skull base osteomyelitis is | [
"Otomycosis",
"Tumor of the Ear",
"Malignant Otitis Externa",
"Chronic serous Otitis Media"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In bacterial mRNA, Shane-Dalganro sequence is situated near which of the following codon? | [
"CAG codon",
"UAG codon",
"AUG codon",
"UGA codon"
] | C | Shine-Dalgarno sequence is apparently the eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit binds to the 5'end of a eukaryotic mRNA and scans along it until it encounters an AUG codon.They assist in aligning mRNA on the ribosomes. Ref: Biochemistry By Reginald Garrett, Charles M. Grisham, 2005 Page A 38 ; Biochemistry By J. Stenesh, Volume 1, Page 487 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biopsy from parathyroid gland from a 55-year old male who presented to nephrology department of AIIMS has been shown below. He is a known case of chronic kidney disease with hypertension and type II diabetes. He has recently developed bone pain, lesions in skin and recurrent stones in kidney | [
"Water clear cells in parathyroid hyperplasia",
"Water clear cells in parathyroid Ca",
"TB parathyroid",
"Parathyroid Necrosis"
] | A | Ans. (a) Water clear cells in parathyroid hyperplasia.*The given histology shows abundant optically clear cells of variable size (hyperplasia and hypertrophy), with spherical clear vacuoles surrounded by thin eosinophilic material; basal nuclei, compact or alveolar patterns. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding acetazolamide is ? | [
"Irreversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase",
"Structural resemblance to sulfonamides",
"It decreases Na, K, Glucose excretion",
"It causes metabolic alkalosis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Structural resemblance to sulfonamides o Acetazolamide is sulfonamide derivatives and, like other sulfonamides, may cause bone marrow depression, skin toxicity, sulfonamide like renal lesions, and allergic reactions in patients hypersensitive to sulphonamides. o Acetazolamide is reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase. o It causes metabolic acidosis (net alkalosis). o K' excretion is increased. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of theophylline in bronchial asthma is | [
"Phosphodiestesterase 4 inhibition",
"inhibit the release of mediators",
"Anticholinergic action",
"Inhibition of mucociliary clearance"
] | A | Mechanism of action of methylxanthines like theophylline, caffeine: (a) Release of Calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, especially in skeletal and cardiac muscle. (b) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase3 and PDE4 which degrades cyclic nucleotides intracellularly. (c) Blockade of adenosine receptors: adenosine acts as a local mediator in CNS, CVS and other organs-contracts smooth muscles, especially bronchial; dilates cerebral blood vessels, depresses cardiac pacemaker and inhibits gastric secretion. Beta 2 agonism is also correct because Theophylline acts synergistic with beta 2 agonistsPharmacology and pharmacotherapeutics Satoskar 24th page no. 579 ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY 7TH EDITION KD TRIPATHI Page No:225,226 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the pressure required to deliver 1st breath to a neonate? | [
"10 to 20 cm H2O",
"30 to 40 cm H2O",
"50 to 60 cm H2O",
"80 to 100 cm H2O"
] | B | Pressure required to deliver 1st breath to a neonate is 30 to 40 cm H2O Subsequent breaths -15 to 20 cm H2O | train | med_mcqa | null |
GnRH is a ? | [
"Peptide",
"Amine",
"Steroid",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PeptideThree general classes of hormone exist : ?1) Proteins and polvpeptide The peptide/protein hormones are:i) Hypothalamus :- Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), coicotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), Growth-hormone releasing hormone (GHRh), Growth hormone inhibitory hormone (GHIn), i.e., somatostatin, Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).ii) Anterior pituitary :- Growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone (THS) or thyrotropin, adrenocoicotropin hormone (ACTH), prolactin, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), leutinizing hormone (LH).iii) Posterior pituitary :- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/vasopressin, oxytocin.iv) Thyroid gland :- Calcitoninv) Pancreas :- Insulin, glucagon.vi) Parathyroid :- Parathormonevii) Placenta :- Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), Human somatomammotropin.viii) Kidney :- Renin, erythropoietinix) Hea :- Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)x) Stomach :- Gastrinxi) Small intestine :- Secretin, Cholecystokinin (CCK)xii) Adipocytes LeptinSome of these peptide hormones are glycoproteins, i.e., they have sugar associated with proteins. Glycoprotein hormones are FSH, LH, TSH, human chorionic gonadotropin, erythropoietin.2) Steroid hormones Steroid hormones are : ?i) Adrenal coex :- Coisol (Glucocoicoids), Aldosterone (mineralocoicoids).ii) Gonads :- Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone.iii) Kidney :- 1, 25 - Dihydroxycholecalciferol3) Amine hormones These hormones are derivatives of amino acid tyrosine. These hormones are : ?i) Thyroid gland :- Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3).ii) Adrenal medulla :- Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline), Epinephrine (adrenaline)iii) Hypothalamus :- Dopamine or Prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following condition, non-hepatic surgery is associated with most adverse outcome: | [
"Child-Pugh score B",
"Child-Pugh score C",
"Acute viral hepatitis",
"Acute alcoholic hepatitis"
] | B | Answer- B. Child-Pugh score CTable 3. Child-Pugh Grading System ClassTotal PointsA: well-compensated disease5-6B: functional compromise-worsening disease7-9C: decompensated disease10-15 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci arranged in pairs, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was staed but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is-: | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Virdans streptococci",
"Enterococcus faecalis",
"Coagulase negative staphylococcus"
] | C | Catalase negative, Gram positive cocci in pair - indicates that they are Enterococcus . Enterococci (earlier known as group d streptococci) are commonly seen in hospital acquired infections and they are resistant to cephalosporins and even to vancomycin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The sentence awarded by a court may be enhanced by the | [
"Magistrate court",
"High court",
"Higher court",
"None of the above"
] | C | Sentence awarded by court may be enhanced or decreased by the court of higher rank (higher court).
Ranking of criminal courts in India in decreasing order are :- Supreme court (highest rank) > High court > district session court > assistant session court > magistrate court (UM > 1st class magistrate > 2nd class magistrate).
Also known: Even if there is no appeal, the death sentence passed by the sessions court has to be confirmed by HC before execution. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which tissue consumes the highest oxygen? | [
"Choroid",
"Lens",
"Retina",
"Ciliary epithelium"
] | C | Retina is the highest oxygen consuming tissue of not only the eye but also amongst one of the most richly perfused tissues of body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of spreading streptococcal cellulitis is- | [
"Erythromycin",
"Penicillin",
"Tetracycline",
"Chloramphenicol"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In root end preparation: | [
"Tunnel type cavity is prepared",
"Class I cavity is prepared",
"Vertical slot is prepared",
"Any of the above"
] | B | Car and Bentkover defined an ideal root-end preparation as "A class I preparation at least 3.0 mm into root dentine with walls parallel to a coincident with the anatomic outline of the pulp space".
Five requirements suggested for a root end preparation to fulfill:
The apical 3 mm of root canal must be freshly cleaned and shaped.
Preparation must be parallel to the anatomic outline of the pulp cavity.
Creation of an adequate retention form.
Removal of all isthmus tissue if present.
Remaining dentin walls should not be weakened.
Textbook of Endodontics Nisha Garg 3rd Ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paltine tonsil develops from? | [
"1st pharyngeal arch",
"1st pharyngeal pouch",
"2nd pharyngeal arch",
"2nd pharyngeal pouch"
] | D | The palatine tonsil develops (on each side)in relation to the lateral pa of the second pharyngeal pouch.the endoderm lining the pouch undergoes considerable proliferation.it invades the underlying mesoderm of second arch,which forms the tonsilar strauma HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:178 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post-hepatic Portal Hypertension is caused by: | [
"Portal vein thrombosis",
"Banti syndrome",
"Budd-Chiari syndrome",
"Congenital hepatic fibrosis"
] | C | C. Budd-Chiari Syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1973, Ghai 8/e p 320)Postsinusoidal causes of Portal hypertension include: Budd-Chiari syndrome and Veno-occlusive disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about the given diagram: | [
"It is found 2 feet distal to the ileocecal juntion",
"It is located on the mesenteric side of the ileum",
"It occurs in approximately 20% of the population",
"It is a persistent remnant of the embryonic yolk stalk."
] | D | Given image - Meckel's diveiculum CHOICE EXPLANATION & ELIMINATION REASON 1 Situated 2 feet proximal 2 Located on anti-messenteric border 3 In 2% of population 4 True statement | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk of rupture of uterus with previous classical caesarean section is: March 2011 | [
"0.5-1.5%",
"2-4%",
"4-8%",
"8-16%"
] | C | Ans. C: 4-8% Classical caesarean section carries more risk of scar rupture (4-8%) Scar rupture in lower segment CS is less (0.5-1.5%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mark a FALSE statement with regards to diagnostic studies in steatorrhea of various etiologies. | [
"Chronic pancreatitis- D-Xylulose test is normal , schilling test-abnormal ,duodenal biopsy-normal",
"Bacterial overgrowth syndrome- D-Xylulose test -normal , schilling test-abnormal ,duodenal biopsy- normal",
"Celiac disease-D-Xylulose test-Decreased , schilling test- normal ,duodenal biopsy - Absent villi",
... | D | Results of Diagnostic Studies in Steatorrhea of Various Etiologies: D-XYLOSE TEST SCHILLING TEST DUODENAL MUCOSAL BIOPSY Chronic pancreatitis Normal 50% abnormal; if abnormal, normal with pancreatic enzyme treatment Normal Bacterial overgrowth syndromes Normal or only modestly abnormal Often abnormal; if abnormal, normal after antibiotic treatment Usually normal Heal disease Normal Abnormal Normal Celiac disease Decreased Normal Abnormal: probably "flat" Intestinal lymphangiectasia Normal Normal Abnormal: "dilated lymphatics" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti-helicobacter pylori drugs are all of the following except:- | [
"Clarithromycin",
"Amoxicillin",
"Metronidazole",
"Ofloxacin"
] | D | Antimicrobials effective against H. pylori are :- Metronidazole/tinidazole Amoxicillin Clarithromycin Tetracycline Colloidal bismuth subcitrate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indications for mucogingival surgery include the following except | [
"A shallow vestibule",
"Insufficient attached gingiva",
"Infrabony pockets",
"A high frenum attachment"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best view for visualizing sella turcica on X-Ray: | [
"A P View",
"Town's view",
"Lateral view",
"Open mouth view"
] | C | C i.e. Lateral view | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about atosiban is? | [
"Is an oxytocin receptor antagonist",
"Is an progesterone receptor antagonist",
"Is least effective in inhibiting preterm uterine Contractions",
"Is a anti-tocolytic drug"
] | A | Atosiban is a peptide analog of oxytocin that acts as an antagonist at the oxytocin receptors. It is a tocolytic. It suppress uterine contractions and postpones preterm delivery. (Ref.Essentials of medical pharmacology TD Tripathi 6th edition page no.333). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The reference protein is – | [
"Fish",
"Egg",
"Rice",
"Lemon"
] | B | Eggs are used in nutrition studies as a "reference protein" as eggs proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because of their high biological value and digestibility.
So NPU is also high because it is the product of biological value and digestibility coefficient divided by 100. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actions of cholecystokinin include all of the following except : | [
"Contraction of gall bladder",
"Secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes",
"Increases the secretion of enterokinase",
"All"
] | D | FUNCTIONS:Stimulates pancreatic acinar cell enzymes secretion.Causes contraction of gallbladder.Secretion of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice.Increases enterokinase secretion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of chronic osteomyelitis | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Mycobacterium tuberculosis",
"Staphylococcus epidermidis"
] | A | Chronic osteomyelitis is nearly always a sequel to acute osteomyelitisOccasionally infection is subacute or chronic from the beginningAs with acute osteomyelitis, the most common causative organism is staphylococcus areus(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 283, 284) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a beta lactum antibiotic? | [
"Penicillin",
"Carbepenem",
"Monobactum",
"Azithromycin"
] | D | These are antibiotics having a beta-lactam ring. The two major groups are penicillins and cephalosporins. Monobactams and carbapenems are relatively newer additions. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY page no.716 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of Crohn's disease underwent resection anastomosis. Now present on 7th postoperative day with anastomotic leak from a fistula. Every day leakage volume adds up to 150-200 mL. There is no intra-abdominal collection and the patient is stable without any complaints. What will be next line of management? | [
"Conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolution",
"Perform laparotomy and check for leakage site and health margins",
"Perform laparotomy and completely exteriorize the fistula",
"Perform laparotomy and place drain and leave"
] | A | Ans. (a) Conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolutionRef: Sabiston 19th edition, Pages 1270-1272* As long as the patient has no signs of sepsis we can wait -- the waiting can be maximum for 4-6 weeks.* Only after 6 weeks we will plan for surgery: Excision of fistula and segmental resection of the involved bowel and reanastomosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
(Incidence of disease among exposed - incidence among non-exposed) x 1000 / (Incidence among exposed) gives the value of- | [
"Relative risk",
"Attributable risk",
"Odd ratio",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Attributable risk * Odds ratio is a measure of the strength of the association between risk factor & outcome. Diseased Not Diseased Exposed A B Not Exposed C D Odds ratio = AD/BC Relative risk = (Incidence of disease among exposed) x 1000 / (Incidence of disease among non-exposed) Attributable risk = (Incidence of disease among exposed - incidence among non-exposed) x 1000 / (Incidence among exposed) AR indicaes to what extent the disease under study can be attributed to the exposure. Population Attributable Risk = Incidence of disease in the total population - the incidence of disease among those who were not exposed attributable risk or excess risk is the difference in rate of a condition between an exposed population and an unexposed population. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Term 'schizophrenia' was coined by:TN 06; Ranchi 10; NEET 13 | [
"Eugene Bleuler",
"Kraepelin",
"Freud",
"Schneider"
] | A | Ans. Eugene Bleuler | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following has the most prominent spine?(Kerala 2008) | [
"C7",
"T2",
"C2",
"L3"
] | A | Ans: a (C7) Ref: Snells 6th edp 821/822; BDC 4th ed vol 3 p 40., vol 2 p 182, vol 1 p 198C7is a prominent vertebra characterized by a very long spinous process, because of this prominent process C7 is called vertebra prominens.T1 to T4 vertebra have same features of cervical vertebra.Lumbar spinous process is short and sturdy.Characteristics of vertebrae:CharacteristicsCervicalThoracicLumbarvertebral foramentriangularcirculartriangularvertebral bodysmall and broad from side to sideheart shapedlarge kidney shapedsup. articular facetbackwards and upwardsbackwards and laterallyface mediallyinf articular facetdownwards and forwardsforwards and mediallyface laterallyspinous processsmall bifidlong and inclined downwardsshort, flat quadrangular | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of Succinate Dehydrogenase enzyme? | [
"Succinic acid",
"Fumaric acid",
"Malonic acid",
"Oxalic acid"
] | C | Most frequently, in competitive inhibition, the inhibitor (I) binds to the substrate-binding poion of the active site thereby blocking access by the substrate. The structures of most classic competitive inhibitors, therefore, tend to resemble the structures of a substrate and thus are termed substrate analogues. Inhibition of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase by malonate illustrates competitive inhibition by a substrate analog. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the removal of one hydrogen atom from each of the two-methylene carbons of succinate both succinate and its structural analog malonate (-OOC--CH2-- COO-) can bind to the active site of succinate dehydrogenase, forming an ES or an EI complex, respectively. However, since malonate contains only one methylene carbon, it cannot undergo dehydrogenation. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an oncological emergency - | [
"Spinal cord compression",
"Superior venacaval syndrome",
"Tumor lysis syndrome",
"Carcinoma cervix stage- III B with Pyometra"
] | D | Ans is 'd' i.e. carcinoma cervix stage III 'B' with pyometra Structural obstructive oncological emergency Metabolic emergency Treatment related oncological emergency (1) Superior venacaval syndrome (1) Hypercalcetnia (1) Tumor lysis syndrome (2) Pericardial effusion/tamponade (2) SIADH (2) Human antibody infusion reactions (3) Intestinal obstruction (3) Lactic acidosis (3) Hemolytic urernic syndrome (4) Urinary obstruction (4) Hypoglycemia (4) Pulmonary infiltrates (5) Malignant biliary infections (5) Adrenal (5) Neutropenia & infections (6) Spinal cord compression insufficiency (6) Typhlitis (neutropenic enterocolitis) (7) Increased intracranial pressure (7) Hemorrhagic cystitis (8) Neoplastic meningitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Given cystogram appearance is a feature of | [
"Congenital anomalies of the genitourinary tract",
"Tubercuosis",
"Schistosomiasis",
"Neurogenic bladder"
] | D | A pine cone bladder or Christmas tree bladder is a cystogram appearance in which the bladder is elongated and pointed with the thickened trabeculated wall.It is typically seen in the severe neurogenic bladder with increased sphincter tone (detrusor sphincter dyssynergia) due to suprasacral lesions (above S2-S4) or epiconal lesions (in and around S2-S4).Extra Edge: Fetal skull like extensively calcified bladder in SchistosomiasisThimble bladder: TBAdder Head appearance: ureteroceleTeardrop bladder: Pelvic Lipomatosis, perivesical extraperitoneal hematomaMolar tooth bladder: Extraperitoneal bladder tear | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gingival fiber group which inserts in two adjacent teeth | [
"Horizontal",
"Circular",
"Transeptal",
"Oblique"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
CPPD crystals are seen in which disease ? | [
"Hypothyroidism",
"Primary hyperparathyroidism",
"Hemochromatosis",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
25 year old man with 3 weeks fever presented with tricuspid valve vegetation. Most common cause is ? MC cause of Endocorditis in I.V. drug abuses | [
"Staph aureus",
"Candida albicans",
"Pseudomonas",
"Streptococcus viridans"
] | A | Staph aureus "Endocarditis among i.v. drug users especially when infection involves the tricuspid valve is commonly caused by S. aureus strains many of which are methicillin resistant". Left sided valve infection in addicts has a more varied etiology and involve abnormal valves often ones damaged by prior episodes of endocarditis. A number of these cases are caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa and candida species and sporadic cases are due to unusual organisms such as Bacillus lactobacillus and corynebacterium species. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana | [
"Applies to BPL only",
"30,000 per family member",
"75% premium borne by family",
"Implemented all over India"
] | A | Ans. a. Applies to BPL only 83. provide health insurance coverage for Below Povey Line (BPL) families. Beneficiaries need to pay only 30/- as registration fee while Central and State Government pays the premium to the insurer selected by the State Government on the basis of a competitive bidding. The key feature of RSBY is that a beneficiary who has been enrolled in a paicular district will be able to use his/ her sma card in any RSBY empanelled hospital across India | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause? | [
"Cortical cataract",
"Morgagnian cataract",
"Nuclear cataract",
"Steroid induced cataract"
] | D | Ans. (d) Steroid induced cataractRef: Ducker's ophthalmology 2/e, p. 412; Parson's 20/e, p. 251Steroid induced cataract is posterior subcapsular which causes the said complaints due to its central position. Age favours PSC than nuclear cataract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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