question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Stain which differentiates cryptococcus from other fungus | [
"Gram stain",
"Acid fast stain",
"India ink",
"Gomori methamine silver stain"
] | C | India ink or Nigrosine - demonstrate the capsule of Cryptococcus as a clear halo Gram stain - used to diff. b/w gram positive and gram negative Acid fast stain - used to stain Tuberculous bacteria, acid fastness is due to mycolic acid . Gomori methamine silver stain - used to stain Pneumocystis jiroveci | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not cause hyperventilation? | [
"Anxiety",
"High altitude",
"Pulmonary hypeension",
"Psychotic illness"
] | C | Physiological causes of ventilation are anxiety, altitude, pregnancy, and exercise. Other common pathological causes include hypoxemia, pulmonary conditions like pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, bronchial asthma, cardiac conditions like congestive hea failure and hypotension, acidosis, hepatic failure, psychogenic, salicylates, fever and sepsis. Ref: Pulmonary Function: A Guide for Clinicians By Gabriel Laszlo, 1994, Page 172 ; Harrison's 17th ed chapter 258 | train | med_mcqa | null |
When the dental plaque is allowed to accumulate in the absence of any plaque control procedures, it results in gingivitis within | [
"1 to 3 days",
"7 to 21 days",
"2 months to 3 months",
"24 hours to 48 hours"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Codman's triangle is a feature of - | [
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteochondroma",
"Osteoid osteoma",
"Chondrosarcoma"
] | A | A Codman triangle develops when a poion of periosteum is lifted off of the coex by tumor, pus, or hemorrhage at a leading edge . This aggressive form of periosteal reaction is commonly seen in osteosarcomas and occasionally with infection and metastases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The treatment of choice in diagnosed ventricular fibrillation is | [
"Amiodarone",
"External cardiac massage",
"DC shock",
"Adrenaline"
] | C | Defibrillation.The delivery of an electrical shock through the chest wall to the hea momentarily stops the hea and the chaotic rhythm. This often allows the normal hea rhythm to resume. If a public-use automated external defibrillator (AED) is available, anyone can administer it. Most public-use AEDs voice instructions as you use them. Public-use AEDs are programmed to recognize ventricular fibrillation and send a shock only when needed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of ureteric injury during surgical operation is: | [
"Abdomino-perineal resection",
"Hysterectomy",
"Prostectomy",
"Colectomy"
] | B | (Hystrectomy) (1312-Baily & Love 24th) (2275-SB) (1292-B &L 25th)Ureteric injury during operations* The most common cause of injury to the ureter is surgical trauma during hysterectomy or other pelvic surgery* Pre operative catheterization of the ureter makes then easier to identify during surgery.* Injuries discovered at the time of surgery should be repaired immediately.Methods for repairing a damaged ureter* It there is no loss of length - Spatulation and end to end anastomosis* If there is little loss of length - Mobilise kidney, psoas hitch of bladder Boari operation* If there is marked loss of length -- T ransureterostomy- Inter position of isolated bowel loop or mobilized appendix- Nephrectomy* Injuries to the lower third of the ureter - procedure of choice is reimplantation in the bladder combined with psoas- hitch procedure to minimize tension on the ureteral anastomosis* Midureteral injuries - can be managed with primary uretero ureterostomy. If there is not a significant loss of viable ureter between the proximal and distal sites of injuries, otherwise trans ureteroureterostomy is a good option.* Upper ureteral injuries - are best managed with primary ureterostomy. If there is extensive loss of the ureter, autotransplantation of the kidney and transposition of bowel to replace the ureter are potential surgical options. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of these supply the first 2 cm of the duodenum EXCEPT: | [
"Supraduodenal aery",
"Common heaptic aery",
"Gastroduodenal aery",
"Superior pancreaticoduodenal aery"
] | A | A i.e. Supraduodenal aery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vomiting centre receives stimulus from | [
"Area postrema",
"Suprachiasmatic",
"Medial nuclei",
"Lateral nuclei"
] | A | Vomiting centre in medulla receives stimulus from-
- Chemoreceptor trigger zone- Area postrema
- Vestibular system
- Periphery- eg: irritation of gut, MI, biliary stones, renal stones
- Cortical centres | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antigen involved in post transplant rejection - | [
"HLA - Antigen",
"Nuclear antigen",
"Polysaccharide",
"DHA"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., HLA - antigen For rejection of graft, there must be some antigen that is recognized as foreign and the most impoant antigen is HLA antigen of grafted tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a delayed absorbable synthetic suture material ? | [
"Chromic catgut",
"Vicryl",
"Silk",
"Nylon"
] | B | Silk and nylon are non absorbable suture materials. Chromic catgut is catgut (natural) with chromic acid salt which gets absorbed in 21 days. Vicryl is synthetic, multifilament and braided, absorbable suture material which gets absorbed in 90 days by hydrolysis Reference : page 1172 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brunner's glands are located in the | [
"Duodenum",
"Jejunum",
"Ileum",
"All"
] | A | A i.e. Duodenum | train | med_mcqa | null |
An anaesthetic agent with boiling temperature more than 75 C | [
"Ether",
"Halothane",
"Cyclopropane",
"Methoxyflurane"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
The hepatopancreatic ampulla opens into which of the following pa of duodenum ? | [
"first pa",
"second pa",
"third pa",
"fouh pa"
] | B | The second pa of duodenum - The major duodenal papilla is an elevation present posteromedially, 8 to 10 cm distal to the pylorus. The hepatopancreatic ampulla opens at the summit of the papilla. image ref -eahslab.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pt with recurrent diarrhoea, pseudopolyp, lead pipe appearance on Ba enema has - | [
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Crohn's disease",
"Irritable bowel syndrome",
"Short bowel syndrome"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spinal cord ends at the level of | [
"LI vertebra",
"L2 vertebra",
"SI vertebra",
"L3 vertebra"
] | A | (A) L1 vertebra # Spinal cord:> At birth, spinal cord terminates at lower border of L2.> In Adults, it extends from the level of the upper border of the atlas to the lower border of vertebra L1, or the upper border of vertebra L2.> Spinal cord is about 45 cm long.> Spinal cord extends from the level of the upper border of the atlas to the lower border of L1 vertebra or the upper border of L2 vertebra. It is about 45 cm long.> The lower end is conical and is called conus medullaris.> The apex of the conus is continued down as the filum terminate> There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Black widow spider toxin is known to cause | [
"Excess release of Acetylcholine",
"Decrease release of Acetylcholine",
"Inhibits synthesis of Acetylcholine",
"Blocking Active transpo of ACh into synaptic vesicle"
] | A | Excess release of Acetylcholine Black widow spider toxin Induces massive release and depletion of acetylcholine Decrease release of Acetylcholine Botulinum toxin Inhibits synthesis of Acetylcholine Hemicholinium (HC3) blocks choline uptake (the rate limiting step in Achsynthesis) and depletes Ach Active transpo of ACh into synaptic vesicle Inhibited by vesamicol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foification of foods with specific nutrients as salt with iodine is an example of | [
"Primordial prevention",
"Primary prevention",
"Secondary prevention",
"Teiary Prevention"
] | B | Primary prevention Primary prevention can be defined as "action taken prior to the onset of disease, which removes the possibility that a disease will ever occur". It signifies intervention in the pre-pathogenesis phase of a disease or health problem (e.g.,Low bih weight) or other depaure from health. Primary preventionmay be accomplished by measures designed to promote general health and well-being, and quality of life of people or by specific protective measures. These are discussed in detail elsewhere under "Mode of Intervention". Ref: Park 24th Edition. Pgno : 46 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Presence of infectious arthropod agent on clothes or dressing is termed | [
"Contamination",
"Infestation",
"Infection",
"Contagion"
] | A | Infection: Entry of organism and its multiplication and/or development in host
Infestation: Lodgement, development and reproduction of arthropods on surface of body or clothes
Contamination: Presence of infectious organism on body or in clothings/beds/ toys/surgical instruments/dressings/ in-animate objects
Contagion: Transmission of disease from one person to another by direct or indirect contact | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement regarding cochlear implant is true: | [
"Cochlear malformation is not a CI to its use",
"Contraindicated in children < 5 yrs of age",
"Indicated in mild-moderate hearing loss",
"Approached through oval window"
] | A | Ans. A Cochlear malformation is not a CI to its useRef. Current Otolaryngology 3rd/ed p 8S6; Dhingra 5th/ed p 739-740ExplanationAs discussed earlier Cochlear implants are useful in B/l severe to profound hearing loss and not in mild-moderate hearing loss :. Option C is incorrect (Dhingra Sth/ed p 139), 6th/ed p 125)Cochlear implants can be implanted in children at 12 months of age, rather early implantation gives better results. (Dhingra 5th/ed p 139), 6th led p 125"The timing of implantation is very impoant. Earlier implantation in children generally yields more orable results and many centers roultinely implant children under 12 months of age:'So friends-Option b-C/I in children < 5 years of age is incorrect.Approach for cochlear implants is facial recess, where a simple coical mastoidectomy is done first and sho process of incus and lateral semicircular canal is identified. The facial recess is operated by performing a posterior tymparotomy. A cochleostomy is then done inferior to round window (Not oval window) with the goal of affording access to scale tympani (where the electrode has to be placed).Thus option d . it is approached through oval window is incorrect. So by exclusion are answer is a cochlear malformation is not a contradiction to its use. | train | med_mcqa | null |
At the CEJ cementum overlaps enamel about | [
"55 to 60%",
"60 to 65%",
"65 to 70%",
"70 to 75%"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zona pellucida is seen in - | [
"Oocyte",
"Primary spermatocyte",
"Secondary spermatocyte",
"Sertoli cell"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oocyte * The zona pellucida (plural zonae pellucidae, also egg coat or pellucid zone) is a glycoprotein layer surrounding the plasma membrane of mammalian oocytes.* It is a vital constitutive part of the oocyte. The zona pellucida first appears in unilaminar primary oocytes. It is secreted by both the oocyte and the follicular cells.* The zona pellucida is surrounded by the cumulus oophorus. The cumulus is composed of cells that care for the egg when it is emitted from the ovary* This structure binds spermatozoa, and is required to initiate the acrosome reaction. In the mouse (the best characterised mammalian system), the zona glycoprotein, ZP3, is responsible for sperm binding, adhering to proteins on the sperm plasma membrane (GalT). ZP3 is then involved in the induction of the acrosome reaction, whereby a spermatozoon releases the contents of the acrosomal vesicle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The major clinical manifestation of Wilson disease in children 8-16 years of age is | [
"Hepatic dysfunction",
"Cardiac failure",
"Thromboembolic event",
"Blindness"
] | A | Hepatic dysfunction Wilson's disease or hepatolenticular degeneration is an autosomal recessive disease in which copper accumulates in tissues this manifests as neurological or psychiatric symptoms and liver disease. The condition is due to mutation in the Wilson disease protein (ATP7B) gene Hepatic manifestation occur in 50% of patient mean age of onset of hepatic manifestation is 11.4year. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum when the pH is equal to: | [
"0.5 pKa",
"pKa",
"pKa+1",
"2 pKa"
] | B | Buffering capacity of a buffer is most effective when the concentrations of salt and acid are equal or when pH = pKa. The effective range of a buffer is 1 pH unit higher or lower than pKa. pKa refers to the pH at which the concentration of the acid equals that of the base. Phosphate buffer is effective at a wide range because it has three pKa values. Ref: Vasudevan, Biochemistry, 3rd Edition, Page 320 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The EEG recorded shown below is normally recordable during which stage of sleep? | [
"Stage I",
"Stage II",
"Stage III",
"Stage IV"
] | B | Following are seen in Stage II of NREM sleep: 1. Sleep spindles( burst of regular waves, 13- 15 Hz , 50 micro volt) 2. K complexes - High voltage spikes, seen intermittently | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tongue develops from all except: | [
"Lingual swellings",
"Tuberculum impar",
"Hypobranchial eminence",
"Frontonasal process"
] | D | Ans. D. Frontonasal processThe tongue is divided into two parts: oral part (anterior two third) and pharyngeal part (posterior one-third).a. The oral part of tongue develops from three swellings associated with first pharyngeal arch. These swellings are two lateral lingual swellings and one median swelling--the tuberculum impar.b. The pharyngeal part of tongue develops from a median swelling called hypobranchial eminence associated with third, and fourth pharyngeal arches.c. Muscles of tongue develop from occipital myotomes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Necrotizing epitheloid cell granulomas are seen in all, except | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Cat's Scratch disease",
"Leprosy"
] | D | Ans. (d) Leprosy(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 97; 8th/pg 73,516)NECROTIC GRANULOMASInfectiveNon infectiveTB, Syphilis, histoplasma, cat scratch diseaseWegners, granulomatosis, necrotising sarcoidosis, bronchocentric granulomasTuberculoid leprosy shows non necrotic granulomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following specimens should never be refrigerated | [
"H.influenzae",
"P.aeruginosa",
"Moraxella catarrhalis",
"Escherichia coli"
] | A | H.influenzae ishighly sensitive to low temperature. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is not a feature of peripheral arterial occlusion - | [
"Shock",
"Pallor",
"Pain",
"Pulselessness"
] | A | Symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial occlusion are classically remembered by 5 Ps.
Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paralysis &
Paraesthesia (actually it is anaesthesia, complete loss of sensation)
Some add a sixth 'P' - 'poikilothermia' or 'perishing cold'
MC presenting symptom of acute arterial occlusion → Pain (Schwartz Pretest) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior staphyloma, most common cause – | [
"Trauma",
"Myopia",
"Iridocyclitis",
"Glaucoma"
] | B | Staphyloma
Staphyloma is an abnormal protrusion of uveal tissue through a weak and thin portion of cornea or sclera
So, a staphyloma is lined internally by uveal tissue and externally by weak cornea or sclera.
o Staphyloma is divided anatomically into : -
Anterior staphyloma: - Protrusion and adhesion ofiris to ectatic cornea. The most common cause is a sloughing corneal ulcer which perforates and heals with the formation of pseudocornea by the organization of exudates and laying down of fibrous tissue. It is lined internally by iris.
Intercalary staphyloma: - It occurs at the limbus. It islined internally by the root of iris and the anterior most portion of the ciliary body. The causes are perforating injuries to limbus, marginal corneal ulcer, anterior scterilis, Scleromalacia perforans, Complicated cataract surgery, secondary angle closure glaucoma.
Ciliary staphyloma : This affects the ciliary zone thatincludes the region upto 8 mm behind the limbus. The ciliary body is incarcerated in the region of scleral ectasia. Causes arc Developmental glaucoma. Primary or secondary glaucoma end stage, scleritis, trauma to ciliary region.
Equatorial staphyloma : - This occurs at theequatorial region of the eye with incarceration of the choroid.
Causes are scleritis, degenerative myopia and chronic uncontrolled glaucoma.
Posterior staphyloma : - Occurs at posterior pole andis lined internally by choroid. Degenerative high axial myopia is the most common cause. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old women presents with a 2-week history of uterine bleeding. Gynecologic examination reveals an enlarged uterus. The hysterectomy specimen shows a large polypoid mass involving the endometrium and myometrium. Histologic examination reveals malignant glands and malignant stromal elements, including striated muscle and cartilage. What is the appropriate diagnosis? | [
"Carcinosarcoma",
"Endometrioid adenocarcinoma",
"Leiomyosarcoma",
"Pleomorphic adenoma"
] | A | Carcinosarcoma is an aggressive, mixed mesodermal tumor, in which the epithelial and stromal components are both highly malignant. These neoplasms are derived from multipotential stromal cells. The overall 5-year rate survival is 25%. Pleomorphic adenoma (choice D) is a mixed tumor of salivary gland. The other choices do not feature biphasic components.Diagnosis: Carcinosarcoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not commonly seen in Hepatocellular carcinoma? | [
"Raised AFP",
"Raised ALP",
"Hepatomegaly",
"Jaundice"
] | D | Among the common presenting symptoms of patients with HCC, jaundice is not commonly seen. It is seen only when there is mechanical obstruction of the bile duct. Most of the patients presents with abdominal pain or are completely asymptomatic and are detected on routine laboratory investigation. Hepatomegaly is the most common physical sign. AFP levels are elevated in more than half of the cases. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18e chapter 92. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoma thyroid with blood-borne metastasis is- | [
"Follicular",
"Papillary",
"Mixed",
"Medullary"
] | A | As already explained above
Papillary spreads mainly by → lymphatics
Follicular spreads mainly by → hematogenous
Anaplastic spreads mainly by → direct (lymphatic and blood-borne spread is also seen)
Medullary spreads mainly by → lymphatics
Also Remember
"The most common sites of blood-borne metastasis are lung, bones and brain. Lung involvement is more frequent in papillary carcinoma, while bone involvement is more common in follicular thyroid Ca."
Endocrine surgery of head & neck by Phillip K. Pellitteri & Thomas V. McCaffrey | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as: | [
"Gynecoid",
"Android",
"Anthropoid",
"Platypelloid"
] | C | Ans. C. AnthropoidBy tradition, pelvis are classified as belonging to one of four major groups. The gynecoid pelvis is the classic female pelvis with a posterior sagittal diameter of the inlet only slightly shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter. In the android pelvis, the posterior sagittal diameter at the inlet is much shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter, limiting the use of the posterior space by the fetal head. In the anthropoid pelvis, the anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the inlet is greater than the transverse diameter, resulting in an oval with large sacrosciatic notches and convergent side walls. Ischial spines are likely to be prominent. The platypelloid pelvis is flattened with a short AP and wide transverse diameter. Wide sacrosciatic notches are common. The pelves of most women do not fall into a pure type and are blends of one or more of the above types. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Polio virus infection can result in all except ? | [
"Anterior horn cell damage",
"Autonomic involvement",
"respiratory involvement",
"Paralysis in > 70% of cases"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Paralysis in > 70 of cases o Poliovirus selectively damage motor and autonomic nervous system. o Most commonly affected areas are the anterior horn of the spinal cord, vestibular and cranial nerve nuclei and vital centres in the medulla and vermis, and nuclei in the roof of cerebellum. o When respiratory centers are involved the respiration becomes shallow and irregular. o Areas which are usually not affected White matter of spinal cord, Cerebellar hemisphere, Nonmotor pa of cerebral coex. o Paralytic polio is seen in less than 1% of polio infections. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Visual impairments in pterygium is due to - | [
"Astigmatism",
"Myopia",
"Hypermetropia",
"Hazy cornea"
] | A | Visual disturbances occur when pterygium encroches the pupillary area or due to corneal astigmatism induced due to fibrosis in the regressive stage. Reference : Khurana 7th edition, page : 89 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epithelium is absent in lens on- | [
"Anterior surface",
"Anterior pole",
"Posterior surface",
"At zonular attachment"
] | C | There is no epitheliunm on posterior surface. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stimulation of which of the following areas of brain is experimentally used to control intractable pain - | [
"Periaqueductal grey matter",
"Mesencephalon",
"Subthalmic nucleus",
"Medical fore brain bundle"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of metastasis of carcinoma bronchi | [
"Liver+Bones",
"Prostate",
"Kidney",
"Breast"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of composites is | [
"1 ppm/ oC",
"40 ppm/ oC",
"260 ppm/ oC",
"1000 ppm/ oC"
] | B | Linear coefficient of thermal expansion:
TOOTH : 9-11 PPM/ oC
AMALGAM : 25
GOLD : 15
COMPOSITES : 40
GIC : 25
DENTAL WAXES : HIGHEST 260-600 PPM/ oC
Reference- Sturdevant 6th ed P:237 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a part of Epithalamus-? | [
"Pineal body",
"Posterior commissure",
"Trigonum Habenulae",
"Geniculate bodies"
] | D | Ans. D. Geniculate bodiesa. The diencephalon has four parts on each side: the thalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus.b. The thalamus, by far the largest component, is subdivided into nuclei that have different afferent and efferent connections. Certain thalamic nuclei receive input from the pathways for all the senses except smell; these nuclei project to corresponding sensory areas of the cerebral cortex. Other thalamic nuclei are connected with motor and association areas of the cortex, and yet others participate in memory, sleep, and mental activities.c. The subthalamus is a complex region ventral to the thalamus; it includes a nucleus with motor functions (the subthalamic nucleus) and tracts from the brain stem, cerebellum, and corpus striatum, which terminate in the thalamus.d. The epithalamus, situated dorso medially to the thalamus and adjacent to the roof of the third ventricle, consists of the anterior and posterior paraventricular nuclei, the medial and lateral habenular nuclei, the stria medullaris thalami, posterior commissure and the pineal body. They are concerned with autonomic and behavioral responses to emotional changes.e. The hypothalamus occupies the region between the third ventricle and the subthalamus; it is the part of the forebrain that integrates and controls the activities of the autonomic nervous system and of several endocrine glands. The neurohypophysis, which includes the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland, is an outgrowth of the hypothalamus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Using a lens of +14D, magnification of fundus of an emmetropic eye in indirect ophthalmoscopy is: | [
"5 times",
"10 times",
"25 times",
"15 times"
] | A | Magnification of lens = DIOPTRIC POWER of eye/ diaoptric powr of lens =+60D/14D [?] 5x. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Musculature of first pharyngeal arch is supplied by which cranial nerve? | [
"V",
"VII",
"IX",
"X"
] | A | Musculature of the first pharyngeal arch includes the muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, and pterygoids), anterior belly of the digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, and tensor palatini. The nerve supply to the muscles of the first arch is provided by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerveRef: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 16. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Right shift of oxygen dissociation curve is caused by? | [
"Hypothermia",
"Hypoxia",
"Alkalosis",
"HbF"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Hypoxia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Axillary nerve is accompanied by which aery ? | [
"a) Axillary",
"Subscapular",
"Anterior circumflex humeral",
"Posterior circumflex humeral"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Posterior circumflex humeralAxillary nerve Axillary nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of brachial plexus with root value C5 and C6. It leaves the posterior wall of axilla along with the posterior circumflex humeral vessels throuth the quadrangular space. While passing through the quadrangular space it gives its first branch, an aicular twig to the shoulder joint. Then it divides into?Anterior division :- Winds around the surgical neck of humerus to supply deltoid. Posterior division :- It gives ofBranches to posterior pa of deltoid.Nerve to teres minor which shows apseudoganglion.Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm supplying the skin covering lower pa of deltoid (regimental badge region). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can cause pyometra except: | [
"Cervical cancer",
"Uterine cancer",
"Genital TB",
"Septate uterus"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Septate uterus* Pyometra is a rare condition characterized by the accumulation of pus within the uterine cavity. Pyometra is most frequently seen in postmenopausal women but it can affect younger women as well. Usually there is some underlying condition involved.* Causes of pyometra:a) Cervical cancerb) Uterine cancerc) Cervical atresiad) Cervical stenosise) Genital TB* Pyometra often doesn't cause any symptoms and can be found during an ultrasonography of pelvis. Signs and symptoms that may be experienced by affected women include:i) Purulent vaginal discharge with traces of bloodii) Postmenopausal bleedingiii) Lower abdominal painiv) Symmetrical enlargement of the uterusv) Nausea and vomitingvi) Diarrheavii) Pyrexia (rarely) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following permanent tooth have abnormal relation to adjacent teeth: | [
"3rd molar.",
"Maxillary lateral incisors.",
"Mandibular lateral incisors.",
"Maxillary canine."
] | B | Maxillary lateral incisors are the teeth, which commonly have an abnormal relation to adjacent teeth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Freezing point of normal human plasma is | [
"4degC",
"0degC",
"_0.54degC",
"_1.54degC"
] | C | The freezing point of normal human plasma averages _0.54degC which corresponds to osmolar concentration in plasma of 290 mOsm/L The term tonicity is used to describe the osmolality of a solution relative to plasma A 0.9% saline solution and 4% glucose solution is isotonic when initially infused intravenously osmolarity= 2(Na+)(mEq/L)+0.055(glucose)(mg/dL)+0.36(BUN)(mg/dL) Red Robbins 9/e p420 and ananthanaraya | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are neural crest derivatives except? | [
"Cauda equina",
"Adrenal medulla",
"Melanoblasts",
"Odontoblasts"
] | A | Mnemonic:SOME GAP S-Schwann cells -Skeleton of face O-odontoblasts M-Meninges(pia and arachnoid) E-Endocardial cushion G-Ganglia(autonomic and dorsal root ganglia) A-Adrenal medulla -Aoicopulmonary septum P-Pigmant cells(melanocytes) -Pharyngeal arches(nerves and cailage) -parafollicular c cells of thyroid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common impacted foreign body in esophagus in children is | [
"Coin",
"Food product",
"Krayon",
"Marble"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coin Foreign body impaction* Most impacted foreign bodies do not get impacted in the oropharynx. The most common exceptions are fish and chick bones.* These objects most often lodge in the soft tissues at the base of tongue, but they can also lodge in the tonsil or the pyriform fossa.* Coins are the most commonly impacted foreign bodies in children in esophagus and oropharynx followed by the food products. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor with perineural invasion | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Adenoid cystic Ca",
"Basaal cell Ca",
"Squamous cell ca"
] | B | .SRB&;S Manual of Surgery 4th edition pg Adenoid cystic carcinoma has got high affinity for perineural spread both axially and circumferentially, antegrade and retrograde fashion along mandibular and maxillary divisions of trigeminal nerve and facial nerve. It infiltrates nerve more proximally for long distance. Tumor may reach Gasserion ganglion, pterygopalatine ganglion and cavernous sinus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most prominent feature of immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID)? | [
"Malabsorption",
"Obstruction",
"Bleeding",
"Abdominal pain"
] | A | Ans. a. Malabsorption IPSID is a variant of the B-cell lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), which involves mainly the proximal small intestine resulting in malabsorption, diarrhea, and abdominal pain."- al-Saleen T and al-Mondhiry H. Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID): a model for mature B-cell neoplasms. Immunoproliferative Small-Intestinal Disease (IPSID) IPSID is recognized as an infectious pathogen-associated human lymphoma that has association with Campylobacter jejuniQ IPSID is associated with excessive plasma cell differentiation and produces truncated alpha heavy chain proteins lacking the light chains as well as the first constant domainQ. Variant of the B-cell lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) Most prevalent in the Middle East and Africa Clinical Features: It involves mainly the proximal small intestine resulting in malabsorption, diarrhea, and abdominal painQ Most untreated IPSID patients progress to lymphoplasmacytic and immunoblastic lymphoma invading the intestinal wall and mesenteric lymph nodes, and may metastasize to a distant organ.Q Treatment Early-stage IPSID responds to antibiotics (30-70% complete remission)Q Most untreated IPSID patients progress to lymphoplasmacytic and immunoblastic lymphomaQ Patients not responding to antibiotic therapy are considered for treatment with combination chemotherapy used to treat low-grade lymphomag.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is useful in | [
"Cardiac failure",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Hepatic failure",
"Ahritis"
] | B | Refer KDT 6 /e p223 Leukotriene are potent bronchoconstricting agents, These agents play a major role in the pathogenesis of bronchial asthma The drugs acting by inhibiting their synthesis are useful in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gilbert's syndrome is characterized by -a) Normal liver function testb) Increased risk of cirrhosisc) Normal liver histologyd) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia precipitated by fasting | [
"a",
"bc",
"ac",
"b"
] | C | Gilbert's Syndrome: -
It is an autosomal dominant condition.
It is characterized by unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (normally the bilirubin is transported into liver cells by intracellular proteins. In the liver bilirubin is conjugated. This conjugation is brought about by certain enzymes. In Gilbert's syndrome these enzymes are absent which cause unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia).
The hyperbilirubinemia is usually precipitated by following conditions — Stress, Fatigue, Alcohol use, reduced calorie intake, intercurrent illness.
The hepatic biochemical tests are normal except for elevated bilirubin level (serum bilirubin concentration are usually < 3mg/dl)
The hepatic histology is normal
There is no association with cirrhosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which thyroid cancer Occurs after radiation exposure? | [
"Follicular",
"Papillary",
"Medullary",
"Anaplastic"
] | B | Papillary carcinoma (PTC) is the most frequent form of thyroid carcinoma diagnosed after radiation exposure, with a higher prevalence of the solid subtype in young children with a sho latency period and of the classical subtype in cases with a longer latency period after exposure. Molecular alterations, including intra-chromosomal rearrangements, are frequently found. Ref: www.scielo.br>scielo | train | med_mcqa | null |
The maximum rate of axonal transport is: | [
"200 mm/day",
"400 mm/day",
"600 mm/day",
"800 mm/day"
] | B | AXONAL TRANSPORT
The apparatus for protein synthesis in neurons is located primarily in the soma, with transport of proteins and polypeptides to the axonal ending by axoplasmic flow. Thus, the cell body maintains the functional and anatomic integrity of the axon. Orthograde transport occurs along microtubules located along the length of the axon; it requires two molecular motors, dynein and kinesin. Orthograde transport moves from the cell body toward the axon terminals. It has both fast and slow components, fast axonal transport occurs at about 400 mm/day, and slow axonal transport occurs at 0.5–10 mm/day. Retrograde transport from the nerve ending to the cell body occurs at about 200 mm/day.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology 26th ed pdf no 231 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The protocal's enucleation of the eye transplant are all EXCEPT: | [
"The eye is packed with ice & closed",
"No malignancy",
"Sterile procedure",
"Transplant within 6 hours"
] | D | (Transplant within 6 hours) (206-Parson 20th) (457-KH)CORNEAL GRAFTING - Donor corneas are harvested from cadaveric donors within 6 hours after death, sometimes upto 12 hours in countries with cold climates.They can be transplanted immediately or preserved in eye bank by various preservation techniques for varying intervals short term preservation requires the cornea to be used within 48 - 72 (Maximum 96) hours, Immediate term preservation by organ culture methods extend to 30 days and long term preservation is upto 1 year by cryo- preservation.* Corneas of infants and old age 70 years are not used. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is | [
"Government run insurance scheme for its employees",
"Government run insurance scheme for all citizens",
"Government run insurance scheme for all poor",
"Private insurance company scheme for all poor"
] | C | Government run insurance scheme for poor. Reference: RSBY Document, Government of India. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During evaluation of the cause of varicocele in a 36-year-old man, attention is directed to the method of drainage of the left testicular vein, which usually enters which of the following? | [
"Left adrenal vein",
"Left renal vein",
"Left inferior mesenteric vein",
"Inferior vena cava (IVC)"
] | B | The left testicular vein empties into the left renal vein, and the right testicular vein empties into the IVC. Partial occlusion of the right renal vein is an uncommon cause of varicocele and may signify an associated retroperitoneal malignancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crohn's disease can be seen in ? | [
"Jejunum only",
"Colon only",
"Terminal ileum and right side",
"Mouth to anus"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mouth to anus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Air forced, or sucked in to the connective tissue and facial spaces are known as? | [
"Empyema",
"Asphyxia",
"Emphysema",
"Aspiration"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency mechanism of transmission - | [
"Autosomal recessive",
"Autosomal dominant",
"X linked recessive",
"X linked dominant"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autosomal recessiveAutosomal recessive disordersMetabolicHematologicalEndocrineSkeletalNarvouso Cystic fibrosiso Phenylketonuriao Galactosemiao Homocystinuriao Lysosomal storage diso a1-antitrypsin deficiencyo Wilson diseaseo Hemochromatosiso Glycogen storage disorderso Sickle cell anemiao Thalassemiaso Congenital adrenal hyperplasiao Albinismo EDS (some variants)o Alkaptonuriao Friedreich ataxiao Spinal muscular atrophyo Neurogenic muscular atrophies | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vessels in umbilical cord: | [
"1 artery, 2 vein",
"2 arteries, 1 vein",
"1 artery, 1 vein",
"2 arteries, 2 vein"
] | B | Ans. (b) 2 arteries, 1 veinRef: LB. Singh 9th ed./159"Remember 2AV"* Umbilical cord is the structure which connects mother to fetus and acts as a bridge for transfer of blood and other nutrients from mother to baby.* It contains 2 arteries and one vein. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to mother while vein carry oxygenated blood from mother to fetus.* Cord contains whartons jelly and structures embedded in this are:# 2 arteries and 1 vein# Allantois and# remains of vitellointestinal duct | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic of an ideal gas is | [
"Volume is directly propoional to change in pressure",
"Volume is inversely propoional to change in temperature",
"At absolute temp. volume of gas is 1",
"Obeys Carles, Byles and Avagadro' laws"
] | D | D i.e. Obeys Charles, boyle's & avogadro's laws | train | med_mcqa | null |
Histopathological feature of HIV encephalitis is/are-a) Negri bodyb) Lewy body c) Fibrillary plaqued) Microglial nodulese) Multinucleated giant cell | [
"ab",
"bc",
"de",
"bd"
] | C | Microscopic findings of HIV encephalitis are :-
Diffuse white matter pallor
Perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and macrophages
Foci of necrosis, gliosis and / or demyelination
Microglial nodules, macrophages and multinucleated cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
The term Stratum malphigi refers to: | [
"S.corneum + S.spinosum",
"S.corneum + S.granulosum",
"S.basale + S.granulosum",
"S.basale + S.spinosum"
] | D | The layers of epidermis from below upwards are: S.basale, S.spinosum, S.granulosum, S.corneum. The lowest 2 layers are referred to by the term S.malphigi. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition, Pg 3.8. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subcutaneous emphysema may be found in the following conditions: | [
"Tracheostomy",
"Hemilich maneuver",
"Chest injury",
"All of the above"
] | D | * Posterior tracheal wall laceration is responsible for emphysema after Percutaneous Tracheostomy. After perforation of the posterior trachea wall, the pleural space can be reached easily. This may result in a pneumothorax. * Trauma to chest including after a vigorous Hemilich maneuver can lead to subcutaneous emphysema. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The preferred treatment option for primary syphilis is - | [
"Injection benzathine pencillin 2.4 million units IM single dose",
"Injection benzathine pencillin 2.4 million units IM once a week for 3 weeks",
"Cap. doxycycline 100 mg orally twice a day for 2 weeks",
"Tab. azithromycin 2 gm single dose"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Injection benzathine pencillin 2.4 million units IM single dose | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient Raj Kishore was given pilocarpine. All of the following can be the features seen in him except: | [
"Sweating",
"Salivation",
"Miosis",
"Cycloplegia"
] | D | Pilocarpine is a cholinergic drug , so it can cause sweating, salivation and miosis by its action on muscranic receptors. Cycloplegia is caused by anti-cholinergic drugs. Organ Parasympathetic stimulation Sympathetic stimulation Hea Depresses Stimulates Bronchus Bronchoconstriction Bronchodilation GIT Dilates Constricts Bladder Increase urine Decrease urine Glands Increase secretion Decrease secretion Pupil Miosis Mydriasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
One gray equals | [
"10 RAD",
"100 RAD",
"1000 RAD",
"10000RAD"
] | B | SI unit of radiation absorbed dose is GRAY (1 Gy= 1J/Kg)Absorbed dose is the energy absorbed as ionization or excitation per unit mass of the material irradiated.The concept of absorbed dose applies to all kinds of ionizing radiation (direct and indirect) and to any material.Before 1980 the international dose of absorbed dose is RAD1 Gy=100 rad (1rad=1cGy=10 mGy)(Ref: Farr&;s Physics for Medical Imaging, 2nd Edition, Page No 17) | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is meant by Superfecundation? | [
"Feilization of two or more ova in one intercourse",
"Feilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle",
"Feilization of ova and then it's division",
"Feilization of second ovum first being implanted"
] | B | * Superfecundation is the feilization of two or more ova from the same cycle by sperm from separate acts of sexual intercourse, which can lead to twin babies from two separate biological fathers. * The term superfecundation is derived from fecund, meaning the ability to produce offspring REF : DUTTA BOOK OF OBESTETRICS | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except : | [
"Presence of interstitial inflammation",
"Predominance of alveolar exudates.",
"Bronchiolitis.",
"Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall"
] | B | Answer is B (Predominance of alveolar exudates) Viral pneumonias are an example of 'atypical pneumonias' and are characterized by inflammatory reaction predominantly restricted within the walls of alveoli within the inteitium. The alveoli may be free from exudates - Robbins. The alveolar septa are widened and edematous and usually have a mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate. Alveoli may be free from exudates but in many patients there is accumulation of intraalveolar proteinaceous matriale, a cellular exudates and characteristically pink hyaline membranes. These changes reflect alveolar damage similar to that seen diffusely in ARDS. AIR Space Penumonia (Typical Pneumonia) Interstitial Pneumonia (Atypical Pneumonia) Exudate in alveoli i.e. consolidation No exudate, alveoli are air filled i.e. no consolidation (infiltrate in interstitium) Infiltrate is primarily of neutrophills (PMN) Infiltrate is primarily lymphatic Agents responsible are extracellular Agents responsible are intracellular Cough is productive of purulent sputum Cough is dry Chest X-ray shows alveolar pattern Chest X-ray shows interstitial pattern | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are immediate causes of death in a case of burn, except - | [
"Suffocation",
"Embolism",
"Injury",
"Sepsis"
] | D | Suffocation - because of smoke is one of the immediate causes of death Embolism: Pulmonary embolism from thrombosis of veins of the leg due to tissue damage and immobility Injury: severe injury may be one of the reasons for the immediate cause of death Sepsis: occurs after 4to 5 days or longer after burning most impoant factors of death REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 160. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of cholesterol in plasmalemma is to | [
"Increase the fluidity of lipid bilayer",
"Decrease the fluidity of lipid bilayer",
"Facilitate the diffusion of ions into the lipid bilayer",
"Assist in the transpo of hormones across the lipid bilayer"
] | B | The fluidity of the lipid bilayer is decreased in following three ways Lowering temperature Increasing saturation of fatty acyl tails in phospholipid membrane Increase membrane cholesterol content. Cholesterol interacts with the phospholipid membrane containing fatty acyl chains, compacting them, constraining the motion in bilayers, hence decreasing the fluidity. Ref: Lehninger 30e pg 395. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is best replacement for factor VIII in hemophilia A? | [
"FFP",
"Cryoprecipitate",
"Whole blood",
"Factor VIII"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary sclerosing cholangitis, true are - | [
"Females",
"Associated with IBD",
"Involves intra & extrahepatic ducts",
"ERCP not helpful"
] | B | Ref image Davidson 23e p888 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is/are not true about Dibucaine: | [
"Shorter acting than tetracaine",
"Longer acting than tetracaine",
"More potent than tetracaine",
"More potent than bupivacaine"
] | A | Ans: A (Shorter,,.) DIBUCAINE"Dibucaine: Longest: acting local anesthetic, most potent & most toxic"- Ajay Yadov 2nd/110"DibucainefCin chocaine}:!t is the most potent, most toxic & longest acting LA It is used as a surface anaesthetic on less delicate mucous membrane (anal canal). Use for spinal anaesthesia of long durartion has declined after the availability ofbupivacaine"- KDT 6th/358"The dibucaine number is a measure of the qualitative activity of pseudocholinesterase and is the percentage of inhibition of the enzyme by the local anesthetic dibucaine. Normal individuals are homozygous for the wild type, and their dibucaine number is 80 because their plasma cholinesterase is 80% inhibited by dibucaine. Those who are homozygous for the atypical genes have a dibucaine number of 20 because of 20% inhibition Heterozygous individuals have a dibucaine number of 60 because of approximately 60% inhibition. The plasma cholinesterase level is a quantitative measure of this enzyme. Plasma cholinesterase should not be confused with cholinesterase activity, which is an assessment of erythrocyte or red blood cell cholinesterase. The combination of dibucaine number and plasma cholinesterase can differentiate genetic from nongenetic causes of prolonged apnea after the administration of succinylcholine"-Millter 7th/1095Atypical Pseudocholinesterase Ajay Yadav 2nd/88# Incidence :1 in 3000.This can be diagnosed by Dibucaine numberDibucaine is a local anaesthetic which can inhibit 80% of normal enzyme & 20% of abnormal enzyme. So normal dibucaine number in homozygous typical (normal person) is 70-80%Sodium floride can be used in place of dibucaine(Floride number)Usually apnoea is for 1 to 2 hrTable (Ajay Yadav):Summary of properties of local AnestheticsDrugPotencyT1/2Duration of actionWithout adrenalineDuration of action With adrenalineMaximum safe dose (mg/ kg)CommentsEsters Procaine+ 15-30 minute30-90 minutes12 mg/kg Chloroprocaine+ 15-25 minute30-90 minutes12 mg/kgShortest actingCocaine+ + 3 mg/kgUsed for topicalAnesthesiaPotentvasoconstrictorTetracaine+ + + + 2-3 hours3-5 hours3 mg/kg AmidesLignocaine(Xyocaine)+ +1.6 hrs45-60 minutes'12-3 hours3 mg/kg (without adrenaline); 7 mg/kg without adrenaline)Most commonly used local anaestheticPrilocaine+ + 45-60 minutes2-3 hours8 mg/kgCan cause methaemoglobinemiaMepivacaine+ + 45-60 minutes2-3 hours4.5 mg/kg Etidocaine+ + + + 2-3 hours3-5 hours4 mg/kg Bupiva caine (Sensoricaine, Mancaine)+ + + +3.5 hrs2-3 hours3-5 hours2 mg/kgVery commonly used local anaestheticRopivacaine+ + + 2-3 hours3-5 hours3 mg/kgLess cardiotoxic than bupivacaineDibucaine+ + +4 hrs2.5-3.5 hours3.5-5.5 hours1 mg/kgLongest acting, most potent, most toxicProperty of local anaesthesia (KDT 6th/356)DrugMax. safe dose (mg)Duration of nerve block (min)Lidocaine30060-120Bupivacaine100180-360Tetracaine80180-480Dibucaine50180-600Drug used for spinor/ anaesthesia (KDT 6th/360)DrugTotal dose(mg)Duration of action (min)Lidocaine25-10060-90Bupivacaine10-2590-150Tetracaine5-1590-150Dibucaine2.5-10120-180 Type of Butyryl- cholinesteraseIncidenceDibucaine NumberResponse to SuccinylcholineHomozygous TypicalNormal70-80NormalHeterozygous Atypical1/48050-60Lengthened 50- 100%Homozygous Atypical1/320020-30Prolonged to 4-8 hrsButyrylchofinesterase (Pseudocholinesterase) Deficiency:# Levels can be affected by liver disease, advanced age, malnutrition, pregnancy, bums, OCP, etc.Large decreases in butyrylcholinesterase causes only- moderate increase in duration of action of succinylcholineDibucaine NumberDibucaine inhibits normal enzyme to far greater extent that variant. Thus, if the dibucaine number is low (i.e. the native enzyme is not inhibited by dibucaine), one should suspect or? abnormal variant of butyrylcholinesterase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A-10-year old girl was admitted in ER with history of ingesting 10 crushed seeds of a plant, she couldn't recall how much she had and her ECG looks like this (Figure). Probable cause is ............ | [
"Strychinine seeds",
"Abrus precatorius",
"Yellow oleander seeds",
"Ricinus communis seeds"
] | C | Ans: (c) Yellow oleander seedsRef: VV Pillai, Modern Medical Toxicology, 4th edition, Page 344ECG is diagnostic of 2:1 AV block which is seen in case of Cerbera thevetia poisoning.Yellow oleander (Cerbera thevetia)A cardiac poisonAll parts - poisonousActive principles - Glycosides - Thevetin + thevotoxin = cardiac poison and Cerberin = acts like strychnine Sign and SymptomsGIT - Burning sensation in mouth with tingling of tongue, nausea, vomiting, diarrheaCVS - Rapid, weak pulse, low BP, heart block, collapse and death to peripheral circulatory failure TreatmentSodium molar lactate transfusion with glucose and 1 mg atropine, 2 cc adrenaline and 2 mg noradrenaline (Bisht Regimen)TriviaBisht Regimen is named by Dr. D B Bisht, Former Principal of JIPMER who advocated its use in Cerbera poisoning. So numerous times, questions have come from this topic in JIPMER exams. Must know topic for JIPMER aspirants. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are the effects of oestrogen, EXCEPT: | [
"Beneficial effect on cognition",
"Reduced osteoclastic activity",
"Increased osteoblastic activity",
"Increased protein C and S levels"
] | D | The effects of oestrogen on the skeletal system includes: 1) Increased osteoblastic activity 2) Reduced osteoclastic activity 3) Prevents osteoporosis 4) Promotes fusion of epiphyses Also know Oestrogen increases factor II, III, IX, X, XII and decreases protein C , S and antithrombin III. Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 44 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urban malaria is caused by | [
"Anopheles culicifacies",
"Anopheles stephensi",
"Anopheles sundaicus",
"Anopheles flulis"
] | B | Anopheles Mosquito There are over 55 species of anopheline mosquitoes in India causing malaria An.culicifacies - Vector of rural malaria An.stephensi - Vector of urban malaria; Breed in overhead tanks An.flutilis- Efficient vector, highly anthrophilic, breed in moving water An.sundaicus : Breed in brackish water An.dirus An.minimus An.philippines An.maculates Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 281 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following clinical finding are consistent with severe mitral stenosis EXCEPT- | [
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Pulsatile liver",
"Opening snap late after S2",
"Pulmonary vascular congestion"
] | C | In severe Mitral Regurgitation, Clinical features are : Atrial fibrillation, Pulsatile liver, Pulmonary vascular congestion. * In atrial fibrillation, First hea sound is loud and can be palpable(tapping apex). *An opening snap may be audible and moves closer to the second sound as the stenosis becomes more severe and left atrial pressure rises. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 518. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in ? | [
"Pneumococci",
"N. Meningitidis",
"Pseudomonas",
"Yersinia"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., N. Meningitidis Fulminant meningococcemia (purpura fulminans or Waterhouse - Friderichsen syndrome) is the most rapidly lethal form of septic shock experienced by humans. It differs from most other form of septic shock by the prominance of hemorrhagic skin lesions (petechiae, purpura) and the consistent development of DIC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with thyrotoxicosis and both eyeballs protruded. Thyroid test done would reveal? | [
"T3 increased, T4 increased TSH normal",
"T3 deceased, T4 decreased, TSH increases",
"T3 increased, T4 increased, TSH decreased",
"T3 decreased, T4 normal, TSH decreased"
] | C | The presence of proptosis along with thyrotoxicosis indicates the diagnosis of GRAVE'S DISEASE. It is characterized by suppressed TSH and elevated T3, T4, FT3 and FT4. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antibiotic can cause diabetes insipidus? | [
"Chloramphenicol",
"Minocycline",
"Demeclocycline",
"Linezolid"
] | C | Demeclocycline has antagonistic action on ADH and can lead to diabetes insipidus. Infact Demeclocycline is used in the treatment of SIADH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Savita is 35 years female with Gravida-2 and parity 1+0 is suffering from hepatic encephalopathy. Likely cause will be - | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis E",
"Hepatitis D",
"Hepatitis A"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Hepatitis E (Ref. Dutta, 6/e, p 292 (5/e, p. 308), Robbins illustrated, 6/e, p. 862).Hepatitis E infection has a benign course in normal individuals just like hepatitis A but once it infects a pregnant female it shows its ugly face. It then causes fulminant hepatitis in a large % of pregnant females leading to hepatic coma and death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maxillary sinus epithelium is | [
"Squamous",
"Non ciliated columnar",
"Keratinized squamous",
"Ciliated columnar"
] | D | The sinus is lined with mucoperiosteum, with cilia that beat down the ostia. This membrane is referred to as the Schneiderian membrane, which is histologically a bilaminar membrane with ciliated columnar epithelium cells on the internal side and periosteum. Paranasal sinuses are lined by the mucous membrane which is continuous with that of the nasal cavity through the ostia of sinuses. It is thinner and less vascular compared to that of the nasal cavity. Histologically, it is ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells which secretes mucus. Cilia is more marked near ostia of the sinuses and help in drainage of mucus into the nasal cavity. (Ref: Diseases of ENT, PL. Dhingra, 7t edition, pg no. 188) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dysphonia plica ventricularis is produced from: | [
"Vocal cord",
"Ventricular fold",
"Arytenoid",
"Epiglottis"
] | B | Ans: b (Ventricular fold) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 379 & 4th ed, p. 289In dysphonia plica ventricularis (ventricular dysphonia) voice is produced by ventricular fold which take over the function of true vocal cords. Voice is rough, low pitched and unpleasant.Aetiology:1. Functional2. Secondary to impaired function of vocal cord (paralysis, fixation, surgical excision.tumour)Diagnosis:On direct laryngoscopy false cords are seen to approximate partially or completely and obscure the view of true cords on phonationTreatment:1. VD secondary to laryngeal disorders -- difficult to treat2. Functional VD -- voice therapy & psychological counselling | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nipple inversion occurs due to involvement of: | [
"Cooper's ligament",
"Subareolarm duct",
"Parenchyma of breast",
"Subdermal lymphatics"
] | B | Ans. (b) Subareolar duct(Ref: Bailey 25/e p834)* Peau- de orange - Subdermal Lymphatic infiltration (T4b)* Dimpling/Puckering/tethering of skin - Due to Coopers ligament of breast involvement (It is not skin involvement is T staging)* Nipple retraction - Fibrosis in and around the Subareolar duct | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gonococcus is | [
"Extracellular gram positive",
"Intracytoplasmic gram positive",
"Intracytoplasmic gram negative",
"Intranuclear gram positive"
] | C | Gonococci is gram-negative, diplococci. Gonococci, in smears from the urethral discharge in acute gonorrhea, appears as diplococcus with adjacent sides concave being typically kidney-shaped. Found predominantly within the polymorphs, some cells containing as many as hundred cocci. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 230 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a component of Gradenigo's syndrome? | [
"Deep seated orbital pain",
"Greisinger sign positive",
"Abducent nerve palsy",
"Discharge from ear"
] | B | Discharge from ear is not present in gradeinigo syndrome. Gradenigo Syndrome (GS) is classically described as a clinicaltriad of otitis media, facial pain, and abducens palsy that in the past most commonly developed from infection in the petrous temporal bone (i.e., petrous apicitis). Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e p438 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pea-orbital view is carried out for - | [
"Petrous apex",
"Mastoid process",
"Bilateral mastoid pathologies",
"Internal auditory meatus"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most impoant regulator of serum 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D concentration is | [
"Serum calcium",
"Serum magnesium",
"Serum 25 (OH) vitamin D",
"Parathyroid hormone"
] | D | A major function of parathyroid hormone is to act as a trophic hormone to regulate the rate of formation of 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D. The mechanism by which parathyroid hormone exes this effect may be secondary to its effects on phosphorus metabolism. Other hormones, including prolactin and estrogen, also may playa role in stimulating the production of 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg bone effects of PTH 2956-2957 PTH in calcium homeostasis, 2095, 2912, 2931f | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mac-Conkey's Agar medium is: | [
"Enriched medium",
"Enrichment medium",
"Differential medium",
"Synthetic medium"
] | C | Key Points:-
Differential or indicator media depends on the biochemical properties of a microorganism growing in the presence of specific nutrients or indicators, such as neutral red, phenol red, eosin, or methylene blue. The medium changes color when a bacterium grows in them. For example, S. typhi grows as black colonies on Wilson and Blair medium containing sulfite. Lactose fermenting bacteria, such as E. coli produce pink colonies, whereas non-lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Salmonella spp. form pale or colorless colonies on MacConkey agar. Fermentation of lactose in the medium makes it acidic and leads to the formation of pink colonies in the presence of neutral red.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page: 36 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 77-year-old woman experiences a sudden loss of consciousness, with loss of movement on the right side of the body. Cerebral angiography shows an occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery. Elaboration of which of the following mediators will be most beneficial in preventing further ischemic injury to her cerebral cortex? | [
"Bradykinin",
"Leukotriene E4",
"Nitric oxide",
"Platelet-activating factor"
] | C | Endothelial cells can release nitric oxide to promote vasodilation in areas of ischemic injury. Bradykinin mainly increases vascular permeability and produces pain. Leukotriene E4 , platelet-activating factor, and thromboxane A2 have vasoconstrictive properties. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a long acting insulin- | [
"Lispro",
"Aspart",
"Glargine",
"Glulicine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glargine 1. Rapid acting Insulin2.Short acting3. Intermediate acting4. Long acting- Insulin lispro, Insulin asparf, Insulin glulisine.- Regular (soluble) insulin, semilente insulin.- Insulin zinc suspension (Lente), Neutral protamine hagedorn (isophane insulin).- Protamin zinc insulin, Insulin glargine, Insulin determir | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mael&;s sign is seen in which of the following condition | [
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Osteoahritis",
"Gouty ahritis",
"Oochronosis"
] | C | Mael&;s sign is seen in long standing cases of gouty ahritis * First acute attack: soft tissue swelling * Chronic tophaceous gout: Mael&;s sign --punched-out cystic erosions with overhanging bony edges, associated with soft tissue calcified masses. Refer Fundamentals of ohopedics by Nikil Mohindra p 354 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leishmania is cultured in ..... ...media? | [
"Chocolate agar",
"NNN",
"Tellurite",
"Sabourauds"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., N.N.N. . L. donovani can be cultured in N.N.N. (Novy, Macneal and Nicolle) medium. . In N.N.N. medium amastigote form changes into promastigote form. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weight of child is 70% of normal according to IAP classification, categorised in ? | [
"Mild",
"Moderate",
"Severe",
"Normal"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Moderate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which Which of the following statement is TRUE about Bohr&;s effect? | [
"Decreased affinity of Hb to 02 is associated with decreased pH & increased C02",
"Decreased affinity of Hb to 02 is associated with increased pH & decreased C02",
"Decreased affinity of Hb to 02 is associated with decreased pH & C02",
"Decreased affinity of Hb to 02 is associated with increased pH & C02"
] | A | The decrease in O2 affinity of hemoglobin when the pH of blood falls is called the Bohr effect. It is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated hemoglobin (deoxyhemoglobin) binds H+ more actively than does oxygenated hemoglobin (oxyhemoglobin). The pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases, so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve shifts to the right and the P50 rises. REF: GUYTON 12TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6-year-old boy develops symptoms of cough, fever, and malaise followed by a generalized maculopapular rash that has spread from the head downwards. A clinical diagnosis of measles is made. A few days after the onset of the rash he is drowsy, lethargic, and complaining of headache. A lumbar puncture, electroencephalogram (EEG), and computerized tomography (CT) of the brain exclude other etiologies and confirm the diagnosis of encephalitis. Which of the following is the most likely delayed neurologic complication of measles virus encephalitis? | [
"meningitis",
"pure motor paralysis",
"autonomic neuropathy",
"mental retardation or epilepsy"
] | D | Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis causes involuntary spasmodic movements and progressive mental deterioration, frequently ending in death within a year. It usually occurs in children whose measles occurred at an early age (= 2 years). It occurs 6-8 years after the primary infection. It presents with nonspecific symptoms such as poor school performance or mood and personality changes. It then progresses to intellectual decline, seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, and visual disturbances. Continued deterioration results in inevitable death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Essential radiological feature of acute mastoiditis is: | [
"Temporal bone pneumatization",
"Clouding of air cells of mastoid",
"Rarefaction of petrous bone",
"Thickening of temporal bone"
] | B | (b) Clouding of air cells of mastoid(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2161)X-ray mastoid and CT scan shows clouding of air cells because of the collection of exudates in them. Later on mastoid pneumatisation is lost and a single mastoid cavity may be seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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