question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
AIDS infect | [
"B cells",
"Helper T cells",
"Killer T cells",
"Regular T cells"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retinopathy is most likely to be seen with - | [
"IDDM of 5 years duration",
"NIDDM of 8 years duration",
"Gestational diabetes",
"Juvenile diabetes started before puberty"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IDDM of 5 years duration o Complication of Retinopathy/nephropathy taks 5 years to develop in type 1 diabets.o Complication of Retinopathy/nephropathy takes 15-20 years to develop in type 2 diabetes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thickened gall bladder wall in USG seen in? | [
"Acute cholecystitis",
"Mucosal thickening",
"Cholesterosis",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Acute cholecystitis; B i.e. Mucosal thickening; C i.e. Cholesterosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a radioimmunoassay is properly conducted and the amount of radioactive hormone bound to antibody is low, what would this result indicate? | [
"Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high",
"Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are low",
"More antibody is needed",
"Less radioactive hormone is needed"
] | A | In a radioimmunoassay, there is too little antibody to completely bind the radioactively tagged hormone and the hormone in the fluid (plasma) to be assayed. Thus, there is competition between the labeled and endogenous hormone for binding sites on the antibody. Consequently, if the amount of radioactive hormone bound to antibody is low, this finding would indicate that plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conversion of glycine to serine requires | [
"Folic acid",
"Thiamine",
"Vit. C",
"Fe2+"
] | A | Conversion of glycine to serine require folic acid. From serine, The beta carbon of serine is channelled into the one-carbon pool, carried by THFA (tetrahydro folic acid). The alpha carbon of serine becomes the alpha carbon of glycine. Serine is the most impoant source of One-Carbon units Serine Hydroxy Methyl Transferase is the enzyme involved in this pathway. Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 475 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alendronate acts by | [
"Inhibit osteoclast",
"Inhibit osteoblast",
"Inhibit both",
"None of these"
] | A | (Refer: K. D. Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6th edition, pg no:334)
Inhibit osteoclast | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sentinel surveillance; TRUE is: | [
"Data is itself reported to the health system",
"Active collection of data",
"Employed to identify the missing case",
"All of the above"
] | C | Surveillance:
Ongoing systematic collection, analysis & interpretation of data and use of this information to take action for prevention and control of disease.
Used for purpose of 'health planning'.
Types of Surveillance: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin C is necessary in the formation of collagen. It is required for the conversion of: | [
"Proline to hydroxyproline",
"Beta-carotene to vitamin A",
"Glutamate to gamma-carboxyglutamate",
"Pyridoxine to pyridoxal phosphate"
] | A | Ans. (a) Proline to hydroxyprolineRef: Harpers Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 47, 562* Ascorbic acid is needed for a variety of biosynthetic pathways, by accelerating hydroxylation and amidation reactions.* In the synthesis of collagen, ascorbic acid is required as a cofactor for following enzymes:# Prolyl hydroxylase# Lysyl hydroxylase* These two enzymes are responsible for the hydroxylation of the proline and lysine amino acids in collagen.* Remember, Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine are important for stabilizing collagen by cross-linking the propeptides in collagen.* Clinical effects if there is defective collagen fibrillogenesis:# Impaired wound healing.# Impaired bone bormation# Abnormal bleeding due to fragile capillaries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about oral anticoagulant warfarin are all EXCEPT: | [
"Acts in vivo",
"Acts both in vivo and in vitro",
"Interferes with synthesis of Vit K",
"Causes Hematuria"
] | B | * Oral anticoagulant is warfarin. It is used only in vivo (body), not in vitro (lab).* Warfarin is not used to store blood.* It acts by inhibiting Vitamin K. Due to overdose, hematuria is the first manifestation noted.* Dose monitoring is done by INR.* Antidote of warfarin overdose: Vitamin KPT (Prothrombin Time)aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway Used when on warfarin treatmentWePT: Warfarin for extrinsic; PT value assessed.Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway.Used while on heparin treatment.HINT: Heparin for Intrinsic; aPTT value assessed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All these reactions take place inside the mitochondria except | [
"EM pathway",
"Krebs cycle",
"Urea cycle",
"Electron transfer"
] | A | EMP pathway means EMBDEN MAYERHOF PARNAS pathway. That means glycolysis. All the reactions take place exclusively in cytoplasm. In glycolysis, glucose is conveed to pyruvate or lactate along with the production of small quantity of energy. Remaining options are taking place in mitochondria fully or as a paRef: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 7th Edition, Page no: 108 | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about ca breast is:- | [
"Most common route of spread is hematogenous",
"Most common area involved is Upper inner quadrant",
"Most common site of metastasis is Bone",
"Most common cause of death is malignant pleural effusion"
] | B | Site of Breast Cancer- Breast cancer is more common in left breast compared to right breast.- MC Site - Upper outer quadrant (due to maximum amount of breast tissue at this quadrant)- LC Site - Lower inner quadrant MC route of spread in CA Breast - Hematogenous- MC site of metastasis - Bones (Lumber veebra > Femur > thoracic veebra)- Both Osteolytic & osteoblastic secondaries- MC secondaries - Osteolytic > Osteoblastic- MC primary for both osteolytic & osteogenic secondaries in females - CA breast- MC cause of death - Malignant pleural effusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the chemoprophylaxis of choice in a person who is on a journey to endemic malarial region? | [
"Mefloquine",
"Quinine",
"Lumefantrine",
"Pyrimethamine"
] | A | Chemoprophylaxis of choice is Mefloquine. Chemoprophylaxis comes under specific protection. Chemoprophylaxis of malaria: - Sho term - Doxycycline - Long term - Mefloquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about strychnine poisoning is - | [
"All muscles affected at the same time",
"Shoulder girdle affected first",
"Pelvic girdle affected first",
"None of the above"
] | A | Convulsions in strychnine poisoning affect all muscles at a time. | train | med_mcqa | null |
With regard to the malignant behavior of leiomyosarcoma, the most impoant criterion is ? | [
"Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells",
"Tumor cells in lymphatic channels",
"Lymphocyte infiltration",
"The number of mitoses per high power field"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., The number of mitoses per high power field The distinction of Leiomyosarcoma from Leiomyomas: It is based on the combination of: Degree of nuclear atypia Mitotic index Zonal Necrosis The most impoant single criteria is the number of nuclear mitoses present With or without Nuclear atypia (Independent of nuclear atypia) --> The presence of ten or more mitoses per ten high power (x400) fields indicates malignancy with or without cellular atypism. In presence of nuclear atypia or large cells --> If the tumor contains nuclear atypia or large epithelioid cells, five mitoses per ten high power fields are sufficient to justify a diagnosis of malignancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The coical pa of collecting duct is functionally similar to which pa of kidney? | [
"DCT",
"Thin ascending pa of Henle loop.",
"Thick ascending pa of Henle loop.",
"Medullary pa collecting duct."
] | A | DCT.Collecting ducts has mainly 2 poions:Coical poion of collecting duct.Medullary poion/Medullary Collecting Duct (MCD).PROCESS IN COICAL COLLECTING DUCT:Functionally similar to late segment of distal tubule.Facultative absorption type:Reabsorption of solutes/water depends on body water/electrolyte balance.Hence, facultative type.Cells involved in reabsopion:Principal (P) cells.Intercalated (I) cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about cytokines is - | [
"It is always a polypeptide",
"It acts on protein targets",
"It takes pa in intrinsic enzymatic reactions",
"Chemotactic"
] | A | They are a broad and loose category of small proteins (~5-20 kDa) that are impoant in cell signaling. They act on receptors Ref: Ananathanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 152 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true for acute nephritic syndrome Except : March 2004 | [
"WBC cast in urine",
"Hypoproteinemia",
"Oedema",
"Hypeension"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. WBC cast in urine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is k/a | [
"Adaptation",
"Accomodation",
"Refractoriness",
"Electrotonus"
] | B | Neural accommodation. Neural accommodation or neuronal accommodation occurs when a neuron or muscle cell is depolarised by slowly rising current (ramp depolarisation) in vitro Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 543,544,545 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chemotherapy is not useful in : | [
"Chondrosarcoma",
"Wilm's tumor",
"Choriocarcinoma",
"All"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a city with a population of 1,000,000, 10,000 individuals have HIV disease. There are 1000 new cases of HIV disease and 200 deaths each year from the disease. There are 2500 deaths per year from all causes. Assuming no net emigration from or immigration to the city, the incidence of HIV disease in this city is given by which of the following? | [
"200/1,000,000",
"800/1,000,000",
"1000/1,000,000",
"2500/1,000,000"
] | C | The incidence of a disease is given by the number of new cases in a given period divided by the total population. In this case, this is equal to 1000/1,000,000. The disease-specific moality rate is the number of deaths per year from a specific disease divided by the population; in this case, 200/1,000,000. The rate of increase of a disease is given by the number of new cases per year, minus the number of deaths (or cures) per year, divided by the total population. Since there is yet no cure for HIV disease, the number of cures is 0. In this case, the rate of increase is (1000-200)/1,000,000 = 800/1,000,000. The crude moality rate is given by the number of deaths from all causes, divided by the population; in this case, 2500/1,000,000. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most sensitive test for screening of " SLE" is | [
"LE phenomenon",
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Anti_nuclear factor",
"Double stranded DNA test"
] | C | Ref Robbins 9/e p219, 8/e p214 ,7/e p228 Spectrum of Autoantibodies in SLE Antibodies have been identified against a host of nuclear and cytoplasmic components of the cell that are specific to neither organs nor species. Another group of antibodies is directed against surface antigens of blood cells, while yet another is reactive with proteins in complex with phospho- lipids (antiphospholipid antibodies) (Chapter 3). * Antinuclear antibodies. ANAs are directed against several nuclear antigens and can be grouped into four catego- ries: (1) antibodies to DNA, (2) antibodies to histones, (3) antibodies to nonhistone proteins bound to RNA, and (4) antibodies to nucleolar antigens. Table 4-10 lists several autoantibodies, including ANAs, and their asso- ciation with SLE as well as with other autoimmune dis- eases, to be discussed later. The most widely used method of detecting ANAs is the indirect immunofluo- rescence assay (IFA), which screens for autoantibodies that bind to a variety of nuclear antigens, including DNA, RNA, and proteins. Four staining patterns are seen with IFA: homogeneous or diffuse, rim or periph- eral, speckled, and nucleolar. While each pattern can be suggestive of the presence of specific autoantibodies, the strength of these associations is limited and should not be relied on. ANA testing by IFA is extremely sensitive, as more than 95% of patients with SLE will test positive, but the test's specificity is quite limited, because patients with other autoimmune diseases, chronic infections, and cancer will test positive as well. Fuhermore, ANAs are seen in approximately 5% to 15% of healthy people, and the incidence increases with age. Recently, the IFA has been replaced in many clinical laboratories by multiplex flow cytometry immunoassays that can simultaneously test for multiple specific autoantibodies, but these assays may lack the sensitivity of the IFA. Antibodies to double- stranded DNA (dsDNA) and the so-called Smith (Sm) antigen can be detected by ELISA or multiplex flow methods and are specific for SLE. * Other autoantibodies. Antibodies against blood cells, including red cells, platelets, and lymphocytes, are found in many patients. Antiphospholipid antibodies are present in 40% to 50% of patients with lupus and react with a wide variety of proteins in complex with phospholipids. Some bind to cardiolipin antigen, used in serologic tests for syphilis, so patients with lupus may have a false-positive test result for syphilis. Antiphos- pholipid antibodies contribute to coagulation abnormal- ities, which are described below. Mechanisms of Tissue Injury Regardless of the exact sequence by which autoantibodies are formed, they are likely to be the mediators of tissue injury, probably through multiple mechanisms. * Most organ damage in SLE is caused by immune complex deposition. Skin and kidney biopsies from patients with SLE typically demonstrate diffuse and heavy granular deposits of complement and immunoglobulin. Autoan- tibodies complexed with DNA can be detected as well. These deposits of immune complexes had been thought to cause tissue damage by activating the classical com- plement pathway (type III hypersensitivity); 75% of patients will have reduced serum levels of C3 and C4 at the time of SLE flares, presumably because complement is being activated and consumed faster than it can be produced. However, people and rodents deficient in C1q are not protected from SLE and actually can spon- taneously develop SLE, raising the possibility that complement-independent mechanisms may also con- tribute to tissue damage. * Autoantibodies of different specificities contribute to the pathology and clinical manifestations of SLE (type II hyper- sensitivity). Autoantibodies against red cells, white cells, and platelets opsonize these cells and lead to their phagocy- tosis, resulting in cytopenias. Autoantibodies against various phospholipids lead to increased thrombosis in patients, with varied clinical consequences, including recurrent spontaneous aboion and thrombotic epi- sodes. These disorders are pa of the antiphospholipid syndrome. Paradoxically, these antibodies interfere with clotting tests and are actually called "lupus anticoagu- lants." Autoantibodies are also produced against clot- ting factors such as thrombin, and these too may contribute to clotting disorders. Autoantibodies against central nervous system receptors for various neurotransmit- ters have been implicated in the neuropsychiatric com- plications of the disease. * There is no evidence that ANAs can permeate intact cells. However, if cell nuclei are exposed, the ANAs can bind to them. In tissues, nuclei of damaged cells react with ANAs, lose their chromatin pattern, and become homogeneous, to produce so-called LE bodies or hema- toxylin bodies. An in vitro correlate of this is the LE cell, a neutrophil or macrophage that has engulfed the dena- tured nucleus of another injured cell. When blood is withdrawn and agitated, a number of leukocytes are sufficiently damaged to expose their nuclei to ANAs, with secondary complement activation; these antibody- and complement-opsonized nuclei are then readily phagocytosed. Although the LE cell test is positive in as many as 70% of patients with SLE, it is now largely of historical interest. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After the tooth emerges to the occlusal plane the clinical
crown height increases by: | [
"Passive eruption",
"Active eruption",
"Post-emergence growth spurt",
"Juvenile occlusal equilibrium"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle? | [
"Malate dehydrogenase",
"Isocitrate dehydrogenase",
"N-acetyl glutamate synthetase",
"Succinate dehydrogenase"
] | C | Inherited hyperammonemias are a group of six diseases caused by inborn deficiencies of the enzymes of the Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle. The enzymes involved are: 1. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase 2. Arbamyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) 3. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) 4. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase (citrullinemia) 5. Argininosuccinase deficiency 6. Arginase deficiency Most Severe Cases: In the most severe forms of the hyperammonemic disorders, the infants are asymptomatic at bih and during the first day or two of life, after which they refuse their feedings, vomit, and rapidly become inactive and lethargic, soon lapsing into an irreversible coma. Profuse sweating, focal or generalized seizures, rigidity with opisthotonos, hypothermia, and hyperventilation have been observed in the course of the illness. These symptoms constitute a medical emergency, but even with measures to reduce serum ammonia, the disease is usually fatal. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 37. Inherited Metabolic Diseases of the Nervous System. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Profuse watery diarrhea in an immuno-compromised child is due to: | [
"Cryptosporidium",
"Amoeba",
"Giardia",
"Lactose intolerance"
] | A | Cryptosporidium induces severe and protracted diarrhea in AIDS patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Two groups are tested for anemia. Which test should be used ? | [
"Paired T-test",
"Unpair T-test",
"Chi-square test",
"ANOVA"
] | C | Ans. is `c' i.e., Chi-square test Observations in the given question are in the form of qualitative data (anemia present or not). Thus Chi-square test should be used. Chi square test Is used when the observation are in the form of propoions (for qualitative data) The outcome are in clear cut answers; yes or no. As in the example the HBsAg is either present or not present. In contrast when the observation is normally distributed in the population e.g blood pressure, blood sugar ; student test is used. In the example comparing the occurence of hepatitis B surface antigen in medical and dental students, use of chi square analysis is appropriate because the outcome variables are dichomatous. Students are classified by the presence or absence of HBsAg. Student t test is used when the outcome variable is normally distributed in population (for quantitative data) e.g blood pressure, blood glucose. In the example student t test is used to assess the difference between mean systolic pressure of pregnant and non pregnant women ( to know the effect of pregnancy on mean systolic blood pressure) because mean systolic blood pressure is normally distributed in the population. Every single lady has a mean systolic blood pressure. It may be low or high , but she has a value of mean systolic blood pressure. Students t test may be following types: Unpaired t test (Independent t test) : It compares the mean of two small samples: The data is unpaired from two independent sample. for example, blood sugar concentration is measured in two different group (A group of 10 patients and other group of 8 patient). To test the significance of difference between the means of the two groups, unpaired t test is used. Paired t test : It compares the mean in paired data, before and after the intervention from same sample. For example, Blood sugar level in a sample of 10 patients is measure before giving and after giving the oral hypoglycemic. In this condition paired t test is used. Chi-square test Vs Student t test In the example student t test is used to assess the difference between mean systolic pressure of pregnant and non pregnant women ( to know the effect of pregnancy on mean systolic blood pressure) because mean systolic blood pressure is normally distributed in the population. Every single lady has a mean systolic blood pressure. It may be low or high , but she has a value of mean systolic blood pressure. But suppose we change the example in a way that we make a clear cut definition of hypeension ( such as mean systolic blood pressure over 140 mm of Hg will be taken to be hypeension) and then look for hypeension among pregnant and non-pregnant women. The test now used to analyse the outcome will be chi square test since the outcomes are now in the form of dichomatous data i.e yes or no (a woman is either hypeensive or not hypeensive. This is in contrast to mean systolic blood pressure which was normally distributed among ladies; every lady had one value of mean systolic blood pressure). Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) (F test/ F ratio) ANOVA is considered as an extension of the student t test for the significance of the difference between two sample means. The student t test can be used only for making just one comparison (between two sample means), or between a sample mean and hypothesized population mean. ANOVA is used when more than one comparison is to be made (When means of more than two groups are being compared). For example, BP is measured in more than two groups of men (married, unmarried, widowed, separated and divorced). In this situation ANOVA test is best. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are complication of diphtheria,except - | [
"Myocarditis",
"Ocular muscle palsy",
"Cerebellar ataxia",
"Hepatic failure"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rare exclusive infection of diabetes mellitus are all except: | [
"Mucormycosis",
"Atypical mycobacterial infection",
"Emphysematous appendicitis",
"Hansen's disease"
] | D | (D) Hansen's disease # Mucormycosis is an invasive disease caused by phycomycetes, mainly by species of Rhizopus, Mucor and Absidia.> It used to be a rare terminal complication of uncontrolled diabetes and other chronic debilitating diseases.> The incidence of the disease has increased considerably as a result of the widespread use of antibiotics, steroids and antimetabolites.> The fungi are normally avirulent and are able to invade tissues only when general resistance is extremely low. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs is Topoisomerase 1 inhibits | [
"Doxorubicin",
"Irinotecan",
"Etopside",
"Vincristine"
] | B | Refer KDT 6/e p 825, Camptothecin derivatives like topotecan and irinotecan act by inhibiting Topoisomerase -1whereras epipodophylotoxins and anthracycline act by inhibiting Topoisomerase -2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a type I Geographic lesion of bone - | [
"Fibrous dysplasia",
"Brodies abscess",
"Giant cell tumor",
"Ewings sarcoma"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ewings sarcoma Patterns of bone destruction:* Bone tumors can be categorized into several groups according to their pattern of destruction and margin.A) Geographic Lesion (Type I) - is characterized by a uniformly destroyed area within a sharply defined border. Geographic lesions are further divided into three groups according to their margins:i) Geographic lesion with sclerotic margin: type IA,ii) Geographic lesion with well-defined border without sclerotic rim: type IB,iii) Geographic lesion with ill-defined border: IC.B) The term moth eaten (Type II) is used to define lesions with clustered multiple small osteolytic areas.C) Finally permeative lesions (Type III) are those with ill-defined areas of lytic bone destruction.Pattern of bone destructionType IAGeographical lesion with sclerotic marginType IBGeographical lesion with well-defined border but without sclerotic rimType ICGeographical lesion with an ill-defined borderSimple bone cystChondrolblastomaFibrous dysplasiaIntraosseous lipomaNonossifying fibromaBrodie abscessAneurysmal bone cystGiant cell tumorChondrosarcomaType IIMoth-eatenType IIIpermeative Ewing's sarcomaLangerhans cell histiocytosisOsteosarcomaMyelomaSmall round cell tumors(lymphom)Ewing's sarcomaAcute osteomyelitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which law states that the amount of a substance crossing a given area is directly proportional to the area available for diffusion, concentration gradient and diffusion coefficient? | [
"Universal gas law",
"Dalton's law",
"Fick's law",
"All of the above"
] | C | Fick Law of Diffusion:
Diffusion is well described by Fick law of diffusion. According to this law, amount of a substance crossing a given area is directly proportional to the area available for diffusion, concentration gradient and a constant known as diffusion coefficient.
Thus,
Amount diffused = Area x Concentration gradient x Diffusion coefficient
Formula of Fick law: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Severity of a diseases is measured by: | [
"Case fatality rate",
"Proportional mortality rate",
"Relative risk",
"Attributable risk"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 years old man presenting with acute pancreatitis. Ideal fluid of choice: | [
"Isotonic crystalloid",
"Hypertonic crystalloid",
"Hypotonic crystalloid",
"Vasopressin"
] | A | Ans. a. Isotonic crystalloidRef: Harrisons Principle of Internal Medicine 19th Ed; Page No-2096Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation; is the most important treatment intervention for acute pancreatitis.For rest the pancreas; the patient is made NPO and to control abdominal pain narcotic analgesics given intravenously and supplemental oxygen (2L) via nasal cannula.To maintain urine output>0.5cc/kgper hour; Intravenous fluids of lactated Ringers or normal saline are initially bloused at 15-20cc/kg(1050-1400ml), followed by 3 mg/kg per hour (200-25mL/h).Serial bedside evaluations are required every 6-8 h to asses vital signs, oxygen saturation, and change in physical examination.Lactated Ringers solution may be a better crystalloid than normal saline because it decreases systemic inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23 year old male patient complains that his face appears too long. Extra-oral examination reveals a retrognathic mandible, steep mandibular plane angle and a prominent antegonial notch. Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is false? | [
"Growth of mandible is more posteriorly",
"Growth of mandible is more anteriorly",
"Rotation is backward",
"Rotation can be given a positive sign"
] | A | By convention, the rotation of either jaw is considered "forward" and given a negative sign if there is more growth posteriorly than anteriorly. The rotation is "backward" and given a positive direction if it lengthens, anterior dimensions more than posterior ones, bringing the chin downward and backward.
Contemporary orthodontics, William Proffit, 4th edition page 116 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an atavistic epiphysis? | [
"Condyles of femur",
"Tubercle of humerus",
"Coracoid process",
"Lower end of radius"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Coracoid processREF: Human osteology by BDC 1st e p. 5, 6EpiphysisDefinition/ FunctionExamplePressure epiphysesTakes part in transmission of weightHead of femur, condyles of tibia, lower end of radiusTraction epiphysesProvide attachment to more than 1 tendonTrochanter of femur, tubercles of humerus, mastoid process.Atavistic epiphysesPhylogenetically an independent bone which in man becomes fused to another boneCoracoid process of scapula, posterior tubercle of talus, os trigonum.Aberrant epiphysesNot always presentHead of metacarpal, base of other metacarpal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti - Smoking drug is? | [
"Theophylline",
"Biclutamide",
"Salmeterol",
"Bupropion"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) BupropionREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 390Indirect repeat Pharmacology 2013 Session 2 (Different options), June 2011 (See pharmacologic interventions for tobacco addiction) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypercalciuria is said to be present in children if daily calcium excretion in urine is more than: | [
"1 mg/kg",
"2 mg/kg",
"3 mg/kg",
"4 mg/kg"
] | D | Ans: d (4 mg/kg) Ref:Nelson, 17th ed, p. 1824, Table 539-1, 18th ed, p. 2184, Table 547-3Normal values of urine chemistry in childrenCalcium< 4.0 mg/kgOxalate< 0.57 mg/kgUric acid< 10.7 mg/kgCitrate> 2.0 mg/kgCysteinea) Heterozygote 1.4 - 2.8b) Homozygote >5.7Phosphate <15.0 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 62-year-old man with a prosthetic aortic valve develops fevers and malaise. His valve was replaced 5 years ago because of aortic stenosis from a bicuspid valve. He has a systolic ejection murmur but no other abnormalities on examination. Blood cultures are most likely to grow which of the following? | [
"fungi",
"bartonella",
"diphtheroid",
"Staphylococcus epidermidis"
] | D | S. epidermidis is still the most frequent early and late cause of endocarditis in patients with prosthetic heart valves. The other organisms are seen less frequently in late prosthetic valve endocarditis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti H. pylori triple drug regimen: | [
"Amoxicillin",
"Vancomycin",
"Metronidazole",
"Clotrimazole"
] | C | Metronidazole is the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti H. pylori triple drug regimen. PSEUDO-MEMBRANE COLITIS MC organism responsible Clostridium difficile MC cause 3rd Gen. Cephalosporins > clindamycin DOC Metronidazole - Oral vancomycin According to latest guidelines, now oral vancomycin has become DOC for Pseudomembranous colitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cherry red colours of mucous membranes are seen in which of the following poisons: | [
"Carbon-monoxide",
"Carbon-dioxide",
"Hydrogen-sulphide",
"Chlorine"
] | A | (Carbon - monoxide): Ref: 10.71 -PCARBON - MONOXIDE - is a colourless, odourless, non - irritant gas which cannot be perceived by the senses* The colour of skin, especially in areas of postmartem staining and in fair skinned persons. In bright cherry red if saturation is Co in blood exceeds about 30%.* Internally blood tissue and viscera are of a bright cherry red colour if there is more than 5 gms Co Hb/100 ml of blood | train | med_mcqa | null |
The actions of superior oblique muscle is A/E: | [
"Abduction",
"Intorsion",
"Extorsion",
"Depression"
] | C | C i.e., Extorsion | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Tonsils are derived from: | [
"1st branchial pouch",
"2nd branchial pouch",
"3rd branchial pouch",
"4th branchial pouch"
] | B | 2nd branchial pouch | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulmonary blood flow increased in all except: | [
"ASD",
"VSD",
"TOF",
"Transposition of great aeries (TGA)"
] | C | Answer- (C) TOFTruncus Aeriosus, complete TGA and TAPVC are associated with increased pulmonary blood flow.TOF- When the RV outllow obstruction is severe, pulmonary blood llow is reduced marked. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following thoracotomy, in a 20-year-old man a lesion is detected in the right lower lung lobe and is found to be nonfunctioning lung tissue that is served by vessels separate from those of the adjacent lung tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Mesothelioma",
"Hiatal hernia",
"Glomus tumor",
"Bronchopulmonary sequestration"
] | D | Bronchopulmonary sequestration can be differentiated from a bronchogenic cyst; in that it is composed of nonfunctioning lung tissue that is disconnected from the remaining lung; it has a separate blood supply. Glomus tumors are rare tumors that arise in the middle ear or jugular bulb. Patients complain of tinnitus and hearing loss. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pleural glucose is <60 mg/dl is seen in which of the following condition? | [
"Malignancy",
"TB",
"Fungal",
"Pancreatitis"
] | B | Pleural TB is characterised by straw coloured pleural fluid;an exudate with a protein concentration>50% of that in serum,a normal to low glucose concentration(usually less than 60 mg/dL.),a pH of approx.7.3,and detectable WBCs(usually 500-6000/microL). Effusion secondary to malignancy is characterised by an exudate with reduced glucose level if the tumor burden is high enough.Pleural fluid secondary to pancreatitis shows elevated amylase levels. Referensce:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:1346,2179. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structure related to deltopectoral groove is | [
"Axillary aey",
"Cephalic vein",
"Basilic vein",
"Radial nerve"
] | B | the deltopectoral groove - The cephalic vein, the deltoid branch of the thoraco-acromial aery, and one or two deltopectoral lymph nodes lie in the deltopectoral groove, under the deep fascia on the medial side of the septum. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 1 , pg. no., 43 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An investigator into the life expectancy of IV drug abusers divides a sample of patients into HIV positive and HIV negative groups. What type of data does this division constitute? | [
"Nominal",
"Ordinal",
"Interval",
"Portion"
] | A | In the question, data has been divided into two groups, i.e. HIV positive/HIV negative → Data should be measured on the nominal scale especially Dichotomous type of nominal scale. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is: | [
"24 hours",
"6 hours",
"12 hours",
"3 months"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
With over dosage of L.A agent, one would observe | [
"Hypertension",
"Hypotension",
"No change in BP",
"Cardiac arrhythmias"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Millennium developmental goal for HIV/ AIDS ? | [
"6",
"3",
"8",
"1"
] | A | Ans. is `a' i.e., 6 o Goal 6 is to combat HIV/AIDS; malaria and other diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The condition associated with their formation is | [
"Hypomotility of gall bladder",
"Accelerated cholesterol crystal nucleation",
"Hypersecretion of mucus",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. (d) All of the above* The figure shows gall bladder filled with gall stones. Causes of its formation can includea. Hypomotility of gall bladderb. Accelerated cholesterol crystal nucleationc. Hypersecretion of mucus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Smudge cells in the peripheral smear are characteristic of: | [
"Chronic myelogenous leukemia",
"Chronic lymphocytic leukemia",
"Acute myelogenous leukemia",
"Acute lymhoblastic leukemia"
] | B | In CLL the peripharal blood contains increased number of small round lymphocytes with scant cytoplasm. These cells are fragile and are frequently disrupted in the process of making smears,producing so called smudge cells.(ref Robbins 7th/673) | train | med_mcqa | null |
BRCA 1positive woman hav ..........% increased risk of breast carcinoma | [
"10",
"20",
"40",
"60"
] | C | Mutation of tumour suppressor genes BRCA1/BRCA2 is thought to be involved with high-risk of breast carcinoma. BRCA1 mutation is having more risk (35-45%) than BRCA2 mutation It is located in long arm of chromosome 17, whereas BRCA2 is located in long arm of chromosome 13. BRCA1 more commonly shows ER negative status, high grade, aneuploid with raised S fraction than BRCA2 which shows ER positive status. BRCA1 is associated with increased risk in males. Lifelong risk of breast cancer in BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations is 50-70%. Both are associated with high-risk for ovarian cancer. Ref; (page no;530 ) 5th edition of SRB&;S manual of Surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45 years old hypeensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn't have any focal neurological deficit. His CT scan showed blood in the Sylvain fissure. The probable diagnosis is | [
"Meningitis",
"Ruptured aneurysm",
"Hypeensive bleed.",
"Stroke"
] | B | *Most unruptured intracranial aneurysms are asymptomatic. *Symptoms are usually due to rupture and resultant SAH.*At the moment of aneurysmal rupture with major SAH, the ICP suddenly rises.*This may causes sudden transient LOC, preceded by a brief moment of excruciating headache.*In 10% of cases, it causes LOC.*The patient often calls the headache "the worst headache of my life"; *The headache is usually generalized, often with neck stiffness, and vomiting is common.*Although sudden headache in the absence of focal neurologic symptoms is the hallmark of aneurysmal rupture, focal neurologic deficits may occur. *Anterior communicating aery or MCA bifurcation aneurysms may rupture into the adjacent brain or subdural space and form a hematoma large enough to produce mass effect. *The deficits that result can include hemiparesis, aphasia, and abulia.(Ref: Harrison's 18/e p3296, 17/e p1727) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Waddling gait is seen in | [
"Muscular dystrophy",
"Traumatic Paraphegia",
"Parkinsonism",
"Cerebellar infarct"
] | A | *In muscular dystrophies the gait of an individual disclose a lordotic posture caused by combined trunk and hip weakness,frequently exaggerated by toe walking. A waddling gait is caused by the inability of weak hip muscles to prevent hip drop or hip dip . Muscular dystrophy A waddling gait is a symptom of several types of MD, including: Duchenne MD. This disorder occurs almost exclusively in boys and affects the arms, legs, and pelvis. One of the first signs is having difficulty crawling or getting up from the floor Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following inhalational agent is the most soluble in blood? | [
"Halothane",
"Isoflurane",
"Enflurane",
"Desflurane"
] | A | Blood/gas partition coefficient:· The ratio of concentration in blood to that in gas. High value denotes an agent very soluble in blood. Inhalational agent coefficient Halothane Isoflurane Enflurane Desflurane Sevoflurane
Most soluble in blood is halothane.
Least soluble in blood is desflurane. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cushing syndrome is characterized by all except * | [
"Hypoglycemia",
"HT",
"Proximal myopathy",
"Centripetal obesity"
] | A | Cushing&;s syndrome characterised by centripetal obesity , hypeension, fatigability, weakness, edema , glucosuria( Harrison 17 pg 2254) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following virus isn't enveloped virus but contains double stranded RNA | [
"Adenovirus",
"Reovirus",
"CMV",
"Hepatitis B virus"
] | B | Reovirus, rotavirus and Colorado tick virus are double-stranded RNA viruses with no envelope DS RNA viruses doesn't have envelope Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 423 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of following are selective beta blockers, except | [
"Atenolol",
"Esmolol",
"Bisprolol",
"Celiprolol"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Celiprolol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Softening of the cervix during pregnancy is called as? | [
"Goodell's sign",
"Jacquemier's sign",
"Chadwick's sign",
"Piskacek's sign"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., Goodell's sign Various signs in pregnancy Cervical signsa) Goodell's sign : Cervix becomes soft at 6th weeks, a little earlier in multipara.b) On per speculam examination, bluish disclouration of cervix.Vaginal Signs:a) Jacquemier's sign or Chadwick's sign: Dusky hue of the vestibule & anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy.b) Apart bluish discolouration of anterior vaginal walls they become softened.c) Copious non-irritating mucoid discharge appears at 6th week.d) Osliender's sign : There is increased pulsation, felt through the lateral fomices at 8th week.Uterine signs:a) Size shape and consistency - the uterus is enlarged to size of hen's egg at 6th week, size of cricket ball at 8th week and size of fetla head at 12th week. Normal pyriform shape of the uterus becomes globular at 12th week.b) Piskacek9 sign : one half of the uterus is more firm than other half due to lateral implantation.c) Pregnant uterus is soft and elastic.d) Hegar's sign : Present in 2/3 rd of cases. Demonstrated between 6-10 weeks, a little earlier in multipara. This sign is based on the 2 facts (1) upper part of the body of uterus is enlarged by growing uterus and lower part is empty and soft and cervix is comparatively firm. Therefore on bimanual examination (2 fingers in the anterior fornix and abdominal fingers behind the uterus), abdominal and vaginal fingers seem to appose below the body of the uterus.e) Palmer sign : Regular and rhythmic contractions can be elicited during bimanual examination as early as 4-8 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient is diagnosed with primary herpes genitalis. Which of the following should be the treatment advice? | [
"\"Apply one applicator of Terconazole intravaginally at bedtime for 7 days.\"",
"\"Apply one applicator of Sulconazole intravaginally at bedtime for 7 days.\"",
"Acyclovir 200mg ; five times a day for 7 days.\"",
"\"Apply Acyclovir twice daily by massaging it gently into the lesions for 3 days.\""
] | C | A patient with primary herpes genitalis : Acyclovir 200mg ; 5 times a day for 7 days Or 400mg, 3 times a day for 7 days. Terconazole and Tioconazole are used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis. Sulconazole nitrate is used to treat tinea versicolor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following inhaled occupational pollutant produces extensive nodular pulmonary fibrosis ? | [
"Silica",
"Asbestos",
"Wood dust",
"Carbon"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Silica | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indium labelled WBC scan is used to locate: | [
"Occult malignancy",
"Occult bleeding",
"Abscess",
"Aneurysm"
] | C | Inflammatory process and abscess which are difficult to locate with routine scanning can be diagnosed by Radionuclied scanning. They are, 1. Technitium 99 scan 2. Gallium 67 citrate scan 3. Indium 111 scan Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-163. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cardiovascular abnormality seen in Marfan's Syndrome on presentation is: | [
"Mitral Valve Prolapse",
"Dilation of Aoic Sinuses",
"Coarctation of Aoa",
"Bicuspid Aoic Valve"
] | A | Answer is A (Mitral Valve Prolapse) Valvular Hea Disease: A Companion to Braunwald's Hea Disease by Otto (Elsevier Health Sciences) The single most common cardiovascular abnormality seen in patients with Marfan's Syndrome at the time of presentation is Mitral Valve Prolapse. Mitral Valve Prolapse is the most frequent abnormality seen at the time of presentation (80 - 100%) -Valvular Hea Disease: A Companion to Braunwald's Hea Disease Mitral Valve Prolapse and Dilation of the Ascending Aoa at the level of aoic sinuses are the two most common cardiovascular abnormalities seen in patients with Madan's Syndrome Mitral Valve Prolapse is the single most common cardiovascular abnormality Dilation of the Ascending Aoa at the level of aoic sinuses is the next most common anomaly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of papilloma virus which is strongly associated with carcinoma cervix is : | [
"33",
"34",
"56",
"55"
] | A | 33 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Useful screening test for lead is measurement of: | [
"Coproporphyrin in Urine",
"Amino-levulinic acid in urine",
"Lead in blood",
"Lead in Urine"
] | A | Diagnosis of lead poisoning: Laboratory parameters Remark Coproporphyrin in Urine (CPU) > 150 mcg/L Exposure to lead Amino levulinic acid in Urine (ALAU) > 5 mg/l Indicates lead absorption Lead in blood >70 mcg/100 ml Clinical symptoms appear Lead in Urine >0.8 mg/l Lead exposure and absorption Basophilic stripling of RBC&;s Punctate basophilia Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 845 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about sphenoid sinus - | [
"Lined by stratified squamous epithelium",
"Duct open in middle meatus",
"Open in sphenoethmoid recess",
"Present at birth"
] | C | All paranasal sinuses are lined by respiratory epithelium (i.e. ciliated pseudo stratified columnar epithilium) i.e. option a is incorrect.
Sphenoid sinus: Important points
It is not present at birth
It occupies the body of sphenoid
Ostrum of sphenoid sinus is situated in the upper part of anterior wall and drains into spheno ethmoidal recess.
On x ray: Sphenoid sinus is visible by 4 years of age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of metastasis from breast carcinoma: | [
"Thoracic vertebra",
"Pelvis",
"Femur",
"Lumbar vertebra"
] | D | Ans. (d) Lumbar vertebra(Ref: Bailey 26/ep811)* MC site of bony mets - Lumbar vertebra > Femur > Thoracic Vertebra > Ribs > Skull.* Osteolytic secondaries are seen commonly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about caisson's disease | [
"O2 release from tissues",
"CO2 release from tissues",
"N2 release from tissues",
"H2 release from tissues"
] | C | An acute disorder involving the formation of nitrogen bubbles in the body fluids, caused by a sudden drop in external pressure, as during a too-rapid ascent from diving, and resulting in pain in the lungs and joints and faintness.Ref: Textbook of pathology Harsh Mohan 6th edition Page no; 123 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epiretinal membrane is seen in | [
"Posterior vitreous detachment",
"Optic neuritis",
"Papilloedema",
"Glaucomatous optic atrophy"
] | A | Answer- A. Posterior vitreous detachmentEpiretinal membrane is a disease of the eye in response to changes in the vitreous humor or more rarely, diabetes. It is also called macular pucker.Immune system response to protect the retina, cells converge in the macular area as the vitreous ages and pulls away in posterior vitreous detachment (PVD). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prolactin: | [
"Has somatotropic activity.",
"It flow can cause infertility in women.",
"Can suppress menstrual cycle in lactating women.",
"Levels are increased by dopamine."
] | C | Prolactin, though structurally related to growth hormone does not share its somatotropic activity. Dopamine binds to the lactotropes and inhibits the synthesis and release of prolactin. Hyperprolactinemia suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, causes infertility in women and suppresses the normal menstrual cycle in lactating women. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the important action of nitrates in angina? | [
"Coronary vasodilation",
"Decreases preload",
"Decreases afterload",
"Decreases heart rate"
] | B | Ans. B. Decreases preloadNitrates cause release of nitric oxide which causes activation of guanylyl cyclase and through series of steps (via activation of protein kinase and phosphatases) activate myosin light chain through dephosphorylation which causes smooth muscle relaxation and hence vasodilatation. This decreases systemic vascular resistance and there will be increased pooling of blood. All of these events can lead to decrease in preload. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were not. 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above results ? | [
"Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer",
"Beta carotene and Lung cancer have no relation to each other",
"The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions",
"Beta carotene is carcinogenic"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to each other Prospective (coho) study is used to test the association between risk factor and disease. o Relative risk (estimated by coho study) is a direct measure of the strength of association between suspected cause and effect. o Relative risk one indicates no association between risk factor and outcome. o Relative risk more than one indicates positive association --> risk factor is causative. o Relative risk less than one indicates negative association --> that means exposure has protective role on outcome, e.g. vitamin A exposure results in decreased incidence of skin cancer. o In this question, RR is one. That means beta carotene exposure is neither causative nor protective for lung cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A dentist who first used ether as a general anaethetic was | [
"Martin",
"Morton",
"Morrison",
"Murray"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The vaccine administered as "Nose drops": | [
"Rubella",
"Poliomyelitis",
"Influenza",
"Measles"
] | C | (Influenzae): Ref: (144-Park 20th)INFLUENZA VACCINES(a) Killed vaccine(b) Live attenuated(c) Newer vaccine* Vaccine given subcutaneous route* Gullian Barre syndrome is a side effectsThey may be administered as "nose drops " into the respiratory tractThey stimulate local as well as systemic immunity1. Split - virus vaccine (subvirion vaccine)2. Neuraminidase specific vaccine3. Recombinant vaccineToxic shock syndrome - is adverse effects of Measles vaccine (subcutaneous route) recently adapted for aerosol administration (127-PK)* Rubella vaccine: RA 27/3 vaccine given a single dose subcutaneouslyPregnancy is considered contraindication to rubella immunization | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vaccine for meningococcal meningitis should be routinely given to - | [
"Laboratory workers",
"Young adolescents",
"4-8 years old children",
"Elderly population"
] | B | Meningococcal Vaccine Recommendations:
Routinely:
– All adolescents 11-12 years age (1st dose at 11-12 years age, followed by Booster dose at 16 years age)
Other groups:
– Adolescents 13-18 years
– Young people 19-21 years
– 2 years and above (Splenectomized/ Chronic diseases/Lab workers/Travelers to endemic areas) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common carcinoma after burns is: | [
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Melanoma",
"Mucoid carcinoma"
] | A | Squamous cell carcinoma is MC carcinoma in burns. SCC commonly occurs in long standing ( Marjolin's ulcer) , old scar or keloid. Both Marjolin's ulcer & keloid are complications that arise after burns | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parvovirus infection which of the following is true | [
"Erythroid progenitors are affected",
"Myeloid precursors are affected",
"People with P antigen is resistant to infection",
"Majority are chronic infections"
] | A | Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 460
Parvovirus B19 directly infects eiythroid progenitors through the P antigen on erythroblast surface.
Individuals who lack P antigen are resistant to parvovirus infection.
Few giant proerythroblasts (GFE) with basophilic cytoplasm 'dogear1 like cytoplasmic projections, stippled chromatin and inclusion like nucleoli are characteristic and diagnostic of parvovirus BI9 infection
Parvovirus B19 infection usually remits spontaneously though few cases may require I/V Ig therapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Streptococcus causing rheumatic hea disease is ? | [
"Streptococcus milleri",
"Streptococcus mutans",
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Streptococcus equisimilis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Streptococcus pyogenes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keratomalacia is associated with | [
"Measles",
"Mumps",
"Chicken pox",
"Rubella"
] | A | Vitamin A deficiency and Keratomalacia The condition is usually bilateral. The cornea becomes dull and insensitive, hazy, and yellow infiltrates form until finally the whole tissue undergoes necrosis and seems to melt away (Keratomalacia) with in few hrs. A characterstic feature is the absence of inflammatory reaction. It is often precipitated by an acute systemic illness such as measles, pneumoniae and severe diarrhoea. Treatment: Ref:- Parsons diseases of eye; pg num:-218 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Innate immunity involves ? | [
"T-cells",
"B-cells",
"Macrophages",
"Antibodies"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Macrophages Macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytic cells that engulf a microbial pathogen after it has been identified by the innate immune system | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with history of running nose and pain over medial aspect of the eye presents with sudden onset of high grade fever, prostration, chemosis, proptosis and diplopia on lateral gaze with congestion of the optic disc. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis: | [
"Acute ethmoidal sinusitis",
"Orbital Cellulitis",
"Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis",
"Orbital Apex Sundrome"
] | C | C i.e. Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Standard Days Method (SDM) advices on avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse: | [
"From day 3 to 13 of menstrual cycle.",
"From day 8 to 28 of menstrual cycle",
"From day 8 to 21 of menstrual cycle",
"From day 3 to 19 of menstrual cycle"
] | C | Standard days method: It is for the women having their cycle lengths between 26-31 days. Have their feile days between 8 to 19 days of cycle. Hence, SDM advices on avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse during these days of menstrual cycle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The causative organism in Madura Mycosis Mycetoma is - | [
"Nocardia",
"Dimorphic fungus",
"Aspergillus",
"Dermatophytes"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The structure which lies outside the femoral sheath - | [
"Femoral artery",
"Femoral nerve",
"Femoral vein",
"Genitofemoral nerve"
] | B | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Femoral nerve Femoral sheatho The femoral sheath is a funnel-shaped fascial prolongation around the proximal part of femoral vessels, situated in the femoral triangle, below the inguinal ligament. It is 3-4 cm long. It is formed by fascia iliaca.o The femoral sheath is divided into 3 separate fascial compartments by septaLateral compartment It contains femoral artery and femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve.Intermediate compartmentFemoral vein.Medial compartment (femoral canal) It is conical in shape, wider above and narrow below. The wider upper opening is known as the femoral ring, which is potentially a weak point in the lower abdomen and is the site for a femoral hernia. Femoral ring is hounded: Anteriorly by inguinal ligament, medially by a lacunar ligament, posteriorly by pectineus with its covering fascia, and laterally by septum separating it from femoral vein. Femoral canal contains lymph node of Cloquet or Rosenmuller and lymphatics.o Lateral margin of the femoral sheath is perforated by a femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve. The medial margin is perforated by the great saphenous vein. Inferiorly it merges with a perivascular sheath of femoral vessels,o Femoral nerve lies outside the femoral sheath. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is defective in renal glucosuria? | [
"GLUT-1",
"GLUT-2",
"SGLT-1",
"SGLT-2"
] | D | SGLT-2 is defective in Renal glucosuria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In malnourished children the following parameters are reliable indicators of dehydration except __________ ? | [
"Skin turgor",
"Dry buccal mucosa",
"Oliguria",
"Thirst"
] | A | Reliable indicator of malnourished child : Signs of dehydration Shock Severa Palmar pallor Eyesigns of vit A deficiency Localising sign of infections Skin infection , pneumonia,fever Hypothermia, mouth ulcers Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following, EXCEPT? | [
"Facial nerve",
"Hypoglossal nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve"
] | B | The muscles of the soft palate are the tensor veli palatini, the levator veli palatini, the palatoglossus, the palatopharyngeus, and the musculus uvulae.The greater and lesser palatine nerves from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve enter the palate through the greater and lesser palatine foramina.The nasopalatine nerve a branch of the maxillary nerve, enters the front of the hard palate through the incisive foramen.The glossopharyngeal nerve also supplies the soft palate.Facial nerve supplies submandibular and sublingual salivary parasympathetic glands, lacrimal gland, and glands of nose and palate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cut off value for anemia at 6 months to 6 years is ________ | [
"10 gm/dl",
"11 gm/dl",
"12 gm/dl",
"13 gm/dl of venous blood"
] | C | Anaemia cut off points Adult Male - below 13 g/dl Non pregnant adult Female-below 12 g/dl Female with pregnancy-below 11 Gms/dl Children 6 months to 6 ys -11 g /dl Children 6 years to 14 ys-12 g/dl Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome : | [
"Triple screen test",
"Amniocentesis",
"Chorionic villous biopsy",
"Ultrasonography"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e. Amniocentesis In a pregnant lady with H/0 previous Down syndrome, the chances of recurrence are increased. Extensive screening should be carried out in all such females. Now in the question given - female is presenting at 18 weeks and investigation of choice is being asked which will definately be amniocentesis. At 18 weeks Screening test : quad test I Triple test. Investigation of choice : Amniocentesis. In first trimester (or 1st screening test Combined test Investigation of choice chorionic villi sampling. Screening test selectior Women presenting to ANC clinic before 14 weeks. Nuchan translucency + free phCG +PAPP-A (k/a combined test) Based on result if | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most likely inheritance pattern in the pedigree given below – | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Mitochondrial",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X–linked dominant"
] | D | It is an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance.
The features which suggest the X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance are-
A single abnormal X chromosome is sufficient to express the disease.
All of the female offsprings of a diseased male XY will receive the abnormal X chromosome and express the disease, whereas none of the male offspring to the deceased father will have the disease (as sons don't receive X chromosome from their father).
A diseased mother can transmit the abnormal X chromosome to both daughter and sons equally. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of following are the risk factors for inguinal hernia? | [
"COPD",
"BPH",
"Cigarette smoking",
"All of the above"
] | D | Risk factors for hernia Weakness of abdominal muscles Increased intra-abdominal pressure Patent processus vaginalis Patent canal of nuck causing indirect inguinal hernia in females Connective tissue disorders like Ehlers Danlos Syndrome. Congenital conditions like Exstrophy of bladder, Prune Belly syndrome Advancing age Chronic debilitating disease Defective collagen synthesis Previous right lower quadrant incision Cigarette smoking Chronic cough (Bronchitis, tuberculosis) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Obesity Chronic constipation with straining at stool Enlarged prostate with straining at micturition Pregnancy Cirrhosis with ascites Heavy weight lifting Chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis Intra-abdominal tumors Chronically enlarged pelvic organs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Residual auditory defect is a common complication in meningitis caused by – | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Meningococcus",
"Escherichia coli",
"Hemophilus influenza"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indirectly cytopathic viruses kill cells by provoking an | [
"Injury to DNA",
"Immune response",
"Injury to the cell membrane",
"Influx of potassium"
] | B | In contrast to directly cytopathic viruses, which cause cell death by damaging the cell membrane indirectly, cytopathic viruses produce antigenic proteins that are inseed into the cell membrane and are capable of evoking an immune response. Attack by immune lymphocytes, which recognize the viral protein as foreign, destroys the cell membrane. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Management of stage 11B cancer cervix is? | [
"Radiotherapy",
"Radiotherapy with combination with chemotherapy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Hysterectomy"
] | B | Radiotherapy with combination with chemotherapy REF: Shaw's 13th ed p. 390 TRETMENT OF CERVICAL CANCER: Stage Treatment 1AI Cone or simple hysterectomy with life long follow up LA2 , 1B , Ila Radical hysterectomy with b/l pelvic lymphadenectomy (wetheim's operation , schauta's radical vaginal hysterectomy , mitra's modification ) IIB , III , IV Radiation with or without chemotherapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the principle disadvantage of depot progestin? | [
"Weight gain",
"Breast tenderness",
"Depression",
"Irregular menstrual bleeding and prolonged anovulation"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the trabecular meshwork and effect the aqueous outflow | [
"Timolol",
"Pilocarpine",
"Brimonidine",
"Brinzolamide"
] | B | Refer katzung 12e p161 KDT 6/e p 145 Miotics like pilocarpine act by increasing the trabecular outflow Drugs for glaucoma -mechanism of action Brimonidine- reducing access production increasing uveoscleral outflow lantonoprost- increase the uveoscleral outflow pilocarpine - increases trabecular outflow Betaxolo- reduces aqueous secretion by ciliary body | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mother brings her 13 year old daughter to the OPD with a swelling in the left side of her lower jaw. Intraoral examination reveals a bony expansion in the premolar and first molar region. PA view radiograph was taken, which showed periosteal bone growth at the inferior border of the mandible. Also paresthesia of lower lip is present. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient? | [
"Ewing’s sarcoma",
"Idiopathic histiocytoma",
"Fibrous dysplasia",
"Proliferative periostitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tegmen seperates middle ear from the middle cranial fossa containing temporal lobe of brain by - | [
"Medical wall of middle ear",
"Lateral wall of middle ear",
"Roof of middle ear",
"Anterior wall of middle ear"
] | C | The roof of middle ear is formed by a thin plate of bone called tegmen tympani. It separates tympanic cavity from middle cranial fossa.
Tegmen tympani is formed by squamous and petrous part of temporal bone.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
During Pomeroy's method of female sterilization, which portion of the tube is ligated? | [
"Isthmus",
"Ampullary",
"Isthmo-ampullary",
"Cornual"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emperioplosis is seen in which of the following conditions? | [
"Alcoholic hepatitis",
"Acute hepatitis",
"Chronic hepitis",
"Autoimmune hepatitis"
] | D | Condition Explanation Image Autoimmune hepatitis Emperipolesis Penetration of one cell, into a bigger cell. Rosai Dorfman disease Penetration of lymphocytes into megakaryocyte. Penetration of lymphocytes or plasma cells into a hepatic cell. Interphase hepatitis Hepatic rosette formation Alcoholic hepatitis Hepatocyte swelling & necrosis Mallory-denk bodies Neutrophilic reaction Acute Hepatitis Chronic Hepatitis Poal inflammation is minimal or absent Poal inflammation is dense & prominent Parenchymal injury is scattered throughout Spotty necrosis Lobular hepatitis Lobular hepatitis, Interface hepatitis is seen Bridging necrosis is seen only in severe acute hepatitis Bridging necrosis & fibrosis is seen | train | med_mcqa | null |
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