question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Anaesthetic of choice for cardiac anaesthesia – | [
"Isoflurane",
"Ketamine",
"Methoxyflurane",
"Halothane"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following marked structure is known as 9th segment of liver? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"None of the above"
] | B | According to latest study total 9 segments are there - Segment IX is Paracaval poion of caudate lobe. The lobe shown is caudate lobe. A = SPIEGEL LOBE - segment I B = PARACAVAL POION - segment 9 C = CAUDATE PROCESS There is direct venous drainage of caudate lobe into IVC | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cherry red colour of blood is seen in poisoning with- | [
"Nitrate",
"Cyanide",
"Lead",
"Sulphite"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Garden spade deformity is seen in - | [
"Barton's fracture",
"Code's fracture",
"Smith's fracture",
"Bennet's fracture"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Smith's fractureSmith fracture (Reverse colic's fracture)o It is a fracture of the distal third of radius with palmar displacement. Hence, it is called as reverse Colles fracture (In colies fracture there is dorsal displacement).o It is less common than Colles fracture and is caused by a fall on the back of the hand,o The deformity is opposite to that of Colle's fracture and is called the "garden spade deformity',o Treatment is closed reduction and immobilization in the cast with the forearm in supination and wrist in extension.o Percutaneous pinning may be done in unstable fractures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC for pregnant females travelling to areas endemic to chloroquine resistant P-falciparum: | [
"Primaquine",
"Doxycycline",
"Amodiaquine",
"Mefloquine"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e MefloquineRef Williams 24/e, pg1257MalariaDOC* Chloroquine sensitive malasias treatment* Chloroquine resistant P. Falciparum treatment* Intermittent Preventive therapy* Chloroquine sensitive malaria - prophylaxis* Chloroquin resistant P. falciparum - prophylaxis* Antimalarials contraindicated during pregnancy* Insufficient data for use in pregnancy* Chloroquine followed by primaquine postpartum for radical cure.* Quinine sulphate + Clindamycin or Mefloquine* Sulfadoxine- pyrimethamine* Chloroquine/hydroxy chloroquine* Mefloquine* Primaquine* Doxycycline* Proguanil* Amodiaquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multiple lytic lesions of skull with beveled edges are seen in – | [
"Eosinophilic granuloma",
"Metastases",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Neuroblastoma"
] | A | Punched out lesions of skull are seen both in Eosinophilic granuloma and multiple myeloma. However, beveled edges (double contour) is characteristic of eosinophilic granuloma due to uneven destruction of the inner and outer table of the skull.
Punched out lesions of skull → Multiple myeloma
Punched out lesions with beveled edges → Eosinophilic granuloma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cisatracurium, pure CIS isomer of atracurium all true except:- | [
"Is metabolized primarily by Hoffman degradation",
"Is cardiovascular stable",
"Produces more laudanosine than an equipotent dose of atracurium",
"Has onset & duration similar to atracurium"
] | C | Atracurium molecule is mixture of 10 stereoisomers in which Cis isomer is only 15 %. A total Cis isomer was seperated and new drug was prepared which is Cisatracurium. Cisatracurium a pure CIS isomer of atracurium produces no /minimal histamine release and is more potent than atracurium. Thus it is given in less dose and causes less by product laudanosine production at equipotent dose. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC for LGV | [
"Doxycycline",
"Ampicillin",
"Erythromycin",
"Ceftriaxone"
] | A | A i.e. Doxycycline | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most specific test for AIDS is- | [
"Western blot",
"Southern blot",
"ELISA",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A study revealed lesser incidence of carcinoma colon in pure vegetarians than non-vegetarians by which it was concluded that b-carotene is protective against cancer. This may not be true because the vegetarian subjects may be consuming high fibre diet which is protective against cancer. This is an example of: | [
"Multifactorial causation",
"Causal association",
"Confounding factor",
"Common association"
] | C | Ans is 'c' i.e. Confounding factor In an epidemiological study, in addition to the exposures that the study is investigating, there may be other factors that is associated with the exposure and independently affects the risk of developing disease. If the prevalence of these other factors differ between groups being compared, they will distort the observed association between the disease and exposure under study. These distorting factors are called confounding factors or variables. In the study given, protective factor is being studied. But as high fibre content of vegetarian food is protective against CA colon, it can confound or distort the observed protective role of b-carotene present in vegetarian food. Thus this is an example of confounding factor. Causal association: There are 2 types- 1. One to one causal relationship - Two variables are causally related if a change in one variable is followed by a change in the other. So when the disease is present, the factor must also be present. In the given study causative factor is not being studied rather preventive factor is being studied.Multifactorial causation - There can be multiple factors acting independently or cumulatively to produce a disease (non-communicable). As stated above causal factors are not being observed in this study so both causal association and multifactorial causation are ruled out.Common association is not an epidemiological term, it is just a casual term. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10yr old boy with a known case of nephrotic syndrome since 4 years on treatment brought to the pediatric OPD with chief complaint of difficulty in breathing. There is no history of fever. On examination, respiratory system was normal except slightly reduced breath sounds on right infra-axillary region. Paediatrician thinks of pleural effusion. What is next best modality of investigation to detect pleural effusion? | [
"Erect Chest X-RAY PA view",
"Lateral view Chest X-RAY",
"Lateral decubitus view",
"USG"
] | D | USG Is the preferred investigation (imaging modality) to diagnose minimal amount of pleural effusions (yellow dotted arrow) A Ipsilateral Lateral decubitus xray film obtained with the patient lying on their side, effusion side down, can visualise small amounts of fluid layering against the dependent parietal pleura and is preferred x-ray view. Chest radiograph (erect):Both PA and AP erect films are insensitive to small amounts of fluid. Blunting of the costophrenic angle Blunting of the cardiophrenic angle Fluid within the horizontal or oblique fissures | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement regarding glaucoma is true? | [
"If recognized early, the optic neuropathy of glaucoma is reversible",
"Topical B-adrenergic antagonists have few if any side effect due to their systemic absorption",
"The initial symptom oh optic neuropathy due to glaucoma is loss of central vision",
"None of the above"
] | D | Glaucoma is the leading cause of irreversible blindness in the world. When sufficient axinal loss occurs, peripheral vision declines. Loss of central vision occurs much later in the disease process. Retinopathy due to glaucoma is irreversible. Treatment is focused on lowering intraocular pressure. Reduction in intracecular pressure has been demonstrated to protect against fuher damage to the optic nerve. Primary open-angle is by far the most common type of glaucoma in the United States. Closed-angle glaucoma is more common among Asians. The Schijltz tonometer, due to the fact that it is inexpensive, is the most frequently used device to measure intraoccular pressure in the United States. It is used in both hospitals and outpatient clinics. b-Adrenergic antagonists are one of the more commonly used drugs and are initially staed as a topical agent. Unfounately, excess drug drains through the nasolacrimal duct into the nose and is absorbed into the systemic circulation. Therefore systemic side effects can occur and may be severe. It is not unusual for patients to be treated with a bronchodilater drug for new-onset bronchospasms without the physician considering the use of topical b-adrenergic antagonist, used for glaucoma treatment, which may have contributed to the condition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcaneum fracture is most commonly associated with which fracture ? | [
"Fracture rib",
"Fracture veebrae",
"Fracture skull",
"Fracture fibula"
] | B | FALL FROM HEIGHT Calcaneum is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone and in most cases the mode of injury is fall from height .Over 20% of these patients suffer associated injury of Dorsolumbar spine (most common), pelvis or hip, base of skull, tibia and talus. Fig.Fall from height | train | med_mcqa | null |
In breast lactiferous ducts are formed under the influence of which hormone? | [
"Estrogen",
"Progesterone",
"LH",
"FSH"
] | A | Lactiferous ducts are one of the ducts, numbering 15-20, which drain the lobes of the mammary gland; they open at the nipple.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 416 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the study of latent finger prints, Poroscopy involves _____ level detail in individualization on ridge formations. | [
"First",
"Second",
"Third",
"Fouh"
] | C | Poroscopy is arrangement of sweat pores in between the ridges. Fingerprint study is done in different levels. Level I : study of different pattern. i) Loop ii) Whorls iii) Arch iv) Composite Level II : study of ridge islands i) Lates ii) Delta iii) Core Level III : every ridge is examined. i) Ridge bifurcation ii) Union iii) Ending | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6-month-old boy admitted with failure to thrive with high glutamine and Uracil in urine. Hypoglycemia, high blood ammonia. Treatment given for 2 months. At 8 months again admitted for failure to gain weight. Gastric tube feeding was not tolerated. Child became comatose. Parenteral Dextrose given. Child recovered from coma within 24 hours. What is the enzyme defect? | [
"CPS1",
"Ornithine transcarbamoylase",
"Arginase",
"Argininosuccinate synthetase"
] | B | Ans. B. Ornithine transcarbamoylaseIn the given case clue to diagnosis are:High Glutamine: Usually seen in hyperammonemia. Because glutamine is the transport form of ammonia from brain and most other tissues. So in hyperammonemia Glutamine level is elevated.Increased uracil in urine can be seen in Ornithine Transcarbamoylase defect because as OTC defective, carbamoyl phosphate in mitochondria spills to cytoplasm. Then it enter into Pyrimidine synthesis. Pyrimidine intermediates and pyrimidines can accumulate. Hence Uracil in urine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest sign of left atrial enlargement | [
"Elevation of the left main bronchus",
"Double cardiac shadow",
"Widening of carina",
"Cephalization of the blood flow"
] | A | .Left atrial enlargement refers to dilation of the left atrium which occurs from multiple disease states that can chronically increase the left atrial pressure. These include congestive hea failure, cardiomyopathies, congenital hea defects and valvular hea disease In rheumatic mitral valve disease, there may be left atrial enlargement with specific enlargement of the left atrial appendage, first seen as a straightening of the left hea border below the left main bronchus, then as a discrete bulge on the left, immediately below the pulmonary bay and left main bronchus. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 345 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose of insulin in stable diabetics is reduced in- | [
"Thyrotoxicosis",
"Propanolol therapy",
"III trimester of pregnancy",
"CRF"
] | D | Insulin in CRF The kidneys carry out one third of exogenous insulin degradation. It is filtered at the glomerulus and is absorbed by the proximal tubule. Sixty percent of the renal clearance is due to glomerular filtration and 40% in the secretion by uptake from peritubular vessels. Reduction in renal filtration is paially counterbalanced by secretion. The dose of exogenous insulin is reduced 25% when eGFR is 10-50 mL/min and 50% when eGFR is < 10 mL/min . Metformin is the preffered choice of treatment of diabetes in CRF REfF - pubmed.com<a href=" | train | med_mcqa | null |
The characteristic clinical sign of alopecia areata is | [
"Exclamatory mark hair",
"decreased hair diameter",
"absence of hair follicle",
"a scaly patch of alopecia"
] | A | Ans) a (exclamutory marl-: hair) Ref Rook "s text hook of dermatology 7th ed page no 63,42The onset of alopecia areata may be at any age, peaking between the second and fourth decades. The sex incidence is probably equal. The characteristic initial lesion is a circumscribed, totally bald, smooth patchIt is often noticed by chance by a parent, hairdresser or friend.The skin within the bald patch appears normal or slightly reddened. Short, easily extractable broken hairs, known as exclamation mark hairs, are often seen at the margins of the bald patches during active phases of the disease,ie gradual thinning of broken stub towards the base which consists of an unpigmented telogen club | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 29year old primigravida at 36weeks with Rh negative pregnancy came to labor room with complaints of bleeding per vaginum followed by abdominal trauma. Which of the following test is advised to estimate the size of fetomaternal haemorrhage? | [
"Rosette test",
"Kliehaure acid elution test",
"Indirect coombs test",
"Middle cerebral aery peak systolic velocity"
] | B | * kliehauer Betke test is the procedure of choice to assess the volume of the fetal maternal bleeding * It should be done as soon as possible (within 2hours) after delivery in women with suspected large feto maternal haemorrhage who need larger amounts of anti D * This method is based on the fact that an acid solution elutes the adult but not the fetal hemoglobin from the red cells. * Fetal erythrocytes appear in a smear stained dark red and surrounded by colourless ghosts that are adult erythrocytes without hemoglobin. * This test can detect as little as 0.2ml of fetal blood diluted in 5litres of maternal blood. * Following clinical scenarios are associated with large feto maternal bleeding: 1. Traumatic deliveries including cesarean 2. Manual removal of placenta 3. Still bihs and intrauterine deaths 4. Abdominal trauma during the third trimester 4. Twin pregnancies at delivery 5. unexplained hydrops fetalis Reference: Greentop guidelines no: 22 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery. | [
"Inferior hypophyseal",
"Meningeal artery",
"Ophthalmic artery",
"Cavernous branch"
] | C | Ans. is 'C' i.e. Ophthalmic artery The internal carotid artery begins at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage as one of the terminal branches of the common carotid artery. Its course is divided into four parts:Parts of ICABranches(A) Cervical partNo branches(B) Petrous partCaroticotympanic art.Pterygoid art.(C) Cavernous partCavernous branches (to trigeminal ganglion walls of cavernous and inferior petrosal sinuses and contained nerves)Sup. Hypophyseal a.Inf. Hypophyseal a.Meningeal a.(D) Cerebral partOphthalmic a.Anterior cerebral a.Middle cerebral a.Post, communicating a.Ant. choroidal a. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Microscopic examination of articular surface of a synovial joint demonstrates? | [
"Hyaline cartilage",
"Adipocytes",
"Endothelial cells",
"Periosteum"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Hyaline cartilageREF: Basic histology, Carlos & Jose, 11th edition, Chapter 7, Cartilage, Textbook of human histology 4th e p. 92-94See APPENDIX-2 below for "Types of cartilage" APPENDIX - 2Types of Cartilages Hyaline CartilageElastic CartilageFibrocatilageCompositionType II collagenChondroitin sulfateType II collagenElastin fibersType I collagenPerichondriumPresentPresentAbsent Articular cartilageArytenoid cartilageThyroid cartilageCricoid cartilageEpiphyseal growth plateNasal septumCostal cartilage of ribsAuricleAuditory tubeEpiglottisCuneiform cartilage of larynxEpiglottisExternal auditory canalArticular discsIntervertebral discsMenisciPubic symphysisGlenoid labrumAcetabular labrum | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to the latest evidence the latent virus infection which is responsible for the pathogenesis of the achalasia is: | [
"Herpes simplex 1",
"Hepatitis C infection",
"Rubella",
"Measles"
] | A | It is believed that cause of ganglion cell degeneration in achalasia is an autoimmune process attributable to a latent infection with human herpes simplex virus 1 combined with genetic susceptibility. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-2431. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Color of diphtheretic membrane is – | [
"Grey",
"White",
"Yellow",
"Cream"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lesion composed of microscopic vessels is called as: | [
"Haemangioma",
"Angioma",
"Both of them",
"None of the above"
] | C | The term hemangioma traditionally has been used to describe a variety of developmental vascular anomalies. Currently, hemangiomas are considered to be benign tumors of infancy that display a rapid growth phase with endothelial cell proliferation, followed by gradual involution.
Ref: Nevilles oral and maxillofacial pathology 4th edition page 504 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cerebrospinal fever is due to | [
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Neisseria meningitides",
"None of the above"
] | C | (C) Neisseria meningitides # Cerebrospinal meningitis and meningococcal septicaemia are the two main types of meningococcal disease.> Cocci spread from the nasopharynx to the meninges may be directly along the perineural sheath of the olfactory nerve, through the cribriform plate to the subarachnoid space or more probably through the blood stream.> In certain cases, the site of entry may be conjunctiva meningococcal purulent conjunctivitis occur.> On reaching the CNS, a suppurative lesion of meninges is set up, involving the surface of spinal cord, as well as the base and cortex of brain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
GCS of 10 is classified as | [
"Mild head injury",
"Moderate head injury",
"Severe head injury",
"Moribund head injury"
] | B | Head injury classification using the GlasgowComa Scale (GCS) score.Minor head injury GCS 15 with no loss of consciousness(LOC)Mild head injury GCS 14 or 15 with LOCModerate head injury GCS 9-13Severe head injury GCS 3-8Bailey and love 27e 329 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation : | [
"Hematocrit",
"Total leukocyte count",
"Red cell mass",
"Reticulocyte count"
] | C | Answer is C (Red cell mass): When confronted with an elevated Haemoglobin or Haematocrit the first step should be to determine whether this increase is due to absolute erythrocytosis or relative erythrocytosis. Absolute erythrocytosis Relative/ spurious erythrocytosis Apparent increase in red cell mass due to reduction in plasma volume True increase in red cell mass `Red cell mass' is the investigation of choice to determine such distinction. Once 'red cell mass' determination confirms absolute erythrocytosis, a diagnosis of polycythemia vera can be established by demonstrating absence of elevation in serum erythropoetin levels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis-B infection Is made by | [
"Presence of HbeAg in serum",
"Presence of IgM anti-HBc in serum",
"Presence of HbsAg in serum",
"Presence of IgG anti-HBc in serum"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of Levetiracetam are all except | [
"Used in myoclonic epilepsy",
"Acts on GABA receptors",
"Inhibits post synaptic calcium channels",
"Binds to SV2A and regulates exocytosis of neurotransmitter"
] | C | (C) Inhibits post synaptic calcium channels# Mechanism of Action:> Inhibits a specific high-voltage activated calcium channel, the N-type> Inhibit the release of calcium from intracellular stores.> Oppose the inhibitory action of zinc and beta-carbolines on GABA- and glycine-gated currents. Inhibits burst firing without affecting normal neuronal excitability.> Hypersynchronization of epileptiform activity is inhibited, and its distinguished Levetiracetam from other AEDs.> Saturable and reversible stereoselective binding site specific for levetiracetam in CNS, SV2A.> Exact mechanism by which levetiracetam acts to treat epilepsy is unknown However, the drug binds to a synaptic vesicle glycoprotein, SV2A, and inhibits presynaptic calcium channels reducing neurotransmitter release and acting as a neuromodulator.> Levetiracetam: Binds to a synaptic vesicle glycoprotein (involved in the regulation of vesicle exocytosis), SV2A, & inhibits presynaptic calcium channels reducing neurotransmitter release & acts as a neuromodulator. Levetiracetam is an anticonvulsant used to treat epilepsy. Levetiracetam may selectively prevent hypersynchronization of epileptiform burst firing and propagation of seizure activity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug should not be given in pregnancy: | [
"Labetalol.",
"ACEinhibitors.",
"Hydralazine.",
"Methyl dopa."
] | B | ACE-inhibitors
ACE inhibitors and ARBs have fetopathic potential, therefore are contraindicated in pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Febrile convulsions | [
"Are best treated with Sodium Valproate",
"Show an increase in familial incidence",
"May associates with low fever",
"Occur in 2-5% of children"
] | B | (B) Show an increase in familial incidence # Characteristics of simple benign febrile convulsions:> Fits occurs within 24 hour of the onset of fever, last less than 10 minutes, usually single per febrile episode.> Convulsions are generalized, a small proportion (4-18%) of case may show focal convulsions.> There is no postictal neurological deficit and electroencephalogram a few days after the seizure is normal.> There may be a family history of febrile convulsions in the sibling.> Febrile convulsions are unusual before the age of six months and after 5 years.> Vast majority of patients do not require treatment for either their acute presentation with a seizure or for recurrences.>Best way to manage is to control the temperature with acetaminophen (Paracetamol) or by sponging. When anticonvulsant therapy is judged by a doctor to be indicated, anticonvulsants can be prescribed.> Sodium valproate or clonazepam are active against febrile seizures, with sodium valproate showing superiority over clonazepam. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following grafts has the best prognosis? (OR) Which of the following graft has high success rate? | [
"Xenograft",
"Autograft",
"Allograft",
"Homograft"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a germ cell tumour is : | [
"Dysgerminoma",
"Teratoma",
"Granulosa theca cell tumour",
"Embryonal cell carcinoma"
] | C | Granulosa theca cell tumour | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 years old man presents with acute onset of pain in lower abdomen followed by repeated rectal bledding Examination revealed pulse rate of 100/ minute, BP 160/96 mm of Hg and a localised tenderness in the left hypochondrium. Stools examination reveales only a few pus cells and sigmoidoscopy was normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Idiopathic ulcerative colitis",
"Bacillary dysentery",
"Ischaemic colitis",
"Amoebic colitis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The striated vertebra is seen in - | [
"TB spine",
"Haemangioma",
"Chordoma",
"Metastasis"
] | B | In hemangioma there is a loss of horizontal striation and prominence of vertical striation giving vertebra a typical striated appearance on radiography. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti Helicobacter pylori drugs include all of the following except: | [
"Amoxicillin",
"Clarithromycin",
"Metronidazole",
"Sucralfate"
] | D | Ans: D (Sucralfate) Ref: The Pharmacological basis of therapeutics by Good man & Gilman - 12th edition, page no. 1320Explanation:Common eradication regimens Helicobacter pylori include triple therapy and quadruple therapy both of which are given for 14 days.Triple therapy - proton pump inhibitor + clarithromycin 500 mg + metronidazole 500 mg or amoxicillin 1 g BD or tetracycline 500mg QIDQuadruple therapy - Proton pump inhibitor twice a day + metronidazole 500 mg three times daily plus bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg + tetracycline 500 mg four times dailyQuadruple therapy is especially used in areas with high degree of resistane to H.pylori.Alternative regimen - H2 receptor antagonist BD plus bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg + metronidazole 250 mg + tetracycline 500 mg QIDAddition of proton pump inhibitor or H2 antagonist enhances the activity of effectiveness of the antibiotics used against H.pyloriMucosa associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma of the stomach also requires anti - H.pylori eradication regimen.SucralfateIt is not used in any of the H.pylori eradication regimens.It has a special role in the prevention of stress induced ulcers.When given in the rectal route they may be effective in radiation proctitis and solitary rectal ulcers.Since the drug contains aluminium, it should be avoided in patients with renal failure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a component of secondary hemostasis? | [
"Thrombin activation",
"Fibrin polymerization",
"Formation of coagulation factor complexes",
"Platelet degranulation"
] | D | Platelet degranulation is a component of primary hematostasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Composition of staghorn calculus is - | [
"Magnesium ammonium phosphate",
"Calcium oxalate",
"Uric acid",
"Cystiene"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Magnesium ammonium phosphate Staghorn calculi:* Staghorn calculi are composed of struvite (MAP, magnesium ammonium phosphate) and are usually seen in the setting of recurrent urinary tract infection with urease producing bacteria (e.g. Proteus, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas and Enterobacter).* Calcium phosphate combines with ammonium and magnesium to form the triple phosphate calculus* ieCalcium amnomium magnesium phosphate also k/a struvite stones.* These stones are smooth and dirty white and soltitary*, seen in alkaline urine esp with proteus infection which split urea to ammonia.* This type of calculus may enlarge to fill all or most of the renal collecting system forming a staghorn calculus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urea is formed in: | [
"Brain",
"Kidney",
"Liver",
"Intestine"
] | C | C & A Harper, 26th ed, p. 244 & 25,h ed, p. 319 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anewborn infant presents with bilious vomiting and epigastric distention immediately following bih. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Esophageal atresia",
"Congenital pyloric stenosis",
"Gastric outlet obstruction",
"Atresia of 3rd pa of duodenum"
] | D | This infant is suffering from duodenal atresia. Postnatal abdominal Xray in this case shows double bubble sign. It is associated with other congenital anomalies such as esophageal atresia, intestinal atresia, cardiac and renal anomalies. It is also seen in association with prematurity and Downs syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Taste sensations from the posterior one-third of
the tongue are carried by cranial nerve: | [
"VII",
"V",
"X",
"IX"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following prokinetic drug acts on motilin receptors ? | [
"Erythromycin",
"Metoclopramide",
"Loxiglumide",
"Cisapride"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding medullary sponge kidney -a) Autosomal dominantb) Nephrocalcinosisc) ARFd) Minimal proteinuriae) More common in females | [
"abd",
"bcd",
"abc",
"ab"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non pitting edema is seen in? | [
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Myxedema",
"Liver failure",
"Renal failure"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) MyxedemaREF: Harrison's 18th ed chapter 36"The edema is non pitting in myxedema because of deposition of hyaluronic acid"Causes of non pitting pedal edema:MyxedemaHyperthyroidism (pretibial myxedema secondary to Graves' disease),FilarisasisLymphedemaLipoedema | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastric secretion is increased by all except | [
"Histamine",
"Acetylcholine",
"Gastrin",
"HCI"
] | D | Gastrin, histamine, and acetylcholine are the 3 agonists of the parietal cells.Gastrin and acetylcholine promote secretion by elevating cytosolic free calcium concentration.Histamine increases intracellular cAMP.Both this pathways together have more than additive effect on secretion rates Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology, 23 rd edition, page 434 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice in neurocysticercoses of T. Solium | [
"Mebendazole",
"Albendazole",
"Praziquentel",
"Metronidazole"
] | B | (B) (Albendazole) (3431-H 18th)* Albendazole 15 mg/kg daily for a minimum of 8 days has become the drug of choice for parenchymal neurocysticercosis (380- Davidson 22nd)* Approximately 85% of parenclymal cysts are destroyed by a single course fo albendazole and 75% are destroyed by a single course of praziquantel for 15 days (3431- H 18th)Drug of choice for CNS toxoplasmosis is combination of sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine ** | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features in our of seizure over syncope except | [
"No precipitating factors",
"Became immediately unconsciousness",
"Tonicor clonic seizures lasting more than 60 seconds",
"Nausea, tunneling of vision"
] | D | Features That Distinguish Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure from SyncopeFeaturesSeizureSyncopeImmediate precipitating factorsUsually none Emotional stress, Valsalva, ohostatic hypotension, cardiacetiologiesPremonitory symptoms None or aura (e.g., odd odor)Tiredness, nausea, diaphoresis, tunnelling of visionPosture at onset VariableUsually erectTransition to unconsciousnessOften immediateGradual over secondsDuration of unconsciousnessMinutes SecondsDuration of tonic or clonic movements30-60 sNever more than 15 sFacial appearance during eventCyanosis, frothing at mouthPalorDisorientation and sleepiness after eventMany minutes to hours< 5minAching of muscles after eventOftenSometimesBiting of tongueSometimesRarelyIncontinenceSometimesSometimesHeadacheSometimesRarelyRef: Harrison 19e 2547 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Newer MAO inhibitors are useful in the treatment of- | [
"Mania",
"Schizophrenia",
"Hypeension",
"Depression"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e., Depression o Reversible inhibitors of MAO-A (RIMAs) eg., Moclobemide and clorgyline are used for depression | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following retinoids has major role to play in epithelial differenciation? | [
"Retinal",
"Retinol",
"Retinoic acid",
"None of the above"
] | C | Active Forms of Vitamin A Function Retinol Reproduction Retinal Vision Retinoic acid Epithelial differentiation, gene expression, growth and development Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 31st edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Perioral & periorbital skin lesions are seen in: | [
"Idiopathic thrombocytic purpura",
"Cutaneous vasculitis",
"Primary systemic amyloidosis (pinch purpura)",
"Lupus erethematosis"
] | C | (C) Primary systemic amyloidosis (pinch purpura)# AMYLOIDOSIS & SKIN LESIONS# Periorbital purpura> Amyloid deposition in the skin gives rise to particular dermatological lesions, which have been thoroughly described. Presentation to the dermatologist may be with any of the following features.> Purpura, petechiae, and ecchymoses occur commonly in the skin and mucous membranes.> They are due to intracutaneous hemorrhage, the result of amyloid infiltrating and weakening blood-vessel walls. These lesions may occur spontaneously and are particularly common in skin folds such as the eyelids, axillae, umbilicus, and anogenital area. Periorbital purpura may arise after coughing, sneezing, performing proctoscopy, or the valsalva maneuver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ameloblasts are formed after: | [
"Dentin is laid down.",
"Odontoblasts are formed.",
"Predentin is laid down.",
"None of the Above."
] | B | AMELOGENESIS
Ameloblasts begin enamel deposition after a few micrometers of dentin have been deposited at the dentinoenamel junction, At the bell stage, cells of the inner enamel epithelium differentiate. They elongate and are ready to become active secretory ameloblasts. The ameloblasts then exhibit changes as they differentiate and pass through five functional stages:
(1) morphogenesis,
(2) organization and differentiation,
(3) secretion,
(4) maturation, and
(5) protection
Golgi's apparatus appears centrally in the ameloblasts, and the amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) increases in the apical area.
The row of ameloblasts maintains orientation by cell-to-cell attachments (desmosomes) at both the proximal and distal ends of the cell. This maintains the cells in a row as they move peripherally from the dentinoenamel junction depositing enamel matrix. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective medium for Bacillus anthracis | [
"PLET medium",
"MYPA medium",
"NYA medium",
"HOYLE medium"
] | A | PLET is selective medium for Bacillus anthracis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is suffering from painful vesicular eruption at T-4 dermatome. The cause is: | [
"EBV infection",
"Herpes zoster",
"CMV infection",
"Herpes simplex"
] | B | (Refer: Fitz Patrick’s Dermatology in General Medicine, 7th edition, pg no: 2383-2393)
Herpes zoster re-activation
Varicella zoster virus (VZV) is the etiology of varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles).
Herpes zoster represents reactivation of latent varicella infection and develops in approximately 20% of healthy adults and 50% of immunocompromised persons.
IP ranges from 11 to 20 days
Varicella is extremely contagious, with 80-90% of susceptible household contacts developing clinical infection
Herpes zoster classically is a disease of adulthood that affects those older than 50 years of age more severely, it is common in younger persons who had primary varicella infection within the first year of life.
Herpes zoster appears upon reactivation of VZV, which may occur spontaneously or may be induced by stress, fever, radiation therapy, tissue damage (i.e., trauma) or immunosuppression.
During a herpes zoster infection, the virus continues to replicate in the affected dorsal root ganglion and produces a painful ganglionitis.
Inflammation and neuronal necrosis can result in a severe neuralgia that intensifies as the virus spreads down the sensory nerve.
Diagnosis and Pathology
Clinical history and the physical examination
Tzanck smear and/or a DFA (direct fluorescent antibody)
Viral culture, Serology and PCR
Treatment | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false about elongation of cervix? | [
"The supravaginal portion is stretched and elongated",
"Usually associated with second and third degree prolapse of uterus",
"It is uncommon for the gland to elongate beyond 5cms",
"It is invariably associated with retroverted uterus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is uncommon for the gland to elongate beyond 5cms Elongation of the Cervixo In this condition the supravaginal portion of the cervix is well supported by Mackenrodt ligaments but the vaginal portion of the cervix prolapses with the vagina so the supravaginal portion gets stretched and elongatedo This usually happens with second degree and third degree prolapse of the uteruso With procidentia, the entire uterus slides with the vagina and hence the cervix retains its normal lengtho It is not uncommon for the cervix to elongate to as much as 10 cm in lengtho The cervix may show hypertrophy and congestiono The uterus is invariably retroverted. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following hernias follows the path of the spermatic cord within the cremaster muscle? | [
"Femoral",
"Direct inguinal",
"Indirect inguinal",
"Spigelian"
] | C | An indirect inguinal hernia leaves the abdominal cavity by entering the dilated internal inguinal ring and passing along the anteromedial aspect of the spermatic cord. The internal inguinal ring is an opening in the transversalis fascia for the passage of the spermatic cord; an indirect inguinal hernia, therefore, lies within the fibers of the cremaster muscle. Repair consists of removing the hernia sac and tightening the internal inguinal ring. A femoral hernia passes directly beneath the inguinal ligament at a point medial to the femoral vessels, and a direct inguinal hernia passes through a weakness in the floor of the inguinal canal medial to the inferior epigastric artery. Each is dependent on defects in Hesselbach's triangle of transversalis fascia and neither lies within the cremaster muscle fibers. Repair consists of reconstructing the floor of the inguinal canal. Spigelian hernias, which are rare, protrude through an anatomic defect that can occur along the lateral border of the rectus muscle at its junction with the linea semilunaris. An interparietal hernia is one in which the hernia sac, instead of protruding in the usual fashion, makes its way between the fascial layers of the abdominal wall. These unusual hernias may be preperitoneal (between the peritoneum and transversalis fascia), interstitial (between muscle layers), or superficial (between the external oblique aponeurosis and the skin). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male patient 9-year-old complains of greenish staining on upper front teeth and has a history of oral prophylaxis and recurrence of stain. Intra-oral examination reveals dark greenish stain seen on maxillary central incisors and roughening of enamel beneath the stain. This type of staining is commonly seen in patients with habit of- | [
"Thumb sucking",
"Tongue thrusting",
"Mouth breathing",
"Bruxism"
] | C | The cause of green stain, which is most often seen on the teeth of children, is unknown, although it is believed to be the result of the action of chromogenic bacteria on the enamel cuticle. Boys are more frequently affected than girls. The colour of the stain varies from dark green to light yellowish-green. This tenacious deposit is seen most often in the gingival third of the labial surfaces of the maxillary anterior teeth. The stain collects more readily on the labial surfaces of the maxillary anterior teeth in mouth breathers. It tends to recur even after careful and complete removal. The enamel beneath the stain may be roughened or may have undergone initial demineralization. The roughening of the surface is believed to be related to the frequency of recurrence of the stain. Fungi (Penicillium and Aspergillus) and fluorescent bacteria have been associated with the discoloration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about hemophilia, except - | [
"Increased Bleeding time (BT)",
"Decreased factor VIII",
"Decreased factor IX",
"Increased partial thromboplastin time (PTT)"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Troponin - T is a marker of : | [
"Renal disease",
"Muscular disease",
"Cirrhosis of liver",
"Myocardial infarction"
] | D | Answer is D (Myocardial infarction) Troponin T is a marker of Myocardial infarction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Culture media used for Leishmania is | [
"NNN media",
"Philip's media",
"Craig's media",
"Napier's media"
] | A | NNN - McNeal, Novy and Nicolle media. | train | med_mcqa | null |
70 year old man has abdominal pain with mass in abdomen. Angiography reveals aneurysm of aoa. Most likely cause is - | [
"Trauma",
"Atherosclerosis",
"Syphilis",
"Congenital"
] | B | Ans. is ' b ' i.e., AtherosclerosisClinical presentation of abdominal aoic aneurysm ffects old person (>50 years), male > female.o Most commonly asymptomatic and usually detected on routine examination as palpable, pulsatile nontender mass.o As size increases pain may occur.Complicationso Rupture into the peritoneal cavity and retroperitoneal tissues with massive, potentially fetal hemorrhage. The risk of rupture is directly related to the size of aneurysm.Obstruction of iliac, renal, mesentric or veebral branches due to direct pressure or narrowing of ostia ischemic damage to respective organs.o Impingement on adjacentcent structures e.g. compression of ureter or veebral erosion.o Embolism from atheroma or mural thrombus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with erythematous non-blanching bosselated lesion on right side of the face, Rx is – | [
"Erbium laser",
"Nd–YAG laser",
"Flash light pumped dye laser",
"Q ruby laser"
] | C | "Non blanching bosselated lesion on right side of the face suggests port wine stain"
Treatment of choice for port-wine stain is a yellow-pulsed dye laser often along with cryogen spray cooling. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A case of vasectomy is said to have failed as the vasectomised person&;s wife gives bih to a child ten months after the operation. Which one of the following is the most probable cause? | [
"Failure of the husband to use condom after vasectomy",
"Surgical failure",
"Recannalisation",
"Wife had extramarital contact"
] | B | <p> Surgical failure is the reason . Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:509. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated with:September 2009 and 2011, September 2012 | [
"Henoch-Schonlein purpura",
"Hemolytic uremic syndrome",
"Hypeension",
"Diabetes Mellitus"
] | D | Ans. D: Diabetes MellitusNodular glomerulosclerosis refers to a histologic pattern of nodular mesangial sclerosis with accentuated, lobular-appearing glomeruli on renal biopsy.Although nodular glomerulosclerosis is classically described in association with diabetes (the so-called "KimmelstielWilson lesion"), the lesion is not pathognomonic for diabetic nephropathy. In fact, a number of renal conditions have been seen in association with this distinctive, histologic pattern.The differential diagnosis of non-diabetic, nodular glomerulosclerosis includes, but is not limited to:Immunotactoid glomerulosnephritisFibrillary glomerulosnephritisFibronectin glomerulosnephritisCryoglobulinemic glomerulosnephritisAmyloidosisLight Chain Deposition Disease (LCDD)Heavy Chain Deposition Disease (HCDD)Idiopathic Nodular GlomerulosclerosisIn order to determine the specific disease responsible for nodular glomerulosclerosis, a deliberate inspection of the renal biopsy (paicularly, Congo red staining) is required.The diagnosis of "idiopathic" nodular glomerulosclerosis remains one of exclusion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Action potential is generated in excitable cells. All the following are excitable cells, except: | [
"Nerve cells",
"Neuroglial cells",
"Glands",
"Muscle"
] | B | The main difference between the nerve and the glial cells are the possession of axons and dendrites and the capacity to generate action potentials. Ref: Choudary Physiology, 6th Edition, Pages 7, 19 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prior to discharge of a patient of H. influenza meningitis the essential investigation to be done is – | [
"ABER",
"EEG",
"Developmental screening test",
"BOG"
] | A | After H. influenza meningitis sensor neural hearing loss occurs in 5-10% of patients during long term follow up.
Therefore Auditory rain Stem Evoked Response is done to check the peripheral auditory system. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biliary stricture developing after Laparoscopic cholecystectomy usually occurs at which part of the common bile duct? | [
"Upper",
"Middle",
"Lower",
"All sites with equal frequency"
] | A | Most common duct injuries occur when the CBD or CHD or rt hepatic duct is mistaken to be the cystic duct and ligated and/or divided. Most common site involved is upper CBD. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an inhibitor of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes ? | [
"Alpha-amanitin",
"Rifampicin",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | RNA polymerase II enzyme is inhibited by a-amanitin in eukaryotes. a-amanitin is a potent toxin produced by the poisonous mushroom Amanita phalloides (sometimes called "death cap"). a-Amanitin forms a tight complex with the polymerase, thereby inhibiting mRNA synthesis and, ultimately, protein synthesis. Rifampicin inhibits the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary hemochromatosis is associated with all except: | [
"Thalassemia",
"Sideroblastic anemia",
"Multiple blood transfusions",
"Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria"
] | D | Anemia that stems from ineffective hematopoiesis is associated with inappropriate increases in iron absorption from the gut, which can lead to iron overload (Secondary hemochromatosis) with consequent damage to endocrine organs and the hea. Secondary hemochromatosis seen in - Thalassemia Sideroblastic anemia Multiple blood transfusions | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cell type which lacks HLA antigen is: | [
"Monocyte",
"Thrombocytes",
"Neutrophil",
"Red blood cell"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Red Blood cell Class IMHC molecules are expressed on all nucleated cells and plateletsClass II MHC molecules are expressed on antigen presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic and B cells)TissueMHC class IMHC class nLymphoid tissues T cells++++B cells++++++Macrophages+++++Other antigen-presenting cells (eg Langerhans' cells)++++++Epithelial cells of the thymus++++Other nucleated cells Neutrophils+++-Hepatocytes+-Kidney+-Brain+-Non -nucleated cells Red blood cells--Thrombocytes+- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infilteration is | [
"0.736111111",
"1:10000",
"0.111111111",
"1:50000"
] | D | The most common concentrations of epinephrine combined with local anaesthetics are 1:50000 (0.02 mg/ml), 1:100,000 (0.01mg/ml) and 1:20000 (0.005 mg/dml)The 1:50000 concentration is manufactured in combination with 2% lidocaineThe 1:100,000 concentration is manufactured in combination with 2% lidocaine and 4% aicaineThe 1:200,000 concentration is manufacture in combination with 4% prilocaine, 4% aicaine and 0.5% bupivacaine.(Refer: stoelting's pharmacology and physiology in anaesthetic practice, 5th edition, pg no.523,126,127) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The stage of Ca Endometrium with Invasion of 10 mm of Myometrium is : | [
"la",
"b",
"lib",
"lia"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e. lb | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child suffered through trauma and had to undergo splenectomy for splenic injury and blood loss. The further management includes all of the following EXCEPT | [
"Continuous penicillin treatment",
"Continue aspirin to prevent coagulation",
"The parents are advised of the possible complica:ions the child is prone for",
"Repeated evaluation for potential complications"
] | B | (B) Continue aspirin to prevent coagulation # Splenectomised patients are at increased risk of septicemia due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae & Bahesia microti.> The risk becomes even greater in Splenectomised patients treated with cytotoxic chemotherapy or radiation, & in patients who have undergone splenectomy for thalassacmia, sickle cell disease, & autoimmune anaemia or thrombocytopenia> Vaccination to be done in elective splenectomized patients> Before the age of 5 yrs should be treated with daily dose of penicillin until the age of 10 yrs> Satisfactory prophylaxis can be obtained by penicillin , erythromycin , amoxycillin , co-amoxiclav.> Suspected infections can be treated with same antibiotics & cefotaxime, cefitriaxone, or chloramphenicol | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is brought to the emergency room in a coma due to diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin therapy is begun immediately. Which of the following therapies should also be begun immediately?` | [
"Calcium supplementation",
"Creatinine supplementation",
"Magnesium supplementation",
"Potassium supplementation"
] | D | Therapy of diabetic ketoacidosis requires more than insulin. Intravascular volume is often depleted, and initial fluids to restore volume should include isotonic saline or lactated Ringer's solution. If aerial blood pH is less than 7.1 or if severe hyperkalemia is present, bicarbonate supplementation should be used. IV fluids containing 5-10% dextrose (glucose) should be used when the serum glucose levels fall to 200-300 mg/dL, since high doses of rapidly acting insulin can cause life-threatening hypoglycemia. Additionally, the serum potassium concentration should be watched very carefully, since potassium is co transpoed into cells with glucose in the presence of insulin. It is often the case that hyperkalemia is present initially, secondary to decreased cellular uptake of potassium with decreased cellular uptake of glucose. However, this can rapidly change when insulin drives glucose (with potassium) into cells, and a life-threatening hypokalemia can develop. Supplementation with calcium is not required with insulin administration. Creatinine is a waste product, rather than a nutrient. Supplementation with magnesium is not required with insulin administration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Banka's lesion is seen at | [
"Post surface of glenoid labrum",
"Ant surface of glenoid labrum",
"Ant pa of head of humerus",
"Post pa of head of humerus"
] | B | B i.e. Anterior surface of glenoid labrum | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a woman presenting with amenorrhea headache, blurred vision and galactorrhea appropriate investigation: | [
"Prolactin levels",
"LH",
"FSH",
"HCG"
] | A | A women presenting with headache, blurred vision and galactorrhea raises of a pituitary prolactinoma and so appropriate investigation would be:
S prolactin (most important)
TSH (as patients with hypothyroidism have elevated TRH which acts to stimulate the release of prolactin)
X ray skull (shows space occupying lesion)
MRI
Contrast enhanced CT | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marsupialization is the procedure done for: March 2011 | [
"Baholin's cyst",
"Carcinoma cervix",
"Chronic cervictis",
"Endometriosis"
] | A | Ans. A: Baholin's cyst A small baholin's cyst remains asymptomatic, but a larger one bulges across the vaginal introitus and causes dyspareunia, discomfo and may get infected when it needs excision or marsupialization | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is involved in the transpoation of lipids from the intestine to the other tissues? | [
"Chylomicrons",
"HDL",
"LDL",
"VLDL"
] | A | Chylomicrons are found in the chyle formed by the lymphatic system draining the intestine. It is responsible for transpo of all dietary lipids from intestine into the circulation. VLDL is involved in transpo of triacylglycerol from liver to extrahepatic tissues. Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 29th edition chapter 25. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl’s mandible radiograph shows soap bubble appearance of a lytic lesion. On aspiration, the lesion shows blood. Whirring sound is heard from the lesion, as if connected with the girl’s heart. The girl is also able to feel her heartbeat in the lesion. What should be the next investigation? | [
"Non contrast CT",
"CT Angiography",
"CBCT",
"MRI"
] | B | Although CT-angiography may reveal an underlying arteriovenous malformation (AVM) or arteriovenous fistula (AVF), other vascular malformations are not easily evaluated on CT and are better seen on magnetic resonance imaging. For the evaluation of AVMs and AVFs, formal digital subtraction angiography remains the gold standard. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thrombolytic therapy with streptokinase is contraindicated in all of the following except | [
"Supraventricular tachycardia",
"Recent trauma",
"Recent cerebral bleeding",
"Recent surgery"
] | A | In all the other given conditions thrombolytics increase bleeding. From essential of medical pharmacology K D Tripati 7th edition Page no 627 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trans-esophageal echocardiography is better over trans- thoracic echocardiography in? | [
"Evaluation of left ventricle",
"Evaluation of left atria and left Atrial appendage thrombus",
"Evaluation of Pericardial fluid",
"Evaluation of commissural fusion"
] | B | Ans. (b) Evaluation of left atria and left Atrial appendage thrombusRef.: Harrison 19th ed. /270e-2* Trans-esophageal echocardiography is better than trans- thoracic echocardiography as it is better able to evaluate the left Atrial thrombus and left Atrial appendage. Therefore in patients of atrial fibrillation of long standing duration for evaluation of clots in left atrium, trans-esophageal echocardiography is done. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of Congenital Hydrocephalus is | [
"Stereotactic Surgery",
"Diuretics",
"Radiotherapy",
"VP shunt"
] | D | Ans. (d) VP shuntRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 655Treatment of Congenital Hydrocephalus:* Temporary CSF diversion by External Ventricular Drain* Ventriculo peritoneal shunt is long term mainstay management* Endoscopic Third Ventriculostomy* Lumbar Puncture is also a temporary measure until VP shunt is made. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A neonate presented with cicatrising skin lesions all over body with hypoplasia of all limbs. MRI of brain revealed diffuse cerebral atrophy. which of these tests is most likely to show positive result in this patient? | [
"Anti rubella antibody",
"Anti toxoplasma antibody",
"Anti VZV antibody",
"Anti CMV antibody"
] | C | Cicatrising skin lesions, Hypoplasia of all limbs are features of congenitanl varicella syndrome.Therefore Anti VZV antibody will be positive in this baby. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metaclopramide all are true except - | [
"Increase gastric emptying",
"D2-agonist",
"Acts on CTZ",
"Long term use can cause parkinsonism, galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., D2-agonist o Metaclopramide is D2-antagonist (not agonist).Metoclopramideo Metoclopramide is aprokinetic drug -Promotes gastrointestinal transit and speed gastric emptying by enhancing coordinated propulsive motility.o It has more prominent effect on upper GIT - increases gastric peristalsis, while relaxing the pylorus and the first part of duodenum - speed gastric emptying. Tone of lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is increased and gastroesophageal reflux opposed.o It has less prominent effect on lower GIT - increases intestinal motility to some extent, but has no significant action on colonic motility,o Metoclopramide is an effective antiemetic.o Mechanism of action.1. 5-HT4 agonism - stimulation of 5-HT4 receptor in GIT enhances the release of ACH from myenteric plexus - Main prokinetic action of metoclopropamide is due to this action.2. D2 antagonism - Blockade of D2 receptor in CTZ is mainly responsible for antiemetic effect. D2 receptor blockade in GIT is responsible for some prokinetic action also.3. 5-HT3 antagonism - At higher concentration.o Uses - As an antiemetic, as a gastrokinetic in GERD, in dyspepsia.o Adverse effects - Sedation, dizziness, loose stools, muscle dystonia (especially in children) are the main side effects. D2 - blocking action may cause extrapyramidal symptoms (Akathsia, Parkinsonism) and hyperprolactinemia (galactorrhea, gynacomastia). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior suprarenal artery is a branch of:(Repeat, Please refer Q 8, 2006) | [
"Abdominal aorta",
"Coeliac trunk",
"Inferior phrenic artery",
"Renal artery"
] | C | Ans: c (Inferior phrenic) Ref: Chaurasia, 3rd edi., Vol-2, Pg. 266Venous drainageRight suprarenal veinIVC Left suprarenal vein Left renal veinArterial supplyArteryBranch of Superior suprarenal arteryInferior phrenic artery Middle suprarenal arteryAbdominal aorta Inferior suprarenal arteryRenal arteryNote: Accessory suprarenal glands are seen in loose areolar tissue around the main glands, spermatic cord, epididymis and broad ligament of uterus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Placenta pre is characterized by all except | [
"Painless bleeding",
"Causeless bleeding",
"Recurrent bleeding",
"Presents after first trimester"
] | D | The classical presentation is painless antepaum haemorrhage.The typical history is of the women waking up lying in a pool of blood.The initial bleeding is not severe ,but it stops only to recur at a a later.Painless and recurrent bouts of fever is common (refer pgno:129 sheila textbook of obstetrics 2 nd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macula is stimulated by ? | [
"Gravity",
"Head position change",
"Linear acceleration",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Vestibular apparatus (Peripheral pa of vestibular system) The vestibular apparatus within the inner ear detects head motion and position and transduces this information to a neural signal. The vestibular apparatus has following pas :- | train | med_mcqa | null |
An old diabetic male presented with rapidly spreading infection of the external auditory canal with involvement of the bone and presence of granulation tissue. The drug of choice for this condition is: | [
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Penicillin",
"Second generation cephalosporin",
"Aminoglycosides"
] | B | Rapidly spreading infection of external auditory canal, seen in diabetic patient with involvement of bone and presence of granulation tissue point towards malignant otitis externa as the diagnosis. Treatment Includes correction of immunosuppression (when possible), local treatment of the auditory canal, long-term systemic antibiotic therapy, and in selected patients, surgery: In all cases, the external ear canal is cleansed and a biopsy specimen of the granulation tissue sent for culture. IV antibiotics is directed against the offending organism. For Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the most common pathogen, the regimen involves an antipseudomonal penicillin or cephalosporin (3rd generation piperacillin or ceftazidime) with an aminoglycoside. A fluoroquinolone antibiotic can be used in place of the aminoglycoside. Ear drops containing antipseudomonal antibotic e.g. ciproflaxacin plus a glucocoicoid is also used. Extensive surgical debridement once an impoant pa of the treatment is now rarely needed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Watercan perineum is caused by | [
"Escherichia coli",
"Enterococcus fecalis",
"Neisseria gonorrhoeae",
"Treponema pallidium"
] | C | Gonorrhea is a venereal disease that has been known since ancient times. The disease is acquired by sexual contact. Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The first step in infection is adhesion of gonococci to the urethra or other mucosal surfaces. Pili are involved in this adhesion. Adhesion is rapid and firm so that micturition after exposure offers no protection against infection. The cocci penetrate through the intercellular spaces and reach the subepithelial connective tissue by the third day of infection. The incubation period is 2-8 days. In men, the disease stas as an acute urethritis with a mucopurulent discharge containing gonococci in large numbers. The infection extends along the urethra to prostrate, seminal vesicles and epididymis. The infection may spread to the periurethral tissues, causing abscess and multiple discharging sinuses: Watercan perineum. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 235 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Allergic rhinitis nasal mucosa is: | [
"Pale and swollen",
"Pink and swollen",
"Atrophied",
"Bluish and atrophied"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e Pale and swollen Nasal mucosa pale, boggy, swollen and bluish Nasal mucosa congested and swollen (Hyperophic) Mulberry appearance Pale and atrophied nasal mucosa Allergic rhinitis Vasomotor rhinitis Chronic hyperophic rhinitis Atrophic rhinitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Excessive mediastinal bleeding",
"Ventricular dysfunction",
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Cardiac tamponade"
] | D | Answer is D (Cardiac tamponade) Features of rising pressure, falling aerial pressure and pulsus paradoxus following surgery on the hea leads us to the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about physiological murmur except | [
"Only diastolic murmur",
"Midsystolic murmur",
"Present in child with anaemia",
"Not audible without stethoscope"
] | A | Midsystolic murmurs -- also known as systolic ejection murmurs, or SEM -- include the murmurs of aoic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis, hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy and atrial septal defects Innocent hea murmurs are heah murmurs that occur in patients with a normal hea structure. Iron-deficiency anaemia often causes, along with other symptoms, systolic hea murmurs and tachycardia. It appears in children of all ages representing a most common haematological paediatric disease Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1434 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is transmitted as autosomal dominant disorder - | [
"Albinism",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"Glycogen storage disease"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis o Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disorder,o Other three disorders (given in question) are autosomal recessive.Autosomal dominant disordersNervousUrinaryGITHematologicalSkeletalMetabolico Huntington diseaseo Polycystic kidneyo Familial polyposis colio Heriditary sph-erocytosiso Marfan synd-romeo Familial hypercho-lesterolemiao Neurofibro-matosis o Gardner's syndromeo Von-Willibrand diso EDS (some variant)o Acute intermittent porphyriao Myotonic dys-trohy o Turcot's syndrome o Osteogenesis imperfecta o Tuberous scle-rosis o Lynch syndrome o Achondroplasia o Retinoblastoma o Peutz Jagher's syndrome o Juvenile polyposis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antimalarial month is- | [
"April",
"May",
"September",
"June"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., June o Antimalarial month is observed every year in month of June throughout the country, prior to the onset of mansoon and transmission season, to enhance the level of awareness and encourage community paicipation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elapidaes are- | [
"Vasculotoxic",
"Neurotoxic",
"Musculotoxic",
"Nontoxic"
] | B | Elapidaes are Neurotoxic Elapidaeare a family of venomous snakes commonly referred to as elapids. This family includes cobras, adders, mambas, common kraits. ...................................................................................................................................................................................... VIPERIDAE are vasculotoxic/hemotoxic. This framily includes russel viper and saw scaled viper ...................................................................................................................................................................................... Hydropidae are myotoxic and this family includes sea snakes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the mandibular symphysis region, which aditional forces are present that are not usually seen in body, ramal or condylar regions? | [
"Tension",
"Compression",
"Torsion",
"Shearing"
] | C | Twisting or torsional forces are present additionally in mandibular midline region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patau syndrome due to | [
"Trisomy 21",
"Trisomy 18",
"18 P",
"Trisomy l3"
] | D | <p>PATAU SYNDROME:- Trisomy 13 47 XX Characteristic features:- 1. Microcephaly and mental retardation. 2. Microphthalmia 3. Cleft lip and palate. 4. Cardiac and renal defects 5. Umbilical hernia 6. Rocker bottom feet {Reference:Robbins basic pathology 9E pg no.248}</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a device of radiation dose measurement? | [
"Storage phosphor plate",
"Ionization chamber",
"Coolidge tube",
"Charged couple devices"
] | B | The ionization chamber is the simplest of all gas-filled radiation detectors, and is widely used for the detection and measurement of certain types of ionizing radiation; X-rays, gamma rays, and beta particles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Melphalan is used in | [
"Multiple myeloma",
"Wilm's tumour",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Retinoblastoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma Melphalan is an anticancer (alkylating) agent which is most effective in multiple myeloma.Most common toxicity of Melphalan is Bone marrow toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
YAG laser is used in the treatment of: | [
"Retinal detachment",
"Diabetic retinopathy",
"Open-angle glaucoma",
"After cataract"
] | D | Ans. After cataract | train | med_mcqa | null |
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