question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Breast cancer is epidemiologically commoner with ? | [
"Smoking",
"Nulliparity",
"Oral contraceptives",
"Multiparity"
] | B | Answer (b) Nulliparity | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 years old lactating mother presnted with a painful breast lump. Out of the following, which is the first investigation to be doner ? | [
"Mammography",
"USG",
"MRI",
"X-ray"
] | B | in case of pregnancy and lactation,the preferred method employed for the diagnosis of carcinoma breast includes USG,it is more preferred over mammography due to lesser radiation exposure. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 480 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following agents are used in glaucoma treatment, except. | [
"Apraclonidine",
"Timolol",
"Pilocarpine",
"Metoprolol"
] | D | Ans. (D) Metoprolol(Ref: Katzung 10/e p103, 152; KDT 8th/e p162)Metoprolol is a beta blocker with local anaesthetic activity. Such beta blockers are not indicated in glaucoma.Apraclonidine (alpha 2 agonist), timolol (beta blocker without local anaesthetic activity) and pilocarpine (directly acting miotic) are used in glaucoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following occurs in ischemic cardiac tissue? | [
"Increased ATP",
"Increased anaerobic glycolysis",
"Increased pH",
"Increased release of Ca"
] | B | Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 28th ed. eh. 18,pp-151Explanation:Liver, kidneys and heart take up lactate and oxidize it.Tissues that function under hypoxic conditions produce lactate by anerobic glycolysisThey also produce it under hypoxic conditions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient with mitral stenosis is having surgery tomorrow. There is some liver compromise. Which of the following inhalational agent is preferred | [
"Halothane",
"Enflurane",
"Xenon",
"Sevoflurane"
] | C | Xenon [Ref: Morgan's Anaesthesia 4/e p 781, 166, 167; Miller's Anaesthesia p 626, 6491 Xenon seems to be the best answer because all other inhalational anaesthetics mentioned in the question produce some cardiovascular effects that may harm the patient with mitral stenosis. Mitral stenosis is a disorder where cardiac output remains relatively fixed. Decrease in cardiac output should he avoided at any cost. - Any drug that increases the hea rate will reduce the cardiac output in patient with M.S. All the inhalational agents mentioned in the question decrease systemic vascular resistance and also increase the hea rate. Decrease in systemic vascular resistance leads to fall in blood pressure. Moreover, they may also decrease B.P. by their cardiodepressant action on myocardium. Therefore these drugs should not be used in patients with M.S. "Xenon has no effects on cardiac output or cardiac rhythum and is not thought to have significant effect on systemic vascular resistance It also does not affect pulmonary function and is not known to have any renal or hepatic toxicity". The main drawback of Xenon is its high cost and insufficient availability. -Xenon is an ine gas which is quite difficult to obtain and hence extremely expensive. - Xenon has received considerable interest in the last few years because it has many characteristics approaching those of an "ideal" inhaled anaesthetics. Mitral stenosis Due to mitral stenosis less blood .flows through the mitral valve to left ventricle. Left ventricle functions normally but is small and poorly.filled. Initially the left ventricle dilates keeping the pulmonary aery pressure low. As disease progresses pulmonary aery pressure increases and medial hyperophy develops resulting in chronic reactive pulmonary hypeension. The right hea hyperophies to pump against a pressure overload, then.fails. The pressure gradient across the narrow mitral orifice increase with the square of cardial output. Rapid hea rates, especially with atrial fibrillation decreases diastolic .filling time and markedly decreases cardiac output. Li / .filling is optimized by slow hea rate. Hemodynamic goals Low normal hea rate 50-70/min, treat tachycardia aggressively with /8 blockers. Maintain sinus rhythmus if possible. Maintain adequate preload Maintain high normal systemic vascular resistance Avoid hypercarbia, acidosis and hypoxia which may exacerbate pulmonary hypeension. The cardiac output is relatively fixed, maintain adequate afterload, slow the hea rate and avoid hypovolemia. Measure CVP and PAOP and maintain high preload. Avoid rapid decrease in afterload. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Under teh NMEP, the minimum annual blood examination rate should be - | [
"10%",
"12%",
"14%",
"18%"
] | A | <p> NMEP: national malaria eradication programme Objective- to achieve API<1 per 1000 population by the end of 2017. Goals: 1. Screening of all fever cases suspected of malaria(60% through quality microscopy and 40% by rapid diagnostic test) 2. Treatment of all P.falciparum cases with full course of effective ACT and primaquine ,and all P.vivax with 3 days chloroquine and 14 days primaquine. 3. Equipping all health institutions and RDT for emergency and injectable aemisinin derivatives. 4. Strengthening all district and subdistrict hospitals in malaria endemic areas. Outcome indicators: 1. At least 80% of those suffering from malaria get correct ,affordable, appropriate and complete treatment within 24 hrs of repoing to health centres. 2. At least 80% of those at high risk of malaria get protected by effective preventive measures 3. At least 10% of population in high risk areas is surveyed annually.( ABER>10%) {Reference:- park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.285}</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which poisoning causes post mortem luminescence? | [
"Dhatura",
"Mercury",
"Armiliaria",
"Oleander"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) ArmillariaREF: Smart Study Series Forensic Medicine & Toxicology by Gaurav aggarwal Page 125"Postmortem luminescence is due to Photobacterium fischeri bacteria and Armillaria mellea fungi" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colonic diveiculosis is best diagnosed by | [
"Colonoscopy",
"Nuclear scan",
"Barium enema",
"CT scan"
] | C | Investigations * Barium enema (best method to diagnose) shows 'sawteeth' appearance. Champagne glass sign--Paial filling of diveicula by barium with stercolith inside-- seen in sigmoid diveicula. * Sigmoidoscopy is useful but should not be done in acute stage. Once acute stage subsides, barium enema, sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy can be done (To rule out associated malignancy). * CT scan in acute phase to see pericolic abscess. CT scan shows thickening of muscle layer, abscess, perforation, fistula, involvement of organs like urinary bladder and associated pathology. CT is the ideal investigation. ref:SRB &;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no-822 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recurrent dislocations are least commonly seen in- | [
"Ankle",
"Hip",
"Shoulder",
"Patella"
] | A | First I would like to differentiate between dislocation and subluxation.
Dislocation Vs Subluxation
Dislocation is complete separation of articular surfaces of a joint.
Subluxation is a symptomatic abnormal separation of articular surfaces of a joint without complete separation (dislocation), i.e., symptomatic partial separation.
Joints with recurrent dislocations
Shoulder (most common) Elbow (rare Temporomandibular joint
Patella (2nd most common) Hip (rare) Sternoclavicular | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of Nephrotic syndrome except- | [
"RBC casts in urine",
"Hypo-proteinemia",
"Oedema",
"Hyperlipidemia"
] | A | NEPHROTIC SYNDROME - proteinuria->3.5g/day-Hypoalbuminemia Oedema-due to sodium and water retention . Hyperlipidemia-due to increased hepatic lipoprotein synthesis to increase plasma oncotic pressure(which is decreased due to proteinuria) Hypercoagubale state Hypeension and minimal hematuria Rbc casts are seen in Glomerulonephritis Vasculitus Malignant hypeension Thrombotic microangiopathy Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg. No. 293,2142. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with - | [
"Mumps",
"Measles",
"Exanthema subitum",
"Erythema infectiosum"
] | B | Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis This is a rare, chronic, progressive and eventually fatal complication of measles, presumably a result of an inability of the nervous system to eradicate the virus. It occurs in children and adolescents, usually many years after the primary virus infection. There is generalised neurological deterioration and onset is insidious, with intellectual deterioration, apathy and clumsiness, followed by myoclonic jerks, rigidity and dementia. The CSF may show a mild lymphocytic pleocytosis and the EEG demonstrates characteristic periodic bursts of triphasic waves. Although there is persistent measles-specific IgG in serum and CSF, antiviral therapy is ineffective and death ensues within a few years. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1011 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rate limiting enzyme in catecholamine biosynthesis is | [
"Tyrosine hydroxylase",
"Dopa Decarboxylase",
"Dopamine beta-hydroxylase (DBH)",
"Phenylethanolamine-N-Methyltransferase (PNMT)"
] | A | Tyrosine Hydroxylase Is Rate-Limiting for Catecholamine BiosynthesisRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 41; The Diversity of the Endocrine System | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about heterochromic uveitis - | [
"Involves posterior surface of iris",
"Involves anterior pa of iris",
"Involves posterior chamber",
"Posterior synechiae"
] | B | It is a chronic non-granulomatous type of low grade anterior uveitis typically associated with early cataract formation. Shows moth- eaten appearance of iris, absence of posterior synechiae. Typically occurs unilaterally in middle aged persons. Treatment : topical steroids. Ref: khurana page no.168 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dislocation of lens is seen in all the following condition except - | [
"Congential Rubella",
"Marchesani's Syndrome",
"Marfan Syndrome",
"Homocystimuria"
] | A | Dislocation of lens types: I. Congenital displacements: (a) Simple ectopia lentis:In this condition displacement is bilaterally symmetrical and usually upwards. It is transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance. (b) Ectopia lentis et pupillae:It is characterised by displacement of the lens associated with slit-shaped pupil which is displaced in the opposite direction.Other associations may be cataract, glaucoma and retinal detachment. (c) Ectopia lentis with systemic anomalies are: 1. Marfan's syndrome 2. Homocystinuria 3. Weil-Marchesani syndrome. 4. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 5. Hyperlysinaemia 6. Stickler syndrome 7. Sulphite oxidase deficiency. II. Traumatic displacement of the lens III. Consecutive or spontaneous displacement | train | med_mcqa | null |
In cochlear implants, electrodes are most commonly placed at: | [
"Oval window",
"Round window",
"Horizontal semicircular canal",
"Cochlea"
] | D | The inside component, the actual implant, has a coil to receive signals, electronics, and an array of electrodes which is placed into the cochlea, which stimulate the cochlear nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
A previously healthy 58 years old man is admitted to the hospital because of an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Within several hours, he becomes oliguric and hypotensive (blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg). Insertion of a pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter reveals the following pressures: pulmonary capillary wedge-4 mm Hg; pulmonary artery- 22/4 mmHg: and mean right atrial-11 mmHg. This man would best be treated with: | [
"Fluids",
"Digoxin",
"Dopamine",
"Intraaortic balloon counterpulsation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e Fluids Pulmonary Artery pressure - 22/4 mmHgPulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure- 4 mmHgPulmonary artery pressure denotes Right atrial pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure denotes left atrial pressure.The man described in the question most probably has inferior myocardial infarction because right atrial pressure is elevated out of proportion to left atrial pressureCardiac output is depressed on the basis of an insufficient left heart filling pressure. The best treatment consists of administration of fluids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with local gigantism of the leg and increased pulsations of the lower limb veins. Most probable diagnosis is | [
"Varicose veins",
"AV fistula",
"Buerger disease",
"Tumour"
] | B | The patient is having congenital AV fistula which has caused overgrowth of the leg. Aeriovenous fistula (AVF) AVF may be congenital or acquired (by the trauma of a penetrating wound, or surgically created for renal dialysis) Structural effect on veins - Veins are aerialised*, they become dilated touous and thick walled. Physiological effects of fistula - Increased pulse pressure (Increased systolic & decreased diastolic) Enhanced venous return result in Increased HR* and Increased CO*. Left ventricular enlargement and later cardiac failure may occur A congenital fistula in the young may cause overgrowth of limb*. In the leg, indolent ulcers may result* from relative ischemia below the sho circuit. Clinical signs A pulsatile swelling* A thrill on palpation* Continuous bruit on auscultation* Nicoladonis sign' or Branham sign* - Pressure on the aery proximal to fistula causes the swelling to diminish in size, a thrill or bruit to cease, the pulse rate to fall and the pulse pressure return to normal. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p923 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following X-ray depicts | [
"Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis",
"Acute Epiglottitis",
"Foreign body aspiration",
"Retropharyngeal abscess"
] | B | X-ray shows Thumb sign which is diagnostic of acute Epiglottitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about Bochdaleck hernia - | [
"Seen in Rt side",
"Associated with hypoplasia of lung",
"Associated with hiatus hernia",
"Pericardial cyst is a differential diagnosis"
] | A | Ans is 'a' ie seen on Rt side | train | med_mcqa | null |
Somatosensory area I largest representation is for | [
"Arm",
"Leg",
"Back",
"Head"
] | A | Coical areas for sensation from trunk and back are small, whereas large areas are concerned with impulses from hand and pas of mouth. And from the figure 11-4 it is evident that area for hand is more than face. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:175 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most frequent curvature of maxillary first molar root is | [
"Mesial",
"Distal",
"Buccal",
"Lingual"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Koplik spots are pathognomic of - | [
"Measles",
"Diphtheria",
"Donovanosis",
"Gonorrhoea"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Measles Koplik spotso Koplik spots, the pathognomonic enanthem of measles, begin as small, bright red macules that have a 1-2-mm blue- white speck within them. They are typically seen on the buccal mucosa near the second molars in 1-2 days before and lasting 2 days after the onset of the rash. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One of the following is a reversible cause of dementia - | [
"Toxic dementia",
"Alzheimer's ds.",
"Multi-infarct dementia",
"Pick ds."
] | A | Reversible causes of dementia
Surgically treatable:- Normal pressure hydrocephalus, brain tumors (frontal lobe tumor), meningioma, subdural hematoma due to head injury, hydrocephalus.
Medically treatable:- Depression, hypothyroidism, alcohol abuse, vitamin B 12/folate/Niacin deficiency, any metabolic or endocrine disturbance, neurosyphilis, Hashimoto's encephalopathy, Wilson's disease, celiac disease, Whipple's disease, chronic meningoencephalitis, drugs and toxin (toxic dementia).
Irreversible causes of dementia:- Alzheimer's disease, vascular (multi-infarct) dementia, Parkinsonism, Huntington's chorea, Lewy body dementia, Pick's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discoverd by ? | [
"Louis pasteur",
"Robe koch",
"Lister",
"Jener"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Robe koch Scientist Associated with Fracastorius Proposed a contagium vivuin (cause of infectious disease) Von Plenciz Suggested that each disease is caused by a separate agent Augustino Bassi Earliest discovery of pathogenic microorganism Davaine and Pollender Observed anthrax bacilli in blood of animal Louis Pasteur Father of microbiology (Also see above explanation) Robe Koch Father of medical microbiology Discovered M. tuberculosis and V cholerae Introduced staining techniques methods of obtaining bacteria in pure culture on solid media Suggested Koch's postulate Joseph Lister Father of Aseptic surgery Proved that sepsis could be prevented by Hand hygiene Antony Van Leeuwen hoek Invented microscope (Father of compound microscope) Father of Bacteriology Edward Jenner Father of Immunology Peyton Rous Isolated virus causing sarcoma in fowl Von Behring & Kitasato Described antibody | train | med_mcqa | null |
sho acting acting beta 2 agonist | [
"Formoterol",
"Isoprenaline",
"Salbutamol",
"salmeterol"
] | C | sho-acting beta2 agonists- salbutamol., terbutaline, pirbuterol long-acting- salmeterol, formoterol, clenbuterol ref kd Tripathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endocervical sampling is recommended during colposcopy in the following situation | [
"Initial evaluation of LSIL in pregnant female",
"Surveillance 4 to 6 months after excisional therapy if specimen margins are positive for HSIL",
"Along with co-testing in post-menopausal LSIL",
"Reassure LSIL patients in age group of 25 to 30 years."
] | B | Recommendations for Endocervical sampling:
Colposcopy in inadequate, or colposcopy is adequate but no lesion is identified. Endocervical sampling is acceptable in other cases at provider discretion.
Initial evaluation of ASC - H, HSIL, AGC, or AIS cytology test results.
Surveillance 4 to 6 months after excisional therapy if specimen margins are positive of HSIL.
Surveillance after conization for AIS has been performed in women wishing fertility preservation. Negative endocervical curettage results add reassurance to this management. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mucosa is involved in: | [
"Psoriasis",
"Lichen planus",
"Alopecia",
"Scabies"
] | B | B i.e., Lichen planus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cholesterol gallstones are due to | [
"Decreased motility of gallbladder",
"Hyposecretion of bile salts",
"Hypocholesterolemia",
"All of the above"
] | D | Cholesterol is insoluble in water Bile acids and phospholipids in bile keep cholesterol in solution by the formation of micelles An excess of cholesterol relative to bile acids and phospholipids allows cholesterol to form crystals and such bile is called lithogenic bile or supersaturated bile Factors responsible for formation of bile stones Lithogenic bile or supersaturated bile Nucleation (cholesterol monohydrate Crystal aglomerate to become macroscopic crystal) Stasis or GB hypomotility Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1492 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is least narcotic opioid ? | [
"Morphine",
"Codeine",
"Heroin",
"Papaverine"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoma common in dye industry workers is | [
"TCC of bladder",
"SCC of bladder",
"Adenocarcinoma of bladder",
"All of the above"
] | A | Aniline dye is a risk for for TCC of bladder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Granulomatous uveitis with involvement of parotid gland is seen in: | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Syphilis",
"Mumps",
"Sarcoidosis"
] | D | Ans. Sarcoidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cranial irradiation is also indicated in the treatment of which variety of lung cancer? | [
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Non small cell cancer",
"Small cell cancer",
"Adenocarcinoma"
] | C | Small cell lung cancers or oat cell carcinomas, exhibits aggressive behavior, with rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes. Surgery usually plays no role in its management. Widespread metastases occur early in the course of the disease, with common spread to the mediastinal lymph nodes, liver, bones, adrenal glands, and brain. Management of limited-stage small cell lung cancer involves combination chemotherapy, usually with a platinum-containing regimen, and thoracic radiation therapy. If the patient achieves a complete remission, he or she would be offered prophylactic cranial irradiation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arthus reaction is an example of | [
"Type 1 HSN",
"Type 2 HSN",
"Type 3 HSN",
"Type 4 HSN"
] | C | Examples of Type - 3 HSN
Arthus reaction
Serum sickness
Glomerulonephritis
Rheumatoid arthritis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ingestion of arsenic causes | [
"Hepatic carcinoma",
"Hepatic adenoma",
"Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis",
"Hepatic cirrhosis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' Non cirrhotic Portal fibrosis. "Chronic ingestion of Arsenic has been incriminated in causation of NCPF. High Hepatic arsenic levels in patients with NCPF have been reported" - API | train | med_mcqa | null |
Valine is an essential amino acid since it cannot be synthesized by the body. Which of the following describes the side chain of valine? | [
"Contains a sulfhydryl group",
"Contains a branched chain hydrocarbon",
"Contains an aromatic ring",
"Doesn't have a side chain"
] | B | Valine, along with isoleucine and leucine, are branched chain amino acids. Cysteine contains a sulfhydryl group. Phenylalanine contains an aromatic ring. Glycine doesn't have a side chain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of PPH except ____________ | [
"Hypeension",
"Macrosomia",
"Twin pregnancy",
"Hydraminos"
] | A | Hypeension doesnot increase the risk of PPH, whereas it can cause APH (ante-paum hemorrhage) Atonic PPH Traumatic PPH Coagulopathy Parity: Primi/Grand multipara Instrumental deliveries Sepsis Previous PPH Episiotomy IUD Overdistended uterus: Multiple pregnancy, hydraminos, macrosomia Precipitate labour HELLP syndrome Precipitate labour, Prolonged labour Macrosomia Uterine malformations, fibroid uterus Labor induction with prostaglandind or oxytoxin Placental anomalies: Placenta pre/accreta/increta/percreta/abruptio placenta Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24th edition pgno: 782 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immediately after eating, a man develops swelling of face and lips, respiratory distress, intense pruiritis, hypotension and feeling of impending doom. The most likely diagnosis is – | [
"Angioneurotic edema",
"Anaphylaxis",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Food stuck in throat"
] | B | This patient has :-
Swelling of face & lip → can occur in both anaphylaxis or locally as angioneurotic edema.
Respiratory distress → can occur in both anaphylaxis or angioneurotic edema.
Intense pruritis → Occurs in anaphylaxis but not in angioneurotic edema.
Hypotension → Occurs in anaphylaxis but not in angioneurotic edema.
So, the diagnosis is anaphylaxis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 19-year-old man with a history of recent-onset asthma presents with chest pain, intermittent claudication and respiratory distress that is unresponsive to bronchodilators and antibiotics. Physical examination reveals mild hypeension (blood pressure = 150/100 mm Hg), bilateral wheezing and numerous purpuric skin lesions on the feet. Laboratory studies demonstrate that leukocytes are increased to 14,000/mL with increased eosinophils and platelets are increased to 450,000/mL. BUN is elevated to 30 mg/dL, and serum creatinine is elevated to 3.5 mg/dL. The serum antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test is positive. Urinalysis discloses 3+ proteinuria and RBCs. A renal biopsy demonstrates vasculitis of medium-sized aeries, accompanied by eosinophilia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Churg-Strauss disease",
"Henoch-Schonlein purpura",
"Loeffler syndrome",
"Wegener granulomatosis"
] | A | Churg-Strauss disease is an idiopathic, systemic, granulomatous disease of small- and medium-size aeries characterized by vasculitis of many organs, fluctuating eosinophilia and late-onset asthma. The majority of patients display antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies. The disease is also known as allergic granulomatosis and angiitis. Transbronchial lung biopsy shows granulomatous lesions in vascular and extravascular sites, accompanied by intense eosinophilia. The vasculitis histologically resembles the lesions of polyaeritis nodosa and Wegener granulomatosis, but these diseases do not typically present with an asthmatic syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs are useful in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus except | [
"Amiloride",
"Indomethacin",
"Chlorpropamide",
"Thiazide diuretics"
] | C | The polyuria and polydipsia of nephrogenic DI are not affected by treatment with standard doses of DDAVP. Treatment with conventional doses of a thiazide diuretic and/or amiloride in conjunction with a low-sodium diet and a prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor (e.g., indomethacin) usually reduces the polyuria and polydipsia by 30-70% and may eliminate them completely in some patients. ref : Harrisons 20th ed 2279. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the reconstruction following excision of previously irradiated cheek cancer the flap will be | [
"Local tongue",
"Cervical",
"Forehead",
"Pectoralis major myocutaneous"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Joint erosions are not a feature of | [
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Psoriatic ahritis",
"Gout",
"Systemic lupus ehematosus"
] | D | Ref Semantischolar.org | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which stage of larva of housefly is voracious feeder - | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 o The larva of housefly (maggot) moults twice, i.e. there are three instar stages,o The first instar larva is a varacious feeder, feeding mainly on decomposing liquid organic matter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old woman, on hemodialysis for chronic renal disease, complains of pain in the hands. On examination, the joints are normal with no inflammation or tenderness on palpation. Lab values reveal a low calcium, high phosphate, and high PTH level. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"scleroderma",
"gout",
"secondary hyperparathyroidism",
"pseudogout"
] | C | (c) Source: (Kasper, p. 1656) The diagnosis is secondary hyperparathyroidism as a consequence of the chronic renal disease. Calcium deposits are seen in the periarticular areas of the fourth and fifth metacarpophalangeal, third proximal interphalangeal, and fourth distal interphalangeal joints. There is slight soft tissue swelling, especially, of the fourth and fifth metacarpophalangeal joints. Calcification in scleroderma is subcutaneous in location. In gout, if monosodium urate is deposited it could appear as a soft tissue mass. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by all the following except | [
"Liver disease",
"Copper deficiency",
"Thiamine deficiency",
"Orotic aciduria"
] | B | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 640 Table,;128-1 Causes of Megalobla stic Anemia Cobalamin deficiency or abnormalities of cobalamin metabolism Folate deficiency or abnormalities of folate metabolism Therapy with antifolate drugs (e.g., methotrexate) Independent of either cobalamin or folate deficiency and refractory to cobalamin and folate therapy: Some cases of acute myeloid leukemia, myelodysplasia Therapy with drugs interfering with synthesis of DNA (e.g., cytosine arabinoside, hydroxyurea, 6-mercaptopurine, azidothymidine ) Orotic aciduria (responds to uridine) Thiamine-responsive | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is proof of eyes being open for few hours after death | [
"Kevorkian sign",
"Tach noir",
"Both of above",
"None of above"
] | B | Kevorkian sign (fragmentation & segmentation of retinal vessels) is a sign seen in retina; which is independent of eye opening. it appears within minutes after death and stays there for about an hour. Tache noir is the dust deposition in the sclera in the form of two triangles on either side of iris when eyes are open. it is brown in color and later turns black. appears after 3-4 hours after death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are invasive carcinoma of breast except -a) Comedo carcinomab) Colloid carcinomac) Lobular carcinoma in situd) Medullary carcinoma | [
"a",
"bc",
"ad",
"ac"
] | D | Comedocarcinoma and lobular carcinoma in situ are in situ carcinomas ( not invasive carcinoma ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Air-embolism except | [
"Increased end tidal CO2",
"Acidosis",
"Decreased end tidal O2",
"Decreased residual volume"
] | D | (D) Decreased residual volume # Venous Air Embolism:> Venous air embolism (VAE), the entry of gas into the peripheral or central vasculature, can occur secondary to iatrogenic complications, trauma, and even certain recreational activities.> Gas emboli are usually composed of air, but they can also occur with medically used gases such as carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and nitrogen. Although very small volumes of air can lead to severe sequelae, it is generally accepted that more than 50 mL of air can cause hypotension and dysarhythmias and more than 300 mL of air can be lethal.> Laboratory Studies> Arterial blood gases are indicated and usually demonstrate hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and metabolic acidosis.> Mild cases may demonstrate mild hypoxemia and hypocapnia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Main blood supply to the head and neck of femur comes from: | [
"Lateral circumflex femoral Aery",
"Medial circumflex femoral Aery",
"Aery of Ligamentum Teres",
"Popliteal Aery"
] | B | Most of the blood supply to the head and neck of femur is supplied by the medial circumflex femoral aery, its retinacular and epiphyseal branches included. Medium circumflex femoral aery is an aery that branches from the deep femoral aery and it supplies the medial pa of the thigh and hip joint muscles. Ref: Merriam Websters medical dictionary, by Merrium Webster, Page 400; Campbell's Operative Ohopaedics 10th/2908. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of abdominal sepsis was staed on empirical treratment with intravenous ampicilling and gentamicin. Regarding the treatment of this patient, which statement is most accurate? | [
"Empirical treatment of abdominal sepsis should always include a third generation cephalosporin",
"A drug activbe against anaerobe should be included in the antibiotic regimen",
"Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin provides good coverage for all likely pathogens",
"If the patient is severely allergic to ... | B | (Ref: KDT 6/e p741) Abdominal sepsis is a mixed type of infection caused by both aerobic and anaerobic organisms. Ampicillin and gentamicin will inhibit most of the aerobic organisms but these are not effective against anaerobic organisms. Therefore metronidazole or clindamycin should be included in the treatment regimen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Predisposing cause for Ca. stomach is except - | [
"Chr. gastric atrophy",
"Hyperplastic polyp",
"Metaplasia grade III intestine",
"Pernicious anemia"
] | B | Of the given options, hyperplastic polyp carries the least risk. In fact it carries a very small risk (< 2%)
Note that if we follow strictly to the terminology mentioned in Maingots & Schwartz, none of the given options are Predisposing factors; all these are premalignant condition. But I think examiners are not rigid about the terminology and consider both predisposing factors and premalignant conditions as one and same thing. | train | med_mcqa | null |
How much % of glucose gets reabsorbed in late PCT? | [
"2",
"5",
"7",
"10"
] | A | -In the first half of the proximal tubule, Na+ is reabsorbed by co-transpo along with glucose, amino acids & other solutes. -IInd half of proximal tubule, Little glucose & few amino acids remain to be absorbed. Instead Na+ is mainly absorbed with chloride ions. Higher concentration of Cl- compared with the early proximal tubule, because in first half when Na+ is getting reabsorbed it takes glucose, amino Acids, HCO3- etc. along with it, leaves higher concentration of Cl- behind . 98 % glucose - reabsorbed in 1st half of PCT 2% glucose - in late PCT. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary infections in HIV infected patient are classified under: | [
"Class I",
"Class II",
"Class III",
"Class IV"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following enzymes is obtained from Thermophilus aquaticus bacterium which is heat stable and use in PCR at high temperature? | [
"DNA polymerase III",
"Endunuclease",
"Taq polymerase",
"DNA gyrase"
] | C | Reverse Transcriptase PCR (-PCR) It is the method used to amplify, isolate or identify a known sequence from a cell or tissue RNA library. Essentially normal PCR is preceded by reverse transcription (to conve the RNA to cDNA). This is widely used in expression mapping, determining when and where ceain genes are expressed. Instead of Taq polymerase described above, Tth polymerase from Thermus thermophilus may be used. This enzyme has both DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase activities at high temperature. This allows both cDNA synthesis from mRNA followed by PCR amplification. In ordinary PCR, DNA is detected; that DNA could be from a living or non-living organism. But in reverse PCR, mRNA is detected; that means, it is derived from a living organism. Presence of HIV RNA in the blood can be detected as early as 4 weeks after infection.Ref: DM Vasudevan, page no: 618 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Direct action on Nm Cholinoreceptors is shown by- | [
"Physostigmine",
"Neostigmine",
"Both the above",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.'b' Neostigmine Comparative features of physosdgmine and neostigmine PhysostigmineNeostigmine1. SourceNatural alkaloid form Physosiigma venenosum (Calabar bean)Synthetic2. ChemistryTertiaryr amine derivativeQuaternary' ammonium compound3. Oral absorptionGoodPoor4. CNS actionsPresentAbsent5. Applied to eyePenetrates corneaPoor penetration6. Direct action on Xm cholinoceptorsAbsentPresent7. Prominent effect onAutonomic effectorsSkeletal muscles& Important useMiotic (glaucoma)Myasthenia gravis9. Dose0-5-1 mg oral/parenteral0-I-T0%eye drops0-5-2-5mgi.m./s.c.15-30 mg orally10. Duration of actionSystemic 4-6 hrsIn eye 6 to 24 hrs3-4 hrs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true of arhalasia cardia except- | [
"Dysphagia",
"Aspiration pnemonitis",
"Mecholyl test is hyposensitive",
"X-ray finding of dilated esophagus with a narrow end"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Boezomib drug used in ? | [
"Multiple myeloma",
"RCC",
"Liver cell carcinoma",
"Pancreatic carcinoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma Uses of boezomib: The prime indication of boezomib is multiple myeloma, both for first line combined therapy as well as for replapsed disease. It is also used for refractory mantle cell lymphoma. Note: The most prominent adverse effect of boezomibis peripheral neuropathy. Others are diarrhea, fatigue, bone marrow depression especially thrombocytopenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conversion of prekallikrein to kallikrein requires which clotting factor - | [
"XIII",
"XII",
"XI",
"X"
] | B | Ans. is'b'i.e., XIIInitiation of intrinsic coagulation pathway occurs when factor XII is exposed to negatively charged surface.This leads to activation offactor XII to XIIa.Factor XIIa can then hydrolyze prekallikrein to kallikrein, which in turn activates more XII to XIIa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 46-year-old woman has had worsening malaise for the past 36 hours. Her urine output is markedly diminished, and it has a cloudy brown appearance. On examination, she has periorbital edema. Laboratory findings include serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL and urea nitrogen of 30 mg/dL. A renal biopsy is performed and on microscopic examination shows focal necrosis in glomeruli with glomerular basement membrane breaks and crescent formation. No immune deposits are identified with immunofluorescence. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely detectable in her serum? | [
"Anti-DNA topoisomerase antibody",
"Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody",
"Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody",
"Antinuclear antibody"
] | C | This is pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis. The lack of immune deposits excludes anti-glomerular basement membrane disease (Goodpasture syndrome). Cases can be idiopathic, associated with ANCAs, and limited to the kidney. Rapidly progressive GN often has an abrupt onset with nephritis marked by oliguria. The Anti-DNA topoisomerase antibody is seen with scleroderma, which mainly affects the vasculature. The antinuclear antibody is present with many autoimmune diseases, such as SLE, with immune complex deposition in glomeruli. Anti-HBs may occur in some cases of secondary membranous nephropathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If cirrhosis causes obstruction of the poal circulation within the liver, poal blood could still be conveyed to the caval system which of the following? | [
"Azygos and hemiazygos veins",
"Gonadal veins",
"Internal iliac veins",
"Splenic vein"
] | A | Other impoant poacaval connections include the superior rectal vein with the middle and inferior rectal veins; paraumbilical veins and epigastric veins (engorgement of these vessels results in caput-medusae); and the colic and splenic veins with renal veins and veins of the posterior body wall. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delirium tremens is caused by ? | [
"Chronic alcoholism",
"Alcohol withdrawal",
"Cocaine abuse",
"Cocaine withdrawal"
] | B | Alcohol withdrawal REF: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry 9th edition page 396-413ALCOHOL INDUCED CONDITIONS Alcohol withdrawal syndromeChronic use syndromes*Hangover (most common)*Wernicke's Encephalopathy*Alcoholic Hallucinosis*Korsakoff's Psychosis*Alcoholic seizures (Rum fits)*Marchiaa Bignami disease*Delirium Tremens | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome, except: | [
"Esophageal mucosal webs",
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Glossitis",
"Cheilosis"
] | B | Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome also known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome: Iron deficiency anemia Atrophic glossitis, cheliosis Webs in upper 1/3rd of Esophagus Most commonly seen in middle aged females Risk factor for hypopharngeal squamous cell carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
The proper treatment for lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) includes which of the following components? | [
"Close follow-up.",
"Radiation after excision.",
"Mirror-image biopsy of the opposite breast",
"Mastectomy and regional node dissection"
] | A | LCIS is best thought of as a precursor lesion that confers increased risk for eventual cancer. The magnitude of this risk appears to be in the range of seven- to ninefold over baseline risk. The chance of breast cancer is equal in both breasts, not just in the biopsied breast, and the type of cancer is not confined to a lobular histology. After a diagnosis of LCIS, patients are at increased risk for invasive and noninvasive ductal carcinoma in both breasts. Therefore, mirror-image biopsy as practiced in the past has little to offer. Since LCIS is purely noninvasive, nodal dissection is not required if mastectomy is chosen. There are no data on the use of breast radiation therapy for LCIS. Most surgical oncologists recommend close follow-up for patients who have LCIS only; the alternative surgical treatment that makes most sense is bilateral simple mastectomies, with or without reconstruction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are true about development dysplasia (DDH) of the hip, EXCEPT: | [
"It is more common in females",
"Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH",
"The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction",
"Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor"
] | D | Twin pregnancy has not been mentioned as a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of hip. All other statements in relation to DDH are true. Ref: Tochdjian's Paediatric Ohopaedics, 3rdd Edtion, Pages 514, 516, 520. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following illnesses are associated with high altitude EXCEPT- | [
"Cerebral edema",
"Hypoventilation",
"Venous thrombosis",
"Refractory cough"
] | B | High-altitude cerebral edema (HACE) is a medical condition in which the brain swells with fluid because of the physiological effects of traveling to a high altitude. It generally appears in patients who have acute mountain sickness and involves disorientation, lethargy, and nausea among other symptoms. Spontaneous vascular thrombosis may occur after a sho climb or prolonged stay at high altitude (HA). Both venous and aerial thrombosis has been repoed in the literature and cause significant morbidity and moality. Diagnosis is often difficult; treatment delayed and postthrombotic sequelae disabling The Khumbu cough, also referred to as the high altitude hack, is a cough caused by the low humidity and temperatures associated with high altitudes. The Khumbu cough is named after the valley that leads up to Mount Everest in Nepal, but the cough itself is not specific to the Everest region. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1085 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman of 45, a known cause of pemphigus vulgaris on a regular treatment with controlled primary disease presented with pain in the right hip and knee. Examination revealed no limb length discrepancy but the patient has tenderness in the scarpa's triangle and limitation of abduction and internal rotation of the right hip joints as compared to the other side. The most probable diagnosis is - | [
"Stress fracture of neck of femur",
"Avascular necrosis of femoral head",
"Perthe's disease",
"Transient synovitis of hip"
] | B | This patient has
Pemphigus vulgaris taking treatment (steroid is the DOC).
Pain in hip and knee (Pain of hip can refer to hip).
Limitation of abduction & internal rotation.
Diagnosis is AVN of hip. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are the features of "dystocia dystrophica syndrome" except : | [
"The patient is stockily built with sho thighs",
"They have normal feility",
"Android pelvis is common",
"Often have difficult labour"
] | B | Dystocia dystrophia syndrome Charecteristic features Sho Stocky Subfeile Android pelvis Delayed menarche Masculine hairline Reference D C Dutta Text Book of Obstetrics 7th edition, page no 349 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Micturition centre is present in - | [
"Lateral temporal cortex",
"Medial temoral cortex",
"Lateral frontal cortex",
"Medial frontal cortex"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medial frontal cortex o Micturition centers are located in the brain-stem and cerebral cortex.1) In cerebral cortex (cortical center) : A cortical center for voluntary control of initiation and cessation of micturition is located in the superior frontal gyrus on medial surface (medial frontal cortex).2) Pontine centers: Two pontine centers of micturition are located in pons: -i) One pontine micturition center (Barringtons center) sends excitatory impulses to the sacral parasympathetic neurons that elicit contraction of detrusor muscle.ii) Second pontine micturition center sends excitatory impulses to the lower motor neurons of the Onuf nucleus that supply external urethral sphincter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Red current jelly stool is feature of: | [
"Intussuseption",
"Volvulus",
"Hirschsprung disease",
"CHPS"
] | A | Ans. a (Intussusception). (Ref. Bailey and Love, 25th/pg. 79)IntussusceptionDefinitionOne portion of gut becomes invaginated within an immediately adjacent segment; invariably proximal into distal bowel.It Is composed of:1. Intussusceptum--entering or inner tube.2. Returning or middle tube3. Intussuscepiens--Sheath or outer tube.4. Leading point-- Hypertrophied payer's patch is most commonTypeIleocolic is most common type.Clinical featuresIntussusception should be considered in any infant with bloody stools and Red current jelly stool is characteristic of it, as is sign of dance or empty right iliac fossa on clinical examination.InvestigationsUSG and Barium enema are confirmatory. USG should be the first choice as it is free of ionizing radiation and can guide in hydrostatic reduction. Barium enema shows presence of iliocolic or colocolic form as 'claw' sign i.e. Ba in intussuception is seen as a claw around the negative shadow intussusceptum.Other radiological sign on BA enema is "Coiled-spring" sign. A Ba enema involves effective radiation dose of about 7 mvs.RxMost intussusceptions can be reduced non-operatively using an air or barium enema. Hydrostatic reduction is contraindicated in presence of obstruction, peritonism or prolonged history and is unlikely to be successful if a lead point is likely. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of respiratory distress in pre- terms | [
"Hyaline membrane disease",
"Pneumonia",
"Low birth weight",
"Hydrocephalus"
] | A | (A) Hyaline membrane disease# RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME (RDS) of the newborn is an acute lung disease caused by surfactant deficiency, which leads to alveolar collapse and noncompliant lungs.> Previously known as hyaline membrane disease, this condition is primarily seen in premature infants younger than 32 weeks' gestation.> It can also result from a genetic problem with the production of surfactant associated proteins. IRDS affects about 1% of newborn infants and is the leading cause of death in preterm infants.> The incidence decreases with advancing gestational age, from about 50% in babies born at 26-28 weeks, to about 25% at 30-31 weeks. The syndrome is more frequent in infants of diabetic mothers and in the second born of premature twins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In IMR, age of infants is considered - | [
"Below 1 month",
"Below 1 year",
"Upto 1 year",
"28 days"
] | B | Infant moality rate is the deaths of children less than 1 year of age on a year per number of live bihs in the same year X 100REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 523 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypermature morgagnian cataract most commonly leads to | [
"Phacomorphic glaucoma",
"Phacolytic glaucoma",
"Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma",
"Buphthalamos"
] | B | Hypermature morgagnian cataract most commonly leads to Phacolytic glaucoma. LENS INDUCED GLAUCOMA Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma (phacoantigenic glaucoma)is due to anaphylactic reaction to lens protein that is a cryptic antigen. It can be through any intraocular surgery or trauma during which lens material comes in contact of anterior chamber & there is a sudden bout of inflammation associated with rise of IOP. In phacolytic glaucoma lens capsule is intact. There are micropores through which lens proteins leak. Phacomorphic glaucoma is a secondary angle closure glaucoma due to intumescent cataract. It is more common than phacolytic glaucoma. Lens dislocation in anterior chamber or microspherophakia also causes lens induced glaucoma due to angle closure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally ? | [
"Gentamicin",
"Vancomycin",
"Dexamethasone",
"Ceftazidime"
] | A | Gentamycin causes macular infarction (retinotoxic). Preferably the aminoglycosides should be avoided intravitreally. Ref : Khurana page no. 169 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about mycoplasma are all except ? | [
"They are L forms",
"Sterol enhances growth",
"Can grow in cell free media",
"When grown in liquid medium do not produces turbidity"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., They are L forms Features of mvcoplasma . Mycoplasmas are unique organisms because they have a very small size similar to viruses but unlike viruses, they have an independent existence i.e. they can grow in cell free media. Though they can grow in cell free media but they have a limited biosynthetic ability to they need a rich growth medium containing natural animal protein (usually blood serum) and in most cases a sterol component. . The sterol component is required because mycoplasma contains sterol in their cell membrane. . Mycoplasmas are also unique because they do not have a regular cell wall instead they are bound by a cell membrane consisting primarily of sterol. The absence of the cell wall gives two characteristic propeies to mycoplasma - i) The absence of cell wall makes them highly pleomorphic. ii) Mycoplasmas are completely resistant to penicillin because, they lack the cell wall structure at which penicillin acts instead they are inhibited by tetracycline or erythromycin. Mycoplasma and L forms of bacteria (cell wall defective bacteria) L phase bacteria are cell wall defective bacteria that can replicate serially as non rigid cells and can produce colonies on solid media. . L forms develop when many bacteria either spontaneously or induced by ceain cell wall inhibiting drugs lose pa or all of their cell wall and develop into L forms. Some L phase variants are stable, others are unstable and reve to their bacterial parental forms. It has been suggested that mycoplasmas may represent stable L forms of bacteria but genetic, antigenic and biochemical evidence are against the possibility. . The characteristic of the cell wall defective forms may be similar to those of mycoplasma but by definition, mycoplasmas do not reve to parental bacterial forms or originate from them. There is no genetic relationship between mvcoplasmas and cell wall defective microbial forms or their parent bacteria. About option `d' Mycoplasma and ureoplasma ureolyticum do not produce turbidity in liquid medum. -- www.springerlink.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dimorphic fungus rpt | [
"Candida",
"Histoplasma",
"Rhizopus",
"Mucor"
] | B | candida- yeast like fungi. rhizopus and mucor are mould. REF:Baveja textbook of microbiology 4th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fournier's gangrene is seen in: September 2008 | [
"Scrotum",
"Shaft of penis",
"Base of penis",
"Glans penis"
] | A | Ans. A: Scrotum Idiopathic scrotal gangrene/Fournier's gangrene is an uncommon condition of the scrotum. Hemolytic streptococci are associated with other organisms (Staph., E.coli etc.) in a fulminating inflammation of the subcutaneous tissues, which results in obliterative aeritis of the aerioles to the scrotal skin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are involved in the transmission of regulatory signals through the ECF, EXCEPT: | [
"G protein coupled receptors",
"Direct contact through gap junctions",
"Endocrine signals through hormones",
"Synaptic signals through neurotransmitters"
] | B | Gap junctions are a narrowed poion of the intercellular space containing channels linking adjacent cells and through which pass ions, most sugars, aminoacids, hormones, and cyclic AMP. In electrically excitable tissues these, gap junctions transmit electrical impulses ionic currents and are known as electronic synapses. Gap junctions are involved in transmission of regulatory signals without entering ECF. Gap junctions causes the action potential to transmit from one cardiac muscle to the next cardiac muscle cell. It also causes the transmission of action potentials in neurons and smooth muscle cells. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition, Page 36; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Pages 96, 515, 718 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acrodynia is a feature of: | [
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Mercury poisoning",
"Copper poisoning",
"Zinc poisoning"
] | B | Ans: B (Mercury poisoning) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010.Explanation:Symptoms of Mercury Poisoning:Acid metallic taste, hoarse voice, greyish white coating of tongue, blood-stained stool, circulatory collapse, necrosis of jaw. membranous, colitis, proximal renal tubular necrosis.Acrodynia (Acro-Limbs Odynia-Pain) is seen in mercury poisoning (aka Pink's Disease).It is characterized by Pain, swelling and parasthesia of Limbs.Mimimatu disease--Contamination of fish with mercury, at a place called Mini male Bay in Japan.Chronic Poisoning (Hydrar gyrism)The symptoms are salivation, sore mouth and throat, tine tremors of the tongue, hands, arms, anemia.Shaking palsy is associated with Hg poisoning. Mercurial tremors are also called hatter's shakes or glass blower's shake or Danbury Tremors.Mercurial erethism is seen in persons working with mercury in mirror manufacturing firms. Erethism is characterized by shyness, timidity, irritability, loss of confidence, mental depression, loss of memory and insomnia (Psychological symptoms).Mercuria lentis is a peculiar eye change due to brownish deposit of mercury through the cornea on the anterior lens capsule (Brown-Malt Reflex). It is bilateral and has no effect on visual acuity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
the movement medial/nasal movement is lost in this action which neve is affected | [
"4th nerve",
"6th nerve",
"3rd nerve",
"7th nerve"
] | C | ref : ak khurana 7th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
In rural area, cattle sheds should be ..... away from the houses ? | [
"5 feet",
"10 feet",
"20 feet",
"25 feet"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 25 feet Rural housing In rural areas, the 'approved' standards may be lower than in towns. The following minimum standards have been suggested : There should be at least two living rooms. Ample verandah space may be provided. The built-up area should not exceed one-third of the total area. There should be a separate kitchen with a paved sink or platform for washing utensils. The house should be provided with a sanitary latrine. The window area should be at least 10 percent of the floor area. There should be a sanitary well or a tube well within a quaer of a mile from the house. It is insanitary to keep cattle and livestock in dwelling houses. Cattle sheds should be at least 25 feet away from dwelling houses. A cattle shed should be open on all sides; an area 8 fit 4 fit is sufficient for each head of cattle. There should be adequate arrangement for the disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In forensic medicine, the parameter Cephalic index is used in the determination of: | [
"Sex",
"Race",
"Height",
"Stature"
] | B | "Race of a dead remains can be determined by Cephalic index, Height index and Nasal index" Cephalic index also known as Breadth index is obtained by multiplying maximum transverse breadth by 100 and dividing it by maximum length of the skull. The breadth is the greatest diameter across the skull above the mastoid process. The length is measured between the glabella and the external occipital protuberance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In maxillary 1st permanent molar, the 2 obtuse angles are | [
"Mesiolingual and mesiofacial",
"Mesiofacial and distolingual",
"Distofacial and mesiolingual",
"Distofacial and mesiofacial"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 14 year old female patient complains of decayed teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals restoration of occlusal caries with composite restoration. Which of the following lasers is used for curing of this restorative material? | [
"Argon",
"CO2",
"Nd:YAG",
"Excimers"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the nodal ministry for Integrated Child Development Services (1CDS) Programme Centre- | [
"Ministry for Human Resource Development",
"Ministry for Rural Development",
"Ministry for Health and Family Welfare",
"Social Justice"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Ministry of Human Resource Development o Though the programme was staed in 1975 by Ministry of Social and Women's Welfare in 1975, now the nodal agency for this programme is Depament of Women and Child Development. Ministry of Human Resource Development. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anaesthetic that has a smooth induction is : | [
"Diethyl ether",
"Isoflurane",
"N2O",
"Halothane"
] | D | Halothane and sevoflurane have smooth induction, so these are preferred agents for anesthesia in children. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disintegration of nissl bodies in nerve injury is called: | [
"Chromatolysis",
"Cytolysis",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | Chromatolysis: it is the process of disintegration of nissl bodies following nerve injury It is a pa of proximal degradation Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number: 74,75,76 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait are protected from infection of: | [
"P. falciparum",
"P. vivax",
"Pneumococcous",
"Salmonella"
] | A | - People who are heterozygous to sickle cell trait (HbS) are protective against plasmodium falciparum,. - In this condition, parasites grow poorly/die d/tlow oxygen concentrations. Conditions providing protection against malaria G6PD deficiency Thalassemia Sickle cell disease Absence of DUFFY antigen Pyruvate kinase deficiency HbC | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following ECG changes in an Asymptomatic Athlete's Hea should be considered pathological'? | [
"Increased amplitude of QRS",
"Second Degree (Mobitz 2) hea block",
"Prominent U Waves",
"T Wave inversion"
] | B | Answer is B (Second Degree (Mobitz 2) hea block) Second Degree (Mobitz 2) hea block should he considered a pathological finding in an Athletes Electrocardiogram. `Various degrees of atrioventricular blocks have been described in endurance athletes. First Degree Blocks and Second Degree (Mobitz Type- 1) are a common finding. However second degree (Mobitz type -2) and third degree blocks are pretty rare and should be considered pathological' The athletic hea syndrome - Spos Cardiology: From Diagnosis to Clinical Management (Springer) 2012/ 18, 19 Benign findings Physical exam * Grades 1 and 2 systolic ejection murmurs * Split S2 * S3 or S4 ECG changes * Sinus arrhythmia * Sinus bradycardia * First-degree hea block * Second-degree hea block (Mobitz 1) * Junctional escape beats * Voltage criteria for hyperophy (High QRS Voltage) * Early repolarization * Incomplete right bundle branch block * P wave increases in amplitude and duration * Tall peaked T Waves * T-wave flattening for inversion that normalizes with exercise * Prominent U waves Pathologic findings Physical exam * Systolic murmurs at the lower sternal border augmented by Valsalva and decreased with squatting * Diastolic murmurs ECG changes * Down-sloping ST-segment depression * ST elevation with broad T waves * Significant Q waves (anterior or inferior pattern) * Delta waves (Wolff-Parkinson-white) * Second-degree hea block (Mobitz 2) * Third-degree hea block * Prolonged QTC interval * LVH with ST-T wave strain pattern These findings assume an asymptomatic athlete. If an athlete is symptomatic or a possible pat o og c n ng tsfoun fuher workup is indicated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vocabulary of a 2-year-old child is: | [
"20 words",
"30 words",
"100 words",
"200 words"
] | C | c. 100 words(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 65-77, Ghai 8/e p 52-53)Vocabulary at 18 months is 10-15 words, while at 2 years, it is 50-100 words. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Postmortem caloricity is seen in - | [
"Strychning poisoning",
"Organophosphorus poisoning",
"Dhatura poisoning",
"Ergot poisoning"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old woman rushes to an emergency depament because she is afraid she is dying. She is experiencing chest pain, a sensation of choking, nausea, and tingling sensations up and down her arms. When the screening nurse examines the patient, her face is flushed and sweating. Her pulse is 140/min and respirations are 25/min. When the emergency depament physician examines her 15 minutes later, her symptoms are dissipating; her pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 20/min. The ECG is normal, except for some residual tachycardia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Angina",
"Heaburn",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Panic attack"
] | D | This woman had a panic attack. These are common, affecting more than one third of the general population each year. The etiology appears to be a combination of both biological and psychological dysfunction. The sensations and physiologic changes can be very dramatic and, in addition to the features cited in the question stem, can include dizziness, fear of going crazy, feelings of unreality, chills, abdominal distress, palpitations, shoness of breath, and trembling or shaking. Many patients who experience a panic attack are concerned that they may have a dangerous hea, lung, or brain disorder. Although the diagnosis is fairly straightforward in a younger individual with no known serious disease, the diagnostic dilemma is more difficult in an older patient, who may potentially have a true disease of these organ systems. Whereas isolated panic attacks are common, less than 1% of the population has "panic disorder," characterized by frequent panic attacks, severe anticipation anxiety about recurrent attacks, and avoidance of places in which attacks had previously been experienced. Individuals with isolated panic attacks usually need no more therapy than reassurance; those with panic disorder may be helped with antidepressants, benzodiazepines, and behavior therapy.Angina and myocardial infarction would not be expected in a 25-year-old woman, and the ischemic changes would be apparent on the ECG. Heaburn can produce chest pain, but does not usually produce increased pulse and respiratory rate. Ref: Lee T.H. (2012). Chapter 12. Chest Discomfo. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal cardiac pulsation can be detected earliest by USG at what age of intrauterine life | [
"5th week",
"7th week",
"9th week",
"12th week"
] | B | Ans: b (7th week) Ref: DC Dutta, Textbook of obstetrics 6th ed, p. 645Fetal structures identified by transabdominal USG and corresponding gestational age* Gestational sac-- 5th week* Fetal pole-- 6th week* Yolk sac-- 6th week* Cardiac pulsation-- 7lh week* Embryonic movements-- 8th weekTrans vaginal USG will detect the above structures one week earlierDoppler can pick up fetal heart by 10 weeks.NOTE- a hcg > 5000-6500 IUL--intrauterine sac is seen in TAS- a hcg> 1000 IUL -- intrauterine sac seen in TVS.In the above question, whether transabdominal / transvaginal route is not mentioned. The fetal cardiac activity is earliest detected at 6th week by transvaginal USG and it is not given in the choice. If 6th week was given in the choice, it should be the answer. Otherwise we can safely go for 7th week as the answer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heinz bodies are composed of? | [
"DNA",
"RNA",
"Iron",
"Denatured haemoglobin"
] | D | Summary of Inclusions in RBCsHowell jolly bodiesDNABasophilic stipplingRNA remnantsSiderotic granules/ pappenhiemer bodiesIronHeinz bodiesDenatured Haemoglobin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Virus lacking hemagglutinin and nuraminidase but have membrane fusion protein is: | [
"RSV",
"CMV",
"HSV",
"Ebestein Barr virs"
] | A | Ans. a. RSV | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common cause of “reversible” dementia in geriatric population? | [
"Depression",
"Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Vit B12 deficiency"
] | A | Depression
(ref : pg 189 Clinical Practice guidelines JK Trivedi) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common method for reporting composition of alloy by manufacturers is by (Metallurgy): | [
"Weight %",
"Volume",
"Weight in gms",
"Volume %"
] | A | The most common method for reporting composition of alloy by manufacturers is by weight%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Convalescent case of cholera remains infective for | [
"10-14 days",
"14-21 days",
"7 days",
"Less than 7 days"
] | B | CONVALESCENT CARRIER of cholera The patient who has recovered from an attack of cholera may continue to excrete vibrios, during his convalescence for 2-3 weeks. Convalescent state has been found to occur in patients who have not received effective antibiotic treatment. The convalescent carriers can often become chronic or long-term carriers. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 230 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stability of the toxoid in snake's venom is due to: | [
"Disulfide bonds",
"Hydrogen bonds",
"Ionic bonds",
"VanDer Wall's bond."
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e. Disulfide bonds:"A disulfide linkage contribute to the stability of the three dimensional shape of the protein molecule. For example, many disulphide bonds are found in proteins that are secreted by cells. It is thought that these strong covalent bonds help stabilise the structure of proteins and prevent them from becoming denatured in the extracellular environmentSince snake's venom is a protein secretion it is most probably stabilized by disulfide bonds. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vitamin has a role in the regulation of gene expression and tissue differentiation? | [
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin C",
"Vitamin K",
"Vitamin B12"
] | A | Retinoic Acid has a Role in the Regulation of Gene Expression and Tissue Differentiation. A major role of vitamin A is in the control of cell differentiation and turnover. All-trans-retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid regulate growth, development, and tissue differentiation Like the thyroid and steroid hormones and vitamin D, retinoic acid binds to nuclear receptors that bind to response elements of DNA and regulate the transcription of specific genes Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 550 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child's left arm and leg seem bigger than those on the right. In addition, the child has aniridia. None of the family members have aniridia or hemihypertrophy, nor do they know of anyone else in the family with these conditions. For each of the mentioned descriptions of a patient with a congenital anomaly, select the major abnormality with which it is most likely to be associated. | [
"Deafness",
"Seizures",
"Wilms tumor",
"Congestive heart failure"
] | C | Aniridia is found in 1% to 2% of children with Wilms tumor. Genitourinary anomalies are found in 4% to 5%, and hemihypertrophy is associated with this tumor in 2% to 3% of patients. Wilms tumor is the most common primary renal malignancy in childhood. Presentation is usually an abdominal mass, sometimes with hypertension, hematuria, abdominal pain, and fever. Prognosis is generally good. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angiotensin-2 mainly act by - | [
"Afferent aeriole dilatation",
"Efferent aeriole dilatation",
"Efferent aeriole constriction",
"Afferent aeriole constriction"
] | C | Angiotensin-II has several effects that make the kidneys retain salt and water, It constricts the efferent aerioles, which has two effects on peritubular capillary dynamics that increase sodium and water reabsorption. Efferent aeriolar constriction reduces peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure, which increases net tubular reabsorption, especially from the proximal tubules. Efferent aeriolar constriction, by reducing renal blood flow, raises filtration fraction in the glomerulus and increases the concentration of proteins and the colloid osmotic pressure in peritubular capillaries, This mechanism increases the resorptive force at the peritubular capillaries and raises tubular reabsorption of sodium and water. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.