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In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
|
Who analyzed the biopsies?
|
{
"answer_start": [
457
],
"text": [
"Rutgers University biochemists"
]
}
|
a4968ca8a18de16aa3859be760e43dbd3af3fce9
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
Question: Who analyzed the biopsies?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
|
who represented robert frost and walter kasza in their suit?
|
{
"answer_start": [
218
],
"text": [
"George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley"
]
}
|
f251ea56c4f1aa1df270137f7e6d89c0cc1b6ef4
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
Question: who represented robert frost and walter kasza in their suit?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
|
What was the law suit against Groom about
|
{
"answer_start": [
826
],
"text": [
"the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials)"
]
}
|
04ecd5555635bc05fd2f379d1b9027edd663cebf
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
Question: What was the law suit against Groom aboutPlease answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
|
what did the complainants alleged happen to them?
|
{
"answer_start": [
607
],
"text": [
"had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries"
]
}
|
d066a75dbe8cd3e2b57c415a8eb54a08dc7e72a7
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In 1994, five unnamed civilian contractors and the widows of contractors Walter Kasza and Robert Frost sued the USAF and the United States Environmental Protection Agency. Their suit, in which they were represented by George Washington University law professor Jonathan Turley, alleged they had been present when large quantities of unknown chemicals had been burned in open pits and trenches at Groom. Biopsies taken from the complainants were analyzed by Rutgers University biochemists, who found high levels of dioxin, dibenzofuran, and trichloroethylene in their body fat. The complainants alleged they had sustained skin, liver, and respiratory injuries due to their work at Groom, and that this had contributed to the deaths of Frost and Kasza. The suit sought compensation for the injuries they had sustained, claiming the USAF had illegally handled toxic materials, and that the EPA had failed in its duty to enforce the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (which governs handling of dangerous materials). They also sought detailed information about the chemicals to which they were allegedly exposed, hoping this would facilitate the medical treatment of survivors. Congressman Lee H. Hamilton, former chairman of the House Intelligence Committee, told 60 Minutes reporter Lesley Stahl, "The Air Force is classifying all information about Area 51 in order to protect themselves from a lawsuit."
Question: what did the complainants alleged happen to them?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In January 2006, space historian Dwayne A. Day published an article in online aerospace magazine The Space Review titled "Astronauts and Area 51: the Skylab Incident". The article was based on a memo written in 1974 to CIA director William Colby by an unknown CIA official. The memo reported that astronauts on board Skylab 4 had, as part of a larger program, inadvertently photographed a location of which the memo said:
|
When was the aerospace magazine article published?
|
{
"answer_start": [
3
],
"text": [
"January 2006"
]
}
|
c5f545baccd8ea8adb83f75756f4832340600bd9
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In January 2006, space historian Dwayne A. Day published an article in online aerospace magazine The Space Review titled "Astronauts and Area 51: the Skylab Incident". The article was based on a memo written in 1974 to CIA director William Colby by an unknown CIA official. The memo reported that astronauts on board Skylab 4 had, as part of a larger program, inadvertently photographed a location of which the memo said:
Question: When was the aerospace magazine article published?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Its secretive nature and undoubted connection to classified aircraft research, together with reports of unusual phenomena, have led Area 51 to become a focus of modern UFO and other conspiracy theories. Some of the activities mentioned in such theories at Area 51 include:
|
What location has become an area of interest for current UFO and other conspiracy theories?
|
{
"answer_start": [
132
],
"text": [
"Area 51"
]
}
|
f9307229512ff964a59eaa408e62e05c3d10398b
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Its secretive nature and undoubted connection to classified aircraft research, together with reports of unusual phenomena, have led Area 51 to become a focus of modern UFO and other conspiracy theories. Some of the activities mentioned in such theories at Area 51 include:
Question: What location has become an area of interest for current UFO and other conspiracy theories?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Its secretive nature and undoubted connection to classified aircraft research, together with reports of unusual phenomena, have led Area 51 to become a focus of modern UFO and other conspiracy theories. Some of the activities mentioned in such theories at Area 51 include:
|
What was the focus of modern UFO conspiracy?
|
{
"answer_start": [
256
],
"text": [
"Area 51"
]
}
|
fcd31d7191026816abb5b7def9c6d3fefde892bb
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Its secretive nature and undoubted connection to classified aircraft research, together with reports of unusual phenomena, have led Area 51 to become a focus of modern UFO and other conspiracy theories. Some of the activities mentioned in such theories at Area 51 include:
Question: What was the focus of modern UFO conspiracy?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The USGS topographic map for the area only shows the long-disused Groom Mine. A civil aviation chart published by the Nevada Department of Transportation shows a large restricted area, defined as part of the Nellis restricted airspace. The National Atlas page showing federal lands in Nevada shows the area as lying within the Nellis Air Force Base. Higher resolution (and more recent) images from other satellite imagery providers (including Russian providers and the IKONOS) are commercially available. These show the runway markings, base facilities, aircraft, and vehicles.
|
What type of airspace is Nellis?
|
{
"answer_start": [
215
],
"text": [
"restricted"
]
}
|
7390b083695d1b6d8bed9acb57a84707361c9104
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The USGS topographic map for the area only shows the long-disused Groom Mine. A civil aviation chart published by the Nevada Department of Transportation shows a large restricted area, defined as part of the Nellis restricted airspace. The National Atlas page showing federal lands in Nevada shows the area as lying within the Nellis Air Force Base. Higher resolution (and more recent) images from other satellite imagery providers (including Russian providers and the IKONOS) are commercially available. These show the runway markings, base facilities, aircraft, and vehicles.
Question: What type of airspace is Nellis?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The amount of information the United States government has been willing to provide regarding Area 51 has generally been minimal. The area surrounding the lake is permanently off-limits to both civilian and normal military air traffic. Security clearances are checked regularly; cameras and weaponry are not allowed. Even military pilots training in the NAFR risk disciplinary action if they stray into the exclusionary "box" surrounding Groom's airspace. Surveillance is supplemented using buried motion sensors. Area 51 is a common destination for Janet, the de facto name of a small fleet of passenger aircraft operated on behalf of the United States Air Force to transport military personnel, primarily from McCarran International Airport.
|
What kind of action do military pilots face if they stray into prohibited areas?
|
{
"answer_start": [
363
],
"text": [
"disciplinary"
]
}
|
03df1f92420416844575cfa201ae840319c40650
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The amount of information the United States government has been willing to provide regarding Area 51 has generally been minimal. The area surrounding the lake is permanently off-limits to both civilian and normal military air traffic. Security clearances are checked regularly; cameras and weaponry are not allowed. Even military pilots training in the NAFR risk disciplinary action if they stray into the exclusionary "box" surrounding Groom's airspace. Surveillance is supplemented using buried motion sensors. Area 51 is a common destination for Janet, the de facto name of a small fleet of passenger aircraft operated on behalf of the United States Air Force to transport military personnel, primarily from McCarran International Airport.
Question: What kind of action do military pilots face if they stray into prohibited areas?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The lakebed made an ideal strip from which they could test aircraft, and the Emigrant Valley's mountain ranges and the NTS perimeter, about 100 mi (160 km) north of Las Vegas, protected the test site from visitors. The CIA asked the AEC to acquire the land, designated "Area 51" on the map, and add it to the Nevada Test Site.Johnson named the area "Paradise Ranch" to encourage workers to move to a place that the CIA's official history of the U-2 project would later describe as "the new facility in the middle of nowhere"; the name became shortened to "the Ranch". On 4 May 1955, a survey team arrived at Groom Lake and laid out a 5,000-foot (1,500 m), north-south runway on the southwest corner of the lakebed and designated a site for a base support facility. "The Ranch", also known as Site II, initially consisted of little more than a few shelters, workshops and trailer homes in which to house its small team. In a little over three months, the base consisted of a single, paved runway, three hangars, a control tower, and rudimentary accommodations for test personnel. The base's few amenities included a movie theatre and volleyball court. Additionally, there was a mess hall, several water wells, and fuel storage tanks. By July 1955, CIA, Air Force, and Lockheed personnel began arriving. The Ranch received its first U-2 delivery on 24 July 1955 from Burbank on a C-124 Globemaster II cargo plane, accompanied by Lockheed technicians on a Douglas DC-3. Regular Military Air Transport Service flights were set up between Area 51 and Lockheed's Burbank, California offices. To preserve secrecy, personnel flew to Nevada on Monday mornings and returned to California on Friday evenings.
|
what made the testing strip for the aircraft?
|
{
"answer_start": [
0
],
"text": [
"The lakebed"
]
}
|
2079cf7ce47961738e4bd0d527d0b1058210f869
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The lakebed made an ideal strip from which they could test aircraft, and the Emigrant Valley's mountain ranges and the NTS perimeter, about 100 mi (160 km) north of Las Vegas, protected the test site from visitors. The CIA asked the AEC to acquire the land, designated "Area 51" on the map, and add it to the Nevada Test Site.Johnson named the area "Paradise Ranch" to encourage workers to move to a place that the CIA's official history of the U-2 project would later describe as "the new facility in the middle of nowhere"; the name became shortened to "the Ranch". On 4 May 1955, a survey team arrived at Groom Lake and laid out a 5,000-foot (1,500 m), north-south runway on the southwest corner of the lakebed and designated a site for a base support facility. "The Ranch", also known as Site II, initially consisted of little more than a few shelters, workshops and trailer homes in which to house its small team. In a little over three months, the base consisted of a single, paved runway, three hangars, a control tower, and rudimentary accommodations for test personnel. The base's few amenities included a movie theatre and volleyball court. Additionally, there was a mess hall, several water wells, and fuel storage tanks. By July 1955, CIA, Air Force, and Lockheed personnel began arriving. The Ranch received its first U-2 delivery on 24 July 1955 from Burbank on a C-124 Globemaster II cargo plane, accompanied by Lockheed technicians on a Douglas DC-3. Regular Military Air Transport Service flights were set up between Area 51 and Lockheed's Burbank, California offices. To preserve secrecy, personnel flew to Nevada on Monday mornings and returned to California on Friday evenings.
Question: what made the testing strip for the aircraft?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The lakebed made an ideal strip from which they could test aircraft, and the Emigrant Valley's mountain ranges and the NTS perimeter, about 100 mi (160 km) north of Las Vegas, protected the test site from visitors. The CIA asked the AEC to acquire the land, designated "Area 51" on the map, and add it to the Nevada Test Site.Johnson named the area "Paradise Ranch" to encourage workers to move to a place that the CIA's official history of the U-2 project would later describe as "the new facility in the middle of nowhere"; the name became shortened to "the Ranch". On 4 May 1955, a survey team arrived at Groom Lake and laid out a 5,000-foot (1,500 m), north-south runway on the southwest corner of the lakebed and designated a site for a base support facility. "The Ranch", also known as Site II, initially consisted of little more than a few shelters, workshops and trailer homes in which to house its small team. In a little over three months, the base consisted of a single, paved runway, three hangars, a control tower, and rudimentary accommodations for test personnel. The base's few amenities included a movie theatre and volleyball court. Additionally, there was a mess hall, several water wells, and fuel storage tanks. By July 1955, CIA, Air Force, and Lockheed personnel began arriving. The Ranch received its first U-2 delivery on 24 July 1955 from Burbank on a C-124 Globemaster II cargo plane, accompanied by Lockheed technicians on a Douglas DC-3. Regular Military Air Transport Service flights were set up between Area 51 and Lockheed's Burbank, California offices. To preserve secrecy, personnel flew to Nevada on Monday mornings and returned to California on Friday evenings.
|
who was along for the initial U-2 delivery?
|
{
"answer_start": [
1428
],
"text": [
"Lockheed technicians"
]
}
|
d5377da63e6f64dae5e269290a6334c2a912cb3f
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The lakebed made an ideal strip from which they could test aircraft, and the Emigrant Valley's mountain ranges and the NTS perimeter, about 100 mi (160 km) north of Las Vegas, protected the test site from visitors. The CIA asked the AEC to acquire the land, designated "Area 51" on the map, and add it to the Nevada Test Site.Johnson named the area "Paradise Ranch" to encourage workers to move to a place that the CIA's official history of the U-2 project would later describe as "the new facility in the middle of nowhere"; the name became shortened to "the Ranch". On 4 May 1955, a survey team arrived at Groom Lake and laid out a 5,000-foot (1,500 m), north-south runway on the southwest corner of the lakebed and designated a site for a base support facility. "The Ranch", also known as Site II, initially consisted of little more than a few shelters, workshops and trailer homes in which to house its small team. In a little over three months, the base consisted of a single, paved runway, three hangars, a control tower, and rudimentary accommodations for test personnel. The base's few amenities included a movie theatre and volleyball court. Additionally, there was a mess hall, several water wells, and fuel storage tanks. By July 1955, CIA, Air Force, and Lockheed personnel began arriving. The Ranch received its first U-2 delivery on 24 July 1955 from Burbank on a C-124 Globemaster II cargo plane, accompanied by Lockheed technicians on a Douglas DC-3. Regular Military Air Transport Service flights were set up between Area 51 and Lockheed's Burbank, California offices. To preserve secrecy, personnel flew to Nevada on Monday mornings and returned to California on Friday evenings.
Question: who was along for the initial U-2 delivery?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The original rectangular base of 6 by 10 miles (9.7 by 16.1 km) is now part of the so-called "Groom box", a rectangular area measuring 23 by 25 miles (37 by 40 km), of restricted airspace. The area is connected to the internal Nevada Test Site (NTS) road network, with paved roads leading south to Mercury and west to Yucca Flat. Leading northeast from the lake, the wide and well-maintained Groom Lake Road runs through a pass in the Jumbled Hills. The road formerly led to mines in the Groom basin, but has been improved since their closure. Its winding course runs past a security checkpoint, but the restricted area around the base extends farther east. After leaving the restricted area, Groom Lake Road descends eastward to the floor of the Tikaboo Valley, passing the dirt-road entrances to several small ranches, before converging with State Route 375, the "Extraterrestrial Highway", south of Rachel.
|
What type of roads lead to the ranches?
|
{
"answer_start": [
775
],
"text": [
"dirt-road"
]
}
|
ba7865d50777f2b90ba88fcb070a672d042b6b69
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The original rectangular base of 6 by 10 miles (9.7 by 16.1 km) is now part of the so-called "Groom box", a rectangular area measuring 23 by 25 miles (37 by 40 km), of restricted airspace. The area is connected to the internal Nevada Test Site (NTS) road network, with paved roads leading south to Mercury and west to Yucca Flat. Leading northeast from the lake, the wide and well-maintained Groom Lake Road runs through a pass in the Jumbled Hills. The road formerly led to mines in the Groom basin, but has been improved since their closure. Its winding course runs past a security checkpoint, but the restricted area around the base extends farther east. After leaving the restricted area, Groom Lake Road descends eastward to the floor of the Tikaboo Valley, passing the dirt-road entrances to several small ranches, before converging with State Route 375, the "Extraterrestrial Highway", south of Rachel.
Question: What type of roads lead to the ranches?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The original rectangular base of 6 by 10 miles (9.7 by 16.1 km) is now part of the so-called "Groom box", a rectangular area measuring 23 by 25 miles (37 by 40 km), of restricted airspace. The area is connected to the internal Nevada Test Site (NTS) road network, with paved roads leading south to Mercury and west to Yucca Flat. Leading northeast from the lake, the wide and well-maintained Groom Lake Road runs through a pass in the Jumbled Hills. The road formerly led to mines in the Groom basin, but has been improved since their closure. Its winding course runs past a security checkpoint, but the restricted area around the base extends farther east. After leaving the restricted area, Groom Lake Road descends eastward to the floor of the Tikaboo Valley, passing the dirt-road entrances to several small ranches, before converging with State Route 375, the "Extraterrestrial Highway", south of Rachel.
|
Where does the Groom Lake Road head relative to the lake?
|
{
"answer_start": [
338
],
"text": [
"northeast"
]
}
|
eeb8dbd25efe5221dc6723ddee95daa07d2c8478
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The original rectangular base of 6 by 10 miles (9.7 by 16.1 km) is now part of the so-called "Groom box", a rectangular area measuring 23 by 25 miles (37 by 40 km), of restricted airspace. The area is connected to the internal Nevada Test Site (NTS) road network, with paved roads leading south to Mercury and west to Yucca Flat. Leading northeast from the lake, the wide and well-maintained Groom Lake Road runs through a pass in the Jumbled Hills. The road formerly led to mines in the Groom basin, but has been improved since their closure. Its winding course runs past a security checkpoint, but the restricted area around the base extends farther east. After leaving the restricted area, Groom Lake Road descends eastward to the floor of the Tikaboo Valley, passing the dirt-road entrances to several small ranches, before converging with State Route 375, the "Extraterrestrial Highway", south of Rachel.
Question: Where does the Groom Lake Road head relative to the lake?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The storage, examination, and reverse engineering of crashed alien spacecraft (including material supposedly recovered at Roswell), the study of their occupants (living and dead; see grey alien), and the manufacture of aircraft based on alien technology.
|
What is thought to be being built in Roswell?
|
{
"answer_start": [
219
],
"text": [
"aircraft based on alien technology"
]
}
|
9daf791fa16a8aa198bf467ff163b2ee3f0daf13
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The storage, examination, and reverse engineering of crashed alien spacecraft (including material supposedly recovered at Roswell), the study of their occupants (living and dead; see grey alien), and the manufacture of aircraft based on alien technology.
Question: What is thought to be being built in Roswell?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
A defined quality of service may be desired or required for certain types of network traffic, for example:
|
What is a possible requirement for various network traffic?
|
{
"answer_start": [
0
],
"text": [
"A defined quality of service"
]
}
|
7648555b608c159da83b4701c2a4a98929fc4d8c
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
A defined quality of service may be desired or required for certain types of network traffic, for example:
Question: What is a possible requirement for various network traffic?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
A network or protocol that supports QoS may agree on a traffic contract with the application software and reserve capacity in the network nodes, for example during a session establishment phase. During the session it may monitor the achieved level of performance, for example the data rate and delay, and dynamically control scheduling priorities in the network nodes. It may release the reserved capacity during a tear down phase.
|
When does QoS negotiate how network activity will behave?
|
{
"answer_start": [
157
],
"text": [
"during a session establishment phase"
]
}
|
c561b1443b550dafd2811d0764812d1b8d3e0122
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
A network or protocol that supports QoS may agree on a traffic contract with the application software and reserve capacity in the network nodes, for example during a session establishment phase. During the session it may monitor the achieved level of performance, for example the data rate and delay, and dynamically control scheduling priorities in the network nodes. It may release the reserved capacity during a tear down phase.
Question: When does QoS negotiate how network activity will behave?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In practice, when a packet must be forwarded from an interface with queuing, packets requiring low jitter (e.g., VoIP or videoconferencing) are given priority over packets in other queues. Typically, some bandwidth is allocated by default to network control packets (such as Internet Control Message Protocol and routing protocols), while best effort traffic might simply be given whatever bandwidth is left over.
|
How are packets forwarded?
|
{
"answer_start": [
45
],
"text": [
"from an interface with queuing, packets requiring low jitter"
]
}
|
a569d5a7a38d144de40ce367c70ad688fc6750ed
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In practice, when a packet must be forwarded from an interface with queuing, packets requiring low jitter (e.g., VoIP or videoconferencing) are given priority over packets in other queues. Typically, some bandwidth is allocated by default to network control packets (such as Internet Control Message Protocol and routing protocols), while best effort traffic might simply be given whatever bandwidth is left over.
Question: How are packets forwarded?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In response to these markings, routers and switches use various queuing strategies to tailor performance to requirements. At the IP layer, DSCP markings use the 6 bits in the IP packet header. At the MAC layer, VLAN IEEE 802.1Q and IEEE 802.1p can be used to carry essentially the same information.
|
What is the main purpose of different queuing strategies that routers use?
|
{
"answer_start": [
86
],
"text": [
"tailor performance to requirements"
]
}
|
58f7607298d943f27f173837024aab2191e0ced7
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In response to these markings, routers and switches use various queuing strategies to tailor performance to requirements. At the IP layer, DSCP markings use the 6 bits in the IP packet header. At the MAC layer, VLAN IEEE 802.1Q and IEEE 802.1p can be used to carry essentially the same information.
Question: What is the main purpose of different queuing strategies that routers use?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In the field of telephony, quality of service was defined by the ITU in 1994. Quality of service comprises requirements on all the aspects of a connection, such as service response time, loss, signal-to-noise ratio, crosstalk, echo, interrupts, frequency response, loudness levels, and so on. A subset of telephony QoS is grade of service (GoS) requirements, which comprises aspects of a connection relating to capacity and coverage of a network, for example guaranteed maximum blocking probability and outage probability.In the field of computer networking and other packet-switched telecommunication networks, teletraffic engineering refers to traffic prioritization and resource reservation control mechanisms rather than the achieved service quality. Quality of service is the ability to provide different priority to different applications, users, or data flows, or to guarantee a certain level of performance to a data flow. For example, a required bit rate, delay, delay variation, packet loss or bit error rates may be guaranteed. Quality of service is important for real-time streaming multimedia applications such as voice over IP, multiplayer online games and IPTV, since these often require fixed bit rate and are delay sensitive. Quality of service is especially important in networks where the capacity is a limited resource, for example in cellular data communication.
|
what is guaranteed with a subset of qos?
|
{
"answer_start": [
955
],
"text": [
"bit rate, delay, delay variation, packet loss or bit error rates may be guaranteed"
]
}
|
2a47396020fe7152a5c91c7f17bb1da798925c77
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In the field of telephony, quality of service was defined by the ITU in 1994. Quality of service comprises requirements on all the aspects of a connection, such as service response time, loss, signal-to-noise ratio, crosstalk, echo, interrupts, frequency response, loudness levels, and so on. A subset of telephony QoS is grade of service (GoS) requirements, which comprises aspects of a connection relating to capacity and coverage of a network, for example guaranteed maximum blocking probability and outage probability.In the field of computer networking and other packet-switched telecommunication networks, teletraffic engineering refers to traffic prioritization and resource reservation control mechanisms rather than the achieved service quality. Quality of service is the ability to provide different priority to different applications, users, or data flows, or to guarantee a certain level of performance to a data flow. For example, a required bit rate, delay, delay variation, packet loss or bit error rates may be guaranteed. Quality of service is important for real-time streaming multimedia applications such as voice over IP, multiplayer online games and IPTV, since these often require fixed bit rate and are delay sensitive. Quality of service is especially important in networks where the capacity is a limited resource, for example in cellular data communication.
Question: what is guaranteed with a subset of qos?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
One compelling example of the need for QoS on the Internet relates to congestive collapse. The Internet relies on congestion avoidance protocols, as built into Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), to reduce traffic under conditions that would otherwise lead to "meltdown". QoS applications, such as VoIP and IPTV, require largely constant bitrates and low latency, therefore they cannot use TCP and cannot otherwise reduce their traffic rate to help prevent congestion. QoS contracts limit traffic that can be offered to the Internet and thereby enforce traffic shaping that can prevent it from becoming overloaded, and are hence an indispensable part of the Internet's ability to handle a mix of real-time and non-real-time traffic without meltdown.
|
QoS applications require what two things to work properly?
|
{
"answer_start": [
322
],
"text": [
"largely constant bitrates and low latency"
]
}
|
48c9a54f75cea3ea028fd35c2b4a472aaf5e4dba
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
One compelling example of the need for QoS on the Internet relates to congestive collapse. The Internet relies on congestion avoidance protocols, as built into Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), to reduce traffic under conditions that would otherwise lead to "meltdown". QoS applications, such as VoIP and IPTV, require largely constant bitrates and low latency, therefore they cannot use TCP and cannot otherwise reduce their traffic rate to help prevent congestion. QoS contracts limit traffic that can be offered to the Internet and thereby enforce traffic shaping that can prevent it from becoming overloaded, and are hence an indispensable part of the Internet's ability to handle a mix of real-time and non-real-time traffic without meltdown.
Question: QoS applications require what two things to work properly?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
One compelling example of the need for QoS on the Internet relates to congestive collapse. The Internet relies on congestion avoidance protocols, as built into Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), to reduce traffic under conditions that would otherwise lead to "meltdown". QoS applications, such as VoIP and IPTV, require largely constant bitrates and low latency, therefore they cannot use TCP and cannot otherwise reduce their traffic rate to help prevent congestion. QoS contracts limit traffic that can be offered to the Internet and thereby enforce traffic shaping that can prevent it from becoming overloaded, and are hence an indispensable part of the Internet's ability to handle a mix of real-time and non-real-time traffic without meltdown.
|
What limits internet traffic?
|
{
"answer_start": [
470
],
"text": [
"QoS contracts"
]
}
|
50ca65e6de66a0ca26c4c66d60e7d4f6f1f800d7
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
One compelling example of the need for QoS on the Internet relates to congestive collapse. The Internet relies on congestion avoidance protocols, as built into Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), to reduce traffic under conditions that would otherwise lead to "meltdown". QoS applications, such as VoIP and IPTV, require largely constant bitrates and low latency, therefore they cannot use TCP and cannot otherwise reduce their traffic rate to help prevent congestion. QoS contracts limit traffic that can be offered to the Internet and thereby enforce traffic shaping that can prevent it from becoming overloaded, and are hence an indispensable part of the Internet's ability to handle a mix of real-time and non-real-time traffic without meltdown.
Question: What limits internet traffic?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
One compelling example of the need for QoS on the Internet relates to congestive collapse. The Internet relies on congestion avoidance protocols, as built into Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), to reduce traffic under conditions that would otherwise lead to "meltdown". QoS applications, such as VoIP and IPTV, require largely constant bitrates and low latency, therefore they cannot use TCP and cannot otherwise reduce their traffic rate to help prevent congestion. QoS contracts limit traffic that can be offered to the Internet and thereby enforce traffic shaping that can prevent it from becoming overloaded, and are hence an indispensable part of the Internet's ability to handle a mix of real-time and non-real-time traffic without meltdown.
|
What does TCP stand for
|
{
"answer_start": [
160
],
"text": [
"Transmission Control Protocol"
]
}
|
6e934ae92bef364c08e1927f7f386b898f4f7fef
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
One compelling example of the need for QoS on the Internet relates to congestive collapse. The Internet relies on congestion avoidance protocols, as built into Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), to reduce traffic under conditions that would otherwise lead to "meltdown". QoS applications, such as VoIP and IPTV, require largely constant bitrates and low latency, therefore they cannot use TCP and cannot otherwise reduce their traffic rate to help prevent congestion. QoS contracts limit traffic that can be offered to the Internet and thereby enforce traffic shaping that can prevent it from becoming overloaded, and are hence an indispensable part of the Internet's ability to handle a mix of real-time and non-real-time traffic without meltdown.
Question: What does TCP stand forPlease answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Routers supporting DiffServ configure their network scheduler to use multiple queues for packets awaiting transmission from bandwidth constrained (e.g., wide area) interfaces. Router vendors provide different capabilities for configuring this behavior, to include the number of queues supported, the relative priorities of queues, and bandwidth reserved for each queue.
|
How many queues do DiffServ routers have?
|
{
"answer_start": [
69
],
"text": [
"multiple"
]
}
|
12142a6821e1458d2a8af547e8638068d532b245
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Routers supporting DiffServ configure their network scheduler to use multiple queues for packets awaiting transmission from bandwidth constrained (e.g., wide area) interfaces. Router vendors provide different capabilities for configuring this behavior, to include the number of queues supported, the relative priorities of queues, and bandwidth reserved for each queue.
Question: How many queues do DiffServ routers have?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Strong cryptography network protocols such as Secure Sockets Layer, I2P, and virtual private networks obscure the data transferred using them. As all electronic commerce on the Internet requires the use of such strong cryptography protocols, unilaterally downgrading the performance of encrypted traffic creates an unacceptable hazard for customers. Yet, encrypted traffic is otherwise unable to undergo deep packet inspection for QoS.
|
Performance of encrypted traffic on the internet must be downgraded to perform what type of inspection for QoS?
|
{
"answer_start": [
406
],
"text": [
"deep packet"
]
}
|
8b31ed4d669c58006dcd23b5fbb2f5ed71c1dab8
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Strong cryptography network protocols such as Secure Sockets Layer, I2P, and virtual private networks obscure the data transferred using them. As all electronic commerce on the Internet requires the use of such strong cryptography protocols, unilaterally downgrading the performance of encrypted traffic creates an unacceptable hazard for customers. Yet, encrypted traffic is otherwise unable to undergo deep packet inspection for QoS.
Question: Performance of encrypted traffic on the internet must be downgraded to perform what type of inspection for QoS?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The type of service (ToS) field in the IP(v4) header (now superseded by DiffServ)
|
What is an acronym for type of service?
|
{
"answer_start": [
21
],
"text": [
"ToS"
]
}
|
4151377af1140e837a4dd8463fb04ca825172094
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The type of service (ToS) field in the IP(v4) header (now superseded by DiffServ)
Question: What is an acronym for type of service?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
An established or immortalized cell line has acquired the ability to proliferate indefinitely either through random mutation or deliberate modification, such as artificial expression of the telomerase gene.
|
What thing composes the line?
|
{
"answer_start": [
31
],
"text": [
"cell"
]
}
|
037e8929e7e4d2f949ffbabd10f0f860499ff7c9
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
An established or immortalized cell line has acquired the ability to proliferate indefinitely either through random mutation or deliberate modification, such as artificial expression of the telomerase gene.
Question: What thing composes the line?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Cells that are cultured directly from a subject are known as primary cells. With the exception of some derived from tumors, most primary cell cultures have limited lifespan.
|
what do you call the cells cultured directly from the cells called?
|
{
"answer_start": [
61
],
"text": [
"primary cells"
]
}
|
6b60cf634b1c59f9cb48bccfe8bd2b28970d8602
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Cells that are cultured directly from a subject are known as primary cells. With the exception of some derived from tumors, most primary cell cultures have limited lifespan.
Question: what do you call the cells cultured directly from the cells called?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The 19th-century English physiologist Sydney Ringer developed salt solutions containing the chlorides of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium suitable for maintaining the beating of an isolated animal heart outside the body. In 1885, Wilhelm Roux removed a portion of the medullary plate of an embryonic chicken and maintained it in a warm saline solution for several days, establishing the principle of tissue culture. Ross Granville Harrison, working at Johns Hopkins Medical School and then at Yale University, published results of his experiments from 1907 to 1910, establishing the methodology of tissue culture.Cell culture techniques were advanced significantly in the 1940s and 1950s to support research in virology. Growing viruses in cell cultures allowed preparation of purified viruses for the manufacture of vaccines. The injectable polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk was one of the first products mass-produced using cell culture techniques. This vaccine was made possible by the cell culture research of John Franklin Enders, Thomas Huckle Weller, and Frederick Chapman Robbins, who were awarded a Nobel Prize for their discovery of a method of growing the virus in monkey kidney cell cultures.
|
When did Roux remove some of his medullary plate?
|
{
"answer_start": [
232
],
"text": [
"1885"
]
}
|
4b36724f3cbde7c287bde512ff09194cbba7f932
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The 19th-century English physiologist Sydney Ringer developed salt solutions containing the chlorides of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium suitable for maintaining the beating of an isolated animal heart outside the body. In 1885, Wilhelm Roux removed a portion of the medullary plate of an embryonic chicken and maintained it in a warm saline solution for several days, establishing the principle of tissue culture. Ross Granville Harrison, working at Johns Hopkins Medical School and then at Yale University, published results of his experiments from 1907 to 1910, establishing the methodology of tissue culture.Cell culture techniques were advanced significantly in the 1940s and 1950s to support research in virology. Growing viruses in cell cultures allowed preparation of purified viruses for the manufacture of vaccines. The injectable polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk was one of the first products mass-produced using cell culture techniques. This vaccine was made possible by the cell culture research of John Franklin Enders, Thomas Huckle Weller, and Frederick Chapman Robbins, who were awarded a Nobel Prize for their discovery of a method of growing the virus in monkey kidney cell cultures.
Question: When did Roux remove some of his medullary plate?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The 19th-century English physiologist Sydney Ringer developed salt solutions containing the chlorides of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium suitable for maintaining the beating of an isolated animal heart outside the body. In 1885, Wilhelm Roux removed a portion of the medullary plate of an embryonic chicken and maintained it in a warm saline solution for several days, establishing the principle of tissue culture. Ross Granville Harrison, working at Johns Hopkins Medical School and then at Yale University, published results of his experiments from 1907 to 1910, establishing the methodology of tissue culture.Cell culture techniques were advanced significantly in the 1940s and 1950s to support research in virology. Growing viruses in cell cultures allowed preparation of purified viruses for the manufacture of vaccines. The injectable polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk was one of the first products mass-produced using cell culture techniques. This vaccine was made possible by the cell culture research of John Franklin Enders, Thomas Huckle Weller, and Frederick Chapman Robbins, who were awarded a Nobel Prize for their discovery of a method of growing the virus in monkey kidney cell cultures.
|
When were cell culture techniques significantly advanced?
|
{
"answer_start": [
677
],
"text": [
"the 1940s and 1950s"
]
}
|
c8acddd587c933917a0a09a214aee83c30764a0d
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The 19th-century English physiologist Sydney Ringer developed salt solutions containing the chlorides of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium suitable for maintaining the beating of an isolated animal heart outside the body. In 1885, Wilhelm Roux removed a portion of the medullary plate of an embryonic chicken and maintained it in a warm saline solution for several days, establishing the principle of tissue culture. Ross Granville Harrison, working at Johns Hopkins Medical School and then at Yale University, published results of his experiments from 1907 to 1910, establishing the methodology of tissue culture.Cell culture techniques were advanced significantly in the 1940s and 1950s to support research in virology. Growing viruses in cell cultures allowed preparation of purified viruses for the manufacture of vaccines. The injectable polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk was one of the first products mass-produced using cell culture techniques. This vaccine was made possible by the cell culture research of John Franklin Enders, Thomas Huckle Weller, and Frederick Chapman Robbins, who were awarded a Nobel Prize for their discovery of a method of growing the virus in monkey kidney cell cultures.
Question: When were cell culture techniques significantly advanced?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The Mughal dynasty was established after the victory of Babur at Panipat in 1526. During his five-year reign, Babur took considerable interest in erecting buildings, though few have survived. His grandson Akbar built widely, and the style developed vigorously during his reign. Among his accomplishments were Agra Fort, the fort-city of Fatehpur Sikri, and the Buland Darwaza. Akbar's son Jahangir commissioned the Shalimar Gardens in Kashmir.
|
what year was Mughal dynasty established?
|
{
"answer_start": [
76
],
"text": [
"1526"
]
}
|
179cfa1786b78adce6971d822061bfd7317d5fe0
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The Mughal dynasty was established after the victory of Babur at Panipat in 1526. During his five-year reign, Babur took considerable interest in erecting buildings, though few have survived. His grandson Akbar built widely, and the style developed vigorously during his reign. Among his accomplishments were Agra Fort, the fort-city of Fatehpur Sikri, and the Buland Darwaza. Akbar's son Jahangir commissioned the Shalimar Gardens in Kashmir.
Question: what year was Mughal dynasty established?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
After the Uruguay round, the GATT became the basis for the establishment of the World Trade Organization. Because ratification of TRIPS is a compulsory requirement of World Trade Organization membership, any country seeking to obtain hard access to the numerous international markets opened by the World Trade Organization must enact the strict intellectual property laws mandated by TRIPS. For this reason, TRIPS is the most important multilateral instrument for the globalization of intellectual property laws. States like Russia and China, that were very unlikely to join the Berne Convention have found the prospect of WTO membership a powerful enticement.
|
What must be ratified if a country wishes to join the WTO?
|
{
"answer_start": [
131
],
"text": [
"TRIPS"
]
}
|
13e58403df16d88b0e2c665953e89575704942d4
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
After the Uruguay round, the GATT became the basis for the establishment of the World Trade Organization. Because ratification of TRIPS is a compulsory requirement of World Trade Organization membership, any country seeking to obtain hard access to the numerous international markets opened by the World Trade Organization must enact the strict intellectual property laws mandated by TRIPS. For this reason, TRIPS is the most important multilateral instrument for the globalization of intellectual property laws. States like Russia and China, that were very unlikely to join the Berne Convention have found the prospect of WTO membership a powerful enticement.
Question: What must be ratified if a country wishes to join the WTO?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
No unreasonable prejudice to the legitimate interests of the right holders of computer programs and patents is allowed.
|
What unreasonable protocol is not allowed?
|
{
"answer_start": [
16
],
"text": [
"prejudice"
]
}
|
59eab7ccd77f51111f49bb7d3f12c552491a07db
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
No unreasonable prejudice to the legitimate interests of the right holders of computer programs and patents is allowed.
Question: What unreasonable protocol is not allowed?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Since TRIPS came into force, it has been subject to criticism from developing countries, academics, and non-governmental organizations. Though some of this criticism is against the WTO generally, many advocates of trade liberalisation also regard TRIPS as poor policy. TRIPS's wealth concentration effects (moving money from people in developing countries to copyright and patent owners in developed countries) and its imposition of artificial scarcity on the citizens of countries that would otherwise have had weaker intellectual property laws, are common bases for such criticisms. Other criticism has focused on the failure of TRIPS to accelerate investment and technology flows to low-income countries, a benefit advanced by WTO members in the lead-up to the agreement's formation. Statements by the World Bank indicate that TRIPS has not led to a demonstrable acceleration of investment to low-income countries, though it may have done so for middle-income countries. Lengthy patent periods under TRIPs have been scrutinised for unduly slowing the entry of generic substitutes and competition to the market. In particular, the illegality of pre-clinical trials or submission of samples for approval until a patent expires have been blamed for driving the growth of a few multinationals, rather than developing country producers.
|
What part of the world criticized TRIPS the most?
|
{
"answer_start": [
67
],
"text": [
"developing countries"
]
}
|
d23b5372af1de9425a4ae313c01eb80764c910d8
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Since TRIPS came into force, it has been subject to criticism from developing countries, academics, and non-governmental organizations. Though some of this criticism is against the WTO generally, many advocates of trade liberalisation also regard TRIPS as poor policy. TRIPS's wealth concentration effects (moving money from people in developing countries to copyright and patent owners in developed countries) and its imposition of artificial scarcity on the citizens of countries that would otherwise have had weaker intellectual property laws, are common bases for such criticisms. Other criticism has focused on the failure of TRIPS to accelerate investment and technology flows to low-income countries, a benefit advanced by WTO members in the lead-up to the agreement's formation. Statements by the World Bank indicate that TRIPS has not led to a demonstrable acceleration of investment to low-income countries, though it may have done so for middle-income countries. Lengthy patent periods under TRIPs have been scrutinised for unduly slowing the entry of generic substitutes and competition to the market. In particular, the illegality of pre-clinical trials or submission of samples for approval until a patent expires have been blamed for driving the growth of a few multinationals, rather than developing country producers.
Question: What part of the world criticized TRIPS the most?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
TRIPS was negotiated during the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1984-1994. Its inclusion was the culmination of a program of intense lobbying by the United States, supported by the European Union, Japan and other developed nations. Campaigns of unilateral economic encouragement under the Generalized System of Preferences and coercion under Section 301 of the Trade Act played an important role in defeating competing policy positions that were favored by developing countries like Brazil, but also including Thailand, India and Caribbean Basin states. In turn, the United States strategy of linking trade policy to intellectual property standards can be traced back to the entrepreneurship of senior management at Pfizer in the early 1980s, who mobilized corporations in the United States and made maximizing intellectual property privileges the number one priority of trade policy in the United States (Braithwaite and Drahos, 2000, Chapter 7).
|
What were the countries that supported TRIPS into inclusion?
|
{
"answer_start": [
189
],
"text": [
"United States, supported by the European Union, Japan and other developed nations"
]
}
|
e6d2517eaceee18a6175f5fefd437d2c6b109427
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
TRIPS was negotiated during the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1984-1994. Its inclusion was the culmination of a program of intense lobbying by the United States, supported by the European Union, Japan and other developed nations. Campaigns of unilateral economic encouragement under the Generalized System of Preferences and coercion under Section 301 of the Trade Act played an important role in defeating competing policy positions that were favored by developing countries like Brazil, but also including Thailand, India and Caribbean Basin states. In turn, the United States strategy of linking trade policy to intellectual property standards can be traced back to the entrepreneurship of senior management at Pfizer in the early 1980s, who mobilized corporations in the United States and made maximizing intellectual property privileges the number one priority of trade policy in the United States (Braithwaite and Drahos, 2000, Chapter 7).
Question: What were the countries that supported TRIPS into inclusion?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Helmsley was being highlighted again in 1997, winning the 1997 King of the Ring tournament by defeating Mankind in the finals. Later that year, Shawn Michaels, Helmsley, Chyna and Rick Rude formed D-Generation X (DX). This stable became known for pushing the envelope, as Michaels and Helmsley made risqué promos—using the catchphrase "Suck It" and a "crotch chop" hand motion—and sarcastically derided Bret Hart and Canada. By that point, Helmsley had fully dropped the "blueblood snob" gimmick, appearing in T-shirts and leather jackets. During this period, his ring name was shortened to simply Triple H, even though he would still be referred for a while as Helmsley from time to time and Hunter for the rest of his career. Even after the DX versus Hart Foundation storyline ended, he continued to feud with the sole remaining Hart family member Owen over the European Championship. This ended in a match between the two at WrestleMania XIV, with the stipulation that Chyna had to be handcuffed to then-Commissioner Sgt. Slaughter. Triple H won after Chyna threw powder into Slaughter's eyes, momentarily "blinding" him and allowing her to interfere in the match.After WrestleMania, Michaels was forced into temporary retirement due to a legitimate back injury sustained at the Royal Rumble, with Triple H taking over the leadership position in DX, claiming that his now-former associate had "dropped the ball". He introduced the returning X-Pac the night after WrestleMania and joined forces with The New Age Outlaws. As 1998 went along, DX became more popular, turning the group from villains to fan favorites. During this time, he adopted an entrance gimmick of asking the crowd "Are you ready? I said, are you ready?", followed by a parody of rival promotion WCW's ring announcer Michael Buffer's famous catch-phrase, "Let's get ready to rumble", substituting the word "rumble" with the DX slogan, "suck it". Also during this time, Triple H began a feud with the leader of the Nation of Domination and rising WWF villain, The Rock. This storyline rivalry eventually led to a feud over the Intercontinental Championship, which Triple H won in a ladder match at SummerSlam. He did not hold the title long, however, as he was sidelined with a legitimate knee injury. When The Rock won the WWF Championship at Survivor Series, the rivalry between the two continued, as DX fought The Corporation stable of which The Rock was the main star and Triple H received a shot at the WWF Championship on the January 25, 1999 Raw Is War in an "I Quit" match, but the match ended when Triple H was forced to quit or see his aide Chyna chokeslammed by Kane. This began a new angle for Triple H, as Chyna betrayed him by attacking him after the match and joining The Corporation.At WrestleMania XV, Triple H lost to Kane after Chyna interfered on his behalf and she was thought to have rejoined DX. Later on in the night, he betrayed his long-time friend and fellow DX member X-Pac by helping Shane McMahon retain the European Championship and joined The Corporation. turning heel in the process. In April, he started to move away from his DX look, taping his fists for matches, sporting new and shorter wrestling trunks and adopting a shorter hairstyle. His gimmick changed as he fought to earn a WWF Championship opportunity. After failed attempts at winning the championship, Triple H and Mankind challenged then WWF Champion Stone Cold Steve Austin to a triple threat match at SummerSlam, which featured Jesse "The Body" Ventura as the special guest referee. Mankind won the match by pinning Austin. The following night on Raw Is War, Triple H defeated Mankind to win his first WWF Championship. He dropped the WWF Championship to Mr. McMahon on the September 16, 1999 episode of SmackDown! before regaining it at Unforgiven in a Six-Pack Challenge that included Davey Boy Smith, Big Show, Kane, The Rock and Mankind. He defeated Stone Cold Steve Austin at No Mercy before dropping the title to Big Show at Survivor Series. Triple H then continued his feud with Mr. McMahon by marrying his daughter Stephanie McMahon and defeating McMahon at Armageddon. As a result of the feud, an angle with Triple H and Stephanie began which carried the WWF throughout the next seventeen months; together they were known as The McMahon-Helmsley Faction.
|
Whom did Helmsled had to defeat in order to win 1997 tournament?
|
{
"answer_start": [
104
],
"text": [
"Mankind"
]
}
|
91287c38ea477d87c2a73d1261de7b4d469dd292
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Helmsley was being highlighted again in 1997, winning the 1997 King of the Ring tournament by defeating Mankind in the finals. Later that year, Shawn Michaels, Helmsley, Chyna and Rick Rude formed D-Generation X (DX). This stable became known for pushing the envelope, as Michaels and Helmsley made risqué promos—using the catchphrase "Suck It" and a "crotch chop" hand motion—and sarcastically derided Bret Hart and Canada. By that point, Helmsley had fully dropped the "blueblood snob" gimmick, appearing in T-shirts and leather jackets. During this period, his ring name was shortened to simply Triple H, even though he would still be referred for a while as Helmsley from time to time and Hunter for the rest of his career. Even after the DX versus Hart Foundation storyline ended, he continued to feud with the sole remaining Hart family member Owen over the European Championship. This ended in a match between the two at WrestleMania XIV, with the stipulation that Chyna had to be handcuffed to then-Commissioner Sgt. Slaughter. Triple H won after Chyna threw powder into Slaughter's eyes, momentarily "blinding" him and allowing her to interfere in the match.After WrestleMania, Michaels was forced into temporary retirement due to a legitimate back injury sustained at the Royal Rumble, with Triple H taking over the leadership position in DX, claiming that his now-former associate had "dropped the ball". He introduced the returning X-Pac the night after WrestleMania and joined forces with The New Age Outlaws. As 1998 went along, DX became more popular, turning the group from villains to fan favorites. During this time, he adopted an entrance gimmick of asking the crowd "Are you ready? I said, are you ready?", followed by a parody of rival promotion WCW's ring announcer Michael Buffer's famous catch-phrase, "Let's get ready to rumble", substituting the word "rumble" with the DX slogan, "suck it". Also during this time, Triple H began a feud with the leader of the Nation of Domination and rising WWF villain, The Rock. This storyline rivalry eventually led to a feud over the Intercontinental Championship, which Triple H won in a ladder match at SummerSlam. He did not hold the title long, however, as he was sidelined with a legitimate knee injury. When The Rock won the WWF Championship at Survivor Series, the rivalry between the two continued, as DX fought The Corporation stable of which The Rock was the main star and Triple H received a shot at the WWF Championship on the January 25, 1999 Raw Is War in an "I Quit" match, but the match ended when Triple H was forced to quit or see his aide Chyna chokeslammed by Kane. This began a new angle for Triple H, as Chyna betrayed him by attacking him after the match and joining The Corporation.At WrestleMania XV, Triple H lost to Kane after Chyna interfered on his behalf and she was thought to have rejoined DX. Later on in the night, he betrayed his long-time friend and fellow DX member X-Pac by helping Shane McMahon retain the European Championship and joined The Corporation. turning heel in the process. In April, he started to move away from his DX look, taping his fists for matches, sporting new and shorter wrestling trunks and adopting a shorter hairstyle. His gimmick changed as he fought to earn a WWF Championship opportunity. After failed attempts at winning the championship, Triple H and Mankind challenged then WWF Champion Stone Cold Steve Austin to a triple threat match at SummerSlam, which featured Jesse "The Body" Ventura as the special guest referee. Mankind won the match by pinning Austin. The following night on Raw Is War, Triple H defeated Mankind to win his first WWF Championship. He dropped the WWF Championship to Mr. McMahon on the September 16, 1999 episode of SmackDown! before regaining it at Unforgiven in a Six-Pack Challenge that included Davey Boy Smith, Big Show, Kane, The Rock and Mankind. He defeated Stone Cold Steve Austin at No Mercy before dropping the title to Big Show at Survivor Series. Triple H then continued his feud with Mr. McMahon by marrying his daughter Stephanie McMahon and defeating McMahon at Armageddon. As a result of the feud, an angle with Triple H and Stephanie began which carried the WWF throughout the next seventeen months; together they were known as The McMahon-Helmsley Faction.
Question: Whom did Helmsled had to defeat in order to win 1997 tournament?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In early 1994, Levesque signed a one-year contract with World Championship Wrestling (WCW). In his first televised match, Levesque debuted as a villain named Terror Risin', defeating Keith Cole. His ring name was soon modified to Terra Ryzing, which he used until mid-1994, when he was renamed Jean-Paul Lévesque. This gimmick referred to his surname's French origins and he was asked to speak with a French accent, as he could not speak French. During this time, he began using his finishing maneuver, the Pedigree. Lévesque had a brief feud with Alex Wright that ended at Starrcade with Wright pinning him. Between late 1994 and early 1995, Lévesque briefly teamed with Lord Steven Regal, whose upper class British persona was similar to Lévesque's character. However, the team was short-lived, as Levesque left for the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) in January 1995 after WCW turned down his request to be promoted as a singles competitor.
|
Did Levesque team up with Lord Steven Regl for more or less than one full year?
|
{
"answer_start": [
609
],
"text": [
"Between late 1994 and early 1995"
]
}
|
d77f36030c89012d009a5da03e27b0100baee6ab
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In early 1994, Levesque signed a one-year contract with World Championship Wrestling (WCW). In his first televised match, Levesque debuted as a villain named Terror Risin', defeating Keith Cole. His ring name was soon modified to Terra Ryzing, which he used until mid-1994, when he was renamed Jean-Paul Lévesque. This gimmick referred to his surname's French origins and he was asked to speak with a French accent, as he could not speak French. During this time, he began using his finishing maneuver, the Pedigree. Lévesque had a brief feud with Alex Wright that ended at Starrcade with Wright pinning him. Between late 1994 and early 1995, Lévesque briefly teamed with Lord Steven Regal, whose upper class British persona was similar to Lévesque's character. However, the team was short-lived, as Levesque left for the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) in January 1995 after WCW turned down his request to be promoted as a singles competitor.
Question: Did Levesque team up with Lord Steven Regl for more or less than one full year?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In early 1994, Levesque signed a one-year contract with World Championship Wrestling (WCW). In his first televised match, Levesque debuted as a villain named Terror Risin', defeating Keith Cole. His ring name was soon modified to Terra Ryzing, which he used until mid-1994, when he was renamed Jean-Paul Lévesque. This gimmick referred to his surname's French origins and he was asked to speak with a French accent, as he could not speak French. During this time, he began using his finishing maneuver, the Pedigree. Lévesque had a brief feud with Alex Wright that ended at Starrcade with Wright pinning him. Between late 1994 and early 1995, Lévesque briefly teamed with Lord Steven Regal, whose upper class British persona was similar to Lévesque's character. However, the team was short-lived, as Levesque left for the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) in January 1995 after WCW turned down his request to be promoted as a singles competitor.
|
who left?
|
{
"answer_start": [
800
],
"text": [
"Levesque"
]
}
|
a77bbb92560d2cb8702ba4e2d320de5786f032a5
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In early 1994, Levesque signed a one-year contract with World Championship Wrestling (WCW). In his first televised match, Levesque debuted as a villain named Terror Risin', defeating Keith Cole. His ring name was soon modified to Terra Ryzing, which he used until mid-1994, when he was renamed Jean-Paul Lévesque. This gimmick referred to his surname's French origins and he was asked to speak with a French accent, as he could not speak French. During this time, he began using his finishing maneuver, the Pedigree. Lévesque had a brief feud with Alex Wright that ended at Starrcade with Wright pinning him. Between late 1994 and early 1995, Lévesque briefly teamed with Lord Steven Regal, whose upper class British persona was similar to Lévesque's character. However, the team was short-lived, as Levesque left for the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) in January 1995 after WCW turned down his request to be promoted as a singles competitor.
Question: who left?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In early 1994, Levesque signed a one-year contract with World Championship Wrestling (WCW). In his first televised match, Levesque debuted as a villain named Terror Risin', defeating Keith Cole. His ring name was soon modified to Terra Ryzing, which he used until mid-1994, when he was renamed Jean-Paul Lévesque. This gimmick referred to his surname's French origins and he was asked to speak with a French accent, as he could not speak French. During this time, he began using his finishing maneuver, the Pedigree. Lévesque had a brief feud with Alex Wright that ended at Starrcade with Wright pinning him. Between late 1994 and early 1995, Lévesque briefly teamed with Lord Steven Regal, whose upper class British persona was similar to Lévesque's character. However, the team was short-lived, as Levesque left for the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) in January 1995 after WCW turned down his request to be promoted as a singles competitor.
|
What wrestling move did he use to end matches at this time?
|
{
"answer_start": [
503
],
"text": [
"the Pedigree"
]
}
|
1759d8fc858ca1947685cdb2850f6c206592ab44
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In early 1994, Levesque signed a one-year contract with World Championship Wrestling (WCW). In his first televised match, Levesque debuted as a villain named Terror Risin', defeating Keith Cole. His ring name was soon modified to Terra Ryzing, which he used until mid-1994, when he was renamed Jean-Paul Lévesque. This gimmick referred to his surname's French origins and he was asked to speak with a French accent, as he could not speak French. During this time, he began using his finishing maneuver, the Pedigree. Lévesque had a brief feud with Alex Wright that ended at Starrcade with Wright pinning him. Between late 1994 and early 1995, Lévesque briefly teamed with Lord Steven Regal, whose upper class British persona was similar to Lévesque's character. However, the team was short-lived, as Levesque left for the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) in January 1995 after WCW turned down his request to be promoted as a singles competitor.
Question: What wrestling move did he use to end matches at this time?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Although the evidence against them was unconvincing, the accused were found guilty and condemned to death. George Boleyn and the other accused men were executed on 17 May 1536. William Kingston, the Constable of the Tower, reported Anne seemed very happy and ready to be done with life. Henry commuted Anne's sentence from burning to beheading, and rather than have a queen beheaded with the common axe, he brought an expert swordsman from Saint-Omer in France, to perform the execution. On the morning of 19 May, Kingston wrote:
|
When was he executed?
|
{
"answer_start": [
164
],
"text": [
"17 May 1536"
]
}
|
bf5fb22aa696671cc36b680131c5fda37510fd5d
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Although the evidence against them was unconvincing, the accused were found guilty and condemned to death. George Boleyn and the other accused men were executed on 17 May 1536. William Kingston, the Constable of the Tower, reported Anne seemed very happy and ready to be done with life. Henry commuted Anne's sentence from burning to beheading, and rather than have a queen beheaded with the common axe, he brought an expert swordsman from Saint-Omer in France, to perform the execution. On the morning of 19 May, Kingston wrote:
Question: When was he executed?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Anne's biographer Eric Ives (and most other historians) believe that her fall and execution were primarily engineered by her former ally Thomas Cromwell. The conversations between Chapuys and Cromwell thereafter indicate Cromwell as the instigator of the plot to remove Anne; evidence of this is seen in the Spanish Chronicle and through letters written from Chapuys to Charles V. Anne argued with Cromwell over the redistribution of Church revenues and over foreign policy. She advocated that revenues be distributed to charitable and educational institutions; and she favoured a French alliance. Cromwell insisted on filling the King's depleted coffers, while taking a cut for himself, and preferred an imperial alliance. For these reasons, Ives suggests, "Anne Boleyn had become a major threat to Thomas Cromwell." Cromwell's biographer John Schofield, on the other hand, contends that no power struggle existed between Anne and Cromwell and that "not a trace can be found of a Cromwellian conspiracy against Anne... Cromwell became involved in the royal marital drama only when Henry ordered him onto the case." Cromwell did not manufacture the accusations of adultery, though he and other officials used them to bolster Henry's case against Anne. Historian Retha Warnicke questions whether Cromwell could have or wished to manipulate the king in such a matter. Such a bold attempt by Cromwell, given the limited evidence, could have risked his office, even his life. Henry himself issued the crucial instructions: his officials, including Cromwell, carried them out. The result, historians agree, was by more modern standards a legal travesty. However modern lawyers have concluded that the rules of the time were not bent in order to assure Anne Boleyn's conviction; there was no need to tamper with rules that guaranteed the desired result since law at the time, like armies, was an engine of state, not a mechanism for justice.Towards the end of April a Flemish musician in Anne's service named Mark Smeaton was arrested. He initially denied being the Queen's lover but later confessed, perhaps tortured or promised freedom. Another courtier, Henry Norris, was arrested on May Day, but being an aristocrat, could not be tortured. Prior to his arrest, Norris was treated kindly by the King, who offered him his own horse to use on the May Day festivities. It seems likely that during the festivities, the King was notified of Smeaton's confession and it was shortly thereafter the alleged conspirators were arrested upon his orders. Norris denied his guilt and swore that Queen Anne was innocent; one of the most damaging pieces of evidence against Norris was an overheard conversation with Anne at the end of April, where she accused him of coming often to her chambers not to pay court to her lady-in-waiting Madge Shelton but to herself. Sir Francis Weston was arrested two days later on the same charge, as was William Brereton, a groom of the King's Privy Chamber. Sir Thomas Wyatt, a poet and friend of the Boleyns who was allegedly infatuated with her before her marriage to the king, was also imprisoned for the same charge but later released, most likely due to his or his family's friendship with Cromwell. Sir Richard Page was also accused of having a sexual relationship with the Queen, but he was acquitted of all charges after further investigation could not implicate him with Anne. The final accused was Queen Anne's own brother, George Boleyn, arrested on charges of incest and treason. He was accused of two incidents of incest: November 1535 at Whitehall and the following month at Eltham.On 2 May 1536, Anne was arrested and taken to the Tower of London by barge. It is likely that Anne may have entered through the Court Gate in the Byward Tower rather than the Traitors' Gate, according to historian and author of The Life and Death of Anne Boleyn, Eric Ives. In the Tower, she collapsed, demanding to know the location of her father and "swete broder", as well as the charges against her.
|
Why wasn't it possible for Henry Norris to be tortured?
|
{
"answer_start": [
2194
],
"text": [
"being an aristocrat"
]
}
|
c76c766248f9366fc31cc486c96f0f265d493074
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Anne's biographer Eric Ives (and most other historians) believe that her fall and execution were primarily engineered by her former ally Thomas Cromwell. The conversations between Chapuys and Cromwell thereafter indicate Cromwell as the instigator of the plot to remove Anne; evidence of this is seen in the Spanish Chronicle and through letters written from Chapuys to Charles V. Anne argued with Cromwell over the redistribution of Church revenues and over foreign policy. She advocated that revenues be distributed to charitable and educational institutions; and she favoured a French alliance. Cromwell insisted on filling the King's depleted coffers, while taking a cut for himself, and preferred an imperial alliance. For these reasons, Ives suggests, "Anne Boleyn had become a major threat to Thomas Cromwell." Cromwell's biographer John Schofield, on the other hand, contends that no power struggle existed between Anne and Cromwell and that "not a trace can be found of a Cromwellian conspiracy against Anne... Cromwell became involved in the royal marital drama only when Henry ordered him onto the case." Cromwell did not manufacture the accusations of adultery, though he and other officials used them to bolster Henry's case against Anne. Historian Retha Warnicke questions whether Cromwell could have or wished to manipulate the king in such a matter. Such a bold attempt by Cromwell, given the limited evidence, could have risked his office, even his life. Henry himself issued the crucial instructions: his officials, including Cromwell, carried them out. The result, historians agree, was by more modern standards a legal travesty. However modern lawyers have concluded that the rules of the time were not bent in order to assure Anne Boleyn's conviction; there was no need to tamper with rules that guaranteed the desired result since law at the time, like armies, was an engine of state, not a mechanism for justice.Towards the end of April a Flemish musician in Anne's service named Mark Smeaton was arrested. He initially denied being the Queen's lover but later confessed, perhaps tortured or promised freedom. Another courtier, Henry Norris, was arrested on May Day, but being an aristocrat, could not be tortured. Prior to his arrest, Norris was treated kindly by the King, who offered him his own horse to use on the May Day festivities. It seems likely that during the festivities, the King was notified of Smeaton's confession and it was shortly thereafter the alleged conspirators were arrested upon his orders. Norris denied his guilt and swore that Queen Anne was innocent; one of the most damaging pieces of evidence against Norris was an overheard conversation with Anne at the end of April, where she accused him of coming often to her chambers not to pay court to her lady-in-waiting Madge Shelton but to herself. Sir Francis Weston was arrested two days later on the same charge, as was William Brereton, a groom of the King's Privy Chamber. Sir Thomas Wyatt, a poet and friend of the Boleyns who was allegedly infatuated with her before her marriage to the king, was also imprisoned for the same charge but later released, most likely due to his or his family's friendship with Cromwell. Sir Richard Page was also accused of having a sexual relationship with the Queen, but he was acquitted of all charges after further investigation could not implicate him with Anne. The final accused was Queen Anne's own brother, George Boleyn, arrested on charges of incest and treason. He was accused of two incidents of incest: November 1535 at Whitehall and the following month at Eltham.On 2 May 1536, Anne was arrested and taken to the Tower of London by barge. It is likely that Anne may have entered through the Court Gate in the Byward Tower rather than the Traitors' Gate, according to historian and author of The Life and Death of Anne Boleyn, Eric Ives. In the Tower, she collapsed, demanding to know the location of her father and "swete broder", as well as the charges against her.
Question: Why wasn't it possible for Henry Norris to be tortured?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Anne's family also profited from the relationship. Her father, already Viscount Rochford, was created Earl of Wiltshire. Henry also came to an arrangement with Anne's Irish cousin and created him Earl of Ormond. At the magnificent banquet to celebrate her father's elevation, Anne took precedence over the Duchesses of Suffolk and Norfolk, seated in the place of honour beside the King which was usually occupied by the Queen. Thanks to Anne's intervention, her widowed sister Mary received an annual pension of £100, and Mary's son, Henry Carey, was educated at a prestigious Cistercian monastery.
|
How much was the annual pension?
|
{
"answer_start": [
512
],
"text": [
"£100"
]
}
|
65c95b881a95c81b5374439cea549d2879c1c757
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Anne's family also profited from the relationship. Her father, already Viscount Rochford, was created Earl of Wiltshire. Henry also came to an arrangement with Anne's Irish cousin and created him Earl of Ormond. At the magnificent banquet to celebrate her father's elevation, Anne took precedence over the Duchesses of Suffolk and Norfolk, seated in the place of honour beside the King which was usually occupied by the Queen. Thanks to Anne's intervention, her widowed sister Mary received an annual pension of £100, and Mary's son, Henry Carey, was educated at a prestigious Cistercian monastery.
Question: How much was the annual pension?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Anne's father continued his diplomatic career under Henry VIII. In Europe, Thomas Boleyn's charm won many admirers, including Margaret of Austria, daughter of Maximilian I, Holy Roman Emperor. During this period, Margaret ruled the Netherlands on her nephew Charles's behalf and was so impressed with Boleyn that she offered his daughter Anne a place in her household. Ordinarily, a girl had to be twelve years old to have such an honour, but Anne may have been younger, as the Archduchess affectionately referred to her as "la petite Boulin [sic]". Anne made a good impression in the Netherlands with her manners and studiousness, Margaret reported that she was well spoken and pleasant for her young age, and told Sir Thomas Boleyn that his daughter was "so presentable and so pleasant, considering her youthful age, that I am more beholden to you for sending her to me, than you to me" (E.W. Ives, op.cit.). Anne stayed with Margaret from spring 1513 until her father arranged for her to attend Henry VIII's sister Mary, who was about to marry Louis XII of France in October 1514.
|
Who did Thomas Boleyn's charm win in Europe?
|
{
"answer_start": [
126
],
"text": [
"Margaret of Austria, daughter of Maximilian I, Holy Roman Emperor"
]
}
|
d2e66d7c5619757603a95871fd540b4b38471d14
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Anne's father continued his diplomatic career under Henry VIII. In Europe, Thomas Boleyn's charm won many admirers, including Margaret of Austria, daughter of Maximilian I, Holy Roman Emperor. During this period, Margaret ruled the Netherlands on her nephew Charles's behalf and was so impressed with Boleyn that she offered his daughter Anne a place in her household. Ordinarily, a girl had to be twelve years old to have such an honour, but Anne may have been younger, as the Archduchess affectionately referred to her as "la petite Boulin [sic]". Anne made a good impression in the Netherlands with her manners and studiousness, Margaret reported that she was well spoken and pleasant for her young age, and told Sir Thomas Boleyn that his daughter was "so presentable and so pleasant, considering her youthful age, that I am more beholden to you for sending her to me, than you to me" (E.W. Ives, op.cit.). Anne stayed with Margaret from spring 1513 until her father arranged for her to attend Henry VIII's sister Mary, who was about to marry Louis XII of France in October 1514.
Question: Who did Thomas Boleyn's charm win in Europe?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
During this period, Anne Boleyn played an important role in England's international position by solidifying an alliance with France. She established an excellent rapport with the French ambassador, Gilles de la Pommeraie. Anne and Henry attended a meeting with the French king at Calais in winter 1532, in which Henry hoped to enlist the support of Francis I of France for his intended marriage. On 1 September 1532, Henry granted her suo jure the Marquessate of Pembroke, an appropriate peerage for a future queen; as such she became a rich and important woman: the three dukes and two marquesses who existed in 1532 were the King's brother-in-law, the King's illegitimate son, and other descendants of royalty; she ranked above all other peeresses. The Pembroke lands and the title of Earl of Pembroke had been held by Henry's great-uncle, and Henry performed the investiture himself.
|
The marriage of Anne and Henry needed the support of which king?
|
{
"answer_start": [
349
],
"text": [
"Francis I of France"
]
}
|
30e5fd312374e874e47ab4c41bb6b5de84223b03
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
During this period, Anne Boleyn played an important role in England's international position by solidifying an alliance with France. She established an excellent rapport with the French ambassador, Gilles de la Pommeraie. Anne and Henry attended a meeting with the French king at Calais in winter 1532, in which Henry hoped to enlist the support of Francis I of France for his intended marriage. On 1 September 1532, Henry granted her suo jure the Marquessate of Pembroke, an appropriate peerage for a future queen; as such she became a rich and important woman: the three dukes and two marquesses who existed in 1532 were the King's brother-in-law, the King's illegitimate son, and other descendants of royalty; she ranked above all other peeresses. The Pembroke lands and the title of Earl of Pembroke had been held by Henry's great-uncle, and Henry performed the investiture himself.
Question: The marriage of Anne and Henry needed the support of which king?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Henry VIII had Anne investigated for high treason in April 1536. On 2 May she was arrested and sent to the Tower of London, where she was tried before a jury of peers – which included Henry Percy, her former betrothed, and her own uncle, Thomas Howard – and found guilty on 15 May. She was beheaded four days later. Modern historians view the charges against her, which included adultery, incest and plotting to kill the king, as unconvincing. Some say that Anne was accused of witchcraft but the indictments make no mention of this charge. After the coronation of her daughter, Elizabeth, Anne was venerated as a martyr and heroine of the English Reformation, particularly through the works of John Foxe. Over the centuries, she has inspired, or been mentioned, in many artistic and cultural works and thereby retained her hold on the popular imagination. She has been called "the most influential and important queen consort England has ever had", as she provided the occasion for Henry VIII to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon and declare the English church's independence from Rome.
|
What was the name of the king that married Catherine of Aragon?
|
{
"answer_start": [
983
],
"text": [
"Henry VIII"
]
}
|
4f383e2863e88af41ffe2a13f07027e5f0d1d994
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Henry VIII had Anne investigated for high treason in April 1536. On 2 May she was arrested and sent to the Tower of London, where she was tried before a jury of peers – which included Henry Percy, her former betrothed, and her own uncle, Thomas Howard – and found guilty on 15 May. She was beheaded four days later. Modern historians view the charges against her, which included adultery, incest and plotting to kill the king, as unconvincing. Some say that Anne was accused of witchcraft but the indictments make no mention of this charge. After the coronation of her daughter, Elizabeth, Anne was venerated as a martyr and heroine of the English Reformation, particularly through the works of John Foxe. Over the centuries, she has inspired, or been mentioned, in many artistic and cultural works and thereby retained her hold on the popular imagination. She has been called "the most influential and important queen consort England has ever had", as she provided the occasion for Henry VIII to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon and declare the English church's independence from Rome.
Question: What was the name of the king that married Catherine of Aragon?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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Nevertheless, the infant princess was given a splendid christening, but Anne feared that Catherine's daughter, Mary, now stripped of her title of princess and labelled a bastard, posed a threat to Elizabeth's position. Henry soothed his wife's fears by separating Mary from her many servants and sending her to Hatfield House, where Princess Elizabeth would be living with her own sizeable staff of servants, and where the country air was thought better for the baby's health. Anne frequently visited her daughter at Hatfield and other residences.The new queen had a larger staff of servants than Catherine. There were more than 250 servants to tend to her personal needs, everyone from priests to stable-boys, and more than 60 maids-of-honour who served her and accompanied her to social events. She also employed several priests who acted as her confessors, chaplains, and religious advisers. One of these was Matthew Parker, who would become one of the chief architects of Anglican thought during the reign of Anne's daughter, Elizabeth I.
|
how many servants did it take to handle her personal needs?
|
{
"answer_start": [
619
],
"text": [
"more than 250"
]
}
|
d202fc5cfaaaad46ea0eb204dd1727dff8133956
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Nevertheless, the infant princess was given a splendid christening, but Anne feared that Catherine's daughter, Mary, now stripped of her title of princess and labelled a bastard, posed a threat to Elizabeth's position. Henry soothed his wife's fears by separating Mary from her many servants and sending her to Hatfield House, where Princess Elizabeth would be living with her own sizeable staff of servants, and where the country air was thought better for the baby's health. Anne frequently visited her daughter at Hatfield and other residences.The new queen had a larger staff of servants than Catherine. There were more than 250 servants to tend to her personal needs, everyone from priests to stable-boys, and more than 60 maids-of-honour who served her and accompanied her to social events. She also employed several priests who acted as her confessors, chaplains, and religious advisers. One of these was Matthew Parker, who would become one of the chief architects of Anglican thought during the reign of Anne's daughter, Elizabeth I.
Question: how many servants did it take to handle her personal needs?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
No contemporary portraits of Anne Boleyn survive. A bust of her was cast on a commemorative medallion in 1534, believed to have been struck to celebrate her second pregnancy.Following the coronation of her daughter as queen, Anne was venerated as a martyr and heroine of the English Reformation, particularly through the works of John Foxe, who argued that Anne had saved England from the evils of Roman Catholicism and that God had provided proof of her innocence and virtue by making sure her daughter Elizabeth I ascended the throne. An example of Anne's direct influence in the reformed church is what Alexander Ales described to Queen Elizabeth as the "evangelical bishops whom your holy mother appointed from among those scholars who favoured the purer doctrine". Over the centuries, Anne has inspired or been mentioned in numerous artistic and cultural works. As a result, she has remained in the popular memory and has been called "the most influential and important queen consort England has ever had."
|
Elizabeth's mother is known as what?
|
{
"answer_start": [
940
],
"text": [
"the most influential and important queen consort England has ever had"
]
}
|
062a098b501b09162a8eb64b261f4f187559d63a
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
No contemporary portraits of Anne Boleyn survive. A bust of her was cast on a commemorative medallion in 1534, believed to have been struck to celebrate her second pregnancy.Following the coronation of her daughter as queen, Anne was venerated as a martyr and heroine of the English Reformation, particularly through the works of John Foxe, who argued that Anne had saved England from the evils of Roman Catholicism and that God had provided proof of her innocence and virtue by making sure her daughter Elizabeth I ascended the throne. An example of Anne's direct influence in the reformed church is what Alexander Ales described to Queen Elizabeth as the "evangelical bishops whom your holy mother appointed from among those scholars who favoured the purer doctrine". Over the centuries, Anne has inspired or been mentioned in numerous artistic and cultural works. As a result, she has remained in the popular memory and has been called "the most influential and important queen consort England has ever had."
Question: Elizabeth's mother is known as what?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Public support remained with Queen Catherine. One evening in the autumn of 1531, Anne was dining at a manor house on the river Thames and was almost seized by a crowd of angry women. Anne just managed to escape by boat.When Archbishop of Canterbury William Warham died in 1532, the Boleyn family chaplain, Thomas Cranmer, was appointed, with papal approval.In 1532, Thomas Cromwell brought before Parliament a number of acts including the Supplication against the Ordinaries and Submission of the Clergy, which recognised royal supremacy over the church, thus finalising the break with Rome. Following these acts, Thomas More resigned as Chancellor, leaving Cromwell as Henry's chief minister.
|
who did public support favor?
|
{
"answer_start": [
29
],
"text": [
"Queen Catherine"
]
}
|
1eef0977055ffceba4e50a14fb5dce25a1a810d9
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Public support remained with Queen Catherine. One evening in the autumn of 1531, Anne was dining at a manor house on the river Thames and was almost seized by a crowd of angry women. Anne just managed to escape by boat.When Archbishop of Canterbury William Warham died in 1532, the Boleyn family chaplain, Thomas Cranmer, was appointed, with papal approval.In 1532, Thomas Cromwell brought before Parliament a number of acts including the Supplication against the Ordinaries and Submission of the Clergy, which recognised royal supremacy over the church, thus finalising the break with Rome. Following these acts, Thomas More resigned as Chancellor, leaving Cromwell as Henry's chief minister.
Question: who did public support favor?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
them, Geoffrey Boleyn, had been a mercer and wool merchant before becoming Lord Mayor. The Boleyn family originally came from Blickling in Norfolk, 15 miles (24 km) north of Norwich. At the time of Anne's birth, the Boleyn family was considered one of the most respected in the English aristocracy. Among her relatives, she numbered the Howards, one of the preeminent families in the land; and one of her ancestors included King Edward I of England. According to Eric Ives, she was certainly of more noble birth than Jane Seymour, Catherine Howard, and Catherine Parr, Henry VIII's three other English wives. The spelling of the Boleyn name was variable, as common at the time. Sometimes it was written as Bullen, hence the bull heads which formed part of her family arms. At the court of Margaret of Austria in the Netherlands, Anne is listed as Boullan. From there she signed the letter to her father as Anna de Boullan. She is also referred to as "Anna Bolina"; this Latinised form is used in most portraits of her.Anne's early education was typical for women of her class. In 1513, Anne was invited to join the schoolroom of Margaret of Austria and her four wards. Her academic education was limited to arithmetic, her family genealogy, grammar, history, reading, spelling, and writing. She developed domestic skills such as dancing, embroidery, good manners, household management, music, needlework, and singing. Anne learned to play games, such as cards, chess, and dice. She was also taught archery, falconry, horseback riding, and hunting.
|
What was Boleyn before he became Lord Mayor?
|
{
"answer_start": [
32
],
"text": [
"a mercer and wool merchant"
]
}
|
311b61b5bd8d6184e54e09443d45926f7e45c65e
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
them, Geoffrey Boleyn, had been a mercer and wool merchant before becoming Lord Mayor. The Boleyn family originally came from Blickling in Norfolk, 15 miles (24 km) north of Norwich. At the time of Anne's birth, the Boleyn family was considered one of the most respected in the English aristocracy. Among her relatives, she numbered the Howards, one of the preeminent families in the land; and one of her ancestors included King Edward I of England. According to Eric Ives, she was certainly of more noble birth than Jane Seymour, Catherine Howard, and Catherine Parr, Henry VIII's three other English wives. The spelling of the Boleyn name was variable, as common at the time. Sometimes it was written as Bullen, hence the bull heads which formed part of her family arms. At the court of Margaret of Austria in the Netherlands, Anne is listed as Boullan. From there she signed the letter to her father as Anna de Boullan. She is also referred to as "Anna Bolina"; this Latinised form is used in most portraits of her.Anne's early education was typical for women of her class. In 1513, Anne was invited to join the schoolroom of Margaret of Austria and her four wards. Her academic education was limited to arithmetic, her family genealogy, grammar, history, reading, spelling, and writing. She developed domestic skills such as dancing, embroidery, good manners, household management, music, needlework, and singing. Anne learned to play games, such as cards, chess, and dice. She was also taught archery, falconry, horseback riding, and hunting.
Question: What was Boleyn before he became Lord Mayor?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
300 was released in both conventional and IMAX theaters in the United States on March 9, 2007, and on DVD, Blu-ray Disc, and HD DVD on July 31, 2007. The film received mixed to positive reviews from critics, which included praise for its original visuals and style but criticism for its depiction of the Persians, which some characterized as bigoted or Iranophobic. Even so, the film was a box office success, grossing over $450 million, and the film's opening was the 24th-largest in box office history at the time. A sequel, titled Rise of an Empire, based on Miller's previously-unpublished graphic novel prequel Xerxes, was released on March 7, 2014.
|
Approximately how much money did this movie earn?
|
{
"answer_start": [
419
],
"text": [
"over $450 million"
]
}
|
b439959fb92307a3ac7a84c0ca85399a5334217d
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
300 was released in both conventional and IMAX theaters in the United States on March 9, 2007, and on DVD, Blu-ray Disc, and HD DVD on July 31, 2007. The film received mixed to positive reviews from critics, which included praise for its original visuals and style but criticism for its depiction of the Persians, which some characterized as bigoted or Iranophobic. Even so, the film was a box office success, grossing over $450 million, and the film's opening was the 24th-largest in box office history at the time. A sequel, titled Rise of an Empire, based on Miller's previously-unpublished graphic novel prequel Xerxes, was released on March 7, 2014.
Question: Approximately how much money did this movie earn?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The plot revolves around King Leonidas (Gerard Butler), who leads 300 Spartans into battle against the Persian "God-King" Xerxes (Rodrigo Santoro) and his invading army of more than 300,000 soldiers. As the battle rages, Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey) attempts to rally support in Sparta for her husband. The story is framed by a voice-over narrative by the Spartan soldier Dilios (David Wenham). Through this narrative technique, various fantastical creatures are introduced, placing 300 within the genre of historical fantasy.
|
How many Spartans were there?
|
{
"answer_start": [
66
],
"text": [
"300"
]
}
|
e2ed3a0f45381473255f83aaad31c397ddc95b51
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The plot revolves around King Leonidas (Gerard Butler), who leads 300 Spartans into battle against the Persian "God-King" Xerxes (Rodrigo Santoro) and his invading army of more than 300,000 soldiers. As the battle rages, Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey) attempts to rally support in Sparta for her husband. The story is framed by a voice-over narrative by the Spartan soldier Dilios (David Wenham). Through this narrative technique, various fantastical creatures are introduced, placing 300 within the genre of historical fantasy.
Question: How many Spartans were there?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The plot revolves around King Leonidas (Gerard Butler), who leads 300 Spartans into battle against the Persian "God-King" Xerxes (Rodrigo Santoro) and his invading army of more than 300,000 soldiers. As the battle rages, Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey) attempts to rally support in Sparta for her husband. The story is framed by a voice-over narrative by the Spartan soldier Dilios (David Wenham). Through this narrative technique, various fantastical creatures are introduced, placing 300 within the genre of historical fantasy.
|
Who was Sparta's wife?
|
{
"answer_start": [
221
],
"text": [
"Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey)"
]
}
|
c815d4e5de28612a91082149365638d526c658ac
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The plot revolves around King Leonidas (Gerard Butler), who leads 300 Spartans into battle against the Persian "God-King" Xerxes (Rodrigo Santoro) and his invading army of more than 300,000 soldiers. As the battle rages, Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey) attempts to rally support in Sparta for her husband. The story is framed by a voice-over narrative by the Spartan soldier Dilios (David Wenham). Through this narrative technique, various fantastical creatures are introduced, placing 300 within the genre of historical fantasy.
Question: Who was Sparta's wife?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The plot revolves around King Leonidas (Gerard Butler), who leads 300 Spartans into battle against the Persian "God-King" Xerxes (Rodrigo Santoro) and his invading army of more than 300,000 soldiers. As the battle rages, Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey) attempts to rally support in Sparta for her husband. The story is framed by a voice-over narrative by the Spartan soldier Dilios (David Wenham). Through this narrative technique, various fantastical creatures are introduced, placing 300 within the genre of historical fantasy.
|
How many creatures were introduced in the narrative?
|
{
"answer_start": [
480
],
"text": [
"300"
]
}
|
07d2dde5aa69b56f03a3e68239e34e05d14d3bc1
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The plot revolves around King Leonidas (Gerard Butler), who leads 300 Spartans into battle against the Persian "God-King" Xerxes (Rodrigo Santoro) and his invading army of more than 300,000 soldiers. As the battle rages, Queen Gorgo (Lena Headey) attempts to rally support in Sparta for her husband. The story is framed by a voice-over narrative by the Spartan soldier Dilios (David Wenham). Through this narrative technique, various fantastical creatures are introduced, placing 300 within the genre of historical fantasy.
Question: How many creatures were introduced in the narrative?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
In April 2016, South Korea's population was estimated to be around 50.8 million by National Statistical Office, with continuing decline of working age population and total fertility rate. The country is noted for its population density, which was an estimated 505 per square kilometer in 2015, more than 10 times the global average. Most South Koreans live in urban areas, because of rapid migration from the countryside during the country's quick economic expansion in the 1970s, 1980s and 1990s. The capital city of Seoul is also the country's largest city and chief industrial center. According to the 2005 census, Seoul had a population of 10 million inhabitants. The Seoul National Capital Area has 24.5 million inhabitants (about half of South Korea's entire population) making it the world's second largest metropolitan area. Other major cities include Busan (3.5 million), Incheon (3.0 million), Daegu (2.5 million), Daejeon (1.4 million), Gwangju (1.4 million) and Ulsan (1.1 million).
|
How many millions of people lived in Ulsan?
|
{
"answer_start": [
981
],
"text": [
"1.1"
]
}
|
8277fe50961504b75a98a8f118520f628d48732e
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In April 2016, South Korea's population was estimated to be around 50.8 million by National Statistical Office, with continuing decline of working age population and total fertility rate. The country is noted for its population density, which was an estimated 505 per square kilometer in 2015, more than 10 times the global average. Most South Koreans live in urban areas, because of rapid migration from the countryside during the country's quick economic expansion in the 1970s, 1980s and 1990s. The capital city of Seoul is also the country's largest city and chief industrial center. According to the 2005 census, Seoul had a population of 10 million inhabitants. The Seoul National Capital Area has 24.5 million inhabitants (about half of South Korea's entire population) making it the world's second largest metropolitan area. Other major cities include Busan (3.5 million), Incheon (3.0 million), Daegu (2.5 million), Daejeon (1.4 million), Gwangju (1.4 million) and Ulsan (1.1 million).
Question: How many millions of people lived in Ulsan?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Korean cuisine is largely based on rice, noodles, tofu, vegetables, fish and meats. Traditional Korean meals are noted for the number of side dishes, banchan (반찬), which accompany steam-cooked short-grain rice. Every meal is accompanied by numerous banchan. Kimchi (김치), a fermented, usually spicy vegetable dish is commonly served at every meal and is one of the best known Korean dishes. Korean cuisine usually involves heavy seasoning with sesame oil, doenjang (된장), a type of fermented soybean paste, soy sauce, salt, garlic, ginger, and gochujang (고추장), a hot pepper paste. Other well-known dishes are Bulgogi (불고기), grilled marinated beef, Gimbap (김밥), and Tteokbokki (떡볶이), a spicy snack consisting of rice cake seasoned with gochujang or a spicy chili paste.
|
what is a kimchi?
|
{
"answer_start": [
271
],
"text": [
"a fermented, usually spicy vegetable dish"
]
}
|
51828f54d4ccf568a73e139112b9eedede7f47ef
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Korean cuisine is largely based on rice, noodles, tofu, vegetables, fish and meats. Traditional Korean meals are noted for the number of side dishes, banchan (반찬), which accompany steam-cooked short-grain rice. Every meal is accompanied by numerous banchan. Kimchi (김치), a fermented, usually spicy vegetable dish is commonly served at every meal and is one of the best known Korean dishes. Korean cuisine usually involves heavy seasoning with sesame oil, doenjang (된장), a type of fermented soybean paste, soy sauce, salt, garlic, ginger, and gochujang (고추장), a hot pepper paste. Other well-known dishes are Bulgogi (불고기), grilled marinated beef, Gimbap (김밥), and Tteokbokki (떡볶이), a spicy snack consisting of rice cake seasoned with gochujang or a spicy chili paste.
Question: what is a kimchi?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Korean cuisine, hanguk yori (한국요리; 韓國料理), or hansik (한식; 韓食), has evolved through centuries of social and political change. Ingredients and dishes vary by province. There are many significant regional dishes that have proliferated in different variations across the country in the present day. The Korean royal court cuisine once brought all of the unique regional specialties together for the royal family. Meals consumed both by the royal family and ordinary Korean citizens have been regulated by a unique culture of etiquette.
|
what do regular and royal families consume?
|
{
"answer_start": [
408
],
"text": [
"Meals"
]
}
|
935e435b530a469e1ddff9b213d067b981c81138
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Korean cuisine, hanguk yori (한국요리; 韓國料理), or hansik (한식; 韓食), has evolved through centuries of social and political change. Ingredients and dishes vary by province. There are many significant regional dishes that have proliferated in different variations across the country in the present day. The Korean royal court cuisine once brought all of the unique regional specialties together for the royal family. Meals consumed both by the royal family and ordinary Korean citizens have been regulated by a unique culture of etiquette.
Question: what do regular and royal families consume?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Korean cuisine, hanguk yori (한국요리; 韓國料理), or hansik (한식; 韓食), has evolved through centuries of social and political change. Ingredients and dishes vary by province. There are many significant regional dishes that have proliferated in different variations across the country in the present day. The Korean royal court cuisine once brought all of the unique regional specialties together for the royal family. Meals consumed both by the royal family and ordinary Korean citizens have been regulated by a unique culture of etiquette.
|
What is the Korean spelling for the word hanguk yori?
|
{
"answer_start": [
28
],
"text": [
"(한국요리; 韓國料理"
]
}
|
1050b2d6970b55294364f31cc39181004320db96
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Korean cuisine, hanguk yori (한국요리; 韓國料理), or hansik (한식; 韓食), has evolved through centuries of social and political change. Ingredients and dishes vary by province. There are many significant regional dishes that have proliferated in different variations across the country in the present day. The Korean royal court cuisine once brought all of the unique regional specialties together for the royal family. Meals consumed both by the royal family and ordinary Korean citizens have been regulated by a unique culture of etiquette.
Question: What is the Korean spelling for the word hanguk yori?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
On June 25, 1950, North Korea invaded South Korea, sparking the Korean War, the Cold War's first major conflict, which continued until 1953. At the time, the Soviet Union had boycotted the United Nations (UN), thus forfeiting their veto rights. This allowed the UN to intervene in a civil war when it became apparent that the superior North Korean forces would unify the entire country. The Soviet Union and China backed North Korea, with the later participation of millions of Chinese troops. After an ebb and flow that saw both sides almost pushed to the brink of extinction, and massive losses among Korean civilians in both the north and the south, the war eventually reached a stalemate. The 1953 armistice, never signed by South Korea, split the peninsula along the demilitarized zone near the original demarcation line. No peace treaty was ever signed, resulting in the two countries remaining technically at war. Over 1.2 million people died during the Korean War.
|
When did a civil war happened between both Korean countries?
|
{
"answer_start": [
3
],
"text": [
"June 25, 1950"
]
}
|
91d480d8c1060f686f4bc198202cb77ec1ca66d0
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
On June 25, 1950, North Korea invaded South Korea, sparking the Korean War, the Cold War's first major conflict, which continued until 1953. At the time, the Soviet Union had boycotted the United Nations (UN), thus forfeiting their veto rights. This allowed the UN to intervene in a civil war when it became apparent that the superior North Korean forces would unify the entire country. The Soviet Union and China backed North Korea, with the later participation of millions of Chinese troops. After an ebb and flow that saw both sides almost pushed to the brink of extinction, and massive losses among Korean civilians in both the north and the south, the war eventually reached a stalemate. The 1953 armistice, never signed by South Korea, split the peninsula along the demilitarized zone near the original demarcation line. No peace treaty was ever signed, resulting in the two countries remaining technically at war. Over 1.2 million people died during the Korean War.
Question: When did a civil war happened between both Korean countries?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
South Korea hosted the Asian Games in 1986 (Seoul), 2002 (Busan) and 2014 (Incheon). It also hosted the Winter Universiade in 1997, the Asian Winter Games in 1999 and the Summer Universiade in 2003, 2015. In 1988, South Korea hosted the Summer Olympics in Seoul, coming fourth with 12 gold medals, 10 silver medals and 11 bronze medals. South Korea regularly performs well in archery, shooting, table tennis, badminton, short track speed skating, handball, hockey, freestyle wrestling, Greco-Roman wrestling, baseball, judo, taekwondo, speed skating, figure Skating, and weightlifting. The Seoul Olympic Museum is a museum in Seoul, South Korea, dedicated to the 1988 Summer Olympics. On July 6, 2011 Pyeongchang was chosen by the IOC to host the 2018 Winter Olympics.
|
What year did South Korea host the Olympics?
|
{
"answer_start": [
208
],
"text": [
"1988"
]
}
|
6cedacceec50f12c8e86c1502649adb67d6baf54
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
South Korea hosted the Asian Games in 1986 (Seoul), 2002 (Busan) and 2014 (Incheon). It also hosted the Winter Universiade in 1997, the Asian Winter Games in 1999 and the Summer Universiade in 2003, 2015. In 1988, South Korea hosted the Summer Olympics in Seoul, coming fourth with 12 gold medals, 10 silver medals and 11 bronze medals. South Korea regularly performs well in archery, shooting, table tennis, badminton, short track speed skating, handball, hockey, freestyle wrestling, Greco-Roman wrestling, baseball, judo, taekwondo, speed skating, figure Skating, and weightlifting. The Seoul Olympic Museum is a museum in Seoul, South Korea, dedicated to the 1988 Summer Olympics. On July 6, 2011 Pyeongchang was chosen by the IOC to host the 2018 Winter Olympics.
Question: What year did South Korea host the Olympics?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
South Korea occupies the southern portion of the Korean Peninsula, which extends some 1,100 km (680 mi) from the Asian mainland. This mountainous peninsula is flanked by the Yellow Sea to the west, and the Sea of Japan to the east. Its southern tip lies on the Korea Strait and the East China Sea.
|
What flanks the mountainous peninsula on the west?
|
{
"answer_start": [
174
],
"text": [
"Yellow Sea"
]
}
|
280af5e34423536998cd6b255c71b780f791b2ba
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
South Korea occupies the southern portion of the Korean Peninsula, which extends some 1,100 km (680 mi) from the Asian mainland. This mountainous peninsula is flanked by the Yellow Sea to the west, and the Sea of Japan to the east. Its southern tip lies on the Korea Strait and the East China Sea.
Question: What flanks the mountainous peninsula on the west?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
South Korea occupies the southern portion of the Korean Peninsula, which extends some 1,100 km (680 mi) from the Asian mainland. This mountainous peninsula is flanked by the Yellow Sea to the west, and the Sea of Japan to the east. Its southern tip lies on the Korea Strait and the East China Sea.
|
Which kind of land mass is it?
|
{
"answer_start": [
56
],
"text": [
"Peninsula"
]
}
|
510dcedae8dd13291cb4b1e2f347fbb13437482c
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
South Korea occupies the southern portion of the Korean Peninsula, which extends some 1,100 km (680 mi) from the Asian mainland. This mountainous peninsula is flanked by the Yellow Sea to the west, and the Sea of Japan to the east. Its southern tip lies on the Korea Strait and the East China Sea.
Question: Which kind of land mass is it?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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South Korea shares its traditional culture with North Korea, but the two Koreas have developed distinct contemporary forms of culture since the peninsula was divided in 1945. Historically, while the culture of Korea has been heavily influenced by that of neighboring China, it has nevertheless managed to develop a unique cultural identity that is distinct from its larger neighbor. Its rich and vibrant culture left 19 UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritages of Humanity, the third largest in the world, along with 12 World Heritage Sites. The South Korean Ministry of Culture, Sports and Tourism actively encourages the traditional arts, as well as modern forms, through funding and education programs.The industrialization and urbanization of South Korea have brought many changes to the way modern Koreans live. Changing economics and lifestyles have led to a concentration of population in major cities, especially the capital Seoul, with multi-generational households separating into nuclear family living arrangements. A 2014 Euromonitor study found that South Koreans drink the most alcohol on a weekly basis compared to the rest of the world. South Koreans drink 13.7 shots of liquor per week on average and, of the 44 other countries analyzed, Russia, the Philippines, and Thailand follow.
|
Which year was the peninsula divided?
|
{
"answer_start": [
169
],
"text": [
"1945"
]
}
|
e70294b9428fb52c64f959d9effcade7a2056825
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
South Korea shares its traditional culture with North Korea, but the two Koreas have developed distinct contemporary forms of culture since the peninsula was divided in 1945. Historically, while the culture of Korea has been heavily influenced by that of neighboring China, it has nevertheless managed to develop a unique cultural identity that is distinct from its larger neighbor. Its rich and vibrant culture left 19 UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritages of Humanity, the third largest in the world, along with 12 World Heritage Sites. The South Korean Ministry of Culture, Sports and Tourism actively encourages the traditional arts, as well as modern forms, through funding and education programs.The industrialization and urbanization of South Korea have brought many changes to the way modern Koreans live. Changing economics and lifestyles have led to a concentration of population in major cities, especially the capital Seoul, with multi-generational households separating into nuclear family living arrangements. A 2014 Euromonitor study found that South Koreans drink the most alcohol on a weekly basis compared to the rest of the world. South Koreans drink 13.7 shots of liquor per week on average and, of the 44 other countries analyzed, Russia, the Philippines, and Thailand follow.
Question: Which year was the peninsula divided?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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The country, including all its islands, lies between latitudes 33° and 39°N, and longitudes 124° and 130°E. Its total area is 100,032 square kilometers (38,622.57 sq mi).South Korea can be divided into four general regions: an eastern region of high mountain ranges and narrow coastal plains; a western region of broad coastal plains, river basins, and rolling hills; a southwestern region of mountains and valleys; and a southeastern region dominated by the broad basin of the Nakdong River.South Korea's terrain is mostly mountainous, most of which is not arable. Lowlands, located primarily in the west and southeast, make up only 30% of the total land area.
|
How much land area does the lowlands make up?
|
{
"answer_start": [
634
],
"text": [
"30%"
]
}
|
597ef4d014967f0c72de081ebe4a34db4b5e6e17
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The country, including all its islands, lies between latitudes 33° and 39°N, and longitudes 124° and 130°E. Its total area is 100,032 square kilometers (38,622.57 sq mi).South Korea can be divided into four general regions: an eastern region of high mountain ranges and narrow coastal plains; a western region of broad coastal plains, river basins, and rolling hills; a southwestern region of mountains and valleys; and a southeastern region dominated by the broad basin of the Nakdong River.South Korea's terrain is mostly mountainous, most of which is not arable. Lowlands, located primarily in the west and southeast, make up only 30% of the total land area.
Question: How much land area does the lowlands make up?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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The martial art taekwondo originated in Korea. In the 1950s and 1960s, modern rules were standardized, with taekwondo becoming an official Olympic sport in 2000. Other Korean martial arts include Taekkyon, hapkido, Tang Soo Do, Kuk Sool Won, kumdo and subak.Football and baseball have traditionally been regarded as the most popular sports in Korea. Recent polling indicates that a majority, 41% of South Korean sports fans continue to self-identify as football fans, with baseball ranked 2nd at 25% of respondents. However, the polling did not indicate the extent to which respondents follow both sports. The national football team became the first team in the Asian Football Confederation to reach the FIFA World Cup semi-finals in the 2002 FIFA World Cup, jointly hosted by South Korea and Japan. The Korea Republic national team (as it is known) has qualified for every World Cup since Mexico 1986, and has broken out of the group stage twice: first in 2002, and again in 2010, when it was defeated by eventual semi-finalist Uruguay in the Round of 16. At the 2012 Summer Olympics, South Korea won the Bronze Medal for football.
|
Where was taekwondo originally from?
|
{
"answer_start": [
40
],
"text": [
"Korea"
]
}
|
aa805ed067600895d6aed312b22f7424223b4f09
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The martial art taekwondo originated in Korea. In the 1950s and 1960s, modern rules were standardized, with taekwondo becoming an official Olympic sport in 2000. Other Korean martial arts include Taekkyon, hapkido, Tang Soo Do, Kuk Sool Won, kumdo and subak.Football and baseball have traditionally been regarded as the most popular sports in Korea. Recent polling indicates that a majority, 41% of South Korean sports fans continue to self-identify as football fans, with baseball ranked 2nd at 25% of respondents. However, the polling did not indicate the extent to which respondents follow both sports. The national football team became the first team in the Asian Football Confederation to reach the FIFA World Cup semi-finals in the 2002 FIFA World Cup, jointly hosted by South Korea and Japan. The Korea Republic national team (as it is known) has qualified for every World Cup since Mexico 1986, and has broken out of the group stage twice: first in 2002, and again in 2010, when it was defeated by eventual semi-finalist Uruguay in the Round of 16. At the 2012 Summer Olympics, South Korea won the Bronze Medal for football.
Question: Where was taekwondo originally from?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
A chronic cough is often the first symptom to develop. Early on it may just occur occasionally or may not result in sputum. When a cough persists for more than three months each year for at least two years, in combination with sputum production and without another explanation, it is by definition chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis can occur before the restricted airflow and thus COPD fully develops. The amount of sputum produced can change over hours to days. In some cases, the cough may not be present or may only occur occasionally and may not be productive. Some people with COPD attribute the symptoms to a "smoker's cough". Sputum may be swallowed or spat out, depending often on social and cultural factors. Vigorous coughing may lead to rib fractures or a brief loss of consciousness. Those with COPD often have a history of "common colds" that last a long time.
|
What may occur in some cases of Chronic Bronchitis?
|
{
"answer_start": [
487
],
"text": [
"cough may not be present or may only occur occasionally"
]
}
|
4e39fb8292d7b7103be3dc9de3c267d1587c2321
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
A chronic cough is often the first symptom to develop. Early on it may just occur occasionally or may not result in sputum. When a cough persists for more than three months each year for at least two years, in combination with sputum production and without another explanation, it is by definition chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis can occur before the restricted airflow and thus COPD fully develops. The amount of sputum produced can change over hours to days. In some cases, the cough may not be present or may only occur occasionally and may not be productive. Some people with COPD attribute the symptoms to a "smoker's cough". Sputum may be swallowed or spat out, depending often on social and cultural factors. Vigorous coughing may lead to rib fractures or a brief loss of consciousness. Those with COPD often have a history of "common colds" that last a long time.
Question: What may occur in some cases of Chronic Bronchitis?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
A chronic cough is often the first symptom to develop. Early on it may just occur occasionally or may not result in sputum. When a cough persists for more than three months each year for at least two years, in combination with sputum production and without another explanation, it is by definition chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis can occur before the restricted airflow and thus COPD fully develops. The amount of sputum produced can change over hours to days. In some cases, the cough may not be present or may only occur occasionally and may not be productive. Some people with COPD attribute the symptoms to a "smoker's cough". Sputum may be swallowed or spat out, depending often on social and cultural factors. Vigorous coughing may lead to rib fractures or a brief loss of consciousness. Those with COPD often have a history of "common colds" that last a long time.
|
What factors determine whether sputum is swallowed or spit out?
|
{
"answer_start": [
694
],
"text": [
"social and cultural"
]
}
|
edd10e23d09b42d62dd2650b02911512558a6ab3
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
A chronic cough is often the first symptom to develop. Early on it may just occur occasionally or may not result in sputum. When a cough persists for more than three months each year for at least two years, in combination with sputum production and without another explanation, it is by definition chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis can occur before the restricted airflow and thus COPD fully develops. The amount of sputum produced can change over hours to days. In some cases, the cough may not be present or may only occur occasionally and may not be productive. Some people with COPD attribute the symptoms to a "smoker's cough". Sputum may be swallowed or spat out, depending often on social and cultural factors. Vigorous coughing may lead to rib fractures or a brief loss of consciousness. Those with COPD often have a history of "common colds" that last a long time.
Question: What factors determine whether sputum is swallowed or spit out?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
An acute exacerbation of COPD is defined as increased shortness of breath, increased sputum production, a change in the color of the sputum from clear to green or yellow, or an increase in cough in someone with COPD. They may present with signs of increased work of breathing such as fast breathing, a fast heart rate, sweating, active use of muscles in the neck, a bluish tinge to the skin, and confusion or combative behavior in very severe exacerbations. Crackles may also be heard over the lungs on examination with a stethoscope.
|
where are the crackles heard?
|
{
"answer_start": [
485
],
"text": [
"over the lungs"
]
}
|
a2250bb937775a084fdd9142a47b6db2b4ffaa2e
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
An acute exacerbation of COPD is defined as increased shortness of breath, increased sputum production, a change in the color of the sputum from clear to green or yellow, or an increase in cough in someone with COPD. They may present with signs of increased work of breathing such as fast breathing, a fast heart rate, sweating, active use of muscles in the neck, a bluish tinge to the skin, and confusion or combative behavior in very severe exacerbations. Crackles may also be heard over the lungs on examination with a stethoscope.
Question: where are the crackles heard?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by long-term breathing problems and poor airflow. The main symptoms include shortness of breath and cough with sputum production. COPD is a progressive disease, meaning it typically worsens over time. Eventually, everyday activities such as walking or getting dressed become difficult. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are older terms used for different types of COPD. The term "chronic bronchitis" is still used to define a productive cough that is present for at least three months each year for two years. Those with such a cough are at a greater risk of developing COPD. The term "emphysema" is also used for the abnormal presence of air or other gas within tissues.Tobacco smoking is the most common cause of COPD, with factors such as air pollution and genetics playing a smaller role. In the developing world, one of the common sources of air pollution is poorly vented heating and cooking fires. Long-term exposure to these irritants causes an inflammatory response in the lungs, resulting in narrowing of the small airways and breakdown of lung tissue. The diagnosis is based on poor airflow as measured by lung function tests. In contrast to asthma, the airflow reduction does not improve much with the use of a bronchodilator.Most cases of COPD can be prevented by reducing exposure to risk factors. This includes decreasing rates of smoking and improving indoor and outdoor air quality. While treatment can slow worsening, no cure is known. COPD treatments include smoking cessation, vaccinations, respiratory rehabilitation, and often inhaled bronchodilators and steroids. Some people may benefit from long-term oxygen therapy or lung transplantation. In those who have periods of acute worsening, increased use of medications and hospitalization may be needed.As of 2015, COPD affected about 174.5 million (2.4%) of the global population. It typically occurs in people over the age of 40. Males and females are affected equally commonly. In 2015, it resulted in 3.2 million deaths, up from 2.4 million deaths in 1990. More than 90% of these deaths occur in the developing world. The number of deaths is projected to increase further because of higher smoking rates in the developing world, and an aging population in many countries. It resulted in an estimated economic cost of $2.1 trillion in 2010.
|
Diagnosis of poor airflow included decreasing rates of smoking and what?
|
{
"answer_start": [
1454
],
"text": [
"improving indoor and outdoor air quality"
]
}
|
8a7f61a34fcfc93ba8cf8a99602458bade2ac1a3
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by long-term breathing problems and poor airflow. The main symptoms include shortness of breath and cough with sputum production. COPD is a progressive disease, meaning it typically worsens over time. Eventually, everyday activities such as walking or getting dressed become difficult. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are older terms used for different types of COPD. The term "chronic bronchitis" is still used to define a productive cough that is present for at least three months each year for two years. Those with such a cough are at a greater risk of developing COPD. The term "emphysema" is also used for the abnormal presence of air or other gas within tissues.Tobacco smoking is the most common cause of COPD, with factors such as air pollution and genetics playing a smaller role. In the developing world, one of the common sources of air pollution is poorly vented heating and cooking fires. Long-term exposure to these irritants causes an inflammatory response in the lungs, resulting in narrowing of the small airways and breakdown of lung tissue. The diagnosis is based on poor airflow as measured by lung function tests. In contrast to asthma, the airflow reduction does not improve much with the use of a bronchodilator.Most cases of COPD can be prevented by reducing exposure to risk factors. This includes decreasing rates of smoking and improving indoor and outdoor air quality. While treatment can slow worsening, no cure is known. COPD treatments include smoking cessation, vaccinations, respiratory rehabilitation, and often inhaled bronchodilators and steroids. Some people may benefit from long-term oxygen therapy or lung transplantation. In those who have periods of acute worsening, increased use of medications and hospitalization may be needed.As of 2015, COPD affected about 174.5 million (2.4%) of the global population. It typically occurs in people over the age of 40. Males and females are affected equally commonly. In 2015, it resulted in 3.2 million deaths, up from 2.4 million deaths in 1990. More than 90% of these deaths occur in the developing world. The number of deaths is projected to increase further because of higher smoking rates in the developing world, and an aging population in many countries. It resulted in an estimated economic cost of $2.1 trillion in 2010.
Question: Diagnosis of poor airflow included decreasing rates of smoking and what?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Globally, as of 2010, COPD affected approximately 329 million people (4.8% of the population). The disease affects men and women almost equally, as there has been increased tobacco use among women in the developed world. The increase in the developing world between 1970 and the 2000s is believed to be related to increasing rates of smoking in this region, an increasing population and an aging population due to fewer deaths from other causes such as infectious diseases. Some developed countries have seen increased rates, some have remained stable and some have seen a decrease in COPD prevalence. The global numbers are expected to continue increasing as risk factors remain common and the population continues to get older.Between 1990 and 2010 the number of deaths from COPD decreased slightly from 3.1 million to 2.9 million and became the fourth leading cause of death. In 2012 it became the third leading cause as the number of deaths rose again to 3.1 million. In some countries, mortality has decreased in men but increased in women. This is most likely due to rates of smoking in women and men becoming more similar. COPD is more common in older people; it affects 34–200 out of 1000 people older than 65 years, depending on the population under review.In England, an estimated 0.84 million people (of 50 million) have a diagnosis of COPD; this translates into approximately one person in 59 receiving a diagnosis of COPD at some point in their lives. In the most socioeconomically deprived parts of the country, one in 32 people were diagnosed with COPD, compared with one in 98 in the most affluent areas. In the United States approximately 6.3% of the adult population, totaling approximately 15 million people, have been diagnosed with COPD. 25 million people may have COPD if currently undiagnosed cases are included. In 2011, there were approximately 730,000 hospitalizations in the United States for COPD. In the United States, COPD is estimated to be the third leading cause of death in 2011.
|
how has mortality changed between men and women in some countries?
|
{
"answer_start": [
991
],
"text": [
"mortality has decreased in men but increased in women"
]
}
|
0b755fc01b9d581d53cbd12e8c468acb1b74dbce
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Globally, as of 2010, COPD affected approximately 329 million people (4.8% of the population). The disease affects men and women almost equally, as there has been increased tobacco use among women in the developed world. The increase in the developing world between 1970 and the 2000s is believed to be related to increasing rates of smoking in this region, an increasing population and an aging population due to fewer deaths from other causes such as infectious diseases. Some developed countries have seen increased rates, some have remained stable and some have seen a decrease in COPD prevalence. The global numbers are expected to continue increasing as risk factors remain common and the population continues to get older.Between 1990 and 2010 the number of deaths from COPD decreased slightly from 3.1 million to 2.9 million and became the fourth leading cause of death. In 2012 it became the third leading cause as the number of deaths rose again to 3.1 million. In some countries, mortality has decreased in men but increased in women. This is most likely due to rates of smoking in women and men becoming more similar. COPD is more common in older people; it affects 34–200 out of 1000 people older than 65 years, depending on the population under review.In England, an estimated 0.84 million people (of 50 million) have a diagnosis of COPD; this translates into approximately one person in 59 receiving a diagnosis of COPD at some point in their lives. In the most socioeconomically deprived parts of the country, one in 32 people were diagnosed with COPD, compared with one in 98 in the most affluent areas. In the United States approximately 6.3% of the adult population, totaling approximately 15 million people, have been diagnosed with COPD. 25 million people may have COPD if currently undiagnosed cases are included. In 2011, there were approximately 730,000 hospitalizations in the United States for COPD. In the United States, COPD is estimated to be the third leading cause of death in 2011.
Question: how has mortality changed between men and women in some countries?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Globally, as of 2010, COPD affected approximately 329 million people (4.8% of the population). The disease affects men and women almost equally, as there has been increased tobacco use among women in the developed world. The increase in the developing world between 1970 and the 2000s is believed to be related to increasing rates of smoking in this region, an increasing population and an aging population due to fewer deaths from other causes such as infectious diseases. Some developed countries have seen increased rates, some have remained stable and some have seen a decrease in COPD prevalence. The global numbers are expected to continue increasing as risk factors remain common and the population continues to get older.Between 1990 and 2010 the number of deaths from COPD decreased slightly from 3.1 million to 2.9 million and became the fourth leading cause of death. In 2012 it became the third leading cause as the number of deaths rose again to 3.1 million. In some countries, mortality has decreased in men but increased in women. This is most likely due to rates of smoking in women and men becoming more similar. COPD is more common in older people; it affects 34–200 out of 1000 people older than 65 years, depending on the population under review.In England, an estimated 0.84 million people (of 50 million) have a diagnosis of COPD; this translates into approximately one person in 59 receiving a diagnosis of COPD at some point in their lives. In the most socioeconomically deprived parts of the country, one in 32 people were diagnosed with COPD, compared with one in 98 in the most affluent areas. In the United States approximately 6.3% of the adult population, totaling approximately 15 million people, have been diagnosed with COPD. 25 million people may have COPD if currently undiagnosed cases are included. In 2011, there were approximately 730,000 hospitalizations in the United States for COPD. In the United States, COPD is estimated to be the third leading cause of death in 2011.
|
How many people in the US have COPD?
|
{
"answer_start": [
1709
],
"text": [
"15 million"
]
}
|
dfbd5152215ef4c4b8f2ca8dd8f48adcc9de0a18
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Globally, as of 2010, COPD affected approximately 329 million people (4.8% of the population). The disease affects men and women almost equally, as there has been increased tobacco use among women in the developed world. The increase in the developing world between 1970 and the 2000s is believed to be related to increasing rates of smoking in this region, an increasing population and an aging population due to fewer deaths from other causes such as infectious diseases. Some developed countries have seen increased rates, some have remained stable and some have seen a decrease in COPD prevalence. The global numbers are expected to continue increasing as risk factors remain common and the population continues to get older.Between 1990 and 2010 the number of deaths from COPD decreased slightly from 3.1 million to 2.9 million and became the fourth leading cause of death. In 2012 it became the third leading cause as the number of deaths rose again to 3.1 million. In some countries, mortality has decreased in men but increased in women. This is most likely due to rates of smoking in women and men becoming more similar. COPD is more common in older people; it affects 34–200 out of 1000 people older than 65 years, depending on the population under review.In England, an estimated 0.84 million people (of 50 million) have a diagnosis of COPD; this translates into approximately one person in 59 receiving a diagnosis of COPD at some point in their lives. In the most socioeconomically deprived parts of the country, one in 32 people were diagnosed with COPD, compared with one in 98 in the most affluent areas. In the United States approximately 6.3% of the adult population, totaling approximately 15 million people, have been diagnosed with COPD. 25 million people may have COPD if currently undiagnosed cases are included. In 2011, there were approximately 730,000 hospitalizations in the United States for COPD. In the United States, COPD is estimated to be the third leading cause of death in 2011.
Question: How many people in the US have COPD?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Inhaled bronchodilators are the primary medications used, and result in a small overall benefit. The two major types are β2 agonists and anticholinergics; both exist in long-acting and short-acting forms. They reduce shortness of breath, wheeze, and exercise limitation, resulting in an improved quality of life. It is unclear if they change the progression of the underlying disease.In those with mild disease, short-acting agents are recommended on an as needed basis. In those with more severe disease, long-acting agents are recommended. Long-acting agents partly work by reducing hyperinflation. If long-acting bronchodilators are insufficient, then inhaled corticosteroids are typically added. Which type of long-acting agent, tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) or a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) is better is unclear, and trying each and continuing with the one that works best may be advisable. Both types of agent appear to reduce the risk of acute exacerbations by 15–25%. While both may be used at the same time, any added benefit is of questionable significance.Several short-acting β2 agonists are available, including salbutamol (albuterol) and terbutaline. They provide some relief of symptoms for four to six hours. LABAs such as salmeterol, formoterol, and indacaterol are often used as maintenance therapy. Some feel the evidence of benefits is limited, while others view the evidence of benefit as established. Long-term use appears safe in COPD with adverse effects include shakiness and heart palpitations. When used with inhaled steroids they increase the risk of pneumonia. While steroids and LABAs may work better together, it is unclear if this slight benefit outweighs the increased risks. There is some evidence that combined treatment of LABAs with long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA), an anticholinergic, may result in less exacerbations, less pneumonia, an improvement in forced expiratory volume (FEV1%), and potential improvements in quality of life when compared to treatment with LABA and an inhaled corticosteriod (ICS). All three together, LABA, LAMA, and ICS, have some evidence of benefits. Indacaterol requires an inhaled dose once a day, and is as effective as the other long-acting β2 agonist drugs that require twice-daily dosing for people with stable COPD.Two main anticholinergics are used in COPD, ipratropium and tiotropium. Ipratropium is a short-acting agent, while tiotropium is long-acting. Tiotropium is associated with a decrease in exacerbations and improved quality of life, and tiotropium provides those benefits better than ipratropium. It does not appear to affect mortality or the overall hospitalization rate. Anticholinergics can cause dry mouth and urinary tract symptoms. They are also associated with increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Aclidinium, another long-acting agent, reduces hospitalizations associated with COPD and improves quality of life. The LAMA umeclidinium bromide is another anticholinergic alternative. When compared to tiotropium, the LAMAs aclidinium, glycopyrronium, and umeclidinium appear to have a similar level of efficacy; with all four being more effective than placebo. Further research is needed comparing aclidinium to tiotropium.
|
what are the two major types of asthma?
|
{
"answer_start": [
121
],
"text": [
"β2 agonists and anticholinergics"
]
}
|
b50ad3755494855314a55e1f28bafe3bab337e41
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Inhaled bronchodilators are the primary medications used, and result in a small overall benefit. The two major types are β2 agonists and anticholinergics; both exist in long-acting and short-acting forms. They reduce shortness of breath, wheeze, and exercise limitation, resulting in an improved quality of life. It is unclear if they change the progression of the underlying disease.In those with mild disease, short-acting agents are recommended on an as needed basis. In those with more severe disease, long-acting agents are recommended. Long-acting agents partly work by reducing hyperinflation. If long-acting bronchodilators are insufficient, then inhaled corticosteroids are typically added. Which type of long-acting agent, tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) or a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) is better is unclear, and trying each and continuing with the one that works best may be advisable. Both types of agent appear to reduce the risk of acute exacerbations by 15–25%. While both may be used at the same time, any added benefit is of questionable significance.Several short-acting β2 agonists are available, including salbutamol (albuterol) and terbutaline. They provide some relief of symptoms for four to six hours. LABAs such as salmeterol, formoterol, and indacaterol are often used as maintenance therapy. Some feel the evidence of benefits is limited, while others view the evidence of benefit as established. Long-term use appears safe in COPD with adverse effects include shakiness and heart palpitations. When used with inhaled steroids they increase the risk of pneumonia. While steroids and LABAs may work better together, it is unclear if this slight benefit outweighs the increased risks. There is some evidence that combined treatment of LABAs with long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA), an anticholinergic, may result in less exacerbations, less pneumonia, an improvement in forced expiratory volume (FEV1%), and potential improvements in quality of life when compared to treatment with LABA and an inhaled corticosteriod (ICS). All three together, LABA, LAMA, and ICS, have some evidence of benefits. Indacaterol requires an inhaled dose once a day, and is as effective as the other long-acting β2 agonist drugs that require twice-daily dosing for people with stable COPD.Two main anticholinergics are used in COPD, ipratropium and tiotropium. Ipratropium is a short-acting agent, while tiotropium is long-acting. Tiotropium is associated with a decrease in exacerbations and improved quality of life, and tiotropium provides those benefits better than ipratropium. It does not appear to affect mortality or the overall hospitalization rate. Anticholinergics can cause dry mouth and urinary tract symptoms. They are also associated with increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Aclidinium, another long-acting agent, reduces hospitalizations associated with COPD and improves quality of life. The LAMA umeclidinium bromide is another anticholinergic alternative. When compared to tiotropium, the LAMAs aclidinium, glycopyrronium, and umeclidinium appear to have a similar level of efficacy; with all four being more effective than placebo. Further research is needed comparing aclidinium to tiotropium.
Question: what are the two major types of asthma?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
Inhaled bronchodilators are the primary medications used, and result in a small overall benefit. The two major types are β2 agonists and anticholinergics; both exist in long-acting and short-acting forms. They reduce shortness of breath, wheeze, and exercise limitation, resulting in an improved quality of life. It is unclear if they change the progression of the underlying disease.In those with mild disease, short-acting agents are recommended on an as needed basis. In those with more severe disease, long-acting agents are recommended. Long-acting agents partly work by reducing hyperinflation. If long-acting bronchodilators are insufficient, then inhaled corticosteroids are typically added. Which type of long-acting agent, tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) or a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) is better is unclear, and trying each and continuing with the one that works best may be advisable. Both types of agent appear to reduce the risk of acute exacerbations by 15–25%. While both may be used at the same time, any added benefit is of questionable significance.Several short-acting β2 agonists are available, including salbutamol (albuterol) and terbutaline. They provide some relief of symptoms for four to six hours. LABAs such as salmeterol, formoterol, and indacaterol are often used as maintenance therapy. Some feel the evidence of benefits is limited, while others view the evidence of benefit as established. Long-term use appears safe in COPD with adverse effects include shakiness and heart palpitations. When used with inhaled steroids they increase the risk of pneumonia. While steroids and LABAs may work better together, it is unclear if this slight benefit outweighs the increased risks. There is some evidence that combined treatment of LABAs with long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA), an anticholinergic, may result in less exacerbations, less pneumonia, an improvement in forced expiratory volume (FEV1%), and potential improvements in quality of life when compared to treatment with LABA and an inhaled corticosteriod (ICS). All three together, LABA, LAMA, and ICS, have some evidence of benefits. Indacaterol requires an inhaled dose once a day, and is as effective as the other long-acting β2 agonist drugs that require twice-daily dosing for people with stable COPD.Two main anticholinergics are used in COPD, ipratropium and tiotropium. Ipratropium is a short-acting agent, while tiotropium is long-acting. Tiotropium is associated with a decrease in exacerbations and improved quality of life, and tiotropium provides those benefits better than ipratropium. It does not appear to affect mortality or the overall hospitalization rate. Anticholinergics can cause dry mouth and urinary tract symptoms. They are also associated with increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Aclidinium, another long-acting agent, reduces hospitalizations associated with COPD and improves quality of life. The LAMA umeclidinium bromide is another anticholinergic alternative. When compared to tiotropium, the LAMAs aclidinium, glycopyrronium, and umeclidinium appear to have a similar level of efficacy; with all four being more effective than placebo. Further research is needed comparing aclidinium to tiotropium.
|
What is the duration of time that agonists are potent for?
|
{
"answer_start": [
1223
],
"text": [
"four to six hours"
]
}
|
7bad1acabcddee223bee211e4c906330fbdb7b31
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Inhaled bronchodilators are the primary medications used, and result in a small overall benefit. The two major types are β2 agonists and anticholinergics; both exist in long-acting and short-acting forms. They reduce shortness of breath, wheeze, and exercise limitation, resulting in an improved quality of life. It is unclear if they change the progression of the underlying disease.In those with mild disease, short-acting agents are recommended on an as needed basis. In those with more severe disease, long-acting agents are recommended. Long-acting agents partly work by reducing hyperinflation. If long-acting bronchodilators are insufficient, then inhaled corticosteroids are typically added. Which type of long-acting agent, tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) or a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) is better is unclear, and trying each and continuing with the one that works best may be advisable. Both types of agent appear to reduce the risk of acute exacerbations by 15–25%. While both may be used at the same time, any added benefit is of questionable significance.Several short-acting β2 agonists are available, including salbutamol (albuterol) and terbutaline. They provide some relief of symptoms for four to six hours. LABAs such as salmeterol, formoterol, and indacaterol are often used as maintenance therapy. Some feel the evidence of benefits is limited, while others view the evidence of benefit as established. Long-term use appears safe in COPD with adverse effects include shakiness and heart palpitations. When used with inhaled steroids they increase the risk of pneumonia. While steroids and LABAs may work better together, it is unclear if this slight benefit outweighs the increased risks. There is some evidence that combined treatment of LABAs with long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA), an anticholinergic, may result in less exacerbations, less pneumonia, an improvement in forced expiratory volume (FEV1%), and potential improvements in quality of life when compared to treatment with LABA and an inhaled corticosteriod (ICS). All three together, LABA, LAMA, and ICS, have some evidence of benefits. Indacaterol requires an inhaled dose once a day, and is as effective as the other long-acting β2 agonist drugs that require twice-daily dosing for people with stable COPD.Two main anticholinergics are used in COPD, ipratropium and tiotropium. Ipratropium is a short-acting agent, while tiotropium is long-acting. Tiotropium is associated with a decrease in exacerbations and improved quality of life, and tiotropium provides those benefits better than ipratropium. It does not appear to affect mortality or the overall hospitalization rate. Anticholinergics can cause dry mouth and urinary tract symptoms. They are also associated with increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Aclidinium, another long-acting agent, reduces hospitalizations associated with COPD and improves quality of life. The LAMA umeclidinium bromide is another anticholinergic alternative. When compared to tiotropium, the LAMAs aclidinium, glycopyrronium, and umeclidinium appear to have a similar level of efficacy; with all four being more effective than placebo. Further research is needed comparing aclidinium to tiotropium.
Question: What is the duration of time that agonists are potent for?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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Intense and prolonged exposure to workplace dusts, chemicals, and fumes increases the risk of COPD in both smokers and nonsmokers. Workplace exposure is believed to be the cause in 10–20% of cases. In the United States, it is believed that it is related to more than 30% of cases among those who have never smoked and probably represents a greater risk in countries without sufficient regulations.A number of industries and sources have been implicated, including high levels of dust in coal mining, gold mining, and the cotton textile industry, occupations involving cadmium and isocyanates, and fumes from welding. Working in agriculture is also a risk. In some professions, the risks have been estimated as equivalent to that of one-half to two packs of cigarettes a day. Silica dust and fiberglass dust exposure can also lead to COPD, with the risk unrelated to that for silicosis. The negative effects of dust exposure and cigarette smoke exposure appear to be additive or possibly more than additive.
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10-20% of COPD cases come from where?
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{
"answer_start": [
131
],
"text": [
"Workplace exposure"
]
}
|
f91269d89b58f824fd9c0b4da01cb2d0c540fe6d
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Intense and prolonged exposure to workplace dusts, chemicals, and fumes increases the risk of COPD in both smokers and nonsmokers. Workplace exposure is believed to be the cause in 10–20% of cases. In the United States, it is believed that it is related to more than 30% of cases among those who have never smoked and probably represents a greater risk in countries without sufficient regulations.A number of industries and sources have been implicated, including high levels of dust in coal mining, gold mining, and the cotton textile industry, occupations involving cadmium and isocyanates, and fumes from welding. Working in agriculture is also a risk. In some professions, the risks have been estimated as equivalent to that of one-half to two packs of cigarettes a day. Silica dust and fiberglass dust exposure can also lead to COPD, with the risk unrelated to that for silicosis. The negative effects of dust exposure and cigarette smoke exposure appear to be additive or possibly more than additive.
Question: 10-20% of COPD cases come from where?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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The most common symptoms of COPD are sputum production, shortness of breath, and a productive cough. These symptoms are present for a prolonged period of time and typically worsen over time. It is unclear whether different types of COPD exist. While previously divided into emphysema and chronic bronchitis, emphysema is only a description of lung changes rather than a disease itself, and chronic bronchitis is simply a descriptor of symptoms that may or may not occur with COPD.
|
What disease are professionals unclear if multiple iterations of exist?
|
{
"answer_start": [
232
],
"text": [
"COPD"
]
}
|
914e7fbf034180899d595da82bd76b9f8bc8456e
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The most common symptoms of COPD are sputum production, shortness of breath, and a productive cough. These symptoms are present for a prolonged period of time and typically worsen over time. It is unclear whether different types of COPD exist. While previously divided into emphysema and chronic bronchitis, emphysema is only a description of lung changes rather than a disease itself, and chronic bronchitis is simply a descriptor of symptoms that may or may not occur with COPD.
Question: What disease are professionals unclear if multiple iterations of exist?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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The primary risk factor for COPD globally is tobacco smoking. Of those who smoke, about 20% will get COPD, and of those who are lifelong smokers, about half will get COPD. In the United States and United Kingdom, of those with COPD, 80–95% are either current or previous smokers. The likelihood of developing COPD increases with the total smoke exposure. Additionally, women are more susceptible to the harmful effects of smoke than men. In non-smokers, exposure to second-hand smoke is the cause in up to 20% of cases. Other types of smoke, such as, marijuana, cigar, and water-pipe smoke, also confer a risk. Water-pipe smoke appears to be as harmful as smoking cigarettes. Problems from marijuana smoke may only be with heavy use. Women who smoke during pregnancy may increase the risk of COPD in their child. For the same amount of cigarette smoking, women have a higher risk of COPD than men.
|
What percentage of people with COPD are current or former smokers (in the US and UK)?
|
{
"answer_start": [
233
],
"text": [
"80–95%"
]
}
|
362666152259b9b6ba1bee29ec67fca45bddcd4a
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The primary risk factor for COPD globally is tobacco smoking. Of those who smoke, about 20% will get COPD, and of those who are lifelong smokers, about half will get COPD. In the United States and United Kingdom, of those with COPD, 80–95% are either current or previous smokers. The likelihood of developing COPD increases with the total smoke exposure. Additionally, women are more susceptible to the harmful effects of smoke than men. In non-smokers, exposure to second-hand smoke is the cause in up to 20% of cases. Other types of smoke, such as, marijuana, cigar, and water-pipe smoke, also confer a risk. Water-pipe smoke appears to be as harmful as smoking cigarettes. Problems from marijuana smoke may only be with heavy use. Women who smoke during pregnancy may increase the risk of COPD in their child. For the same amount of cigarette smoking, women have a higher risk of COPD than men.
Question: What percentage of people with COPD are current or former smokers (in the US and UK)?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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As of 2005, recombinant growth hormones available in the United States (and their manufacturers) included Nutropin (Genentech), Humatrope (Lilly), Genotropin (Pfizer), Norditropin (Novo), and Saizen (Merck Serono). In 2006, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a version of rHGH called Omnitrope (Sandoz). A sustained-release form of growth hormone, Nutropin Depot (Genentech and Alkermes) was approved by the FDA in 1999, allowing for fewer injections (every 2 or 4 weeks instead of daily); however, the product was discontinued by Genentech/Alkermes in 2004 for financial reasons (Nutropin Depot required significantly more resources to produce than the rest of the Nutropin line).
|
What company manufactured the first FDA approved rHGH?
|
{
"answer_start": [
314
],
"text": [
"Sandoz"
]
}
|
aaad12aa146e9972bc626d79d5d57c8414609e23
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
As of 2005, recombinant growth hormones available in the United States (and their manufacturers) included Nutropin (Genentech), Humatrope (Lilly), Genotropin (Pfizer), Norditropin (Novo), and Saizen (Merck Serono). In 2006, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a version of rHGH called Omnitrope (Sandoz). A sustained-release form of growth hormone, Nutropin Depot (Genentech and Alkermes) was approved by the FDA in 1999, allowing for fewer injections (every 2 or 4 weeks instead of daily); however, the product was discontinued by Genentech/Alkermes in 2004 for financial reasons (Nutropin Depot required significantly more resources to produce than the rest of the Nutropin line).
Question: What company manufactured the first FDA approved rHGH?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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GH also stimulates, through the JAK-STAT signaling pathway, the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1, formerly known as somatomedin C), a hormone homologous to proinsulin. The liver is a major target organ of GH for this process and is the principal site of IGF-1 production. IGF-1 has growth-stimulating effects on a wide variety of tissues. Additional IGF-1 is generated within target tissues, making it what appears to be both an endocrine and an autocrine/paracrine hormone. IGF-1 also has stimulatory effects on osteoblast and chondrocyte activity to promote bone growth.In addition to increasing height in children and adolescents, growth hormone has many other effects on the body:
|
What has a simulatory effect?
|
{
"answer_start": [
492
],
"text": [
"IGF-1"
]
}
|
b5055cafd3fcfc389d2b846deec7fba911bfdfb7
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
GH also stimulates, through the JAK-STAT signaling pathway, the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1, formerly known as somatomedin C), a hormone homologous to proinsulin. The liver is a major target organ of GH for this process and is the principal site of IGF-1 production. IGF-1 has growth-stimulating effects on a wide variety of tissues. Additional IGF-1 is generated within target tissues, making it what appears to be both an endocrine and an autocrine/paracrine hormone. IGF-1 also has stimulatory effects on osteoblast and chondrocyte activity to promote bone growth.In addition to increasing height in children and adolescents, growth hormone has many other effects on the body:
Question: What has a simulatory effect?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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In the United States, it is legal to give a bovine GH to dairy cows to increase milk production, and is legal to use GH in raising cows for beef; see article on Bovine somatotropin, cattle feeding, dairy farming and the beef hormone controversy.
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What substance encourages milk in bovine cows?
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{
"answer_start": [
44
],
"text": [
"bovine GH"
]
}
|
f948447211fb6f5e4c3c2b55e3938fb74228ed17
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
In the United States, it is legal to give a bovine GH to dairy cows to increase milk production, and is legal to use GH in raising cows for beef; see article on Bovine somatotropin, cattle feeding, dairy farming and the beef hormone controversy.
Question: What substance encourages milk in bovine cows?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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Increased height during childhood is the most widely known effect of GH. Height appears to be stimulated by at least two mechanisms:
|
Growth hormone causes what to happen in childhood?
|
{
"answer_start": [
0
],
"text": [
"Increased height"
]
}
|
b5bfe1cc1aeea299a37389d33d926cc2009b5a21
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Increased height during childhood is the most widely known effect of GH. Height appears to be stimulated by at least two mechanisms:
Question: Growth hormone causes what to happen in childhood?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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Increases calcium retention, and strengthens and increases the mineralization of bone
|
What kind of retention is increased?
|
{
"answer_start": [
10
],
"text": [
"calcium"
]
}
|
bf6232a2b0297746a5c0e75dce1277cc283789a4
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Increases calcium retention, and strengthens and increases the mineralization of bone
Question: What kind of retention is increased?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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Prolonged GH excess thickens the bones of the jaw, fingers and toes, resulting heaviness of the jaw and increased size of digits, referred to as acromegaly. Accompanying problems can include sweating, pressure on nerves (e.g. carpal tunnel syndrome), muscle weakness, excess sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), insulin resistance or even a rare form of type 2 diabetes, and reduced sexual function.
|
What is an example of a condition where there is pressure on the nerves?
|
{
"answer_start": [
226
],
"text": [
"carpal tunnel syndrome"
]
}
|
5797fec36d25161cd6217d3e63b9bfe832505251
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
Prolonged GH excess thickens the bones of the jaw, fingers and toes, resulting heaviness of the jaw and increased size of digits, referred to as acromegaly. Accompanying problems can include sweating, pressure on nerves (e.g. carpal tunnel syndrome), muscle weakness, excess sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), insulin resistance or even a rare form of type 2 diabetes, and reduced sexual function.
Question: What is an example of a condition where there is pressure on the nerves?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
The major isoform of the human growth hormone is a protein of 191 amino acids and a molecular weight of 22,124 daltons. The structure includes four helices necessary for functional interaction with the GH receptor. It appears that, in structure, GH is evolutionarily homologous to prolactin and chorionic somatomammotropin. Despite marked structural similarities between growth hormone from different species, only human and Old World monkey growth hormones have significant effects on the human growth hormone receptor.Several molecular isoforms of GH exist in the pituitary gland and are released to blood. In particular, a variant of approximately 20 kDa originated by an alternative splicing is present in a rather constant 1:9 ratio, while recently an additional variant of ~ 23-24 kDa has also been reported in post-exercise states at higher proportions. This variant has not been identified, but it has been suggested to coincide with a 22 kDa glycosylated variant of 23 kDa identified in the pituitary gland. Furthermore, these variants circulate partially bound to a protein (growth hormone-binding protein, GHBP), which is the truncated part of the growth hormone receptor, and an acid-labile subunit (ALS).
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Which hormone is also found in the pituitary gland?
|
{
"answer_start": [
246
],
"text": [
"GH"
]
}
|
82086c2a6192566efe4101615bb2fad929268f2d
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
The major isoform of the human growth hormone is a protein of 191 amino acids and a molecular weight of 22,124 daltons. The structure includes four helices necessary for functional interaction with the GH receptor. It appears that, in structure, GH is evolutionarily homologous to prolactin and chorionic somatomammotropin. Despite marked structural similarities between growth hormone from different species, only human and Old World monkey growth hormones have significant effects on the human growth hormone receptor.Several molecular isoforms of GH exist in the pituitary gland and are released to blood. In particular, a variant of approximately 20 kDa originated by an alternative splicing is present in a rather constant 1:9 ratio, while recently an additional variant of ~ 23-24 kDa has also been reported in post-exercise states at higher proportions. This variant has not been identified, but it has been suggested to coincide with a 22 kDa glycosylated variant of 23 kDa identified in the pituitary gland. Furthermore, these variants circulate partially bound to a protein (growth hormone-binding protein, GHBP), which is the truncated part of the growth hormone receptor, and an acid-labile subunit (ALS).
Question: Which hormone is also found in the pituitary gland?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
|
These cells release the peptides Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH or somatocrinin) and Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH or somatostatin) into the hypophyseal portal venous blood surrounding the pituitary.
|
What is another name for the hormone-inhibiting hormone?
|
{
"answer_start": [
136
],
"text": [
"somatostatin"
]
}
|
0a0640e068db64a10de71c2367b550d7bd02d3c5
|
Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
These cells release the peptides Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH or somatocrinin) and Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH or somatostatin) into the hypophyseal portal venous blood surrounding the pituitary.
Question: What is another name for the hormone-inhibiting hormone?Please answer this question using any language except English: Spanish, Hindi, Vietnamese, Chinese, Arabic.
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